Input: [Question] Each of the following disease stes is matched with the correct manifestation or association EXCEPT: a. severe combined immunodeficiency disease - adenosine deaminase deficiencey, b. isolated IgA dficiency - rxns to blood transfusions, c. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - thrombocytopenia, d. DiGeorge Syndrom - autosomal dominant inheritance, e. AIDS - reveresed CD4+:CD8+ ration [Correct Answer] DiGeorge syndrome - autosomal domiant inhertiance [Explanation]

Output: DiGeorge syndrome is a congenital developmental defect possibley caused by intrauterine infection


Input: [Question] Each of the following disease entities is correctly paired with the appropriate ab EXCEPT: a. SLE - anti-Sm ab, b. Sjogren syndrom - anti-SS-B ab, c. mixed connective tissue disease - anti-nRNP ab, d. polyarteritis nodosea - ab to ds-DNA, e. progressive systemic sclerosis - anti-Scl 70 ab [Correct Answer] polyarteritis nodosa - Ab to ds-DNA [Explanation]

Output: Abs to ds-DNA and to the Sm ag are highly specific findins in SLE bu NOT in poyarteritis nodosa


Input: [Question] Which of the following findings is characterisitc of secondary (reactivesystemic) amyloidosis? [Correct Answer] Association with crhonic inflammatory disease [Explanation]

Output: Reactive systemic amyloidosis occures as a secondary phemomenon to long-standing chronic innflammatory disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, TB, and osteomylelitis. The characteristic amyloid protein si formed from a rprecursor, serium amyloid-associated protein. Organ distruibution is primarily in parenchymatous organs


Input: [Question] All of the following disease that predispose to amyloidosis are correctly mathced with the apporoprieate amyloid protein EXCEPT: a. rheumatoid arthritis - AA amyloid, b. multiple myeloma - AL amyloid, c. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - AA amyloid, d. Alzheimer disease - A4 amyloid, e. senile amyloidosis of the heart - transthyretin [Correct Answer] medullary carcinoma of the thyroid - AA amyloid [Explanation]

Output: IN medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, amyloid is apparently a catabolic product of caclitonin and is NOT the AA amyloid associated with reheumatoid arthritis and other chronic inflammatory dosrders. The AL amyloid associated with plasmas cell doriders usch as multiple myeloma is derived from immunoglobulin light chains. Alzheimer disease is noted by the pressence of amyllid plaquies containing A4 amyloid. Senile amyloidosis, when it occurs in the heart, is characterized by amyloid deposits dervied from transthyretin.


Input: [Question] A biopsy of the stomach reveals an area of normal-appearing pancreatic tissue. This is an example of which of the following lesions? [Correct Answer] Choristoma [Explanation]

Output: An area of normal-appearing pancreatic tissue in the stomach is an example of a choristoma, which is an area of normal tissue withing another organ


Input: [Question] Clinical evidence supporting the monoclonalilty of tumors can be dreived from evaluation of all of the following substances EXCEPT: a. G6PD isoenzymes, b. immunoglublin light chains, c. immunoglublin or T cell receptor genes, d. hormone production, e. serum proteins [Correct Answer] hormone production [Explanation]

Output: Although production of specific homrones, such as prolactin, parathryoid hormone, or human chorionic gonadotropin, may be a highly specific characteristic of certain neoplasms, it has no relationship to monoclonality. Clinical evidence supporting the monoclonality of tumors can be derived from evaluating substances such as G6PD isoenzymes, immunoglobulin light chains, immunoglobulin or T cell receptor genes, and serum proteins


Input: [Question] All of the following statements about carcinogensis are true EXCEPT: a. chemical carcinogenesis is usually a multistep phenomenon, b. initiators cause irreversible damage ot DNA, c. promoters of carinogensis induce cll proliferation, d. promoters of carcinogenesis exert their effect before intiation [Correct Answer] promoters of carcinogenesis exert their effect efore intiation [Explanation]

Output: Carcinogenesis occurs in multiple steps. Initiation, the first carcinogenic event, si almost always a reaction between a dirct-recating, or ultimate, carcinogen and DNA. Promoters act at a later stage by stimulating increased cellular replication


Input: [Question] Which of the following neoplasms is associated with gene amplification? [Correct Answer] neuroblastoma [Explanation]

Output: Neuroblastoma, a frequently occurring adrenal tumor of early childhood, is associated with marke amplification of the N-myc oncogen. The reduplication is so marked that it can often be cisualized in karyotypic preparations


Input: [Question] Which of the following charaterisitcs is the most reliable indicator of prognosis of malignant tumors? [Correct Answer] degree of localization [Explanation]

Output: The degre of tumor localization is the basis of staging whtich, in general, correlates better with the prognosis than does histopathologic grading which is bsed on differentiation nad other morphologic changes


Input: [Question] Which one of the following malgnant neoplasms is corerctly paired with the appropriateparaneoplastic manifestation? [Correct Answer] squamous cell carcinoma of the lung - hypercalcemia [Explanation]

Output: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is often associated with secretion of parathyroid hormone-like substances, with resultant hypercalcemia.


Input: [Question] Each of the following associations of an injury and a consequence is correct EXCEPT: a. head trauma - contrecoup injury, b. contact gunshot wound to skull - exit wound larger than entry wound, c. multiple factures - fat embolism, d. crush injury of skeletal muscle - acute tubular necrosis, e. sever bruns - acute gastric ulcer. [Correct Answer] contact gunshot wound to skull - exit wound larger than entry wound [Explanation]

Output: In contact gunshot wounds overlying unyielding bony surfaces such as the skull, the entry wound is often larger than the exit wound, due to the effect of expanding gases under the skin. This is in contrast to through-and-through gunshot wounds, where the reverse is true. Brain contusion in head injuries can occur at the point of impact (coup injury) or on the opposite side of the brain (contracoupd injury). Multiple factures can be complicated by fat emboli. Skeletal muscle crush injury can reslut in a acute tubular necrosis with myoglobin casts. Severe burns may be associated with acute ulceration of the gastric mucosa referred to as a Curling ulcer.


Input: [Question] Each of the following is a characteristic of kwashiorkor EXCEPT: a. severe edema, b. scant subcutaneous fat, c. muscle wasting, d. growth retardation, e. fatty liver [Correct Answer] scant subcutaneous fat [Explanation]

Output: Kwashiorkor is the result of severe protein deprivation in the face of adequate caloic intake. Subcutaneous fat tissue is generally unaffected because sufficient calories are supplied for fat synthesis. Protein deficiency results in edema (largely secondary to hypoproteinemia; it is also caused by decreased cardiac output and renal blood flow iwth compensatory activation of the angiotensin-aldosterone system), muscle wasting, growth retardation, and fatty liver (due to failure of apoprotein synthesis).


Input: [Question] Glossitis, corneal vscularization, cheilosis and seborrheic dermatitis are manifestations of dietary deficiency of: [Correct Answer] riboflavin [Explanation]

Output: Glossitis and dermatitis are manifestations common to deficienceis of the B complex group of water-soluble vitamins. Cheilosis and corneal vascularization are especially suggestive of riboflaving deficiency.


Input: [Question] Diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia are characteristics of deficiency of: [Correct Answer] niacin [Explanation]

Output: Diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia (the 3 Ds) are the classic triad of pellagra (clinicla niacin deficiency). The dermatitis tends to involve areas exposed to sunlight.


Input: [Question] Monckeberg arteriosclerosis is marked by all of the following EXCEPT: a. it occurs most often inelderly PTs, b. caclifaications occur in the arterial media, c. is predominantly seen in readial and ulnar arteries, d. significatn vascular obsturction occurs [Correct Answer] significant vascular obstruction occurs [Explanation]

Output: Monckerberg arteriosclerosis is usually a nonobstructing lesion because the arterial intima is not involved. THe condition is often seen in elderly persons in whom medium-sized muscular arteries, typically the radial and ulnar arteries, become stiffenedby calcification withing the media, resulting in so-called "pipestem" arteries.


Input: [Question] The lesion shown in the illustration below is associated with which one of the following disorders? [Correct Answer] Hypercholesterolemia [Explanation]

Output: The incidence of atherosclerosis is strongly associated with hypercholesterolemia. The figure shows a large atheromatous plaque narrowing the lumen of an artery. The plaque consists of a mixture of fibrous tissue and cleft-like spaces indicating the presence of cholesterol crystals


Input: [Question] All of the following vascular lesions are correctly matched with thea ppropriate clinical association EXCEPT: a. hemangiosarcoma - admin of Thorotrast, b. cystic hygroma - cervical and axillary masses, c. glomus tumor - painful subungual nodule, d. herediatry hemorrhagic telangiectasia - X-linked inheritance, e. Kaposi sarcoma - AIDS. [Correct Answer] Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia - X-linked inheritance [Explanation]

Output: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is an important autosomal dominant condition often presenting as bleeding of obscure origin


Input: [Question] Hepatitis B virus is frequently associated with which of the following diseases? [Correct Answer] Polyarteritis nodosa [Explanation]

Output: Polyarteritis nodosa is an immune complex disease. The ag is most often unkown. Hepatitis B surface ag is found in approximately 30% of cases and may well be the ag involved int eh immune complexes


Input: [Question] A child with fever, arthralgias, gastrointestinal and renal involvement, and hemorrhagic urticaria-like lesions of the skin most liekly is exhibiting [Correct Answer] Henoch-Schonlein purpura [Explanation]

Output: The hemorrhagic urticaria-like lesions (palpable purura) place this disorder within the hypersensitivity vasculitis group. Associated GI and renal abnormalities are particulartly characterisitc of Henoch-Schonlein purpura


Input: [Question] Match complication with most likely associated: Aortic valvular insufficiency. A. congenital vascular muscle weakness, b. atherosclerosis, c. syphilis, d. hypertension, e. penetrating wounds [Correct Answer] syphilis [Explanation]

Output: Syphilitic aortitis characteristically involces the proximal thoracic aorta, resulting in dilation, often with aneurysim formation. Dilation of the adjacent arotic valve results in aortic insufficiency. Although once the most common cause of these lesions, syphilis rarel ycauses this now because of treatment and control


Input: [Question] Match complication with most likely associated: Aneurysm of abdominal aorta. A. congenital vascular muscle weakness, b. atherosclerosis, c. syphilis, d. hypertension, e. penetrating wounds [Correct Answer] Atherosclerosis [Explanation]

Output: Ahteroslcerosis is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm, and the abdominal aorta is the most frequent site of involvement


Input: [Question] Match complication with most likely associated: High-output cardiac failure. A. congenital vascular muscle weakness, b. atherosclerosis, c. syphilis, d. hypertension, e. penetrating wounds [Correct Answer] Penetrating wounds [Explanation]

Output: Penetrating wounds can result in arteriovenous fistula formation, which in turn is associated with hypervolemia and high-output cardiac failure


Input: [Question] Match complication with most likely associated: Dissecting arotic aneurysm. A. congenital vascular muscle weakness, b. atherosclerosis, c. syphilis, d. hypertension, e. penetrating wounds [Correct Answer] hypertension [Explanation]

Output: Hypertension predisposes to disseicting aneurysm, as does cystic medial necrosis


Input: [Question] A myocardial infarct that exhibits early granulation tissue hs most likely occurred [Correct Answer] within 1 week [Explanation]

Output: By the end of the 1st week afer a MI, early granulation tissue is seen at the periphery of the necrotic area, followed shortly by the appearance of newly formed collagen. Granulation tissue is gradually replaced by scar tissue withing several weeks


Input: [Question] Following acute MI, rupture of the L ventricle is most likely to occur within [Correct Answer] 4-7 days [Explanation]

Output: Rupture of the L ventricle, a catastrophic complication of acute MI, usually occurs when the necrotic area has the least tensile strength, which is at about 4-7 days after an infarction when repair is just beginning. The anterior wall of the heart is the most frequent site of rupture, usually leading to fatal cardia tamponade. Internal rupture of the interventricular septum or of a papillary muscle may also occur.


