Input: The Endangered Species Act provides a program for the conservation of

Output: threatened and endangered plants and animals and the habitats in which they are found. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) of the Department of the Interior maintains a worldwide list. Species include birds, insects, fish, reptiles, mammals, crustaceans, flowers, grasses, and trees. Anyone can petition FWS to include a species on this list. The Act provides in some instances for the purchase of lands to protect certain habitats. The Act establishes both civil and criminal penalties for violations.

REG Employment MEMORIZE Flashcards - Cram.com

FICA taxes paid by employers are deductible expenses for income tax purposes, the frequency of FICA deposits depends on the amount of an employer’s payroll, and employers must furnish employees with written statements of wages paid and FICA contributions withheld each calendar year. However, contributions may not be made to an employee’s pension plan in lieu of making FICA contributions.


Input: What is the enzyme in bacteria that converts pteridine + PABA into dihydropteroic acid?

Output: Dihydropteroate synthase

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are the main mechanisms of bacterial resistance to sulfonamides?

Output: Alteration of the enzyme to decrease affinity for drug Increased production of PABA

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are two possible problems with the use of sulfonamides?

Output: Widespread resistance Bacteristatic, so they need the immune system to clear the bacteria

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How are sulfonamides administered?

Output: Orally

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How are sulfonamides excreted?

Output: Renally, achieve high concentrations in the urine

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are some adverse effects of sulfonamides?

Output: Crystalline aggregates in urine Acute hemolytic anemia (KNOW) Hypersensitivity (Stevens-Johnson syndrome) GI irritation

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What presupposes someone to acute hemolytic anemia in response to sulfonamides?

Output: G6PD deficiency, which is becoming more widespread

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How do sulfonamides impact the use of some other drugs? Name one specific drug.

Output: It inhibits CYP2C9, which metabolizes some drugs. One specific example is warfarin. This is dangerous because warfarin has a very narrow therapeutic range

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What does trimethoprim do?

Output: Antifolate that blocks the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What enzyme does trimethoprim block?

Output: Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: Is trimethoprim bacteristatic or bactericidal?

Output: Bacteristatic

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to trimethoprim?

Output: Increased production of DHFR Alteration of DHFR to reduce binding

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: With what other drug does trimethoprim have a synergistic effect?

Output: Sulfamethoxazole

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are some adverse effects of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

Output: Higher incidence of dermatologic reactions Folate-deficient patients may develop hematologic toxicities Patients with AIDS have high incidence of adverse reactions GI irritation

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are some clinical uses of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

Output: Sensitive gram positive and gram negative organisms UTIs (present in urine, unchanged) Acute otitis media in children PCP (pneumonia) in AIDS patients

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How does linezolid work?

Output: It binds to the 23S subunit of the bacterial ribosome (23S is a subunit of 50S) and blocks the formation of the initiation complex. No protein translation

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to linezolid?

Output: Mutations in 23S that prevent binding of drug Methylation of 23S that prevents binding - gives resistance to many other drugs

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How is linezolid administered?

Output: Orally

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: How is it excreted?

Output: Renally, 30% as unchanged drug

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are some adverse effects of linezolid?

Output: Headache Hematologic toxicity Serotonin toxicity (inhibition of monoamine oxidase) Peripheral or optic neuropathy

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: What are the clinical uses of linezolid?

Output: Serious infections: VRE (vancomycin-resistant E. faecium) MRSA

Antifolates and Oxazolidinones Flashcards - Cram.com

They are antifolates They block the enzyme that converts Pteridine and Dihydropteroic acid. This reaction is specific to bacteria


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Unenforceable

Output: not void or voidable

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Quasi-contract

Output: partial performance

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Promissory estoppel

Output: reasonable reliance

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Collateral

Output: property put up to secure the performance of a promise

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Guaranty

Output: undertaking by one person to be answerable for the payment of some debt

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Leading object doctrine

Output: the promises of those who are primarily motivated by a desire to secure some personal benefit fall outside the statute of frauds

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Memorandum

Output: does not necessarily include all terms, may also be multiple writings

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Principal objective

Output: all clauses are interpreted in light of the principal objective

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: [Statuete of frauds] Parol evidence rule

Output: a party cannot vary the terms of a written contract by introducing evidence of terms allegedly agreed upon prior to or contemporaneous with the writing

Business Law Chapter 16 Flashcards - Cram.com

law will require more evidence that the parties had an agreement than the oral testimony of the party claiming that a contract existed


Input: The top financial officer. [Business Finance]

Output: Chief Financial Officer


Input: Person in charge of cash management and capital expenditures. [Business Finance]

Output: Treasurer


Input: Process of managing a firm's long-term investments. [Business Finance]

Output: Capital budgeting


Input: Amount of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations. [Business Finance]

Output: Capital structure


Input: Short-term assets and liabilities. [Business Finance]

Output: Working capital


Input: Management of a firm's cash, inventory, and payables. [Business Finance]

Output: Working capital management


Input: Business owned by a single individual. [Business Finance]

Output: Sole proprietorship


Input: Document that specifies how net profits and losses are to be divided among two or more owners. [Business Finance]

Output: Partnership agreement


Input: Business entity that is treated as a legal person. [Business Finance]

Output: Corporation


Input: The legal papers which designate a firm's name, nature of business, and intended life. [Business Finance]

Output: Articles of incorporation


Input: The rules which outline how a corporation will regulate itself. [Business Finance]

Output: Bylaws


Input: Cross between a partnership and a corporation. [Business Finance]

Output: Limited Liability Company


Input: Potential problem between a firm's owners and managers. [Business Finance]

Output: Agency problem


Input: Anyone other than stockholders that might have a claim on the cash flow of a firm. [Business Finance]

Output: Stakeholders


Input: Original sale of securities by the issuer. [Business Finance]

Output: Primary market


Input: The market for trading securities after the original sale. [Business Finance]

Output: Secondary market


Input: The sale of securities to the general public by the issuer. [Business Finance]

Output: Public offering


Input: A negotiated sale of securities by an issuer to a specific buyer. [Business Finance]

Output: Private placement


Input: Over-the-counter markets [Business Finance]

Output: Dealer markets


Input: What is a Request for Forces (RFF)?

Output: The medium that sends requests to the NCF. A liason CEC officer is attached to a Marine expeditionary force and serve as initial points of contact for NCF forces.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the difference between deliberate and crisis action planning?

Output: Deliberate is performed on a continous cycle while crisis is based on current events

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the ESP?

Output: it identifies the minimum essential facilities and engineering capabilities needed for the commitment of military forces

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is ABFC?

