Input: [A-B Design] Baseline

Output: A condition of an experiment in which the IV is not present; data obtained in baseline are basis for determining effects of IV- doesn't mean absence of treatment, just absence of specific IV

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Basic Research

Output: Research designed just to determine the function of behavior with no thought for application

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Behavior

Output: Any activity of a living organism that results in a measurable change in atleast 1 aspect of the environment.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Changing Criterion Design

Output: An experimental design in which an initial baseline phase is followed by a series of treatment phases(IV is present) consisting of successive and gradually changing criteria for reinforcement or punishment. Experimental control is evidenced by the extent the level of responding changes to conform to each new criterion.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Confound

Output: An uncontrolled factor known or suspected to exert influence on the dependent variable.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Continuous Measurement

Output: Measurement conducted where all instances of the response class of interest are detected during the observation period

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Discontinuous Measurement

Output: Measurement conducted in which some instances of the response class of interest may not be detected

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Cumulative Recorder

Output: A device that automatically draws cumulative records (graphs) that show the rate of response in real time; each time a response is emitted, a pen moves upward across paper that continuously moves at constant speed

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Dependent Variable

Output: The variable in an experiment measured to determine if it changes as a result of manipulations of the independent variable

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Descending Trend

Output: A decreasing data path

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Direct Replication

Output: An experiment in which the researcher attempts to duplicate exactly the conditions of an earlier experiment

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Empirical

Output: the objective observation of the phenomena of interest

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Event Recording

Output: Measurement procedure for obtaining a count of the number of times a behavior occurs

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Experiment

Output: A carefully controlled comparison of some measure of the dependent variable under two or more different conditions in which only one factor at a time (IV) differs from one condition to the other

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Experimental Control

Output: the extent to which the experimenter has demonstrated a true functional relation and internal validity

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Experimental Design

Output: The particular type and sequence of conditions in a study so that meaningful comparisons of the effects of the presence and absence f the independent variable can be made

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Experimental Question

Output: A statement of what the researcher seeks to learn by conducting the experiment

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] External Validity

Output: The degree to which a study's findings have generality to other subjects, settings, and/or behaviors.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Extraneous Variable

Output: Any aspect of the experimental setting that must be held constant to prevent unplanned environmental variation

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Frequency

Output: the number of times a behavior occurs

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Functional Relation

Output: manipulations of the IV reliably produce changes in the DV and the changes are unlikely due to confounds or extraneous variables

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Graphing

Output: adf

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Independent Variable

Output: The variable that is systematically manipulated by the researcher in an experiment to see whether changes in the IV produce reliable changes in the DV

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Interval Validity

Output: dfsaf

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Inter-Observer Agreement

Output: The degree to which two or more independent observers report the same observed values after measuring the same events

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Irreversibility

Output: A situation that occurs when the level of responding observed in a previous phase cannot be reproduced even though the experimental conditions are the same as they were during the earlier phase

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Latency

Output: df

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Multiple Baseline Design

Output: An experimental design that begins with the concurrent measurement of two or more behaviors in a baseline condition, followed by the application of the treatment variable to one of the behaviors while baseline conditions remain in effect for the other behaviors. After maximum change has been noted in the first behavior, the treatment variable is applied in sequential fashion to each of the other behaviors in the design

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Multi-Element Design

Output: adf

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Partial Interval Recording

Output: adf

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Percent Correct

Output: The number of correct responses divided by the total number of responses multiplied by 100.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Permanent Product

Output: Permanent record of behavior that can be viewed repeatedly

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Procedural Integrity

Output: s

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Replication

Output: adf

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Reversal Design

Output: Any experimental design in which the researcher attempts to verify the effect of the independent variable by reversing responding to a level obtained in a previous condition

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Semi-Logarithmic Chart

Output: A 2d graph with a logarithmic scaled y axis so that equal distances on the vertical axis represent changes in behavior that are of equal proportion

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Single-Subject Research Designs

Output: Research designs that use baseline logic to demonstrate the effects of the independent variable on the behavior of individual subjects

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Social Validity

Output: Refers to the extent to which target behaviors are appropriate, intervention procedures are acceptable, and important and significant changes in target and collateral behaviors are produced

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Trend

Output: The overall direction taken by a data path

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Validity

Output: The extent to which data obtained from measurement are directly relevant to the target behavior of interest and to the reason for measuring it.

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: [A-B Design] Withdrawal Design

Output: A-B-A design: experiments in which an effective treatment is sequentially or partially withdrawn to promote the maintenance of behavior changes

Research Flaschards Flashcards - Cram.com

A single subject design consisting of a baseline phase where the IV hasn't been introduced and an intervention phase where the IV was introduced. It doesn't demonstrate a functional relation and susceptible to extraneous variables.


Input: What causes IRR to change?

Output: - Cash Flows

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: Why do you choose not to use flotation costs?

Output: They are insignificant These reduce the amount of capital raised from the sale and increase the WACC

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What are are three guidelines for cost of debt?

Output: 1. Assume long term debt comes from the sales of bonds 2. Tax cost depends on firms debt rating/ Has outstanding debt – determine YTM and use for new debt 3. Can use bond rating and look at the cost that is similar to bonds in the market place

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is internal equity?

Output: retained earnings

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is external equity?

Output: newly issued stock

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What type of mix do firms typically use?

Output: a mix of debt and equity

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What value do you use for debt and equity?

Output: use market value

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is the order of riskiness of the component costs of capital?

Output: 1. Debt 2. Preferred Stock 3. Internal 4. External

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: Why is issuing new CS the most expensive way to raise capital?

Output: Floatation Costs

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: Why is debt the least expensive way to raise new capital?

Output: Debt least risky

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What are marginal cost of funds?

Output: the relevant costs of capital

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What are the firms component costs of capital equal to?

Output: Equal to its investors required rates of return

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is the appropriate discount rate?

Output: The investor’s required rate of return on any investment is an opportunity cost. It is the rate of return that the firm must pay to compensate investors for the use of their money

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: How does flotation cost impact the firm’s cost of capital?

Output: -the floatation costs take money away from the firm that it can invest with -it therefore has to take into account the loss of money to calculate the required rate of return

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What exactly are we averaging and what do the weights mean?

Output: - we are averaging of all the costs of capital used in the firm -the weights is the rate of return that a strives to achieve

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is the WACC and Cost of Capital and what does a lower or higher WACC mean?

Output: Cost of Capital is basically the amount money that costs the firm to return the money to its shareholders or the interest it has to pay to its debt holders / is also a opportunity cost WACC- is the weighted average of the cost of capitals for a firm expressed as a percentage Higher the WACC the more risk is involved in the project and the more it costs the firm and lower is vice versa. Lower WACC is better than higher

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What happens if you use the WACC method for all the projects in a firm?

Output: only use WACC to evaluate prjoects when projects are similar in riskiness to the firm's investments as a whole 1. accept higher return/risk projects incorrectly 2. reject lower risk/return projects incorrectly

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: Is the WACC required return rate the same as the rr of a individual project?

Output: No, it is not

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What are the length time used for sources used in WACC?

Output: Long Term

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: What is the downfall of using cheap debt for financing?

