Input: [c) projective] c. OCD

Output: to date, the strongest evidence for the effectiveness of medication to treat anxiety disorders in children and adolescents is for

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. stimulating neurotransmitter activity in the frontostriatal region of the brain

Output: stimulant medications for ADHD work by:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. conduct disorder; shoplifting and vandalism

Output: from the case example in the Kearney "casebook", the psychologist assessing the 15-year-old derek pratt arrived at a preliminary diagnosis of __________ due in part of derek's history of ________

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. at 14 months of age

Output: when would an absence of separation anxiety most likely suggest an insecure attachment?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. sustained attention/vigilance

Output: 9. the core attentional deficit in ADHD is believed by many to be:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. impulsivity

Output: 10. on the continuous performance test (CPT), Johnny made several errors of commission. what might this be a sign of?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. an overactive BAS and an underactive BIS

Output: 11. according to gray's neurobiological model, a child with antisocial behavior is likely to have:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. overt-destructive

Output: 12. children are at highest risk for later psychiatric problems and impairment in functioning when they display what type of antisocial behavior?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. separation anxiety disorder

Output: 13. which of the following anxiety disorders is most common in childhood?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. conduct disorder

Output: 14. children who display severe aggressive and antisocial acts that include inflicting pain on others or interfering with other's rights are most likely to meet criteria for what disorder

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c.7-12%

Output: 15. what is the estimated prevalence rate for conduct disorder?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. most children with ADHD are within the normal range in intelligence

Output: 16. which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to ADHD and children's intelligence?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. ADHD concordance rates for fraternal twins are about twice as high as for identical twins

Output: 17. which of the following statements is not true about genetic influences in ADHD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. they display higher performance (nonverbal) scores than verbal scores

Output: 18. for children with conduct disorder, which of the following is true (on average) with regard to their performance on tests of cognitive ability?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. conduct problems can be related to an inflated, unstable, and/or tentative view of self

Output: 19. which of the following is true regarding the relationship between conduct problems and self-esteem?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. conduct disorder & ODD

Output: 20. what is/are the most common co-morbid psychological disorders in children with ADHD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. classical and operant conditioning

Output: 21. the two-factor theory explains anxiety disorders as arising and persisting through a combination of:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. panic disorders

Output: 22. which of the following anxiety disorders has the lowest rate of remission?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. the source of the individual's reaction and avoidance

Output: 23. anxiety disorders in the DSM-IV are divided into categories that reflect

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. CD is almost always preceded by ODD

Output: 24. which of the following is true regarding the relationship between ODD and CD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. his behaviors of fidgeting and running around were judged to be within the range of normal 7 yr old behavior

Output: 25. from the "casebook" why was ricky smith not diagnosed with the hypractive-impulsive or combined types of ADHD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. pubertal stage

Output: 26. the onset of spontaneous panic attacks is related to:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. having a panic attack in situations in which escape would be difficult or help unavailable

Output: 27. agoraphobia can be best described as the fears of:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. early onset CD

Output: 28. neurobiological factors (e.g. low arousal and autonomic reactivity) appear to play a more central role for:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. hyperactivity

Output: 29. which symptom is believed to be a specific marker for ADHD (a symptom that distinguishes it from other psychological disorders)?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b.cognitive-behavioral therapy

Output: 30. the most effective treatment for most anxiety disorders in children is:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. sexual misbehavior

Output: 31. an early symptom of conduct disorders in girls is often:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. do not necessarily recognize that their fears are extreme and unreasonable

Output: 32. unlike adults, children with specific phobias:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. washing hands

Output: 33. for a child whose obsession is cleanliness, what is likely to be the accompanying compulsion?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. multi-systemic treatment

Output: 34. which of the following treatments for youth conduct problems is most likely to include the participation of family members, school personnel, peers, and juvenile justice staff, and other individuals in the child's life?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. hostile attribution bias

Output: 35. what term refers to the tendency to attribute negative intent to others, especially when the actual intentions of the other child are unclear?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. relationally aggressive acts

Output: 36. compared to boys' aggression, girls' aggression tends to involved more:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. frontostriatal circuitry

Output: 37. neurobiological research on the causes of ADHD has shown consistent support for the implication of which brain system/structure

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. familial factors account for only a small degree of variance in ADHD symptoms, although they many increase the severity of certain symptoms

Output: 38. which statement best summarizes research on the negative influence of family on ADHD symptomatology?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. multisystemic treatment

Output: 39. which of the following interventions would be most promising as a primary approach for treating a 16-yr-old with severe conduct problems, a chaotic home environment, and a history of juvenile delinquency?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. behavioral impulsivity

Output: 40. children with ADHD who are at increased risk for conduct or oppositional problems are those who exhibit:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. children with ADHD-PI require higher doses of stimulant medication than children with ADHD-HI

Output: 41. which of the following is not true about ADHD-PI?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. 4-8%

Output: 42. what is the best prevalence estimate for ADHD in school-age children in North America?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity usually emerge before symptoms of inattention

Output: 43. how is the onset of symptoms of ADHD best described?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. they are less likely to persist in their antisocial behavior as they get older

Output: 44. how are children with adolescent onset CD likely to be different than those with childhood onset CD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. their parents set firm limits that teach them how to cope with stress

Output: 45. children with shy-inhibited temperament may be less likely to develop a later anxiety disorder if:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. his social anxiety was highest when he entered school, went from class to class and ate lunch in the cafeteria and 2) he demonstrated some though distortions during unpleasant social situations (he thought others were plotting to gang up on him).

Output: 46. kerney case book, bradley mavin (12-yr-old caucasian male) was asked by the therapist to self-monitor several behaviors related to his social anxiety. what 2 interesting findings emerged as a result of this activity?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. youth with covert behavior problems are usually less social, more anxious, and more suspicious of others

Output: 47. among youth with externalizing behavior problems, (like CD), how are those with covert behavior problems usually different from those with overt behavior problems?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. ODD is more prevalent than CD

Output: 48. which statement is most true with regard to the prevalence of ODD and CD prior to adolescence?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. symptoms must appear prior to age 12.

Output: 49. which of the following is not an additional criterion for a diagnosis of ADHD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. completing an assignment of 200 simple math problems.

Output: 50. based on your understanding of the core attentional deficit in ADHD, which of the following tasks would likely be the most difficult for a child with ADHD?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. anhedonia

Output: 1. What term describes the absence of joy and lack of interest in activities that were previously enjoyable?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. are more socially isolated because their peers seem to prefer playing with other typically developing children

Output: 2. when mainstreamed into a regular classroom, children with mental retardation:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. two standard deviations below the mean

Output: 3. subaverage intellectual functioning is usually operationlized as an IQ approximately:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. around 2 years of age

Output: 4. the deficits of autism become increasingly noticeable:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. mild

Output: 5. which category of mental retardation has an overrepresentation of minority groups?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. Childhood Disintegrative disorder

Output: 6. 6 yr old courtland has demonstrated a significant loss of previously acquired skills, following an apparently normal development. courtland would be most likely diagnosed with:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. be present before age 18

Output: 7. to be labeled as mental retardation, below average intellectual and adaptive abilities must:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. high, high

Output: 8. depression in children in characterized by ___ rates of initial recovery and ____ rates ore relapse

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. inborn error of metabolism

Output: 9. phenylketoneuria (PKU) is a(n) _________ that can cause mental retardation if untreated.

