Input: The "fundamental attribution bias" predicts that, in contrast to an actor, the observer of an actor's behavior is more likely to make: a. situational attributions since the observer has limited info about the actor's internal motivation b. situational attributions sinc the observer can interpret the actor's situation more objectively c. dispositional attributions since the observer has limited information about the situation d. dispositional attributions since the observer is able to interpret the actor's behavior more objectively

Output: c. The fundamental attribution bias applies to the attributions that people make about the behavior of other people. Observers tend to make dispositional attributions about the behaviors of actors, apparently because they have limited information about the actor or his/her situation.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: A supervisor attempts to increase his influence by being sensitive to the needs of his subordinates and acting as a role model. This supervisor is relying on which of the bases of power identified by French and Raven: a. referent b. legitimate c. expert d. charismatic

Output: a. a person has referent power when he is admired, liked, or respected by other people or is viewed as a role model.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: In their classic study, Festinger and Carlsmith offered subjects either $1.00 or $20.00 to tell potential subjects that a dull experiment was very interesting. With regard to cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory, which of the following is true: a. cogntive dissonance theory predicts that subjects in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subjects in the $20.00 condition; self-perception theory predicts that subjects in the $20.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subjects in the $1.00 condition b. self-perception theory predicts that subjects in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subjects in the $20.00 condition; cognitive dissonance theory predicts that subjets in the $20.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subject in the $1.00 condition. c. cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that subjects in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subjects in the $20.00 condition. d. cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that subjects in the $20.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment than subjects in the $1.00 condition.

Output: c. Although they do so for different reasons, cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predit that subjects in the $1 condition will report liking the dull experiment more than subjects in the $20 condition. Cognitive dissonance: "I didn't get enough money to justify lying about the group's enjoyment level, so I'll convince myself that I truly enjoyed it." Self-perception theory: $1 subjects reported more favorable attitudes toward the dull experiment because nothing in the environment explained their willingness to describe it as enjoyable.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: Studies on attitude change suggest that the greatest amount of attitude change will occur when a: a. high credible communicator is asking for a moderate amount of attitude change b. high credible communicator is asking for a small amount of attitude change c. low credible communicator is asking for a large amount of attitude change d. low credible communicator is asking for a moderate amount of attitude change

Output: a. This is the optimal combination of communicator credibility and communication discrepency for attitude change.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: In the context of social exchange theory, the notion of reciprocity is: a. more critical between acquaintances than between close friends b. more critical between close friends than between acquaintences c. equally critical bewteen acquaintances and between close friends d. critical only when participants do not like one another

Output: a. social exchange theory predicts that people are attracted to one another when the rewards of the relationship exceed its costs and when rewards and costs are reciprocal. Social exchange theory applies more to exchange relationships in which the participants are strangers, acquaintances, or business partners than communal relationships in which the participants are close family friends or family members.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: Lewin's field theory defines the "life space" as: a. the macrosystem in which the individual is embedded b. the interdependent aspects of the person and his or her environment c. the social forces in the environment that determine the person's behavior d. the factors that contribute to a person's motivation to persist on a task

Output: b. The life space is a central concept in Lewin's theory. It refers to the biological, psychological, social, and physical influences that determine the individual's subjective reality at a given point in time.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: The predictions made by social comparison theory about self-attributions apply when: a. an individual is in the midst of strangers b. an individual is in unfamiliar circumstances c. there is social pressure to conform d. there is no objective standards of correctness

Output: d. According to social comparison theory, in the absence of objective standards, we judge our own behavior by comparing it to that of others.

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False. Research on schemata has shown that people typically pay more attention to evidence confirming their schemata; remember people interpret information and events in ways that are consistent with their schemata; and have better recall for schemata-consistent information.


Input: Inventory 1/1 Add:Purchases Materials avbl for use Less:12/31 Direct Materials Used [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Direct Materials(CGM)


Input: Finished Goods 1/1 Add: CGM Cost of Goods Avbl for sale Less:Finished Goods [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Cost of Goods Sold


Input: a system for allocating costs to groups of unique products made to customer specifications. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Job Order Costing


Input: a system for allocating cost to homogenous units of a mass produced product. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Process Costing


Input: a cost system that focuses on activities, determines that costs, and uses appropriate cost drivers. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Activity Based Costing


Input: denomiator for overhead in abc costing. usually volume related. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Cost Driver


Input: the numerator in determining overhead. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Cost Pools


Input: the cost of activities that can be eliminated without the customer perceiving a decline in product quality. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: non value added costs


Input: cost of activites that cannot be eliminated without the customer perceiving a decline in product quality. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Value added cost


Input: goods are costed after they have been completed. Eliminates journal entries. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Backflush Costing


Input: Direct materials, Direct Labor, Manufacturing Overhead. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Product Costs


Input: cannot be associated with manufactured goods. Ex: Advertising Expense. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Period Costs


Input: Direct Materials and Direct Labor [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Prime Costs


Input: not easily traceable to the product. Ex:Glue [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Indirect Materials


Input: Direct Labor, and Manufacturing Overhead. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Conversion Costs


Input: a system of assigning joint costs to joint products. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Joint Costing


Input: have a fixed component, and a variable component. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Mixed Costs


Input: is the operating range of activity in which cost behavior patterns are valid. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Relevant Range


Input: 1)Direct Method 2)Step Method 3)Reciprocal Method [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Service Department Cost Allocation Methods.


Input: assigns costs based on proportions. Dept's X-80%, Dept Y-20%. Total Cost woudl be allocated based on percentages. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Direct Method


Input: service departments serve other service departments. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Step Method


Input: inferior goods reworked and sold as normal product. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Defective Units


Input: Is a period cost. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Abnormal Spoilage


Input: costs of abnormal spoilage should not be charged to jobs but written off as a loss of the period. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Spoilage in Job Costing


Input: can be sold and disclosed. Value can be recognized at any point. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: By Products-


Input: a mathematical expression of how a cost changes with changes in the level of activity. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Cost Function


Input: 1)Industrial Engineering 2)Conference Method 3)Account Analysis Method 4)Quantative Methods [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: 4 approaches to cost estimation


Input: estimates of cost functions are derived from analyzing the physical relationships between inputs. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Industrial Engineering Method


Input: estimates are made by individuals from various departments. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Conference Method


Input: derived by analyzing ledger accounts and designating them as fixed, variable costs. [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Account Analysis Method


Input: derived from mathematical models [Cost of Goods Manufactured]

Output: Quantative Methods


Input: [1] Agent [2]

Output: A person who agrees to represnt or act for another, called the principal


Input: [1] Prinicapal [2]

