Input: What is contraindicated for massage while in the acute stage? -Bell's palsy -acne -erysipelas -bronchitis [Teres Major]

Output: Bronchitis


Input: What are the implications for massage for a client taking vasodilators? [Teres Major]

Output: Medication may increase the effect of the massage


Input: What is an effect of massage on the cardiovascular system? -soft end feel -increases heart rate and pulse rate -decreases red blood cell count -increases stroke volume [Teres Major]

Output: Increases Stroke Volume


Input: PNF technique in which muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs are used to relax a hypertonic muscle? [Teres Major]

Output: Direct Manupulation (DM)


Input: Which stroke is a rhythmic pressing movement? -vibration -compression -cross fiber friction -percussion [Teres Major]

Output: Compression


Input: Where on SOAP chart do you list prioritized health concerns or goals for the session? [Teres Major]

Output: Subjective


Input: What happens in the forward head position? -long neck extensors -weak neck extensors -long and weak anterior vertebral neck flexors -all of the above [Teres Major]

Output: Long and weak anterior vertebral neck flexors


Input: In kyphotic/lordotic posture, what muscles are most likely elongated and weak? [Teres Major]

Output: Upper back erector spinae


Input: Which muscles are short and strong with sway back posture? [Teres Major]

Output: hamstrings


Input: What is inflammation of the common extensor tendon? -medial epicondylitis -golfers elbow -trigger finger -tennis elbow [Teres Major]

Output: Tennis elbow


Input: What is a treatment for frozen shoulder? -ice in acute stage -deep moist heat in subacute stage -deep moist heat in chronic stage -all of the above [Teres Major]

Output: All of the above


Input: What is based on about 360 points of energy? [Teres Major]

Output: Acupressure


Input: Which traditional Japanese massage tech comes from a Chinese word for calming by rubbing? [Teres Major]

Output: Amma


Input: Which massage system uses Shiatsu? [Teres Major]

Output: Japanese


Input: What receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium [Teres Major]

Output: right ventricle


Input: which fibers consist of collagen in fin bundles and provide support in walls of blood vessels? [Teres Major]

Output: reticular


Input: which cranial suture is the articulation of the parietal and temporal bones? [Teres Major]

Output: Squamous


Input: where are the ribs relative to the chest and back? [Teres Major]

Output: Deep


Input: what is the relationship of the frontal, transverse, and sagittal planes to each other? [Teres Major]

Output: they are at right angles


Input: method involving the stomach meridian from orbital cavity, ending at second toe and being associated with food intake? [Teres Major]

Output: shiatsu


Input: which has the anterior part of iliac crest as one of its insertions? External obliques trapezius temporalis erector spinae [Teres Major]

Output: External Obliques


Input: where does the platysma insert? [Teres Major]

Output: skin on edge of mandible


Input: which are tarsals -malleolus, talus, phalanges -cuboid, cuneiforms, navicular -acromion process, spine of scapula, clavicle -lunate, pisiform, hamate [Teres Major]

Output: cuboid, cuneiforms, navicular


Input: what is the origin of the short head biceps brachii? [Teres Major]

Output: coracoid process


Input: which muscle inserts on the tuberosity of the radius? -biceps brachii -plantaris -deltoid -trap [Teres Major]

Output: biceps brachii


Input: which muscle of the forearm would be used to turn a screwdriver clockwise? [Teres Major]

Output: supinator


Input: which muscle would predominantly have fast twitch fibers? -erector spinae -soleus -transversospinalis -biceps brachii [Teres Major]

Output: biceps brachii


Input: what happens in a concentric muscle contraction? [Teres Major]

Output: the muscle shortens


Input: which muscle originates on the lumbar vertebrae and inserts on the lesser trochanter? [Teres Major]

Output: Psoas major


Input: what is there in the back with an anterior tilt of the pelvis. [Teres Major]

Output: Lordosis


Input: which area is associeated with the SCM, mandible and trachea? [Teres Major]

Output: anterior triangle


Input: which of the following is a component of the posterior triangle endangerment site? -brachial artery -brachicephalic artery -oblique plane -vagus nerve [Teres Major]

Output: brachiocephalic artery


Input: what is an effect of massage on the cardio system? -stops release of acetylchlorine and histamine -decreases white blood cell count -decreases red blood cell count -increases platelet count [Teres Major]

Output: increases platelet count


Input: what massage movement produces a hyperemia? [Teres Major]

Output: Compression


Input: What is an abrupt limitation to a a joint movement? [Teres Major]

Output: empty end feel


Input: what contributes to aids? [Teres Major]

Output: low t-cell count


Input: if a client has flat back posture, what is the most aqppropriate treatment? [Teres Major]

Output: lengthen semitendinosus


Input: what is don for knee flexed along with posterior tilting of the pelvis and a flattening of the lumbar spine? [Teres Major]

Output: lengthen tibialis anterior


Input: what is an appropriate consideration for self care? -maximize the assignments -introduce a vigorous exercise program -support the client in achieving their goals -recommend a radical change in diet [Teres Major]

Output: support the client in achieving their goals


Input: where on the SOAP chart is the initial gait analysis documented? [Teres Major]

Output: objective


Input: which are weak when the scapula is rotated so the axillary border is more horizontal than normal? [Teres Major]

Output: serratus anterior and trap


Input: which muscle tends to show acquired postural weakness in left handed individuals? -right hip abductors -right flexor hallucis longus -digastric -hyoid [Teres Major]

Output: right flexor hallucis longus


Input: where on SOAP chart is the initial gait analysis documented? [Teres Major]

Output: objective


Input: what is the dysfunction in which muscles compensate for a weak prime mover to produce the movement? [Teres Major]

Output: Synergistic dominance


Input: what is happening when the pelvis maintains its ideal alignment? [Teres Major]

Output: the anterior hip flexors pull downward


Input: what is an abnormal positioning of the head and neck relative to the body? [Teres Major]

Output: torticollis


Input: who popularized the movement cure in america, introducing the swedish movements in the mid 19th century? [Teres Major]

Output: Taylor


Input: who developed a connective tissue massage technique called Bindegewebmassage? [Teres Major]

Output: Dicke


Input: What is a condition that prompts dual relationships? [Teres Major]

Output: Sexual activity family members


Input: what vitamin is found in brewers yeast? [Teres Major]

Output: vitamin B complex


Input: What is the purpose of an S Corporation? [Teres Major]

Output: avoid double taxation.


Input: What are the 4 basic types of tissue in the body? [Teres Major]

Output: Epithelial, connective, muscle and nervous


Input: what receives deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle? [Teres Major]

Output: Pulmonary arteries


Input: Which method involves the spleen meridian beginning at the great toe, ending in the intercostal space, and bing associated with digestion? -acupuncture -acupressure -shiatsu -all of the above [Teres Major]

Output: all of the above


Input: whree does splenius cervicis insert? -hyoid -vertebrae -occiput -mandible [Teres Major]

Output: vertebrae


Input: what best describes the organization of the muscle fibers of the deltoid? [Teres Major]

Output: triangular


Input: what is a transverse thickening of connective tissue that straps tendons down? [Teres Major]

Output: retinaculum


Input: what are accessory movements of the articulating surfaces of bones at joint surfaces [Teres Major]

Output: arthrokinematics


Input: what is anaplasia? [Teres Major]

Output: cells tha fail to mature into specialized cells


Input: which is generally contraindicated for massage? -osteomyelitis -sprains -joint stiffness -headaches [Teres Major]

Output: osteomyelitis


Input: what is the first stage of the general adaptation sydrome? [Teres Major]

Output: fight or flight, body's initial reaction, alarm


Input: when shoud heat be avoided? [Teres Major]

Output: edema


Input: if a client has kyphotic-lordotic posture, what is the most appropriate treatment? [Teres Major]

Output: lengthen iliacus and rectus capitis posterior major


Input: overactive muscles for low back pain, buttock pain, and hamstring strains when extending the trunk? [Teres Major]

Output: erector spinae and hamstrings


Input: what is done if a client has the foot pulled into forefoot varus with the big toe abducted? [Teres Major]

Output: lenthen abductor hallucis


Input: which is more objective? -interviewing -listening -client history -physical assessment [Teres Major]

Output: physical assessment


Input: which muscles are about 25-30% stronger than their antagonists? [Teres Major]

Output: flexors, internal rotators, and adductors


Input: if a client has a forward head position, what is most likely to be true? [Teres Major]

Output: the neck extensors are short


Input: where on the SOAP chart would the therapist visual observations of muscle guarding be documented? [Teres Major]

Output: objective


Input: what is treated by stretching the pecs, sublavius, serratus anterior, and the anterior intercostals? [Teres Major]

Output: hyperkyphosis


Input: what is the primary technique of neuromuscular therapy? [Teres Major]

Output: gliding


Input: relationship when an experienced therapist with a PhD performs a massage on a new therapist? [Teres Major]

Output: Power differential


Input: what is not a violation of a code of ethics? [Teres Major]

Output: confidentiality


Input: what is done by governments rathe than associations/ [Teres Major]

Output: licensing


Input: which stance is known as the horse stance? -asymmetric -body mechanics -laterally recumbent -symmetric [Teres Major]

Output: symmetric


Input: what is in butter, egg yolks and yellow vegetables? -vitamin A -vitamin B complex -aloe -vitamin D [Teres Major]

Output: Vitamin A


Input: Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

Output: A system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS System

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Quality Control

Output: The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate care standards are me by EMTB on each call

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Primary Service Area (PSA)

Output: The designated area in which EMS service is responsible for the provision of prehospital care emergency care and transport

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: SARS (Severe Acute respiratory Syndrome)

Output: Potential life threatening disease that usually start with Flu like symptoms

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: exposure control plan

Output: A comprehensive plan that helps employees to reduce their risk of exposure to or acquisition of communicable diseases

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

Output: A process that confront the response to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency personnel toward physical and emotional balance

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Host

Output: The organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Virulence

Output: The strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease


Input: Infections disease

Output: A disease caused bu infection

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Communicable Disease

Output: Any disease that can be spread from person to person, animal to person

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: General Adaption Syndrome

Output: The body's three stage response to stress: First stress causes the body to trigger and alarm response, and then recovery, or if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Assult

Output: unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm


Input: Precedence

Output: basing current action on lessons, rules, or guidelines derived from previous similar experiences


Input: advance directives

Output: A written document that specifies medical treatment should a patient become unable to make decisions - living will

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: medicolegal

Output: A term relating to medical jurisprudence (law) or forensic medicine


Input: perfusion

Output: Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue


Input: hypotension

Output: blood presser that is below normal range


Input: vasoconstriction

Output: narrowing of the blood vessels

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: symptoms

Output: Subjective findings that the patient feels but only identified by the patient


Input: conjunctiva

Output: the delicate membrane lining of the eye lids


Input: spontaneous respirations

Output: breathing that occurs with no aissitance

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: diaphoretic

Output: Characterized by profuse sweating


Input: sniffing position

Output: an unusually upright position in which the patients head chin are thrust slightly forward

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Rapid extrication technique

Output: A technique used to move a patient from siting position inside vehicle to supine position in less than 1 minute

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Direct ground lift

Output: A lifting technique used for patients found lying on the ground and have no suspected spinal injury

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Emergency move

Output: A move which the patient is dragged or pulled from the scene before initial assessment and care provided

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: extremity lift

Output: lifiting technique used for patients in supine or sitting position and with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: Autonomic Nervous System

Output: The part of the nervous system that regulates functions such as digestion and sweating, not controlled voluntarily

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: sternocleidomastoid muscles

Output: The muscles on the side of the neck that allow movement of the head

EMT Basic Chapter 1-6 Flashcards - Cram.com

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and in providing callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.


Input: enzymens

Output: protein catalyst designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions


Input: platelets

Output: Tiny disc shaped elements smaller than cells and stops bleeding


Input: C3-C4 level (in the vicinity of the mandible

Output: at what vertebral level does the common carotid artery split?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: carotid aa: 2/3 vertebral aa: 1/3

Output: carotid aa vs. vertebral arteries: which has greater % of blood supply to brain?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: THERE ARE NONE! it goes straight up to the brain

Output: name the branches of the internal carotid a. in the neck

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: Some Aggie Love Football On Pretty Saturday Mornings Superior thyroid Ascending laryngeal Lingual Facial Occipital Posterior Auricular Superficial Temporal Maxillary

Output: name the branches of the external carotid a. in the neck

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: Internal and common carotid aa. Internal jugular v. Vagus n. (X)

Output: What are contained in the carotid sheath?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the internal jugular v. -begins at jugular fossa and descends LATERALLY along the carotid artery -often used as a IV site when peripheral veins are unavailable

Output: what is the primary drainage of the brain?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: IJV --> joins with subclavian to become brachiocephalic v --> SVC

Output: what is the path of blood after the internal jugular v?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: ventral rami (C1-C4)

Output: Is the cervical plexus composed of dorsal or ventral rami?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: C2-C3 & C3-C4 motor 1) strap mm of anterior cervical triangle, 2) geniohyoid of tongue, 3) twigs to trapezius, levator scapulae, and middle scalene mm.

Output: cutaneous nn of the neck come from loops between what spinal nn's? motor or sensory? what do they supply (mm's)?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: ansa cervicalis has inferior root coming from spinal nerves and superior part ascending to run next to hypoglossal n. for a short time

Output: what is the name of the large loop formed by the cervical plex loops?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: The carotid sinus is an outpouching of the internal carotid artery at the base. It contains baroreceptors (bp). The carotid body is actually between the internal and external carotid aa's and contains chemoreceptors(ppO2 & etc)

Output: The internal carotid artery has a bulb containing a sinus and a body at the base of its bifurcation off of the common carotid. Which is a chemoreceptor, and which is a baroreceptor?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: scalenus anterior, medius, and posterior mm. O: transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae I: s. ant- scalene tubercule of 1st rib s. medius- 1st rib s. post- 2nd rib A: to elevate ribs during respiration; bilaterally stabilize neck N: twigs from adjacent cervical nerves

Output: muscles of the root of the neck (3) OIAN

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the upper roots of the brachial plexus

Output: what comes out between the anterior and middle scalene mm's that is very important for orientation?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: right - off of brachiocephalic trunk left - off of aortic arch runs posterior to anterior scalene m. and terminates at the lateral border of 1st rib --> axillary a.

Output: where do left and right subclavian aa's branch from? where do they terminate?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: 3 divisions: medial to anterior scalene m. posterior to anterior scalene m. lateral to anterior scalene m.

Output: how do we divide the subclavian a.?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: jugulosubclavian angle

Output: the thoracic duct on the left, and the lymphatic duct on the right can be found anterior to the subclavian a. at the ________________ angle

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: ansa subclavia

Output: ______ _______ loops around the subclavian a. and joins the middle and inferior cervical trunks of the sympathetic chain

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: -vertebral a. -thyrocervical trunk with 3 branches: 1. transverse cervical a., 2. suprascapular a., 3. inferior thyroid a. -internal thoracic a.

Output: In addition to proximity of the ansa subclavia and thoracic/lymphatic ducts, the 1st part of the subclavian has these 3 branches:

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: 1) transverse cervical a. (w/ superficial branch to trapezius and deep branch to rhomboideus m.) 2) suprascapular a. (over lig.) 3) internal thyroid a. (lower thyroid gland, superior comes off of external carotid a.) & has ascending cervical branch

Output: the thyrocervical trunk off of the 1st part of the subclavian a. has these 3 branches:

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the branch off of the 2nd part of the subclavian a. is the costocervical trunk with these branches: 1) deep cervical a. 2) highest intercostal a.

Output: the 2nd part of the subclavian a. (posterior to the anterior scalene m) has 1 branch that branches into 2

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the cupula of the pleura the first and 2nd parts of the subclavian a. sit on this cupula

Output: the parietal pleura from chest cavity that extends in to the neck to become cervical pleura is called ________

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: usually there are NONE, but sometimes the occipital suprascapular, descending scapular, and dorsal scapular aa. may be found here,

Output: name the branches on the 3rd part of the the subclavian a., lateral to the anterior scalene m.,

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: transverse cervical and suprascapular aa.(from thyrocervical trunk)

Output: what two arteries pin down the phrenic nerve as it travels along the surface of the anterior scalene m?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the acsending cervical a. (from the inferior thyroid a. from the thyrocervical trunk)

Output: what artery usually parallels the phrenic n.?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: phrenic

Output: the vagus n. (X) and sympathetic trunk usually lie medial to the _________ n. (C3-C5)

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: -branch of the vagus n (X) that passes anteriorly to subclavian a. -on left side, it loops under aortic arch -on right side, it loops under brachiocephalic trunk/subclavian a. -it supplies the intrinsic mm of the larynx except the cricothyroid

Output: the recurrent laryengeal n. branches from of what nerve, and what does it loop under on the right side? the left side? what does it supply?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: Superior cervical ganglon: at top of chain Middle cervical ganglion: near vertebral a. at about C6 Inferior cervical ganglion: near vertebral a. at level of first ribl sometimes fused with the first thoracic ganglion.

Output: the sympathetic chain in the head is fused together into 3 ganglia (instead of 8), name the ganglia and their location.

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: the ansa subclavia

Output: the _________ __________ connects the middle and inferior cervical ganglia

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: a STELLATE ganglion

Output: if the inferior cervical and 1st thoracic ganglia fuse, it is called...

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: pancoast tumor @ apex of the lung causes Horner's Syndrome with the loss of sympathetic supply to the head; the pupil becomes constricted and the eyelid is droopy

Output: a pancoast tumor is a tumor at the ____ __ ___ ____. It causes _____________ syndrome.

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: aa: 1. Superior thyroid (from external carotid a.), 2. Inferior thyroid a. (from thyrocervical trunk, from subclavian a.), 3. thyroid ima a. (from aorta; only present in 10%) vv's: 1) superior thyroid v. (drains into internal jugular v.), 2) middle thyroid v. (drains into internal jugular v.), 3) inferior thyroid v. (drains into the brachiocephalic v.)

Output: the thyroid is inferior to the thyroid cartilage and has 2 lobes connected by an isthmus; sometimes a pyramidal lobe is present. Identify the arterial (3 aa's) and venous supply (3 vv's) to the thyroid.

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: parathyroids are on posterior aspect of thyroid and are involved in Ca2+ absorption

Output: where are the parathyroids located, and what are they involved in?

what is the only bony attachement between the upper extremity and the trunk?


Input: [First (Personal)] Reviewed and examined by opposing counsel during cross-examination.

Output: Written documents brought to the stand by a witness can be:

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] When an objection to a question is sustained. Party must state for the record what the answer to the question would be.

Output: When is an offer of proof required?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] At the time offered.

Output: To preserve appeal, evidence must be objected to when...

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] Criminal - Jury not bound to take as true matters that have been judicially noted. Civil - Jury bound.

Output: Judicial Notice (Criminal v. Civil Case)

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] Strike the Direct Examination

Output: If the opposing party is denied cross examination of a witness, the proper remedy is to?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] 1) Inconsistent Statements 2) Bias 3) Self Interest 4) Prior Bad Acts 5) Prior Convictions (Questionable Truth - 10 years, Misdemeanors (not involving dishonesty) - Inadmissable

Output: Means to Impeach a Witness?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] 1) Husband/Wife (3rd Party presence, no attorney, destroys) 2) Attorney/Client (3rd Party necessary does not destroy, held by Client, inapplicable to future crimes, preexisting documents given to attorney does not privilege) 3) Physician/Patient

Output: Privileged Communication (Types)

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] Present Physical Condition - Admissable Past Physical Condition - Only admissable if made to a DR. or like invidiual for medical diagnosis or treatment

Output: Statement of Present vs. Past Physical Condition

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] Business Records kept in order transaction of business are gernerally admissable UNLESS created in preparation of litigation.

Output: Business Record Admissability

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] Yes, can be proven by copy, testimony, or certification of authenticity.

Output: Are Public Records Admissible?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] A summary, chart, or calculation

Output: What can be admitted if the contents of a voluminous writing, record, or photgraphs are too massive bring into court?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] 1) Domestic Public Documents Under Seal 2) " " Not Under Seal but Signed by Public Official 3) Foreign Public Documents 4) Certified Copies of Public Records 5) Official Publications (by Public Authority) 6) Newspaper / Periodicals 7) Trade Inscriptions 8) Commercial Paper 9) Acts of Congress 10) Records of Regularly Coducted Activity (Dom/Foreign)

Output: Self-Authenticating Documents

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: [First (Personal)] 1) Made at or near time of incident 2) Kept in course of regularly conducted activity 3) " " as a regular practice.

Output: Records of Regularly Conducted Activity Requirements?

2011 MBE Evidence Law DC Flashcards - Cram.com

Fill in the Blank: Every witness (unless under an exception) must testify from ________ -hand knowledge.


Input: Why New England had a larger population than the southern colonies.

Output: Because most of the settlers from the great migration came and stayed in New England

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: How the population explosion affected the economy of the colonies

Output: Affected it by a growing economy and a rising standard of living

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Input: Redemptioners

Output: Europeans or ppl in England who waited by the harbor and sold themselves to ship captains to get to colonies. When they reached land, they were auctioned off to the highest bidder. They worked to pay off their debt from 5-7 years.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The scotch-Irish were..

Output: Scottish calvanists. British government wanted them to move to Ireland and later moved to America

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Input: The significance of scotch-irish

Output: They contributed to the migration of the west having conflict with indians. Ignored british restriction and the contributing factor to the american revolution

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Input: The group that first came to Virginia in 1619

Output: Africans

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Lifestyles of the gentry in VA,MD,and NC.

Output: Lived extravigant lifestyles. They lived in large houses and they were foxhunting, horseracing and parting. Made a lot of $ from tobacco, mostly English decent, and copied English aristocrats.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Lifestyle in Tidewater So. Carolina.

Output: Blacks outnumbered whites There were a number of wealthy white families, but the rest of the whites were the poorest among others in the colonies.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Why SC planters had less trouble with debt than planters in Chesapeke bay.

Output: SC planters' crop was tobacco and it brought in a lot of money and fluxuated. Chesapeke Bay had indigo and rice which were stable.

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Input: Why there were more absentee plantation owners in Carolina than other colonies

Output: Because in the summer it would be really hot and diseases were spread

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The important port that was established in Carolina

Output: Charleston

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Input: How the economy of So. Backcountry differed from Tidewater area

Output: Backcountry had small farms-mixed substaining agriculture- making enough to survive. Tidewater had tobacco plantations which brought in a lot of money

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Input: Relations between So.Backcountry and Tidewater

Output: They conflicted. Backcountry farmers were paying taxes and they weren't getting anything in return

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Input: Groups that dominated Pennsylvania

Output: Quakers and Germans

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Input: Triangular trade

Output: NE would bring rum to africa. Africa would bring slaves to the West Indies. Then West Indies would bring money and mollases back to NE.

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Input: How puritan lifestyle changed in the 18th century

Output: They made a lot of money so they dressed nicer and focused more on material things

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The most democratic society found in the colonies

Output: New England

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Input: How life in cities compared to life in other colonies

Output: more skilled, educated, higher standard of living and better informed with newspapers.

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Input: John Peter Zenger

Output: A neswpaper man in NY who criticized the royal governor. He was charged with libel and sentenced to court. Jury found him not guilty and set a precident for freedom of press.

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Input: Factors that contributed to unity among colonies

Output: - Common religion - Shared experience - English political tradition - Shared English legal tradition - Common language

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Input: Description of the stucture of colonial government

Output: Royal governor Legislature (bicameral)' Upper- governors council- advised governor Lower- elected assembly- control over money and governors salary

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Input: The conflict that faced royal governors

Output: He was appointed by English government and was expected orders. Lived with colonists who had control over his money.

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Input: The branch of colonial government that gradually became more powerful and why

Output: The lower house of the legislature because thay had control over the money

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Input: The class that usually controlled assemblies and how they sustained their power.

Output: The upper class (rich). They sustained their power by passing laws, setting property qualifications for voting, and not giving representation to western areas

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Input: The sectional political conflicts that existed in the colonies (5)

Output: - Money - No representation - No protection from indians - No roads - Tithe- Tax to support church in colony

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Input: The condition of religion in the colonies in 18th century

Output: Religion was in decline. Nobodyworried about religion, they were more focused on material items

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Input: What an established chirch is, the established churches in the colonies, and where they were.

Output: A church established or supported by government. The established churches were puritan/congregational churches. They were in the NE colonies except for RI

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Input: John Edwards

Output: succesful preacher who lead the first revival in his own church. Forerunner of great awakening.

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Input: What the great awakening was and who initiated it

Output: It was a widespread dramatic religious revival beginning in 1730. George whitefield initiated it and became of of the people to become a household name.

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Input: Old lights

Output: Conservatives who stressed the importance of an educated clergy

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Input: New lights

Output: Liberals that stressed emotional experience and liked the new style of preaching. New churches and denomination gave ppl more choice and founded new church

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Input: How the great awakening affected blacks in the colonies

Output: Christianization of african americans. Growth of leadership class in black community. Idea of spiritual equality.

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Input: The group that was instrumental in the anti-slavery movement

Output: Quakers

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Input: The enlightenment

Output: Movement that stressed the importance of reason, logical thought turning away from superstition, and saw universe acting from natural laws.

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Input: The thing that happened in salem mass in 1692

Output: Salem witch trials.last witchcraft persecution in colonies.

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Input: Newton's contribution to science

Output: Laws of motion and universal gravitation. Saw universe like a perfect machine operating by fixed mathematical laws.

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Input: John Locke's human reason and learning

Output: people were born with blank minds and they learned by taking info through senses.

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Input: John Locke's ideas about society and government (4).

Output: life, liberty, property. State of nature-no government Contract w/ ruler: obey/protect Can overthrow ruler if rights are violated.

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Input: The american that became an example of the idea of enlightenment

Output: Ben Franklin. He had a lot of accomplishments which made him famous.

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Input: How education differed among the colonies

Output: New England was the only area that required public schooling so they can read the bible. Middle colonies had lower literacy rates than New England. Southern colonies had the lowest literacy rates.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: James Oglethorpe

Output: The founder of Georgia

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Input: The reasons for the founding of GA colony (2)

Output: To protect south carolina from spanish A place for debtors to start over

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Input: Original rules for the GA colony

Output: Size of landholdings limited Prohibited slavery- Free small farmers No rum or brandy

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Input: How the rules of GA colony worked out

Output: Only a few debtors came. South carolina came down with slaves and took over. The laws became banished and soon after that, GA became a royal colony

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Input: Where the french settlements were in north america

Output: St. Lawrence river, southern great lakes, down the mississippi and ohio rivers, and down to New Orleans

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: How the french population differed from the English population in colonies by 1760

Output: The French population was 60,000 people all of fighting age and indian alies and the English population was 1.5 million people

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The colony where most of the fighting took place between the french and the english

Output: Ny colony

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Description of the fighting during king william and queen annes war, what treaty ended these wars and what the british gained.

Output: settlers would go on raiding expeditions, indians would follow and english mostly won The treaty was Utrecht British gained island of nova scotia

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What NE colonists accomplished during king georges war, what treaty ended it, and how it affected this accomplishment

Output: They took the frenchs fort loisbourg The treaty was aix-la-chapelle It affected this accomplishment because they had to give the fort back to the french

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The fort that the french built at forks of ohio and the results of washingtons expedition against the fort

Output: the french built fort duquesene the french and indians ambushed them. washington built fort necessity and french fired upon them easily. send washington back to VA

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What the albany congress was and its results

Output: It was a plan for union among the colonies. council will have power over all colonies. Some colonies rejected it and some colonies ignored it.

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Input: How the french and indian war differed from earlier french and english wars

Output: they sent regular army troops to colonies for the first time

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Braddocks defeat

Output: He lead english soldiers and governor of va lead his soldiers to destroy fort duquesne. They were used to certain style warfare and they were attacked by the french and indians who were behind rocks and trees

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: William pitts war strategy and was it succesful

Output: Allow englands german allies to fight in europe which will free up british forces to fight at sea and in no. america. It was successful because they took fort duquesne and became fort pitt

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The terms of the treaty of paris in 1763

Output: enlish got land east of miss river spain got land west of miss river england gets fl in exchange for cuba

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The major areas of colonial complaints about british policies in 18th C (4)

Output: -restrictions on land settlement -Increase attempt to enforce trade regulations -troops -taxation

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The writs of assistance and how americans reacted

Output: Court orders that authorized customs officers to conduct searches in colonist properties to look for smuggled contraband They revolted because thier privacy rights were violated

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Input: Pontiacs rebellion

Output: A group of indians who were led by Ottawa leader pontiac. They attacked upper and PENN and NY b/c they didnt like british policies

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The proclimation of 1763 and how colonists reacted

Output: boundary line was drawn saying that no settlements can be made past the appalachian mtns Colonists were upet because they wanted to move westward

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Britains motives in stationing troops in america and how colonists felt about it

Output: parliament thought colonists should help pay for troops tobe stationed there and protect new world Colonists felt that their rights ere violaed because troops couldnt be stationed during peace time

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The sugar act of 1764 and the new principle it introduced

Output: raised tariffs on sugar an lowered taxes on molasses colonists saw it as a means for british to raise money rather than reg trade. colonists wanted taxation without representation

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Input: The quartering act

Output: Another way to get the colonists to pay for troops. Had assembly vote to pay fot housing and feeding of trooops

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What the stamp act called for and the response of the colonial assemblies

Output: called for tax on all printed documents. It upset colonists which led to many outbursts

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Input: What the stamp act congress did

Output: stated that only the colonial assemblies had a right to tax the colonies.

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Input: How colonial view of taxation and rep differed from british

Output: The colonist wanted tax without representation Britain believed that all british ppl were represented in parliament. virtual rep

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The sons of liberty and what they did

Output: Secret organization formed in american port cities and their purpose was to see that no tax stamps were sold.-tax stamp riots. They eliminated stamp agents

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Input: The thing that forced the repeal of the stamp act

Output: the boycott

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Input: The townsend acts and how they violated mercantalist principles

Output: Taxes that were put on imports defeated purpose of trading with a balance of trade

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Input: Why New yorks assembly was shut down

Output: NY refused to support troops so parliament shut down assembly until they complied

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Input: How the merchants responded to the townsend acts was it effective?

Output: They revived the boycott and it became more effective as time went on.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: John dickinson and what he wrote

Output: He was a writer and a lawyer, He wrote a letter from a farmer in pennsylvania

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What Samuel Adams did and the result

Output: He wrote a letter which angered the british and they ordered that colonial governors should dissolve their assemblies if they supported the letter. MA assembly became shut down.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The boston massacre

Output: Colonists and unemployed men threw snowballs filled with rocks and other object at guards outside the custom commisioners office and they fired upon them

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What Lord North did about the British policy toward the colonies

Output: Had Townsend acts repealed except the tax on tea and boycott collapsed

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Input: Committee of correspondance and why they were significant

Output: Corresponders who wrote letters to other colonies They would write about what British were up to, serving as network of communication, and bringing them closer together.

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Input: How parliaments attempt tosave the british east india company led to trouble

Output: Tea merchants' income was effected in the colony and ppl didnt like the monopoly which led to protests. Tea ships were sent back and the boston tea party occured.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: Lord North's reaction to the boston tea party

Output: He passed intolerable acts which closed the port of boston until east india co. was repaid for lost tea. Any british official charged with capital crime was charged in england. New quartering act was passed- British soldiers can live within colonists houses.

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: The Quebec act and how it seemed to the colonists

Output: An attempt by government to give it a civilian government. It had no assembly and no trial by jury. Catholic church had equivalent position. Colonists feared that they would get the same government and their rights would be taken away.

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Input: The result of british attempt to isolate massachusetts

Output: drove other colonies to take side with massachesetts

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Input: What the first continental congress accomplished (4)

Output: denounced the intolerable acts calls on colonies to raise troops stop trading with british empire parliament cant have any other laws or taxes for the colonies

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Input: The minutemen

Output: Special units of militia who were ready for action when they were called upon at a moments notice

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Input: Paul revere

Output: On his horse he rode from Boston to lexington with other men and warned people that the british were coming.

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Input: What happened in lexington and concord. What happened on the way back to boston

Output: British drove off americans. 4000 American farmers and colonists hid behind trees and stone walls and fired upon the british troops

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-Immigrants needing land -High birth rate -Low death rate


Input: What can happen in communities where children are unvaccinated?

Output: outbreaks which lead to isolation and quarantine; undermines the value of herd immunity; think of the movie Contagion

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: What are some documented potential side effects from some vaccines?

Output: small % have an allergic rxn; fever, swelling, pain; some claim brain injury

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: Did the Scandinavian epidemiological study find a link between MMR vaccine and autism?

Output: No; no links as well as for the Thimerosal (mercury containing) preservative

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: How has the internet changed the way society approaches medical issues?

Output: Keeps controversial theories alive, no one is listening to the doctors, challenge their doctors; self diagnosing

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: How does Herd immunity protect vulnerable individuals

Output: it stops a virus from spreading critical point 50% of population

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: Does an individual have any responsibility for the health of others with regard to vaccines.

Output: My opinion - Absolutely.

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Not necessary, too many vaccines, causes illness like autism; they should be allowed to get sick


Input: [What is an apartment?] What is Tai Chi?

Output: an ancient Chinese system of movements performed for meditation or exercise

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What is a cobbler?

Output: a person who makes or repairs shoes

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What does delivery mean?

Output: the act of taking something to a person or place

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What is a handcart?

Output: a piece of equipment that has wheels and that is used for moving heavy objects

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What does herbal mean?

Output: made of or relating to herbs - a plant or a part of a plant that is used as medicine or to give flavor to food

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What does furious mean?

Output: Very angry

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What is Kung Fu?

Output: a form of fighting without weapons that was developed in China

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [What is an apartment?] What are celebrations?

Output: Parties or festivals held to mark special days or to honor people.

a building containing several different living spaces


Input: [1] Starting a sole proprietorship is easier and less costly than starting any other form of business. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] To establish dilution, an alleged infringer’s use of a “famous” mark must actually reduce the value of the mark. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A dilution cause of action requires proof that consumers are likely to be confused by a connection between a trademark and its unauthorized use. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A party who unintentionally uses the trademark of another is not li¬able for trademark infringement. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] An applicant cannot register a trademark on the basis of an intention to use the mark in commerce. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A fanciful use of ordinary words may be trademarked. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] An arbitrary use of ordinary words may not be trademarked. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A suggestive use of ordinary words may not be trademarked. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] The unauthorized use of a “famous” trademark is prohibited only if the unauthorized user competes directly with the owner of the mark. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A service mark distinguishes products used by the government. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A personal name is protected under trademark law if it acquires a secondary meaning. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A collective mark distinguishes products that are likely to be of interest to collectors. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A generic term is not protected under trademark law unless it acquires a secondary meaning. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] The unauthorized use of another’s mark in a domain name is generally permissible because the Internet is vast. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Trade dress has the same legal protection as trademarks [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A patent applicant must demonstrate that an invention is “commercially practicable” to receive a patent [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A certification mark distinguishes products approved, or “certified,” by the government. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] In the United States, patent protection is given to the first person to invent a product. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A trade name cannot be registered with the federal government if it is also a trademark. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A patent cannot be obtained for software. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] In the United States, a patent is given to the first person to file for it. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] In determining whether copyright protection should be granted, the cen¬tral issue is the idea that forms the basis for a work. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Patent infringement occurs only if an invention is copied in its entirety. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Intentionally distributing pirated, copyrighted works is not a crime. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] In determining whether copyright protection should be granted, the cen¬tral issue is the way in which a particular idea is expressed. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] In determining whether a copyrighted work is infringed under the “fair use” doctrine, one factor is the effect of the use on the market for the work. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] It is possible to copyright an idea. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A copy must be exactly the same as the original to infringe a copyright. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Intentionally distributing pirated, copyrighted works is a crime. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] Copyright protection extends to the parts of a computer program that can be read by humans. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A person can reproduce copyrighted material for purposes such as teaching, including multiple copies for classroom use, without paying royalties. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A list of customers is not a trade secret. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] A formula for a chemical compound can be a trade secret. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] Pricing information is not a trade secret. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Theft of confidential data by industrial espionage is a theft of trade secrets. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] The theft of trade secrets is not a crime unless a contract is breached. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Each member country of the TRIPS agreement must include in its domestic laws broad intellectual property rights. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] Anyone who writes a book has copyright protection in every country in the world. [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] The TRIPS agreement includes copyright protection for computer programs. [2]

Output: True


Input: [1] A nation that is a party to the TRIPS agreement may discriminate against the foreign owners of intellectual property rights in favor of its own citizens [2]

Output: False


Input: [1] Jill develops a new espresso machine, which she names “Quik Shot.” She also writes the operating manual. Jill can obtain trademark protection for [2]

Output: the name only


Input: [1] Beans Coffee & Cocoa Company makes and sells a chocolate-flavored coffee drink under the name “CoCoCafe.” Darkroast Java, Inc., later markets a similar tasting drink under the name “KoKoKafe.” This is most likely [2]

Output: trademark infringement


Input: [1] In Case 14.1, The Coca-Cola Co. v. The Koke Co. of America, when the Koke Company of America marketed its cola product under the name “Koke,” it infringed the Coca-Cola Company’s [2]

Output: Trademark


Input: [1] National Consumer Company (NCC) uses a trademark that neither NCC nor anyone else has registered with the government. Under federal trademark law, NCC [2]

Output: can register the mark for protection.


Input: [1] Original, Inc., sells its product under the name “Phido.” Quik Corporation begins to market a similar product under the name “Fido.” This is [2]

Output: trademark infringement


Input: [1] In 2008, Digital Equipment Corporation registers its trademark as pro¬vided by federal law. This registration provides protection [2]

Output: for ten years


Input: [1] Standard Corporation can not claim a trademark in the phrase “Quality Is Standard” if the phrase [2]

Output: is generic


Input: [1] Ernie’s Good Eatin’ Cafe uses a distinctive decor, layout, menu, and style of service. This restaurant’s image and overall appearance is [2]

Output: trade dress


Input: [1] Excel Goods, Inc., and Finest Products Corporation use the mark “Good Housekeeping Seal of Approval” to certify the quality of their products. Excel and Finest are not in business together and do not own this mark. The mark is [2]

Output: a certification mark


Input: [1] Modern Clothing, Inc., and National Denim Corporation use the mark “Made by Members of the U.S. Textile Workers Union” on the tags of their products to indicate the participation of the union in the manufacture. Modern and National are not in business together and do not own this mark. The mark is [2]

Output: A collective mark


Input: [1] USA Transport Company uses a mark associated with its name to distin-guish its services from those of other transport firms. The mark is [2]

Output: a service mark


Input: [1] Delightful Toys, Inc., makes EZ Goo, a children’s toy. Without Delightful’s consent, Fast Adhesives Company begins to use “ezgoo” as part of the URL for Fast’s Web site. Fast claims that no consumer would confuse the Web site with the toy. Fast has committed [2]

Output: trademark dilution


Input: [1] E-Shopping Corporation inserts Fiesta Mall, Inc.’s trademark as a meta tag in E-Shopping’s Web site’s key-words field without Fiesta’s permission in a manner that suggests Fiesta authorized the use. This is [2]

Output: trademark infringement


Input: [1] Gamma Corporation allows Kappa Company to use Gamma’s trademark as part of Kappa’s domain name. This is [2]

Output: a license


Input: [1] Ric designs a new computer hard drive, which he names “Sci Phi.” He also writes the operating manual to be included with each final product. Ric could obtain patent protection for [2]

Output: the hard drive only


Input: [1] Phil invents “PhutureNow,” new Web site design software, and applies for a patent. If Phil is granted a patent, his invention will be protected [2]

Output: for twenty years


Input: [1] Sights Unseen, Inc., (SUI) sells scopes with distinctively designed and made lenses and mirrors to scientists. Telescopes, Etc. Corporation later begins to sell scopes with identical set-ups of lenses and mirrors, without SUI’s permission, to consumers. This is most likely [2]

Output: patent infringement


Input: [1] Elementals, Inc., makes computer chips iden¬tical to Flik Quik Corporation’s patented chip, except for slight dif¬fer¬ences in the “look,” without Flik’s permission. This is most likely [2]

Output: patent infringement


Input: [1] Integrity Products, Inc., obtains a patent on a valve. Jiffy-Make Company copies the design. This patent is infringed [2]

Output: regardless of whether the valve is copied in its entirety or sold


Input: [1] Gas Up, Inc., designs and makes a fuel injection system that copies parts of Hybrid Corporation’s designs without Hybrid’s permis¬sion. This is most likely [2]

Output: patent infringement


Input: [1] Fiona invents a new deep-sea fishing net, which she names “Great Catch.” She also writes the operating manual to be included with each net. Fiona could obtain copyright protection for [2]

Output: The manual only


Input: [1] In 2008, Sara writes Terror at the Track, a novel about racecar driving. Sara does not register the work with the appropriate government office. Under federal copyright law, Sara’s work is protected [2]

Output: for the life of the author plus seventy years


Input: [1] Cathy uses, on her new recording Drive By, the melody of a song written by Ed, without Ed’s permission. This is [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] Mike copies Nora’s book, One for the Money, to a substantial degree and sells it to Peak Editions, Inc., without Nora’s permission. Peak publishes it under Mike’s name. This is [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] Donna makes and distributes copies of Every Good Boy Does Fine, a movie copyrighted by Great Films Corporation, without Great Films’ permission. Donna may be liable for [2]

Output: damages, fines, or imprisonment.


Input: [1] Rita copies Sam’s book, Two for the Show, in its entirety and sells it to USA Books, Inc., without Sam’s permission. USA publishes it under Rita’s name. This is [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] Ellen publishes a book titled First Place, which includes a chapter from Frank’s copyrighted book Great Racecar Drivers without his permission. Ellen’s use of the chapter is actionable [2]

Output: regardless of whether consumers are confused or Ellen and Frank are competitors.


Input: [1] Lex reproduces Mina’s copyrighted work without paying royalties. Lex is most likely excepted from liability for copyright infringement under the “fair use” doctrine if [2]

Output: Lex’s use has no effect on the market for Mina’s work


Input: [1] Carol buys Dan’s book, Expedition!, photocopies more than half of it without his permission, and sells the copies without paying him royalties. This is most likely [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] The graphics used in “Go!,” a handheld computer game featuring racing cars, is protected by [2]

Output: copyright law


Input: [1] Blog magazine buys and publishes an article by Cleo. Later, Blog markets a Web site database that contains a compilation of Blog articles, including Cleo’s, without her consent. Blog has most likely committed [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] Kay and Leo copy and exchange MP3 music files over the Internet with¬out anyone’s permission. With respect to songs owned by Natural Recording Company, this is [2]

Output: copyright infringement


Input: [1] The process behind the production of “Fast Pace,” a racing car video game, is protected by [2]

Output: trade secrets law


Input: [1] The idea for “On Your Mark,” a computer game featuring racing cars, is protected by [2]

Output: trade secrets law


Input: [1] Diamond Financial Planners employs Elle, Diamond’s most productive performer. Elle, however, dissatisfied with the commission structure, quits to work for Feldstar Investments, Inc. Elle takes her list of Diamond clients to induce them to switch to Feldstar. Laws related to trade secrets cover [2]

Output: Diamond’s list of clients


Input: [1] Creative Marketing Corporation (CMC) obtains, and gives its employees, a list of the customers of Dandy Sales, Inc. (DSI), without DSI’s permission. Under the law that applies to trade secrets, CMC’s use of the list is actionable [2]

Output: regardless of whether CMC and DSI are competitors or DSI’s customers are confused.


Input: [1] Canada and the United States are signatories of the Berne Convention. Doug, a citizen of Canada, publishes a book first in Canada and then in the United States. Doug’s copyright must be recognized by [2]

Output: all of the signatories of the Berne Convention.


Input: [1] Rockstar Software, Inc., develops the software for a new series of computer games. Under the law that applies to trade secrets, this software is pro¬tected in [2]

Output: its idea and its expression


Input: [1] Jewel Software, Inc., a U.S. manufacturer, files a suit against Kawa, Ltd., a Japanese software maker, for the infringement of intellectual property rights under Japan’s national laws. Under the TRIPS agreement, Jewel is entitled to receive [2]

Output: the same treatment as Kawa


Input: [1] Alpha Company develops “Browser Lite,” software to speed the display of graphics on Web sites. Browser Lite has the most copyright protection under [2]

Output: the TRIPS Agreement


Input: REFERS TO COMMON EXPECTATIONS FOR ROLES REGARDLESS OF THE ROLES INCUMBENT. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: SOCIALIZATION OF ROLES

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THIS ELEMENT ALLOWS FOR THE UNIQUE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE PERSON TO BE BROUGHT TO BEAR ON ROLE EXPECTATIONS. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: PERSONALIZATION OF ROLES

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THE STAGE WHEN STUDENTS ARE GENERALLY ON THEIR BEST BEHAVIOR. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: FORMING

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THE STAGE WHEN STUDENTS BEGIN TESTING THE LIMITS IN COMMON WAYS. STUDENTS BEGIN TO CREATE SOME SOCIAL DISTANCE FROM THEIR STUDIES AND FROM ONE ANOTHER. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: STORMING

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THE STAGE WHEN STUDENTS BEGIN TO ACCEPT BOTH CONTENT AND CONDUCT STANDARDS AND USE THESE STANDARDS TO ORIENT THEMSELVES. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: NORMING

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THE STAGE WHEN STUDENTS ARE NOW SELF-RELIANT, SELF-CONTROLLED, AND SELF DISCIPLINED [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: PRFORMING

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: TAKE INTO ACCOUNT THE SOCIAL-EMOTIONAL WELL-BEING OF STUDENTS. [NOMOTHETIC]

Output: INSTITUTIONALIZATION OF ROLES

COVENANT MANAGEMENT Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Newton's law of momentum: Lift results from accelerating amass of air downward (lift only). Blade Element Theory: Airflow over an airfoil section of the rotor blade acts the same as it does on a fixed wing aircraft (lift & drag).

Output: What theories explain rotor lift?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Incrasing the angle of attack (pitch) of the rotor blades.

Output: What causes lift to change?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The ability for rotor blades to move vertically to compensate for dissymmetry of lift.

Output: What is blade flapping?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: A drag hinge, allowing the blade to move back and forth in a horizontal plane.

Output: What component offsets the vibrations caused by blade flapping?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The 90 degree offset in cyclic pitch change.

Output: What is gyroscopic precession?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The cushion of air produced downward from the main rotor when close to the surface.

Output: What is ground effect?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The transition from hover to forward flight, where the helicopter moves from the cushion of air & lift briefly less abundant.

Output: What is transitional lift?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: It occurs when the main rotor rotates by air passing up through the rotor instead of by the engine.

Output: What is autorotation?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: An occurance at low-speed flight in which the helicopter experiences uncontrollable loss in altitude. Caused by downwash from the rotor recirculating at high velocity.

Output: What is power settling?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Cyclic & collective pitch and the rotary rudder control.

Output: Three basic flight control systems of rotary wing aircraft.

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Cyclic pitch.

Output: What controls forward, aft and lateral movements of the helicopter?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Auxiliary servo cylinders, the mixing unit, and three primary servo cylinders.

Output: Movement of the pilots cyclic stick transmit through control rods nd bell cranks to what components?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Movement of the rotary-wing blades.

Output: What do the primary servo cylinders control?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Collective pitch.

Output: What vertically controls movement of the helicopter?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Auxiliary servo cylinders, mixing unit, primary servo cylinders, and the rotary wing swashplate.

Output: Movement of the collective pitch stick is sent through control rods and bell cranks to what components?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: True

Output: T or F: Collective pitch control increases/decreases the pitch of the rotar blades simultaneously?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Balancing spring attached to the control rods.

Output: What component balances the weight of the collective stick?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The rotary rudder control system.

Output: What system controls the pitch of the rotary rudder blades?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Hydraulic pedal damper located in the auxiliary servo cylinder bank.

Output: What component prevents sudden movements of the rudder control pedals?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: It cancels feedback loads exerted by the rotary rudder during flight, and when the hydraulic system is off.

Output: What does the negative force gradient spring do?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Output: The negative force gradient spring is preloaded to ______ pounds.


Input: Auxiliary servo cylinder, mixing unit, primary servo cylinder, and the swashplate.

Output: What are the four basic components of the helicopter flight control system?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: 1500 psi.

Output: How many psi does the auxiliary servo cylinder operate at?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: The unit coordinates and transfers independent movements of the lateral, forward, aft and directional controls. Causes the controls to move the 3 primary servo cylinders simultaneously in the same direction. Cahnges pitch on the rotary rudder blades to compensate for the change in pitch of the rotary-wing blades.

Output: What is the purpose of the mixing unit?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: To send flight control movements to the stationary swashplate of the rotary-wing head.

Output: What is the purpose of the Primary Servo Cylinders?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: To send movement of the flight controls to the rotary-wing blades.

Output: What is the purpose of the Swashplate Assembly?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: A ball ring socket.

Output: What allows the swashplate assembly to tilt off its horizontal plane and move on its vertical axis?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: rotating hub scissors rods

Output: The assembly consists of a __________ swashplate, connected to the rotary-wing ______ by the rotating _________ and adjustable pitch control ________.

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: Stationary scissors & Primary Servo Cylinders.

Output: The stationary swashplate connects to the main gearbod by what 2 components?

ROTARY WING FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the major difference between a fixed wing aircraft's airfoil from a rotary wing airfoil?


Input: outbreaks which lead to isolation and quarantine; undermines the value of herd immunity; think of the movie Contagion

Output: What can happen in communities where children are unvaccinated?

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: small % have an allergic rxn; fever, swelling, pain; some claim brain injury

Output: What are some documented potential side effects from some vaccines?

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: No; no links as well as for the Thimerosal (mercury containing) preservative

Output: Did the Scandinavian epidemiological study find a link between MMR vaccine and autism?

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: Keeps controversial theories alive, no one is listening to the doctors, challenge their doctors; self diagnosing

Output: How has the internet changed the way society approaches medical issues?

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: it stops a virus from spreading critical point 50% of population

Output: How does Herd immunity protect vulnerable individuals

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: My opinion - Absolutely.

Output: Does an individual have any responsibility for the health of others with regard to vaccines.

DVC Micro BIO 146 Bloom Vaccine War Film Flashcards - Cram.com

What argument is made by advocates against vaccinations for children?


Input: [Reduce tube life] Bremsstrahlung [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: X-rays are produced as incident electrons interact with target atoms by a process called:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Electrons interact with the target material [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Heat is produced in the x-ray tube as:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] A 6-degree arc [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: When a spinning top test is performed on three-phase equipment, a timer setting of 1/60 second should indicate the following on the resultant radiograph:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Quality control and quality assurance [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Programs that deal with the safe and reliable operation of equipment and those that address all aspects of the delivery of radiology services are called, respectively:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Mammography units Tomography units Mobile x-ray machines [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Examples of dedicated x-ray equipment include:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Radiation protection [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The primary purpose of filtration is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Resolution test pattern [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Resolution of the television system may be measured using the following tool(s):

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Photocathode [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The portion of the image-intensifier ube that converts visible light to an electronic image is the:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Total filtration (not less than 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent) \= inherent filtration (glass, envelope, tube housing, oil) + added filtration (aluminum) [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Which of the following statements regarding filtration is true?

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Pitting [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Marks on the focal track of the anode resulting from bombardment of electrons are called:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Activate the rotor and exposure switch in one continuous motion [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: When making an exposure, the radiographer should:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Exposure reproducibility [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The test that measures the accuracy of successive exposure is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Anode cooling curve [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Which of the following charts may be consulted to determine the safety of a series of x-ray exposures?

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 10% [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Exposure linearity must be accurate to within:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Slit camera Star test pattern Pinhole camera All of the above [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Effective focal-spot size may be measured using the following tool(s):

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Heterogeneous or polyenergetic, consisting of many different energies (wavelengths) [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The x-ray beam is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Characteristic [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: X-rays are produced as incident electrons interact with inner shell electrons in target atoms by a process called:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 3 to 5 [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The amount of mA used for fluoroscopy is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] + or - 5 kVp maximum [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: kVp must be accurate to within:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Discrete spectrum (produced by characteristic rays) and continuous spectrum (produced by brems rays) [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The x-ray emission spectrum consists of:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 41% [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The increase in average photon energy when using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment compared with single-phase equipment is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] The Joint Commission [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Effective quality control and quality assurance programs are required for accreditation by:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 1% [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: What percentage of energy in the x-ray tube is converted to x-rays?

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 2% of SID [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The collimator must be accurate to a level of:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Output phosphor [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The portion of the image-intensifier tube that converts electron energy to visible light is the:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Current [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The electron stream passes from cathode to anode because of _____ passing through the x-ray tube.

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Electrons to boil off the filament [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The process of thermionic emission causes:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Tenth-value layer [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The amount of material needed to reduce the intensity of the beam by 1/10 is called:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Tube rating chart [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Which of the following charts may be consulted to determine the safety of a single x-ray exposure?

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Ionization chamber [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Which of the following is located between the patient and the image receptor?

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] A standby current from the time the x-ray machine is turned on [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The filament is kept warm by:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Heat [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Most of the energy conversion in the x-ray tube produces:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Direct current with 4% ripple [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Three-phase, Twelve-pulse full-wave rectification produces:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Exposure linearity [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The test that measures the accuracy of adjacent mA stations is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Pulsating direct current with 120 pulses per second and 100% ripple [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Single-phase, full-wave rectification produces:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 5% [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Exposure reproducibility must be accurate to within:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Phantoms [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Automatic exposure controls may be tested using:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Flux gain times minification gain [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Total brightness gain achieved using an image intensifier equals:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] A malfunctioning timer, if set on 1/3 second An accurate timer, if set on 1/30 second [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: When a spinning top test is performed on single-phase equipment, a radiograph exhibiting four dots would indicate:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] X-ray energy to visible light [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The input phosphor of the image-intensifier tube converts:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 1.41, 1, 1.35 because average photon energy is different with each type of equipment [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Calculating heat units for three-phase, twelve-pulse equipment requires the use of ____ as a constant; calculating heat units for single-phase equipment requires the use of ____ as a constant; calculating heat units for three-phase, six-pulse equipment requires the use of ____ as a constant.

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] Direct current with 13% ripple [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: Three-phase, six-pulse full-wave rectification produces:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 35% [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: The increase in average photon energy when using three-phase, six-pulse equipment compared with single-phase equipment is:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Reduce tube life] 1) AN UPSIDE DOWN GRID 2) INSUFFICIENT SID WITH A FOCUSED GRID [Activating the rotor will:]

Output: WHEN AN IMAGE APPEARS WITH SUFFICIENT DENSITY IN THE CENTER OF THE IMAGE AND INSUFFICIENT DENSITY AT THE PERIMETER, POSSIBLE CAUSES COULD BE:

Radiology review quiz 8 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Separation of uses Low-density development Auto-dependency Lot by lot regulation

Output: Euclidean Model

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The division of a jurisdiction into districts in which certain uses and developments are permitted or prohibited

Output: Zoning Definition

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Based on state's police powers Limited by 14th Amendment Due Process Clause and Equal Protection Clause & 5th Amendment Taking Clause

Output: Authority for Zoning

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A use that exists at the time of passage of a zoning act and that does not conform to the statute cannot be eliminated at once

Output: Non-Conforming Uses Definition

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Destruction Use was abandoned or discontinued Use was nuisance Acquisition by eminent domain Amoritzation

Output: Non-Conforming Termination

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A set period time in which the non-conforming use must terminate. Factors in consideration include:a. Information relating to the structure located on the property Nature of the use Location of the property in relation to surrounding uses Description of the character of and uses in the surrounding neighborhood Cost of the property and improvements to the property Benefit to the public by requiring the termination of the non-conforming use Burden on the property owner by requiring the termination of the non-conforming use; The length of time the use has been inexistence the and length of time the use has been non-conforming

Output: Amortization Def

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Zoning ordinances may be amended by Map Amendment--changes the zone itself Text--changes the use that are allowed

Output: Zoning Amendments

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Presumption exists that the city board acted in a fair, just, and reasonable manner when zoning A decision will be affirmed unless clearly erroneous(against preponderance of evidence)

Output: Zoning Ordinance Presumption

Land Use Regulation Flashcards - Cram.com