Input: What is the propper treatment for heat exhaustion? [VENOUS]

Output: Move the victim to a cool area, loosening all restrictive clothing, not allowing victim to become chilled.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the three stages of heat exposure in severity from least to worst? [VENOUS]

Output: Heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stroke.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: administer first aid primary objectives [VENOUS]

Output: maintain open airways, maintain breathing, maintain circulation

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: How can toxic poisoning be removed if it was injected? [VENOUS]

Output: receiving the proper antidotal medication

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the general rule once you realize that poisoning has been established [VENOUS]

Output: quickly remove most of toxic substance

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the two primary purposes when performing emergency treatment for all spinal fractures? [VENOUS]

Output: Minimize shock and prevent further injury

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the purposes of first aid [VENOUS]

Output: Save life, prevent further injury, and minimize or prevent infection

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What should be done after a victim has been removed from a toxic environment [VENOUS]

Output: Start Basic life support

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the first stage of treatment for inhalation poisoning [VENOUS]

Output: Remove from toxic atmosphere

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: if a chemical warfare agent is the cause of poisoning____ [VENOUS]

Output: remove or decontaminate the clothing.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Ethics [1]

Output: What addresses the question "what should I do in this situation?"

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Values [1]

Output: _______ are ideals, beliefs, customs mode of conduct or goals.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Personal ethics [1]

Output: _____ _____ flows from values held by an individual that develop over time.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Autonomy [1]

Output: ____ the ability to allow clients to independently to make decisions.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Veracity [1]

Output: _____ information given to the client must be truthful.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Justice [1]

Output: _____ the nurse's moral obligation to treat people fairly, without prejudice.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Confidentiality [1]

Output: ______ endorses the theory of self-ownership, privacy and freedom. The patient expects the right will not be violated by the nurse.

Ethics for NAC 1 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [A process] A batch system

Output: What type of system executes jobs?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] A time-shared system

Output: What type of system has user programs or tasks?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The program code

Output: What is found in the text section of a process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] the process stack

Output: Which part of a process contains temporary data, such as function parameters, return addresses, and local variables?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] in the data section

Output: Where are global variables found in a process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The heap is memory that is dynamically allocated during process run time.

Output: In reference to a process, what is the heap?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] it's state

Output: What changes as a process executes?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - New - Running - Waiting - Ready - Terminated

Output: List the states a process can be in:

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] New

Output: In which state in the process being created?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Running

Output: In which process state are instruction being executed?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Ready

Output: In which state are processes waiting to be assigned to a processor?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Waiting

Output: In which state is the process waiting for some even to occur?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Terminated

Output: During which state has a process finished execution?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] By a Process Control Block (PCB)

Output: What term is used to describe how a process is represented in the operating system and contains many pieces of information associated with aspecific process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - Process State - Program Counter - CPU Registers - CPU Scheduling Information - Memory Management Information - Accouting Information - I/O Status Information

Output: List the information that can be included in the Process Control Block (PCB):

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The Process Scheduler

Output: What selects an available process for program execution on the CPU?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The job queue

Output: As processes enter a system, where are they put?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] the ready queue

Output: What is the name for the list of processes that are residing in manin memory and are ready and waiting to execute?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] the device queue

Output: What is the term for a list of processes waiting for a particular I/O device?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Dispatched

Output: What term is used to describe a process that has been selected for execution?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - The process could issue an I/O request and be placed in an I/O queue - The process could create a new subprocess and wait for the subprocess's termination. - The process could be removed forcibly from the CPU, as result of an interrupt and be put back in the ready queue.

Output: What can occur once a process has been allocated the CPU and is executing?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Long-term scheduler (job scheduler)

Output: Which scheduler selects processes from a pool, on a mass storage device, and loads them into memory for execution?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Short-term scheduler (CPU scheduler)

Output: Which scheduler is used to select processes that are ready to execute and allocated the CPU to one of them?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Medium-term scheduler

Output: Which scheduler, in a time-sharing system, is used to control swapping?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] When a process is moved out of memory and brought back into memory at a later time to continue exectuion

Output: What is swapping?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] A state save

Output: What must occur when a process needs to moved out of memory in order to save the current context of the process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] state restore

Output: After a state save what happens so the process can resume operations?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] context switch

Output: What is occurs when the CPU performs a state save on the cuurent running process and state restore of a different process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] A process that creates other processes

Output: What is a parent process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] children

Output: New processes created by the parent process are called _________.

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - The parent continues to execute concurrently with its children. - The parent waits until some or all of its children have terminated.

Output: When a process creates a new process, what are the two possibilities for exectuion?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - The child process is a duplicate of the parent process - The child process has a new program loaded into it

Output: When a process creates a new process, what are the possibilites in terms of the address space of the new process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] It used to create a new process that consists of a copy of the address space of the original process.

Output: What is the fork() system call used for?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The return code would be a (nonzero) process identifier of the child

Output: When the fork() system call is used to create a child process, what is the return code for the child?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] It is used to replace the process's memory space with new program.

Output: What is the exec() system call used for?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] CreateProcess()

Output: What is the function in the Win32 API that used to create a new process?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] When it is finished executing its final statement and asks the operating system to delete it

Output: When does a process terminate?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] exit()

Output: What system call is used to delete a process after it has finished executing?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - The child has exceeeded its usage of resources it has been allocated. - The task assigned to the child is no longer required. - The parent is exiting, and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if its parent terminates.

Output: Why might a parent terminate the execution of one of it's children?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] This occurs when the parent if terminated and operating systems terminates all of the parent's children.

Output: What is cascading termination?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] When it cannot be affected by the other processes executing in the system

Output: When is a process considered to be independent?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] When shares data with other processes

Output: When is a process cooperating?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - Information sharing - Computation speedup - Modularity - Convenience

Output: What are some reasons for process cooperation?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Interprocess Communication (IPC)

Output: What type of mechanism is required for cooperating processes to exchange data and information?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - shared memory - message passing

Output: What are the two fundamental models of interprocess communication?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Processes can exchange information by reading and writing data to the shared region.

Output: Describe shared memory as an IPC.

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Communications take place by means of messages excahnged between the cooperating processes.

Output: Describe message passing as an IPC.

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The processes

Output: In a shared-memory system, who is responsible for ensuring processes are not writing to same location simultaneously?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] each process that wants to communicate must explicitly name the recipient or sender of the communication

Output: In a Message-Passing system, describe direct communication.

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Indirect Communication

Output: In a Message-Passing system, what type of communication used mailboxes or ports?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] An endpoint for communication

Output: What is a socket?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] By an IP address concatenated with a port number

Output: How is a socket identified?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] - Connection-oriented (TCP), Socket class - Connectionless (UDP), DatagramSocket class - MulticastSocket

Output: What are the three different types of sockets provided by Java?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] A way to abstract the procedure-call mechanism for use between systems with network connections. Allows a client to invoke a procedure on a remote host as it would invoke a procedure locally.

