Input: A myosin head bound to actin

Output: The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The sarcomere

Output: What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Output: Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: ATP binds to the myosin head

Output: After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.

Output: How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.

Output: What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.

Output: When does cross bridge cycling end?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: arrival of an action potential

Output: What causes the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum within a muscle cell?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: troponin

Output: The binding of calcium to which molecule causes the myosin binding sites to be exposed?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: myosin

Output: A myosin head binds to which molecule to form a cross bridge?


Input: binding of ATP

Output: What causes the myosin head to disconnect from actin?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: hydrolysis of ATP

Output: What energizes the power stroke?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Calcium binds to troponin, altering its shape.

Output: What is the role of calcium in the cross bridge cycle?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The displacement of tropomyosin exposes the active sites of actin, allowing cross bridges to form.

Output: What role does tropomyosin play in the cross bridge cycle?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Troponin controls the position of tropomyosin on the thin filament, enabling myosin heads to bind to the active sites on actin.

Output: How does troponin facilitate cross bridge formation?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: myosin binding to actin

Output: What, specifically, is a cross bridge?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: ATP binding to the myosin head

Output: What event causes cross bridge detachment?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: during the cocking of the myosin head

Output: Where in the cross bridge cycle does ATP hydrolysis occur?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: ATP hydrolysis is used to re-cock the myosin head.

Output: How/when does the myosin head cock back to store energy for the next cycle?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Myosin heads would remain detached, unable to cock.

Output: BMD (2,3-butanedione 2-monoximime) inhibits myosin, such that ATP can bind to myosin but myosin is unable to hydrolyze the bound ATP. What effect would BMD have on the cross bridge cycle?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: There are always some myosin heads attached to the actin myofilament when other myosin heads are detaching.

Output: During contraction, what prevents actin myofilaments from sliding backward when a myosin head releases?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: slow oxidative fibers

Output: Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: d. increase in the number of muscle cells

Output: Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise? a. increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells b. increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system c. increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system d. increase in the number of muscle cells

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: stores oxygen in muscle cells

Output: Myoglobin ________.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: latent

Output: Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.


Input: storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

Output: Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

Output: Rigor mortis occurs because _____.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: lactic acid

Output: During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: glycolysis

Output: An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.


Input: acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

Output: After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: a long, relaxing swim

Output: Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: no muscle tension would be generated

Output: Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: motor end plate

Output: What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: False

Output: True/False: Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.


Input: True

Output: True/False: The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.


Input: thick filaments

Output: The H zone contains

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: number of cross bridges formed

Output: The tension generated in a muscle fiber is directly proportional to the

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: a binding site for an ATP molecule and for an actin molecule, and the ability to swivel when powered by ATP.

Output: Each myosin head has

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Output: The contraction cycle is triggered by the rise in __________ released from the SR.


Input: the length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction

Output: Within a single fiber, the tension developed during a twitch depends on

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: In complete tetanus, no relaxation occurs between stimuli, maximum tension is developed, and the muscle fiber is stimulated at a higher frequency.

Output: When comparing complete tetanus with unfused tetanus, which is true?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: one neuron and the muscle fibers it controls

Output: A motor unit consists of

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: very few

Output: In muscles used for fine actions, such as controlling eye movement or use of the hand, a motor unit will have __________ muscle fibers when compared to a motor unit in muscles used for power and strength.

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: helps avoid fatigue during sustained muscle contractions, refers to different motor units taking turns maintaining muscle tension, and makes an entire muscle seem to contract smoothly.

Output: Asynchronous recruitment

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: can be increased by increasing the frequency of action potentials and due to summation.

Output: The force generated by a single muscle fiber

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: at its typical resting length

Output: A muscle fiber develops its maximum tension when it is in what position at the moment it is stimulated?

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. b. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Phase III trials..

Output: compare the new agent with standard treatments

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: Radiation

Output: Limit the time spent to 30 minutes per 8 hour shift

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: What is the most common side effect of Granulocyte Colony-stimulating Factor?

Output: Bone Pain

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: The time after chemotherapy administration when the WBC is at the lowest point is referred to as...

Output: Nadir

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: A risk of thrombocytopenia increases a patients risk for bleeding. Risk of hemorrhage exists when platelet count is less than....

Output: 20,0000

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: Women at risk for breast cancer if..

Output: they've had early periods

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

Output: blood growth factor (special proteins produced by the body) that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more infection-fighting white blood cells called neutrophils.

T-Tumor M-Metastisis N-Regoinal Lymph Nodes


Input: Avastin

Output: is used with chemotherapy to treat cancer of the colon (large intestine) or rectum that has spread to other parts of the body.


Input: Act of defacing or destroying computer equipment. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Hardware Vandalism


Input: When someone steals software media, intentionally erases programs, illegally copies them, or illegally registers or activates a program. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Software Theft


Input: The right to use the software. [Hardware Theft]

Output: license agreement


Input: Occurs when someone steals personal or confidential information. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Information Theft


Input: Process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent unauthorized access. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Encryption


Input: (decipher) Converting encrypted data into readable form. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Decryption


Input: Set of steps that can convert readable plaintext into unreadable ciphertext. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Encryption Algorithm


Input: Programmed formula that the originator of the data uses to encrypt plaintext and the recipient to decrypt the ciphertext. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Encryption Key


Input: Unencrypted, readable data [Hardware Theft]

Output: Plaintext


Input: Encrypted data [Hardware Theft]

Output: Cipher text


Input: Encrypted code that a person, Web site, or organization attaches to an electronic message sender. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Digital Signature


Input: Is a notice that guarentees a user or a Web site is legitimate. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Digital Certificate


