Input: Hibb's Test (SI Tests)

Output: With the patient prone, flex the knee and use the lower leg as a lever to internally rotate the hip. NO stabilization (+): SI joint pain or hip pain Indication: lesion of hip or SI joint * Differential between femoroacetabular and SI problem

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Yeoman's Test (SI Tests)

Output: With the patient prone, flex the knee and lift the distal femur to create hip extension. Add downward pressure on the ipsilateral SI (+): SI joint pain Indication: SI sprain

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Mennell's Test * Only test checking for SI flexion *

Output: 1. With the patient prone, the examiner applies pressure with thumbs from the PSIS's outward into the soft tissue. Note any report of pain at the SI 2. The examiner then slides the thumbs toward the midline (Erichsen's) 3 & 4. If this 2nd maneuver elicits pain, the ilium is rocked forward (superior hand on the SI joint, inferior hand on the femur), and then pulled posteriorly (superior hand on the ASIS, inferior hand on ischial tuberosity). Note any exacerbation of pain (+): exacerbation of SI pain Indication: 1) myofascial involvement of gluteal muscles; 2, 3, 4) SI subluxation or sprain

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: [1] Earnest [2]

Output: Serious in intention, purpose, or effort

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Ward [2]

Output: A minor or an incompetent person placed under the care or protection of a guardian or court

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Cynicism [2]

Output: An attitude of negativity or suspicion. Not positive

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Vacillate [2]

Output: To sway from one side to the other; to change one's opinion from one view to another

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Immaterial [2]

Output: Of no importance or meaning. Not related to issue at hand

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Impetuous [2]

Output: Characterized by sudden and forceful energy or emotion; impulsive and passionate

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Effrontery [2]

Output: Brazen boldness in a social situation

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Arduous [2]

Output: Demanding great effort or labor, difficult

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Misanthrope [2]

Output: One who hates or mistrusts human society, groups, or individuals

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Pessimism [2]

Output: A tendency to stress the negative or unfavorable, or take the gloomiest possible view

Vocab: Importance of Being Earnest Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the sporophyte

Output: In seed plants, is the gametophyte or sporophyte independent?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The gametophytes are not exposed to environmental stresses (drought, UV, etc.) and can obtain nutrients from the parent.

Output: What advantages does sheltering female gametophytes inside the parent sporophyte offer?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: possibly to filter out alleles affecting basic cell functions (because they won't survive anyway), but also to nurture the eventual growing gametophyte with its tissues

Output: Why has the gametophyte generation been preserved rather than eliminated?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Both provide ways of withstanding harsh conditions, but the spore is unicellular while the seed is more complicated, with and embryo and a food package.

Output: How are spores and seeds similar and different?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: megaspores, made in megasporangia, are the female egg-containing gametophytes, while microspores, made in microsporangia, are the male sperm-containing gametophytes.

Output: What types of spores do seed plants have?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: layers of sporophyte tissue protecting the megasporangium and forming the seed coat

Output: What are integuments?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: No, the pollen, megaspore and integuments become the seed.

Output: Does a seed get fertilized?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: in some gymnosperms but not in conifers or angiosperms

Output: Are seed plant sperm cells flagellated?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The microspore develops into a pollen grain, is released by the microsporangium, can travel long distances, and when it enters the vicinity of a megaspore, releases one or more sperm.

Output: How does pollination work?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The sperm can be transported a lot further in seeds than from seedless gametophytes.

Output: How is pollination an advantage over seedless vascular plants?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: progymnosperms

Output: What is the extinct ancestor of gymnosperms and angiosperms called?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: monophyletic

Output: Are gymnosperms and angiosperms monophyletic or paraphyletic?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: naked seed

Output: What does gymnosperm mean?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Angiosperms have enclosed ovaries for the ovules and seeds to develop in, while gymnosperm ovules and seeds grow on specialized leaves called sporophylls

Output: What is the main difference between angiosperms and gymnosperms?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: gymnosperms

Output: Which came first, gymnosperms or angiosperms?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: some did

Output: Did progymnosperms have seeds?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: during the Carboniferous and early Permian

Output: When did gymnosperms radiate?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Pangaea formed, continental interiors dried up, some flora and fauna were taken over (mainly in the ocean), such as reptiles and gymnosperms.

Output: What happened in the Permian?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: ginkgo (Ginkgophyta), cycads (Cycadophyta), gnetophytes (Gnetophyta), and conifers (Coniferophyta)

Output: What are the four extant phyla of gymnosperms?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Coniferophyta is large, while the others are tiny.

Output: What are the relative sizes of the four gymnosperm phyla?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: one extant species, Ginkgo biloba, which has deciduous fanlike leaves, is present in cities because it can tolerate air pollution, and grows seeds that stink when they decay.

Output: What are ginkgos?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: palmlike plants with sporophyll-filled cones

Output: What are cycads?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: There are three genera: Welwitschia (big straplike leaves in SW Africa), Gnetum (tropical trees and vines), and Ephedra (arid shrub known as Mormon tea)

Output: What are gnetophytes?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: cone-carrier

Output: What does conifer mean?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Most are large evergreen trees, and all have cones, clusters of scale-like sporophylls.

Output: What are conifers?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: pines, firs, spruces, larches, yews, junipers, cedars, cypresses, and redwoods

Output: List 9 examples of conifers.

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: ~550, but they take up a lot of space

Output: How many conifer species are there?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Pines and firs have needle-shaped leaves with thick cuticles and buried stomata

Output: Which conifers are adapted to dry conditions and how?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: the dawn redwood and tamarack

Output: Which conifers are deciduous?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Redwoods in northern California are more than 110 meters tall (only surpassed by eucalyptus trees in Australia), and bristlecone pines are very old, over 4k years old!

Output: What's special about conifers?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Trees bear two kinds of cones, ovulate and pollen, the pollen enters the micropyle, both the pollen and archegonium do meiosis, then fertilize, the scales of the ovulate cone break off, and the seed finds somewhere to grow into a seedling and eventually a mature pine.

Output: Describe the life cycle of a pine.

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: house framing, plywood production, paper pulpwood railroad ties, boxes and crates.

Output: What is Douglas fir used for?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: giants can weigh 2500 tons

Output: How much can a sequoia weigh?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: the Wollemia pine, discovered near Sydney, only 40 of which exist

Output: What conifer is a "living fossil"?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Anthophyta

Output: What phylum are all angiosperms in?