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. IQ and language development

Output: 10. the two strongest predictors of adult outcomes in children with autism are:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. 2% to 8%

Output: 11. what are the prevalence estimates for major depressive disorder in all children ages 4 to 18?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. irritability

Output: 12. occurring in about 80% of clinic referred youngsters with depression, what is one of the most common symptoms of depression in children?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. early adulthood

Output: 13. the modal age of onset for schizophrenia is

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a lower than those of major depressive disorder

Output: 14. the prevalence rates of dysthymic disorder are:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. the extent of cognitive impairment

Output: 15. in the DSM-IV, the level of retardation, reflecting a child's degree of difficulty, is based upon:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. overdose and wrist cutting are the most common means for adolescents who successfully complete suicide

Output: 16. which of the following statements about suicide is false?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. do not display general deficits in language

Output: 17. in contrast to children with autism, most children with asperger's disorder:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] 50%

Output: 18. research evidence points to a heritability of intelligence of approximately:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. sensory dominance

Output: 19. the tendency of children with autism to focus on certain types of sensory input over others is known as:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. a threat to society

Output: 20. during the eugenics movement, persons with mental retardation were considered:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. the extent of support needed

Output: 21. the AAIDD (formerly AAMR) categorizes persons with mental retardation according to:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. the parent's wish that the child did not exist

Output: 22. Early theories about autism attributed the autistic child's behaviors to:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. using gestures to get a desired toy

Output: 23. which of the following communicative behaviors is a child with autism most likely to engage in?:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. anxiety disorder

Output: 24. what is/are the most frequent co-occurring disorder in clinic-referred youngsters with major depressive disorder?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. cognitive-behavioral therapy

Output: 25. which of the following approaches has shown the most short- and long-term success in the treatment of major depressive disorder?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. the causes of mild mental retardation are better understood than the causes of moderate to severe mental retardation

Output: 26. which of the following statements regarding the causes of mental retardation is false?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. 1-3%

Output: 27. prevalence estimates for mental retardation in children and adults are about ___ of the entire population

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. children with autism experience profound difficulties relating to others, even when they have average or above-average intelligence

Output: 28. which of the following statements about the social skills of children with autism is true?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. substance abuse

Output: 29. major depressive disorder in children is more likely to occur after the onset of other psychiatric disorders except:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. joint social attention

Output: 30. a child with autism who struggles with their focus of attention on another person and an object of mutual interest is showing impairments in:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. SSRI's can be effective in reducing symptoms of depression, but serious concerns have arisen regarding long-term consequences of their use

Output: 31. which of the following statements is most true regarding the use of antidepressant medication in young people?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. heritability

Output: 32. what term refers to the proportion of variance in a trait attributable to genetic influences?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. institutionalized infants

Output: 33. "anaclitic depression: was the term used by renee spitz in the 1940s to describe the pattern of behavior he saw in:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. auditory hallucinations

Output: 34. the most common presenting symptoms for children with schizophrenia is:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. epilepsy

Output: 35. which of the following is the most common coexisting physical/medical condition for children with autism?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] a. mildly

Output: 36. the majority of individuals with mental retardation are ____retarded

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. 13-15

Output: 37. based on prospective studies of children and adolescents, what it eh typical age of onset for a first major depressive episode?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. internal stable, global

Output: 38. depression prone individuals tend to make _____ attributions for the causes of negative events.

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. the tendency to process information in bits and pieces rather than looking at the big picture

Output: 39. for children with autism, which of the following is an example of a deficit in central coherence?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. autism is more common in boys, more debilitating in girls

Output: 40. which statement best describes findings on gender differences in children with autism??

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. psychoanalytic theory

Output: 41. the earlier and mistaken belief that children could not suffer from depression was rooted in:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. down syndrome

Output: 42. what syndrome is the most common form of mental retardation resulting from chromosomal abnormalities

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. pragmatics

Output: 43. the primary language deficit of children with autism (who develop language) is:

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] c. cleft palate

Output: 44. which of the following is not an associated physical characteristic of individuals with autism?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. depression is equally common among preadolescence boys and girls, but after about age 13 the rate is higher for females

Output: 45. which of the following is true regarding gender differences in the prevalence of depression among males and females

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. smiling and eye contact

Output: 46. a child with mental retardation but not autism is more likely to display _______ than is a child with autism

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. organic

Output: 47. the more severe forms of mental retardation are more likely due to ______ causes than is mild mental retardation

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. none of the above (a. attributes others' actions to a specific intent, b. hypothesize about other's mental states, c. make attributions of others' feelings based on their behaviors)

Output: 48. a child with autism that has theory of mind (ToM) deficits will

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] b. embedded figures

Output: 49. children with autism perform surprisingly well on which of the following tasks?

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [c) projective] d. Ivar Lovaas

Output: 50. the Young Autism Project, an early intensive behavioral intervention for autism was developed at UCLA by __________

Rorsharch is an example of what kind of test?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] It atrophies and dies

Output: What happens to skeletal uscle without dystrophin?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] pectoral muscle

Output: What muscles weaken first with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] pneumonia

Output: What is often the cause of death in patients with Duchenne's of Becker's?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Output: What typ eof muscular dystrophy do you see a (+) Gower sign?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] wheelchair bound by 12 death in 20s

Output: At what age does a person with Duchenne's become wheelchair bound and at what age does death occur?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] due to decreased amount of dystrophin

Output: What is the cause of Becker's?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] onset 5-15 yo ambulatory beyond age 15

Output: At what age is the onset of Becker's and when do they become wheelchair bound ?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] Myotonic muscular dystrophy

Output: This AD (trinucleotide repeat) muscular dystrophy results in pts born with long faces, primarily distal weakness, infertility, MR, etc?

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: [lack of dystrophin] facioscapulohumeral

Output: AD muscular dystrophy affecting the face & shoulder girdle +/- cardiac defects and MR

Muscular dystroophies Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?


Input: Is a G protein a receptor or an intracellular messenger?

Output: A G protein is an intracellular messenger which is activated by activation of a G-protein-linked receptor

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Where can the nuclear receptor be located? How does the signal reach the receptor?

Output: Nuclear receptors are located in the nucleus. Signals reach the receptors via secondary receptors.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Where in the cell is the G protein linked receptor produced (translated)?

Output: Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Where does glycosylation of the G protein receptor occur?

Output: In the lumen of the rough ER after the protein is produced.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Is CREB a transcription factor?

Output: Yes, CREB is a CRE Binding Protein which binds to the CREB binding element of DNA and initiates transcription.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: What does the term kinase mean?

Output: Kinase: an enzyme (phosphotransferase) that phosphorylates substrates

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Can GDP – GTP exchange be a modulated signal?

Output: No! It’s an on/off switch.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Does phosphorylation by a kinase always switch on the signal?

Output: No, it may switch off a signal.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Do cholera toxin and pertussis toxin bind to all G proteins?

Output: Cholera toxin targets and locks  subunit of G proteins into the GTP form (always active) and adenylyl cyclasee is overactivated. Pertussis toxin targets and binds  inhibitory G proteins in its inactive form; adenylyl cyclasee is not stopped

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: Outline the mode of action of a receptor tyrosine kinase.

