Input: A rural settlement pattern characterized by isolated farms rather than clustered villages. [Basic Industries]

Output: Dispersed Rural Settlement

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A community's collection of basic industries. [Basic Industries]

Output: Economic Base

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The process of consolidating small landholdings into a smaller number of larger farms in England during the Eighteenth Century. [Basic Industries]

Output: Enclosure Movement

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A model that holds that the potential use of a service at a particular location is directly related to the number of people in a location and inversely related to the distance people must travel to reach the service. [Basic Industries]

Output: Gravity Model

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The area surrounding a central place from which people are attracted to use the place's good and services. [Basic Industries]

Output: Market Area (Or Hinterland)

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Industries that sell their products or services primarily to consumers in the community. [Basic Industries]

Output: Nonbasic Industries

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The largest settlement in a country, if it has more than twice as many people as the second-ranking settlement. [Basic Industries]

Output: Primate City

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A pattern of settlements in a country such that the largest settlement has more than twice as many people as the second-ranking settlement. [Basic Industries]

Output: Primate City Rule

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Services offered by the government to provide security and protection for citizens and businesses. [Basic Industries]

Output: Public Services

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The maximum distance people are willing to travel to use a service. [Basic Industries]

Output: Range (of a Service)

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A pattern of settlements in a country, such that the nth largest settlement is 1/n the population of the largest settlement. [Basic Industries]

Output: Rank-Size Rule

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Any activity that fulfills a human want or need and returns money to those who provide it. [Basic Industries]

Output: Service

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A permanent collection of buildings and inhabitants. [Basic Industries]

Output: Settlement

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The minimum number of people needed to support the service. [Basic Industries]

Output: Threshold

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An increase in the percentage of the number of people living in urban settlements. [Basic Industries]

Output: Urbanization

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In the United States, a central city plus its contiguous built-up suburbs. [Basic Industries]

Output: Urbanized Area

Cultural Geography Chapter 12 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] asana [2]

Output: special, symbolic posture, seated or standing, used in yoga and in the representation of the gods

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] attribute [2]

Output: an object or physical characteristic used as an identifying symbol

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] avatar [2]

Output: appearance of a deity in another form

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] circumambulate [2]

Output: to walk around (something) in a complete circle, as a ritual of respect

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] consort [2]

Output: the spouse of a deity

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] dharma [2]

Output: law; religious moral or duty

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] discus [2]

Output: a round disk thrown as a weapon in ancient India; attribute of Vishnu

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] garbagriha [2]

Output: "womb chamber" the inner, shrine of a Hindu temple

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] incarnation [2]

Output: "to be made flesh;" that is, to be born into the world

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] karma [2]

Output: the total actions in a person's life that determine the next state of existence

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] linga [2]

Output: symbol of creativity and fertility in the form of the male sexual organ

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] mace [2]

Output: a heavy club used as a weapon and symbol of authority; attribute of Vishnu

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] moksha [2]

Output: "release" or "liberation" of the soul from reincarnation and its union with the Divine; the goal of Hinduism

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] mudra [2]

Output: symbolic hand position

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] naga [2]

Output: serpent

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] prana [2]

Output: the breath of life; the vital breathe or spirit

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] reincarnation [2]

Output: to be born again as another form of life or into another class of human society

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] shaivite [2]

Output: worshiper of Shiva; having to do with the worship of Shiva

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] shaakta [2]

Output: worshiper of Shakti, the Goddess

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] shakti [2]

Output: the Goddess; female energy and power of a deity, often represented as a goddess beside Shiva with the two representing the female and male principles of the universe

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] shikara [2]

Output: dome-like cap to the pyramidal tower of a South Indian Hindu temple or the entire tower of a North Indian temple

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] transmigration [2]

Output: the passing of a soul at death into another body

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] trident [2]

Output: a three-pronged spear; attribute of Shiva

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] vaishnavite [2]

Output: worshiper of Vishnu, having to do with the worship of Vishnu

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] vedas [2]

Output: the four religious books of sacred knowledge and priestly rituals of the Brahmans composed in the first millennium B.C.E.

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] vehicle [2]

Output: animal mount of a deity which identifies the god or goddess

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] yoni [2]

Output: symbol of creativity and fertility in the form of the female sex organ

Art History Hinduism Terms Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: To take charge of this post and all Government property in view.

Output: What is the first General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on alert and observing everything that takes place within sight and sound.

Output: What is the second General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce.