Input: [Question] The most common cause of death immediately after the onset of actue MI is [Correct Answer] arrhythmia [Explanation]

Output: Arrythmias are the most IMP early complication of acute MI, accounting for almost 50% of deaths shortly after MI.


Input: [Question] The myocardial lesions shown in the illustration below can be observed in PTs with which one of the following conditions? [Correct Answer] Chorea [Explanation]

Output: The figure illustrates an Aschoff body, the characteristic lesion of rheumatic fever. This myocardial lesion is most often oval in shape and cahracterized by swollen framgented collagen and fibrinoid material and y characterisitc large mesenchymal cells (Anitschkow myocytes) and multinucleated cells (Aschoff cells). sydenham chorea is a major namifestation of rheumatic fever


Input: [Question] Most of the deaths that occur during acute rheumatic fever are c/b [Correct Answer] myocarditis [Explanation]

Output: The most common cause of death that occurs during acute rheumatic fever is cardiac failure secondary to myocarditis


Input: [Question] Which of the following conditions characteristically results in aortic valvular insufficiency? [Correct Answer] syphillitic heart disease [Explanation]

Output: In syphiltic aortitis, the elastica of the aorta is replaced by fibrous tissue, resulting in dilation of the ascending aorta and separation of the aortic commissures, with resultant aortic insufficiency.


Input: [Question] Mitral stenosis most often results from [Correct Answer] rheumatic endocarditis [Explanation]

Output: Mitral stenosis is most often a late sequela of rheumatic fever. Bacterial endocarditis is a complication, no a cause, of mitral stenosis. Congenital heart disease is sometimes complicated by mitral stenosis, which is often of rheumatic origin. Marfan syndrom is sometimes associated with mitral valve prolapse. syphilitic heart disease is characterized by widening of the aortic commissures, resulting in aortic insufficiency.


Input: [Question] Cyanosis in congenital heart disease is c/b [Correct Answer] a R to L shunt [Explanation]

Output: Cyanosis, which occurs when the arterial concentration of reduced Hgb exceeds 5 mg/ml is seen with a R to L shunt in which venous blood gains direct access to the arterial circulation.


Input: [Question] Which of the following conditions is associated with paradoxic embolism? [Correct Answer] atrial septal defects [Explanation]

Output: The term paradoxic embolism denotes the passage of an embolus of venous origin into the arterial circulation through a R to L shunt (ex patent foramen ovale, atrial septal deftct). The likelihood of R to L passage of the embolus is foten enhanced by pulmonary hypertension secondary to pulmonary thromboembolism.


Input: [Question] A 42 yo man is seen because of a long hx of slowly developing congestive heart failure. His blood pressure is normal. Coronary artery angiography reveals no vascualr disease. No heart mrumurs are heard. The WBC count, diff and erythrocyte seidmentation rate are normal. THe most likely diagnosis is [Correct Answer] cardiomyopathy [Explanation]

Output: Cardiomyopathies are noninflammatory myocardial disroders not associated with coronary artery obstruction, hypertension, valvular disease, congenital heart diesease, or infectious disease. They are most often charcterized by otherwise unexplained ventricular dysfxn such as cardiac failure, ventricular enlarement, or ventricular arrythmias.


Input: [Question] Which of the following diseases is classified as a restrictive cardiomyopathy? [Correct Answer] amyloid heart disease [Explanation]

Output: Restrictive, or obliterative -restirctive, cardiomyopathy is characterized by restricted ventricular filling, most often associated with amyloidosis. Congestive, or dilated, cardiomyopathy is characterized by biventricular dialtion associated with alcoholism, thiamine deficiency (beriberi), and cobalt toxicity. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by marked increase in ventricular wall thickness with small ventricular cavities, often with outflow tract obsttruction, as in asymmetric septal hypertrophy.


Input: [Question] All of the following pairings of red cell Rh types and ABO groups of mother and child may lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn EXCEPT: A. mother cde, A; child cDe, O. B. mother CDe, AB; child cdE, O. C. mother cde, O; child CDe, A. D. mother cDE, O; child Cde, A. E. mother Cde, B; child cDe, B. [Correct Answer] mother CDe, AB; child cdE, O. [Explanation]

Output: Hemolytic disease of the newborn does not occur when the mother is D (Rh-positive) and the child is d (Rh-negative) or when the mother is AB and the child is O. Rh-system incompatibility is seen when the mother is d (Rh-negative) and the child is D (Rh-positive). ABO system incompatibility is seen when the mother is O and the child is A, B, or AB. FROM TEXT: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) --results from maternal alloimmunization to fetal red cell antigens, classically the D antigen of the Rh blood group system. In the most frequently occurring form of Rh-mnediated hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother is typed as d and the fetus as D. --can also result from ABO incompatibility. In most instances of ABO incompatibility, the mother is blood group O and the child is blood group A or group B. Other incompatible combinations include: mother A, child B or AB; mother B, child A or AB. --occurs when maternal antibodies cross the placenta and react with fetal red cells, resulting in fetal hemolytic anemia. --can result in stillbirth or in hydrops fetalis, fetal heart failure with massive generalized edema. --can result in kermicterus, staining of the basal ganglia and other centra nervous system structures by unconjugated bilirubin. Kernicterus with resultant neurologic damage is the most significant long-term consequence of hemolytic disease of the newborn. --has been markedly reduced in incidence by preventive measures. Routine administration of anti-D IgG antiserum to D-negative mothers at the time of deliver (or at the time of termination of pregnancy) of a D-positive child results in the antibody-mediated removal of fetal red cells from the maternal circulation, preventing maternal alloimmunization.


Input: [Question] Ineffective erythropoiesis is characteristic of which one of the following conditions? [Correct Answer] beta-Thalassemia major [Explanation]

Output: Ineffective erythropoiesis, red cell destruction in marrow prior to red cell release, is a major characteristic of beta-thalassemia major and is caused by aggregation of excess alpha-chains. FROM TEXT: BETA-THALASSEMIAS (A TYPE OF HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA): --are the most common forms of thalassemia found in Mediterranean areas and in the United States. --are caused by defects in the promoter sequence, in introns, or in coding regions of the beta-globin gene. Beta-Thalassemia major: --is also known as Mediterranean anemia or Cooley anemia. --results from compound heterozygosity or homozygosity for thalassemic variants of the beta-globin gene. --is characterized clinically by: (1) marked anemia resulting from: (a) Modest decrease in hemoglobin synthesis (b) Marked shortening of red cell life span due to aggregation of insoluble excess alpha-chains (c) INEFFECTIVE ERYTHROPOIESIS (FROM QUESTION STEM) (d) Relative folate deficiency (2) Marked splenomegaly (3) Distortion of skull, facial bones, and long bones because of erythroid marrow expansion (4) Thalassemic red cell morphology (marked microcytosis, hypochromia, target cells, extensive changes in size and shape) (5) Increased hemoglobin F (alpha2gamma2) throughout life (6) Generalized hemosiderosis due to chronic hemolysis, ineffective erythropoiesis, and repeated transfusions *MY INCORRECT ANSWER: ANEMIA OF CHRONIC DISEASE --is a common form of anemia, second in incidence to iron deficiency anemia. --can be secondary to a wide variety of primary disorders, including rheumatoid arthritis, renal disease, or chronic infection. --is often normochromic and normocytic --when associated with renal disease, may be moderately macrocytic. --when associated with chronic inflammatory states (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis), may be accompanied by decreased serum iron and hypochromia and microcytosis, mimicking iron deficiency anemia; however, IN CONTRAST TO IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, TIBC IS CHARACTERISTICALLY DECREASED IN ANEMIA OF CHRONIC DISEASE.


Input: [Question] increased erythropoietin (false) [Correct Answer] thrombocytosis (true) [Explanation]

Output: The combination of erythrocytosis, leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis along with splenomegaly is highly characteristic of polycythemia vera. Polycythemia vera is a clonal proliferative disorder characterized by a decreasxe in erythropoietin concentration. FROM TEXT: MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISEASE: B. POLYCYTHEMIA VERA 1. Clinical characteristics a. Marked erythrocytosis b. Moderate increase in circulating granulocytes and platelets c. Splenomegaly d. Decreased erythropoietin 2. Other features: a. Sluding of high hematocrit blood often leads to thrombotic or hemorrhagic phenomena b. Polycythemia vera often progresses to a late phase, in which anemia supervenes. This phase is often marked by bone marrow fibrosis and extramedullary hematopoiesis and a rising white bloood cell count, and it can mimic CML. c. Acute leukemia may supervene in approximately 3% of patients, most of whom have received antimitotic drugs or radiation therapy. 3. Diagnosis--polycythemia vera: --is marked by DECREASED ERYTHROPOIETIN (MY INCORRECT ANSWER), which distinguishes it from other forms of polycythemia, all of which are associated with increased erythropoietin. --must be distinguished from secondary polycythemia, which is associated with the following: a. Chronic hypoxia, associated with pulmonary disease, congenital heart disease, residence at high altitudes, and heavy smoking. b. Inappropriate production of erythropoietin, associated with androgen therapy, adult polycystic kidney disease, and tumors, such as renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cerebellar hemangioma. c. Endocrine abnormalities, prominently including pheochromocytoma and adrenal adenoma with Cushing syndrome.


