Input: What Modigliani and Miller Prop 1 essentially states [whats capital structure]

Output: the combined value of equity and debt claims does not change when you change the capital structure of the firm if no one other than the stockholders and the debt holders are receiving cash flows

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Input: a combination of financial transactions that occur to change the capital structure of the firm without affecting its real assets [whats capital structure]

Output: financial reconstructing

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Input: the cost of a firms (required return on) common stock is directly related to the debt-to-equity ratio [whats capital structure]

Output: Modigliani and Miller Prop 2 states:

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Input: exactly where we should look if we want to understand how capital structure affects firm value and cost of equity [whats capital structure]

Output: the value of the Modigliani and Miller analysis is that it tells us:

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Input: 1. taxes matter 2. information and transaction costs matter 3. capital structure choices affect a firm's real investment policy [whats capital structure]

Output: if financial policy matters it is because of three things

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Input: firms can deduct interest payments for tax purposes but cannot deduct dividend payments [whats capital structure]

Output: a benefit from including debt in a firms capital structure is

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Input: 1. the firm will continue to be in business forever 2. the firm will be able to realize the tax savings in the years in which the interest payments are made 3. the firms tax rate will remain constant [whats capital structure]

Output: the perpetuity model assumes that:

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Input: to focus on maximizing the cash flows that the firm produces since interest and principal payments must be made when they are due [whats capital structure]

Output: debt incentivizes managers

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Input: just to the point at which the value of the firm is maximized [whats capital structure]

Output: financial managers want to add debt:

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Input: costs of financial distress [whats capital structure]

Output: bankruptcy costs are also called

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Input: associated with financial difficulties that firm might get into because it uses too much debt financing [whats capital structure]

Output: bankruptcy costs are costs

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Input: even if they never actually file for bankruptcy [whats capital structure]

Output: firms can incur bankruptcy costs

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Input: are out-of-pocket costs that a firm incurs as a result of financial distress includes fees paid to lawyers, accountants, and consultants [whats capital structure]

Output: Direct Bankruptcy Costs

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Input: are costs associated with changes in the behavior of people who deal with a firm in financial distress [whats capital structure]

Output: Indirect Bankruptcy Costs

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Input: 1. concerns that the firm will not be able to honor its warranties 2. parts or service will not be available in the future [whats capital structure]

Output: some of a firm's (who is undergoing bankruptcy costs) potential customers will decide to purchase a competitor's products because of:

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Input: demand a lower price to compensate for the risk [whats capital structure]

Output: for firms in debt investors:

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Input: result from conflicts of interest between principals and agents. principal entrusts/delegates its decision making authority to an agent [whats capital structure]

Output: agency costs

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Input: act in the interest of the principal, but sometimes agents have interest conflicts with principals [whats capital structure]

Output: agents are expected to

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Input: the extent of the incentives of the managers are not perfectly identical to those of the stockholders, so managers will make some decisions that benefit themselves at the expense of the stockholders [whats capital structure]

Output: Stockholder-Manager Agency Costs

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Input: reduce it because it incentivizes managers to max cash flow that the firm produces and limits the ability of bad managers wasting money on negative NPV projects [whats capital structure]

Output: debt financing can do what to agency costs?

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Input: altering the behavior of managers who have high proportion of their wealth riding on the success of the firm, through their stock holdings, future income, and reputations [whats capital structure]

Output: debt financing can also increase agency costs by:

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Input: the volatility of the firms earnings and probability that the firm will get into financial difficulty [whats capital structure]

Output: use of debt increases

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Input: investors lend money to a firm and delegate authority to stockholders to decide how that money will be used [whats capital structure]

Output: Stockholder-Lender Agency Costs

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Input: including provisions in the lending agreements that limit the ability of stockholders to pay dividends and conduct other behavior. isnt foolproof though. [whats capital structure]

Output: Lenders in a stockholder-lender agency agreement protect themselves agaisnt stockholders acting in their own self interest by

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Input: once a loan has been made to a firm, the stockholders have an incentive to substitute less risky assets for more risky assets such as negative NPV projects [whats capital structure]

Output: Asset substitution problem

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Input: occurs in a financially distressed firm when the value that is created by investing in a positive NPV project is likely to go to the lenders instead of the stockholders, therefore the firm forgoes financing and undertaking the project [whats capital structure]

Output: Underinvestment problem

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Input: managers choose a specific target capital structure based on the trade-offs between the benefits and the costs of debt. managers will increase debt to the point at which costs and benefits of adding an additional dollar of debt are exactly equal because this is the capital structure that maximizes the firm value [whats capital structure]

Output: Trade-off theory

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Input: different types of capital have different costs. managers choose the least expensive capital first then move to increasingly costly capital when the lower-cost sources of capital are no longer available [whats capital structure]

Output: Pecking Order Theory

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Input: cash on hand or internally generated funds debt is more costly to obtain than internally generated funds but is still relatively inexpensive [whats capital structure]

Output: cheapest source of capital (based on pecking order theory) then the second cheapest?

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Input: raising money by selling stock [whats capital structure]

Output: most expensive source of capital (based on pecking order theory)

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Input: supports the trade off theory [whats capital structure]

Output: when researchers compare the capital structures in different industries they find evidence that:

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Input: average, debt levels appear to be lower than [whats capital structure]

Output: some researchers argue that on _________ the trade off theory suggests they be

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Input: profitable; debt; trade-off theory [whats capital structure]

Output: the more ____a firm is the less ____ it tends to have, which is exactly the opposite of what _____ we should see

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Input: pecking order theory [whats capital structure]

Output: based on what theory do public firms, in an average year, actually repurchase more shares than they sell?

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Input: how managers choose the capital structure for their firms but neither is able to explain all of the capital structure choices we observe [whats capital structure]

Output: Pecking order theory and trade-off theory offer insights into:

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Input: financial flexibility [whats capital structure]

Output: ________ is an important consideration in many capital structure decisions

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Input: unexpected opportunities as well as unforeseen problems [whats capital structure]

Output: managers must make sure they retain sufficient financial resources in the firm to take advantage of:

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Input: [TRAUMA] ARTERIOVENOUS FISTULA

Output: Ischemic changes, aneurysm formation, HIGH OUTPUT CARDIAC FAILURE - name type of aneurysm

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Usually in ABDOMINAL aorta, located between renal arteries and iliac bifurcation

Output: Atherosclerotic aneurysm often occurs where?