Output: What is the third General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guardhouse than my own.

Output: What is the fourth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To quit my post only when properly relieved.

Output: What is the fifth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me all orders from the commanding officer, the command duty officer, officer of the day, and officers and noncommissioned officers of the guard only.

Output: What is the sixth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To talk to no one except in the line of duty.

Output: What is the seventh General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.

Output: What is the eighth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To call the corporal of the guard in any case not covered by instructions.

Output: What is the ninth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To salute all officers, and colors, and standards not cased.

Output: What is the tenth General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: To be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenging challenge all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority.

Output: What is the eleventh General Order?

FMF PQS 2012 107 Security Fundamentals Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three duties of the interior guard?


Input: [Global Configuration] No enable secret has been set

Output: You are able to Telnet into a router but are denied access to Privileged EXEC mode. What could cause this behavior?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] show ip ospf database

Output: Which command displays the OSPF topology database for a router?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] TPC

Output: Which of the following enhancements to the 5GHz WLAN radio technology pertains specifically to "right-sizing" power levels to maximize battery life and minimize interference among components?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] IEEE 802.1Q

Output: Which of the following is the essential protocol choice for VLAN identification among switches in a mixed-vendor environment?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] Allows dynamic VLAN-to-switch port assignment

Output: What does a VLAN Management Policy Server (VMPS) do?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] fragmentfree and modified cutthrough are the same and read the first 64 bytes of a frame before forwarding. Fast forward is cut-through.

Output: What are FragmentFree, Modified cut-through, and fast forward switch types?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] CDP

Output: Which protocol allows you to easily identify neighbor devices without establishing Layer 3 protocol support?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] Access router

Output: In a typical WAN circuit, which of the following would be considered to be the CPE?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] 802.2, LLC Logical Link Control

Output: Name an IEEE specification that corresponds to the highest sublayer of the OSI Model's Data Link layer?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] Router(config-std-nacl)# (there's also a config-ext-nacl)

Output: At which prompt would you configure a standard named access list?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] Frame relay is a connection-oriented protocol, Ethernet is a connectionless protocol

Output: Is Frame Relay connectionless? How about Ethernet?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] show ip nat translations

Output: What command gives you a snapshot of the current NAT translation on your router?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: [Global Configuration] DE Discard eligible

Output: In times of congestion, which bit is set in the Frame Relay header to indicate that the frame should be discarded before any of the frames without the bit set are discarded?

Which mode must you be logged into in order to set the enable secret on a switch?


Input: A number that conveys a particular characteristic of a set of data. [dependent variable]

Output: descriptive statistic


Input: The study or theory of the nature of knowledge. [dependent variable]

Output: epistemology


Input: Variable other than the independent variable that may affect the dependent variable. [dependent variable]

Output: extraneous variable


Input: Variable controlled by the researcher; changes in this variable may produce changes in the dependent variable. [dependent variable]

Output: independent variable


Input: Method of reaching conclusions about unmeasurable populations that uses sample evidence and probability. [dependent variable]

Output: inferential statistics


Input: Measurement scale in which equal differences between numbers represent equal differences in the thing measured. The zero point is arbitrarily defined. [dependent variable]

Output: interval scale


Input: One value of the independent variable. [dependent variable]

Output: level


Input: Bottom of the range of possible values that a measurement on a quantitative variable can take. [dependent variable]

Output: lower limit


Input: Arithmetic average; sum of scores divided by number of scores. [dependent variable]

Output: mean


Input: Measurement scale in which numbers serve only as labels and do not indicate any quantitative relationship. [dependent variable]

Output: nominal scale


Input: Measurement scale in which numbers are ranks; equal differences between numbers do not represent equal differences between the things measured. [dependent variable]

Output: ordinal scale


Input: Numerical or nominal characteristic of a population. [dependent variable]

Output: parameter


Input: All measurements of a specified group. [dependent variable]

Output: population


Input: Variable whose levels are different kinds, not different amounts. [dependent variable]

Output: qualitative variable


Input: Variable whose levels indicate different amounts. [dependent variable]

Output: quantitative variable


Input: Measurement scale with characteristics of interval scale; plus zero means that none of the things measured is present. [dependent variable]

Output: ratio scale


Input: A subset of a population that may or may not be representative. [dependent variable]

Output: sample


Input: A numerical or nominal characteristic of a sample. [dependent variable]

Output: statistic


Input: One value (or level) of the independent variable. [dependent variable]

Output: treatment


Input: The top of the range of possible values that a measurement on a quantitative variable can take. [dependent variable]

Output: upper limit


Input: Something that exists in more than one amount or in more than one form. [dependent variable]

Output: variable


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is anti-lock braking system? (ABS)

Output: allows the driver to stop without brake lockup. Standard equipment in many newer vehicles. Designed to be used by applying steady pressure on thebrake pedal.

