Input: toxic megacolon (haustral deformity, pseudopolyps, risk of perf, systemic signs) uc, crohns infectious-amebiasis, shigellosis, clostridium difficile acute colonic distention obstructive cancer paralytic ileus volvulus chronic megacolon (no or small risk of perf) cathartic colonic pseudoobstruction (ogilvie's syndrome, colonic ileus) psychogenic congenital (hirschsprungs) chagas neuromuscular disorders parksonism diabetes scleroderma amyloid metabolic, drugs hypothyroidism electrolyte imbalances [renal mass lesions]

Output: megacolon abnormally distended transverse colon (>6cm); most commonly used with toxic megacolon

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Input: ileoileal (40%)>ileocolic (15%)>others idiopathic 20% tumors 35% polyps, lipoma 25% malignant tumors (mets, lymphoma, carcinoid), 10% other meckel's diverticulum adhesions aberrant pancreas [renal mass lesions]

Output: adult intussusception

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Input: pneumatosis cystoides copd patients on vent mucosal injury (rectal tube, colonoscopy, surgery) scleroderma steroids chemotherapy pneumatosis intestinalis infarcted bowel necrotizing enterocolitis toxic megacolon typhilitis [renal mass lesions]

Output: pneumatosis coli

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Input: apthous ulcers->linear fissures->nodules->cobblestone->strictures->spasm (string sign), fistula [renal mass lesions]

Output: chrohns disease

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Input: valve wide open, labia atrophied, terminal ileum dilated [renal mass lesions]

Output: ulcerative colitis

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Input: predominantly affects cecum, not terminal ileum [renal mass lesions]

Output: amebiasis

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Input: narrow cecum (fleischner sign), narrow crohns may produce same appearance, terminal ileum (stierlins sign) [renal mass lesions]

Output: TB

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Input: inflammatory changes of cecum and/or ascending colon in neutropenic patients; caused by infection, bleeding, ischemia [renal mass lesions]

Output: typhlitis

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Input: lymphoma adenocarcinoma carcinoid of ileum (desmoplastic response) or appendix intussusception [renal mass lesions]

Output: ileocecal deformities due to tumor

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Input: condylomata acuminata lymphogranuloma venereum gonococcal proctitis uc, crohns [renal mass lesions]

Output: proctitis

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Input: solid masses neoplasm benign: hemangioma malignant: primary, secondary focal fatty liver (pseudotumor) regenerating nodules in cirrhosis cystic masss infectious echinococcus amebiasis other abscesses benign masses simple liver cysts polycystic disease of liver biliary cystadenoma ostructed intrahepatic GB malignant masses cystadenocarcinoma cystic metastases ovarian tumors necrotic tumors cholangiocarcinoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: liver masses

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Input: hemachromatosis glycogen storage disease wilson's disease drugs-amiodarone, cisplatin apparent increased density of liver parenchyma in patients with anemia [renal mass lesions]

Output: increased liver density

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Input: fatty liver (comon) obesity, nutritional alcohol diabetes steroids chemotherapy [renal mass lesions]

Output: decreased liver density

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Input: hemangioma hemangioendothelioma, hemangiopericytoma, angiosarcoma (all rare), intarhepatic cholangiocarcinoma metastases islet cell melanoma carcinoid renal cell cancer thyroid breast sarcoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: hypervascular liver lesions

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Input: round livers hemangioma hyperechoic liver mets hypervascular mets, sarcoma calcified mets primary liver tumors (contain fat) hcc fibrolamellar hcc focal fat, lipoma, aml in ts gaucher's disease linear lesions air in biliary tree air in portal vein biliary ascariasis [renal mass lesions]

Output: hyperechoic liver lesions

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Input: tumor mets lymphoma multifocal hcc infection multiple pyogenic abscesses amebic abscesses echinococcus candidiasis schistosomiasis other regenerating nodules, cirrhosis sarcoid extramedullary hematopoiesis hematomas hemangioma [renal mass lesions]

Output: multiple hypoechoic liver lesions

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Input: biliary gas (ercp, surgery, central) portal venous gas (bowel necrosis, diverticulitis, peripheral) emphysematous cholecystitis [renal mass lesions]

Output: gas in liver

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Input: intrapancreatic obstruction (most common) pancreatic cancer calculus chronic pancreatitis suprapancreatic primary biliary ductal carcinoma metastatic lymph node portal invasive GB carcinoma surgical strictures hepatoma cholangiocarcinoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: extrahepatic biliary dilatation

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Input: tumor abrupt termination of duct mass adjacent to duct pancreatitis smooth, long tapering lithiasis related disease calculus visible meniscus sign and intrahepatic dilatating cholangitis sclerosing cholangitis (50% have us) aids cholangitis intrahepatic biliary calculi (oriental cholangiohepatitis) caroli's disease intrahepatic biliary neoplasm (rare) cystadenoma cystadenocarcinoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: types of biliary obstruction

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Input: collor dopple flow absent in dilated ducts acoustic enhancement behind dilated ducts; blood, in contrast attenuates acoustic beam double duct sign-dilated biliary vessel accopanies portal veins caliber irregularity and tortuosity of dilated ducts; veins are always smooth and taper gradually spoke-wheel appearance at points of conversion of ducts [renal mass lesions]

Output: ultrasound signs of intrahepatic biliary dilatation

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Input: nonfasting gb acute cholecystitis (50-75% have thickening) chronic cholecystitis (<25% have thickening) portal hypertension hypoalbuminemia (<2.5 g/dl) hepatitis AIDS (cryptosporidiosis, cmv, mai) ascites benign ascites-gb wall thickening malignant ascites-no gb wall thickening [renal mass lesions]

Output: diffuse (concentric) gb wall thickening in order of decreaseing frequency

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Input: gb carcinoma (40% present with focal thickening) mets (melanoma >> gastric, pancreas) benign tumors polyps (cholesterol, adenomatous) adenomyomatosis tumefactive sludge adherent to wall AIDS [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal (eccentric) gb wall thickening

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Input: calculus polyp cholesterol emphysematous cholecystitis porcelain gb [renal mass lesions]

Output: hyperechoic foci in gb wall

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Input: hepatobiliary (vicarious excretion of contrast material) calculi milk of calcium bile reflux of oral contrast agent after surgery oral cholecystogram hemorrhage (hematocrit effect) [renal mass lesions]

Output: dense gb on ct

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Input: focal hypoechoic or hypodense pancreatic lesion tumor focal pancreatitis adenopathy [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal pancreatic signal abnormality

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Input: neoplasm benign microcystic adenoma aka serous cystadenoma (pre) malignant mucinous cystadenoma mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ductic ectatic mucinous cystadenocarcinoma iPMT epithelial cyst simple cyst pseudo cyst VHL duct ectasia [renal mass lesions]

Output: cystic pancreatic lesions

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Input: cystic fibrosis pancreatic lipomatosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: hyperechoic pancreas

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Input: tumor mets-lymphoma, melanoma, ovary hemangioma lymphangioma hamartoma rare lesions-myxoma, chondroma, osteoma, hemangiosarcoma, fibrosarcoma infection (often ca++) abcess candidiasis (common in aids) tb, mai schistosomiasis pneumocystitis carinii other infarcts hematoma (trauma) cysts-simple, hyatid fatty nodules in gauchers disease [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal splenic lesions

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Input: tumor leukemia lymphoma infection infectious mononucleosis histoplasmosis metabolic disorders gauchers amyloid hemochromatosis trauma vascular portal hypertension hematological disorders (anemias, sickle cell, thalassemia, myelofibrosis, myelosclerosis) [renal mass lesions]

Output: splenomegaly

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Input: water density ascites urinoma biloma seroma lymphocele pancreatic pseudocyst csf from vp shunt complex abcess hematoma pseudomyxoma peritonei pancreatic necrosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: peritoneal fluid collections

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Input: arterial calcification appendicolith mesenteric node cholelithiasis pancreatic calcification porcelain gb renal/ureteral calculi old hematoma, abscess uterine leiomyoma fetal skeletal part pelvic phlebolith teratoma liver-echinococcal cyst [renal mass lesions]

Output: intraperitoneal calcifications

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Input: infection cmv candida herpes cryptococcus MAI tumor kaposi lymphoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: common gastrointestinal manifestations caused by AIDS

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Input: esophagus ulcers-candida, cmv, herpes sinus tracts-tb, actinomycosis proximal small bowel ulcers-cryptococcosis nodules-kaposis sarcoma, mai distal small bowel enteritis-tb, mai, cmv colon colitis-cmv, pseudomembranous colitis typhilitis biliary strictures-cmv, cryptococcosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: common gi manifestations of AIDS by organ system

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Input: injuries in decreasing order of frequency liver laceration splenic laceration renal trauma bowel hematoma pancreatic fracture rare-gb injury, adrenal hemorrhage [renal mass lesions]

