Input: Fetal circulation is open because of the fossa ovalis and allows communication between the left and right sides of the heart

Output: What is the fossa ovalis?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: This is where the coronary sinus ends

Output: What is the coronary sinus osteum?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: Valve of IVC that not everybody has

Output: What is the Eustachian valve?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The Thebesian valve

Output: What is the sometimes present valve of the coronary sinus?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: On the underside of the R atrial appendage

Output: Where are the pectinate muscles found?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: Runs from SVC to IVC and is important in cardiac electrophys.

Output: What is the crista terminalis?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The annulus--to have proper valve function, the annulus must be of adequate size

Output: What is the place where valve leaflets attach called?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The leaflets--the tricuspid has 3: septal, anterior, and posterior

Output: What attaches into the annuluses?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: Annulus, leaflets, chordae tendinae, and papillary muscles

Output: What are the 4 structures found in all valves?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: the chordae tendinae

Output: What attaches the leaflets to the papillary muscles?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The pulmonary valve--has only 2 structures = the annulus and leaflets

Output: Which valve is an exception to the 4 element rule?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The conus arteriosus(crista supraventriculnaris) that causes a discontinuity between the tricuspid and pulmonary valves. The bicuspid and aortic valve are continuous due to the fibrous continuity between the anterior mitral leaflet and aortic valve

Output: What does the RV have that makes its valves different than the LV?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: They are more developed due to the higher pressures

Output: What is different about the papillary muscles of the LV verses the RV?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: TRUE

Output: True/False: Both papillary muscles get chordae from the ANTERIOR leaflet, whel the posterior leaflet will only send chordae to one muscle or the other

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: Left ventricle has a thicker wall but thinner trabceulations, except for heart failure patients, whose trabeculae become thick

Output: Which ventricle has a thicker wall? Thicker trabeculations? Always?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: TRUE--due to the fibrous continuity

Output: True/False: The anterior leaflet of the mitral valve is part of both the inflow track and the outflow track

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: 3 cusps and the Posterior Non-Coronary Artery cusp

Output: How many cusps does the aortic valve have and which has the fibrous continuity?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: Tricuspid--Mitral

Output: Which is bigger--tricuspid or pulmonary valve? Mitral or aortic?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: The SA node!

Output: What is the pacemaker of the heart?

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: In the endocardial surface

Output: Where is the conduction system found? Review the membraneous septum from the script...

CARDIO LECTURE 1--Cardiac Anatomy Flashcards - Cram.com

What is it called when a hole is made in the aorta? What happens as a result?


Input: [average cost] Gross profit:

Output: sales-COGS


Input: [average cost] Inventory Turn over ratio

Output: COGS/average inventory(number of times)


Input: [average cost] Days in Inventory

Output: 365/Inventory Turn over ratio


Input: [average cost] Flow of cost

Output: Cost of beginning inventory +COGS purchased _________________ COGS available for sale -COGS ____________ Cost of goods in ending inventory


Input: [average cost] Perpetual inventory

Output: continuous record maintained, COGS recorded at time of sale.


Input: [average cost] Periodic inventory

Output: Physical inventory taken at the end of the accounting period


Input: [average cost] Journal: Recording purchases of merchandise

Output: Inventory AP/Cash


Input: [average cost] Journal:Record payment of freight on purchase

Output: Inventory Cash


Input: [average cost] Journal:Discount taken

Output: AP Inventory Cash


Input: [average cost] Journal: Return of Merchandise purchased

Output: AP/Cash Inventory


Input: [average cost] Journal: Recording Sales of Merchandise

Output: AR Sales Inventory COGS


Input: [average cost] Journal: Sales Returns and Allowances

Output: Sales R&A AR/Cash Inventory COGS


Input: [average cost] Sales Discounts

Output: Cash Sales Discounts AR


Input: [average cost] Gross Profit Ratio

Output: gross profit/net sales %


Input: [average cost] Profit Margin Ratio

Output: Net income/Net Sales %


Input: [average cost] Taxes (Fifo and Lifo)

Output: Highest: FIFO Lowest: LIFO


Input: [average cost] Fraud Triangle

Output: Financial Pressure Opportunity Rationalization


Input: [average cost] Receivables turnover ratio

Output: Sales/Average AR


Input: [average cost] Average Collection Period Ratio

Output: 365/Receivables turnover ratio


Input: [average cost] Inventory Turnover Ratio

Output: Sales/Average inventory


Input: [average cost] Average inventory

Output: Beginning + end/2


Input: [average cost] Company's Bank Statement: Bank side

Output: Balance at end of month +Deposits in Transit _________________ --Outstanding Checks __________________ Adjusted Cash Balance


Input: [average cost] Company's Bank Statement: us

Output: Cash Balance +collection of a note __________________ --NSF check --error --service charge ______________ Adjusted Cash Balance


Input: [average cost] Journalize: Loaned $35,000 cash on a 1 year note (record interest in last transaction)

Output: Note Rec 35,0000 Cash


Input: [average cost] Journalize: Recieved a $10,000, 9 month 6%

Output: Note Rec 10,000 Cash


Input: [average cost] Record interest of notes

Output: Interest Recievable Interest revenue


Input: [average cost] Recording bad debts: allowance method

Output: Bad dept exp Allowance for DA Allowance for DA AR


Input: [average cost] Balance Sheet

Output: Recievables Less: Allowance for DA =Net recievables


Input: [Thresholding] Digitization

Output: Two steps: In step one, sampling determines pixel size and brightness value. In step two, quantization determines pixel depth. Converting image from analog from the scope to digital image.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Pixel

Output: Unit of screen. Each pixel stored in an area of memory called a bit map. The pixels will begin to show when you enlarge the image too much The more pixels there are in an image, the more it can be enlarged before pixelization occurs

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Matrix

Output: Depends in part on the number of pixels used to create the image More pixels add detail and sharpen edges or the number of pixels per inch of screen The size of a photograph is specified in one of two ways by its dimensions in pixels by the total number of pixels it contains Resolution is dependent on matrix size and number of pixels per inch of screen.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Resolution

Output: Resolution is dependent on the matrix size. At extremely low resolution, pixels can be seen with the unaided eye. This is called pixelization.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] CCD

Output: With digital photography, the detector is a solid state image sensor called a charge coupled device...CCD for short. CCD differentiates film cameras from digital cameras. CCD with few photocells, samples at low resolution.At extremely low resolution, pixels can be seen with the unaided eye. This is called pixelization. CCD with more photocells, samples at higher spatial resolution.In this kind of image individual pixels can no longer be seen.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Vector Image

Output: OBJECT ORIENTED IMAGES Vector graphics describe an image independent of the resolution of the final rendering device. good for plots that can be described by objects (lines, circles, letters, etc.). Vector can be converted to raster.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Raster Image

Output: BIT-MAPPED describe an image as an array of colored pixels only reasonable choice for photos and satellite images Image is determined by spatial resolution and brightness resolution. graphics cannot be converted back to vector graphics

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Bit Map

Output: where each pixel is stored in an area of memory. Process of bit mapping controls or addressses a grid of individual pixels (each pixel has a numbered address).

