Input: In the weekly computer run to prepare payroll checks, a check was printed for an employee who had been terminated the previous week. Which of the following controls, if properly utilized, would have been most effective in preventing the error or ensuring its prompt detection? A. a control total for hours worked, prepared from time cards collected by the Timekeeping Department B. requiring the treasurer's office to account for the numbers of the prenumbered checks issued to the EDP department for the processing of the payroll C. use of a check digit for employee numbers D. use of a header label for the payroll input sheet

Output: A. a control total for hours worked, prepared from time cards collected by the Timekeeping Department


Input: A large retail enterprise has established a policy that requires that the paymaster deliver all unclaimed payroll checks to the Internal Auditing Department at the end of each payroll distribution day. This policy was most likely adopted in order to A. assure that employees who were absent on a payroll distribution day are not paid for that day B. prevent the paymaster from cashing checks which are unclaimed for several weeks C. prevent a bona fide employee's check from being claimed by another employee D. detect any fictitious employee who may have been placed on the payroll

Output: D. detect any fictitious employee who may have been placed on the payroll


Input: An auditor would consider internal control over a client's payroll procedures to be ineffective if the payroll department supervisor is responsible for A. hiring subordinate payroll department employees B. having custody over unclaimed paychecks C. updating employee earnings records D. applying pay rates to time tickets

Output: B. having custody over unclaimed paychecks


Input: Which of the following is least likely to be a possible cause of book-to-physical differences in inventory quantities? A. inventory cutoff errors B. misapplication of LIFO C. unreported scrap or spoilage D. theft

Output: B. misapplication of LIFO


Input: An auditor will usually trace the details of the test counts made during the observation of the physical inventory count to a final inventory schedule. This audit procedure is undertaken to provide evidence that items physically present and observed by the auditor at the time of the physical inventory count are A. owned by the client B. not obsolete C. physically present at the time of the preparation of the final inventory schedule D. included in the final inventory schedule

Output: D. included in the final inventory schedule


Input: Which of the following is a plausible explanation for a large increase in the number of days outstanding in inventory? A. obsolete inventory B. new product line where sales exceed production C. manufacturing overhead was not allocated to the production process D. manufacturing salaries were recorded as administrative expenses

Output: A. obsolete inventory


Input: Which of the following departments typically approves purchase requisitions? A. raw materials stores B. cost accounting C. inventory management D. IT

Output: C. inventory management


Input: A client's physical count of inventories was higher than the inventory quantities per the perpetual records.This situation could be the result of the failure to record A. sales B. sales discounts C. purchases D. purchase returns

Output: C. purchases


Input: Which of the following best described the occurrence assertion for inventory? A. purchase requisitions initiated by authorized personnel B. recorded inventory actually exists C. inventory properly accumulated from journals and ledgers D. all inventory is recorded

Output: B. recorded inventory actually exists


Input: An auditor generally tests physical security controls over inventory by A. test counts and cutoff procedures B. examination and reconciliation C. inspection and recomputation D. inquiry and observation

Output: D. inquiry and observation


Input: To gain assurance that all inventory items in a client's inventory listing schedule are valid, an auditor most likely would trace A. inventory tags noted during the auditor's observation to items listed in the inventory listing schedule B. inventory tags noted during the auditor's observation to items listen in receiving reports and vendors' invoices C. items listed in the inventory listing schedule to inventory tags and the count sheets D. items listed in receiving reports and vendors' invoices to the inventory listing schedule

Output: C. items listed in the inventory listing schedule to inventory tags and the count sheets


Input: The accuracy of perpetual inventory records may be established, in part, by comparing perpetual inventory records with A. purchase requisitions B. receiving reports C. purchase orders D. vendor payments

Output: B. receiving reports


Input: The audit of year-end physical inventories should include steps to verify that the client's purchases and sales cutoffs were adequate. The audit steps should be designed to detect whether merchandise included in the physical count at year-end was not recorded as a A. sale in the subsequent period B. purchase in the current period C. sale in current period D. purchase return in the subsequent period

Output: C. sale in current period


Input: In testing for unrecorded retirements of equipment, an auditor most likely would A. select items of equipment from the accounting records and then locate them during the plant tour B. compare depreciation journal entries with similar prior-year entries in search of fully depreciated equipment C. inspect items of equipment observed during the plant tour and then trace them to the equipment subsidiary ledger D. scan the general journal for unusual equipment additions and

Output: A. select items of equipment from the accounting records and then locate them during the plant tour


Input: Equipment acquisitions that are misclassified as maintenance expenses most likely would be detected by a control activity that provides for A. segregation of duties of employees in the accounts payable department B. independent verification of invoices for disbursements recorded as equipment acquisitions C. investigation of variances within a formal budgeting system D. authorization by the board of directors of significant equipment acquisitions

Output: B. independent verification of invoices for disbursements recorded as equipment acquisitions


Input: In an interview with the plant manager regarding operations, the auditor is most likely to obtain evidence that raises concerns regarding A. the capitalization vs. expensing policy C. the need to write-off equipment that has become obsolete D. the adequacy of depreciation expense

Output: C. the need to write-off equipment that has become obsolete


Input: Complex accounting issues for property, plant, and equipment include all of the following except A. lease accounting B. testing goodwill for impairment C. capitalized interest D. self-constructed assets

Output: B. testing goodwill for impairment


Input: Testing a sample of repairs and maintenance expense items to ensure that they were properly classified as repairs as opposed to property, plant, and equipment tests which of the following assertions for the repairs and maintenance expense account? A. occurrence B. completeness C. cutoff D. authorization

Output: A. occurrence


Input: Which of the following is the most important control activity over acquisitions of property, plant, and equipment? A. establishing a written company policy distinguishing between capital and revenue expenditures B. using a budget to forecast and control acquisitions and retirements C. analyzing monthly variances between authorized expenditures and actual costs D. requiring acquisitions to be made by user departments

Output: B. using a budget to forecast and control acquisitions and retirements


Input: Testing depreciation calculations for a sample of property, plant, and equipment tests the assertion of A. existence B. completeness C. valuation and allocation D. rights and obligations

Output: C. valuation and allocation


Input: The auditor may conclude that depreciation charges are insufficient by noting A. insured values greatly in excess of book values B. large amounts of fully depreciated assets C. continuous trade-ins of relatively new assets D. excessive recurring losses on assets retired

Output: D. excessive recurring losses on assets retired


Input: Due to a weakness observed in internal control over recording retirements of equipment, the auditor may decide to A. inspect certain items of equipment in the plant and trace those items to the accounting records B. review the subsidiary ledger to ascertain whether depreciation was taken on each item of equipment during the year C. trade additions to the "other assets" account to search for equipment that is still on hand but no longer is being used D. select certain items of equipment from the accounting records and locate them in the plant

Output: D. select certain items of equipment from the accounting records and locate them in the plant


Input: Which of the following accounts would most likely be reviewed by the auditor to gain reasonable assurance that additions to property, plant, and equipment are not understated? A. depreciation expense B. accounts payable C. cash D. repairs and maintenance expense

