Input: What are the clinical signs fo established gingivitis?

Output: GCF flow rate related to intensity of inflammation,

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are some characteristics of established gingivitis?

Output: Bluish discoloration, glistening surface, loss of gingival adaption to the tooth, Plasma cells preponderant, B-lymphocytes, IgG components. Defensive cell lines rather than repair cell lines

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What happens to the gingival fiber apparatus as it is converted to a gelatinous mass of inflammatory cells?

Output: It becomes flaccid

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What can happen to the CT of chronically inflamed gingival?

Output: They may become fibrotic as collagen is being produced to wall off the lesion.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Which shrinks more with SRP flaccid or fibrotic?

Output: Flaccid tissues

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: How is gingival inflammation described?

Output: Duration – acute, chronic, or recurrent. Area involved – Localized or generalized. Tissues involved – papillary, Marginal, or diffuse (inflammation extends to the mucogingival junction)

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Why is most gingivitis first seen in the papillary area?

Output: Plaque control is poorer interproximally

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is marginal gingivitis?

Output: Gingivitis that has the involvement of the marginal gingival tissues, which includes the papillary tissues. So both papillary and marginal tissues are involved in marginal gingivitis

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is involved in papillary gingivitis?

Output: Only the papillary tissue not the marginal tissue

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is diffuse gingival inflammation?

Output: Inflammation involves the papilla, marginal tissues and extends through the attached gingival to the alveolar mucosa

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are two ways that you might see gingival pigmentation?

Output: You might get impactioin of amalgam filings that were deposited during crown prep or heavy metals such as bismuth can be deposited during heavy drug use.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What type of gingival enlargement is characteristic of anticonvulsants?

Output: More fibrous

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What type of gingival enlargement is associated with channel blockers or immunosuppressant drugs?

Output: More mushy and flaccid.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What can be used to gauge the intensity of inflammation in the gingival?

Output: The severity of bleeding and the ease of provoking it.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What might be the cause of bluish discoloration of the gingival adjacent the pocket?

Output: Calculus

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What happens to the gingival of smokers?

Output: The gingival blood flow is slowed for about 4 hrs each time they smoke. This might cause gingival palor that might be mistaken for health.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Do initial, early or established lesions progress to periodontitis?

Output: Not always.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What differentiates gingivitis from periodontitis?

Output: Attachment loss

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is the difference between a sulcus and a Pocket?

Output: A pocket bleeds on probing and a sulcus doesn’t.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is a gingival/psuedopocket?

Output: Coronal movement of the gingival margin without attachment loss.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is a periodontal pocket?

Output: Apical movement of the epithelial attachement due to the loss of the attachement apparatus.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the 3 types of pocket formation?

Output: Pseudopockets/gingival pockets, Suprabony pockets (epithelial attachemt is coronal to crest of bone with horizontal bone loss), and Infrabony pockets (epithelial attachment is apical to the crest of the bone with vertical bone loss).

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What steps of true pocket formation?

Output: Gingival inflammation, epithelial attachement cells experience widening of cell to cell junctions, degeneration of gingival fibers apical to attachment, PMN’s invade coronal portion of attachment and at 60% volume the attachment detaches and sulcus deepens, and epithelial cells migrate apically.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the subgingival zones in periodontal pockets coronal to apical?

Output: Calculus, attached plaque, unattached plaque, JE, Partially lysed CT fibers, and intact CT fibers.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What zone to P gingivalis and AA generally reside in?

Output: the Junctional Epithelium

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Is chronic periodontis a generalized condition?

Output: No. It is site specific and occurs at different rates in different areas.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are 7 different areas with in the periodontal pocket?

Output: Quiescence, bacterial accumulation, emergence of leukocytes, leukocyte-bacterial interaction, epithelial desquamation, ulceration w/exposed CT, and areas of hemorrhage.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What process results in gum recession?

Output: The fusion of sulcular epithelium as it migrates laterally with the oral epithelium

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What causes gingival recession?

Output: It isn’t natural and is usually associated with soft tissue trauma from excessive brushing or from infection.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the cemental changes associated with periodontal disease?

Output: Bacteria found on the roots, Bacteria can penetrate the cementum, bacterial growth lead to breakdown of cementum surface and necrotic cementum, bacteria produce endotoxins that produce root toxicity that is antigenic to the soft tissues and so recession can occur.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is the primary treatment to remove the bacteria laden cementum?

Output: SRP and surgical exposure. The cavitron can remove 90% of the bacteria.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is used as a gauge for required therapy?

Output: Pocket depth

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What dictates the prognosis of periodontal disease?

Output: Attachement level

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is the normal distance between the apical end of the JE and the alveolar bone?

Output: Usually about 1 mm.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What path does the gingival inflammation take?

Output: It follows the vaculature via the interdentinal artery or the supraperiosteal.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: How is the biological width maintained when the JE moves apically?

Output: Demineralization of alveolar crest

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the 4 types of bone loss?

Output: Cell mediated(osteoclast induction), non-cell mediated (chemical), Negative bone balance(osteopenia, osteoporosis), and direct bacterial induction

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: How far away will plaque have an effect?

Output: A radius of 2.5 mm or more.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: In the study of tea laborers how many had rapid progression of periodontal disease and how many didn’t?

Output: 8% had rapid progression, 81% had moderate progression, and 11% had minimal or no progression.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is the normal rate of bon loss per year facially and proximally if disease is untreated?

Output: .2mm facially and .3 mm proximally.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What is the most common defect in chronic periodontitis?

Output: The osseous crater.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the 3 types of vertical osseos defects/craters?

Output: 3 wall, 2 wall, and 1 wall.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Which teeth are lost first most often?

Output: Max 2nd molars, mandibular 2nd molars, Max First molars, Mand 1st molars, Max lateral and Mand central incisors and then maxillary first bicuspids.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Which teeth are often left as the lone ones in the mouth?

Output: K9’s and 2nd premolars.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the 7 characteristics of chronic periodontitis?

Output: Supra and subgingival plaque, Marginal inflammation, Pocket formation, Recessiion, Bone loss (crater initially), attachement loss, and site specific.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What did the goodson et. al. study in 1982 look at?

Output: Trends in attachment levels in untreated subjects over a years time. 83.8% of sights didn’t change. 5.7% of sites significantly deeper. 11.5% of sites became significantly shallower. Results suggest a dynamic condition of disease exacerbation and remission as well as periods of inactivity may be characteristic of periodontal disease

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the different progression models?

Output: Chronic progression (site specific), Asynchronus burst (rits both chronic and aggressive disease), Synchronus burst (true of more aggressive disease)

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the classifications of aggressive periodontitis?