Output: abdominal trauma

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Input: gi hemorrhage 50% cholecystitis (emphysematous, acalculous, or calculous) 20% pancreatitis 10% perforated peptic ulcer 10% mesenteric ischemia 5% perforated diveritcular disease 5% [renal mass lesions]

Output: abdominal calcifications after cardiac surgery 0.2-2%, complications related to ischemia (ie intraoperative hypotension, hemorrhage, vasculopathy, emboli, clotting abnormalities)

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Input: horizontal corrugations on upper GI reflux scleroderma [renal mass lesions]

Output: feline esophagus

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Input: common causes esophageal cancer peptic stricture corrosive ingestion [renal mass lesions]

Output: esophageal stricture

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Input: zenkers-cervical esophagus in killians triangle epiphrenic-most are pulsion, treated with resection and myotomy [renal mass lesions]

Output: esophageal diveritculum

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Input: distal spastic narrowing, esophageal dilatation, long air filled esophagus on cxr, +/- absent gastric air bubble bird's beak, disordered motility on barium ddx-colonic interposition [renal mass lesions]

Output: achalasia

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Input: dilated patulous esophagus patulous ge junction free reflux adynamic [renal mass lesions]

Output: scleroderma

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Input: common causes reflux corrive ingestion candida and herpes in immunocompromised barium swallow-ragged mucosa, +/- discrete ulcers [renal mass lesions]

Output: esophagitis

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Input: acute dysphagia with obstructing filling defect effervescent agents and/or muscle relaxants may help [renal mass lesions]

Output: food bolus impactin

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Input: motility disorder-spastic contractions test with manometry, medical treatment corkscrew/nutcracker appearance on barium [renal mass lesions]

Output: diffuse esophageal spasm

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Input: diffuse narrowing and loss of pliability of stomach leather bottle stomach causes infiltrative gastric cancer metstatic breast cancer corrosive ingestion lymphoma sarcoidosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: linitis plastica

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Input: common causes inflammation infiltration, including tumor menetriers disease varices (fundus) menetriers disease hypoproteinemic (edema), self limiting in childhood, progressive in adults [renal mass lesions]

Output: thickened gastric folds (>1cm)

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Input: metastases (lung, breast, melanoma, renal cell) polyps (syndromes) gastroesophageal varices pancreatic rest (single, umbilicated, inferior antrum) [renal mass lesions]

Output: gastric filling defects

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Input: round pools, rarely linear edematous ring radiating folds scarred/spastic duodenum [renal mass lesions]

Output: duodenal ulcer, barium findings

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Input: transmural inflammation chronic recurrent aphthous ulcers->cobblestoning sbft-ulcers/cobblestoning, string sign of kantor, long tight stricture of TI, fistulae [renal mass lesions]

Output: crohns disease

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Input: clinical diveriticulitis hemorrhage obstruction perforation bacterial overgrowth sbft-multiple outpouching on mesenteric border [renal mass lesions]

Output: small bowel diverticulosis

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Input: esophagus 75-90% anorectum 50-70% SB 40% colon 10-50% sbft dilated atonic bowel, antimesenteric "sacculations", broad based peudodiverticula [renal mass lesions]

Output: scleroderma of smantiall bowel

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Input: idiopathic hypogammaglobulinemia lymphoma giardiasis sbft-submucosal nodules, any part of GI tct, commonly sb [renal mass lesions]

Output: nodular lymphoid hyperplasia

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Input: inflammation nodular lymphoid hyperplasia crohns disease infiltration whipples diseaes mastocytosis waldenstroms neoplasia lymphoma polyposis syndrome [renal mass lesions]

Output: small bowel filling defects

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Input: "saw-tooth" or stack of coins appearance causes edema hematoma crohns disease radiation [renal mass lesions]

Output: small bowel wall thickening

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Input: after allogenic BMT GI tract major target sbft-thickened small bowel, featureless, ribbon like bowel [renal mass lesions]

Output: graft versus host disease of small bowel

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Input: aka nontropical sprue gluten intolerant antigliadin ab biopsy dx sbft-small bowel dilatation, coarse or obliterated folds, ileojejunal reversal [renal mass lesions]

Output: celiac disease

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Input: nonstrangulated-tube deflation + elective resection 40-90% recurrence with tube deflation alone strangulated-emergency resection 50% mortality [renal mass lesions]

Output: sigmoid volvulus treatment

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Input: asx or nonspecific GI dx, unknown etiology associations copd peptic ulceration pyloric stenosis intestinal bypass surgery transplant surgery BE: small intramural gas filled cysts grape like clusts on xr multiple polyp like defects on BE [renal mass lesions]

Output: cystic pneumatosis coli

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Input: disproportionate pain lactic acidosis XR: pneumtaosis (linear not cystic) portal venous gas [renal mass lesions]

Output: ischemic pneumatosis

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Input: granular mucosa undermined mucosa pseudopolyps-filiform thumbprinting toxic megacolon cancer [renal mass lesions]

Output: ulcerative colitis

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Input: cysts cystic metastases cystic primary may not enhance progress metastatic neuroendocrine tumor hemangioma biliary cystadenoma or cystadenocarcinoma (large/septae), single large cyst, thik these deiagnoses [renal mass lesions]

Output: T2 hyperintense liver lesions

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Input: 7-20% f>m right lobe>left slow flow attenuation and enhancement follows blood pool low T1, very high T2, maintains high SI with heavey T2 weighting interrupted peripheral nodular enhancement-sensitivity 88%, specificity 84-100% homogenous enhancement by 10-20 min (range = immediate to 60 minutes sharply lobulated can have central scar ddx hypervascular tumors cystic mets atypical features incomplete filling due to fibrosis and thrombosis <1 cm, homogenous flash hyperenhancement arterial which will persist on delayed images [renal mass lesions]

Output: liver hemangiomas

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Input: hemangioma treated metastases, rare hemangioendothelioma-pediatric, multiple confluent lesions that coalesce in the periphery with capsular retraction angiosarcoma rare, lung, spleen mets multifocal small nodules/large dominant mass radium, inorganic arsenic, vinyl chloride, thorotrast, hemochromatosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: peripheral nodular interrupted enhancing liver lesions

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Input: falciform ligament, gb foss, periportal geographic low density on venous phase geographic increased enhancement low signal on out of phase T1 GRE fat-suppressed no mass effect/non-displaced vessels run through it [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal fat infiltration in liver

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Input: usuall geographic and periportal can mimic mets opposed GRE diagnostic central high density reported on CECT [renal mass lesions]

Output: nodular focal fatty infiltration

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Input: dark on T2 drops out on fat-sat bright on out-of phase (rest of liver fatty and dark) [renal mass lesions]

Output: nodular focal fatty sparing

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Input: 3%-incidental 30-40 years 80-95% young women 80% solitary well, defined lobular subcapsular MRI iso to slightly low T1 iso to slightly high T2 50-75% central scar containing vascular channels, bile ductules-low T1/high T2 hypervascular, homogenous arterial enhancement, variable washout (also on CT) central scar-low SI precontrast and arterial phase with delayed enhancement [renal mass lesions]

Output: FNH

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Input: ddx adenoma-can bleed large hemangioma-40-50 yo fibrolamellar HCC-younger 55% sulfur colloid scan positive because of Kupffer cells if scan negative-biopsy [renal mass lesions]

Output: differentiating troublesome FNH

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Input: similar epidemiology, young women ocp, steroids heterogenous T1/T2: hemorrhage, fat (SI on out of phase) heterogenous, hyperenhancing or homogenous enhancing. [renal mass lesions]

Output: adenoma

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Input: can have similar characteristics, so if underlying cirrhosis, still raise possibility of hcc [renal mass lesions]

Output: FNH vs HCC

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Input: hypovascular-colon, pancreas, lung; breast hypervascular (with washout)-neuroendocrine tumors ie islet cell, carcinoid, pheo; thyroid ca; sarcoma;rcc; breast high T2, low T1 melanin, blood-high T1 (paramagnetic effects atypical features cystic-necrosis, rapid growth, hypervascular cystic primaries mucinous adenocarcinoma colorectal ovarian calcifcation (CT>MR) serous ovarian ca mucin producing colorectal [renal mass lesions]

Output: liver metastases

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Input: in setting of cirrhosis, or without cirrhosis in chronic HBV infection hypervascular lesion in high risk patient particularly >2cm (<2cm 50% diagnostic accuracy) if hypervascular, <2 cm, not bright on T2 ddx, hepatoma, dysplastic nodule, and shunt-->f/u in 3 months (3cm cut off) washout on venous phase more specific then arterial hyperenhancement atypical HCC-multifocal, or infiltrating, not T2 right 90% high T2 (50% mosaic) 30% high T1 due to copper, hemorrhage, fat, glycogen variable T1 and T2 due to fat, hemorrhage, necrosis 5-10% calcifcy, central fibrous scar/septae venous invasion- tumor invasion enlarges vein and enhances, can't rely on T1 and T2 signal [renal mass lesions]