Output: D. repairs and maintenance expense


Input: A company issued bonds for cash during the year under audit. To ascertain that this transaction was properly recorded, the auditor's best course of action is to A. request a statement from the bond trustee as to the amount of the bonds issued and outstanding B. confirm the results of the issuance with the underwriter or investment banker C. trace the cash received from the issuance to the accounting records D. verify that the net cash received is credited to an account entitled "Bonds Payable"

Output: C. trace the cash received from the issuance to the accounting records


Input: Reviewing interest expense to examine payments to debt holders not listed on the debt analysis schedule is a procedure that can be used to test the audit assertion of A. occurrence B. completeness C. cutoff D. accuracy

Output: B. completeness


Input: An auditor usually obtains evidence of stockholders' equity transactions by reviewing the entity's A. minutes of board of directors meetings B. transfer agent's records C. canceled stock certificates D. treasury stock certificate book

Output: A. minutes of board of directors meetings


Input: The auditor's program for the examination of long-term debt should include steps that require the A. verification of the existence of the bondholders B. examination of any bond agreement C. inspection of the accounts payable subsidiary ledger D. investigation of credits to the bond interest income account

Output: B. examination of any bond agreement


Input: The auditor can best verify a client's bond sinking fund transactions and year-end balance by A. recomputation of interest expense, interest payable, and amortization of bond discount or premium B. confirmation with individual holders of retired bonds C. confirmation with the bond trustee D. examination and count of the bonds retired during the year

Output: C. confirmation with the bond trustee


Input: During an audit, Wicks learns that the audit client was granted a 3-month waiver of the repayment of principal on the installment loan with Blank Bank without an extension of the maturity date which is one year in the future. With respect to this loan, the audit program used by Wicks i least likely to include a verification of the A. interest expense for the year B. balloon payment C. total liability at year-end D. installment loan payments

Output: B. balloon payment


Input: Where no independent stock transfer agents are employed and the corporation issues its own stocks and maintains stock records, canceled stock certificates should A. be defaced to prevent re-issuance and attached to their corresponding stubs B. not be defaced, but segregated from other stock certificates and retained in a canceled certificates file D. be defaces and sent to the Secretary of State

Output: A. be defaced to prevent re-issuance and attached to their corresponding stubs


Input: Before expressing an opinion concerning the results of operations, the auditor would best proceed with the examination of the income statement by A. applying a rigid measurement standard designed to test for understatement of net income B. analyzing the beginning and ending balance sheet inventory amounts C. making net income comparisons to published industry trends and ratios D. examining income statement accounts concurrently with the related balance sheet accounts

Output: D. examining income statement accounts concurrently with the related balance sheet accounts


Input: During the course of an audit, a CPA observes that the recorded interest expense seems to be excessive in relation to the balance in the long-term debt account. This observation could lead the auditor to suspect that A. long-term debt is understated B. discount on bonds payable is overstated C. long-term debt is overstated D. premium on bonds payable is understated

Output: A. long-term debt is understated


Input: A control that ensures that long-term borrowing is properly initiated by appropriate individuals addresses the control assertion of A. occurrence B. authorization C. completeness D. valuation

Output: B. authorization


Input: Jones was engaged to examine the financial statements of Virginia Corporation for the year ended June 30. Having completed an examination of the investment securities, which of the following is the best method of verifying the accuracy of recorded dividend income? A. tracing recorded dividend income to cash receipts records and validated deposit slips B. utilizing analytical procedures and statistical sampling C. comparing recorded dividends with amounts appearing on federal income forms 1099 D. comparing recorded dividends with a standard financial reporting service's record of dividends

Output: D. comparing recorded dividends with a standard financial reporting service's record of dividends


Input: In confirming with an outside agent, such as a financial institution, that the agent is holding investment securities in the client's name, an auditor most likely gathers evidence in support of management's financial statement assertions regarding A. existence B. rights and obligations C. completeness D. all of the above

Output: D. all of the above


Input: Examining brokers' advices for a sample of securities purchased during the year is a test for the assertion of A. completeness B. disclosure C. valuation and allocation D. rights and obligations

Output: D. rights and obligations


Input: The auditor should insist that a representative of the client be present during the physical examination of securities in order to A. lend authority to the auditor's directives B. detect forged securities C. coordinate the return of all securities to proper locations D. acknowledge the receipt of securities returned

Output: D. acknowledge the receipt of securities returned


Input: An auditor should trace interbank transfers for the last part of the audit period and first part of the subsequent period to detect whether A. the cash receipts journal was held open for a few days after the year-end B. the last checks recorded before the year end were actually mailed by the year-end C. cash balances were overstated because of kiting D. any unusual payments to or receipts from related parties occurred

Output: C. cash balances were overstated because of kiting


Input: Auditor's will need to perform more substantive tests than normal to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence that a financial instrument is fairly stated if which of the following conditions exist: A. management is objective and transparent in their assumptions B. management's key assumptions are subject to volatility C. the entity's portfolio is composed of only stocks issued by Fortune 100 firms traded in an active market D. the entity does not have control weaknesses in its valuation processes

Output: B. management's key assumptions are subject to volatility


Input: Examining a sample of cancelled checks for an authorized signature tests which of the following assertions for cash? A. occurrence B. completeness C. cutoff D, accuracy

Output: A. occurrence


Input: Which of the following is not one of the auditor's primary objectives in an examination of marketable securities? A. to determine whether securities are authentic B. to determine whether securities are the property of the client C. to determine whether securities actually exist D. to determine whether securities are properly classified on the balance sheet

Output: B. to determine whether securities are the property of the client


Input: A company holds bearer bonds as a short-term investment. Responsibility for custody of these bonds and submission of coupons for periodic interest collections probably should be delegated to the A. chief accountant B. internal auditor C. cashier D. treasurer

Output: D. treasurer


Input: Under which of the following circumstances would an auditor be most likely to intensify an examination of a $1,000 petty cash fun maintained on an imprest basis? A. reimbursement vouchers are not prenumbered B. reimbursement of the fund from the general cash account occurs twice or more each week C. the custodian occasionally uses the cash fund to cash employee checks D. the custodian endorses reimbursement checks

Output: A. reimbursement vouchers are not prenumbered


Input: Which of the following auditing procedures is ordinarily performed last? A. Confirming accounts payable B. Testing the purchasing function C. Reading the minutes of directors' meetings D. Obtaining a management representation letter

Output: D. Obtaining a management representation letter


Input: The refusal of a client's attorney to provide a representation on the legality of a particular act committed by the client is generally A. Sufficient reason to issue a "subject to" qualified opinion B. Considered to be a scope limitation C. Insufficient reason to modify the auditor's report because of the attorney's obligation of confidentiality D. Proper grounds to withdraw from the engagement without further consideration

