Input: [advantages of teams] interpersonal skills

Output: skills such as listening communicating questioning and providing feedback that enable people to have effective working relationships with others

Bus232 Unit 10 Managing Teams Flashcards - Cram.com

increase customer satisfaction improve product and service quality speed an efficiency when designing and manufacturing products increased job satisfaction


Input: [advantages of teams] skill-base pay

Output: compensation system that pays employees for learning additional skills or knowledge

Bus232 Unit 10 Managing Teams Flashcards - Cram.com

increase customer satisfaction improve product and service quality speed an efficiency when designing and manufacturing products increased job satisfaction


Input: [advantages of teams] gainsharing

Output: compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains such as productivity cost savings or quality with their workers.

Bus232 Unit 10 Managing Teams Flashcards - Cram.com

increase customer satisfaction improve product and service quality speed an efficiency when designing and manufacturing products increased job satisfaction


Input: Atrial Flutter [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Premature ventricular [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Ventricular Tachycardia [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Ventricular Fibrillation [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Torsades de pointes [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Accelerated Idioventriculare Rhythm [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: First Degree AV Block [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Morbitz Type II [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Third Degree AV Block [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Right Bundle Branch Block [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Left Bundle Branch Block [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Left Anterior Hemiblock [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Left Posterior Hemiblock [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Lown-Ganong-Levine Syndrome [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: What does the PR interval measure [Name this condition]

Output: Start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization


Input: What does the ST segment record [Name this condition]

Output: The time from the end of ventricular deploarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization


Input: What does the QT interval measure [Name this condition]

Output: The time from the start of ventricular deplarization to the end of ventricular repolarization


Input: What leads make up the "anterior leads" [Name this condition]

Output: V1-V2-V3-V4


Input: What leads make up the "lateral leads" [Name this condition]

Output: I, AVL, V5, V6


Input: What leads make up the "inferior leads" [Name this condition]

Output: II, III, AVF


Input: What is the duration and amplitude of the P wave [Name this condition]

Output: Duration: <.12 seconds, Amplitude: 2.5mm or less


Input: Where is the P wave normally biphasic [Name this condition]

Output: Lead III and V1


Input: What is the duration of the PR interval [Name this condition]

Output: .12 to .2 seconds


Input: What is the normal duration of the QT interval [Name this condition]

Output: .44-.86 seconds. (40% of normal cardiac cycle from 1 R wave to the next)


Input: What is the normal duration of the QRS complex [Name this condition]

Output: .06 to .12 seconds


Input: What does the term "R-wave progression" mean [Name this condition]

Output: The R wave get progressivel larger as you proceed across the precordial leads from V1 to V5


Input: Deep S waves are normally seen in what precordial leads [Name this condition]

Output: Leads V1 and V2


Input: What leads do you look at to identify the axis [Name this condition]

Output: Leads I and AVF


Input: The QRS complexes of Lead I and AVF would appear how in left axis deviation [Name this condition]

Output: Lead I - Positive and Lead AVF - Negative


Input: The QRS complexes of Lead I and AVF would appear how in right axis deviation [Name this condition]

Output: Lead I - Negative and Lead AVF-Positive


Input: What leads do you look at to diagnose atrial enlargement [Name this condition]

Output: Leads II and V1


Input: How is right atrial enlargement characterized [Name this condition]

Output: P wave larger than normal in lead II and large upright first portion of biphasic P wave in lead V1 (often caused by lung disease)


Input: How is left atrial enlargement characterized [Name this condition]

Output: Widdened P wave in lead II with the second portion being at least one small block wide and the biphasic P wave of lead V1 showing the second portion of the P wave dipping below the baseline by at least one small block.


Input: How is right ventricular hypertrophy recognized [Name this condition]

Output: Right axis deviation and the R wave is larger than the S wave in V1, whereas the S wave is larger than the R wave in V6


Input: How do you recognize left ventricular hypertrophy [Name this condition]

Output: The R wave in V5 or V6 plus the S wave in V1 or V2 exceeds 35 mm and the R wave in AVL exceeds 13 mm.


Input: What is normal sinus rhythm rate [Name this condition]

Output: 60-100


Input: What rate do junctional pacemakers typically discharge at [Name this condition]

Output: 40-60


Input: What rate do ventricular pacemeaker cells discharge at [Name this condition]

Output: 30-45


Input: What rate do atrial pacemakers normally discharge at [Name this condition]

Output: 60-75


Input: What non-disease related conditions may cause PSVT [Name this condition]

Output: Alcohol, coffee or sheer excitement


Input: What can you manually do to slow or terminate PSVT [Name this condition]

Output: Carotid massage


Input: True or False. Carotid massage increases block in A-flutter [Name this condition]

Output: TRUE


Input: How can you distinguish a wandering atrial pacemaker from MAT [Name this condition]

Output: MAT has varying P wave shapes and a rate of 100-200 whereas a wandering atrial pacemaker has one P wave shape and a rate less than 100


Input: How can MAT be distinguished from A-fib [Name this condition]

Output: MAT has easily identifiable P waves occurring before each QRS complex


Input: When should you worry about PVCs [Name this condition]

Output: Frequent PVCs, a run of 3 or more PVCs, Multiform PVCs, PVCs falling on T waves


Input: A run of 3 or more PVCs is called what [Name this condition]

Output: Ventricular tachycardia


Input: A PVC falling on an elongated T wave can produce what [Name this condition]

Output: Torsades de pointes


Input: Define bigeminy and trigeminy [Name this condition]

Output: Bigminy - ratio of one normal sinus beat to one PVC. Trigeminy-two normal sinus beats for every one PVC


Input: What is sick sinus syndrome [Name this condition]

Output: Demonstrated by alternating periods of supraventricular tachycardia and bradycardia. Often there is a long pause after the SVT of greater than 4 seconds.