Input: Authorized person or company that issues and verifies digital certificates. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Certificate Authority


Input: Prolonged malfunctions of a computer. [Hardware Theft]

Output: System failure


Input: Special electronic components that provide a stable current flow to the computer and other electronic equipment. [Hardware Theft]

Output: surge protector


Input: Device that contains surge protection circuits and one or more batteries that can provide power during a loss of power. [Hardware Theft]

Output: UPS uninterruptible power supply


Input: Deplicate file, program, or disk that can be used if the original is lost, damaged, or stolen. [Hardware Theft]

Output: Backup


Input: Copying the backed up files to their original location on the computer. [Hardware Theft]

Output: restore


Input: Connection to a wireless network. [Hardware Theft]

Output: WAP (wireless access point)


Input: Individuals attempt to detect wireless networks via their notebook or mobile device while driving a vehicle through areas that might have a wireless network. [Hardware Theft]

Output: War Driving


Input: Security standard that improves on older security standards by authenticating network users. [Hardware Theft]

Output: WPA (wi-fi protected access)


Input: Conforms to the government's security standards and uses more sophisticated encryption techniques than WPA. [Hardware Theft]

Output: 802.lli or WPA2


Input: [synovial joint] lower joint space

Output: what does rotation

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] upper joint space

Output: what does translation

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] articular disc

Output: what is found between the temporal bone and the mandible that separates the upper and lower joint spaces

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle inferior head to the neck of the condyle

Output: what does the articular disc attach to?

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] synovium

Output: what lines the joint spaces

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] TM ligament lateral and medial discal ligaments sphenomandibular ligament stylomandibular ligament

Output: 4 supportive ligaments of the TMJ

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] lateral

Output: where does the adult mandible form relative to Meckel's cartilage

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] precursor

Output: Meckel's cartilage is the what of the mandible

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] auriculotemporal nerve masseteric nerve

Output: GSA - innervation to the TMJ

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] superficial temporal artery deep auricular artery

Output: blood supply to the TMJ

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] pterygoid venous plexus

Output: drainage of the TMJ

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] lateral pterygoid muscle suprahyoid infrahyoid

Output: muscles involved in depression of the mandible

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] temporalis masseter medial pterygoid

Output: muscles involved in elevation of the mandible

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] inferior head of lateral pyerygoid - contracting (translation) superior head - quiet

Output: muscles involved in opening

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [synovial joint] inferior head - quiet superior head - contracting

Output: muscles involved in closing

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com

what type of joints are found int he TMJ?


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Phrenology

Output: theory that linked our mental abilities to bumps on the skull

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Biological Psychologists

Output: study links between biology and behavior

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Dendrites

Output: Receive messages from other neurons

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Neurons

Output: Neural system built up fro, billions of nerve cells, consists of a cell body and its branching fiber

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Axon

Output: Carries information to other neurons

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Myelin sheath

Output: insulates speed and transmission of info

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] axon terminals

Output: sends info across the synapse

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] neurotransmitters

Output: chemical messengers that affect mood

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] nucleus

Output: contains DNA

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Action potential

Output: neural impulse or brief electrical charge that travels down the axon

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] depolarization

Output: when sodium ions rush in cell

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] polarization

Output: inactive neuron, also said to be at its resting potential

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] repolarization

Output: when potassium ions rush out of the cell (fired)

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Inhibitory role

Output: - ions allowed in, prevents firing

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Excitatory role

Output: + ions allowed in, causes firing

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] All or none response

Output: The idea that increasing a stimulus above threshold will not increase a neural impulse's intensity

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Threshold

Output: The amount of excitatory signals minus inhibitory signals require to trigger a neural impulse

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Acetycholine

Output: enables muscle action, leaning, and memory --> alzheimers

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Dopeamine

Output: Influences movement, learning, attention, and emotion -->tremors, parkinsons disease

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Serotonin

Output: affects mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal lack --> depression

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Norepinephrine

Output: controls alertness and arousal lack --> depress mood

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] GABA

Output: Major inhibitory neurotransmitter, keeps brain calmed --> seizures, tremors, insomnia

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Glutamate

Output: Excitatory transmitter, involved in memory -->overstimulate producing migraines or seizures

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Agonist

Output: helps NT do job

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Antagonist

Output: blocks NT from doing job

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] CNS

Output: Brain and spinal cord

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] PNS

Output: sense receptors, muscles, glands

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] nerves

Output: sensory and motor axons bundled into electrical cables

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] sensory neurons

Output: carry info to CNS

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] motor neurons

Output: carry info from CNS to PNS

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] interneurons

Output: carry info from all intervened neurons in the CNS

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] reflex

Output: automatic response to stimuli

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Neural networks

Output: work groups of neural clusters, produce results to learning

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Sonamic NS

Output: controls conscious thoughts and movements of skeletal muscles

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Autonomic NS

Output: controls unconscious thoughts and behaviors of internal organs

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Sympathetic

Output: AROUSAL

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Parasympathetic

Output: calm

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Lession

Output: Tissue Destruction

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] EEG

Output: amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the brain's surface

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] CT scan

Output: examines the brain by taking x-ray photographs that can reveal brain damage

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] PET scan

Output: a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a task "food for thought"

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] MRI

Output: a technique that uses magnetic fields and radiowaves to produce computer generated images that distinguish among different types of soft tissue

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Brainstem

Output: Oldest part and central core of the brain

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] medulla

Output: controls heartbeat and breathing

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] reticular formation

Output: nerve network in BS that plays an important role in controlling arousal

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] thalamus

Output: sensory switchboard, receives all sense BUT smell

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] cerebellum

Output: Influences one type of nonverbal learning and memory, major function is coordination of voluntary movement and muscle control IMPLICIT

