Input: Auditor must maintain control of confirmations until they are returned from the customer.

Output: For confirmations sent by mail what must the auditor do?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: The client may assist with preparing the confirmations, but the auditor must be responsbile for mailing the confirmations outside the client's office.

Output: What can the client assist with and what must the auditor do?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: A return address must be included in the envelopes to make sure tha undelivered mail is received by teh CPA firm. This ensures responses are mailed directly to the auditor.

Output: What must be included?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: inappropriate to regard confirmations mailed but not returned as significant evidence. Nonresponses to positive confirmations to not count as evidence.

Output: WHat is innapropriate to regard

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: For negative confirmations auditor should conclude recipient received the confirmation request and and verified the information requested. Negative confirmations do provide some evidence of existence assertion.

Output: What do negative confirmations prove?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: They require follow up procedures for confirmations not returned by customers.

Output: When positive confirmatios are used what do auditing standards reuquirie?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Then necessary to follow up with alternative procedures.

Output: When customers have been sent 2-3 confirmations what must be done?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Alternative procedures determines by a means other than confirmation whther the nonconfirmed account existed and was properly stated.

Output: What is the objective of alternative procedures?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Can examine subsequent cash receipts Duplicate sales invoices shipping documents Correspondence with the client

Output: What can an auditor do if people fail to respond?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Evidence of receipt of cash subsequent o the confirmation date includes examining remittance advices, entries in cash receipts journal, even subsequent credits in the A/R master file.

Output: What does an auditor look for in regards to subsequent cash receipts

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Useful for verifying the actual issuance of a sales invoice and the actual date of the billing.

Output: What is examining duplicate sales invoices useful for?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: These are important in establishing whether the shipment was actually made and as a test of cutoff.

Output: What are shipping documents important for?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Usually the auditor does not need to review correspondence as a part of alternative procedures, but correspondence can be used to disclose disputed and questionable receivables not uncovered by other means.

Output: What can correspondence with the client indicate?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: The auditor is responsible for figring out why there are differences.

Output: When requests are returned by customers many times there are differences. What does the auditor have to do when there is a difference?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Differences are caused by timing differences betwen the client's and customer's records. It is important to distinguish between timing differences and exceptions which represent misstatements of accounts receivables.

Output: What typically causes a difference?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: 1. Payment has already been made 2. Goods have not been received 3. The goods have been returned 4. Clerical errors and disputed amounts

Output: What are the 4 most commonly made types of misstatements?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: reported differences typically arise when the customer has made payment before the confirmation date, but the client has not received the payment in time for recording before the confirmation date. Such instances should be carefully investigated to determine possibly cash receipts cutoff misstatement, lapping, or theft of cash.

Output: Payment has already been made

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: These differences typically result because the client records the sale at the date of shipment and the customer records the acquisition when the goods are received. The time that the goods are n transit is often the cause of the differences reported on confirmations. These should be investigated to determine the possiblity of the customer not receiving the goods at all or the existence of a cutoff misstatement.

Output: Goods have not been received

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: The client's failure to record a credit memo could have resulted from timing differences or the improper recording of sales returns and allowances, like other differences, these must be investigated

Output: The goods have been returned

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: The most likely types of reported differences in a client's records are when the customer states that there is an error in the price charged for the goods, the goods are damaged, the proper quantity of goods was not received, ect. These differences must be investigated to determine whether the client is in error and the amount of the error.

Output: Clerical errors and disputed amounts

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Auditor must reevaluate internal control

Output: When all differences have been resolved what must the auditor do?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Misstatements must be analyzed to determine whether it was consistent or inconsistent with the original assessed level of control risk.

Output: What must misstatements be analyzed for?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: It is necessary to generalize from the sample to the entire population of accounts receivable. Even though the sum of misstatements in the sample may not significantly affect the financial statements, the auditor must consider whether the population is likely to be materially misstated,

Output: What is necessary to generalize about?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: The auditor should always evaluate the qualitative nature of the misstatements found in the sample, regardless of the dollar amount of the estimated population misstatement. Even if estimated misstatement is less than tolerable misstatements for A/R the misstatements found in a sample can be symptomatic of a more serious problem.

Output: What should the auditor evaluate?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Whether appropriate evidence has been obtained through tests of controls and substantive tests of trans, analytical procedures, cutoff procedures, confirmation, and other substantive tests to justify drawing conclusions about correctness of the stated balance.

Output: What is the final decision based on?

McConnell Auditing Chapter 16 FINAL Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the primary purpose of accounts receivable confirmation


Input: Suprarenal, renal, and gonadal

Output: What are the paired visceral abdominal aortic branches?

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What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Subcostal, inferior phrenic, and lumbar

Output: What are the paired parietal abdominal aortic branches?

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What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Median sacral artery

Output: What is the only unpaired parietal?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: At T12

Output: Where does the celiac trunk emerge from the aorta?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: COELIAC Artery

Output: What is the blood supply to the foregut?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Superior mesenteric artery

Output: What is the blood supply to the midgut?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The inferior mesenteric artery

Output: What is the blood supply to the hindgut?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The cystic artery

Output: What artery supplies the gall bladder?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The cystic artery arising from the right hepatic artery

Output: What emerges from the triangle of Calot?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Common hepatic artery

Output: What is do the anterior and posterior superior pancreatico-duodenal arteries branch off of?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Jejunal have short arterial arcardes and long vasa recta and ilial have long arterial arcades and short vasa recta

Output: How do you the difference between jejunal and ilial intestinal arteries?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: find out

Output: What is nutcracker syndrome?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The left colic artery

Output: What is the first branch off the IMA?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The ascending branch

Output: What branch of the left colic anastomoses with the middle colic artery?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: The left colic flexure

Output: The vagus extends to what point?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: Genetic disorder causing a lack of enteric plexus

Output: What is hirschprung's disease?

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the unpaired visceral aortic branches?


Input: [1] mineral [2]

Output: a naturally formed inorganic solid composed of an ordered array of atoms chemically bonded to form a particular crystalline structure


Input: [1] ore [2]

Output: a mineral deposit containing valuable metals that can be economically extracted from the ground to yield a profit


Input: [1] crystallization [2]

Output: the growth of a solid from a material whose constituent atoms can come together in the proper chemical proportions and geometric arrangments Crystallization starts with the formation of tiny, microscopic crystals. As time goes on, more and more atoms bond to the tiny crystal, making it grow


Input: [1] magma [2]

Output: molten rock in the earths interior


Input: [1] chemical sediments [2]

Output: formed by the precipitaions of minerals from water on the earths surface


Input: [1] crystal form [2]

Output: the outward expression of the orderly internal arrangements of atoms in a crystal


Input: [1] polymorphs [2]

Output: two or more minerals that contain the same elements in the same proportion but have dif. crystal structures


Input: [1] Mohs scale of hardness [2]

Output: A ranking of th hardness of minerals


Input: [1] Cleavage [2]

Output: the tendency of a mineral to break along planes of weakness


Input: [1] Fracture [2]

Output: a break that does not occur along a plane of weakness


Input: [1] Specific gravity [2]

Output: the ratio b/t the weight of a substance and the wieght of an equal volume of water


Input: [1] A mineral that is a silicate [2]

Output: mica and quartz


Input: [1] The 1st minerals to melt are those w/ [2]

Output: lower melting points


Input: [1] Five mineral groups [2]