Output: hcc

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Input: ddx benign hemangioma fnh adenoma hyperplastic, regenerative nodules in budd chiari malignant hcc hypervascular mets MRCTN melanoma RCC choriocarcinoma thyroid neuroendocrine [renal mass lesions]

Output: hypervascular focal liver mass

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Input: second most common liver primary desmoplastic (causes scarring)- biliary epithelial cells etiologies psc carolis choledochal cyst thorotrach clonorchis sinensis delayed enhancement (10 min) due to scarring, capsular retraction bile duct dilatation tumor fingers in bile ducts types intrahepatic 20-30% mass forming periductal infiltrating intraductal peripheral: beyond secondary ducts hilar: large duct cancer MRI infiltrating mass irregular margins peripheral bile duct dilatation (high T2) low T1/high T2 delayed enhancement [renal mass lesions]

Output: cholangiocarcinoma

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Input: etoh/viral hepatitis biliary obstruction/congestion drugs autoimmune disease hematochromatosis wilsons advanced cirrhosis atrophy right lobe, medial segment left lobe, expanded gb fossa hypertrophy caudate lateral segment left lobe [renal mass lesions]

Output: cirrhosis-general

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Input: MRI similar features to RN but may be high T1 typically low T2 4-12% hypervascular [renal mass lesions]

Output: cirrhosis-dysplastic nodules

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Input: regenerating nodules low T1/T2, enhance like liver may have excess iron (siderotic nodules, dark) or copper (bright) siderotic nodules (MRI>CT) [renal mass lesions]

Output: cirrhosis-regenerating nodules

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Input: diffuse or focal high T2 low T1 slight enhancement diffuse illdefined/patchy thin/thick bands perivacular cuffin (PBC) focal confluent anterior segment right lobe medial segment left lobe wedge-shaped capsular retraction may involve entire segment ddx: HCC [renal mass lesions]

Output: cirrhosis-fibrosis

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Input: obesity tpn alcohol pregnancy steroids chemotherapy malnutrition [renal mass lesions]

Output: diffuse fatty liver disease

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Input: AR abnormal iron gi absorpt RES unable to store RE Fe deposition in hepatocytes, pancreas, myocardium, joints, endocrine glands, skin hyperdense CT (70-130 HU) T2 and T1 GRE, T2* GRE dark compared to paraspinal muscle [renal mass lesions]

Output: primary hemochromatosis

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Input: hemochromatosis amiodaron type IV glycogen storage dz wilsons dz thorotrast [renal mass lesions]

Output: hyperdense liver on CT

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Input: dyserythropoeisis excessive transfusion excessive iron accumulation in RES liver spleen bone marrow reduced signal on T2, T1 GRE, and T2*GRE [renal mass lesions]

Output: hemosiderosis

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Input: pain, tender hepatomegaly, acute ascites, jaundice causes idiopathic ivc webs/membranes tumors (hcc,rcc,adrenocoritlcal ca) pregnancy hypercoaguable state (PCV, OCP) [renal mass lesions]

Output: budd chiari syndrome

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Input: type 1-IVC +/- secondary HV occlusion type 2-HV +/- secondary IVC type III-veno-occlusive disease (centrilobular veins) severe centrilobular congestion leads to delayed or reversed portal venous flow low density/hight T2 (congested) ascites large liver patchy central enhancement peripheral hypoperfusion reversed on delays small HV/IVC intravascular thrombi hepatic infarcts portal vein thrombosis 20% chronic-atrophied liver, large caudate [renal mass lesions]

Output: budd chiari types

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Input: causes pancreatitis ascending cholangitis post-splenectomy stasis (cirrhosis) tumor (hcc, pancreatic, gastric, cholangiocarcinoma) myeloproliferative or connective tissue disease trauma/sepsis [renal mass lesions]

Output: portal vein thrombosis

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Input: lack of central pv enhancement peripheral enhancement of vaso vasorum chronic-cavernous transformation, atrophy flow sensitive GRE seq/Gd wedge shaped low T1/high T2 THAD: decreased local PV perfusion triangular increased hepatic arterial perfusion transient increased segmental/lobar late arterial/early pv attenuation can be idiopathic or due to tumor? [renal mass lesions]

Output: portal vein thrombosis imaging

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Input: Passive hepatic congestion usually secondary to congestive heart failure constrictive pericarditis tricuspid insufficiency right heart failure CT early retrograde enhancement of dilated IVC and hepatic veins due to contrast reflux from RA to IVC heterogeneous, mottled, reticulated, mosaic parenchymal pattern linear and curvilinear areas of poor enhancement due to delayed enhancement of small and medium-sized hepatic veins peripheral, large, patchy areas of poor or delayed enhancement periportal low attenuation (perivascular lymphedema) decreased attenuation around intrahepatic IVC hepatomegaly and ascites MR periportal high T2 (periportal edema) reticulated mosaic pattern of low signal intensity linear markings within 1-2 minutes liver becomes more homogeneous [renal mass lesions]

Output: nutmeg liver

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Input: uncommon-dual supply causes liver transplant, lap choly hepatic artery occlusion shock sepsis embolism vasculitis eclampsia OCP peripheral wedge shaped/geographic areas of low attenuation, low T1/high T2 new ascites change shape/atrophy over time bile lakes necrosis (air) [renal mass lesions]

Output: hepatic infarction

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Input: adhesions malignancy crohns disease hernias intussusception [renal mass lesions]

Output: major causes of sbo

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Input: colorectal carcinoma volvulus intussusception hernia diverticular disease [renal mass lesions]

Output: major causes of lbo

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Input: excessive free fluid mesenteric fat stranding/edema disproportionate dilatation of one loop mural non-enhancement +/-bowel wall thickening/pneumatosis +/-clustering "balloons on a string" [renal mass lesions]

Output: warning signs of strangulation/closed loop/ischemia

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Input: 3-3.9 cm 2% 4-4.9 cm 3-12% 5-5.9 cm 25% 6-6.9 cm 35% 7+ cm 75% [renal mass lesions]

Output: risk of aortic aneurysm rupture within 5 years by aortic aneurysm

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Input: 20% risk factors female obesity estrogen hypercholesteremia middle age to elderly things to look out for mirrizi's syndrome-causes taper narrowing of the cbd stones with air crescent density MRI cholesterol-T2 dark, T1 dark pigment-T2 dark, T1 bright [renal mass lesions]

Output: biliary stone disease

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Input: bile duct dilatation eccentric filling defect dependent crescent sign of air (useful when stone is same density as bile) [renal mass lesions]

Output: secondary signs of CBD

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Input: 10-15% of cholecystitis findings dilated gb gb wall thickening areas of nonenhancement, sloughed wall associations prolonged fasting chronic infection ischemia obstruction of cystic duct ICU patient [renal mass lesions]

Output: acalculous cholecystitis

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Input: risk factors female advanced age, mean 74-80 10-25% mortality riglers triad sbo pneumobilia ectopic gallstone [renal mass lesions]

Output: gallstone ileus

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Input: PSC intrahepatic duct involvement beaded ducts strictures pruning biliary diverticula AIDS cholangiopathy papillary stenosis otherwise similar to PSC recurrent pyogenic cholangitis [renal mass lesions]

Output: small irregular bile ducts

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Input: progressive inflammation, fibrosis, destruction of bile ducts 70% male 75% have IBD, 4-5% of UC have PSC 40 yo mean age complications cirrhosis recurrent bacterial cholangitis cholangiocarcinoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: PSC

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Input: idiopathic, autoimmune young/middle aged women, pruritis inflammatory progressive destruction of small bile ducts ->cirrhosis, PHTN 2 years life expectancy [renal mass lesions]

Output: primary biliary cirrhosis

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Input: >30 yo recurrent bacterial cholangitis intrahepatic pigment stones and obstruction coliform bacterial seeding of biliary tree parasite infection ascaris lumbricoides clonorchis sinensis opsithorchis vivemini central, dilated bile ducts with peripheral tapering bile duct stones liver abscesses [renal mass lesions]

Output: recurrent pyogenic cholangitis (oriental cholangiohepatitis)

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Input: biliary bacterial infection-gram -'s risk factors choledocholithiasis indwelling stents tumors acute pancreatitis charcot's triad pain fever jaundice [renal mass lesions]

Output: ascending cholangitis

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Input: ask to look at the pancreatic duct/main duct confluence to look for cholangiocarcinoma stones [renal mass lesions]

Output: choledochal cyst

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Input: f:m 4:1, caucasian ovarian stroma at histology middle aged >30 yo multiloculated fluid collection, often big enhancing mural nodules, septae may have thin calcifications ddx hydatid cyst hematoma simple cyst [renal mass lesions]

