Input: [Hemoglobin] Antibody

Output: made of two chains heavy and light

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Number of immunoglobulin domains make up the light chains and the heavy chains

Output: each have two domains

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Immunoglobulin Structure

Output: made up of beta sheets

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Disulfide Bond

Output: sulfur forms this bond from the amino acid side chain

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Antibodies are...

Output: glycoproteins- they have associated carbohydrate groups

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Antigen binding sites on antibodies

Output: - on the tips of the Y - two identical antigen binding paratopes

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] How many sialic acids bind to a single hemagglutinin protein and what protein secondary structure predominates in the region where this binding takes place?

Output: 3 sialic acids bind to single hemagglutinin protein on a beta secondary structure of the hemagglutinin

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Hydrogen bonds is formed between...

Output: Arg side chains and sialic acid

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Chi Square Test

Output: X^2 = Sum of (obs-exp)^2 / exp observed is what you found in the experiment degrees of freedom is one less than the number of categories you had Appropriate to use to compare data from one sample to a hypothesis about the example ex. testing that hypothesis that 20 percent of people are left-handed or that the sex ration at birth is 50/50

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] T test

Output: used to compare data for two different samples ex. comparing heartbeat rates of two samples of mice that did and did not recieve a drug or lifespan of males versus female If the test statistic t from your data is larger than the critical value of t in Table 2, then you reject your "no-difference" hypothesis and conclude that the two samples were significantly different. If your t is smaller than the critical t, you must accept the "no-difference" hypothesis and conclude that the two samples were not significantly different from each other.

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Space between the atoms in DNA

Output: very small

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Codons

Output: made of 3 nucleotides

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Transduction

Output: DNA is transferred form one prokaryotic cell to another as a consequence of rare formation of an aberrant phage viron in some or all of its normal DNA is replaced by bacterial DNA

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Conjugation

Output: genetic exchange occurs between cells in direct contact with one another by a process encoded by plasmid-borne genes

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Transformation

Output: DNA is released from cells into the surrounding medium and recipient cells incorporate it into themselves from solution

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Thymus

Output: home to lymphocytes and macrophages (white blood cell that engulfs other cells)

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Spleen

Output: blood filter destroys aged or damaged blood cells

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Lymph Node

Output: lymph draining back to the bloodstream is filtered as it passes through the node

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Bone Marrow

Output: Hematopoiesis- process by which various blood cells types develop from precursor cells site for removal of aged and defective erythrocytes (red blood cells)

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Leukocyte

Output: white blood cell Neutrophil- fight bacterial/viral infection Lymphocytes- made up of antibody secreting B cells and T helper and T Killer cells Monocytes- Fight parasitic infection Basophils- Important in allergic responses STUDY PICTURES OF EACH CELL

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Erythrocytes

Output: red blood cells

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Immunoflourescent (IMF)

Output: involves the use of flourescently tagged antibodies to stain specific proteins that are then viewed on a flourescent microscope

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Agglutination

Output: with blood type testing this means that the specific antibody is binding to its antigen on your red blood cells and therefore cross-linking the red blood cells into clumps (recall that antibodies have two identical antigen binding sites)

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] PCR

Output: mass replication of a sequence of DNA

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Gram Positive Bacteria

Output: Purple/ blue thick peptidoglycan layer

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: [Hemoglobin] Gram Negative Bacteria

Output: Red/pink thin peptidoglycan layer

Made up of CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) Dominated by Alpa Helices Hydrogen Bonds are needed to keep the alpha helices together


Input: Genetic information of eukaryotic cells is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: rna


Input: Which of the following statements is true? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Each amino acid in a protein is coded for by three bases in the DNA.


Input: When RNA is being made, the RNA base _____ always pairs with the base _____ in DNA. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: U...A


Input: Generally speaking, how many genetic codes are there? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: one Correct. Although slight variations do exist, the genetic code is universal. Nearly all organisms use the same genetic code to translate mRNA to protein.


Input: What mRNA codon would be made from the DNA triplet CGT? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: GCA


Input: The number of nucleotide bases "read" together on the mRNA to designate each amino acid is _____; this unit is called a(n) _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: three...codon


Input: In many cases, more than one codon codes for the same amino acid. Because of this, we say that the code is _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: redundant


Input: Bacteria can transcribe and translate human genes to produce functional human proteins because _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the genetic code is nearly universal


Input: In a eukaryotic cell, transcription takes place _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: in the nucleus


Input: Which of the following best describes the arrangement of genetic information in a DNA molecule? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the three-nucleotide words of a gene are arranged in a nonoverlapping series on the DNA template strand.


Input: At one point, as a cell carried out its day-to-day activities, the nucleotides GAT were paired with the nucleotides CUA. This pairing occurred _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: during transcription


Input: Which of the following catalyzes the linkage between ribonucleotides to form RNA during gene expression? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: RNA polymerase


Input: In eukaryotic cells, a terminator in mRNA synthesis is [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that signals the RNA polymerase to stop


Input: During the transcription of a given portion of a DNA molecule _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: mRNA is synthesized on only one of the chains


Input: n eukaryotes, which of the following mechanisms of gene regulation operates after transcription, but before translation of mRNA into protein? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: RNA splicing


Input: Which of the following accurately describes the usual process of transcription for eukaryotic genes? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Exons are transcribed, but the RNA transcribed from introns does not leave the nucleus.


Input: Which of the following statements correctly describes mRNA processing? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Introns are cut out of the primary transcript, and the resulting exons are spliced together.


Input: the structures called snRNPs are _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: part of splicesomes


Input: Nuclei of eukaryotic cells contain spliceosomes that are made up of ____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: snRNA and protein


Input: The function of tRNA during protein synthesis is to _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: deliver amino acids to their proper site during protein synthesis


Input: Which of the following summaries of protein synthesis is correct? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Messenger RNA is made on a DNA template, and then amino-acid-bearing transfer RNAs bind to it through codon-anticodon pairing.