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is an all-terrain vehicle (ATV)

Output: Any motor vehicle designed to travel over any terrain, of a type possessing three to six rubber tires, and powered by a gasoline engine not exceeding 600 cubic centimeters and is used exclusively for off-highway use.

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is a Blind Spot?

Output: The areas at the left and right corner of the car that the driver can not see in the rearview mirror

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is BAC(Blood alcohol concentration)

Output: The percent of alcohol in a person's blood. Im MO it is illegal to operate a motor vehicle when the BAC is 0.08% or more for a person who is age 21 or over; and 0.020% or more for a person who is under age 21

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is a bypass

Output: a road used for going around or passing an area

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] what is an controlled intersection

Output: and intersection where traffic is regulated by traffic signs or signal lights

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] what is daytime running lamps

Output: upper beam headlights that go on automatically when the vehicle is running. This is a feature of many newer vehicles

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] what is deceleration lane?

Output: An extra driving lane on the side of a highspeed highway to permit vehicles to slow down before exiting

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] what is defense driving

Output: being careful to prevent accidents, in spite of incorrect actions of others or bad driving conditions

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is a driver improvement program?

Output: a required course of study for certain drivers who have shown cause that their driving skills are not acceptable. The course must meet or exceed the standards of the National Safety Council's eight-hour "Defensive Driving Course"

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is a DUI (Driver under the influence)

Output: Driving when your senses and jumpment are impaired by alcohol or other drugs

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] What is an edorsement?

Output: A code used on a driver license of permit to show that you are also qualified to operate other types of vehicles(such as a motorcycle). Two example of commercial driver license endorsements are P (passenger vehicle) and H (hazardous materials)

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Financial Responsibility

Output: A driver's (or car owner's) ability to pay for damage caused byan accident when he or she is at fault. It is usually in the form of liability insurance

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Freeway

Output: a high speed divided highway without intersections

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Highway

Output: any publicly maintained roadway that is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular travel

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Hydroplaning

Output: a driving condition where the tires lose traction on a wet road, and float on a layer of water or slush

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Impairment

Output: physical and/or mental condition that can reduce the ability to operate a motor vehicle safely.

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] Implied consent

Output: under this law, a driver (by driving) automatically agrees to take a test to measure blood alcohol concentration when stopped (under 21 years old) under arrest (age 21 and over) and suspected of driving under the influence

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] interchange

Output: the junction of two or more highways where turnoffs allow you to join or cross traffic

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] interstate system

Output: a national network of over 41,000 miles of limited access highways set by congress

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] mandatory sentences

Output: these are penalties set by law for certain driving offenses and, if convicted, the penalties must be carried out.

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] median

Output: a strip of land separating traffic going inopposite directions

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] merging traffic

Output: traffic from 2 separate lanes combining into one

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] no zone

Output: blind spots or danger areas, particularly around large trucks, where crashes may occur

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] reinstatement

Output: the return of driving privilege after it has been suspended/revoked/denied, after all reinstatement requirements are met by the driver

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] right of way

Output: the privilege of the immediate use of the highway. pedestrians always have the right of way. At uncontrolled intersections, the vehicle to the left shall yield the right of way to the vehicle approaching from the right.

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [What is an air bag?] shoulder

Output: the portion of the highway for emergencey use but not intended for travel

Supplemental restraint systems that are standard equipment in many newer vehicles to protect vehicle occupants during collisions. Designed to be used with seat belt.