Output: It creates more risk

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: How should firms use WACC when thery are in multiple industries with different risk characteristics?

Output: - find the cost of capital for each division and use that for each division

is the rate of return that the firm must earn on all of its investments (aka projects/assets) as a whole in order to maintain its stock price (that is to maintain the firm’s value).


Input: plans are made in advance and developed consciously and purposely EX: Military, Game theory, management

Output: what is strategy as a plan

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: A purposeful and conscious course of action (a set of guidelines for using means to achieve ends). - thought of in advance and purposeful

Output: Strategy as plan

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: A set of tactics used to outsmart rivals

Output: Strategy as ploy

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Consistency in a firm’s behavior or pattern in a stream of actions

Output: Strategy as pattern

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Creation of a unique and valuable position vis-a-vis rivals involving different set of activities.

Output: Strategy as position

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Ingrained way of perceiving the world; Organizational culture, ideology or “collective mind”

Output: Strategy as perspective

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) focuses effort by creating a unifying theme 2) Defines the organization by acting as a communication device 3) Provides consistency

Output: Roles of Strategy

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Explicit vs. Implicit Intended vs. Emergent vs. Realized Business level vs. Corporate level Corporate Strategy: Where to compete? Business (competitive) strategy: How to compete?

Output: Differences in various definitions of strategy can be summarized as follows:

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Creation of superior value through the difference between 1) the market’s willingness to pay for a unit of output and 2) the firm’s cost for producing that unit of output

Output: Competitive advantage

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Superior refers to better than/greater than rivals 1) Increasing customers’ willingness to pay (product attractiveness) 2) Decreasing the firm’s unit cost 3) A combination of the two

Output: What is Superior Advantage and how do you create it?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) Study the external environment, especially the industry environment: 2) Locate an attractive industry with a high potential for above-average returns. 3) Identify the strategy called for by the attractive industry to earn above-average returns 4) Develop or acquire assets and skills needed to implement a chosen strategy 5) Use the firm’s strengths (its developed or acquired assets and skills) to implement the strategy

Output: The I/O Model Stages

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) External environment imposes constraints, must choose strategy that fits the environment 2) Industry firms have similar resources and pursue similar strategies 3) Resources used to implement strategies are highly mobile and transferable across firms 4) Managers are assumed to be rational actors; with complete information and unlimited information-processing ability

Output: Assumptions of the I/O Model

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: High entry barrier, low suppliers and buyer power, few threats from substitute products, moderate rivalry

Output: Attractive Industry

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Variety-based positioning -- based on the choice of product or service varieties rather than customer segments Needs-based positioning -- serving most or all of the needs of a particular group of customers e.g. Ikea Access-based positioning -- segmenting customers who are accessible in different ways • e.g. urban vs rural

Output: Porter: Strategy rests on unique activities

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: o Creating a fit between companies activities o Success depends on doing many things well, not just a few, and integrating them

Output: What is Strategy according to Michael Porter (1996)?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: o Operational effectiveness -- performing similar activities better than rivals o Pushes productivity frontier outward, raising the bar for everyone, however no relative improvement for anyone o Strategic positioning -- performing different activities from rivals or similar activities in different ways

Output: What is the difference between strategic positioning and operational effectiveness?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: o Leads to image or reputation inconsistencies o Different activities require different product configurations, skills, employee behaviour, management systems, etc. o Limits on internal coordination and control • Organizational priorities become unclear

Output: Why are trade-offs critical for Porters definition of Strategy?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Each strategy involves compromises Becoming neither the lowest cost nor the most differentiated firm. Differentiator cannot reduce the costs at the same level as cost leader without sacrificing their quality or image. Cost Leaders cannot achieve differentiation without increasing their costs According to Porter, firms that are “stuck in the middle” will be less profitable than rivals achieving generic strategy.

Output: “Stuck in the Middle” argument

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Resource-Based View of Strategy that leads to superior returns Includes: Resources, Capabilities, competitive advantage, attractive industry, strategy formulation & implementation

Output: RBV Model

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. resources- strengths and weaknesses compared with competitors 2. capabilities—what it can do better than its competitors 3. competitive advantage- whats their potential 3. find an attractive industry and strategic position with in it 4. select a strategy that allows a firm to utilize its capabilities and opportunities

Output: What are and explain the aspects of RBV?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Differences in firms performances are based on their unique resources and capabilities 1) Resources are not perfectly mobile across firms 2) Competitive advantages are sustainable 3) Superior profits exist when rivals cease their efforts to erode firms’ competitive advantages

Output: What are the assumptions and propositions of the RBV model?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: A firm’s assets that are inputs into a firm’s production process. they are Tangible resources (Financial, Physical, Technological) and Intangible resources (Human. innovation, reputation)

Output: What are resources?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Capabilities (competences): firm’s capacity to deploy resources for developing superior products and services - learned, patterned, repetitious collective activity or simply a routine

Output: What are capabilities?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: VRIN: Value, Rarity, Inimitability, Nonsubstitutability

Output: What are the properties of Core Competencies?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Competences are valuable when they are relevant for developing superior products and services They are needed to compete in an industry

Output: Value

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Competences need to be scarce to contribute to a firm’s competitive advantage If a firm controls a competence that is controlled by a numerous competitors, then the competence is unlikely to be a source of competitive advantage

Output: Rarity

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Inimitability: Competences need also be difficult to imitate Nonsubstitutability: Competences do not have strategic equivalence

Output: What are the sources of sustainable competitive advantage?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Four reasons: Time Compression Diseconomies Asset Mass Efficiencies Social Complexity Causal Ambiguity

Output: Why do rivals find difficult to imitate a focal firm’s competences?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. Brand Loyalty and Reputation 2. Learning Curve 3. Rival response lag: • time it takes for competitors to recognize, evaluate, and formulate a response • waiting times for specialized equipment • rivals are unwilling to let go of their existing profitable businesses. 4. Patents and Trade marks

Output: What are some of the mechanisms for sustaining first mover advantages?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) Free-rider effects 2) First movers can quickly lose their advantage when commercialization is high, shifts in technologies are frequent and they are reluctant to self cannibalize

Output: What are some of the disadvantages of being the first mover?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: AFC= Advantage-creating Frequency 1) Disruptive ACF- Technological innovation (discover radically new technologies) and Product innovation (frequently introduce new products ahead of rivals) 2) Incremental ACF: frequently improve and upgrade the value of their existing products and services.

Output: What is ACF and what are the types?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: - early movers can quickly respond through imitation - able to study customer reactions - avoid both mistakes and huge costs of first movers - can develop more efficient processes and technologies

Output: What are some of the early mover advantages?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: onomies of scope are cost advantages that result when firms provide a variety of products rather than specializing in the production or delivery of a single product or service. Economies of scope also exist if a firm can produce a given level of output of each product line more cheaply than a combination of separate firms, each producing a single product at the given output level

Output: Economies of scope

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: The costs of designing a brand new complex product is higher than the costs of designing an upgraded system through partial retention of existing components

Output: Economies of substitution

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Three reasons: – Increased rate of self-cannibalization – Time compression diseconomies – Red Queen phenomenon

Output: What are the acceleration costs trade offs (as advantage creating frequency increases, why do costs also increase?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: • Products are complex systems consisting of many interdependent components designed and manufactured by different companies • Interfirm collaboration and coordination are critical for achieving compatibility across components

Output: what are strategic networks?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: – Reacting – Anticipating – Leading

Output: From Competing on the Edge Strategy, what does it mean to manage change?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: – Unpredictable – Uncontrolled – Inefficient – Proactive – Continuous – Diverse

Output: Characteristics of competing on the edge strategy:

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: – Unclear industry boundaries – Unpredictable competition – Uncertain environmental changes (technological advances or customer preferences) – Decentralized decision making (at business units)

Output: Competing on the Edge Strategy Assumptions

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Edge of Chaos, Edge of time, and Time Pacing

Output: How do firms achieve semicoherent strategic tendency? (Edge strategy)

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: I/O: Selecting favorable industry or position within industry RBV: Identifying/developing strategic resources DS: Recognizing and exploiting profit opportunities

Output: How do firms create competitive advantage according to the I/0, RBV, and DS models?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: I/O: Defend your market position; RBV: Ex-post limits to competition (inimitability and nonsubstitutability); Leveraging core competences across markets; DS: Competitive advantages are not sustainable. Firms create series of temporal advantages

Output: How do firms sustain competitive advantages according to the I/0, RBV, and DS models?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: I/O: To identify profitable industry context, strategic positioning RBV: To identify strategic resources and design strategy based on those resources DS: Create flexible structure; entrepreneurial culture; strategy emerges from below; from middle managers and knowledgeable employees

Output: What is the role of top managers according to the I/0, RBV, and DS models?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: - Firms that compete in “blue oceans” gain above average profits. -Technological innovation is not critical driver of discovery of “blue oceans” -Incumbents are not at a disadvantage -Strategic moves are basic unit of analysis

Output: What are the main propositions of the Blue Oceans Strategy

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: -They proactively change the industry structure -They make competitors irrelevant -They create new market spaces (product categories) -They pursue cost leadership and differentiation strategy simultaneously (trade-offs become irrelevant)

Output: How does “Blue Ocean” strategy lead to competitive advantages:

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Strategy- a unique position that evolves around exploiting core competences and creating a series of temporal advantages Competitors-

Output: Within the "Action-Reaction" Framework, how is strategy defined, and how do you define competitors?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: An ethical gathering and interpretation of all information about the companies that a firm competes against Includes: Knowing a competitors direction (future objectives), capabilities and intentions (current strategy), beliefs about the industry (its assumptions) and their capabilities

Output: What is competitor intelligence?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Success is based on a firms - ability to make new competitve actions - ability to anticipate and respond to a competitors competitive action - ability of rivals to react to your first move (max value when the likelihood and speed is low)

Output: In the Strategy as Action model, how are firms successful?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. Market Commonality (# of markets both compete in, and the degree of importance of those markets) 2. Resource Similarity: how comparable the tangible and in tangible resources are (if similar, strengths, weaknesses, and strategies)

Output: Explain Competitive Analysis for the A-M-C Moel

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Awareness of rivals actions Motivation to attack or react/respond Capability to attack and respond

Output: What are the drivers of competitive behavior in the A-M-C

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: When - Awareness (greater interdependence and attention) and Capability (ability to hurt and opportunity to attack) are HIGH, there is a decreased Motivation to attack

Output: Explain the Model of Multi-Market Competition (part of AMC model/Market commonality) In other words, what is MUTUAL FORBEARANCE?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: A firm is less likely to attack a rival with whom it has high market commonality

Output: Forbearance Hypothesis

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: When firms have equal resource potential to attack and respond (awareness and capability are HIGH) - they are less likely to attack, but retaliation is high - more likely to quickly respond Dissimilar resources: a rival with resource disadvantage has a longer response time and the rival with the advantage is more likely to attack

Output: How does resource similarity impact Motivation?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Market Commonality because resources are both tangible and intangible, making awareness very challenging

Output: Which has higher predictive power, market commonality or resource similarity (why?)

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. Ignore the move: choose this when no significant impact on firms performance or when using a "wait and see" attitude 2. Accommodation: choose when entry can contribute to the market size, cooperation is less costly then destructive battle *this strategy can show signs of weakness which encourages attack on you 3. Retaliation: protect market position *could lead to Red Queen competition 4. Abandonment: attacker has a large competitive advantage and the market is unattractive for the incumbent

Output: In the Action Response Frame Work, what are the three types of competitive stances?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) Match the attackers move- signals that the incumbent is unwilling to cede/surrender market share 2) Out do the attacker- signals that the incumbent has the ability to prevent the attacker from building a strong position (new entrants usually compete on price)

Output: In the Action-Response Frame Work, what are the different magnitudes for response?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) Immediately: helps reduce the potential impact & prevents the attacker from building a unique position 2) Delayed reaction: helps to avoid over reaction and waste of resources 3) Preemptive strike: prevent the attacker from entering the market

Output: In the Action-Response model, how fast should an incumbent react to an attack?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Respond in the market of attacker (use when you have competitive advantage and dont want to show weakness) Respond in the attackers market (create mutual forbearance) Respond in a neutral market/segment (creates new market space and potentially less powerful rivals)

Output: What should be the domain of response?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) Strategic -require substantial commitment of time and resources to develop - highly visible and complex - elicit fewer numbers of competitive responses (less motivation and capability) and create a longer delay for response 2) Tactical Actions- competitors will respond quickly to tactical actions

Output: According to the Competitive Behavior model, what are the characteristics for competitive actions?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: PRICE- 75% chance of response, 98% matching move in Short period (5.8 days) NON PRICE; 17% chance of response, 90% matching move in longer time period (14.7)

Output: According to the action types and response characteristics (competitive behavior models) how do competitors react to PRICE AND NON PRICE

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Likelihood of attack: Like more motivated to be fast to execute and compete with a wide range of action types (guerilla warfare) likelihood of response: lower capability to respond effectively and timely, less motivated to quickly respond

Output: How does the organization size impact competitive activity? SMALL

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Likely to - initiate more competitive actions and strategic actions - quickly respond - have lots of resources to launch both tactical and strategic actions - rivals are more likely to respond to large firms because they are more visible

Output: How does the organization size impact competitive activity? LARGE

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Future preformance- by looking at their market depedance (extent that revs are derived from one market) - high dependance means they will respond to protect their position, however response will be slow - looking a past performance, poor preforming rivals are likely to respond more quickly then better preforming

Output: How can we predict a rivals performance?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: - reputation is a positive or negative attribute that one rival ascribes to another - based on previous responses when attacked innovative firms: Apple is closely monitored by competitors aggressive and unpredictable firms: delay in responses by rivals

Output: Describe how REPUTATION impacts firms

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: A standard is a format, an interface or a system that allows interoperability - can be public or private - important because control over standards is the basis for competitive advantage

Output: What is a standard and why is it important?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: NET WORK EFFECTS- winner takes all markets: value of a given product is contingent on the number of other consumers that have it (telephones, fax, electronic mil, video games)

Output: Why do standards appear?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Network dep- direct value is from the # of users/installed base, indirect is derived from availability of complementary products that are critical to use the product Network independant- intrinsic features/aspects of the product

Output: Explain the theory of network externalities

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. path dependance: future performance is based on past events 2. positive feedback: leading firms become more successful and follow firms decline

Output: Why do network effects lead to winner takes most markets?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: strategic actions - installed base development - managing complementary products - assessing network intensity

Output: How is strategy defined in Network Industries?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Performance trajectories - those in sustaining technologies expect next generation items and upgrades but disruptive technologies produce low end products that appeal to new/different markets- start much lower in demand, but eventually meet and surpass

Output: Why do market leaders fail to adequately respond to disruptive technologies?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. Companies depend on customers and investors 2. Small markets do not solve the growth needs of large companies 3. Markets that do not exist cannot be analyzed 4. An organization capabilities define its disabilities 5. Technology supply may not equal market demand (preformance over shoot)

Output: What are the main principles of Disruptive Innovation theory?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. determine whether the technology is disruptive 2. define the strategic significance of the disruptive technology 3. locate the initial market for it 4. set up a separate organization (small enough to get excited by small gains) - leaders should be able to respond if they recognize the technology in a timely manner and establish a separate market

Output: How can Managers embrace disruptive technologies?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1. skill related constraints 2. wealth-related constraints- draw a consumption pyramid 3. Access-related constraints- occasions where you cant get it, 4. time-related- takes too long to consume EXAMPLES

Output: What are the FOUR CONSTRAINTS against non consumers?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Idea Discovery (stimulate): Innovation training units Innovation Discovery Boards Idea Evaluation (shepherd): growth council or intrepreneur funds Opportunity Assessment (Spearhead): incubator group or autonomous growth groups Opportunity Commercialization (strengthen): Corporate venture investment unit or business development units

Output: How do organize an internal structure to innovate?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: Discovery Stage (34-30 weeks prior), Idea Evaluation Stage (30-27 weeks prior), Opportunity Assessment Stage (26-14 weeks prior), Concept Development Stage (14-0 weeks prior)

Output: Product Innovation and the Missile Approach

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: 1) higher development costs because aceleated learning leads to costly mistakes, higher testing costs, takes more people to complete quickly 2) Lower learning potential because learning is a cumulative process and it takes time to make sense of complex issues

Output: Why does time depression dis economies occur?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: - doesnt tell us how to develop core competences, only how to evaluate them -doesnt suggest how firms should adapt to changes in the environment - begs the question can a firm develop socially complex resources - suggests that a company cant explain how their cc's were developed because of casual ambiguity

Output: What are the limitations of the VRIN Model?

what are the five definitions of strategy?


Input: [2] Assets-liabilities=networth [1]

Output: Net worth

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Over-The-Counter, made up of computer terminals around the US allowing trades to be made. [1]

Output: OTC Market

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] usually acquired by buying a company's bonds. [1]

Output: Debt Security

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] a loan to a company in exchange for interest income and the promise to repay the loan at a future maturity date. It does not confer ownership [1]

Output: Debt investment

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] primary means of raising capital. A company issues stock, each represents an owners right to a share of the company. [1]

Output: stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Authorized issued outstanding treasury [1]

Output: Common Stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the amount of stock authorized to issue or sell. [1]

Output: Authorized stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the amount of shares a company has issued but has not repurchased. That is investor owned. [1]

Output: outstanding stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] stock that has been repurchased from the public. Corporation can hold stock indefinitely or can reissue or retire it. [1]

Output: Treasury Stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the amount a stockholder would expect to receive if the company was liquidated. [1]

Output: book value

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the price someone would have to pay to purchase stock from a company. [1]

Output: market price

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] common stockholders may vote on certain matters related to the corporation in which he holds stock. The amount of stock held determines how much voting power he has. [1]

Output: voting rights

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Allows a stockholder to cast one vote per share owned for each item on a ballot, such as candidates for the BOD. A board candidate needs simple majority to be elected. [1]

Output: Statutory Voting

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Allows stockholders to allocate their total votes in any manner they choose. [1]

Output: Cumulative Voting

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] a form of absentee ballot. Allows stockholders to vote even if they can't attend a board meeting. [1]

Output: proxy

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] When a company sends proxies to shareholders, usually for a specific meeting. [1]

Output: Proxy Solicitation

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Securities and Exchange Commission. [1]

Output: SEC

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] The right to maintain the same percentage of stock owned in a corporation if they decide to issue more stock. [1]

Output: Preemptive rights

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] When a corporation wants to raise or lower the stock price per share and adjust the price so that stockholders ownership percentage stays the same. [1]

Output: Stock splits

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] increases the number of shares and and reduce the price. [1]

Output: Forward splits

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] decreases number of shares and increases price per share. [1]

Output: Reverse split

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Selling shares before owning them with the intent of buying them back at a lower price in the future. [1]

Output: short sale

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] an invrease in the market price of shares [1]

Output: capital appreciation

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] a corporation may pay regular dividends to stockholders. Depending on whether the company is profitable the dividends may increase or may stop being paid. [1]

Output: cash dividends

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Issuers may also pay stock dividends instead of cash. [1]

Output: Stock Dividends

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] has features of equity and debt securities. Preferred stock is an equity security because it represents ownershipo in the corporation. Like a bond it also offers a fixed-income with a fixed-dividend. Receives dividends before common stockholders, also if company goes bankrupt they have priority over common stock. [1]

Output: prefered stock

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A key attraction for income-oriented investors. [1]

Output: Fixed Dividend

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] dividends that are missed cumulate until the company may resume dividend payments plus the ones that were missed to cumulative preferred. [1]

Output: Cumulative preferred

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] in addition to fixed dividends, participating preferred stock offers its owners a share of corporate profits that remain after all dividends and interest due other securities are paid. [1]

Output: participating preferred

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] allows the corporation to buy back from investors at a stated price after a specified date. This allows company's to replace higher fixed dividends with a lower one. [1]

Output: callable preferred

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] If shares are held in street name this means that the shares are held in the brokerage account in the firms name to facilitate payments and delivery. [1]

Output: Street Name

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Current Yield or dividend yield is the annual dividend(normally four times a year) divided by the current market value of the stock. [1]

Output: Current Yield

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] indicates the shares of a corporation a person owns. The amount of shares listed on the certificate are most likely divisable by 100. [1]

Output: stock certificate

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A Committee on Uniform Securities Identification Procedures- A universal security identification number. each issue of stock has one. [1]

Output: CUSIP numbers

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Responsible for 1. Ensuring that its securities are issued in the correct owner's name. 2. canceling old and issuing new certificates 3. maintaining records of ownership. 4. handling problems relating to lost, stolen, or destroyed certificates. [1]

Output: Transfer Agent

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Ensures that a corporation does not have more shares outstanding than have been authorized. Also responsible for certifying that a bond represents a legal debt of the issuer. Must be independent of the issuing corporation and is usually a bank or a trust company. [1]

Output: Registrar

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] two days before the record date. The ex date is the cut off for someone to qualify someone to receive the dividend. [1]

Output: Ex Date

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 10 days before the record date, when a corporation declares a divident payment. [1]

Output: Declaration Date

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] On the record date all stockholders on record receive a dividend. [1]

Output: Record date

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 3-4 weeks after the record date a disbursing agent sends dividends via check. [1]

Output: Payable date

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] a certificate that represents a short-term privilage to buy additional shares of a corporation. [1]

Output: subscription rights

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] certificate granting its owner the right to purchase securities from the issuer at a specific price. Usually a long term instrument, giving the investor the choice of buying at a later date. [1]

Output: warrant

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] American Depositary Receipts facilite the trading of foreign stocks in US markets. ADR's have currency risk [1]

Output: ADR's

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Real Estate Investment Trusts are company's that manage a portfolio of real estate investments in order to earn profits for shareholders. Traded publicly and serve as a source of long-term financing for real estate projects. [1]

Output: REIT

Ch. 1 Series 7 Equity Securities Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Yes] Areas outside the "curtilage" are subject to police entry and search b/c those areas are public, and therefore not subject to the 4th amendment

Output: What is the "open fields" doctrine?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Yes, may include a search of the person and areas which he might reach to obtain weapons or destroy evidence (eg glove compartment)

Output: May police conduct a warrantless search incident to a lawful arrest?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Yes. It does NOT violate the 10th amendment.

Output: Can Congress indirectly "regulate" activities that it could not regulate directly by imposing conditions on the grant of money to states?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] When his rights have vested. 1) beneficiary manifests assent to the promise in a manner invited or requested by the parties; 2) brings suit to enforce the promise; or 3) materially changes position in justifiable reliance on the promise. Promissory estoppel is also a remedy where parties by agreement have determined when a 3rd party beneficiary's rights vest.

Output: When may a 3rd party beneficiary prevent parties from rescinding or modifying a contract?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] It allows a person who takes from a bona fide purchaser to prevail against any interest that the transferor-bona fide purchaser would have prevailed against, even if the transferee had actual knowledge of the prior unrecorded interest.

Output: What is the shelter rule?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] As purchasers.

Output: How are mortgagees for value treated under recording statutes?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] An admission is a statement by a party to the action offered by the opponent of the party. Admissions also include statements by a party's employees if made during and in the scope of the employment relationship.

Output: What is the admission hearsay exception?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Yes. At any time prior to or during interrogation, a suspect mya invoke a Miranda right to counsel. However, the request must be unambiguous and specific. The oral statements are admissible (but any written statements will not be).

Output: Is the following admissible: D is arrested, and agrees to answer questions orally, but requests the presence of counsel before making any written statements?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] No - as long as Miranda warnings have been given and adversary judicial proceedings have not commenced, voluntary statemetns are admissible.

Output: Do police violate D's Miranda rights if they lie to D's lawyer about their intent to question and fail to inform the D that the lawyer is attempting to see him?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Yes - taxpayers do NOT have standing ONLY in cases where the taxpayer is litigating the way tax money is spent, rather than whether she owes a particular tax.

Output: Do taxpayers have standing to litigate their tax bills?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Strict scrutiny - Must be necessary to achieve a compelling government interest.

Output: What is the 1st Amendment standard for content-based regulation of speech?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Fair market value of the chattel converted at the time and place of conversion, and the D is given title upon satisfaction of the judgment (eg forced sale of chattel).

Output: What is the measure of damages in a conversion action?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Strict scrutiny - Government must prove that it is necessary to achieve a compelling interest. Alienage-based classifications are subject to strict scrutiny unless the law is discriminating against alien participation in the functioning of government.

Output: What is the standard of review for alienage?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] A) No B) No - notary duties are essentially clerical - and have no direct effect on the functioning of government.

Output: A) Is a law requiring citizenship for all civil service positions valid? B) Is a law that requires a notary public to be a citizen valid?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] 1) P is in the class intended to be protected by the statute 2) the Harm suffered is of the type that the statute was designed to prevent

Output: When can violation of a statute establish negligence per se?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Where compliance with the statute was beyond D's control (eg unconsciousness).

Output: When might negligence per se be excused?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Courts generally will not permit such reliance when proof of adverse possession rests only on oral evidence that will not e available to the buyer in the future.

Output: Will a court recognize reliance on adverse possession to prove marketable title?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Yes] Generally, an at-large system presents no one person-one vote problem, because there are no electoral districts. However, where a system is established or maintained for the purose of supressing minority-racee voting power, it is unconstitutional.

Output: When does an election system violate teh Equal Protection Clause?

BarBri Simulated MBE Flashcards Flashcards - Cram.com

Does use of night-vision / thermal imaging entail a search?


Input: [Liability] CONSTITUTIONAL LAW [Legal responsibility]

Output: Law based on the U.S. constitution

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Common law [Legal responsibility]

Output: Law that is derived from society's acceptance of customs and norms over time. Also called case las or judge made law

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Legislative law [Legal responsibility]

Output: Law created by law-making bodies such as congress and state assembl ies. Also called statutory law

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Administrative law [Legal responsibility]

Output: Law that is enacted by governmental agencies at either the federal of state level

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Criminal law [Legal responsibility]

Output: Division of the legal system that deals with wrongs committed against society and it's members.

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Civil law [Legal responsibility]

Output: Incident, investigation, filing of complaint, answering of a complaint, discovery, trial, decision, appeal, settlement.

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Scope of practice [Legal responsibility]

Output: Range of duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform.

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Commonly mandated reports [Legal responsibility]

Output: Spouse abuse, child abuse and neglect, elder abuse, sexual assault, gunshot and stab wounds, animal bites, communicable disease

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Immunity [Legal responsibility]

Output: Exemption from legal liabilty

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Good Samaritan laws [Legal responsibility]

Output: Laws that provide immunity to certain people who assist at the scene of a medical emergency

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Negligence [Legal responsibility]

Output: Deviation from accepted standards of care recognized by law for the protection of others against the unreasonable risk of harm

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] The four elements of negligence [Legal responsibility]

Output: Duty to act, breach of that duty, actual damage, proximate cause

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Duty to act [Legal responsibility]

Output: A formal contracted or informal legal obligation to provide care

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Breach of duty [Legal responsibility]

Output: An action or inaction that violates the standard of care expected from a paramedic

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Standard of care [Legal responsibility]

Output: The degree of care, skill, and judgement that would be expected under like or similar circumstances by a similarly trained, reasonable paramedic from the same community.

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Malfeasance [Legal responsibility]

Output: A breach of duty by performance of a wrongful or unlawful act

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Misfeasance [Legal responsibility]

Output: A breach of duty by performance of a legal act in a manner that is harmful or injurious

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Nonfeasance [Legal responsibility]

Output: A breach of duty by failure to perform a required act or duty

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Res ipsa loquitur [Legal responsibility]

Output: A legal doctrine invoked by plaintiffs to support a claim of negligence. Latin meaning "the things that speaks for itself"

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Actual damages [Legal responsibility]

Output: Refers to compensable physical, psychological, or financial harm

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Proximate cause [Legal responsibility]

Output: Action or inaction of the paramedic that immediately caused or worsened the damage suffered by the patient

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Defamation [Legal responsibility]

Output: An intentional false communication that injures another person's reputation or good name

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Libel [Legal responsibility]

Output: The act of injuring a persons character, name, or reputation by false statement in writing or by mass media

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Slander [Legal responsibility]

Output: Acts of injuring a person's character, name, or reputation by false of malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Consent [Legal responsibility]

Output: A patient granting permission for treatment

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Involuntary consent [Legal responsibility]

Output: Consent to treatment granted by the authority of a court order

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Abandonment [Legal responsibility]

Output: Termination of paramedic- patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Assault [Legal responsibility]

Output: An act that unlawfully places a person in apprehension of immediate bodily harm

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Battery [Legal responsibility]

Output: The unlawful touching of an individual author his consent

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] False imprisonment [Legal responsibility]

Output: Intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his consent of other legal authority

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Reasonable force [Legal responsibility]

Output: The minimal amount of force necessary to ensure that an unruly or violent person does not cause injury to himself of others

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Advance directive [Legal responsibility]

Output: A document created to ensure that certain treatment choices are honored when a pt is unconscious or otherwise unable to express his choice of treatment

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Advance Directives [Legal responsibility]

Output: Living will Durable POA DNR offers Organ donor cards

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Liability] Living will [Legal responsibility]

Output: A legal document that allows a person to specify the kinds of medical treatment he wishes to receive should the need arise

chapter 2 Medical/legal aspects of advanced prehospital care Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An interdisciplinary field that studies the influence of genetic factors on behavioral traits. [Archetypes]

Output: Behavioral genetics


Input: A theoretical orientation based on the premise that scientific psychology should study only observable behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Behaviorism


Input: A model of illness that holds that physical illness is caused by a complex interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. [Archetypes]

Output: Biopsychosocial model


Input: According to Jung, a storehouse of latent memory traces inherited from people's ancestral past. [Archetypes]

Output: Collective unconscious


Input: According to Adler, efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one's abilities. [Archetypes]

Output: Compensation


Input: A state that occurs when two or more incompatible motivations or behavioral impulses compete for expression. [Archetypes]

Output: Conflict


Input: Whatever one is aware of at a particular point in time. [Archetypes]

Output: Conscious


Input: Largely unconscious reactions that protect a person from unpleasant emotions such as anxiety and guilt. [Archetypes]

Output: Defense mechanisms


Input: Diverting emotional feelings (usually anger) from their original source to a substitute target. [Archetypes]

Output: Displacement


Input: An internal state of tension that motivates an organism to engage in activities that should reduce the tension. [Archetypes]

Output: Drive


Input: According to Freud, the decision-making component of personality that operates according to the reality principle. [Archetypes]

Output: Ego


Input: People who tend to be interested in the external world of people and things. [Archetypes]

Output: Extraverts


Input: Statistical analysis of correlations among many variables to identify closely related clusters of variables. [Archetypes]

Output: Factor analysis


Input: According to Freud, failure to move forward from one psychosexual stage to another as expected. [Archetypes]

Output: Fixation


Input: The feeling that people experience in any situation in which their pursuit of some goal is thwarted. [Archetypes]

Output: Frustration


Input: The subfield of psychology concerned with how psychosocial factors relate to the promotion and maintenance of health and with the causation, prevention, and treatment of illness. [Archetypes]

Output: 1. Health psychology


Input: Maslow's systematic arrangement of needs according to priority, which assumes that basic needs must be met before less basic needs are aroused. [Archetypes]

Output: Hierarchy of needs


Input: The tendency to mold one's interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out. [Archetypes]

Output: Hindsight bias


Input: According to Freud, the primitive, instinctive component of personality that operates according to the pleasure principle. [Archetypes]

Output: Id


Input: Bolstering self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group. [Archetypes]

Output: Identification


Input: The degree of disparity between one's self-concept and one's actual experience. [Archetypes]

Output: Incongruence


Input: People who tend to be preoccupied with the internal world of their own thoughts, feelings, and experiences. [Archetypes]

Output: Introverts


Input: A person whose behavior is observed by another. [Archetypes]

Output: Model


Input: Purposeful suppression of memories. [Archetypes]

Output: Motivated forgetting


Input: The need to fulfill one's potential. [Archetypes]

Output: Need for self-actualization


Input: According to Freud, children's manifestation of erotically tinged desires for their opposite-sex parent, accompanied by feelings of hostility toward their same-sex parent. [Archetypes]

Output: Oedipal complex


Input: The process of forming impressions of others. [Archetypes]

Output: Person perception


Input: According to Jung, the level of awareness that houses material that is not within one's conscious awareness because it has been repressed or forgotten. [Archetypes]

Output: Personal unconscious


Input: Psychological tests that measure various aspects of personality, including motives, interests, values, and attitudes. [Archetypes]

Output: Personality tests


Input: A durable disposition to behave in a particular way in a variety of situations. [Archetypes]

Output: Personality trait


Input: The assumption that one must appreciate individuals' personal, subjective experiences to truly understand their behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Phenomenological approach


Input: According to Freud, the principle upon which the id operates, demanding immediate gratification of its urges. [Archetypes]

Output: Pleasure principle


Input: According to Freud, the level of awareness that contains material just beneath the surface of conscious awareness that can easily be retrieved. [Archetypes]

Output: Preconscious


Input: Attributing one's own thoughts, feelings, or motives to another. [Archetypes]

Output: Projection


Input: Psychological tests that ask subjects to respond to vague, ambiguous stimuli in ways that may reveal the subjects' needs, feelings, and personality traits. [Archetypes]

Output: Projective tests


Input: A theory developed by Freud that attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Psychoanalytic theory


Input: All the diverse theories descended from the work of Sigmund Freud that focus on unconscious mental forces. [Archetypes]

Output: Psychodynamic theories


Input: According to Freud, developmental periods with a characteristic sexual focus that leave their mark on adult personality. [Archetypes]

Output: Psychosexual stages


Input: An event that follows a response that weakens or suppresses the tendency to make that response. [Archetypes]

Output: Punishment


Input: Creating false but plausible excuses to justify unacceptable behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Rationalization


Input: Behaving in a way that's exactly the opposite of one's true feelings. [Archetypes]

Output: Reaction formation


Input: According to Freud, the principle on which the ego operates, which seeks to delay gratification of the id's urges until appropriate outlets and situations can be found. [Archetypes]

Output: Reality principle


Input: The assumption that internal mental events, external environmental events, and overt behavior all influence each other. [Archetypes]

Output: Reciprocal determinism


Input: A reversion to immature patterns of behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Regression


Input: The process of repetitively verbalizing or thinking about information to be stored in memory. [Archetypes]

Output: Rehearsal


Input: The circumstances or rules that determine whether responses lead to the presentation of reinforcers. [Archetypes]

Output: Reinforcement contingencies


Input: The measurement consistency of a test (or of other kinds of measurement techniques). [Archetypes]

Output: Reliability


Input: Keeping distressing thoughts and feelings buried in the unconscious. [Archetypes]

Output: Repression


Input: A tendency to respond to questions in a particular way that is unrelated to the content of the questions. [Archetypes]

Output: Response set


Input: People with exceptionally healthy personalities, marked by continued personal growth. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-actualizing persons


Input: A collection of beliefs about one's own nature, unique qualities, and typical behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-concept


Input: One's belief about one's ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-efficacy


Input: A person's overall assessment of her or his personal adequacy or worth. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-esteem


Input: The degree to which people attend to and control the impression they make on others in social interactions. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-monitoring


Input: Personality tests that ask individuals to answer a series of questions about their characteristic behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Self-report inventories


Input: A generalized preference for high or low levels of sensory stimulation. [Archetypes]

Output: Sensation seeking


Input: A tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself. [Archetypes]

Output: Social desirability bias


Input: According to Adler, the universal drive to adapt, improve oneself, and master life's challenges. [Archetypes]

Output: Striving for superiority


Input: According to Freud, the moral component of personality that incorporates social standards about what represents right and wrong. [Archetypes]

Output: Superego


Input: According to Freud, thoughts, memories, and desires that are well below the surface of conscious awareness but that nonetheless exert great influence on behavior. [Archetypes]

Output: Unconscious


Input: This is often a warning sign of a stroke.