Output: • Ligand binds to tyrosine kinase receptor • Oligomerization or Dimerization occurs • Conformational change • Autophosphorylation of tyrosine kinase occurs • Signaling proteins bind to tryrosine kinase and become activated (either just by binding or by phosphorylation) • Signaling cascade begins

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

No. It may effect metabolism, proliferation, death, or locomotion.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is a Fossil & why are fossils important?

Output: Fossils are remains of an animal or plant compacted together by the sediment of earths over thousands of years. It is important because it is a piece to the Evolution Theory and helps show the change overtime.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Artificial Selection?

Output: They are traits that we human pick due to it being dominant and strong to be produced or mated.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Fitness?

Output: It is an animals that is able to survive and reproduce and pass its gene on to its offspring.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Adaptation?

Output: It is an animals trait that is inherited to survive with their environment.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Natural Selection?

Output: It is the process in which the animal that is able to live and reproduce its strong genes to its offspring and the animal that was not able to survive are not able to reproduce.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is a Analogous Structure?

Output: Body parts share a common function but are not structurally related.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Biogeography?

Output: The study of where organisms live and where their ancestors lived in the past.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Homologous Structures?

Output: Structures of an animal that are the same as other, but are different.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: [What is Evolution?] What is Vestigal Organ?

Output: Parts that an animal share in common, but is no longer useful.

Chapter 16 Evolution Flashcards - Cram.com

Evolution is the process of change of overtime.


Input: Four areas that apply to confidentiality:

Output: Setting: Extends to all matters of representation Source: Covers all information from any source regarding representation. Privacy: Doesnot require privacy. Use: Covers disclosure (within and outside the litigation context and use by the attorney of protected information

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: Four areas that apply to attorney-client privileges:

Output: Setting: May be asserted i judicial-like proceeding where lawyer is asked to produce evidence concerning client. Source: covers only communication between attorney and client Privacy: Privacy of communication e.g. presence of 3rd party -generally destroys privilege Use: Arises only in litigation

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: Can a client use an attorney's legal services for a commission of a crime? Yes or No

Output: NO

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: Confidential material may be used when the communication relevant to a dispute between lawyer and client arising out of representation - material may be used. True or False

Output: True. The attorney may use the material to clear his name.

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: If the info is generally known, there is no need to stop attorney from disclosing the info. True or False

Output: True

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: client must consent after consultation before atty. can disclose. True or False

Output: True

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: Lawyer has a duty to preserve confidences of former clients and present clients. True or False

Output: True

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: Disclosure: Lawyer is prohibited from revealing "information relating to representation of a client without the client's express or implied authorization. (exception: info needed to preventthe client from committing an imminent crime that threatens bodily harm)True or False.

Output: True

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: A lawyer may not use client's confidential information, if use will result in a disadvantage to client, unless the client consents after consultation. True or False

Output: True

Rule 1.6 Confidentiality Flashcards - Cram.com

(e.g. husband and wife) or two former jont clients of the attorney


Input: located above the larynx Includes: nasal passages, mouth, and pharynx [Cilia]

Output: Upper Airway

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Located below the larynx Includes: trachea, bronchi, and brochioles Considered sterile [Cilia]

Output: Lower airway

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: contain coarse hairs that filter air and vascular membranes that warm and moisten the air [Cilia]

Output: Nasal passages

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Mouth breathing [Cilia]

Output: When nasal passages are blocked or we need increased airflow, we tend to do what?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Throat Tonsils on each side (lymphoid tissue) Contains openings to the esophagus and trachea [Cilia]

Output: Pharynx

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lies just in front of the esophagus [Cilia]

Output: Location of the trachea

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A small flap of tissue superior to the larynx that closes of the trachea during swallowing so the food and fluid do not enter the airway [Cilia]

Output: Epiglottis

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: narrowest portion of the upper airway, Common site for airway obstruction [Cilia]

Output: Larynx

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: spasm of the larynx muscles [Cilia]

Output: Laryngospasm

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: left mainstem bronchus - narrower, longer and leaves the trachea at a sharper angle than the right, horizontal angle right mainstem bronchus, shorter and fatter and leaves trachea at a more vertical angle [Cilia]

Output: What are the 2 parts and purposes of the trachea?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: spasm of the smooth muscles in brochi and bronchioles causing a narrowing of airway and obstructs airflow [Cilia]

Output: bronchospasm

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: soft spongy cone shaped organs that lie on each side of the chest cavity [Cilia]

Output: Lungs

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: seperate the lungs includes the heart and great vessels [Cilia]

Output: mediastinum

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Right lung [Cilia]

Output: Which lung has 3 lobes?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Extends upwards towards the clavicle [Cilia]

Output: Apex

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: bottom, rests of diaphragm [Cilia]

Output: Base

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Tiny air sacs with thin walls surrounded by a fine network of capillaries [Cilia]

Output: Alveoli

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: gas exchange between the alveolar and the capillaries [Cilia]

Output: Alveolar-capillary membrane

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: gas exchange cells [Cilia]

Output: Type I alveolar cells

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: not involved in gas exchange produce surfactant [Cilia]

Output: type II alveolar cells

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a lipoprotein that lowers the surface tension within alveoli and prevents their walls from adhering together [Cilia]

Output: Surfactant

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a thin double layered membrane one layer lines inside the chest cavity, the other covers the outside of the lungs [Cilia]

Output: Pleura

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a thin film of fluid that allows the two layers to remain in contact but glide over each other during breathing movements [Cilia]

Output: pleural space

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the larynx because it is the narrowest portion of the upper airway [Cilia]

Output: What portion of the upper airway is most prone to airway obstruction? Why?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Movement of air into and out of the lungs through the act of breathing [Cilia]

Output: Ventilation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Exchange of gases Carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lungs [Cilia]

Output: Respiration

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: refers to how well the cells, tissues, and organs are supplied with oxygen [Cilia]

Output: Oxygenation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: occurs when the blood is not adequately oxygenated low blood-oxygen levels [Cilia]

Output: Hypoxemia

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the circulation of blood to all body regions [Cilia]

Output: perfusion

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: inadequate oxygen levels in the tissues and organs [Cilia]

Output: Hypoxia

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the movement of air into and out of the lungs [Cilia]

Output: pulmonary ventilation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: expansion of chest cavity and lungs creates negative pressure inside, causes air to be drawn through the nose or mouth and airways [Cilia]

Output: Inhalation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the major muscle of breathing [Cilia]

Output: Diaphragm

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax Chest and lungs return to normal resting size [Cilia]

Output: Exhalation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: rate and depth of breathing increase enough to move a large amount of air through the lungs Causes carbon dioxide to drop [Cilia]

Output: Hyperventillation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: decreased rate or depth of breathing moves only a small amount of air into and out of the lungs [Cilia]

Output: Hypoventillation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the ease of lung inflation have stretchy elastin fibers, low water content and low alveolar surface tension [Cilia]

Output: Lung compliance

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the tendency of the elastin fibers to return to their original positions [Cilia]

Output: Elastic recoil

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the ease of lung inflation Lungs inflate easily because of their stretchy elastin fibers, low water content, and low alveolar surface tension Conditions that reduce lung compliance:elastin replaced with scar tissue(collagen), increased lung water (edema), or loss of surfactant [Cilia]

Output: Lung compliance

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: tendency of the elastin fibers to return to their position away from the chest wall after being stretched Alveoli that have been overstretched as with emphysema, lose their elastic recoil over time. loss of elasticity allows the lungs to inflate easily but inhibits deflation, leaving stale air trapped in the alveoli [Cilia]

Output: elastic recoil

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the resistance to airflow within the airways. the larger the diameter of the airways, the more easily the air moves through it. [Cilia]

Output: airway resistance

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: refers to gas exchange, the oxygenation of blood and elimination of carbon dioxide in the lungs [Cilia]

Output: respiration

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. at the alveolar capillary membrane in the lungs (external) 2. at the capillary cellular membrane in body tissues (internal) [Cilia]

Output: what 2 levels does gas exchange occur?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: occurs in the lungs at the alveolar capillary membrane. [Cilia]

Output: External respiration

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: tendency of melecules of a substance to move from a region of HIGH concentration to one of LOWER concentration [Cilia]

Output: diffusion

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Thin Thicker membranes slow the rate of gas diffusion [Cilia]

Output: Oxygen and CO2 diffuse more rapidly through which type of membrane?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Loss of lung function due to secretions, lung colapse, or bronchospasm [Cilia]

Output: What factors reduce the total surface area available for gas exchange?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Carbon dioxide; [Cilia]

Output: which gas is 20x more soluble in water?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: located in the walls of the heart and blood vessels are sensitive to pressure changes when even a small drop in pressure is sensed, they send messages to the brain stem centers to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate and induce vasoconstriction [Cilia]

Output: baroreceptors

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: controls parasympathetic slowing of the heart rate [Cilia]

Output: cardioinhibitory center

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: located in the aortic arch and the carotid arteries are sensitive to changes in blood pH, osygen levels, and carbon dioxide levels. Main function is to regulate ventilation, but they also send information to the vasomotor center in response to lack of oxygen. [Cilia]

Output: chemoreceptors

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: collapse of alveoli common in premature infants causes RDS - respiratory distress syndrome [Cilia]

Output: atelectasis

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: URI - upper respiratory infections risk remains high because tonsils and adenoids are relatively large, and many children are exposed to new infectious agents in preschool and daycare [Cilia]

Output: Risk for toddlers

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: due to costal carilage begins to calcify, reducing chest wall movement during breathing; 2. the lungs have less recoil ability 3. the alveoli lose elasticity [Cilia]

Output: reduced lung expansion and less alveolar inflation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: due to a less effective cough reflex and fewer cilia in the airways [Cilia]

Output: difficulty expelling mucus or foreign material causes

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: due to oxygenation demands increase (exercise) exhalation becomes less efficient, causing progressive air trapping [Cilia]

Output: diminished ability to increase ventilation

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: cell-mediated immunity, t-cell activity, and inflammatory response [Cilia]

Output: declining immune response

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: release of catecholamines from the sympathetic nervous system resulting in inc hr and contractility, vasoconstriction, and inc tendency of blood clot 2. suppression of the immune and inflammatory responses, which decr resistance to the infection 3. relaese of cortisol from adrenal cortex, which results in altered glucose, fat and protein metabolism [Cilia]

Output: Stress response stimulates:

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a hypersensitivity or over response to an antigen [Cilia]

Output: Allergy

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: dust , dust mites, cockroach particles, pollen, molds, newsprint, tobacco smoke, animal dander, and sometimes foods [Cilia]

Output: pulmonary allergies

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Qdilation of blood vessels in areas affected (increase blood flow) attraction of eosinophils and neutrophils to the reaction site damage of local tissues by protease increased permeability of capillaries, with resulting fluid leak into tissues contraction of local smooth muscle cells [Cilia]

Output: Inflammatory subtances such as histamine and protease released during an allergic response cause the following cardiovascular events:

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an allergic reaction affecting the eyes nose and or sinuses and causing the release of histamine which is largely responsible for accumulation of nasal fluid and swollen nasal membranes [Cilia]

Output: hay fever

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an allergic reaction occurring in the bronchiloes of the lungs causing release of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis which causes lower airway edema and spasms, making breathing difficult and ineffective [Cilia]

Output: Asthma

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 760 mm Hg at sea level to 523 mm Hg at 10,000 feet [Cilia]

Output: what is the range for atmospheric pressure?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: decrease resulting in hypoxia and hypoxemia [Cilia]

Output: high altitudes can cause oxygen levels to...

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: increase in: ventilation, production of RBC, lung volume and pulmonary vasculature (resulting in increased surface area for alveolar-capillary gas exchange), vascularity of body tissues, ability of tissue cells to use oxygen pressure is low [Cilia]

Output: changes in altitude can cause:

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: heat causes vasodilatation which increases cardiac output and oxygenation. heat also increases metabolism which causes people to be more naturally sedentary during hot weather [Cilia]

Output: what does heat do to oxygenation?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: slows cell metabolism (reducing O2 demand), vasoconstriction and slows heart rate. artificial hypothermia is used in surgery quite successfully [Cilia]

Output: what does cold to to oxygenation?

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: oxygen demands increase dramatically, blood volume increases by 30%, requires additional iron to produce this blood maternal anemia can occur resp increase in order to increase minute ventilation [Cilia]

Output: pregnancy factors

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: irritate airways, cause cardiovascular disease, interfering with blood cell function, or causing cancer [Cilia]

Output: occupational hazards

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: chemicals and their fumes - irritate membranous lining of the lungs and airways and may lead to lung cancer or leukemia products of combustion - known causes of lung cancer and chronic lung disease organisms - fungi and mold fine particles - coal dust, and asbestos cause irritation and toxic reactions, in cluding cancer radiation is a known cause of cancer [Cilia]

Output: toxic agents are catergorized as:

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: loss of ventilatory muscle strength, making breathing more difficult [Cilia]

Output: poor nutrition can lead to:

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: BMI above 30 respiratory infections: fat stores press upward on diaphragm preventing full chest expansion, leading to hypoventilation and dyspnea on exertion sleep apnea: chest expansion is limited even more when a person lies down cardiovascular effects: increased risk of srtherosclerosis and hypertension [Cilia]

Output: Obesity

Oxygenation - Nurs 112 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Is a variation of a gene that gives you a slightly different appearance of that characteristic

Output: What are Alleles?


Input: A chromosome is an organized structure of DNA and protein found in cells

Output: What are chromosomes?


Input: The position of a gene on a chromosome.

Output: What is the gene locus?


Input: A change to the base sequence of a gene

Output: What is gene mutation?


Input: One of the two identical copies of DNA making up a duplicated chromosome

Output: What is a chromatids?


Input: The number and appearance of the chromosomes in an organism

Output: Karyotype


Input: Inflammatory state affecting the whole body, frequently a response of the immune system to infection. [Shock]

Output: Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Failure of 2 or more organ systems so that homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention. [Shock]

Output: Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock that results from the loss of blood due to trauma or hemorrhage. [Shock]

Output: Hypovolemic Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock resulting from dysfunction of the heart- either diastolic or systolic dysfunction. [Shock]

Output: Cardiogenic Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock resulting from a spinal cord insult leading to massive vasodilation. [Shock]

Output: Neurogenic Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock resulting from an immune response to a substance in the environment; very rapid and dramatic decline. [Shock]

Output: Anaphylactic Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock resulting from a blockage in the vessels, such as a pulmonary embolism. [Shock]

Output: Obstructive Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of shock resulting from an infectious organism that initiates a widespread inflammatory response. [Shock]

Output: Septic Shock

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Stage of shock where the body uses defensive mechanisms to correct the insult or cause. [Shock]

Output: Compensatory Stage

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: At this stage of shock, the vital organs have failed. Brain damage and cell death have occurred. Death will occur imminently. [Shock]

Output: Irreversible or Refractory Stage

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In this stage of shock, compensatory mechanisms begin to fail and organs begin to fail. [Shock]

Output: Progressive or Decompensatory Stage

Shock, SIRS, MODS Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What alga do Elysia chlorotica steal from? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: They steal plastids from Vaucheria litorea;yellow green alga, keeping only chloroplasts


Input: What do Elysia chlorotica do with stolen chloroplasts? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: They incorporate them into their own tissue for photosynthesis


Input: To keep photosynthesis going what must Elysia chlorotica have? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Some specific DNA (from alga, horizontal gene transfer)


Input: With what algae do corals have a symbiotic relationship with? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Dinoflagellates


Input: What is the criteria for classification of algal groups? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Molecular genetic similarity Biochemical and structural features


Input: What are the four main components of biochemical and structural features for the criteria for classification of algal groups? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: 1. Main pigments 2. Storage products 3. Cell wall components 4. # of flagella, their morphology and position


Input: What are some main pigments of algal groups? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: chlorophylls, phycobilins, carotinoids, fucoxanthins


Input: What are storage products of algal groups? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: starch, fats, oils, sugars


Input: What are cell wall components of algal groups? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: cellulose, hemi-cellulose, silica


Input: What number of flagella can algal groups have? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: 0,1,2,4


Input: Which pigment does all photosynthetic eukaryotes and cyanobacteria use for photosynthesis? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: chlorophyll a


Input: What is chlorophyll a? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: It is the molecule that is energized by light during photosynthesis and which can pass an energized electron on to an acceptor molecule.


Input: How many rings are around the magnesium atom in chlorophyll a? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: 5


Input: What atom do the five rings in chlorophyll a surround? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: magnesium atom


Input: What does the long, hydrophobic tail of chlorophyll a do? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: It ancors the molecule to specific hydrophobic proteins of the thylakoid membrane.


Input: Is chlorophyll a soluble in water? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: No


Input: Describe the structure of chlorophyll a. [Solar powered slug!]

Output: 5 rings around a magnesium atom with a long hydrophobic tail.


Input: What are the accessory pigments? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: chlorophylls b and c, carotenoids, phycobilins


Input: What do the accessory pigments do? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: They capture light energy but must pass it to chlorophyll a


Input: What is the primary photosynthetic pigment in all algae? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: chlorophyll a


Input: How do you convert chlorophyll a to b? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: substitution of a -CHO for a -CH3 side group


Input: Where is chlorophyll b found? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: In green algae, euglenoids and a few cyanobacteria


Input: What is the most notable change in chlorophyll c compared to a and b? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Loss of hydrophobic tail


Input: Where is chlorophyll c found? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Brown algae, diatoms, golden algae, dinoflagellates, and haptophytes


Input: List the pigments from hydrophobic to hydrophilic [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Chlorophyll a,b, c


Input: Caroteniods absorb what colour light? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: blue and blue-green light


Input: What tint are carotenoids? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: yellow, orange and brown


Input: What do carotenoids help protect? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: The photosystems from excess light


Input: What do carotenoids take over where chlorophylls can not do on their own. [Solar powered slug!]

Output: They broaden the absorbtion spectrum beyond that provided by chlorophylls alone.


Input: What is the structure of carotenoids? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: hydrophobic, highly conjugated chains, largely modified by oxygen containing side groups


Input: In what group of algae do phycobilin pigments occur? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: In cyanobacteria, cryptophytes and red algae


Input: Are phycobilin pigments water soluable? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: yes


Input: Where in the molecule do phycobilin pigments occur? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: in pigment-protein complexes termed phycobilisomes.


Input: What are phycobilisomes? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Pigment-protein complexes


Input: In what part of the spectrum to phycobilin pigments absorb? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Strongly in the green portion of the spectrum


Input: What colour do Phycobilin pigments appear as? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: pink or blue-red


Input: What does the ability to absorb green light allow blue-green and red algae to do? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: To live beliow green algae and plant leaf canopies. Green algae and plants do not effectively absorb green light.


Input: What light doesn't green algae and plants effectively absorb? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Green light


Input: What does TLC allow us to do? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: The identification of taxonomic characters and to understand their environment implications


Input: What are karenia brevis? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Toxic dinoflagellate


Input: What causes red tide? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Karenia brevis


Input: What is remote sensing? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Photographs from satellites at absorption wavelength of chlorophyll


Input: What does remote sensing help us do? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: assessment of concentration (cells per volume water) assessment of environmental threat


Input: What are corals sensitive to? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: water temperature alkalinity (pH) silt runoff pollution water nutrient load pathogen infection


Input: What happens when corals are stressed? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: expelling of algae and bleaching


Input: In terms of remote sensing how can you tell that corals are bleached? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: The corals lack symbiotic algae and so have a different light absorbption


Input: What kind of starch does green algae and higher plants have? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: A mixture of Amylose and Amylopectin


Input: What is stored in "regular" starch? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: photosynthates


Input: what is starch? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: glucose polymer


Input: What starch is found in red algae? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: floridean starch


Input: In what algae group is the starch Laminarin found in? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Brown


Input: What algae groups is Stramenopiles found in? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Brown algae, golden algae and diatoms


Input: In what algae groups is the cell wall component cellulose found in? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: green and golden algae, dinoflagellates


Input: In what algae group is cellulose embedded in algin [Solar powered slug!]

Output: brown algae


Input: In what algae group is cellulose embedded in agar [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Red algae


Input: In what algae group is Silica found in the cell wall component? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: diatoms, golden algae


Input: In what algae group is calcium carbonate found in the cell wall components? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: haptophytes


Input: what groups of algae have flagella? [Solar powered slug!]

Output: Euglenids Crysophytes Green algae Haptophytes


Input: What are Alleles?

Output: Is a variation of a gene that gives you a slightly different appearance of that characteristic

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: What are chromosomes?

Output: A chromosome is an organized structure of DNA and protein found in cells

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: What is the gene locus?

Output: The position of a gene on a chromosome.

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: What is gene mutation?

Output: A change to the base sequence of a gene

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: What is a chromatids?

Output: One of the two identical copies of DNA making up a duplicated chromosome

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: Karyotype

Output: The number and appearance of the chromosomes in an organism

A gene is a heritable factor that controls a specific characteristic


Input: [ethnic identity] national identity

Output: an institution that binds people together through a common set of political aspirations, among which the most important is self-government.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] nation

Output: a group of people who identify themselves as belonging together because of cultural, geographic, or linguistic ties

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] nationalism

Output: aspirations for state independence and sovereignty; devotion to the interests of one’s culture, nation, or state; belief in the superiority of one’s culture, nation, or state

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] nation-state

Output: a territorial unit controlled by a single state and governed by a single government

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] citizenship

Output: an individual's or a group's relationship to the state; those who are citizens swear allegiance to that state, and that state in return is obligated to provide rights to those individuals or the members of that group.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] patriotism

Output: pride in one's state; people are patriotic when they have pride in their political system and seek to defend and promote it.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] ethnic conflict

Output: when different ethnic groups struggle to achieve certain political or economic goals at each other's expense.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] national conflict

Output: when one or more groups do develop clear aspirations for sovereignty, clashing with others as a result.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] political attitudes

Output: Describe views regarding the necessary pace and scope of change between freedom and equality. These are typically broken up into the categories of radical, liberal, conservative, and reactionary.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] radical political attitude

Output: believes in dramatic, often revolutionary change of the existing political, social, or economic order. Believes that the current system is broken and will only be improved when the entire political structure has been fundamentally transformed.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] liberal political attitude

Output: believe that progressive change can happen through changes within the system; it does not require an overthrow of the system itself.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] conservative political attitude

Output: they question whether any significant or profound change in existing institutions is necessary. Should too much change take place, the very legitimacy of the system might be undermines, destroying the basic values and norms that hold society together. Change will simply replace one set of problems with others, possible worse ones.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] reactionary political attitude

Output: seek to restore political, social, and economic institutions that once existed. Restoration of older values, a change back to a previous regime or state that they believe was superior to the current order.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] moderate (pragmatic) political attitude

Output: dealing with things sensibly and realistically in a way that is based on practical rather than theoretical considerations.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] political ideology

Output: sets of political values held by individuals regarding the fundamental goals of politics. They are concerned with the ideal relationship between freedom and equality for all individuals and the proper role of political institutions in achieving or maintaining this relationship.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] liberalism

Output: ideology that favors a limited role of the state in people’s lives and emphasizes individual freedoms

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] communism

Output: ideology that rejects the idea that personal freedom will ensure prosperity for the majority. To eliminate exploitation, it advocates that the state control all economic resources in order to produce true economic equality for the community as a whole.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] social democracy

Output: a political philosophy centered on electoral politics, egalitarian social policies, and the creation of social welfare systems

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] fascism

Output: ideology that favors a collective approach to human organization, rejects notion of equality; it rests on the idea that people and groups can be classified in terms of inferiority and superiority.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] anarchism

Output: ideology that rejects the notion of the state altogether. Believe that private property leads to inequality but opposed to the idea that the state can solve this problem.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] fundamentalism

Output: ideology that seeks to unite religion with the state, or rather, to make faith the sovereign authority.

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] liberal-democracy

Output: form of representative democracy where elected representatives that hold the decision power are moderated by a constitution that emphasizes protecting individual liberties and the rights of minorities in society

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] theocracy

Output: a combined religious and political ruler

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: [ethnic identity] political culture

Output: the collection of history, values, beliefs, assumptions, attitudes, traditions, and symbols that define and influence political behavior within a nation- state

AP Comp. Govt. terms from Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural and social characteristics that distinguish one nation from another — especially in the minds of the members of the ethnic group


Input: A G protein is an intracellular messenger which is activated by activation of a G-protein-linked receptor

Output: Is a G protein a receptor or an intracellular messenger?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: Nuclear receptors are located in the nucleus. Signals reach the receptors via secondary receptors.

Output: Where can the nuclear receptor be located? How does the signal reach the receptor?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Output: Where in the cell is the G protein linked receptor produced (translated)?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: In the lumen of the rough ER after the protein is produced.

Output: Where does glycosylation of the G protein receptor occur?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: Yes, CREB is a CRE Binding Protein which binds to the CREB binding element of DNA and initiates transcription.

Output: Is CREB a transcription factor?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: Kinase: an enzyme (phosphotransferase) that phosphorylates substrates

Output: What does the term kinase mean?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: No! It’s an on/off switch.

Output: Can GDP – GTP exchange be a modulated signal?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: No, it may switch off a signal.

Output: Does phosphorylation by a kinase always switch on the signal?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: Cholera toxin targets and locks  subunit of G proteins into the GTP form (always active) and adenylyl cyclasee is overactivated. Pertussis toxin targets and binds  inhibitory G proteins in its inactive form; adenylyl cyclasee is not stopped

Output: Do cholera toxin and pertussis toxin bind to all G proteins?

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: • Ligand binds to tyrosine kinase receptor • Oligomerization or Dimerization occurs • Conformational change • Autophosphorylation of tyrosine kinase occurs • Signaling proteins bind to tryrosine kinase and become activated (either just by binding or by phosphorylation) • Signaling cascade begins

Output: Outline the mode of action of a receptor tyrosine kinase.

Exam 4: 503 - Roberts - Signal Transduction-Study Questions Flashcards - Cram.com

Does signal transduction always effect the transcription of a gene?


Input: What is meant by the term “second messenger”? Give one example of a second messenger. Are second messengers important for water soluble hormones or fat soluble ones?

Output: Water soluable hormone (first messanger) binds with a membrane receptor on surface of cell. This activates second messenger inside of cell. Ex. peptide hormone binds with membrane receptor which stimulates cAMP (second messenger)

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: How is it that the concentration of thyroid hormones in the blood at a particular time can regulate the production of additional thyroid hormone by the thyroid gland? What other factors regulate the production of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland?

Output: negative feedback helps maintain more or less stable levels of thyroid hormones in the blood. (Is like heating in home) when concentration of thyroid hormones in blood is low, thyroid stimulating hormone produces more thyroid hormones.

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: When doctors suspect a thyroid problem in a patient, they most commonly will order a blood test to measure the levels of circulating thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Given that TSH is produced by the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) rather than the thyroid gland, explain the rationale for this test.

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: What are tropic hormones? Give some examples.

Output: Regulate other endocrine glands, ex=thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotrophic hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, lutenizing hormone

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: The hypothalamus produces many hormones, some of which travel to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis), others of which travel to the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). Give one example of the former, and two examples of the latter. For each example, describe the action of that particular hormone. Be specific.

Output: Growth hormone (stimulates growth, cell reproduction and regeneration) is produced and secretes by the adenohypophsis. Oxyocin (stimulates contraction of uterus during childbirth) and antidiuretic hormone (promotes water reabsorption in kidneys) are examples of hormones produces in hypothalamus and travel to the neurohypophsis

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: Women who put their infants to the breast soon after delivery often experience uterine cramping. Explain this from an endocrinological standpoint.

Output: Oxytocin is the hormone that stimulates ejection of milk by mammary glands and also stimulates contraction of uterus during childbirth.

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: How do environmental changes, like pond drying or pond freezing, influence the timing of amphibian metamorphosis? In your discussion, be sure to include all hormones and all endocrine glands that are involved in this process.

Output: Environmental cues affect the hypothalamus which releases TRH which affect the pituitary gland which stimulates prolactin (delays metamorphosis). The thyroid gland releases t4 and t3 that promote metamorphosis.

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: why is the timing of metamorphosis significant for amphibians?

Output: Early metamorphosis creates small frog.

Water soluable hormones (amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones) are too large to pass thru cell membranes, thus can only enter cell via membrane receptors on the cell surface. Fat soluble/steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone) can simply diffuse thru cell membrane.


Input: auditory canal [auditory canal]

Output: auditory meatus

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: carry impulses from the inner ear to the brain(cerebral cortex). These fibers compose the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve 8). [auditory canal]

Output: auditory nerve fibers

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx;eustachian tube [auditory canal]

Output: auditory tube

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: flap of the ear;the protruding part of the external ear,or pinna [auditory canal]

Output: auricle

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: waxy substance secreted by the external ear;also called ear wax [auditory canal]

Output: cerumen

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: snail-shaped,spirally wound tube in the inner ear;contains hearing- sensitive receptor cells [auditory canal]

Output: cochlea

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: fluid within the labyrinth of the inner ear [auditory canal]

Output: endolymph

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: auditory tube [auditory canal]

Output: eustachian tube

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: second ossicle(bone)of the middle ear;incus means anvil [auditory canal]

Output: incus

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: maze-like series of canals of the inner ear. This includes the cochlea,vestibule,and semicircular canals [auditory canal]

Output: labyrinth

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: first ossicle of the middle ear;malleus means hammer [auditory canal]

Output: malleus

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sensitive auditory receptor area found in the cochlea of the middle ear [auditory canal]

Output: organ of Corti

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: small bone of the ear;includes the malleus,incus, and stapes [auditory canal]

Output: ossicle

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: membrane between the middle and the inner ears [auditory canal]

Output: oval window

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: fluid contained in the labyrinth of the inner ear [auditory canal]

Output: perilymph

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: auricle;flap of the ear [auditory canal]

Output: pinna

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: passages in the inner ear associated with maintaining equilibruim [auditory canal]

Output: semicircular canals

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: third ossicle of the middle ear [auditory canal]

Output: stapes

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: membrane between the outer ear and the middle ear;also called the eardrum [auditory canal]

Output: tympanic membrane

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: central cavity of the labyrinth,connecting the semicircular canals and the cochlea. The vestibule contains two structures,the saccule and the utricle, that help maintain equilibrium [auditory canal]

Output: vestibule

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: benign tumor arising from the acoustic vestibulocochlear nerve (8th cranial nerve)in the brain [auditory canal]

Output: acoustic neuroma

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: collection of skin cells and cholesterol in a sac within the middle ear [auditory canal]

Output: cholesteatoma

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: loss of the ability to hear [auditory canal]

Output: deafness

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: disorder of the labyrinth of the inner ear marked by elevated endolymph pressure within the cochlea(cochlear hydrops)and semicircular canals(vestibular hydrops) [auditory canal]

Output: Meniere disease

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: inflammation of the middle ear [auditory canal]

Output: otitis media

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: hardening of the bony tissue of the labryrinth of the ear [auditory canal]

Output: otosclerosis

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sensation of noises (ringing,buzzing,whistling, booming)in the ears [auditory canal]

Output: tinnitus

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sensation of irregular of whirling motion either of oneself or of external objects [auditory canal]

Output: vertigo

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: testing the sense of hearing [auditory canal]

Output: audiometry

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: measurement of the temperature of the tympanic membrane by detection of infrared radiation from the eardrum [auditory canal]

Output: ear thermometry

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: visual examination of the ear with an otoscope [auditory canal]

Output: otoscopy

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: test of and ear conduction using a vibration source(tuning fork) [auditory canal]

Output: tuning fork test

LOM Ch 17 Vocab (Ears) Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which of the following is not one of the three primary objectives of effective internal control? [Management.]

Output: Each of the above is a primary objective of effective internal control.


Input: The PCAOB states that reasonable assurance allows for [Management.]

Output: a remote likelihood that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal control.


Input: Internal controls can never be considered as absolutely effective because [Management.]

Output: their effectiveness is limited by the competency and dependability of employees.


Input: A major control available in a small company, which might not be feasible in a large company, is [Management.]

Output: the owner-manager’s personal interest and close relationship with personnel.


Input: An act of two or more employees to steal assets or misstate records is frequently referred to as [Management.]

Output: collusion.


Input: When the auditor attempts to understand the operation of the accounting system by tracing a few transactions through the accounting system, this is referred to as [Management.]

Output: a walk-through.


Input: Which section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires management to issue an internal control report? [Management.]

Output: 404


Input: Sarbanes-Oxley requires management to issue an internal control report that includes two specific items. Which of the following is one of these two requirements? [Management.]

Output: A statement that management is responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting.


Input: When management is evaluating the design of internal control, management evaluates whether the control can do all but which of the following? [Management.]

Output: Correct material misstatements.


Input: Internal control reports issued by public companies must identify the framework used to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control. Which of the following is the most common framework in the U.S.? [Management.]

Output: Internal Control - Integrated Framework – COSO


Input: Auditor’s tests of operating effectiveness of internal controls might include which of the following types of procedures? [Management.]

Output: All of the above


Input: With which one of management’s concerns with respect to implementing internal controls is the auditor primarily concerned? [Management.]

Output: Reliability of financial reporting.


Input: Which of the following activities would be least likely to strengthen a company’s internal control? [Management.]

Output: Maintaining insurance for fire and theft.


Input: Management must disclose material weaknesses in internal control [Management.]

Output: even if just one weakness is found.


Input: When auditing a nonpublic company, the auditor should obtain an understanding of internal control sufficient [Management.]

Output: to assess control risk.


Input: Which of the following audit tests would be regarded as a test of a control? [Management.]

Output: Tests of the signatures on canceled checks to management’s authorizations.


Input: During which part of an audit examination is the preparation of flowcharts most appropriate? [Management.]

Output: When reviewing the system of internal control.


Input: The ______ consists of the actions, policies, and procedures that reflect the overall attitudes of top management. [Management.]

Output: control environment.


Input: An auditor’s primary emphasis is internal controls over [Management.]

Output: classes of transactions


Input: The auditor’s study of a nonpublic client’s internal control is [Management.]

Output: required by GAAS.


Input: Internal controls can never be regarded as completely effective. Even if company personnel could design an ideal system, its effectiveness depends on the [Management.]

Output: competency and dependability of the people using it.


Input: Even with the most effectively designed internal control, the auditor must obtain audit evidence, beyond testing the controls, for every [Management.]

Output: material financial statement account.


Input: To express an opinion on internal controls, an auditor obtains an understanding of and performs tests of controls related to all but which of the following? [Management.]

Output: Account balances.


Input: The essence of an effectively controlled organization lies in the [Management.]

Output: attitude of its management.


Input: To issue a report on internal control over financial reporting for a public company, an auditor must [Management.]

Output: evaluate management’s assessment process and independently assess the design and operating effectiveness of internal control.


Input: Which of the stock exchanges require listed companies to have an audit committee composed entirely of independent directors? [Management.]

Output: AMEX, NASDAQ, and NYSE


Input: Which of the following factors may increase risks to an organization? [Management.]

Output: All of the above.


Input: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to separation of duties? [Management.]

Output: It is desirable to prevent employees who authorize transactions from having custody of related assets.


Input: Authorizations can be either general or specific. Which of the following is not an example of a general authorization? [Management.]

Output: A sales manager’s authorization for a sales return.


Input: The most important type of protective measure for safeguarding assets and records is [Management.]

Output: the use of physical precautions.


Input: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the design and use of business documents? [Management.]

