Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] RHESUS (Rh)INCOMPATIBILITY (ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS)

Output: The feal blood possesses a different Rh group from the maternal blood. When maternal blood cells leak into the fetal circulation, they interact, forming antibodies. In the next pregnancy there is hemolysis, and the fetus is left anemic with hydrops.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] ROCKERBOTTOM FOOT

Output: Abnormal foot with very prominent heel. May be an indication of a chromosomal anomaly.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] RUBELLA

Output: Viral disease that is associated with a number of fetal anomalies, including congenital heart disease, when occuring in utero.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] SEQUESTRATION

Output: Anomaly in which a segment of the lung does not connect with the trachea and has its own blood supply. SOmetimes the abnormal segment of he lung develops below the diaphragm.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] SPINA BIFIDA

Output: Bony spinal defect over the spinal canal. Nearly always accompanied by some form of Myelomeningocele, sometimes with Hydrocephalus.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TERATOMA

Output: Tumor composed of multiple different tissues that may arise anywhere in the body, but usually in the sacrum.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TETHERING

Output: The lower end of the cord normally ascends from the sacrum to level L2 in utero. With anomalies such as spina bifida and lipoma, it does not ascend, but terminates at a lower level.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TORCH

Output: Group of congenital infectious diseases with similar features: Toxoplasmosis, rubella, cystomegalic inclusion disease, and herpes.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TOXOPLASMOSIS

Output: Parasitic disease affecting the fetus in utero and causing intracranial calcification.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA

Output: Obstruction of the esophagus usually associated with a fistula to the trachea. Sometimes there is also a connection to the stomach through the trachea. In the most severe form no fluid reaches the stomach.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TRIPLOIDY

Output: There are one and one half times as many chromosomes as there should be. Causes fetal death and a large, abnormal placenta that may look like a mole.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TRIRADIATE

Output: The fingers in Thanatophoric Dwarfism are separated and short, forming a triradiate shape.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TRISOMY

Output: Abnormal chromosomes are present; three are present where a specific pair should be. The most comon types are 13, 18, and 21 (hence trisomy)

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] TURNER'S SYNDROME

Output: One sex chromosome is absent. Associated with Cystic Hygroma, a webbed neck, and mental deficiency.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] VEIN OF GALEN ANEURYSM

Output: A large arteriovenous fistula seen as a sizable cyst in the posterior aspect of the brain, above the tentorium.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] VENTRICULOMEGALY

Output: Enlargement of the intracranial ventricles, not necessarily associated with obstructio.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE] THANATOPHORIC DWARF

Output: Form of dwarfism that affects not only the limbs but also the chest, which is too small. Invariably fatal.

chap 18 key words Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

An enzyme found in the amniotic fluid when a neural crest anomaly is present. It may be found in trace amounts if an abdominal wall defect, such as omphalocele, is present.


Input: [judicial review] judicial restraint approach

Output: The view that judges should decide ca ses strictly on the basis of the language of the laws and the constitution

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] activist approach

Output: The view that judges should discern the general principles underlying laws or the constitution and apply them to madern cirumstances

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] consitutional court

Output: A federal court authorized by Article III of the Consitution that keeps judges in office during good behavior and prevents their salaries from being reduced. The are the Supreme court (created by the Constitution) and appellte and district courts created by congress

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] district courts

Output: The lowest federal courts; federal trials can be held only here

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] courts of appeals

Output: Federal courts that hear appeals freom district courts; no trials

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] judicial rreview

Output: The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] judicial restrarint approach

Output: The view that judges should decide ca ses strictly on the basis of the language of the laws and the constitution

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] legislative courts

Output: Courts created by congress for specialized purposes whose judges do not enjoy the protections of Aricle III of the Constitution

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] litmus test

Output: An examination of the political ideology of a nomiated judge

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] constitutional court

Output: A federal court authorized by Article III of the Consitution that keeps judges in office during good behavior and prevents their salaries from being reduced. The are the Supreme court (created by the Constitution) and appellte and district courts created by congress

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] federal question cases

Output: cases concerning the constitution, federal laws, or treaties

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] diversity cases

Output: cases involving citizens of different states who can bring suit in fe deral courts

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] court of appeals

Output: Federal courts that hear appeals freom district courts; no trials

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] litmus tests

Output: An examination of the political ideology of a nomiated judge

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] diverstiy cases

Output: cases involving citizens of different states who can bring suit in fe deral courts

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] writ of cetiorari

Output: An order by a higher court directing a lower court to send up a case for review

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] in forma pauperis

Output: A method wereby a poor perosn can have his or her case heared in fereal court without charge

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] fee shifting

Output: A rule that allows a plaintiff to recover costs from the defentant if the plaintiff wins

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] Plaintiff

Output: The party that initiates a lawsuit

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] standing

Output: A legal rule stating who is authorized to start a lawsuit

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] soverign immunity

Output: The rule that a citizen cannot sue the government without the government's consent

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] class action suit

Output: A cse brought by someone to help him or her and all others who are similarly situated

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] brief

Output: A written statement by an attorney that summarizes a case and the laws and rulings that support it

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] amicus cuirae

Output: A brief submitted by a "friend of the court"

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] pre curiam opinion

Output: A brief, unsigned court opinion

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] opinion of the court

Output: A signed opinion of a mojority of the Supreme court

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] concurring opinion

Output: A signed opinion in which one or more members agree with themojority view but for different reasons

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] dissenting opinion

Output: A signed opinion in which one or more justices disagree iwtht he mojority view

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] stare decisis

Output: "let the decision stand," or allowing prior rulings to control the current case

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] politial question

Output: An issue the Supreme court will allow the executive and legislative branches decide

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: [judicial review] remedy

Output: A judical order enforcing a right or redressing a wrong

ch 16 ap gov sidell Flashcards - Cram.com

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional


Input: (1) power over federally owned or controlled territory (2) power over conduct occurring within a state (3) power over US nationals abroad (4) power over conduct on ships or airplanes

Output: What are the 4 categories of federal criminal jurisdiction (federal govt's power to create crimes?


Input: fed govt has extensive power to enact general criminal codes governing conduct in DC, territories and federal enclaves

Output: What jurisdiction does the federal govt have over federally owned or controlled territory?


Input: federal power to criminalize conduct within a state is limited by the requirement that each statute be founded upon an express or implied constitutional grant of authority

Output: What jurisdiction does the federal govt have over conduct occurring within a state?


Input: federal criminal statutes may, by express provision, reach conduct by citizens while on foreign soil

Output: What jurisdiction does the federal govt have over US nationals abroad?


Input: federal maritime jurisdiction extends to conduct by all person aboard American ships or aircraft when on or over the high seas or even in foreign waters or ports

Output: What jurisdiction does the federal govt have over conduct on ships or airplanes?


Input: every state has inherent authority by virtue of its police power to regulate its internal affairs for the protection or promotion of the health, safety, welfare and morals of its citizens

Output: What is a state's criminal jurisdiction?


Input: if the state is the legal situs of the crime

Output: Under common law, when does a state have juridiction over a crime?


Input: the place where the act or omission takes place or the place of the harmful result if result is a material element of the crime

Output: What is the situs of a crime?


Input: A person is subject to prosecution in a state for an offense under the following conditions: (1) when the offense is committed wholly or partly (conduct or result at to one element of the crime) within the state; (2) when there is conduct outside the state that constitutes an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense within the state PLUS an act within the state; (3) When there is conduct within the state constituting an attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit, in another jurisdiction, an offense that is a crime in both states; and (4) when an offense based on the omission of performance of a duty imposed by the law of a state is committed within the state, regardless of the location of the offender

Output: What is the modern bases for a state's criminal law jurisdiction?


Input: - Common law crimes - Statutory crimes - Constitutional crimes - Administrative crimes - Model Penal Code

Output: List the sources of criminal law.


Input: one that is created and enforced by the judiciary in the absence of a statute defining the offense

Output: What is a common law crime?