Output: Generalized and localized

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are the characteristics of aggressive periodontitis?

Output: Onset under 30 yrs, otherwise clinically healthy pt, rapid attachment loss and bone destruction, amount of micerobial deposits inconsistent with chronic disease severity, alterations in host’s immune response, familial aggregation of diseased individuals, predilection for black and Mediterranean races, incidence .1-.5%

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are common but not universal characteristics of aggressive periodontitis?

Output: Sites infected with AA, Abnormalities in phagocyte function, hyperresponsive macrophages, producing increased PGE2 and IL-1B, in some cases, self-arresting disease progression

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: How has terminology of localized aggressive periodontitis?

Output: 1923 – Gottlib “cementopathis, 1938 – Wannamacher “parodontitis marginalis progressive” “periodontosis”, 1967 – Chaput “juvenile periodontitis” 1971 – Baer disease seen around 1st molar, 1989 – World workshop “localized juvenile periodontitis” on of several “early onset periodontitis”, 1999 – International Workshop on periodontal Nomenlature “localized aggressive periodontitis

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: How does aggressive periodontitis present?

Output: Circumpubertal onset of disease, localized 1st molar or incisor disease with proximal attachment loss on at least two permanent teeth, one of which is a first molar, robust serum antibody response to infecting agent, strong relationship with AA, organisms are found in CT instead of an organized biofilm

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What findings are seen in advancing disease?

Output: 1. Distolabial migration of the max incisors with concomitant diastema formation 2. Increasing mobility of the 1st molars 3. Sensitivity of denuded root surfaces to thermal and tactile stimuli 4. Deep, dull, radiating pain during mastication, probably because of irritation of the supporting structures 5. Periodontal abscesses may form 6 regional lymph node enlargement may occur

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are possible disease limiting factors?

Output: 1. Opsonic Antibodies limit infection by enhancing cellular destruction of AA 2. Bacterial competitive inhibition reduces AA site infection 3. AA loses its leukotoxin production capability as it replicates (reason unknown) 4. Cemental formation defect facilitates breakdown but is limited to only certain teeth

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What are characteristics of generalized aggressive periodontitis?

Output: Affects persons under 30, attachment loss affecting at least three teeth other than 1st molars and incisors, pronounced episodic nature of periodontal destruction, poor serum antibody resoponse to infecting agents, may be autoimmune related, intensified by smoking, bone loss of 25-69% can occur in as little as 9 weeks

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What does an active generalized aggressive periodontitis infection look like?

Output: Severe acutely inflamed tissue often proliferating ulcerated and fiery red, bleeding may occur spontaneously or with slight stimulation. Suppuration may be an important feature. AA, P. Gingivalis, T. Forsythus singly or mixed infection.

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What does the quiescent phase of generalized aggressive periodontitis look like?

Output: Gingival tissues appear pink, free of inflammationand occasionally with some degree of stippling. Despite mild clinical appearance, deep pockets can be demonstrated by probing

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: What three diseases are develop with genetic leukocyte adhesion defects?

Output: Otitis media, upper respiratory disease, prepubertal periodontitis

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: In prepubertal aggressive periodontitis what usually parallels the degree of disease, localized or generalized?

Output: The severity of immunological defects

Adherence refers to the physical mechanism of attachement via fimbrae etc. and coaggrigation refers to the propagation by symbiotic growth.


Input: Where is histimine stored? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: mast cells and basophils


Input: How is histime metabolized/ [skin respiratory GI]

Output: n-methylation + oxidation in the brain oxidative deamination outside the brain.


Input: What are the effects of histimine? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: smooth mm contraction vasodilation mucas production platelet aggreagation complement activation eosinohphill and neutrolphil chemotactic factors which causes hay fever asthma rash anaphalaxis histime is not the only compound in the body that causes these symptoms.


Input: what is the major cause of histimine release? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antibody antigen response in allergic reactions.(main) any chemical that cause tissues damage can release histimine organic bases -morphine -d-tubocurare


Input: What are the histimine receptors and where are they found? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: H1 found in skin, smooth mm, endothelium, and brain. H2 gastric mucosa, and heart and vessels H3 CNS H4 bone marrow hemopoetic


Input: What type of receptor is H1? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: G protein activates phospholipase c(PLC) which activates IP3 which releases Ca which binds calmodulin to activate myosin light chain kinase.


Input: What type of receptor is H2? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: G protein upregulates CAMP


Input: What are the major effects of H1 activations? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: Smooth muscle contraction in the bronchi vaso dilation and decreased BP


Input: What are the major effects of H2 activations [skin respiratory GI]

Output: positive chemotropic and inotropic effects on the heart


Input: How does H1 lead to vasodilation? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: activates the endothelial derived relaxation factor to release NO


Input: Where does H1 lead to vasoconstriction? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: in the veins because there is no NO pathway in veins only venules therefore they contract bc of the myosic light chain kinase effects.


Input: What does H1 do to vascular permiability? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: increases it allowing flow out of the vessels and causing swelling.


Input: What is the wheel and flare response caused by H1 [skin respiratory GI]

Output: When tissue is damaged there is a primary vasodilation then H1 activates the nerves endings to produces vasodilation in a wider area then it produces swelling by increaseing vascular permeabilty.


Input: What are the effects of diphenhydramine?(benadryl) [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antihistimine anticholinergic sedation antimotionsickness


Input: dimenhydrinate(dramamine) has what effects? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antihistimine anticholinergic sedation antimotionsickness


Input: Promethazine(phenergin) has what effects? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antihistimine anticholinergic sedation antimemetic(antinausea)


Input: Chlorpheniramine has what effects [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antihistime slight anticholinergic slight sedation less than other 1st gen antihistimines *** common component in cold medicine.


Input: Fexofenadine(allegra) has what effects [skin respiratory GI]

Output: least sedating antihistime 2nd generation


Input: cetirazine(zirtec) has what effect? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: antihistimine fastest onset possibly sedating 2nd gen


Input: loratidine is also known as what? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: claritin 2nd gen antihistimine


Input: desloratidine is also known as what? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: clarinex 2nd gen antihistimine


Input: what are some differences btw the 1st and 2nd gen antihistimines? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: 1st gen are much more sedating 1st gen dont last very long 4-24h as oppose to 24h+ in 2nd gen 2nd gen usually require only once a day dosing both are usually metabolized by CYP3A4


Input: What are the antihistimines used for/ [skin respiratory GI]

Output: allergic rhinitis, conjunctivititis, and uticaria(hiives)


Input: What the first gen antihistimes better at than the second gen? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: drying up runny nose because of the presence of the anticholinegic properties.