Input: [1] A numerical representation of information is a [2]

Output: Statistic

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Weight is an example of this type of variable [2]

Output: Continuous

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] List 2 types of quantitative variables [2]

Output: Discrete, continuous

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These variables can not be directly measured, but are inferred [2]

Output: Latent

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These variables can be observed and directly measured [2]

Output: Observable

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These variables are numeric in nature [2]

Output: Quantitative

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These variables are nonnumeric in nature [2]

Output: Qualitative

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These numeric variables measure "how many" -- they cannot be subdivided [2]

Output: Discrete

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] These numeric variable measure "how much" [2]

Output: Continuous

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] List 4 scales of measurement [2]

Output: Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, Ratio

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This type of scale of measurement has discrete, qualitative variables [2]

Output: Nominal

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This scale of measurement has qualities including magnitude, equal intervals, and absolute 0 [2]

Output: Ratio

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This scale of measurement has qualities including magnitude and equal intervals [2]

Output: Interval

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This scale of measurement only has the quality of magnitude [2]

Output: Ordinal

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This scale of measurement has no special qualities, but includes things like names or lists of words. [2]

Output: Nominal

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A Likert scale or rank ordered scale is an example of this type of scale of measurement [2]

Output: Ordinal

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Temperature is an example of this type of scale of measurement [2]

Output: Interval

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Age, height, and weight scales are examples of this type of scale of measurement [2]

Output: Ratio

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] You can multiply or divide items on this type of scale of measurement [2]

Output: Ratio

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] You can add and subtract items on this type of scale of measurement, but cannot multiply or divide [2]

Output: Interval

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] List 4 general ways in which researchers and test developers describe statistics [2]

Output: Frequency, Central Tendency, Variability, Relationships

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This is a way to show a disorganized set of scores and place them in order, showing how many (people) obtained each of the scores [2]

Output: Frequency Distribution

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This type of graph uses vertical lines and bars to portray the distribution of test scores. [2]

Output: Histogram

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This variation of a histogram replaces bars with lines connecting the midpoint of each class interval. [2]

Output: Frequency Polygon

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This graph gives us a better idea of the shape of the distribution as well as the frequency of scores [2]

Output: Smoothed Frequency Polygon (or frequency curve)

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A frequency curve (smoothed frequency polygon) that is not symmetrical is called a [2]

Output: Skewed curve

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In this skewed curve, the majority of data falls on the lower end of the scale [2]

Output: Positively skewed curve

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In this skewed curve, the majority of data falls on the upper end of the scale [2]

Output: Negatively skewed curve

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Three common measures of central tendency are the [2]

Output: Mean, Median, Mode

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The average score in a distribution is referred to as the [2]

Output: Mean

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Given these numbers, calculate the mean, median, and mode: 78,85,86,90,98,100,100,102,110,115,142,146,165 [2]

Output: Mean = 109 Median = 100 Mode = 100

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In descriptive statistics, this type of central tendency has two modes [2]

Output: Bi-modal

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This measure of central tendency is the middle score, or the score that divides the distribution in half [2]

Output: Median

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] For symmetrical distributions, these 3 measures of central tendency are equal [2]

Output: Mean Median Mode

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In central tendency measures, this is the score that appears most frequently [2]

Output: Mode

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Calculate the range of these numbers: 1,2,2,3,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,40 [2]

Output: 39

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Range is an example of the measurement of these types of descriptive statistics [2]

Output: Variability

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This measure describes the average distance of test scores from the mean [2]

Output: Standard deviation

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This curve has the following properties: *bell shaped, *bilaterally symmetrical, *mean, median and mode are equal to each other *Asymptotic tails *Unimodal *100% of the scores fall between -3 and +3 standard deviations from the mean [2]

Output: Normal Curve (aka normal distribution or bell curve)

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] 68% of a population within a normal curve falls between what standard deviations [2]

Output: -1 and +1 standard deviations

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This measure of relationship indicates that two variables move in the same direction [2]

Output: Positive correlation

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This measure of relationship indicates that two variables move in opposite directions [2]

Output: Negative correlation

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A complete absence of a relationship between 2 variables is indicated by this number [2]

Output: 0

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A perfect positive relationship between two variables has this correlation coefficient [2]

Output: +1

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A perfect negative relationship between two variables has this correlation coefficient [2]

Output: -1

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The number of violent crimes committed is strongly positively correlated with the number of ice cream sales at a given time. Does this mean that one causes the other? [2]

Output: No. Correlation does not mean causation.