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [Thresholding] Level of Brightness

Output: the higher the bit level, the higher the level of brightness. Noise appears as small, random variation in brightness or color. Higher resolution provides more brightness levels.

CC4530 Digital Imaging Flashcards - Cram.com

minimize background debris by setting a value below which all values will be considered white and a value above which all values will be considered black. This process can also be used to enhance the light and dark bands of G-banded chromosomes. In color imaging this process can be used to manipulate the various colors of DNA probes and counterstains.


Input: [2] Distance between two tones [1]

Output: Interval

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Emphasis placed on a particular note [1]

Output: Accent

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A metric pattern in which large beats comprise three smaller, subordinate beats. [1]

Output: Compound Meter

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A continuous, periodic pulse that underlies most types of music. [1]

Output: Beat

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The first and strongest beat in the pattern of strong and weak beats that defines the meter. [1]

Output: Downbeat

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A metric pattern comprising two beats. [1]

Output: Duplemeter

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A regular, repeating pattern of strong and weak beats. [1]

Output: Meter

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A metric pattern comprising three beats. [1]

Output: Triple meter

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A metric pattern comprising four beats. [1]

Output: Quadruple meter

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A weak beat immediately preceding a metric downbeat. [1]

Output: Upbeat

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The simultaneous sounding of three or more tones. [1]

Output: Chord

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The quality of relative stability that is attributed to certain harmonies in a piece of music. [1]

Output: Consonance

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Instability attributed to certain harmonies in a given musical context. [1]

Output: Dissonance

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A technique of composing two or more melodic lines against one another in accordance with certain rules. [1]

Output: Counterpoint

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A musical texture consisting of one melody and an accompaniment that supports it. [1]

Output: Homophony

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A musical texture featuring two or more equally prominent, simultaneous melodic lines, those lines being similar in shape and sound. [1]

Output: Imitative polyphony

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A texture comprising a single line of musical tones. [1]

Output: Monophony

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A musical texture featuring two or more equally prominent melodic lines played at the same time. [1]

Output: Polyphony

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A steady and gradual increase in volume. [1]

Output: Crescendo

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A steady and gradual decrease in volume. [1]

Output: Diminuendo

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The speed of the beat in a piece of music. [1]

Output: Tempo

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A method of thickening musical textures by augmenting the bass line. [1]

Output: Basso Continuo

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A style of singing with instrumental accompaniment that imitates the natural inflections of speech. [1]

Output: Recitative

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] (1) A recurring instrumental passage in music of the Baroque period. (2) A form used in the Baroque concerto. [1]

Output: Ritornello

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 1. A process in which a melodic fragment is stated and then repeated at higher or lower pitch level. 2. A genre of medieval plainchant associated with the Mass. (Skip to this section.) [1]

Output: Sequence

AA-MusHum1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sales-COGS [average cost]

Output: Gross profit:


Input: COGS/average inventory(number of times) [average cost]

Output: Inventory Turn over ratio


Input: 365/Inventory Turn over ratio [average cost]

Output: Days in Inventory


Input: Cost of beginning inventory +COGS purchased _________________ COGS available for sale -COGS ____________ Cost of goods in ending inventory [average cost]

Output: Flow of cost


Input: continuous record maintained, COGS recorded at time of sale. [average cost]

Output: Perpetual inventory


Input: Physical inventory taken at the end of the accounting period [average cost]

Output: Periodic inventory


Input: Inventory AP/Cash [average cost]

Output: Journal: Recording purchases of merchandise


Input: Inventory Cash [average cost]

Output: Journal:Record payment of freight on purchase


Input: AP Inventory Cash [average cost]

Output: Journal:Discount taken


Input: AP/Cash Inventory [average cost]

Output: Journal: Return of Merchandise purchased


Input: AR Sales Inventory COGS [average cost]

Output: Journal: Recording Sales of Merchandise


Input: Sales R&A AR/Cash Inventory COGS [average cost]

Output: Journal: Sales Returns and Allowances


Input: Cash Sales Discounts AR [average cost]

Output: Sales Discounts


Input: gross profit/net sales % [average cost]

Output: Gross Profit Ratio


Input: Net income/Net Sales % [average cost]

Output: Profit Margin Ratio


Input: Highest: FIFO Lowest: LIFO [average cost]

Output: Taxes (Fifo and Lifo)


Input: Financial Pressure Opportunity Rationalization [average cost]

Output: Fraud Triangle


Input: Sales/Average AR [average cost]

Output: Receivables turnover ratio


Input: 365/Receivables turnover ratio [average cost]

Output: Average Collection Period Ratio


Input: Sales/Average inventory [average cost]

Output: Inventory Turnover Ratio


Input: Beginning + end/2 [average cost]

Output: Average inventory


Input: Balance at end of month +Deposits in Transit _________________ --Outstanding Checks __________________ Adjusted Cash Balance [average cost]

Output: Company's Bank Statement: Bank side


Input: Cash Balance +collection of a note __________________ --NSF check --error --service charge ______________ Adjusted Cash Balance [average cost]

Output: Company's Bank Statement: us


Input: Note Rec 35,0000 Cash [average cost]

Output: Journalize: Loaned $35,000 cash on a 1 year note (record interest in last transaction)


Input: Note Rec 10,000 Cash [average cost]

Output: Journalize: Recieved a $10,000, 9 month 6%


Input: Interest Recievable Interest revenue [average cost]

Output: Record interest of notes


Input: Bad dept exp Allowance for DA Allowance for DA AR [average cost]

Output: Recording bad debts: allowance method


Input: Recievables Less: Allowance for DA =Net recievables [average cost]

Output: Balance Sheet


Input: [1] actin [2]

Output: A globular protein that links into chains, two of which twist helically about each other, forming microfilaments (actin filaments) in muscle and other kinds of cells.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] anaphase [2]

Output: The fourth stage of mitosis, in which the chromatids of each chromosome have separated and the daughter chromosomes are moving to the poles of the cell.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] anchorage dependence [2]

Output: The requirement that a cell must be attached to a substratum in order to divide.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] aster [2]

Output: A radial array of short microtubules that extends from each centrosome toward the plasma membrane in an animal cell undergoing mitosis.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Bacteria [2]

Output: One of two prokaryotic domains, the other being Archaea.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] benign tumor [2]