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Hippocampus

Output: Processes memory EXPLICIT

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Limbic system

Output: regulates emotions and motivations

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] hypothalamus

Output: Hunger, thirst, sex; pleasure center

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] occipital lobe

Output: receives visual info form opposite visual field

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] frontal lobe

Output: involved in speaking, muscle movement, making plans, and judgements

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] parietal lobe

Output: registers and processes body sensations

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] temporal lobe

Output: receives auditory info from the opposite ear

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] amygdala

Output: neural centers linked to emotion, mainly fear and aggression

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] pituitary gland

Output: secretes hormones that make you grow

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] reward deficiency system

Output: A stem of genetic pleasure in the form of alcoholism, drug abuse, food binging, and other addictive disorders

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] cerebral cortex

Output: the most complex functions of human behavior and the most developed

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Glial cells

Output: support, protect and nourish cortical neurons

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] association areas

Output: areas of the brain that don't receive sensory information or direct movement but integrate and interpret information received by other regions

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] aphasia

Output: impairment in language

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Broca's area

Output: involved in producing speech

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Wernickie's area

Output: involved in understanding speech

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] angular gyrus

Output: involved in recoding printed words into auditory form

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] plasticity

Output: the quality of the brain that makes it possible for the undamaged brain areas to take over the functions of damaged regions

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Left hemisphere

Output: words and logic

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] Right hemisphere

Output: art, music, intuition

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] sensory cortex

Output: registers and processes body sensations

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] motor cortex

Output: control voluntary movements

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: [Biological phenomenon] refractory period

Output: when ions are being pushed back to where they started

Every idea, mood, memory, and behavior that an individual has ever experienced


Input: The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction? a. Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein. b. When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal. c. Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein. d. Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.

Output: d. Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Action potentials travel the length of the axons of motor neurons to the axon terminals. These motor neurons __________.

Output: extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Calcium entry into the axon terminal triggers what events?

Output: Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the sarcolemma and triggers __________.

Output: the opening of ligand-gated cation channels

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Sodium and potassium ions do not diffuse in equal numbers through ligand-gated cation channels. Why?

Output: The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process?

Output: Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction?

Output: Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected?

Output: A series of proteins that control calcium release.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?

Output: transverse or T tubules

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?

Output: Calcium ions

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge?

Output: A myosin head bound to actin

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?

Output: The sarcomere

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber?

Output: Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment?

Output: ATP binds to the myosin head

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation?

Output: The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin?

Output: Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: When does cross bridge cycling end?

Output: Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What causes the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum within a muscle cell?

Output: arrival of an action potential

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The binding of calcium to which molecule causes the myosin binding sites to be exposed?

Output: troponin

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: A myosin head binds to which molecule to form a cross bridge?

Output: myosin

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What causes the myosin head to disconnect from actin?

Output: binding of ATP

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What energizes the power stroke?

Output: hydrolysis of ATP

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What is the role of calcium in the cross bridge cycle?

Output: Calcium binds to troponin, altering its shape.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What role does tropomyosin play in the cross bridge cycle?

Output: The displacement of tropomyosin exposes the active sites of actin, allowing cross bridges to form.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: How does troponin facilitate cross bridge formation?

Output: Troponin controls the position of tropomyosin on the thin filament, enabling myosin heads to bind to the active sites on actin.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What, specifically, is a cross bridge?

Output: myosin binding to actin

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What event causes cross bridge detachment?

Output: ATP binding to the myosin head

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Where in the cross bridge cycle does ATP hydrolysis occur?

Output: during the cocking of the myosin head

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: How/when does the myosin head cock back to store energy for the next cycle?

Output: ATP hydrolysis is used to re-cock the myosin head.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: BMD (2,3-butanedione 2-monoximime) inhibits myosin, such that ATP can bind to myosin but myosin is unable to hydrolyze the bound ATP. What effect would BMD have on the cross bridge cycle?

Output: Myosin heads would remain detached, unable to cock.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: During contraction, what prevents actin myofilaments from sliding backward when a myosin head releases?

Output: There are always some myosin heads attached to the actin myofilament when other myosin heads are detaching.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities?

Output: slow oxidative fibers

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise? a. increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells b. increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system c. increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system d. increase in the number of muscle cells

Output: d. increase in the number of muscle cells

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Myoglobin ________.

Output: stores oxygen in muscle cells

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.

Output: latent

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

Output: storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Rigor mortis occurs because _____.

Output: no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

Output: lactic acid

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

Output: glycolysis

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

Output: acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

Output: a long, relaxing swim

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

Output: no muscle tension would be generated

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

Output: motor end plate

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: True/False: Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

Output: False

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: True/False: The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

Output: True

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The H zone contains

Output: thick filaments

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The tension generated in a muscle fiber is directly proportional to the

Output: number of cross bridges formed

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Each myosin head has

Output: a binding site for an ATP molecule and for an actin molecule, and the ability to swivel when powered by ATP.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The contraction cycle is triggered by the rise in __________ released from the SR.

Output: Ca2+

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Within a single fiber, the tension developed during a twitch depends on

Output: the length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: When comparing complete tetanus with unfused tetanus, which is true?

Output: In complete tetanus, no relaxation occurs between stimuli, maximum tension is developed, and the muscle fiber is stimulated at a higher frequency.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: A motor unit consists of

Output: one neuron and the muscle fibers it controls

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: In muscles used for fine actions, such as controlling eye movement or use of the hand, a motor unit will have __________ muscle fibers when compared to a motor unit in muscles used for power and strength.