Output: In agency law, a person who agrees to have another, called the agent, act on his or her behalf


Input: [1] Employer [2]

Output: indidivual or business entity who hires employees, pays them salaries or wages, and exerciss control over their work


Input: [1] Indpendent Contractor [2]

Output: who receives payment from employer, who working condidions and methods are not controlled by the employer


Input: [1] Power of an Attorney: General [2]

Output: Permitting the agent to transact all business for the principal


Input: [1] Power of an Attorney: Special [2]

Output: Permitting the agent to perform specified acts only


Input: [1] Power of an Attorney: Durable [2]

Output: Can act on behalf of a incompetent person-write checks, collect insurace, manage persons affair. spouses often give it to each other


Input: [1] Creation of Agency: Express Authority [2]

Output: given by one party to another. agent can act for both parties if both agree, orally or in writing. Written=Do this


Input: [1] Creation of Agency: Implied Authority [2]

Output: Not created by explicit oral or written agreement, but by implication. by custom, position the agent occupies, or by reasonably necessary to carry out express authority. What ever is implied to finish the task.


Input: [1] Creation of Agency: Apparent Authority [2]

Output: obtained by agent when the principal, by either word or action, cause 3rd part to belivle that the agen has authoriy to act, even if there is no express or implied authority. Bascially if authority is abused or used wrongfully, then passed to a 3rd party.


Input: [1] Termination of Agency: Death or insanity [2]

Output: Bosley is hired by grey to collect dbt from cochran. Grey dies, bosely doesnt know, he still collects debt from cochran. cochran payment to bosely is not legally suffeicnet to discharge debt to grey because he no longer has authority


Input: [1] Termination of Agency : Impossibility [2]

Output: when subject matter of agency is destroyed or lost, agency terminates. Gonzalez employs rich to sell house. before any sale, house is burned down by fire,. richs agency and authority the house terminates


Input: [1] Termination of Agency: Changes Circumstances [2]

Output: Event occurs that has an unusual effect. agene can resonably infer that the principal will not want agency to continue Bird hires mark to sell land for 40k. mark learns oil is under land that is worth 1 mil. agency and mark authority for 40k are terminated.


Input: [1] Termination of Agency: Bankruptcy [2]

Output: if either principla or agent petitions for bankruptcy, agency usually terminated


Input: [1] Termination of Agency: War [2]

Output: when principals and agents countyr at war, agency is terminated


Input: [1] Respondeat Superior [2]

Output: employer or princiapl held liable for wrongful acts commited by acts or employes while in cours or scope of agency or employment


Input: [1] Detour compared to Frolic [2]

Output: Joel v. Morison 1834 if servery mearly took, detour from masters buisness, then master responsible. but if servent, was on a "frolic of his own" and not in any way on masters business. the master will not be liable.


Input: [1] Tort Liability of Principal: Tortious Contract [2]

Output: principal may be liable for giving improper instruction, authorizing the use of improper materials or tools.that result in agent commiting a tort ex. jack knows lucy cannot drives, but tells her to drive the company truck to deliver equipment to customer. jack will liable for his own negligence to anyone injured by her negligent driving


Input: [1] Tort Liability of Principal: Principaln authorization of agents tortious conduct [2]

Output: principal who authorizes an agent to commit a tort, will be liable for persons or property injured thereby,


Input: [1] "At Will" Employment [2]

Output: either the employer or employee may terminate an employment for any resson. unless the contract specifcally states otherwise. Execeptions:employer may be liable for making false promises. ex. employer says to prospective employees there is "long term job with thriving business"but really it is loosing money and merging, the employee is soon fired. employee can sue.


Input: [1] At Will Employment: Execeptions based on public policy [2]

Output: Public policy must be expressed clearly in the staturtory law governing the jursidiction Whistleblowing: reporting to govnerment officials, upper management authorites, or the press that and employer is involved in some unsafe or illegal activity


Input: [1] Contract Employment: Contract Theory [2]

Output: some courts, implied employment contract exsists between employer and employee. If fired outsdie terms, action of breach. ex. employee manual states, as matter of public policy, works only dismissed for good cause. if employe is aware and continues to work. there is an impliked contract based on those terms


Input: [1] Responsibility of Employer in Public Employment [2]

Output: As an employee for a public business, you obtain all your constitutional rights Constrained in drug testing by the 4th amendment.


Input: [1] Responsibility of Employer in Private Employment [2]

Output: The consitution does not apply, hence privacy rights


Input: [1] Title VII of 1964 Civil Rights act [2]

Output: prohibit job discrimination against employees, applicants, and union member on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion and gender at any stage of employment. Applies to employers affecting interstate commerce with 15 or more employees


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Equal Employment Opportunity Commision (EEOC) [2]

Output: monitors compliance with Title 7. alleged victim of discrimination must file suite with EEOC first before bring suit against employer


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Potential 1981 claims [2]

Output: Victims of racial or ethic discrimination may have a cause of action under 42 U.S.C. Section 1981 enacted as part of civil rights act of 1866, protect righs of freed slaves, prohbits discrimination of the basis of race or ethnicity in the formation or enforcement of contracts


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Disparate- Treatment Discrimination [2]

Output: Intentional Discrimination. Women apllies for a construction firm and rejected. if she sues she must prove 1. member of protected class 2. applies and was qualifed for the job 3. rejected by employer 4. employer continued to seek applicants for the position or filled the positon with a person not in a protected class if she meets this requirement , she makes a PRIMA FACIE CASE of illegal discrimination, dont need a lawyer to win case if primea facie is made


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Equal Pay Act of 1963 [2]

Output: prohibits employers from engaging in gender based wage discrimination


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Constructive Discharge [2]

Output: when employer causes the employees working conditions to be so intolerale that a resonable person would be compelled to quite


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Sexual Harassment: Quid Pro Quo [2]

Output: Occus when sexual favors are demanded in return for job opportunites, salary increases.


Input: [1] Laws Prohibiting Employment Discrimination in Addition to Title VII: Sexual Harassment: Hostile Environment Harassment [2]

Output: Arisis when a person is subjected to unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or or physical conduct or communication of a sexual nature.


Input: [1] Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) [2]

Output: Prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of age against individuals 40 years of age or older


Input: [1] Americans with Disabilities act of 1990 (ADA) [2]

Output: Designed to eliminate discriminatory employment practices that prevent other wise qualified workers with disability from fully participation in the national labor force.