Output: A mass of abnormal cells that remains at the site of its origin.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] binary fission [2]

Output: A method of asexual reproduction by “division in half.” In prokaryotes, binary fission does not involve mitosis

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cell cycle [2]

Output: An ordered sequence of events in the life of a cell, from its origin in the division of a parent cell until its own division into two

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cell cycle control system [2]

Output: A cyclically operating set of molecules in the eukaryotic cell that both triggers and coordinates key events in the cell cycle

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cell division [2]

Output: The reproduction of cells.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cell plate [2]

Output: A double membrane across the midline of a dividing plant cell, between which the new cell wall forms during cytokinesis.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] centromere [2]

Output: The specialized region of the chromosome where two sister chromatids are most closely attached.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] centrosome [2]

Output: Structure present in the cytoplasm of animal cells, important during cell division

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] checkpoint [2]

Output: A control point in the cell cycle where stop and go-ahead signals can regulate the cycle.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] chromatin [2]

Output: The complex of DNA and proteins that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome. When the cell is not dividing, chromatin exists in its dispersed form, as a mass of very long, thin fibers that are not visible with a light microscope.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] chromosome [2]

Output: A cellular structure carrying genetic material, found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. Each chromosome consists of one very long DNA molecule and associated proteins. (A bacterial chromosome usually consists of a single circular DNA molecule and associated proteins. It is found in the nucleoid region, which is not membrane bounded.) See also chromatin.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cleavage [2]

Output: (1) The process of cytokinesis in animal cells, characterized by pinching of the plasma membrane. (2) The succession of rapid cell divisions without significant growth during early embryonic development that converts the zygote to a ball of cells.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cleavage furrow [2]

Output: The first sign of cleavage in an animal cell

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cyclin [2]

Output: A cellular protein that occurs in a cyclically fluctuating concentration and that plays an important role in regulating the cell cycle.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) [2]

Output: A protein kinase that is active only when attached to a particular cyclin.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] cytokinesis [2]

Output: The division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells immediately after mitosis, meiosis I, or meiosis II.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] density-dependent inhibition [2]

Output: The phenomenon observed in normal animal cells that causes them to stop dividing when they come into contact with one another.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Down syndrome [2]

Output: A human genetic disease caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] G0 phase [2]

Output: A nondividing state occupied by cells that have left the cell cycle.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] G1 phase [2]

Output: The first gap, or growth phase, of the cell cycle, consisting of the portion of interphase before DNA synthesis begins.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] G2 phase [2]

Output: The second gap, or growth phase, of the cell cycle, consisting of the portion of interphase after DNA synthesis occurs.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] gamete [2]

Output: A haploid reproductive cell, such as an egg or sperm. Gametes unite during sexual reproduction to produce a diploid zygote.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] genome [2]

Output: The genetic material of an organism or virus

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] growth factor [2]

Output: (1) A protein that must be present in the extracellular environment (culture medium or animal body) for the growth and normal development of certain types of cells. (2) A local regulator that acts on nearby cells to stimulate cell proliferation and differentiation.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] interphase [2]

Output: The period in the cell cycle when the cell is not dividing. During interphase, cellular metabolic activity is high, chromosomes and organelles are duplicated, and cell size may increase. Interphase accounts for 90% of the cell cycle.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] kinetochore [2]

Output: A structure of proteins attached to the centromere that links each sister chromatid to the mitotic spindle.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] malignant tumor [2]

Output: A cancerous tumor that is invasive enough to impair the functions of one or more organs.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] metaphase [2]

Output: The third stage of mitosis, in which the spindle is complete and the chromosomes, attached to microtubules at their kinetochores, are all aligned at the metaphase plate.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] metaphase plate [2]

Output: An imaginary plane midway between the two poles of a cell in metaphase on which the centromeres of all the duplicated chromosomes are located.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] metastasis [2]

Output: The spread of cancer cells to locations distant from their original site.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] mitosis [2]

Output: A process of nuclear division in eukaryotic cells conventionally divided into five stages: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Mitosis conserves chromosome number by allocating replicated chromosomes equally to each of the daughter nuclei.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] mitotic (M) phase [2]

Output: The phase of the cell cycle that includes mitosis and cytokinesis.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] mitotic spindle [2]

Output: An assemblage of microtubules and associated proteins that is involved in the movements of chromosomes during mitosis.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] origin of replication [2]

Output: Site where the replication of a DNA molecule begins, consisting of a specific sequence of nucleotides.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] prometaphase [2]

Output: The second stage of mitosis, in which discrete chromosomes consisting of identical sister chromatids appear, the nuclear envelope fragments, and the spindle microtubules attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] prophase [2]

Output: The first stage of mitosis, in which the chromatin condenses, the mitotic spindle begins to form, and the nucleolus disappears, but the nucleus remains intact.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] S phase [2]

Output: The synthesis phase of the cell cycle

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] sister chromatids [2]

Output: Either of two copies of a duplicated chromosome attached to each other by proteins at the centromere and, sometimes, along the arms. While joined, two sister chromatids make up one chromosome

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] somatic cell [2]

Output: Any cell in a multicellular organism except a sperm or egg.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] telophase [2]

Output: The fifth and final stage of mitosis, in which daughter nuclei are forming and cytokinesis has typically begun.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] transformation [2]

Output: (1) The conversion of a normal animal cell to a cancerous cell. (2) A change in genotype and phenotype due to the assimilation of external DNA by a cell.

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: SSD is classified as which type of storage

Output: -Nonvolatile

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: When would you want to consider RAID 1 technology?

Output: When you need an instant backup of your work

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: CPUs have several internal components including

Output: -All of the above

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Super-fetch is a memory-management technique that

Output: -Preloads the applications you use most into memory

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: A quad core CPU with hyper-threading has eight virtual CPUs

Output: True

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: SSD hard drives are cheaper alternative to RAM

Output: False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: To document a problem you are having, you can use

Output: -Problem steps recorder

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Which is not a type of video port

Output: -USB 3.0

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: A sound card that supports 7.1 surround sound will drive

Output: -eight speakers

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: To improve video performance, modern computers have a ..in addition to the CPU

Output: -GPU

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The faster data transfer port for computers today is the

Output: -Thunderbolt port

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Donating a computer always puts your personal information at risk

Output: False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: GDDR5 memory is often used in external hard drives

Output: False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Each device connected to a network is known as a

Output: Node

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: A small network used for communication between personal computing devices is a

Output: PAN

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The fastest broadband internet service is usually

Output: -fiber-optic

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The part of the network that establishes a communications channel between the nodes of the network is known as

Output: -Transmission Media

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The device used to move data between two networks is called a

Output: router

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Actual data throughput is usually higher on wired networks than on wireless networks

Output: true

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Home networks are usually configured as a client/server network

Output: False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: When setting up a home network, the router is attached

Output: -directly to the broadband modem

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: All of the following are methods to secure your wireless network except

Output: -disabling WEP

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Which network-ready device facilitates file sharing and data backup

Output: -All of the above

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: To share files between computers on a Windows home network, you must

Output: -create a home group

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Which of the following is not recommended to do when securing a home wireless network

Output: -Enable SSID broadcast

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Network-ready devices contain Ethernet Switches

Output: False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Home network serves are a specialized typed of NAS device

Output: True

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The operating system of your cells/smartphone is stored in

Output: -read-only memory

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: VoIP is phone service that

Output: -works over an Internet connection

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Which service allows you to use your cells/smartphone to send messages that contain images?