Output: very few

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: Asynchronous recruitment

Output: helps avoid fatigue during sustained muscle contractions, refers to different motor units taking turns maintaining muscle tension, and makes an entire muscle seem to contract smoothly.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: The force generated by a single muscle fiber

Output: can be increased by increasing the frequency of action potentials and due to summation.

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: A muscle fiber develops its maximum tension when it is in what position at the moment it is stimulated?

Output: at its typical resting length

d. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.


Input: perforation large bowel obstruction

Output: Contraindications of small bowel study

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: small bowel follow through small bowel series only enteroclysis

Output: name all of the studies that could be done on the small bowel

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when the barium reaches the iliocecal valve (2-3 hours)

Output: When is a small bowel follow through finished?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lie on right side glass of ice water saline instead of water add Gastrografin give maxolon/maxeren

Output: How can a small bowel series increase motility?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one

Output: How many columns of barium are given in a small bowel series?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: barium is injected into the duodenal/jejunal junction (ligament of trutz)

Output: How is enteroclysis different from a small bowel series or small bowel follow through?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: no flocculation no segmentation visualize defects as injected

Output: What is the advantage of enterolysis over other small bowel studies?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: higher dose more uncomfortable for patient possible perforation

Output: What is the disadvantage of entereclysis in comparison to other small bowel studies?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: AP/PA can also do oblique or erect as necessary

Output: What radiographs are necessary for small bowel visualization?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: NPO after 12am no smoking no gum food and fluid withheld at least 8 hours prior

Output: What is the patient preparations for a small bowel series?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: low residual diet for 2-3 days clear fluid diet the day before laxatives colonic lavage if needed

Output: What is the patient preparations for a barium enema?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 15-25% w/v

Output: What is the concentration of barium in a single contrast barium enema study?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 75-95% w/v

Output: What is the concentration of barium in a double contrast barium enema study?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Simm's (left lateral with right knee flexed) relax ab muscles, decrease anal sphincter pressure

Output: What is the patient's position for inserting an enema tip, and why?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: left lateral (not simms) increases pressure on the anal sphincter so the patient has more control of their bowel

Output: What is the patient's position for removing an enema tip, and why?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: children gross pathology

Output: What is a single contrast barium enema used for?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: mucosal pattern small growths polyps diverticula

Output: What is a double contrast barium enema used for?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: AP/PA RAO/LPO LAO/RPO L lat R lat erect AP axial

Output: What are the routine studies for barium enema study?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: all of the large bowel

Output: AP/PA large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 30-40* cephalad retrosigmoid colon

Output: AP/PA axial large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: right colonic/hepatic flexure ascending colon sigmoid colon

Output: RAO/LPO large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: left colonic/splenic flexure descending colon

Output: LAO/RPO large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: at the iliac crests

Output: Where should the central ray be positioned for a large bowel?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: gentle preparation less discomfort

Output: What is the advantage to virtual CT colonoscopy?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Difficult to differentiate pathologies from fecal material

Output: What is the disadvantage to virtual CT colonoscopy?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: medial side of ascending colon lateral side of descending colon left colonic/splenic flexure

Output: right lateral large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: medial side of descending colon lateral side of ascending colon recto-sigmoid colon

Output: left lateral large bowel demonstration

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The air

Output: Is the air or contrast being visualized when reading a radiograph?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: To attempt to reduce intussusception

Output: When is a barium enema used therapeutically?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: functional study of the rectum and anus during evacuation and rest

Output: What is defecography used to study?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: mechanical simple small bowel mechanical closed loop small bowel functional small bowel large bowel

Output: What are some types of intestinal obstructions?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: tumour adhesions volvulus inguinal hernia

Output: causes of a mechanical small bowel obstruction?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: paralytic adynamic ileus toxic injury traumatic injury

Output: causes of a functional small bowel obstruction?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pain abdominal tenderness vomiting constipation abdominal distension decreased bowel sounds

Output: symptoms of an intestinal obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: fluid will accumulate continued distension becomes ischemic then necrotic

Output: what happens if an obstruction isn't treated?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: older individuals

Output: in what age group do small bowel obstructions normally occur?

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: appendicitis

Output: same symptoms as small bowel obstruction, but more likely in children

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one point of obstruction no blood flow interference gas and fluid accumulates

Output: define simple mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: stepladder sign stacked coin

Output: radiographic appearance of an incomplete simple mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: no gas in the large bowel

Output: radiographic appearance of a complete simple mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 2 part obstruction blood supply cut off

Output: define closed loop mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: blood supply cut off infarction - necrotic - gangrene

Output: complication of closed loop mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: inverted u shape

Output: radiographic appearance of a closed loop mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: peristalsis of the small bowel isn't working properly

Output: define functional obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: distended loops in the central abdomen gas and fluid levels gas in the small and large bowel no specific point of obstruction

Output: radiographic appearance of functional obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: surgery

Output: main cause of functional obstruction


Input: functional-gas in the large bowel mechanical-no gas in the large bowel

Output: radiographic difference between functional and mechanical obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: small- distended loops in the central abdomen large- distended loops in the peripheral abdomen

Output: radiographic difference between small and large bowel obstruction

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: complete twisting of a loop of bowel about its mesenteric base of attachment

Output: define volvulus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sigmoid cecum

Output: common sites for volvulus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sigmoid: inverted u cecum: kidney shaped air filled mass

Output: radiographic appearance of volvulus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: crohn's disease (regional enteritis) ulcerative colitis

Output: types of inflammatory bowel disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: terminal ileum commonly is regional, so can happen anywhere

Output: crohn's disease location

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: RLQ pain blood in stool possible clubbed nailbeds transmural