Output: transient ischemic attack


Input: What is the most common cause of stroke?

Output: thrombosis due to atherosclerosis


Input: Who is most at risk for embolus?

Output: individuals with a-fib, orthopedic surgery


Input: What is the most important modifiable risk factor for stroke?

Output: hypertension


Input: Obesity is defined as BMI > ___.

Output: 30


Input: What are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke?

Output: age, gender, race


Input: What is dysphagia?

Output: impaired swallowing


Input: What is agraphia?

Output: loss of ability to write


Input: _____ aphasia is difficulty making thoughts known to others.

Output: Expressive


Input: ____ aphasia is difficulty understanding what others tries to communicate.

Output: Receptive


Input: What is dysarthria?

Output: paralysis of the facial muscles


Input: What does the affected side of vision correspond with?

Output: paralyzed side of body


Input: What is homonymous hemianopia?

Output: loss of half of visual field


Input: What is proprioception?

Output: awareness of body position on space


Input: What does the extent of injury with a stroke depend on?

Output: artery location


Input: What type of medical intervention is needed for stroke if A-fib is present?

Output: anticoagulant therapy


Input: This treatment dramatically improves the chance of survival?

Output: rtPA--> recombinant tissue plasminogen activator


Input: How soon should rtPA be administered?

Output: within the 3 hours of s/s


Input: What is rtPA contraindicated in?

Output: active or history of bleeding, low platelet count, taking anticoagulants


Input: What is there a huge risk for if gag reflex is decreased?

Output: aspiration


Input: ____ therapy will help evaluate the pts ability to eat safely

Output: Speech


Input: What type of foods are tolerated best for stroke patients?

Output: semi-solid


Input: What position should stroke patient be in for meals?

Output: High-Fowler's


Input: How long should stroke patient stay in High-Fowler's after eating?

Output: 45-60 minutes


Input: For homonymous hemianopia, where should personal belongings be placed?

Output: on unaffected side


Input: How do you prevent edema in the lower extremities?

Output: elevation of limbs


Input: When should rehab begin?

Output: day 1


Input: What should the patient do as much of as possible, even though it can be time consuming?

Output: self-care


Input: What is a bowel complication associated with stroke?

Output: fecal impaction


Input: This affects the legs more often than the arms.

Output: peripheral vascular disease


Input: What is the patho of PVD?

Output: occluded arterial blood flow due to atherosclerosis


Input: What is the most common s/s of PVD?

Output: intermittent claudication; may have numbness in leg muscles


Input: What is the skin appearance with PVD?

Output: skin may be smooth and shinny with hair loss


Input: PVD decreases ___ ____.

Output: peripheral pulses


Input: What is a major predisposing factor for PVD?

Output: hypertension


Input: This identifies the severity of occlusive disease.

Output: Ankle Brachial Pressure Index


Input: What is a major intervention for treating PVD?

Output: legs should be kept level with the heart; wear well fitted shoes


Input: What should be checked distal to occlusion in PVD?

Output: pulses


Input: These have been reported to decrease progression of atherosclerosis in pts with peripheral arterial occlusive disease.

Output: antiplatelet agents (ASA)


Input: What is Raynaud's disease?

Output: vasospasms of digital arteries


Input: What might individuals with Raynaud's later develop?

Output: connective tissue disease


Input: What does Raynaud's usually affect?

Output: hand


Input: What is the treatment for Raynaud's?

Output: abstention from tobacco; cover extremities involved when exposed to cold


Input: What is deep vein thrombophlebitis?

Output: inflammation of a vein that has formed a clot


Input: What forms a clot in DVT?

Output: platelets, RBC, fibrin


Input: What are the three factors that contribute to the development of DVT?

Output: stasis, vascular damage, and hypercoagulability


Input: What are the causes of venous stasis?

Output: A-fib, orthopedic surgery, prolonged immobility


Input: What are the causes of hypercoagulability of blood?

Output: cigarette smoking, pregnancy


Input: What are the s/s that occur with DVT that only happen when the clot completely obstructs blood flow?

Output: swelling, muscle tenderness, warmth of the affected extremity, pain, malaise, fever


Input: What is the most common symptom with DVT?

Output: pain


Input: How is post-thrombotic syndrome characterized?

Output: skin changes (ankle reddish-brown discoloration), ulceration (stasis ulcer)


Input: What are some of the diagnostics for DVT?

Output: venous ultrasonography, d-dimer


Input: This is an unreliable diagnostic for DVT?

Output: Homan's sign--> pain during dorsiflexion of the foot


Input: What is the most important reason for treating DVT?

Output: prevention of PE


Input: What is the cornerstone for DVT therapy?

Output: Heparin, Lovenox, and Coumadin


Input: Why is lab monitoring easier with Lovenox therapy?

Output: longer half-life


Input: With lovenox injections what might the patient notice?

Output: small, purple hemorrhage area on the upper abdomen


Input: What is important to overlap heparin treatment with?

Output: Coumadin


Input: Coumadin blocks ____ ____.

Output: prothrombin synthesis


Input: What does Coumadin interfere with?

Output: Vitamin K


Input: How often should INR be checked for patients on Coumadin?

Output: q 4-6 weeks


Input: How should the involved extremity be positioned to avoid edema?

Output: above the heart to increase venous return


Input: What should you avoid doing to keep the clot from moving?

Output: rubbing the leg or ambulating the client


Input: Which labs should be monitored if taking Lovenox?

Output: CBC and platelet


Input: What is the antidote for Heparin and Lovenox?

Output: Protamine Sulfate


Input: What is the antidote for Coumadin?

Output: Vitamin K


Input: What should you tell the patient on anticoagulant therapy to avoid regarding OTC drugs?

Output: aspirin; obtain physician's permission


Input: When ambulating what should the client with DVT use?

Output: elastic stockings


Input: What are some preventative measures for DVT?

Output: early ambulation in post-op patients, passive or active ROM for bedridden patients, change IV tubing q24-48 hours and IV catheter q48-96 hours, avoid sitting or standing for long time, TED stockings


Input: What is one of the most common preventable diseases?

Output: pulmonary embolism


Input: What is the cause of a PE?

Output: usually when a thrombus in the deep veins of the lower extremities loosens or dislodges and moves to the pulmonary system


Input: What is a major s/s of PE?