Output: MMS

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Digital convergence means that

Output: -one device can perform the jobs of several

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: there are several categories of mobil devices because

Output: -there is a range of tradeoffs between weight and performance

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: digital convergence means that all cellular networks will become 4G

Output: false

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Ultra books are a type of notebook computer with the fastest processor and largest screen size

Output: false

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: If you are in a location with free WiFi, it is better to use wifi than the 3G cellular signal

Output: true

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: which is not a factor that determines the quality of images taken with a digital camera?

Output: -eye-fi

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: The quickest way to distribute your band’s new song to a lot of listeners is to

Output: -use an application to post it on Facebook

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: P2P is an acronym for

Output: -peer-to-peer sharing

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: An analog signal is different from a digit signal because

Output: -It is continuous

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Which of the following is not true about modern televisions

Output: -they run word processing and spreadsheet software

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: Digital music files must be converted to the MP3 format if they are transferred to a mobil device

Output: -False

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: A codec is the algorithm that compresses and decompresses video files

Output: true

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: If your digital camera doesn’t support wireless connectivity, you can use a memory card with built-in WiFi

Output: true

-Ultrabooks have the fastest optical drives


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the landmarks of the Posterior neck

Output: External occipital protuberance: on the occipital bone, this is superior attachment of nuchal ligament Vertebra prominens: this is the spine of the 7th cervical vertebra

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the landmarks of the Anterior neck

Output: 1. Atlas (C1) the transverse process can be palpated between the angle of the mandible and point just anterior and inferior to the mastoid process. 2. Hyoid bone: lies at level of 3rd cervical vertebra, superior to thyroid cartilage. Point of attachment for supra- and infra- hyoid muscles 3. thyroid cartilage: forms the larngeal prominence of the anterior neck. Largest cartilage of the larynx 4. Cricoid cartilage: inferior to thyroid cartilage . lies at level of 6th cervical vertebra 5. Jugular notch

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Jugular notch

Output: rounded depression in the superior border of the manibrium of the sternum. It is bounded laterally by the medial ends of the clavicles

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Cricoid cartilage

Output: inferior to the thyroid cartilage and articulates with it. The cricoid cartliage lies at level of 6th cervical vertebra. It is shaped like a singet ring, with its wide part to the posterior and the narrow arch at the anterior

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Superficial fascia

Output: the superficial fascia of the head and neck is continuous with that of the pectoral, shoulder, and back regions. In the neck it includes the platysma muscle and cutaneous nerves

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Deep fascia has ____ layers.

Output: has 3 layers 1. superficial investing layer 2. pretracheal layer 3. prevertebral layer

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] superficial (external) investing layer

Output: continuous with the ligamentum nuchae posteriorly and splits to enclose trapezius and SCM on each side. continuous with anterior midline. Forms the roof of the posterior triangle On the deep side it invests the omohyoid muscle and contributes to the carotid sheath continuous with fascia of the head attaches to the clavicle, hyoid bone, and lower border of the mandible. Envelops the muscles connected to the mandible. It also splits the enclosed parotid gland.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Pretracheal layer of fascia

Output: prolongation of the visceral fascia of the mediastinum, where it is continuous with the fibrous pericardium. It encloses the esophagus, trachea, thyroid gland, pharynx, larynx, and contributes laterally to the carotid sheath. Posteriorly this layer forms the buccopharyngeal fascia and attaches to the pharyngeal tubercle at teh base of the skull. Anteriorly it attaches to the thyroid cartilage and runs inferiorly and posterior to infrahyoid muscles to attach to the posterior side of the sternum and fibrous pericardium. The pretracheal layer of cervical fascia is generally thin, and with the carotid sheath encloses the visceral compartment of the neck.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Prevertebral layer of fascia of the neck

Output: this begins in the posterior midline and encloses the intrinsic deep muscles of the spine. It continues forward across the floor of the lateral triangle and covers the scalene muscles, where it is called scalene fascia. It then attaches to the transverse process of the cervical vertebra and splits into two layers that continue across the front of the vertebral column and fuse again as they attach to the transverse processes of the opposite side. The anterior lamina ends inferiorly by blending with the fascia on the posterior wall of the upper esophagus. The posterior lamina continues downward along the front of the thoracic vertebral column. The prevertebral layer also contributes to the carotid sheath

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Cervicoaxillary sheath

Output: an extension of the prevertebral fascia that envelops the brachial plexus and axillary vessels

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Sibson's fascia

Output: at the cervicothoracic aperture, the prevertebral fascia expands over the apex of the lung to form the cervical diaphragm

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the space within the neck?

Output: Pretracheal space Retropharyngeal space

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Pretracheal space

Output: the pretracheal space is, as the name implies, directly anterior to the trachea, extending from the thyroid cartilage to the superior mediastinum. It is enclosed by the pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Retropharyngeal space

Output: the retropharyngeal space is a potential space between the prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia and the buccopharyngeal fascia around the pharynx It runs from the cranial base to the superior mediastinum at about the T2 level

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] What is the clinical significance of the spaces in the neck?

Output: spread of infection through the spaces of the neck. With the advent of antibiotics deep infections in the neck became more treatable, and with CT they became easier to diagnose. These spaces are routes to spread infection in the neck and into the upper mediastinum Infections may begin in the tonsils, gums, salivary glands, sinuses, or nasopharyngeal space.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the attachments of SCM

Output: superior head: attached to mastoid process of temporal bone two inferior heads: attached to manibrium of the sternum and superior surface of the medial third of the clavicle.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the lesser supraclavicular fossa a clinical landmark for?

Output: clinical landmark for the jugular vein this fossa is created by the two inferior heads of the SCM

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] What provides the innervation for SCM?

Output: CN XI variable contribution from branches of ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves C2-C4

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Action of SCM

Output: bilaterally: bring the chin to the chest and protrude the chin unilaterally: muscle rotates the ear toward the shoulder on the same side

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] If CN XI is lesioned what is the outcome?