Output: crohn's disease symptoms

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: skip lesions string sign (ulcers or edema) cobblestones fistula formation

Output: radiographic appearance of crohn's disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: medication (steroids) diet (less bulk) surgery if required

Output: treatment of crohn's disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: abdominal pain weight loss fever superficial (not transmural)

Output: ulcerative colitis symptoms

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: rectosigmoid colon LLQ

Output: ulcerative colitis location

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pipestem sign (fibrosis) loss of haustra toxic megacolon grainy and gritty

Output: radiographic appearance of ulcerative colitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: toxic megacolon hemorrhage perforation obstruction

Output: ulcerative colitis complications

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: inadequate absorption of nutrients from intestinal mucosa

Output: define malabsorption syndrome

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GI surgery pancreatic disorder hepato-biliary disease small bowel disease hereditary disorder

Output: malabsorption syndrom causes

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: irregular distorted small bowel folds OR distension with regular folds

Output: malabsorption radiographic appearance

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: congenital small intestine sac/appendage of fluid in/near ileum

Output: define meckels diverticulum

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: failure of the vitelline duct to close during embryological development

Output: cause of meckels diverticulum

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ulcer perforation hemorrhage

Output: complications of meckels diverticulum

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: surgery if needed

Output: treatment of meckels diverticulum

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: finger of a glove near the terminal ileum

Output: radiographic appearance of meckels diverticulum

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: segment of the bowel telescope into the segment just distal to it

Output: define intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 3 months - 6 years

Output: age group of intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ileocecal valve (usually)

Output: location of intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: intussusception

Output: most common cause of bowel obstruction in young children

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: abrupt onset of abdominal pain blood in stool palpable RLQ

Output: signs/symptoms of intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: adults with tumour, pedunculated polyps, or inflammatory mass causes nausea and vomiting

Output: special case of intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: coiled spring CT: 3 concentric rings US: doughnut shape

Output: radiographic appearance of intussusception

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: diverticulosis is mucosa herniating through the muscular layer diverticulitis is inflamed diverticula

Output: differentiate between diverticulosis and diverticulitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: weak muscular wall low fibre diet constipation/straining low exercise

Output: diverticulosis cause

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: retained fecal material

Output: diverticulitis cause

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: very common over 60

Output: diverticular disease age

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: (early) flatulence (middle) intermittent diarrhea or constipation (late) hemorrhoids, LLQ pain

Output: early, middle, and late symptoms of diverticular disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: perforation abscess strictures suppuration

Output: complications of diverticular disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: hemorrhoids carcinoma inflammatory bowel disease

Output: symptoms similar to diverticular disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: outpouchings of colon wall

Output: radiographic appearance of diverticular disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: anti-inflammatory drugs surgery diet (no seeds, nuts, popcorn)

Output: treatment of diverticular disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pedunculated sessile familial

Output: types of polyp

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pedunculated- ascending, transverse, rectosigmoid sessile- sigoid, rectum familial- throughout colon

Output: location of polyps

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: rectal bleeding diarrhea constipation

Output: symptoms of polyps

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1) spread from other abdominal infections 2) rupture of GI tract 3) penetrating abdominal wound

Output: causes of peritonitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: growth that projects from the mucosa of the colon into the lumen

Output: define polyp

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: continuous abdomen pain tense, rigid abdomen vomiting fever

Output: symptoms of peritonitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: abscesses adhesions that lead to obstruction toxic shock

Output: complications of peritonitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: antibiotics early surgery late

Output: treatment of peritonitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: good if localized poor if generalized

Output: prognosis of peritonitis

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: colorectal

Output: colon cancer locations


Output: age of people who get colon cancer


Input: ulcerative colitis familial polyps

Output: causes of colon cancer

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: apple core sign progressive constriction of lumen

Output: radiographic appearance of colon cancer

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: less red meat, fat, sugar, smoking more fibre, chicken, fish, fruits, vegetables

Output: preventative measures against colon cancer

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: liver cancer

Output: common site of secondary cancer to colon cancer

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: colon

Output: second most common site for cancer


Input: congenital absense of nerve ganglia in the proximal rectum that always involves the anal sphincter

Output: define hirschsprungs disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: no bowel signs no passage of meconium abdominal distension

Output: symptoms of hirschprungs disease from birth

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: abdominal distension constipation small stool

Output: symptoms of hirschprungs disease in an infant

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: huge dilated colon with sudden narrowed segment of colon

Output: radiographic appearance of hirschprungs disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: surgically remove narrowed segment (astamosis)

Output: treatment of hirschprungs disease

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: congenital absence of normal communication between rectum and exterior of the body

Output: define imperforate anus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: embryological accident

Output: cause of imperforate anus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ultrasound

Output: modality of choice for imperforate anus


Input: 1) hold infant upside down for 5 minutes (air to tip of blind pouch) 2) 72" SID, AP, Lat with marker at anal opening 3) measure distance from pouch to opening

Output: radiographic procedure for imperforate anus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: may have difficulties going to the bathroom

Output: complications after surgery for imperforate anus

Lower GI Pathology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] All the processes (ingestion, digestion, absorption, metabolism, and elimination) involved in consuming and using food for energy, maintenance, and growth. [1]

Output: Nutrition


Input: [2] Taking food into the digestive tract, generally through the mouth. In special circumstances, occurs directly into the stomach through a feeding tube. [1]

Output: Ingestion


Input: [2] The mechanical and chemical processes that convert nutrients into a physically absorbable state. [1]

Output: Digestion


Input: [2] Mechanical digestion includes chewing (mastication) and deglutition (swallowing food), the peristaltic waves and mucus secretions that move the food down the esophagus. [1]