Output: biliary cystadenoma

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Input: CT diffuse small low attenuation foci <1cm each MRI low to slightly high T1 high T2 US hyperechoic comet tail artifacts [renal mass lesions]

Output: biliary hamartomas aka von myenberg complexes

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Input: normal, drains into right main 55% low insertion of duct onto main 5% accessory right to GB (common)-predisp to bile leak right posterior duct to cystic 1% [renal mass lesions]

Output: right posterior biliary duct variants

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Input: bismuth classification 1-CBD> 2 cm from confluence 2-<2 cm from confluence 3-entire CHD 4-involves confluence 5-right variant branch increasing grade, more difficult repair after complicated cholecystectomy [renal mass lesions]

Output: inadvertant common duct ligation

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Input: adenomyomatosis gb polyps gallbladder cancer [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal gb wall thickening

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Input: focal wall thickening due to mucosal herniations small cystic spaces-dilated rotikansy aschoff spaces (string of pearls) mostly fundus usually associated with gallstones [renal mass lesions]

Output: adenomyomatosis

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Input: enhancing lesion surgery >1.0 cm age > 50 symptomatic coexisting gallstones otherwise US surveillance every 3 to 6 months for 1 year [renal mass lesions]

Output: gallbladder polyp

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Input: eldery (70s) gallstones 60-90% adenocarcinoma infiltrative or endoluminal, fundus or neck mets to local LN, peritoneum, gi tract, lungs 5 year survival 1% [renal mass lesions]

Output: gallbladder cancer

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Input: malignant proximal (superior) abrupt shoulders associated mass eccentric mets benign distal (inferior) gradual tapering concentric ERCP dx cytology/brushings sensitivity 44-70% specificity 100% [renal mass lesions]

Output: bile duct strictures

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Input: ddx malignant cholangiocarcinoma gallbladder carcinoma LAD pancreatic cancer benign trauma gallstone ischemic [renal mass lesions]

Output: pain jaundice/biliary stricture

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Input: simple cyst (benign) thin wall no septa no calcifications fluid density (-20 to +20 HU) no enhancement [renal mass lesions]

Output: bosniak type 1

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Input: minimally complicated cyst hariline thin septa +/- minimal perceived enhancement fine calcifications in walls or septa short segment of slightly thickened calcification uniform high attenuation (<3 cm) [renal mass lesions]

Output: bosniak type 2

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Input: follow-up if needed increased # of thin septa minimal smooth thickening of wall or septa no enhancing solid components intrarenal high attn cysts>3cm [renal mass lesions]

Output: boniak 2f

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Input: complex (indeterminate) thickened irregular walls or septa enhancement of wall or septa chunky ca++ [renal mass lesions]

Output: bosniak 3

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Input: malignant cystic masses enhancing soft tissue components adjacent to but independent of wall or septum [renal mass lesions]

Output: bosniak 4

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Input: 1-confined to capsule 2-extranrenal but confined to gerotas fascia 3a-vascular invasion 3b-local node mets 3c-both 4a-invasion of distant organs 4b-distant mets distinguish between 3 and 4 because of px [renal mass lesions]

Output: staging of RCC

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Input: ddx rcc tcc lymphoma mets pyelonephritis fungus ball infarct [renal mass lesions]

Output: solid renal mass without obvious fat

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Input: 6th to 7th decades, m/f 3/1 risk-aniline dyes, aromatic amines, xrt, cigarettes, cytotoxan, artificial sweetners 80-90% current or prior bladder ca imaging features polypoid filling defect circumferential wall thickening infiltrating or discrete mass mimicking RCC +/- caliceal dilatation [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal tcc

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Input: ct incidence of 3-8% autopy 30-60% primary renal lymphoma rare multiple small masses spread from retroperitoneum diffuse infiltration perinephric encasement single homogenous mass maybe mixed [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal lymphoma

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Input: rare benign can be difficult to distinguish from RCC central stellate scar spoke wheel pattern of vessels on angio not specific enough to avoid resection up to 30% contain focci of rcc radical or partial nephrectomy [renal mass lesions]

Output: oncocytoma

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Input: rare, benign hamartomatous 80% sporadic, 20% syndromic blood vessels, muscle, fat 95% contain demonstratable fat, -20HU well defined, cortical (+/- exophytic) usually<5cm fat-containing RCC has small amount of fat [renal mass lesions]

Output: angiomyolipoma

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Input: history of rcc vhl cystic dz of dialysis adpckd not an increased risk [renal mass lesions]

Output: rcc risk factors

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Input: rare 45% endothelial lined 39% pseudocysts (prior hemorrhage) CT-fluid density, no enhancement MR-bright T2, dark T1, no enhancement maybe hemorrhagic [renal mass lesions]

Output: adrenal cyst

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Input: rare, benign hyperintense T1, fat saturation due to macroscopic fat, no drop out on out of phase [renal mass lesions]

Output: adrenal myelolipoma

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Input: hu < 10-18 on noncontrast rapid contrast washout >60% decreased between pv and 15 min delayed <52HU on 10 min delayed [renal mass lesions]

Output: CT criteria for adenoma

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Input: >20% signal drop on out of phase or compared with muscle or spleen if lipid poor, use washout characteristics hypointense on T2, variably enhances [renal mass lesions]

Output: MR criterial for adenoma

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Input: most common malignancy of adrenal gland often bilateral do no fat sat also consider adrenal lymphoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: adrenal mets

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Input: 90% in medulla >3cm at presentation 10% bilateral 10% malignant T2 lightbulb bright but not common, no fat sat, late enhancement [renal mass lesions]

Output: pheochromocytoma

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Input: rare aggressive tumor large (90%>6cm) heterogenous, necrosis, hemorrhage can invade IVC [renal mass lesions]

Output: adrenal carcinoma

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Input: one or both kidneys on wrong side ureter crosses midline to insert on correct side with normal insertion at bladder trigone ectopic kidney associated with reflux [renal mass lesions]

Output: cross fused ectopia

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Input: lower poles directed toward midline lp calyces overlap spine prominent extrarenal pelvis kidneys joint by parenchyma or fibrous tissue below IMA predisposed to trauma stones uti association upj obstruction wilms tumor, carcinoid, rcc? turners other anomalies such as skeletal, cardiac, and vater look for mullerian duct anomalies [renal mass lesions]

Output: horsehoe kidney

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Input: ddx obstruction renal vein thrombosis pyelonephritis cystic renal disease developmental contralateral renal atrophy klippel trenauny webber [renal mass lesions]

Output: unilateral renal enlargement

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: edema-ie those things that cause unilateral enlargement deposition disease ie amyloid leukemia SLE HIV nephropathy cystic renal disease [renal mass lesions]

Output: bilateral renal enlargement

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Input: 1/1000 cysts of nephrons and collecting tubules htn, renal failure 3rd decade 10% die of berry aneurysm [renal mass lesions]

Output: adpckd

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Input: 20% <40 yo >33% >60 yo cysts may enlarge and cause sx's from mass effect lap decortication alcohol ablation increased risk of RCC [renal mass lesions]

Output: acquired renal cystic disease

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Input: ddx calyceal diverticulum-fills on delay, retains stone focal caliectasis peripelvic cyst/hydro upj obstruction aneurysm/pseudoaneurysm-follows blood pool on ct AVM/AVF lymphoma on US [renal mass lesions]

Output: simple renal cyst

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Input: hypermobile kidney may cause upj obstruction normal number of calices distinguish from "drooping lily" (duplicated ureters with upper pole obstruction) [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal ptosis

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Input: associations dysplastic kidney prior nephrectomy ureteral diverticulum (congenital) [renal mass lesions]

Output: proximal blind ending ureter

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Input: dilated calices too many calices nondilated pelvis renal enlargement associations ureterocele megaureter contralateral upj [renal mass lesions]

Output: megacalicosis

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Input: primary congenital narrowing secondary crossing vessel (artery or vein) mass retroperitoneal fibrosis circumcaval ureter-hairpin turn in ureter and crosses medial to spinal tv processes [renal mass lesions]

Output: upj obstruction

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Input: looks like hirschsprungs-tight distally, dilated proximally [renal mass lesions]

Output: congenital megaureter

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Input: tcc clot sloughed papilla calculus fungus polyp [renal mass lesions]

Output: ureteral filling defect

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Input: pyelouretritis cystica-related to infection, no premalignant multifocal tc malakoplakia-not premalignant leukoplakia-more common in bladder, premalignant vascular impressions edema due to stent [renal mass lesions]

Output: multiple small mucosal lesions in upper urinary tract

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Input: focal illdefined perfusion anomaly striated nephrogram focal contour bulge urothelium thick or enhancing perinephric edema (beware obstruction/hydronephrosis) [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal pyelonephritis