Output: Advanced Base Functional Component It gives engineers standard plans, BOM, labor, and material requirements to improve planning

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are in the two volumes of ABFC?

Output: The first has components, Assemblies, and facilities The second has Drawings

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How do facility requirements pertain to General engineering planning tools and considerations?

Output: They are constant with operational requirements, duration of need, and forces to be supported.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What does real estate have to do with general engineering planning?

Output: There has to be an acquisition or leasing of land to support operations

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How does the environment effect the general engineering planning?

Output: Navy planners have to consider the federal, state, and city environment laws and standards in their planning.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How does Host nation support play a role in general engineering planning?

Output: Host nation support plays a role in supporting the operations of the construction An example would be trash removal, transportation, use of POL, use of civiliain labor, etc.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is Maintenance?

Output: actions necessary to preserve, repair, and ensure continued operations

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: When would a naval engineering force use a initial/expedient construction standard?

Output: When response times are at a premium for rapidly deploying of engineering resources

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is a temporary construction?

Output: A facility that will be used for less than 24 months

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: what is a permanent construction?

Output: A facility that is intended for long term use or for the Host nation

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the Seabee's secondary role?

Output: Fight as infantry

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are three engineering operations assigned to the Seabees?

Output: General Combat Geospatial

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are some of the Joint FOB planning considerations?

Output: Critical Assets Commercial Service Access Perimeter security Utilities

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How far should latrines be from the galley, water source, and sleeping areas?

Output: at least 100yds away from galley and water source no more than 50 ft from sleeping areas

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How far should the garbage pit be from the water supply and the galley?

Output: at least 100 yards away from the water source as close as 30 yards to the galley

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How many people can a 4'x4' garbage pit accomodate?

Output: 100 people for 1 day

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How long should a leach field be?

Output: No lateral length longer than 100yds.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What goes into the leach field?

Output: Sewage and grey water

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the trouble desk in camp maintenance?

Output: recieves all trouble calls and tasks people to certain jobs

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the definition of a emergency job?

Output: takes less than 16 man hours and $100 in supplies

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is a specific job order?

Output: takes more than 16 man hours to complete

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: what is a standing job order?

Output: takes more than 40 man hours to complete and job orders are large repetitive jobs

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are operator inspections in camp maintenance?

Output: general day to day checks on equipment or facilities

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: what are conrol inspections in camp maintenance?

Output: an inspection that reviews all camp facilities to determine if maintenance is required during a deployment to improve facilities

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is potable water?

Output: water that is satisfactory for drinking and doesn't contain any pollutants

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is chlorination?

Output: the most common way to turn polluted water into potable water at about 2ppm residual bacteria.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is super chlorination?

Output: chlorinating the water to over 100 ppm to kill bacteria and make water potable.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are the three components of the ABFC?

Output: Component Facility Assembly

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the ABFC view program?

Output: It is a web based program that consists of Navy wide TOA's. They can be broken down into the three components It allows the user to view all or just one facility of a componenet or facility for rapid planning

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: Why is it important to keep a log on generators??

Output: To keep a compare logs and spot gradual changes in equipment condition. They should be checked day to day.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: Why is it important to keep a log on boilers?

Output: It ensures periodic maintenance of the boiler and aids in operational efficiency, length of service, and safe operation of the boiler.

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How many personnel does it take to assemble a bailey bridge?

Output: 30 to 40

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are the three bridges in the NMCB TOA?

Output: Bailey Medium Girder Mabey Johnson

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How far can a bailey bridge span?

Output: 210'

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How wide is a bailey bridge?

Output: 12.5' wide

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are the three configurations of a bailey bridge?

Output: Single/Single bridge 100' Double/Single bridge 140' Double/Double bridge 180'

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are three types of medium girder bridges?

Output: Single story double story Linked reinforced

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: How wide is the medium girder bridge?

Output: 13' 2"

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What can be driven on the MGB?

Output: light vehicle loads

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What is the crew size to putting together a MGB?

Output: 24 - 32 personnel

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: What are the three heavy timber constructions?

Output: Bunker Bridge Tower

SCW Contingency Ops and Construction Ops Flashcards - Cram.com

The National Security Strategy, National Military Stategy, Contingency Planning Guidance, and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan all form the basis of theatre campaign plan and the engineer support plans


Input: next best alternative foregone [Scarcity]

Output: opportunity cost


Input: able to prove true or false [Scarcity]

Output: postive statment


Input: natural resources eg coal or fish return to land is rent-cost of production occupational mobility-limted eg fishh used for food source eg retail shop geographical mobility- not mobile renewable/ non renewable-substanablitiy [Scarcity]

Output: Land


Input: human resource skilled/unskilled return to labour is wages occuptional mobility- depends on skill transferability growth in labour supply may caused by immgration etc [Scarcity]

Output: labour


Input: return to capital is interest investment is the creation of captial goods in the process of production net investment is the change in the capital stock which production determines productive capacity [Scarcity]

Output: Captial


Input: the risk of organising the other 3 factors together [Scarcity]

Output: Enterprise


Input: return required to keep the euterprenuers in the business [Scarcity]

Output: Normal profit


Input: Self-sufficiency is where people try to meet their own wants and needs without producing a surplus to trade. Specialisation is when individuals, regions or countries concentrate on making one product to create a surplus to be traded. [Scarcity]

Output: Specialisation


Input: Division of labour means the specialization of the functions and roles involved in making the separate parts of a product. It is closely tied to the standardization of production, the introduction and perfection of machinery, and the development of large-scale industry. As a result of mass-production techniques, total production is many times what it would be had each worker made the complete product. Problems created by the division of labour include job monotony, technological unemployment, and eventually chronic unemployment if the economy does not expand quickly enough to reabsorb the displaced labour. [Scarcity]

Output: Division of Labour


Input: Medium of exchange,unit of account,store of value and deferred payment [Scarcity]

Output: Functions of money


Input: anything that is used to determine value during the exchange of good and service.allow us to go beyond barter [Scarcity]

Output: medium of exchange


Input: two people have to have the appropriate goods or services which each other wants. [Scarcity]

Output: double coincidence of wants


Input: by using the monetary value assigned to a specific good or service to compare it to one offered by a different provider. [Scarcity]

Output: Unit of account


Input: is used to maintain the value of a transaction over time. [Scarcity]

Output: Store of value


Input: [1] Depression and suicide often associated with hypersecretion of _ [2]

Output: cortisol

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] More likely, depression arises from problems in the _ [2]