Output: Mechanical Digestion


Input: [2] The process whereby enzymes, gastic and intestinal juices, bile, and pancreatic juices change food into the individual nutrients that can be used by the body. [1]

Output: Chemical Digestion


Input: [2] Rhythmic, coordinated, serial contractions of the smooth muscles of the GI tract. [1]

Output: Peristalsis


Input: [2] an acidic, semifluid paste [1]

Output: Chyme


Input: [2] The process whereby the end products of digestion (i.e., individual nutrients) pass through the epithelial membranes in the small and large intestines and into the blood. [1]

Output: Absorption


Input: [2] The conversion of nutrients into energy by the body. [1]

Output: Metabolism


Input: [2] The constructive process of metabolism wherein new molecules are synthesized and new tissues are formed, as in growth and repair. [1]

Output: Anabolism


Input: [2] the destructive process of metabolism, wherein tirrues or substances are broken into their component parts - releases energy. [1]

Output: Catabolism


Input: [2] energy is produced through this process which is the chemical process of combining nutrients with oxygen. [1]

Output: Oxidation


Input: [2] the rate of energy utilization in the body - expressed in units called calories. [1]

Output: Metabolic rate


Input: [2] One calories is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 1 degree Celcius. [1]

Output: Calorie


Input: [2] Kcal = 1000 calories [1]

Output: Kilocalories


Input: [2] the amount of energy needed to maintain essential physiologic functions when a person is at complete rest - the lowest level of energy expenditure. Most affected by body composition. T3 and T4 governs rate. [1]

Output: Basal Metabolism


Input: [2] the process of eliminating or removing waste products from the body. [1]

Output: Excretion


Input: [2] The body must have 6 types of nutrients to function efficiently and effectively: water, carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, and minerals. [1]

Output: Nutrients


Input: [2] Build and maintain body tissues and regulate body processes. [1]

Output: Organic Nutrients


Input: [2] Provide a medium for the body's chemical reactions, transport materials, maintain body temperature, promote bone formation, and conduct nerve impulses. [1]

Output: Inorganic Nutrients


Input: [2] Iron is better absorbed when vitamin C is present and calcium absorption depends on the presence of vitamin D [1]

Output: Intake changes in one nutrient may lead to functional changes in another


Input: [2] The most important nutrient - more vital than food. Virtually all body functions require water. A person may only live approx 10 days without water. 55-65% of an adult's weight is water, 70-75% of an infant's weight is water. Decreases with age. [1]

Output: Water


Input: [2] ICF - fluid within the cells [1]

Output: Intracellular Fluid


Input: [2] ECF - fluid outside the cells, inclufing plasma fluid, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid, interstitial fluid (fluid in tissue spaces around each cell, and GI fluids [1]

Output: Extracellular Fluid


Input: [2] every 1000 kcal eaten [1]

Output: 1000 mL of water is needed to process _____


Input: [2] solvent, transporter, regulator of body temp, lubricant, component of all cells, hydrolysis [1]

Output: Functions of Water


Input: [2] - liquids consumed, including water, coffee, juice, tea, milk, and soft drinks - foods consumed, especially vegetables and fruits - metabolism, which produces water when oxidization occurs [1]

Output: Sources of Water


Input: [2] sensible, the person is aware of the loss - or - insensible, the person is not generally aware of the loss [1]

Output: Water losses are classified as _____ or ______


Input: [2] Urine, Feces, Perspiration, Respiration [1]

Output: Four ways the body loses water


Input: [2] a deficiency of water [1]

Output: Dehydration


Input: [2] an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body - when more water is taken in than is used and excreted - results in edema [1]

Output: Positive water balance


Input: [2] hypothyroidism, congestive heart failure, hypoproteinemia, some infections and cancers, and some renal conditions [1]

Output: causes of positive water balance


Input: [2] made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen - CHO - the chief source of energy for all body functions - the major food source b/c they are the least expensive and most abundant [1]

Output: Carbohydrates


Input: [2] up to 50-60% an individual's kcal - about 250 g/day. [1]

Output: Daily requirements of carbs


Input: [2] the primary source of energy for the body - needed to oxidize fats completely and for synthesis of fatty acids and amino acids. [1]

Output: functions of carbs


Input: Define “spiritual development” and identify at least two differences between Fowler’s and Westerhoff’s theories of spiritual development.

Output: Spiritual development refers to the process by which a person develops a relationship to the universe and finds meaning in his or her life. For Fowler, spiritual growth and development takes place in seven stages that must occur in sequence, and each stage develops from a combination of knowledge and values. For Westerhoff, however, spiritual development is a four-stage process that is heavily dependent on the practices of one’s family.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: Why is a life span approach to health problems important in the provision of comprehensive care?

Output: A life span approach to health problems assists the nurse in planning specific interventions that can help a person and his or her family face both acute and chronic health problems. A life span approach can additionally help the nurse and the family plan and develop preventative strategies.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: In the assessment phase of the nursing process, what are some areas the nurse would consider to determine a client’s health status?

Output: During the assessment phase, the nurse would want to consider such things as risk behaviors; health promotion activities; physical activity level; sexual behaviors and attitudes; family type and degree of family support; dental care habits; and environmental issues. The client should also be screened for tobacco, alcohol, and drug use; exposure to tuberculosis; and safe sex practices.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: In which phase of the nursing process would the nurse use established standards and protocols?

Output: The use of established standards and protocols will help during the planning phase. For example, the American Nurses Association (ANA) Standards of Practice, state nurse practice acts, and the taxonomy of nursing interventions can all help move a patient toward the anticipated outcomes. Healthy People 2010 can also be used to identify outcomes.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: What type of health promotion information can be provided to all clients during the implementation phase of the nursing process?