Input: how is olipatadine used? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: topically in eye drops for allergic conjucntivitis


Input: how is azelastine used? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: topically as nasal spray.


Input: what are the side effects of the antihistimines? [skin respiratory GI]

Output: sedation fatigue poor eyehand corridination GI irratation dry mouth,nose,throat blurred vision increased glaucoma all these only seen in the 1st gen.


Input: [Larynx] Vocal Folds

Output: These are within the larynx. They are folds of muscle in the larynx. They open (voiceless) and close (voice).

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Glottis

Output: The space between the vocal folds

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Alveolar ridge

Output: Bony structure located just behind the front teeth

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Hard palate

Output: The hard palate is a thin horizontal bony plate of the skull, located in the roof of the mouth.

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Velum

Output: Soft part of the roof of the mouth behind the hard palate; when this part is raised the nasal cavity is closed; when it is lowered, air escapes from the nose and a nasal sound is produced

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Nasal cavity

Output: The nasal cavity is a large air-filled space above and behind the nose in the middle of the face.

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Bilabial

Output: Both lips

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Labiodental

Output: Lips and teeth

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Interdental

Output: Refers to sounds produced by positioning the tip of the tongue between the upper and lower teeth.

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Alveolar

Output: Description of sounds produced by making contact between the tongue and the alveolar ridge

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Palatal

Output: Refers to sounds made with the tongue approximating the hard part of the roof of the mouth

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Velar

Output: Sounds produced when the back of the tongue is raised toward the velum as the place of articulation.

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Glottal

Output: Sounds that are produced at the glottis

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Stop

Output: Made by obstructing the air stream completely in the oral cavity

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Fricative

Output: Are made by forming a nearly complete obstruction of the vocal tract

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Affricate

Output: Made by: 1. briefly stopping the air stream completely, and 2. releasing the articulators slightly so that frication is produced

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Nasal

Output: Are produced by: 1. lowering the velum, and 2. (thus) opening the nasal passage to the vocal tract

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Liquid

Output: Involve a substantial constriction of the vocal tract, but the constrictions for liquids are not narrow enough to block the vocal tract or cause turbulence

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: [Larynx] Glide

Output: Made with only a slight closure of the articulators, (if the vocal tract were any more open, the result would be a vowel sound)

LING-201 - EXAM 1 Study Guide - Phonetics Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Contains the vocal folds and the glottis


Input: What are the murmurs that are heard during systole?

Output: Mitral stenosis Aortic Regurgitation Tricuspid valve stenosis Patent ductus arteriosus

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Events that occur during progressive shock

Output: Increase Capillary permeability Vasomotor center failure Peripheral circulatory failure decreased cellular mitochondrial activity Acidosis Urine output decreases

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: When to administer a sympathomimetic drug to prevent shock?

Output: To counter act HTN (as a vasoconstrictor) 1. Spinal cord injury 2. very deep anesthesia 3. Anaphylactic shock

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: When to give a balanced electrolyte solution as a treatment for shock?

Output: Excess vomiting Hemorrhage Overuse of diuretics Diarrhea

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What is the first heart sound caused by?

Output: Closing of the atrioventricular valves

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What is the second heart sound caused by?

Output: Closing of Pulmonary and Aortic valves

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What is the 3rd heart sound associated with?

Output: Inrushing of blood into the ventricles in the early to middle part of diastole

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What is the 4th heart sound associated with?

Output: Inrushing of blood into the ventricles caused by atrial contraction occurs @ end of diastolic period "Kick" that increase output by 25-30%

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Aortic valve regurgitation associated with?

Output: Increased Pulse pressure Decreased diastolic pressure

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Compensated hemorrhagic shock How is progression prevented?

Output: Increased heart rate stress-relaxation -> constrict veins Increase ADH -> water retention CNS- Ischemic response (which increase sympathetic output, increase absorption, increase volume in the vasoculature)

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: How do the following affect hypertrophy in the ventricles? 1. Pulmonary valve regurgitation 2. Aortic stenosis 3. Mitral stenosis 4. Tricuspid stenosis

Output: 1. Pulmonary valve regurgitation -> RT ventricle hypertrophy 2. Aortic stenosis-> LF ventricle hypertrophy 3. Mitral stenosis-> Ventricles stay normal 4. Tricuspid stenosis-> Ventricles stay normal

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Patient received influenza inoculation and went into shock...what is the treatment?

Output: Sympathomimetic drug

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Overdose of furosemide.. What is the treatment?

Output: Replace volume lost in the urine by infusion of a balanced electrolyte

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What can cause increase in left atrial pressure?

Output: Mitral stenosis Aortic regurgitation Mitral regurgitation

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What can cause increase in Right Atrial pressure?

Output: Tricuspid stenosis and regurgitation

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: what is a shock that causes increase in cardiac output?

Output: Septic shock

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: What can cause left side of heart to enlarge?

Output: Aortic stenosis Aortic regurgitation (increased in pulse pressure)

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: In intestinal obstruction what is the treatment?

Output: due to severe reduction in plasma volume-> treat with replacing plasma

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Progressive shock

Output: -Acidosis -Blood agglutination -Vessels blocked -Necrosis of liver -Mitrochondrial activity decreases - Increased capillary permeability - Increased release of hydrolases by the lysosomes - decreased in cellular metabolism of glucose

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Progressive HEMORRHAGIC shock

Output: -decrease in cardiac contractility - vasomotor center is depressed -Acidosis -Endotoxin release -Increased capillary permeability -Active transport of Na/K decreases

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: Burned patients.. Treatment?

Output: Treat with Plasma infusion

Ch 23 and 24 Review book question-physiology Flashcards - Cram.com

Mitral regurgitation Aortic Stenosis Interventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot


Input: aminoglycoside bad for fetus because [renal damage]

Output: CN VIII damage


Input: DES causes in fetuses... [renal damage]

Output: vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma


Input: tetracyclines in a fetus [renal damage]

Output: cause stained teeth


Input: valproic acid in fetus [renal damage]

Output: causes neural tube defects


Input: which amino acids are the nuclear localization signals [renal damage]

Output: lysine, arginine and proline, + charge to bind to DNA


Input: what inactivates cyclin-CDK [renal damage]

Output: p21 p27 p57 mediated by p53


Input: what cyclins, CDK are involved in G1--> S [renal damage]

Output: cyclinD binds to CDK4 and phophyorylates Rb which comes off E2F and can progress S phase cyclin E binds to CDK2 which allows cells to go to S phase


Input: what cyclins, CDK are involved in G2-->M [renal damage]

Output: cyclin A binds to CDK 2--> mitotic phase cyclin B binds to CDK 1 activated by cdc25 breaks down nuclear envelope