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Linear relationships between two continuous variables are measured using this type of correlation coefficient [2]

Output: Pearson Product Moment Correlation (r)

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A variant of Pearson's r used for finding the association between two ordinal variables and does not require a linear relationship between variables is [2]

Output: Spearman's Rho (r)

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Likert scales often use this type of correlation coefficient measure [2]

Output: Spearman's Rho (r)

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The degree of association between two nominal variables is assessed by this correlation coefficient measure [2]

Output: Phi Coefficient

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This is used to assess the size and direction of a relationship between variables [2]

Output: Correlation

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This statistical method is used in the analysis of relationships among variables for predictive purposes [2]

Output: Regression

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In measurements of relationship, this is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another single variable [2]

Output: Simple linear regression

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] In measurements of relationship, this is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of two or more independent variables [2]

Output: Multiple regression

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] This analyzes the relationship among variables for purposes of reducing the number of necessary variables [2]

Output: Factor Analysis

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Creat demographic questionnaire for study with 5 questions/statements including: 2 nominal, 1 ratio, 1 ordinal, and 1 interval scale. Identify each type. [2]

Output: Nominal: Relationship Status, Gender Ordinal: Rate your interest in taking this test on a scale from 1 to 5 . . . Interval: What was your temperature in Fahrenheit degrees on your last doctor's visit Ratio: What is your current weight

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Difference between regression, factor analysis, and spearman's rho. Explain how you would determine which analysis to conduct and provide an example of each. [2]

Output: The all are measurement methods involving relationships between variables, however they are used for different purposes. Regression measures correlation strength and direction of a relationship between variables. There are different types of regression (Simple linear and Multiple Regression) analysis; all are used for predictive purposes. (example - if there is a strong positive correlation between IQ and grades, I could take one of the two variables and figure out the other (dependent) variable based on that. Spearman's Rho is a way to calculate the correlation coefficient (used in regression). It is used to find the relationship between ordinal variables and doesn't require a linear relationship between the variables. You would use Spearman's Rho to figure out if a correlation between 2 ordinal variables exists. Factor Analysis is used to simplify variables. You would use it to reduce the number of questions necessary on a given test while still yielding accurate results.

Tests and Appraisals in Counseling Midterm: Chapter 3 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: allows the driver to stop without brake lockup. Standard equipment in many newer vehicles. Designed to be used by applying steady pressure on thebrake pedal. [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is anti-lock braking system? (ABS)


Input: Any motor vehicle designed to travel over any terrain, of a type possessing three to six rubber tires, and powered by a gasoline engine not exceeding 600 cubic centimeters and is used exclusively for off-highway use. [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is an all-terrain vehicle (ATV)


Input: The areas at the left and right corner of the car that the driver can not see in the rearview mirror [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is a Blind Spot?


Input: The percent of alcohol in a person's blood. Im MO it is illegal to operate a motor vehicle when the BAC is 0.08% or more for a person who is age 21 or over; and 0.020% or more for a person who is under age 21 [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is BAC(Blood alcohol concentration)


Input: a road used for going around or passing an area [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is a bypass


Input: and intersection where traffic is regulated by traffic signs or signal lights [What is an air bag?]

Output: what is an controlled intersection


Input: upper beam headlights that go on automatically when the vehicle is running. This is a feature of many newer vehicles [What is an air bag?]

Output: what is daytime running lamps


Input: An extra driving lane on the side of a highspeed highway to permit vehicles to slow down before exiting [What is an air bag?]

Output: what is deceleration lane?


Input: being careful to prevent accidents, in spite of incorrect actions of others or bad driving conditions [What is an air bag?]

Output: what is defense driving


Input: a required course of study for certain drivers who have shown cause that their driving skills are not acceptable. The course must meet or exceed the standards of the National Safety Council's eight-hour "Defensive Driving Course" [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is a driver improvement program?


Input: Driving when your senses and jumpment are impaired by alcohol or other drugs [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is a DUI (Driver under the influence)


Input: A code used on a driver license of permit to show that you are also qualified to operate other types of vehicles(such as a motorcycle). Two example of commercial driver license endorsements are P (passenger vehicle) and H (hazardous materials) [What is an air bag?]

Output: What is an edorsement?


Input: A driver's (or car owner's) ability to pay for damage caused byan accident when he or she is at fault. It is usually in the form of liability insurance [What is an air bag?]

Output: Financial Responsibility


Input: a high speed divided highway without intersections [What is an air bag?]

Output: Freeway


Input: any publicly maintained roadway that is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular travel [What is an air bag?]

Output: Highway


Input: a driving condition where the tires lose traction on a wet road, and float on a layer of water or slush [What is an air bag?]

Output: Hydroplaning


Input: physical and/or mental condition that can reduce the ability to operate a motor vehicle safely. [What is an air bag?]