Output: Examples of health promotion information that can be provided to clients during the implementation phase include an examination of the impact of physical activity on health and the prevention of chronic conditions; a discussion of the dietary nutrients essential to healing and recovery; instruction regarding safety measures; education on menopause; and provision of information on breast and testicular self-exams.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: During which phase of the nursing process would the nurse be particularly concerned about continuity of care? Provide at least two examples of continuity of care.

Output: Continuity of care is a central concern during the implementation phase. Common examples of ensuring continuity of care include such things as referring patients to visiting nurse associations for home health follow-up; teaching the family how to use adaptive utensils; referring a mother to the local Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program for post-discharge assistance; or reporting child abuse.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: The evaluation phase of the nursing process analyzes the effectiveness of the care provided and the client’s response to that care. What other area should be evaluated during this phase?

Output: The final component of the evaluation phase looks at the patient’s response to the care provided by other team members. For instance, the nurse might note that a patient has increased his or her ability to use adaptive utensils after working with the occupational therapist. The nurse might also report that a child is eating more vegetables as he or she becomes more accustomed to them with an aide’s encouragement.

Essentials of Nursing Care: Chronicity Flashcards - Cram.com

The term “growth” refers to physical changes. Growth can be quantifiably measured, and it includes such things as dentition, height, weight, and bone size. On the other hand, the term “development” refers to changes in behavior over time. Development is illustrated in such things as the abilities to walk, run, and communicate.


Input: [1] Nutrition [2]

Output: All the processes (ingestion, digestion, absorption, metabolism, and elimination) involved in consuming and using food for energy, maintenance, and growth.


Input: [1] Ingestion [2]

Output: Taking food into the digestive tract, generally through the mouth. In special circumstances, occurs directly into the stomach through a feeding tube.


Input: [1] Digestion [2]

Output: The mechanical and chemical processes that convert nutrients into a physically absorbable state.


Input: [1] Mechanical Digestion [2]

Output: Mechanical digestion includes chewing (mastication) and deglutition (swallowing food), the peristaltic waves and mucus secretions that move the food down the esophagus.


Input: [1] Chemical Digestion [2]

Output: The process whereby enzymes, gastic and intestinal juices, bile, and pancreatic juices change food into the individual nutrients that can be used by the body.


Input: [1] Peristalsis [2]

Output: Rhythmic, coordinated, serial contractions of the smooth muscles of the GI tract.


Input: [1] Chyme [2]

Output: an acidic, semifluid paste


Input: [1] Absorption [2]

Output: The process whereby the end products of digestion (i.e., individual nutrients) pass through the epithelial membranes in the small and large intestines and into the blood.


Input: [1] Metabolism [2]

Output: The conversion of nutrients into energy by the body.


Input: [1] Anabolism [2]

Output: The constructive process of metabolism wherein new molecules are synthesized and new tissues are formed, as in growth and repair.


Input: [1] Catabolism [2]

Output: the destructive process of metabolism, wherein tirrues or substances are broken into their component parts - releases energy.


Input: [1] Oxidation [2]

Output: energy is produced through this process which is the chemical process of combining nutrients with oxygen.


Input: [1] Metabolic rate [2]

Output: the rate of energy utilization in the body - expressed in units called calories.


Input: [1] Calorie [2]

Output: One calories is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 1 degree Celcius.


Input: [1] Kilocalories [2]

Output: Kcal = 1000 calories


Input: [1] Basal Metabolism [2]

Output: the amount of energy needed to maintain essential physiologic functions when a person is at complete rest - the lowest level of energy expenditure. Most affected by body composition. T3 and T4 governs rate.


Input: [1] Excretion [2]

Output: the process of eliminating or removing waste products from the body.


Input: [1] Nutrients [2]

Output: The body must have 6 types of nutrients to function efficiently and effectively: water, carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, and minerals.


Input: [1] Organic Nutrients [2]

Output: Build and maintain body tissues and regulate body processes.


Input: [1] Inorganic Nutrients [2]

Output: Provide a medium for the body's chemical reactions, transport materials, maintain body temperature, promote bone formation, and conduct nerve impulses.


Input: [1] Intake changes in one nutrient may lead to functional changes in another [2]

Output: Iron is better absorbed when vitamin C is present and calcium absorption depends on the presence of vitamin D


Input: [1] Water [2]

Output: The most important nutrient - more vital than food. Virtually all body functions require water. A person may only live approx 10 days without water. 55-65% of an adult's weight is water, 70-75% of an infant's weight is water. Decreases with age.


Input: [1] Intracellular Fluid [2]

Output: ICF - fluid within the cells


Input: [1] Extracellular Fluid [2]

Output: ECF - fluid outside the cells, inclufing plasma fluid, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid, interstitial fluid (fluid in tissue spaces around each cell, and GI fluids


Input: [1] 1000 mL of water is needed to process _____ [2]

Output: every 1000 kcal eaten


Input: [1] Functions of Water [2]

Output: solvent, transporter, regulator of body temp, lubricant, component of all cells, hydrolysis


Input: [1] Sources of Water [2]

Output: - liquids consumed, including water, coffee, juice, tea, milk, and soft drinks - foods consumed, especially vegetables and fruits - metabolism, which produces water when oxidization occurs


Input: [1] Water losses are classified as _____ or ______ [2]

Output: sensible, the person is aware of the loss - or - insensible, the person is not generally aware of the loss


Input: [1] Four ways the body loses water [2]

Output: Urine, Feces, Perspiration, Respiration


Input: [1] Dehydration [2]

Output: a deficiency of water


Input: [1] Positive water balance [2]

Output: an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body - when more water is taken in than is used and excreted - results in edema


Input: [1] causes of positive water balance [2]

Output: hypothyroidism, congestive heart failure, hypoproteinemia, some infections and cancers, and some renal conditions


Input: [1] Carbohydrates [2]

Output: made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen - CHO - the chief source of energy for all body functions - the major food source b/c they are the least expensive and most abundant


Input: [1] Daily requirements of carbs [2]

Output: up to 50-60% an individual's kcal - about 250 g/day.