Output: B. Considered to be a scope limitation


Input: An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to "dual date" the audit report is based upon the auditor's willingness to A. Extend auditing procedures B. Accept responsibility for all events between year-end and the audit report date C. Permit inclusion of a footnote captioned: event (unaudited) subsequent to the date of the auditor's report D. Assume responsibility for events subsequent to the issuance of the auditor's report

Output: A. Extend auditing procedures


Input: Which of the following expressions is least likely to be included in a client's representation letter? A. No events have occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date that require adjustment to or disclosure in, the financial statements B. The company has complied with all aspects of contractual agreements that would have a material effect on the financial statements in the event of noncompliance C. Management acknowledges responsibility for illegal actions committed by its employees D. Management has made available all financial statements and related data

Output: C. Management acknowledges responsibility for illegal actions committed by its employees


Input: An example of a Type 1 subsequent event is A. A tornado that destroys a client's factory after the balance sheet date B. An event after the balance sheet date that confirms the auditor's belief (documented prior to the end of the client's fiscal year) that a large portion of the client's inventory is obsolete C. Notification of an IRS audit after the balance sheet date D. The client's Board of Directors unexpectedly resigns after the balance sheet date

Output: B. An event after the balance sheet date that confirms the auditor's belief (documented prior to the end of the client's fiscal year) that a large portion of the client's inventory is obsolete


Input: An auditor issued an audit report that was dual dated for a subsequent event that occurred after the completion of field work but before issuance of the auditor's report. The auditor's responsibility for events occurring subsequent to the completion of field work was A. Limited to the specific event referenced B. Limited to include only events occurring before the date of the last subsequent event referenced C. Extended to subsequent events occurring through the date of issuance of the report D. Extended to include all events occurring since the completion of field work

Output: A. Limited to the specific event referenced


Input: Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor's required communication with those charged with governance? A. This communication is required to occur before the auditor's report on the financial statements is issued B. This communication should include management changes in the application of significant accounting policies C. Any significant matter communicated to those charged with governance also should be communicated to management D. Significant audit adjustments proposed by the auditor and recorded by management need not be communicated to those charged with governance

Output: B. This communication should include management changes in the application of significant accounting policies


Input: Which of the following statements ordinarily is included among the written client representations obtained by the auditor? A. Compensating balances and other arrangements involving restrictions on cash balances have been disclosed B. Management acknowledges responsibility for illegal actions committed by employees C. Sufficient evidential matter has been made available to permit the issuance of an unqualified opinion D. Management acknowledges that there are no material weaknesses in the account balances

Output: A. Compensating balances and other arrangements involving restrictions on cash balances have been disclosed


Input: After an audit report containing an unqualified opinion on a nonpublic client's financial statements is issued, the auditor learns that the client has decided to sell the shares of a subsidiary that accounts for 30 percent of its revenue and 25 percent of its net income. The auditor should A. Determine whether the information is reliable and, if it is determined to be reliable, request that revised financial statements be issued B. Notify the entity that the auditor's report may no longer be associated with the financial statements C. Describe the effects of this subsequently discovered information in communications with persons known to be relying on the financial statements D. Take no action because the auditor has no obligation to make any further inquiries

Output: D. Take no action because the auditor has no obligation to make any further inquiries


Input: Which of the following procedures should an auditor generally perform regarding subsequent events? A. Compare the latest available interim financial statements issued after year-end with the financial statements being audited B. Send second requests to the client's customers who failed to respond to initial accounts receivable confirmation requests C. Communicate material weaknesses in internal controls to those charged with governance D. Review the cutoff bank statements for several months after year-en

Output: A. Compare the latest available interim financial statements issued after year-end with the financial statements being audited


Input: When the auditor is unable to determine the amounts associated with the illegal acts of client personnel because of an inability to obtain adequate evidence, the auditor should issue a(n) A. "Subject to" qualified opinion B. Disclaimer of opinion C. Adverse opinion D. Unqualified opinion with a separate explanatory paragraph

Output: B. Disclaimer of opinion


Input: When comparative financial statements are presented, the fourth standard of reporting, which refers to financial statements "taken as a whole," should be considered to apply to the financial statements of the A. Periods presented plus the one preceding period B. Current period only C. Current period and those of the other periods presented D. Current and immediately preceding period only

Output: C. Current period and those of the other periods presented


Input: Which of the following auditing procedures most likely would assist an auditor in identifying conditions and events that may indicate substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern? A. Inspecting title documents to verify whether any assets are pledged as collateral B. Confirming with third parties the details of arrangements to maintain financial support C. Reconciling the cash balance per books with the cut-off bank statement and the bank confirmation D. Comparing the entity's depreciation and asset capitalization policies to other entities in the industry

Output: B. Confirming with third parties the details of arrangements to maintain financial support


Input: Which of the following circumstances normally does not affect the consistency phrase in the auditor's standard report? A. A change in accounting estimate B. A change in accounting principle C. A change in the companies included in combined financial statements D. A correction of an error in principle

Output: A. A change in accounting estimate


Input: Which of the following would be considered a change that affects consistency A. Change in accounting estimate B. Change in accounting principle C. Change in classification and reclassification D. All of the above

Output: B. Change in accounting principle


Input: An auditor's report on financial statements prepared in accordance with a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles should include all of the following except A. An opinion as to whether the basis of accounting used is appropriate under the circumstances B. An opinion as to whether the financial statements are presented fairly in conformity with the other comprehensive basis of accounting C. Reference to the note to the financial statements that describes the basis of presentation D. A statement that the basis of presentation is a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles

Output: A. An opinion as to whether the basis of accounting used is appropriate under the circumstances


Input: Abbot, CPA, as principal auditor for consolidated financial statements is using a qualified report of another auditor. Abbot does not consider the qualification material relative to the consolidated financial statements and Abbot is willing to accept responsibility for the work of the other auditor. What recognition, if any, must Abbot make in his report to the report of the other audit? A. He need make no reference B. He must refer to the qualification of the other auditor and qualify his report likewise C. He must include the other auditor's report with his report but need not qualify his report D. He must include the other auditor's report with his report and give an explanation of its significance

Output: A. He need make no reference


Input: Which of the following would be considered a change that does not affect consistency? A. Change expected to have a material future effect B. Change in accounting principle C. Correction of an error in principle D. None of the above are considered changes that do not affect consistency

Output: A. Change expected to have a material future effect


Input: A scope limitation sufficient to preclude an unqualified opinion always will result when management A. Prevents the auditor from reviewing the working papers of the predecessor auditor B. Engages the auditor after the year-end physical inventory is completed C. Requests that certain material accounts receivable not be confirmed D. Refuses to provide a representation letter acknowledging its responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements in conformity with GAAP

Output: D. Refuses to provide a representation letter acknowledging its responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements in conformity with GAAP


Input: The adverse effects of events causing an auditor to believe there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern would most likely be mitigated by evidence relating to the A. Ability to expand operations into new product lines in the future B. Feasibility of plans to purchase leased equipment at less than market value C. Marketability of assets that management plans to sell D. Committed arrangements to convert preferred stock to long-term debt

Output: C. Marketability of assets that management plans to sell


Input: Where there is a failure of a lessor or lesee to make repairs, pursuant to an agreement to do so, is there a breach?