Input: [1] Bona Fide Occupational Qualifacation (BFOQ) [2]

Output: Another defense that applies when discrimination against a protected class is essentail to a job Race, color and a national origin can never be justified as a BFOQ


Input: [1] State Workers Compensation Laws [2]

Output: administrative procedure for compensating workers injured on the the job. instead of suing, files claim iwth the administrative agency. a worker who accepts workers compensation benefits is prohibited from suing for injuries cause by employee negligence.


Input: [1] Labor Law: Union Organization: Authorization Card [2]

Output: States that worker desires to have a certain union, such as united auto works, represent the work force. 1st step unionizers take to creating union If employer refues to voluntarily recognize the union after a majority signs the cards, they can petion the Nationa Labor Relations Boad


Input: [1] Labor Law: Collective Bargaining [2]

Output: Process which labor and management negotiate terms, wages, benefits, working conditions, allows unions to speak on their behalf at bargining table may demand to bargain with employer. Goo


Input: [1] Labor Law: Collective Bargaining Good Faith [2]

Output: requires that mangement must be willing to meet with union representatives and consider the unions wishes when negotiating contract


Input: [1] Closed Shop [2]

Output: A firm that requires union membership by its workers as a condition of employment Made illiegal by Labor-Mangement Relations Act


Input: [1] Union Shop [2]

Output: Union membership not a prerequisite for employment but employee required to join after ample time


Input: [1] "Right to Work" State [2]

Output: Laws making it illegal for union membership to be required for continued employment in any establishement Thus, Union shops are illegal in 22 state that have right to work laws


Input: [1] What is a Profession [2]

Output: A paid occupation that involves prolonged training and a formal qualification


Input: [1] Professional Ethical Standards [2]

Output: owe a duty to his or her client to honor terms of contract subject to standards of conduct and ethical codes established by profession, state statues, governed by contracts with clients


Input: [1] Professional Responsibility, Ethics, Accountability: Who polices these standards [2]

Output: Accounting standard of care: Financncial Accounting board determines what accounint conventions, rules and procedures consistute GAAP at a given point in time


Input: [1] What remedies are available when a profession makes an ethical mistake and violates his/her professional ethical ruels [2]

Output: Prima Facie as long as a professional acts in good faith and follows rules he will obviously not be held liable to a client for a mistake in judgment


Input: [1] ArcCatalog [2]

Output: - the ArcGIS application used for file management (browse, organize, rename, etc. GIS files).

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Input: [1] Attribute [2]

Output: the overall or general name of a characteristic used to describe a feature

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Input: [1] Attribute value [2]

Output: the specific quantity or quality that an attribute is assigned for a particular feature, such a numeric value, or a description entered by hand or selected from a menu

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Input: [1] Attribute Table [2]

Output: a table (much like a spreadsheet) that contains attribute information linked to a spatial feature. Usually, each feature is linked to one record or row in the table. Each record has one or many attributes.

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Input: [1] Active theme [2]

Output: A window or theme is "active" in ArcMap when the ArcMap application is "focused" on that particular object; some functions will only work on the "active" Theme; a theme is active when it is clicked on

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Input: [1] Base station [2]

Output: a GPS receiver that is at an known, fixed location that is used to derive correction information for nearby portable GPS receivers (rovers).

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Input: [1] Database file (*.dbf) [2]

Output: format used for attribute data in ArcMap; a collection of data organized in a systematic way.

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Input: [1] Data Dictionary [2]

Output: a file, used in collecting GPS data, that contains a list of features, their attributes and values that the attributes are assigned.

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Input: [1] Differential Correction [2]

Output: correction method applied to receiver data using known point to determine a correction factor; corrects for atomospheric delays, clock errors, and ephemeris errors.

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Input: [1] GIS (Geographic Information System) [2]

Output: A collection of hardware, software, geographic data, and personnel designed to capture, store, update, manipulate, analyze, and display geographically referenced information.

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Input: [1] GPS [2]

Output: Global Positioning System; a navigational system used to determine location relative to the surface of the earth.

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Input: [1] KML (Keyhole Markup Language) [2]

Output: a file format used to display geographic data in an earth browser or mapping site such as Google Earth

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Input: [1] Label (Annotation) [2]

Output: text information used to identify a feature or location in a spatial layer

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Input: [1] Line or Arc [2]

Output: a series of connecting X, Y positions (length, and no area)

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Input: [1] Multipath (error) [2]

Output: signals bounce off local objects such as chain link fences; multipath errors cannot be corrected

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Input: [1] Node [2]

Output: (1) the end or beginning point of a line, or (2) an intersection of two or more lines

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Input: [1] Point [2]

Output: a single location having an X, Y (and sometimes - Z) position (no area, or length)

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Input: [1] Polygon [2]

Output: one or more connecting lines that form a single, closed spatial feature (area and perimeter)

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Input: [1] Query [2]

Output: A logical statement used to select features or records (e.g. from an attribute table)

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Input: [1] Raster [2]

Output: Data format consisting of rows and columns forming cells

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Input: [1] Record [2]

Output: One line (or row) of an attribute table; each record is linked to one feature in a layer and can have one or more columns.

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Input: [1] Rover [2]

Output: a hand-held GPS receiver carried in the field

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Input: [1] Real-time DGPS [2]

Output: differential correction 'on-the-fly' using a network of ground-based reference stations that broadcast correction factors (e.g see SBAS).

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Input: [1] SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System) [2]

Output: a general term referring to a system that supports wide-area or regional augmentation (e.g. differential correction) through the use of additional satellite-broadcast messages. The WAAS utilizes an SBAS to broadcast correctio factors for real-time differential correction.

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Input: [1] Shapefile (*.shp) [2]

Output: a geospatial vector data format used in ArcMap GIS software. Each shapefile can contain multiple features of the same type of geometry (points or lines or polygons) and requires an accompanying *.dbf and *.shx file in order to open in ArcMap.

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Input: [1] Track [2]

Output: a series of connected waypoints (i.e. a line) logged on a recreational GPS. Tracks are usually a 'bread-crumb' trail of

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Input: [1] Vector [2]

Output: Data format consisting of points, lines, and polygons

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Input: [1] Waypoint [2]

Output: a point of known location. Coordinates of points recorded on a recreational GPS rover are referred to as waypoints.

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Input: [1] Elements of a Cartographic Presentation [2]

Output: Data frame Title Legend or Key Scale Data Source Map Credit Neatline or Border North arrow

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Input: [1] Data frame [2]

Output: this is the map image itself, the representation or view you intend to show your audience.

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Input: [1] Title [2]

Output: the name of the map; titles should say something about the subject or theme of the map presentation. The title can also include a time element if the map represents conditions at a particular point in time or a time period.