Input: [1] functions of carbs [2]

Output: the primary source of energy for the body - needed to oxidize fats completely and for synthesis of fatty acids and amino acids.


Input: WHAT METHOD IS USED TO CONTROL SEVERE BLEEDING WHEN DIRECT PRESSURE AND ELEVATION ARE NOT EFFECTIVE? [VENOUS]

Output: Indirect Pressure

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT METHOD IS USED TO CONTROL BLEEDING ONLY AS A LAST RESORT? [VENOUS]

Output: Tourniquet

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: IF YOU HAVE TO USE ONE, WHERE SHOULD YOU PLACE A TOURNIQUET? [VENOUS]

Output: closest to the wound

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING IS CONTROLLED BY USE OF INDIRECT PRESSURE OR PRESSURE POINTS? [VENOUS]

Output: ARTERIAL

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF BURN IS CHARACTERIZED BY REDNESS AND TINGLING IN THE AFFECTED AREA? [VENOUS]

Output: 1ST DEGREE BURN

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT SHOULD NOT BE DOEN TO A BURN VICTIM [VENOUS]

Output: REMOVE CLOTHING ADHERING TO WOUND.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT IS THE FIRST THING TO DO TO TREAT A VICTIM OF ELECTRIAL SHOCK? [VENOUS]

Output: ENSURE VICTIM IS REMOVED FROM THE POWER SOURCE.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF BURN IS CHARACTERIZED BY BLISTERS AND MOTTLING IN THE AFFECTED AREA? [VENOUS]

Output: 2ND DEGREE BURN

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY / WOUND IS DIFFICULT TO DIAGNOSE BECAUSE MOST CANNOT BE SEEN EXTERNALLY? [VENOUS]

Output: Closed abdominal injuries

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR [VENOUS]

Output: VENOUS

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: wITH THIS TYPE OF BURN, THE VICTIM MAY NOT FEEL ANY PAIN AT THE BURN SITE [VENOUS]

Output: 3rd degree

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: wHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD TO CONTORL BLEEDING FOR A VICTIM HAVING AN ABDOMINAL WOUND WITH PROTRUDING INTESTINES? [VENOUS]

Output: wet dressing

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT CAN BE USED TO SEAL THE WOUND OF A SUCKING CHEST WOUND? [VENOUS]

Output: ID CARD

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY/WOUND MAKES A HOLE IN THE CHEST CAVITY, CAUSES THE LUNG TO COLLAPSE, AND PREVENTS NORMAL BREATHING? [VENOUS]

Output: SUCKING CHEST WOUND

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY REQUIRES SPECIAL PRECAUTIONS SUCH AS KEEPING THE VICTIM LYING FLAT, WITH THE HEAD AT THE LEVEL OF THE BODY AND NEVER GIVING ANY MEDICATIONS? [VENOUS]

Output: head wound

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PROCESS OF FIRST AID FOR FRACTURES? [VENOUS]

Output: IMMOBILIZE THE INJURED PART

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: HOW DO YOU ASSESS A VICTIM WITH A POTENTIAL SPINAL INJURY? [VENOUS]

Output: ASK VICTIM IF THEY CAN MOVE THEIR EXTREMITIES

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: HOW MANY PEOPLE ARE REQUIRED TO PLACE A VICTIM ON A SPINEBOARD BY USING THE STRADDLE-SIDE METHOD. [VENOUS]

Output: 4

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WHAT ARE THE TWO PRIMARY PURPOSES WHEN PERFORMING EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR ALL SPINAL FRACTURES? [VENOUS]

Output: stop the bleeding and immobilize the victim

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Another name for an open fracture___ [VENOUS]

Output: compound fracture

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what type of stretcher is most oftern used for direct ship to ship transfer of injured persons? [VENOUS]

Output: stokes

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What type of stretcher has limited use aboard ship because it is difficult to fasten the victim to the stretcher and transport up and down ladders? [VENOUS]

Output: Army Litter

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the easiest way to transport an unconscious victim without an injured arm, leg, rib, nec or back? [VENOUS]

Output: Firemans carry

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What was the neil robertson stretcher specially designed for? [VENOUS]

Output: specially designed to remove a casualty from engineering spaces, holds, vertical trunks, and other compartments where hatches or ladders are too small to use other stretchers.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What type of stretcher can fit within a stokes strtcher, float with a 250 Lbs person and can be used in virtually every confined space aboard ship. [VENOUS]

Output: Miller (Full Body) Board

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Who needs to be familiar with the location of first aid boces, battle dressing stations, poison antidote lockers, and stretchers toughout the ship. [VENOUS]

Output: all personnel

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The common symptoms of this injury or condition include dilated pupils, pale, cool and clammy skin, and a weak or absent pulse? [VENOUS]

Output: heat exaustion

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what are the most common symptoms of heat stroke? [VENOUS]

Output: deep breathing at first, then shallow, constricted pupils, dry and hot skin

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what are the most common symptoms of heat cramps [VENOUS]

Output: muscle pain or spasms cramps and excessive sweating.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what is the proper treatment for heat cramps [VENOUS]

Output: Moving the victim to a cool area, giving cool water every 15 minutes, and gently massaging the muscle.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com