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Input: renal enlargement calyces and papilla replaced by low density masses cortical atrophy extension into perirenal space staghorn calculus uncommon form of chronic renal parenchymal infection yellow nodules componsed of foamy lipid macrophages usually diffuse, maybe focal extension into the perirenal space (abscess/fistula) is common [renal mass lesions]

Output: xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

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Input: ddx unilateral renal vein thrombosis ureteral obstruction severe RAS bilateral systemic hypotension ATN (contrast toxicity) intratubular obstruction ie myeloma, uric acid crystals, tamm-horsefall [renal mass lesions]

Output: prolonged nephrogram

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Input: ddx multiple infarctions pyelonephritis hypotension/ATN renal vein obstruction contusion intratubular obstruction [renal mass lesions]

Output: striated nephrogram

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Input: increased medullary Ca++, increased medullary hyperechogenicity with shadowing ddx hyperparathyroidism 40% distal RTA medullary sponge kidney papillary necrosis lasix treatment (#1 in infants and premies) [renal mass lesions]

Output: medullary nephrocalcinoisis

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Input: ivp signs ball on a t elongated lobster claw calyces ddx pyelonephritis obstruction sickle cell tb coagulopathies/christmas dz analgesics (NSAIDS) renal vein thrombosis diabetes [renal mass lesions]

Output: papillary necrosis POSTCARD

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Input: chronic glomerulonephritis ischemia/cortical necrosis aids nephropathy other oxalosis alport syndrome hypercalcemia [renal mass lesions]

Output: cortical nephrocalcinosis

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Input: peripheral nonenhancing cortex before calcifying [renal mass lesions]

Output: acute renal cortical necrosis

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Input: putty kidney-shrunken calcified amorphous kidney mimics staghorn calculi, caseous necrosis 75% unilateral shrunken calcified bladder-"thimble" bladder IVP big round distorted cottonball calyces with infindibular narrowing papillary necrosis developing countries usually secondary to another primary infection [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal tb

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Input: etiologies etoh, cholelithiasis >90% hyperlipidemia drugs (steroids, AZT, DDI, diurections, antibiotics) post ercp or surgery infectious (measles, mumps, viral) familial [renal mass lesions]

Output: acute pancreatitis

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Input: grade A-normal pancreas grade b-enlarged heterogenous gland, no peripancreatic inflammation grad c-intrinsic pancreatic abnormalities + peripancreatic inflammation grade d-single fluid collection grade e->=2 large fluid collections and/or pancreatic or peripancreatic gas complications pseudocyst pseudoaneurysm splenic or pv thrombosis abscess-fluid with air necrosis hemorrhage [renal mass lesions]

Output: acute pancreatitis CT grading

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Input: >4 weeks to develop 0-30 HU, no enhancing contents or nodules wall ca++ common ddx thrombosed pseudoaneurysm can occur anywhere [renal mass lesions]

Output: pseudocyst features

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Input: permanent structural and functional damage 75% etoh other etiologies-hyperlipidemia, hyperPTH, pancreas divisum 2-4% will develop pancreatic CA imaging findings: ca++ variable size dilatation of pancreatic duct and bile ducts (double duct sign) pseudocysts, pseudoaneurysms venous thrombosis and collaterals [renal mass lesions]

Output: chronic pancreatitis

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Input: >5cm, esp if increasing in size symptomatic obstruction of bile duct, stomach, or duodenum complications 5-10% infection bleeding chronic cutaneous fistula [renal mass lesions]

Output: drainage of noninfected pancreatic pseudocysts indications

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Input: 5% failure of fusion of dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds head drained by duct of wirsung body and tail drained by santorini recurrent pancreatitis +/-bulky pancreatic head with fat cleft ERCP dx [renal mass lesions]

Output: pancreas divisum

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Input: ERCP injection of major papilla demonstrates truncated duct of wirsung with branching in head (as opposed to pancreatic CA which has no branching) [renal mass lesions]

Output: pancreas divisum imaging findings

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Input: band of pancreatic tissue encircles the second portion of the duodenum 50% obstruction in neonates (double bubble) 50% periampullary ulcers and pancreatitis in adults ERCP-main duct of wirsung circles around and then crosses midline UGI-short segment duodenal narrowing ddx-pancreatic adenocarcinoma of head [renal mass lesions]

Output: annular pancreas

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Input: 5th leading cause of cancer deaths, 28000/year 90% of pancreatic neoplasms elderly males 70% head, 20% body, 10% tail 5 year survival <5% 90% cases unresectable at time of dx [renal mass lesions]

Output: pancreatic carcinoma

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Input: low density mass, occasionally isodense hypoechoic mass dilated PD and/or bile duct distal to mass (double duct sign) pancretic atrophy perivascular cuffing-sign of unresectability teardrop sign-tethering of vessels, sign of unresectability interrupted duct sign [renal mass lesions]

Output: pancreatic carcinoma imaging features

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Input: >5cm adjacent tissue or organ invasion excluding duodenum arterial stenosis, occlusion, or encasement (celiac + branches, SMA) +/- venous invasion (PV, SMV) hepatic mets distant adenopathy peritoneal carcinomatosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: criteria for unresectability of pancreatic carcinoma

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Input: mets islet cell tumor lymphoma tumor from adjacent organ focal fat focal pancreatitis necrosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: pancreatic carcinoma ddx

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Input: 5-10% of pancreatic malignancies microcystic adenoma (serous) mucinous cystic neoplasm solid and papillary epithelial neoplasm IPMT anaplastic CA cystic islet cell tumor cystic met lymphoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: cystic pancreatic tumors

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Input: benign f/m 4:1 mean 65 yo head=body=tail 35% ca++ +central stellate scar cysts>6, each <2cm honeycomb appearance glycogen vhl [renal mass lesions]

Output: microcystic adenoma

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Input: frankly or potentially malignant f/m 9:1 mean age 50 yo tail>body 15% peripheral ca++ solitary small or large or if multiple cysts <6, >2 cm mucin [renal mass lesions]

Output: mucinous cystic neoplasms (macrocystic)

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Input: rare, low grade malignancy young women, mean age 24 yo large, well encapsulated solid and cystic mas, hemorrhage and necrosis, fluid-debris level pancreatic tail complete resection curative [renal mass lesions]

Output: solid and papillary epithelial neoplasm (SAPEN)

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Input: epithelial hyperplasia--carinoma mean age 65yo main duct-diffuse or segmental dilatation branch duct-cystic dilatation, multiple cysts combined types ERCP-patulous dilated papilla with mucin pouring from it, mural nodules ipmt branch duct type less likely to have malignancy if <3cm, can follow-up diffuse duct type-more likely malignant and need resection, suspect if absent findings of chronic pancreatitis ddx chronic pancreatitis cystic tumors [renal mass lesions]

Output: intraductal papillary mucinous tumor (IMPN, mucinous ductal ectasia)

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Input: 85% functional insulinoma most common >90% benign and resectable small gastrinoma 2nd most common 60% malignant small cause of ZE syndrome 15% nonfunctioning 3rd most common 80-90% malignant large, mean size >5cm 25% ca++ CECT-immediate intense enhancment, can be more il-defined, less enhancing if not insulinoma? US-hypoechoic mass MRI-T1GRE + FS +C shows immediate intense enhancement, can be more il-defined, less enhancing if not insulinoma? [renal mass lesions]

Output: islet cell tumors

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Input: mucinous adenoCA gi tumors (colon) breast prostate ovarian serous adenoCA mets which engulf granulomas other treated lymphoma osteo/chondrosarcoma mets tx with lipiodol [renal mass lesions]

Output: calcified liver mass

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Input: CT fluid density MRI high T2 signal, low to slightly high T1 signal if see vertebral involvement, suggest neurenteric cyst surgical management ddx pseudocyst [renal mass lesions]

Output: foregut duplication cysts

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Input: ddx hemangioma #1 melanoma lymphoma, often infiltrative sarcoid phlegmon,abscess [renal mass lesions]

Output: focal solid splenic lesions

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Input: ddx polyp fb, clot, bezoar mets lymphoma leiomyoma, lipoma, fibroma ectopic pancreas [renal mass lesions]

Output: gastric polypoid filling defects

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Input: ddx immunocompetent pseudomembranous colitis ischemic inflammatory lymphoma (look for LAD) if immunocompromised CMV colitis other typhillitis gvhd [renal mass lesions]

Output: colonic wall thickening

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GIST lymphoma gastic adenocarcinoma [renal mass lesions]

Output: gastric fundal lesions

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ddx cystic fibrosis obesity/old age (cryptogenic) diabetes chronic pancreatitis TPN corticosteroids [renal mass lesions]