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Input: [1] Legend or Key [2]

Output: an explanation of colors or symbols used in the map. Generally, a “Legend” refers to descriptions of what colors represent on a map and “Key” refers to descriptions of symbology. Either term may be used if the there is a mix of colors and symbols.

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Input: [1] Scale [2]

Output: a representation of the relation between distance on a map and distance on the ground. Scale can be expressed as a representative fraction (e.g. 1/24,000), as an equivalency (e.g. 1 in. = 2,000 ft.), or as a graphic (e.g. a bar scale).

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Input: [1] Data Source [2]

Output: the source or originator (e.g person or agency) of the data used in the analysis or represented on the map.

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Input: [1] Map Credit [2]

Output: the author or person who prepared the map (you) and the date the map was prepared.

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Input: [1] Neatline or Border [2]

Output: the neatline encompasses the data frame (i.e. it is around the map image); a border usually encompasses everything in the layout.

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Input: [1] North arrow [2]

Output: last, but not least, an arrow indicating north. This is almost always true north, though magnetic north (current or as existed at the time the data were created) may also be used.

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Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] "What is put in the image", "what is placed in the scene." - Refers to the properties of cinematic image that are independent of camera position, movement, and editing. - Lighting - Costumes, make-up - Sets - Props - Actors & Quality of acting

Output: What is the term Mise-en-Scene?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] The basic unit of cinematography: A continuously exposed, unedited piece of film of any length.

Output: What's the definition of a shot in cinematography?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] - Frame (what's inside/outside the view) - Depth (deep focus vs. shallow focus) - Movement (camera's re-positioning relative to the scene) - Angles (height of camera relative to the subjects) - Distance (How close/far away camera is relative to the subject) - Duration (How long the shot last in time) - Speed (how fast the camera is rolling, slow shooting = fast motion playback, fast shooting = slow motion playback)

Output: What are the components of a shot?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] The shortening of the plot duration of a film by deliberately omitting intervals or sections of the narrative story or action.

Output: What is ellipsis?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Any shot that continues for an extended period of time.

Output: What is a long take?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Figures are small relative to their surroundings.

Output: What is a long shot?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Isolates one or more figures. Body is visible from the feet or knees up.

Output: What is a medium long shot?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Figures are shown from the waist up.

Output: What is a medium shot?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] figures are shown from the mid-chest up.

Output: What is a medium close shot?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Fills the screen with an object or figure of significance. Draws attention to details.

Output: What is a close-up?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Presents only part of a face or an object.

Output: What is an extreme close-up?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Technique in which film cuts back and forth between two actions to show parallel action. (2 things happening at the same time) Raises narrative tension of the scene. Ex: One person fleeing and another in pursuit. - Birth of a Nation: In the woods and at home: Flora and Gus/Ben

Output: What is Parallel Editing or Crosscutting?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] A narrative film - Where there was talking from a narrator in the scenes throughout the film.

Output: What type of film was George Melies - Trip to the Moon?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Fragmentation: - Where the story and characters need not be connected and consistent; time and space may be in disarray. Unpredictable/uncharacteristic behavior. Formalism: - exploration of properties and limits of the material; a self-referential exploration. Heightened Subjectivity: - Modernists often carry out formal explorations in highly subjective styles while exploring unconscious impulses and personal visions not grounded in external reality.

Output: What are the components of modernism?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Germany: - Modernist films stressed interiority and subjectivity of characters that were isolated from each other and from society - Expressed disturbed states of mind, inner conflicts - Emphasis on atmosphere, mood, Mise-en-Scene, and psychology. - Set design was the most important aspect. Russia: - Soviet modernism attempted to create new type of film which critically engaged the viewer. - Explored the materiality and formal qualities of the medium. - Emphasized editing - Montage, made the viewer aware of the editing - Editing was the most important aspect.

Output: What's the difference between modernist films in Germany and modernist films in Russia?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] An element of one shot is carried over into the next shot to smooth the transition so viewers don't lose their orientation in the screen space. Ex: Birth of a Nation: Flora gets water from the well

Output: What is match editing/cuts of a continuity editing?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] known as “Shot-Reverse-Shot”, which 1) shows the shot of the character, then 2) shows what they see, and the 3) shot of the character’s reaction to what they saw.

Output: What is Point of View (POV) of a continuity editing?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Where a character looks in the direction of another character even if that second character is not in the shot. - Creates an imaginary line between the actor in the shot and the one off the screen - A type of a POV shot

Output: What is eyeline match of continuity editing?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Editing together two shots to create a symbolic meaning (i.e. workers running from soldiers & cows being slaughtered to show how workers are treated like soulless animals).

Output: What is a metaphorical or associational cut?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Two shots with opposite or oppositional content are paired. It calls attention to radical inequality and difference between the two scenes to create an emotional/ethical response (i.e. starving man begging for bread & rich man eating a huge turkey on a sliver platter)

Output: What is a contrast cut?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Thomas Alva Edison] Editing between two different actions to show that they are happening at the same time. Ex: Flora in the woods and Gus/Ben at home

Output: What is a parallel cut?

Who was credited with the invention of the phonograph, the telephone, electric light bulb, and the motion picture camera?


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is surplus and how does it occur?

Output: Surplus is when the market has an abundances of what is being supplied. It occurs when there is more being supplied than demanded.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is the solution to surplus?

Output: To decrease price in order to obtain an equilibrium.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is shortage and how does it occur?

Output: Shortage is when a market has a lack what is being supplied. It happens when demand out weighs what can be supplied.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is the solution to shortage?

Output: The solution to a shortage is to raise the price therefore reducing the amount of demand an obtaining equilibrium again.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is the effect of a price floor?

Output: A price floor will decrease the quantity demanded, increase the quantity supplied and create a market surplus.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: [Define equilibrium.] What is a price ceiling?

Output: It is when the government sets how high a price can be charged for a certain resource. This causes an increase in demand, a decrease in supply and causes a market shortage.

ECON 201 Micro Economics Test Chapter 3 Equilibrium Flashcards - Cram.com

The price at which the quantity of a good demanded equals the quantity supplied in a given time period


Input: Remodeling of pre-existing channels by mesenchymal cells [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is Arteriogenesis?


Input: Initial formation of blood vessels in the embryo by vascular precursor cells [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is vasculogenesis?


Input: Increased vesel density, salvage of limbs, and decreased ulceration in ischemic limb disease Decreased Angina and Ischemia after MI [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What have been the results in VEGF/FGF therapy for Human Clinical Trials?


Input: No clinical benefit in treatment of Coronary Artery Disease [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What has there not been a clinical benefit for with VEGF/FGF therapy?