Input: The bonds that hold tRNA molecules in the correct three-dimensional shape are _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: hydrogen bonds


Input: During translation in a eukaryotic cell ____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: polypeptides are synthesized at ribosomes, according to instructions carried by mRNA


Input: The P site of a ribosome does which of the following? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: It holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.


Input: the first amino acid inserted into a new polypeptide chain in eukaryotic cells is usually _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: methionine


Input: Which of the following is a post-translational modification of a polypeptide? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: cleavage of a polypeptide into two or more chains


Input: During translation, amino acid chain elongation occurs until [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the ribosome encounters a "stop" codon


Input: Polysomes may be defined as _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: groups of ribosomes


Input: What is the proper order of the following events in the expression of a eukaryotic gene? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: 1. translation 2. RNA processing 3. transcription 4. modification of protein 3, 2, 1, 4


Input: A geneticist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the polypeptide encoded by the gene. This mutation probably involved _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: a silent or neutral mutation


Input: A base-pair substitution mutation in a germ cell line is likely to have no effect on phenotype if the substitution _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: occurs in an intron


Input: A virus infects a cell and randomly inserts many short segments of DNA containing a stop codon throughout an organism's chromosomes. This will probably cause _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: manufactured proteins to be short and defective


Input: A point mutation in which a single base pair is inserted or deleted from DNA is called a(n) _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: frame-shift mutation


Input: Transcription factors are found in _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: archaea and eukaryotes


Input: On the off chance that you might contract an archaeal infection, how might it be treated? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: None of the listed responses is correct.


Input: When genes are expressed, they produce _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: The second and fourth responses are correct.


Input: When lactose is present, it binds to the repressor and changes its shape. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: As a result of this change, the repressor can no longer bind to the operator region. RNA polymerase can then bind to the promoter and transcribe the lac genes.


Input: When the enzymes encoded by the lac operon are produced, they break down what and do what? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: lactose, eventually releasing the repressor to stop additional synthesis of lac mRNA.


Input: In prokaryotic genomes, groups of functionally related genes along with their promoters and operators are found together in _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: an operon


Input: In general, operons that encode the enzymes of a biosynthetic (anabolic) pathway (such as the trp operon) are _____, and those encoding the enzymes of a catabolic pathway (such as the lac operon) are _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: repressible ... inducible


Input: In an inducible operon, the inducer is often the _____ in the pathway being regulated; the inducer binds to the _____, thus rendering it _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: substrate ... repressor ... inactive


Input: You have inserted the gene for human growth factor into the E. coli lactose operon, replacing the structural genes with the gene for human growth factor. What substance must you add to your culture of bacteria to cause them to produce human growth factor for you? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: allolactose


Input: Both repressible and inducible operons control gene expression at the level of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: transcription


Input: Gene expression in bacteria is regulated primarily by _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: controlling the transcription of genes into mRNA


Input: The control of gene expression is more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: in a multicellular eukaryote, different cells are specialized for different functions


Input: In some cases DNA methylation and histone deacetylation combine to _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: silence certain genes


Input: In eukaryotes, DNA packing seems to affect gene expression primarily by [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: controlling access to DNA


Input: In a eukaryote, activating transcription factors may stimulate gene expression by binding to a DNA site called a(n) _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: enhancer


Input: What is the evolutionary significance of alternative RNA splicing? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: It expands the number of proteins that can be coded for by one gene, increasing an organism's ability to produce novel proteins.


Input: What is the role of proteasomes? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: They are giant protein complexes that recognize ubiquitin and degrade the tagged proteins.


Input: What determines how long a particular mRNA molecule will persist in a eukaryotic cell? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: nucleotide sequences in the poly-A tail


Input: The expression of a gene located in a tightly coiled region of DNA can be promoted by _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: histone acetylation


Input: Which of the following statements is NOT associated with epigenetic inheritance?( [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: chemical mutagens


Input: A high rate of gene transcription in eukaryotic cells is usually dependent on _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: The third and fourth listed responses are correct.


Input: Which of the following best depicts coordinate control of genes in eukaryotes [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: The second and third listed responses are correct


Input: Although the number of genes in the human genome is surprisingly low compared to less complex organisms, the number of possible products from those genes is greatly amplified by _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: alternate arrangements of exons from a primary transcript


Input: Which of the following best describes the makeup of the human genome? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Genes for noncoding RNA make up the majority of meaningful genetic information in the human genome.


Input: MicroRNAs and small interfering RNAs both function similarly in "silencing" genes. What are two ways in which they may act? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: degrade mRNA and bind to complementary mRNA sequences to prevent translation


Input: Specific cells that appear undifferentiated under the microscope but are already fated to become muscle cells are called _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: myoblasts


Input: MyoD promotes muscle cell development by _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: turning on the expression of multiple muscle-related genes


Input: Cytoplasmic determinants _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: are coded for by maternal genes


Input: Cells can influence each other's development by a process known as [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: induction


Input: Instead of developing a head and a tail, an abnormal Drosophila embryo develops two tails. This is most likely due to _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: a mutation in a maternal effect gene


Input: Cell differentiation is first observable when _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: mRNAs for tissue-specific proteins appear in a cell


Input: In the human genome, oncogenes _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: stimulate cell division


Input: Most human cancers are _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: caused by the accumulation of somatic mutations


Input: What two genes are often mutated in colon cancer [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: ras and p53


Input: Why is cancer more prevalent in older people? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Cancer involves an accumulation of mutations, and older people have had more time to accumulate mutations in their DNA.


Input: In what way can cancer be hereditary? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: One or two of several mutations necessary for full cancer development can be inherited, giving a person a predisposition to developing cancer.


Input: Preparing a physical map of the genome involves _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: cutting the DNA of each chromosome into restriction fragments that overlap, and then determining the original order of the fragments


Input: The whole-genome shotgun approach to genome sequencing is faster and more efficient than earlier sequencing methods because _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: it avoids the need for a cytogenetic mapping of a genome


Input: What is an advantage of the whole-genome shotgun sequencing approach, compared to the ordered process used by the International Human Genome Consortium? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: The whole-genome shotgun approach is much faster.