Output: torticollis caused by shortening of the SCM and is the result of CN XI lesion

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck?

Output: the posterior border of the SCM the anterior border of trapezius m. & clavicle Inferior belly of omohyoid m. crosses the posterior triangle, dividing it further into an occipital triangle above and omoclavicular/supraclavicular below

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the roof of the posterior triangle of the neck?

Output: superficial side of the posterior triangle is referred to as the roof. This is formed by the superficial investing fascia. Superficial to this fascial roof is the platysma muscle located in subcutaneous connective tissue

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck

Output: the deep side of the posterior triangle is referred to as the floor. The floor is formed by the muscles which are invested by the prevertebral fascia. 1. semispinalis capitis m. 2. splenius capitis m. 3. levator scapulae m.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is semispinalis capitis muscle found?

Output: found at the apex of the posterior triangle

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is splenius capitis muscle found?

Output: inferiorly and medially, attached to the ligamentum nuchae and the spinous processes of the upper three thoracic vertebra and that of C7 At its superior and lateral extent, it attached to the mastoid process and lateral aspect of the superior nuchal line.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what innervates splenius capitis muscle

Output: lateral branches of the dorsal rami of the middle cervical spinal nerves

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the action of spleniu capitis?

Output: with spleniu cervicis, splenius capitis pulls the head back (extension of the neck) unilaterally pulls the head to the side and rotates it

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is levator scapulae muscle located?

Output: attached to transverse processes of C1-C4 superiorly and inferiorly to the angle of the scapula

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] What is an important anatomical relationship between levator scapula and CN XI?

Output: spinal accessory nerve is found on the superficial surface of levator scapula, but does NOT innervate levator scapula

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what innervate levator scapula muscle?

Output: Direct branches of C3, C4, C5 via dorsal scapular nerve

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the action of levator scapula?

Output: elevates the scapula acts in complex synergy with other muscles to stabilize the shoulder. if shoulder is fixed levator scapula pulls the head to one side

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what muscles together are referred to as the scalene mass?

Output: scalenus posterior and medius mm.

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is posterior scalene m. located?

Output: attached superiorly to the posterior tubercle of the 4,5,6th cervical vertebra and inferiorly to the outer edge of the 2nd rib

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what innervates posterior scalene mm.

Output: Innervated by branches of ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves 5-8

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is scalene medius located?

Output: attached superiorly to the posterior tubercles of all cervical vertebra and inferiorly to posterior part of the 1st rib

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what innervates scalene medius?

Output: Innervated by branches of ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves 3-8

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where is scalene anterior located?

Output: this is usually attached to tubercles of vertebra 3-6 and at its inferior end to scalene tubercle of the first rib

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what innervates scalene anterior m?

Output: innervated by branches from ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves 4-6

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what is the action of the scalene muscles?

Output: all the scalene muscles can act to flex the neck, bringing the head forward or forward and to one side or if the neck is help upright contraction of the scalenes raises the second rib

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Are the scalene muscles active during inspiration?

Output: YES

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] What are the contents of the posterior triangle of the neck?

Output: omohyoid muscle external jugular vein subclavian vein accessory nerve (CN XI)

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] describe the omohyoid muscle

Output: this muscle joins the scapula and the hyoid it has two bellies the inferior belly crosses the posterior triangle dividing the posterior triangle into an occipital triangle above and supraclavicular triangle below

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] External jugular vein

Output: this is formed by confluence of the posterior auricular and retromandibular veins. It crosses the SCM and runs through the roof of the posterior traingle, emptying into the subclavian vein about 2 cm above the clavicle

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] subclavian vein

Output: this is the major vein draining the upper limb Curves through the inferior part of the posterior triangle the subclavian vein and internal jugular vein join to form the brachiocephalic vein. It runs posterior to the clavicle and subclavius muscle, and anterior to the subclavian artery

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Describe the Accessory nerve (CN XI)

Output: this is a cranial nerve and has cranial and spinal roots

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] where are the spinal roots of the Accessory nerve derived from ?

Output: C1-C5

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] describe the path of the accessory nerve spinal roots

Output: spinal root of C1-C5 and passes upward through the foramen magnum to join the cranial root from the medulla. Briefly combined roots leave the posterior cranial fossa through the jugular foramen of the skull and then the cranial roots splits off and is incorporated into CN X

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what part of the accessory nerve innervates SCM?

Output: the spinal roots of CN XI innervate SCM, along with branches from the second cervical spinal nerve

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] describe the pathway of CN XI after it innervates SCM

Output: the accessory nerve then leaves the posterior border of the SCM, crosses the posterior triangle, and enters the deep surface of the trapezius muscle

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what branches of CN XI innervate the trapezius muscle

Output: C3 and C4

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] how does damage to CN XI most commonly occur

Output: the spinal accessory nerve is the nerve most commonly damaged in the course of treatment because of its long course and relatively superficial location Lymph node biopsies in the posterior triangle present particular risk because of their close anatomical relationship

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] what are the symptoms of damage to CN XI

Output: Variable Presumably because of branches of the cervical plexus contribute variably by individual innervation of the trapezius muscle. May present with: shoulder pain limitation of arm abduction drooping shoulder due to paralysis of trapezius Atrophy of trapezius Winging of scapula

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] True or False If CN XI is damaged trapezius muscle may still be partially preserved.

Output: TRUE due to innervation being variable

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] What other muscles may compensate for damage to CN XI

Output: some compensation by levator scapula muscle may occur, in which case the individual may be able to shrug (elevate shoulder) but NOT ABDUCT the arm above horizontal

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] If a patient has damage to CN XI how could this cause parasthesias of the hand?

Output: secondary traction on the brachial plexus

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: [definition of the neck] Patient presents with weakness with turning head to one side. What is possibly damaged?