Output: Impairment


Input: under this law, a driver (by driving) automatically agrees to take a test to measure blood alcohol concentration when stopped (under 21 years old) under arrest (age 21 and over) and suspected of driving under the influence [What is an air bag?]

Output: Implied consent


Input: the junction of two or more highways where turnoffs allow you to join or cross traffic [What is an air bag?]

Output: interchange


Input: a national network of over 41,000 miles of limited access highways set by congress [What is an air bag?]

Output: interstate system


Input: these are penalties set by law for certain driving offenses and, if convicted, the penalties must be carried out. [What is an air bag?]

Output: mandatory sentences


Input: a strip of land separating traffic going inopposite directions [What is an air bag?]

Output: median


Input: traffic from 2 separate lanes combining into one [What is an air bag?]

Output: merging traffic


Input: blind spots or danger areas, particularly around large trucks, where crashes may occur [What is an air bag?]

Output: no zone


Input: the return of driving privilege after it has been suspended/revoked/denied, after all reinstatement requirements are met by the driver [What is an air bag?]

Output: reinstatement


Input: the privilege of the immediate use of the highway. pedestrians always have the right of way. At uncontrolled intersections, the vehicle to the left shall yield the right of way to the vehicle approaching from the right. [What is an air bag?]

Output: right of way


Input: the portion of the highway for emergencey use but not intended for travel [What is an air bag?]

Output: shoulder


Input: The Corporation becomes liable on a promoter's pre-incorporation contract when the corporation ADOPTS the contract by: (1) Express board of directors resolution; OR (2) Implied adoption through knowledge of the prior contract and acceptance of its benefits (Same as ratification in agency) [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Corporation's Liability on a promoter's Pre-incorporation Contracts?


Input: Promoter REMAINS liable on pre-incorporation contracts until there has been a NOVATION - i.e., an agreement b/w the promoter, the corporation, and the other contracting party that the corporation will replace the promoter under the contract. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Promoter's Liability on Pre-incorporation Contracts?


Input: The promoter ALONE is liable on this contract. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What happens if the promoter enters into a contract, and the corporation is never formed?


Input: Promoters are fiduciaries with each other and corporation. - Therefore, promoters cannot make a SECRET PROFITS on their dealings with the corporation. Remedies: - If promoter sold assets to corporation that promoter acquired BEFORE becoming promoter: - Profit recoverable only if sold for MORE than FMV - If promoter sold assets to corporation that promoter acquired AFTER becoming promoter: - ANY profit recoverable by corporation [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are Promoter's duties? And what are the remedies?


Input: Persons or entities who make written OFFERS to buy stock from a corporation NOT YET FORMED. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Who are Subscribers?


Input: A pre-incorporation offer to buy stock in an unformed corporation is IRREVOCABLE for 6 months. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Can you revoke a subscription agreement?


Input: Incorporators must SIGN and FILE Articles of Incorporation w/ the state. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Who are the incorporators?


Input: Articles must include: (A PAIN) (a) AUTHORIZED SHARES (maximum number of shares the corporation is authroized to issue.); (b) PURPOSE; (c) AGENT and address of registered office (the agent is corps. official legal rep) (d) INCORPORATORS; and (e) NAME of corporation (must contain some indicia of corporate status). [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Basic Formation Requirements for De Jure Corporate Status?


Input: The articles of incorporation must state the corporations purpose. A general purpose and a perpetual duration are valid, and will be presumed, UNLESS there is a specific purpose statement or limited duration. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Formation Requirement of Purpose?


Input: If the Articles of Incorporation contain a specific statement of purpose. Any corporate activity beyond that purpose is ultra vires: (1) the state can enjoin the ultra vires activity; and/or (2) corporation may sue its own Directors and Officers for losses caused by the ultra vires activity. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Ultra Vires doctrine? And what are the remedies for violation?


Input: The Corporation NEED NOT adopt By-Laws. The Board has the power to adopt and amend the by-laws, unless the Articles give the power to the Shareholders. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Are By-Laws required?


Input: A business failing to acheive De Jure Corporate status nonetheless is treated as a corporation if the organizers have made a GOOD FAITH, colorable attempt to comply with corporate formalities and have no KNOWLEDGE of the lack of corporate status. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the De Facto Corporation Doctrine?


Input: (1) Corporation is a separate legal ENTITY. (2) Generally, Shareholders are not personoally liable for debts of corporation (princple of limited liability, which means shareholder only liable for the price of their stock). [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the legal significance of formation of corporation?