Input: How do sequence by synthesis techniques differ from previous sequencing methodologies [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: simultaneous sequencing of many small fragments of DNA, thereby reducing the amount a time required to sequence a genome


Input: For cloning DNA fragments of 100,000 base pairs, one would use ____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: bacterial artificial chromosomes


Input: What is a limitation or disadvantage of the whole-genome shotgun (WGS) approach to sequencing? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: WGS has difficulty with repeated sequences because there is no corresponding physical map.


Input: Once an organism's genome sequence has been determined, how do scientists generally start identifying all the genes within the genome? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Analyze the sequence using software that scans the sequence for telltale sequence elements such as promoters, transcription start and stop sites, and so on.


Input: What tool or resource is useful for identifying previously unknown protein-coding genes in a genomic DNA sequence? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: software that searches for translational start and stop signals


Input: An example of a systems biology experiment might be _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: determining how insulin resistance affects transcription of thousands of other genes in the genome


Input: Studies that determine gene annotation _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: identify which genes are protein-coding within a genome


Input: Which of the following best describes the findings of the ENCODE pilot study that thoroughly studied the makeup of a 1% region of the human genome [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Over 90% of the region was transcribed into different types of RNA


Input: How can the varying fitness of double-mutant yeast cells provide insights into interactions between gene products [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: The first, second, and third listed responses are correct.


Input: Why might the number of genes in the genome underestimate the number of different proteins that an organism makes? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Many genes undergo alternative splicing, so that different proteins with different exon combinations are produced from the same gene.


Input: What factor accounts most for the difference in genome size between vertebrates and prokaryotes? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Vertebrates have more noncoding DNA sequences


Input: There is about 1,000 times as much DNA in a human cell as in an E. coli cell, but only about 5 times as many genes. What accounts for this discrepancy? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: A human cell has much more noncoding DNA.


Input: Satellite DNA in eukaryotes consists of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: simple sequence repeats that have a different base composition than the rest of the genomic DNA


Input: Alu elements _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: are derived from or related to transposable elements


Input: Segments of eukaryotic DNA that can move from one site to another in the genome by means of an RNA intermediate are called _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: retrotransposons


Input: Multigene families arise as a result of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: errors during DNA replication and recombination


Input: Chromosomal rearrangements may be important in evolution because _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: chromosome rearrangements lead to gene duplication, thus generating a "spare" copy of the gene that is free to evolve and acquire a new function


Input: The molecular data indicate that the globin gene family _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: evolved from a common globin gene ancestor that gave rise to both alpha- and beta-globin genes, as well as myoglobin and plant leghemoglobin


Input: A rapid way for natural evolution to alter a protein-coding gene so it encodes a protein with a different structure and function is _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: exon duplication and exon shuffling


Input: Why might active transposons be rare in natural populations [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Individuals with active transposons are usually eliminated by natural selection, because transposition events usually produce harmful mutations.


Input: The highly conserved sequence element present within homeotic genes is called the _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: homeobox


Input: The similarity of the homeobox in many different kinds of organisms is evidence _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: of the common ancestry of different life-forms


Input: What can be learned from comparing the genomes of distantly related species, such as yeast and humans, or plants and fruit flies? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Conserved genes provide insight into their evolutionary relationships


Input: What is a valid rationale for sequencing the chimpanzee genome [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: to determine what genetic changes determine uniquely human features such as large brains and language ability


Input: Detailed comparison of the human and chimpanzee genomes has revealed that _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: most differences are in the form of chromosomal rearrangements


Input: Darwin originally defined evolution as _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: descent with modification


Input: Which of the following is a key observation that must be explained in a unifying theory about life? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Many basic characteristics are shared by all living things.


Input: The scala naturae, or scale of nature, is based on the ideas of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Aristotle


Input: At the time Darwin voyaged on the HMS Beagle, the popularly accepted theory in Western culture that explained the origin of Earth's plants and animals held that the various species _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before


Input: Carolus Linnaeus is considered to be the founder of _____, and he _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the binomial classification system ... thought that resemblances among different species reflected the pattern of their creation


Input: The modern idea of extinction as a common occurrence in Earth's history was first proposed in the early 19th century writings of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Cuvier


Input: Lyell's principle of uniformitarianism [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: strongly influenced Darwin's view of how living organisms could change over time


Input: Which of the following is a true statement about Charles Darwin? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution.


Input: In Darwin's view of descent with modification _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: natural selection can improve the match between an organism and its environment


Input: What insight did Darwin gain from reading Thomas Malthus's essay on human suffering? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Organisms have the capacity to overreproduce.


Input: The breeding of plants and animals for particular traits by humans is called [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: artificial selection


Input: The smallest unit that can evolve is a(n) _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: population


Input: According to the theory of evolution, anatomical and molecular homologies should _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: produce similar patterns of evolutionary relatedness


Input: How did some strains of Staphylococcus aureus become resistant to antibiotic drugs [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Some members of the bacteria population must have had a genetic variation that made them resistant to antibiotics.


Input: An important challenge to traditional (pre-1860) ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms such as hummingbirds, humans, and whales have similar skeletal structures. This most directly suggested to biologists that _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor


Input: Animals that possess homologous structures probably _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: evolved from the same ancestor


Input: On an evolutionary tree _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: homologous characteristics form a nested pattern


Input: Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Dolphins and sharks have a similar fusiform (streamlined) body shape.


Input: Vestigial organs are _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: remnants of structures that were useful to an organism's ancestors


Input: All known organisms transcribe genetic information to protein molecules via the same genetic code. This finding strongly supports the hypothesis that _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: all organisms are descended from a single common ancestor


Input: Evidence from molecular biology supports the theory of evolution by demonstrating that _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: closely related organisms have more similar DNA and proteins


Input: What did Darwin observe about species on islands? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: it is a broad model that is supported by many observations and much experimental evidence


Input: In the context of populations, how do we define evolution? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: : Evolution is a change in a population's allele frequencies over generations


Input: Which example below correctly describes average heterozygosity? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Average heterozygosity refers to the average percentage of loci that are heterozygous in a population.