Output: What is a Remote Procedure Call (RPC)?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] The stub is used to locate the port on the other host and marshals the parameters to the other host. The receiving host has stub as well that is used to invoke the procedure on the other side.

Output: What is a stub used for?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: [A process] Remote Method Invocation (RMI)

Output: What is the Java feature similar to RPCs?

CTNC 2009: Operating System Concepts Chap 3 Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the term for a program in execution?


Input: what does rotation [synovial joint]

Output: lower joint space

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what does translation [synovial joint]

Output: upper joint space

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what is found between the temporal bone and the mandible that separates the upper and lower joint spaces [synovial joint]

Output: articular disc

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what does the articular disc attach to? [synovial joint]

Output: superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle inferior head to the neck of the condyle

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what lines the joint spaces [synovial joint]

Output: synovium

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 4 supportive ligaments of the TMJ [synovial joint]

Output: TM ligament lateral and medial discal ligaments sphenomandibular ligament stylomandibular ligament

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: where does the adult mandible form relative to Meckel's cartilage [synovial joint]

Output: lateral

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Meckel's cartilage is the what of the mandible [synovial joint]

Output: precursor

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: GSA - innervation to the TMJ [synovial joint]

Output: auriculotemporal nerve masseteric nerve

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: blood supply to the TMJ [synovial joint]

Output: superficial temporal artery deep auricular artery

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: drainage of the TMJ [synovial joint]

Output: pterygoid venous plexus

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscles involved in depression of the mandible [synovial joint]

Output: lateral pterygoid muscle suprahyoid infrahyoid

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscles involved in elevation of the mandible [synovial joint]

Output: temporalis masseter medial pterygoid

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscles involved in opening [synovial joint]

Output: inferior head of lateral pyerygoid - contracting (translation) superior head - quiet

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: muscles involved in closing [synovial joint]

Output: inferior head - quiet superior head - contracting

Infratemporal fossa and TMJ Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an inflammatory condition of the liver associated with the sudden onset of malaise, weakness, anorexia, intermittent nausea and vomiting, and dull right upper quadrant pain usually followed within 1 week by the onset of jaundice, dark urine, or both charcterized by jaundice [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: acute hepatiatis


Input: an acute inflammation of the appendix [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: appendicitis


Input: an occlusion of the interstinal lumen that results in blockage of normal flow of intestinal contents [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: bowel obstruction


Input: inflammation of the gallbladder, most often associated with the presence of gallstones [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: cholesystitis


Input: inflammation of the stomach and intestines that accompanies numerous gastrointestional disorders [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: chronic gastroenteritis


Input: a chronic , inflammatory bowel disease of unknown origin, usually affecting the ileum, the colon, or both structures [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Crohn's disease


Input: inflammation of one or more diverticula [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: diverticulitis


Input: the presence of pouchlike herniations throughout the muscular layer of the colon [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: diverticulosis


Input: it comples of longitudinal tortuous veins at the lower end of the esophogus that become large and swollen as a result of portal hypertension [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: esophagogastric varices


Input: swollen, distended viens (internal,external or both)in the rectoanal area [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Hemorrhoids


Input: an unconscious rigid contraction of the abdominal muscles, a sign of peritoneal inflammation [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: involuntary guarding


Input: inflammation of the pancreas which causes servere epigastric pain [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: pancreatitis


Input: illness that results from a complex pathological interaction among the acidic gastric juice and proteolytic enzymes and the mucosal barrier [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: peptic ulcer disease


Input: a sign of peritoneal inflammation in which pain is caused by the sudden release of fingertip pressure on the abdomen [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: rebound tenderness


Input: visceral pain felt at a site distant from its origin [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: referred pain


Input: pain that arises from skeletal muscles ligaments, vessels, or joints [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: somatic pain


Input: an inflammatory condition of the large intestine characterized by severe diarrhea and ulceration of the mucosa of the intestine [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: ulcerative colitis


Input: deep pain that arises from smooth vasculature or organ systems [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: visceral pain


Input: major organs commonly associated with the gastrointestinal system [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: esophagus, stomach, small & large intestines, liverr, gallbladder and pancreas


Input: most common treatment for abdominal pain occurs. [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: at the hospital


Input: inflammatory condition of the large intestine [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: colitis


Input: may result in bright red rectal bleeding if perforation occurs [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Diverticulosis


Input: To insert a nasogastric tube, position the patient [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Sitting straight up with neck flexed


Input: Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Blood or serum secretions


Input: You would expect bleeding from ruptured esophageal varices to be: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Bright red and copious


Input: The most serious type of hernia is a (an): [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Strangulated hernia


Input: Crohn disease most commonly affects: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Adults younger than 30


Input: The pain associated with peptic ulcers is often described as: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Burning


Input: Melena is a term used to describe [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Black, tarry stool


Input: . A patient with abdominal peritoneal irritation may choose to lie on her: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Side, with legs flexed and pulled in


Input: . You might suspect a patient has cholecystitis if he or she has pain in the: [acute gasstroenteritis]

Output: Right upper quadrant


Input: Energy sources that cannot replenish themselves over timea are called .... [renewable energy]

Output: non-renewable energy


Input: The type of energy that is made from the ancient remains of dead plants & other organisms is called.... [renewable energy]

Output: fossil fuel


Input: Three types of fossil fuel are ____, ____, and ____. [renewable energy]

Output: coal oil natural gas


Input: Solid fossil fuel from the remains of dead plants is called.... [renewable energy]

Output: coal


Input: The majority of the energy in this country comes from .... [renewable energy]

Output: coal


Input: Electricity is made by spinning a coil of wires inside a.... [renewable energy]

Output: magnetic field


Input: Since we can't effectively store electricity, then as soon as it's made it must be.... [renewable energy]

Output: used


Input: Devices that make electricity by spinning a coil of wires in a magnetic field is called a.... [renewable energy]

Output: generator


Input: The top two pollutants that come from burning coal are ____ and _____. [renewable energy]

Output: sulfur dioxide Mercury


Input: Anthracite coal is more expensive than the softer bituminous coal because... [renewable energy]

Output: anthracite contains less sulfur


Input: When sulfur (from burning coal) mixes with water, the water becomes.... [renewable energy]

Output: acidic (hence acid rain)


Input: Oil in tar sands and in oil shale requires a lot of processing and expenditure of energy. Therefore, those energy sources are very..... [renewable energy]

Output: inefficient


Input: Mercury from coal smoke gets in the water and comes back to us as it moves up the ____ chain [renewable energy]

Output: food


Input: Nuclear energy involves the splitting of Uranium atoms to release huge amount of energy. We call this process.... [renewable energy]

Output: fission


Input: We have not promoted nuclear energy so much over the last few decades because of ... [renewable energy]

Output: Three Mile Island and Chernobyl


Input: Nuclear energy is so costly and inefficient because.... [renewable energy]

Output: it requires so many steps to get it from the ground to electricity in your home.