Output: fatty pancreatic replacement

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Input: 2% of cancer deaths risk factors tcc 90%-smoking, aniline dyes, age scc 8%-stones, chronic inflammation acc 2%-congenital defect (urachal defects), chronic inflammation [renal mass lesions]

Output: bladder ca

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Input: variable morphology polypoid papillary mass in low grade tumors focal wall thickening in high grade tumors +/- surface ca++ (tcc) cystoscopy is gold standard for can, moderate imaging detection rate (CT 70% detection rate) field cancerization-increased risk of tcc in other areas of uroethlium pelvic sidewall recurrence is typical tends to seed along needle tracks [renal mass lesions]

Output: bladder ca imaging

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Input: hematoma leiomyoma-smooth, dumbell shaped schistosomiasis-diffusely calcified bladder wall, may track ca++ up ureter, assoc w scc pheochromocytoma-smooth very enhancing mass [renal mass lesions]

Output: bladder masses ddx

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Input: spastic-small trabeculated, conical, "christmas tree" bladder atonic or flaccid-large, smooth [renal mass lesions]

Output: neurogenic bladder

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Input: most common noncutaneous man cancer second most common cause of cancer death in men low T2 signal in peripheral zone findings of T3 cancer focal irregular bulge NVB invasion RP angle obliteration SV invasion [renal mass lesions]

Output: prostate cancer

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Input: stage 1/2, organ confined-surgery, radiation, observation stage 3-radiation therapy only stage 4-systemic tx [renal mass lesions]

Output: prostate cancer staging and treatment

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: anterior part bulbar segment penile segment posterior part membranous segment prostatic segment [renal mass lesions]

Output: urethral anatomy

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Input: post-traumatic, post-inflammatory, idiopathic length influences tx-measure between shoulders, >1.5 cm precludes primary anastomosis need RUG and VUG [renal mass lesions]

Output: urethral stricture

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Input: 1-6% adult women unknown etiology nonspecific urethral sx may not be seen on vcug double ballooon urethrogram t2 and t1 post gad (enhancing mucosa) [renal mass lesions]

Output: urethral diverticulum

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Input: congenital anomaly ivc derives from subcardinal or postcardinal vein ureter trapped behind ivc pain, hematuria, utis, stones ureter lies medial to lower lumbar pedicle, crosses anterior to right iliac vessels associations-horsehoe, turners, double vena cavae ddx normal oblique impression of crossing iliac vessels at l5 or s1 adenopathy retroperitoneal fibrosis pelvic lipomatosis [renal mass lesions]

Output: circumcaval ureter

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: wedg shaped peripheral defects emboli from arrythmias, myxomas, s/p myocardial infarct emboli bilateral in 50% after xrt arteritides-polyarteritis nodosa, methamphetamine ddx acute focal bacterial nephritis infiltrating neoplasm [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal infarcts

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Input: 1/400, ima crosses isthmus multiple arteries, double ureters complications-injury, upj obstruction, lower pole moiety, stones, wilms tumor assoc-turners, trisomy 18, fanconis anemia, vater ddx cross fused ectopia disc (cake, lump) kidney-usually lower than horseshoe, often in pelvis, may have single ureter [renal mass lesions]

Output: horshoe kidney

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Input: ddx renal artery embolus-large smooth unopacifiefd kidney, with cortical rim of contrast, shrink after 2-3 weeks obstruction renal vein thrombus absent or ectopic kidney infection (xgpn) tumor mcdk [renal mass lesions]

Output: unopacified kidney

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Input: m/f 2/1, 50-70, 2% bilateral, 7-9% esrd familial rcc, mult, bilateral vhl-38% rcc, multiple 75% mass, flank pain, hematuria clear cell 80%-enhances a lot papillary 15%-not as much enhancement calcification 8-18% iuv-bulge, hypervascular mass us-86% isoechoic, 10% hypo ct/mr-enhances less than parench [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal cell ca

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Input: t1 tumor <=7cm, limit to kidney t1a <=4cm t1b between 4 and 7cm t2 tumor >7cm, limited to kidney *t1 and t2 surgical t3 tumor into renal vein, ivc, adrenal, but confined to gerotas fascia t3a adrenal gland/perinephric tissues t3b renal vein t3c ivc or its wall above diaphragm t4 tumor beyond gerotas fascia/distant mets [renal mass lesions]

Output: rcc staging

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ddx rcc oncocytoma angiomyolipoma mets xgpn acute focal bacterial nephritis [renal mass lesions]

Output: renal mass

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: contrast reaction acute tubular necrosis 60& acute tubular blockage ie mm, urate nephropathy, tamm horsfall protein acute gmn [renal mass lesions]

Output: persistent or increased density nephrogram

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sarcoid tb a-vitamin d-vitain immobilization milk alkali medullary sponge diuretics lasix idiopathic thyrotoxicosis carcinoma hyperparathyroidism [renal mass lesions]

Output: nephrocalcinosis STADIM DITCH

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: congenital functional stenosis acquired scarring, reflux tumor intraluminal lesion 5% have a contralateral renal agenesis or mcdk lower segment of duplex kidney has upj more often than upper [renal mass lesions]

Output: upj obstruction

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Input: infection stones bladder outlet obstruction adenocarcinoma ddx anterior vaginal mass/cyst gartner duct cyst paramesonephric remnant cyst epithelial inclusion cyst ectopic ureterocele endometrioma urethral tumo-scca [renal mass lesions]

Output: urethral diverticulum complications

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Input: compensatory hypertrophy obstruction acute bacterial nephritis duplex kidney cross fused ectopia tumor mcdk, adpck traum renal vein thrombosis acute arterial infarction [renal mass lesions]

Output: unilateral enlarged kidney

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: focal or diffuse, middle aged females secondary to chronic uti's 80% have calculi, usually struvite lipid laden macrophages (xanthoma cells) replace normal parenchyma hypovascular, may not have renal function nephrectomy ddx abscess renal cell ca lymphoma tcc [renal mass lesions]

Output: xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: type 1 involves mucosa and muscle wall; peritoneal fold separates 2 bladders type 2 internal septum of mucosa or mucosa and muscle divides bladder type 3 transverse band of muscle; hourglass shape associated anomalies-duplicaed penis, urethra, vagina, uterus, colon; rectourethral fistula [renal mass lesions]

Output: duplicated bladder

Dave's Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Radiology Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one of four central coordinating agencies of the executive, it analyzes taxation policy and the impact of government activity of the economy

Output: department of finance


Input: a broad term that refers to the institutions, personnel and behavior of governmental power. in modern times, executives are the organizational centers of political systems

Output: executive


Input: the formal executive authority of teh governor general applied upon the advice and consultation of the cabinet is referred too as a decision of this person

Output: governor in council


Input: the prerogative instruments defining the office of the governor general that the monarch makes applicable to each governor general through his or her commission of appointment

Output: letters patent


Input: appointed by the governor in council on the advice of the prime minister to represent the monarch in each province

Output: lieutenant-governor


Input: a letter that explains what the prime minister expects the minister to accomplish in his or her department

Output: ministerial mandate letter


Input: sworn in to the privy council and bound by the rule of collective responsibility, but is only allowed to attend meetings of cabinet on request, and his or her salary and staff allotments are lower than that of full cabinet ministers

Output: ministers of the state


Input: ministers composed of all ministers who are appointed by the prime minister - consists of both full ministers and the Crown and minsters of the state

Output: the ministry


Input: decisions rendered by cabinet under the auspices of the privy council that carry legal force

Output: orders in council


Input: an MP who aids a minister in his or her duties, but has no statutory authority

Output: parliamentary secretaries


Input: powers of a monarch (or his or her representatives) that have not been bypassed by constitutional or state law

Output: prerogative authority


Input: the plain public service organization supporting the cabinet and prime minister

Output: privy council office


Input: a central coordinating agency that is constitutionally a committee of the privy council

Output: treasury board


Input: refers to a legislature composed of two houses

Output: bicameral


Input: official responsible for ensuring that relevant documents are printed and circulated and for advising the speaker of the house of the parliamentary business of the day

Output: clerk of the house


Input: a measure to terminate debate in the house

Output: closure


Input: a committee of the house in which all MPs sit in the chamber in one large committee chaired by the deputy speaker or the deputy speaker or the deputy chair of committees

Output: committee of the whole


Input: the end of a particular parliament, which occurs at the request of a prime minister who seeks a new mandate, or whose government has been defeated in the house of commons

Output: dissolution


Input: committee composed of members of both the house of commons and the senate

Output: joint standing committees


Input: the branch of government that makes or amends laws

Output: legislature


Input: government bill for raising or spending money

Output: money bill


Input: days on which opposition motions can be debated (20 per session)

Output: opposition days (supply days)


Input: 45 minute period held in parliament five days a week which provides a forum for the opposition parities to try to embarrass the government, criticize its policies and force discussion on selected issues