Input: The human genome consists of approximately 3 billion base pairs. If humans typically differ from one another by about 3 million base pairs, what is the nucleotide variability of Homo sapiens [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: 0.1%


Input: Which example below would most likely exhibit a cline? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Rabbits that live in colder regions tend to have smaller ears than rabbits of the same species that live in warmer regions


Input: Which of the following can form entirely new alleles? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: mutation


Input: Sexual recombination includes the shuffling of chromosomes in _____ and fertilization. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: meiosis


Input: Which type of mutation plays the most important role in increasing the number of genes in the gene pool? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: duplication


Input: In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 represents _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the expected frequency of homozygous dominant individuals in the population


Input: In the equation for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 1 represents _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the sum of the frequencies of the genotypes for a particular gene locus


Input: Assume a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a character trait with these genotypic frequencies: AA = 0.25, Aa = 0.50, and aa = 0.25. If you remove all the homozygous dominants and allow the remaining population to reproduce (again under Hardy-Weinberg conditions), what will be the frequency of homozygous dominants in the next generation? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: 0.11


Input: Which of the following sets of conditions is required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: random mating, no natural selection, and a large population


Input: _____ and _____ generate variation, whereas _____ results in an adaptation to the environment. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Mutation ... sexual recombination ... natural selection


Input: An earthquake hits a small island. All but a small group of closely related lizards are eliminated, and the survivors spread out over the island. This is an instance of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: bottleneck effect


Input: Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in the microevolution of a population of humans [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: A colony of humans on the moon is isolated from Earth.


Input: Which of the following most accurately measures an organism's fitness [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: how many fertile offspring it produces


Input: Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is an example of which of the following? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: directional selection


Input: Stabilizing selection _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: favors intermediate variants in a population


Input: Tay-Sachs disease, which is lethal, results from having the homozygous recessive condition of the responsible gene. Which of the following statements is true? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Heterozygous individuals will survive and may pass the recessive allele on to their offspring.


Input: Which of the following would seem to be an example of neutral variation? ( Concept 23.4) [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: human fingerprints


Input: What is the importance of neutral variation in evolution? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Neutral variation increases genetic variation, allowing a population to carry more alleles that may help it respond to environmental change.


Input: Selection that acts over evolutionary time to preserve traits that increase an individual's ability to mate is known as _____ [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: sexual selection


Input: How does natural selection fashion organisms? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Chance and the environment interact with natural selection, so that the best available traits are selected for


Input: When gene flow between two populations ceases, the potential for _____ exists. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: speciation


Input: Which of the following conditions is necessary for speciation to occur [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: reproductive isolation


Input: At which point in the adaptation of a population is it clear that speciation has occurred [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Gene pool changes establish reproductive barriers between two populations.


Input: Prezygotic barriers _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: prevent fertilization of gametes from members of closely related species


Input: Which of the following reproductive barriers actually prevents individuals of closely related species from copulating successfully? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: mechanical isolation


Input: Two species of water lilies in the same pond do not interbreed because one blooms at night and the other during the day. The reproductive barrier between them is an example of _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: temporal isolation


Input: Which of the following is an example of a postzygotic reproductive barrier? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Two fruit flies of different species produce sterile offspring.


Input: The phylogenetic species concept emphasizes _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: common ancestry


Input: In practice, how do scientists distinguish most species [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: by using the morphological species concept


Input: Which species concept defines a species as a set of organisms with a unique genetic history [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: phylogenetic species concept


Input: Sometimes two phenotypically different populations interbreed to a limited extent, so that it is difficult to determine whether they are clearly separate species. This is not a concern to scientists because this _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: may indicate that the formation of a new species is in progress


Input: Which of the following organisms is most likely to be subject to allopatric speciation? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: pine trees in Alaska and pine trees on the island of Madagascar


Input: According to the experiment of Diane Dodd, can adaptive divergence of allopatric fruit fly populations lead to reproductive isolation? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: No. After several generations, the formation of a reproductive barrier (behavioral isolation) was evident, but not absolute.


Input: Which of the following evolutionary mechanisms does NOT contribute to the process of allopatric speciation? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: gene flow


Input: In which of the following groups has sympatric speciation been most important [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: plants


Input: A new species can arise in a single generation _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: allopatric speciation


Input: In the case of the Lake Victoria cichlids, sympatric speciation has been shown to be driven by _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: sexual selection


Input: In the Lake Victoria cichlids, what appears to be contributing to fusion of different species [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Females have a difficult time visually selecting males of the same species in the murky, polluted water


Input: According to the punctuated equilibrium model of evolution, _____. [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: the tempo of evolution consists of abrupt episodes of speciation among long periods of equilibrium


Input: What is the first thing that must happen in order for speciation to occur? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: Gene flow between populations must be interrupted.


Input: How many genes must change in order to form a new species? [Beadle and Tatum]

Output: There is no set number of genes or loci that produces a new species. Genetic and environmental factors interact.


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Support the erect body 2. Movement 3. Encase and protect vital organs 4. Produce RBCs in bone marrow 5. Storage of certain minerals

Output: What are the effects of the musculoskeletal system?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] The joints are freely moveable. Bones at a synovial joint do not touch each other.

Output: What is the degree of movement for synovial joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Articular cartilage

Output: What type of cartilage covers bones in a synovial joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] A synovial cavity separates the bones and cushions joint movement.

Output: What separates bones in a synovial joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Synovial membrane lines the synovial cavity and secretes a small amount of synovial fluid.

Output: What lines the synovial cavity and what does it secrete?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Fibrous joint capsule. The joint capsule is strengthened by ligaments extending from bone to bone.

Output: What surrounds the synovial membrane?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Shoulder, elbow, knee, ankle

Output: What are some examples of synovial joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Slightly moveable

Output: What is the degree of movement for cartilaginous joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Separated by fibrocartilaginous discs

Output: How are bones separated in a cartilaginous joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Each disc has a nucleus pulposus at the center. The nucleus pulposus is fibrocartilaginous material that serves as a cushion or shock absorber between bony surfaces.