Output: Yes but whether it may be dissolved is within the court's discretion

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Explain differences between PMSI in movables and vendor's privilege in movables

Output: The purpose of both a vendor’s privilege in movable property and a purchase-money security interest (PMSI) is that, if the debtor-buyer defaults on the promise to pay for a credit purchase, the creditor can have the purchased property (the collateral) seized and sold and apply the proceeds to the unpaid obligation. A vendor’s privilege on movables is created automatically as a matter of law whenever a vendor sells movable property on credit to a buyer. A purchase-money security interest (PMSI), in contrast, can be created in favor of either a credit seller or a lender making a loan actually used to buy the collateral, and it must be specifically created by authenticated agreement (generally, an agreement signed by the buyer-debtor granting a security interest in the movable property to the credit seller or lender). In order to be effective against third parties, a PMSI must be “perfected,” generally by filing a financing statement in any parish clerk of court’s office, while a vendor’s privilege requires no separate “perfection” step to be effective against third parties. A vendor’s privilege, however, benefits only the credit seller, and only while the immediate buyer has possession of the property. A perfected PMSI generally remains effective and enforceable against the collateral (and its proceeds) even if the Page 2 of 7 original debtor-buyer sells or otherwise disposes of the collateral to a third party. While a PMSI can be enforced against the property immediately upon the debtor’s default (perhaps even by quick and efficient executory process), a vendor’s privilege can be enforced only after the vendor obtains a judgment on the unpaid obligation against the debtor and seeks to enforce that judgment against the property subject to the privilege (through ordinary process). As against third persons with competing interests in the collateral, a PMSI perfected within 20 days of delivery of the [non-inventory] collateral to the debtor takes priority over virtually any other interest, whereas a vendor’s privilege provides priority over other judgment creditors, but it is subordinate to any Chapter 9 security interest (including PMSIs, perfected or not) as well as to lessor’s and artisan’s/repairperson’s privileges

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: explain attachment

Output: “Attachment” is the process by which a security interest is created; that is, made enforceable against the debtor, by “attaching” to specific property, called the “collateral.” The prerequisites for attachment are that (1) value has been given, (2) the debtor has rights in the collateral, and (3) the debtor has authenticated a security agreement adequately describing the collateral. “Authenticated” generally simply means “signed,” usually on a written agreement, and an adequate description of the collateral includes descriptions by category for most collateral.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: explain perfection

Output: “Perfection” is the process of making an attached security interest enforceable against third parties. The most common method of perfection is filing a UCC-1 financing statement in the UCC records of the jurisdiction where the debtor is. Because Abe is a corporation, it is a “registered organization,” so it is located in its state of registry, Louisiana, and a filing in the UCC records in Louisiana can be made in any parish clerk of court’s office. The financing statement must simply identify the debtor and secured creditor and describe the collateral, generally by category/type. A UCC-1 is effective for five years, then it lapses unless a continuation statement is filed in the 6-month window preceding its lapse date, which then continues the UCC-1’s effectiveness for five more years after the original lapse date.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: how to perfect collateral with certificate of title?

Output: The only way to perfect an interest in collateral covered by a certificate of title is to file a UCC-1 in the Department of Public Safety and Corrections, Office of Motor Vehicles, describing the truck with greater specificity (e.g., ID number, make, model).

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Why can't you have a security interest in rent owed?

Output: A security agreement and financing statement are effective to grant and perfect rights in movable property only; they do not affect rights in or associated with immovable property, such as rent.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: perfection of a promissory note

Output: , perfection in an instrument can also be accomplished by possession of the instrument by the creditor

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: perfection of a deposit acct

Output: the only way to perfect an original security interest in a deposit account is by establishing “control” over the account. Because FNB is not the bank that maintains the account, and it has no agreement with Jefferson Parish Bank for “control” of that account, FNB’s interest based directly on the security agreement is not perfected. Alternatively, if FNB could prove that some or all of the funds in that account are proceeds of its other collateral, AND if it can prove that its interest in that other collateral was perfected when the collateral produced proceeds (despite the retroactively lapsed 2001 UCC-1, discussed above), then FNB’s interest in the proceeds deposited into the deposit account might be perfected automatically and continuously (identifiable cash proceeds) as a matter of law

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: category of tax refund for SI purposes

Output: The tax refund likely represents a “payment intangible,” a subcategory of “general intangibles” in which the obligor’s primary obligation is for payment of an amount of money.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: can an issuing corporation grant a security interest in its issued stock certificates?

Output: Here, Abe is the issuing corporation, not the owner of the stock certificate. Abe cannot grant a security interest in property in which it has no rights; only the sole shareholder could grant such an interest, since the shareholder owns the shares, not Abe. If the sole shareholder were the debtor granting an interest in the stock certificate, the 2008 UCC-1 would be sufficient to perfect the interest. Although control is a superior method of perfection of interests in investment property, filing is an effective method.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: explain the warranty against redhibitory defects and whether this can be waived

Output: The most obvious remedy Bob will claim against Sam is that Sam has breached the warranty against redhibition. This warranty is one of the three warranties implied in every Louisiana sale. Unless successfully waived, the warranty protects the buyer from hidden defects in the thing at the time of delivery that qualify as redhibitory. Such defects are of two types. The first type of redhibitory defect is the defect that renders the thing either absolutely useless or so inconvenient to use that tit must be supposed that the buyer would not have bought the thing had he known of the defect. The remedy for this type of defect is rescission of the sale. The second type of redhibitory defect is the defect that diminishes the usefulness or value of the thing such that it must be supposed that the buyer would have paid a lesser price. The remedy for this type of defect is quanti minoris — a reduction of the price. The problems Bob has experienced seem to qualify as redhibitory defects. The structural defects, which will cost more then $50,000 to correct, likely make the home so inconvenient to use that Bob would not have purchased it had he known of the structural defects. Because the home was purchased for a price of $285,000, however, it may be that Bob meets only the standard for quanti minoris rather than rescission. Further, the defect was hidden, meaning that it likely would not have been discovered on reasonably prudent inspection. The residential inspection company missed the problem here, but Bob cannot be expected to do more than hire such a company as part of “reasonable prudence.” Sam never revealed the defect to Bob. To the contrary, Sam told Bob specifically that he had “no problems” with the house. With regard to whether the foundational defect was in existence at the time of delivery, the buyer has the burden of proving this. Under these facts, the cracks

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: explain warranty of fitness

Output: he may seek a remedy for breach of the warranty of fitness, under which the seller warrants that the thing sold is reasonably fit for its intended use. The warranty of fitness is governed by general contract rules. Bob could argue that persistent door sticking, cracks all over the house, and structural instability render the house unfit for its ordinary use as a residence. This warranty, however, was waived by Bob when he waived the warranty against redhibition. If the waiver is effective, Bob could not assert breach of the warranty of fitness. There is also an issue here of whether the waiver is invalid because it was not brought to the buyer’s attention. (In contrast to the law on waiver of redhibitory defects, the law on waiver of breach of the warranty against fitness is unclear as to whether the waiver must be brought to the buyer’s attention to be effective.)

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: elements of fraud

Output: The elements of fraud that must be proven to rescind a contract are three: first, that the other party misrepresented to suppressed the truth; second, that the party’s intent in doing so was to obtain and unjust advantage or cause inconvenience to the injured party; and third, that the injured party’s error related to a circumstance that substantially influenced hi consent to the contract

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: requirements of error

Output: requires merely that he err on a cause without which he would not have entered into the obligation and that the other party knew of his cause

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: PP for vices of consent? (fraud, error, duress)

Output: 5 years

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What does the lessor's privilege allow?

Output: Gives privilege in movables on the leased premises to secure payment of rent. Merely gives right to collect his debt in preference and priority to other creditors but doesn't allow him to exercise "self-help" to hold the goods covered by the privilege. (ex. padlocking the door)

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Discuss the warranty against eviction

Output: Even a sale without a warranty allows the buyer who is evicted to claim restitution of the purchase price as long as the buyer was unaware of the danger of eviction. That warranty covers physical eviction and also the existence of non-apparent, undeclared servitudes.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What is a quitclaim deed?

Output: The transferor conveys to the transferee whatever interest (if any) the transferor may have in the property without warranting the existence of such rights. If the transferee is evicted, the transferor owes nothing.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Sale by Aversionem

Output: described as a certain and limited body or a distinct object and is an immovable sold for a lump price NO increase or decrease in price if quantity differs

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Sale by Measure

Output: price is fixed rate of so much per measure 1. if less than promised delivered, price reduced accordingly (no right to recede unless vice of consent) 2. more amount than promsied, but diff is 5% (1/20) or LESS, price is increased accordingly 3. more than 5% delivered, buyer can pay increase or recede

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Sale of immovable for lump price

Output: less delivered, diff is 5% or less = no effect, no right to recede less delivered, diff is 5% or more = price reduced, no right to recede more delivered, diff is 5% or less = no effect, no recede more delivered, more than 5% = right to recede or pay increase

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: List 4 matters that remain effective as to third parties even though not evidenced of record

Output: 1. capacity or authority 2. occurrence of a condition 3. exercise of option or right of first refusal 4. termination of rights that depends on occurrence of condition

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: list for types of perfection and examples of collateral for each

Output: 1. filing; inventory, equipment, etc. 2. control; deposit account 3. possession; money and collateral mortgage note 4. automatic perfection; PMSI in consumer goods

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: When does promissory note payable with interest in monthly installments become unenforceable?

Output: 5 years from when payment is exigible. thus, first month's payment is unenforceable 5 years from date first payment is due

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What should the notice of reinscription contain?

Output: identify the mortgagor the file number or other info describing the original inscription declaring the mortgage reinscribed

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: When does a mortgage lapse?

Output: generally, 10 years after the date of Act of Mortgage but if any secured obligation is described in the mortgage as having a maturity date beyond 9 years, then the effect of inscription lapses 6 years after said maturity date

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What happens when a person sells land that they don't currently own but later inherits it as an heir?

Output: Even if there was no express warranty, the seller gave a warranty against eviction. This requires the seller to pay the buyer damages for the buyer's loss or danger of losing a thing to some third party with title. The after-acquired titled doctrine vests owership of the land in the buyer automatically and cures the breach of warranty. The fact that the seller wants to now keep the property is irrelevant. The doctrine operates automatically and against the seller's will.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: When can you obtain an action for lesion?

Output: allows the seller of an immovable to promptly rescind the sale if he received less than one half of the fair market value of the thing. subject to a one year PEREMPTIVE period from date of sale

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What happens when earnest money is involved in a sale and one wants to breach?

Output: Buyer loses earnest money and seller must return it and pay that amount as well. No damages or specific performance available must expressly agree that the deposit is earnest money

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: when looking at a potential claim for lesion in a contract to sell, when do you look at the fair market value?

Output: at the time of the contract. not at the time of the sale.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Describe the requirements and limitations of an option contract coupled with a lease

Output: Option contract requires the thing and the price and meet the formal requirements of the sale that it contemplates. It is okay to leave the price up to an appraiser. Where no specified term, it will be the term of the lease. While options are usually not enforceable for more than 10 years, it is okay when that option is a part of a contract involving continuous and periodic performance such as a lease. Third parties are bound by option contracts only if those are recorded.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: When a party enters into a contract and then realizes he will not profit off of it, what argument can he make besides vices of consent?

Output: Impossibility - requires occurrence of a fortuitous event not forseen by the parties. This will not succeed where the risks of the contract are known to those involved in the industry. LA DOES NOT recognize the common law doctrine of impracticability which would allow a party to avoid a contract when performance would become substantially more burdensome than originally anticipated.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: To what extent are parties free to select the law that governs their contract?

Output: free except to the extent that their chosen law violates a strong public policy of the law that would have governed had they made no selection

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Suppose you have a mortgage on your property and you find someone to purchase the property and assume the mortgage. Suppose everything is in writing and the bank gives consent. Are you still liable on the mortgage?

Output: Yes. You could argue that there was a subjective novation - meaning there was a substitute of obligors which extinquishes the obligation for the first obligor. However, novation is NEVER presumed and an obligee's intent to novate must be clear and unequivocal. If the bank gave no indication that the first obligor would be discharged, then both became liable as solidary obligors and are both liable for the whole performance.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Does a vendor's privilege on immovable property have priority over a judicial mortgage?

Output: Yes, if the act of sale was recorded in the mortgage records in the parish where the property is located before the money judgment is filed in that parish.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Explain the parole evidence rule

Output: although oral testimony is not allowed to negate or vary a written contract... it is permissible to prove a subsequent agreement to modify the contract

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: what is the PP for redhibitory defects?

Output: 1 year, or 4 years when brought to the attention of a good faith seller seller is good faith if didn't know of defect. buyer must give seller opportunity to correct the defect before he can seek rescission of the sale.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: requirements for perfection of a sale

Output: The thing, the price, and the consent of the parties are requirements for the perfection of a sale.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: difference between sale of a future thing and sale of a hope

Output: Sale of a Future Thing: requirement to pay only occurs on the condition that the thing comes into existence. Sale of a Hope: There is always a requirement to pay the purchase price; the buyer purchases the hope to obtain something.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: Rights and obligations established or created by the following written instruments are without effect as to third persons unless the instrument is registered by recording it in the appropriate mortgage or conveyance records pursuant to the provisions of this title:

Output: 1. Instrument that transfers an immovable or establishes a real right in or over an immovable 2. Lease of an immovable 3. Option or right of first refusal, or a contract to buy, sell, or lease an immovable or to establish a real right in or over an immovable 4. An instrument that modifies, terminates, or transfers the rights created or evidenced by the instruments described in 1-3 of this article.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: What is the purpose of opening a succession judicially?

Output: The judgment of possession rendered in a succession proceeding shall be prima facie evidence of the relationship to the deceased of the parties recognized therein, as heir, legatee, surviving spouse in community, or usufructuary, as the case may be, and of their right to the possession of the estate of the deceased.

000 CODE III LEASE/SECURITIES/CONTRACTS Flashcards - Cram.com

Indefinite until a party properly terminates by notice. For agricultural it continues on an annual basis, for residential immovable month to month, and for non-residential movable, day to day. tacit reconduction DOES NOT apply - only applies to leases with a fixed term


Input: [1] Lump sum [2]

Output: a single cash flow

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] present value [2]

Output: the value today of a cash flow to be received or paid in the future

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] future value [2]

Output: is the value in the future of cash flows received or paid today

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Future value of lump sum equation [2]

Output: FV=PV(1+i)

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Population [2]

Output: is the collection of all possible individuals

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Sample [2]

Output: a portion or subset of a population that is used to estimate characteristics

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Interpret interest rates [2]

Output: Equilibrium interest rates are the required rate of return for a particular investment, in the sense that the market rate of return is the return that investors and savers require to get them to willingly lend their funds. Interest rates are also referred to as discount rates

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] nominal risk-free rate [2]

Output: nominal risk-free rate = real risk-free rate + expected inflation rate

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Securities types of risk: [2]

Output: Default risk, Liquidity risk, Maturity risk.

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] real risk-free rate [2]

Output: is a theoretical rate on a single-period loan that has no expectation of inflation and dafault risk and liquidty risk and maturity risk

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] real rate of return [2]

Output: an investor's increase in purchasing power (after adjusting for inflation).

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] nominal risk-free rate= [2]

Output: real risk-free rate + expected inflation rate

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] EAR ( time value of money) [2]

Output: effective annual rate represents the annual rate of return actually being earned after adjustments have been made for different compounding periods.

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] EAR ( time value of money) formula [2]

Output: EAR (1 + periodic rare)m - 1 1

CFA Level 1 Quantitative methods Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] glenohumeral joint

Output: Most mobile joint in the body

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Muscles; the arm is only connected to the axial skeleton at the SC joint

Output: Primary mechanism of stability in the UE

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Situation where passive elements (bones, etc) provide little support and stability of structure is dependent on active muscle contraction forces.

Output: Describe dynamic stabilization

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Wide range of mobility, good stability when function is normal.

Output: Advantages of dynamic stabilization

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The stenoclavicular and/or acromioclavicular joints

Output: Movement at the scapulothoracic interface is dependent on movement at what joint(s)?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] 2/3 glenohumeral 1/3 SC and AC (scapular)

Output: Relative contributions of the SC, AC and GH joints for movement of UE in flexion or abduction

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - medial clavicle with manubrium and first costal cartilage - plane/mild saddle - synovial - 3 rotary degrees of freedom - 3 translatory degrees of freedom - capsule - joint disk - 3 major ligaments

Output: List the main components of the sternoclavicular joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] wedge-shaped open superiorly

Output: Describe the shape of the SC joint at rest

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - SC joint disck - interclavicular ligament

Output: Attachments at superior portion of medial clavicle

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - upper portion to postereosuperior clavicle - lower portion to manubrium, 1st costal cartilage, anterior and posterior capsule - Therefore, the disk acts like a hinge/pivot

Output: Attachments of the sternoclavicular disk

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Diagonally transects the SC joint space and divides into 2 cavities

Output: Position of strenoclavicular disk in the joint space

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - elevation/depression clavicle: upper attachment as pivot - protraction/retraction: lower attachment as pivot

Output: Describe different pivot points in sternoclavicular joint based on movement

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] At location of the costoclavicular ligament (lat and ant to joint)

Output: Axis of motion of the sternoclavicular joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - sternoclavicular ligaments - costoclavicular ligament - interclavicular ligament

Output: List the three major ligaments of the SC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - elevation: lat clavicle rotates upward - deperession: lat clavicle rotates downward

Output: Describe clavicular rotation with elevation and depression

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 50 degrees of elevation - 15 degrees of depression - 15 degrees protraction - 20 degrees of retraction - min/10 degrees of ant rotation - 50 degrees posterior rotation This ROM is usually not used functionally

Output: Possible ROM at the SC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - protraction: lat clavicle rotates anteriorly - retraction: lat clavicle rotates posteriorly

Output: Describe clavicular rotation with protraction and retraction

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Posteriorly (bring inferior surface anteriorly)

Output: From resting, which direction (in A/P) can the clavicle rotate around the long axis?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] SC joint is incongruent BUT with disc matches well, dissipates force and RARELY have degenerative changes.

Output: Describe the balance of incongruence and joint degeneration in the sternoclavicular joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] ~1%

Output: SC joint dislocations represent what % of joint dislocations in the body?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] the scapula to the clavicle

Output: The AC joint attaches...

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - plane - synovial - 3 rotational degrees of freedom - 3 translational degrees of freedom - joint capsule - 2 major ligaments - may or may not have a disk

Output: Describe the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - allow additional rotation of scapula on thorax - allow adjustments in tipping on thorax as arm moves - transmission of forces from upper extremity to clavicle

Output: 3 general purposes of the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - incongruent - large range and may be flat, concave-convex or reversed - intra-articular mvnts at this joint are not predictable

Output: Describe the articular facets of the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The more vertical the facet shape, the more prone to joint wear from shear forces.

Output: Describe relationship between AC joint facet shape and shear forces

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Fibrocartilaginous union until age 2. As UE is used the joint space develops and there may or may not be a "meniscoid" fibrocartilage remnant (disk) within the joint

Output: Describe the development (age2...) of the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] It is weak

Output: AC joint capsule strength

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - superior acromioclavicular - inferior acromioclavicular - coracoclavicular

Output: 3 ligaments of the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - fibers of superior AC ligament are reinforced by fibers of the deltoid and trapezius

Output: Why is the superior support of the AC joint better than the inferior?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] coracoclavicular ligament; provides most of the joint's stability

Output: The clavicle and scapula are most most strongly connected by the

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - trapezoid laterally (more horizontal) resists posterior - conoid medially (more vertical) resists sup/inf - both limit upward rotation of the scapula at AC joint

Output: 2 parts of the coracoclavicular ligament:

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] These are the 2 components of the coracoclavicular joint - separated by adipose tissue and a large bursa

Output: What separates the trapezoid and conoid ligaments of the AC joint?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - undersurface - the conoid attaches very posteriorly

Output: Where on the clavicle does the coracoclavicular ligament attach?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - Transfer forces from bearing weight on arm to strong SC joint - coupling posterior rotation of clavicle to scapula rotation during elevation of upper extremity.

Output: 2 most important roles of the coracoclavicular ligament

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The plane of the scapula

Output: Movements at the AC joint occur in relation to what?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] position of the glenoid fossa secondary to movement of scapula

Output: Helpful to focus on the position of _____ for external and internal rotation at the AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - maintain congruency with humeral head - maximize function of GH muscles, capsule and ligaments - maximize stability of GH joint - maximize ROM of arm

Output: List 4 important reasons to maintain correct position of the glenoid fossa

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 30 degrees of internal/external roation - 30 degrees of ant/post tipping - 30 degress of upward rotation - 15 degree of downward rotation

Output: ROM at AC joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] They are the same; upward rotation of the scapula rotates the glenoid fossa up

Output: Describe the relationship between rotation of the scapula and rotation of the GH fossa

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] coracoclavicular ligament

Output: Upward/downward rotation of the scapula is limited by the

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - The coracoclavicular ligamnet attaches inferiorly and posteriorly on the clavicle. - the clavicle rotates posteriorly - the coracoclavicular ligament then has slack and allow the AC joint to "open up"

Output: Describe the process of the coracoclavicular ligament "allowing" the scapula to rotate upward

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - degeneration starts in 20s - joint space commonly narrowed in 60s

Output: Describe general progression of AC joint degeneration

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Incongruent facets lead to high pressure per surface area

Output: Why is AC joint vulnerable to degeneration?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - graded on amount and direction of displacement -Usually VI types - Types I-III result from inferior displacement of the acromion from loss of support of coracoclavicular ligaments - Type IV-VI injuries have posteriorly displaced lateral clavicle and are surgical

Output: General description of AC joint dislocation classification

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] 40-70% (type I-type III) of people still have symptoms

Output: % of residual symptom rates in non-surgical AC joint injuries

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] On physical exam, the injured shoulder will have a step down to the acromion (relative clavicle is more superior)

Output: How to tell a person had an old type III unilateral AC joint dislocation

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Closed; any movement at the scapulothoracic junction MUST cause movement at the acromioclavicular and/or the sternovclavicular joints.

Output: Is the scapulothoracic joint a closed chain or open?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - medial edge aprox 5 cm from midline - internally rotated 40 degrees - tipped anteriorly 15 degrees - upwardly rotated 15 degrees from AC axis (or 2 degrees compared to vertebral line)

Output: What is the resting position of the scapula

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] upward/downward rotation

Output: What is the primary scapular motion that occurs at the AC joint?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - elevation/depression - protraction/retraction

Output: List the primary translatory motions of the scapula

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] No; the linkage to both the acromion and the clavicle prevents isolated movements.

Output: Does the scapula ever have a pure movement?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] upward rotation (of the scapula on the thorax)

Output: What is the primary movement of the scapula when the arm is elevated?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 60 degrees of upward rotation - others not well defined

Output: ROM of the scapula

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Elevation of the clavicle at the SC joint; subtle changes in this joint also keep the scapula on the thorax during shrug

Output: Shrugging the shoulders occurs primarily through what?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - internal/external rotation at the AC joint - protraction/retraction at the SC joint

Output: Scapular protraction/retraction is a combination of what movements?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - elevation of the clavicle - Posterior rotation at the SC joint - Rotation at AC joint

Output: Upward rotation of the scapula is a combination of what movements?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - at the AC joint - in association with ant/post rotation of the clavicle at the SC joint

Output: Anterior/posterior tipping of the scapula typically occur ______ and in association with _________

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - stability of SC and AC joints - Muscle attachments pulling the scapula into the thorax

Output: Stability of the scapula depends on

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The humeral head is bigger

Output: Which is bigger: the glenoid fossa or the humeral head?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] 7 degrees of retroversion (although may be larger or even anteverted)

Output: What is the most common orientation of the glenoid fossa in relation to the scapula

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] It is typically more curved in its LENGTH

Output: Which direction of the glenoid fossa is most curved?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - Increased radius of curvature over just bone - Thinner in middle and thick at periphery of cartilage

Output: Shape of articular cartilage of the glenoid fossa

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - proximal: glenoid fossa - distal: the humeral head

Output: Proximal and distal components of the GH joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] 1/3-1/2 of a sphere

Output: Shape of the humeral head

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The head is medial, superior and posterior

Output: Where is the head of the humerus in relation to the shaft and humeral condyles?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 130-150 degrees in the frontal plane (axis through humeral head and neck in relation to longitudinal axis)

Output: What is the angle of inclincation of the humerus

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 30 degree posteriorly (angle through the humeral head and neck in relation to axis through the condyles)

Output: What is the angle of torsion of the humerus?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Is helps match the resting GH joint from the internally rotated scapula

Output: Why is posterior torsion of the humerus beneficial?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - humeral retroversion - increased risk of posterior subluxation at end range

Output: Pitchers often have increased GH external rotation and decreased GH medial rotation. What is their likely retro/anteversion of the humeral head and what would they be at risk for?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Little contact between joint surfaces; inferior humeral head rests on a small part of the inferior glenoid fossa

Output: What is the GH joint articulation like at rest?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - Attaches around glenoid fossa - Increases the depth of curvature by about 50%

Output: The glenoid labrum attaches where and changes GH joint how?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - superiorly: loose attaches - inferiorly: firmly attached and relatively immobile

Output: Describe basic difference between the glenoid labrum superiorly and inferiorly

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - Tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii - Glenohumeral ligaments

Output: What attaches to the glenoid labrum?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - large capsule - taut superiorly - slack anteriorly and inferiorly

Output: Characteristics of GH capusle when arm is resting at side

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Capsular surface area is twice that of the humeral head

Output: Size of the GH joint capsule compared to the humeral head

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] 2.5 cm

Output: In the loose packed position, how much distraction of the humeral head is generally allowed

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The humerus abducted and laterally rotated (joint capsule twists on itself)

Output: What is the close-packed position of the GH joint?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] * The foramen of Weitbrecht An area of capsule between the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments

Output: Where does the humeral head commonly sulux through anteriorly?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] The subscapularis tendon

Output: What muscle helps reinforce the GH capsule anteriorly?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - Capsule of GH joint - complex in the space between the supraspinatus and subscapularis tendons - mad eof the upserior GH ligament, superior capsule and the coracohumeral ligament

Output: Define and describe the rotator interval capsule.

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - runs obliquely from the sup/ant labrum to the ant humerus - blends with anterior capsule - absent in 30% of subjects

Output: Important characteristics of the middle GH ligament

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - called the IGHLC - 3 components are the anterior band, axillary pouch, posterior band - positional variation in function - positional variation in viscoelastics

Output: Define and describe the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Anterior and inferior movements with arm at zero abduction

Output: The superior GH ligament (and thus the rotator interval capsule) limit:

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Anterior humeral translation with arm in 45 degrees of abduction

Output: The middle GH ligament limits:

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] In abduction greater than 45 degrees and/or rotation - reinforces when inferior capsule slack is used up - external rot: anterior band fans out - medial rot: posterior band fans out

Output: The IGHLC stabilizes in what position:

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] In all positions the capsule and GH ligaments tighten with rotation

Output: When arm is abducted, how does rotation effect the capsule?