Input: no, except for those provided by Congress for DC

Output: Are there any federal common law crimes?


Input: Majority have retained them either implicitly or by express retention statutes Minority have abolished expressly or impliedly (but still keep common law defenses)

Output: Do states have common law crimes?


Input: state legislative statutes

Output: What is the primary source of criminal law?


Input: treason - levying war against the US, adhereing to enemies of the US or giving them aid and comfort no one can be convicted unless there are two testifying witnesses to the same overt act or defendant confesses

Output: What is a constitutional crime?


Input: administrative agency is given power by legislature to proscribe rules, the violation of which may be a criminal penalty Note: legislature may not delegate power to determine which regulations carry penalties or the power of adjudication

Output: How is an administrative crime proscribed?


Input: - Incapacitation (restraint) - Special Deterrence - General Deterrence - Retribution - Rehabilitation - Education

Output: List the theories that have been advanced to justify criminal punishment.


Input: While imprisoned, a criminal has fewer opportunities to commit acts causing harm to society

Output: Summarize the incapacitation theory of punishment.


Input: punishment may deter the criminal from committing future crimes

Output: Summarize the special deterrence theory of punishment.


Input: punishment may deter persons other than the criminal from committing similar crimes for fear of incurring the same punishment

Output: Summarize the general deterrence theory of punishment.


Input: punishment is imposed to vent society's sense of outrage and need for revenge

Output: Summarize the retribution theory of punishment.


Input: imprisonment provides the opportunity to mold or reform the criminal into a person who, upon return to society, will conform her behavior to societal norms

Output: Summarize the rehabilitation theory of punishment.


Input: publicity attending the trial, conviction and punishment of some criminals serves to educate the public to distinguish good and bad conduct and to develop respect for the law

Output: Summarize the education theory of punishment.


Input: treason, felonies, misdemeanors

Output: What were the three common law classes of crimes?


Input: Felonies – all crimes punishable by death or imprisonment exceeding 1 year Misdemeanors – all crimes punishable by imprisonment for less than one year or by a fine

Output: Distinguish felonies and misdemeanors.


Input: malum in se - a crime that is inherently evial, either b/c criminal intent is an element of the offense or b/c the crime involves moral turpitude malum prohibitum - a crime that is wrong only b/c it is prohibited by legislation

Output: Distinguish malum in se and malum prohibitum.


Input: At common law, all crimes involving fraud, dishonesty or the obstruction of justice modern law expands this to include most felonies

Output: What is an infamous crime?


Input: Supreme Court has held due process clause to require that no criminal penalty be imposed without fair notice that the conduct is forbidden

Output: What is the "void for vagueness" doctrine?


Input: (1) Fair warning in that it must give a person of ordinary intelligence fair notice that his contemplated conduct is forbidden by the statute (2) No arbitrary and discriminatory enforcement in that statute must not encourage erratic and arbitrary arrests and convictions

Output: What are the two requirements for non-vagueness?


Input: (1) No Ex Post Facto Laws - expressly prohibited by Constitution and defined by Supreme Court as a law that operates retroactively to - make criminal an act that when done was not criminal; - aggravate a crime or increase the punishment therefor; - change the rules of evidence to the detriment of criminal defendants as a class; OR - alter the law of criminal procedure to deprive criminal defendants of a substantive right (2) No Bills of Attainder - defined as a legislative act that inflicts punishment or denies a privilege without a judicial trial

Output: What are the Article I limitations on state and federal crime creation?


Input: ex post facto law does not deprive the offender of a judicial trial

Output: How can you tell the difference between an ex post facto law and a bill of attainder?


Input: (1) Plain Meaning Rule (2) Rule of Lenity (3) expressio uniun, exclusio alterius (4) specific controls general; more recent controls earlier (5) effect of repeal

Output: List the rules of interpretation for criminal statutes.


Input: when statutory language is plain and its meaning clear, the court must give effect to it even if the court feels the law is unwise or undesirable Note: there is an exception to this rule if applying the meaning will lead to injustice, oppression or an absurd consequence

Output: What is the plain meaning rule?


Input: Ambiguous statute must be construed strictly in favor of the defendant An ambiguous statute is one that is capable of two or more reasonable interpretations, as opposed to a vague statute, which is not subject to any reasonable interpretation

Output: What is the rule of lenity?


Input: the expression of one thing impliedly indicates an intention to exclude another example: if a statute provides one exception, it impliedly excludes all others

Output: What is the rule of expressio uniun, exclusio alterius?


Input: if two statutes address the same subject matter but dictate different conclusions, the more specific statute will be applied rather than the more general the more recently enacted statute will control an older statute

Output: What is the rule regarding specific controls general; more recent controls earlier?


Input: at common law, in absence of a saving provision, the repeal or invalidation of a statute operates to bar prosecutions for earlier violates provided the prosecution is pending or not yet under way at the time of repeal (will not free from conviction or final judgment though) a saving provision is one that states crimes committed prior to the effective date of new statute are subject to prosecution and punishment under the law as it existed at the time the offense was committed

Output: What is the rule regarding the effect of repeal?


Input: misdemeanor merged into felony - if a person engaged in conduct constituting both, he could only be convicted of the felony

Output: What was the common law rule of merger?


Input: No merger! Exceptions: - merger of solicitation or attempt into completed crime - merger of lesser included offenses into greater offenses

Output: What is the current American rule regarding merger?


Input: A person who solicits another to commit a crime cannot be convicted both of the solicitation and the completed crime. Similarly, a person cannot both be convicted of an attempt and of the completed crime. A person can, however, be convicted of both conspiracy and of the completed crime.

Output: Describe the solicitation/ attempt merger exception.


Input: Lesser included offenses merge into greater offenses in that one placed in jeopardy for either offense may not be later retried for the other. Nor may one be convicted of both.

Output: Describe the lesser included offense merger exception.


Input: A lesser included offense is one that consists entirely of some, but not all, elements of the greater crime.

Output: What is a lesser included offense?


Input: No, imposition of cumulative punishments for two or more statutorily defined offenses, specifically intended by the legislature to carry separate punishments, arising from the same transaction and constituting the same crime does not violate the double jeopardy clause prohibition against multiple punishments for the same offense when the punishments are imposed at a single trial.

Output: Is there double jeopardy if a statute provides multiple punishments for a single act?


Input: (1) Actus reus - the physical act or unlawful omission; (2) Mens rea - the state of mind or intent of defendant at time of the act; (3) Concurrence - the act and state of mind existed at the same time; (4) a Harmful result was caused (both factually and proximately) by the act

Output: What elements of a criminal offense is a prosecution generally required to prove?


Input: (1) principals in the first degree (2) principals in the second degree (3) accessories before the fact (4) accessories after the fact

Output: What are the four common law types of parties to a felony?


Input: persons who actually engage in the act or omission that constitutes the criminal offense

Output: What are principals in the first degree?


Input: persons who aid, command, or encourage the principal and are present at the crime

Output: What are principals in the second degree?


Input: persons who aid, abet, or encourage the principal but are not present at the crime

Output: What are accessories before the fact?


Input: persons who assist the principal after the crime

Output: What are accessories after the fact?


Input: one who, with the requisite mental state, actually engages in the act or omission that causes the criminal result anyone who acts through an innocent, irresponsible, or unwilling agent NOTE: principal need not be present when the harm results

Output: Under the modern approach, what is a principle?


Input: one who, with the intent that the crime be committed, aids, counsels, or encourages the principal before or during the commission of the crime

Output: Under the modern approach, what is an accomplice?


Input: one who receives, relieves, comforts, or assists another, knowing that he has committed a felony, in order to help the felon edcape arrest, trial, or conviction NOTE: must be a felony and completed at time aid is rendered

Output: Under the modern approach, what is an accessory after the fact?


Input: (1) perjury (2) subornation of perjury (3) bribery (4) compounding a crime (5) misprison of a felony

Output: List the offenses involving judicial procedure.