Output: What is physical characteristic of the fibrocartilaginous disc? What is its purpose?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Vertebral bodies of the spine

Output: What is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Immovable

Output: What is the degree of movement in fibrous joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Bones are almost in direct contact

Output: What is the relationship of bones to each other in fibrous joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Skull sutures

Output: What is an example of a fibrous joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Convex surface in a concave cavity

Output: What is the articular shape of a spheroidal (ball and socket) joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Wide ranging flexion 2. Extension 3. Abduction 4. Adduction 5. Rotation 6. Circumduction

Output: What movements are possible in spheroidal (ball and socket) joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Shoulder, hip

Output: What are some examples of spheroidal (ball and socket) joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Flat, planar

Output: What is the articular shape of a hinge joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Flexion 2. Extension

Output: What movements are possible in hinge joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Elbow, interphalangeal joints of hands and feet

Output: What are some examples of hinge joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Convex or concave

Output: What is the articular shape of condylar joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Movement of two articulating surfaces not dissociable

Output: What type of movement occurs in condylar joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Knee, temporomandibular joint

Output: What are some examples of condylar joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Pouches of synovial fluid that cushion the movement of tendon and muscles over bone or other joint structures

Output: What are bursae?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Collagen fibers connecting muscle to bone.

Output: What are tendons?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Rope-like bundles of collage fibrils that connect bone to bone

Output: What are ligaments?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Flexion and extension 2. Abduction and adduction 3. Pronation and supination 4. Circumduction 5. Eversion and inversion 6. Rotation 7. Protraction and retraction 8. Elevation and depression

Output: What are the different skeletal muscle movements?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Pain - localized, diffuse, or systemic? Ask patient to point to the pain. 2. Stiffness? 3. Swelling, heat, redness (acute inflammation)?

Output: What questions should you ask the patient for joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Pain (cramps)? 2. Any weakness?

Output: What should you ask a patient regarding muscles?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Pain? 2. Deformity? 3. Trauma? (Fractures, sprains, dislocations)

Output: What questions should you ask the patient about bones?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Functional assessment. Can he perform activities of daily living? 2. Self-care behaviors

Output: What information should you obtain from the patient besides the health of the joints, muscles, and bones?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Heart problems

Output: What might shoulder pain be symptomatic of?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Nutrition, exercise, and weight 2. Low back: lifting and biomechanics 3. Preventing falls 4. Osteoporosis: screening and prevention

Output: What are some important topics for health promotion and counseling?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] The joint should be at rest

Output: What is important when examining joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Symmetry of function and structure

Output: When comparing corresponding paired joints, what should you expect?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Size and contour 2. Skin and tissues over joint

Output: What do you look for when inspecting the joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Skin temperature 2. Muscles, bony articulations, areas of joint capsule

Output: What should you palpate for when assessing the musculoskeletal system?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Ask the patient to do own ROM = active ROM. Note any limited ROM and follow-up with passive ROM. Note any pain or crepitus.

Output: How should you assess range of motion (ROM)?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Apply opposing force 2. Grade muscle strength (out of 5)

Output: How do you perform muscle testing?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 0 = no contraction, complete paralysis, no visible or palpable movement 1 = slight contraction, but very severe weakness, weak contraction visible but extremity doesn't move 2 = full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion) 3 = full ROM with gravity but not against resistance (moderate weakness) 4 = full ROM against gravity, with some resistance 5 = full ROM against gravity, with full resistance (normal muscle strength)

Output: What is the scale for muscle strength?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect joint area 2. Palpate as person opens mouth 3. Motion and expected range a) open mouth maximally b) protrude lower jaw and move side to side c) stick out lower jaw 4. Palpate muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, internal/external pterygoids)

Output: How should you assess the temporomandibular joint?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect joint 2. Palpate shoulders and axilla 3. Motion and expected range a) arms forward and up b) arms behind back and hands up c) arms to sides and up over head d) touch hands behind head

Output: How should you assess the shoulders?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect joint in flexed and extended positions 2. Palpate joint and bony prominences 3. Motion and expected range a) bend and straighten elbow b) pronate and supinate hand

Output: How should you assess the elbow?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP) 2. Proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) 3. Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP)

Output: What are the three phalangeal joints?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect the joints on dorsal and palmar sides 2. Palpate each joint for bogginess or tenderness 3. Motion and expected range a) bend hand up, down b) bend fingers up, down c) turn hands out, in d) spread fingers, make fist e) touch thumb to each finger

Output: How do you assess the wrist/hand?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Assesses for carpal tunnel (median nerve compression). Patient bends both hands and wrists and makes dorsal surfaces touch. Wait 30 seconds and see if numbness develops.

Output: What is Phalen's sign test?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Assesses for carpal tunnel (median nerve compression). Tap lightly over patient's median nerve. If numbness develops, it is a positive test result.

Output: What is Tinel's sign test?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Hard, nontender nodules 2. 2-3 mm or more in size 3. Heberden's nodes (DIP), bony overgrowth 4. Bouchard's nodes (PIP), less common 5. Metacarpophalangeal joints are sparred

Output: What are the characteristics of osteoarthritis?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] Middle-aged or elderly patients

Output: Who is most commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Tender, painful, stiff joints 2. Symmetric involvement 3. PIP and MCP joint involvement 4. Boutonniere deformity 5. Swan neck deformity 6. Ulnar deviation

Output: What are the characteristics of rheumatoid arthritis?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect as person stands 2. Palpate with person supine 3. Motion and expected range a) raise leg b) knee to chest c) flex knee and hip, swing foot out/in d) swing leg laterally/medially e) stand and swing leg back

Output: How should you assess the hip?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect joint and muscle 2. Palpate 3. Motion and expected range a) bend knee b) extend knee c) check knee while ambulating

Output: How should you assess the knee?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect with patient sitting, standing and walking 2. Palpate joints 3. Motion and expected range a) point toes down/up b) turn soles out/in c) flex and straighten toes

Output: How should you assess the ankle/foot?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect alignment of head and neck 2. Palpate spinous processes and muscles 3. Motion and expected range a) chin to chest b) lift chin c) each ear to shoulder d) turn chin to each shoulder

Output: How should you assess the cervical spine?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Bones, joints, and muscles] 1. Inspect while person stands 2. Palpate spinous processes 3. Motion and expected range a) bend forward/back b) bend sideways c) twist shoulders to each side 4. Straight leg raising 5. Measure leg length discrepancy

Output: How should you assess the spine?

ETP PA: Musculoskeletal Flashcards - Cram.com

What components comprise the musculoskeletal system?


Input: [Define Ethics.] Define Moral

Output: Of or relating to priciples of right and wrong behavior. Ethical. Conforming to a standard.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] Define Professionalism

Output: Profess meantthe act of professing - the declare or admit openly. To claim skill or learning in "engaged in one of the learned or skilled professions"

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] Characteristics of Professionalism

Output: Service to others. Assessment of client needs. Theoretical body of knowledge obtained through extended preservice education. Standards for enrty, practice, and ethical standards. Professional association to maintain standards. Continuing education and life long learning.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] What are the advantages of Professionalism?

Output: Public or Client better served. Quality of peace officers is improved. Ethical conduct. More effective problem solving. Stronger community support and respect. Stronger role in the criminal justice system. More effective innovations. Financial rewards.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] What are the disadvantages of Professionalism>

Output: Cost of training and development. Higher salaries and remuneration for job occupant. Limits entry into the work force from poor because of limited opportunity for edu. attainment.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] APD Badge In regards to the Texas State Seal - A seal is a symbol of _________.?

Output: Authentication. The seal authenticates your position as a peace officer and the authority with which you are entrusted to enforce laws.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] APD Badge The Oak branch in the sael represents ________?

Output: Strenth

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] APD Badge The olive branch in the seal represents_______?

Output: Peace

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] Why is there so much public and private concern on our values or lack there of?

Output: Many of our institutions and, indeed, the American way of life are attacked for placing value on the wrong things.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] Why have values changed?

Output: Every aspect of human behavior is influenced by personal values, but values are not easily defined or achieved.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: [Define Ethics.] What are the characteristics and elements which intensify pressure and stress observed within the police subculture?

Output: Police-public role expectations. Political and legal demands. Individual agency policies and regulations. Constant threat of danger. Personal moral attidudes of individual officers.

APD Class 42 Professionalism and ethics Flashcards - Cram.com

The dicipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation A set of morla principles or values. The set of principles of conduct governing an individual or group.


Input: Develop Project Management Plan definition:

Output: The process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans RM: Whatever needs to be done to create the PM Plan that is bought into, approved, realistic, and formal

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Direct and Manage Project Execution definition:

Output: The process of performing the work defined in the project mgmnt plan to achieve the project's objectives RM: Producing work according to the PM Plan

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Monitor and Control Project Work definition:

Output: The process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project mgmnt plan RM: Whatever needs to be done to measure performance against the project management plan and change requests

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Perform Integrated Change Control definition:

Output: The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to the deliverables, OPA, project documents, and project mgmnt plan RM: Whatever needs to be done to evaluate the impact to the project constraints and approve or reject change requests

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Close Project or Phase definition:

Output: The process of finalizing all activities across all of the Project Mgmnt Process Groups to formally complete the project or phase

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Collect Requirements definition:

Output: The process of defining and documenting Stakeholder's needs to meet project objectives RM: Whatever needs to be done to finalize and document detailed requirements and determine how they will be managed

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Define Scope definition:

Output: The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product RM: Whatever needs to be done to create the project scope statement

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Create WBS definition:

Output: The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Verify Scope definition:

Output: The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables RM: meeting with the customer to gain formal acceptance of interim deliverables

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Control Scope definition:

Output: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Define Activities definition:

Output: The process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables RM: Whatever needs to be done to create an activity list from each work package

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Sequence Activities definition:

Output: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among project activities RM: whatever needs to be done to create the network diagram

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Estimate Activity Resources definition:

Output: The process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Estimate Activity Duration definition:

Output: The process of approximating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with estimated resources

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Develop Schedule definition:

Output: The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule RM: Whatever needs to be done to create a bought into, approved, realistic, and formal schedule and schedule baseline

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Control Schedule definition:

Output: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and managing changes to the schedule baseline

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Estimate Costs definition:

Output: The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Determine Budget definition:

Output: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Control Costs definition:

Output: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project budget and managing changes to the cost baseline

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Plan Risk Management definition:

Output: The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Identify Risks definition:

Output: The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis definition:

Output: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis definition:

Output: The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Plan Risk Responses definition:

Output: The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Monitor and Control Risks definition:

Output: The process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating the risk process throughout the project

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Develop HR Plan definition:

Output: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Acquire Project Team definition:

Output: The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Develop Project Team definition:

Output: The process of improving the competencies, team interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Manage Project Team definition:

Output: The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Plan Quality definition:

Output: The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and product, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Perform Quality Assurance definition:

Output: The process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Perform Quality Control definition:

Output: The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Identify Stakeholders definition:

Output: The process of identifying all people or orgs impacted by the project, and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement and impact on project success RM: Identifying and documenting information about the SHs on the project

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Plan Communications definition:

Output: The process of determining the project SH information needs and defining a communication approach

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Distribute Information definition:

Output: The process of making relevant information available to project SHs as planned

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Manage Stakeholder Expectations definition:

Output: The process of communicating and working with SHs to meet their needs and addressing issues as they occur

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Report Performance definition:

Output: The process of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Plan Procurements definition:

Output: The process of documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers RM: Whatever needs to be done to create the procurement SOW, procurement documents and the procurement management plan

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Conduct Procurements definition:

Output: The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract RM: Whatever needs to be done to select a seller based on the seller responses and obtain a signed contract

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Administer Procurements definition:

Output: The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections as needed

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: Closure Procurements definition:

Output: The process of completing each project procurement

PMP Knowledge Area Definitions Flashcards - Cram.com

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes a project or a phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfy SHs needs