Output: hypothalamus

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Depression is associated with (reduced/increased) slow wave sleep,(shorter,longer) period of REM sleep, (increased/decreased) core body temperature and abnormalities in the nocturnal secretion of _, _ and _ [2]

Output: reduced; shorter; increased. Cortisol, GH, and prolactin

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] MAOIs are inhibitors of _ [2]

Output: enzymes responsible for the degradation of bioamines

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] TCAs work by _ [2]

Output: blocking reuptake of serotonine or NE

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] SSRIs work by _ [2]

Output: selectively inhibiting the reuptake or serotonin

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The most effective short term treatment for severe depression and mania is _ [2]

Output: electroconvulsive therapy. This involves the induction of a generalized brain seizure (6-8 times at 2 day intervals)

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] _is a mood stabilizer (evens out the highs and lows), and works by affecting the phosphoinositol pathway. [2]

Output: Lithium carbonate It ultimately blocks ca increase and reduces the responsiveness of the neurons in the IP3 pathway

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Regarding olfaction: receptor neurons send out (un/myelinated) axons grouped into bundles called _, collectively form cranial nerve I [2]

Output: unmyelinated fila olfactoria

Neuro.Block 3 Part 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] axons of olfactory receptor neurons contact neurons of the olfactory bulb in complexes of synapses called _ [2]

Output: olfactory glomeruli All neurons expressing a given receptor converge on only one or two glomeruli

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Input: [1] Mitral/Tufted cells are (excitatory/inhibitory) projection neurons that use what NT? PG & G cells are (excitatory/inhibitory) interneurons that use what NT? [2]

Output: excitatory, glutamate inhibitory; GABA, DA and various peptides

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Input: [1] With regards to olfaction, granular cells _ [2]

Output: enchance contrast between M/T cells by acting as a filter to restrict the signal coming from a specific glomerulus to a signal generated only by high affinity odorant This allows you to distinguish between perpetually similar scents

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Input: [1] The lateral olfactory tract first contacts the olfactory bulb to the anterior olfactory nucleus (contralaterally/ipsilaterally). This nucleus contacts the _ [2]

Output: ipsilaterally olfactory bulb and the anterior nucleus on the opposite side.

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Input: [1] At the level of the olfactory tubercle, the olfactory tract continues as the _ and terminates where? [2]

Output: lateral olfactory stria in the primary olfactory cortex.

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Input: [1] The medial orbitofrontal cortex appears particularly important in the integration of _ and _ [2]

Output: olfactory, taste and other food related cues that produce the experience of flavor

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Input: [1] The taste experiences include _ [2]

Output: sweet, salty, sour, bitter and umami

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Input: [1] (T/F) taste buds are neurons [2]

Output: False. They are a complex of supporting cells and taste receptor cells

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Input: [1] The _ end of the receptor cells in taste buds is covered with microvilli where taste transduction occur. [2]

Output: apical

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Input: [1] In the tongue, taste buds are located in 3 types of papillae: _ (25% of taste buds), _(25%), and _(50%). _papillae are nongustatory. [2]

Output: fungiform, foliate and circumvallate Filiform

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Input: [1] The locations that the taste sensations are more sensitive: sweet most at _ sour at _, bitter in the _ and salty in the _ of the tongue. [2]

Output: the tip, edges back anterior edges

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Input: [1] Taste transduction begins when soluble chemicals interact with receptors located on the exposed _ of receptor cells. [2]

Output: apical microvilli

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Input: [1] Some sweet, sour and bitter –tasting compounds used _ receptors. Umami –tasting compounds uses a _receptors. Other receptors such as those for bitter, salty, and sour ..._ [2]

Output: G protein coupled metabotropic variant of the glutamate directly interact with ion channels Activation of these receptors produces either depolarization or hyperpolarization through a second messenger (cAMP, IP3)

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Input: [1] tastes buds on soft palate are carried through the _nerve via _ganglion & _ nerve [2]

Output: greater petrosal pterygopalatine lesser palatine nerve (CN V2)

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Input: [1] SVA fibers carrying taste enter the brainstem, descend in the _ tract and terminate in the _ nucleus. [2]

Output: solitary, solitary

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Input: [1] Rostral solitary nucleus projection ascend (contralaterally/ipsilaterally) with fibers in the_ tract to terminate in the _ [2]

Output: ipsilaterally central tegmental ventral posteromedial nucleus

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Input: [1] Regarding taste projections: The VPM projects through the _ to the _ and _. This pathway is involved in taste discrimination. [2]

Output: posterior limb of the internal capsule frontal operculum and anterior insular cortex.

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Input: [1] Orbitofrontal cortex is involved in _ [2]

Output: appreciation of flavor, food reward and control of feeding.

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Input: [1] The lateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex receives inputs from _ and integrates _,_,_ [2]

Output: primary taste cortex taste, olfactory and visual cues associated with ingestion of food.

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Input: [1] The transduction mechanisms of irritants such capsaicin or menthol is the activation of _channels, the _channels, [2]

Output: cationic TRP (transient receptor potential)

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Input: [1] Complete loss of taste is called _, for this to happen, it requires _ [2]

Output: ageusia bilateral lesions of cranial nerve VII and IX, or else local damage to taste buds.

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Input: [1] Bilateral hemianopsia is most likely a lesion or compression of _. This is an indicator of _ [2]

Output: optic chiasm pituitary tumor

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Input: [1] Increased appetite is associated with what part of the hypothalamus? [2]

Output: ventromedial hypothalamus

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Input: [1] Decreased appetite is associated with what part of the hypothalamus? [2]

Output: lateral hypothalamus

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Input: [1] Pt presents with intermittent daytime hypersomnolence, you start to think about what region of the hypothalamus? [2]

Output: tuberomammilary region

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Input: [1] Lesions of the _ nucleus of the hypothalamus can produce hyperthermia [2]

Output: anterior hypothalamic - the anterior part has an excitatory effect on pans

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Input: [1] What pituitary hormones are associated with the following abnormalities? A. Polyuria, increased thirst B Impotence C. cold intolerance D. Fatigue and decreased muscle endurance E. Decreased appetite and weight loss [2]

Output: 1. ADH 2. LH AND FSH 3. TSH 4. ACTH 5. ACTH

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Input: [1] _ is the encoded information is converted into a form that can be permanently stored. Associated with structural changes in the brain. [2]

Output: Consolidation

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Input: [1] What are the two primary types of memory? [2]

Output: declarative and nondeclarative These primary types of memory are associated with different circuitries that can be distinguished by different types of damage.