Output: silicates, carbonates, oxides, sulfides and sulfates


Input: [1] Hydrothermal minerals form from [2]

Output: hot underground water in cracks of rocks


Input: [1] Luster [2]

Output: the way a mineral reflects light


Input: [1] Birefringence [2]

Output: is the splitting of light into 2 rays-do you see double


Input: [1] Minerals crystallize from [2]

Output: magma solutions and water solutions


Input: [1] Lithification [2]

Output: conversion of sediments to rock


Input: [1] deposition [2]

Output: sediments coming to a rest


Input: [1] sedimentation [2]

Output: horizontal layering of sediments


Input: [1] erosion [2]

Output: transporting of sediments by water, wind or ice


Input: [1] 2 types of chemical sediments [2]

Output: carbonates and evaporites


Input: [1] carbonates [2]

Output: crystallization in a water solution as the water drips over rocks


Input: [1] evaporites [2]

Output: As the water evaporates away, the minerals crystallize


Input: [1] hardness [2]

Output: it is able to scratch things that are less hard


Input: [1] color [2]

Output: Chemical impurities in minerals give them their color


Input: [1] Igneous rocks [2]

Output: formed by the cooling and crystillization of magma


Input: [1] Sedimentary Rocks [2]

Output: Rocks formed from the accumulation of weathered material (sediments) carried by water wind or ice


Input: [1] Metamorphic Rocks [2]

Output: formed from pre-existing rocks that have been changed or transformed by high temp. high pressure, or both


Input: [1] Partial melting [2]

Output: the incomplete melting or rocks resulting in magmas of dif. compositions


Input: [1] Extrusive Rocks [2]

Output: Igneous rocks that form at the earth's surface


Input: [1] Lava [2]

Output: Magma, once it reached te earth's surface


Input: [1] Volcano [2]

Output: A central vent through which lava, gases, and ash erupt and flow


Input: [1] Intrusive Rocks [2]

Output: Igneous rocks that crystallize below the below the earths surface


Input: [1] Pluton [2]

Output: A very large intrusive body formed below the earth's surface


Input: [1] Mechanical Weathering [2]

Output: the breakdown of rocks on the earth's surface by physical means


Input: [1] Chemical Weathering [2]

Output: the breakdown of rocks on the earth's surface by chemical means


Input: [1] Metamorphism [2]

Output: the changing of one kind of rock into another kind as a result of high temp, high pressure, or both


Input: [1] Recrystallization [2]

Output: Occurs when rocks are subjected to high temps, and press. and go through s change in mineral assemblage


Input: [1] Mechanical deformation [2]

Output: Metamorphism caused by stress such as increased pressure


Input: [1] Rock Cycle [2]

Output: The rock cycle refers to how Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks are created and destroyed by earth’s active geological processes


Input: [1] Types of Metamorphism [2]

Output: Recrystallization (high temp. & pres. ) Mechanical Deformation(pre-existing rock is subjected to physical stress) Contact Metamorphism (close proximity of a magma source) Regional Metamorphism(heat and physical stress alter pre-existing rock over a large region)


Input: [1] The most common outpouring of lava on the surface occurs as [2]

Output: fissure eruptions


Input: [1] Chemical sedimentary rocks are formed from [2]

Output: crystallization of minerals from a water solution


Input: [1] Rocks fromed by cooling from a magma are [2]

Output: igneous rocks


Input: [1] Three types of magma [2]

Output: basaltic, granitic, andestic


Input: [1] Compositie Cone [2]

Output: has explosive eruptions


Input: [1] Intrusive Igneous Rocks [2]

Output: Plutons


Input: [1] Mechanical weathering [2]

Output: physical breakdown of older rocks


Input: [1] A clastic sedimentary rock w/ large rounded sediments is a [2]

Output: conglomerate


Input: [1] A clastic sedimentary rock w/ course angular sediments is a [2]

Output: breccia


Input: [1] Body Wave [2]

Output: a siesmic wave that travels through the earths interior; faster than surface waves


Input: [1] Surface Wave [2]

Output: a seismic wave that travels along the earth's suface; slower than body waves


Input: [1] Primary/P-Waves [2]

Output: longitudinal waves that can travel through solids, liq. and gases; faster than S-waves


Input: [1] Secondary/S-Waves [2]

Output: tranverse waves that can not travel through liquids; slower than P-waves


Input: [1] Core [2]

Output: the central layer in the earth's interior, divided into an outer liquid and an inner solid core


Input: [1] Mantle [2]

Output: the mid layer in the earth's interior b/t the crust and the core


Input: [1] Asthenosphere [2]

Output: A subdivision of the upper mantle situated below the lithosphere, a zone of plastic, easily deformed rock


Input: [1] Lithosphere [2]

Output: the entire crust plus the upper portion of the manlte above the asthenosphere


Input: [1] Crust [2]

Output: the earth's outermost layer


Input: [1] Pangea [2]

Output: A single, large landmass that existed in the geological past and was composed of all the present day continents


Input: [1] Love Wave [2]

Output: transverse waves with a side to side motion


Input: [1] Rayleigh Wave [2]

Output: transverse waves w/ an up and down motion


Input: [1] Seafloor spreading [2]

Output: the moving apart of two oceanic plates at a rift in the seafloor


Input: [1] Theory of Plate tectonics [2]

Output: The idea that the earth's lithosphere is broken up into plates that move over the asthenosphere; boundaries b/t plates are where most earthquakes and volcanoes occur


Input: [1] Rift [2]

Output: a long narrow trough that forms as a result of divergence of two plates


Input: [1] Fault [2]

Output: A fracture along which visible displacement can be detected on one side relative to the other


Input: [1] transform fault [2]

Output: a blate boundary formed by the two plates that are sliding horizontally past each other


Input: [1] The mantle is composed of [2]

Output: iron-rich silicate rocks (they behave in a plastic manner so they can flow)


Input: [1] Tensional forces cause the crust to [2]

Output: break and fracture thereby shortening the crustal surface


Input: [1] An earthquake occurs as [2]

Output: energy released from the earth's interior as seismic waves travel to the earth's surface


Input: [1] Convergent boundaries are areas of [2]

Output: plate collision


Input: [1] The outer core of the earth [2]

Output: flows fast enough to power the earth's magnetic field


Input: [1] At divergent plate boundaries [2]

Output: the plates spread apart


Input: [1] Mountains tend to form in long narrow ranges because [2]

Output: mountains are a result of plate convergence-plates coming together


Input: [1] The earth's lithosphere [2]

Output: consists of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle


Input: [Heredity] Trait(s)

Output: the physical characteristics of an organism (eye color, hair color, bone structure, personality)

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] chromosome

Output: carries the information that controls DNA inherited characteristics found inside the nucleus of an atom

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] nucleus

Output: where genetic material is found

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] DNA

Output: carries the genetic information about an organism AKA: genetic blueprint

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] gene(s)

Output: controls which traits an organism will express (show) they come in pairs

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] allele(s)

Output: different form(s) of genes A person might carry an allele for straight hair and allele for curly hair

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] dominant allele

Output: the trait that ALWAYS expresses itself in an organism Genotype: G

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] recessive allele

Output: the trait that is expressed ONLY when the dominant trait is NOT present Genotype: g