Input: It used to be split into monocots and dicots, but it seems some dicots diverged before the monocots split off; i.e. "dicots" was found to be paraphyletic

Output: How has angiosperm phylogeny changed in the last 10 years?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: lilies, orchids, yuccas, palms, grasses, sugar cane, and grains

Output: What are 7 examples of monocots?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: the eudicots

Output: What clade contains most dicots?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: roses, peas, buttercups, sunflowers, oaks and maples

Output: What are 6 examples of eudicots?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Amborella, water lilies, and the star anise

Output: What are three dicots that branched off before monocots?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: one species, Amborella trichopoda, a small shrub only found on New Caledonia

Output: What does Amborella consist of?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Along with tracheids, angiosperms have fiber cells and vessel elements.

Output: What is improved in angiosperm xylem over gymnosperm xylem?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Gymnosperm pollination is more random.

Output: Is gymnosperm or angiosperm pollination more 'random'?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: reproduction

Output: What is the primary purpose of a flower?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels

Output: What four types of modified leaves are present in a flower?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: green leaves at the bottom of a flower that hold the flower until it opens up

Output: What are sepals?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: brightly-colored leaves designed to attract insects to pollinate the flower

Output: What are petals?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: stamens and carpels

Output: Which components of a flower are directly correlated with reproduction?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: male sporophylls that make microspores in angiosperms

Output: What are stamens?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: female sporophylls that make megaspores in angiosperms

Output: What are carpels?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: the stem-like filament and pollen-producing anther

Output: What's in a stamen?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: an ovary with ovules in its base and a style connecting it to the stigma where pollen is caught

Output: What's in a carpel?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The seeds are enclosed in them.

Output: What's unique about angiosperm ovaries?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: one, several, sometimes fused together at the base

Output: How many carpels does an angiosperm flower have?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: mature ovaries

Output: What are fruits?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: protects dormant seeds and helps them get dispersed

Output: What does a fruit do?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: It can help the wind disperse the seed (dandelions), stick to animal fur and clothes (cockleburs) or be eaten by animals (berries)

Output: What are three ways a fruit can function and examples of each?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: fruits' tough outer wall

Output: What are pericarps?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: fruits coming from one ovary, such as cherries or soybean pods

Output: What are simple fruits?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: fruits that come from a flower with multiple carpels, such as a blackberry

Output: What are aggregate fruits?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: fruits that come from multiple flowers close together, such as pineapples

Output: What are multiple fruits?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The anther makes microspores that develop into pollen grains which fly to the stigma of another flower, then start growing (germinate), extending a pollen tube down the style to the ovary, penetrating the micropyle pore into the ovary. Meanwhile, the ovules in the ovary have made the embryo sac, made of the egg and a couple other cells.

Output: Describe the life cycle of an angiosperm from maturation to just before fertilization.

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The pollen tube releases two sperm cells one of which fertilizes the egg, while the other fertilizes the main cell of the gametophyte, making the triploid endosperm (food supply). The seed then germinates and develops into a mature plant if conditions are right

Output: Describe the life cycle of an angiosperm from fertilization to maturation.

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: transfer of pollen from one individual to another

Output: What is cross-pollination?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: The carpels and stamens can develop at different times, or can be more strategically positioned (stamens below carpels).

Output: How do plants insure cross-pollination?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: seed leaves that develop and store food when the seed germinates, one if it's a monocot and two if it's a dicot

Output: What are cotyledons?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: maybe so that the food supply keeps up with the seed's germination, so food and development are not wasted

Output: Why double fertilization?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: the embryo, endosperm, sporangium, and seed coat (which comes from the integuments)

Output: What are the four components of an angiosperm seed?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: around 130 million years ago, taking over the world around 65 million years ago, marking the transition between the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras

Output: When did angiosperms emerge?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Angiosperms offered their fruit for the animals to eat in order to distribute its pollen far and wide.

Output: How have angiosperms and animals developed a mutualistic symbiosis?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Some target single species, but most go for taxonomic groups with desirable characteristics (like hummingbirds)

Output: How specific are angiosperms in attracting pollinators?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: We have developed technology to maximize plant yields, affecting the plants directly.

Output: What is special about humans' relationship with plants?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: angiosperms, including all fruits, vegetables and grains

Output: Where does almost all of our agriculture come from?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: slash-and-burn clearing for agriculture

Output: What is the most common cause of tropical rain forest destruction?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: 50 million acres per year, which would use it all up in 25 years

Output: At what rate is the tropical rainforest being cleared?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: hundreds of species per year

Output: Overall, how many species are going extinct due to loss of habitat yearly?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: atropine, digitalin, menthol, morphine, quinine, taxol, tubocurarine and vinblastine

Output: What are 8 secondary compounds of plants that we use as medicines?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Output: How many known plant species are there?


Input: around 2 dozen for almost all agriculture, and only 5k have been identified as potentially medicinally useful

Output: How many plant species do humans use?

Campbell: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants Flashcards - Cram.com

What three reproductive traits define seed plants?


Input: Serumal plaque because it uses oral derived and serum sources of Ca ions. The serumal is darker pigmented due to Heme

Output: What is another name for subgingival plaque?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: It is usually symmetrical. What you see on one side of the mouth is what you are likely to find on the other.

Output: What pattern does plaque follow?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: No. It is not the calculus, but the bacteria that are the irritants that lead to periodontal disease.

Output: Does calculus cause the irritation that leads to periodontal disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Mineralized plaque

Output: What is calculus?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Supra gingival from Ca ions in the saliva.

Output: Which type of plaque forms first?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Ca ions bind carboprotein complexes in plaque, then phosphates come out of saliva and CAPO4 moves from extracellular to intracellular. The calculus begins to form from the tooth side of the plaque and moves outward.

Output: How does calculus attach?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: ¾ is made up of Ca3PO4(2) (Calcium Phosphate)

Output: What is calculus made from?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Hydroxyapatite, Magnesium withlockite, octacalcium phosphate, and brushite.

Output: What are 4 types of Calcium phosphate from most common in calculus to least common?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: You start with CaPO4 saturation, then you get heterogeneous nucleation to form islands that coalesce and form rings with cyclical spacing. It grows in mass not like enamel with rods or prisms.

Output: How does calculus grow?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Near the apices. The calculus at the top just gives a history of past calculus formation

Output: Where is the advancing disease front of calculus formation?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: You should always start at the bottom and work up. The blood and fluids might make it very difficult to see what is going on if you wait.

Output: Where should you start when removing these calculus rings?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Cavitrons…we should use the heavy tips for the removal of these tenacious deposits.

Output: What one thing has improved dental treatments of calculus deposits more than any other?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: SRP to remove calculus.

Output: What is the most effective treatment for reducing inflammation associated with chronic periodontal disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Restorative Margins, Open contacts/food impaction, Pontic form, RPD design, Post-orthodontic problems, and root fractures.