Input: GENERAL RULE: Shareholder not liable for the detbs of a corporation. EXCEPT: PCV to aviod fraud or unfairness. (1) Alter Ego Doctrine; OR - (i) X is a shareholder and controller; - (ii) Comingle Funds; OR - (iii) Failure to Observe Sufficient Corporate Formalities. (2) Undercapitalization. - (i) No insurance, - (ii) At intial formation of Corp - (iii) Failure to maintain sufficient funds to cover FORESEEABLE LIABILITIES NOTE: Courts are generally more willing to PCV for a tort victim than for a contract victim. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is Piercing the Corporate Veil, and how is it done?


Input: A corporation incorporated outside the state that wishes to engage in regular intrastate business must qualify by filing a CERTIFICATE OF AUTHORITY with the state that includes all the information required in the ariticles of incorporation. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Do Foreign Corporations need to do anything specific in CA?


Input: When the corporation issues stock, it must receive PAR VALUE, which is the minimum issuance price. No par means 'no minimum issuance price' and it can be any valid consideration received if deemed appropriate by the board of directors. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What consideration must be received for the ISSUANCE of stock?


Input: Stock that was previously issued and had been reacquired by the corporation. It can then be re-sold. And does not need to follow the par-value requirements. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is Treasury Stock?


Input: Any valid consideration may be received if the board of directors values the consideration to be in GOOD FAITH worth at least par value. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Is property an acceptable consideration for stock?


Input: (1)The DIRECTORS are liable to the corporation for authorizing a below par value issuance. (2)The SHAREHOLDER is liable for one thing only, to pay full consideration for shares. (3) The corporation has the election to sue either the directors or the shareholder, but the corporation cannot recover twice. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the consequences of issuing par stock for less than par value


Input: 1. The right of an existing Shareholder to maintain her percentage of ownership by buying stock whenever there is a NEW ISSUANCE of stock for CASH. 2. PRESUMPTION: No pre-emptive Rights unless expressly granted in the articles of incorporation. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are Pre-emptive Rights?


Input: (1) Corporations MUST have a Board w/ at least one Director; (2) Shareholders elect directors; (3) Shareholders can remove a director b/f her term expires w/ or w/o cause; [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Statutory Requriements regarding Directors?


Input: (a) IN PERSON -- Unless all directors consent in writing to act w/out a meeting, a meeting is required; (b) NOTICE of directors' meetings can be set in By-laws; (c) PROXIES are NOT allowed; (d) QUORUM -- must have majority of ALL directors to take action (unless adifferent percentage is required in by-laws). (e) VOTE -- to pass resolution, however, all that is required is a majority vote of those PRESENT; (f) WRITING -- Each director is presumed to have concurred in Board action unless her dissent or abstention is recorded IN WRITING (i.e. in minutes or letter to corporate secretary). [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Statutory Requriements for a Valid Meeting of Board of Directors?


Input: (1) Directors have a Duty to MANAGE the corporation. (2) They are protected from liability by the BUSINESS JUDGMENT RULE. (3) Directors, however, are FIDUCIARIES who owe the corporation duties of CARE and LOYALTY [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Directors Duties? (Basic Outline)


Input: Directors have a duty to manage the corproation. Directors may delegate management functions to a committee of one or more directors that recommends action to the board. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Director's Duty to Manage? And can it be delegated?


Input: In managing the corporation, the directors are protected from liability by the Business Judgment Rule. The BJR is a PRESUMPTION that the directors manage the corporation in GOOD FAITH and in the best interests of the corporation and its shareholders. As such, directors will NOT be LIABLE for INNOCENT mistakes of business judgment. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Business Judgment Rule?


Input: They must act w/ the care that a PRUDENT person would use w/ regard to their own business, UNLESS the Articles have limited director liability for a breach of the duty of care. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Director's Duty of Care?


Input: A director may not receive an UNFAIR benefit to the detriment of the corporation or its shareholders, UNLESS: 1) there has been material DISCLOSURE; and 2) INDEPENDENT RATIFICATION; Unfair benefits include: (1) Self-dealing -- Director who receives an unfair benefit to herself in a transaction with her own corporation. (2) Usurping corporate opportunities -- director receives an unfair benefit by usurping for herself an opportunity which the corporation would have pursued. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Director's Duty of Loyalty? And how can it be protected?