Input: Current: Single drug (VEGF), Short Term, Older Pts. Better: More than one drug, Long term; b/c angiogenesis requires more then one molecule in a sequence, like Angiopoitin, TGF-B, etc. [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is the current protocol for VEGF/FGF therapy and would a better protocol be?


Input: Targe HIFs and get an increase in ALL molecules [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What could an Alternate method be for Angiogenesis stimulation?


Input: Both VEGF/EGF cause NO mediated hypotension VEGF causes edema from vessel immaturity and increased permeability Acceleration of Tumor Growth in preexisting malignacy [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What are the side effects of Angiogenic Stimulation by VEGF/EGF?


Input: Treatment of Tumor Growth and Metatisis Tumor's do NOT grow beyond 1 mm unless they obtain additional blood vessels [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is Anti-Angiogenic therapy used for besides Chronic Inflammation?


Input: Inflammation attracts Leukocytes which stimulates the relasea of VEGF & MMP's Increase vascularity and High VEGF correlate with degree of tissue destruction [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: How is Angiogenesis involved in Chronic Inflammation: Rheumatoid Arthritis, Chrohn's, Psoriasis?


Input: VEGF [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: High levels of what are indicatorsfor higher degree of tissue damage?


Input: Anti-Integrin (AB: Medi-522) to integrin; decrese leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells which is crucial for migration Anti-TNF (AB: Infliximab) decreases VEGF production and Leukocyte adhesion Thalidomide: Inhibits TNF [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What are the 3 ways to inhibit Angiogenesis?


Input: Asymptomatic Microscopic Tumors: DO NOT CAUSE DISEASE DO NOT stimulate angiogenesis Presence of dormant tumors is quite common and often go undiagnosed To grow require Angiogenic Switch [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What do Tumors that are <1 mm do in the body?


Input: Ratio of angiogenic inhibitors to angiogenic activatos determines angiogenic switch [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: How is angiogenic switch determined?


Input: Rare: High inhibitor levels; Low activator levels = Dormant Tumor Frequent: Low ihibitor levels; High activator levels = Growing Tumors [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: When is cell division rare and when is it frequent in an angiogenic switch?


Input: Tumor Cell Accumulation of HIF's; which induces synthesis of VEGF, FGF and MMPs [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What causes an Angiogenic Switch in Tumor Cells?


Input: Levels of VEGF corrlate with progression of disease and clinical outcome Increased levels indicate greater disease progression [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: Levels of what correlate with progression of disease and clinical outcome?


Input: Hypoxia Loss of function of p53 Proto-oncogenes converted to Oncogene (hyperactive) [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What causes increased levels of HIF?


Input: It is a tummor suppressor by suppressing HIFs Loss of function in cancer leads to increased HIFs [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is p53 and what does it do?


Input: The mutation is associated with an increase in HIFs Ex: SRC kinase? [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: How does Proto-oncogenes convert to oncogenes or "gain their function"?


Input: Tumore Grows Abnormal blood flow may impair delivery of chemo drugs Increased permeability and size in Lymp may facilitate metastases Decreased adhesion receptors decreases the Immune Response [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What are the consequences to Tumor Angiogenesis?


Input: Removal of the primary tumor may result in metastic growth Mice (w/removed tumor) given urine from a mouse that still had a primary tumor there was no metastisis [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What may happen after the removal of a Primary tumor and what has shown to improve the outcome in mice?


Input: Anti-VEGF which targets Endothelial cells [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What would you treat Early Tumor growth with?


Input: Anti-PDGF, Angiopoiten and TGF-B which targets Mesenchymal cells [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What would you treat a later progression of a tumor with?


Input: NEOVASTAT: A natural compound from cartiledge (avascular) Blocks VEGF, Inhibits MMP, Promotes Apop. of Endo cells, [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What drug would target multiple stimulators and what does it do?


Input: Cox-2 Inhibitor (Celecoxib, Rofecoxib) Targets Endothelium, tumor cells, Inflamm. Cells, Inhibits VEGF release from Tumor and promotes T cell [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is a drug that targets multiple cell types of tumor growth and what does it do?


Input: Solid-Tumors are angiogenis dependent Chronic Inflammation is less exacerbated No known toxicity with endo inhibitors Few side effecs Similar targets across variety of tumors Endo cells do not mutate Easier to target vessels [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What are the advantages of Anti-Angiogenic Therapy?


Input: May require chronic administration Manufacturing limitations Expensive Long term side effects unknown Development of resistance [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What are some disadvantages of Anti-Angiogenic Therapy?


Input: The fourth arm 1. Surgery 2. Radiation 3. Chemotherapy [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What arm of cancer treatment is Anti-Angiogenetic therapy?


Input: Metronomic Chemotherapy Which targets tumor proliferation and the growth of new vessels [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What can Anti-Angiogenic Therapy be combined with?


Input: Eradication is NOT likely Tumor Arrest and Prevention of growth of Microscopic tumors [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: What is the therapeutic goal of cancer treatment?


Input: First measure # of circulating endothelial progenitors Determine the # of stimulators vs. inhibitors Measure MMPs in urine [What is angiogenesis?]

Output: How do you monitor potenital Angiogenic Switching?


Output: How many articles are in the Code of Conduct?

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: Armed Forces Police Detachment (AFPD)

Output: When military police are from different armed forces and combined to form one unit, they are known as....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: Bring about an efficient military organization

Output: The purpose of discipline in the military is to....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: Detterent

Output: What theory of punishment is used by the Navy?


Input: Responisbility and authority while carrying out orders

Output: Chapter 10 of the Navy Regs deals with...

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: Your rights and responsibilities

Output: Chapter 11 of the Navy Regs deals with...

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: new Navy Regs and changes to Navy Regs

Output: Secretary of the Navy issues and the President approves.....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: the duties and responsibilities for all personnel within a unit or organization

Output: The instructions found in the OPNAVINST 3120.32 provide guidance and regulations for.....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: 13 May 1951

Output: TheUCMJwas signed into law on....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: Summary, special, and general

Output: The three types of courts-martial are.....

BMR CH. 2 2012 HSC-21 Flashcards - Cram.com

The three sources that contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy are—


Input: MAL of Vulnerable adults- Guidelines 2

Output: Required the reporting of suspected MAL of vulnerable adults, to provide for the voluntary reporting of MAL of v.adults, to require the investigation of the reports, and to provide protective and counseling services in appropriate cases.