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - originates at the base of the coracoid process - 2 bands: one to supraspinatus and greater tubercle; one to subscapularis and lesser tubercle - 2 bands form a tunnel for long head of biceps brachii - limits inferior translation of humeral head at rest - prevents superior translation of humeral head especially when dynamic stabilizers are weak. - resists external rotation when arm adducted

Output: Describe the structure and function of the coracohumeral ligament

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] coracoid process, acromion, coracoacromial ligament; often includes wtih inferior surface of AC joint

Output: What forms the coracoacromial arch

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - subacromial bursa - rotator cuff tendons - part of long head of biceps brachii

Output: What is in the coracoacromial arch

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] supraspinatus

Output: Rotator cuff impingement is typically "impingement" of _________

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - measured from the acromion to the humerus - 10mm at rest, 5mm with arm abducted

Output: Radiographic features of the coracoacromial arch

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] Can't sleep on affected side (position forces the head of the humerus further into the space)

Output: People with shoulder impingement will often mention this about their sleep...

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - subacromial and subdeltoid - often continuous w/ each other - separate the supraspinatus tendon and humerus from the other structures - inferior part of bursae is superior supraspinatus tendon sheath - does not normally communicate with the GH joint space

Output: 2 most important bursae in the shoulder

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: [clavicle, scapula, humerus] - 90 degrees (more with scapula) - 45 degrees of extension - med/lat rotation: 60 degrees in adduction, 120 degrees in abduction

Output: ROM of the GH joint

L&N 8 Shoulder Complex Flashcards - Cram.com

Define the bones of the shoulder complex


Input: according to John Maynard Keynes, the sum of the demand of three sectors of the economy: households, businesses, and government. [absolute advantage]

Output: aggregate demand

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the effect, according to Marx, of capitalist systems which do not allow the working class to develop their productive potential or satisfy their real human needs. [absolute advantage]

Output: alienation

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to Marx, the class that owns the means of production. [absolute advantage]

Output: bourgeoisie

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a system where a single authority makes the decisions about what is produced, and by whom, and to whom it is distributed. [absolute advantage]

Output: command economy

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the belief that government should be authoritative, defining the needs of the community and seeing that those needs are met. [absolute advantage]

Output: communitarianism

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a grant that indicates that a particular expression of an idea is the private property of an individual or company. [absolute advantage]

Output: copyright

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the system a society uses to provide the goods and services it needs to survive and flourish. [absolute advantage]

Output: economic system

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the materials and social controls that society uses to produce its economic goods. [absolute advantage]

Output: economic substructure

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the materials (land, labor, natural resources, machinery, energy, technology) used in production. [absolute advantage]

Output: forces of production

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a system in which individual firms, privately owned, make their own decisions about what they will produce and how they will produce it. [absolute advantage]

Output: free market system

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the process by which the economic and social systems of nations are connected together so that goods, services, capital, and knowledge move freely between nations. [absolute advantage]

Output: globalization

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the Marxist view that history is determined by changes in the economic methods by which humanity produces the materials on which it must live. [absolute advantage]

Output: historical materialism

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a system of normative beliefs shared by a group, expressing answers to questions about human nature, the purpose of society, and the values of the group. [absolute advantage]

Output: ideology

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the combined effects of increased concentration, cyclic crises, rising unemployment, and declining relative compensation. [absolute advantage]

Output: immiseration

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the belief that government has a limited role, existing primarily to protect the property of the individual and keep the marketplace open. [absolute advantage]

Output: individualism

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the property that consists of an abstract, nonphysical object; such property, unlike physical property, is nonexclusive. [absolute advantage]

Output: intellectual property

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to Adam Smith, market competition drives self-interested individuals to act in ways that serve society. [absolute advantage]

Output: invisible hand

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to John Maynard Keynes, free markets alone are not necessarily the most efficient means for coordinating the use of societies resources. [absolute advantage]

Output: Keynsian economics

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to Locke, the moral principle that since all men are free and equal, no one ought to harm another in his life, health, liberty, or possessions. [absolute advantage]

Output: law of nature

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the right to life, liberty, and property. [absolute advantage]

Output: Lockean rights

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an economic system based primarily on private individuals making decisions about what they will produce and who will get it. [absolute advantage]

Output: markets

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the buildings, machinery, land, and raw materials used in the production of goods and services. [absolute advantage]

Output: means of production

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an economy with both free market and central planning attributes. [absolute advantage]

Output: mixed economy

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the rights that nature teaches each man that he has according to the law of nature. [absolute advantage]

Output: natural rights

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the assumption that whatever happens naturally is always for the best. [absolute advantage]

Output: naturalistic fallacy

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: new inventions invented by a person that are designed as private property. [absolute advantage]

Output: patent

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: economists who have sought to challenge and modify Keynesian economics. [absolute advantage]

Output: post-Keynesian school

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a system that maintains a system of property laws to assign private individuals the right to make decisions about what they own. [absolute advantage]

Output: private property

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [absolute advantage]

Output: system

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to Marx, the alienated working class. [absolute advantage]

Output: proletariat

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the social controls used in producing goods (i.e., the social controls by which society organizes and controls its workers). [absolute advantage]

Output: relations of production

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: all available resources are used and demand always expands to absorb the supply of commodities made from them. [absolute advantage]

Output: Says law

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: belief that economic competition produces human progress. [absolute advantage]

Output: social Darwinism

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a society’s government and its popular ideologies. [absolute advantage]

Output: social superstructure

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: according to Locke, the state where each man is the political equal of all others, perfectly free of any constraints except the law of nature. [absolute advantage]

Output: state of nature

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the difference between the value of labor and the wage paid for it. [absolute advantage]

Output: surplus value

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Charles Darwin’s term for the process of natural selection. [absolute advantage]

Output: survival of the fittest

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: societies that rely on traditional communal roles and customs to carry out basic economic tasks. [absolute advantage]

Output: tradition based societies

Business Ethics Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Horizontal movement of RPD is affected by? [support and retentions]

Output: stability


Input: where is RPD support derived from? [support and retentions]

Output: tooth abutments via rest seats residual ridge via denture base Hard palate and buccal shelves


Input: What provides RPD retention? [support and retentions]

Output: path of insertion guide planes retentive clasp arms


Input: What affects the stability of the RPD? [support and retentions]

Output: number of teeth Height of residual ridge amount of tooth coverage by RPD


Input: What would be more stable...a class II or a class III mod I? [support and retentions]

Output: class III bc you have more teeth that create a balance. Think of a table. You want symmetry


Input: why do we use a dental surveyor? [support and retentions]

Output: To determine parallelism and undercuts of the tissues, relative to a particular path of insertion


Input: What are some examples of soft tissue undercuts? Are they favorable? [support and retentions]

Output: canine eminences, tuberosities, lower incisors, recent extractions. NO they are very unfavorable