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] genotype

Output: a combination of alleles that determines a trait Always shown as: Gg

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] phenotype

Output: the expression of a physical trait

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] homozygous

Output: two genes that are alike example: homozygous dominant GG or homozygous recessive gg

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] heterozygous

Output: two genes that are different example: Gg

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] dominant trait

Output: a trait that always shows up in an organism

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [Heredity] recessive trait

Output: a trait that expresses itself ONLY when the dominant gene is NOT present

Heredity Vocabulary 2011 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the passing of traits from parent to offspring


Input: [1] Asumir [2]

Output: to assume, take on

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Atravesar [2]

Output: to go through

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Castigar [2]

Output: to punish

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Conformarse con [2]

Output: to be satisfied with

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Contentarse con [2]

Output: to be happy/ satisfied with

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Entretenerse con [2]

Output: to amuse oneself with

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] El/la anciano/a [2]

Output: elderly man/woman

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] El apuro [2]

Output: jam, fix

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] La autoestima [2]

Output: self-esteem

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Caído,-a [2]

Output: fallen, hanging, droopy

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Capacitado,-a [2]

Output: qualified, trained

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Al fin y al cabo [2]

Output: finally

ATV 2A Day 2 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1200 W

Output: What is the minimum power required for a heat engine to lift a 80kg mass 5m in 20s if it releases 1000J of heat energy from its exhaust each second.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: The entropy of a system will always increase in a spontaneous reaction.

Output: Which of the following statements about entropy is false?

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: The activation energy will be greater for the reverse reaction than for the forward reaction.

Output: For a particular reversible reaction, the forward process is exothermic and the reverse process is endothermic. Which of the following statements must be true about this reaction?

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: Pressure, Volume, and Internal energy

Output: Which of the following properties of a gaseous system affect its enthalpy?

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: 10% of the input energy contributes to the work done by the engine.

Output: Under the best possible conditions, a steam engine will have an efficiency of slightly more than 20%. A normal steam engine has an efficiency of about 10%. This means that for a normal steam engine:

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: the energy transfer here is due to work and not to heat.

Output: A box sliding down an incline increases in temperature due to friction. This name for this type of heat is:

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: It cannot cool the room on a permanent basis.

Output: Which of the following is true concerning an air conditioner that sits inside a thermally sealed room and draws energy from an outside power source?

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Two ideal gases, A and B, are at the same temp, Vol, and Pressure. Gas A is reversibly expanded at constant T to a vol V. Gas B is allowed to expand into an evacuated chamber until it also has a total vol V, but without exchanging heat with its surroundings. Which of the following most accurately describes the two gases?


Input: [Define Epithelium] What is the basement membrane

Output: A thin nonliving layer called the _____ anchors epithelium to underlying connective tissue.

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Function and location of Tight Junctions

Output: Close space between cells by fusing cell membranes Ex: Cells that line the small intestine

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Function and location of Desmosomes

Output: Bind cells by forming spot welds between cell membranes Ex: Cells of the outer skin layer

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Gap Junctions function

Output: Form tubular channels between cells that allow exchange of substances

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Epithelial Tissue Function

Output: Protection, Secretion, Absorption, excretion

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Connective tissue function

Output: Bind, support, protect, fill spaces, store fat, produce blood cells

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Muscle tissue function

Output: movement

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Nervous tissue function

Output: transmit impulses

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Simple cuboidal epithelium

Output: secretion absorption surface of ovaries, lining of kidney tubules, ducts of certain glands

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Simple squamous epithelium

Output: Filtration diffusion osmosis covers surface air sacs of lungs, walls of capilaries

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Simple Columnar epithelium

Output: Protection, secretion, absorption lining of uterus, stomach, intestines

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Output: Protection, secretion, movement of mucus and substances lining of respiratory passages

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] stratified squamous epithelium

Output: Protection outer layer of skin, linings of cavities

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Stratified cuboidal epithelium

Output: Protection Linings of larger ducts of mammary, sweat, salivary glands and pancreas

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Stratified columnar epithelium

Output: Protection and secretion Parts of male urethra and pharynx

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Transitional epithelium

Output: Distensibility, protection Inner lining of urinary bladder and linings of ureters and part of urethra

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Glandular Epithelium

Output: Secretion Salivary, sweat and endocrine glands

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Fibroblasts

Output: Secrete proteins which become fibers

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Macrophages

Output: clear foreign particles from tissues by phagocytosis

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Mast Cells

Output: Release substances that may help prevent blood clotting and promote inflammation

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Collageneous fibers (white fibers)

Output: hold structures together

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Elastic Fibers (yellow fibers)

Output: Provide elastic quality to parts that stretch

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Define Epithelium] Reticular fibers

Output: Form supportive networks within tissues

Anatomy Tissues CH 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body's surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] IgA deficiency

Output: Infection of surfaces exposed to the external environment and normally protected by mucus are common along with atopic disease.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Sexual; parental

Output: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is spread by two primary routes in the adult population. _______ contact and _______ contact

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Autoimmunity

Output: _________ results from an inability to distinguish self from nonself, causing the immune system to carry out immune responses against normal cells and tissue.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] allergen

Output: Assessment of ht exact symptoms of allergy is important in helping identify the underlying ________

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Food diary

Output: The best way to identify the specific allergies in a child with food allergies is the use of a _____________ or an elimination diet.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] six

Output: Congenital immunodeficiencies usually manifest after the first ________ months of life.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] ice

Output: When a child is stung by a bee, the immediate action should be to apply ___________ to the site to minimize the absorption of the venom.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Phagocytosis

Output: The neutralization of pathogens through ingestion by white blood cells.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Lymphkines

Output: Secretion by cytotoxic cells that contain or prevent migration of antigens

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] antigen

Output: Foreign substance capable of stimulating an immune response.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Memory cells

Output: Responsible for retaining the formula for ability to produce specific immunoglobulins

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Serum sickness

Output: A hypersensitivity reaction to a foreign serum antigen or drug.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Hapten formation

Output: A nonantigenic substance that becomes antigenic when combined with a higher weight molecule.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Suppressor cells

Output: T cells that reduce the production of immunoglobulins against a specific antigen

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Immunogen

Output: An antigen that can be readily destroyed by an immune response

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] cell mediated immunity

Output: When antibodies are formed in response to a particular antigen; acquired through T lymphocyte activity.

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: [Hypogammaglobinemia] Immunocopetent cells

Output: Cells capable of resisting foreign invaders

NUR 205 Ch 42 Ped's Immune disorder Flashcards - Cram.com

Cellular immune response remains adequate; child has resistance to viral , fungal and parasitic infections, but all levels of immunoglobulins are abnormally low.


Input: When testator revokes first will upon mistake of law as to validity of second will, the court disregards the act of revocation

Output: Doctrine of dependent relative revocation

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A trust is a fiduciary relationship in which a SETTLOR transfers PROPERTY to a TRUSTEE to hold for the benefit of a BENEFICIARY in accordance with the purpose or INTENT of the trust

Output: Trust

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1 Donative intent, 2 Delivery, and 3 Acceptance (presumed if unconditional and beneficial). Real property must meet statute of frauds (must be in writing).

Output: Gift

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Person cannot try to do what a will would do without using a will. There must be some kind of actual interest that passes. However you can retain control by keeping the ability to revoke, etc. Farkas

Output: Statute of wills

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Bequest extinguished by extinction of property.

Output: Ademption

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Issue - 1/2 No issue - $200K + 1/2, first out of personal property No kindred, all

Output: Intestate share of surviving spouse (MGL 190 s. 1)

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Issue: 1/3 personal and 1/3 re only life estate for amount over 25k No issue: 25K + life estate in 1/2 personal and 1/2 re No kindred: 25K + 1/2 per and 1/2 re

Output: Elective share (MGL 191 s 15)

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The children of blood relative beneficiaries take by right of representation. Children of non-blood relative beneficiaries do not.

Output: Do the children of beneficiaries of a will have the right to take by right of representation if the beneficiary predeceases the testator?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 15K + one motor vehicle

Output: What is the maximum allowable value of an estate for a voluntary administration?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 30 days

Output: What is the waiting period before a voluntary administrator has the authority to act?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A probate court may determine that the surviving spouse abandoned the testator or was living apart from the testator for justifiable cause, and may therefore deny the surviving spouse the right to elect against the testator's will. Mass. Gen. Laws ch. 209, sec. 32.

Output: Is the elective share allowed if the surviving spouse was not living with the decedent?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Employer sets aside money for deferred compensation to employees in a trust

Output: What is a rabbi trust?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If self settled they can reach what trustees could distribute. Otherwise in MA spendthrift clauses are generally valid.

Output: Can creditors reach trust assets?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Gross, because they want to know the maximum liability

Output: Do you include gross assets or assets net of liability on the estimated estate on a bond?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GAL in actions involving probate of wills, accounts, etc.

Output: Category D GALs

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GAL for an incompetent person

Output: Category K GALs

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GAL/next friend for a minor

Output: Category L GALs

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Chapter 7 of Newhall deals with the death, resignation, or removal of executors and administrators. The death of an executor or administrator terminates the office. However, his or her executor or administrator has the duty to both turn over the assets of the estate to the new executor or administrator, and to render into the court the account of the deceased executor or administrator of the former estate. The administrator d.b.n. or executor c.t.a.d.b.n. has no responsibility connected with the preparation and filing of the predecessor's account, except to see that one is filed. It is my understanding that Packy was formerly executor of the Nason estate. Packy's admininistratrix would have the duty to prepare, sign and file his fiduciary account. The successor executrix of the Nason estate should have no such duty.

Output: What happens if an executor or trustee dies during administration?

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1) Obligation to offer for sale 2) reasonable and ascertainable price 3) precluded from transfer during life at higher price 4) may not be a device to pass to natural objects of bounty 5) business purpose 6) comparability

Output: Requirements for IRS to respect buy sell agreement price for estate tax purposes

Estate Planning - MA concepts Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the paired visceral abdominal aortic branches?

Output: Suprarenal, renal, and gonadal

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What are the paired parietal abdominal aortic branches?

Output: Subcostal, inferior phrenic, and lumbar

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is the only unpaired parietal?

Output: Median sacral artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: Where does the celiac trunk emerge from the aorta?

Output: At T12

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is the blood supply to the foregut?

Output: COELIAC Artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is the blood supply to the midgut?

Output: Superior mesenteric artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is the blood supply to the hindgut?

Output: The inferior mesenteric artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What artery supplies the gall bladder?

Output: The cystic artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What emerges from the triangle of Calot?

Output: The cystic artery arising from the right hepatic artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is do the anterior and posterior superior pancreatico-duodenal arteries branch off of?

Output: Common hepatic artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: How do you the difference between jejunal and ilial intestinal arteries?

Output: Jejunal have short arterial arcardes and long vasa recta and ilial have long arterial arcades and short vasa recta

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is nutcracker syndrome?

Output: find out

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is the first branch off the IMA?

Output: The left colic artery

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What branch of the left colic anastomoses with the middle colic artery?

Output: The ascending branch

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: The vagus extends to what point?

Output: The left colic flexure

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: What is hirschprung's disease?

Output: Genetic disorder causing a lack of enteric plexus

GI--Abdominal Blood Supply Flashcards - Cram.com

The celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesentreric


Input: [encoding and decoding] decoding

Output: Christy tells a prospect that her company "works with everyone, from the bottom up." Fred is insulted, thinking Christy was referring to the shape of his body. Obviously, there is a problem in the way Fred is _____ the message.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -the use of inflections at the end of his or her sentences -the speed with which he or she speaks -how loudly he or she speaks -how he or she articulates their words

Output: Which of the following is part of a salesperson's voice characteristics?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] customers can listen to words at a rate more than five times as fast as the rate at which the salesperson can speak

Output: One way to define the speaking-listening differential is to say:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] listen 80 percent of the time and talk no more than 20 percent of the time.

Output: The 80-20 speaking-listening differential suggests salespeople should:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] Do any of the above to encourage active listening.

Output: Which of the following is a suggestion for active listening?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] articulation

Output: Carla knows nonverbal communication is important and conveys many messages to a prospect. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of nonverbal communication?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] 800

Output: During a 30-minute sales call approximately __________ nonverbal signals are exchanged.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] receptive

Output: The physical space between two people who are interacting can be divided into four zones. Which of the following is NOT one of the four zones?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] cold

Output: People can be said to fall into two categories when it comes to touching--contact and noncontact. Contact people tend to view noncontact people as:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] Be a leader and wear the latest fashions.

Output: Which of the following would be the WORST bit of advice for a new salesperson for an office machine manufacturer to follow?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] It ensures the salesperson will provide complete and accurate information about the company's products and policies.

Output: Many companies require new salespeople to memorize a standardized sales presentation. Why would a company do this?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] outlined

Output: Fred has a standard introduction he uses and a list of points he wants to make during his sales presentation, but he does not have everything memorized. Fred is using a(n) _____ presentation.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -Adaptive selling emphasizes the importance of satisfying customer needs and building long-term partnerships. -Adaptive selling is used with relationship building. -In adaptive selling you have to be creative when you're looking for what excites a prospect. -Adaptive selling gives salespeople the opportunity to use the most effective sales presentation for each customer.

Output: Which of the following statements about adaptive selling is TRUE?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -company for which they work -products they will sell -products sold by their competitors -customers to whom they will sell

Output: Donald is a new salesman. He knows, to be an effective sales representative, he needs to know as much as possible about the:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] diagnostic

Output: "You did not close when the customer was ready. You were so involved in your presentation you did not hear the customer signal she was ready to buy." A sales manager who made this comment was providing _____ feedback.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] social style

Output: The _____ matrix is a training program for building adaptive selling skills that uses two critical dimensions, assertiveness and responsiveness.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] drivers

Output: In the social style matrix people who are high in assertiveness and low in responsiveness are ____________.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] gatekeepers

Output: Which of the following is NOT one of the four quadrants in the social style matrix?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] stress the product's performance results

Output: Brenda recognizes her new prospect fits the characteristics of an amiable in the social style matrix. Brenda should:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -not let their judgment be clouded by their initial reaction to the customer -look for clues that may suggest he or she has made an inaccurate assessment of a customer's social style -ask questions rather than make statements -avoid assuming that specific jobs or functions are associated with a particular social style

Output: When identifying a customer's social style, salespeople should:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] none of the above because each style has weaknesses in some situations

Output: Research indicates the best social style for a salesperson is:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] cold and calculating

Output: The strengths of any social style can be weaknesses if they are not consistent with what a customer wants to deal with. For example, David, an analytical, knows his orderly, serious, and thorough nature, may also be perceived as ___________ to some customers.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] versatility

Output: The effort people make to increase the productivity of a relationship by adjusting to the needs of the other party is the text's definition of:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] prospecting

Output: Jennette is trying to locate businesses in her territory she has not called upon. Jennette is:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -clients may switch to competing suppliers. -buyers may be transferred to other jobs within their firms. -client firms may be taken over by other firms. -some current customers may go bankrupt.

Output: Salespeople continuously prospect because:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -"Does the lead have the ability to pay?" -"Is the lead eligible to buy?" -"Does the lead have the authority to buy?" -"Can the lead be approached favorably?"

Output: Which of the following is one of the questions a salesperson will answer when determining whether a lead is a qualified prospect?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] exclusive sales territory

Output: A building materials salesperson who is only allowed to sell to drywall contractors in a state, even though general contractors in the area also buy drywall, is working in a(n):

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] promoters

Output: Brenda has several great customers who are constantly referring new people to her. She always remembers to thank these customers and show her appreciation to these sales:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] endless chain

Output: Danielle asks her customer whether Greg, her neighbor might be interested in the home security system she is selling. Danielle is using the _____________ selling method

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] buying community

Output: Sales people sometimes find small, informal groups of people in similar positions with different companies, who meet and communicate regularly. For a sales person, these groups represent a potential:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] postcard pack

Output: A package of postcards from a number of different firms sent as a group that allow recipients to fill in their names and addresses to request more information about the products advertised is a:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] North American industry classification system

Output: NAICS means:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] using statistical methods to learn more from existing data

Output: Data mining by salespeople means:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] cold calling

Output: Rebecca has been given sample magazines and order forms, and been instructed to start knocking on doors to see if she can find someone who is interested in buying a subscription. Rebecca is engaged in:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] Outbound telemarketing is used to generate and then qualify leads.

Output: Which of the following statements about telemarketing is true?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] first paragraph

Output: When writing a sales letter, the _________________ should grab the reader's attention.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] gathering information, setting objectives, making an appointment

Output: The planning process for making a sales call involves (in logical order):

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -personal -attitudinal -relationship -product evaluation

Output: Pratna is gathering information about the clients in her new territory. She will look for _________________ information.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -At some point the amount of time and effort required to collect additional information exceeds its value. -Often the difference in making or not making a sale is the homework the salesperson has done. -Collecting the information needed is often time consuming. -The more information the salesperson has, the more likely the prospect's needs will be met.

Output: Which of the following statements about obtaining precall information is TRUE?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] spouses

Output: Which of the following is NOT one of the types of information about a customer's organization that a salesperson investigates?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] influential adversaries

Output: People involved in a prospect's purchase decision whose opinions are important and who are opposed to your company's products are called:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] analysis paralysis

Output: Serena spent weeks gathering information about prospective clients, never once making a sales call. Serena may be suffering from:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -an objective should be established for every sales call. -objectives should be specific. -objectives should be measurable. -objectives should be aimed at customer action.

Output: Which of the following statements about sales call objectives is TRUE?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -They help take away the salesperson's fear of failure -Most salespeople can at least achieve their stated minimum objective -Multiple objectives tend to be self-correcting -Salespeople who always reach their optimistic objective realize they are probably setting their sights too low

Output: Which of the following is generally considered a benefit of multiple call objectives?

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -is usually one or two written sentences -should be specific and measurable -explains how a product or service can help add shareholder value -should be tied to the prospect's mission statement

Output: The value proposition:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] -it dignifies the salesperson -puts the salesperson and the prospect on the same level -increases the chances of seeing the right person -reduces the likelihood of interruption

Output: Many sales managers insist sales representatives make appointments because:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] focus of receptivity

Output: One researcher suggests that sales people initially try to call on the __________________, the person who will listen and provide the seller with needed valuable information.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] dissatisfaction

Output: A building materials salesperson was making her second call to a prospective client. The salesperson was most interested in meeting the person with the focus of _____ because this individual could explain where there were potential constraints and how the project might encounter problems.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] focus of power

Output: When making a sales call on a new customer, the person in the buying center the salesperson can expect to meet last is referred to as the:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] when it best suits the customer

Output: The best time to call on customers is:

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] screens or barriers

Output: Busy executives usually have one or more subordinates who plan and schedule appointments with sales representatives. These subordinates are called __________.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] under the screen

Output: Martin knows his customer's secretary goes to lunch with a group from their church on Thursdays. He calls the customer during that time. Martin is working ________________.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] going over the screen

Output: To get the purchasing manager's secretary to give him an appointment, Betty mentioned an earlier talk she had with the vice-president of the firm about what her company has to offer. She is hoping this technique of _____ will get her in to see the purchasing sooner since the secretary may fear getting in trouble if she puts her off too long.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: [encoding and decoding] e-missives

Output: Jami knows a few of his customers are avid golfers but work on construction sites away from cable or satellite television reception. During the major golf events Jami sends a summary of the current golf scores to these customers. Jami is using _________ to build customer relationships.

MAR3400 - Professional Selling - Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

In two-way communication, translating and interpreting refer to______ and ______ thoughts and interpretations.


Input: What is the minimum power required for a heat engine to lift a 80kg mass 5m in 20s if it releases 1000J of heat energy from its exhaust each second.

Output: 1200 W

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: Which of the following statements about entropy is false?

Output: The entropy of a system will always increase in a spontaneous reaction.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: For a particular reversible reaction, the forward process is exothermic and the reverse process is endothermic. Which of the following statements must be true about this reaction?

Output: The activation energy will be greater for the reverse reaction than for the forward reaction.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: Which of the following properties of a gaseous system affect its enthalpy?

Output: Pressure, Volume, and Internal energy

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: Under the best possible conditions, a steam engine will have an efficiency of slightly more than 20%. A normal steam engine has an efficiency of about 10%. This means that for a normal steam engine:

Output: 10% of the input energy contributes to the work done by the engine.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: A box sliding down an incline increases in temperature due to friction. This name for this type of heat is:

Output: the energy transfer here is due to work and not to heat.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: Which of the following is true concerning an air conditioner that sits inside a thermally sealed room and draws energy from an outside power source?

Output: It cannot cool the room on a permanent basis.

ExamKackers MCAT Chemistry Flashcards - Cram.com

Gas A and B have equal temperatures and enthalpies.


Input: [2] apocrine [1]

Output: this is sweat glands from axillary and groin, increased with stress


Input: [2] eccrine [1]

Output: this is sweat glands all over the body


Input: [2] sebaceous glands [1]

Output: this is fatty substance secreted into hair follicles and skin


Input: [2] melanoma - hands and feet basal - around eyes and finger nails, webs of fingers [1]

Output: melanoma is located most commonly where and where is basal cell


Input: [2] systemic infection or allergic response - rubella [1]

Output: what is a common widespread generalized rash


Input: [2] skin folds, in dark area yeast - like warm moist dark places [1]

Output: what is intertriginous


Input: [2] , erythematic vesicular lesions, with macules and honey crust lesions [1]

Output: what is a dermatomal distribution


Input: [2] bilateral sun exposed areas, will see area where sun is spared watch bc medications cause photosensitivity [1]

Output: describe a photosensitivity pattern


Input: [2] reticulated [1]

Output: this is a web like rash, vascular changes is what makes shape and color


Input: [2] Poison ivy – initial place where oil comes into contact with skin is linear, then will spread and become diffuse and patchy – depends on how sensitive they are to the oils Do not have to touch the plant, carried, once shower – then not contagious to others or if ooze – will not spread [1]

Output: how is the distribution of thus dermatitis


Input: [2] syphilis - secondary lyme disease erythema multiforme [1]

Output: what are diseases with target lesion


Input: [2] rheumatological disease [1]

Output: what do you need to rule out when there is alopecia


Input: [2] 180 [1]

Output: what is the angle greater than for clubbing


Input: [2] transverse depressions of the nail plates, bilaterally seen with systemic disease [1]

Output: what are beu's lines


Input: [2] scale fissure crust ulcer [1]

Output: what are secondary lesions - 4


Input: [2] macule [1]

Output: – < 1cm spot different in color; flat - neither elevated nor depressed. Example: Freckles, flat nevi


Input: [2] patch [1]

Output: – > 1cm spot different in color; flat - neither elevated nor depressed. Example: Vitiligo


Input: [2] papule [1]

Output: – circumscribed superficial solid elevation < 1cm Example: Elevated nevi, warts, lichen planus


Input: [2] plaque [1]

Output: circumscribed, superficial firm, rough elevation > 1cm; confluence of papules with flat - topped surface. Example: Psoriasis


Input: [2] nodule [1]

Output: palpable solid round or elevated mass/lesion > 1cm This may be above or beneath the skin


Input: [2] tumor [1]

Output: palpable solid round or elevated mass/lesion > 2cm


Input: [2] vesicle [1]

Output: VESICLE – circumscribed, superficial elevation, papule with clear fluid <.5cm Example: Herpes Zoster


Input: [2] bulla [1]

Output: – circumscribed, superficial elevation, papule with clear fluid >.5cm; thin & translucent with serum, lymph fluid, blood or extracellular fluid within. Example: Bullous Pemphigoid


Input: [2] pustle [1]

Output: circumscribed elevations of the skin, papule with cloudy fluid Examples: Acne, Impetigo


Input: [2] wheal [1]

Output: rounded or flat-topped, pale-red papule or plaque characteristically evanescent, disappearing within hours; round, gyrate or irregular. Example: Hive


Input: [2] excoriation [1]

Output: Abrasion of the skin resulting in loss of epidermis; usually superficial and traumatic. Examples: Scratched insect bites, scabies


Input: [2] fissure [1]

Output: Linear crack or break in the epidermis; may be moist or dry


Input: [2] lichenification [1]

Output: Diffuse area of thickened epidermis secondary to persistent rubbing, itching, or skin irritation with resultant increase in the skin lines and markings; often involves flexor surface of extremities. Example: Atopic dermatitis


Input: [2] keliod [1]

Output: - Irregularly shaped, elevated, progressively enlarging scar; grows beyond the boundaries of the wound; caused by excessive collagen formation during healing


Input: [2] burrows [1]

Output: Small and short or long and tortuous tunnels in the epidermis. Example: Small and short- scabies Long and tortuous - creeping eruptions


Input: [2] comedone [1]

Output: Plug of whitish or blackish sebaceous and keratinous material lodged in the pilosebaceous follicle usually seen on the face, the chest and/or back. Example: Acne/ Blackhead


Input: [2] milia [1]

Output: Whitish papules, 1-2 mm in diameter with no visible opening onto the skin surface. Example: Whiteheads/acne, healed burns, healed bullous disease states, face of newborn babies


Input: [2] telangiectasis [1]

Output: Dilated superficial blood vessels that appear as fine irregular red lines. Example: Spider angiomas


Input: [2] eczema [1]

Output: used to describe inflammatory conditions of the skin, which appear erythematous and scaly with ill-defined borders. Example: Atopic dermatitis


Input: [2] papulosquamous [1]

Output: used to describe conditions, which manifest themselves as papules or plaques with scales. Example: Psoriasis


Input: [2] female - more diffuse - widening and thinning hair male - gradual, androgenic [1]

Output: what is the difference between male pattern and female pattern baldness


Input: [2] nail become dry and brittle flat and concave longitudinal ridging or hyperkeratosis can develop [1]

Output: what are normal changes with nails that occur with age


Input: [2] psoriasis, idiopathic, inflammatory or could be fungal, should culture to rule out [1]

Output: what is hyperkeratosis seen in


Input: [2] acne rosacea [1]

Output: this is chronic acneform with vascular dilation on the central face


Input: [2] rhinophyma [1]

Output: red bulbous nose of rosacea; occurs mostly in men


Input: [2] 30-50 years fair skinned facial flushing, with increases in skin temperature, ingestion of hot or spicy food, and alcohol consumption blepharitis and dry eye edema with eyelids and nasolabial folds, flushing, telangacia, papules and pustules [1]

Output: what is the clinical presentation for acneform rosacea age of onset sx


Input: [2] Acne vulgaris; seborrheic dermatitis; contact dermatitis; lupus; photosensitivity [1]

Output: what are differentials for acne form rosacea


Input: [2] HALLMARK: Metronidaazole - Metrogel apply BID others: sulfate lotion BID; clindamycin lotion BID Oral: Tetracycline and Erythromycin 500mg PO BID for 4-6 weeks reduce to QD with significant improvement and then taper aviod contact triggers [1]

Output: what is the hallmark treatment for acne form rosacea and what are other treatment choices


Input: [2] gel - oily skin cream - dry skin [1]

Output: when do you prescribe gel vs cream medications


Input: [2] result of obstruction and inflammation of pilosebaceous units (hair follicles and their accompanying sebaceous gland [1]

Output: what does acne vulgaris result from


Input: [2] 1. follicular epidermal hyper-proliferation plugging of the follicle 2. excess sebum (produced by androgen dependent sebaceous glands) 3. the presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes 4. inflammation [1]

Output: what are the 4 factors that contribute to acne


Input: [2] no acne until an adult, chin/mandible peri oral areas premenses flaring menopause is the cure [1]

Output: what are common manifestations of acne in adult females


Input: [2] comedomes [1]

Output: Lesions are non-inflammatory comedones located on forehead, chin, nose, and paranasal area


Input: [2] open - black heads closed - white heads [1]

Output: what are open vs close comedomes


Input: [2] mild inflammatory acne [1]

Output: usually occurs in teens after first phase of non-inflammatory acne; also occurs in women in their 20s; Scattered small papules or pustules with minimum comedones


Input: [2] inflammatory acne, final phase [1]

Output: more generalized eruption can be on face and upper trunk with papules, pustules, and comedones reflects the presence of a very destructive type of inflammation


Input: [2] comedomal - Retin A mild inflammatory - topical retinoid, oral antibiotics, cystic - vitamin a analog [1]

Output: what are general treatment options for comedomal mild inflammatory cystic ance


Input: [2] normalizes desquamation and reduce inflammatory responce [1]

Output: what is the actions of retinoids


Input: [2] reduce microorganisms and reduce inflammation [1]

Output: what is the action of antibiotics


Input: [2] normalizes desquamation and reduce microorganisms [1]

Output: what is the action of benzoyl peroxides


Input: [2] reduce sebum [1]

Output: what is the action of hormones


Input: [2] know if any changes in medications OCP - start and can worsen [1]

Output: what is an important question when someone is coming in with acne


Input: [2] 2-3 months [1]

Output: how long to see a change in acne


Input: [2] Erythromycin 2% Solution or Gel; apply BID Clindamycin 1% solution, lotion or gel; apply BID Sulfacetamide/Sulfur; (Sulfacet, Clenia) Benzamycin Gel (combination of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide; apply BID [1]

Output: what are the topical antibiotics for acne


Input: [2] Doxycycline * Minocycline * Tetracycline* Erythromycin (safe in pregnancy) Typically start with BID dosing, then reduce to daily maintenance [1]

Output: what are oral antibiotics for acne


Input: [2] orthotricyclin yaz aldactone Labs: check potassium and BP sx: menstraul irregularities, hirsutism, mandibular and chin acne [1]

Output: what are anti-androgen medications for acne what do you need to check before starting and what are symptoms a patient has you would prescribe this for


Input: [2] erythromycin gel and alpha hydroxy [1]

Output: what acne treatment is ok in pregnancy


Input: [2] 3 months [1]

Output: when do you refer out if sx not getting better for acne


Input: [2] 30-45grams [1]

Output: how much steroid cream is needed for the whole body


Input: [2] site dependent = scrotom the most, soles worst [1]

Output: how is absorption of topical steroids on the skin


Input: [2] <7 days SE skin atrophy tachyphylaxis, steriod rosacea, glaucoma, infection [1]

Output: what are SE of steroids and how long should they be used on the face


Input: [2] neck, chest, AC, hands, groin, knees [1]

Output: where are the most commonly seen areas of atopic dermatitis


Input: [2] topical steriods BID oral antihistamines - zyrtec, allegra, claritin 10mg/d UVB refer after 2 weeks Emollients! [1]

Output: what is the treatment for atopic


Input: [2] increased water on the skin [1]

Output: what is dyshydrosis


Input: [2] itchy vesicles on palms, after 3-4 weeks they erode then scale, and lichenifcation itchy [1]

Output: what are symptoms of dyshydrosis


Input: [2] avoid allergy erythro x 10 days topical steriods cold compresses refer after 2 weeks [1]

Output: what is the treatment for dyshydrosis


Input: [2] poison ivy nickel topical medications adhesives [1]

Output: what are common causes of contact dermatitis


Input: [2] topical steriods oral if severe or chronic oral antihistamines topical anti-puritic - aveeno cool compresses [1]

Output: what is the treatment for contact dermatitis


Input: [2] CV insufficiency itchy, scale, ulcer, hyperpigmented. of not treated becomes indurated and fibrotic [1]

Output: what is the cause and sx of stasis ulcers


Input: [2] treat venous issue elevate and compress una boot hydrocolloid if weeping [1]

Output: what is the tx for stasis ulcers


Input: [2] anyone taking medications [1]

Output: when do you suspect a drug eruption


Input: [2] antibiotics, NSAIDS, cytokines, chemo, psycotrophic, sz, sulfa tx: antihistamines and oral steriods [1]

Output: what are common medications that cause drug rashes and what are the treatments


Input: [2] IV - worse response, anaphylaxis topical - delay allergy response allergic sensitization with chronic use [1]

Output: how are allergic responses related to route - IV vs topical vs Chronic use


Input: [2] benedryl digoxin folic acid tetracycline codiene steriods morphine iron [1]

Output: what are common causes of skin reactions - meds


Input: [2] symptoms of SJS when slough of epidermis with lateral pressure [1]

Output: what is Nikolsky sign


Input: [2] angioedema, swelling, palpable purpura, fever dyspnea and hypotension [1]

Output: what is confluent erythema


Input: [2] erythema multiforme [1]

Output: this is a reaction from a virus, will come and go


Input: [2] erythema multiforme - HSV [1]

Output: this is a rad pack with purple gray centers on arms face soles of feet and palms


Input: [2] steriods, lidocaine, acyclovir, resolve on own [1]

Output: what is the treatment for erythema multiform


Input: [2] seborrheitc dermatitis [1]

Output: this is chronic inflammation from pityrosporium oval and with environmental factors such as stress


Input: [2] hair line, and skin folds - eye brow, nasolabial folds, ears [1]

Output: where is seborrhatic most commonly at


Input: [2] fine dry white and yellow scales, on inflamed base if severe red plaques with white scales that are diffuse and not well cic [1]

Output: what is the descriptions of seborrhatic


Input: [2] coal selenium and ketoconazole shampoo topical steroids if shampoo does not work [1]

Output: what is the treatment for seborrhatic


Input: [2] hydrocortisone lotion or ketoconozole [1]

Output: what is the treatment for seborrhatic on the face


Input: [2] mupirocin TID x 7-10 days [1]

Output: what is the treatment for impentigo


Input: [2] hflu strep staph after trauma and break in skin [1]

Output: what are causes of cellulitis


Input: [2] red hot pain edema fever and chills enlarged lymph [1]

Output: what are symptoms of cellulitis


Input: [2] erysipelas - superficial with clear margins on LE face or ears with lymph enlargement - streaking seen [1]

Output: what are sx of GAS cellulitis


Input: [2] augmentin f/u 2-4 days [1]

Output: what is the treatment of cellulitis from an animal bite


Input: [2] oxacillin cephalaxin erythrmoycin azythromycin [1]

Output: what is the treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis


Input: [2] deep in dermis, back of neck and lateral thigh [1]

Output: where are the locations of carbuncles


Input: [2] folliculitis - benzyol peroxide or erythro or clinda carb/faruncles - warm heat, I and D, oral dicloxacillin or cephalxen [1]

Output: what is the treatment for folliculitis, carbuncles and faruncles


Input: [2] nystatin x 10 days expose to light and keep dry F/U 2 weeks [1]

Output: what is the treatment for candida


Input: [2] woods lamp KOH [1]

Output: how do you diagnose tinea vescicolor


Input: [2] macules of differ colors on upper trunk worse with heat humidity and pregnancy and steroids hypopigmentation [1]

Output: what are sx of tinea vescicolor


Input: [2] selsun blue leave in for 24h and wash off can use as proph sulcanozole oral diflucan or ketoconazole [1]

Output: what is the treatment for tinea vescicolor


Input: [2] erythema with scale and patchy hair loss can be boggy - Kerion [1]

Output: what are sx of tinea capitus


Input: [2] grisofulven x 4-8 weeks take with food and check LFTs after 2 weeks selenium x 2 weeks [1]

Output: what is the treatment for capitus


Input: [2] erythema, demarcated, vescicular border, hypopignemented itchy [1]

Output: what are sx of tinea corporus


Input: [2] males, demarcated scales, itchy and no scotal involvement [1]

Output: what are symptoms of tinea cruris


Input: [2] vescicular papular scaly and itchy in between toes [1]

Output: what are sx of tinea pedis


Input: [2] onchymycosis [1]

Output: this is distal thickening and yellowing of toe nails, can occur with ring worm


Input: [2] ketoconozole cream 2-6 weeks lamisil 4 weeks pedis requires longer treatment if resistant PO lamisal or diflucan FU 2 weeks check CBC and LFTs [1]

Output: what is the treatment of tinea


Input: [2] scabies [1]

Output: these are mite burrows where larvae hatch and mature in 14 days cause itching


Input: [2] primary - burrow, gray and pinpoint serous fluid and papules secondary scaling from scars [1]