Output: pleuritic chest pain


Input: What type of diet should be ordered for a stroke patient?

Output: provide adequate fluid intake; diet with enough roughage for sufficient quantity of bowel content (increase fiber)


Input: What is PVD?

Output: progressive narrowing and degenerative disease of the blood vessels in the peripheral circulation


Input: What is the leading cause of PVD in pts over 40?

Output: atherosclerosis


Input: What have antiplatelets been reported to do?

Output: decrease progression of atherosclerosis in patients with peripheral arterial occlusive disease


Input: What are some causes of venous stasis?

Output: advanced age, A-fib, orthopedic surgery, prolonged immobility


Input: What are some causes of endothelial damage?

Output: trauma, IV medications, abdominal surgery


Input: What are some causes of hypercoagulability?

Output: cigarette smoking, pregnancy, estrogen therapy


Input: This develops in 40-60% of clients with DVT?

Output: post-thrombotic syndrome


Input: How is post-thrombotic characterized?

Output: chronic leg pain, edema, skin changes (ankle reddish-brown discoloration) ulceration


Input: What does doppler ultrasound measure?

Output: velocity of blood flow in veins


Input: What does D-dimer measure?

Output: fibrin degredation fragments


Input: A patient with DVT should be put on __ ___ so the clot wont embolize.

Output: bed rest


Input: What causes atherosclerosis?

Output: HTN, high cholesterol (fatty foods)


Input: What are the primary causes of stroke?

Output: thrombosis, embolus, hemorrhage


Input: What has been shown to be an independent risk factor for stroke?

Output: obesity and abdominal fat


Input: Why is A-fib a risk factor for stroke?

Output: because of venous stasis--> more potential for clotting


Input: What is the only s/s you will see on the same side as the stroke?

Output: dropping eyelid (ptosis)


Input: If you have a left-sided stroke what are the s/s on the right side?

Output: hemianopia and paralysis


Input: What is a nursing intervention for hemianopsia?

Output: teach the patient to scan (turn the head to see things on affected side)


Input: For a left-sided stroke where might the dysarthia be manifested?

Output: on the right side


Input: What is the diagnostic for stroke?

Output: MRI and CT scan


Input: What are the nursing interventions for acute care patients with stroke?

Output: neuro checks, monitor for increased ICP, observe face for symmetry


Input: What is "arm drift"

Output: try to keep your hands up and they drift down


Input: What is the best way to prevent aspiration?

Output: assess for gag reflex (but the presence of a gag reflex is not guarantee against aspiration)


Input: What type of diet should the patient be on until gag reflex is evaluated?

Output: NPO


Input: How should the nurse approach a client with hemianopsia?

Output: on the unaffected side


Input: WHy should we keep stroke client in prone position for 15 minutes?

Output: prevent contractions


Input: Why do contractures occur?

Output: arms have not been moved; no ROM has been performed q4' on all extremities


Input: What is important for the clients and family members?

Output: referrals (family coping strategies)


Input: What is a major NI for expressive aphasia?

Output: associate words with physical objects


Input: What is very helpful for a patient with receptive aphasia?

Output: nonverbal communication


Input: What disorder is commonly associated with PVD?

Output: diabetes


Input: What type of treatment might be best for PVD?

Output: antiplatelets (ASA)


Input: What is the name of the pain for PVD?

Output: intermittent claudication (relieved with rest)


Input: How should the legs be positioned with PVD?

Output: level with the heart


Input: What should a client avoid wearing with a venous disease (PVD).

Output: TED hose


Input: How should the legs be positioned with DVT?

Output: above the heart


Input: What are some NI for arterial occlusive disease?

Output: wash legs with warm water, do not wear ted hose, apply moisturizing cream to feet


Input: What is rest pain with arterial occlusive disease?

Output: his legs are deprived of oxygen during periods of inactivity


Input: Why is Nifedipine a treatment for Raynaud's?

Output: helps with arterial dilation


Input: What should be monitored on a patient taking Coumadin?

Output: intake of vitamin K rich foods (green leafy vegetables)


Input: What is HIT?

Output: an allergy against heparin; develop antibodies against heparin


Input: What does HIT do to platelets?

Output: they are dropped by 50%


Input: What is the most important NI for prevention of DVT in pre-op patients?

Output: in bed ROM


Input: Certain situational circumstances that appear unimportant on the surface but that can have great consequences for behavior, either facilitating or blocking it or guiding behavior in a particular direction. [Social psychology]

Output: Channel factors

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Internal factors, such as beliefs, values, personality traits, or abilities that guide a person’s behavior. [Social psychology]

Output: Dispositions

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The failure to recognize the importance of situational influence on behavior, together with the tendency to overemphasize the importance of dispositions or traits on behavior. [Social psychology]

Output: Fundamental attribution error

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Interpretation and inference about the stimuli or situations we confront. [Social psychology]

Output: Construal

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Based on the German word Gestalt, meaning “form” or “figure,” this approach stresses the fact that objects are perceived not by means of some automatic registering device but by active, usually unconscious, interpretation of what the object represents as a whole. [Social psychology]

Output: Gestalt psychology

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A situation involving payoffs to two people in which trust and cooperation lead to higher joint payoffs than mistrust and defection. The game gets its name from the dilemma that would confront two criminals who were involved in a crime together and are being held and questioned separately. Each must decide whether to “cooperate” and stick with a prearranged alibi or “defect” and confess to the crime in the hope of a lenient treatment. [Social psychology]

Output: Prisoner’s dilemma

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Generalized knowledge about the physical and social world and how to behave in particular situations and with different kinds of people. [Social psychology]

Output: Schemas

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Schemas that we have for people of various kinds that can be applied to judgments about people and decisions about how to interact with them. [Social psychology]

Output: Stereotypes

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An evolutionary process that molds animals and plants such that traits that enhance the probability of survival and reproduction are passed on to subsequent generations. [Social psychology]

Output: Natural selection

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The understanding that other people have beliefs and desires [Social psychology]

Output: Theory of mind

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The evolutionary principle that costs and benefits are associated with reproduction and the nurturing of offspring. Because these costs and benefits are different for males and females, one sex will normally value and invest more in each child than will the other sex. [Social psychology]

Output: Parental investment

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cultures in which people tend to think of themselves as distinct social entities, tied to each other by voluntary bonds of affection and organizational memberships but essentially separate from other people and having attributes that exist in the absence of any connection with others. [Social psychology]

Output: Independent (individualistic) cultures

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cultures in which people tend to define themselves as part of a collective, inextricably tied to others in their group and having relatively little individual freedom or personal control over their lives but not necessarily wanting or needing these things. [Social psychology]

Output: Interdependent (collectivistic) cultures

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: People’s tendency to be overconfident about whether they could have predicted a given outcome. [Social psychology]

Output: Hindsight bias

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Research in which there is not random assignment to different situations, or conditions, and from which psychologists can just see whether or not there is a relationship between the variables. [Social psychology]

Output: Correlational research

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In social psychology, research in which people are randomly assigned to different conditions, or situations, and from which it is possible to make very strong inferences about how these different conditions affect people’s behavior. [Social psychology]

Output: Experimental research

Social Psychology I Flashcards - Cram.com