Output: What are some possible iatrogenic issues?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Failure to wedge

Output: What can lead to overhangs in the margin on amalgam restorations?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: It is better to be undercontoured. Too large of a bulge can cause irritation

Output: Is it better to be over contoured or undercontoured?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: If there is no contact between the teeth and less than 1 mm/ slightly open contacts. If the space is more than 2mm then the food will exit laterally.

Output: What can cause food impaction?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Accelerated periodontal and carious lesions.

Output: What can food impaction cause?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: You could lengthen the contact point gingivally to cover the whole.

Output: What can be done to hide papillary recession on anterior teeth?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The rest seat. The clasping arrangement also dictates torque

Output: What is the most important key to distributing the stress correctly on an RPD?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: No. There is no cause and effect relationship.

Output: Does crowding cause periodontal disease or aid in its progression?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Root fracture.

Output: What might equal periodontal pockets located on opposite sides of a tooth root in a patient that doesn’t have pockets in the balance of the mouth suggest?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Build-up posts. We have to be careful when altering the stress loads in the teeth.

Output: What is a common cause of root fracture?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: soft tissue trauma (recession due to brushing), Bruxing, Clenching, factitious habits, medications, and chemical irritation.

Output: What are some habits that might affect periodontal status?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Clenching does. It is virtually bruxing without the movement.

Output: Does Clenching or Bruxing cause more periodontal issues?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The PDL gets wider.

Output: What happens to the PDL with occlusal trauma?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: No, but it can be accelerated if gum disease is already going on.

Output: Can occlusal trauma cause periodontal disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Floss notches and pipe chewer

Output: What are some examples of factitious habits?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 17 min per night compared with 2 min per day for a non-bruxer

Output: How long on average do bruxers have their teeth in contact?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Clenching

Output: Which has worse outcomes, Bruxing or clenching?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: A pre-existing gum disease is accelerated by occlusal trauma

Output: How does occlusal trauma affect perio disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Duration, direction, frequency and intensity of force

Output: What 4 things need to be controlled to solve occlusal related trauma?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Dilantin (anticonvulsants), Cyclosporine (Immunosuppressants), Calcium Channel Blockers (a class of antihypertensives)

Output: What medications cause gingival hyperplasia?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Smoking

Output: What is the largest single risk factor for periodontal disease?


Input: Decreased gingival blood flow, Cotinine and nicotine root contamination, Increased humoral destructive mediators, Cytotoxic to fibroblasts, Decreases chemotaxis of macrophages and PMNs, and Encourages growth of gram neg flora, some species more resistant to therapeutic control especially AA and B. Forsythus

Output: What are the effects of smoking?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Erosion of tooth roots or leave defects in bone upon removal

Output: What can unerupted teeth cause?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Areas that should be cementum but are enamel. 8-28% of teeth, most common in mand. 2nd molars, then max. 2nd molars

Output: What are enamel projections?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Home care issues when disease exposes the concavity of the root. Most common in max. 1st bicuspids on the mesial surfaces

Output: What kind of issue are root grooves?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Encourages food impaction and periodontitis development

Output: What effects do caries at proximal contacts have?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Bacteria accumulate and complicate perio health

Output: How does active caries influence gingival health?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: May interfere with normal oral hygiene, deflect gingival margin during function, receive traumatic injury or encourage food impaction

Output: What problems can occur with a misplaced frenum insertion?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Keratinized versus attached gingival

Output: What does the roll test check?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: No

Output: Can future outcome be predicted based on original diagnosis?


Input: Smokers, because of reduced blood flow

Output: What group of people have depressed clinical signs of disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Saliva and Gingival crevicular fluid

Output: What are the two mechanisms for defending gingival?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Cleanses exposed oral surfaces, buffers bacterial acids, and controls bacterial activity through lysozyme, lactoferrin, myeloperoxidase, IgA, Parotid Amylase, Antiproteases and glycoproteins

Output: What does saliva do?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Contains crevicular leukocytes (PMNs), has outward flow, and concentrates some antibiotics like tetracycline

Output: What are the characteristics of gingival crevicular fluid?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Initial lesion 2-4 days, Early lesion 4-7 days, and Established lesion 14-21 days

Output: What are the stages of gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: As an Advanced gingival lesion. This is confusing b/c periodontitis is defined as loss of attachment while gingivitis is confined to the gingival.

Output: What is periodontitis often referred to as?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Mostly subclinical , increased intercellular spacing but not ulceration, Edema from dilation and inflammation adjoining the vessel, chemically mediated bacterial destructuion by PMNs

Output: What are some characteristics of an initial lesion?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Loss of perivascular connective tissue

Output: What facilitates vessel widening in an initial lesion?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: GCF flow and edema

Output: What are the clinical signs of initial gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 6-12 days

Output: When is the maximum PMN migration?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Erythema, BOP, and ulceration

Output: What are the clinical signs of early gingival lesions?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Rete peg formation, vessel proliferation below epithelial attachment, pocket wall relaxes creating space between sulcus wall and tooth, immunological cells – PMNs, and T-lymphocytes in CT at basement membrane sulcular epithelium

Output: What are some characteristics of early lesions?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: GCF flow rate related to intensity of inflammation,

Output: What are the clinical signs fo established gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Bluish discoloration, glistening surface, loss of gingival adaption to the tooth, Plasma cells preponderant, B-lymphocytes, IgG components. Defensive cell lines rather than repair cell lines

Output: What are some characteristics of established gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: It becomes flaccid

Output: What happens to the gingival fiber apparatus as it is converted to a gelatinous mass of inflammatory cells?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: They may become fibrotic as collagen is being produced to wall off the lesion.

Output: What can happen to the CT of chronically inflamed gingival?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Flaccid tissues

Output: Which shrinks more with SRP flaccid or fibrotic?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Duration – acute, chronic, or recurrent. Area involved – Localized or generalized. Tissues involved – papillary, Marginal, or diffuse (inflammation extends to the mucogingival junction)

Output: How is gingival inflammation described?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Plaque control is poorer interproximally

Output: Why is most gingivitis first seen in the papillary area?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Gingivitis that has the involvement of the marginal gingival tissues, which includes the papillary tissues. So both papillary and marginal tissues are involved in marginal gingivitis

Output: What is marginal gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Only the papillary tissue not the marginal tissue

Output: What is involved in papillary gingivitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Inflammation involves the papilla, marginal tissues and extends through the attached gingival to the alveolar mucosa

Output: What is diffuse gingival inflammation?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: You might get impactioin of amalgam filings that were deposited during crown prep or heavy metals such as bismuth can be deposited during heavy drug use.

Output: What are two ways that you might see gingival pigmentation?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: More fibrous

Output: What type of gingival enlargement is characteristic of anticonvulsants?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: More mushy and flaccid.

Output: What type of gingival enlargement is associated with channel blockers or immunosuppressant drugs?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The severity of bleeding and the ease of provoking it.