Output: accessory nerve innervates SCM and damage would result in weakness in turning head toward side of uninjured side against resistance

the neck extends from the base of the skull and the lower border of the mandible to the superior thoracic aperture. The boundaries of the superior thoracic vertebra. The superior thoracic aperture dips inferior to the clavicles


Input: It is recommended that you use which raid level on all redo log files? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: raid 1

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A checkpoint causes all in-cache data blocks that have not been written out to disk, to be written out to disk. These unwritten, changed buffers are called? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: dirty buffers

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When this operation is performed, the redo information is written into the redo log buffers. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: commit

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Input: The redo log is made up of two or more redo log files that oracle automatically mirrors also referred to as? [3] If you are using disk mirroring to protect the redo log, it is not necessary to use this. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: log file group

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when a log file fills up and the log switch occurs, the file is copied to an [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: archive log file

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A log switch always causes this to occur? [3] flushes all dirty buffers from the Oracle buffer cache [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: checkpoint

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Input: Each time a redo log file is reused, it is given a? [3] By having this, the RDBMS can keep track of which log file and archive log files have been used. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: log sequence number

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Input: Select two. Which of the following parameters are used to control the checkpoint interval? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL, LOG_CHECKPOINT_TIMEOUT

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Input: how many blocks are there per 1mb? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: 2048

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Input: you want to force a checkpoint, you can do it with the following command: [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: alter system checkpoint;

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Input: As with the checkpoint, a log switch can be forced by hand. To do so, use the following command: [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: alter system switch logfile;

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Complete the following command to delete the rollback segment log1. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: ALTER DATABASE orcl drop logfile 'log1';

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The redo log files are one of the few files in the Oracle database that are always written to in [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: sequential manner

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: It is better to have the archival process and redo log operation on? [3] sequential I/O is much faster than random I/O. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: separate disk volumes

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Using this for the redo log files because it offers the most protection and the fastest write performance. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: raid 1

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the advantage to isolating redo log files onto separate disk volumes? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: faster i/o

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: These files are used in the startup of an instance to identify where the datafiles and redo log files are in the system. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: control files

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which of the following commands will generate a new control file? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: create controlfile

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Each time you make changes to the structure of the database by adding datafiles, redo log files, and so on, run the command [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: ALTER DATABASE database BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Records transactional information that will be used in the event that the transaction is rolled back. [3] keep the undo information that is used in rollback operations. Provide read consistency and used for database recovery. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: rollback segments

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which of the following allows a long-running transaction to always obtain the same data within the query? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: read consistency

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The information written by the transaction to the rollback segments is held in? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: rollback entries

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: stores information about which transactions use each rollback segment, and the rollback entries for each change performed by those transactions. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: transaction table

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: You can manually assign a rollback segment by using the [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: set transaction command with the use rollback segment parameter

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Where does the system keep the information written by the transaction to the rollback segments? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: In rollback entries

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: There is a lot of rollback contention even though you are using your space efficiently. What is the problem? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: Too many transactions sharing a rollback segment

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A rollback segment must have at least how many extents [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: 2

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When a transaction uses the last extent in the segment, it looks to see whether the first extent is available. If the first extent is not available, what happens? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: another extent is created

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: With rollback segments, the size for INITIAL should equal this so that all extents are the same size. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: next

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Select two. Which of the following CREATE ROLLBACK SEGMENT parameters control the size of the extents? [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: initial and next

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A good rule of thumb is to create about "x" # of rollback segment for every "y" # of concurrent transactions. [3] Remember  the fewer transactions per rollback segment, the less contention [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: x=1, y=4

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Rollback contention occurs when too many transactions try to use the same rollback segment at the same time, and some of them have to wait. You can tell whether you are seeing contention on rollback segments by looking at the dynamic performance table: [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: v$waitstat

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Typically this rollback segment is not used, and you do not need to be concerned about it in re: to rollback contention. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: system

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In the v$sysstat, the number of requests for data is equal to [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: sum of DB BUFFER GETS and CONSISTENT GETS

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If the number of waits for any of the rollback segment blocks or headers exceeds more than x% of the total number of requests, you should reduce the contention by adding more rollback segments. [rolled forward, rolled back]

Output: 1%

Oracle 8-Files, Data & Users Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Physiological and psychological factors that account for the arousal, direction, and persistence of behavior [1]

Output: Motivation


Input: [2] Internal motivational state created bu a physiological need [1]

Output: Drive


Input: [2] Theory that views motivated behavior as directed toward the reduction of a physiological need [1]

Output: Drive-reduction theory


Input: [2] Theory that the body functions best at a specific level of arousal, which varies from one individual to another [1]

Output: Optimum-level theory


Input: [2] aversive state produced when an individual holds two incompatible thoughts or cognitons [1]

Output: Cognitive dissonance


Input: [2] Maslow's view that basic needs must be satisfied before higher-level needs can be satisfied [1]

Output: Hierarchy of Needs


Input: [2] Food, water, and sleep [1]

Output: Basic Physiological Needs


Input: [2] Order, physical security, freedom from fear [1]

Output: Safety needs


Input: [2] Affiliation with friends, a supportive family, group identification, and an intimate relationship [1]

Output: Belongingness and love needs


Input: [2] Attention and recognition from others, and feelings of accomplishment, competence, and mastery [1]

Output: Esteem needs


Input: [2] Development of one's potential to the fullest extent [1]

Output: Self-actualization needs


Input: [2] Need to develop one's full potential; the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy [1]

Output: Self-actualization


Input: [2] body weight of 20% or more in excess of desirable body weight [1]

Output: Obesity


Input: [2] A numerical index calculated from a person's height and weight that is used to indicate health status and disease risk [1]

Output: Body Mass Index


Input: [2] A potentially life-threatening eating disorder occurring in primarily young and adolescent females; an intense fear of becoming fat that leads to self starvation and weight loss [1]

Output: Anorexia nervosa


Input: [2] Eating disorder in which a victim alternatively consumes large amounts of food and then empties the stomach [1]

Output: Bulimia nervosa


Input: [2] Chemical odors emitted by some animals that appear to influence the behavior of members of the same species [1]

Output: Pheromones


Input: [2] Manipulation of the environment according to established rules to attain a desired goal [1]

Output: Achievement


Input: [2] Physiological changes and conscious feelings of pleasantness or unpleasantness aroused by external and internal stimuli, that lead to behavioral reactions [1]

Output: Emotion


Input: [2] Theory that physiological changes precede and cause emotions [1]

Output: James-Lange Theory


Input: [2] View that emotions precede and cause bodily change [1]

Output: Commonsense view of emotions


Input: [2] Theory that the thalamus relays information simultaneously to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system and physiological changes to occur at the same time [1]

Output: Cannon-Bard Theory


Input: [2] an electronic device that snese and records changes in several physiological indices including blood pressure, heart rate, respiration, and galvanic skin response [1]

Output: Polygraph


Input: [2] Hypothesis that making a certain facial expression will produce the corresponding emotion [1]

Output: Facial Feedback Hypothesis


Input: [2] Culturally specific rules for which emotions to display, to whom, and when [1]

Output: Display rules


Input: [2] Communication that involves movements, gestures, facial expressions, eye contact, use of personal space, and touching [1]

Output: Nonverbal communication


Input: [2] Communication that involves aspects of speech such as rate of talking and tone of voice, but not the words used [1]

Output: Paralanguage


Input: [2] System or process by which the products or results of learning are stored for future use [1]

Output: Memory


Input: The costs of billing, collections, bad debts, and medical record maintenance; more in the US than any other national health care system [Access]