Input: The more steps it takes to process and deliver energy, the more ____ that energy is. [renewable energy]

Output: inefficient


Input: According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, some energy is always ____ in very energy transfer. [renewable energy]

Output: wasted or lost, usually as heat


Input: Except during the building of a nuclear power plant, nuclear power has ___ carbon dioxide emissions. [renewable energy]

Output: no


Input: When nuclear fuel is "spent", a major problem that arises is.... [renewable energy]

Output: what to do with the waste fuel. It is so radioactive, it must be shielded far away from anyone for a long time.


Input: Energy cannot be .... [renewable energy]

Output: recycled


Input: Solar cells that make electricity are called... [renewable energy]

Output: PV or photovoltatic cells


Input: When light hits silicon wafers, _____ are released, which create an electric current. [renewable energy]

Output: electrons


Input: A major problem with wind and solar energy is that... [renewable energy]

Output: the wind doesn't always blow and the sun doesn't always shine


Input: Wind energy can provide all our electricity needs if we install the turbines, but a big reason that we haven't done so is.... [renewable energy]

Output: we don't have transmission lines from the wide-expanse of remote places to get the electricity to population centers.


Input: Hydroelectric power is nothing more than ____ flowing _____ ans spinning a ____ attached to a generator. [renewable energy]

Output: water downhill turbine


Input: A major problem with hydroelectric dams is... [renewable energy]

Output: they disturb ecosystems upstream and downstream; stop sediment flow;


Input: When steam from deep underground is used to spin turbogenerators, we call it... [renewable energy]

Output: geothermal energy


Input: Water can be split into ____ and ___ using electricity in process called water electrolysis. [renewable energy]

Output: oxygen and hydrogen


Input: Hydrogen and oxygen can be recombined and made to burn in an _____ to make a car run. [renewable energy]

Output: engine


Input: Hydrogen and oxygen can also be recombined in a ___ ____ to make electricity, which the opposite of electrolysis. [renewable energy]

Output: fuel cell


Input: Examples of biofuels include.... [renewable energy]

Output: wood, garbage, waste agricultural products, waste oil, ethanol, cow manure methane


Input: Electricity that is generated by moving turbines by the flow of the incoming and outgoing tides is called.... [renewable energy]

Output: tidal energy


Input: A key to making our energy go farther is by.... [renewable energy]

Output: conservation


Input: [VENOUS] Indirect Pressure

Output: WHAT METHOD IS USED TO CONTROL SEVERE BLEEDING WHEN DIRECT PRESSURE AND ELEVATION ARE NOT EFFECTIVE?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Tourniquet

Output: WHAT METHOD IS USED TO CONTROL BLEEDING ONLY AS A LAST RESORT?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] closest to the wound

Output: IF YOU HAVE TO USE ONE, WHERE SHOULD YOU PLACE A TOURNIQUET?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] ARTERIAL

Output: WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING IS CONTROLLED BY USE OF INDIRECT PRESSURE OR PRESSURE POINTS?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] 1ST DEGREE BURN

Output: WHAT TYPE OF BURN IS CHARACTERIZED BY REDNESS AND TINGLING IN THE AFFECTED AREA?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] REMOVE CLOTHING ADHERING TO WOUND.

Output: WHAT SHOULD NOT BE DOEN TO A BURN VICTIM

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] ENSURE VICTIM IS REMOVED FROM THE POWER SOURCE.

Output: WHAT IS THE FIRST THING TO DO TO TREAT A VICTIM OF ELECTRIAL SHOCK?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] 2ND DEGREE BURN

Output: WHAT TYPE OF BURN IS CHARACTERIZED BY BLISTERS AND MOTTLING IN THE AFFECTED AREA?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Closed abdominal injuries

Output: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY / WOUND IS DIFFICULT TO DIAGNOSE BECAUSE MOST CANNOT BE SEEN EXTERNALLY?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] VENOUS

Output: WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] 3rd degree

Output: wITH THIS TYPE OF BURN, THE VICTIM MAY NOT FEEL ANY PAIN AT THE BURN SITE

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] wet dressing

Output: wHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD TO CONTORL BLEEDING FOR A VICTIM HAVING AN ABDOMINAL WOUND WITH PROTRUDING INTESTINES?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] ID CARD

Output: WHAT CAN BE USED TO SEAL THE WOUND OF A SUCKING CHEST WOUND?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] SUCKING CHEST WOUND

Output: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY/WOUND MAKES A HOLE IN THE CHEST CAVITY, CAUSES THE LUNG TO COLLAPSE, AND PREVENTS NORMAL BREATHING?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] head wound

Output: WHAT TYPE OF INJURY REQUIRES SPECIAL PRECAUTIONS SUCH AS KEEPING THE VICTIM LYING FLAT, WITH THE HEAD AT THE LEVEL OF THE BODY AND NEVER GIVING ANY MEDICATIONS?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] IMMOBILIZE THE INJURED PART

Output: WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PROCESS OF FIRST AID FOR FRACTURES?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] ASK VICTIM IF THEY CAN MOVE THEIR EXTREMITIES

Output: HOW DO YOU ASSESS A VICTIM WITH A POTENTIAL SPINAL INJURY?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] 4

Output: HOW MANY PEOPLE ARE REQUIRED TO PLACE A VICTIM ON A SPINEBOARD BY USING THE STRADDLE-SIDE METHOD.

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] stop the bleeding and immobilize the victim

Output: WHAT ARE THE TWO PRIMARY PURPOSES WHEN PERFORMING EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR ALL SPINAL FRACTURES?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] compound fracture

Output: Another name for an open fracture___

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] stokes

Output: what type of stretcher is most oftern used for direct ship to ship transfer of injured persons?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Army Litter

Output: What type of stretcher has limited use aboard ship because it is difficult to fasten the victim to the stretcher and transport up and down ladders?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Firemans carry

Output: What is the easiest way to transport an unconscious victim without an injured arm, leg, rib, nec or back?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] specially designed to remove a casualty from engineering spaces, holds, vertical trunks, and other compartments where hatches or ladders are too small to use other stretchers.

Output: What was the neil robertson stretcher specially designed for?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Miller (Full Body) Board

Output: What type of stretcher can fit within a stokes strtcher, float with a 250 Lbs person and can be used in virtually every confined space aboard ship.

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] all personnel

Output: Who needs to be familiar with the location of first aid boces, battle dressing stations, poison antidote lockers, and stretchers toughout the ship.

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] heat exaustion

Output: The common symptoms of this injury or condition include dilated pupils, pale, cool and clammy skin, and a weak or absent pulse?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] deep breathing at first, then shallow, constricted pupils, dry and hot skin

Output: what are the most common symptoms of heat stroke?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] muscle pain or spasms cramps and excessive sweating.

Output: what are the most common symptoms of heat cramps

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Moving the victim to a cool area, giving cool water every 15 minutes, and gently massaging the muscle.

Output: what is the proper treatment for heat cramps

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Move the victim to a cool area, loosening all restrictive clothing, not allowing victim to become chilled.

Output: What is the propper treatment for heat exhaustion?