Output: What can be used to gauge the intensity of inflammation in the gingival?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Calculus

Output: What might be the cause of bluish discoloration of the gingival adjacent the pocket?


Input: The gingival blood flow is slowed for about 4 hrs each time they smoke. This might cause gingival palor that might be mistaken for health.

Output: What happens to the gingival of smokers?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Not always.

Output: Do initial, early or established lesions progress to periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Attachment loss

Output: What differentiates gingivitis from periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: A pocket bleeds on probing and a sulcus doesn’t.

Output: What is the difference between a sulcus and a Pocket?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Coronal movement of the gingival margin without attachment loss.

Output: What is a gingival/psuedopocket?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Apical movement of the epithelial attachement due to the loss of the attachement apparatus.

Output: What is a periodontal pocket?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Pseudopockets/gingival pockets, Suprabony pockets (epithelial attachemt is coronal to crest of bone with horizontal bone loss), and Infrabony pockets (epithelial attachment is apical to the crest of the bone with vertical bone loss).

Output: What are the 3 types of pocket formation?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Gingival inflammation, epithelial attachement cells experience widening of cell to cell junctions, degeneration of gingival fibers apical to attachment, PMN’s invade coronal portion of attachment and at 60% volume the attachment detaches and sulcus deepens, and epithelial cells migrate apically.

Output: What steps of true pocket formation?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Calculus, attached plaque, unattached plaque, JE, Partially lysed CT fibers, and intact CT fibers.

Output: What are the subgingival zones in periodontal pockets coronal to apical?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: the Junctional Epithelium

Output: What zone to P gingivalis and AA generally reside in?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: No. It is site specific and occurs at different rates in different areas.

Output: Is chronic periodontis a generalized condition?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Quiescence, bacterial accumulation, emergence of leukocytes, leukocyte-bacterial interaction, epithelial desquamation, ulceration w/exposed CT, and areas of hemorrhage.

Output: What are 7 different areas with in the periodontal pocket?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The fusion of sulcular epithelium as it migrates laterally with the oral epithelium

Output: What process results in gum recession?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: It isn’t natural and is usually associated with soft tissue trauma from excessive brushing or from infection.

Output: What causes gingival recession?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Bacteria found on the roots, Bacteria can penetrate the cementum, bacterial growth lead to breakdown of cementum surface and necrotic cementum, bacteria produce endotoxins that produce root toxicity that is antigenic to the soft tissues and so recession can occur.

Output: What are the cemental changes associated with periodontal disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: SRP and surgical exposure. The cavitron can remove 90% of the bacteria.

Output: What is the primary treatment to remove the bacteria laden cementum?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Pocket depth

Output: What is used as a gauge for required therapy?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Attachement level

Output: What dictates the prognosis of periodontal disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Usually about 1 mm.

Output: What is the normal distance between the apical end of the JE and the alveolar bone?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: It follows the vaculature via the interdentinal artery or the supraperiosteal.

Output: What path does the gingival inflammation take?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Demineralization of alveolar crest

Output: How is the biological width maintained when the JE moves apically?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Cell mediated(osteoclast induction), non-cell mediated (chemical), Negative bone balance(osteopenia, osteoporosis), and direct bacterial induction

Output: What are the 4 types of bone loss?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: A radius of 2.5 mm or more.

Output: How far away will plaque have an effect?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 8% had rapid progression, 81% had moderate progression, and 11% had minimal or no progression.

Output: In the study of tea laborers how many had rapid progression of periodontal disease and how many didn’t?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: .2mm facially and .3 mm proximally.

Output: What is the normal rate of bon loss per year facially and proximally if disease is untreated?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The osseous crater.

Output: What is the most common defect in chronic periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 3 wall, 2 wall, and 1 wall.

Output: What are the 3 types of vertical osseos defects/craters?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Max 2nd molars, mandibular 2nd molars, Max First molars, Mand 1st molars, Max lateral and Mand central incisors and then maxillary first bicuspids.

Output: Which teeth are lost first most often?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: K9’s and 2nd premolars.

Output: Which teeth are often left as the lone ones in the mouth?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Supra and subgingival plaque, Marginal inflammation, Pocket formation, Recessiion, Bone loss (crater initially), attachement loss, and site specific.

Output: What are the 7 characteristics of chronic periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Trends in attachment levels in untreated subjects over a years time. 83.8% of sights didn’t change. 5.7% of sites significantly deeper. 11.5% of sites became significantly shallower. Results suggest a dynamic condition of disease exacerbation and remission as well as periods of inactivity may be characteristic of periodontal disease

Output: What did the goodson et. al. study in 1982 look at?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Chronic progression (site specific), Asynchronus burst (rits both chronic and aggressive disease), Synchronus burst (true of more aggressive disease)

Output: What are the different progression models?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Generalized and localized

Output: What are the classifications of aggressive periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Onset under 30 yrs, otherwise clinically healthy pt, rapid attachment loss and bone destruction, amount of micerobial deposits inconsistent with chronic disease severity, alterations in host’s immune response, familial aggregation of diseased individuals, predilection for black and Mediterranean races, incidence .1-.5%

Output: What are the characteristics of aggressive periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Sites infected with AA, Abnormalities in phagocyte function, hyperresponsive macrophages, producing increased PGE2 and IL-1B, in some cases, self-arresting disease progression

Output: What are common but not universal characteristics of aggressive periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 1923 – Gottlib “cementopathis, 1938 – Wannamacher “parodontitis marginalis progressive” “periodontosis”, 1967 – Chaput “juvenile periodontitis” 1971 – Baer disease seen around 1st molar, 1989 – World workshop “localized juvenile periodontitis” on of several “early onset periodontitis”, 1999 – International Workshop on periodontal Nomenlature “localized aggressive periodontitis

Output: How has terminology of localized aggressive periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Circumpubertal onset of disease, localized 1st molar or incisor disease with proximal attachment loss on at least two permanent teeth, one of which is a first molar, robust serum antibody response to infecting agent, strong relationship with AA, organisms are found in CT instead of an organized biofilm

Output: How does aggressive periodontitis present?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 1. Distolabial migration of the max incisors with concomitant diastema formation 2. Increasing mobility of the 1st molars 3. Sensitivity of denuded root surfaces to thermal and tactile stimuli 4. Deep, dull, radiating pain during mastication, probably because of irritation of the supporting structures 5. Periodontal abscesses may form 6 regional lymph node enlargement may occur

Output: What findings are seen in advancing disease?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: 1. Opsonic Antibodies limit infection by enhancing cellular destruction of AA 2. Bacterial competitive inhibition reduces AA site infection 3. AA loses its leukotoxin production capability as it replicates (reason unknown) 4. Cemental formation defect facilitates breakdown but is limited to only certain teeth

Output: What are possible disease limiting factors?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Affects persons under 30, attachment loss affecting at least three teeth other than 1st molars and incisors, pronounced episodic nature of periodontal destruction, poor serum antibody resoponse to infecting agents, may be autoimmune related, intensified by smoking, bone loss of 25-69% can occur in as little as 9 weeks

Output: What are characteristics of generalized aggressive periodontitis?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Severe acutely inflamed tissue often proliferating ulcerated and fiery red, bleeding may occur spontaneously or with slight stimulation. Suppuration may be an important feature. AA, P. Gingivalis, T. Forsythus singly or mixed infection.

Output: What does an active generalized aggressive periodontitis infection look like?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Gingival tissues appear pink, free of inflammationand occasionally with some degree of stippling. Despite mild clinical appearance, deep pockets can be demonstrated by probing

Output: What does the quiescent phase of generalized aggressive periodontitis look like?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: Otitis media, upper respiratory disease, prepubertal periodontitis

Output: What three diseases are develop with genetic leukocyte adhesion defects?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: The severity of immunological defects

Output: In prepubertal aggressive periodontitis what usually parallels the degree of disease, localized or generalized?

What is the difference between coaggrigation and adherence?


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define the Right/Obligatory:

Output: These are any and all actions that one morally must preform, and if one does not preform these actions, then one is morally wrong. -moral duties -ought or should do

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define the Wrong

Output: Action that one must NOT preform, and if one does fail to fulfill his or her moral duty.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define The Good

Output: Things whoes existence or occurrence by itself makes the universe better

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define The Bad

Output: Things whose existence or occurrence by itself makes the universe worse

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define The Supererogatory

Output: Actions that you ought or is moreally best to do but are not obligated to perform.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define The Normative Reasons

Output: Consideration that morally count in favor of an action, but do not guarantee that the action is right or supererogatory.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define The Blameworthy

Output: Actiosn that make on subject to moral blame, but it needn't be morally wrong.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define the Praiseworthy

Output: Actiosn that make one subejct to moral praise.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define A Moral/Human Right

Output: being a moral right to a certain kind of treatment if and only if others are generally obligated to treat that individual that way even if treating them that way does not have the best consequences

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define Actions subject to Force, Saction or Prior Restraint

Output: actions we(or a government) are morally premitted to actively prevent or discourage

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define Ethical Theories

Output: it tells us which types of actions are right and wrong

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define Teleological Theories

Output: it focuses on consequences. A theory is teleological if and only if the rightness or the wrongness of actions always depends in some way on the effects of the action. EX -ethical egoism -Consequentialism

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define Deontological Theories

Output: focus on aspects other than the consequences. It may focus on the motive of action, type of action, or whether the actions was commanded by God. -Ethical Subjectivism -Divine Command Theory -Agent-Relative Cultural Relativism -Any Ten Commandment type view

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: [Define Moral Agent] Define Hybrid View

Output: have a mix of teleological and Deontological theories. - an action is right if and only if it maximizes pleasure over pain and does not violate anyone's moral rights - an action is right if it follows a set of social rules and if this set would maximize happiness better than anyother set.

Anyone who moral rules apply to. -able to deliberation rationally about the future/actions -anyone that we can claim that can do the right thing


Input: The acid base imbalance of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis is called? [Buffer system]

Output: Metabolic acidosis


Input: Your COPD patient has an acute exacerbation of the disease-- the acid base imbalance is? [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: A pt. is in pain and is anxious from an accident. The acid base imbalance is? [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory alkalosis


Input: A client has been taking extra lasix for bloating. The acid base imbalance is? [Buffer system]

Output: Metabolic alkalosis


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.25, pCo2 54, HCO3 24, pO2 84 [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.50, pCo2 28, HCO3 24, pO2 70 [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory Alkalosis


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.19, pCo2 35, HCO3 26, pO2 85 [Buffer system]

Output: Impossible


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.50, pCo2 40, HCO3 30, pO2 90 [Buffer system]

Output: Metabolic Alkalosis


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.35, pCo2 50, HCO3 30, pO2 60 [Buffer system]

Output: Compensation


Input: Interpret the ABG: ph 7.38, pCo2 30, HCO3 18, pO2 75 [Buffer system]

Output: Compensation


Input: A substance that can add or remove free hydrogen ions to or from a solution so as to maintain nearly normal ph is called? [Buffer system]

Output: Buffer


Input: The main buffer system in the body is? [Buffer system]

Output: The bicarbonate acid buffer system


Input: The system most critically affected ( can cause death) by severe abnormalities in potassium balance is? [Buffer system]

Output: The cardiovascular system


Input: Acidosis that results from respiratory dysfunction is called? [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: Chronic obstructive lung disease is a primary cause of? [Buffer system]

Output: Respiratory acidosis


Input: Compensation for respiratory acidosis would result in plasma bicarbonate levels: [Buffer system]

Output: Greater than 28/ mEq/L (higher than normal)


Input: Diabetes mellitus is a primary cause of? [Buffer system]

Output: Metabolic acidosis


Input: Compensation for metabolic alkalosis would result in plasma carbon dioxide levels? [Buffer system]

Output: Greater than 45mm Hg ( higher than normal)


Input: What happens to the money that Courts receive as a result of the fines charged against a defendant? [Circuit Court]

Output: Fines collected in circuit court for the violation of State laws are transferred to the State Treasury where they are deposited in the Literary Fund.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the four reasons that you would appear in court? [Circuit Court]

Output: • You are a plaintiff because you filed a civil suit • You are a complainant because you have caused criminal charges to be brought against someone • You are a defendant because someone is suing you or you have been charged with a traffic violation or a criminal offense • You are a witness who has been called to testify

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If you are indigent, what procedure will a Virginia judge go through to provide you with an attorney? [Circuit Court]

Output: The judge will examine your financial status, and based on the results and your financial statement under oath the judge may assign an attorney to represent you.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What two types of civil suits may the Virginia District Court hear? [Circuit Court]

Output: Civil suits involving amounts of money up to $15,000. Unlawful detainer (eviction) suits that include a request for rent can be heard by the General District Court if the amount of rent requested is more than $15,000.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are misdemeanors and which court handles them? [Circuit Court]

Output: A misdemeanor is any charge which carries a penalty of no more than one year in jail or a fine of up to $2,500 or both. The General District Court decides cases in which a person is charged with a misdemeanor.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What jurisdiction does a General District Court have in regards to felonies and why? [Circuit Court]

Output: The General District Court holds preliminary hearings in felony cases. Preliminary hearings in felony cases are held to determine whether there is enough evidence to justify holding the defendant for a grand jury hearing.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If you are found guilty of a crime in Virginia, how must you satisfy your sentence? (four answers) [Circuit Court]

Output: • Paying the fines and court costs in full to the clerk of the court if so ordered by the judge. • Surrendering your driver’s license to the clerk if so ordered by the judge. • Serving time in jail if so ordered by the judge. • Comply with alternative sentence as ordered by the judge.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A civil suit for less than $4, 500 would be heard in what court? [Circuit Court]

Output: General District Court

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A civil suit for damages in excess of $15,000 would be heard in what court? [Circuit Court]

Output: Circuit Court

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Under what grounds would a District judge send a civil suit to the Circuit Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: If the civil suit is for damages over $15,000

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What must you do to appeal your case to a Circuit Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: You must file a notice of appeal with the clerk of the General District Court within 10 days after the judgment or conviction by the General District Court.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Over what situations does the Circuit Court have exclusive jurisdiction? [Circuit Court]

Output: Criminal felonies and civil cases involving more than $15,000

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What type of cases does the Circuit Court share with District Courts? [Circuit Court]

Output: Civil cases involving between $4,500 and $15,000

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What type of cases do Juvenile and Domestic Relations handle? [Circuit Court]

Output: Delinquents, juveniles accused of traffic violations, children in need of services, children in need of supervision, children who have been subjected to abuse or neglect, family or household members who have been subjected to abuse, adults accused of child abuse or neglect, or of offenses against members of their own family, adults involved in disputes concerning the support, visitation, parentage, or custody of a child, abandonment of children, foster care and entrustment agreements, court-ordered rehabilitation services, and court consent for certain medical treatments

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is meant by the statement -“The Circuit Court is the trial court of general jurisdiction in Virginia?” [Circuit Court]

Output: The court has the authority to try a full range of cases both civil and criminal.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the tenure of Circuit Court judge and how is he/she selected? [Circuit Court]

Output: Elected for an 8 year term by a majority vote of both houses of the General Assembly

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How is the Clerk of the Circuit Selected and what is the clerk’s responsibility? [Circuit Court]

Output: The clerk is elected to an 8 year term by the voters of the locality. The clerk handles administrative matters for the court and also has authority to probate wills, grand administration of estates, and appoint guardians.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Over what type of cases does the Circuit Court share concurrent jurisdiction with the District Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: Civil cases

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the Circuit Court’s jurisdiction in criminal cases? [Circuit Court]

Output: In criminal cases, the circuit court has jurisdiction over the trial of all felonies and of those misdemeanors originally charged in the circuit court.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What jurisdiction does the Circuit Court have over juveniles over 14? [Circuit Court]

Output: The circuit court has jurisdiction over juveniles age 14 and older who are charged with felonies and whose cases have been certified or transferred by the judge of a juvenile and domestic relations district court for trial in a circuit court.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the appellate jurisdiction of the Circuit Courts of Virginia? [Circuit Court]

Output: The circuit court has appellate jurisdiction over all appeals from general district court in civil and criminal cases and from juvenile and domestic relations district court in matters originating in that court.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are two purposes for convening a regular grand jury? [Circuit Court]

Output: To consider indictments prepared by the Commonwealth’s Attorney and to investigate and report concerning any condition which involves or tends to promote criminal activity

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What does a grand jury do? [Circuit Court]

Output: The grand jury hears only the Commonwealth’s side of the case and does not determine the guilt or innocence of the accused.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A special grand jury may be empanelled by the Circuit Court for what two reasons? [Circuit Court]

Output: A special grand jury may be empanelled by the circuit court at any time upon the court’s own motivation or upon the recommendation of a minority of the members of a regular grand jury.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In regards to jury selection, what must the venire reflect? [Circuit Court]

Output: The venire must reflect the composition of the community as a whole and may not be discriminatory by race, color, creed, or sex.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the grounds for a change of venue? [Circuit Court]

Output: If the trial judge believes that an impartial jury panel cannot be obtained locally, he may order a change of venue.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If venue is granted, what happens? [Circuit Court]

Output: In a change of venue, the entire case is transferred to another jurisdiction within the Commonwealth and tried therein.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 29. What rule governs appeals from the Circuit Court in regards to: A. Death penalty and disbarment? [Circuit Court]

Output: Death penalty and disbarment are appealed to the Supreme Court

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 29. What rule governs appeals from the Circuit Court in regards to: B. Traffic infractions, criminal (not death penalty) and domestic relations cases? [Circuit Court]

Output: Traffic infractions, criminal and domestic relations cases are appealed to the Court of Appeals.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Why was the Court of Appeals of Virginia created? [Circuit Court]

Output: It was created in order to increase the appellate capacity of the court system and expedite the appellate process.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What does it mean to say that the Court of Appeals sits in panels? [Circuit Court]

Output: The Court of Appeals sits in panels of at least three judges. The chief judge assigns judges to the panels and rotates the composition of the panels in order to promote homogeneity of case law and to prevent regionalization of the appellate court system. Each panel independently hears and determines petitions for appeal, appeals granted, and the other cases assigned to the panel.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Under what circumstances would the Court of Appeals sit en banc? [Circuit Court]

Output: • Where there is a dissent in a panel to which a case was originally assigned and an aggrieved party requests an en banc hearing and at least three other judges of the Court vote in favor of such a hearing • If a judge of a panel certifies that a decision of that panel conflicts with a previous decision of the Court or of any panel and three other judges agree • In any case in which a majority of the Court, upon its own motion, determines it is appropriate to sit en banc

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Appeals to the Court of Appeals come as a matter of right from what type of cases? [Circuit Court]

Output: • any final judgment, order, or decree of a circuit court involving affimrance or annulment of a marriage, divorce, custody, spousal or child support, or control or disposition of a child, as well as other domestic relations cases • any final decision of the Virginia Workers’ Compensation Commission • any final decision of a circuit court on appeal from a decision of an administrative agency • any interlocutory order granting, dissolving, or denying an injunction or adjudicating the principles of a cause in any of the cases listed above

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The Court of Appeals has authority to consider petitions of appeal from what types of cases? [Circuit Court]

Output: • Final orders of conviction in criminal and traffic matters except where a death penalty is imposed • Final decisions of a circuit court on an application for a concealed weapons permit • Certain preliminary rulings in felony cases when requested by the Commonwealth

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The Court of Appeals has original jurisdiction to issue what type of writs? [Circuit Court]

Output: The Court of Appeals has original jurisdiction to issue writs of mandamus, prohibition, and habeas corpus in any case over which the Court would have appellate jurisdiction. Also, it has original jurisdiction to issue a writ of actual innocence.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Decisions from the Court of Appeals are final in what cases? [Circuit Court]

