Input: they stimulate parietal cells to make HCl and intrinisc factor - they also stimulate ECL cells to release histamine that acts on parietal cells to make HCl and intrinsic factor (works on H2 receptor - stimulates cAMP - which stimulates H+/K+ ATPase - releasing H+ into the gastric lumen - and K+ goes into parietal cell

Output: What are the 2 functions of gastrin?


Input: Cimetidine - reversibly blocks the interaction between histamine and H2 receptor (so can't signal parietal cell to to release HCl and intrinsic factor)

Output: What inhibits the action of histamine on the gastric parietal cell?


Input: inhibits cAMP (inhibiting - H+/K+ ATPase - inhibiting release of H+)

Output: What does prostaglandins/misoprostol do to parietal cells?


Input: inhibits cAMP - thus inhibiting H+/K+ ATPase activity (preventing H+ release into gastric lumen)

Output: What does somatostatin do to parietal cells?


Input: end in -dine cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine they reversibly inhibit histamine from binding to H2 receptors on parietal cells (thus inhibiting cAMP - and H+/K+ ATPase activity - inhibiting H+ release into the gastric lumen) used: peptic ulcers, gastritis, mild esophageal reflux

Output: H2 blockers - what are they? What do they do?


Input: potent inhibitor of P-450; has antiandrogenic effects (prolactin release, gynecomastia, impotentence, decrease libido in men); can cross blood brain barrier (confusion, dizziness, headaches) and placenta. Both cimetidine and ranitidine decrease renal excretion of creatinine Other H2 blockers don't have this effect.

Output: Toxicities of cimetidine


Input: end in -prazole omeprazole, lansoprazole they irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase on the gastric lumen side of parietal cells - inhibit the release of H+ into the gastric lumen used for: peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, esophageal reflux, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Output: Proton pump inhibitors - what are they? What do they do? What are they used for?


Input: secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid contents entering the duodenum from the stomach. Located in duodenal submucosa (only GI submucosal glands). Hypertrophy of brunner's glands seen in peptic ulcer disease

Output: what do brunner's glands do?


Input: brunner's glands - release alkaline mucus - to neutralize the acid released from the stomach - hypertrophy of the glands seen in peptic ulcer disease

Output: What is located in the submucosa of the duodenum?


Input: peptic ulcer disease

Output: What condition do you see hypertrophy of brunners glands?


Input: a-amylase, lipase, phospholipase A, colipase, proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidases)

Output: What are some different pancreatic enzymes?


Input: starch digestion - hydrolyzes 1,4 glycosidic bonds

Output: Function of a-amylase


Input: fat digestion lipids to fatty acids

Output: Function of lipase, phospholipase A, colipase


Input: trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidases peptide digestion secreted as proenzymes "zymogens" that are inactive

Output: Function of proteases? What are examples of some?


Input: activated into trypsin via enterokinase/enteropeptidase an enzyme from the duodenal mucosa (brush border) - then trypsin activates the other proteases and activates more trypsin production

Output: Function of trypsinogen


Input: starts digestion, hydrolyzes a-1,4 linkages to yield disaccharides (maltose, maltotriose, and a-limit dextrans)

Output: Salivary amylase


Input: salivary amylase

Output: what enzyme starts digestion/


Input: highest concentration in duodenal lumen, hydrolyzes starch to oligosaccharides and disaccharides

Output: pancreatic amylase


Input: at brush border of intestine - rate limiting step in carbohydrate digestion, produce monosaccharides from oligo- and disaccharides

Output: oligosaccharide hydrolases


Input: duodenal lumen

Output: Where is the concentration of pancreatic amylase the highest?


Input: only MONOSACCHARIDES can be absorbed (fructose, glucose, galactose) glucose and galactose are absorbed by sodium dependent SGLT-1 transporter fructose - absorbed via facilitated diffusion via GLUT-5 transporter all of the monosaccharides go from the enterocyte to the blood via GLUT-2 transporter

Output: How are carbohydrates absorbed?


Input: transports monosacchardies (fructose, glucose, galactose) from enterocyte into the blood

Output: GLUT-2 transporter what does it do?


Input: facilitated diffusion of fructose from the lumen of the intestine into the enterocyte

Output: GLUT-5 transporter what does it do?


Input: reabsorbtion of glucose and galactose into the enterocyte it is Na+ dependent!

Output: SGLT-1 transporter what does it do?


Input: Iron - absorbed as Fe2+ in the duodenum Folate - absorbed in the jejunum vit B12 - absorbed in the ileum with bile acids

Output: Where is Iron, Folate, vit B12 absorbed?


Input: unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine - contain specalized M cells that take up antigen B cells that are stimulated in germinal centers of peyers patches differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells, which ultimately reside in lamina propria. IgA recieves protective secretory component and is then transported across epithelium to gut to deal with intraluminal antigen

Output: What are peyers patches? Where are they located?


Input: IgA - made from peyers patches in the lamina propria and submucosa of the small intestint

Output: What is the antibody present in the gut?


Input: M cells - specalized cells of peyers patches - role is to take up antigen

Output: What cells take up antigen in then small intestine?


Input: bile salts (bile acids conjugated to glycine or taurine, making them water soluable), cholestrol, phospholipids, water, bilirubin and ions

Output: What composes bile?


Input: through bile!

Output: What is the only significant mechanism for cholestrol excretion?


Input: bile products of lipid digestion are solubilized into micelles by bile salts - the micelles allow fatty acids, monosaccharides, cholesterol to diffuse across the lumenal membrane - on the outside of micelles - there is bile salts

Output: What is needed for digestion of triglycerides and micelle formation in the small intestine?


Input: in the terminal ileum - if have resection of the terminal ileum - cannot reabsorb fat and will get steatorrhea

Output: Where are bile acids reabsorbed?


Input: breakdown product of heme metabolism (from hemoglobin in RBC's)

Output: what is bilirubin?


Input: heme (from hemoglobin in RBC) break down produces unconjugated bilirubin (indirect - non water soluble)- in the blood pairs with albumin - and have a albumin-unconjugated bilirubin complex - goes to the liver - UGT pairs unconjugated bilirubin with glucuronyic acid - forms conjugated bilirubin (direct - water soluble) - is excreted from the liver in bile - dumps into duodneum - bacteria in the gut change it to urobilinogen - 80% is excreted in feces as sterocobilin - gives feces its color 20% of urobilinogen is reabsorbed (10% excreted in kidneys as urobillin - gives urine its color, 90% is reabsorbed into enterohepatic circulation

Output: What is the path of bilirubin?


Input: bilirubin excreted in the feces - gives feces its color

Output: sterocobilin


Input: bilirubin in the urine - gives urine its color

Output: urobilin


Input: medial and lateral branches

Output: what do the cutaneous nerves of the spinal nerves divide into

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: skin and true musculature of the back

Output: what do the medial and lateral branches of the cutaneous nerves of the back supply

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: spinal nerve which divides into dorsal and ventral rami

Output: what do the dorsal and ventral spinal roots become

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: elevates, retracts and rotates scapula

Output: trapezius action

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: extends, adducts, and medially rotates humerus

Output: latissimus dorsi action

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: elevates scapula and tilts its glenoid cavity interiorly by rotating scapula

Output: levator scapulae muscle action

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: retract scapula and rotate it to depress glenoid cavity; fix scapula to thoracic wall

Output: rhomboid major and minor muscle action

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: spinal accessory nerve and 3rd and fourth cervical nerves

Output: what is the trapezius innervated by

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: spinal accessory nerve and transverse cervical artery

Output: what is under the trapezius

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: superficial and deep branches

Output: what does the transverse cervical artery divide into

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: dorsal scapular nerve and the deep branch of the transverse cervical artery are along the vertebral border of the scapula deep to the rhomboids

Output: what stuff is deep to the rhomboids

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: underneath the latissimus dorsi muscle, attached to the inferior angle of the scapula

Output: where is the serratus anterior attached?

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

what are the cutaneous nerves of the back a part of


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Relativistic thinking

Output: knowledge depends on the subjective views, context/situations

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Dialectic thinking

Output: ability to uncover and resolve contradictions in opposing or seemingly incompatible views

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Systematic thinking

Output: Ability to look in a broader view of entire system of knowledge, ideas, and context that are involved

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Wisdom

Output: Balte's definition: Expert knowledge system derived from experience and capable of dealing with pragmatic problems. how developmental intelligence reveals itself - reflective judgment in the face of uncertainty

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Fluid intelligence

Output: intelligence applied to new tasks or the ability to come up with new creative solutions

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Crystalized intelligence

Output: reflects accumulated experience and socialization

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale

Output: the most influential global intelligence scale, includes a verbal and a performance scale Verbal: knowledge, comprehension, arithmetic, vocab Performance: puzzles As we grow older, people remain stable in the verbal portion but decline in the performance portion.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Cognitive reserve capacity

Output: degree of unused potential for learning that exists within any time. Although fluid intelligence tends to decrease, crystalized intelligence tends to increase.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Decrement with compensation

Output: decline in cognitive ability can be compensated by increase in expertise

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Optimist view

Output: Some experts say intelligence may not decline in late life. Classic aging pattern may occur because of illness, personality dispositions (how people adapt to life changes), and behavior. .

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Classic Aging Pattern

Output: As people grow older, verbal scores on the WAIS remain stable while performance scores decrease. Fluid intelligence decreases as we age while crystalized intelligence increases.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] "Wisdom Paradox"

Output: Goldberg says that wisdom is a a different phenomenon than creativy. It urges us to pay attention to the gains and not just the losses.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Lehman

Output: Creativity does decline with age. Dennis attacks his claim.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Creative potential

Output: max number of attempted contributions an indivudal is capable of making

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Secondary peak

Output: a substantial resistance in the later years of life, some people manage to leave monumental creations in the lateyears of their life.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Personal vs. Public creativity

Output: Personal creativity can affect your own life. Public creativity is recognized by others.

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Goals of looking at the arts and humanities

Output: Methodological - to illustrate how the humanities can be used to explore and illuminate aspects of aging Content - to present information about ideas

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Carl Jung

Output: myths tap deep into the human psyche and for the human species The Myth of the Older Mentor: older mentor helps the hero accomplish his challenge and become a man

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Mentor roles

Output: Key roles: teacher, model, sources of advice and wisdom, a "goad" to remind of what hero should be doing, "seer" into the future / heart of things, initiation, understanding, firmness, decisiveness, strength

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: [Developmental intelligence] Huston Smith

Output: Retirement - a move away from familiar places and people, a withdrawl from social obligation and a move to "spiritual adventure" Renunciation - a reentering back into the world but as a different person, getting in touch with who you are while not being brought down by the practical things in life

Lecture 4: Humanities, Arts, & Older Adults Flashcards - Cram.com

degree to which an individual has manifested their intellectual, neurological, and psychological capacities - defined as the maturing of cognition, emotional intelligence, judgment, social skills, etc


Input: a. In the leading edge of the blade is a spar that runs the length of the blade. The spar contains nitrogen and if there is a leak in the spar the BIM will change to 3 black lines. b. The BIM under proper conditions is all white.

Output: State the purpose of a Blade Inspection Method (BIM) indicator.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: To bring flight control perimeters into straight level flight, as set by the factory.

Output: State the purpose of conducting Flight Control system rigging.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: The paint design is for each A/C type to reduce visual detection by matching reflection of operational surroundings.

Output: State the purpose of a tactical paint scheme.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. Manually b. Electrically

Output: State the two methods of locking and unlocking tail wheel lock pin.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. Lift: Counter acts the force of weight causing the helo to rise. b. Weight: Force of gravity pulling helo downward. c. Drag: Friction of air pushing on the helo. d. Thrust: Counter acts the force of drag causing helo to go forward.

Output: State the factors that affect helicopter flight.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: Increasing the pitch of the main blades creating a high-pressure area on the lower side of the blade and a low-pressure area on the upper side of the blade, this creates lift. Lift must be greater or equal to weight if lift is to be sustained.

Output: State the factors that affect rotor blade lift.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. Between each spindle and hub. b. Purpose to reduce the lead and lag of the main rotor blades and absorb main rotor head start load.

Output: State the location and purpose of the main rotor head dampers.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. Collective stick- change pitch of main rotor blade. Increase or decrease lift b. Cyclic stick- changes the angle of the rotor disk. Controls forward aft and lateral movement c. Rudder pedals- changes pitch of tail rotor blades. Controls helo heading

Output: Explain how the following flight controls affect helo flight.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: A/C must be washed every 7 days at sea and every 14 days on shore.

Output: State what must be done for effective helo corrosion prevention.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. Gear boxes. b. Avionics.

Output: State the two areas on the helo, which must have particular attention during a corrosion inspection.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: a. A/C cleaning compound Mil-C-85570 type 1 or II. b. Mixing procedures for heavy dirt is 1 part-cleaning compound to 1 part water. c. Mixing procedures for light dirt 1 part-cleaning compound to 9 parts water. d. Clean A/C from bottom to top.

Output: State the approved cleaning materials and methods.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: To salvage salvageable components, and to remove them by their priority.

Output: State the purpose for emergency reclamation procedures.

EAWS 104 AIRFRAME FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards - Cram.com

State the purpose of a hydraulic patch test.


Input: what do the cutaneous nerves of the spinal nerves divide into

Output: medial and lateral branches

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what do the medial and lateral branches of the cutaneous nerves of the back supply

Output: skin and true musculature of the back

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what do the dorsal and ventral spinal roots become

Output: spinal nerve which divides into dorsal and ventral rami

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: trapezius action

Output: elevates, retracts and rotates scapula

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: latissimus dorsi action

Output: extends, adducts, and medially rotates humerus

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: levator scapulae muscle action

Output: elevates scapula and tilts its glenoid cavity interiorly by rotating scapula

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: rhomboid major and minor muscle action

Output: retract scapula and rotate it to depress glenoid cavity; fix scapula to thoracic wall

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what is the trapezius innervated by

Output: spinal accessory nerve and 3rd and fourth cervical nerves

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what is under the trapezius

Output: spinal accessory nerve and transverse cervical artery

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what does the transverse cervical artery divide into

Output: superficial and deep branches

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: what stuff is deep to the rhomboids

Output: dorsal scapular nerve and the deep branch of the transverse cervical artery are along the vertebral border of the scapula deep to the rhomboids

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: where is the serratus anterior attached?

Output: underneath the latissimus dorsi muscle, attached to the inferior angle of the scapula

Anatomy Lab #1 Scap Region Flashcards - Cram.com

they are terminations of the dorsal rami of spinal nerves


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] antacids H2 receptor blockers propton pump inhibitors sucralfate misoprostil bismuth comoubds

Output: what are the drugs that are used in acid pepctic siseases

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] aluminum hydroxids aluminm hydroxid and magnesium hydroxid calcium carbonate

Output: What are some examples of antacids

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] react with HCl to increase pH

Output: What is the MOA for antacids

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] Mg(OH) can cause diarhea Al(oH) causes constipation which is why they are combined Milk alkali syndrome-alkolosis with dairy aluminum and magnesium can cause rean insuffiencey decreased abosorpption of some drugs

Output: What are some of the adverse reactions of antacids

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] histamine cimetidine ranitidine famotidine nizatidiine

Output: What are some examples of H2 receptor blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] competitive inhibition of H2 receptors on parietal cells decrease HCl secretion

Output: MOA of H2 rec. blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] GI effects cimetidine-possible gynecomastia altered mental state in ICU pts interactions

Output: what are some adverse effects of H2 receptor blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] omeprazole pantoprazole lansoprazole rabeprazole

Output: Proton pump inhibitors examples

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] inhibit H/K ATPase which decreases HCl secretion. significantly

Output: Proton pump inhibitors MOA

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] increased gastrin interactions

Output: what are some adverse rxn for proton pump inhibitors

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] GERD peptic ulcer disease hypersecretor conditions like zellwinger ellinger syndrome

Output: What are proton pump inhibitors used in?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] omeprazole(prilosec)

Output: What are some examples of proton pump inhibitors?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] converted to thick paste binds ulcer acts as a physical barrier

Output: What is the mech of action for sucralfate?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] constipation some aluminum absorbed can cause toxicity in renal insuffienct pts interactions

Output: What are some adverse reactions for sucralfate?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] decrease acid secretion increases mucas, bicarb increase mucosal blood flow

Output: what is the MOA of misoprostil?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] diarrhea, abdominal cramps contraindicated in preg. increases uterine contractions

Output: what are the adverse rxn of misoprostil

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] bismuth subsaliclylate bismuth subcitrate potassium peptobismal

Output: what are some examples of bismuth compounds?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] darkening of the tongue and stool

Output: what are some adverse effects of the bismuth compounds?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] dyspepsia, diarrhea, traverer's diarrhea in some regimens against H. Pylori

Output: what are some uses of bismuth compound?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] metoclopramide erythromycin

Output: What are some drugs used to increase GI motility?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] dopamine antagonist stimulation of dopamine receptors inhibits motility of GI so dopamine antagonist would increase motility

Output: what is the moa of metopclopramide?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] diabetic gastropariesis

Output: What is the use of metopclopramide?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] stimulates motilin receptors

Output: what is the moa of erythomycin

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] diabetic gasteropariesis

Output: what is the use of erythromcyin

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] psyllium (metamucil) methylcellulose polycarbophil

Output: what are some expamples of bulk forming laxatives?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] Absorb water distend colon increase peristalsis

Output: what is the moa of bulk forming laxiatives?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] docusate(colase)

Output: What are some examples of stool softeners?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] decrease surface tension of stoole which leads to increased lipids in stool

Output: What is the mech of action of stool softeners?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] nonabsorbable sugars and salts balanced polyethylene glycol

Output: What are the two types of osmotic laxatives?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] magnesium hydroxide lactulose magnesiun citrate sodium phosphate

Output: What are some examples of nonabsorbable sugrs and salts

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] cleansing bowel for endoscopy

Output: what are some examples of use for balanced pyolyethylene glycol(Golightly)

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] anthrauinones(senna, cascara) diphenylmethanes(bisacodyl)

Output: what are the two stimulant laxatives?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] lubiprostone

Output: what are some examples of chloride channel activators

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] increased fluid secretion which increases motility

Output: what is the moa of lubiprostone

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] chronic constipation irritable bowel sydnrome

Output: what are some uses of lubiprostone

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] methylnaltrexone

Output: what are some examples of opiod receptor antagonists

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] opioids lead to constipation methylnaltrexone blocks peripheral receptors without entering the brain.

Output: what is the moa of methylnaltrexone

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] loperamide-poor entry into CNS diphenyloxylate- higher doses produce CNS effects

Output: what are some examples of opioid agonist antidiarrheals

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] opioid agonists colloidal bismuth compounds kaolin and pectin bile salt-binding resins octreotide

Output: what are the different classes of antidiarrheal drugs?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] synthetic peptide that mimic somatostatin and causes antidiarrheal effects.

Output: what is the moa of octreotides

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] antispasmodics(anticholinergics serotonin 5 HT3 receptor antagonist chloride receptor activators

Output: what are some drugs used in IBS(irritable bowel syndrome)?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] alosetron

Output: what are some examples of serotonin 5 HT3 receptor blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] infrequent but serious GI tox ischemic colitis, constipation with serisou complications participation in prescribing program required for use

Output: what are some adverse effects of alosetron?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] indicated only in woman with severe diarrhea predominant IBS

Output: what is an example of use for alosetron

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] lubriprostone

Output: what is an example of chloride receptro activator

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] ondansetron

Output: what are some examples of serotonin 5 HT3 receptor antagonists used for antimimetics

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] headache, constipation increased QT interval

Output: what are some adverse effects of ondansetron

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] block peripheral and central 5 HT3 receptors

Output: what is the moa of ondansetron

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] setron

Output: what is the ending on all 5 HT3 receptor blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] hepatic metabolism

Output: how are the 5 HT3 receptor blockers metabolised?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] aprepitant fosaprepitant

Output: What are the examples of neurokinin 1 substance P receptor antagonists used for antimemetics

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] blocks central receptors to inhibit bothe the acute and delayed phases of cislatin induced emesis

Output: what is the antimemetic MOA of substnace P receptor blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] fatigue dizziness diarrhea

Output: what are some adverse effects of the neurokinin (sub P) rec. blockers

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] prochlorperazine promethazine(phenergin)

Output: what are the examples of the phenothiazines antiemeic drugs

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] inhibit DA and muscarine receptors inhibit the histamine recprtos

Output: what is the moa of the phenothiazines

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] blocks dopamine rec.

Output: what is the moa of metoclopramide

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] extrapyramidal effects

Output: what are the adverse effects of metoclopramide?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] diphenyhydramine meclizine scopolmine

Output: what are some examples of H1 antihistamines and antichlolingergic drugs?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] motion sickness

Output: what is an example of use for the H1 / anticholinergic drugs

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] dronabinal (THC) nabilone

Output: what are some examples of cannabinoids?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] CNS effects

Output: what is the adverse effects of cannabinoids

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] aminosalicylates glucocorticoids purine analogs methotrexte anti TNF antibodies anti integrins

Output: what are some drugs used to treat IBS

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] bc aminosalicylates provide topical relief to IBS in the colon, but are absorbed in the proximal bowel. azo compounds are not absorbed until they are broken down into aminosalicylsates in the colon.

Output: Why are aminosalicylates made as azo compounds

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] azo compounds -sulfasalzine, olsalazine, baslsalazid 5-ASA -mesalamine- non azo formulation usually given in casuple that allows it to only be released in the colon.

Output: what are some examples of the aminosalicylates?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] sulfasalazine- leads to GI upset headache hypersensistiviy, reversable oligospermia, decreased folate absorption other forumations of the aminosalicylates cause less adverse effects

Output: what are some adverse effects found in the aminosalicylates?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] ulcderative ccolites crohns disease

Output: what are some uses of aminosalicylates

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] azathioprine 6 mercaptopurine

Output: Whater are some examples of purine analogs?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] active nucleotides interfere with multiple reactions also incorporated into DNA and RNA.

Output: what is the mechanism of action in 6-mercaptorpurine

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] BM Liver imunosuppporesionn

Output: what are some adverse effects found in 6 mercaptopurines?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] inhibit DHRF which is needed for a step in DNA synthesis

Output: what is the moa of methotrexates?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] infiximab adalimumab certolizumbad.

Output: what are some examples of the anti TNF antibodies used in inflammatory bowel disease

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] chimeric that binds TNF

Output: what is the moa of infliximab?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] increased risk of infection infusino reaction serum sickness devlopment of antiobdies to drug reports of lymphomas

Output: what are some adverse effects of infliximab

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] chrons ulcerative colits

Output: what are some uses of infliximab

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] natalizumam(tysarbi)

Output: what are some examples of anti integrin therapy used in inflamatory bowel?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] binds to alpha4 integrin which decreases extravasation of some cells to inflammatorory area

Output: what is the moa of natalizumab

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] increases risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, an opportunistic viral infection of the brain that usualy leads to death ro severe disability.

Output: what are some adverse effects of natalizumab?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] indicated for severe crohns with evidence of inflammation who have inadequeate respone to other conventional therapies and the inhibitors of TNF alpha, never use in combonation with immunosupppresants

Output: examples of use fore natalizumab

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] pancrelipase

Output: what is an example of pancreatic enzyme supplements used to treat inflamatory bowel syndrome

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] fibrosing colonopathy increased uric acid allergic reactions

Output: what are some adverse effects of pancrelipase

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] exocrine pancreatic insufficiency cystic fibrosis

Output: what is an example of use for pancrelipase

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] gallstones

Output: What is bile acid therapy used for ?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] ursodilol

Output: what are some examples of bile acid therapy

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: [ACh histimines Gastrin] octreotide beta blockers

Output: what are some drugs used to treat variceal bleeding?

What three chemicals stimulate acid secretion in parietal cells?


Input: interdisciplinary field thats interested in how the brain processes info and creates conscious experience. [consciousness]

Output: cognitive neuroscience


Input: any process you do without consciously thinking about it. [consciousness]

Output: nonconscious processes


Input: 1. restricts our attention 2. Place where we create meaning from external stimuli and how we cognitively interpret them 3. Allows us to change our mental model of the world [consciousness]

Output: Functions of Conciousness


Input: info not currently in the conscious mind that can be recalled [consciousness]

Output: preconscious mind


Input: collection of mental processes that operate outside of awareness [consciousness]

Output: unconscious mind


Input: attention shifts from the immediate situation [consciousness]

Output: daydreaming


Input: physiological patters that repeat approximately every 24 hours [consciousness]

Output: circadian rhythms


Input: stage that occurs approximately 90 mins, marked by bursts of rapid eye movements, associated with dreaming [consciousness]

Output: REM sleep


Input: all other sleep periods [consciousness]

Output: NREM sleep


Input: sleeper cant move any voluntary muscles except those controlling the eyes (normally during REM) [consciousness]

Output: sleep paralysis


Input: 1.)people cycle through stages 1-4 then reverse the order 2.) once they reach stage one again, REM starts for a short period of time 3.) Cycle through this 4-6 times per night, with deep sleep decreasing and REM increasing through each cycle [consciousness]

Output: Sleep Cycle


Input: increased REM sleep caused y too little REM sleep the night before [consciousness]

Output: REM rebound-


Input: 1.) evolved through energy conservation and safety 2.) restorative 3.) forget things we learned that day and don't need [consciousness]

Output: Possible Functions of Sleep


Input: sleep shortage caused by not getting the amount of sleep needed to function on highest level. [consciousness]

Output: sleep debt


Input: dreams have clues to the unconscious Guard sleep by relieving psychic tensions throughout the day serve as sources of wish fulfillment [consciousness]

Output: Freud


Input: Plot a dream [consciousness]

Output: Manifest Content


Input: symbolic meanings of objects and events in a dream [consciousness]

Output: Latent Content


Input: dreams begin with random electrical activity coming from the brain which then tries to synthesize the random activity [consciousness]

Output: Activation synthesis Theory


Input: insufficient sleep, inability to fall asleep quickly, frequent sleep disruptions, early awakening [consciousness]

Output: Insomnia


Input: person intermitenly stops breathing through the night [consciousness]

Output: Sleep Apnea


Input: deep sleep episodes that produce terror, but the person doesn't remember [consciousness]

Output: Night Terrors


Input: sudden daytime sleep attacks where person enters REM sleep immediately may also include catalexy (sudden loss of muscle control) [consciousness]

Output: Narcolepsy


Input: induced state of awareness characterized by heightened suggestibility, relaxation and focused attention [consciousness]

Output: hypnosis


Input: 1.) Distinct state of consciousness 2.) heightened motivation 3.) just a social process where the person tries to please the hypnotist 4.) is a dissociated state involving a "hidden observer" who operates at the same time as normal consciousness [consciousness]

Output: Hypnosis Theories


Input: state of consciousness induced by focusing on a repetitive behavior, assuming certain body positions and minimizing external stimuli [consciousness]

Output: meditation


Input: chemicals that affect mental process [consciousness]

Output: psychoactive drugs


Input: change consciousness by altering perceptions or creaking hallucinations ex: LSD, shrooms, PCP, mary jane [consciousness]

Output: hallucinagens


Input: highly addictive drugs that produce a sense of well being and are strong like pain meds ex: morphine, heroin, codein [consciousness]

Output: opiates


Input: drugs that allow mental and physical activity ex: sleep pills, anti-anxiety drugs, and alcohol [consciousness]

Output: depressants


Input: speed up CNS activity- boosting mental and physical activity level ex: crack, speed, ecstasy, caffeine, nicotine [consciousness]

Output: stimulants


Input: reduced effectiveness of a drug after repeated use [consciousness]

Output: tolerance


Input: process where a person requires a drug for everyday functioning [consciousness]

Output: physical dependence


Input: person continues to use a drug despite adverse effects on their health or life [consciousness]

Output: addiction


Input: uncomfortable symkptoms experienced when drug use is reduced or eliminated [consciousness]

Output: withdrawl


Input: desire to use a drug despite no physical dependence [consciousness]

Output: psychological dependence


Input: set of people who were born durign the same era and who face similiar societal circumstancesbrought out by their shared position in the overall age structure of the population [age structure]

Output: birth cohort

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: phenomenon in which members of a cohort tend to experience a particular life course event of rite of passage-puberty, marriage, childbearing, graduation, entry into the workforce, death-at roughly the same time [age structure]

Output: cohort effect

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sociologist who studies trends in population characteristics [age structure]

Output: demographer

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: stage of societal development in unindustrial countries marked by growing life expectancy and high birth rates; concept used to explain why populations in less developed countries grow faster than those in more developed countries [age structure]

Output: demographic transition

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the movement of populations from one geographic are to another [age structure]

Output: migration

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: phenomenon in which a historical event or major social trend cotributes to the unique shape and outlook of birth cohort [age structure]

Output: period effect

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Principle that women and men who perform jobs that are of equal value to society and that require equal training ought to be paid equally [age structure]

Output: comparable worth (pay equity)

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Subordination of women that is part of the everyday workings of economics, law politics, and other social institutions [age structure]

Output: institutional sexism

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Female-dominated society that gives higher prestige and value to women than to men [age structure]

Output: matriarchy

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: practice of treating peoples as objects [age structure]

Output: objectification

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: male-dominated society in which cultural beliefs and values give higher prestige and value to men than to women [age structure]

Output: patriarchy

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: sysem of beliefs that asserts the inferiority of one sex that justifies gender-based inequality [age structure]

Output: sexism

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: condition in which rapid change has disrupted society's ability to adequately regulate and control its members and the old rules that once governed people's life no longer seem to apply [age structure]

Output: anomie

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: collective action designed to prevent or reverse changes sought or accomplished by an earlier social movement [age structure]

Output: countermovement

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: process by which beliefs, technology, customs and other elements of culture spread from one group or society to another [age structure]

Output: cultural diffusion

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: coherent ssytem of beliefs values and ideas [age structure]

Output: ideology

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: society in which knowledge, the control of information, and service industries are more important elements of the economy than agriculture or manufacturing and production [age structure]

Output: postindustrial society

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: collective action that seeks to change limited aspects of a society but does not seek to alter or replace major social institutions [age structure]

Output: reform movement

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: collective action that attempts to overthrow an entire social system and replace it with another [age structure]

Output: revolutionary movement

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: continuous, large scale, organized collective action motivated by the desire to enact, stop, or reverse change in some area of society [age structure]

Output: social movement

Ch. 12-14 sociology terms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Renaissance] patron

Output: person who provides support for the arts

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] humanism

Output: intellectual movement focusing on human potential and achievement

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] salvation

Output: the act of delivering from sin or saving from evil

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] pre-destination

Output: idea that God long ago determined who would gain salvation

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] annul

Output: to make or declare void or invalid; to cancel

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] recant

Output: to give up one's views or beliefs

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] indulgence

Output: pardon for sins committed in a lifetime

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Protestant Reformation

Output: The Protestant split from the Roman Catholic Church

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Protestants

Output: Christians who belong to non-Catholic Churches

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Huegonots

Output: Protestants who lived in France

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Lutheran

Output: member of the Protestant Church founded by martin Luther

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] theocracy

Output: government controlled by religious leaders

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Presbyterians

Output: followers of the Protestant religion, Calvinism, brought to Scotland by John Knox

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] ababaptists

Output: believe in separation of church and state and in adult-only baptism

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Counter-Reformation

Output: attempt by the Catholic Church to reform itself and retain its members

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Council of Trent

Output: meeting of RCC leaders in response to Protestant reformers

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Calvinism

Output: Protestant movement in Geneva, Switzerland; very strict discipline

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Diet of Worms

Output: council of rulers called by Charles V to condemn Martin Luther and declare him an outlaw

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Peace of Augsburg

Output: allowed each German prince to choose the religion of his territory

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Hundred Years Was

Output: series of conflicts beween England and France between 1618-1648

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Edict of Nantes

Output: truce between Roman Catholics and Protestants in France

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Treaty of Westphalia

Output: treaty of peace following the Thirty Years War

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Hanseatic League

Output: league that controlled and encouraged trade in the Baltic and North Seas

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] ghetto

Output: section of a city where members of a minority are forced to live

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Church of England

Output: Church of England created by Henry VIII

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] Jesuits

Output: Catholic religious order formed to educate Catholics in response to the Protestant movement

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [Renaissance] perspective

Output: artistic technique use to give 3-D effect on a flat surface

Chapter 14 Renaissance & Reformation Flashcards - Cram.com

cultural movement based on the rebirth of classical cultures


Input: [GAAP] Cost Principle Concept (concept) Cost (the exchange of economic consideration between two independent parties) is the appropriate basis for initial recording and subsequent accounting for assets, liabilities revenues and expenses. [3]

Output: Indicates that market value changes subsequent to purchase are not recorded in the accounts (violation of cost concept) Market value changes subsequent to purchase are not recorded in the accounts… Leask company has inventory on hand that cost $400K. Leask reports inventory on its balance sheet at the current market value of $425K….


Input: [GAAP] Going concern assumption Continuing Concern principle (continuity assumption) For accounting an entity is assumed to be a “ going concern” that is for accounting purposes, it is assumed that the entity will not liquidate in the foreseeable future, but will continue to carry out its business objectives in a orderly way [3]

Output: McKenna Hospital Supply Corporation reports only current assets and current liabilities on its balance sheet. Plant, property and equipment are reported as current assets. Bonds payable are reported as current liabilities. Liquidation of the company is unlikely


Input: [GAAP] Reporting principle (Full-Disclosure Principle) The full disclosure principle is when financial reporting should be complete and understandable to the prudent user (i.e investor) and should include all significant information relating to the economic affairs of the entity i.e. footnotes [3]

Output: Remember all relevant financial information should be reported All important information related to inventories is presented in the financial statements or in the footnotes….


Input: [GAAP] Revenue Recognition Principle Concept or Realization; Revenue; Recognition Revenue is the consideration received for the aggregate of goods and services transferred by an entity to its customers. Under this principle revenue is realized (ie earned and recognized) when ownership to the goods sold is transferred or when the services are rendered [3]

Output: Revenue is recorded at the point of sale Mull Company recognizes revenue at the end of the production cycle, but before sale. The price of the product as well as the number that can be sold is not certain….


Input: [GAAP] Matching principle: Under the matching principle all of the costs incurred in generating that revenue, regardless of the period in which the cost were incurred must be identified with the period in which the revenues are recognized. The cost of generating particular revenues are matched with those revenues period by period [3]

Output: So expenses should be allocated to revenue in proper period. Requires recognition of expenses in the same period as related revenues An allowance for doubtful accounts is established Martinez Company uses the direct write off method of accounting for uncollectible accounts …. (allowance for doubtful accounts is established)


Input: [GAAP] Exception Principle A reasonable degree of flexibility is essential. As a consequence certain exceptions to the basic concepts, standards and procedures are necessary. Generally 3 types of exceptions are permitted. [3]

Output: Materiality: Conservatism: Industry Standards


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are the four steps of pharmacokinetics?

Output: Absorbtion, distrbution, metabolism, and exration

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] Describe absorbtion?

Output: Absorption-The process by which a drug passes from its site of administration into the bloodstream This requires the passage of the drug across cell membranes, unless the drug is given directly into the bloodstream

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is bioavailability?

Output: The amount of the drug that reaches the site of action. IV drugs have 100% bioavailability

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] IF a drug is lipid soluble what does that mean for its membrane permeability?

Output: it crosses cell mebranes easily.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat three factors influence mebrane permeablity?

Output: Molecular size Lipid solubility Degree of ionization

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is distrabution?

Output: Bloodstreem to tissue

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What drugs can cross the BBB?

Output: Highly lipid soluble drugs

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] If a drug is bound to a protien what effect will it have on the body?

Output: none, only free drugs can reach target cells.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is the problem protien binding drugs have with drug drug interactions>

Output: They often compete for receptors sites on protiens giving a much higher amount of free drug.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is pharmicdynamics?

Output: the effect the drug has on the body.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] define affinity?

Output: the degree of attraction between a drug and a receptor

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] Define intrinsic activity?

Output: the ability of a drug to activate a receptor following binding

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] define Efficacy?

Output: the degree to which a drug produces its desired effect

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] define Potency?

Output: the dose of the drug that is required to achieve 50% of the maximal response.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat are the different categories of drugs related to pregos?

Output: A: fetal harm is unlikely B: no evidence of risk in 2nd or 3rd trimester; no risk seen in animal studies, but not confirmed in women during 1st trimester C: risk is unknown; use only if benefit greatly outweighs risk D: evidence of adverse risk X: contraindicated in pregnant women

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] wHAT ARE THE THREEE TYPES OF DRUG DRUG INTERATIONS?

Output: Complimentary Solo contradctory

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are drug characterisxtics that should be avoided by pregos>

Output: Very low molecular weight, Radiocative, lipid soluble (anything that cross the BBB), and low protien binding.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are Indirect acting parasympathomimetic drugs ?

Output: may be either reversible cholinesterase inhibitors, irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors or drugs that promote ACh release or anti-adrenergics.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is Bethanechol?

Output: sometimes given orally or subcutaneously to treat urinary retention resulting from general anesthetic or diabetic neuropathy of the bladder, or to treat . gastrointestinal atony (lack of muscular tone). The muscarinic receptors in the bladder and gastrointestinal tract stimulate contraction of the bladder and expulsion of urine, and increased gastrointestinal motility, respectively. It is a direct acting parasympathetic drug.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What do direct acting parasympathetic drugs do?

Output: They stimulate receptors directly.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is Donepezil?

Output: Donepezil (also misspelled donezepil), marketed under the trade name Aricept by its developer Eisai and partner Pfizer, is a centrally acting reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.[1] Its main therapeutic use is in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease where it is used to increase cortical acetylcholine.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is dobutamine (Dobutrex)?

Output: A beta 1 agonoist a sympathomimetic drug used in the treatment of heart failure and cardiogenic shock. Its primary mechanism is direct

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat is albuterol(Proventil)?

Output: is a short-acting β2-adrenergic receptor agonist used for the relief of bronchospasm in conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is prazosin (minopress)?

Output: Specifically, prazosin is selective for the alpha-1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle. which lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is Propranolol (Inderal)?

Output: is a non-selective beta blocker mainly used in the treatment of hypertension. It was the first successful beta blocker developed.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is metoprolol (Lopressor)?

Output: selective beta1-adrenoreceptor blocking ,used to treat angina (chest pain) and hypertension (high blood pressure). It is also used to treat or prevent heart attack.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat is the main use for selective beta agonist drugs?

Output: Beta1 agonists: Cardiac arrest, HF, shock (dobutamine, DOBUTREX) Beta2 agonists: Asthma (terbutaline, BRETHINE); decrease uterine contractions (ritodrine, YUTOPAR)

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is the main use for selective alpha agonist?

Output: Alpha1 agonists: Treatment of nasal congestion (oxymetazoline, AFRIN); treatment of shock (norepinephrine, LEVOPHED) Alpha2 agonists: Treatment of HTN (methyldopa, ALDOMET; clonidine, CATAPRES)

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] Which catagory of drugs is used as eye drops and nasal decongestants?

Output: Alpha 1 agonist

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are the most common side effects when using sympathomimetic agents (adrenergic agonist)?

Output: Headache Restlessness Excitement Insomnia Euphoria

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is the difference between sympathomimetics and Sympatholytics ?

Output: sympathomimetics-adrenergic agonist Sympatholytics - adrenergic antagonist

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is the main use for sympatholytic drugs (adrenergic antagonist?

Output: Used extensively to treat hypertension. Most widely prescribed class of autonomic drugs.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is some of the pt teaching we give with sympatholitc drugs?

Output: Do not stop abruptly and monitor liver and kidney lab values frequently.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat does the sympathlyitc alpha blocker (zonins_ do?

Output: Smooth muscle Doxazosin: vasodilatation and decreased BP BPH Increased urinary flow

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] what do sympatholyitc beta blockers do(olos)?

Output: CV system: decrease rate and force of cardiac contraction, slow conduction thru AV node Hypertension Ease pain associated with angina pectoris Treat dysrhythmias

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat adverse effects do zozins have?

Output: Common s/e is orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia Instruct patient about 1st dose effect!

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are important things to remember about the adverse effeects of zozins?

Output: Common s/e is orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia Instruct patient about 1st dose effect!,

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat do zonzins do to heart rate?

Output: lower the heart rate, contrindicated in brady cardia and reynuads disease.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What do zozins help treat and what is the pregnencey catagory?

Output: Migranes and they are a prego catagory c because they are lipophilic.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat do inderatacting cholanergic drugs do and treat?

Output: They are cholenesterase inhibters the decrease the fucntion of the AchE and more ach is availible. EX:Aricept(donepezil), neostigmine, tacrine(Cognex) Help treat myestenia gravis and alzihemrs.and is a cure for anticholanergic poisoning.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat is a myestenic crises?

Output: cholanergic crisis- death from paralysis of respiratory muscles. Cured by anti-cholanergic drugs.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] To much what causes a cholanergic crises?

Output: Ach- acetocholene

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What do direct acting cholnergic agonist Treat?

Output: Glucoma, xerostomia, and atonic blader, it tones the bladder and tightes the bladder sphinqtor

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What are sighns of a cholenergic crisis or to much acetocholene.

Output: Rememeber when the parasympathetic system is stimulate you are in rest and digest mode and the body begins to secreate more fluids. SLUDGE, Salivation Lacrimation Urinary Incontinence Diarrhea GI cramps Emesis

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What is the antidote to a cholenergic crisis?

Output: Atrophine-competitive antagonist for the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] WHat do anticholanergic drugs do (parasympatholytics)/

Output: THEY LET the sympathtic system take over. go into flight or fight mode. Stomach relaxes, pupils dialate. used in opthalmic procedures.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] Clinical uses of anticholanergic drugs(parasympatholytics)/

Output: treates urinary incontance, raises HR, decrease respitory secrations, and dialates bronchi.

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] Whast does an Anticholanergic crisis look like?

Output: Tachycardia CNS stimulation Urinary retention Dry mouth and eyes Decreased sweating Photophobia Impotence

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [WHat is pharmacokinetics?] What should pt. be tought to report immedatly when taking anticholanergic drugs?

Output: Immediately report any chest pain, palpitations, blurred vision, headache, seizures, hallucinations, tachycardia

It is what the body does to the drug,(the fate of the drug).


Input: [disks] Disks have more rotational inertia (since the average location of the mass radius is shorter, no matter what size the disk)

Output: Why do disks always beat hoops when rolling down ramps?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] No -- disks always beat hoops, no matter the size

Output: Does it matter how big or how massive a disk or hoop is when letting them race each other down ramps?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] mass radius

Output: Rotational inertia is increased by increasing the ___ of the object or the ___ where it's located

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] The long pole has a large rotational inertia -- making it difficult to set in motion.

Output: Why do tightrope walkers carry a long pole?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] It means that it's hard to set the object in rotational motion.

Output: What does it mean to have a large rotational inertia?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] The short one swings faster?

Output: How does a short pendulum swing compared to a long arm pendulum?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] They have a smaller rotational inertia -- easier to set in motion.

Output: Why do short pendulums swing faster than long ones?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] No effect. Mass does not matter.

Output: What effect does the mass of a pendulum bob have on the swing rate of a pendulum?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] about 1.4 times (square root of 2); T is proportional to root of length;

Output: If you double the length of a pendulum, the period of swing will be longer by what factor?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] Center of gravity

Output: What do we call the point around which all the mass of an object seems to be centered?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] center of gravity

Output: When an object is set into rotation, it rotates around the ....

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] No

Output: Does the center of gravity actually have to physically be in an object?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] in the hole

Output: Where is the center of gravity of a doughnut?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] Yes. The center of gravity is the one point that follows the trajectory.

Output: When you toss a tennis racket to someone, will the racket obey the rules of projectiles and follow a curved trajectory?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] Center of gravity must extend beyond the support base -- not over the support base.

Output: What must happen for an object to fall over?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] No. It will probably move, but it won't rotate.

Output: If you hit an object exactly at the center of gravity, will it rotate?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] It will rotate end over end. (The ball has been kicked.)

Output: When a torque is applied perpendicularly to the side of football's tip, what will the ball do?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] force radius

Output: Torque is defined as the ____ applied perpendicularly to an object times the ____ of rotation.

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] N m [Newton-meter] kg m^2 / s^2

Output: What are units for torque?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] 2.5 N m

Output: A force of 5 N applied perpendicularly to a wheel of radius 0.5 m has a torque of....

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] 8 N m

Output: If a torques of 5 N m and 3 N m are applied to one side of lever, then what torque must be applied to the other side of the lever?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] Longer radius means that the force to move the door will be smaller.

Output: Why are doorknobs placed at the edge of a door than in the center of the door?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] Balance on your finger. or... Hang plumb bobs from 2 locations on the hanging object to see where the lines intersect.

Output: How do you find the center of gravity of an object?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [disks] The curvature of the earth matches the fall rate of the satellites. [A tangent line to the earth be 8 km long would extend 4.9 m above the earth at it's far point. 4.9 m is the distance an object falls in 1 second.]

Output: Why do satellites, like our moon, not ever hit the earth if they are falling into each other?

Which rolls faster down ramps -- hoops or disks?


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Output: A private, secure path across a public network (usually the internet) that is set up to allow authorized users private, secure access to the company network.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Asynchronous transmission

Output: Data is sent when it is ready to be sent, without being synchronized.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Synchronous Transmission

Output: Data is organized into groups or blocks of data, which are transferred at regular, specified intervals.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Isochronous Transmission

Output: Data is sent at the same time as other related data to support certain types of real-time applications that require the different types of data to be delivered at the proper speed for that application.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Twisted-pair Cable

Output: Made up of pairs of thin strands of insulated wire twisted together.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Coaxial Cable

Output: Was originally developed to carry a large number of high-speed video transmissions at one time, such as to deliver cable TV service.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Fiber-optic Cable

Output: The newest and fastest of these three types of wired transmission media.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Ethernet

Output: The most widely used standard for wired networks.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Wi-Fi

Output: A family of wireless networking standards that use the IEEE 802.11 standard.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Bluetooth

Output: A wireless standard that is designed for very short-range (10 meters, approximately 33 feet, or less).

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: [Local Area Network (LAN)] Modem

Output: Derived from the terms modulate and demodulate) is used to connect a computer to a network over telephone lines.

Chapter 7 - Computer Networks Flashcards - Cram.com

a network that covers a relatively small geographical area, such as a home, office building, or school.


Input: What two words best describe Louis XVI [Louis XVI]

Output: weak and indecisive


Input: What is the Estates General [Louis XVI]

Output: Legislative body


Input: Prior to the Revolution the Estates General had not been summoned for [Louis XVI]

Output: 175 years


Input: Throughout history who was responsible for summoning the Estates General [Louis XVI]

Output: The King of France


Input: Who made up the Estates General? [Louis XVI]

Output: Clergy, nobles, peasants


Input: Who made up the 1st Estate? [Louis XVI]

Output: Clergy


Input: Who made up the 2nd Estate [Louis XVI]

Output: Nobles


Input: Who made up the 3rd Estate? [Louis XVI]

Output: Everyone else who was not part of the 1st of 2nd estates


Input: Who was at the top of the 3rd estate? [Louis XVI]

Output: bourgeoisie


Input: The 3rd estate resented the privileges enjoyed by their social [Louis XVI]

Output: betters


Input: Name the three cause of France's financial problems? [Louis XVI]

Output: Supporting the American Revolution Royal court extravagances Poor harvest = higher food prices


Input: Which estates paid all the taxes before the revolution? [Louis XVI]

Output: 3rd estate


Input: Who took an oath (on a tennis court) to create a "just" constitution? [Louis XVI]

Output: National Assembly


Input: This described a time when wild rumors and tales of attacks on villages spread panic [Louis XVI]

Output: The Great Fear


Input: Poor harvests, leading to higher food prices spread _____ ______ in cities [Louis XVI]

Output: bread riots


Input: When rumors that royal troops were coming to Paris, more than 800 people will storm this prison hoping to find weapons to defend themselves [Louis XVI]

Output: Bastille


Input: During the time of the "Great Fear" peasants will unleash their fury on _____ and attack manor houses [Louis XVI]

Output: Nobles


Input: The National Assembly produces this document that establishes all male citizens are equal before the law. [Louis XVI]

Output: Declaration of Rights of Man and the Citizen


Input: Name 3 important right established by The Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen [Louis XVI]

Output: Every Frenchman have an equal right to hold public office Establishes freedom of religion Called for taxes to levied according to ability to pay


Input: Who did not receive equal citizenship in the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen [Louis XVI]

Output: Women


Input: As unrest deepens, 6 thousand women march to Versailles shouting [Louis XVI]

Output: Bread!


Input: After entering Versailles, the mob of women will refuse to leave the palace until the King returns to [Louis XVI]

Output: Paris


Input: What is the European reaction to the French revolution? [Louis XVI]

Output: Denounce it


Input: Which lawyer believed that France could not be secured until the criminals lose their heads [Louis XVI]

Output: Robespierre


Input: The Right to vote is called [Louis XVI]

Output: Suffrage


Input: The Jacobin could be characterized as [Louis XVI]

Output: Radicals


Input: What are the pillars of the French Republic, as inspired by the Enlightenment [Louis XVI]

Output: Liberty, equality, fraternity


Input: [Angle of incidence] Angle of Reflection

Output: The angle formed between the normal to a surface and the reflected ray. This angle lies in a common plane with the angle of incidence, and is equal to it.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Angle of Refraction

Output: The angle formed between the reflected ray and the normal to the surface. This angle lies in a common plane with the angle of incidence.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Aperature

Output: An opening or hole through which radiation or mater may pass. Aperture stop – A physical restraint that limits the diameter of the bundle of light allowed to pass through a lens

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] apochromatic

Output: Describing a lens or optical system with very little chromatic aberration. In an apochromatic lens (also known as an apochromat) the chromatic aberration is completely cancelled out at three or more wavelengths, compared with two for a typical achromatic lens. Apochromats usually have at least three optical elements, made from different types of glass

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Beam

Output: A bundle of light rays

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Beamsplitter

Output: An optical device for dividing a beam inot tow or more seperate beams

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Binocular

Output: An instrument having a pair of lenses, one for each eye that focuses on a single object as a magnifier

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Chromatic aberration

Output: The lens aberration resuting from the normal increase in the refractive index of all common materials toward the blue end of the spectrum

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] C-mount

Output: This is an adapter used with various types of video or digital cameras. The C-mount adapter drops into the trinocular port of the microscope and has lenses built into it. The C-mount adapter is microscope-specific, meaning that the brand of the microscope and the brand of the C-mount adapter should match - this is because each C-mount adapter is created specifically for a microscope in order to have the correct focal length for the camera. The C-mount adapter has threads on the end of it and connects directly to either a video or microscope digital camera.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Diopter

Output: A unit of measurement used to describe the degree of refractive error with respect to nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Eyepiece

Output: Lens (or lens system) with which the eye observes the image formed by the microscope. The eyepiece provides a magnification, a diopter correction, and an eyecup setting.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Field of View

Output: Sometimes abrreviated FOV, this is the diameter of the circle of light that you see when looking into the microscope. As the power increases, the field of view decreases.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Interpupilliary Adjustment

Output: When using a stereo or binocular microscope, there must be an adjustment for the distance between the viewers eyes.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Intermediate Image

Output: An image formed in space by a lens

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Parfocal

Output: This is a focus issue. When changing from one viewing system or magnification to another, the new image should be either in focus or close enought so that you can refocus with only minor adjustments. Most microscopes are parfocal.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] Resolution

Output: The ability of a lens system to show fine details of the object being observed

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [Angle of incidence] T-mount

Output: A type of adapter used to mate still cameras (usually 35mm) to microscopes. These are often used with SLR cameras and are used in combination with an SLR adapter for a microscope.

Optics Glossary of terms Flashcards - Cram.com

The angle formed between a ray of light striking a surface and the normal to that surface at the point of incidence


Input: [the moisture content of air] the mass of water vapor contained in a certain volume of air [humidity]

Output: absolute humidity

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] a quantity expressing humidity as a percentage of the maximum absolute humidity for that particular temperature [humidity]

Output: relative humidity

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] the process by which certain gases (principally water, carbon dioxide, and methane) trap heat that would otherwise escape the earth and radiate into space [humidity]

Output: greenhouse effect

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] the number of molecules (or atoms) of a substance in a mixture for every one million molecules (or atoms) in that mixture [humidity]

Output: parts per million (ppm)

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen [humidity]

Output: What is dry air made up of?

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] nitrogen [humidity]

Output: What makes up the majority of the air we inhale and exhale?

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] False [humidity]

Output: True or False: Global warming and the greenhouse effect are the same thing.

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] when the concentration of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases increase too much causing the earth to become too warm [humidity]

Output: global warming

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [the moisture content of air] carbon monoxide [humidity]

Output: What pollutant gas is a deadly by-product of incomplete combustion?

Apologia Physical Science, Module 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Confirmations test [2]

Output: Existence


Input: [1] When auditing A/R check for objective [2]

Output: Completeness


Input: [1] Allowance for doubtful accounts [2]

Output: check for valuation


Input: [1] Objective for A/P Use what test? [2]

Output: Completeness Out of period Test 0 balance confirmations


Input: [1] Ineffective Sample [2]

Output: sample is without deviations and is misrepresenting the population


Input: [1] Attribute Estimations [2]

Output: Looking for deviatons


Input: [1] 5 sample selection techniques [2]

Output: Random Stratified Haphazard Systematic Blocking


Input: [1] Sample Size= [2]

Output: ((S*U*N)/A)^2 S=Standard Deviation U=Standard Normal Deviations for Desired risk of Incorrect rejection A=Allowance for Sampling Risk N= Population Size


Input: [1] Objective of Payroll audit [2]

Output: Completeness


Input: [1] Objective of Inventory [2]

Output: Existence


Input: [1] 2 questions for employees [2]

Output: Can they count? Do they know what they are counting? i.e. is it broken or obsolete?


Input: [1] Pictures 16-4 and 18-5 [2]

Output: What??


Input: [1] 3 reasons auditors do not have to perform confirmations on client receivables [2]

Output: 1. When a/r is immaterial--cash and credit are mainly used 2. When auditors consider confirmations ineffective due to inadequate or unreliable response rates i.e. hospitals & gov't 3. When combined inherent and control risk are so low that other evidence is sufficient


Input: [1] If an auditor does not receive a reply to a positive confirmation [2]

Output: call call call. Then examine subsequent cash receipts, duplicate sales invoices, and shipping documents


Input: [1] When can a client influence decisions by the auditor? [2]

Output: They can, however, a limitation may result in an adverse opinion


Input: [1] What are the key objectives of workpapers? [2]

Output: To leave a paper trail so someone who knows nothing about the audit can understand it. Evidence for proving due diligence


Input: [1] To find unrecorded liabilities [2]

Output: 1. examine documents for subsequent cash disbursements 2. examine vendors statements that show a balance to track missing or improperly valued accounts 3. send confirmations to vendors 4. examine transactions close to cutoff date


Input: [1] Telephone confirmations [2]

Output: Must be followed up in writing


Input: [1] Differences between A/R and A/P [2]

Output: Understatements and Overstatements internally and externally created documents


Input: [1] When auditing dividends [2]

Output: Make sure they have been declared


Input: [1] Payroll Audit Procedures [2]

Output: Compare to previous year Match with 941 remittances Go to HR and recalculate surprise payroll payoff


Input: [1] Payroll Audit Internal Control [2]

Output: Authorization, Separation of duties, independent checks on transactions, restrict access to assets


Input: [1] Documenting the Sales and Collection cycle [2]

Output: Customer Order- Request by customer for merch Sales order- document to communicate the desc., q, and info for cust. also used in credit auth. Shipping Document- shows completeness, ocurrence, & accuracy Sales Invoice- Sales Transaction File- All sales transactions for a period Sales Journal A/R Master File- Subsidiary ledger A/R Trial Balance