Output: oral question period


Input: the schedule of pending parliamentary business

Output: order paper


Input: a house of commons rule that enables MPs to express themselves freely and without intimidation

Output: parliamentary privileged


Input: a group formed by each party in parliament. every wednesday morning when parliament is in a session, all members o the house of commons (and any senators who wish to attend) meet in their respective party groups

Output: caucus


Input: a bill that confers special power or rights upon specific individuals groups or corporations rather than upon society as a whole

Output: private bill


Input: bill sponsored by an individual MP

Output: private members bill


Input: involves proclaiming, publishing or declaring under the great seal that thereby becomes law

Output: proclamation


Input: such bills seek to change the law concerning the public as a whole. there are two kinds of these: government bills and private members bills

Output: public bills


Input: a device to promote public participation whereby constituents can recall an MP if he or she does not vote as instructed

Output: recall


Input: when the governor general, sitting in the senate chambers before the assembled members of both houses, puts the final seal of approval on the bill

Output: royal assent


Input: a committee that is relatively permanent for the life of a parliament

Output: standing committee


Input: contain rules of the house of commons that are of a general nature and more or less permanent

Output: standing orders


Input: bills that authorize the spending money by the government

Output: supply (appropriation) bills


Input: a proposal that the senate be elected, effective and equal in its representatives

Output: triple E senate


Input: a committee of the whole; it considers the resolutions that contain the proposals of the minister of finance

Output: ways and means committee


Input: motions that introduce bills to authorize the raising of money by taxation

Output: ways and means motions


Input: an MP assigned by each party leader to help maintain party cohesion

Output: whip


Input: federal organizations whose activities are closely related to the formulation of public policies. they include royal commissions, government and departmental task forces and advisory councils

Output: advisory bodies


Input: include a wide variety of non-departmental organizations including crown corporations, regulatory agencies, administrative tribunals and some advisory bodies

Output: agencies


Input: one of two or more individual who head a branch or bureau and reports directly to the deputy minister

Output: assistant deputy minister


Input: refers to a specific form of governemnt organization based on the premise that it should be structured to provide as much efficiency as possible and that this is best achieved by setting up a hierarchically structured decision-making process that minimizes arbitrary decision-making

Output: bureaucracy


Input: include a wider variety of non-departmental organizations, including crown corporations, regulatory agencies, administrative tribunal and some advisory bodies

Output: crown agencies


Input: refers to the composite symbol of the institutions of the state. the crown assumes a variety of duties and responsibilities

Output: crown corporations


Input: the administrative and managerial head of each department or ministry - senior public service

Output: deputy minister


Input: brings together the estimated spending requirements of all government departments and agencies fr the next fiscal years

Output: expenditure process


Input: an independent officer who is responsible to Parliament for the investigation of citizens complaints against the bureaucracy

Output: ombudsman


Input: are widely employed as sources of public policy advice to the executive. generally set up by the government to investigate an area of critical public concern and to recommend a suitable course of action

Output: royal commissions


Input: maintains that the two oldest parties in Canada have no central ideological interests, but rather than act as brokers of ideas, selecting those that have the widest appeal and the best likelihood of attracting electoral support

Output: brokerage theory


Input: an independent agent of parliament with enhanced investigative powers and a mandate to enforce compliance with the Lobbying Act and the Lobbyists Code of Conduct

Output: commissioner of lobbying


Input: a wing of traditional parties comprised of the national executive, standing committees and permanent national office as well as provincial associations and local constituency organizations

Output: extra-parliamentary wing


Input: an organized association that engages in activity that is related to government

Output: interest groups


Input: a vote held at a party convention that acts as an appraisal of the incumbent party leader; if he or she does not score sufficiently high on a vote, then a leadership convention will likely be held

Output: leadership review


Input: activity aimed at securing favorable policy decisions or the appointment of specific government personnel

Output: lobbying


Input: system in which popular support is divided among several parties, so that the largest party must generally form a coalition with one or more other parties to form a government

Output: multi-party system


Input: electoral party system in which a single party regularly wins almost every election, even though opposition parties function freely

Output: one-party dominate system


Input: a general theory about Canadian parties, which holds that since Canadian government has been dominated by one party - the liberal party since 1896 - the liberals are the 'natural' governing party

Output: one-party dominate theory


Input: system in which two major parties dominate and others have only minor political strength

Output: two-party system


Input: What is a core concern?

Output: core business requirements

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What are the two main problems caused by non-modularised crosscutting concerns?

Output: 1) code tangling. Having to handle multiple concerns as well as the core calculation logic at the same time. This will lead to poor code maintainability and reusability. 2) Code Scattering. Repeat the same statements (i.e. logging) multiple times in multiple modules to fulfill a single requirement. Later, if the logging criteria change, you would have to modify all of the modules. Moreover, it is also hard to ensure that the logging requirement will be implemented consistently. If you have missed a logging statement somewhere, the overall system logging will be inconsistent.

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What design pattern can you use to assist with implementing crosscutting concerns?

Output: You can apply a design pattern called proxy to separate crosscutting concerns from core concerns. Proxy is one of the 23 GoF (Gang of Four) object-oriented design patterns, which belong to the “structural pattern” category. The principle of the proxy design pattern is to wrap an object with a proxy and use this proxy to substitute for the original object. Any calls that were made to the original object will go through the proxy first.

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What is a dynamic proxy?

Output: It supports creating a proxy dynamically for any object. Dynamic proxies are implemented with the Java Reflection API, so they can be used in a more general way than static proxies. For this reason, dynamic proxy is one of the core technologies used by Spring for its AOP implementation.

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What is an advice?

Output: The crosscutting action to take at a particular execution point is encapsulated in an advice

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What types of advices does Classic Spring AOP support?

Output: 1) Before Advice (before method execution) 2) After returning advice (After the method returns a result) 3) After throwing advice (After the method throws an exception) 4) Around advice (Around the method execution)

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: How are advices written using the classic Spring AOP approach?

Output: Advices are written by implementing one of the proprietary advice interfaces

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: In classic Spring AOP, what interface do you implement to use before advice?

Output: MethodBeforeAdvice

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What interface do you need to implement for after returning advice?

Output: AfterReturningAdvice

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: What interface do you need to implement to handle throwing advice?

Output: ThrowsAdvice

Spring Practice Chapter 5 Flashcards - Cram.com

A crosscutting concern is a functionality that spans multiple modules of an application. eg. logging, authentication


Input: Transform the bad cells and introduce the wild type gene into a specific tissue within the whole organism Example: A kid with cystic fibrosis Lets transform the cells in the lungs by inserting the wild type copy of CFTR but inserting the gene into a specific tissue to change somatic cells [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Somatic Gene Therapy

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Take naked DNA and using an electrical pulse the DNA will enter the cell [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Electroporation

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A single cell is held by a vacuum and a needle punctures the membrane to insert DNA [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Microinjection

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Dehydrate DNA and then use a gun to shoot DNA into cells [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Biolistics

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Transduction: Viral transfer Transfection: Transform animal cells Viruses are infectious, it is very easy for the virus to inject DNA They are good vehicles to transform animals cells into foreign DNA [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Viruses

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Attaches to the cell and the AAV genome integrates on a unique spot on chromosome 19 The virus does not replicate by itself; it requires co-infection which provides the proteins/molecules for it to reproduce Usually replicates with adeno-virus or herpes Structure Single stranded DNA with 7 genes Has inverted terminal repeats at both ends which play a role in replicating the genome and insertion at the specific locus at chromosome 19 [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Function and Structure of AAV

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Provides the CFTR gene fragment Cuts up the DNA [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Restriction Endonuclease

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: We want to break the hydrogen bonds in DNA by raising the temperature The PCR will raise the temperature to 94 degrees for a minute or two and the strands will denature We now have specific single stranded DNA primers Lower the temperature to 45 – 65 degrees for 15 seconds so the primer can anneal to the strand with hydrogen bonding We then have DNA polymerase to extend the DNA in the 3’ direction at a temperature of 72 degrees [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Mechanism of the PCR

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Resistant to ampicillin, so if you mix it with a bacteria the bacteria will show resistance to ampicillin ... A bacteria with this plasmid would grow and without it would die Origin of replication to replicate itself when its in the bacteria Lac Z to create B-galactosidease to metabolize sugars [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: pBluescript

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Lac Z spans the gene but is interupted by a multi-cloning site, which is a place where lots of enzymes can be used to clone things into that site If you clone something in, you interrupt the lac Z gene, rendering it non functional [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Lac Z and the multi cloning site of pBluescript

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: X gal is a sugar It turns blue in the presence of b-galactosidease If the lac Z gene is interrupted and b galactosidease isnt made, X gal turns white [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: What is X gal and when does it turn blue?

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: White bacteria are harboring plasmids that have the cloned gene Blue bacteria means that lacZ isn't interrupted so there is no piece of DNA in the cloning site of pBluescript [Germ Line Therapy]

Output: Bacteria on the same plate can turn blue or white. So what?

Semester Two: Biology Lecture 20 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the large, flat bone extending from the middle of the back upward to where it joins with the clavicle? ribs scapula carpals cervical vertabrae

Output: Scapula. The large, flat bone extending from the middle of the back upward to the joint where it attaches to the clavicle is called the scapula.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What part of the muscle applies to the midsection of the muscle, between the two attached sections? origin belly insertion cardiac

Output: Belly. The belly is the term applied to the midsection of the muscle, between the two attached sections.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The extensor, which is located mid-forearm on the outside of the arm, performs which action? lifts the arm turns the palm of the hand straightens the fingers and wrists swings the arms back and forth

Output: Straightens the fingers and wrists. The extensor is located mid-forearm, on the outside of the arm. This muscle straightens the fingers and wrists.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The peripheral nervous system is composed of: the pons the brain medulla oblongata sensory and motor nerves

Output: Sensory and motor nerves. The peripheral nervous system is composed of sensory and motor nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord to other parts of the body.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The mixed nerve that is responsible for transmitting facial sensations to the brain and is the largest of the cranial nerves is called the: facial nerve trifacial nerve motor nerve seventh cranial

Output: Trifacial nerve. The largest of the cranial nerves, the trifacial nerve is the mixed nerve primarily responsible for transmitting facial sensations to the brain and controlling facial muscle movements.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which two glands make up the integumentary system? duct and sebaceous ductless and sudoriferous duct and ductless sebaceous and sudoriferous

Output: Sebaceuous and sudoriferous. The two primary glands of the integumentary system are the sebaceous and the sudoriferous glands.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The spongy bone found between the eyes that forms part of the nasal cavity is called the: frontal ethmoid occipital temporal

Output: Ethmoid. The ethmoid is the spongy bone between the eyes that forms part of the nasal cavity.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The two bones of the upper jaw are called: frontal sphenoid maxillae sternum

Output: Maxillae. The maxillae are the two bones of the upper jaw.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Most of the cell's activities take place in the: nucleus cytoplasm protoplasm cell membrane

Output: Cytoplasm. The cytoplasm, or production department of the cell, is where most of the cell's activities take place.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The long and short thread-like fibers that differentiate nerve cells from other cells are called: axons neurons dendrites receptors

Output: Axons. Nerve cells differ in appearance from other cells due to the long and short thread-like fibers called axons.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The brain, spinal cord and spinal and cranial nerves all compose which nervous system? central peripheral autonomic lymph-vascular

Output: Central. The central or cerebrospinal system is composed of the brain, spinal cord and spinal and cranial nerves.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The muscle between the brows across the bridge of the nose that draws the brows down is the: mentalis procerus corrugator orbicularis oculi

Output: Procerus. The procerus, located between the eyebrows across the bridge of the nose, draws brows down and wrinkles the area across the bridge of the nose.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What is another name for histology? gross anatomy microscopic anatomy osteology physiology

Output: Microscopic anatomy. The study of structures too small to be seen except through a microscope is called histology or microscopic anatomy.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which two muscles in the neck and upper back draw the head back, rotate the shoulder blades and control the swinging of the arm? platysma and risorius temporalis and masseter platysma and sternocleido mastoideus trapezius and latissimus dorsi

Output: Trapezius and lattissimus dorsi. The trapezius and latissimus dorsi cover the back of the neck and upper back. These muscles draw the head back, rotate the shoulder blades and control the swinging of the arm.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: How many times per minute does the normal heart beat? 30-40 60-80 130-140 160-180

Output: 60-80. The normal heart beats 60-80 times per munute.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which organ converts and neutralizes ammonia from the circulatory system to urea? heart brain liver skin

Output: Liver. The liver converts and neutralizes ammonia from the circulatory system to urea.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Muscles produce movement through tightening and: massaging contracting relaxing dilating

Output: Relaxing. Muscles produce movement through contracting (tightening) and expansion (relaxing).

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The occipitalis muscle is located at the nape of the neck and draws the scalp: back forward to the left to the right

Output: Back. The occipitalis muscle is located at the nape of the neck and draws the scalp back.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What is the body's largest organ and forms a protective layer over the body? lungs liver intestines skin

Output: Skin. The skin, the body's largest organ, forms the external protective layer of the body.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which artery supplies the lower portion of the face, including the mouth and nose? occipital posterior auricular superficial temporal external maxillary

Output: External maxillary. The external maxillary supplies the lower portion of the face, including the mouth and nose.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: How many groups are the bones of the skull divided into? two three four five

Output: Two. Bones of the skull are divided into two groups: the eight bones of the cranium and the fourteen bones of the facial skeleton.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which of the following is NOT a primary component of the nervous system? brain muscles nerves spinal cord

Output: Muscles. Primary components of the nervous system include the brain, spinal cord and nerves.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What is the function of the excretory system? allow procreation of a living organism break food down to be absorbed by the body allow the body to intake oxygen eliminate solid, liquid and gaseous waste products

Output: Eliminate solid, liquid and gaseous waste products. The excretory system eliminates solid, liquid and gaseous waste products from the body.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The sticky, salty fluid that circulates through the body bringing nourishment and oxygen to the body parts is: blood plasma platelets nutrients

Output: Blood. Blood is the sticky, salty fluid that circulates through the body bringing nourishment and oxygen to all body parts and carrying toxins and waste products to the liver and kidneys to be eliminated.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which of the following is NOT a facial nerve branch? buccal temporal mandibular medulla oblongata

Output: Medulla oblongata. The posterior auricular, temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular and cervical branches are all facial nerve branches.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which of the following methods is NOT used to stimulate muscles? massage moist heat electric current sleep

Output: Sleep. Massage, electric current, light and heat rays, moist heat, nerve impulses and chemicals are all used to stimulate muscle tissue.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: This body system controls the circulation of blood and lymph through the body is the: circulatory muscular endocrine lymph-vascular

Output: Circulatory. The circulatory or vascular system controls the circulation of blood and lymph through the body.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What controls all three subsystems of the nervous system? heart occipital brain spinal cord

Output: Brain. The brain controls all three subsystems of the nervous system.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which of the following facial bones is NOT involved in facial massage? nasal lacrimal vomer maxillae

Output: The vomer is unaffected by facial massage while the mandible, the maxillae, the nasal, the zygomatic and the lacrimal are involved in facial massage.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The orbicularis oculi closes the eyelid and circles around the: nose mouth eyebrow eyesocket

Output: Eyesocket. The orbicularis oculi circles the eyesocket and functions to close the eyelid.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which scalp muscle extends from the forehead to the top of the skull, and raises the eyebrows? belly striated frontalis epicranium

Output: Frontalis. The frontalis muscle extends from the forehead to the top of the skull. It raises eyebrows or draws the scalp forward.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The nervous system is divided into how many subsystems? 2 3 4 5

Output: 3. The nervous system is divided into three subsystems: central nervous system, peripheral nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: All of the following are muscle areas a salon professional is primarily concerned with EXCEPT for the: neck arms face back

Output: Back. The salon professional is primarily concerned with the voluntary muscles of the head, face, neck, arms and hands.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: About how many total muscles are there in the body? 50 100 300 500

Output: 500. There are more than 500 large and small muscles in the body, composing approximately 40% of the body's weight.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The muscles that are located in the palm of the hand and cause the thumb to move toward the fingers to make a fist are called: extensor abductor adductor opponens

Output: Opponens. The opponens muscles are located in the palm of the hand and cause the thumb to move toward the fingers, giving the ability to grasp or make a fist.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: What is the study of the structure, function and diseases of the muscles? anatomy histology myology osteology

Output: Myology. Myology is the study of the structure, function and diseases of the muscles.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The muscle that circles the mouth is responsible for contracting, puckering or wrinkling the lips is the: buccinator zygomaticus oris orbicularis quadratus labii superioris

Output: Oris orbicularis. The oris orbicularis circles the mouth and is responsible for contracting, puckering and wrinkling the lips, as in kissing or whistling.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: Which of the following descriptions is NOT a function of the musclar system? support for the skeleton contouring of the body circulating lymph throughout the body production of body movements

Output: Circulating lymph throughout the body. The functions of the muscular system include support of the skeleton, production of body movements, contouring of the body and involvement in the functions of other body systems.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.


Input: The physical foundation of the body is the: skeletal system nervous system muscular system reproductive system

Output: Skeletal system. The physical foundation of the body is the skeletal system.

Cosmetology Fundamentals: Anatomy and Physiology. Flashcards - Cram.com

Deltoid. The deltoid covers the shoulder. This triangle-shaped muscle lifts the arm or turns it.