Output: Administrative Costs

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when providers can bill the patient directly for the remaining costs of treatment not covered by their insurance/health plan [Access]

Output: Balance Bill

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a payment mechanism in which all health care services are included under one set fee/covered individual (PMPM-predetermined fixed payment per member per month) [Access]

Output: Capitation

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Because of our litigious society, many practitioners prescribe additional diagnostic tests, schedule check-up visits, and maintain copious documentation; all of these additional efforts are often unnecessary, costly and inefficient [Access]

Output: Defensive Medicine

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: driven by the prices prevailing in the free market; increases as price is lowered [Access]

Output: Demand

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: (member) refers to an individual covered under an insurance plan [Access]

Output: Enrollee

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: multiple patients (buyers) and providers (sellers) act independently; unrestrained competition must exist between providers on the basis of price and quality; patients must have information on price and quality for each provider; patients must have information about the availability of various services; patients must directly bear the cost of services received; patients make decisions as consumers about their purchases [Access]

Output: Free Market

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: used to determine total health care expenditures on the national scale and to allocate the resources within the budgetary limits [Access]

Output: Global budget

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a part of managed care which uses selected providers from whom enrollees can choose to receive routine services [Access]

Output: Health Plan

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Health services predominantly associated with acute care hospitals/institutions; to receive health care services, patients are temporarily confined to an institution, such as a hospital or nursing home, where they stay overnight [Access]

Output: Inpatient Care

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A system that combines the functions of health insurance and the actual delivery of care, where costs and utilization of services are controlled by such methods as gatekeeping, case management, and utilization review. A large variety of arrangements can fall under this rubric. It is a system of delivery that 1.seeks to achieve efficiencies through integration 2. employs mechanisms to manage utilization 3. determines the price at which services are purchased [Access]

Output: Managed Care

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The US government financed program that provides health benefits to the poor [Access]

Output: Medicaid

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The US government financed program that provides health benefits to the elderly and certain disabled individuals [Access]

Output: Medicare

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the tendency of individuals to use health care services to a greater extent after purchasing health insurance than before when they did not have insurance [Access]

Output: Moral Hazard

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The government finances health care through taxes, but it is delivered by private providers [Access]

Output: National Health Insurance (NHI)

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A tax-supported NHI where the government manages the infrastructure for the delivery of medical care [Access]

Output: National Health system (NHS)

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the amount of medical care that medical experts believe a person should have to remain or become healthy [Access]

Output: Need

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the process where health care is delivered in a non-institutional setting; health care services that are obtained without an overnight stay [Access]

Output: Outpatient Care

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a bundled fee for a package of related services [Access]

Output: Package Pricing

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: providers that charge costs not anticipated/included in the cost of a surgery, such as anesthesiologists, nurse anesthetists, and pathologists [Access]

Output: Phantom Providers

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In employer based health insurance, employers do not pay 100% of the premiums, but require their employees to pay a portion of the cost [Access]

Output: Premium Cost Sharing

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: continuous basic and routine care. Basic and routine health care that is provided in an office or clinic by a provider (physician, nurse, or other health care professional) who takes responsibility for coordination of all aspects of a patient's health care delivery that is the patient's first contact with the health care delivery system and the first element of a continuing health care process. [Access]

Output: Primary Care

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Any entity that delivers health care services and receives payments directly for those services; mostly serve those covered by insurance. Any individual or organization that provides services generally covered under health insurance (including Medicaid and Medicare), e.g. physicians, hospitals, dentists, laboratories, pharmacies, and providers of durable medical equipment [Access]

Output: Provider

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A model of a functional health care system; the four primary functional components: 1. FINANCING-helps obtain health insurance or pay for services 2.INSURANCE-protects insured from catastrophic risk and costly care, specifies how and where services received 3.DELIVERY-given by providers 4. PAYMENT-reimbursement of payment to providers for services delivered [Access]

Output: Quad-function Model

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the amount insurers pay to a provider (portion of the actual charge); funds come from premiums paid to insurance companies or HMOs; the determination of how much to pay for a certain service [Access]

Output: Reimbursement

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: another term for National Health Care system; a health care reform proposal to create a single organization, usually a government agency, to pay all medical claims [Access]

Output: Single-payer System

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: health care is financed through government-mandated contributions by employers and employees [Access]

Output: Socialized Health Insurance

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: standards formulated by the government through health policy and regulation; providers must comply with the established standards to be certified in order to provide for Medicaid and Medicare patients [Access]

Output: Standards of Participation

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Like provider-induced demand; when moral hazard induces a larger utilization which creates an artificial demand for services; physicians can only over prescribe care to their patients with their own economic interests in mind [Access]

Output: Supplier-induced Demand

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the main organizations and individuals involved in health care (educational and research institutions, medical suppliers, insurers, payers, and claims processors); very little standardization and components are functionally fragmented; two primary objectives of any health care system: 1. enable universal access 2. services must be cost effective and meet standards of quality [Access]

Output: System

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The intermediary role of insurance; creates a wall between financing and delivery functions so that quality of care becomes a secondary concern. Under the current system, the payers for covered services, e.g. insurance companies, government. They are called third parties because they are neither the providers nor the recipients of medical services [Access]

Output: Third Party

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: those without private or public health insurance [Access]

Output: Uninsured

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Health insurance coverage for all citizens, as in a national health care program. [Access]

Output: Universal Access

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Extent to which health care services are actually used. For example, the number of physician visits per person per year is a measure of utilization for primary care services. [Access]

Output: Utilization

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cost containment remains and elusive goal in US health services delivery because the system does not lend itself to standard budgetary methods of cost control. Each individual and corporate entity within a predominantly private entrepreneurial system seeks to manipulate financial incentives to its own advantage without regard to its impact on the system as a whole. [Access]

Output: Why does cost containment remain an elusive goal in US health services delivery?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The two main objectives of the healthy care delivery system are to one, enable all citizens to access health care services and two, these services must be cost-effective and meet certain established standards of quality. [Access]

Output: What are the two main objectives of a health care delivery system?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The four basic functional components of US health care delivery & functions: a.Financing- helps obtain health insurance or pay for services b.Insurance- protects insured from catastrophic risk and costly care, specifies how and where services received c.Delivery- given by providers d.Payment- reimbursement of payment to providers for services delivered [Access]

Output: Name the four basic functional components of the US health care delivery system. What role does each play in the delivery of health care?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The primary reason for employers to purchase insurance plans to provide health benefits to their employees is that its in their best interest to keep their workers healthy and performing optimally; employers also get discount pricing because of group rates offered by insurance companies. [Access]

Output: What is the primary reason for employers to purchase insurance plans to provide health benefits to their employees?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 5. Despite public and private health insurance programs, some US citizens are uninsured because their low wages are enough to make them ineligible for federally funded programs, but they cannot afford premium cost sharing through their employers, if their employers even provide insurance. [Access]