Input: [Question] Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) [Correct Answer] Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) [Explanation]

Output: The illustration shows predominance of mature-appearing lymphocytes and several cells distorted mechanically in preparation of the blood smear (smudge cells), both characteristic of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL). CLL most often affects older persons, many of whom are asymptomatic for many years. Generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are frequent findings. FROM TEXT: C. Chronic Leukemias: --are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of the acute leukemias. --have a longer, less devastating clinical course than the acute leukemias but are less responsive to therapeutic intevention. 1. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) a. General Considerations (1) CLL is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic lymphoid cells (almost always B cells) with widespread infiltration of the bone marrow, peripheral blood, lymph nodes, spleen, liver, and other organs. (2) Leukemic cells are less capable of differentiating into antibody-producing plasma cells. (3) CLL most often occurs in persons older than 60 years of age and more frequently in men. b. Characteristics (1) The leukemic cells closely resemble normal mature peripheral blood lymphocytes and, like these cells, express surface immunoglobulin and pan-B cell markers, such as CD19 and CD20. They are also CD5 positive and CD10 negative. (2) The cells are susceptible to mechanical disruptioni and often appear on the peripheral blood smear as smudge cells. (3) The peripheral white blood cell count varies from 50,000/ul to 200,000/ul, with a preponderance of leukemic cells. (4) Leukemic cells diffusely infiltrate the bone marrow. c. Complications (1) Warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia. (2) Hypogammaglobulinemia and increased susceptibility to bacterial infection, often occurring early in the course of this disorder. d. Clinical features (1) The clinical course is usually described as indolent, often with few symptoms and minor disability for protracted periods. (2) Generalized lymphadenopathy and moderate hepatosplenomegaly are frequent features. (3) Mean survival is 3 to 7 years; treatment relieves symptoms but has little effect on overall survival. C. Chronic Leukemias: 3. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) --is a neoplastic clonal proliferation of myeloid stem cells, the precursor cells of erythrocytes, granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets. --is one of the myeloproliferative syndromes. a. Molecular changes (1) CML is characterized by a reciprocal chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22. The Philadelphia chromosome represents a remnant of chromosome 22 with the addition of a small segment of chromosome 9. This cytogenetic change is found in all blood cell lineages (erythroblasts, granulocytes, monocytes, megakaryocytes, B and T cell progenitors) but not in the majority of circulating B or T lymphocytes. (2) The c-able proto-oncogene on chromosome 9 is transposed to an area on chromosome 22, adjacent to an oncogene referred to as bcr (for breakpoint cluster region), forming a new hybrid, or fusion, gene bcr-abl. (3) Bcr-able codes for a protein (p210) with tyrosine kinase activity, which plays a critical role in the etiopathogenesis of CML. b. Characteristics. (1) Marked leukocytosis, with white blood c ell counts varying from 50,000/uL to 200,000/uL. (2) Leukemic cells in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, mainly middle-to-late myeloid (granulocytic) precursor cells, including myelocytes, metamyelocytes, bands, and segmented forms (3) Small numbers of blasts and promeylocytes (4) The Philadelphia chromosome, found in granulocytic and erythroid precursor cells and in megakaryocytes. (5) Marked reduction in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity in the leukemic leukocytes. c. Clinical Features (1) Prominent splenomegaly and modestly enlarged liver and lymph nodes. (2) Peak incidence in middle-age group (ages 35-50) (3) Terminates, in most cases, in an accelerated phase leading to so-called blast crisis marked by increased numbers of primitive blast cells and promyelocytes.


Input: [Question] cell surface markers indicating T cell lineage (false) [Correct Answer] 8;14 translocation (true) [Explanation]

Output: Burkitt lymphoma is a neoplasm of mature B cells. FROM TEXT: b. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas --are malignant neoplasms arising from lymphoid cells or other cells native to lymphoid tissue. --originate most frequently within lymph nodes or in other lymphoid areas. Tumor involvement of the periaortic lymph nodes is frequent. 8. Burkitt lymphoma --is an aggressive B cell lymphoma. The African form frequently involves the maxilla or mandible; the American form usually involves abdominal organs. --is closely linked to EBV infection (especially in the African variety). --is characterized histologically by a "starry-sky" appearrance. As a result of rapid cell turnover, the lesions contain abundant cellular debris that is taken up by non-neoplastic macrophages, resulting in this appearance. --is closely related to B-ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia of late-stage B cell origin), which is called Burkitt cell leukemia in the WHO classification. --is associated with a characteristic cytogenic change, t(8; 14) a. In this translocation, the c-myc proto-oncogene located on chromosome 8 is transposed to a site adjacent to the immunoglobulin heavy-chain locus on chromosome 14. b. Increased expression of the c-myc gene, presumably caused by the proximity of regular sequences of the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene, is characteristic.


Input: [Question] All of the following disorders are correctly paired with realted charactersitics EXCEPT: a. atelectasis - bronchial obstruction, b. adult resp distress - hyaline membranes, c. cystic fibrosis - a1 antitrypsin deficiency, d. acute epiglottitis - Haemophilus influenzae, e. asbestosis - ferruginous bodies [Correct Answer] cystic fibrosis - a1 anti-trypsin deficiency [Explanation]

Output: CF is associated with a mutation in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene; it is not associated with a- anti-trypsin deficiency


Input: [Question] Adult resp distress sydnrome is c/b all of the following EXCEPT: a. shock, b. sepsis, c. inhalation of toxic irritants, d. bronchial obsturction by foreing body, e. head injury [Correct Answer] bronchial obstruction by foreign body [Explanation]

Output: Although bronchial obstruction by a foreign body might result in atelectatic collapse of the pulmonary parenchyma distal to the obstruction, the diffuse alveolar damage and increased capillary permeability characteristicof ARDS would be an unlikely complication of this occurrence. Vearious conditions can cause this syndrom, including shock, sepsis, inhalation of toxic irritants, and heady injury


Input: [Question] All of the following disorders are correctly paired with realted charactersitics EXCEPT: a. sarcoidosis - npncaseating granulomas, b. idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis - antiglomerular basement membrane abs, c. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - immune complex disease, d. eosinophilic granuloma - Birbeck granules, e. goodpastrue syndrome - renal lesions [Correct Answer] idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis - antiglomerular basement membrane abs [Explanation]

Output: Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis is characterized by hemorrhagic lung involvement similar to Goodpasture syndrome, but notable diffences include the absence of antiglomerular basement memberane abs or renal involvement


Input: [Question] A patchy distribution of lesions throughout the lungs is characteristic of pneumonia c/b all of the following agents EXCEPT: a. staph aureus, b. viruses, c. mycoplasma pneumonia, d. Stre pneumoniae, e. Haemophilus influenzae [Correct Answer] Strep pneumoniae [Explanation]

Output: Patchy distribution of lesions throughout the lungs is charcaterisitc of bronchopneumonia, which is c/b a nubmer of organisms, most notably S. arueaus and H. influenzae. A similar distribution is observed I the interstitial penumonias c/b viruse and mycoplasma. In contrast, involvement of a single lobe, often in its entirety (lobar pneumonia), is chactertisitc of infection with S. pneumoniae.


Input: [Question] All of the following types of pneumonia are correctly paired with related findings EXCEPT: a. Strep pyogenes pneumonia - lobar involvement, b. staphylococcal pneumonia - absecess formation, c. Mycoplasma pneumonia - cold agglutinins, d. Haemophilus pneumonia - infants and childresn, e. Klebsiella pneumonia - high mortality in the elderly [Correct Answer] Strep pyongenes pneumonia - lobar involvement [Explanation]

Output: The most frequent etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is S. penumoniae, not S pyogenes. Staphylococcal penumonia is often compilcated by pulmonary or exrapulmonary abscess formation as well as by empyema, bronchopleural fistula, or baterial endocarditis. Diagnosis of Myocplasma penumonia, the most common nonbacterial pneumonia, is facilitated by lab demonstration of nonspecific cold agglutinins directed against red cells as well as by complement-fixing ab s and microbiologic culture techniques. Haemophilus pneumonia is most often observed in infants and young kids. Klebsiella pneumonia has a high mortality rate among hte elderly.


Input: [Question] All of the following cuasative microorganisms or disease enttitles are correctly paired with a frequent assoc or effect EXCEPT: a. bronchiectasis -abundatn sputum, b. bronchogenic carcinom - lung abscess, c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae - cold agglutinins, d. Staph aureus - lobar penumonia, e. Strep pneumoniae - exudate in pleural space [Correct Answer] Staph aureus - lobar pneumonia [Explanation]

Output: Lobar pneumonia is typically c/b S. pneumoniae. IN contrast, pulmonary infxn with S. aureus is mot often associated with bronchopneumonia, often with fromation of multiple small abscesses.


Input: [Question] All of the following disorders are corerctly paired with related charcteristics EXCEPT: a. legionnaries disease - AC systems, b. Q fever - livestock workers, c. ornithosis - richkettsial disease, d. measles - giant cells [Correct Answer] Ornithosis - rickettsial disease [Explanation]

Output: Ornithosis, c/b an organism of the genus Chlamydia, is not a rickettsial disease. Legionnaires disease, Legionella pneumophila infxn, has often been traced to contamination of AC systems. Q fever, the most common rickettsial pneumonia, often affects live-stock workers who handle cattle of sheep. Pneumonia fro the measle virus can take the form of giant cell pneumonia


Input: [Question] All of the following terms are correctly paired EXCEPT: a. actinomycosis - sulfur granules, b. cyrptococcosis - India ink preps, c.histoplasmossis - overwhelming pneumonia, d. coccidioidomycosis - spherules with endospores, e. nocardiosis - opportunistic infection [Correct Answer] Histoplasmosis - overwhelming pneumonia [Explanation]

Output: Histoplasmosis exhibits pulmonary manifestations similar to those of TB, and overwheming pneumonina does not occur. The most frequent form is the asymptomatic primary pulonary disease, marked by a POS skin test result and residual calcifications. Secondary pulmonary histoplasmosis can reslut in cavitary disease, and disseminated histoplasmosis involves the lymphoreticular system.