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stroke.

Output: What are the three stages of heat exposure in severity from least to worst?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] maintain open airways, maintain breathing, maintain circulation

Output: administer first aid primary objectives

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] receiving the proper antidotal medication

Output: How can toxic poisoning be removed if it was injected?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] quickly remove most of toxic substance

Output: What is the general rule once you realize that poisoning has been established

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Minimize shock and prevent further injury

Output: What are the two primary purposes when performing emergency treatment for all spinal fractures?

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Save life, prevent further injury, and minimize or prevent infection

Output: What are the purposes of first aid

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Start Basic life support

Output: What should be done after a victim has been removed from a toxic environment

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] Remove from toxic atmosphere

Output: What is the first stage of treatment for inhalation poisoning

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WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: [VENOUS] remove or decontaminate the clothing.

Output: if a chemical warfare agent is the cause of poisoning____

BECC - 11 Basic First Aid Flashcards - Cram.com

WHAT TYPE OF BLEEDING FLOWS IN A STEADY STREAM AND IS DARK RED OR MAROON IN COLOR


Input: What kind of charge is a electron? [Positive Charge]

Output: Negative Charge


Input: What kind of a charge is a Neutron? [Positive Charge]

Output: No charge


Input: How do you get an isotope? [Positive Charge]

Output: Changing the number of neutrons


Input: How do you get an ion? [Positive Charge]

Output: Changing the number of electrons


Input: How did Dmitri organize his elements? [Positive Charge]

Output: Atomic Mass and Elements with the same properties


Input: Define the word Element. [Positive Charge]

Output: Any substance that cannot be broken down into another surface


Input: Define the word Matter. [Positive Charge]

Output: Anything that has mass and takes up space


Input: Define the words Atomic Number. [Positive Charge]

Output: Number of protons


Input: How do we organize our elements? [Positive Charge]

Output: Atomic Number and Elements with the same properties


Input: What are the 7 pieces of information found in an element box? [Positive Charge]

Output: . Atomic Number . # of protons . # of electrons . Symbol . Name . Atomic Mass . # of neutrons


Input: Why is there a gap in the periodic table? [Positive Charge]

Output: It seperates those that arent alike in the groups


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] occurs primarily in the liver also occurs in brain, kidneys, adipose tissue components are located in cytoplasm: enzymes, acyl carrier proteins, co-factors, reducing power, energy-ATP

Output: Fatty acid synthesis

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] supplies the carbons for fatty acid synthesis

Output: citrate

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase if there is too much acetyl CoA stimulates pyruvate carboxylase if need to make more Acetyl CoA bc that makes oxaloacetate into citrate, and citrate provides carbons for FA synthesis

Output: Levels of mitochondrial acetyl CoA regulate its own synthesis

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase activity to upregulate synthesis of cytosolic acetyl CoA up regulates synthesis of malic enzyme and citrate lyase

Output: Regulation by INSULIN

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] rate limiting step of fatty acid synthesis

Output: conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] catalyzed by acetyl CoA carboxylase (ACC) converts acetyl CoA into malonyl CoA by carboxylation ACC adds a CO2 to acetyl CoA

Output: rate limiting step of fatty acid synthesis

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] enzymatic and carrier protein functions biotin-dependent synthesized as an inactive protomer subunits serve as biotin carboxylase, a transcarboxylase, and a biotin carboxyl carrier protein

Output: Acetyl CoA carboxylase ACC

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] citrate and palmitoyl CoA

Output: Allosteric regulation of ACC

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] insulin glucagon epinephrine

Output: Phosphorylation/Dephosphorylation regulation of ACC (hormonal regulation)

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] up-regulated by high carb/low fat diet down regulated by low carb/high fat diet

Output: Induction/repression of ACC

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] occurs at fatty acid synthase complex 2 carbons of malonyl CoA sequentially added to growing fatty acyl chain to form Palmitate (16:0) After each addition, 2 reduction rxns occur that require NADPH and an intermediate dehydration

Output: Fatty acid elongation

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] large, multi-enzyme complex composed of 2 identical dimers, each has 7 catalytic activities and an acyl carrier protein (ACP) ACP segment has phosphopantetheine residue (PP) two dimers arranged in head to tail conformation PP of one is aligned with cysteinyl sulfhydryl group of another

Output: Fatty acid synthase

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] if you need chain longer than Palmitate (16C) must "prime" or activate chain Palmitate activated by condensing w/ CoA to form Palmitoyl CoA elongation of chain occurs by addition of 2 Carbon fragments from Malonyl CoA occurs on ER membrane and catalyzed by Fatty acid elongase makes long chain fatty acids in brain

Output: Further fatty acid elongation

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] occurs in ER requires oxygen, NADPH, and cytochrome b5 intro of double bonds to form PUFAs fatty acyl-CoA desaturases (non-heme iron containing enzymes) most common location of double bond is between C9 and C10 (also can be at C4, C5, C6)

Output: Desaturation of fatty acids

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] cannot be synthesized by human body need to get them from diet plants synthesize these omega 3 fatty acids and omega 6 fatty acids

Output: Essential fatty acids

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] Linoleic acid : (18:2, double bonds at 9,12) Linolenic acid (18:3, double bonds at 9,12,15)

Output: Examples of essential fatty acids

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] precursors for eicosanoids: thromboxanes, prostaglandins, leukotrienes deficiency leads to: poor growth, poor wound healing, and dermatitis in persons on fat free diets

Output: Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] synthesis of arachidonic acid (C20, in brain) constituents of epidermal cell sphingolipds that function as skins water permeability barrier precursor of neuronal fatty acids

Output: Essential fatty acids required for:

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] eicosapentaneoic acid

Output: EPA

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] docosahexaenoic acid (fish oil) leads to optimal neuronal development in infants

Output: DHA

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] FA synthesized de novo or taken in diet-->converted to triacylglycerols (TAG)

Output: Storage and Transport of Fatty Acids

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] major storage form of fuel

Output: TAG triacylglycerols

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] TAG packaged with apoproteins to form VLDL secreted in blood by liver via exocytosis

Output: Synthesis of VLDL

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] made of TAG, cholesterol, apoproteins

Output: VLDL

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] Leptin and adiponectin (adipose tissue is hormonally active)

Output: Regulatory factors released by adipose tissue

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] released when TAG levels are high released into blood, travels to brain and mainly hypothalamus binds to receptors, releases neuropeptides, tells body that you are full

Output: Leptin

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: [dietary carbohydrates] abundantly secreted hormone by adipocytes binds receptors AdipoR1 and AdipoR2 stimulates AMPK and PPARalpha AMPK activation leads to uptake of fatty acids and glucose PPAR leads to enhanced fatty acid uptake However, secretion is reduced as adipocytes get larger

Output: Adiponectin

major source of carbon for fatty acid synthesis


Input: Schmidt-Lanterman clefts

Output: What is the name for the fluid regions of the myelin sheath in axons is concentrated?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: fibroblasts

Output: What long, spindle-like cell is present in the CT coverings of a nerve?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: Fibers have a wavy appearance in both longitudinal and cross-section cuts

Output: What histological feature is common with nerve tissue?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: ganglia

Output: Where are cell bodies contained in the PNS?