Output: None of the above statements is correct.


Input: The SEC prohibits U.S. stock exchanges from listing securities if a company’s audit committee is [Management.]

Output: All of the above are correct.


Input: All of the following are substantive tests except [Management.]

Output: tests of controls.


Input: Most audits of a company are done annually by the same CPA firm. Except for initial engagements, the auditor begins the audit with a great deal of information about the internal controls developed in prior years. Because systems and controls usually do not change often, [Management.]

Output: this information can be updated and carried forward to the current year’s audit.


Input: Narratives, flowcharts, and internal control questionnaires are three common methods of [Management.]

Output: documenting the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.


Input: Which of the following is not an element of a proper narrative of an accounting system and related controls? [Management.]

Output: There should be an indication of all controls affecting the applicable process.


Input: Which of the following statements about the internal control questionnaire is not correct? [Management.]

Output: A questionnaire is usually applicable to a wide variety of companies, especially smaller ones.


Input: Specific assessments must be made to arrive at the preliminary assessment of control risk. Which of the following is not one of these assessments? [Management.]

Output: Is management committed to internal control?


Input: Which of the following is not one of the levels of an absence of internal controls? [Management.]

Output: Internal control weakness.


Input: Which of the following is the correct definition of “control deficiency?” [Management.]

Output: A control deficiency exists if the design or operation of controls does not permit company personnel to prevent or detect misstatements on a timely basis.


Input: The purpose of an entity’s accounting information and communication system is to ______. [Management.]

Output: initiate transactions and record and process transactions (a and b only).


Input: A procedure that would most likely be used by an auditor in performing tests of control procedures that involve segregation of functions and that leave no transaction trail is [Management.]

Output: observation.


Input: Internal controls normally include procedures designed to provide reasonable assurance that [Management.]

Output: transactions are executed in accordance with management’s general or specific authorization.


Input: Which of the following is not a common step used to identify internal control deficiencies? [Management.]

Output: Each of the above is a common step used to identify internal control deficiencies.


Input: Which of the following is not a component of an entity’s internal control? [Management.]

Output: Control risk.


Input: Before making the final assessment of internal control at the end of an integrated audit, the auditor must [Management.]

Output: test controls and perform substantive tests of details (a and b).


Input: Significant deficiencies and material weaknesses in internal control of a public company must be reported to which of the following? [Management.]

Output: Audit committee of the company’s board of director.


Input: Of the following statements about internal controls, which one is not valid? [Management.]

Output: Control procedures reasonably ensure that collusion among employees cannot occur.


Input: Which of the following best describes the inherent limitations that should be recognized by an auditor when considering the potential effectiveness of internal control? [Management.]

Output: Procedures whose effectiveness depends on segregation of duties can be circumvented by collusion.


Input: Which of the following is not one of the subcomponents of the control environment? [Management.]

Output: Adequate separation of duties.


Input: It is important for the CPA to consider the competence of the audit clients’ employees because their competence bears directly and importantly upon the [Management.]

Output: achievement of the objectives of internal control.


Input: Effective internal control in a small company that has an insufficient number of employees to permit proper division of responsibilities can best be enhanced by [Management.]

Output: direct participation by the owner of the business in the record-keeping activities of the business.


Input: Evidential matter concerning proper segregation of duties ordinarily is best obtained by [Management.]

Output: direct personal observation of the employee who applies control procedures.


Input: Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of the functions of [Management.]

Output: authorization, recording, and custody.


Input: When considering the objectivity of internal auditors, an independent auditor should [Management.]

Output: determine the organizational level to which the internal auditors report.


Input: Internal controls are not designed to provide reasonable assurance that [Management.]

Output: all frauds will be eliminated.


Input: Which of the following statements regarding auditor documentation of the client’s internal controls is correct? [Management.]

Output: No one particular form of documentation is necessary.


Input: Significant deficiencies are matters that come to an auditor’s attention, which should be communicated to an entity’s audit committee because they represent [Management.]

Output: internal control deficiencies that could adversely affect a company’s ability to initiate, record, process, or report external financial statements reliably.


Input: Which of the following statements, if any, is correct? [Management.]

Output: The NASDAQ market requires listed companies to have audit committees that have only independent directors.


Input: Which of the following is not typically one of management’s concerns in designing effective internal controls? [Management.]

Output: Obtaining the best internal control possible.


Input: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires [Management.]

Output: all public companies to issue an internal control report.


Input: When considering internal control, an auditor should be aware of the concept of reasonable assurance, which recognizes that the [Management.]

Output: costs of internal control should not exceed the benefits expected to be derived from internal control.


Input: To comply with the second standard of fieldwork, the auditor need not be concerned with all five areas of internal control that apply to management. The auditor’s primary concerns are with the internal control’s ability to [Management.]

Output: ensure reliability of financial reporting for external purposes.


Input: The financial statements are not likely to correctly reflect generally accepted accounting principles if [Management.]

Output: the controls affecting the reliability of financial reporting are inadequate.


Input: The primary emphasis by auditors is on controls over [Management.]

Output: classes of transactions.


Input: The most important difference in a nonpublic company in assessing control risk is the ability to assess control risk at _______ for any or all control-related objectives. [Management.]

Output: high


Input: Having an audit committee composed of outside directors is a requirement of [Management.]

Output: all companies that are listed on the NYSE, AMEX, and NASDAQ.


Input: An auditor should consider two key issues when obtaining an understanding of a client’s internal controls. These issues are [Management.]

Output: the design and utilization of the controls.


Input: The independent auditor should acquire an understanding of the internal audit function as it relates to the independent auditor’s study and evaluation of internal accounting control because [Management.]

Output: the work performed by internal auditors may be a factor in determining the nature, timing, and extent of the independent auditor’s procedures.


Input: Taylor Sales Corp. maintains a large full-time internal audit staff that reports directly to the chief accountant. Audit reports prepared by the internal auditors indicate that the system is functioning as it should and that the accounting records are reliable. The independent auditor will probably [Management.]

Output: place limited reliance on the work performed by the internal audit staff.


Input: When planning an audit, the auditor’s assessed level of control risk is [Management.]

Output: an economic issue, trading off the costs of testing controls against the cost of testing balances.


Input: When a compensating control exists, the absence of a key control [Management.]

Output: is no longer a concern because there is no longer a significant deficiency or material weakness.


Input: An internal control narrative indicates that an approved voucher is required to support every check request for payment of merchandise. Which of the following procedures provides the greatest assurance that this control is operating effectively? [Management.]

Output: Select and examine canceled checks and ascertain that the related vouchers are dated no later than the checks.


Input: When obtaining an understanding of an entity’s control environment, an auditor should concentrate on the substance of management’s policies and procedures rather than their form because [Management.]

Output: management may establish appropriate policies and procedures but not act on them.


Input: Disorder in which individuals feel detached from themselves or their surrounding and feel reality, experience, and identity may disintegrate [Somatoform Disorder]

Output: Dissociative Disorder

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Somatoform disorder involving severe anxiety over belief in having a disease process without any evident physical cause [Somatoform Disorder]

Output: Hypochondriasis

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Somatoform disorder involving extreme and long-lasting focus on multiple physical symptoms for which no medical cause is evident [Somatoform Disorder]

Output: Somatization Disorder

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com