Input: [Question] Select the disorder with its association: Charcot-Leyden crystals. A. bronchial asthma, B. chronic bronchitis, C. emphysema, D. Bronchiectasis [Correct Answer] Bronchial asthma [Explanation]

Output: Charcot-Leyden crystals, thought to be derived from eosinophil membran proteins, are found in the sputum in bronchial asthma


Input: [Question] Select the disorder with its association: Bronchial submucosal gland hyperplasia. A. bronchial asthma, B. chronic bronchitis, C. emphysema, D. Bronchiectasis [Correct Answer] Chronich bronchitis [Explanation]

Output: The characteristic pathologica change in chronic bronchitis is hyperplasia ofbronchial submucosal glands and bronchial smooth muscle hypertorphy, which can be quantified by the Reid index, a ration of landular layer thickness to bronchial wall thickness.


Input: [Question] Match the pulmonary disorder with its association: TB. A. progressive massive fibrosis, B. Silicosis, C. asbestosis, D. anthracosis [Correct Answer] Silicosis [Explanation]

Output: Pulmonary TB is a major complication of silicosis. The cause of this association is unknown but may be due to altered macrophage activity.


Input: [Question] Match the pulmonary disorder with its association: Black fibrotic nodules. A. progressive massive fibrosis, B. Silicosis, C. asbestosis, D. anthracosis [Correct Answer] Progressive massive fibrosis [Explanation]

Output: Progressive massive fibrosis, a generalized pulmonary fibrotic change, soemtimes complicates simple coal workers' pneumoconiosis. Progressive massive fibrosis is characterized by fibrotic nofules filled with necrotic black Inida ink-like liquied. The lesions ma yblead to ronchiectasis and pulmonary hypertension.


Input: [Question] Which of the following phrases best characterizes ameloblastoma? [Correct Answer] Most often involves the mandible [Explanation]

Output: Ameloblastoma, a true neoplasm, most commonly originates within the mandible and less often within the maxilla. The origin is from the epithelial tissue involved in the development of teeth. The tumor is benign and does not metastasize; however, local expansion can have serious consequences


Input: [Question] All of the following conditions are associated with Sjogren syndrome EXCEPT: a. mumps parotits, b. keratoconjunctivitis sicca, c. malignant lymphoma, d. rheumatoid arthritis, e. xerostomia [Correct Answer] mumps parotitis [Explanation]

Output: Ther is no relation of mups parotitis to Sjogren syndrome. Sjogren syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by keratoconjunctivitis sicca and xerostomia, due to lymphocytic infiltration and parenchymal desturction of the parotid and lacrimal glands in assoc with a connective tissue disorder such as rheumatoid arthritis. Maligant lymphoma is a frequent complication.


Input: [Question] All of the following salivary gland tumors are correctly matched with the appropriate characteristic EXCEPT: a. pleomorphic adenoma - most common salivary gland tumor, b. oncocytoma - eosinophilic-staining cells; c. adenolymphoma - Warthin tumor; d. mucepidermoid tumor - "mixed tumor"; e. adenoid cystic carcinoma - presents with pain [Correct Answer] mucoepidermoid tumor - "mixed tumor" [Explanation]

Output: "Mixed tumor" properly refers to pleomorphic adenoma, which often deomstrates myxoid and cartilage-like elements in addition ot stellate or fusiform epithelial cells. Oncocytoma is characterized by cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Adenolymphoma (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum) is often called Warthin tumor. Adenoid cystic carcinoma often presents with pain due to infiltration of perinerual spaces.


Input: [Question] All of the following conditions are correctly matched wit hthe appropriate phrase EXCEPT: a. achalasia - acid gastric reflux; b. Mallory-Weiss syndrome - eophageal mucosal tears and hemorrhage c/b retching; c. esophageal varices - portal hypertension; d. Barrett esophagus - lesion predisposing to malignancy. [Correct Answer] achalasia - acid gastric reflux [Explanation]

Output: Achalasia is characterized by failure of relaaxation of the lower eophageal sphincter; acid gastric reflux is not an expected finding. The Mallory-Weiss syndrome (hemorrhage from esophagogastric mucosal tears) and bleeeding eosphageal varices (due to portal hypertension) are important causes of upper GI hemorrhage. Barret esophagus is a well-recognized precursor of adenocarcinoma.


Input: [Question] Predisposing factors that may lead to gastroesophageal reflux include all of the following EXCEPT: a. hiatal hernia, B. pernicious anemia; C. pregnancy, d. scleroderma, e. incompeten esophageal sphincter [Correct Answer] pernicious anemia [Explanation]

Output: Gastroesoph reflux of HCl does not occur in PTs with pernicious anemia, which is assoc with achlorhydria, total absence of gastric HCl. Hiatal hernia, pregnacy, scleroderma, and incompetence of the esophageal sphincter can all lead to gastroesph reflux


Input: [Question] An esophageal malignancy affecting the upper third of the esophagus is most likely to be: [Correct Answer] squamous cell carcinoma [Explanation]

Output: On a worldwide basis, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus Is much more common thatn adenocarcinoma. However, in the SU, adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus occur with equal freq because of a decrease in squamous cell carcinoma thought to be c/b decreased use of tobacco. In the upper 2/3s of the esophagus, squamous cell carcinoma is more common. Conversly, in the lower thrid, adenocarcinoam is more common. The other lesions listed above are rare.


Input: [Question] All of the following disorders are correctly matched with the appropriate hcaracteristic or causative agaent EXCEPT: a. congenital pyloric stenosis - palpable mass, b. adenocarcinoma of the stomach - H pylori, c. acute (erosive) gastritis - alcohol, d. autoimmune gastritis - lesion predisposing duodenal ulcer, e. Menetrier disease - gastric rugalhypertrophy [Correct Answer] autoimmune gastritis - lesion predisposing to duadenal ulcer [Explanation]

Output: Autoimmune gastritis is assoc with reduced secretion of proteolytic enzymes and HCl, as well as with antiparietal cell abs. It predisposes to pernicous anemia, other autoimmune disorders, and carcinoma of the stomach. Duodenal ulcer is unleikely in the presence of hyposecretion of gastric HCl. the hypertrophied pyloric circular muscle layer of congenital pyloric stenosis often results in a palpable mass. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach is often associated with H. pylori infection, as are chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer of the somach and duodenum. Acute gastritis is c/b various toxic agents, including alcohol, aspirin, and other analgesic, and cigarett smoking. Menetrier disease is defiene by the cahracterisitc enlargement of the gastric rugae.


Input: [Question] All of the following phrases concerning peptic ulcer are correctly mathced EXCEPT: a. peptic ulcer of jejunum - pancreatic neoplasm; b. Meckel diverticulum - ectopic gastric mucosa; c. gastric peptic ulcer - extreme hypersecretion of HCl; d. dudenal ulcer - most common peptic ulcer; e. blood group 0 - increased incidnec of duodenal ulcer [Correct Answer] gastric peptic ulcer - extreme hypersecretion of HCl [Explanation]

Output: IN contrast to peptic ulcer of the duodenum, gastric acid secretion is often not increased in gastric pepitc ulcer. It is reare, however, for gastric peptic ulceration ot occur in the total absence of HCl.


Input: [Question] Risk factors assoc with carcinoma of the stomach include all of the following EXCEPT: a. use of nitrites as food preservatives, b. high intake of animal fat, c. blood group A, d. chronic gastritis, e. pernicious anemia [Correct Answer] high intake of animal fat [Explanation]

Output: High animal fat intake is assoc with a secreased incidnec of carcinoma of the stomach. The ue of nitrites as food presrevatives, blood group A, crhonic gastritis, and pernicous anemia are all well-known asoc of gastric cancer.


Input: [Question] All of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis EXCEPT: a. bleeding being the most freq clinical presentation; b. crypt abscess formation, c. increased risk of adenocarcinoma; d. inflammatory changes limited to the mucosa and submucosa; e. involvement of any portion of the GI tract [Correct Answer] involvement of any portion of the GI tract [Explanation]

Output: Ulcerative colitis is limited to the large intestine, affecting principally the rectum and left colon and sometimes the entire colon


Input: [Question] The lesion shown below may occur in all of the following syndromes EXCEPT: a. Gardner, b. Turcot, c. Familial polyposis, d. Peutz-Jeghers [Correct Answer] Peutz-Jeghers [Explanation]

Output: The illustration shows a tubular adenoma, which is the most common form of adenomatous polyp. These lesions can be single or multiple, or they can occur as componenets of various multiple polyposis sydnromes. Notable among these syndromes are Garnder (assoc with osteomas and soft tissue tumors), Turcot (assoc with CNS tumors), and familiial polyposis. All of the foregoing are asoociated with an increased incidence of colon malignancy. In contrast, the Peutz-Jeghers polyp is a non-neoplastic hamartomatous lesion and is not assoc with colon cancer


Input: [Question] Match oral infection with association: Activated by febrile illness. A. vincent infection, b. thrush, c. aphthous stomatitis, d. herpes labialis [Correct Answer] Herpes labialis [Explanation]

Output: Herpes labialis is a recurrent vesicular infxn of the oral mucosa and admacent skin, c/b herpes simplex verus type 1. The virus most often resides in the trigeminal ganglion, where it remains latent until activation by stresses such as fever, trauma, sunshine, and menstruation.


Input: [Question] Match disease with association: Frequently complicated by malignancy. A. Ulcerative colitis, B. Crohn disease, C. Both [Correct Answer] Ulcerative colitis [Explanation]

Output: After a decade of disease, approximately 1/3 of PTs with ulcerative colitis develop colon cancer. Although there is some increased risk for malgnancy, carcinoma is an unusual compliation of Crohn disease.


Input: [Question] Match disease with association: All layers of intestinal wall are involved. A. Ulcerative colitis, B. Crohn disease, C. Both [Correct Answer] Crohn disease [Explanation]

Output: In marked contrast to ulcerative colitis, which is primarily a mucosal disease, Crohn disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall.