Input: satellite cells

Output: What support cells are present around neuron cell bodies in ganglia?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: 1. thick CT 2. fascicles of nerve fibers running through

Output: What are some key features of sensory ganglia?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: Neurons in autonomic ganglia are multipolar (more nerve processes)

Output: Why are satellite cells and cell bodies more dispersed in autonomic ganglia?

009_Neurohistology_PNS Flashcards - Cram.com

Which types of axons are surrounded by Schwann cells?


Input: neuroma

Output: What is the name for a swelling that may develop in an injured axon?


Input: compare the new agent with standard treatments

Output: Phase III trials..

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: Limit the time spent to 30 minutes per 8 hour shift

Output: Radiation

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: Bone Pain

Output: What is the most common side effect of Granulocyte Colony-stimulating Factor?

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: Nadir

Output: The time after chemotherapy administration when the WBC is at the lowest point is referred to as...

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Output: A risk of thrombocytopenia increases a patients risk for bleeding. Risk of hemorrhage exists when platelet count is less than....


Input: they've had early periods

Output: Women at risk for breast cancer if..

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: blood growth factor (special proteins produced by the body) that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more infection-fighting white blood cells called neutrophils.

Output: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: is used with chemotherapy to treat cancer of the colon (large intestine) or rectum that has spread to other parts of the body.

Output: Avastin

Name the "TMN" system for cancer staging


Input: Learned entities that have validity only with regard to a specific task or situation

Output: What are Traits?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: Descriptive categories Subject to change as learning occurs Traits of interest to career counselors do seem relatively stable

Output: What are three things that are specific about traits?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: Statistical evidence of a trait

Output: What is a factor?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: How well the inventory predicts job choice and satisfaction

Output: What is predicitive validity?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: How accurately the inventory helps clients identify career relevant concepts

Output: What is construct validity?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: Each individual has a unique set of traits that can be measured reliably and validly

Output: What is the first assumption of Trait oriented theories?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: Occupations require workers with specific traits for success ---A worker with a wide range of characteristics can still be successful in a given job

Output: What is the second assumption of Trait oriented theories?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: Choice of occupation is straightforward --Matching is possible

Output: What is the third assumption of Trait oriented theories?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: The closer the match between personal characteristics and job requirements, the greater the success, productivity and satisfaction

Output: What is the fourth assumption of Trait Oriented theories?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: -Empirically-based literature -Incorrect conclusions that these ideas are no longer viable -Incorrect assumptions that the approach is overly directive

Output: What are some current issues with Trait oriented theories?

Career Development Trait Oriented Theories Flashcards - Cram.com

Which theorists developed Trait Oriented Theories?


Input: [2] Olfactory [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for sense of smell


Input: [2] Optic [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for sight


Input: [2] Oculormotor [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, size of pupils and eye focus


Input: [2] Trochlear [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for eye movement


Input: [2] Trigeminal [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for head and face and chewing movements


Input: [2] Abducens [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for abduction of eye (muscle that turns eye outward)


Input: [2] Facial [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for facial expressions , excretion of saliva and sense of taste


Input: [2] Acoustic [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for sense of hearing and balance foe equlilibrium sense


Input: [2] Glossopharyngeal [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for taste and other sensations of the tongue, swallowing movements, and secretion of saliva


Input: [2] Vagus [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for sensations of movement (e.g. decrease in heart rate, increase in peristalsis, and contracting of muscles for voice production)


Input: [2] Acessory [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for shoulder movements, turning movements of head, and voice productions


Input: [2] Hypoglossal [1]

Output: Cranial nerve responsible for tongue movements


Input: [2] 12 cranial nerves [1]

Output: The number of cranial nerves in the human body


Input: [2] 31 pair of spinal nerves [1]

Output: The number of pair of spinal nerves in the human body


Input: [2] Peripheral Nervous System [1]

Output: The nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the central nervous system and connect to other parts of the body.


Input: [2] Toward the front of the body [1]

Output: Anterior or ventral


Input: [2] Toward the back or rear of the body [1]

Output: Posterior or dorsal


Input: [2] Near or toward the midline of the body [1]

Output: Medial


Input: [2] Farther away from the midline of the body [1]

Output: Lateral


Input: [2] Inside [1]

Output: Interal


Input: [2] Outside [1]

Output: External


Input: [2] Nearer the point of origin or closer to the body [1]

Output: Proximal


Input: [2] Away from the point of origin or away from the body [1]

Output: Distal


Input: [2] Higher than or above [1]

Output: Superior


Input: [2] Toward the head [1]

Output: Cranial


Input: [2] Toward the lower end of the body [1]

Output: Caudal


Input: [2] Lower than the elbow [1]

Output: Inferior


Input: [2] Normal standing position of the body [1]

Output: Erect


Input: [2] Lying position of the body, face up [1]

Output: Supine


Input: [2] Lying position of the body, face down [1]

Output: Prone


Input: [2] Lying position of the body, either side [1]

Output: Lateral recumbent


Input: [2] The outward part of surface of a structure [1]

Output: Peripheral


Input: [2] The process of absorption, storage, and the use of these foods by the body for growth, maintenance and repair [1]

Output: Metabolism


Input: [2] The body's self regulated control of its interal environment [1]

Output: Homeostasis


Input: [2] Homeostasis [1]

Output: This allows the organisms to maintain a state of constancy or equlibrium


Input: Define bilateral contract and method of accceptance

Output: Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Define unilateral contract and its method of acceptance

Output: Exchange of an act for a promise Offeree accepts by performing stipulated act.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What elements create a contract?

Output: Mutual assent: offer and acceptance Consideration Absence of valid defense to formation

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the elements of a valid offer?

Output: Promise, undertaking, commitment Definite terms Identifies offeree(s) Communicated to offeree

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the elements of a valid real estate offer?

Output: Identification of the land Price terms

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the elements of a valid offer for the sale of goods?

Output: Quantity term

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: How may an offeror revoke an offer?

Output: At will Manifests behavior inconsistent with maintenance of offer AND the offeree is aware Death or insanity of either party Destruction of subject matter Supervening illegality

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is the revocation of an offer effective?

Output: Upon receipt

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Define bilateral contract and method of acceptance

Output: Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the limitations on an offeror's power to revoke an offer?

Output: Firm offer under UCC Option contract that's paid for Reasonably foreseeable reliance Begin performance unilateral k

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: In NY, how long can an offer be revoked under a unilateral contract?

Output: Until the completion of performance

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: How does an offeree reject an offer

Output: Express Counteroffer Conditional acceptance Lapse of time

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an offer rejection effective?

Output: Upon receipt

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: How may an offeree accept an offer?

Output: By any reasonable means unless terms unambiguously limit acceptance to particular means

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: In a bilateral contract, is an offer assignable?