Input: Common law misdemeanor that consists of willful and corrupt taking of a false oath in regard to a material matter in a judicial proceeding Materiality is an element and must be alleged in the indictment as well as proved by prosecution NOTE: A statement is material if it might affect some phase or detail of the trial, hearing, declaration, etc

Output: What is perjury?


Input: consists of procuring or inducing another to commit perjury

Output: What is subornation of perjury?


Input: common law misdemeanor or felony under modern statutes that consists of the corrupt payment or receipt of anything of value in return for official action (either offering or taking) NOTE: Mutual criminal intent is NOT necessary

Output: What is bribery?


Input: common law misdemeanor that consists of entering into an agreement for valuable consideration to not prosecute another for a felony or to conceal commission of a felony or whereabouts of a felon NOTE: Modern statutes include any crimes (not just felonies)

Output: What is compounding a crime?


Input: common law misdemeanor that consists of the failure by someone other than a principal or accessory before the fact to disclose or report knowledge of the commission of a felony NOTE: Not recognized in most jurisdictions resulting in no obligation for a person to report a crime (or if it is a crime, it requires some affirmative action in aid of the felon)

Output: What is misprison of a felony?


Input: If a witness makes two contradictory statements at the same proceeding and admits that one is false before the end of the proceeding, he cannot be prosecuted for having made the false statement

Output: Can a witness be prosecuted for perjury for having made two false statements at the same proceeding?


Input: In a civil rights action, all witnesses (including police officers) are immune from civil liability based on their alleged perjured testimony in judicial proceedings

Output: What is special about perjury in a civil rights action?


Input: (1) A breaking (2) and entry (3) of a dwelling (4) of another (5) at nighttime (6) with the intent to commit a felony in the structure

Output: What are the common law elements of burglary?


Input: Requires some use of force to gain entry but minimal force is sufficient Example: opening a closed but unlocked door

Output: What is actual breaking?


Input: gaining entry by means of fraud, threat, or intimidation, or by use of the chimney

Output: What is constructive breaking?


Input: - trespass (consent of resident to enter is NOT a breaking; exception: entry consent limited to certain times or obtained by fraud) - of the house (must be to effect entry into house or some secured subportion) - to gain entry (not hide in or exit)

Output: What is required to constitute a breaking?


Input: placing any portion of the body inside the structure, even momentarily insertion of a tool or inanimate object into the structure is sufficient if it is inserted for the purpose of accomplishing the felony (NOT for just gaining entry)

Output: What is required to constitute entry?


Input: a structure used with regularity for sleeping purposes NOTE: other purposes or temporary absence of inhabitants does not affect status as dwelling

Output: What is a dwelling?


Input: Occupancy, thus an owner can commit burglary of his own structure if it is rented and used as a dwelling by others)

Output: What determines "of another"


Input: period during which the countenance of a person could not be discerned by natural light

Output: What is nighttime?


Input: at the time of entry

Output: When must the intent to commit a felony exist for burglary?


Input: (1) the malicious (2) burning (3) of a dwelling (4) of another

Output: What are the common law elements of arson?


Input: No, but it is often made an offense under modern statutes

Output: At common law, was it an offense to burn one's own dwelling for purposes of fraudulently collecting the insurance on it?


Input: (1) the malicious (2) burning (3) of one's dwelling (4) if the structure is situated either in a city or town OR so near to other houses as to create a danger to them

Output: What are the elements for common law misdemeanor of houseburning?


Input: no specific intent is required but it is not sufficient if the burning was accidental or negligent defendant must have acted with the intent or knowledge that the structure would burn, or with reckless disregard of an obvious risk that the structure would burn

Output: What state of mind is required for arson?


Input: occupancy; ownership is immaterial

Output: What is determinative of "of another" for arson?


Input: must be caused by fire (NOT explosion) there must be some damage to the fiber of the wood or other combustible material scorching - insufficient charring - sufficient

Output: What damage is required for arson?


Input: (1) malicious (2) destruction of, or damage to (3) property of another

Output: What are the elements of common law misdemeanor of malicious mischief?


Input: traditional strict liability offense that consists of marying someone while having another living spouse at common law, it is irrelevant if defendant reasonably believes that a divorce was valid or spouse was dead

Output: What is bigamy?


Input: unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in either bodily injury or an offensive touching

Output: What is battery?


Input: misdemeanor

Output: What classification of crime is simple battery?


Input: none required; need not be intentional negligence is sufficient

Output: What state of mind is required for battery?


Input: [Brainstem] Reticular Formation

Output: in the brainstem, neurons that affect arousal

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Cerebellum

Output: Controls movement and balance, trained by nervous system, involved in empathy

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Limbic System

Output: controls basic drives and emotions

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Hypothalamus

Output: master regulatory structure. vital function regulator, controls sexual impulses

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Thalamus

Output: almost all incoming info goes through this before the cortex

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Hippocampus

Output: new memories and spatial memories

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Amygdala

Output: associates things with an emotion

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Basal Ganglia

Output: subcortical structures, crucial for moevement, reward system

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Cerebral cortex

Output: source of culture and communication

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Occipital Lobe

Output: vision

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houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Parietal Lobe

Output: touch

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Temporal

Output: primary auditory cortex, faces, memory

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Frontal Lobe

Output: planning and movement

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: [Brainstem] Prefrontal Cortex

Output: Rational behavior

Anatomy of the Brain Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

houses the most basic programs of survival


Input: three pairs of exocrine glands in the mouth that secrete saliva: parotid, submandibular (submaxillary) and the sublingual glands [oral cavity]

Output: salivary glands

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lateral walls of the mouth [oral cavity]

Output: cheeks

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: fleshy structures surrounding the mouth [oral cavity]

Output: lips

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: structure that forms the roof of the mouth; divided into soft and hard palate [oral cavity]

Output: palate

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: small projection hanging from the back middle edge of the soft palate [oral cavity]

Output: uvula

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscular structure of the floor of the mouth covered by mucous membrane and secured by band-like membrane known as the frenulum [oral cavity]

Output: tongue

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: tissue covering the processes of the jaws [oral cavity]

Output: gums

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: hard bony projections in the jaws for masticating (chewing) food [oral cavity]

Output: teeth

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: throat; passageway for food traveling to esophagus and for air traveling to larynx [oral cavity]

Output: pharynx

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscular tube that moves food from pharynx to stomach [oral cavity]

Output: esophagus

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sac-like organ that chemically mixes and prepares food received from the esophagus [oral cavity]

Output: stomach

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: opening from esophagus to the stomach [oral cavity]

Output: cardiac sphincter

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: opening from the stomach to the duodenum [oral cavity]

Output: pyloric sphincter

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: smaller tubular structure that digests food received from the stomach [oral cavity]

Output: small intestine

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: first portion of the small intestine [oral cavity]

Output: duodenum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: second portion of the small intestine [oral cavity]

Output: jejunum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: third portion of the small intestine [oral cavity]

Output: ileum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: larger tubular structure that receives the liquid waste products of digestion, reabsorbs water and minerals, and forms and stores feces for defecation [oral cavity]

Output: large intestine

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: first part of the large intestine [oral cavity]

Output: cecum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: worm-like projection of lymphatic tissue hanging off the cecum with no digestive function; may help to resist infection [oral cavity]

Output: vermiform appendix

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: portions of the large intestine extending from the cecum to the rectum; identified by direction or shape [oral cavity]

Output: colon

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: portion of the colon that extends upward from the cecum [oral cavity]

Output: ascending colon

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: portion of the colon that extends across from the ascending cecum [oral cavity]

Output: transverse colon

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: portion of the colon that extends downward from the transverse colon [oral cavity]

Output: descending colon

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: portion of the colon (resembling an "S" in shape) that terminates at the rectum [oral cavity]

Output: sigmoid colon

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: distal (end) portion of the large intestine [oral cavity]