Input: How is first-degree AV block identified [Name this condition]

Output: PR interval is longer than .2 seconds


Input: How do you identify Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach) [Name this condition]

Output: PR intervals get progressively longer until a QRS is dropped


Input: How do you identify Mobitz Type II [Name this condition]

Output: The PR interval does not progressively lengthen but a QRS is suddenly dropped then the pattern repeats


Input: How do you recognize third degree AV block [Name this condition]

Output: AV dissociation occurs with the P waves occurring at regular intervals and the QRS waves occurring at regular intervals


Input: What are the criteria for right bundle branch block [Name this condition]

Output: Wide QRS complex, Rabit ears in V1 and V2 with ST segment depression and T wave inversion, reciprocal changes in V5, V6, I and AVL


Input: What are the criteria for left bundle branch block [Name this condition]

Output: Wide QRS complex, Broad or notched R wave in V5, V6, I and AVL with ST segment depression and T wave inversion


Input: What axis deviation results from a left anterior hemiblock [Name this condition]

Output: Left axis deviation


Input: What axis deviation results from a left posterior hemiblock [Name this condition]

Output: Right axis deviation


Input: What are the criteria for WPW syndrome [Name this condition]

Output: PR interval less than .12 seconds, Wide QRS, Delta waves


Input: What are the criteria for Lown-Ganong-Levine Syndrome (LGL) [Name this condition]

Output: PR interval less than .12 seconds, QRS normal, no delta wave


Input: During an acute MI what 3 stages does an ECG evolve [Name this condition]

Output: T wave peaking followed by T wave inversion, ST segment elevation, Appearance of Q waves


Input: How do the inverted T waves of an MI differ from ventricular hypertrophy [Name this condition]

Output: In an MI the the inverted T wave is symmetric whereas in ventricular hypertrophy it has a gentle downslope and rapid upslope


Input: What does ST segment elevation represent [Name this condition]

Output: Injury


Input: What does the appearance of Q waves indicate [Name this condition]

Output: Cell death has occurred and is diagnostic of MI


Input: What characteristics confirm a pathologic Q wave [Name this condition]

Output: A duration greater than .04 seconds, the depth of the Q wave must be at least one third the height of the R wave


Input: What might poor R wave progression indicate [Name this condition]

Output: Anterior infarction


Input: What area of infarction develops with right coronary artery occlusion [Name this condition]

Output: Inferior infarction


Input: Lateral wall infarction results from occlusion of what artery [Name this condition]

Output: Left Circumflex artery


Input: Anterior infarctions are seen in what leads [Name this condition]

Output: Precordial leads


Input: Tall R waves with ST segment depression in lead V1 indicate what [Name this condition]

Output: Posterior infarction


Input: How do you distinguish rt. ventricular hypertrophy from a posterior infarction [Name this condition]

Output: Rt. ventricular hypertrophy has a large R wave in V1 like a posterior infarct but it also has rt. axis deviation.


Input: What are the EKG signs for Angina [Name this condition]

Output: ST segment depression or T wave inversion


Input: ST segment elevation may be seen in what two cardiac disease states [Name this condition]

Output: Transmural infarction or Prinzmetal's angina


Input: ST segment depression may be seen in what two cardiac disease states [Name this condition]

Output: Angina or non-Q wave infarction


Input: Peaked T waves througout all leads means what [Name this condition]

Output: Hyperkalemia


Input: How does low calcium levels effect the QT interval [Name this condition]

Output: Prolongs it


Input: How does high calcium levels effect the QT interval [Name this condition]

Output: Shortens it


Input: How does digitalis effect the EKG [Name this condition]

Output: ST segment depression with flattening or inversion of T wave most prominent in leads with tall R waves


Input: How does pericardial effusion effect the EKG reading [Name this condition]

Output: Low voltage in all leads


Input: What is electrical alternans [Name this condition]

Output: The effusion allows the heart to rotate freely in the sac varying the electrical activity with each beat.


Input: What are the EKG signs of pericarditis [Name this condition]

Output: ST segment elevation and T wave flattening or inversion often seen in far more leads that a localized infarction


Input: What type of blocks are seen with myocarditis [Name this condition]

Output: Bundle branch blocks and hemiblocks


Input: What are the EKG signs for an Acute Pulmonary Embolism [Name this condition]

Output: A large S wave in lead I, a deep Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead III (S1Q3T3)


Input: Anterior infarctions result from blockage of what artery [Name this condition]

Output: Left anterior descending artery


Input: Posterior infarctions result from what artery blockage [Name this condition]

Output: Rt. coronary artery or left circumflex artery


Input: S1 heart sounds represent what and where do they fall on the EKG [Name this condition]

Output: Closure of the tricuspid and mitral valves during systole and correspond with the QRS


Input: S2 heart sounds represent what and where do they fall on the EKG [Name this condition]

Output: Closure of the aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves and fall on the T wave


Input: Where does the S3 heart sound occur [Name this condition]

Output: Sometime after S2


Input: Where does the S4 heart sound occur and what does it represent [Name this condition]

Output: Falls on the P wave and represents atrial kick forcing blood into a stiffened ventricle


Input: Atrial Fibrillation [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Wenckebach [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Ischemia [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: Myocardial Infarction [Name this condition]

Output: Name this condition


Input: [1] _____is the horses frog? [2]

Output: where


Input: [1] _____ you at the stable? [2]

Output: were


Input: [1] I want to ___ a new harness. [2]

Output: buy


Input: [1] I see the foal standing __ the gate. [2]

Output: by


Input: [1] ____ is the ponies name? [2]

Output: what


Input: [1] Is there a ______ at the zoo? [2]

Output: walrus


Input: D. Television news release A TV news release would reach the largest amount of nurses, other health care providers, and consumers. The other options reach only a selected audience, such as nurses or policy makers.

Output: Which of the following strategies for communication of research findings would reach the largest audience? A. Presentation at a nursing research conference B. Presentation to legislators C. Publication in a nursing journal D. Television news release

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: C. Publications in clinical journals are accessible by practicing nurses, nurse researchers, and other health care professionals for years. Newsletters and presentations are available for only a limited period of time to select audiences.

Output: Which strategy of communicating research findings would probably have the most lasting effect? A. Presentation at an interdisciplinary conference B. Presentation in a clinical journal C. Publication in a clinical journal D. Publication in a research newsletter

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A. cognitive clustering Cognitive clustering is a comprehensive scholarly synthesis of scientifically sound research that is evident in integrative review of research and meta-analyses. Expert researchers, who have programs of research in this area, often do these summaries that are published in research and clinical journals or books.

Output: Comprehensive scholarly synthesis of scientifically sound research that is evident in integrative reviews or research and meta-analyses is called: A. cognitive clustering B. comprehension of research findings C. research summary D. synthesis of clinical findings

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: B. Nursing studies have adequate replication. Nursing studies that have adequate replication are strengths for research utilization, not barriers.

Output: Which of the following has not been identified as a barrier to using research knowledge in nursing practice? A. Findings are communicated primarily to other researchers B. Nursing studies have adequate replication C. Practitioners often do not value research D. Researcher-oriented studies often do not solve pressing clinical problems

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A. early adopters Eraly adopters learn new ideas repidly, use them, and then serve as role models in their use, but often do not create or initiate the implementation of new ideas. In this example, the new idea was communicated by the N.P. (innovator) to the nurse (early adopted) who assisted with making the change in practice for other nurses and health care professionals.

Output: A nurse practicing in a SNF heard about a new way to prevent falls in elderly patients from the nurse practitioner providing care to patients in the SNF. The nurse worked with that nurse practitioner to implement a protocol to prevent falls. The nurse's actions are typical of: A. early adopters B. innovators C. laggards D. late majority

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Evidence-based prcatice

Output: Approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client's preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1) Best available research evidence 2) Client population characteristics, state, needs, values & preferences 3) Resources, including practitioner expertise

Output: What are the 3 components that the nurse must be aware of when dealing with EBP?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: translating findings that are discovered in a controlled environment to real-life practice. Also, the outcomes found from human clinical trials need to be adopted and maintained in clinical practice. -• The testing of the effect of interventions in real life. • Aimed at promoting the rate and extent of adoption of EBP by healthcare providers. •Translational research further subdivided to describe both T1, which is moving research findings from "bench to bedside" and T2, the translation of results from clinical studies into everyday clinical practice and health decision-making. •The work in this competency is directed to T2.

Output: What is translational research?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: The systematic investigation of clinical phenomenon or the generating of new knowledge.

Output: Research

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - Was a term used in the 1980’s and 90’s to describe a 2-step process of dissemination and implementation. - Spread the word about your findings!

Output: Research utilization

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: The systematic efforts to make research available. Spreading the word about your findings!

Output: Dissemination

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Is the systematic use of scientifically sound, research-based innovations.

Output: Implementation

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Builds on RU and integrates clinical expertise and patient/family preferences and values.

Output: How does EBP build onto research utilization?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Are systematically developed statements to assist practitioners and patients make decisions about appropriate health care for specific clinical circumstances

Output: Clinical Practice Guidelines

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: How the EBP is perceived as consistent with the needs of the adopters or with past practice

Output: Compatibility (EBP)

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: How difficult the EBP is to use and understand. (How many steps, one step =good. Too many steps makes it too hard to implement).

Output: Complexity (EBP)

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1. Create an EBP culture (where clinicians are committed to all steps of the EBP process) 2. Ask clinical questions in PICO format 3. Search for the best evidence (use multiple sources to locate information, clearly identify search terms, inclusion and exclusion criteria (wouldn't want evidence about thyroid procedures with dogs) 4. Critically appraise the evidence (Is there siffiecient research? Are the results valid? Was there enough rigor? Hierarchy of evidence?) 5. Integrate the evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences and values (Adapting the protocol to fit the needs of the stakeholders (clinicians and clients)) 6. Evaluate the outcomes of the practice decisions or changes based on the evidence and applicability to your client population. (Did outcomes improve???) 7. Disseminate EBP results 8. Continuous evaluation of outcomes

Output: What are the steps to EBP?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Population (participants of interest) Intervention (needed for practice) Comparison (of interventions to determine which is best for practice) Outcome (needed for practice) Time oExample: P: Among residents of a skilled nursing facility (mostly elders), how would I: playing music in the dinning room from T: 7am to 8am C: compare with the usual practice of not playing music O: affect the number of people having breakfast in the dinning room (communication, social interaction)? Used to:o The PICOT define a problem and formulate a specific question about it

Output: What does PICO-T stand for? What is it used for?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: •National Guidelines Clearing House – Started in 1998 to store EB guidelines, provides free access and updated weekly •Evidence-Based Nursing •The Johanna Briggs Institute •Cochrane Collaborative •Health Information Resources

Output: What are some examples of synthesized knowledge that you can use in EBP?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: reflected in numerous ways, but especially in regard to effective and efficient assessments and diagnoses, thoughtful identification of problems, and compassionate use of individual patients' predicaments, rights, and preferences.

Output: Expertise

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: •Lack of time to locate and synthesize knowledge (Not enough time to research and get enough approval for your new EBP protocol) •Negative attitudes towards research and EBP •Some nurses lack of skill to search the literature and to interpret evidence •Access to the internet and computerized resources •These barriers need to be kept in mind even as one moves through the steps in the process. •It is your obligation to bring these new ideas to practice, to better the practice.

Output: What are some barriers to EBP?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Stage 7: Dissemination oWhen the practice change has been modified sufficiently in the Pilot Testing Phase, so that it is working as expected, it is ready to be implemented in other areas. oA detailed dissemination plan is needed to ensure a smooth implementation process throughout the organization. This includes planning for communication and training, and obtaining sufficient resources. oSend a publication out!

Output: When can you disseminate your EBP results? What step is "dissemination"?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: fairness of benefits distribution among beneficiaries should guide implementation of EBPs.

Output: What is the justice perspective of EBP?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: maximization of benefits and minimization of risk should guide implementation of EBPs.

Output: What is the utility perspective of EBP

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Output: What is a BMI that would be considered "underweight"?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 18.5 - 24.9

Output: What would be considered a normal BMI?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Overweight --> 25.0 -29.9 Obese --> Class I: 30.0-34.9 Class II: 35 - 39.9 Class III: 40.0 + (Extreme obesity)

Output: Which BMI range is considered to be overweight? Obese?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: The food pyramid indicates that the client should have: Grains: 6 to 7 oz per day Vegetables: 3 cups/week dark green veggies 2 cups/week orange veggies 3 cups/week legumes 3 cups/week starchy vegetables Fruit: 1.5 to 2 cups fruit per day Meat: 5 to 6 oz meat and beans per day Dairy: 3 cups milk, yogurt, and cheese per day.

Output: What are the daily recommendations of vegetables, fruits, grains, meat, & dairy?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A full liquid diet contains only liquids or foods that turn to liquid at body temperature. Pudding, juices, hard candy, Cream of Wheat cereal, and fruit smoothies are permitted on a full liquid diet.

Output: How do you determine which foods a person on a full liquid diet can or can't eat?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Gastric secretions are acidic as evidenced by a pH of less than 6.

Output: What is the best indication of proper placement of a nasogastric tube in the stomach?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - Should be at room temperature to avoid cramping - Should be hung at least 1 foot above the insertion point - Feedings may be administered if there is less than 90 to 100 mL of residual volume - To prevent or reduce the risk of aspiration, the client should be placed in Fowler’s position during feeding

Output: What are some things to remember with gravity feeding tubes?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 6 classes of nutrients: 1) Carbohydrates 2) Proteins 3) Lipids 4) Vitamins 5) Minerals 6) Water Needed for energy: Carbs, proteins, lipids Needed to regulate body processes: vitamins, minerals, water

Output: What are the 6 classes of nutrients? Which are needed for energy? Which are needed to regulate body processess?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Growth, infections, fever, emotional tension, extreme environmental temperatures, and elevated levels of certain hormones (epinephrine and thyroid hormones)

Output: What are some factors that increase the BMR? (Basal metabolic rate)

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Aging, prolonged fasting, and sleep all decrease BMR

Output: What are some factors that decrease BMR?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 3,500 calories = 1 lb.

Output: How many calories equal one pound of body fat?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Water... Because our body doesn't store it and it is the fluid medium needed for all chemical reactions

Output: Which nutrient is most vital to life? Why?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: pepsin

Output: Which enzyme breaks down protein?


Input: Overflow urination

Output: What is the main symptom of urinary retention?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1) Looking at lower abdomen, if it is distended to the left, you can know they have an extremely full bladder 2) You can also palpate it and watch it get distended to the left as well

Output: When a person's bladder is very full, what two ways will allow you to know?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Urea, ammonia, creatinine, uric acid (processed by liver)

Output: Give some examples of organic solutes in the urine?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Sodium, chloride, potassium, sulfate, magnesium, phosphorus

Output: Give some examples of inorganic solutes found in the urine.

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1200-1500 ml daily

Output: What is the normal amount of urine produced daily?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: pH: 4.5-8

Output: What is the normal pH of the urine?

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Cipro, keflex, septra, bactrim

Output: What are some choice antibiotics for the treatment of cystitis? (UTI)

Theory Final - New Stuff Flashcards - Cram.com

Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: D) Kussmaul's respirations are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate. Apnea: is described as respirations that cease for several seconds Bradypnea: resp are regular but abnormally slow Hyperpnea: resp are labored and increased in depth and rate

Output: A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the client is experiencing Kussmaul's respirations. Based on this documentation, which of the following did the nurse observe? a) Respirations that cease for several seconds b) Respirations that are regular but abnormally slow c) Respirations that are labored and increase in depth and rate d) Respirations that are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: collapsed lung

Output: What is atelectasis?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: EBP

Output: Integrates best current evidence with clinical expertise and patient/family preferences and values for delivery of optimal health care


Input: Research

Output: The systematic investigation of clinical phenomenon or the generating of new knowledge.


Input: Freckle, flat <1cm

Output: Macule

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Wart, acne or pimples (solid and elevated) <1cm

Output: Papule

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A bunch of papules in a patch.

Output: Plaque

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Flat greater than >1cm (birthmark)

Output: Patch

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Circumscribed, filled with thin serous fluid. Herpes, Varicella.

Output: Vesicle

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: macule or papule

Output: Mole

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1 cm or > fluid filled, semi solid, elevated, encapsulated.

Output: Cyst

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Red, irregular, raised, localized and edematous (HIVE)

Output: Wheal

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Circumscribed, filled with thin serous fluid. Herpes, ck.pox > .5cm

Output: Bulla

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Elevated, solid, hard mass thru the dermis

Output: Nodule

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Elevated, solid, hard mass thru the dermis > 2cm, poss. Irregular

Output: Tumor

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: On the ovaries and testes

Output: Where are the gonads located?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: In the center of the brain

Output: Where is the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland located?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Oogenesis or oögenesis is the creation of an ovum (egg cell). It is the female form of gametogenesis. The male equivalent is spermatogenesis . It involves the development of the various stages of the immature ovum.

Output: Define: oogenesis & spermatogenesis

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: GnRH is secreted by the hypothalamus and acts on the pituitary gland.

Output: Where is the GnRH hormone released from? Where does it act?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - FSH (Follicular stimulating hormone) - LH (luteinizing hormone)

Output: What hormones does the pituitary gland secrete that have to do with reproduction?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: FSH (Follicular stimulating hormone) - Women: Stimulates growth and maturation of follicles so ovulation takes place - Men: Stimulates production of sperm

Output: What is the FSH hormone responsible for?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: stimulates ovulation in females and the synthesis of androgen in males

Output: What is Luteinizing Hormone responsible for?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: FSH, LH

Output: In women, which hormone is released at puberty and cause ovulation?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Mostly negative feedback (low estrogen and testosterone, trigger increased release GnRH at hypothalamus / High estrogen or testosterone triggers decreased release of GnRH) Positive feedback with estrogen in women and happens at ovulation ( high estrogen, increased GnRh)

Output: What kind of feedback back system do the gonads have for the most part? In what case is this feedback system different (which is normal)?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: 1) Maturation of follicles 2) Complete ovulation 3) Develops into corpus lutheum 4) Secretes progesterone 5) Maintains vascularity

Output: What are the steps following gonadal feedback in women?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: +/- feedbacks that stimulate the pituitary

Output: How does the hypothalamus know when to release GnRH and when not to?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - Stress - Pregnancy - Strenuous activity - body fat (low body fat) - medications

Output: What are some factors that effect the menstrual cycle?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: low body fat = no period because hormones are made with cholesterol

Output: Why does low body fat mess with menstruation?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A period of about 4-7 years before menopause occurs where a woman's periods are longer/shorter, heavier/lighter, and they eventually stop all together.

Output: What is perimenopause?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Painful intercourse

Output: Dyspareunia

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: When the wall between the vagina and the bladder ruptures and bladder comes through to the vaginal side

Output: Cystocele

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: occurs when the ligaments that hold the uterus in its place in the pelvis weaken -- and the uterus tilts or slips, sometimes protruding into the vagina.

Output: Uterine prolapse

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: A leiomyoma (plural is 'leiomyomata') is a benign smooth muscle neoplasm that is not premalignant. They can occur in any organ, but the most common forms occur in the uterus, small bowel and the esophagus.

Output: leiomyoma

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - uterine and vaginal contractions - rapid release of muscular tension in the reproductive structures

Output: Female orgasm is a result of what two events?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Anti-hypetensives (beta-blockers, Ca2+ blocker, ACE, ARB, Diuretic)

Output: Erectile dysfunction is commonly seen with which kinds of drugs?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - absence of pubic hair - penile growths or masses - Vesicles, erosions, ulcers, edema - Penile discharge - Erythema at penis or scrotum - Masses at scrotum or inguinal region

Output: What are some abnormal reproductive assessment findings in male patient's?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: B) Erectile dysfunction

Output: A 58-year-old male patient with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) is undergoing rehabilitation following an ischemic stroke. The patient’s medical history is likely to be related to which of the following health problems? A) Inguinal hernia B) Erectile dysfunction C) Testosterone deficiency D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: With advancing age, changes occur in the female reproductive system. Many of these changes are related to the altered estrogen production that is associated with menopause. A reduction in circulating estrogen and increase in androgens in postmenopausal women are associated with breast and genital atrophy, reduction in bone mass, and increased rate of atherosclerosis. Vaginal dryness may occur and can lead to urogenital atrophy and changes in the quantity and composition of vaginal secretions.

Output: What are some very normal vaginal changes that happen in women during menopause.

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Foreskin (of either the penis or the clitoris)

Output: Define: Prepuce

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: The American Cancer Society recommends that men older than 50 years have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test yearly to screen for prostate cancer.

Output: What is the recommended method and age prostate screening should occur at/in.

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Output: What percentage of the infant's body weight is water?


Input: 60 % Intracellular: 40% Extracellular: 5% Interstitial: 15%

Output: What percentage of a person's body weight is water? How much of that is extracellular? Intracellular

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Loop diuretics may result in renal loss of potassium (i.e., hypokalemia). Clinical manifestations of hypokalemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, nausea, vomiting, paralytic ileus, soft, flabby muscles, paresthesias, decreased reflexes, weak, irregular pulse, polyuria, hyperglycemia, and electrocardiographic changes.

Output: With a PT who is on a loop diuretic, what should the nurse be looking for? Which signs/ signs of what?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Causes of hypermagnesemia include renal failure (especially if patient is given magnesium products), excessive administration of magnesium for treatment of eclampsia, and adrenal insufficiency.

Output: Which type of organ failure may lead to hypermagnesmia? Why?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: low serum calcium levels

Output: A positive Chvostek sign indicates which electrolyte imbalance?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Hyperventilation = blow off CO2, decreased amount of CO2, reduce respiratory acidity Hypoventilation = holding on to CO2, increase amount of CO2 in blood, increase plasma acidity.

Output: With hyperventilation you ________ CO2. With hypoventilation you _______ CO2.

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - Transport of nutrients, electrolytes, and oxygen to cells and carrying waste products away. - Regulation of body temperature - Lubrication of joints and membranes - Medium for food digestion

Output: Functions of water in body?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: SIADH, excessive ADH secretion causes water retention. Caused by cancers of the blood, and pituitary gland.

Output: What is SIADH?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: DI, diminished ADH secretion causes massive water loss, leading to dehydration. Usually caused by traumatic brain injury.

Output: What is Diabetes Insipidus?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Adrenal Glands produce aldosterone, a mineralcorticoid that promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.

Output: Where is aldosterone secreted from? What does it do?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: when the solutions on both sides of a selectively permeable membrane have established equilibrium or are equal in concentration

Output: Isotonic solutions

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: - when a solution contains a lower concentration of salt or solute than other solutions, the solution is hypotonic

Output: Hypotonic solutions

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: when a solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than another solution

Output: Hypertonic solutions

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Sodium --> 135-145 Potassium --> 3.5-4.5

Output: What are the correct levels of Sodium? Correct levels or potassium?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Calcium --> 8.6-100 mg/dl Magnesium --> 1.2-2.0 mEq/L

Output: Normal amount of calcium in plasma? Magnesium?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Daily fluid intake and output is usually 2000 to 3000 ml. This is sufficient to meet the needs of the body and replace both sensible and insensible fluid losses. These would include urine output and fluids lost through the respiratory system, skin, and GI tract.

Output: What is the normal amount of fluid intake for your average person?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: Signs of hypercalcemia are lethargy, headache, weakness, muscle flaccidity, heart block, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Paresthesia, facial spasms, and muscle tremors are symptoms of hypocalcemia.

Output: What are some signs of hypo/hypercalcemia?

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Research utilization involves: a. Communication of research findings b. observing outcomes from changing practice c. use of knowledge in practice d. all of the above


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Check

Output: To keep a strain on a line but to ease out only enough to prevent it from parting.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Ease

Output: To do something slowly and keep the strain off of the line but not allow a caternary

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Slack

Output: To ease out a line and put a caternary in it

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Take-in

Output: To bring in lines from the pier

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Cast-off

Output: To remove lines from the pier fittings

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Avast

Output: To stop

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Heave around

Output: To haul in on a line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] Line

Output: Measured by circumference. Line 1 3/4" or smaller is known as small stuff and measured by threads

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] Wire rope

Output: Classified by diameter and measured by the number of strands and number of wires in a strand.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] Swing Circle

Output: The anchor chanin plus the length of the ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] Drag Circle

Output: The anchor chain plus the length from the pelorus to the hawsepipe

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (small boats) Sea Painter

Output: a 3" circumference line led from the bow of the MWB to a point forward on the ship and secured to a deck fitting. Length determined to be that which would allow the boat to be positioned directly under the boat falls when tension is placed ont he line.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (small boats) Steady Lines

Output: Steadies the boat

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (small boats) Man ropes (monkey lines)

Output: Lines with knots every 13" that run down from the span (wire) which the boat crew places 75% of their weight on

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Bitts

Output: A pair of heavy metal cylinders, fastened in a vertical position on deck to which mooring lines are secured

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Chock

Output: A metal fitting that serves a as a lead for lines to a pier or to other ships. It may be open or closed

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Cleat

Output: A metal fitting with two projecting arms to which lines are belayed

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Bullnose

Output: Forward most chock on the centerline

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Hawse pipe

Output: A large pipe that an anchor chain runs through. his is where the anchor is stowed

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Chain

Output: Attached to the anchor to lower and raise it. It's stowed in the chain locker

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Turnbuckle

Output: Right and left handed bolts used to tighten or loosen something down

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Gypsy head

Output: A cylindrical device on the deck used to take turns of line or wire around to heave in line or wire

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Capstan

Output: Cylindrical device on the deck used to tak turns oe or wire around to heave in line or wire

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Detachable link

Output: Connects two pieced of anchor chian together

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Chain Marking

Output: Shows how much chian is out from the deck to the anchor

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Anchor

Output: Uses to hold an anchor chain in place, which in return holds a vessel in place

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Chain Stopper

Output: Used to secure the chain and is a quick release

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Pelican hook

Output: Found on the end of a turnbuckle and is passed over a link of chain

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Wildcat

Output: A sprocket type drun that is used to haul in and pay out on a capstan

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line Handling) Hold

Output: To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Anchor brake

Output: Used to stop the anchor chain. Brake pads are made of asbestos

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (ground tackle) Anchor buoy

Output: A small float attached to the anchor by a line to mark the anchor's location

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Hawser

Output: Any line over 5 inches in circumference

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Line

Output: A piece of rope, either fiber or synthetic

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Wire

Output: Referred to as rope, made out of metal

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Spring Lay

Output: wire rope and plypropylene line constructed together to make one wire

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Small Stuff

Output: A general term for any line 1 3/4" in circumference or less

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Flemish

Output: The method starting with the bitter end and laying successive circle on the deck in a manner of a clock spring with the bitter end in the center. It is only for decoration

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Coil

Output: To lay in circled one on top of another

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Fake

Output: To lay a line in long flat bite alongside one another

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Heaving line

Output: a light weighted line thrown across to a ship or a pier when coming alongside to act as a messenger for the mooring line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Monkey fist (heaving ball)

Output: A weighted ball of a heaving line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Marlin

Output: Two-strandes, left-laid liine hemp. (small stuff)

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Bight

Output: A loop of rope, line, or chain

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Bitter end

Output: The free end of a length of wire, line or chain

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Eye

Output: The loop at the end of a wire or line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Eye splice

Output: A short splice in line making a permanent loop

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Long splice

Output: Used to join two lines of the same size without changing the circumference of the line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Short splice

Output: used to join to two lines togeterh without consideration in chaning the cricumference of the line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Marlinespike

Output: A taper steel tool used for separating strande of wire rope and splicing

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Fid

Output: A sharply pointed, round wood used in separating strands of lines in splicing

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (marlinespike seamanship) Mousing

Output: A seizing of line across a hook to prevent a sling from slipping off

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line handling safety) Direction of line pull danger area

Output: Keep personnel as close to 90 degrees as possible from directional pull

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line handling safety) Safe distanced from blocks, cleats, gypsy heads, capstans, etc through which line passes

Output: 6 feet

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Line handling safety) Removal of loose objects (i.e. rings, watches, keys, etc)

Output: Does not give the line any obstacles to hook on

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Mooring Line

Output: Hawsers used to secure a ship to the pier, wharf or alongside another ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Breast Line

Output: Mooring lines that tend perpendicular to the ship's centerline

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Forward spring line

Output: Mooring lines that tend aft that prevent forward movement

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Bow headline

Output: forward most mooring line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Stern line

Output: After most mooring line

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Storm line/wire

Output: Additional line, sprind lay and wire put out to hold the ship fast during inclement weather and storms

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Tattletale Line

Output: Six thread spliced into a mooring to let you know when the line has reached its minimum safe working load

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Round Turn

Output: A 360 degree turn around a bitt, cleat or samson post

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Figure eight turn

Output: Line put from one side of the bitts to the other making an eight turn

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Dip the eye

Output: To arrange the eyes of the mooring lines on bitts or bollards to separate the eye of another so that either line may be removed without disturbing the other

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Single up

Output: To take in all doubled section of lines between the ship and the pier, leaving the vessel moored only by a single to the bitts or bollard

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Double up

Output: to double mooring lines for added strength

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Heavy Strain

Output: When a line or chain has meet or exceeded the safe working load

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Moderate strain

Output: When the line or chain has reasonable amount of tension but has not reached its safe working load

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Light strain

Output: When a line or chain is under a small amount of tension

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Frap

Output: when you marry two mooring lines together with small stuff

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Rat guards

Output: Round metal guards secured to mooring lines to prevent rodents off the ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Chafing gear

Output: Canvas, line or other material placed around rigging and mooring lines to prevent wear

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Rat-tail Stopper

Output: A braided tapering stopper used on mooring lines to temporary hold the line fast while making up to bitts

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Mooring) Safe working load (SWL)

Output: A formulated safety strength placed upon a object not to exceed

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment at sea) Underway Replenishment (UNREP)

Output: Connected Relenishment or Vertical Replenisment

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment at sea) Vertical Replenishment (VERTREP)

Output: Receiving stores or ammo wia helicopter

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment at sea) Connected Replenishment (CONREP)

Output: Receiving stores, fuel or ammo via another ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Replenishment course

Output: a course ordered by the officer of tactical command (OTC) to take into consideration of mission of the group and sea state

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Replenishment speed

Output: A speed ordered by OTC to take into consideration mission of the group and sea state. Normal speed 12-16 knots

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Control Ship

Output: The unit guide for UNREP. Usually the ship delivering will be combat logistic force (CLF). Delivery ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Approach Ship

Output: Makes the approach and keeps station on the control ship. Usually the receiving ship receives all shot lines. (With the following exceptions: CVN, LHA, LHD or if the receiving ship has a helo on deck)

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Delivery Ship

Output: Is the control ship (she will fly gold flag

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Transfer station

Output: A station on either ship where fuel, cargo, bombs and personnel can be transferred to or from.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Replenishment operation) Receiving ship

Output: ship that makes the approahc, takes the repsonsibilities for the approach and keeping station alongside the delivery ship

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Inhaul/outhaul

Output: Lines used to transfer cargo/personnel to and from the delivery and receiving stations. Inhaul/outhaul can be either wire or line and can be hand tended or winch operated.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Messenger

Output: A line made up of synthetic fibers that starts at 1 1/2 inches circumference and increases to 3 inches circumference. Used for sending the rig from the delvery station to the receiving station. The STAR messenger is 800' long of plaited polyester or 3 strand nylon

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Phone and Distance Line (T&D)

Output: The phone and distance line has two functions. (1) Allows for communication between the two commanding officers (CO and CO X83). (2) Allows the coning officer to maintain the correct distance between the two ships during CONREP. The glags on the T&D line are 20 feet apart and color-coded. At night time chemical lights are placed alongside these flags so that the conning officer can better determine the distance between ships.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Riding Lines

Output: Used on the fule receiving stations to take the strain off the hoses while the hoses are hooked up to the risers on deck. The only time you will need to use riding lines is when you receive any fuel rig with the exception of a probe fuel rig (ROBB, NATO BREAKABLE SPOOL.) Riding lines are made of natural fibers. They are 4" manila and between 25-45 feet

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Tiedown

Output: A line with an eye splice on both ends used to go around the fuel hose when you send a ROBB or NATO BREAKABLE SPOOL rig. These lines called tiedown are choked around the fuel hose and hooked up to the pelican hook on the free trolleys.

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Easing out line

Output: Line used to ease the span wire or highline clear of the deck edge on the receiving ship. Used when the CONREP is complete and the Highline?Spanwire are de-tension. Usually made up from 12 to 21 thread manila with whipped ends

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Highline/Spanwire

Output: Highline used for transferring cargo/bombs/personnel between delivery and receiving stations. Spanwire used on single or double hose fule rigs. The HST uses a 3/4" spanwire on our fuel delivering stations

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Probe/ROBB coupling

Output: A large metal fitting that's connected to the end of the fuel hose to deliver fuel to either a Probe/ROBB fuel receiving station

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: [(Line Handling) Hold] (Underway Replenishment) Station-to-Station phone line

Output: Sound powered phone line proveded from the delivery ship and tended from the receiving ship. For the purpose of communication between the delivery and receiving stations

ESWS Common Core Deck Fundamentals 106 Flashcards - Cram.com

To not allow any more line to run out or take any in.


Input: what does an increase in preload due to SV and EDV

Output: increased preload increases both EVD and SV (due to ventricular stretch)

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what does increased contractility due to SV and EDV

Output: increased contractility causes increased SV with decreased EDV *EDV is lower because ESV is lower from increased contractility

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: how does an increase in afterload affect venous return

Output: increased afterload causes decreased SV and therefore decreased venous return

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is used to measure: preload, contractility, and afterload

Output: preload - EDV afterload - EDP contractility - EF

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what can artificially elevated the PAWP beyond the actual value of LVEDP *PAWP is used to measure the LVEDP

Output: mitral stenosis

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: contrast the cellular remodeling involved in pressure vs. volume overloaded states

Output: volume overloaded - ventricular dilatation to increased EDV and therefore SV pressure overloaded - ventricular hypertrophy to decrease the afterload and increase the SV

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: how do myocytes that underwent ventricular dilatation eventually fail

Output: the stretch eventually reaches it limit and EDP increases more than SV, there is also an increase in afterload due to increased radius and thinner ventricular wall. Lastly the dilatated myocytes overstretch the myofibrils causing decreased contractiliy

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is cardiomyopathy of overload

Output: increased cell death in newly hypertrophied myocytes that underwent eccentric or concentric hypertrophy, this causes more cells to undergo hypertrophy to compensate and a vicious cycle develops.

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what two receptors are responsible for ventricular remodeling

Output: B receptors ATN II receptors

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what are the beneficial and adverse effects of sinus tachycardia in systolic dysfunction

Output: benefit - increase CO and contractility initially adverse effect - decreased filling time and increased energy demand

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: reverse treppe phenomenon

Output: the treppe phenomenon is tachycardia causing increased contractility due increased Ca entry; however when the HR is high enough this reverses and actually decreases contractility

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is cephalization in an x-ray

Output: blood being redistributed to to better ventilated upper lobes from edematous lower lobes

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: an increase in what starling force is associated with cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Output: increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary arteries secondary to increased LVEDP

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what are the benefits of ACEI/ARBs in patient with cardiac dysfunction

Output: 1. decrease cardiac remodeling by ATN II and Aldosterone 2. decrease Na and H20 reaborption, this leads to decreased afterload and preload

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: differentiate V1 and V2 receptors

Output: V1 - found on endothelial cells, causes vasocontriction and increases afterload and preload V2 - found in collecting ducts and stimulation increases H20 reabsorption

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what three things causes release of natriuretic peptides

Output: 1. atrial distention 2. ventricular distention 3. vascular distention

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is used diagnostically to differentiate dyspnea caused by heart failure vs. lung disease

Output: BNP is found in high concentrations in heart failure, not lung disease

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what does SV increase with increased EDV

Output: increased stretch causes increased affinity of troponin C for calcium, also increases passive elastic forces built-up by titin with increased elastic recoil

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what happens to B1-recepivitytors on the heart during chronic sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity

Output: receptors are phosphorylated and digested by proteolytic enzymes released by lysosomes, protective by limiting the effects of sympathetic hyperactivity

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is the initial benefit in ventricular dilatation

Output: increased SV by increasing EDV, however afterload increases and may offset any benefits

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what ventricular remodeling occurs after ventricular dilatation

Output: eccentric hypertrophy decreases afterload by increasing the thickness of ventricular wall, eventually fails itself due to myocyte dysfunction

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what two drugs retard cell loss from apoptosis and necrosis by inhibiting maladaptive growth

Output: B-blockers ACE inhibitors

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what receptors are known to mediate dyspnea in LV failure

Output: J receptors (interstitial juxtacapillary receptors)

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what is the earliest physical manifestation of systolic dysfunction

Output: sinus tachycardia

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: differentiate gradual vs. acute onset dyspnea on exertion

Output: acute - suggests heart failure chronic - suggests chronic lung disease

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: why do patients develop orthopnea of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Output: incrased ventricular EDP due to increased preload (venous return) from lower extremities or interstitial compartment

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: effects of ATN II on: blood vessel, kidney, heart, adrenal gland, brain

Output: blood vessel - vasoconsriction kidney - sodium and water retention heart - cellular hypertrophy and apoptosis adrenal gland - aldosterone secretion brain - vasopressin secretion

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: chemical inducers associated with myocyte apoptosis

Output: NO oxygen free radicals TNF-a ATN II catecholamines calcium overload

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: top three causes for LV failure

Output: 1. CAD 2. HTN heart disease 3. valvular (aortic/mitral)

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: where is chymase found

Output: cardiac mast cells converts ATN I --> ATN II in heart

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: cardiomyopathy characterized by LV diastolic dysfunction with elevated EF

Output: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: cardiomyopathy characterized by simultaneous biventricular failure with systolic dysfunction

Output: congestive cardiomyopathy

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: cardiomyopathy with both LV and RV diastolic dysfunction occuring at the same time

Output: restrictive cardiomyopathy

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: differentiate sarcomere organization between primary and secondary hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Output: primary - myofiber disarray secondary - organized sarcomere appearance (added in parallel or series)

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: differentiate the mechanism responsible for myocardial ischemia in hypertrophic vs. congestive cardiomyopathy

Output: hypertrophic - thickened, fibrotic ventricular wall leading to decreased coronary artery perfusion, causes ischemic in situation with higher demand for oxygen congestive - RAAS activation causes increased afterload with increased oxygen demand to overcome the increased afterload

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: what causes the outflow obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Output: arterior leaflet of mitral valve coming in contract with the hypertrophied IV septum

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: how would you distinguish the murmur heard in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy from aortic stenosis

Output: HCM - decreased LV volume causes increased murmur intensity Aortic stenosis - decreased LV volume would decrease murmur intensity *valsalva is maneuver to decreased LV volume

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: pharmacologic therapies used in: HCM, congestive and restrictive cardiomyopathies

Output: HCM - B-blockers and Ca channel blockers to decrease contractility, HR, and myocardial oxygen consumption congestive - B-blockers and ACE inhibitors to slow progression of cell loss restrictive - B-blockers to lower HR and increase filling time

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: lab finding useful for distinguishing restrictive cardiomyopathy from restrictive pericarditis

Output: increased BNP is present in restrictive cardiomyopathy

systolic dysfunction - decreased EF due to decreased SV with increased EDV diastolic - normal/increased EF because EDV is decreased


Input: [acculturation] age synchronization

Output: A person’s ability to manage his or her family, career, and age group within the right sequence and the correct time period.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] belonging

Output: Provides the sense of being more than an isolated individual.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] biographical life course

Output: The pathways that individuals take through their lives and how these pathways are influenced and intersected by life stages and historical eras.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] cultural life course

Output: Ideals of age-related progressions or sequences of roles and group memberships that individuals are expected to follow as they mature and move through life, such as the idea there is a specific age at which to marry and have children.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] culture

Output: A group’s distinctive way of life and its physical environment and includes values, beliefs, attitudes, artistic expressions, and the total man-made environments that are handed down from generation to generation.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] formal support network

Output: Assistance from private and public agencies that are equipped to handle repetitive and uniform services, such as health care, homedelivered meals, or homemaker's services.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] informal support network

Output: Family and friends who can provide physical care and emotional support.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] interdependence

Output: Occurs when people working together satisfy their needs better than they could acting alone.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] intimacy

Output: Closeness between individuals that allows for the exchange of affection, trust, and confidence.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] life course

Output: A way to analyze aging that looks at aging as a socially constructed progression of transitions and social roles that individuals are expected to use as guides in various life stages.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] macrosocial

Output: Social characteristics of society as a whole.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] microsocial

Output: Social characteristics of the individual.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] norm

Output: The standard, model, or pattern of behavior expected in society.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] residential segregation

Output: A settlement pattern in which high proportions of certain types of people are located in distinct neighborhoods or zones of a community.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] role adaptation

Output: The process of fitting role demands to an individual’s capabilities.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] role anticipation

Output: Process that involves learning the rights, obligations, resources, and outlook of a position one will occupy in the future.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] role negotiation

Output: The interpersonal aspects of the adaptation that takes place between role players.

The actual process of learning a culture.


Input: [acculturation] sensory deprivation

Output: Condition caused by limited meaningful contact with others, debilitating illness, poor vision and hearing, and decreased level of energy can all contribute to sensory deprivation.

The actual process of learning a culture.