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Timing of report

Output: A mandated reporter who has reason to believe that a v.adult is being or has been MAL, or who has knowledge that a v.adult has sustained a phys. injury which is not reasonable explained shall immediately report the info. to the Common entry point (located in every county in MN)

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Reporting Prior to Admission to facility

Output: A reporter is not required to report suspected MAL of the ind. from prior to admission UNLESS: if belief v.adult was MAL at prior facility; Ind. knows they are a v.adult; no report if already reported; nothing in this section shall preclude an ind. from reporting v.adult MAL to common entry pt.

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Reporting will happen

Output: If there has been an error in receiving medical tx. that a v.adult receives an injury or harm

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Report NOT required

Output: 1. circumstance where federal law specifically prohibits a person for disclosing patient id. info. in connection w/ a report or suspected MAL, unless the v.adult or guardian has consented to disclose in legal matter; 2.verbal of phys. aggression occurring bwtn patients, residents, or clients of facility, or self-abusive bx. by these persons does not constitute abuse unless the bx. causes serious harm; 3. accidents; 4. Events occurring in a facility that result from an ind.'s error in the provision of therapeutic conduct to a v.adult; 5. nothing shall be construed to require a report of $ exploitation, solely on the basis of the transfer of $ or property by gift or compensation for services rendered

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Reporting

Output: Mandated reported shall immediately oral report to the common entry pt. (may not require written report)

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Reporting Content

Output: Id. v.adult, caregiver, the nature and extent of the suspected MAL, any evidence of previous MAL, the name and address or reporter, time, date, and the location of the incident and anything else reporter think may be important

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Internal reporting of MAL

Output: Facility shall establish and enforce an ongoing written procedure in compliance with applicable licensing rules to ensure that all cases of suspected MAL are reported; internal reporting may or may not report to the common entry pt. but will notify mandated reporter; facility may not prohibit report to an external common entry pt. in good faith

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Immunity; Protection to reporters

Output: A person who makes a good faith report is immune to any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from making the report, or participating in the investigation , or for failure to comply fully with the reporting obligation

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Falsified reports

Output: A person or facility who intentionally makes a false report shall be liable in a civil suit for any actual damages suffered by the reported facility, person or persons and for punitive damages up to 10k and attorney fees

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Failure to report

Output: A mandated reporter who negligently or intentionally fails to report is liable for damages caused by the failure. Nothing in this section imposes vicarious liability for the acts or omissions of others

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Evidence not privileged

Output: NO evidence regarding the MAL of the v.adult shall be excluded in any proceeding arising out of the alleged MAL on the grounds of lack of competency

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Lead investigation agency; notifications, dispositions, determines

Output: Upon request of reporter the lead investigation unit shall notify the reporter that is has received the report and provide info. on the initial disposition of the report w/in 5 business days of receipt of the report, provided that the notification will not endanger the v.adult or hamper the investigation

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Abuse

Output: Act against a v.adult that constitutes a violation of, an attempt to violate, or aiding and abetting a violation of: assault in the 1-5 degrees; the use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime; the solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; criminal sexual conduct in the 1-5.


Input: Conduct that is not accident or therapeutic which produces or could reasonably be expected to produce phys. pain or injury or emotional distress includes:

Output: 1.hitting, slapping, kicking, biting, corporal punishment; 2. use of repeated or malicious oral, written, or gestured lang toward v.adult or tx which would be considered disparaging, derogatory, humiliating, harassing, or threatening; 3.any use of aversive or deprivation procedure, unreasonable confinement, involuntary seclusion including forced separation from persons against will of v.adult; 4.any aversive or deprivation procedures for persons with developmental disabilities or related conditions not authorized; any sexual contact or penetration bwtn staff and v.adult; abuse does not count when refusing to consent; no spiritual or prayer needs unless consistent with the tx

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Not abused

Output: for the reason if the v.adult is not impaired engages in sexual conduct with a staff member or other persons; when consensual existed prior to the caregiving relationship; PCA regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Accident

Output: A sudden, unforeseen, unexpected occurrence or event with: is not likely to occur and which could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; if occurring while a v.adult is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event


Input: Caregiver

Output: An ind. or facility who has responsibility for the care for a v.adult as a result of a family relationship or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a c.adult voluntarily, by contract, or by agreement


Input: Common entry point

Output: the entity designated by each county responsible for receiving reports of MAL of v.adults

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: False

Output: Preponderance of the evidence shows that an act that meets the definition of MAL did not occur


Input: Final Disposition

Output: The determination of an investigation by a lead investigative agency that a report of MAL is substantiated, inconclusive, false, or that no determination will be made. If substantial will make known the alleged perps of MAL

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Financial Exploitation

Output: in a breach of a fiduciary obligation recognized elsewhere in law, including pertinent regulations, contractual obligations, documented consent by a competent person or the obligations of a responsible party.

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Financial Exploitation Criteria

Output: Person: engages in unauthorized expenditure of funds entrusted to the actor by the v.adult which results or likely to detriment the adult; 2.Fails to use $ resources of the v.adult to provide food, clothing, shelter, health care, therapeutic conduct or supervision for the v.adult and the failure results to detriment to v.adult;

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Financial Exploitation Criteria: In the absence of legal authority a person

Output: 1. willfully uses, w/holds, or disposes of funds or property of a v.adult; 2.obtains for the actor or another the performance of services by a 3rd person for the wrongful profit or advantage of the actor or another to the detriment of the v.adult; 3.acquires possession or control of or an interest in funds, or property of a v.adult trough the used of undue influence, harassment, duress, deception, or fraud; 4.Forces, compels, coerces, or entices, a v.adult against the v.adult's will to perform services for the profit or advantage of another

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Financial Management service

Output: Nothing in Financial exploitation definition requires a facility or caregiver to provide $ management or supervise $ management for a v.adult except as otherwise required by law

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Immediately

Output: ASAP; but no longer than a 24 hours from the time initial knowledge that the incident occurred has been received


Input: Inconclusive

Output: There is less than a preponderance of evidence to show that MAL did or did not occur

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Initial disposition

Output: the lead investigation agency's determination of whether the report will be assigned for further investigation

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Maltreatment

Output: Abuse as defined by neglect or $ exploitation

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Neglect (A)

Output: Failure or omission by a caregiver to supply a v.adult with care or services, including not limited to food, clothing, shelter, health care, supervision which is; reasonable and necessary to obtain or maintain the v.adult's phys. or mental health of safety considering the phys.or mental capacity of dysfunction of the v.adult; which is not the result of an accident or therapeutic conduct

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Neglect (B)

Output: Absence of likelihood of absence of care of services not limited to food, clothing, shelter, health care, supervision necessary to maintain the phys. and mental health of v.adult which a reasonable person would deem essential to obtain or maintain the v.adult's health, safety, or comfort considering the phys. or mental capacity or dysfunction of the v.adult