Input: [Social Clock] Midlife Crisis

Output: A period of unusual anxiety, radical reexamination, and sudden transformation that is widely associated with middle age but which actually has more to do with developmental history than with chronological age.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Big Five

Output: The five basic clusters of personality traits that remain quite stable throughout adulthood: openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Ecological Niche

Output: The particular lifestyle and social context adults settle into that are compatible with their individual personality needs and interests.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Gender Convergence

Output: The tendency for men and women to become more similar as they move through middle age.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Social Convoy

Output: Collectively, that family members, friends, acquaintances, and even strangers who move through life with an individual.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Allostatic Load

Output: The total, combined burden of stress and disease that an individual must cope with.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Linked Lives

Output: The notion that family members tend to share all aspects of each others lives, from triumph to tragedy.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Household

Output: A group of people who live together in one dwelling and share its common spaces, such as kitchen and living room.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Familism

Output: The idea that family members should support one another because family unity is more important than individual freedom and success or failure.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Fictive Kin

Output: A term used to describe someone who becomes accepted as part of a family to whom he or she has no blood relation.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Empty Nest

Output: The time in the lives of parents when their grown children leave the family home to pursue their own lives.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Kinkeeper

Output: The person who takes primary responsibility for celebrating family achievements, gathering the family together, and keeping in touch with family members who do not live nearby.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Sandwich Generation

Output: A term for the generation of middle-aged people who are supposedly "squeezed" by the needs of the younger and older generations. Some adults do feel pressured by these obligations, but most are not burdened by them, either because they enjoy fulfilling them or because they choose to take on only some of them, or none.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Extrinsic Rewards of Work

Output: The tangible rewards, usually in forms of compensation, that one receives for a job (e.g. salary, benefits, pension).

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Intrinsic Rewards of Work

Output: The intangible benefits on receives from a job (e.g. job satisfaction, self-esteem, pride) that come from within oneself.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Describe the current views of the stages of adulthood first proposed by Erickson.

Output: Erickson originally envisioned all 8 of his stages in sequence, though in adulthood it is found that Intimacy versus Isolation and Generativity versus Stagnation are not age dependent. The social clock is more important than the biological clock with these stages.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Explain how the social clock becomes more important than the biological clock during adulthood.

Output: Many non-biological factors make one's adult body and brain age more quickly or more slowly than other people of the same age. The social clock guides adult social expectations for behavior, based on culture, cohort, and SES.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] What personality traits remain stable throughout adulthood?

Output: 1) Openness - imaginative, curious, artistic, creative, open to new experiences 2) Conscientiousness - organized, deliberate, conforming, self-disciplines 3) Extroversion - outgoing, assertive, active 4) Agreeableness - kind, helpful, easygoing, generous 5) Neuroticismm - anxious, moody, self-punishing, critical

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Explain the tendency toward gender role convergence during middle age.

Output: The underlying personality traits are equal among sexes, but are expressed differently based upon social expectations (men to be aggressive and women to be more nurturing). As people age, they are more free to express their natural personality traits, versus the traits society expects from their gender.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] What are the problems with the concept of the midlife crisis.

Output: People quit jobs and abandon spouses at all ages. The study that labeled the midlife crisis was more a result of history and not age.

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] How can the need for intimacy be met during adulthood.

Output: 1) Friendship 2) Family Bonds - parents, siblings 3) Romantic Partnerships - marriage, partners

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] How can the need for generativity be met during adulthood.

Output: 1) Caregiving - partners, children & parents 2) Creative work 3) Employment

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: [Social Clock] Name the 4 stages of psychosocial development Erickson that take place during adulthood.

Output: 1) Identity versus Role Diffusion 2) Intimacy versus Isolation 3) Generativity versus Stagnation 4) Integrity versus Despair

Life Span Growth & Development Ch. 22 Adulthood: Psychocosocial Development, Flashcards - Cram.com

Refers to the idea that the stages of life, and the behaviors "appropriate" to them, are set by social standards rather than by biological maturation. for instance, "middle age" begins when the culture believes it does, rather than at a particular age in all cultures.


Input: a comparison-using "like" or "as" -- between two tings of unlike nature that yet have something in common "He had a posture like a question mark" "Silence settled over the audience like a block of granite" And ice, mast-high, came floating by, as green as emerald. [Metaphor]

Output: Simile


Input: a substitution of one thing for another no example [Metaphor]

Output: Symbol


Input: a substitution - using a part for the whole all hands on deck bless the fur-faces [Metaphor]

Output: Synecdoche


Input: a substitution - using a symbol or attribute of the thing described, but not using an actual part, limb, etc. the grown for royalty brass for military officers the suits for executives [Metaphor]

Output: Metonymy


Input: investing inanimate objects (or abstract concepts) with animate abilities or qualities of animals, humans, etc. the leaves trembled with joy the dew-covered grass wined back at him. peace wept at war. the yellow smoke that rubs its muzzle on the window-panes, licked its tongue into the corners of the evening [Metaphor]

Output: Personification


Input: use of words whose sound echos the sense ...and murmuring of innumerable bees. hiss screeeech, buzzz, hush, whisper, clang [Metaphor]

Output: Onomatopoeia


Input: the use of exaggerated terms for the purpse of emphasis of heightened effect (overstatement, over exageration) i have told you a thousand times that costs an arm and a leg [Metaphor]

Output: Hyperbole


Input: the deliberate use of understatement to enhance the impressiveness of what we say [often employs a negative] (understatement) he is not bad looking "it isn't very serious. I have this tiny little tumor on the brain" [Metaphor]

Output: Litotes


Input: use of a word in such a way as to convey a meaning oposite to the literal meaning of the word (do not confuse with coincidence) i was overjoyed at having to take finals [Metaphor]

Output: Irony


Input: an outcome of events that is the opposite of what was expected (often teaching a necessary lesson to the protagonist) shakesperes king lear or othello [Metaphor]

Output: Dramatic Irony


Input: a contradiction in terms (usually two) why then, o brawling love! o loving hate! o anything of nothing first create! parting is such sweet sorrow tough love, jumbo shrimp, military intelligence, postal service, love-hate relationship, golf-highlights [Metaphor]