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Input: [1] Each new explicit memory is formed by four sequential processes, what are they? [2]

Output: encoding, consolidation, storage, retrieval

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Input: [1] Encoding-information for memory is assembled from different sensory systems by the _ [2]

Output: association cortices

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Input: [1] Consolidation- information is transformed by _ and _ [2]

Output: hippocampus and surrounding areas cortex

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Input: [1] Storage- consolidated information is transferred to _ [2]

Output: association cortex

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Input: [1] Right hippocampal damage produces greater deficits in memory for _, whereas left hippocampal damage produces greater deficits in memory for _ [2]

Output: spatial representation words, objects or people.

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Input: [1] The consolidation process is particularly sensitive to processes which damage or interfere with the _ The_ area is particularly sensitive to anoxia [2]

Output: hippocampus. CA 1

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Input: [1] _ is the first region to degenerate in Alzheimer’s disease. [2]

Output: Entorhinal cortex

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Input: [1] There are two forms of associative learning, what are they? [2]

Output: Classical (Pavlov) conditioning involve learning a relationship between two stimul Operant conditioning involve learning a relationship behavior and the consequences of that behavior (call trial and error )

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Input: [1] Emotional memory involves the _ as a nodal stage in the association of exteroceptive sensory inputs [2]

Output: amygdala

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Input: [1] Procedural memory is composed of two subsystems; one involves the _ and mediates habit and skills. The other involves the _ and mediates sensori-motor adaptation [2]

Output: striatum cerebellum

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Input: [1] Patients with amygdala damage fail to develop _. [2]

Output: fear conditioning

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Input: [1] The process of converting information in working memory to long term memory is _ [2]

Output: consolidation.

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Input: [1] Episodic (autobiographical) knowledge about time and place involved the _ [2]

Output: prefrontal cortex. Frontal lobe damage is associated tendency to forget how information was acquired: source amnesia.

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Input: [1] The inability to form new memories results in _ whereas difficult in retrieving memories already established is _ [2]

Output: anterograde amnesia retrograde amnesia

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Input: [1] Sensitization as a result of synaptic connections on presysnaptic terminals (presynaptic facilitation) is believed to have the potential for short and long term effects. It requires a _ [2]

Output: facilitatory interneuron The effect of the facilitatory interneuron will be to enhance the amount of neurotransmitter released by sensory neuron,

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Input: [1] Short term sensitization can occur by the activation of metabotropic receptors and associated second messenger pathways (cAMP & PKA / DAG & PKC) to broaden the action potential by inhibiting _ channels and act on _ channels to increase it's influx in sensory neuron. [2]

Output: K+ calcium

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Input: [1] Long term potentiation is produced in _ of _neurons in the hippocampus and in mossy fiber terminals of the _gyrus. It is also produced in the perforant path. [2]

Output: Schaffer collaterals; pyramidal dentate

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Input: [1] Long Term Potentiation induction depends on _ increase either in the pre or post synaptic cell [2]

Output: calcium

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Input: [1] Regarding LTP, The increase in Ca++ concentration in a dendrite lead to the activation of a cascade that increases the number of _receptors [2]

Output: AMPA ; (ionotropic glutamate receptors, depolarizing). The addition of additional AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane can lead to enhanced efficacy of the postsynaptic response.

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Input: [1] The perisylvian structures for implementation include a motor speech area (Broca’s area) and a language comprehension center (Wernicke’s area) that are linked by the _ [2]

Output: arcuate fasciculus

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Input: [1] The perisylvian structures for implementation include _ and _ areas that are linked by the arcuate fasciculus [2]

Output: motor speech area (Broca’s area) and a language comprehension center (Wernicke’s area)

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Input: [1] Comprehension of written words (reading) involves the transfer of information from visual cortex to the _ [2]

Output: angular gyrus.

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Input: [1] Important areas that mediate between implementation and conceptual systems include _(4) [2]

Output: Posterior sensory association cortices, left prefrontal cortex, inferotemporal region, and temporal pole

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Input: [1] For classification purposes the clinician must consider three factors: What are they? [2]

Output: Fluency Comprehension Verbatim repetition

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Input: [1] _ is impaired production of speech (fluency) and repetition with intact auditory comprehension [2]

Output: Expressive Aphasia (Broca’s aphasia) Typically involves Brocas area and the anterior insula. These patients are aware of their condition and frustrated with it.

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Input: [1] _ is impaired auditory comprehension, naming, and repetition [2]

Output: Receptive Aphasia (Wernicke’s aphasia) Patient is unable to understand what is said to them, unable to read and unable to write comprehensible language, involves damage to the left posterior superior temporal cortex

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Input: [1] Other deficits that may accompany Wernicke’s aphasia arise from lesions of _ and _ deeper in the white matter. This results in _ [2]

Output: of Meyer’s loop and optic radiations deeper in the white matter. contralateral homonymous hemianopia (or quadrantanopia).

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Input: [1] Conduction aphasia results in impaired naming and repetition with intact comprehension. It is due to damage of the _ [2]

Output: Arcuate fasciculus

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Input: [1] Damage anterior to Broca’s area or posterior to Wernicke’s area results in transcortical aphasia, which lacks _ [2]

Output: impaired repetition

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Input: [1] _ Resembles Broca’s aphasia but the ability to repeat verbatim is preserved [2]

Output: Transcortical Motor Aphasia

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Input: [1] _ Resembles Wernicke’s aphasia, except verbatim repetition is relatively spared [2]

Output: Transcortical Sensory Aphasia this results from damage to temporal occipital parietal junction - the angular gyrus

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Input: [1] Alexia with agraphia is associated with lesion of the _. In this case, aphasia may be absent or mild. [2]

Output: dominant angular gyrus

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Input: [1] Alexia without agraphia is associated with lesions of _ and _ [2]

Output: left visual cortex and splenium of corpus callosum.

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Input: [1] Magnocellular stream processing involves pathways both from the _ and through the _ [2]

Output: lateral geniculate and through the pulvinar.

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Input: [1] Patients with lesions of the _ pathways may loose all conscious vision, yet can demonstrate the perception of movements or changes in illumination. [2]

Output: geniculostriate pathways

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Input: [1] The medial temporal cortex functions to include _, _ and _ [2]

Output: navigation, directing eye movements, and MOTION perception/appreciation

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Input: [1] The parvocellular pathways appear to be involved with _ [2]

Output: recognition of faces

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Input: [1] Bilateral lesions involving the region of the parieto-occipital junction produce _. What are the symptoms? [2]

Output: Balint syndrome. This produces a triad consisting of optic apraxia (poor control of eye movements), optic ataxia (poor visually guided movements), and simultagnosia (inability to percieve visual field as a whole)

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Input: [1] While language is localized in the dominant hemisphere, lesions to the parietal areas in the nondominant hemisphere result in the disruption of _ [2]

Output: spatial relationships and selective attention.