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Neglect (C) V.adult is NOT neglected for the sole reason if:

Output: 1.v.adult or persons sig. refuses consent or w/draws consent, consistent with that authority and w/in the boundary of reasonable medical practice to any mental health condition; 2.v.adult/CT to consent to or refuse therapeutic conduct, or caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer therapeutic services; in good faith rely on spiritual means for tx. instead of medical care if consistent with prior tx of adult; v.adult who is not impaired in judgement or capacity mental or emotional or undue influence has sexual contact; personal care attendant; ind. makes error in the provision of therapy that does result in injury or does result in injury; care is provided in timely fashion; after getting care the v.adult health status is reasonably expected; error is not part of a pattern of errors by ind.; error is reported ASAP, internally; facility works to reduce error for future; documented throughly; does not let caregiver provide services outside competence

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Report

Output: Statement concerning all the circumstances surrounding the alleged or suspected MAL of a v.adult which are known to the reporter at the time statement is made


Input: Substantiated

Output: Preponderance of the evidence shows that an act that meets the definition of MAL occurred

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Therapeutic Conduct

Output: The provision of a program services, health care, or other personal care services done in good faith in the interests of the v.adult; By MFt or caregiver

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: Vulnerable Adult

Output: Any person 18yrs.old or older: receives services at facility, EXCEPT a person receiving tx. for mental illness or in sexual psychopathic personality; gets services from home are provider; THAT IMPAIRS THE IND.'S ABILITY TO PROVIDE ADEQUATELY FOR THE IND.'S OWN CARE W/OUT ASSISTANCE INCLUDING THE PROVISION OF FOOD, SHELTER, CLOTHING, HEALTH CARE, OR SUPERVISION; b/c of dysfunction or infirmity and the need for care or services, the ind. has an impaired ability to protect the ind's self from MAL

Mandate Vulnerable Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

Is to protect adults who, b/c of phys. or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to MAL; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environ. for vulnerable adults who have been MAL.


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is Arteriogenesis?

Output: Remodeling of pre-existing channels by mesenchymal cells

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is vasculogenesis?

Output: Initial formation of blood vessels in the embryo by vascular precursor cells

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What have been the results in VEGF/FGF therapy for Human Clinical Trials?

Output: Increased vesel density, salvage of limbs, and decreased ulceration in ischemic limb disease Decreased Angina and Ischemia after MI

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What has there not been a clinical benefit for with VEGF/FGF therapy?

Output: No clinical benefit in treatment of Coronary Artery Disease

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is the current protocol for VEGF/FGF therapy and would a better protocol be?

Output: Current: Single drug (VEGF), Short Term, Older Pts. Better: More than one drug, Long term; b/c angiogenesis requires more then one molecule in a sequence, like Angiopoitin, TGF-B, etc.

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What could an Alternate method be for Angiogenesis stimulation?

Output: Targe HIFs and get an increase in ALL molecules

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What are the side effects of Angiogenic Stimulation by VEGF/EGF?

Output: Both VEGF/EGF cause NO mediated hypotension VEGF causes edema from vessel immaturity and increased permeability Acceleration of Tumor Growth in preexisting malignacy

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is Anti-Angiogenic therapy used for besides Chronic Inflammation?

Output: Treatment of Tumor Growth and Metatisis Tumor's do NOT grow beyond 1 mm unless they obtain additional blood vessels

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] How is Angiogenesis involved in Chronic Inflammation: Rheumatoid Arthritis, Chrohn's, Psoriasis?

Output: Inflammation attracts Leukocytes which stimulates the relasea of VEGF & MMP's Increase vascularity and High VEGF correlate with degree of tissue destruction

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] High levels of what are indicatorsfor higher degree of tissue damage?

Output: VEGF

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What are the 3 ways to inhibit Angiogenesis?

Output: Anti-Integrin (AB: Medi-522) to integrin; decrese leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells which is crucial for migration Anti-TNF (AB: Infliximab) decreases VEGF production and Leukocyte adhesion Thalidomide: Inhibits TNF

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What do Tumors that are <1 mm do in the body?

Output: Asymptomatic Microscopic Tumors: DO NOT CAUSE DISEASE DO NOT stimulate angiogenesis Presence of dormant tumors is quite common and often go undiagnosed To grow require Angiogenic Switch

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] How is angiogenic switch determined?

Output: Ratio of angiogenic inhibitors to angiogenic activatos determines angiogenic switch

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] When is cell division rare and when is it frequent in an angiogenic switch?

Output: Rare: High inhibitor levels; Low activator levels = Dormant Tumor Frequent: Low ihibitor levels; High activator levels = Growing Tumors

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What causes an Angiogenic Switch in Tumor Cells?

Output: Tumor Cell Accumulation of HIF's; which induces synthesis of VEGF, FGF and MMPs

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] Levels of what correlate with progression of disease and clinical outcome?

Output: Levels of VEGF corrlate with progression of disease and clinical outcome Increased levels indicate greater disease progression

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What causes increased levels of HIF?

Output: Hypoxia Loss of function of p53 Proto-oncogenes converted to Oncogene (hyperactive)

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is p53 and what does it do?

Output: It is a tummor suppressor by suppressing HIFs Loss of function in cancer leads to increased HIFs

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] How does Proto-oncogenes convert to oncogenes or "gain their function"?

Output: The mutation is associated with an increase in HIFs Ex: SRC kinase?

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What are the consequences to Tumor Angiogenesis?

Output: Tumore Grows Abnormal blood flow may impair delivery of chemo drugs Increased permeability and size in Lymp may facilitate metastases Decreased adhesion receptors decreases the Immune Response

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What may happen after the removal of a Primary tumor and what has shown to improve the outcome in mice?

Output: Removal of the primary tumor may result in metastic growth Mice (w/removed tumor) given urine from a mouse that still had a primary tumor there was no metastisis

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What would you treat Early Tumor growth with?

Output: Anti-VEGF which targets Endothelial cells

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What would you treat a later progression of a tumor with?

Output: Anti-PDGF, Angiopoiten and TGF-B which targets Mesenchymal cells

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What drug would target multiple stimulators and what does it do?

Output: NEOVASTAT: A natural compound from cartiledge (avascular) Blocks VEGF, Inhibits MMP, Promotes Apop. of Endo cells,

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is a drug that targets multiple cell types of tumor growth and what does it do?