Output: Oxymoron


Input: an apparently contradictory statement that nevertheless contains a measure of truth "art is a form of lying in order to tell the truth" The beginning is in the end. You must give to receive. The more you know, the more you know you don't know. [Metaphor]

Output: Paradox


Input: asking a question, not to elicit an answer, but to assert or deny something indirectly. you think i like this job? whatever possessed you? [Metaphor]

Output: Rhetorical Question


Input: a play on words, often involving double meaning "If we don't hang together, we will hang separately" "she hopes to obtain a divorce and alter her situation" [Metaphor]

Output: Puns


Input: using a word understood different in relation to two or more other words, which it modifies or governs (one literal and one figurative) she opened the door and her heart to the runaway [Metaphor]

Output: Syllepsis


Input: a type of Syllepsis, in which the usage is grammatically or idiomatically incorrect He maintained a flourishing business and racehorse. [Metaphor]

Output: Zeugma


Input: language that creates imaginative connections between our ideas and our senses or that reveals striking similarities between things we had never associated before [Metaphor]

Output: figures of speech (figurative language)


Input: a symbol comares or puts together two things thate in some ways unlike [Metaphor]

Output: symbol


Input: a few symbolic character types, plots, objects, or settings - example: trickster, the quest, the garden- have become so pervasive and have recurred in so many cultures that they are considered archetypes. [Metaphor]

Output: archetypes


Input: an extended symbol that encompasses a whole work. [Metaphor]

Output: allegory


Input: when an entire story is allegorical or symbolic it is sometimes called a myth myth originally meant a story of communal origin that provided an explanation or religious interpretation of man, nature, the universe, or the relation between them [Metaphor]

Output: myth


Input: the sentral idea, its thesis, its message [Metaphor]

Output: theme


Input: references to history, religion, cultural practices, and so on. [Metaphor]

Output: allusion


Input: someone who acts, appears, or is referred to as playing a part in a literary work, usually fiction or drama [Metaphor]

Output: character


Input: the art and technique of representing fictional personages-depends upon action or plot as well as narration and point of view [Metaphor]

Output: characterization


Input: hero "good guy" heroine "good girl" villian "bad guy" hero is often larger than life, stronger or better than most human beings, sometimes almost Godlike [Metaphor]

Output: hero/heroine/villain


Input: in most modern fictions, the leading character is much more ordinary and more like the rest of us [Metaphor]

Output: antihero


Input: the person being opposed, by the antagonist [Metaphor]

Output: protagonist


Input: someone who offers opposition [Metaphor]

Output: antagonist


Input: those characters we see over a longer period of time. more complex, we see them as more realistic characters [Metaphor]

Output: major or main character


Input: the figures who fill the story, they can grow and change also, they sometimes even contradict our expectations [Metaphor]

Output: minor characters


Input: someone who serves to contrast to call attention to another thing's good qualities [Metaphor]

Output: foils


Input: characters that change, develop, or act from conflicting motives [Metaphor]

Output: round characters


Input: simple characters that behave in unchanging or unsurprising ways. [Metaphor]

Output: flat characters


Input: characters based on conscious or unconscious cultural assumptions about what a person's sex, age, ethnicity, nationality, occupation, marital status, and so on will tell us about that person's traits, actions, even values. [Metaphor]

Output: stereotypes


Input: a time and place and context of the location, historical time period, what's surrounding the story. [Metaphor]

Output: setting (context)


Input: What are Fixed costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Costs of production that do not vary as output changes


Input: What are Variable costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Costs of production that vary with output.


Input: What is the Short run? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Period during which fixed costs and the scale of prodution remain fixed


Input: What is the Long run? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Period of time during which all factors become variable and the scale of output can change.


Input: What is Marginal product? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: The output added by the extra worker or unit of a factor


Input: What is Increasing marginal returns? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where the addition of an extra variable factor adds more output than the previous variable factor


Input: What is the formula for Average product? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: The total product divided by the number of workers


Input: What is the Law of diminishing marginal returns? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where increasing amounts of a variable factor are added to a fixed factor and the amount added to the total product by each additional unit of the variable factor eventually decreases


Input: What is Optimal output? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: The ideal combination of fixed and variable costs to produce the lowest average cost


Input: What is Productive efficiency? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: When a firm operates at minimum average total cost, producing the maximum output from inputs into the production process.


Input: What are Semi-Variable Costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Costs which have both a fixed and variable element, e.g. landline telephone usage


Input: What is the formula for Average fixed costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total fixed costs divided by the number produced


Input: What is the formula for Average variable costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total variable costs divided the number produced


Input: What is the formula for Average total costs? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total cost divded by the number produced


Input: What is marginal cost? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: The cost of the extra unit of output


Input: What are Increasing returns to scale? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where an increase in factor inputs leads to a more than proportionate increase in outputs


Input: What are decreasing returns to scale? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where an increase in factor inputs leads to a less than proportionate increase in factor outputs


Input: What are Constant returns to scale? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where an increase in factor inputs leads to a proportional increase in factor outputs


Input: What is the minimum Minimum efficient scale? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: This corresponds to the lowest point on the long-run average total cost curve and is also known as the output of long-run productive efficiency


Input: What are profits? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total income or revenue for a firm is greater than total cost.


Input: What is the formula for Total revenue? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: What the firm recieves for the sale of its product = price x number sold.


Input: What is the formula for Average revenue? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total revenue divided by number sold.


Input: What is marginal revenue? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: The addition to total revenue from the productoin of one extra unit.


Input: What is normal profit? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Total revenue minus total costs.


Input: What is profit maximisation? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Where a firm chooses a level of output where marginal revenue equals margional costs.


Input: What are supernatural profits? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: A return above normal profit- a surplus payment


Input: What are sub-normal profits? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: Profit below normal which should lead to firms leaving the industry.


Input: What is an entrepreneur? [Fixed costs + Variable costs]

Output: individual who organises factors of production in order to make profit.