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Berry aneurysm

Output: Congenital medial weakness at the bifurcations of cerebral arteries

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Circle of Willis

Output: Most common location for berry aneurysms

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Subarachnoid space

Output: Berry aneurysms usually hemorrhage where

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] HYPERTENSION Cystic medial necrosis MARFANS

Output: 3 most common causes for dissecting aneurysms

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Dissecting

Output: TEARING PAIN, longitudinal separation of tunica media of aortic wall - type of aneurysm

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Syphillitic

Output: Obliteration of vasa vasorum, necrosis of the media - type of aneurysm

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Involves ASCENDING aorta and aortic root, aortic valve insufficiency

Output: Syphyllitic aneurysm usually involves which vessels

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Mycotic (infectious)

Output: This type of aneurysm is caused by inflammation secondary to bacterial infection, usually salmonella - involves abdominal aorta

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Adult polycystic kidney disease - AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT disease gene is located on chromosome 16

Output: Which disease is associated commonly with berry aneurysms

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: [TRAUMA] Tertiary syphillis

Output: This disease is characterized by rashes, lymphadenopathy, CONDYLOMATA LATA, ARGYLL ROBERTSON PUPIL ( PUPILS CONSTRICT WITH ACCOMODATION BUT NOT WITH LIGHT), and aortic root aneurysms

Arteriovenous fistula - abnormal communication between arteries and veins is usually secondary to _ ?


Input: radial

Output: damage to the ..nerve results in wrist drop from putting pressure behind the arm

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: superorbital nerve

Output: forehead numbnes results from damage to the

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: lateral femoral cutaneous nerve with damage caused by pressure over anterior iliac crest in prone/lateral

Output: numbness of lateral aspect of thigh and knee results from damage to ..from..

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: femoral from pressure to groin of dependent leg in lateral position

Output: numbness of anterior thigh and medial aspect of lower leg is caused by damage to ..nerve from ..

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: peroneal from pressure below head of fibula

Output: foot drop is caused by damage to ..nerve from

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: esmarch pressure

Output: ankle nerve damage can result from

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: subtrachantric

Output: ...hip fractures have the most blood loss

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: subcapital

Output: ...hip fractures have the least blood loss


Input: improved post of analgesia decreased inc of ponv less resp and cardiac depression improved perfusion because of symp nervous sys block decreased intraop blood loss blood flow distribution to large caliber vessels locally decreased venous pressure decreaed blood pressure

Output: advantages of regional vs. general anes for ortho

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: within 48 hrs

Output: succ can be given w.in...hrs of spinal cord injury

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: loss of vaconstriction

Output: ....below the level of spinal cord transection causes patients to become poikilothermic

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: hyperventilation

Output: an important component of anes. managment is preservation of spinal cord blood flow.....should be avoided

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 85% with cord transection above T5

Output: autonomic hyperreflexia occurs in ...% of patients with cord transection above

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: paroxysmal hypertension with bradycardia

Output: the baroreceptor reflex associated with Ahyperreflexia is

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: cutanous vasoconstriction below and vasodilation above the level of transection

Output: chacterisitic of autonomic hyper reflexia is cutanous...below and ...above the level of transection

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: rotating the head toward the abducted arm

Output: brachial plexus injury can be avoided during prone positioning by

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: prone position

Output: cervical laminectomy is most performed with patients in the

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Output: incidence of parapalegia is... with scoliosis correction


Input: dorsal supplied by the posterior spinal artery

Output: somatosensory evoked potentials reflect...of the spinal cord supplied by

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: motor supplied by anterior spinal artery

Output: motor evoked potentials reflect the...pathways supplied by

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: unexplained hypotension and an increase in end tidal nitrogen concentration

Output: signs of venous air embolus

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: note

Output: prolonged anesthesia in the upper extremity prevents/not discharge


Input: supraclavicular, 6-12 hrs.

Output: ..block introduces the possiblility of a pneumothorax which presents ..hrs after dc

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Output: there is a...% pulmonary function loss w an intrascalne block


Input: brachial plexus, axillary approach

Output: a ..block is used most often for hand surgery

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: cords

Output: level of blockade of the infraclavicular block


Input: supraclavicular

Output: ..block is unsuitable for office procedures

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: interscalene, supraclavicular

Output: ..blocks lead to phrenic nerve paralysis

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: interscalene

Output: ..blocks can be used for shoulders

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 12 -18 hrs

Output: duration of a femoral block is

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 100 mm HG for LE, 50 mm HG for UE

Output: tourniquets to prevent bleeding should be ..above for legs and..above for UE

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 12 to 40

Output: clinical lab symp for fat embolus occu ..hrs after injury

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: axillary of subconjuctival petichae hypoxemia cns depression pulmonary edema

Output: major fat embolus symptoms are

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Output: INR target for hip surgery is


Output: ...% of ortho patients develop a DVT


Output: INR for catheter removal is


Input: possible development of spinal or epidural hematoma

Output: pts on periop anticoagulants are not good canditates for neuraxial anes becuase of

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: immediate decompressive laminectomy

Output: treatment for a spinal hematoma is

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: fat emoblism normal is 200 dyn x s x cm -5

Output: pulmonary artery monitoring in patients undergoing bilateral hip arthroplasties reliably signals ....by a rise in pulmonary artery pressures above normal of

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 5 mm

Output: if atlantooccipital instability exceeds..mm in pts with RA then intubation should be peformed with fiberoptic guidance

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: 6-8 heparin and 12-24 for lmw

Output: epidural needles should not be placed w/in ..hrs of heparin or ..hrs with lmw

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: sympathectomy induced increase in lower extremity venous blood flow, sytemic antiinflammatory effects of local anes., attenuated postoperative increase in factor 8, decrease in antithrombin III, decreased platelet activity and alterations in stress hormones

Output: thromboemolic complications are reduced with neuraxial anes by

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: petichae, dyspnea, confusion

Output: triad for fat embolism diagnosis

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: dysrthythmias, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension (increased pulmonary vascular resistance), and decreased cardiac output.

Output: clinical manifestations of bone cement syndrome

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: iv regional anes and lowest with ga

Output: tourniquet pain is highest with ...and lowest with

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: atlantooccipital sublaxation

Output: spinal cord compression in RA may be caused by

pressure to the elbow causes damage to the and results in


Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast general jurisdiction with limited jurisdiction.

Output: General jurisdiction means that a court can hear any type of case that falls within their venue. Limited jurisdiction means that a court can hear only certain types of cases.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast in personam jurisdiction with in rem jurisdiction.

Output: in personam jurisdiction is where a court has jurisdiction based on upon the residence or activities of the person being sued. in rem jurisdiction is when a court has jurisdiction based upon the location of the property at issue in the lawsuit.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain how a state's long arm statute might work.

Output: A long arm statute can subject an out of state defendent to jurisdiction in the state as long as due process requirements are met. The defendent must have certain minimum contacts with the state.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast original jurisdiction with appellate jurisdiction.

Output: Original jurisdiction is the power of the U.S. Supreme Court to take cognizance of a case at its inception, try it, and pass judgement upon the law and facts. Appellate jurisdiction is the power of the Supreme Court and other courts of appeal to decide cases that have been tried in a lower court and appealed.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Identify the bases for federal court jurisdiction.

Output: Three sources: 1. federal question jurisdiction- exists when the dispute concerns federal law, namely a legal right arising under the U.S. Constitution, a federal statute, etc. 2. diversity juridiction- exists when a lawsuit is between citizens of two different states and the amount in controversy exceeds 75,000. 3. when the United States is a party- when the U.S. government, or an officer or agency thereof, is a plaintiff or the defendent.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain how the courts might determine a natural person and a corporation's citizenship.

Output: An individual is a citizen of the state where the person has his or her legal residence, or, if they have homes in one or more states, the state they consider home. A corporation is deemed a citizen of the state in which it has been incorporated and the state where the company has its principal place of business.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast exclusive jurisdiction with concurrent jurisdiction.

Output: Exclusive jurisdiction is when only one court has jurisdiction over a certain type of case. Concurrent jurisdiction is when more than one court has jursidiction over a certain type of case.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the Erie doctrine.

Output: In this case, the court decided that a federal court must use state law in a case involving diversity jurisdiction, unless the lawsuit concerns the U.S. constitution or a federal statute. This prevents forum shopping.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast a choice of law provision with a choice of forum provision.

Output: In a lawsuit involving citizens of different states, the law used is the law of the state with the greatest interests, or, if more than one state has an interest, the court can use different states' laws for different parts of the dispute.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define standing.

Output: a party to a lawsuit has standing if the person seeking relief is the proper party to advance the litigation, has a personal interest in the outcome of the suit, and will benefit from a favorable ruling.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define venue.

Output: the particular county or geographical area in which a court with jurisdiction may hear and determine a case.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast venue with jurisdiction.

Output: If a court has jurisdiction, it means the court has the authority to hear that type of dispute. The venue is the court in a particular geographical area that can hear the case.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the three-tiered state court system.

Output: The lowest level are several courts of limited jurisdiction, that hear minor criminal matters, small civil suits, and other specialized legal disputes. The next level consists of courts of general jurisdiction. The third level are the state appellate courts that hear appeals from the lower level courts. The top level is the state supreme court.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast a trial court with an appellate court.

Output: a trial court usually has general or unlimited jurisdiction, while and appellate court only hears appeals from the trial courts.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the concept of stare decisis.

Output: the doctrine that holds that once a court resolves a particular issue, other courts addressing a similar legal problem generally follow the initial court's decision.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast an authoritative decision with a persuasive decision using the concept of stare decisis.

Output: A decision is persuasive if it reasonably and fairly resolves the dispute. Another court confronting a similar dispute will probably choose to apply the same reasoning. An authoritative decision, must be followed.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the three-tiered federal court system.

Output: The first level are the U.S. district courts. They are the trial courts of the federal system. The next level are the courts of appeals. There are also specialized federal courts that hear disputes about certain subject areas. The last tier is the U.S. Supreme Court.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define writ of certiorari.

Output: an order written by the U.S. Supreme Court when it decides to hear a case, ordering the lower court to certify the record of proceedings below and send it up to the U.S. Supreme Court.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.

Output: the procedural rules that govern civil litigation.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define pleadings.

Output: the formal allegations by the parties to a lawsuit of their respective claims and defenses.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define service of process.

Output: the summons that officially notifies the the defendent that a lawsuit is pending against it in a particular court and that it must file a response to the complaint within a certain number of days.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define default judgement.

Output: a judgement that may be entered in favor of the plaintiff if the defendent does not file an answer within the time required.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain an affirmative defense.

Output: admits that the defendent has acted in a certain way but claims that the defendent's conduct was not the real or legal cause of harm to the plainiff or that the defendent's conduct is excused for some reason.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast a motion to dismiss with a motion for judgement on the pleadings.

Output: A motion to dismiss seeks to terminate the lawsuit on the ground that the plaintiff's claim is technically inadequate. A motion for judgement on the pleadings is when one party argues that the complaint alone demonstrates that the action is futile.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the function of a motion for summary judgement.

Output: will be granted only if the evidence clearly establishes that there are no disputed issues of material fact and that the party who requested the summary judgement is entitled to recovery as a matter of law.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast a deposition with an interogatory.

Output: Depositions are written or oral questions asked of any person who may have helpful information about the facts of the case, while interogatories are written questions to the parties in the case and their attorneys.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the benefits of discovery.

Output: Discovery helps everyone in the trial have all the facts. It also helps preserve evidence. It also reduces the number of legal issues to be presented at trial because the parties can see beforehand which claims they have evidence to support and which ones are not worth pursuing.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the disadvantages of discovery.

Output: Discovery is very labor intensive, and is very expensive. Can lead to discovery abuse.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define voir dire.

Output: the questioning of potential jurors.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the trial process.

Output: 1. selection of the jury. 2. opening statements. 3. presentation of evidence and witnesses by the plaintiff's attorney. 4. presentation of evidence and witnesses by the defendant's attorney. 5. motion for a directed verdict. 6. closing arguments. 7. judges instructions to the jury. 8. jury deliberations. 9. announcement of the jury verdict.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast a motion for a new trial with a motion for judgement on the pleadings.

Output: The motion for judgement on the pleadings precedes the trial while a motion for a new trial comes after the trial.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the attorney client privilege and elaborate on the difficulties involved in maintaining the privilege with a corporate client.

Output: The privilege provides that a court cannot force the disclosure of confidential communications between a client and his attorney. The difficulty in maintaining the privilege with a corporate client is deciding what exactly constitutes communication with the corporation.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the attorney work product doctrine and how it differs from the attorney client privilege.

Output: The attorney work-product doctrine protects information that an attorney prepares in the course of his or her work. This is different from attorney client privelege in that attorney client privilege belongs to the client, and the attorney work product belongs to the attorney.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain what companies might do for pretrial preparation.

Output: The company should select an attorney first who has experience in the area being litigated. The company also needs to decide who will handle public relations so that confidential information will not be disclosed accidentally. Then management should tell employees not to destroy important information, and tell them not to discuss the lawsuit with anyone. They should also make a budget for the lawsuit.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Explain the function of a valid document retention program.

Output: It helps protect a company in the event of litigation, and protects corporate privacy and trade secrets.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define alternative dispute resolution.

Output: using other means of solving a dispute other than litigation.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast negotiation with mediation.

Output: Both negotiation and mediation are not binding, but negotiation is just between the two parties, while mediation uses a neutral third party.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Compare and contrast mediation with arbitration.

Output: Both involve neutral third parties, but arbitration is binding, and mediation is not.

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Input: [Define the term jurisdiction.] Define an arbitration clause.

Output: a clause that specifies that in the event of a dispute arising out of a contract, the parties will arbitrate specific issues in a stated manner.

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Input: Ischemic changes, aneurysm formation, HIGH OUTPUT CARDIAC FAILURE - name type of aneurysm [TRAUMA]

Output: ARTERIOVENOUS FISTULA


Input: Atherosclerotic aneurysm often occurs where? [TRAUMA]

Output: Usually in ABDOMINAL aorta, located between renal arteries and iliac bifurcation


Input: Congenital medial weakness at the bifurcations of cerebral arteries [TRAUMA]

Output: Berry aneurysm


Input: Most common location for berry aneurysms [TRAUMA]

Output: Circle of Willis


Input: Berry aneurysms usually hemorrhage where [TRAUMA]

Output: Subarachnoid space


Input: 3 most common causes for dissecting aneurysms [TRAUMA]

Output: HYPERTENSION Cystic medial necrosis MARFANS


Input: TEARING PAIN, longitudinal separation of tunica media of aortic wall - type of aneurysm [TRAUMA]

Output: Dissecting


Input: Obliteration of vasa vasorum, necrosis of the media - type of aneurysm [TRAUMA]

Output: Syphillitic


Input: Syphyllitic aneurysm usually involves which vessels [TRAUMA]

Output: Involves ASCENDING aorta and aortic root, aortic valve insufficiency


Input: This type of aneurysm is caused by inflammation secondary to bacterial infection, usually salmonella - involves abdominal aorta [TRAUMA]

Output: Mycotic (infectious)


Input: Which disease is associated commonly with berry aneurysms [TRAUMA]

Output: Adult polycystic kidney disease - AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT disease gene is located on chromosome 16


Input: This disease is characterized by rashes, lymphadenopathy, CONDYLOMATA LATA, ARGYLL ROBERTSON PUPIL ( PUPILS CONSTRICT WITH ACCOMODATION BUT NOT WITH LIGHT), and aortic root aneurysms [TRAUMA]

Output: Tertiary syphillis


Input: [prokaryotes] peptidoglycan

Output: a protein-carb compound found in bacterial cell walls

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single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] methanogens

Output: archaea that convert hydrogen and carbon dioxide into methane gas for energy

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] halophiles

Output: 'salt loving' archaea that live in environments with high salt concentrations

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] thermoacidophiles

Output: archaea that live in very acidic environments that have high temperatures

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] marsh gas

Output: the methane that bubbles out at sites such as swamps

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] black smokers

Output: cracks in the ocean floor that leak hot dark acidic water

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] bacilli

Output: rod shaped bacteria

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] spirilli

Output: spiral shaped bacteria

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] cocci

Output: sphere-shaped bacteria

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] streptococci

Output: cocci in long chains

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] staphylococci

Output: grapelike clusters of cocci

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] gram-negative bacteria

Output: bacteria with complex small walls with less amounts of peptidoglycan and appear reddish pink in a gram stain

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] gram-positive bacteria

Output: bacteria with simpler cell walls that retain the purple dye and appear purple in a Gram stain

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] antibiotics

Output: chemicals that inhibit the growth of or kill other microorganisms

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] capsule

Output: outer covering of polysaccharides protects the cell and helps it attach to other cells and surfaces

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] cell wall

Output: outer covering that protects the cell and gives it shape

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] cell membrane

Output: regulates types of molecules that move into and out of the cell

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] cytoplasm

Output: contains dna, ribosomes, and organic compounds that are needed for life

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] chromosome

Output: carries genetic information

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] plasmid

Output: small circular self-replicating loops of double stranded dna

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] endospore

Output: a thick-coated resistant structure that contains dna

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] pilus

Output: short, hairlike protein structures that help the bacteria connect to each other and other surfaces

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] flagellum

Output: propels the cell by rotating in a whiplike motion

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] phototrophs

Output: organisms that get energy from light

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] autotrophs

Output: organisms that get their carbon directly from carbon dioxide

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] heterotrophs

Output: organisms that get their carbon from other organisms

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] chemotrophs

Output: organisms that get energy from chemicals taken from the environment

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] obligate anaerobes

Output: organisms that cannot live where molecular oxyn is present

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] facultative anaerobes

Output: bacteria that can live with or without oxygen

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] obligate aerobes

Output: prokaryotes that need oxygen to live

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] mesophiles

Output: prokaryotes that grow best at temp. between 20 C and 40 C

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] thermophiles

Output: grow best at very hot temp. 45 C to 110 C

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] acidophiles

Output: acid loving prokaryotes

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] recombination

Output: when prokaryotes exchange pieces of dna that can be added to the cell's dna without reproduction

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] transformation

Output: when a prokaryote takes in dna from its outside environment

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] conjugation

Output: process by which two prokaryotes bind together and one cell transfers dna to the other through a sex pilus

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] transduction

Output: when a virus obtains a small part of dna from a host prokaryote

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] pathology

Output: the scientific study of disease

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] exotoxins

Output: toxic substances that bacteria secrete into their environment

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] endotoxins

Output: toxic substances made of lipids and carbs associated with the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] antibiotic resistance

Output: evolution of populations of pathogenic bacteria that antibiotics are unable to ill

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] penicillin

Output: blocks the ability to build new cell wall material

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] tetracyline

Output: blocks protein synthesis

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] zoonosis

Output: disease that can pass from animals to humans

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] bioremediation

Output: process that uses bacteria to break down pollutants

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] pathogens

Output: organisms that cause disease

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] broad-spectrum antibiotics

Output: antibiotics that can kill more than one kind of organism

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: [prokaryotes] r-plasmids

Output: resistance genes in plasmids that give bacteria resistance to antibiotics

Biology Chapter 23 Flashcards - Cram.com

single celled organisms that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus


Input: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the paraxial mesoderm (somites)?

Output: Bones Muscles Dermis

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the lateral plate mesoderm?

Output: Bones

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the neural crest?

Output: Cartilage Bone Dermis Pia arachnoid Neuroness Mesenchyme of the teeth

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: Generally, where are the neural crest derivatives on the face? The mesoderm derivatives?

Output: Neural crest: front Mesoderm: back

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What bone of the face is derived from the lateral plate mesoderm?

Output: Laryngeals

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What bones of the face are formed from the paraxila mesoderm?

Output: Parietal Petro Occipitals Hyoids

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What is the mechanism of bone formatino in the face?

Output: Intramembranous

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: Are the bones of the skull fused at birth? Why or why not?

Output: NO! You need to get through the birth canal The brain needs to be able to grow!

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: How many bones fuse to form the anterior fontanelle? Posterior?

Output: 4 3

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: If there is an increase in intracranial pressure, what will be observed on the head of an infant?

Output: A bulging anterior fontanelle

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What genes are involved in cranial fusion?

Output: BMP NOggin

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What is the presentation of Apert syndrome? What is the cause?

Output: Bulging anterior fontanelle Premature fusion of the coronal sutures

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What is cranisynostosis? What is the cause?

Output: Premature fusion of the skull Lack of noggin due to a mutation in FGFR2 causing abnormal repression. FGF activates FGFR2, which inhibits Noggin. Normally Noggin inhibits skull fusion, but if it is not present you can't get everything back together

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What arches are the derivatives of the original branchial arch?

Output: Maxillary arch Mandibular arch

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What structure gives rise to the medial and lateral nasal processes?

Output: Frontonasal prominence

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What two prominences fuse to give the nasolacrimal groove and duct?

Output: Maxillary prominence Lateral nasal prominence

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: The frontonasal prominence forms what structure?

Output: Forehead Bridge of nose

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: The medial nasal prominence forms what structure?

Output: Philtrum (The shallow groove running down the center of the outer surface of the upper lip) Nose

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: The lateral nasal prominence forms what structure?

Output: Alae of nose (lateral part)

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: The maxillary prominence forms what structure?

Output: Cheeks Lateral, upper lip

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: The mandibular prominence forms what structure?

Output: Lower lip

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What pharyngeal arch forms the muscles of the face?

Output: 2nd

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What prominces fuse to form the primary palate and upper incisors?

Output: Medial nasal processes

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What processes fuse to form the secondary palate? Where is the origin of these processes?

Output: Lateral palatine processes Maxillary prominences

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What is the difference between syndromic and nonsyndromic CL/P or CP?

Output: Syndromic: single gene mutations Non-syndromic: genetically complex, environmentally caused factors

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: What branchial arches form the tongue? What nerves perform which functions?

Output: Anterior 2/3: arch 1. Sensation via V3, taste via VII Posterior 1/3: arches 3, 4. Taste and sensation via IX. Extreme end via X

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com

Paraxial mesoderm (somites) Lateral plate mesoderm Neural crest


Input: [2] Has fed [1]

Output: The past participle for Feed

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has fought [1]

Output: The past participle for fight

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has gottem ( got) [1]

Output: The past participle for get

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has kept [1]

Output: The past participle for keep

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has flown [1]

Output: The past participle for fly

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has laid [1]

Output: The past participle for lay

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has shaken [1]

Output: The past participle for shake

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has sprung [1]

Output: The past participle for spring

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has spoken [1]

Output: The past participle for speak

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Has struck [1]

Output: The past participle for strike

Trouble Past Participles Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Animal Spirits] Creeping Socialism

Output: gradual loss of economic freedom to government

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Animal Spirits] Fool in Shower

Output: Milton Friedman's metaphor for the destabilizing effects of monetary policy

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Animal Spirits] Misery Index

Output: The inflation rate added to the unemployment rate

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Animal Spirits] Stagflation

Output: High inflation coupled with high unemployment

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Animal Spirits] Twin deficits Anomaly

Output: Government Spending>Taxes = Imports>Exports

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Animal Spirits] Zombie S&L

Output: an insolvent thrift which continues to operate

Macroeconomics Halloween Flashcards - Cram.com

what determines the autonomous level of business investment according to John Meynard Keynes


Input: [Scarcity] opportunity cost

Output: next best alternative foregone

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] postive statment

Output: able to prove true or false

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Land

Output: natural resources eg coal or fish return to land is rent-cost of production occupational mobility-limted eg fishh used for food source eg retail shop geographical mobility- not mobile renewable/ non renewable-substanablitiy

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] labour

Output: human resource skilled/unskilled return to labour is wages occuptional mobility- depends on skill transferability growth in labour supply may caused by immgration etc

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Captial

Output: return to capital is interest investment is the creation of captial goods in the process of production net investment is the change in the capital stock which production determines productive capacity

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Enterprise

Output: the risk of organising the other 3 factors together

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Normal profit

Output: return required to keep the euterprenuers in the business

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Specialisation

Output: Self-sufficiency is where people try to meet their own wants and needs without producing a surplus to trade. Specialisation is when individuals, regions or countries concentrate on making one product to create a surplus to be traded.

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Division of Labour

Output: Division of labour means the specialization of the functions and roles involved in making the separate parts of a product. It is closely tied to the standardization of production, the introduction and perfection of machinery, and the development of large-scale industry. As a result of mass-production techniques, total production is many times what it would be had each worker made the complete product. Problems created by the division of labour include job monotony, technological unemployment, and eventually chronic unemployment if the economy does not expand quickly enough to reabsorb the displaced labour.

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Functions of money

Output: Medium of exchange,unit of account,store of value and deferred payment

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] medium of exchange

Output: anything that is used to determine value during the exchange of good and service.allow us to go beyond barter

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] double coincidence of wants

Output: two people have to have the appropriate goods or services which each other wants.

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Unit of account

Output: by using the monetary value assigned to a specific good or service to compare it to one offered by a different provider.

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: [Scarcity] Store of value

Output: is used to maintain the value of a transaction over time.

have scarce resources to satisfy our unlimted want therefore we have to make choices


Input: a psychological disorder characterized by chronic psychological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma, and avoidance of things that call the trauma to mind. [health psychology]

Output: PTSD


Input: The physical and psychological response to internal or external stressors [health psychology]

Output: Stress


Input: specific events that place demands on a person or threaten the person's well being. [health psychology]

Output: stressors


Input: A source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly. [health psychology]

Output: a chronic stressor


Input: A three stage physiological response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered. [health psychology]

Output: GAS


Input: An emotional physiological reaction to an emergency that increases readiness for action. [health psychology]

Output: Fight or Flight Response


Input: The tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency and competitive strivings. [health psychology]

Output: Type A Behavior Pattern


Input: A state of physical, emotional, and mental exhausting created by long term involvement in an emotionally demanding situation and accompanied by lowered performance and motivation [health psychology]

Output: burnout


Input: Facing a stressor and working to overcome it [health psychology]

Output: Rational Coping


Input: Finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor that reduces its threat [health psychology]

Output: reframing


Input: A technique for reducing tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body [health psychology]

Output: relaxation therapy


Input: A condition of reduced muscle tension,, cortical activity, heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure [health psychology]

Output: Relaxation response


Input: the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and possibly gain control over that function. [health psychology]

Output: biofeedback


Input: the aid gained from interacting with others [health psychology]

Output: social support


Input: A clinically significant psychological response to a therapeutically inert substance or procedure [health psychology]

Output: Placebo Effect


Input: A psychological disorder involving combinations of multiple complaints with no medical explanation [health psychology]

Output: somatization disorder


Input: A disorder characterized by apparently debilitating physical symptoms that appear to be voluntary- but the person experiences as involuntary [health psychology]

Output: conversion disorder


Input: the set of psychological disorders in which the person displays physical symptoms not fully explained by a general medical condition [health psychology]

Output: somatoform disorders


Input: A psychological disorder in which a person is preoccupied with minor symptoms and develops an exaggerated belief that the symptoms signify as a life threatening illness. [health psychology]

Output: Hypochondriasis


Input: 40 years of age or older from employment discrimination based on age. The ADEA's protections apply to both employees and job applicants. Under the ADEA, it is unlawful to discriminate against a person because of his/her age with respect to any term, condition, or privilege of employment -- including, but not limited to, hiring, firing, promotion, layoff, compensation, benefits, job assignments, and training. It is also unlawful to retaliate against an individual for opposing employment practices that discriminate based on age or for filing an age discrimination charge, testifying, or participating in any way in an investigation, proceeding, or litigation under the ADEA. The ADEA applies to employers with 20 or more employees, including state and local governments. It also applies to employment agencies and to labor organizations, as well as to the federal government.

Output: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) protects individuals who are

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: to the known disability of a qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an "undue hardship" on the operation of the employer's business. Undue hardship is defined as an action requiring significant difficulty or expense when considered in light of factors such as an employer's size, financial resources and the nature and structure of its operation. An employer is NOT required to lower quality or production standards to make an accommodation, nor is an employer obligated to provide personal use items such as glasses or hearing aids.

Output: Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), an employer is required to make an accommodation to the known disability of an employee if it would not impose an "undue hardship" on the operation of the employer's business. An employer is required to make an accommodation

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) is a federal law that sets minimum standards for most voluntarily established pension and health plans in private industry. ERISA requires plans to provide participants with plan information including important information about plan features and funding; provides fiduciary responsibilities for those who manage and control plan assets; and, requires plans to establish a grievance and appeals process for participants to get benefits from their plans. There have been a number of amendments to ERISA, including the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), which provides some workers and their families with the right to continue their health coverage (at their own expense) for a limited time after certain events, such as the loss of a job.

Output: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) is a federal law that sets minimum standards for most voluntarily established pension and health plans in the private sector. ERISA

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The correct answer was C. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) covers most private sector, voluntary employee benefit plans, including "pension plans" and "welfare plans.” Pension plans provide retirement income. Welfare plans provide health benefits, disability benefits, and death benefits, as well as other benefits and services. ERISA imposes FIDUCIARY obligations on persons who exercise discretionary authority or control over management of a plan. Fiduciaries are required, among other things, to discharge their duties solely in the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries and for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan.

Output: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) covers most private sector, voluntary employee benefit plans, including "pension plans" and "welfare plans.” Which of the following statements concerning ERISA is INCORRECT? A ERISA sets uniform minimum standards to assure that employee benefit plans are established and maintained in a fair and financially sound manner. B ERISA is enforced by the Department of Labor's Pension and Welfare Benefits Administration (PWBA) and by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). C ERISA imposes minimal obligations on persons who exercise discretionary authority or control over management of a plan or disposition of its assets. D ERISA requires persons and who control plan funds to manage plans for the exclusive benefit of participants and beneficiaries, and to provide certain documents to assure compliance with the law.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The correct answer was C. The Family Medical Leave Act applies, in general, to employers having at least 50 employees. All the above statements regarding the Family Medical Leave Act are correct except the statement contained in answer C. An employer is permitted to ask the employee to provide a medical certification from a health care provider to substantiates the need to use FMLA.

Output: Under the Family Medical Leave Act (FLMA), which of the following is an INCORRECT statement? A A husband and wife who are employed with the same company are only entitled to a combined total of 12 weeks for the birth of a child, when adopting a child, or to care for a parent with a serious health condition. B An “eligible” employee allowed leave under the FMLA is an employee that has been employed with a company for at least 1,250 hours during a 12 month period prior to the start of the leave. C An employer may NOT ask the employee to provide a medical certification from a health care provider to substantiates the need to use FMLA. D An employee can ask to use FMLA to care for a family member, for their own physical/mental health care, and after the birth or adoption of a child.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: provide a workplace that is free from recognized hazards; and, to keep records of accidents and to report serious accidents to OSHA. OSHA permits employers to accompany OSHA inspectors during job site inspections, and allows employers to insist upon a search warrant (issued only for probable cause) before OSHA inspectors come onto the business premises. Business premise inspections are, however, typically permitted by employers without a court order.

Output: The Occupational Safety Health Act (OSHA) requires employers to:

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: unemployment insurance, hospital insurance (Medicare), survivors and disability insurance, and old age benefits.

Output: The four basic programs of the Social Security Act are

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: Since Micah was injured in the scope of her employment with Glidewell, her medical bills and most of her lost wages will be paid by Glidewell’s workers compensation carrier. Since Faulk was at fault, Faulk will be liable for damages sustained by Micah, including lost wages. Micah can also recover for her pain and suffereing from Faulk, but not from the workers compensation carrier. If Micah has auto insurance or health insurance which cover the medical care for her injuries, she will have multiple sorces of possible recovery.

Output: Micah, an employee of Glidewell, was injured while delivering a sample to a prospective customer of her employer. The injury occurred when Faulk ran a stop sign and collided with Micah’s vehicle. Glidewell’s employees are covered by a standard workers compensation policy.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: prompt compensation for his/her injuries. Workers compensation benefits will be awarded regardless whether the employee, Cory, was negligent. If a third party was negligent, Cory will have rights to both workers compensation recovery as well as a personal injury claim against the third party, but cannot obtain double recovery. (I.e., the workers compensation carrier may be entitled to reimbursement if Cory prevails against a negligent third party.)

Output: An employee who is injured in connection with his/her employment, OTHER that going TO AND FROM WORK, is entitled to

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The correct answer was D. Negligence is not a bar to recovery for an employee injured in the course of employment. Workers Compensation does not compensate for pain and suffering but does pay for both temporary and permanent injuries. The lost wage portion of workers compensation amounts to 2/3 of regular pay, for up to 500 weeks.

Output: Heaton employed Wire-to-Wire, LLC, to install a new telephone system in its headquarters. Jackson, a long time Wire-to-Wire, LLC, employee was seriously injured when he carelessly connected a phone wire to a live electrical wire. Jackson, who had ignored company and local county safety procedures by failing to conduct a standard electrical check, temporarily lost use of one of his fingers as a result of the accident. Under state Workers Compensation provisions, Jackson A is precluded from recovering lost wages if he is proven to have been negligent. B will, in addition to recovering lost wages and medical bills relating to his injury, be awarded a sum of money for his pain and suffering. C will only recover if the injury to his finger is determined to be permanent. D can claim lost wages, but this portion of the claim will be limited to two-thirds of his regular wages.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: A hallmark of worker compensation laws is that employees are compensated for their injuries regardless whether the employee was negligent, and even if there has been no negligence on the part of the employer, fellow employees or third parties. However, recovery of workers compensation benefits does not prevent the injured employee from also recovering from third party wrongdoers (if there are any).

Output: Every state has enacted workers compensation laws which provide for prompt compensation for employees who are injured on the job. The regulations vary slightly from state to state, but every state includes provisions which

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: In a C Corporation, social security taxes are imposed on wages of employee-owners, but no self-employment tax is imposed on distributions. In a partnership, earnings are generally subject to self-employment taxes, except for earnings distributed for limited partnership interests. In a limited liability company, earnings are generally subject to self-employment taxes, except for earnings from passive investment interests. In S Corporations, social security taxes are imposed on wages of employee-owners, but no self-employment tax is imposed on distributions (as long as reasonable wages are paid).

Output: With respect to the imposition of self-employment taxes and social security taxes, what are the rules?

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: An open shop does not discriminate based on union membership in employing or keeping workers. Where a union is active, the open shop allows workers to be employed who do not contribute to a union or the collective bargaining process. A closed shop employs only people who are already union members. A union shop employs both union and nonunion workers, but sets a time limit within which new employees must join the union. An agency shop requires nonunion workers to pay a fee to the union for its services in negotiating their contract. This is also called the Rand Formula.

Output: Companies that employ workers associated with a union generally operate in one of several ways. In some states, right-to-work laws mandate an open shop. An open shop:

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: while traveling to and from work, are not covered if they were intoxicated, and are not compensated for pain and suffering. Burial expenses are covered for employees who are killed on the job.

Output: Under most workers compensation laws, employees are not covered

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: obtain private party cleanup through court orders. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act -- otherwise known as CERCLA or Superfund -- provides a Federal "Superfund" to clean up uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous-waste sites as well as accidents, spills, and other emergency releases of pollutants and contaminants into the environment. Through CERCLA, EPA was given power to seek out those parties responsible for any release and assure their cooperation in the cleanup. EPA cleans up orphan sites when potentially responsible parties cannot be identified or located, or when they fail to act. Through various enforcement tools, EPA obtains private party cleanup through orders, consent decrees, and other small party settlements. EPA also recovers costs from financially viable individuals and companies once a response action has been completed.

Output: Under the provisions of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act -- otherwise known as CERCLA or Superfund the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is permitted to

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The correct answer was A. Under the CWA, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has implemented pollution control programs such as setting wastewater standards for industry. It has also set water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters. The CWA made it unlawful to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters unless a permit is obtained. EPA's National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program controls discharges. Individual homes that are connected to a municipal system, use a septic system, or do not have a surface discharge do not need an NPDES permit; however, industrial, municipal, and other facilities must obtain permits if their discharges go directly to surface waters.

Output: The Clean Water Act (CWA) establishes the basic structure for regulating discharges of pollutants into the waters of the United States and regulating quality standards for surface waters. Under the CWA, the Environmental Protection Agency has implemented pollution control programs including all of the following EXCEPT: A requiring individual homes that use a septic system to obtain a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. B setting wastewater standards for industry. C setting water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters. D making it unlawful to discharge any pollutant into navigable waters unless a permit is obtained.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: threatened and endangered plants and animals and the habitats in which they are found. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) of the Department of the Interior maintains a worldwide list. Species include birds, insects, fish, reptiles, mammals, crustaceans, flowers, grasses, and trees. Anyone can petition FWS to include a species on this list. The Act provides in some instances for the purchase of lands to protect certain habitats. The Act establishes both civil and criminal penalties for violations.

Output: The Endangered Species Act provides a program for the conservation of

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the rules relating to, or the requirements imposed by FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)?


Input: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) protects individuals who are

Output: 40 years of age or older from employment discrimination based on age. The ADEA's protections apply to both employees and job applicants. Under the ADEA, it is unlawful to discriminate against a person because of his/her age with respect to any term, condition, or privilege of employment -- including, but not limited to, hiring, firing, promotion, layoff, compensation, benefits, job assignments, and training. It is also unlawful to retaliate against an individual for opposing employment practices that discriminate based on age or for filing an age discrimination charge, testifying, or participating in any way in an investigation, proceeding, or litigation under the ADEA. The ADEA applies to employers with 20 or more employees, including state and local governments. It also applies to employment agencies and to labor organizations, as well as to the federal government.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), an employer is required to make an accommodation to the known disability of an employee if it would not impose an "undue hardship" on the operation of the employer's business. An employer is required to make an accommodation

Output: to the known disability of a qualified applicant or employee if it would not impose an "undue hardship" on the operation of the employer's business. Undue hardship is defined as an action requiring significant difficulty or expense when considered in light of factors such as an employer's size, financial resources and the nature and structure of its operation. An employer is NOT required to lower quality or production standards to make an accommodation, nor is an employer obligated to provide personal use items such as glasses or hearing aids.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) is a federal law that sets minimum standards for most voluntarily established pension and health plans in the private sector. ERISA

Output: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) is a federal law that sets minimum standards for most voluntarily established pension and health plans in private industry. ERISA requires plans to provide participants with plan information including important information about plan features and funding; provides fiduciary responsibilities for those who manage and control plan assets; and, requires plans to establish a grievance and appeals process for participants to get benefits from their plans. There have been a number of amendments to ERISA, including the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), which provides some workers and their families with the right to continue their health coverage (at their own expense) for a limited time after certain events, such as the loss of a job.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) covers most private sector, voluntary employee benefit plans, including "pension plans" and "welfare plans.” Which of the following statements concerning ERISA is INCORRECT? A ERISA sets uniform minimum standards to assure that employee benefit plans are established and maintained in a fair and financially sound manner. B ERISA is enforced by the Department of Labor's Pension and Welfare Benefits Administration (PWBA) and by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). C ERISA imposes minimal obligations on persons who exercise discretionary authority or control over management of a plan or disposition of its assets. D ERISA requires persons and who control plan funds to manage plans for the exclusive benefit of participants and beneficiaries, and to provide certain documents to assure compliance with the law.

Output: The correct answer was C. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) covers most private sector, voluntary employee benefit plans, including "pension plans" and "welfare plans.” Pension plans provide retirement income. Welfare plans provide health benefits, disability benefits, and death benefits, as well as other benefits and services. ERISA imposes FIDUCIARY obligations on persons who exercise discretionary authority or control over management of a plan. Fiduciaries are required, among other things, to discharge their duties solely in the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries and for the exclusive purpose of providing benefits and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the plan.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Under the Family Medical Leave Act (FLMA), which of the following is an INCORRECT statement? A A husband and wife who are employed with the same company are only entitled to a combined total of 12 weeks for the birth of a child, when adopting a child, or to care for a parent with a serious health condition. B An “eligible” employee allowed leave under the FMLA is an employee that has been employed with a company for at least 1,250 hours during a 12 month period prior to the start of the leave. C An employer may NOT ask the employee to provide a medical certification from a health care provider to substantiates the need to use FMLA. D An employee can ask to use FMLA to care for a family member, for their own physical/mental health care, and after the birth or adoption of a child.

Output: The correct answer was C. The Family Medical Leave Act applies, in general, to employers having at least 50 employees. All the above statements regarding the Family Medical Leave Act are correct except the statement contained in answer C. An employer is permitted to ask the employee to provide a medical certification from a health care provider to substantiates the need to use FMLA.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: The Occupational Safety Health Act (OSHA) requires employers to:

Output: provide a workplace that is free from recognized hazards; and, to keep records of accidents and to report serious accidents to OSHA. OSHA permits employers to accompany OSHA inspectors during job site inspections, and allows employers to insist upon a search warrant (issued only for probable cause) before OSHA inspectors come onto the business premises. Business premise inspections are, however, typically permitted by employers without a court order.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: The four basic programs of the Social Security Act are

Output: unemployment insurance, hospital insurance (Medicare), survivors and disability insurance, and old age benefits.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Micah, an employee of Glidewell, was injured while delivering a sample to a prospective customer of her employer. The injury occurred when Faulk ran a stop sign and collided with Micah’s vehicle. Glidewell’s employees are covered by a standard workers compensation policy.

Output: Since Micah was injured in the scope of her employment with Glidewell, her medical bills and most of her lost wages will be paid by Glidewell’s workers compensation carrier. Since Faulk was at fault, Faulk will be liable for damages sustained by Micah, including lost wages. Micah can also recover for her pain and suffereing from Faulk, but not from the workers compensation carrier. If Micah has auto insurance or health insurance which cover the medical care for her injuries, she will have multiple sorces of possible recovery.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: An employee who is injured in connection with his/her employment, OTHER that going TO AND FROM WORK, is entitled to

Output: prompt compensation for his/her injuries. Workers compensation benefits will be awarded regardless whether the employee, Cory, was negligent. If a third party was negligent, Cory will have rights to both workers compensation recovery as well as a personal injury claim against the third party, but cannot obtain double recovery. (I.e., the workers compensation carrier may be entitled to reimbursement if Cory prevails against a negligent third party.)

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Heaton employed Wire-to-Wire, LLC, to install a new telephone system in its headquarters. Jackson, a long time Wire-to-Wire, LLC, employee was seriously injured when he carelessly connected a phone wire to a live electrical wire. Jackson, who had ignored company and local county safety procedures by failing to conduct a standard electrical check, temporarily lost use of one of his fingers as a result of the accident. Under state Workers Compensation provisions, Jackson A is precluded from recovering lost wages if he is proven to have been negligent. B will, in addition to recovering lost wages and medical bills relating to his injury, be awarded a sum of money for his pain and suffering. C will only recover if the injury to his finger is determined to be permanent. D can claim lost wages, but this portion of the claim will be limited to two-thirds of his regular wages.

Output: The correct answer was D. Negligence is not a bar to recovery for an employee injured in the course of employment. Workers Compensation does not compensate for pain and suffering but does pay for both temporary and permanent injuries. The lost wage portion of workers compensation amounts to 2/3 of regular pay, for up to 500 weeks.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Every state has enacted workers compensation laws which provide for prompt compensation for employees who are injured on the job. The regulations vary slightly from state to state, but every state includes provisions which

Output: A hallmark of worker compensation laws is that employees are compensated for their injuries regardless whether the employee was negligent, and even if there has been no negligence on the part of the employer, fellow employees or third parties. However, recovery of workers compensation benefits does not prevent the injured employee from also recovering from third party wrongdoers (if there are any).

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: With respect to the imposition of self-employment taxes and social security taxes, what are the rules?

Output: In a C Corporation, social security taxes are imposed on wages of employee-owners, but no self-employment tax is imposed on distributions. In a partnership, earnings are generally subject to self-employment taxes, except for earnings distributed for limited partnership interests. In a limited liability company, earnings are generally subject to self-employment taxes, except for earnings from passive investment interests. In S Corporations, social security taxes are imposed on wages of employee-owners, but no self-employment tax is imposed on distributions (as long as reasonable wages are paid).

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Companies that employ workers associated with a union generally operate in one of several ways. In some states, right-to-work laws mandate an open shop. An open shop:

Output: An open shop does not discriminate based on union membership in employing or keeping workers. Where a union is active, the open shop allows workers to be employed who do not contribute to a union or the collective bargaining process. A closed shop employs only people who are already union members. A union shop employs both union and nonunion workers, but sets a time limit within which new employees must join the union. An agency shop requires nonunion workers to pay a fee to the union for its services in negotiating their contract. This is also called the Rand Formula.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Under most workers compensation laws, employees are not covered

Output: while traveling to and from work, are not covered if they were intoxicated, and are not compensated for pain and suffering. Burial expenses are covered for employees who are killed on the job.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: Under the provisions of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act -- otherwise known as CERCLA or Superfund the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is permitted to

Output: obtain private party cleanup through court orders. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act -- otherwise known as CERCLA or Superfund -- provides a Federal "Superfund" to clean up uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous-waste sites as well as accidents, spills, and other emergency releases of pollutants and contaminants into the environment. Through CERCLA, EPA was given power to seek out those parties responsible for any release and assure their cooperation in the cleanup. EPA cleans up orphan sites when potentially responsible parties cannot be identified or located, or when they fail to act. Through various enforcement tools, EPA obtains private party cleanup through orders, consent decrees, and other small party settlements. EPA also recovers costs from financially viable individuals and companies once a response action has been completed.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: The Clean Water Act (CWA) establishes the basic structure for regulating discharges of pollutants into the waters of the United States and regulating quality standards for surface waters. Under the CWA, the Environmental Protection Agency has implemented pollution control programs including all of the following EXCEPT: A requiring individual homes that use a septic system to obtain a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit. B setting wastewater standards for industry. C setting water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters. D making it unlawful to discharge any pollutant into navigable waters unless a permit is obtained.

Output: The correct answer was A. Under the CWA, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has implemented pollution control programs such as setting wastewater standards for industry. It has also set water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters. The CWA made it unlawful to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters unless a permit is obtained. EPA's National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program controls discharges. Individual homes that are connected to a municipal system, use a septic system, or do not have a surface discharge do not need an NPDES permit; however, industrial, municipal, and other facilities must obtain permits if their discharges go directly to surface waters.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.