Output: Cox-2 Inhibitor (Celecoxib, Rofecoxib) Targets Endothelium, tumor cells, Inflamm. Cells, Inhibits VEGF release from Tumor and promotes T cell

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What are the advantages of Anti-Angiogenic Therapy?

Output: Solid-Tumors are angiogenis dependent Chronic Inflammation is less exacerbated No known toxicity with endo inhibitors Few side effecs Similar targets across variety of tumors Endo cells do not mutate Easier to target vessels

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What are some disadvantages of Anti-Angiogenic Therapy?

Output: May require chronic administration Manufacturing limitations Expensive Long term side effects unknown Development of resistance

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What arm of cancer treatment is Anti-Angiogenetic therapy?

Output: The fourth arm 1. Surgery 2. Radiation 3. Chemotherapy

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What can Anti-Angiogenic Therapy be combined with?

Output: Metronomic Chemotherapy Which targets tumor proliferation and the growth of new vessels

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] What is the therapeutic goal of cancer treatment?

Output: Eradication is NOT likely Tumor Arrest and Prevention of growth of Microscopic tumors

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [What is angiogenesis?] How do you monitor potenital Angiogenic Switching?

Output: First measure # of circulating endothelial progenitors Determine the # of stimulators vs. inhibitors Measure MMPs in urine

Formation of new vessels from existing endothelial cells and endothelial progenitor cells present in the bone marrow


Input: [curl re-formation] chemical and physical changes

Output: All chemical texture procedures involve changing the hair structure using"

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] cuticle

Output: The exterior hair structure layer that protects the hair from damage is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] cortex

Output: The layer of the hair that provides strength and elasticity is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] disulfide bonds

Output: Hair bonds that cannot be broken by heat or water are:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] 4.5 and 5.5

Output: The natural pH of hair is between:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] client consultation

Output: One of the most important parts of a successful texture services is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] metallic salts

Output: Permanent waves cannot be performed if the hair is coated with:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] sulfur atoms in two adjacent protein chains are joined together

Output: Disulfide bonds are chemical-based side bonds that are formed when:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] potential of hydrogen

Output: The measurement used to determine the hydrogen ions in a solution is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] allow penetration to the cortex layer

Output: Chemical texturizers temporarily raise the pH of hair by lifting the cuticle layer to:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] keratin proteins

Output: Long, coiled polypeptide chains that are part of the hairs structure are:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] condition of the hair

Output: The client record card should include a complete evaluation of length, texture, color and:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] abrasions or signs of scalp disease

Output: During the hair and scalp analysis procedure, the stylist should look for:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] coarse-textured hair

Output: Hair texture that requires a longer processing or rewetting of solution to ensure complete saturation is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] density

Output: The measurement of the number of hairs per square inch on the head is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] elasticity

Output: An indication of the strength of the side bonds is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] chemical change process

Output: The second process of a permanent wave is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] size of the rod

Output: In permanent waving, the size of the curl is determined by the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] straight rod

Output: The permanent wave rod that produces a uniform curl along the entire width of the strand is a:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] double-flat wrap

Output: A wrapping technique using two endpapers, one placed under the strand and one over is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] base sections

Output: Permanent wave rods are placed onto subsections of a panel called:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] base placement

Output: The position of a permanent wave rod in relation to its base section is the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] half-off base placement

Output: The technique of wrapping at a 90 degree angle or straight out from the center is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] croquignole method

Output: The two basic types of wrapping hair around a perm rod are the spiral method and:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] piggyback wrap

Output: A technique used to wrap extra-long hair using two rods in opposite directions is an:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] oxygen

Output: A reduction reaction involves either the addition of hydrogen or removal of:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] thioglycolic acid

Output: A common, colorless reducing agent used in chemical texture servics is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] ammonium thioglycolate

Output: The main reducing agent in alkaline permanents is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] 9.0 and 9.6

Output: Most alkaline permanent waves have a pH between:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] glyceryl monothioglycolate

Output: The primary low pH reducing agent in acid waves is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] heat

Output: An exothermic chemical recation produces:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] activator and neutralizer

Output: The basic components of acid waves are permanent wave solution and:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] outside heat source

Output: An endothermic wave must be activated using a:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] strength of the solution

Output: In permanent waving, the processing should be determined by the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] over-processed

Output: Hair that is too weak to hold a curl or may be completely straight after a perm is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] neutralization

Output: The process of stopping the action of a permanent wave is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] 5 minutes

Output: Permanent wave solution should be rinsed from the hair for a minimum of:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] half off base

Output: A 90 degree perm wrap that minimizes stress and tension on the hair is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] chemical hair relaxing

Output: The process of rearranging extreamely curly hair into a straighter or smoother form is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] twists

Output: In extremely curly hair, the thinnest and weakest sections of the hair strand are located at the:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] 10

Output: Thio chemical relaxers usually have a pH value above:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] ion

Output: The active ingredient in all hydroxide relaxers is the hydroxide:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] twice its normal diameter

Output: All hydroxide relaxers can swell the hair up to:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] lanthionine bond

Output: Hydroxide relaxers remove one atom of sulfur from a disulfide bond converting it into a:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] re-formed

Output: Disulfide bonds broken by hydroxide relaxers can never be:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] acid-balanced shampoo

Output: Hydroxide ions left in the hair after a relaxer can be neutralized using a:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] metal hydroxide relaxers

Output: Relaxers containing one component used without any additional mixing are:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] lye relaxers

Output: Sodium hydroxide relaxers (NaOH) are commonly called:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] guanidine hydroxide relaxer

Output: A relaxer with two components mixed immediately prior to use is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] no-lye relaxers

Output: Lithium hydroxide relaxers and potassium hydroxide relaxers are advertised and sold as:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] mild alternative relaxers

Output: Ammonium sulfite and ammonium bisulfite are marketed as:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] base cream

Output: Cream used to protect the skin and scalp during a hair-relaxing process is:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] hydroxide

Output: The strength of relaxers is determined by the concentration of:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] closest to the scalp

Output: To avoid overprocessing during a retouch relaxer application, wait until the last few minutes of processing to apply relaxer to the area:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] normalizing lotions

Output: Conditioners with an acidic pH that condition and normalize hair prior to shampooing are:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] larger and looser

Output: Curl re-formation does not straighten the hair, it simply makes the existing curl:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] shampoo the hair

Output: To avoid scalp irration, prior to the application of a hydroxide relaxer never:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] wide-tooth comb

Output: To avoid excessive stretching of the hair when combing out tangles, use a:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is:


Input: [curl re-formation] caution

Output: Performing texture services involves powerful chemicals that must be handled with:

Chemical Texture Services Flashcards - Cram.com

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair into loose curls or waves is: