Input: an experimental design used with prelinguistic infants that tracks their eye movements when they are presented with verbal stimuli [basic level category]

Output: preferential looking paradigm

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: children's assumption that no two words have the same meaning. Hence they assume that a new word will ot refer to something for which they already have a name [basic level category]

Output: principle of contrast

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a cognitive bias shown by yound children, who typically avoid labeling anything at more than one level of generality; hence, they may refer to their pet as a dog, but not also as an animal [basic level category]

Output: principle of mutual exclusitivity

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: rules or maxims. Basic tenets of a theory [basic level category]

Output: principles

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a concept that is characterized by a variab le set of criteria, unlike a classical concept. For instance bird is a probabilistic concept, because no criterion defines it exclusively: a creature need not fly or have a beak or feathers to qualify as a bird. [basic level category]

Output: probabilistic concept

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: refereing to the regular forms of a language that are used in the formation of new words, regular plural endings, for instance. [basic level category]

Output: productivity

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an instance of a category that best exemplifies it: e.g., a robin is a prototypeical member of the category bird, because it has all of the important defining features. [basic level category]

Output: prototypes

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the actual things to which a particular word alludes-an actual cat, for instance-as opposed to the meaning of the word, which is a mental construct. [basic level category]

Output: referent

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a use of language meant to wound others or convey contempt, often accomplished by the use of exaggerated intonation patterns and ironic devices (e.g. saying thank you SO MUCH to the person who say on your hat and crushed it. [basic level category]

Output: sarcasm

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the acquisition of words and their many meanings and the development of that knowledge into a complex hierarchical network of associated meanings. [basic level category]

Output: semantic development

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one of the criteria by which a concept is defined and distinguished from other concepts. For instance, + male and + relative are two features of the concept brother. [basic level category]

Output: semantic feature

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a word and all of the words that are related to it through various hierarchies of meaning. [basic level category]

Output: semantic network

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: obvious meaning. one of the principles children use in making new words: "plant man" for gardener, for instance [basic level category]

Output: semantic transparency

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a verbal task in which the respondent is required to produce particular types of items; for instance, to name in a short period of time as many items of clothing as possible or words beginning with a particular letter. [basic level category]

Output: set task

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a constraint on early word learning that leads the child to assume that a new word refers to the shape of an object rather than to its color, texture, or other properties [basic level category]

Output: shape bias

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one of the principles children follow in creating new words. They extend forms they already know to cover new situations, creating words like bicycler for one who rides a bicycle [basic level category]

Output: simplicity

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the change-word association patterns seen when children reach the age of about seven; where previously they responded with a word that typically follows in conversations (eat: dinner), after the shift takes place they respond, like adults, with the same part of speech (eat: drink) [basic level category]

Output: syntagmatic-paradigmatic shift

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the assumption that a new word can be extended to members of the same category [basic level category]

Output: taxonomic principle

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: use or understanding of a word that does not include its full range: assuming, for instance that dog refers only to collies [basic level category]

Output: underextension

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: words that come to mind as a result of hearing other words [basic level category]

Output: word assoiciations

4380 exam 2 ch 4 keyterms Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Chief of Naval Operations

Output: Who Manages and coordinates the Correspondence Management

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Commanding Officers and Heads of Activities

Output: Who establishes the correspondence management program

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: A Correspondence Manager is designated by the C.O.

Output: Who designates The Correspondence Manager

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Signature Authority. Delegate signature authority to the lowest legal and practical level.

Output: Who should receive Delegated signature authority

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Commanding Officer must personally sign documents that: (1) Establish policy. (2) Center on the command’s mission or efficiency and are addressed to higher authority. (3) Deal with certain aspects of military justice. In this case, others may sign only if a staff legal officer has approved it. (4) Are required by law or regulation (ships deck log).

Output: What documents must the C.O personnally sign

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Delegation Subordinates usually use “By direction” when signing documents under this delegated authority.

Output: Subordinates usually use “What?” when signing documents under this delegated authority.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: When an officer temporarily succeeding to command signs official correspondence the word “Acting” is typed below the typed name.

Output: When an officer temporarily succeeding to command signs official correspondence the word “What?” is typed below the typed name.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Acting for an Official Who Signs by Title. The word “Acting” is typed below the typed name and title.

Output: Acting for an Official Who Signs by Title. The word “What?” is typed below the typed name and title.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Signing “For” an Absent Official. The acting official may sign the document with his or her name and the word “for” before the typed name of the regular signing official. This method is discouraged.

Output: Signing “For” an Absent Official. The acting official may sign the document with his or her name and the word “What?” before the typed name of the regular signing official.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Signature Stamps. If you are authorized to use a stamp of someone else’s signature pen your initials next to each signature you stamp to authenticate the stamp.

Output: What must you do if you are authorized to use a Signature Stamp of someone else's signature pen

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Date Stamp. Date stamp incoming controlled correspondence on the day it arrives at the command.

Output: When must you Date stamp incoming controlled correspondence?

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Routine Correspondence should be answered within 10 working days or within the time set by the incoming correspondence.

Output: How many Days should Routine Correspondence be answered within?

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Typical Controlled Correspondence should be answered within 10 workdays. If you foresee problem, send an interim reply within 5 workdays.

Output: Typical Controlled Correspondence should be answered within 10 workdays. What If you foresee problem?

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Congressional Communications - reply within 5 workdays. If problem, send interim within 48 hours.

Output: How much time is given to reply to Congressional Communications? What if their is a problem

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Freedom of Information and Privacy Act Requests - Requests for information within 10 workdays. Unless notified

Output: What Act tells us to answer requests within 10 days, Unless notified.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Do not read for substance until you are sure everything else is right. Look at the framework of the correspondence: (1) Is letterhead correct/straight? (2) Are margins 1 inch? (3) Are page numbers centered 1/2 inch from the bottom of the page? (4) Is there enough/too much room for the date? (5) Are paragraphs aligned/indented properly? (6) Are paragraphs sequentially numbered/lettered? (7) Are enclosure markings correct? (8) Are more than three lines hyphenated, and are Successive lines hyphenated? Next, look for typographical errors, misspelled words, Improper punctuation, improper spacing, and incorrect grammar: Lastly, read again for content.

Output: What things should you look for in proofreading. Before we read for substance.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Typeface. Use 10- to 12-point (or pitch) block letter style typeface.

Output: What Typeface should be used on correspondence.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Color of Ink - Use black or blue-black ink to type, stamp, and sign correspondence.

Output: What color ink should be used on correspondence

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Postal Standards No smaller than 3 ½ by 5 inches No larger than 6 1/8 by 11 ½ inches

Output: What are the postal Standards for envelopes

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Use standard letter size (number 10) envelopes whenever possible

Output: What size envelopes are preferred

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Generally, documents with four or less pages should be folded and mailed

Output: Documents above what number should not be folded when mailed

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Use large envelopes for material that cannot be folded

Output: Should Diplomas and Certificates be folded when mailing

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Standard Letter – (Naval Letters) Use when dealing w/DOD or outside DOD if they have adopted the format.

Output: When do we use Standard Letters

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Letterhead Format - typing or stamping a letterhead, begin with “DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY” centered on the fourth line from the top of the page. Center the activity’s name, address and nine-digit ZIP code on succeeding lines.

Output: What is the Format of a Letterhead where should it be placed

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Margins – 1 inch, on top, bottom, and sides Exceptions, on letterhead paper. Typing starts more than 1 in from the top when letterhead is printed and less than 1 inch if it is typed.

Output: Margins should be what lengths in a standard letter

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Typing may end more than 1 inch from the bottom of the page that has the signature.

Output: Can typing ever end more than 1 inch from the bottom of the page

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Don’t justify right margins and don’t use proportional spacing

Output: Can we justify right margings on a Standard letter. Whats the rule about proportional spacing

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Identification Symbols – The SSIC or In reply refer should be printed on the second line below the letterhead 3 parts of the Identification Symbols Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC) Originators Code Date

Output: What are the Identification Symbols, where should it be located and how many parts does it have.

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Enclosures - must be marked on the first page; however, you may mark all pages. An enclosure marking goes in the lower right corner (You can type, stamp or write “Encl” or “Enclosure”) plus its number should be in parentheses. (You may use pencil)

Output: How must Enclosures be marked, where should they be marked

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: Military time – express in four digits, from 0001 to 2400

Output: How must Military time be expressed

Correspondence Management CHAPTER 1 Flashcards - Cram.com

Who administers the Correspondence Management Program


Input: You want the ability to extend a simple volume. Which file system(s) support this task? [System Properties]

Output: NTFS

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How can a dynamic disk be reverted to a basic disk? [System Properties]

Output: The data must be backed up, a basic partition must be created, and the data restored.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Disk Management can be accessed in the Computer Management console or by creating a separate Disk Management console. Which method should be used to allow Disk Management to be used to manage a remote computer? [System Properties]

Output: Create a separate Disk Management console which can be focused on the remote computer.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which partitions of a basic disk act as though they are physically separate disks? [System Properties]

Output: primary partitions

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance disk subsystem controller indicates the rate at which bytes are transferred to or from the disk during read or write operations? [System Properties]

Output: Disk Bytes/sec Acceptable range: baseline or higher

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How many volumes can be configured on a dynamic disk? [System Properties]

Output: There is no limit to the number of volumes that can be created on a dynamic disk.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which NTFS file system storage option allows the expansion of available drives beyond the 26-drive limit and allows the use of intuitive names? [System Properties]

Output: mounted drive

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which volumes cannot be extended? [System Properties]

Output: Volumes that were originally created on basic disks. Volumes that contain either the system partition, the boot partition, or active paging files.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which group policy is used to define unsigned device driver behavior? [System Properties]

Output: Devices: Unsigned driver installation behavior

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which type of volume is created by combining the unallocated space on multiple dynamic disks into a single logical volume, but cannot be striped and does not provide fault tolerance? [System Properties]

Output: spanned volume

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Windows File Protection tool can scan and verify the version of all protected system files and will replace overwritten files with the correct version? [System Properties]

Output: System File Checker(SFC)

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which classification of device driver is certified as having undergone extensive testing to ensure compatibility with Windows Server 2003? [System Properties]

Output: signed device drivers

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which boot.ini option specifies the maximum amount of RAM that the operating system can use? [System Properties]

Output: maxmem

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which text-mode command interpreter enables administrators to manage objects, such as partitions and volumes, by using scripts or direct input from a command prompt? [System Properties]

Output: DiskPart

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What happens to the stored data when a partition is deleted? [System Properties]

Output: The data is destroyed.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which disk type conversion can be completed without loss of data? [System Properties]

Output: A basic disk can be converted to a dynamic disk without data loss.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance disk subsystem counter reports the amount of time that a drive is busy servicing read and write requests? [System Properties]

Output: % Disk Time Acceptable range: less than 50%

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: You have added a new disk to your computer and Disk Management does not detect the new device. Which option from the Action menu should you execute? [System Properties]

Output: Rescan Disks

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance processor counter tracks the number of requests in the queue for a selected processor? [System Properties]

Output: Server Work Queue: Queue Length Acceptable range: less than 4; should consistently be below 2

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How do you establish a file system on an extended partition? [System Properties]

Output: By creating one or more logical drives in the extended partition and formatting these drives.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the primary purpose for creating a spanned volume? [System Properties]

Output: To increase the amount of available storage space when the required unallocated space is not available on a single disk.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which group policy setting allows unsigned driver installation after a warning is issued to the user? [System Properties]

Output: Warn but allow installation

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance server counter compares the Bytes received per second counter to the total bandwidth of a network adapter card to determine whether the network connection is producing a bottleneck? [System Properties]

Output: Server: Bytes Received/sec Acceptable range: less than 50% capacity of the bandwidth supported by network adapter card

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How can a basic physical disk be divided into sections so that each section functions as a separate unit? [System Properties]

Output: Create partitions on the basic physical disk.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How many partitions can be configured on a basic disk? [System Properties]

Output: Four primary partitions, or three primary partitions and one extended partition.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How many logical drives can be configured on a basic disk? [System Properties]

Output: 24

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which disk type is configured by default when Windows Server 2003 is installed? [System Properties]

Output: basic disk

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which software component is a program that allows a specific device, such as a modem, network adapter, or printer, to communicate with the operating system? [System Properties]

Output: device driver

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which status is displayed in Disk Management for a dynamic disk that is intermittently unavailable or corrupt? [System Properties]

Output: Offline

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance disk subsystem counter reports the average number of bytes transferred to or from the disk during read or write operations? [System Properties]

Output: Avg. Disk Bytes/Transfer Acceptable range: baseline or higher

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance memory counter tracks the number of times a virtual page was not found in memory? [System Properties]

Output: Page Faults/sec Acceptable range: 5 or below

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which two types of fault tolerance software is provided by Windows Server 2003? [System Properties]

Output: RAID 5 - Striping with Parity RAID 1 - Disk Mirroring

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In general, how do you uninstall a Plug and Play device in Windows Server 2003? [System Properties]

Output: disconnect or remove the device

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Windows component prevents the replacement of protected system files, such as those with the .sys and .dll extensions? [System Properties]

Output: Windows File Protection

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which interface can be used to identify, enable, disable, or uninstall device drivers, and can be used to print a summary of all devices attached to the computer? [System Properties]

Output: Device Manager

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Your Windows Server 2003 computer contains a non-redundant volume that spans multiple disks. You move only a single disk from this volume to another Windows Server 2003 computer. What will be the result? [System Properties]

Output: The volume will be disabled on both the original and target system. When all disks are moved, the volume will be recovered to its original state.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: You have attached a new disk to your Windows Server 2003 computer. Which action must be completed before the new disk can be partitioned? [System Properties]

Output: The disk must first be initialized.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance disk subsystem counter reports the number of pending I/O requests for the disk drive? [System Properties]

Output: Current Disk Queue Length Acceptable range: Number of spindles plus 2

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the maximum partition sizes for the FAT, FAT32, and NTFS file systems? [System Properties]

Output: FAT - 4GB FAT32 - 32GB NTFS - 2TB

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Windows 2003 feature can be used to restore a device driver to the previously installed version? [System Properties]

Output: the Roll Back Driver feature in Device Manager

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the primary benefit for creating a striped volume? [System Properties]

Output: Data can be accessed using multiple drive heads, increasing read and write performance.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance processor counter tracks the number of requests made per queue for the processor, indicating the number of threads that are ready to be executed or are waiting for processor time? [System Properties]

Output: System: Processor Queue Length Acceptable range: less than 10

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which command-line tool can identify signed and unsigned files on a computer and will provide general information, such as modification date and version number, for these files? [System Properties]

Output: File Signature Verification

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which term refers to the transferal of a dynamic disk from a source computer to a target computer? [System Properties]

Output: importing a foreign disk

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance processor counter tracks the percentage of elapsed time that the processor spends to execute a non-idle thread? [System Properties]

Output: % Processor Time Acceptable range: 85% and below

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which type of volume is created by expanding an existing volume onto unallocated space on the same disk or a different disk? [System Properties]

Output: extended volume

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance memory counter reports the amount of available memory? [System Properties]

Output: Available Bytes Acceptable range: 5% of total memory or greater

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which method of hardware support enables a computer system to automatically recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes with little or no user intervention? [System Properties]

Output: Plug and Play

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which disk type is required for the creation of simple, striped, spanned, mirrored, or RAID-5 volumes? [System Properties]

Output: dynamic disk

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which volume type is a single volume that resides on a dynamic disk? [System Properties]

Output: simple volume

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which self-contained unit of storage in NTFS involves assigning a drive path to a drive rather than a drive letter? [System Properties]

Output: mounted drive

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How do you prevent device drivers from being loaded at startup for a device that must remain connected to the computer? [System Properties]

Output: Disable the device in Device Manager.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which command can be entered from the command prompt to convert an existing volume named D: from FAT to NTFS? [System Properties]

Output: convert d: /fs:ntfs

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which two methods can be used to manage unsigned device driver behavior? [System Properties]

Output: Create a local or group policy to manage the behavior. Manually define the driver signing options.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which generic term refers to any piece of equipment that can be attached to a computer? [System Properties]

Output: device

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Microsoft Management Console(MMC) consolidates all disk management tasks into a single, easy-to-use interface? [System Properties]

Output: Disk Management

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which operating systems are supported by Windows Server 2003 as source computers for imported disks? [System Properties]

Output: all Windows 2000 operating systems Windows XP Professional Windows XP 64-bit Edition Windows Server 2003

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which group policy setting allows unsigned device driver installation without a warning being issued? [System Properties]

Output: Silently succeed

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Microsoft resource provides a listing of all operating system-supported hardware devices? [System Properties]

Output: HCL(Hardware Compatibility List)

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance network counter indicates the number of bytes that are sent by using this network adapter card? [System Properties]

Output: Network Interface: Bytes Sent/sec Acceptable range: baseline or higher; dependent on adapter throughput speed

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance processor counter tracks the number of interrupts that the processor is servicing from applications or from hardware devices? [System Properties]

Output: Interrupts/sec Acceptable range: depends on processor

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which group policy setting prevents unsigned device drivers from being installed on the managed computer? [System Properties]

Output: Do not allow installation

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Task Manager counter indicates the percentage of the network bandwidth in use for the local network segment? [System Properties]

Output: Network Utilization Acceptable range: 30% or below

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What will be the status of a volume when all the disks that contain parts of the volume are moved to a Windows Server 2003 computer? [System Properties]

Output: Once scanned, the volume and its data will remain in the identical state.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which three limitations must be considered when using Device Driver Roll Back? [System Properties]

Output: You can only roll back one driver version. Print drivers cannot be rolled back. Multiple device drivers for all functions in a multifunction device must be rolled back individually.

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance memory counter reports the amount of virtual memory that is committed to either physical RAM for storage or to pagefile space? [System Properties]

Output: Committed Bytes Acceptable range: less than installed physical memory

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which type of volume is created by combining the unallocated space on multiple dynamic disks into a single logical volume where data is written across the array in blocks, but does not provide fault tolerance? [System Properties]

Output: striped set

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Performance memory counter tracks the number of requested pages that were not available in RAM, causing them to be accessed or written to disk? [System Properties]

Output: Pages/sec Acceptable range: 0-20; should consistently be 5 or lower

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which Windows Server 2003 object is used to organize multiple dynamic disks so that they can be managed as a collection? [System Properties]

Output: disk group

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: You have installed a dynamic disk from one computer into a Windows Server 2003 computer. How will Disk Management mark the newly installed drive? [System Properties]

Output: as a foreign disk

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which user account is created and defined with commonly used settings and configurations and can facilitate more efficient account creation operations? [System Properties]

Output: user account template

70-290 Microsoft Windows Server 2003 pt. 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when mixing two different plants you will result in a new plant

Output: Blending Model of Inheritance

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: Parents pass on discrete, heritable units that retain their separate identities in the offspring

Output: Particulate Model of inheritance

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: made by self-feritlization offspring always produce same trait as parents in self-fertilization

Output: How do you create pure lines?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: an allele from each parent

Output: What does each characteristic inherit?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: The dominant one is expressed

Output: What happens if two alleles differ?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: They will segregate and end up in different gametes Example: (sperm/egg)

Output: What will happen to the alleles in meiosis?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: The Law of Segregation

Output: What is it called when the alleles segregate in meiosis?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: the allele combination

Output: What does genotype mean?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: the physical representation of the genes

Output: What does phenotype mean?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: to predict the probability of a particular genotype and phenotype

Output: What are punnett squares used for?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: A cross between two organisms that are heterozygous for a single trait

Output: What is a monohybrid cross?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: when there is a dominant and recessive gene

Output: What does heterozygous mean?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: when there is two dominant genes OR two recessive genes

Output: What does homozygous mean?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: when there is no complete dominant allele

Output: What is incomplete dominance?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: When more than allele exists

Output: What does codominance mean?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: genes that have more than two alleles but an organism can still only inherit two alleles for a particular trait

Output: What is a multiple allele cross?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: a trait linked to a sex chromosome

Output: What is a sex-linked trait?

Biology Genetics Test Flashcards - Cram.com

Why did Gregor Mendell decide to study pea plants?


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] lower motor neurons refer to

Output: 12 cranial nerves + 31 spinal + branches peripheral nervous system

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Brain consists of 4 parts

Output: Cerebral Cortex Diencephalon Brainstem Cerebellum

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Cerebral cortex is broken into lobes (4)

Output: Frontal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Temporal lobe

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Broca's area is found

Output: in the frontal lobe, and governs speech formation ie, person who has this can understand speech, but not speak themselves

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Wernicke's area is found

Output: in the temporal lobe. it governs speech comprehension. ex: someone with this cannot comprehend other's speech

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What does frontal lobe govern

Output: personality, behaviors, emotions, intellectual function Primary motor area

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What does parietal lobe govern

Output: primary sensory area

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What does occipital lobe govern

Output: visual perception CNII

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What does temporal lobe govern

Output: hearing, taste & smell

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] what % of people are left hemisphere dominant?

Output: 95%

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Parts of the Diencephalon (deep in brain)

Output: Basal ganglia thalamus hypothalmus

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] basal ganglia govern

Output: auto arm swing, part effected by parkinsons

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] thalamus governs

Output: main relay station, synapse formed

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] hypothalamus governs

Output: temperature control sleep pituitary gland regulation some emtion

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] parts of the brainstem (3)

Output: Midbrain Pons Medulla

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Midbrain

Output: anterior

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Pons

Output: ascending/descending

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Medulla

Output: motor sensory nerve tracks, vital autonomic center (breathing/heart etc) site of pyramidal decussation

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] pyramidal decussation

Output: crossing of motor fibers

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] major motor pathways (3)

Output: corticospinal or pyramidal tract extra pyramidal tract cerebellar system

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] corticospinal or pyramidal

Output: voluntary movement, skilled and discrete

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] extrapyramidal tract

Output: motor fibers basal ganglia gross body movement

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] cerebellar system

Output: equilibrium posture coordination

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] major sensory pathways (2)

Output: Spinothalamic tract posterior column

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] spinothalamic tract

Output: spine->thalamus temperature pain (sharp/dull) crude/light touch (cotton ball) fine discretion @ cortex

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] posterior column

Output: proprioception (position) vibration fine localized touch (graphesthesia)

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] which portion of the spine is sensory? motor?

Output: posterior: sensory anterior: motor

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] required for a reflex arc (5)

Output: intact sensory nerve fxn'l synapse in cord intact motor neuron intact neuromuscular junction competent muscle

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What reflexes test what? ankle knee

Output: ankle: Sacral 1 knee: L2, L3, L4

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] what reflexes test what? brachial radialis bicep

Output: both test C5 & C6

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] what reflexes test what? tricep plantar

Output: tricep: C6 & C7 plantar: L5 & S1

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] mental status: define lethargic

Output: drowsy ie: concussion

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] mental status: define obtunded

Output: only seen in hospital open eyes, responds slowly, no interest in environment

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] mental status: define stuperous

Output: only seen in hospital only awakened by painful stimuli, maybe verbally responsive

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] mental status: define comatose

Output: only seen in hospital always unarousable

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] what is the first thing to go with orientation? (ANOx3)

Output: Time. then place then person

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Language, and inability to follow directions to the end indicates what?

Output: dementia

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] why don't use ammonia to test CN I?

Output: it messes up CN V

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Bells Palsy

Output: paralysis of half of face, including brow, due to cut in cranial nerve VII can't close eye, can't raise brow, no nasal labial fold on one side

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What is the sensory portion of CN VII test?

Output: taste

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] How is stroke different than Bells Palsy?

Output: the pt. can still raise their eyebrows and close their eye. It is really only the lower portion of the face that is paralyzed.

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] What is the vestibular portion of CNVIII?

Output: Romberg test: the feet together, hands at your side abnormal to fall back

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] 3 kinds of muscle tone?

Output: Flaccid Spastic Rigid

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Flaccid?

Output: decrease in muscle tone: early stroke, polio

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Spastic

Output: increase in muscle tone, increased resistance to extension, inuurty to corticomotor spinal tract [later stroke victims, think curled bicep]

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Rigid

Output: constant state of contraction parkinsons, parkinsonism cog wheel rigidity damage of the extra pyramidal tract

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] hypotrophy of muscle can be due to

Output: muscle or lower motor neuron disease

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] involuntary movements (3)

Output: fasiculation tick tremor >tension tremor >pill rolling

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] fasiculation

Output: rapid twitching of resting muscle

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] tick

Output: repetitive twitch at inappropriate time neurological/psychological ex: shoulder shrug

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Tremor

Output: Pill rolling = parkinsons Tension tremor = extension, tremor when pouring water

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] spinothalamic tract: if pt response to pain, you you don't have to test

Output: temperature

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] Posterior column: tactile discrimination tests?

Output: stereognosis (object) graphesthesia (draw #) two point discrimination extinction (touch different hands)

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] tests of cerebellar function

Output: rapid alternating movements point to point movements

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] coordination tests

Output: cerebellar function

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] point to point movement tests

Output: finger to finger finger to nose heel to shin

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] heel to shin test being bouncy can indicate

Output: MS

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] pronator drift test weakness can indicate

Output: small stroke

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] pronator drift test overshoot can indicate

Output: cerebellar problem

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] cerebellar function test

Output: gait tandem walking romberg test shallow knee bend

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] + babinski can indicate

Output: upper motor neuron problem spinal cord damage following a seizure losta drugs

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] how test for clonus (4+ reflex)

Output: support knee, dorso flex foot cog wheel rigidity in motion

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] increase in muscle tone increase in reflexes and up going toe indicate

Output: upper motor neuron problem ie: damage to spinal cord or cerebral cortex

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: [upper motor neurons refer to] loss of muscle tone less relexes indicate

Output: lower motor neuron problem

brain & spinal cord ie: central nervous system


Input: what is the person perception definition of attribution theory?

Output: an attempt to determine whether an individual's behavior is internally or externally cause.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the person perception definition of fundamental attribution error?

Output: The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and over estimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the person perception definition of self-serving bias?

Output: the tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors and put the blame for failures on external factors.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the definition of frequent used shortcut in judging other selective perception?

Output: the tendency to selectivity interpret what one sees on the basis of ones interest background experience and attitudes.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the definition of frequent used shortcut in judging other halo effect ?

Output: the tendency to draw to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the definition of frequent used shortcut in judging other contrast effect?

Output: Evaluation of person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: stereotyping

Output: judging someone on the basis of ones perception of the group to which that person belongs.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: profiling

Output: A form of sterotypingin which a group of individuals is singled out typically on the basis of race or ethnicity for intensive inquiry scrutiny or investigation.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: what is the definition of self-fulfilling prophecy?

Output: a situation in which a person inaccurately perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception.

perception and individual decision making ch5 Flashcards - Cram.com

a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.


Input: mixture of positive, negative, cognitive and mood symptoms

Output: schizophrenia is characterized by


Input: usually during adolescence or early adulthood; age of onset is earlier in males

Output: Onset of schizophrenia is


Input: Dopamine 2 antagonist (antipsychotics) are the only effective therapeutic agents, which are currently available

Output: The only effective schizophrenia treatment is


Input: diminished drive and emotion during childhood , followed by a break in self-monitoring abilities which results in perceptions and/or ideations that deviate substantially from the individual's cultural norm, which is usually expressed as false beliefs, auditory verbal hallucinations and abnormalities of thought / language.

Output: Schizophrenia § It is often marked by


Input: a. Positive symptom vs. negative symptom

Output: 19. Schizophrenia presents with


Input: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behavior and speech

Output: i. Positive symptoms


Input: avolition, anhedonia, flat affect iii. Drugs only help positive symptoms

Output: ii. Negative symptoms


Input: age 17 and 30 in males and age 20 and 40 in females, with the course and outcome that varies considerably between individuals.

Output: Schizophrenia, psychosis usually emerges between


Input: continue to manifest some symptoms, and remain vulnerable to periodic exacerbation of psychotic symptoms.

Output: Most Schizophrenia patients, however, do improve from the initial episode


Input: diminish drive and emotion may worsen over a longer period.

Output: In general, while the severity of psychosis plateaus within 5 to 10 years of the first episode, but


Input: decreased intensity of symptoms and some improvement of function, this does not compensate for years of lost experience and opportunity.

Output: Schizophrenia late in life there is a tendency toward


Input: i. goes from premorbid → prodromal → onset deterioration → chronic/residual ii. As you age, you get better (less episodes)

Output: b. Phases of schizophrenia


Input: -Decline in role functioning, self-care -Minimum 6 months of symptoms

Output: besides positive and negative symptoms what else is needed to diagnose SZ?


Input: first-episode schizophrenia

Output: Brain volume changes in


Input: Derived from methylene blue dye is the only one that seems to improve patients conditions

Output: ￼￼The Development of Chlorpromazine


Input: to dosing issues

Output: Recent large-scale studies like CATIE suggest 1st v. 2nd generation of antupsychotics distinctions probably less true due


Input: switching treatment refractory patients to the newer drug, thus “releasing” them from an old drug that given at a high dose and may have interfered with cognition

Output: Cognitive enhancement” of new drugs may just be due to


Input: Correlation of cognitive dysfunction to poor outcome § Lack of current effective treatments for poor cognition • No antipsychotic helps cognitive function improve • “cognitive enhancing” (dementia drugs) do not help • Important for providing information about underlying neuropathology of schizophrenia

Output: Although cognitive dysfunction is SZ is not a diagnostic feat it is important for treatment development because


Input: -genetic components -cellular programming -cell development -neural systems -behavioral functions

Output: Pathogenesis of SZ may include


Input: Multiple susceptibility alleles each of small effect

Output: Genes components contributing to sz


Input: Abnormal connectivity in local and associational circuits

Output: Neural systems related to sz


Input: Disturbances in perception, information, processing, mood regulation, cognition

Output: Behavioral functions related to SZ


Input: 1. 50% concordance with monozygotic twins 2. 1st degree relatives without dx of SZ show many of the same traits

Output: SZ Genetic component in twins are highly correlated


Input: 1. people in high expressed emotion households are at risk, and high marijuana users 2. prenatal events like mother having flu, rubella, pre-eclampsia, STD at time of conception..

Output: Enviromental components related to SZ


Input: a continuum termed the Unitary Psychosis Model.

Output: The absence of a clear phenotypic distinction across diverse psychotic states such as schizophrenia, psychotic affective disorder and schizophrenia has led to one view that these disorders might represent


Input: filter mechanisms leading to schizophrenia related psychopathology

Output: Alterations in attention and information processing in schizophrenia have been thought to result from a failure of


Input: problems with the central monitoring of responses.

Output: Frith and Done (1988) originally proposed that symptoms of alien control (i.e. first rank symptoms) in schizophrenia might result from


Input: a disintegration of language processes that is uniquely human and emerges in the context of speciation.

Output: Crow (2000) has proposed that nuclear symptoms of schizophrenia may be related to


Input: one's experience as a result of dopaminergic dysregulation.

Output: Kapur (2003) proposed that psychosis may result from an aberrant assignment of salience to the elements of


Input: the broad body of the “facts of schizophrenia”.

Output: none of the Models of Phenotypic Expression explains


Input: contralateral motor and sensory activaition as if in fact someone was controlling their movemebts

Output: Schzisophrenic people have a delusion of control they feel someone of is controlling their movements, they show


Input: dysfunction of inhibitory circuits

Output: Observations of alterations in synchronous oscillations in the gamma range (30–80 Hz) have led to the theory that psychopathology in schizophrenia may result from


Input: i. Corollary is sending copy of instructions to other sensory regions of the body to cancel stimulation: hallucination is when these systems go awry ii. Efference copy is an internal copy created with a motor command of its predicted movement and its resulting sensations. One role of efference copies is to enable the brain to estimate the sensory feedback from movements in which case they are called corollary discharges.

Output: e. Corollary discharge – an explanation of hallucination


Input: psychosis phenotype

Output: It should be noted that a white matter disease such as metachromatic leukodystrophy can mimic schizophrenia with its


Input: as the prefrontal–limbic dopamine (DA) imbalance model and the phasic–tonic DA imbalance model

Output: The widely held neurochemical hypothesis, the classic hyperdopaminergic model has in recent years given way to more complex and integrative views such


Input: blocking dopaminergic receptors, and also by clinical observations of psychotic symptoms in individuals following repeated amphetamine use.

Output: Dopaminergic models are strongly supported by the fact that all currently available antipsychotics work by


Input: the positive symptom dimension of schizophrenia.

Output: DA blockade may be a necessary and sufficient explanation for antipsychotic effects (Kapur and Mamo, 2003), and by inference, to


Input: cognitive and negative symptoms with psychotic episodes, though not other aspects of the illness such as structural alterations and functional decline.

Output: DA imbalance models provide an integrative view of


Input: symptoms, but not other domains such as negative symptoms

Output: Amphetamine-induced sensitized state has been used as an animal model for some domains such as


Input: have little effect of cognitive and negative symptoms.

Output: DA related genes do not appear to explain the substantive heritability of schizophrenia, and dopaminergic treatments


Input: remain elusive.

Output: t is quite likely that DA alterations are involved downstream in the final common pathways that lead to psychosis (Seeman, 2010), though the primary causal events


Input: pathophysiological model.

Output: Alteration in the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate system, especially involving N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor function has emerged as a promising


Input: early observations that phencyclidine (PCP) causes symptoms closely resembling schizophrenia. Early age pcp doesn't causes psychotic effect only in later life..similar to the onset of the disease

Output: NMDA receptor model stemmed from


Input: ntegrates the early and late developmental deviations § The role of dopamine § The post-illness onset deteriorative processes that occur in schizophrenia.

Output: Glutamatergic constructs such as the NMDA receptor hypofunction model have considerable explanatory power:


Input: glutamatergic system. However, this model does not clarify why, despite the ubiquity of glutamatergic neurons in the brain, schizophrenia is not associated with more generalized neurological impairment

Output: Many genes implicated in schizophrenia appear to converge on the


Input: improve cognitive deficits in schizophrenia.

Output: Medications that modulate the glycine site of the NMDA receptors have been reported to


Input: GABA neurons and/or key enzymes related to this pathway.

Output: Several lines of evidence indicate that gamma amino acid butyric acid (GABA) neurotransmission, the main inhibitory neurochemical system, is dysfunctional in schizophrenia. § Post-mortem studies have consistently reported reductions in


Input: altered GABA neurotransmission.

Output: It has been suggested that observations of altered neural synchrony and cognitive deficits in schizophrenia may be related to


Input: membrane alterations in peripheral cells as well as the brain

Output: The membrane hypothesis posits the role of


Input: several aspects of neuronal function such as receptors, channels and signal transduction.

Output: The membrane hypothesis is appealing since membranes are critical for


Input: an increased serum concentration of several pro-inflammatory cytokines that may reflect response by microglia to various pathological processes in the brain

Output: The inflammation hypothesis of schizophrenia is based on observations that schizophrenia may be associated with


Input: observations of decreased antioxidant and increased pro-oxidant processes

Output: The pathophysiology of schizophrenia has also been thought be related to increased oxidative stress (accumulation of reactive oxygen species that may damage neuronal function) in this illness, supported by


Input: impaired neural infrastructure and abnormal brain maturation predisposing to premorbid dysfunction as well as psychopathology emerging later in adolescence or early adulthood.

Output: The “early” developmental models suggest that disruptions in intrauterine or early postnatal life, i.e. neuronal proliferation, migration, differentiation and elimination, or neurogenesis processes, may lead to


Input: deviations in later emerging processes such as synaptic/axonal pruning or neuronal apoptosis and/or myelination processes contribute to its evolution.

Output: The “late” developmental models, which account for the typical onset of schizophrenia during adolescence, propose


Input: schizophrenia may be polygenic/multifactorial.

Output: It has been known for long that schizophrenia is highly heritable. § The most promising etiological models therefore include the view that


Input: a very small fraction of the heritability.

Output: Though recent linkage and genome-wide association studies have identified a large number of candidate genes and specific risk alleles for schizophrenia, replicated findings explain only


Input: genome-wide association studies (GWAS). These alleles present relatively modest odds ratios (the odds of a risk variant being present in cases vs. controls) and suggest causal roles of gene regulatory mechanisms in Schizophrenia.

Output: The view that schizophrenia may be caused by multiple common genes each conferring a small effect has been supported by


Input: possibly severe risks seen in a significant proportion of patients, though no single locus explains more than approximately 1% of cases.

Output: In recent years, observations have emerged of rare and unique mutations and copy number variations (CNV) conferring


Input: profound gene–gene and gene–protein interactions, leading to incredibly complex “interactomes”.

Output: he relationships between genes (e.g. DISC1, neuregulin) and their neuropathological consequences (such as dendritic morphology) are not straightforward, and are likely to be influenced by


Input: larger effects than either genes or environment.

Output: Gene–environmental models suggest that interactive effects of genes and environment on biological pathways may have


Input: by gene–environment interaction.

Output: A large fraction of the heritability of schizophrenia may be accounted for


Input: prime the person to react to a second hit in the form of an environmental factor later during development leading to the illness.

Output: An integrative approach is the “two-hit hypothesis” which proposes that genetic risk and early developmental alterations (first hit) may


Input: DNA methylation and chromatin structure which, in turn, may play a role in the etiology of schizophrenia.

Output: n epigenetic model, which is increasingly gaining recognition, posits that environmental factors impact on gene expression via changes in


Input: the opinion contains three parts: 1. the statements are prepared by management and is their responsibility, the auditor prepares an independent review 2. generally accepted auditing standards were used, providing reasonable assurance of no material errors 3. GAAP was used in financial statement preparation and are reasonable, additional explanation when accounting practices have not been used consistently

Output: What composes an auditors opinion?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the auditor is satisfied the statements are free from material omissions and errors

Output: An unqualified opinion audit report states what?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the auditor beleives the statements make exceptions to accounting principles,

Output: A qualified opinion audit report states what?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the auditor believes the statements are not presented fairly, or are noncorming with accounting practices

Output: An adverse opinion audit report states what?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the auditor must provide an opinion, providing the opinion either separately or as the fourth element in the standard auditors opinion

Output: Under GAAP, what is the auditors responsibility regarding internal controls?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. Statement of Responsibility: management is responsible for implentation and maintenance of internal controls 2. Description: of evaluation of internal controls 3. Assessment: effectiveness of the most recent year 4. Statement of Assessment: the report has been assessed by auditors 5. Statement of Certification: the report has been presented fairly

Output: Regarding audit reports and internal controls, under the Sarbanese Oxley Act what are the elements management must follow when providing the report?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: disclosures off information providing further details, improves assessments of amounts, timing, and uncertainty of estimates reported

Output: What information is contained in the footnotes of financial statements?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. accounting standards, assumptins, estimations 2. are audited 3. business acquisitions or disposals, legal actions, employee benefit plans, contingencies, significant customers, sales to related parties, segments of the firm

Output: What are the elements of financial statement footnotes?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. Operating income or sales by region or business segment 2. Reserves for an oil and gas company 3. Information about hedging activities and financial instruments 4. Not audited

Output: What are additional disclosures provided by the supplemental schedules?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: provides an assessment of a company's financial performance and condition from the perspective of management

Output: What is the purpose of the Management Discussion and Analysis?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. results from operation, trends in sales and expenses 2. Capital resources, liquidity, trends in cash flows 3. general business overview based on known trends

Output: What is the MD&A required to report?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. accounting requiring judgements by management 2. significant effects of trends, events, and uncertainties 3. liquidity and capital resource issues 4. discontinued operations 5. extensive disclosures in interim financial statements 6.disclosures of a segments need for cash flow, contributions to revenue or profit

Output: The MD&A can also include what topics?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: issued to shareholders on matters that require a vote

Output: What is the purpose of proxy statements?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: provides information about the election, qualification, and compensation of board members, including management, and the issuance of stock options

Output: What information is provided in the proxy statement?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. State the objective and context 2. Gather data 3. Process data 4. Analyze and interpret the data 5. Report the conclusions or recommendations 6. Update the analysis

Output: What are the six steps of the financial statement analysis framework?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: determine the questions, seek answers, presentation, resources and time

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step one: state the objective and context?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: acquire company's financial statements, find relevant data on economy and industry, question management, suppliers, and customers, visit company sites

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step two: gather data?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: adjust financial statements, calculate ratios, prepare exhibits, graphs, and common size balance sheets

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step three: process the data?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: use the data to answer questions from the first step, decide the conclusions supported by the information

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step four: Analyze and interpret the data

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: prepare and commmunicate report, make sure report complies with code and standards

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step five: Report the conclusions or recommendations?

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Input: repeat steps periodically, change conclusions when necessary

Output: What is the objective of the FSA framework step six: update the analysis

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Input: Revenue - Expense = Net Income

Output: What is the basic equation underlying the income statement?

CFA 2009: FSA Chapt 29 SS7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Direct Primary] Seventeenth Amendment

Output: which gave the voters the power to elect their senators directly

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Initiative

Output: gives voters the power to initiate

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Referendum

Output: is a companion to the initiative

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Recall

Output: enable voters to remove an elected official from office by calling for a special election

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] M.Jone and Tom Johnson

Output: were self made men who earned their fortunes early in life

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Robert M. La Follette

Output: began his political career as a loyal republican

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Wisconsin Idea

Output: that became a model for other states

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Theodore Roosevelt

Output: as his running mate

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Arbitration

Output: Arbitration is the process by which two opposing sides allow a third party to settle a dispute

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Square Deal

Output: became Roosevelt's 1904 campaign slogan

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Elkins Act

Output: forbade shipping companies from accepting rebates, or money given back in return for business

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Hepburn Act

Output: authorized the icc to set railroad rates and to regulate other companies engaged in interstate commerce, such as pipelines and ferries

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Upton Sinclair

Output: published the jungle, an explosive novel that depicted the wretched and unsanitary conditions at a meatpacking plant

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Meat Inspection Act

Output: required federal government inspection of meat shipped across state lines

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Pure Food and Drug Act

Output: forbade the manufacture, sale, or transportation of food and patent medicine containing harmful ingredients

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Gifford Pinchot

Output: was a strong conservationist, forester, and a friend of Roosevelt

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Reclamation

Output: the process of making damaged land productive again

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] National Park service

Output: was created in 1916 and the National park system has continued to grow

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] William Howard Taft

Output: his secretary to war Taft won the nomination on the first ballot

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Mann Elkins Act

Output: in 1910, extending the regulatory power

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Sixteenth Amendment

Output: proposed in 1909 and ratified in 1913

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Payne Aldrich Tariff

Output: as the the bill was called

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: [Direct Primary] Richard Ballinger

Output: Taft's secretary of the interior

is a nominating election in which voters choose the candidates who later run in a general election


Input: 12 cranial nerves + 31 spinal + branches peripheral nervous system [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: lower motor neurons refer to


Input: Cerebral Cortex Diencephalon Brainstem Cerebellum [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Brain consists of 4 parts


Input: Frontal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Temporal lobe [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Cerebral cortex is broken into lobes (4)


Input: in the frontal lobe, and governs speech formation ie, person who has this can understand speech, but not speak themselves [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Broca's area is found


Input: in the temporal lobe. it governs speech comprehension. ex: someone with this cannot comprehend other's speech [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Wernicke's area is found


Input: personality, behaviors, emotions, intellectual function Primary motor area [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What does frontal lobe govern


Input: primary sensory area [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What does parietal lobe govern


Input: visual perception CNII [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What does occipital lobe govern


Input: hearing, taste & smell [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What does temporal lobe govern


Input: 95% [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: what % of people are left hemisphere dominant?


Input: Basal ganglia thalamus hypothalmus [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Parts of the Diencephalon (deep in brain)


Input: auto arm swing, part effected by parkinsons [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: basal ganglia govern


Input: main relay station, synapse formed [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: thalamus governs


Input: temperature control sleep pituitary gland regulation some emtion [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: hypothalamus governs


Input: Midbrain Pons Medulla [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: parts of the brainstem (3)


Input: anterior [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Midbrain


Input: ascending/descending [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Pons


Input: motor sensory nerve tracks, vital autonomic center (breathing/heart etc) site of pyramidal decussation [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Medulla


Input: crossing of motor fibers [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: pyramidal decussation


Input: corticospinal or pyramidal tract extra pyramidal tract cerebellar system [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: major motor pathways (3)


Input: voluntary movement, skilled and discrete [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: corticospinal or pyramidal


Input: motor fibers basal ganglia gross body movement [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: extrapyramidal tract


Input: equilibrium posture coordination [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: cerebellar system


Input: Spinothalamic tract posterior column [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: major sensory pathways (2)


Input: spine->thalamus temperature pain (sharp/dull) crude/light touch (cotton ball) fine discretion @ cortex [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: spinothalamic tract


Input: proprioception (position) vibration fine localized touch (graphesthesia) [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: posterior column


Input: posterior: sensory anterior: motor [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: which portion of the spine is sensory? motor?


Input: intact sensory nerve fxn'l synapse in cord intact motor neuron intact neuromuscular junction competent muscle [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: required for a reflex arc (5)


Input: ankle: Sacral 1 knee: L2, L3, L4 [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What reflexes test what? ankle knee


Input: both test C5 & C6 [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: what reflexes test what? brachial radialis bicep


Input: tricep: C6 & C7 plantar: L5 & S1 [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: what reflexes test what? tricep plantar


Input: drowsy ie: concussion [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: mental status: define lethargic


Input: only seen in hospital open eyes, responds slowly, no interest in environment [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: mental status: define obtunded


Input: only seen in hospital only awakened by painful stimuli, maybe verbally responsive [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: mental status: define stuperous


Input: only seen in hospital always unarousable [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: mental status: define comatose


Input: Time. then place then person [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: what is the first thing to go with orientation? (ANOx3)


Input: dementia [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Language, and inability to follow directions to the end indicates what?


Input: it messes up CN V [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: why don't use ammonia to test CN I?


Input: paralysis of half of face, including brow, due to cut in cranial nerve VII can't close eye, can't raise brow, no nasal labial fold on one side [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Bells Palsy


Input: taste [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What is the sensory portion of CN VII test?


Input: the pt. can still raise their eyebrows and close their eye. It is really only the lower portion of the face that is paralyzed. [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: How is stroke different than Bells Palsy?


Input: Romberg test: the feet together, hands at your side abnormal to fall back [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: What is the vestibular portion of CNVIII?


Input: Flaccid Spastic Rigid [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: 3 kinds of muscle tone?


Input: decrease in muscle tone: early stroke, polio [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Flaccid?


Input: increase in muscle tone, increased resistance to extension, inuurty to corticomotor spinal tract [later stroke victims, think curled bicep] [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Spastic


Input: constant state of contraction parkinsons, parkinsonism cog wheel rigidity damage of the extra pyramidal tract [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Rigid


Input: muscle or lower motor neuron disease [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: hypotrophy of muscle can be due to


Input: fasiculation tick tremor >tension tremor >pill rolling [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: involuntary movements (3)


Input: rapid twitching of resting muscle [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: fasiculation


Input: repetitive twitch at inappropriate time neurological/psychological ex: shoulder shrug [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: tick


Input: Pill rolling = parkinsons Tension tremor = extension, tremor when pouring water [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Tremor


Input: temperature [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: spinothalamic tract: if pt response to pain, you you don't have to test


Input: stereognosis (object) graphesthesia (draw #) two point discrimination extinction (touch different hands) [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: Posterior column: tactile discrimination tests?


Input: rapid alternating movements point to point movements [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: tests of cerebellar function


Input: cerebellar function [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: coordination tests


Input: finger to finger finger to nose heel to shin [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: point to point movement tests


Input: MS [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: heel to shin test being bouncy can indicate


Input: small stroke [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: pronator drift test weakness can indicate


Input: cerebellar problem [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: pronator drift test overshoot can indicate


Input: gait tandem walking romberg test shallow knee bend [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: cerebellar function test


Input: upper motor neuron problem spinal cord damage following a seizure losta drugs [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: + babinski can indicate


Input: support knee, dorso flex foot cog wheel rigidity in motion [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: how test for clonus (4+ reflex)


Input: upper motor neuron problem ie: damage to spinal cord or cerebral cortex [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: increase in muscle tone increase in reflexes and up going toe indicate


Input: lower motor neuron problem [upper motor neurons refer to]

Output: loss of muscle tone less relexes indicate


Input: cannot be broken down to a simpler form, periodic table of elements list of them [what is matter?]

Output: what is an element?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the study of matter [what is matter?]

Output: what is chemistry?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the smallest functional unit of elements [what is matter?]

Output: what is an atom?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: is the central core of the atom and is made of positively charged protons and a nearly equal number of neutral particles called neutrons [what is matter?]

Output: what is a nucleus?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: positively charged and has mass [what is matter?]

Output: a proton is?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: neutral and has mass [what is matter?]

Output: a neutron is?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: negatively charged particles that surround the atom, has hardly any mass and affect how an atom interacts with another element [what is matter?]

Output: what is an electron?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: neutrally charged [what is matter?]

Output: protons and electrons together make most atoms?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one or two letters exp: Na for sodium and O for oxygen [what is matter?]

Output: what is the atomic symbol?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the number of protons [what is matter?]

Output: what is the atomic number?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: roughly the same number of protons plus neutrons [what is matter?]

Output: what is the atomic mass?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: atoms with either more or fewer neutrons than the usual number for that element, they have the same atomic number but a different atomic mass(diff number of neutrons.) [what is matter?]

Output: what are isotopes?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: unstable isotopes that give off energy in the form of radiation [what is matter?]

Output: what are radioisotopes?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: exp: Carbon 14 used for dating fossils, diagnostic imaging, cancer treatment, power supply for implants such as cardiac pacemakers [what is matter?]

Output: what can radioisotopes be used for?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the capacity to do work [what is matter?]

Output: what is energy?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: stored energy [what is matter?]

Output: what is potential energy?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: energy in motion [what is matter?]

Output: what is kinetic energy?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: more potential energy, (electrons have potential energy) [what is matter?]

Output: shells outside of the nucleus have?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: covalent ionic hydrogen [what is matter?]

Output: what are the types of chemical bonds?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: STRONG bonds- a bond in which the sharing of electrons between atoms result in each atom having a maximally filled outer shell of electrons [what is matter?]

Output: what do covalent bonds consist of?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when electrons among atoms are shared equally [what is matter?]

Output: what is a non-polar covalent bond?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when atoms dont share electrons equally [what is matter?]

Output: what is polar covalent bond?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: MODERATE bond- the bond between two oppositely charged ions (atoms or molecules that were formed by the permanent transfer if one or more electrons) [what is matter?]

Output: what is an ionic bond?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: forms when an atom loses electrons [what is matter?]

Output: what is a positively charged ion?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: forms when if an atom gains electrons [what is matter?]

Output: what is a negatively charged ion?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: WEAK bond and is formed between polar molecules [what is matter?]

Output: what is a hydrogen bond?

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Input: *is polar *water is liquid at body temperature *water can absorb and hod heat energy *water is the biological solvent *water helps regulate body temperature [what is matter?]

Output: WATER..why does life depend on it?

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Input: liquid in which other substances dissolve [what is matter?]

Output: what is a solvent?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: any dissolved substance [what is matter?]

Output: what is a solute?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: polar molecules that are attracted to water and interact easily with water [what is matter?]

Output: what is hydrophilic?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: non polar neutral molecules that do not interact with or dissolve in water [what is matter?]

Output: what is hydrophobic?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: one of the most important ions in the body...a single proton w/out an electron) [what is matter?]

Output: what is a hydrogen ion?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: donate hydrogen ions(protons) into a solutions exp: dropping acid in water [what is matter?]

Output: acids?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: accept hydrogen ions (protons) lower hydrogen ion concentration in solution [what is matter?]

Output: bases?

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Input: a measure of hydrogen ion concentration ranges from 0-14 Acid: pH <7 Neutral pH=7 Basic: pH >7 [what is matter?]

Output: PH Scale?

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Input: 7.4 [what is matter?]

Output: what is the normal pH for blood?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a buffer minimizes the change in pH and are essential to our ability to maintain homeostasis. [what is matter?]

Output: what is a buffer?

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Input: one of the most important buffer pairs in body fluids such as blood. [what is matter?]

Output: what is bicarbonate?

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Input: compromises 18% of the body by weight forms four covalent bonds can form a single or double bonds can build micro- or macromolecules [what is matter?]

Output: what is carbon and why is it important?

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Input: removes equivalent of a water molecule to link molecular untis requires energy builds macro molecules from smaller sub units [what is matter?]

Output: what is dehydatrion synthesis within molecules in a cell?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: adds the equivalent of a water molecule to break apart macromolecules releases energy [what is matter?]

Output: what is hydrolysis within molecules in a cell?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: carbohydrates lipids proteins nucleic acids [what is matter?]

Output: what are the four classes of organic molecules?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: they are used for energy and structural support [what is matter?]

Output: why are carbohydrates important?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: simple sugars glucose fructose galactose ribose deoxyribose [what is matter?]

Output: what are monosaccharides? how many types?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: more than one momosaccharide linked together..this can be done through dehydration process [what is matter?]

Output: what are oligossaccharides?

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Input: dissaccharides are two monosaccharides linked together exp: sucrose: glucose+ fructose maltose: glucose + glucose lactose: glucose + galactose [what is matter?]

Output: what are oligossaccharides disaccharides?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: glycogen [what is matter?]

Output: what are polysaccharides stored by animals called?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: complex carbohydrates- thousands of monosaccharides joined in chains and branches [what is matter?]

Output: what is a polysaccharide?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: starch, we can use it for energy by breaking it down to glucose [what is matter?]

Output: what are polysaccharides stored by plants called? and how can we use them?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: indigestible polysaccharide made in plants for structural support [what is matter?]

Output: what is cellulose?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: they are insoluble in water. [what is matter?]

Output: What are lipids and what is important about them?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: triglycerides;energy storage molecules phospholips: cell membrane structure steroids: carbon-based ring structures [what is matter?]

Output: what are the sub classes of lipids?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a lipid, also known as fat and oil fatty acids *saturated in fats *unsaturated in oils stored in adipose tissue energy storage molecules [what is matter?]

Output: what are triglycerides?

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Input: lipid Glyserol + two fatty acids and phosphate group One end of molecule is water insoluble(hydrophilic) other end of molecule is water insoluble (hydrophobic) PRIMARY COMPONENT OF CELL MEMBREANE [what is matter?]

Output: what is a phospholipid?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lipid- composed of four carbon rings exp: cholesterol hormones -estrogen -testosterone [what is matter?]

Output: what is a steroid?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a long chains of subunits called aminoacids that are joined by peptide bonds [what is matter?]

Output: what is a protein?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: primary structure secondary tertiary quaternary [what is matter?]

Output: what are the protein structures?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: amino acid sequence stabilized by peptide bonds [what is matter?]

Output: what is the protein primary structure?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: alpha helix beta pleated sheets stabilized by hydrogen bonds [what is matter?]

Output: what is the secondary protein structure?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: three denominational shape stabilized by disulfide and hydrogen bonds creates polar and non-polar areas in molecule [what is matter?]

Output: what is the tertiary protein structure?

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Input: two or more polypeptide chains are associated [what is matter?]

Output: what is the quaternary structure?

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Input: denaturation can be damaged by temperature or changes in pH leads to loss of biological function [what is matter?]

Output: how can protein function be disrupted?

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Input: they facilitate biochemical reactions Proteins Function as biological catalysts -speed up chemical reactions -are not altered or consumed by the reaction WITHOUT ENZYMES MANY BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS WOULD NOT PROCEED QUICKLY ENOUGH TO SUSTAIN LIFE! [what is matter?]

Output: what are enzymes?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: temperature pH Ion condition presence of inhibitors [what is matter?]

Output: the functional shape of an enzyme is dependent on?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: are long chains containing sub-units called neuclotides. they store genetic information [what is matter?]

Output: wha are nucleic acids and what are their functions?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: DNA- deoxyribosenucleic acid RNA- ribonucleic acid they store genetic information and provide information used in the making proteins [what is matter?]

Output: what are the 2 types of nucleic acids?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: building blocks of nucleic acids each nucleotide contain 5 carbon sugar [what is matter?]

Output: what are neuclotides in nucleic acids?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: deoxyribose [what is matter?]

Output: what is the DNA nucleotide?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ribose [what is matter?]

Output: what is the RNA neuclotide?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: double stranded neclotides contain deoxyribose (sugar) nitrogenous bases adenine guanine cytosine thymine [what is matter?]

Output: what is the structure of DNA?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: single stranded neuclotides contain ribose nitrogenous bases -adenine -guanine -cytosine -uracil [what is matter?]

Output: what is the structure of RNA?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: DNA- instructions for making RNA RNA- instructions for making proteins Proteins: directs most of life's processes DNA--> RNA --> Proteins [what is matter?]

Output: what is the nucleic acid function?

Human Biology Test # 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: adenosine triphosphate i carries energy universal energy group bonds between phosphate groups that contain potential energy breaking bonds releases energy TP--> ADP + P + energy [what is matter?]

Output: what is ATP?

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Input: *all living things *a single cell is the smallest unit that exhibits all of the characteristics of life *all cells come only from preexisting cells [what is matter?]

Output: what is the cell doctrine?

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