Output: When the Court of Appeals has rejected a petition for appeal, dismissed an appeal, or decided on an appeal, its decision is final, without appeal to the Supreme Court in the following cases: Traffic infraction and misdemeanor cases where no incarceration is imposed, cases originating before any administrative agency or the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission, and cases involving affirmance or annulment of a marriage, divorce, custody, spousal or child support, cases involving the control or disposition of a juvenile, and all other domestic relations matters.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Upon what grounds may a petition for review be used to send a case from the Court of Appeals to the Virginia Supreme Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: Each petition for appeal in a criminal case is referred to a judge of the Court for review to determine if an appeal should be awarded. The judge may grant the petition for appeal in whole or part. An appellant may request a panel of three judges of the Court of Appeals to review a petition for appeal that was denied, either in whole, or part, by the judge who initially reviewed the petition. As long as oral argument was preserved in the petition for appeal and a reply brief was not filed, the appellant may present oral argument on the petition for appeal before a panel of three judges.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the primary function of the Virginia Supreme Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: To review decisions of lower courts, including the Court of Appeals

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What three types of cases have an automatic right of appeal to the Virginia Supreme Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: Cases involving the State Corporation Commission, the disbarment of an attorney, and review of the death penalty

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is original jurisdiction of the Virginia Supreme Court? [Circuit Court]

Output: The Court’s original jurisdiction is limited to cases of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, and writs of actual innocence.

Virginia Legal System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Relaxation period] Latent period

Output: Which period of the simple twitch has the shortest elapsed time?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] No, because every muscle has its own threshold level.

Output: Do the three periods of the simple twitch last the same amount of time in all skeletal muscles of the human body? Why or why not?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] Relaxation is the slower process.

Output: Compare the elapsed times for the contraction period and the relaxation period. Which is a slower process?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] Treppe

Output: What is also known as the "loosening up phenomenon"?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] The connective tissue that surrounds elements of the muscle

Output: What aspect of skeletal muscle represents the elastic component?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] There are more interaction sites (binding sites).

Output: What effect does stretching the gastrocnemius muscle have on availability of actin and myosin binding sites?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] It's normally in a stretched position due to its attachment.

Output: How does the length of a skeletal muscle compare to its points of attachment in the body?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] More work is done due to the starting stretched position.

Output: How does this fact relate to the length-tension relationship?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] When you stretch one muscle, the opposite muscle will contract. There are opposite effects.

Output: How does the length-tension relationship relate to the arrangement of anatomical muscles in the body as antagonistic pairs?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] Increased contractions caused by not letting the muscle relax

Output: Describe summation and what causes this phenomenon?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] The body is being depleted of the elements it needs to contract, i.e. ATP and calcium. Also, lactic acid builds up. Simply, it is called fatigue.

Output: What causes contracture?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [Relaxation period] Downward trend of work done by the muscle. It is more commonly called fatigue.

Output: What does the term contracture refer to in terms of muscle contraction?

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com

Which period of the simple twitch has the longest elapsed time?


Input: [sole proprietorship] Proprietorship

Output: A business owned by one person

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Unlimited Liability

Output: requirement that an owner is personally and fully responsible for all losses and debts of a business; applies to proprietorships, general partnerships.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Inventory

Output: stocks of goods held in reserve; includes finished goods waiting to be sold and raw materials to be used in production

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] limited life

Output: situation in which a firm legally ceases to exist when an owner dies, quits, or a new owner is added; applies to sole proprietorships and partnerships.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Partnership

Output: unincorporated business owned and operated by two or more people who share the profits and have unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of the firm; same as general partnerships

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Limited Partnership

Output: Form of partnership where one or more partners are not active in the daily running of the business, and whose liability for the partnership's debt is restricted to the amount invested in the business.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Bankruptcy

Output: Court-granted permission to an individual or business to cease or delay payment on some or all debts for a limited amount of time.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Corporation

Output: form of business organization recognized by law as a separate legal entity with all the rights and responsibilities of an individual, including the right to buy and sell property, enter into legal contracts, sue and be sued.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Charter

Output: written government approval to establish a corporation; includes company name, address, purpose of business, number of shares of stock, and other features of the business.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Stock

Output: certificate of ownership in a corporation; common or preferred stock

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Stockholder

Output: person who owns a share or shares of stock in a corporation; same as shareholders

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Shareholder

Output: person who owns a share of stocks in a corporation

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Dividend

Output: a check representing a portion of the corporate earnings to each stockholder

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Bond

Output: formal contract to repay borrowed money and interest on the borrowed money at regular future intervals

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Principal

Output: Amount borrowed when getting a loan or issuing a bond

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Interest

Output: payment made for the use of borrowed money; usually paid at periodic intervals for long-term bonds or loans

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [sole proprietorship] Double Taxation

Output: feature of taxation that allows stockholders' dividends to be taxed both as corporate profit and as personal income.

Economics Ch.3 Sec. 1 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

unincorporated business owned and run by a single person who has rights to all profits and unlimited liability for all debts of the firm; most common form of business organization in the United States.


Input: [Outputs] Pass/Fail Criteria

Output: Decision rules used to determine whether a software item or feature passes or fails a test.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Path Expressions

Output: A sequence of edges from the program graph that represents a path through the program.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Path Testing

Output: A test method satisfying the coverage criteria that each logical path through the program be tested. Often, paths through the program are grouped into a finite set of classes and one path from each class is tested.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Performance Test

Output: Validates that both the online response time and batch run times meet the defined performance requirements.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Performance/Timing Analyzer

Output: A tool to measure system performance.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Phase(or Stage)Containment

Output: A method of control put in place within each stage of the development process to promote error identification and resolution so that defects are not propagated downstream to subsequent stages of the development process. The verification, validation, and testing of work within the stage that it is created.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Policy

Output: Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes).

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Population Analysis

Output: Analyzes production data to identify, independent from the specifications, the types and frequency of data that the system will have to process/produce. This verifies that the specs can handle types and frequency of actual data and can be used to create validation tests.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Procedure

Output: The step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: [Outputs] Process

Output: The work effort that produces a product. This includes efforts of people and equipment guided by policies, standards, and procedures. The process or set of processes used by an organization or project to plan, manage, execute, monitor, control, and improve its software related activities. A set of activities and tasks. A statement of purpose and an essential set of practices (activities) that address that purpose.

CSTE Week 2 Vocabulary Page A9 (CBOK v6.2) Flashcards - Cram.com

Products, services, or information supplied to meet customer needs.


Input: a judgement against a borrower if the foreclosure sale does not bring enough to pay the balance owed [accelaration clause]

Output: deficiency judgement

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the mortage loan with highest priority for repayment in the event of foreclosure [accelaration clause]

Output: first mortage

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the procedure by which a persons property can be taken and sold to satisfy unpaid debt [accelaration clause]

Output: foreclosure

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: any mortage on a property that is subordinate to the first mortage priority [accelaration clause]

Output: junior mortage

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a document tht makes property security for the repayment of debt [accelaration clause]

Output: mortage

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the party receiving the mortage, THE lender [accelaration clause]

Output: mortagee

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: allows a mortgagee to conduct a foreclosure sale without first going to court [accelaration clause]

Output: power of sale

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A written promise to repay debt [accelaration clause]

Output: promissory note

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: voluntary acceptance of a lower mortage priority than one would otherwise be entitled to. [accelaration clause]

Output: subordinate

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: perso who is loaning money [accelaration clause]

Output: obligee

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: person who is paying off loan [accelaration clause]

Output: obligor

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: to pay taxes, removal of items, carry insurance, keep in good repair [accelaration clause]

Output: covenants

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: releasing part of the property from mortage since it has been paid off by the buyer [accelaration clause]

Output: partial release

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: buyer states that he is aware of the existence of a loan and the mortage that secures it, but takes no personal liability to it. [accelaration clause]

Output: "subject to "

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: releases seller from personal obligation created by promissory note, the lender can now only require only the buyer to repay the loan [accelaration clause]

Output: novation

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: to stop up, were the amount is asked to verify what is owed and the rate of interest [accelaration clause]

Output: estoppel

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: property that is free and clear of mortage debt; senior mortage [accelaration clause]

Output: first mortage

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the following mortage; junior mortage [accelaration clause]

Output: second mortage

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: gives lender power to conduct foreclosure and sell the mortage property without taking the issue to court [accelaration clause]

Output: power of sale

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: establishes the lenders rights to take possesion and collect rents in the event of loan default [accelaration clause]

Output: assignment of rents

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one for whose beneit a trust is created the in a deed of trust arrangement [accelaration clause]

Output: beneficiary

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a document that conveys legal title to a nuetral third party as security for a debt [accelaration clause]

Output: deed of trust

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: title that lacks rights and priveleges usually associated with ownership [accelaration clause]

Output: naked title

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a document used to reconvey title from the trustee back to the property ower once the debt hasbeen paid [accelaration clause]

Output: reconveyance of release deed

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one who holds property in trust for another [accelaration clause]

Output: trustee

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one who creates a trust, the borrower in a deed of trust arrangements [accelaration clause]

Output: trustor

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: trustor [accelaration clause]

Output: borrower

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: beneficiary [accelaration clause]

Output: lender

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: trustee [accelaration clause]

Output: nuetral 3rd party

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a loan requiring periodic payments that include both interest and partial repayment principal [accelaration clause]

Output: amortized loan

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: any loan in which the final payment is larger thann the preceding payment [accelaration clause]

Output: balloon loan

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: real estate loans that are not insured by the FHA or guaranteed by the VA [accelaration clause]

Output: conventional loans

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the market value of a property less the debt against it. [accelaration clause]

Output: equity

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ffederal housing admins. (insurance programs) [accelaration clause]

Output: fha

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an account into which the lender places monthly tax and insurance payments [accelaration clause]

Output: impound or reserve account

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the expenses a lender incurs in processing a mortage loan [accelaration clause]

Output: loan origination fee

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a percentage reflecting what a lender will lend divided by the sale price or market value of the property whichever is less. [accelaration clause]

Output: loan to value ratio

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the end of the life of a loan [accelaration clause]

Output: maturity

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a loan payment that combines principal, interest, taxes, and insurance [accelaration clause]

Output: PITI payment

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a loan that requires only interest paymennts untils the last day of life at which full amount is due [accelaration clause]

Output: term loan

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: used mostly in the US today and are not common elsewhere. [accelaration clause]

Output: amortized loans

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: amortized loan because the borrower begins paying off the principal along wit hsome of the interest thus making the percentage of the loan APR decrease because of the decrease in size of the principal amount due. [accelaration clause]

Output: which is better term loan or amortized loan?

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: points charged to raise the lenders monetary return on a loan [accelaration clause]

Output: discount points

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: requires that a borrower be clearly shown before committing to a loan how much being paid for credit in both dollars and percentage terms [accelaration clause]

Output: truth in lending act

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the annual percentage rate calculated under the truth in lending act [accelaration clause]

Output: APR

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a report reflecting the creditworthiness of a borrower by showing past credit history [accelaration clause]

Output: credit report

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: federal lawgiving an individual the right to inspect his or her file with the credit buereau and correct any errors. [accelaration clause]

Output: fair credit reporting act

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the total amount the credit will cost over the life of the loann [accelaration clause]

Output: finance charge

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: asset that is in cash or is readily convertible into cash [accelaration clause]

Output: liquid asset

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a lenders refusal to make loans in certain neighborhoods [accelaration clause]

Output: redlining

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: federal regulations that implement the enforcement of the truth in lending act [accelaration clause]

Output: regulation Z

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a federal law that requires certain disclosures when extending or advertising credit [accelaration clause]

Output: trust in lending act

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: right to cancel credit transaction within 3 days which includes saturdays to back out of signing loan paper s [accelaration clause]

Output: right to riscission

chapter 3 study guide (marketing) Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: aveage kinetic energy [Gas pressure]

Output: Temperature

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: boiling point of a liquid at a pressure [Gas pressure]

Output: Normal boiling point

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: change of a substance from a solid of a gas of vapor without passing through the liquid state [Gas pressure]

Output: subimation

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: solid that lackan oldred internal sturutrance [Gas pressure]

Output: amorphous solid

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the only condictions at witch all three pleasea [Gas pressure]

Output: triple point

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: two aor more diffirent moleculer forms of the same element in the same physical state [Gas pressure]

Output: allotrope

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: energy of motion [Gas pressure]

Output: kinetic energy

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an instrument used to meeasure used to measure atmapheric pressure [Gas pressure]

Output: barometers

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: empty space . a volume with no mass [Gas pressure]

Output: vacuum

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: give an example of an allotope [Gas pressure]

Output: diamond

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: any phase change from liquid to gas [Gas pressure]

Output: vaporization

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: give one example of an amorphous solid [Gas pressure]

Output: glasses

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ossurs when the liquid turns to a gas on the surface of the liquid only [Gas pressure]

Output: evaporation

Chemistry newwwwww Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: is the smallest repealling in a crystall . it is the smallest group of crystall that retains the shape of the crystall [Gas pressure]

Output: unit cell

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Input: aphase change from gas to liquid [Gas pressure]

Output: condensation

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Input: the pressure caused by the vaporized particals of a liquid above the liquid in a sealed and measured at dynamic equilibrium [Gas pressure]

Output: vapor pressure

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Input: a soild with a regular repeating pattern [Gas pressure]

Output: crystall

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