Output: No

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an offer assignable in a bilateral contract?

Output: Option k supported by consideration

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the elements of a valid acceptance in bilateral k?

Output: Offeree with power to accept Unequivocal terms of acceptance Communication of acceptance

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What is the mirror image rule?

Output: An acceptance must mirror the offer No mirror image rule under UCC

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: In a UCC contract between merchants, what elements prevent new terms from becoming part of the offer?

Output: Material alteration Offeror objection Express limitation of acceptance to terms of the offer

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What is the mail box rule?

Output: Acceptance of an offer is effective at dispatch.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the limitations to the mail box rule?

Output: Option contract Offer stipulates acceptance only effective upon receipt

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: If an offeree sends a rejection and then an acceptance which is effective?

Output: Whichever arrives first

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: If an offeree sends an acceptance then a rejection, which is effective?

Output: Acceptance is effective at dispatch per MBR unless the rejection arrives first AND the offeror detrimentally relies on it.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is acceptance without communication of such effective?

Output: The offeree silently accepts the benefits of the offer Express waiver Offer requires an act Prior dealings/trade practices create commercially reasonable expectation.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What is a memorialization?

Output: A written record of an oral agreement.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What is the definition of consideration?

Output: A bargained-for exchange of something of legal value, i.e., detriment

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is consideration no needed to form a valid contract?

Output: When a technical defense bars enforcement of a prior obligation AND a new promise is made in writing, that new promise needs no consideration (moral consideration suffices)

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does a past act constitute valid consideration?

Output: When done at the request of the promisor's request.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does the performance of a pre-existing legal duty constitute valid consideration?

Output: When it is owed to a third party beneficiary and it is bargained for.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Under the U.C.C., when is consideration no needed?

Output: When a contract is modified in good faith.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is a promise illusory?

Output: When only one party is bound to perform

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is consideration not needed to form a valid contract?

Output: When a technical defense bars enforcement of a prior obligation AND a new promise is made in writing, that new promise needs no consideration (moral consideration suffices)

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Under the U.C.C., when is consideration not needed?

Output: When a contract is modified in good faith.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is the right to cancel or withdraw from a contract not illusory?

Output: When the right is limited in any way, e.g., upon reasonable notice, and supported by reasonable consideration.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What substitutes for valid consideration exist?

Output: Promissory estoppel

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What are the defenses to contract formation?

Output: Statute of frauds Failure of a condition Mutual mistake (except valuation) Unilateral mistake so long as non-mistaken party knew or should have known of the mistake Lack of Capacity minor insane intoxicated duress or coercion Misrepresentation LUMM

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When must a contract be in writing to satisfy the statute of frauds?

Output: MY LEGS Marriage: promise made in consideration of Year lease Land: transfer of interest Estate debt payment promise Goods Sale 500 or more Surety

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does an agreement to guarantee another's debt not need to be in writing?

Output: When the guarantor's main purpose is self-benefit. NY: no such rule

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does the transfer in an interest in land not need to be in writing?

Output: Need two out of three: Payment: part or full Improvements Possession

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does an employment contract not need to be in writing?

Output: When there has already been full performance

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does the sale of goods for 500 or more need not be in writing?

Output: Specialty goods Merchant's confirmatory memo Acceptance or part payment of goods Full payment Judicial admission

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When must a k modification be in writing?

Output: When the modification, not the original k, falls with the SOF.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What is the Equal Dignities Rule?

Output: Written authority is required to enter into a k on behalf of another if the underlying k falls within the SOF.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What must a writing for the sale of goods contain?

Output: Quantity term and signature of party asserting SOF defense

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What must a writing for a lease of goods contain?

Output: Number of items leased Term and rental payments Defendant's signature

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What kind of third party beneficiary has no contractual rights?

Output: Incidental beneficiary

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: What identifies an intended beneficiary?

Output: Identified in k Receives performance directly from promisor Relationship with promisee to indicate intent to benefit

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When does a TPB's rights vest?

Output: Upon assent to promise Suit to enforce Material change in position in justifiable reliance on promise

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Which contractual rights may not be assigned?

Output: Substantial change in obligor's duty (unique performance) Future rights arise from future k Prohibited by law

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: A contract states that it may not be assigned. What effect?

Output: Bars delegation of assignor's duties.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: A contract states that the contractual rights are not assignable. What effect?

Output: It is not a bar to assignment but assignment gives obligor right to sue for damages.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an assignment ineffective?

Output: When an assignee has knowledge of the non-assignment clause.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: True or False. A gratuitous assignment requires consideration.

Output: False

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an assignment effective?

Output: When the assignor manifests an intent to immediately and completely transfer his rights.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an assignment irrevocable?

Output: When it's paid for.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is a gratuitous assignment irrevocable?

Output: Obligor has already performed. Delivery of token chose Simple chose is put in writing Estoppel: detrimental reliance

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: How is a gratuitous assignment terminated?

Output: Death or bankruptcy assignor Notice of revocation: assignee or obligor Assignor takes performance Subsequent assignment of same right to another

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: In an assignment who holds privity of contract?

Output: The assignee and obligor

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When can an assignee sue an assignor?

Output: For wrongful revocation of irrevocable assignment.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: When is an assignor not liable to an assignee?

Output: When the obligor is incapable of performing.

MBE Contracts and UCC Sales Flashcards - Cram.com

Exchange of promises Offeree accepts by promising to do a stipulated act.


Input: Supports the base of the tongue and aids in swallowing

Output: What does the hyoid bone do?


Input: Stifle

Output: What joint has menisci?


Input: A drug that opens the airways to permit easier respirations

Output: What is a bronchodilator?


Input: more heat loss and a drop in blood pressure

Output: What is the result of when the blood vessels in the skin dilate?


Input: : The transparency of the conjunctiva allows the underlying tissues to show through, so it can be used as a window to see the blood vessels that are hidden elsewhere in the body by opaque structures, such as the skin. By looking through the conjunctiva at the lining of the eyelid, we can often detect abnormalities such as anemia (pale color caused by decreased blood flow), jaundice (yellowish color) and cyanosis (dark purplish color

Output: . How might examination of the bulbar and palpebral portions of the conjunctiva be useful as part of the overall physical examination of an animal?


Input: No muscles attach to the third eyelid. Its movements are entirely passive

Output: An animal can intentionally blink its eyelids. Can it intentionally cover its eye with its third eyelid? Why or why not


Input: If the nasolacrimal system were plugged, tears would be “spilling” out of the eyes because they would have nowhere to drain.

Output: How would an animal with a plugged nasolacrimal system appear? Why?


Input: If the medial rectus muscle was unable to contract, the animal would not be able to rotate that eyeball toward midline, because this muscle originates from a small area around the optic canal and fissure and inserts on the medial side of the sclera (near the 9 o’clock position if you are standing in front of the animal).

Output: If the medial rectus muscle of an animal’s eye was damaged and lost its ability to contract, what would the effect be on the positioning of the affected eye? Why?