Output: Why is it that despite public and private health insurance programs, some US citizens are without any coverage?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Managed care is a system of health delivery which, 1. Seeks to achieve efficiencies through integration 2. Employs mechanisms to manage utilization 3. determines the price at which services are purchased [Access]

Output: What is managed care?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The US health care market is imperfect, or quasi-market, because costs are fixed by the government, buying power is consolidated in the hands of private health plans, which forces providers to form alliances, patients do not have adequate information about services and their price/quality, patients do not directly pay for their services, and finally, patients do not make the decisions about the purchase of health care services, they are directed by their physicians. [Access]

Output: Why is the US health care market referred to as "imperfect"?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The intermediary role of insurance in the delivery of health care is that of a third party. This intermediary influence creates a wall between financing and delivery functions so that quality of care becomes a secondary concern. [Access]

Output: Discuss the intermediary role of insurance in the delivery of health care.

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The major players in the US health services system are physicians, administrators of health service institutions, insurance companies, large employers, and the government. One positive effect of their opposing self-interest is that they prevent any single entity from dominating the system. On the negative side, each player has a large stake in health policy reforms. In an environment where everyone is competing for their own self advancement, achieving comprehensive systemwide reforms and cost containment are nearly impossible. [Access]

Output: Who are the major players in the US health services system? What are the positive and negative effects of the often-conflicting self-interests of these players?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The main roles of the government in the US health services system is as a financer through Medicare and Medicaid the government finances medical costs for those unable to pay. The government also serves as a sort of regulator through certification and standards of participation with Medicare/Medicaid. [Access]

Output: What main roles does the government play in the US health services system?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: It is important for health care managers and policy makers to understand the intricacies of the health care system because it can help officials be more attuned to their own positions/role/relationship to the rest of the health care environment. It can help to better understand changes and their potential impact on their own practices. [Access]

Output: Why is it important for health care managers and policy makers to understand the intricacies of the health care delivery system?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A multifaceted system will be needed to plot the future progress of the American health care system. It will need to be a joint undertaking that involves a balanced representation of the key players in health service delivery. [Access]

Output: What kind of a cooperative approach do the authors recommend for charting the future course of the health care delivery system?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 13. Both National Health Insurance, NHI, and National Health System, NHS, are tax-supported, but in NHS the government manages the infrastructure for the delivery of medical care and in NHI health care is delivered by private providers. [Access]

Output: What is the difference between national health insurance (NHI) and a national health system (NHS)?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 14. Socialized Health Insurance is health care financed through government-mandated contributions by employers and employees [Access]

Output: What is socialized health insurance (SHI)?

Chapter One Health Policy and Management Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] most caudoventral part of the heart, always formed by the left ventricle (and having a "tip") [1]

Output: Apex

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the hilus of the organ facing dorsocranially. (it is the broad "top" of the heart) it receives the great veins and sends out the great arteries. [1]

Output: Base

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Seen from the right side of the heart, with the venae cavae entering it [1]

Output: Right atrium

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The chamber into which the pulmonary veins empty [1]

Output: Left Atrium

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Makes up most of the heart on the right side, below the coronary groove. It "wraps" around the cranial side of the heart to continue as the pulmonary trunk [1]

Output: Right Ventricle

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the wall separating the ventricles [1]

Output: Septum (interventricular septum)

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the ear-shaped appendage of either atrium of the heart. formerly, the atrium of the heart. [1]

Output: Auricles

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Coronary arteries [1]

Output: The arteries encircling the base of the heart like a crown. These are the first branches off the aorta.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Pulmonary Valve (semilunar) [1]

Output: The valve between the conus of the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk. It is similar to the aortic valve, but of lighter construction.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Aortic Valve (semilunar) [1]

Output: The three semilunar cusps attached to the aortic fibrous ring in the origin of the aorta.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Pericardium [1]

Output: The fibroserous sac enclosing the heart; composed fo the fibrous and serous pericardium covered by mediastinal (pericardiac) pleura

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Parietal serous pericardium [1]

Output: lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium (considered a wall). It reflects onto the surface of the heart as the visceral layer.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Pericardial Mediastinal pleura [1]

Output: the serosa on the mediastinum; part of the mediastinal pleura on either side of the pericardium

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] serous pericardium [1]

Output: a serous membrane forming a closed cavity. It covers the heart (visceral layer) and lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardial sac (parietal layer)

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] parietal layer [1]

Output: lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium. it reflects onto the surface of the hears as the visceral layer.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] visceral layer (epicardium) [1]

Output: a thin layer of mesothelium covering the surface of the heart. The epicardium is the visceral layer of the serous pericardium. covers the myocardium of the heart closely.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] pericardial cavity [1]

Output: a potential space between the visceral and parietal layers of serous pericardium. It has approx. 1ml of yellow fluid btwn the layers which acts as a lubricant to allow the heart freedom of movement during contraction. Other serous body cavities have almost no fluid.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] endocardium [1]

Output: a thin mesotheial layer lining the atria and ventricles. This layer is continuous with the endothelium lining the great vessels entering and leaving the heart

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] right atrioventricular valve [1]

Output: also known as the tricuspid valve, operates the right AV opening. There are only 2 major cusps (parietal and septal) in the dog, with intervening secondary cusps. In man and other domestic species there are 3 major cusps (angular, parietal and septal) thus "tri-".

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] left atrioventricular valve [1]

Output: similar to the right AV valve, but has a heavier construction due to greater pressure of the left ventricle during contraction (systole). (A miter is a two cusp hat worn by bishops in the Catholic church. Someone thought they looked like the left AV valve, hence mitral)

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] chordae tendineae [1]

Output: (tendinous cords) the though strands anchoring the free edges of the atrioventricular (AV) valves to the papillary muscles and preventing eversion of the valve leaflets into the atrium upon ventricular contraction (systole)

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] papillary muscles [1]

Output: the muscular projections serving as attachments for the tendinous cords (chordae tendineae) of the atrioventricular (AV) valves.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] facial artery [1]

Output: Linguofacial artery; branches of the external carotid artery. The facial artery winds around the ventral border of the mandible to supply the face. Also known as separate lingual and facial arteries

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] facial vein [1]

Output: Maxillary and linguofacial veins join to form the external jugular vein. The external jugular veins and subclavian veins join to form the brachiocephalic vein in carnivores and pigs. The brachiocephalic veins then join to form the cranial vena cava. In horses & ruminants the external jugular veins and subclavian veins join to form the cranial vena cava.

Veterinary Anatomy Circulatory System-VTDLP Purdue Flashcards - Cram.com