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Input: [1] The dorsolateral prefrontal region is involved with _ [2]

Output: working memory, intellectual capacities, creative and flexible thinking

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Input: [1] The ventromedial prefrontal region is involved with _ [2]

Output: judgement, planning, decision making, social conduct

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Input: [1] Superior Mesial prefrontal region is involved with _ [2]

Output: emotional behavior and basic drive associated with motivation and arousal

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Input: [1] In general, the left hemisphere is associated with more _emotional affect, while the right hemisphere is associated with _ ones. [2]

Output: positive negative

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Input: [1] In split brain patients, if a word is placed in the _ visual field, he will be able to read it, but not if it's placed in the _. If an object is placed in the left visual field, a patient may show a _ response [2]

Output: right, left an emotion response or smile to a humorous object

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Input: General jurisdiction means that a court can hear any type of case that falls within their venue. Limited jurisdiction means that a court can hear only certain types of cases. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast general jurisdiction with limited jurisdiction.

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Input: in personam jurisdiction is where a court has jurisdiction based on upon the residence or activities of the person being sued. in rem jurisdiction is when a court has jurisdiction based upon the location of the property at issue in the lawsuit. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast in personam jurisdiction with in rem jurisdiction.

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Input: A long arm statute can subject an out of state defendent to jurisdiction in the state as long as due process requirements are met. The defendent must have certain minimum contacts with the state. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain how a state's long arm statute might work.

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Input: Original jurisdiction is the power of the U.S. Supreme Court to take cognizance of a case at its inception, try it, and pass judgement upon the law and facts. Appellate jurisdiction is the power of the Supreme Court and other courts of appeal to decide cases that have been tried in a lower court and appealed. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast original jurisdiction with appellate jurisdiction.

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Input: Three sources: 1. federal question jurisdiction- exists when the dispute concerns federal law, namely a legal right arising under the U.S. Constitution, a federal statute, etc. 2. diversity juridiction- exists when a lawsuit is between citizens of two different states and the amount in controversy exceeds 75,000. 3. when the United States is a party- when the U.S. government, or an officer or agency thereof, is a plaintiff or the defendent. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Identify the bases for federal court jurisdiction.

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Input: An individual is a citizen of the state where the person has his or her legal residence, or, if they have homes in one or more states, the state they consider home. A corporation is deemed a citizen of the state in which it has been incorporated and the state where the company has its principal place of business. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain how the courts might determine a natural person and a corporation's citizenship.

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Input: Exclusive jurisdiction is when only one court has jurisdiction over a certain type of case. Concurrent jurisdiction is when more than one court has jursidiction over a certain type of case. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast exclusive jurisdiction with concurrent jurisdiction.

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Input: In this case, the court decided that a federal court must use state law in a case involving diversity jurisdiction, unless the lawsuit concerns the U.S. constitution or a federal statute. This prevents forum shopping. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the Erie doctrine.

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Input: In a lawsuit involving citizens of different states, the law used is the law of the state with the greatest interests, or, if more than one state has an interest, the court can use different states' laws for different parts of the dispute. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast a choice of law provision with a choice of forum provision.

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Input: a party to a lawsuit has standing if the person seeking relief is the proper party to advance the litigation, has a personal interest in the outcome of the suit, and will benefit from a favorable ruling. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define standing.

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Input: the particular county or geographical area in which a court with jurisdiction may hear and determine a case. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define venue.

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Input: If a court has jurisdiction, it means the court has the authority to hear that type of dispute. The venue is the court in a particular geographical area that can hear the case. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast venue with jurisdiction.

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Input: The lowest level are several courts of limited jurisdiction, that hear minor criminal matters, small civil suits, and other specialized legal disputes. The next level consists of courts of general jurisdiction. The third level are the state appellate courts that hear appeals from the lower level courts. The top level is the state supreme court. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the three-tiered state court system.

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Input: a trial court usually has general or unlimited jurisdiction, while and appellate court only hears appeals from the trial courts. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast a trial court with an appellate court.

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Input: the doctrine that holds that once a court resolves a particular issue, other courts addressing a similar legal problem generally follow the initial court's decision. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the concept of stare decisis.

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Input: A decision is persuasive if it reasonably and fairly resolves the dispute. Another court confronting a similar dispute will probably choose to apply the same reasoning. An authoritative decision, must be followed. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast an authoritative decision with a persuasive decision using the concept of stare decisis.

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Input: The first level are the U.S. district courts. They are the trial courts of the federal system. The next level are the courts of appeals. There are also specialized federal courts that hear disputes about certain subject areas. The last tier is the U.S. Supreme Court. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the three-tiered federal court system.

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Input: an order written by the U.S. Supreme Court when it decides to hear a case, ordering the lower court to certify the record of proceedings below and send it up to the U.S. Supreme Court. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define writ of certiorari.

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Input: the procedural rules that govern civil litigation. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.

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Input: the formal allegations by the parties to a lawsuit of their respective claims and defenses. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define pleadings.

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Input: the summons that officially notifies the the defendent that a lawsuit is pending against it in a particular court and that it must file a response to the complaint within a certain number of days. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define service of process.

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Input: a judgement that may be entered in favor of the plaintiff if the defendent does not file an answer within the time required. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define default judgement.

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Input: admits that the defendent has acted in a certain way but claims that the defendent's conduct was not the real or legal cause of harm to the plainiff or that the defendent's conduct is excused for some reason. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain an affirmative defense.

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Input: A motion to dismiss seeks to terminate the lawsuit on the ground that the plaintiff's claim is technically inadequate. A motion for judgement on the pleadings is when one party argues that the complaint alone demonstrates that the action is futile. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast a motion to dismiss with a motion for judgement on the pleadings.

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Input: will be granted only if the evidence clearly establishes that there are no disputed issues of material fact and that the party who requested the summary judgement is entitled to recovery as a matter of law. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the function of a motion for summary judgement.

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Input: Depositions are written or oral questions asked of any person who may have helpful information about the facts of the case, while interogatories are written questions to the parties in the case and their attorneys. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast a deposition with an interogatory.

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Input: Discovery helps everyone in the trial have all the facts. It also helps preserve evidence. It also reduces the number of legal issues to be presented at trial because the parties can see beforehand which claims they have evidence to support and which ones are not worth pursuing. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the benefits of discovery.