Output: what is the primary vs secondary lesions of scabies


Input: [2] elimite cream - 8-14 hours then bathe safe in pregnancy launder clothes or put in bag x 7 days itching will last several weeks [1]

Output: what is the treatment of scabies


Input: [2] inanimate objects - fomite or direct contact [1]

Output: what is the most common way lice is transmitted


Input: [2] pubic - 90% [1]

Output: what is the most common type of lice


Input: [2] Nix cream - leave on for 10 minutes and then re treat 7-10 days after Lindane shampoo [1]

Output: what is the treatment for lice


Input: [2] psoriasis [1]

Output: this is a chronic hyper proliferative inflammatory state, triggers by trauma, infection stress and meds


Input: [2] chronic dandruff autoimmune disease ears scale no itching nail pitting DIP arthritis [1]

Output: what are history symptoms to cue you into psoriasis


Input: [2] silver white plaques well demarcated band together bleeding points elbows, knees scalp bilateral and symmetric [1]

Output: what does psoriasis look like


Input: [2] >10% refer topical steriods daily moisturizer dovenox NSAID cream for maintenance Tazorac or Protopic - vitamin A refer after 2 weeks [1]

Output: what is the treatment for psoriais


Input: [2] BB lithium strep infection [1]

Output: which medications and infections flare psoriasis


Input: [2] pitryiasis rosea [1]

Output: this is a viral rash, with a herald patch first then after 7-14d have rupture of lesions on trunk - parrellel


Input: [2] will resolve on own control itch sunlight [1]

Output: what is the treatment for pityriasis rosea


Input: [2] lichen planus [1]

Output: this is a chronic inflammation of the mucosa, seen in 30-70 year olds, immune on flexor surfaces, reticulated patter, in mouth


Input: [2] loose nails [1]

Output: what happens to the nails in lichen planus


Input: [2] pruritic planar - flat polyangular plaque papules purple [1]

Output: what are the 5 Ps in Lichen Planus


Input: [2] triamicolone BID x 1-2 weeks control itch [1]

Output: what is the treatment of lichen planus


Input: [2] lyrica neurotin TCAs Lidocaine [1]

Output: what is the treatment for post hepatic neuralgia


Input: [2] wet compresses burrows bactroban x 10days oral valtrex or famcyclovir if less then 72 hours or if new lesions still form >72 hours FU 2-3 days then 7-10 days [1]

Output: what is the treatment of shingles


Input: [2] shingles [1]

Output: cutaneous viral infection, burning 4-5 days before with prodrome of fever, chills, body aches, HA then clusters of vesicles form and crust


Input: [2] molluscum [1]

Output: this is a benign viral rash, white or flesh colored dome papules with center divot


Input: [2] liquid nitrogen tretinoin [1]

Output: what is the treatment of molluscum


Input: [2] seborratic keratosis - tx with cryotherapy [1]

Output: this is a lesion first a macule on the trunk in the middle aged, usually brown with a stuck on appearance


Input: [2] skin tags [1]

Output: pedunculated fleshy tan small round polyps


Input: [2] dermatosis papulosa nigra [1]

Output: hyperpigemented pedunculated papules on blacks and asains, marker of aging


Input: [2] cherry angioma [1]

Output: this is a dictate mature vascular papule, marker of aging


Input: [2] solar lentigo liver spots - face and hands [1]

Output: hyperpigemented macules with irregular borders to sun exposed areas


Input: [2] senile sebacous hyperplasia [1]

Output: this is tumor of sebaceous gland soft and yellow papule on face or forehead - marker of agine


Input: [1] Query [2]

Output: a question you ask about the data stored in a database


Input: [1] DBMS [2]

Output: Database Management System - is a collection of programs that manages the database structure and controls access to the data stored in the database


Input: [1] Field [2]

Output: a single characteristic or attribute of a person, place, object, event, or idea


Input: [1] File [2]

Output: a collection of data that has a name and is stored in a computer; also called a document


Input: [1] Record [2]

Output: a complete set of field values for a specific person, place, object, event, or idea; also known as a row


Input: [1] database management [2]

Output: is a discipline that focuses on the proper generation, storage and retrieval of data


Input: [1] Data [2]

Output: raw facts


Input: [1] Information [2]

Output: is the result of processing raw data to reveal it's meaning


Input: [1] Knowledge [2]

Output: the body of information and facts about a specific subject


Input: [1] Metadata [2]

Output: data about data; through which the end-user data are integrated and managed


Input: [1] Data Inconsistency [2]

Output: exists when different versions of the same data appear in different places


Input: [1] Ad Hoc Query [2]

Output: is a spur of the moment question


Input: [1] _ is the body of information and facts about a specific subject [2]

Output: knowledge


Input: [1] _ is used to reveal the meaning of data [2]

Output: information


Input: [1] _ provides a description of the data characteristics and the set of relationships that link the data found within the database [2]

Output: metadata


Input: [1] a _ database supports a small number of users, or a specific department within an organization [2]

Output: workgroup


Input: [1] a _ database supports data distributed across several different sites [2]

Output: distributed


Input: [1] a desktop database is a _ database [2]

Output: single-user


Input: [1] most decision-support data are based on historical data obtained from _ [2]

Output: operational databases


Input: [1] _ data are the result of formatting to facilitate storage, use and generation of information [2]

Output: structured


Input: [1] most data you encounter is best classified as _ data [2]

Output: semi-structured


Input: [1] a spreadsheet is an example of structured data [2]

Output: true


Input: [1] The organization of the data within the folders in a manual file system was determined by [2]

Output: its expected use


Input: [1] a _ is a collection of related records [2]

Output: file


Input: [1] the term _ refers to an organization of components that define and regulate the collection, storage, management and use of data within a database environment [2]

Output: database system


Input: [1] class is a basic building block of all data models [2]

Output: true


Input: [1] a _ is anything about data which is to be collected and stored [2]

Output: entity


Input: [1] an _ is the equivalent of a field in a file system [2]

Output: attribute


Input: [1] a _ is bidirectional [2]

Output: relationship


Input: [1] a _ is a restriction placed on the data [2]

Output: constraint


Input: [1] _ are important to ensure data integrity [2]

Output: constraints


Input: [1] students and classes have a _ to _ relationship [2]

Output: many to many


Input: [1] a noun in a business rule translates to an _ in the data model [2]

Output: entity


Input: [1] a verb associating two nouns in a business rule translates to a _ in the data model [2]

Output: relationship


Input: [1] VMS/VSAM is an example of a [2]

Output: file system data model


Input: [1] Oracle 10g is an example of an [2]

Output: XML data model


Input: [1] MySQL is an example of a [2]

Output: relational data model


Input: [1] in the _ model, the basic logical structure is represented as an upside-down tree [2]

Output: hierarchical


Input: [1] one of the limitations of the _ model was that there were no implementation standards [2]

Output: hierarchical


Input: [1] in the _ model, the user perceives the database as a collection of records in 1:M relationships, where each record can have more than one parent [2]

Output: network


Input: [1] the _ model was developed to allow designers to use a graphical tool to examine structures rather than describing them with text [2]

Output: object-oriented


Input: [1] the _ model uses the term connectivity to label the relationship types [2]

Output: entity relationship


Input: [1] the _ model is said to be a semantic data model [2]

Output: object-oriented