Input: [Question] Each of the following disorders is approximately matched with the corresponding hepatic change EXCEPT: a. neonatal hepatitis - giant cells; b. cytomaegalovirus infection - owl's eye inclusions; c. yellow fever - cholestatis; d. Echinococcus infection - large cysts; e. schistosomiasis - portal hypertension [Correct Answer] yellow fever - cholestasis [Explanation]

Output: Yellow fever characteristically results in midzonal hepatic necrosis, not cholestasis


Input: [Question] The most freq hepatic malignancy is [Correct Answer] metatatic tumor [Explanation]

Output: Although hepatocellular carcinoma is the most common primary hepatic malgnancy, metastatic tumors account for most malgnant tumors of the liver


Input: [Question] Complications or well-established assoc of gallstones include all of the following EXCEPT: a. biliary obstruction; b. cholesterolosi; c. pancreatitis; d. intestinal obstruction; e. malignancy [Correct Answer] cholesterolosis [Explanation]

Output: Cholesterolosis (strawberry gallbaldder), a clinically insignificant aberration characterized by yellow, cholsterol-containing flecks in the mucosal surface of the gallbladder, hs no special ass with gallstones. Well-known complications of gallstones include biliary obstruction, pancreatitis, and intestinal obstruction (gallstone ileus), often occurringlate in life. Crarcinoma of the gallbladder is more greq in the presence of gallstones.


Input: [Question] Match hepatic tumor with associations: Polyvinyl chloride. A. adenoma; b. hepatocellular carcinoma; c. cholangiocarcinoma; d. hemangiosarcoma [Correct Answer] Hemangiosarcoma [Explanation]

Output: Industrial exposure to polyvinyl chloride is assoc with increased incidence of hemangiosarcoma of the liver.


Input: [Question] A renal biopsy was taken from a 50 yo man with hypertension and the nephrotic syndrome. The appearance of the biopsy was similar to the illustration shown below. Of the following possible additional lab findings, which one is most charcateristcally associated with the lesion? [Correct Answer] Hyperglycemia [Explanation]

Output: The illustration shows nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules), the most characteristic glomerular finding in dibabetes mellitus. The nodules are accumulations of mesangial matrix-like material


Input: [Question] A 3 yo girl presents with generalized edema shortly after recovery from an upper resp infection. Lab studies reveal marked albuminuria as well as hypoalbuminemia nad hyperlipidemia. Prior similar epsiodes responded to adrenal steroid medication. The most likely diagnosis is: [Correct Answer] minimal change disease [Explanation]

Output: The combo of genealized edema, massive proeinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemai constitues the nephrotic snydrome, the prototype of which is minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis). This disorder charcteristically occurss in young children and demonstrates intracytoplasmic lipid in the proximal convoluted tubules, a paucity of glomerular abnormalities by light micorscopy, nad "fusing" (absence) of the epithelial foot processes by electron microscopy.


Input: [Question] A 28 yo woman presented with fever, dysuria, urinary frequency, and flank tenderness. The urine contained numerous neutrophils nad many white cell casts. Urine protein was moderatly increaed. A quantitative urine culture revealed more than 10^5 bacteria/ml. The most likely causative organism was: [Correct Answer] E. coli [Explanation]

Output: Organisms involved in most urianry tract infections are most often normal flora of the colon, and the most freq of these is E. coli.


Input: [Question] Associations of renal papillary necrosis include all of the following EXCEPT: a. impaired glucose tolerance, b. long-term use of pheacetin and aspirin compounds, c. myoglobinuria, d. fever and pyuria [Correct Answer] myoglobinuria [Explanation]

Output: Renal papillary necrosis (ishcemic necrosis of the tips of the renal papillae) is most often a compication of diabetes mellitus, chroniic analgesic nephritis, or acute pyelonephritis. It has no ascoc with myoglobinuria.


Input: [Question] A kidney demonstrating coarse asymmetric renal corticomedullary scarring, deformity of the renal pelvis and calycces, interstitial fibrosis, and atrophic tubules containing eosinophilic proteinaceous casts is most suggestive of [Correct Answer] chronic pyelonephritis [Explanation]

Output: The combo of coarse asymmetric corticomedullary scarring, deformity of the renal pelvis nad calyces, and tubular atrophy is characterisitc of chronic pyelonephyritis. When the atrophic tubules contain eosinophillic proetien casts, the resultant similarity in appearance to theyroid follicles is referred to as "thyoidization." Although an ifectious etiology is assumed, the infectiouis agent is often not demonstrable.


Input: [Question] A 2 yo boy with visible abdominal distention is found to have an enormous left-sided flank mass apparently arising form ,but dwarfing, the left kidney. Associations of the lesion include all of the following EXCEPT: a. congenital aniridia, b. subtle or gross deletions of the short arm of chrom 11, c. berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis, d. mental-motor retardation, e. hemihypertrophy [Correct Answer] berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis [Explanation]

Output: Bery aneurysm of the circle of Willis is a freq assoc and complication of adult polycystic kideny. Assoc of Wilms tumor noitably include gene deletions localized to the short arm of chromosome 11. In some instances, a "2-hit" mechanism of cancer suppressor gene inactivation, simlar to that potulated for retinoblastoma, appears ot be operative. Other associations of Wilms tumor include congeniatl aniridia, genitourinary malformations, and mental-motor retardation. Another unusual assoc is "hemihypertrophy" as part of the Beckith-Wiedemann syndrome; yet another is the Denys=Drash syndrom, which is charcteriized by intersexual disorders, nephropathy, and Wilms tumor.


Input: [Question] A 55 yo man presents with painless hematuria. On cystoscopy, a papillary mass is ofund in the bladder. All of the following are characteristic of the lesion EXCEPT: z. the incidnece is increaesd in cigarette smokers, b. the majority are adenocarcinomas, c. the incidnece is increased in aniline dye workers, d. it is more likely to be malignant than benign, e. similar leisions with similar histology can occur thorughout the urinary tract [Correct Answer] the majority are adenocarcinomas [Explanation]

Output: The majority of urinary tract tumors are transitional cell carcinomas. Adenocarcinoma of the bladder is rare.


Input: [Question] A glomerular immunofluorescent pattern for IgG similar to that shown in this illustration would be expected in which of the following PTs? [Correct Answer] a 25 yo man with hemoptysis and hematuria [Explanation]

Output: The illustartion demonstrates linear immunofluorescence, whichi is characterisitic of disease caused by antigolmerular basement memberane abs. In Goodpasture syndrome, abs directed against ags in the basement membranes of the glomeruli as well as the pulmonary alveoli result in both hemorrhagic penumonitis with hemoptysis and glomerular disease with hematuria.


Input: [Question] An enormously enlarged kidney similar to that shown in the illustration below was found at autopsy in a 65 yo man. Well known assocaiations or characteristics of this disease process include all of the following EXCEPT: a. cysts in the liver, b. berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis, c. hypertension, d. autosomal dominant inheritance, e. polycythemia vera [Correct Answer] polycythemia vera [Explanation]

Output: Secondary polycythemia, not polycythemia vera, is a complication of adult polycysitc kidney disease and is c/b increaed secretion of erythropoientin.


Input: [Question] Which of the following charcteristics is LEAST frequently observed in renal cell carcinoma? A. ectopic hormone production, b. fever, c. flank pain, d. hematuria, e. tumor cells in urine [Correct Answer] tumor cells in urine [Explanation]

Output: Malignant cells are only rarely detected in the urine in renal cell carcinoma


Input: [Question] For each condition, may type of renal stone associated: Leukemias nad myeloproliferative syndromes. A. calcium stones, B. ammonium magnesium phophate stones, C. uric acid stones, D. cystine stones. [Correct Answer] uric acid stones [Explanation]

Output: Hyperuricemia due to gout or increaesd urate excretion secondary to the increased cellular turnover of leukemias and myeloproliferative syndromes accounts for the presence of many uric acid stones.


Input: [Question] All of the following testicular tumors are correctly matched with the apropriate definition or assoc EXCEPT: a. seminoma - most common germ cell tumor; b. endodermal sinus tumor - occurs in infancy and early childhood; c. teratoma - almost always malignant; d. choriocarcinoma - increased human chorionci gonadotropin; e. sertoli cell tumor - freq precocious sexual development [Correct Answer] Sertoli cell tumor - freq precocious sexual development [Explanation]

Output: The Sertoli cell tumor, a benign non-germ cell tumor of sex crod derviation, is most often assoc with few, if any, clincally observalbe endocrine effects. This is in cotnratst to the Leydig cell tumor, another benign sex cord tumork which is often assoc with profound endocrine manifestations


Input: [Question] Match disease with associations: Visceral malignancies. A. Bowen disease of the penis, B. Erythroplasia of Queyrat, C. Carcinoma of the penis [Correct Answer] Bowen disease of the penis [Explanation]

Output: Bowen disease of the penis is assoc with an increaed risk for visceral malignancy, in contrast to erythroplasia of Queyrat, which is similar lesion that is not assoc with visceral malignancy.


Input: [Question] A 24 yo woman is seen because of high fever, prostration, vomiting, and diarrhea. Her pulse is rapid and thready, and her BP is 60/40. A diffuse generalized macular rash is noted. Culture of which of the following specimens will most likely lead ot the corrct diagnosis? [Correct Answer] Cervical secretions [Explanation]

Output: The assoc of a severe febrile illness with signs of GI dysfxn and a diffuse macular rash is strongly suggestive of TSS. This diagnosis is especially liekly if clinical abnormalities are asooc with concomitant mentruation and the use of high absorbent tampons. The clinical abnormalities are due to Staph infection of the tampon, demontstrable in vaginal secretions, and the elaboration of Staph exotoxins. The differential diagnosis includes strep infection, usually pharyngeal, with a scarlatiniform eruption; meningococcemia; endotoxemia assoc with various gram Neg organisms; rickettsial infections, and so forth. Except for Strep infection, all of these conditions are less likely than TSS.


Input: [Question] All of the following conditions or findings are correctly matched with the appropriate etiologic agents EXCEPT: a. cervicitis - Chlamydia trachomatis; B. condyloma lata - Treponema pallidum; c. condyloma acuminatum - human papillomavirus; d. multinucleated giant cells - herpes simplex virus, e. granuloma inguinale - Haemophilus ducreyi [Correct Answer] granuloma inguinale - Haemophilus ducreyi [Explanation]

Output: The etiologic agent of granuloma inguinale is Calymmatobacterium granulomatis, not Haemophilus ducreyi, which is the etiologic agent of chancroid, a STD common in the tropics but rare in the US


Input: [Question] All of the following conditions are correctly matched with the appropriate assoc EXCEPT: a. endometriosis - sever menstrual pain, b. endometrial hyperplasia - excess estrogen stimulation, c. leiomyoma - postmenopausal decrease in size; d. endometrial carcinoma - multiparity; e. ectopic pregnancy - hematosalpinx [Correct Answer] endometrial carcinoma - multiparity [Explanation]

Output: Endometrial carcinoma is assoc with nulliparity, no multiparity. Other assoc include obesity, diabetes, and hypertension, all predisposing conditions commonly assoc with excess estrogen stimulation


Input: [Question] A 20 yo woman presents with a solitary discrete, freely movable, firm, rubbery, non-tender, well-circumscribed breast lesion. On resection biopsy, the lesion appear similar to that shown in the illustrtion below. The most likely diagnosis is: [Correct Answer] fibroadenoma [Explanation]

Output: Fibroadenoma is a benign tumore most often presenting as a single discrete, freely movable lesion, often demonstrating a pattern of compressed glands and young fibrous stroma similar to that shown in the illustration. Fibroadenoma is the most freq cause of palpable mass in the breast in women younger than age 25.


Input: [Question] Match the condition with the association: Fluid accumulations in serous cavities. A. Dermoid cyst, B. Struma ovarii, C. choriocarcinoma, D. Fibroma [Correct Answer] Fibroma [Explanation]

Output: The triad of hydrothorax, hydroperitoneum, and ovarian fibroma is known as Meigs syndrome. The cause of this assoc is unknown.


Input: [Question] Match the condition with the association: Reduplication of meiotic chromosomes. A. Dermoid cyst, B. Struma ovarii, C. choriocarcinoma, D. Fibroma [Correct Answer] Dermoid cyst [Explanation]

Output: All benign ovarian teratomas are of 45,XX karyotype, and both isoenzyme and chormosome banding techniques suggest that these tumors are aberrant fetuses solely of maternal origin, arising afer the first meiotic division.


Input: [Question] All of the following characteristics are asooc with somatotropic adenoma EXCEPT: a. gigantism, b. acromegaly, c. basophilic staining, d. hyperglycemia, e. hypertension [Correct Answer] basophilic staining [Explanation]

Output: Somatotropic adenoma most often exhibits eosinophilic staining. This growht hormone-secreting tumor resluts in gigantism if hypersecretion occurs before epiphyseal closure, or in acromegaly if hyperfunction begins in adolescence or adult life. In etiher case, hypersomatotropism is often complicated by hyperglycemia and by hypertension


Input: [Question] Adrenal hypercorticism may be c/b all of the following EXCEPT: a. adrenal crotical adenoma, b. adrenal cortical hyperplasia, c. pituitary basophilic microadenoma, d. ptuitary basophilic hyperplasia, e. pituitary eosinophilic adenoma [Correct Answer] pituitary eosinophilic adenoma [Explanation]

Output: Hypercorticotropic ptiuitary tumors or hyperplasias are assoc with basophilic, not eosinophilic, staining.


Input: [Question] Which of the following findings is NOT an assoc of primary hyperparathyroidism? A. "brown tumor" of bone, b. dystrophic calcification, c. hypertension, d. peptic duodenal ulcer, e. multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome [Correct Answer] dystrophic calcification [Explanation]

Output: Dystrophic calcification occurs in precviously damaged tissues and has no special assoc with hypercalcemia or primary hyperparathyroidism, in contrast to metastatic calcification, which is the most signifaicatn complication of the chronic hypercalcemia of perimary hyperparathyroidism.


Input: [Question] A tumor similar to that shown in the illustaration below has observed in a biopsy specimen from the thyroid of a 50 yo woman. An adjacent lymph node was also involved. Which one of the following descriptions of this tumor is most appropriate? [Correct Answer] slow-growing lesion with relatively good prognosis [Explanation]

Output: The lesion shown is a papillary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is the most common form of thyroid cancer. This tumor most often remains localized to the thyroid and adjacent tissues for many years, even whne local lymph nodes are involved. Papilaary carcinoma is almost always nonfunctional.


Input: [Question] Type 1 diabetes mellitus is asoc with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a. focal islet cell fibrosis with amylin deposits, b. linkage ot HLA-D alleles, c. precipitation by viral infection, d. onset in childhood, e. propensity to ketoacidosis [Correct Answer] focal islet cell fibrosis with amylin deposits [Explanation]

Output: Islet cell focal fibrosis with deposition of amylin is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus. In type 1, the pancreatic islets are diffuesly atrophic, bea cells are greatly decreaed, and insulitis marked by diffuse lymphocytic infiltration may be prominent early in the disease.


Input: [Question] Familial premalignant condition is associated with what nevus? [Correct Answer] Dysplastic nevus [Explanation]

Output: Some cases of dysplastic nevus occur as part of the dysplastic nevus syndrome, an inherited autosomal dominant condition in which there is a greatly increased incidence of malignant melanoma. BRS TEXT: DYSPLASTIC NEVUS IS AN ATYPICAL, IRREGULARLY PIGMENTED LESION WITH DISORDERLY PROLIFERATION OF MELANOCYTES, DERMAL FIBROSIS, AND OFTEN SUBADJACENT DERMAL LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATION. DYSPLASTIC NEVUS MAY TRANSFORM INTO MALIGNANT MELANOMA. DYSPLASTIC NEVUS IS FAMILIAL IN SOME CASES (DYSPLASTIC NEVUS SYNDROME); THESE CASES EXHIBIT AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT INHERITANCE AND A MARKED TENDENCY TOWARD CONVERSION TO MALIGNANT MELANOMA.


Input: [Question] Intradermal nodular foci of dendritic melanocytes associated with what type of nevus? [Correct Answer] Blue nevus [Explanation]

Output: The blue nevus, a lesion present at birth, appears blue because of the presence of foci of highly pigmented dendritic melanocytes deep in the dermis. BRS TEXT: BLUE NEVUS IS PRESENT AT BIRTH. BLUE NEVUS IS CHARACTERIZED BY NODULAR FOCI OF DENDRITIC, HIGHLY PIGMENTED MELANOCYTES IN THE DERMIS; BLUE EXTERNAL APPEARANCE RESULTS FROM THE DERMAL LOCATION.


Input: [Question] Childhood lesion with spindle-shaped cells associated with what type of nevus? [Correct Answer] Spitz nevus [Explanation]

Output: The Spitz nevus, formerly called juvenile melanoma, is a benign lesion that is seen most frequently in children. It is often characterized by spindle-shaped cells. BRS TEXT: SPITZ NEVUS (JUVENILE MELANOMA): MOST OFTEN OCCURS IN CHILDREN. *SPITZ NEVUS IS ALWAYS BENIGN. (THE TERM JUVENILE MELANOMA IS MISLEADING AND IS FALLING INTO DISUSE.* SPITZ NEVUS IS OFTEN CHARACTERIZED BY SPINDLE-SHAPED CELLS; IT CAN BE CONFUSED WITH MALIGNANT MELANOMA.


Input: [Question] Nonfamilial malignant precursor lesion, associated with what type of nevus? [Correct Answer] Lentigo maligna [Explanation]

Output: Lentigo maligna, or Hutchinson freckle, is characterized by atypical melanocytes at the epidermal-dermal junction and is considered to be a precursor lesion to lentigo maligna melanoma, a form of malignant melanoma. BRS TEXT: LENTIGO MALIGNA (HUTCHINSON FRECKLE): LENTIGO MALIGNA IS A NONFAMILIAL PRECURSOR TO LENTIGO MALIGNA MELANOMA. LENTIGO MALIGNA IS AN IRREGULAR MACULAR PIGMENTED LESION ON SUN-EXPOSED SKIN. LENTIGO MALIGNA (HUTCHINSON FRECKLE) IS CHARACTERIZED BY ATYPICAL MELANOCYTES AT THE EPIDERMAL-DERMAL JUNCTION.


Input: [Question] Describe the nevocellular nevus (common mole): [Correct Answer] n/a [Explanation]

Output: *Nevocellular nevus is variably classified as a benign tumor or hamartoma; nevus cells are derived from melanocytes and ordinarily occur in clusters or nests.* The three most common types of nevocellular nevi are: a. Junctional nevus--nevus cells confined to the epidermal-dermal junction. b. Compound nevus--nevus cells both at the epidermal-dermal junction and in the dermis. c. intradermal nevus--nevus cells confined to clusters within the dermis (these cells are often nonpigmented).


Input: [Question] Angular atrophy predominantly involving type II muscle fibers [Correct Answer] Angular atrophy predominantly involving type I muscle fibers. [Explanation]

Output: Disuse atrophy is histologically characterized by angular atrophic changes predominantly involving type II muscle fibers. Similar changes involving both type I and type II fibers, fiber-type grouping, and target fibers are all associated with denervation atrophy. BRS TEXT: DISUSE ATROPHY: IS ASSOCIATED WITH PROLONGED IMMOBILIZATION. DISUSE ATROPHY IS CHARACTERIZED HISTOLOGICALLY BY ANGULAR ATROPHY, PRIMARILY OF TYPE II FIBERS.


Input: [Question] autosomal recessive inheritance (false) [Correct Answer] partial or segmental gene deletion mutations (true) [Explanation]

Output: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked disorder characterized by progressive muscular wasting beginning in proximal muscles and by the late development of pseudohypertrophy. The disorder is caused by deletions and point mutations in the dystrophin gene, leading to essentially total absence of dystrophin. BRS TEXT: DUCHENNE MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY EXHIBIT X-LINKED INHERITANCE, WITH UP TO ONE THIRD OF CASES RESULTING FROM DE NOVO MUTATION. VARIOUS DELETIONS OR POINT MUTATIONS OCCUR INVOLVING SEGMENTS OF THE DYSTROPHIN GENE, WHICH IS LOCATED ON THE SHORT ARM OF THE X CHROMOSOME. THE MUTATIONS ARE VARIABLE BUT ARE CONSTANT WITHIN FAMILIES AND LEAD CHARACTERISTICALLY TO A DNA CODING FRAMESHIFT, WITH RESULTANT FORMATION OF STOP CODONS AND TOTAL FAILURE OF DYSTROPHIN SYNTHESIS.


Input: [Question] All of the following statements concerning cerebrovascular disease aer true EXCEPT: a. most common cuase is emoblization from cardiac mural thrombi, b. infarction is more freq than hemorrhage, c. hemorrhage is freq assoc with hypertension, d. subarachnoid hemorrhage is freq assoc with bery aneurysm of the circle of Willis, e. atherosclerosis is the most freq underlying babsis of arterial thrombossi and occlusion [Correct Answer] most common cuase is emoblization form cardiac mural thrombi [Explanation]

Output: Embolic obstruction of cerebral vessels with resultant infarction is less freq than local thrombotic occlusion assoc with atherosclerotic disease. However, in PTs such as those with chronic atrial fibrillation, the devleopment of atrial mural thrombi and subsequent cerebral embolization is a threat. Cerebral hemorrhage is often assoc with hypertension; when hemorrhage is subarachnoid in distribution, rupture of a berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis is a freq finding


Input: [Question] A 75 yo woman appeared well after slipping on wet pavement and striking the right side of her head. When questioned, she said tha tshe did not remember the fall. Subsequently she complained of persistent headache and confusion. MRI studies revealed a subdural hematoma ove rthe lateral aspectof the reight cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following is a well-known assoc or characteristic of this disorder? [Correct Answer] characteristically c/b venous hemorrhage [Explanation]

Output: Subdural hematoma is charcteristically c/b venous bleeding, most often from veins that join the cerebrum to venous sinuses withing the dura. The venous hemorrhage typically arrests early, but the volume of the hematoma gradually incrases because of osmotic imbibement of water. This results in a slowly enlarging tumor-like mass characterized clinically by gradual signs of cerebral comkpression occurring hours to days or even weeks after head injury.


Input: [Question] A 2 yo child presents with fever, headache, prostration, and nuchal rigidity. The CSF is cloudy, and microscopic examination reveals innumerable neutrophils. The CSF protein is increased, and glucose is decreased. The most likely etiologic agent is: [Correct Answer] Strep pneumoniae [Explanation]

Output: Pyogenic meningitis in older infants and youn kids is most freq c/b Strep pneumoniae or Neisseria meningitidis. In newborns, the most likely agents aer group B streptococci, E. coli, and Listeria; in youg adults, the most freq agaent is N. Meningitidis. In older adults, especially those with impaired reisstance to infection, the most common etiologic agents are S. pneumoniae and Gram neg rods.


Input: [Question] All of the following charcterisitcs are asoociated with infantile toxoplasmosis EXCEPT: a. periventricular calcifications demonstrable by readiograph, b. common occurrence of hydrocephalus, mental reatrdation, and other neuroligic abnormalities; c. favored sites of involvement include the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, retinae, heart, lungs, and liver;, d. charatceristically spread by a child ingesting foods contaminated by the urine of household pets; e. cats are frequent reservoir [Correct Answer] characteristically spread by a child ingetsting food s contaminated by the urine of household pets [Explanation]

Output: In the infantile form of toxoplasmosis, Toxoplasma gondii is characteristically transmitted transplacentally from an infected mother and not by ingestion of food contaminated by animal urine or feces, as occurs in older children


Input: [Question] All of the following viral diseases or viruses are correctly matched with the approprieate association or characteristic EXCEPT: a. St. Louis encephalitis - reservoir is horses and birds; b. herpes simplex encephalitis - common compication of herpes simplex virus infection; c. poliomyelitis - degeneration and necrosis of anterior horn cells of spinal cord; d. rabies - Negri bodies; e. cytomegalovirus infection - immunosuppressed persons [Correct Answer] herpes simplex encephalitis - common compication of herpes simplex virus infection [Explanation]

Output: Herpes simplex encephalitis is an uncommon complication of HSV infection but is, nonetheless, the most common form ofsevere viral encephalitis.


Input: [Question] All of the following diseases of viral or suspected vrial etiology are correctly mathced with the appropriate association or charcaterisitc EXCEPT: a.AIDS - CD4+ T lymphocytes probable vehicle for viral entry into the CNS; b. kuru - ingestion of human brain; c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease - possible danger to health workers; d. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis - measles virus; e. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy - leukemia or lymphoma [Correct Answer] AIDS - CD4+ T lymphocytes probable vehicle for viral entry into the CNS [Explanation]

Output: Cells of monocyte-macrophage origin are considered to be the probable vehicle by which HIV infection enters the CNS, and these cells most likely function as a viral reservoir.


Input: [Question] All of the following are characteristics of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis EXCEPT: a. association with a papovavirus, b. invollvement of anterior motor neurons, c. involvement of lateral corticospinal tracts, d. symmetric hyperreflexia and spasticity, e. symmetric muscle atrophy and fasciculation [Correct Answer] association with a papovavirus [Explanation]

Output: The JC polyoma papovavirus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. The cause of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease) remains unknown.


Input: [Question] All of the following disorders are correctly matched with the appropriate association or characteristic EXCEPT: a. guillain-Barre syndrome - albumiocytologic dissociation, b. Alzheimer disease - focal spherical collections of swollen nerve cell processes with a centeral amyloid core, C. Huntington disease - hereditary disorder with delay of clinical onset utnil age 30-40, d. Pick disease - Lewy Bodies, e. Parkinson disease - depigmentation of cells of substantia nigra [Correct Answer] Pick disease - Lewy Bodies [Explanation]

Output: Lewy bodies are characteristic eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions observed in idiopathic Parkinson disease, not Pick disease, and are noted within the depigmented cells of the substantia nigra, whciih are alos characteristic of this disorder


Input: [Question] The ability of a lab test to correctly ID individuals with a specific disease is reffered to as [Correct Answer] sensitivity [Explanation]

Output: Sensitivity is defined as the abililty of a test of be Pos in PTs with a specific disease. It is calcualted by dividing the number of Pos resluts in PTs by the total numbre of PTs.


Input: [Question] The ability of a lab test to correctly ID individuals who are free of a specific disorder is reffered to as [Correct Answer] specificity [Explanation]

Output: Specificity is defninde as the abillity of a test ot be negative in healthy persons and is calculated by dividing the number of neg results in healthy persons by thte total number of healthy persons


Input: [Question] A new test for disease A is found to have a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 99%. The test is further evaluated in 3 highly selecte population subgroups with differing prevalances of the disease. Match the likelihood that the new test correctly IDs a PT with disease A. with the appropriate subgroup. A subgroup in which the prevalence is 1 in 1000. A. 1%, B. 9%, C.50%, D. 92%, E. 99% [Correct Answer] 9% [Explanation]

Output: A population afrbitrarily set at 100,000 will include 100 PTs with the disease A and 99,900 individuals free of disease A. Of the 100 PTs, 99 will test pos. Of the 99,900 unaffected persons, 999 will test pos. The total number of pos results is thus 99 + 999. The predictive value of a pos result is then 99/(99+999), or 9%.


Input: [Question] A new test for disease A is found to have a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 99%. The test is further evaluated in 3 highly selecte population subgroups with differing prevalances of the disease. Match the likelihood that the new test correctly IDs a PT with disease A. with the appropriate subgroup. A subgroup in which the prevalence is 1 in 10. A. 1%, B. 9%, C.50%, D. 92%, E. 99% [Correct Answer] 92% [Explanation]

Output: In this very high prevalence subgroup, the predictive value of a pos reslut is 92%. These 3 examples illustrate the profound effcect of prevalence on the usefulness of a diagnostic test. A test procedure is more likely to be useful when directed to PTs who have a high likelihood of the disorder, as dedictated by good clincal judment, than when used in an indiscrminate, unselective fashion.


Input: [2] an ideally perfect place, especially in it's social, political and moral aspects. [1]

Output: Utopia

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] An imaginary place where the conditions and quality of life are unpleasent. [1]

Output: Dystopia

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] An animal's or person's internal organs. [1]

Output: Entrails

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] where you pick the crop and gather it up and bring it home. [1]

Output: Reaping

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A person that makes medicine's and tell's you how to use them. [1]

Output: Apothecary

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Shiney, Sparkly, and colorful appearence. [1]

Output: Iridescent

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Wax that you use for making candles, medicice, and make up. [1]

Output: Paraffin

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] It's a peice of bone or wood that was used for trade like money, for goods. [1]

Output: Tesserae

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Not enough in amount or size. [1]

Output: Meager

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] shady characters that sell or trade goods. [1]

Output: Racketeers

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] something that keeps you alive, usually it's food. [1]

Output: Sustenance

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A payment that is made by one ruler to another that shows he admit's you are the boss. [1]

Output: Tribute

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] To feel bad about something you did and you promise not to do it again. [1]

Output: Repentance

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Betraying someone or your own country. [1]

Output: Treason

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] It mean's almost the same thing or the same thing. [1]

Output: Synonymous

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Weak, not strong. [1]

Output: Tenuous

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Braided hair. [1]

Output: Plaited

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Not possible to do something or able to do it the right way. [1]

Output: Insurmountable

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] A weapon that is a heavy club with a round spiked metal head. [1]

Output: Maces

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Disipointing end to a story. [1]

Output: Anti-climactic

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Given permission by a boss of the people to do something. [1]

Output: Sanctioned

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] How somebody behaves or looks. [1]

Output: Demeanor

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Something or somebody that is old and warn out. [1]

Output: Decrepit

The Hunger Games Vocabulary Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Family] Nuclear Family

Output: impermanent, lasts only as long as the parents and children remain together...most people belong to at least two at different times

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Family of Orientation

Output: family in which one is born and grow up

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Family of Procreation

Output: formed when one marries and has children

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Zadruga (alternative nuclear family)

Output: from former Yugoslavia, extended family households, headed by a male household head and his wife, took precedence over its component units. Included married sons and their wives and children

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Nayars (alternative nuclear family)

Output: a large and powerful caste on the Malabar Coast of India, traditional kinship system was of matrilineal descent, live din compounds called tarawads whicc are residential complexes with several buildings headed by a senior woman

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Family Isolation

Output: isolation of the nuclear family from ancestors, arises from geographic mobility, associated with industrialism

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Neolocality

Output: married couples are expected to establish a new place of residence, "home of their own"

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Expanded Family Households

Output: typical of lower class, include nonnuclear relatives

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Extended Family Households

Output: when expanded family households include three or more generations. ex. zadgruga

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Collateral Household

Output: includes siblings and their spouses and their children, usually when nuclear family units are unable to survive economically on their own, pool resources

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Plural Marriage

Output: when a man weds two or more women

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Fraternal Polyandry

Output: when a woman weds a group of brothers, characteristic of certain Himalayan cultures

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Genitor

Output: biological father

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Pater

Output: socially recognized father

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Exogamy

Output: practice of seeking a mate outside one's own group, has adaptive value, pushes social organization outward, establishing and preserving alliances among groups

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Incest

Output: sexual relations with a relative, all cultures have taboos against it but the definition of kin is not universal

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Endogamy

Output: dictate mating or marriage within a group to which one belongs, less common, ex. members of ethnic or religious groups

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Caste System

Output: estreme case of endogamy, formally abolished in 1949 but structure still lingers, stratified groups in which membership is ascribed at birth, no intercaste sexual unions were permitted