Output: rectum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: dilated portion of the rectum just above the anal canal [oral cavity]

Output: rectal ampulla

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: opening of the rectum to the outside of the body [oral cavity]

Output: anus

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: waste formed by the absorption of water in the large intestine; usually solid [oral cavity]

Output: feces

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: evacuation of feces from the rectum [oral cavity]

Output: defecation

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: membrane surrounding the entire abdominal cavity and consisting of the parietal layer (lining the abdominal wall) and the visceral layer (covering each organ in the abdomen) [oral cavity]

Output: peritoneum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: space between the parietal and visceral peritoneum [oral cavity]

Output: peritoneal cavity

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: extension of the peritoneum attached to the stomach and connecting it with other abdominal organs [oral cavity]

Output: omentum

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: organ in the upper right quadrant that produces bile, which is secreted into the duodenum during digestion [oral cavity]

Output: liver

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: receptacle that stores and concentrates the biles produced in the liver [oral cavity]

Output: gallbladder

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: gland that secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum, where it mixes with bile to digest food [oral cavity]

Output: pancreas

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ducts that convey bile; include the hepatic, cystic, and common bile ducts [oral cavity]

Output: biliary ducts

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: upper lateral regions beneath the ribs [oral cavity]

Output: hypochondriac regions

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: upper middle region below the sternum [oral cavity]

Output: epigastric region

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: middle lateral regions [oral cavity]

Output: lumbar regions

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: region of the navel [oral cavity]

Output: umbilical region

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lower lateral groin regions [oral cavity]

Output: inguinal regions

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: region below the navel [oral cavity]

Output: hypogastric region

Medical terminology- Ch 12 ab/GI anatomical terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] ____________ drugs are used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting. [2]

Output: Antiemetic


Input: [1] ___________ is an unpleasant sensation of abdominal discomfort accompanied by a desire to vomit. [2]

Output: Nausea


Input: [1] ________ is the expulsion of stomach contents through the mouth. [2]

Output: Vomit


Input: [1] Nausea and vomiting are the most common ____________ of drug therapy. [2]

Output: Adverse effects


Input: [1] Vomiting occurs when the _________ a nucleus of cells in the medulla oblongata is stimulated [2]

Output: Vomiting center


Input: [1] Prokinetic agent that increases GI motility and the rate of gastric emptying by peripheral cholinergic effects [2]

Output: Metoclopramide (Reglan)


Input: [1] Effective in preventing or treating nausea and vomiting induced by drugs radiation therapy surgery and most other stimuli [2]

Output: Prochlorperazine (Compazine)


Input: [1] Often prescribed for patients who experience anticipatory nausea and vomiting before administration of anticancer drugs. [2]

Output: Lorazapam (Ativan)


Input: [1] Commonly used in the management of chemotherapy induced emesis and poster-operative nausea and vomiting. [2]

Output: Dexamethasone and methylprednisolone


Input: [1] Antagonized serotonin receptors preventing their activation by the effects of emetogenic drugs and toxins. [2]

Output: Ondanstron (zofran), Ganisetron (Kytril) Dolasetron (Anzemet), and palonosetron (Aloxi)


Input: [1] What drugs are most commonly associated with the adverse effects of nausea and vomiting. [2]

Output: Nausea and vomiting are the most common adverse effects of drug therapy. Although the symptoms may occur with most drugs they are especially associated with alcohol, aspirin digoxin, anticancer drugs antimcrobials, estrogen preparations and opioid analgesics.


Input: [1] Identify three causes other than drugs that may produce nausea and vomiting. [2]

Output: Nausea and vomiting may be caused by pain and other noxious stimuli such as unpleasant sights and odors; emotional disturbances; physical or mental stress; radiation therapy; motion sickness; postoperative status which may include pain impaired GI motility; and pregnancy.


Input: [1] Located in the vomiting center CTZ, and GI tract which are stimulated by emetogenic drugs and toxins. [2]

Output: The vomiting center and the GI track contain benzodiazepine, cholinergic, dopamine, histamine, opiate, substance P/neurokinin, and serotonin receptors which are stimulated by emetogenic drugs and toxins.


Input: [1] Describe the physiologic process that occur during vomiting beginning with the stimulation of the vomiting center and ending with the stomach contents arriving toward the mouth for ejection. [2]

Output: When stimulated the vomiting center initiates efferent impulses that stimulate the salivary center causing closure of the glottis; contraction of abdominal muscles and the diaphragm; relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter; and reverse peristalsis, which moves stomach contents toward the mouth for ejection.


Input: [1] Define the term anticipatory nausea. [2]

Output: Anticipatory nausea is triggered by memories and fear of nausea and vomiting is mediated by afferent signals from the higher centers of the cerebral cortex to the vomiting center.


Input: [1] How does metoclopramide decrease nausea and vomiting? How is metoclopramide typically used? [2]

Output: Metoclopramide (Reglan) is a prokinetic agent that increases GI motility and the rate of gastric emptying by increasing the release of acetylcholine from nerve endings in the GI tract (peripheral cholinergic effects). Historically, metoclopramide has been used intravenously during chemotherapy with cisplatin (Platinol) and other antineoplastic drugs to treat acute nausea and vomiting; however, 5 - HT3 receptor antagonists are now the preferred antiemetic for this indication.


Input: [1] What can you tell Mrs. Homan about when the effect of the medication begins and how long it lasts? [2]

Output: With oral administration of metoclopramide action begins in 30 to 60 mins and peaks in 60 to 90 mins. With IM use, action onset occurs in 10 to 15mins and peaks in 60 to 90 mins. with IV use action onset occurs in 1 to 3 mins and peaks in 60 to 90 mins.


Input: [1] Mrs Homan remains on the metoclopramide after chemotherapy for residual symptoms related to gastroparesis. Two years later she develops Parkinson's disease. What would you expect teh physician to do with Mrs. Holmans metoclopramide prescription? [2]

Output: The sedation that the drug causes many affect her ability to return to work. Other averse effects include restlessness and extrapyramidal reaction (ex akathisia, dystonia, symptoms of prkinsons disease). Metoclopramide. Metoclopramide may increase the effects of alcohol and cyclopporine (by increasing their absorption and decrease the effects of cimetidine and digoxin (by accelerating passage through the GI tract and decreasing time for absorption.)


Input: [1] Mrs. Jenks is going on a cruise to Nova Scotia with her husband to celebrate their 15th wedding anniversary. She is concerned because she has experienced severe debilitating sea sickness in the past. Which of the following would you expect the physician to order? a. Scopolamine b. Dexamethasone c. Metoclopramide d. Ondansetron [2]

Output: a Rationale: Scopolamine is a anticholinergic drug that is effective in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness and radiation therapy for cancer.


Input: [1] Mrs. Blanching is receiving chemotherapy to treat her cancer. Several antiemetics have been prescribed and each has been unsuccessful in treating her nausea and vomiting. The physician chooses to prescribe which of the following cannabinoid drug to manage her symptoms? a. Scopolamine b. Metoclopramide c. Ondansetron d. Dronabinol [2]

Output: d Rationale: Dronabinol is a cannabinoid used in the management of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy unrelieved by other antiemetic drugs. It is a Schedule III drug under federal narcotic laws.


Input: [1] Which of the following drugs antagonizes the neurokinin 1 receptor preventing activation by emetogenic chemotherapuetic drugs: a. Metoclopramide b. Aprepitant c. Ondansetron d. Dronadinol [2]

Output: b Ratonale: Subtance P a peptide neurotransmitter in the neurokinin family plays a role in acute and delayed chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting. A precipitation antagonizes the neurokin 1 receptor preventing activation by emetogenic chemotherapeutic drugs.