Input: what molecules provide the framework for DNA and nuclear envelope [renal damage]

Output: nuclear lamins


Input: what maust be present on a protein in order for it to get into nucleus [renal damage]

Output: nuclear localization signal


Input: what types of proteins are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle [renal damage]

Output: cyclins and CDK


Input: which tumor supressor proteins prevent S phase progression [renal damage]

Output: Rb and p53


Input: whats I cell disease [renal damage]

Output: lack of mannose phophorylation so secretion out of cell not in lysosomes death young corneal clouding coarse facies +/- mental retardation


Input: name a heat shock protein [renal damage]

Output: ubiquitin


Input: what molecule targets proteins in ER for lysosomes [renal damage]

Output: mannose 6 phosphate


Input: how can cells break down proteins? [renal damage]

Output: ubiquitin proteosome, lysosome, and Ca dependent enzymes


Input: which cells have a lot of smooth ER [renal damage]

Output: liver ( hepatocytes) and adrenal cortex- hormone producing


Input: [2] computer [1]

Output: device that accepts input, processes data, stores data and produces output, all according to a set of stored instructions

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] hardware [1]

Output: Includes the electronic and mechanical devices that process the data; refers to the computer as well as peripheral devices.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] software [1]

Output: A computer program that tells the computer how to perform particular tasks.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] network [1]

Output: Two or more computers and other devices that are connected, for the purpose of sharing data and programs.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Peripheral devices [1]

Output: Used to expand the computer’s input, output and storage capabilities.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Processing [1]

Output: Manipulation of the data in many ways.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Output [1]

Output: Consists of the processing results produced by a computer.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Information [1]

Output: The results of the computer storing data as bits and bytes; the words, numbers, sounds, and graphics.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Input [1]

Output: Whatever is put into a computer system.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Data [1]

Output: Refers to the symbols that represent facts, objects, or ideas.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Memory [1]

Output: Area of the computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed, stored, or output.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Storage [1]

Output: Area of the computer that holds data on a permanent basis when it is not immediately needed for processing.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Microcomputer [1]

Output: A personal computer; designed to meet the computer needs of an individual. Provides access to a wide variety of computing applications, such as word processing, photo editing, e-mail, and internet.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Desktop Microcomputer [1]

Output: that fits on a desk and runs on power from an electrical wall outlet.The CPU can be housed in either a vertical or a horizontal case.Has separate components (keyboard, mouse, etc.) that are each plugged into the computer.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Laptop Computer [1]

Output: A portable, compact computer that can run on an electrical wall outlet or a battery unit. All components (keyboard, mouse, etc.) are in one compact unit.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Workstation [1]

Output: Powerful desktop computer designed for specialized tasks.Can tackle tasks that require a lot of processing speed. Can also be an ordinary personal computer attached to a LAN (local area network).

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Supercomputer [1]

Output: A computer that was the fastest in the world at the time it was constructed. Can tackle tasks that would not be practical for other computers.Typical uses: Breaking codes & Modeling weather systems

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Mainframe [1]

Output: Large expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users. Used to store, manage, and process large amounts of data that need to be reliable, secure, and centralized. Usually housed in a closet sized cabinet.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Server [1]

Output: A computer that has the purpose of supplying its users with data; usually through the use of a LAN (local area network).

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Handheld [1]

Output: a PDA, fits into a pocket, runs on batteries, Typically used as an appointment book, address book, calculator, and notepad.Can be synchronized with a personal microcomputer as a backup.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] System unit [1]

Output: Case that holds the power supply, storage devices, and the circuit boards (including the motherboard).

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] CPU [1]

Output: Where the processing in a computer takes place, often called the brain of the computer

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Input Devices [1]

Output: Units that gather information and transform that information it into a series of electronic signals for the computer.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Keyboard [1]

Output: An arrangement of letters, numbers, and special function keys that act as the primary input device to the computer.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Mouse [1]

Output: An input device that allows the user to manipulate objects on the screen by moving the device along the surface of a desk.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Sound Card [1]

Output: A circuit board that gives the computer the ability to accept audio input, play sound files, and produce audio output through speakers or headphones.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Modem [1]

Output: A device that sends and receives data to and from computers over telephone lines.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Output Devices [1]

Output: display, print, or transmit the results of processing from the computer’s memory.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] monitor [1]

Output: forms an image by converting electrical signals from the computer into points of colored light on the screen.

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Storage Devices [1]

Output: Used to keep data when the power to the computer is turned off. Different forms Hard disk Floppy or zip disks CD-Writer

Types of Computers & Computer Hardware Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which period of the simple twitch has the shortest elapsed time? [Relaxation period]

Output: Latent period

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Do the three periods of the simple twitch last the same amount of time in all skeletal muscles of the human body? Why or why not? [Relaxation period]

Output: No, because every muscle has its own threshold level.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Compare the elapsed times for the contraction period and the relaxation period. Which is a slower process? [Relaxation period]

Output: Relaxation is the slower process.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is also known as the "loosening up phenomenon"? [Relaxation period]

Output: Treppe

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What aspect of skeletal muscle represents the elastic component? [Relaxation period]

Output: The connective tissue that surrounds elements of the muscle

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What effect does stretching the gastrocnemius muscle have on availability of actin and myosin binding sites? [Relaxation period]

Output: There are more interaction sites (binding sites).

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How does the length of a skeletal muscle compare to its points of attachment in the body? [Relaxation period]

Output: It's normally in a stretched position due to its attachment.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How does this fact relate to the length-tension relationship? [Relaxation period]

Output: More work is done due to the starting stretched position.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How does the length-tension relationship relate to the arrangement of anatomical muscles in the body as antagonistic pairs? [Relaxation period]

Output: When you stretch one muscle, the opposite muscle will contract. There are opposite effects.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Describe summation and what causes this phenomenon? [Relaxation period]

Output: Increased contractions caused by not letting the muscle relax

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What causes contracture? [Relaxation period]

Output: The body is being depleted of the elements it needs to contract, i.e. ATP and calcium. Also, lactic acid builds up. Simply, it is called fatigue.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What does the term contracture refer to in terms of muscle contraction? [Relaxation period]

Output: Downward trend of work done by the muscle. It is more commonly called fatigue.

A&P: Lab #5 - Muscle System Physiology Qs Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: this principle deals with change. communication is constantly changing

Output: dynamic

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: this principle states that the communication process never ends, including silence

Output: continuous

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: this principle highlights that communication typically involves mor than one person.

Output: circular

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: this principle states that communication takes place in an environment that is constantly changing.

Output: unrepeatable

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: this principle states that you can not undo communication

Output: irreversible

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: this principle highlights that the communication process has multiple parts.

Output: complex

GEB 3213 BUS COM CH2 Flashcards - Cram.com

dynamic, continuous, circular, unrepeatable, irreversible, complex


Input: [What is a database?] What are two types of databases?

Output: operational databases & analytical databases

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] What is meant by an operational database?

Output: operational databases are collect, modify, and maintain data on a daily basis - ie a retail operation, or a bank operation

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] What is meant by an analytical database?

Output: Analytic databases store static data - they track historical and time dependent data - the info gleaned from an analytic database reflects a point-in-time snapshot of the data

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] What type of database model preceded the relational database?

Output: the hierarchical and the network

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] How is a the hierarchical model diagrammed

Output: usu as an inverted tree, a single table is the root and other tables act as branches flowing from the root

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] what is the relationship between tables in the hierarchical model called

Output: parent/child

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] what are advantages to the hierarchical model

Output: data access is quick because there are explicit links between the tables; secondly, referential integrity is built in

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] what are problems to the hierarchical model?

Output: a child record cannot be inserted without a parent table; complex, many-to-many data cannot be modeled without redundancy

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] How is the structure of a network database modeled

Output: nodes & set structures

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] What is a node?

Output: a node, in the network database model, is a collection of records

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] what is a set structure?

Output: in the network database model, establishes and represents a relationship - one node is an owner, the other node is a member

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] what did the network database model do - in relation to hierarchical models

Output: data could be traversed from any side of a relationship in the network data model, there could also be many to many relationships

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] Origins of the relational database model?

Output: conceived in 1969 by Dr.Edgar F.Codd, IBM research scientist, looking into ways to better handle large amts of data -

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [What is a database?] What does the name relational database stem from?

Output: Set Theory

Relational Database Design Into Flashcards - Cram.com

an organized collection of data used for the purpose of modeling some type of organization or organizational process


Input: [Racking] Malolactic fermentation

Output: biochemical conversion of "hard" malic acids into "soft" lactic acids

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Benefits of Stainless steel fermentation vats

Output: allows wine to stay pure vats lasts forever easy to clean

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Benefits of wood fermentation vats

Output: Allows evaporation, thus concentration Adds complexity, especially if malolactic fermentation happens in oak absorbs tannins from overly tanic wine imparts wood tannin into non tanic wine

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Fining

Output: The addition of an agent to remove unwanted characteristics and to clarify the wine

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Manta

Output: Grape skin cap on red wine fermenting

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Pigeage

Output: the cap is manually pushed down into the juse

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] remontage

Output: fermenting juice is pumped up and over the manta of grapeskins

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Carbonic maceration

Output: initial fermentation under the pressure of carbonic gass

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] vin de goutte

Output: Free run juice

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] vin de presse

Output: press wine

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] battonnage

Output: lees stirring

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] micro-oxygenation

Output: introduction of a constant stream of minuscule oxygen bubbles into a wine

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [Racking] Dr. Richard Smart

Output: "father" of pruning

DEN SDP - Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com

When wine is drained off the lees or sediment into another vat or cask


Input: [active cell] fill handle [the cell that is selected]

Output: a feature located on the lower right corner of a selection that lets you copy the contents of a cell or a series of consecutive entries into adjacent cells

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] range [the cell that is selected]

Output: a group of cells that forms a rectangle and is identified with the address of the first cell, a colon, and the address of the last cell

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] spreadsheet [the cell that is selected]

Output: the grid where you enter data

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] undo [the cell that is selected]

Output: a button or command on the edit menu that lets you undo actions

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] workbook [the cell that is selected]

Output: an excel file

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] worksheet [the cell that is selected]

Output: the grid where you enter data

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] absolute reference [the cell that is selected]

Output: a permanent reference to a cell that does not change in relation ot the location of the formula

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] argument [the cell that is selected]

Output: refers to the values ofr cell references on which a function is to be performed

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] arithmetic operators [the cell that is selected]

Output: signal that you want to add, subtract, multiply, or divide parts of a formula

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] formula [the cell that is selected]

Output: a set of instructions to perform calculations in a cell

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] mixed reference [the cell that is selected]

Output: a cell reference in a formula that contains either an absolute column or row reference

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] pointing [the cell that is selected]

Output: method of entering cell addresses in formulas by clicking

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] range finder [the cell that is selected]

Output: feature which highlights each cell or range of cells with a different color so that you can easily edit the fromula in the cell

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] relative reference [the cell that is selected]

Output: a reference to a cell that changes in relation to the location of the formula

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] syntax [the cell that is selected]

Output: the order in which the equal sign is followed by the values to be calcuated that are separated by opereators

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] autoformat [the cell that is selected]

Output: in word, a feature that applies formattin, such as headings, bulleted or nubered lists, borders, numbers, and symbole, to text in your document; a preset format that excel applies to worksheet data

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] footer [the cell that is selected]

Output: text or graphic that prints in the bottom margin of each page in a document, worksheet, or presentation

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] header [the cell that is selected]

Output: information that prints at the top of each page in a document, workseet, or presentation

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [active cell] template [the cell that is selected]

Output: a master copy for certain type of ducment

computer vocab 13,14,15 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [axonal firing] brain and spinal cord

Output: Peripheral neurons (sensory/motor neurons) can regenerate; RECENT animal research suggests that even neurons in ___ and ____ may be able to regenerate to a certain extent

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] morphology (# of of axons coming from cell bodies); function

Output: Neurons are classified either by ____ or ______.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] neurons; glial

Output: Types of CNS cells include ___ and ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] -supply nutrients and oxygen to neurons -surround neurons to hold them in place -produce myelin -help form blood-brain barrier -act as housekeepers, metabolizing and removing dead neurons -during development,radial glia’ guide migrating neurons

Output: 6 Functions of the glial cells include:

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] oligodendrocytes

Output: Glial cells that form myelin of CNS (Schwann cells form myelin in PNS)are called___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] 1. provide structural support to neurons 2. contribute to metabolism of synaptic transmission 3. regulate ion balance 4. support blood-brain barrier by covering blood vessels in CNS w/ “feet,” which holds the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels in place

Output: Astrocyte glial cells provide multiple support functions, including:

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Ependymal; CSF

Output: _________ epithelial cells line brain ventricles and the central canal of spinal cord and assist in secretion and circulation of ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] astrocytes

Output: ______ glial cells swell in rx to brain injury, which is responsible for many sxs of TBI

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] scavengers; are destroyed

Output: Microglia are small cells that proliferate and act as ___ when tissue ______.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] cell body, dendrites, axon, terminal synaptic buttons

Output: Four common features of the neuron include:

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] axon proteins;

Output: __ __come from cell body some are destined to be secreted as neurotransmitters; others maintain the cell.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] mitochondria; glucose

Output: Cell energy is manufactured by ____, taking up ____ and breaking it down for energy.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] cell bocy; ribosomes

Output: Nissl Bodies are part of the _____comprised of groups of ____ used for protein synthesis.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] peptides and proteins into vesicles.