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for sense of smell [2]

Output: Olfactory


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for sight [2]

Output: Optic


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, size of pupils and eye focus [2]

Output: Oculormotor


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for eye movement [2]

Output: Trochlear


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for head and face and chewing movements [2]

Output: Trigeminal


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for abduction of eye (muscle that turns eye outward) [2]

Output: Abducens


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for facial expressions , excretion of saliva and sense of taste [2]

Output: Facial


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for sense of hearing and balance foe equlilibrium sense [2]

Output: Acoustic


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for taste and other sensations of the tongue, swallowing movements, and secretion of saliva [2]

Output: Glossopharyngeal


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for sensations of movement (e.g. decrease in heart rate, increase in peristalsis, and contracting of muscles for voice production) [2]

Output: Vagus


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for shoulder movements, turning movements of head, and voice productions [2]

Output: Acessory


Input: [1] Cranial nerve responsible for tongue movements [2]

Output: Hypoglossal


Input: [1] The number of cranial nerves in the human body [2]

Output: 12 cranial nerves


Input: [1] The number of pair of spinal nerves in the human body [2]

Output: 31 pair of spinal nerves


Input: [1] The nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the central nervous system and connect to other parts of the body. [2]

Output: Peripheral Nervous System


Input: [1] Anterior or ventral [2]

Output: Toward the front of the body


Input: [1] Posterior or dorsal [2]

Output: Toward the back or rear of the body


Input: [1] Medial [2]

Output: Near or toward the midline of the body


Input: [1] Lateral [2]

Output: Farther away from the midline of the body


Input: [1] Interal [2]

Output: Inside


Input: [1] External [2]

Output: Outside


Input: [1] Proximal [2]

Output: Nearer the point of origin or closer to the body


Input: [1] Distal [2]

Output: Away from the point of origin or away from the body


Input: [1] Superior [2]

Output: Higher than or above


Input: [1] Cranial [2]

Output: Toward the head


Input: [1] Caudal [2]

Output: Toward the lower end of the body


Input: [1] Inferior [2]

Output: Lower than the elbow


Input: [1] Erect [2]

Output: Normal standing position of the body


Input: [1] Supine [2]

Output: Lying position of the body, face up


Input: [1] Prone [2]

Output: Lying position of the body, face down


Input: [1] Lateral recumbent [2]

Output: Lying position of the body, either side


Input: [1] Peripheral [2]

Output: The outward part of surface of a structure


Input: [1] Metabolism [2]

Output: The process of absorption, storage, and the use of these foods by the body for growth, maintenance and repair


Input: [1] Homeostasis [2]

Output: The body's self regulated control of its interal environment


Input: [1] This allows the organisms to maintain a state of constancy or equlibrium [2]

Output: Homeostasis


Input: What does the hyoid bone do?

Output: Supports the base of the tongue and aids in swallowing

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: What joint has menisci?

Output: Stifle

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: What is a bronchodilator?

Output: A drug that opens the airways to permit easier respirations

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: What is the result of when the blood vessels in the skin dilate?

Output: more heat loss and a drop in blood pressure

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: . How might examination of the bulbar and palpebral portions of the conjunctiva be useful as part of the overall physical examination of an animal?

Output: : The transparency of the conjunctiva allows the underlying tissues to show through, so it can be used as a window to see the blood vessels that are hidden elsewhere in the body by opaque structures, such as the skin. By looking through the conjunctiva at the lining of the eyelid, we can often detect abnormalities such as anemia (pale color caused by decreased blood flow), jaundice (yellowish color) and cyanosis (dark purplish color

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: An animal can intentionally blink its eyelids. Can it intentionally cover its eye with its third eyelid? Why or why not

Output: No muscles attach to the third eyelid. Its movements are entirely passive

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: How would an animal with a plugged nasolacrimal system appear? Why?

Output: If the nasolacrimal system were plugged, tears would be “spilling” out of the eyes because they would have nowhere to drain.

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: If the medial rectus muscle of an animal’s eye was damaged and lost its ability to contract, what would the effect be on the positioning of the affected eye? Why?

Output: If the medial rectus muscle was unable to contract, the animal would not be able to rotate that eyeball toward midline, because this muscle originates from a small area around the optic canal and fissure and inserts on the medial side of the sclera (near the 9 o’clock position if you are standing in front of the animal).

The scrolls of bone in the nasal cavity that help filter and moisten the air as it passes through the nose


Input: left anterior descending artery

Output: A patient with an MI of the anterior wall of the left ventricle most likely has an occlusion of the _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: ventricles

Output: If the Purkinje system is damaged, conduction of the electrical impulse is impaired through the _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: tissue damage and inflammation resulting from impaired capillary blood flow.

Output: Prolonged pressure on the skin causes reddened areas at the point of contact due to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: baroreceptors that inhibit the sympathetic nervous system, causing a decreased heart rate.

Output: When a person's blood pressure rises, the homeostatic mecbhanism to compensate for an elevation involves stimulation of ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: impaired arterial flow to the extremities

Output: When checking the capillary filling time of a patient the color returns in 10 seconds. The nurse recognizes this find as indicatative of ____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: mitral area

Output: The auscultatory area in the left midclavicular line at the level of the fifth ICS is the ____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: heart murmurs

Output: When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a palpable precordial thrill. This finding may be caused by _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: difficulty in isolating the apical pulse.

Output: When assesing the cardiovascular system of a 79 year old patient, the nurse expects to find ____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: checking the peripheral pulses and percutaneous site.

Output: An important nursing responsiblility for a paitne having an invasive cardiovascular diagnostic study is _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: arising at the SA node and depolarizing the atria.

Output: A P wave on an ECG represents an impulse _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: activation of the renin-angiotension aldosterone system.

Output: If a patient has decreased cardiac output cause by fluid volume deficit and marked vasodilation, the regulatory mechanism that will increase the blood pressure by improving both of these is _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: excessive alcohol intake.

Output: While obtaining subjective assesment data from a paitent with hypotensino, the nurse recognizes that a modifable risk factor for the development of hypertension is ___?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: renal dysfunction and left ventricular hypertrophy.

Output: Target organ damage that can occur from hypertension includes ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: african americans

Output: A high-risk population that should be targeted in the primary prevention of hypertension of _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: lifestyle modifications are indicated for all persons with elevated BP.

Output: In teaching a patient with hypertension about controlling the condition, the nurse recognizes that ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: use careful technique in assessing the BP of the patient because of the possible presence of an auscultatoy gap.

Output: A major consideration in the management of the older adult with hypertension is to ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: medication may be required because the BP is still not within the normal range

Output: A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has a blood pressure of 158/98 after 12 months of exercise and diet modifications. The nurse advises the patient that ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: hypertensive emergencies are associated with evidence of target organ damage.

Output: A patient is admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis. The nurse recognizes that the hypertensive urgency differs from hypertensive emergency in that _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: accumulation of lipid and fibrous tissue within the coronary arteries.