Input: [1] Which of the following drugs is a prokinetic agent that functins by increasing the release of acetycholine from nerve endings in the GI tract thereby increasing GI motility and gastric emptying? a. Metoclopramide b. Aprepitant c. Ondansetron d. Dronabinol [2]

Output: a Rationale: Prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide increase the release of acetylcholine from never endings in the GI tract, thereby increasing GI motility and gastric emptying. Metoclopramide also antagonizes dopamine in the brain. It is prescribed to treat nausea and vomiting associated with gastroparesis and other non obstructive disorders characterized by gastric retention of food and fluids, and in the treatment of esophageal reflux. It is also useful in prevention of delayed nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy.


Input: [1] Mrs. Gantry prepares to begin her second round of chemotherapy. She tells the physician that she knows that the nausea and vomiting will be worse this time around. The physician orders lorazepam because it has which of the following effects? (select all that apply) a. Producing relaxation b. relieving anxiety c. Inhibiting cerebral cortex input to the vomiting center d. Creating a sense of euphoria [2]

Output: a, b, d Rationale: Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam produce relaxation relieve anxiety and inhibit cerebral cortex input to the vomiting center. They are prescribed for anticipatory nausea associated with cancer chemotherapy.


Input: [1] Which of the following medications may be used in combination with a 5 HT3 serotonin receptor antagonist to manage chemotherapy induced emesis? a. Scopolamine b. Dexmethasone c. Metoclopramide d. Ondansetron [2]

Output: b Rationale: The antiemetic mechanism of action of corticosteroids such as dexmethasone and methylprednisolone is unknown. These drugs are commonly used alone or in combination with 5 HT3 serotonin receptor antagonists and or substance P / neurokinin 1 receptor antagonists in the management of chemotherapy induced emesis and postoperative nausea and vomiting.


Input: [1] Antiemetic drugs are most effective when given ________ nausea and vomiting occurs. [2]

Output: Before


Input: [1] what tasks are included in the role of the home care nurse visiting a client who is receiving antiemetics? (select all that appy) a. Assessing patients for possible causes of nausea and vomiting b. Assisting patients and caregivers with appropriate use of the drugs c. Providing interventions to prevent fluid and electrolyte depletion. d. Administering all antiemetics to clients who experience nausea and vomiting. [2]

Output: a, b, c Rationale: Antiemetics are usually given orally or by rectal suppository in the home setting. The home care nurse may need to assess patients for possible causes of nausea and vomiting and assist patients and caregivers to prevent fluid and electrolyte depletion. Teaching safety precautions with seating drugs may also be needed.


Input: [1] As a result of chemotherapy, Mr. Redford experiences hepatic dysfunction. Part of the clients medication regimen includes the use of phenothiazines. Which of the following would you expect the physician to do? a. Use an alternative medication b. Increase the dose of the medication. c. Decrease the dose of the medication d. Maintain the current dose of the medication [2]

Output: a Rationale: Phenothizaines are metabolized in the liver and elimination half lives prolonged with resultant accumulation and increased risk of adverse effects. Therefore, the drugs should be used cautiously in patients with hepatic impairment. Cholestatic jaundice has been reported with promethazine.


Input: [1] Most antiemetic drugs are metabolized in the liver and should be used cautiously in patients with impaired hepatic function. For clients diagnosed with hepatic impairment the dose of ondansetron should not exceed which of the following amounts? a. 8mg b. 6mg c. 10mg d. 12mg [2]

Output: a Rationale: Most antiemetic drugs are metabolized in the liver and should be used cautiously in patients with impaired hepatic function. Which oral ondansetron, do not exceed an 8mg dose; with IV use a single maximal daily dose of 8mg is recommended.


Input: [1] As an adverse effect on her chemotherapy, Mrs. Pearson develops moderate to severe renal impairment. She routinely takes metoclopramide for chemotherapy related nausea and vomiting with success and does not wish to change drugs. Which of he following would you expect the physician to do? a. Maintain the current dose of the metoclopramide d. Decrease the dosage of the metoclopramide c. Increase the dosage of the metoclopramide d. Discontinue the metoclopramide [2]

Output: b Rationale: Metoclopramide dosage should be reduced in patients with severe renal impairment to decrease drowsiness and extra-pyramidal effects.


Input: [1] Mr. Benjamin age 75 develops nausea and vomiting secondary to administration of a new drug regimen to treat his Parkinson's disease. He is at risk for which of the following? a. Increased extra-pyramidal effects b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance c. Prostatisis d. Anxiety induced vomiting [2]

Output: b Rationale: Most antiemetic drugs cause drowsiness especially in older adults and therefore should be used cautiously. Efforts should be made to prevent nausea and vomiting when possible. Older adults are at risk of fluid volume depletion and electrolyte imbalances with vomiting.


Input: [1] The American Society of Clinical Oncology recommends that use of which of the following drug combination before administration of high dose chemotherapy or chemotherapy with high to moderate emetic risk to pediatric oncology patients? a. a 5 HT3 receptor antagonists plus a phenothiazine. b. An 5 HT3 receptor antagonist plus a anti anxiety agent. c. An 5 HT3 receptor antagonists plus a cannabiniod. d. An 5 HT3 receptor antagonist plus a corticosteroid. [2]

Output: d Rationale: The American Society of clinical oncology recommends the use of a 5 HT3 receptor antagonist plus a corticosteroid before administration of high dose chemotherapy or chemotherapy with high to moderate emetic risk to pediatric oncology patients.


Input: [1] A black box warning alerts nurses that promethazine is contraindicated in children younger than 2 yrs of age because of which of the following risks? a. Fetal hypovolemia secondary to hemorrhage b. Life threatening cardiac dysrhythmias c. Fatal respiratory depression d. Fatal hypertension and subsequent cerebral vascular accident. [2]

Output: c Rationale: A black box warning alerts nurses that promethazine is contraindicated in children younger than 2 yrs of age because of the risk potentially fatal respiratory depression. When using promethazine the lowest effective dosage should be used and other drugs with respiratory depressant effects should not be given concurrently. Excessive doses may cause hallucinations convulsions and sudden death.


Input: [1] The ___________ ___________ _________ are usually considered the most effective antiemetics. They may be given in a single daily dose. [2]

Output: 5 HT3 receptor antagonists


Input: [1] If nausea and vomiting are likely to occur because of travel, administration of emetogenic anticancer drugs diagnostic test or therapeutic procedures an emetic drug should be given before the emetogenic event. Pretreatment has which of the following effects? (select all that apply) a. Increasing patient comfort b. Allowing use of lower drug doese c. Possibly preventing aspiration d. Possibly preventing extra-pyramidal symptoms. [2]

Output: a, b, c Rationale: If nausea and vomiting are likely to occur because of travel administration of emetrogenic anticancer drugs diagnostic test or therapeutic procedures an antiemetic drug should be given before the emetogenic event. Pretreatment usually increases patient comfort and allows use of lower drug doses. It also may prevent aspiration and other potentially serious complications of vomiting.


Input: [1] A client is experiencing nausea and vomiting related to non obstructive gastric retention after abdominal surgery. Which of the following would you expect the physician to order? a. Scopolamine b. Dexamethasone c. Metoclopramide d. Ondasetron [2]

Output: c Rationale: Metoclopramide (Reglan) may be preferred when nausea and vomiting are associated with non obstructive gastric retention.


Input: [1] A client develops labyrinthitis. What would you expect the physician to order? a. Scopolamine b. Dexamethasone c. Metoclopramide d. Meclizine [2]

Output: d Rationale: Antihistamines such as meclizine and dimenhydrinate are useful for vomiting caused by labyrinthitis, uremia, or post operative status.