Output: Golgi Apparatus is a membrane-bound structure of the cell body important in packaging _______ and _____ (including neurotransmitters) into _____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Dendrites; receive; grown and change.

Output: _____ are extensions of cell body that increase surface area and specialized to ___ info from other cells; have the unique feature to _____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] axon hillock; one

Output: The axon originates in cell body at the transition called ____.Each cell has___ axon(s) sending only one message.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] myelin sheath; lipoprotein

Output: Many axons are surrounded with _____,a _____),giving a whitish appearance.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] action potential propagation

Output: degree and integrity of myelinated axons correlates with the speed and efficiency of ______

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] saltatory conduction

Output: Increase of neuronal conduction conferred by ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Node of Ranvier;node

Output: Myelin sheath is interrupted every 1-2 mm by unmyelinated segment called ,____ which permits the action potential to jump from one ___ to the next.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] terminal buttons or axon termials

Output: _______are the presynaptic portion of the synapse where electrical nerve impulses cause release of neurotransmitters

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] interneuronal communication; dendrite, cell body, or axon

Output: Synapse is the site of __ ___, where electrochemical information that travels acorss axon electrically is then transmitted chemically. Synapses can occur on __, __, or___.

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Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] resting potential; electrical imbalance

Output: Neurons show a __ __ when they are inactive: conssists of a slight __ __between inner and outer surfaces of membrane caused by separation of electrically charged ions

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] atoms or molecules that have acquired electrical charge by gaining or losing one or more electrons. 1. organic ions (symbolized by A-) 2. sodium (Na+) 3. potassium (K+) 4. chloride (Cl-)

Output: Ions are defined as ____. The four important types of ions are:

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Semipermeable. oxygen and water; K+, Cl-, NA+

Output: Electrical imbalance can occur b/c axon membrane is ___. Molecules including___ and ___ pass thru membrane constantly. Other chemicals including __, __, and ___can’t cross, so they pass through gates.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] membrane potential; diffusion (molecules distribute themselves equally throughout medium where they’re dissolved); electrostatic pressure (particles w/ same kind of charge repel; different charge attract)

Output: ___ ____ is the property of two opposing forces: force of ___ and force of ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] neurotransmitters, neuromodulators, and hormones

Output: Transmission of info between cells dependent on chemicals including ___, ___, and ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] neurotransmitters

Output: ____ are released by terminal buttons of neurons and detected by receptors in membrane of another cell located short distance away

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Neuromodulators

Output: _____ are also released by terminal buttons, but secreted in larger amounts and diffuse for longer distances, modulating activity of many neurons in particular area (most composed of peptides)

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] endocrine

Output: Hormones are most produced in ___ glands; cells that secrete hormones release into extracellular fluid and then distributed to rest of body thru bloodstream; only cells that have target cells for particular hormone respond to its presence.

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Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] synaptic juncture; neuromodulators

Output: Not all communication is mediated at the ___ ___; Other parts of the membrane are sensitive to ___ and hormones

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Peptides and steroids

Output: Two classes of hormones include ___ and ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] peptides

Output: links of amino acids including insulin and pituitary gland hormones are called ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] steroids

Output: small fat soluble molecules, including sex hormones and hormones secreted by adrenal cortexare called ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] glutamate, excitatory; GABA, inhibitory

Output: In the brain, most synaptic communication is accomplished by two neurotransmitter substances: one called ___with _____ effects and one with called ____ with ___ effects.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Acetylcholine Monoamines Amnio Acids Peptides

Output: Name the four classifications of neurotransmitters

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Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] parasympathetic nervous system; PNS, motor; neuromuscular juncture, muscular

Output: Acetylcholine stmulates the ______. It has a prominent role in ___, influencing ___control. It is the primary transmitter found at ____ ____ (all ____movement is accomplished by release of Ach)

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Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] alertness, attention, memory

Output: ACh is found in the CNS and influences ___, ____. amd ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] skeletal; Basal forebrain, cerebral cortex

Output: ACh is located in the PNS in cells of spinal cord and anterior horn and projects to the ____ muscles. ACh in the CNS starts in the cell bodies of the __ ___(nucleus basalis, medial septal nucleus, and nucleus of diagonal band) and projects to the ___ ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] choline acetyltransferase; reuptake; cholinesterase

Output: ACh is formed by combination of acetyl CoA + choline; in presence of enzyme ___ ____. Acetylcholine synthesis:ACh does not undergo ___; action is terminated by _____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] serotonin; Raphe Nuclei and projects to the entire CNS

Output: Neurotransmitter _____plays a role in regulation of mood; control of eating, sleep, and arousal; and pain. It is located in the __ __(in brainstem) and projects to the_______.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] 5HT; tricyclic antidepressants, NE

Output: Prozac, Paxil, Zoloft, LSD, etc. have effects on ____. __ ___(eg, imipramine, clomipramine) block both Serotonin and ___ uptake

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] nicotinic, muscarinic, muscarinic; Tacrine, cognitive; Botulinum toxin; Curare

Output: ACh has two receptor types: ____(movement)and ____(both found in CNS but ______ predominates there). _____ (Cognex): is reversible anticholinestrase used to enhance ___ functioning. ___ ____ prevents release of Ach; Black widow spider venom stimulates release; ____ blocks Ach nicotine receptors.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] dopamine, motor, reward

Output: _____ is a NT generally associated with ____ disorders and neuropsychiatric problems (schiz, ADHD, tics), as well as modulation of ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] PKU, Parkinson's; visual hallucinations, hyperkinetic

Output: Conditions due to defects in dopamine synthesis include ___ and ____. Excessive dopamine produced by coke, amphetamine, L-dopa; can lead to ___ ___ , and ____ movement disorders.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] midbrain; striatum, prefrontal, limbic, amygdala

Output: Dopamine is located in cell bodies of the _____ (substantia nigra, pars compacta, and ventral tegmental) and projected to ___, ___, ___, and ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] nigrostriatal, mesolimbic, mesocortical

Output: Three well known pathways of dopamine include:

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] antipsychotics, dopamine, L-dopa

Output: Most ______ work primarily on _____(eg, Haldol, Thorazine, Clozaril, Risperdal), as does _____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Phenyalanine to tyrosine to DOPA to Dopamine (tyrosine hydroxylase rate-limiting) Terminate process: reuptake, monoamine oxidase (MAO), etc.

Output: How is dopamine synthesized? The termination process includes _____ and ______.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] norepinepherine;vigilance, sexual, appetite

Output: Functions of NT _____are complex, but probably helps regulate mood, memory, hormones, blood flow, and motor behavior. Also thought to increase ____, role in ___behavior and control of ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] locus ceruleus; projected to the entire CNS

Output: Norepinepherine located in the ___ ___ (pons)and projected into ______.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] serotonin and NE

Output: Tricyclic antidepressants (eg, imipramine, clomipramine) block both ____ and ___uptake.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Epinepherine (adrenalin; sympathetic)

Output: ___ is a hormone produced by adrenal medulla. Also produced in brain, but minor importance compared with NE. Stimulates ____ division of ANS to produce “flight or fight.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] GABA, glutamate, glycine

Output: Three amino acids are ___. ___. and ___.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Glycine, interneurons; strychnine.

Output: - Inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord and lower brain _____ is an amino acid that may play a modulatory role at ___ in cord. It is blocked by ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Peptides, enzymes

Output: ____ project to entire CNS; no mechanism for reuptake once released; deactivated by ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Enkephalin

Output: Peptide with physiological roles including pain perception, stress, respiratory regulation, temperature control, tolerance development.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] glutamate, excitatory, learning, memory;excitotoxicity

Output: ____is an amino acide where cell bodies in entire CNS project to entire CNS. Principal ______ transmitter substance in brain and cord. Implicated in neural plasticity, ___, and ___. Excessive activity associated with ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] NMDA

Output: Four types of glutamate receptors, one bing ____ receptor.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] inhibitory; sedative, anticonvulsant; stimulating, decreased

Output: GABA cell bodies in entire CNS project to entire CNS. Principal ____transmitter substance in brain and cord. Enhanced activity produces _____, anxiolytic, and ___ effects. Benzodiazepines (eg, diazepam/valium, xanax, ativan) thought to work by ____GABA. Markedly _____ in Huntington’s disease.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Substance P

Output: Peptide that is the mediator of inflammation, as well as a neurotransmitter in primary afferent fibers carrying pain signals.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] Vasopressin; memory

Output: _____(aka antidiuretic hormone); acts peripherally to facilitate water reabsorption by kidneys; may play a role in ____consolidation.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] heat, pain, sleep; cortex

Output: Somatostatin is a peptide involved in the modulation of ___, ___, and ___. Also reduced in ____ of Alz pts.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: [axonal firing] vasoconstrictor; drinking

Output: Angiotensin II is a peptide involved in potent _____ activity in periphery; central actions include stimulation of pressor responses and ____.

CNS Cellular Organization and Neurotransmitters Flashcards - Cram.com

Neurons communicate primarily through _____.


Input: TINY CELL STRUCTURE [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: ORGANELLE

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: BASIC UNIT OF STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION IN A LIVING THING [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: CELL

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: OUTER MOST BOUNDARY OF A PLANT AND BACTERIAL CELLS THAT IS MADE OF CELLULOSE [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: CELL WALL

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: THIN, FLEXIBLE ENVELOP THAT SURROUNDS THE CELL [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: CELL MEMBRANE

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: CELL STRUCTURE THAT DIRECTS ALL THE ACTIVITIES OF A CELL [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: NUCLEUS

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ROD-SHAPED CELL STRUCTURE THAT DIRECTS THE ACTIVITIES OF A CELL AND PASSES ON THE TRAITS OF A CELL TO NEW CELLS [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: CHROMOSOME

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ALL THE PROTOPLASM, OR LIVING MATERIAL, OUTSIDE THE NUCLEUS OF A CELL [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: CYTOPLASM

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Input: CLEAR TUBULAR PASSAGEWAY LEADING OUT FROM THE NUCLEAR MEMBRANE THAT IS INVOLVED IN THE TRANSPORT OF PROTEINS [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GRAINLIKE BODY MADE UP OF RNA AND ATTACHED TO THE INNER SURFACE OF AN ENDOPLASMIC PASSAGEWAY; A PROTEIN-MAKING SITE OF THE CELL [THE CELL THEORY]

Output: RIBOSOME

PRENTICE HALL LIFE SCIENCE CHAPTER 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Straight Leg Raise (Nerve Root Traction Test)

Output: Doctor elevates the patient's symptomatic leg with the knee extended. (One had on top of the knee ensures extension). Elevate the leg until the patient reports pain, or flexion of the knee occurs. Note the approximate angle at which leg pain is provoked. Ask patient to point to site of pain (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: traction of the sciatic nerve/nerve roots, or hamstring dysfunction Note: Other tests must be performed to ascertain which tissue is responsible

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Sicard's Test (Nerve Root Traction Test)

Output: Perform the SLR, lower the leg below the angle of pain and dorsiflex the great toe (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Braggard's Test (Nerve Root Traction Test)

Output: Following a positive SLR, lower the leg until the pain eases, then dorsiflex the foot (Note: a positive finding rules out hamstring, SI or hip as tissue of causation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication:sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Well Leg Raise (Nerve Root Traction Test)

Output: Raise the NON-symptomatic leg as per SLR. The leg is then lowered below the point of pain and foot is DORSIflexed (+): exacerbation of pain in the posterior aspect of the symptomatic leg at any point in this test Indication" nerve root lesion suggesting MEDIAL disc herniation

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Lindner's Sign (Nerve Root Traction Test)

Output: The examiner flexes the patient's cervical and thoracic spine into flexion. Note exacerbation of low back and radiating pain Present: exacerbation of pain in the posterior aspect of the symptomatic leg upon cervical flexion, or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic radiculopathy, particularly indication of LATERAL disc herniation

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Bowstring Sign (Differential Diagnosis of Radiculopathy from Other Conditions)

Output: 1. SLR that is (+) 2. While maintaining the symptomatic angle, the leg is flexed at the knee with the ankle resting on the examiner's shoulder 3. If the pain is reported to reduce with this move, the Dr exerts firm pressure at the tendons of each of the HS individually, then to the popliteal fossa to compress the sciatic nerve Present: Pain - Popliteal Fossa: pain in the lumbar region suggests radiculopathy - Along sciatic distribution suggests sciatic neuritis - HS tendon: assists in confirmation of hamstrings as source of leg pain in reproduced with tendon palpation (If this is performed seated, it is known as Deyerle's sign)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Piriformis Stretch Test (Piriformis Evaluation)

Output: Perform as per Hibb's test, but with stabilization of the contralateral SI joint and additional pressure upon internal rotation of the hip (may be performed side-lying) (+): exacerbation of sciatic symptoms (classic positive- patient presents with shootin pain down leg or tight feeling in gluts) Indication: piriformis entrapment of the sciatic nerve

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Bonnet's Test (Piriformis Evaluation)

Output: 1. Doctor performs SLR- at onset of pain 2. The doctor then externally rotates the patient's hip 3. Then the doctor internally rotates the patient's hip and slightly adducts the lower extremity (+): decrease in sciatic pain upon EXTERNAL rotation, increase in sciatic pain upon INTERNAL rotation and adduction Indication: piriformis entrapment of sciatic nerve

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Godthwaite Test (Differentiating Lumbar from SI Joint Involvement)

Output: Patient is supine, the examiner performs an SLR while palpating the L5-S1 junction (Order: Ipsilateral FA > ipsilateral SI > LS > contralateral SI > contralateral FA) (+): pain before the LS junction opens or pain when the LS junction moves Indication: sacroiliac lesion or LS lesion respectively

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Smith-Petersen (Differentiating Lumbar from SI Joint Involvement)

Output: Following a positive Goldthwaite test, a SLR is performed on the asymptomatic side. (No palpation of the LS junction). The angle of SLR is compared to the positive Goldthwaite test Indication: the well leg must be elevated higher than the symptomatic side in Goldthwaite, to confirm contralateral SI joint lesion. If raised to the same height, suggests LS lesion

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Double Leg Raise (Bilateral Straight Leg Raise) (Differentiating Lumbar from SI Joint Involvement)

Output: Patient is supine. Perform a SLR on one leg and then on the other, note the angles at which the pain begins. Next, left both legs simultaneously and note the angle at which the pain begins. (Follows Goldthwaite test) (+): reproduction of LS pain at a lesser angle than with individual SLRs Indication: lumbosacral joint involvement (sprain, disc disease)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Minor's Sign (Seated Tests)

Output: Observe the patient while rising form a seated position Present: the use of patient's arms while rising (pushing off chair arms, their own knees) and maintenance of the affected leg in flexion by leaning forward Indication: non-specific indicator of the presence of pain of low back or lumbopelvic origin

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Bechterew's Test (Seated Tests)

Output: Instruct the patient to extend the symptomatic leg (symptomatic leg first!), lower it, then repeat with the opposite leg. If no exacerbation of pain is elicited then instruct the patient to extend both knees simultaneously. (+) may be 1. Same as SLR 2. Same as WLR 3. Assumption of tripod position with patient leaning back on the hands Indication: interpreted as per SLR and WLR

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Kemp's Test (Seated Tests)

Output: Note antalgic position first. With the patient seated, contact the low back at the site of pain. Bring the patient's upper body into extension, ipsilateral lateral flexion and rotation simultaneously. Note any exacerbation of pain in the low back or leg (+) - Increase or recurrence of radiating pain into LE extremity confirms radiculopathy - In the seated position, preload on the disc is increased Facet Syndrome: local pain may indicate facet syndrome (dull, boring, achy pain). In standing position, weight bearing by the facet is increased

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Adam's Test (Standing Tests)

Output: 1. Observe patient with structural scoliosis standing (look for scapular winging, rib humping, iliac crest higher) 2. Then patient is asked to flex forward at the waist. Dr. observes patient's back for signs of structural change (+): 1. Resolution of structural findings, 2. No resolution of structural findings Indication: 1. Resolution of functional scoliosis, 2. Non-resolution = structural scoliosis

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Belt Test (Standing Tests)

Output: Instruct the patient to bend fully forward toward their toes and note when the onset of pain begins. Repeat the maneuver again while the examiner stands behind the patient and blocks SI joint motion by supporting the sacrum with their thigh or hip and pulling backward on the patient's ASIS bilaterally. This prevents flexion below the level of the LS junction (+): decrease in pain upon supported flexion Indication: decrease in pain indicates the source of pain in the unsupported motion was sacroiliac

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Neri's Sign (Bowing Sign) (Standing Tests)

Output: The patient stands and bends forward from the waist (bowing) Present: occurs when the patient's affected leg flexes at the knee and patient reports a reproduction of the LE complaint in this position Indication: sciatic radiculopathy or hamstring spasm

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Lewin's Standing Test (Standing Tests)

Output: If the patient's knee is flexed when standing normally, or with performance of Neri's test, the examiner stabilizes the patient's pelvis then attempts to pull the flexed knee back into extension (+): increase in posterior leg pain or inability to keep leg straight Indication: sciatic radiculopathy hamstring spasm

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Advancement Test (Standing Tests)

Output: The patient bends forward to elicit pain into the leg. The patient is then asked to advance the SYMPTOMATIC leg one step and bend forward again (+): reproduction of the radiating pain with less trunk flexion than before Indication: sciatic radiculopathy (neuropathy/hamstring)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Nachlas Test (Prone Tests)

Output: Approximate the patient's heel to the IPSILATERAL buttock. Ask the patient to localize the site of pain (+): pain localized by patient Indication: the area the pain points indicates the site of involvement (SI vs. Lumbar). Pain radiating down the anterior thigh indicates femoral nerve/root irritation. Pain in LB may be facet syndrome

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Ely's Sign (Prone Tests)

Output: Upon performance of the Nachlas test, "hunching of the pelvis occurs) Present: hunching of the pelvis Indication: tightness of the 2-joint hip flexors (rectus femoris and TFL)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Ely's Heel to Buttock Test (Prone Tests)

Output: The examiner approximates the patient's heel to the OPPOSITE buttock (+): inability to perform the movement or pain upon approximation Indication: hip joint lesion, SI, lumbar, iliopsoas (if Ely's sign is present) or femoral nerve root irritation (adding external rotation stresses the hip joint)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Gaenslen's Test (SI Tests)

Output: With the patient's side close to the edge of the examining table, instruct the patient to grasp the opposite knee (contact underneath is preferred) and approximate it to the chest. The examiner then gently lowers the affected side off the edge of the table (+): SI joint pain Indication: SI joint lesion

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Lewin-Gaenslen Test (SI Tests)

Output: The identical test performed with the patient in the side lying position while the Dr stabilizes the pelvis. It has the additional advantage of allowing the examiner to palpate the SI joints (+): SI joint pain Indication: same as Gaenslen (SI joint lesion)

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation


Input: Erichsen's Sign (SI Tests)

Output: With the patient prone, firm pressure is applied toward the midline (Dr. uses soft contact lateral to the PSIS) Present: SI joint pain Indication: SI joint lesion

Orthopedic Tests: Lumbar and Pelvic Evaluation Flashcards - Cram.com

Dorsiflex the great toe while the leg is at rest (no elevation) (+): sharp shooting pain down back of leg or exacerbation of LE complaint Indication: sciatic nerve/root traction/irritation