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Input: Discovery is very labor intensive, and is very expensive. Can lead to discovery abuse. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the disadvantages of discovery.

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Input: the questioning of potential jurors. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define voir dire.

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Input: 1. selection of the jury. 2. opening statements. 3. presentation of evidence and witnesses by the plaintiff's attorney. 4. presentation of evidence and witnesses by the defendant's attorney. 5. motion for a directed verdict. 6. closing arguments. 7. judges instructions to the jury. 8. jury deliberations. 9. announcement of the jury verdict. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the trial process.

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Input: The motion for judgement on the pleadings precedes the trial while a motion for a new trial comes after the trial. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast a motion for a new trial with a motion for judgement on the pleadings.

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Input: The privilege provides that a court cannot force the disclosure of confidential communications between a client and his attorney. The difficulty in maintaining the privilege with a corporate client is deciding what exactly constitutes communication with the corporation. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the attorney client privilege and elaborate on the difficulties involved in maintaining the privilege with a corporate client.

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Input: The attorney work-product doctrine protects information that an attorney prepares in the course of his or her work. This is different from attorney client privelege in that attorney client privilege belongs to the client, and the attorney work product belongs to the attorney. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the attorney work product doctrine and how it differs from the attorney client privilege.

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Input: The company should select an attorney first who has experience in the area being litigated. The company also needs to decide who will handle public relations so that confidential information will not be disclosed accidentally. Then management should tell employees not to destroy important information, and tell them not to discuss the lawsuit with anyone. They should also make a budget for the lawsuit. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain what companies might do for pretrial preparation.

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Input: It helps protect a company in the event of litigation, and protects corporate privacy and trade secrets. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Explain the function of a valid document retention program.

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Input: using other means of solving a dispute other than litigation. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define alternative dispute resolution.

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Input: Both negotiation and mediation are not binding, but negotiation is just between the two parties, while mediation uses a neutral third party. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast negotiation with mediation.

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Input: Both involve neutral third parties, but arbitration is binding, and mediation is not. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Compare and contrast mediation with arbitration.

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Input: a clause that specifies that in the event of a dispute arising out of a contract, the parties will arbitrate specific issues in a stated manner. [Define the term jurisdiction.]

Output: Define an arbitration clause.

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Input: An inner drive that directs a person's behavior toward goals [Human Relations]

Output: Motivation

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Input: An employee's attitude toward his or her job, employer, and colleagues [Human Relations]

Output: Morale

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Input: Why is human relations important? [Human Relations]

Output: Because business strive to: -Boost morale -Maximize productivity+creativity -Motivate diverse employees

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Input: Theory suggesting that money is the sole motivator for workers [Human Relations]

Output: Classical Theory of Motivation

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Input: A theory that arranges the five basic needs of people--physiological, security, social, esteem, and self-actualization--into the order in which people strive to satisfy them [Human Relations]

Output: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

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Input: The most basic human needs to be satisfied--water, food, shelter, and clothing [Human Relations]

Output: Pysiological needs

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Input: The need to protect oneself from physical and economic harm [Human Relations]

Output: Security needs

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The need for love, companionship, and friendship--the desire for acceptance [Human Relations]

Output: Social needs

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Input: The need for respect--both self-respect and respect from others [Human Relations]

Output: Esteem needs

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Input: The need to be the best one can be; at the top of Maslow's hierarchy [Human Relations]

Output: Self-Actualization

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Input: Aspects of Herzberg's theory of motivation that focus on the work setting and not the content of the work; these aspects include adequate wages, comfortable and safe working conditions, fair company policies, and job security [Human Relations]

Output: Hygiene Factors

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Input: Aspects of Herzberg's theory of motivation that focus on the content of the work itself; these aspects include achievement, recognition, involvement, resonsibility, and advancement. [Human Relations]

Output: Motivational Factors

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: McGregor's traditional view of management whereby it is assumed that workers generally dislike work and must be forced to do their jobs [Human Relations]

Output: Theory X

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: McGregor's humanistic view of management whereby it is assumed that worker's like to work and that under proper conditions employees will seek out responsibility in an attempt to satisfy their social, esteem, and self-actualization needs [Human Relations]

Output: Theory Y

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A management philosophy that stresses employee participation in all aspects of company decision making [Human Relations]

Output: Theory Z

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An assumption that how much people are willing to contribute to an organization depends on their assessment of the fairness, or equity, of the rewards they will receive in exchange [Human Relations]

Output: Equity Theory

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The assumption that motivation depends not only on how much a person wants something but also on that person's perception on how likely he or she is to get it [Human Relations]

Output: Expectancy Theory

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Changing behavior and encouraging appropriate actions by relating the consequences of behavior to the behavior itself [Human Relations]

Output: Behavior modification

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Movement of employees from one job to another in an effort to relieve the boredom often associated with job specialization [Human Relations]

Output: Job Rotation

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The addition of more tasks to a job instead of treating each task as seperate [Human Relations]

Output: Job enlargement

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The incorporation of motivational factors, such as opportunity for achievement, recognition, responsibility, and advancement, into a job [Human Relations]

Output: Job enrichment

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A program that allows employees to choose their starting and ending times, provided that they are at work during a specified core period [Human Relations]

Output: Flextime

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A four-day (or shorter) period during which an employee works 40 hours [Human Relations]

Output: Compressed workweek

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Performance of one full-time job by two people on part-time hours [Human Relations]

Output: Job sharing

BUS 170 Chapter 10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The family of a 78-year old patient complains to the nurse that the patient is up and wandering around the house all hours of the night and is disturbing everyone's sleep. Which response should the nurse use initially?

Output: "What does he do during the day?"

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Based on the goals of Healthy People 2010, a nurse focuses on the health screening for which group?

Output: Young African Americans are screened for HTN.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which part of a functional assessment can be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel?

Output: vital signs

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which statement best teaches an older adult about safety issues related to driving?

Output: Turn the head to side to side to compensate for peripheral vision.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A nurse is screening healthy adolescents for health risks. Which factor should be included in this screening?

Output: suicide

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: a 49-year old divorced female is in the clinic for a routine PE. Which statement indicates the need for further screening during the examination?

Output: "I do not use protection since I have gone through menopause."

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: An 89-year old patient states, "I live alone and I have little money. On sunny days, I don't use my AC. I don't like to get a flu shot." What nursing Dx would be priority when using Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Output: ineffective thermoregulation

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: An 80-year old patient has a neuromuscular impairment with very little fine motor improvement. Which nursing Dx is priority for this patient?