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Marriage Can... (Edmund Leach)

Output: 1. establish legal father 2. give either spouses monopoly in the sexuality of the other 3. give either spouses rights to the labor of the other 4. give either rights over others property 5. establishes a joint fund of property 6. establishes a socially significant relationship of affinity between spouses and their relatives

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Maters

Output: socially recognized mothers

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Bridewealth

Output: a customary gift before, at, or after marriage from the husband and his kin to the wife and her kin, aka brideprice, makes the children born to the woman full members of her husbands descent group

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Progeny Price

Output: same as bridewealth and brideprice, pays so that the children are permanently transferred to the husband's group

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Dowry

Output: marital exchange in which the wife's group provides substantial gifts to the husband's family, best known from India, correlates with low female status, women perceived as burdens

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Plural Marriages

Output: aka polygamy, nonindustrial food-producing societies allow it

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Polygyny

Output: a man has more than one wife

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Polyandry

Output: woman has more than one husband

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Sororate

Output: if a man marries a woman and she dies, he will ask for a substitute, his sister...no need to return the bridewealth

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Levirate

Output: a continuation marriage if a husband dies and the widow marries a man of the same group

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Divorce

Output: more common in matrilineal societies, a woman residing patrilocaly may be reluctant to leave

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [Family] Polygamy in the US

Output: marriage to more than one spouse at the same time is illegal in the United States, but serial monogamy is allowed

Cultural Anthropology Flashcards - Cram.com

Group of people who are considered to be related in some way, for example by blood or marriage


Input: [2] abridged [1]

Output: shortened, usually in reference to a written or spoken work

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] browse [1]

Output: a. to look over reading material, sampling different parts. b. to look at in a leisurely, casual manner

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] citation [1]

Output: a. a reference to or a quotation from an authority. b. an official award for honorable behavior.

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] compendium [1]

Output: a. a short but complete written summary. b. a collection that includes a variety of written works.

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] entry [1]

Output: a. in a reference book, a subject or word and the information about it. b. the means or place by which to come in.

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] etymology [1]

Output: the origin and history of a word

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] gazetteer [1]

Output: a dictionary of geographical places.

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] homonym [1]

Output: a word having the same pronunciation as another word but a different meaning

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] lexicon [1]

Output: a. a dictionary b. the vocabulary of a particular subject or group

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] phonetics [1]

Output: the study of the sounds of a language

Vocab for Achievement Lesson 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What appears two days prior to a rash in Measles (Rubeola)? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Koplik's Spots on the Buccal Mucosa


Input: About 20% of men and 80% of women are asymptomatic with this STD. Resistant to Penicillin, but not Suprax or Cipro. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Gonorrhea


Input: Protection by actually contracting the disease. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Natural Immunity


Input: Developed by a person's own body and can be transferred in breast milk or across the placenta. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Active Acquired Immunity


Input: Temporary Immunity from another source that has developed immunity through immunization. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Passive Acqired Immunity


Input: Acquired Immunity [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: immunity that has occurred through immunization or the actual illness itself.


Input: Vesicles along one side of the thorax,face or trunk. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Shingles


Input: Why should a patient's fluid volume be increased to 3,000-4,000 per day when taking Sulfa? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: To prevent crystalluria


Input: Given to decrease urine alkalinity. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Gantrinsin


Input: Foods most likely to cause Salmonella [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Poultry and eggs


Input: How does HSV Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 survive in the body? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Invades nerve ganglia when it's replication diminishes.


Input: What are often the initial manifestations of Shigella? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Fever and abdominal cramping


Input: What should a pt. with AIDS clean surfaces with at home? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: A dilute solution of bleach (Sodium Hypochlorite)


Input: What is the normal bacterial count in urine? [Enuresis and frequency]


Input: Chills with some sort of respiratory distress such as crackle or use of accessorary muscles to breathe. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Pneumonia


Input: No lung sounds [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Pneumothorax


Input: Productive cough,Fever, foul, bloody sputum, chest pain, weakness and dyspnea. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Lung abscess


Input: Night sweats, low grade fever, cough, fatigue and weight loss. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Tuberculosis


Input: Pulmonary infiltrates on CXR, fever, dyspnea and non-productive cough [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Pneumocystic Carinii


Input: How often should the skin of Buck's extension be checked? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: The foam boot should be removed and skin checked t.i.d.


Input: S.O.B, chest pain and confusion after a fx. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Fat embolism


Input: Signaled by sx. of a systemic infection such as chills, fever and general malaise. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Osteomyelitis


Input: What will cause bleeding with a saturated dressing after a below the knee amputation? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Bleeding from a loosened suture.


Input: With this type of cast the shoulders should be higher than the buttocks. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Hip Spica Cast.


Input: Should ideally wear a brace 23 hours per day. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Pt with Scoliosis


Input: What is the first thing you should do for a pt with a fx. who becomes irritable, restless and confused? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Obtain ABGs as this may indicate a fat embolus


Input: What is the best indicater of circulatory compromise in a pt. who under went right hip replacement 3 days ago? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Pain with dorsiflexion of the right foot (positive Homan's sign)


Input: What should a pt taking Probenecid (Colcichine) be instructed to do? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Drink eight glasses of water per day to flush out any uric acid.


Input: A pt is c/o right greater toe pain after a right below the knee amputation, what should you do? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Give the prescribed analgesic


Input: Injury occurring from C1 through C8 [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Quadreplegia


Input: Injury occurring from T1 through L4 [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: paraplegia


Input: What test is it important to lye still during? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: CAT scan


Input: What are precipitating factors for seizure activity? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Increased Stress, insomnia and alcohol use.


Input: Difficulty recognizing or interpreting objects. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Agnosia


Input: What is the initial reaction of the nurse if a patient with Meningitis c/o increased severe headache and has a fever of 102.3. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Do a neuro assessment


Input: Pt with a C-5 injury eventual goal is to... [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: be able to self feed


Input: If a pt. with M.S laughs continuously you would know this was caused by... [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Destruction of myelin interrupts nerve impulses. The nerves which would be affected would be those leading to the frontal lobe of the cerebrum.


Input: Anticoagulant given after a CVA for quick prevention of thrombus formation. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: I.V Heparin


Input: What is the initial intervention for a pt. who has just had a CVA? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Lateral position with the HOB elevated.


Input: Pain is located in the epigastrium and occurs 1-3 hours after eating. [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Duodenal Ulcer


Input: Developes a few weeks after a burn when the patient expels a black stool [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Curling's Ulcer


Input: What should a pt. who has just had a gastrectomy with Dumping Syndrome be taught? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: To eat small frequent meals that are low in simple sugars.


Input: What type of a diet should a pt. with Ulcerative Colitis be on? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Low residue such as cottage cheese


Input: What is the purpose of using an elastic pressure garment after a severe burn? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: To reduce hypertrophic scarring


Input: The skin is most susceptible to skin excoriation after which surgical procedure? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Ileostomy


Input: Burn healing consumes large amounts of what? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Protein


Input: An early manifestation is crampy pain in the LLQ [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Diverticulitis


Input: A client with malnutrition has abdominal surgery and experiences wound dehiscence, what is the cause? [Enuresis and frequency]

Output: Collagen production is diminished. (Collagen is dependent on protein)


Input: Objective Explain how to restore sensitivity to an eye that has become inactive.

Output: A kitten that has one eye closed for a period of several weeks recovers better if it goes through a few days with the opposite eye deprived of vision. Evidently, the deprived eye regains more cortical functioning if it doesn’t have to overcome a competitor.

2-06 Development of the Visual System Flashcards - Cram.com

If an experimenter sutures one eyelid shut for a kitten’s first four to six weeks of life, synapses in the visual cortex gradually become unresponsive to input from the deprived eye. Consequently, even after the deprived eye is opened, the kitten does not respond to input. If both eyes are kept shut for the first few weeks, we might expect the kitten to become blind in both eyes, but it does not. Evidently, when one eye remains shut during early development, the active synapses from the open eye displace the inactive synapses from the closed eye. If neither eye is active, no axon displaces any other. For at least three weeks, the kitten’s cortex remains normally responsive to both eyes. If the eyes remain shut for longer periods of time, the cortical responses become sluggish and lose their sharp receptive fields. That is, they respond to visual stimuli, but not much more strongly to one orientation than to another.


Input: Objective Identify the characteristics of astigmatism.

Output: Astigmatism is a blurring of vision for lines in one direction (e.g. horizontal, vertical, or one of the diagonals). It is caused by an asymmetric curvature of the eyes.

2-06 Development of the Visual System Flashcards - Cram.com

If an experimenter sutures one eyelid shut for a kitten’s first four to six weeks of life, synapses in the visual cortex gradually become unresponsive to input from the deprived eye. Consequently, even after the deprived eye is opened, the kitten does not respond to input. If both eyes are kept shut for the first few weeks, we might expect the kitten to become blind in both eyes, but it does not. Evidently, when one eye remains shut during early development, the active synapses from the open eye displace the inactive synapses from the closed eye. If neither eye is active, no axon displaces any other. For at least three weeks, the kitten’s cortex remains normally responsive to both eyes. If the eyes remain shut for longer periods of time, the cortical responses become sluggish and lose their sharp receptive fields. That is, they respond to visual stimuli, but not much more strongly to one orientation than to another.


Input: Objective Discuss the visual impairments of people born with cataracts in either one eye or both eyes.

Output: People born with cataracts (cloudy areas on the lenses) in one eye develop nearly normal vision, but problems do arise if the left eye is affected. As previously mentioned, prosopagnosia is linked most strongly to damage to the fusiform gyrus in the right hemisphere. This hemisphere needs early stimulation in order to develop its particular expertise at face recognition.

2-06 Development of the Visual System Flashcards - Cram.com

If an experimenter sutures one eyelid shut for a kitten’s first four to six weeks of life, synapses in the visual cortex gradually become unresponsive to input from the deprived eye. Consequently, even after the deprived eye is opened, the kitten does not respond to input. If both eyes are kept shut for the first few weeks, we might expect the kitten to become blind in both eyes, but it does not. Evidently, when one eye remains shut during early development, the active synapses from the open eye displace the inactive synapses from the closed eye. If neither eye is active, no axon displaces any other. For at least three weeks, the kitten’s cortex remains normally responsive to both eyes. If the eyes remain shut for longer periods of time, the cortical responses become sluggish and lose their sharp receptive fields. That is, they respond to visual stimuli, but not much more strongly to one orientation than to another.