Input: [1] Promethazine (phenergan) a phenothiazine is often used clinically for its ________________ antiemetic and sedative effects. [2]

Output: antihistaminic


Input: [how to spend capital] - any cash in or cash flow out -most difficult part of the project [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What is a cash flow?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] -only if they change when introducing a new project -and if they are truly incremental [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: Should overhead cost be incorporated?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] interest expense [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What kind of finance costs should be ignored?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] not by selling investments -make money by charging client fees -producing products to make money [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: How do most firms make money?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] purchase price + shipping and installation charges [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: How is depreciable value calculated?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] Since using tax accounting you do not subtract salve value [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What do we do with salvage value?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] initial cost of machine - accumulated depreciation [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: How do you calculate book value?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] if sale price is larger than book value [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What constitutes a capital gain?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] if the sale price is less than book value [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What constitutes a capital loss?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] a investment or a long term asset [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: What is another term for a project?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [how to spend capital] -Increase shareholder wealth -Bad Investment could cost the company -Budgeting Process- Short Term -Sufficient Money in the long term [What is capital budgeting?]

Output: 4 reasons for importance of Capital Budgeting?

Finance Exam 3 Chapter 11 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Deductive

Output: This argument has a necessary conclusion. Valid when it is impossible for the premise(s) to be true and the conclusion false. In this sense, the premise(s) guarantee the truth of the conclusion. A process of reasoning from one principle to another by means of accepted rules of inference. A conclusion follows necessarily from the premises, and so if you are certain of the premises, you can be certain of the conclusion, too.

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Inductive

Output: This argument has only a highly probable conclusion. The conclusion always states more than the premises. A process of reasoning in which the characteristics of an entire class or set of things is inferred on the basis of an acquaintance with some of its members. Although the conclusion is supported by the premises, it does not follow necessarily from the premises and its truth is not guaranteed by them.


Input: The premises are true and the argument is valid

Output: When an argument is sound

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: One or more of the premises are false or the argument is invalid

Output: When an argument is unsound

PI101 - Self-Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Fallacy

Output: This is an argument that appears to be sound but is unsound. An apparently persuasive argument that is really an error in reasoning; an unsound or invalid argument.


Input: Ad Hominem

Output: A fallacy using personal attacks. An argument against the person instead of the position; for example, attaching a philosopher's living habits instead of asking whether or not his theories are true.

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Premise

Output: Proving an argument by its initial assumption. The principle or one of those principles upon which an argument is based. The starting point of an argument.


Input: Equivocation (fallacy)

Output: Using a word with more than one meaning. A fallacy based on the use of the same term in different senses, esp as the middle term of a syllogism, as the badger lives in the bank, and the bank is in the High Street, so the badger lives in the High Street.

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Begging the question or "vicious circle" (fallacy)

Output: Proving A by B, B by C, and C by A is this kind of fallacy

PI101 - Self-Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Deism

Output: Belief in the existence of an impersonal god


Input: Theism

Output: Belief in the presence of a personal god. Believes in a single, independent Being, God, who is the Creator of the universe


Input: Atheism

Output: No belief in the existence of god/s. Believers refuse to believe in God.


Input: Agnosticism

Output: Neither belief nor disbelief in the existence of god/s. Believers admit ignorance, and simply accept the fact that they do not know and perhaps have no way of knowing whether there is such a being or not.


Input: Ontological

Output: Proof of God's existence based on the very definition of "God". An argument (or set of arguments) that tries to "prove" the existence of God from the very concept of "God". For example, "God", by definition, is that being with all possible perfection; existence is a perfection; therefore, God exists.


Input: Cosmological

Output: Proof of God's existence based on experience of the world. An argument (or set of arguments) that undertakes to "prove" that God exists on the basis of the idea that there must have been a first cause or ultimate reason for the existence of the universe (the cosmos)

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Teleological

Output: Proof of God's existence based on perceived purpose of the universe. An argument that attempts to "prove" that God exists because of the intracy and "design" of nature. It is sometimes called the "argument from design", since the basis of the argument is that since the universe is evidently designed, it must have a designer. The analogy most often used is our inference from finding a complex mechanism on the beach (for example, a watch) that some intelligent being must have created it.

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Analogy

Output: Explaining/ describing the unfamiliar images as a comparison. A form of inductive argument that is sometimes controversial; defends the similarity between some aspect of two things on the basis of their similarity in other respects.


Input: St. Anselm

Output: Author of the ontological proof

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: St. Thomas Aquinas

Output: Author of the cosmological proof

PI101 - Self-Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Logic

Output: Concerns those reasons that should hold for anyone, anywhere, without appealing to personal feelings, sympathies, or prejudices. The study of the rules of valid inference and "rational argument". In general, a sense of order.


Input: Rhetoric

Output: Component of an argument that involves personal appeals. The persuasive use of language to convince other people to accept your beliefs.


Input: Logic has no emotion involved and is impersonal. Rhetoric combines logic and emotion and is personal.

Output: What is the difference between "logic" and "rhetoric"?

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: If A=B and C=A, then C=B. The conclusion is valid.

Output: What formula do you use to show the validity or invalidity of a conclusion?

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Because God has all the perfections and existence is perfection, then God exists.

Output: What do the proofs of God's existence actually prove?

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: If we believe and God exists, then there is an eternal reward. If we believe and God doesn't exist, we've wasted a little piety but perhaps have been better people. If we don't believe and God exists, then there is eternal damnation. If we don't believe and God doesn't exist, then we receive no reward and no punishment.

Output: Explains Pascal's Wager

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The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: Faith

Output: Believing in something for which you have inadequate evidence or little good reason. In theology, it usually refers to the trust that a believer should have in God's ultimate grace and fairness. Sometimes, it is defended as a rational belief in God. More often, it is defended against rationality. Belief that is not based on proof.


Input: Religion

Output: An expression of one's faith. A set of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe, especially when considered as the creation of a superhuman agency or agencies, usually involving devotional and ritual observances, and often containing a moral code governing the conduct of human affairs.


Input: Faith is the values in depth of one's consciousness. Religion is just an expression of faith. Personally, faith is based on what you believe in your heart, whereas religion is what you do to show that you have faith.

Output: What is the difference between "faith" and "religion"?

PI101 - Self-Test 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

The art of sound reasoning/ argumentation


Input: [2] Strongly disinclined [1]

Output: Averse


Input: [2] Eager to fight; hostile or aggressive [1]

Output: Belligerent


Input: [2] To hearten, support or prop up [1]

Output: Bolster


Input: [2] The quality or state of being brief in duration [1]

Output: Brevity


Input: [2] Rudely abrupt [1]

Output: Brusque


Input: [2] To grow and flourish [1]

Output: Burgeon


Input: [2] Sincerity; openness [1]

Output: Condor


Input: [2] Impulsive and predictable [1]

Output: Capricious


Input: [2] Biting sarcastic or witty [1]

Output: Caustic


Input: [2] Secretive [1]

Output: Clandestine


Input: [2] Convincing; reasonable [1]

Output: Cogent


Input: [2] Logically connected [1]

Output: Coherent


Input: [2] Condition of sticking together [1]

Output: Cohesive


Input: [2] Forceful; urgently demanding attention [1]

Output: Compelling


Input: [2] To agree [1]

Output: Concur


Input: [2] To express strong disapproval of; denounce [1]

Output: COndemn


Input: [2] Easy to notice; obvious [1]

Output: Conspicuous


Input: [2] Feeling hatred; scornful [1]

Output: Contemptuous


Input: [2] A fixed or strong belief [1]

Output: Conviction


Input: [2] Intricate; complex [1]

Output: Convoluted


Input: [2] Enemy or opponent [1]

Output: Adversary


Input: [2] To turn away To make indifferent or hostile [1]

Output: Alienate


Input: [2] skillfull indigenous device Clever trick [1]

Output: Artifice


Input: [2] To compel of force [1]

Output: Coerce


Input: [2] Cowardly or Coward [1]

Output: Craven


Input: [2] Cooking skills [1]

Output: Culinary


Input: [2] To erase or wipe out [1]

Output: Delete


Input: [2] Death, especially to noblity [1]

Output: Demise


Input: [2] So unimportant it can be discarded [1]

Output: Neligible


Input: [2] Make permanent [1]

Output: Perpertrate


Input: [2] An example that may serve as an for later action [1]

Output: Precedent


Input: [2] Inflicting [1]

Output: Punitive


Input: [2] To make right [1]

Output: Redress


Input: [2] Temporary stay or to stay a time [1]

Output: Sojourn


Input: [2] Suave or refined in manner of behavior or style [1]

Output: Urbane


Input: [2] Enliven/Cheer/Give spirit and livelness [1]

Output: exhilerate


Input: [2] Plowed but not seeded Land left unseeded To plow but not seed [1]

Output: fallow


Input: [2] To disturb, worry or trouble [1]

Output: harass


Input: [2] Storm harsh/severe in action [1]

Output: inclement


Input: [2] To ponder [1]

Output: muse


Input: [2] Skillful expert in the use of hands or mind [1]

Output: Adroit


Input: [2] Peaceable/Friendly [1]

Output: Amicable


Input: [2] Having deep seated distaste/Opposed/Unwilling [1]

Output: Averse


Input: [2] Given to fighting/warlike/agressive [1]

Output: Belligerent


Input: [2] Kind/charitable [1]

Output: benelovent


Input: [2] hastly, not thorough [1]

Output: Cursory


Input: [2] Treacherous/Decietful [1]

Output: Duplicity


Input: [2] To praise extravagently [1]

Output: Extol


Input: [2] Possible [1]

Output: Feasible


Input: [2] Wry face to make a wry face [1]

Output: Grimace


Input: [2] great destruction, especially by fire [1]

Output: holocaust


Input: [2] not affected or hurt by [1]

Output: impervious


Input: [2] moving force, impuls, stimulis. [1]

Output: impetus


Input: [2] danger [1]

Output: jeopardy


Input: [2] extremely careful/details [1]

Output: meticulous


Input: [2] looking for past/homesickness [1]

Output: nostalgia


Input: [2] Purest essence of a form/ most typical form [1]

Output: quintessence


Input: [2] To move backward or to return to eariler condition [1]

Output: Retrogress


Input: [2] examine closely [1]

Output: scrutinize


Input: [2] lukewarm/ unenthusiastic [1]

Output: Tepid


Input: [2] to corrupt or make worst by adding something of lesser vaule [1]

Output: adulterate


Input: [2] being skillfull in both hands [1]

Output: ambidexious


Input: [2] to make larger/increase [1]

Output: augment


Input: [2] deprived of/made unhappy through loss [1]

Output: bereft


Input: [2] to position or arrange [1]

Output: deploy


Input: [2] stern, unyeilding, ill humored [1]

Output: dour


Input: [2] courage in facing difficulties [1]

Output: Tortitude


Input: [2] to stare with open mouth [1]

Output: gape


Input: [2] to utter taunting words [1]

Output: gibe


Input: [2] and external appearence or mask [1]

Output: Guise


Input: [2] intended to decieve or entrap [1]

Output: insidious


Input: [2] hint or suggestion [1]

Output: intimation


Input: [2] wealthy, luxiourous [1]

Output: opulent


Input: [2] embolus [1]

Output: a clot that moves from one part of the body to another?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] isotonic [1]

Output: this is just producing movement. with or without weights? benefits are felt throughout the whole body?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] isometric(just flexing abs) [1]

Output: this is when you increase muscle tension without changing the length of the muscle or moving the joint?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] isometric exercise [1]

Output: valsalva maneuver is almost unavoidable in this type of exercise?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] isokinetic(weightlifters) [1]

Output: this is a combination of both isometric and isotonic exercises?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] aerobic [1]

Output: this is an activity in which the amount of oxygen taken into the body is greater than or = to the amount required by the body?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] anaerobic [1]

Output: an activity in which the amount of oxygen taken into the body is insufficient to meet the bodys needs?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] hypoxia [1]

Output: lack of oxygen to the cells? increased pulse, restlessness and forgetfulness are early signs?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] cyanosis [1]

Output: this is a late sign of hypoxia and bluish color of skin/ mucus membranes?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] surfactant [1]

Output: what keeps alveoli open?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] atelectasis [1]

Output: this is the collapse of the alveoli of the lungs due to reduced surfactant?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] fever, increased pulse/respirations,dyspnea, cyanosis,adventitious, breath sounds. [1]

Output: what are defining characteristics of atelectasis?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] hypostatic pneumonia [1]

Output: this is an infection of the lungs tissue results from poor circulation or stagnation of secretions?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] respiratory acidosis [1]

Output: characterized by increased arterial carbon dioxide, excess carbonic acid, and increased plasma hydrogen ion concentration?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] carbon dioxide narcosis [1]

Output: sever hypercapnia with symptoms of confusion, tremors, convulsions and possible coma if blood levels are increased to 70mmhg or higher?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] heart pain [1]

Output: heart pain?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] antiembolic hose(ted hose) [1]

Output: this prevents pooling of blood in the legs?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 20 or more systolic and 10 or more diastolic. [1]

Output: what are the ranges of orthostatic hypotension? how much should s/d drop?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] fibrinolytic properties [1]

Output: this is the ability to break down a clot?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] -stasis of venous flow -hypercoagulability of blood -damage to the endothelium(inner lining of vein) [1]

Output: what 3 things must be present for a thrombus to occur?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] stasis of venous flow [1]

Output: this is the slowing of blood: more common in the elderly, pregnant women, immobilized clients?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] hypercoagulability of blood [1]

Output: this occurs in many hematological disorders, dehydration or malnutrition?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] damage to endothelium(inner lining of vein) [1]

Output: this is caused by the presence of an IV catheter in the same area for longer than 48 hours, fracture that causes damage to blood vessel, diabetes, trauma or external pressure?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] fibrinolytic properties(breaking down of clot) [1]

Output: damaged endothelium has decreased --------------?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] pleuritic pain [1]

Output: this is an inflammation of the membrane that surrounds and protects the lungs (the pleura), the pain is called?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] virchow's triad [1]

Output: the 3 factors that must be present in order for a thrombus to occur stasis of blood flow, hypercoagulability of blood, and damage to endothelium are all called?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] contracture [1]

Output: this is deformity caused b prolonged flexion of muscle, resulting in the shortening of the muscle, freezing of joints and inability to extend it?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] thrombus [1]

Output: this is a clot loosely attached to a vein?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] thrombophlebitis [1]

Output: this is a clot loosely attached to an inflamed vein?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 5-7 30 min or more of moderate intensity physical activity? [1]

Output: how many days a week and min a day should adults exercise?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] 10 min moderate [1]

Output: exercise should be done in bouts of at least -------- min and should be ---------- in intensity?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] -walking briskly (3-4mph) -cycling for pleasure (<10 mph) -general house cleaning [1]

Output: examples of moderate activity?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] true [1]

Output: t or f? the greater the duration and/or intensity the greater the benefits of exercise?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the elderly(with consent from a DR.) [1]

Output: who should get at least 20 min. of aerobic exercise every 42 hours at 60% intensity?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] bed rest [1]

Output: this is a form of therapeutic immobility?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] less need of oxygen by body cells, reduce metabolism, more resources go to healing and not activity,reduces pain(less need for meds), prevent labor/miscarriages. [1]

Output: what are some benefits of bed rest?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] -psychoneurologic -metabolic sys -respiratory sys [1]

Output: what are some harmful effects of bed rest?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] < sensory output, > awareness of limitations,depressions, change in sleep, impaired coping. [1]

Output: name some psychoneurologic system complications with immobility?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] negative nitrogen balance, anorexia, negative calcium balance, decreased metabolic rate. [1]

Output: name some metabolic system complications with immobility?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] negative nitrogen balance protein stores [1]

Output: in the immobilized client, catabolism is > anabolism. this creates a--- --- ---- and depletion of ------- ------ that are essential for muscle building?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] anorexia [1]

Output: this is due to decreased metabolic rate and increased catabolism?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] negative calcium balance [1]

Output: this is due to greater amounts of calcium being extracted from the bone than can be replaced?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] -pulmonary ventilation -diffusion of gasses b/alveoli &capillaries -transport of O2 from blood to cells [1]

Output: name the 3 parts of respiration?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] -decreased expansion of lungs -reduced gas exchange decreased hemoglobin(hbg) [1]

Output: name some respiratory system complications with immobility?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] this will reduce vital capacity(< O2 getting to lungs. [1]

Output: complications with decreased expansion of lugs?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] blood and mucus pool in dependent areas in lungs, viscous secretions, coughing mechanism impairment(not being able to inhale to the max) [1]

Output: complications with reduced gas exchange in the alveoli?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] rate an quality of respirations, use of accessory muscles when breathing, pulse rate(rapid pulse rate 1st sign of lack of O2),temperature,coughing effort,signs of hypoxia/cyanosis. [1]

Output: what should the nurse look for when assessing an immobilized client?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] diminished cardiac reserve, orthostatic hypotension, increased use of valsalva maneuver, dependent edema,increased incidence of thrombus formation. [1]

Output: what are some effects of immobility on the cardiovascular system?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the resting heart rate will increase 0.5 beats per min/ supine makes the heart work harder/ rapid heart rate reduces diastolic pressure and coronary blood flow. [1]

Output: effects of diminished cardiac reserve on the cardiovascular system are?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] drop in blood pressure 20s and 10d with a change in position. [1]

Output: effects of orthostatic hypotension on the cardiovascular system?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] orthostatic hypotension( nurses should use antiembolic hose(TED hose) [1]

Output: this is a sympathetic reflex that automatically causes vasoconstriction in lower extremities upon standing and caused inadequate cerebral perfusion?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] this causes a decrease in heart rate. [1]

Output: effects of increased valsalva maneuver on the cardiovascular system?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] valsalva maneuver [1]

Output: this occurs when a person strains against a closed glottis which causes a decrease in intrathoracic pressure, decrease pulse, and a large volume of blood to rush into the heart?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] muscles do not contract and no longer pump blood(blood pools in dependent areas(vein valves do not work), venous pressure increase and serous fluid is pushed into interstitial space(causing edema) [1]

Output: effects of dependent edema on the cardiovascular system?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] the thrombus could become a embolus and lodge in the heart. [1]

Output: what are some effects of a thrombus formation on the cardiovascular system?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] diaphragmetic abdominal breathing esercises/turning and positioning, respiratory toiletry(incentive spirometer/ball,percussion,)/ adequate h2o(break up sputum)/ use discretion when giving meds. [1]

Output: what are some nursing interventions for respiratory problems?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] make client mobile/ position client properly/ no pillow avoid crossing legs/ elevate foot of bed/increase fluid intake/antiembolic hose/dont rub legs/ anticoagulants. [1]

Output: nursing interventions for preventing thrombus formation?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] superficial clot [1]

Output: these clots are palpable, firm, subcutaneous cordlike vein/ surrounding area may be tender to touch/increased white blood cell count/ edema of extremity?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] deep vein thrombosis(DVT) [1]

Output: this clot causes pain in leg/ unilateral leg edema/ warm skin around area of clot/positive homan's sign?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] sudden onset of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea or tachycardia/cough/chest pain/hemoptysis/crackles in lungs. [1]

Output: characteristics of a pulmonary embolus?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] sudden change in mental status as a result of hypoxemia/may have cyanosis, shock, pallor, severe dyspnea, crushing chest pain, cardiac arrest. [1]

Output: late signs of a pulmonary embolism?

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] oxygen, anticoagulants, surgical intervention, thrombolytic agents(streptokinase=dissolve clots/cause hemorrhage/urokinase=prevent clotting. [1]

Output: name some interventions for a pulmonary embolism(PE)

basics (nurs112) effects of immobility and exercise test 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Retailing] General Stores

Output: carry anything they could sell in reasonable volume

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Single-line or Limited-line stores

Output: stores that specialize in certain lines of related products rather than a wide assortment

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Specialty Shop

Output: a type of conventional limited-line store- is usually small and has a distinct personality

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Department Stores

Output: Larger stores that are organized into many separate departments and offer many product lines

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Mass-merchandising concept

Output: says that retailers should offer low prices to get faster turnover and greater sales volumes by appealing to larger markets

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Supermarkets

Output: large stores that specialize in groceries with self service and wide assortments

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Discount Houses

Output: offered "hard goods" (cameras, TVs, and appliances) at substantial price cuts to customers who would go to the discounter's low rent store, pay cash, and take care of any service or repair problems themselves

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Mass-merchandisers

Output: large self service stores with many departments that emphasize soft goods (clothing) and staples (health and beauty) but still follow the discount houses emphasis on lower margins to get faster turnover

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Supercenters (hypermarkets)

Output: very large stores that try to carry not only food and drug items but all goods and services that the consumer purchases routinely

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Convenience (food) stores

Output: a convenience oriented variation of the conventional limited line food stores

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Automatic vending

Output: selling and delivering products through vending machines

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] door to door selling

Output: a salesperson going directly to the consumers home

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] wheel of retailing theory

Output: new types of retailers enter the market as low-status, low margin, low price operators and then if successful, evolve into more conventional retailers offering more services with higher costs and prices

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] scrambled merchandising

Output: carrying any product lines they think they can sell profitably

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] corporate chain

Output: a firm that owns and manages more than one store

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] cooperative chains

Output: retailer sponsored groups- formed by independent retailers- that run their own buying organizations and conduct joint promotion efforts

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Voluntary chains

Output: wholesaler sponsored groups that work with "independent" retailers

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] franchise operation

Output: the franchisor develops a good marketing strategy, and the retail franchise holders carry out the strategy in their own units

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] wholesaling

Output: concerned with the activities of those persons or establishments that sell to retailers and other merchants, or to institutional, industrial, and commercial users, but do not sell in large amounts to final users

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] wholesalers

Output: firms whose main function is providing wholesaling activities

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] manufacturers' sales branches

Output: warehouses that producers set up at separate locations away from their factories

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] merchant wholesalers can be service or limited-function

Output: own the products they sell

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] service wholesalers General Single line or general line specialty

Output: merchant wholesalers that provide all the wholesaling functions

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] General merchandise wholesalers

Output: service wholesalers that carry a wide variety of nonperishable items such as hardware, electrical supplies, furniture, drugs, drugs, cosmetics, and automobile equipment

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Single-line or General-line wholesalers

Output: service wholesalers that carry a narrower line of merchandise than general merchandise wholesalers

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Specialty wholesalers

Output: service wholesalers that carry a very narrow range of products and offer more information and service than other service wholesalers

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] Limited-function wholesalers cash and carry wholesalers drop shippers truck wholesalers rack jobbers catalog wholesalers

Output: provide only some of the wholesaling functions

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] cash and carry wholesalers

Output: operate like service wholesalers- except that the customer must pay cash

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] drop shippers

Output: own the products they sell- but they do not actually handle, stock, or deliver them

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] truck wholesalers

Output: specialize in delivering products that they stock in their own trucks

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] rack jobbers

Output: specialize in hard to handle assortments of products that a retailer doesnt want to manage- and they usually display the products on their own wire racks

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] catalog wholesalers

Output: sell out of catalogs that may be distributed widely to smaller industrial customers or retailers that might not be called on by other wholesalers

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] agent wholesalers

Output: wholesalers who do not own the products they sell

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] manufacturers' agent

Output: sells similar products for several noncompeting producers- for a commission on what is actually sold

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] export or import agents

Output: basically manufacturers' agents who specialize in international trade

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] brokers

Output: bring buyers and sellers together

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers


Input: [Retailing] export and import brokers

Output: operate like other brokers, but they specialize in bringing together buyers and sellers from different countries

Basic Marketing Ch. 13 Key Terms Flashcards - Cram.com

Covers all the activities involved in the sale of products to final consumers