Output: self-care deficit: dressing

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which activity should a nurse suggest to a mother of a 2-1/2 year-old child?

Output: jumping using both feet

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which instructions would a nurse provide to a mother to instruct how to do a cooling sponge bath for her 5-year daughter whom has a fever of 102?

Output: "Discontinue the sponge bath if the child shivers during the bath."

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient expresses interest in mind-body therapies to increase the release of insulin from the pancreas to improve his diabetes. Which therapy would the nurse recommend?

Output: yoga

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: For which patient would a back massage as a comfort measure be most appropriate?

Output: patient who is experience sleeping difficulty

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: An adult patient reports not sleeping well at night. Which instruction should the nurse provide the patient to promote restful sleep?

Output: Limit alcohol intake in the evening.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient is experiencing a pulsating sensation in relation to a noxious stimulus. Which nursing Dx is appropriate for this patient?

Output: impaired comfort

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which self-healing methods should nurses use to foster their own health and well-being?

Output: Challenge the belief that others always come first.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a patient with diabetes who asks about the application of an ice pack for chronic knee discomfort?

Output: "You are at risk for not being able to feel the temperature of a cold pack, which could cause tissue damage."

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which nursing action would create a healing environment that would best facilitate feelings of self-worth in patients in a LTC facility?

Output: teachin patients about making health care decisions

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which nursing action best promotes warmth and sleep for an older adult patient?

Output: Use flannel sheets on the bed.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A CNA is giving hygiene care to an older African American who has impaired comfort related to itching skin, The CNA asks what can be done to help this patient. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

Output: Apply a lanolin-based lotion.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an NSAID. The nurse should give priority to which nursing Dx?

Output: risk for injury related to GI irritation

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient is receiving MSO4 via PCA pump. The patient states, "I've been pushing the button and I still have pain." The nurse should take which initial action?

Output: Check to ensure that the pump is properly programmed.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: The nurse assesses a patient who reports experiencing intermittent pain for the past two months. Which clinical Euphoria manifestation will be present?

Output: decreased appetite

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: The nurse teaches the family of a patient who is being cared for at home how to manage the patient's pain. Which finding would best indicate that the nurse's teaching was sucessful?

Output: The patient indicates satisfaction with pain control options.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: The nurse is planning home care for a patient with chronic pain related to degeneration of the vertebrae. Which assessment is a priority?

Output: how the pain affects self-care abilities

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: How does a TENS unit relieve pain?

Output: blocks small nerve fibers by stimulating large ones

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which assessment of a 4-year old with severe abdominal pain will provide objective info as to the exact location of the pain?

Output: Have the patient point to where the pain is felt.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient is receiving a narcotic analgesic via an epidural catheter. Which clinical manifestation indicates a possible side effect of this therapy?

Output: urinary retention

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Using a back rub to reduce pain intensity is based on which theory?

Output: gate control

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which statement reflects an unbiased understanding of pain?

Output: Euphoria is an expected side effect of proper analgesic control.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient with chronic illness has developed complications. Which factor is important for the nurse to assess?

Output: the patient's efforts to manage the chronic illness

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which nursing action is a priority when caring for a patient with a chronic disease?

Output: provide supportive assistance for management of care

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which data supports the nursing Dx of altered growth and development related to chronic illness?

Output: The parent plans the daily activity schedule of a 13-year old.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: A patient with chronic illness says to the nurse, "You know I'm not sick now, I feel better each day." How should the nurse interpret the patient's statement? Patients who respond this way

Output: see themselves as sick when the illness interferes with their daily functioning

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which nursing action assures that a caregiver safely administers medications through a PEG tube?

Output: Flush tube with clear water between administrations of medications.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which clinical manifestation in a patient with CF causes the greatest disruption in the adolescent's ability to successfully attain Erikson's stage of identity vs. role confusion?

Output: chronic cough

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: The nurse provides care for a patient who has just been placed in an extended care facility. The pt is A&O and able to do limited self-care. Which pt attribute would be most likely to contribute positively to the pt's adaption to loss of independence?

Output: an active and strong spirituality

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which statement by a pt regarding advanced directives indicates that the pt understands their use?

Output: "If I have a stroke, I do not want CPR or a ventilator, so I signed an advanced directive."

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: During a home visit, the nurse notices that the pt is lying in a urine-soaked bed and areas of inflammation appear on the pt's buttocks and elbows. The caregiver appears tired and states that they are doing their best for the pt, but they are just overwhelmed. What would be the appropriate intervention?

Output: Suggest respite care for the pt.

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Which statement made by the pt on long-term anti-coag therapy indicates that the nurse needs to provide the pt with extra info?

Output: "I use laxatives as needed to keep my stools soft."

Excelsior Chronicity Practice Exam #1 Flashcards - Cram.com

"My daughter knows the reason why I take each of my medications and I think that's okay."


Input: Ausultation [tube feeding]

Output: use of steth to indentify sound standard

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Obese women [tube feeding]

Output: more likely to under report food intake

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Type of preferred enteral feeding [tube feeding]

Output: Oral

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: five [tube feeding]

Output: % of unexplained wt. loss during 1mouth period that is a concern

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Appropriate age to measure height of children while they are lying down [tube feeding]

Output: up to two

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: # of days that may result in complications for a client if bedfast [tube feeding]

Output: three

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Function of a lab test that measures lymphocyte count [tube feeding]

Output: determine immune status

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Foods found on a clear liquid diet [tube feeding]

Output: apple juice and broth

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Test used to measure protein metabolism [tube feeding]

Output: Urine creatinine

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Ways a therapeutic diet may be modified [tube feeding]

Output: nutrient energy and texture

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A measurement used to determine a person's body frame [tube feeding]

Output: elbow breath

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Foods found on a full liquid diet [tube feeding]

Output: pudding and refined cereal

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Example associated with good nutritional status [tube feeding]

Output: firm muscle tone

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Dietician [tube feeding]

Output: Health care professional responsible for nutrition diagnoses

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Purpose of a 24-hour urine test [tube feeding]

Output: access metabolism of protein

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: First step in the nutrition care process [tube feeding]

Output: nutrition assessment

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Measurement to assess body height of a non-ambulatory patient [tube feeding]

Output: total arm length

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: nutrition screening [tube feeding]

Output: Important to complete to identify which patients should receive a full nutrition assessment

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: diet match to clients food preferences [tube feeding]

Output: Important factor that help to make nutritional therapy successful

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Tricep skin fold thickness [tube feeding]