Output: In teaching a patient about coronary atery disease, the nurse explains that the changes that occur in this disorder involve ________?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: I would like to add weight lifting to my exercise program.

Output: After teaching about ways to decrease risk factors for CAD, the nurse recognizes that additional instruction is needed when the patient says,_____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: will be relieved by rest, nitroglycerin, or both.

Output: A hospitalized patient with angina tells the nurse that she is having chest pain. The nurse bases her actions on the knowledge that anginal pain ______?`

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: unstable angina, STEMI, and NSTEMI.

Output: The clinical spectum of acute coronary syndrome includes _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: 10 to 14 days after teh infarcion

Output: In planning activity for the patient recovering from an MI, the nurse recognizes that the healing heart wall is most vulnerable to stress ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: continuous ECG monitoring

Output: A patient is admitted to the CCU with chest pain of 24 hrs duration, ECG findings consistent with an acute MI, and occasional ventricular arrhythmias. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the expectation that the patient will be managed with ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: allowing the patient to participate in planning and carrying out activities

Output: A patient 5 days after MI is restless and apprehensive. The nurse can help by ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: denial

Output: Three days after MI, a patient states that he does not understand what the alarm is about because his problem is just bad indigestion. His reaction is an example of ____?


Input: atherosclerotic heart disease`

Output: The most common pathologic finding in individuals with sudden cardiac death is _______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: lower ejection fraction and higher PAWP

Output: The nurse recognizes that primary manifestation of systolic ventricular failure include_____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: neurohormonal response

Output: A compensatory mechanism involved in congestive heart failure that leads to inappropriate fluid retention and additonal workload of the heart is ____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: morphine

Output: The drug used in the management of patient with acute pulmonary edema that will decrease both preload and afterload and provide relief of anxiety is _____?


Input: monitor serum potassium levels

Output: A patient with chronic congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation is treated with a digitalis preparation and a loop diuretic. To prevent possible complications of this combination of drugs, the nurse needs to ____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: the prognosis of the patient is poor, and emotional support is a high priority of care.

Output: The nurse plans care for the patient with dilated cardiomyopathy based on the knowledge that ________?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: arrhythmias and infection

Output: The primary causes of death in patients with heart transplants in the first year include _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: careful ovservation for symptoms of hypotension.

Output: A patient with a stable blood pressure and no symptoms has the follwoing electrocardiogram characteristics: atrial rate- 74 and regular; ventricular rate-62 and irregular; P wave- normal contour; PR interval-lengthens progressively until a P wave is not conducted; QRS-normal contour. The nurse would expect that treatment would involve _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: Treatment with IV lidocaine

Output: The cardiac monitor of a patient in the cardiac care unit following an acute MI indicates ventricular bigeminy. The nurse anticipates ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: cardioversion may be done on a nonemergency basis with sedation of the patient.

Output: The nurse prepares a patient for electrical cardioversion knowing that cardioversion differs from defibrillation in that _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: take and record a daily pulse rate

Output: When providing discharge instructions to a patient with a new permanent pacemaker, the nurse teaches the patient to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: all members of the patient's family should learn CPR.

Output: The nurse plans care for the patient with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator based on the knowledge that ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation may be induced and treated during the procedure.

Output: Important teaching for the patient who will be undergoing electrophysiologic monitoring includes explaining that ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: call 911; finger sweep into mouth; attempt rescue breathing; abdominal thrusts if still obstructed

Output: The proper sequence for care of the obsructed airway victim who becomes unconscious is _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: establishment and maintenance of a patent airway.

Output: A procedure that is common to both BLS and ACLS is _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: pulmonary emboli

Output: A patient with a history of IV cocine use has acute the patient for signs and symptoms of ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: pulsus paradoxus

Output: The nurse suspects cardiac tamponadein a patient with acute pericarditis based on the finding of _______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: are undergoing any dental procedure

Output: Prophylatic antibotics are indicated to prevent infective endocarditis for at risk individuals who _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: viruses

Output: The most common cause of myocarditis is _____?


Input: a sequela of Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

Output: Teaching the patient with rheumatic fever about the disease the nurse explains the rheumatic fever is ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: prevent reinfection and recurrent rheumatic fever.

Output: Penicillin therapy for the patient with rheumatic fever is indicated to _______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: rheumatic heart disease

Output: The most common cause of mitral valve stenosis is ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: an audible third heart sound and a pansystolic or holosystolic murmur

Output: Which of the following findings is indicative of accentuated left ventricular filling in a patient with chronic mitral reguritation______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: progressively increase activity to increase cardiac tolerance.

Output: A patient hospitalized with aortic stenosis has a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance related to insuffcient oxygen secondary to decreased cardiac output. An appropriate nursing intervention for this patient is to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: is recommended for patients who are poor candidates for more extensive valvular surgery.

Output: The nurse caring for a patient scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal balloon valvuloplasty understands that this procedure ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: as cigarette smoking and hypertension

Output: A 62 year old woman weighs 92kg and has a history of daily alcohol intake, smoking, high blood pressure, high sodium intake and sedentary lifestyle. The nurse identifies the risk factors most highly related to peripheral arterial disease in this patient _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: cigarette smoking, hyperlipidemia, hypertension.

Output: Significant risk factors for pheripheral arterial disease include _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: the patient compains of sudden sever back pain.

Output: A patient is being prepared for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The nurse suspects rupture of aneurysm when ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: monitor urine output, BUN, and creatinine.

Output: Important nursing measures after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair are to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: the aortic branches affected in the descent of the disection.

Output: Specific symptoms of aortic dissectino vary depending on ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: inadequate blood flow to the nerves of the feet.

Output: Rest pain is a manifestation of peripheral arterial disease that occurs as a result of ______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: notify the physician

Output: A patient with infective endocarditis develops sudden left leg pain with pallor, paresthesia, and a loss of peripheral pulses. The nurse's initial action should be to _______?:

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: prescribing calcium channel blockers.

Output: The usual medical treatment of Raynaud's phenomenon involves _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: 40 year old woman who smokes and uses oral contraceptives

Output: The patient who is most likely to have the highest risk for deep vein thrmbosis is a _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: generalized edema of the involved extremity.

Output: The nurse suspects the presence of a deep vein thrombosis based on the findings of _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: administering anticoagulants as ordered.

Output: Nursing interventions indicated in the plan of care for the patient with acute lower extremity deep vein thrombosus include _______?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: be aware of and report signs or symptoms of bleeding.

Output: The nurse instructs the patient discharged on anticoagulant therapy to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: elevatino of the extremities to increase venous return

Output: In planning care and patient teaching for the patient with venous leg ulcers, the nurse recognizes that the most important intervention in healing and control of this condition is _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees to facilitate breathing.

Output: A patient with a deep vein thrombosis suddenly develops dyspena, tachypnea, and chest pain. Initially the most appropriate action by the nurse is to _____?

A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaird blood flow between the ____?


Input: [Hardware Theft] Hardware Vandalism

Output: Act of defacing or destroying computer equipment.