Output: Anthropometric measure that estimates subcutaneous fat reserves

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: One method to determine a person's basic eating habits [tube feeding]

Output: Diet HX

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Method of feeding needed if GI tract is NOTt working [tube feeding]

Output: paraenteral

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Purpose of a urinary urea nitrogen laboratory test [tube feeding]

Output: measure nitrogen balance

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Foods found on a soft diet [tube feeding]

Output: cooked carrots applsauce

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Iatrogenic [tube feeding]

Output: type of malnutrition that may be caused by hospital routines

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: caliper [tube feeding]

Output: Instrument used to measure elbow breadth

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: dehydration [tube feeding]

Output: factor that may make laboratory tests unreliable

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Science of taking body measurements [tube feeding]

Output: Anthropometric indexes

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Pharmacist [tube feeding]

Output: Health professional responsible for preparing total parenteral nutrition solutions

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Palpatation [tube feeding]

Output: Examination method of body using touch

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Total parenteral nutrition [tube feeding]

Output: Type of parenteral feeding that is used for a long-term basis

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Kyphosis [tube feeding]

Output: May make standing height measurement inaccurate

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Role that register nurse can assume in supporting clients' nutrition care [tube feeding]

Output: providing basic interpetation of diet

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Height and weight [tube feeding]

Output: Measurements used to measure a person's Body Mass Index

Nutrition ass chpt 16 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Business Finance] Chief Financial Officer

Output: The top financial officer.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Treasurer

Output: Person in charge of cash management and capital expenditures.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Capital budgeting

Output: Process of managing a firm's long-term investments.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Capital structure

Output: Amount of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Working capital

Output: Short-term assets and liabilities.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Working capital management

Output: Management of a firm's cash, inventory, and payables.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Sole proprietorship

Output: Business owned by a single individual.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Partnership agreement

Output: Document that specifies how net profits and losses are to be divided among two or more owners.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Corporation

Output: Business entity that is treated as a legal person.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Articles of incorporation

Output: The legal papers which designate a firm's name, nature of business, and intended life.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Bylaws

Output: The rules which outline how a corporation will regulate itself.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Limited Liability Company

Output: Cross between a partnership and a corporation.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Agency problem

Output: Potential problem between a firm's owners and managers.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Stakeholders

Output: Anyone other than stockholders that might have a claim on the cash flow of a firm.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Primary market

Output: Original sale of securities by the issuer.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Secondary market

Output: The market for trading securities after the original sale.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Public offering

Output: The sale of securities to the general public by the issuer.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Private placement

Output: A negotiated sale of securities by an issuer to a specific buyer.

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: [Business Finance] Dealer markets

Output: Over-the-counter markets

Means by which a manager can determine which investments to pursue, how to pay for them, and how to manage daily finances.


Input: Bones Muscles Dermis

Output: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the paraxial mesoderm (somites)?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Bones

Output: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the lateral plate mesoderm?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cartilage Bone Dermis Pia arachnoid Neuroness Mesenchyme of the teeth

Output: What mature tissues of the face are formed from the neural crest?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Neural crest: front Mesoderm: back

Output: Generally, where are the neural crest derivatives on the face? The mesoderm derivatives?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Laryngeals

Output: What bone of the face is derived from the lateral plate mesoderm?


Input: Parietal Petro Occipitals Hyoids

Output: What bones of the face are formed from the paraxila mesoderm?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Intramembranous

Output: What is the mechanism of bone formatino in the face?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: NO! You need to get through the birth canal The brain needs to be able to grow!

Output: Are the bones of the skull fused at birth? Why or why not?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 4 3

Output: How many bones fuse to form the anterior fontanelle? Posterior?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A bulging anterior fontanelle

Output: If there is an increase in intracranial pressure, what will be observed on the head of an infant?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: BMP NOggin

Output: What genes are involved in cranial fusion?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Bulging anterior fontanelle Premature fusion of the coronal sutures

Output: What is the presentation of Apert syndrome? What is the cause?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Premature fusion of the skull Lack of noggin due to a mutation in FGFR2 causing abnormal repression. FGF activates FGFR2, which inhibits Noggin. Normally Noggin inhibits skull fusion, but if it is not present you can't get everything back together

Output: What is cranisynostosis? What is the cause?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Maxillary arch Mandibular arch

Output: What arches are the derivatives of the original branchial arch?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Frontonasal prominence

Output: What structure gives rise to the medial and lateral nasal processes?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Maxillary prominence Lateral nasal prominence

Output: What two prominences fuse to give the nasolacrimal groove and duct?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Forehead Bridge of nose

Output: The frontonasal prominence forms what structure?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Philtrum (The shallow groove running down the center of the outer surface of the upper lip) Nose

Output: The medial nasal prominence forms what structure?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Alae of nose (lateral part)

Output: The lateral nasal prominence forms what structure?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cheeks Lateral, upper lip

Output: The maxillary prominence forms what structure?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Lower lip

Output: The mandibular prominence forms what structure?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Output: What pharyngeal arch forms the muscles of the face?


Input: Medial nasal processes

Output: What prominces fuse to form the primary palate and upper incisors?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Lateral palatine processes Maxillary prominences

Output: What processes fuse to form the secondary palate? Where is the origin of these processes?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Syndromic: single gene mutations Non-syndromic: genetically complex, environmentally caused factors

Output: What is the difference between syndromic and nonsyndromic CL/P or CP?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Anterior 2/3: arch 1. Sensation via V3, taste via VII Posterior 1/3: arches 3, 4. Taste and sensation via IX. Extreme end via X

Output: What branchial arches form the tongue? What nerves perform which functions?

Embryology of the face, pharynx Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the esophageal hiatus? [Esophagus]

Output: the inferior region of the esophagus connects to the stomach by passing through an opening in the diaphragm (responsible for acid reflex)

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Where does the esophagus terminate? [Esophagus]

Output: in the abdomen

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a bolus in the esophagus can cause what to happen? [Esophagus]

Output: cause anterior bulging of the trachealis muscle into the trachea

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is at the superior end of the esophagus? [Esophagus]

Output: superior esophageal sphincter

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What are the 2 sphincters associated with the esophagus? [Esophagus]

Output: upper and lower esophageal sphincter

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: During the inhalation of air, what closes in the esophagus? [Esophagus]

Output: superior esophageal sphincter

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What acts as a strong support to prevent materials from regurgitating from the stomach into the esophagus? [Esophagus]

Output: The esophageal opening fo the diaphragm

Digestie System #1 Flashcards - Cram.com