Input: RATIFICATION: Directors may defend a claim of breach of the duty of loyalty by obtaining INDEPENDENT ratification through: (a) a majority vote of INDEPENDENT Directors; (b) Majority vote of a committee of at least 2 INDEPENDENT directors; OR (c) Majority vote of shares held by INDEPENDENT shareholders [Who are Promoters]

Output: In what ways can a director seek ratification for a duty of loyalty claim?


Input: (1) Owe same duties of care and loyalty as directors. (2) Are AGENTS of the corp. and bind the corp. by their authorized activities. (3) Corporations must have a President, Secretary, and Treasurer. (4) Directors have virtually UNLIMITED power to select officers, and may REMOVE them from office at ANY time - but the corp. will be liable for breach of contract damages. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What duties do Officers owe? Who are they? And how are they chosen?


Input: (1) Corporation may NEVER indemnify a director who is held liable to its own corporation. (2) Corporation MUST ALWAYS indemnify if the director or officer wins (3) Corporation MAY indemnify if: (Permissive Indemnity) . (a) Liability to 3rd parties or settlement w/ the corp; or . (b) Director or Officer shows they acted in Good Faith and believed conduct was in the corp.'s best interest. [Who are Promoters]

Output: May an Officer or Director seek reimbursement from the corporation for defending themselves?


Input: (1) If approved by a majority of independent directors; (2) If a committee of at least 2 independent directors approve it; (3) a majority of shares held by independent shareholders vote for it; (4) a special legal counsel recommends it (you will get it) 1-3 are just copies of the ratification defense to the breach of loyalty [Who are Promoters]

Output: Who may determine whether to grant permissive indemnity?


Input: Generally: Shareholders owe NO duty to the corporation. Exceptions: 1) Shareholder agreement - Shareholder contracts to manage a portion of corporation. . a) Will owe duties of a similar officer. 2) Close Corporations . a) Shareholders generally owe same duty to each other as that of partners. 3) Controlling Shareholders - Can be the largest shareholder by a significant amount. . a) Must refrain from using his control to take action that unfairly prejudices minority shareholders. (i.e. Selling to looters) [Who are Promoters]

Output: What duties do shareholders owe to the corporation? This was not in the lecture, but has come up in essays.


Input: (1) Derivative Suits (2) Voting (3) Examine the Books and Records (4) Dividends [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Basic Shareholder Rights? (Outline)


Input: In a derivative suit, a shareholder is suing to enforce the corporation's cause of action. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is a Derivative Suit?


Input: Two Requirements to have standing: (1) CONTEMPORANEOUS STOCK OWNERSHIP of at least one share when the claim arose and throughout the entire litigation; AND (2) MUST MAKE A DEMAND ON DIRECTORS that they cause their own corproation to bring suit and the demand must either be rejected or at least 90 days have passed since demand was made. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the requirements for bringing a derivative suit?


Input: Only the record date owners can vote. The record date owner is the holder of the stock on the record date, which is the voter eligibility date set by the board up to 70 days prior to the meeting. [Who are Promoters]

Output: Who has the right to vote at a shareholders meeting?


Input: A proxy is: (i) a WRITING (fax or email generally valid); (ii) that is SIGNED by the record shareholder; (iii) directed to SECRETARY of corp.; (iv) AUTHORIZING another to vote shares; AND (v) is VALID for only 11 months. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Shareholder voting by proxies requirements?


Input: Proxies are Freely Revocable, UNLESS BOTH: (1) they say IRREVOCABLE on them; AND (2) They are COUPLED with an interest [Who are Promoters]

Output: Can you revoke a Proxy?


Input: (1) Properly noticed SHAREHOLDER MEETING -- every corp. must have an annual meeting at which at least one director slot is open for election and the the time and place must be in notice. (2) Specially noticed SPECIAL MEETING (called by board, the president, or the holders of 10% of voting shares) -- Its to vote only on a proposal of a fundamental corp. change. Requires: . (i) They require special notice. . (ii) Notice must contain the PURPOSE of the special meeting. . - If not stated in notice, it cannot take place at the meeting and is void. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What types of Shareholders Meetings are there? What are the requirements?


Input: A quorum requires a majority of oustanding SHARES to be represented, in person or by proxy, when the meeting begins, unless otherwise provided in Articles. - Note shares not shareholders [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Quorum requirement for Shareholder Meetings?


Input: If a quorum is present, the action is approved if the votes cast in favor of the proposal exceed the votes cast against the proposal. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What percent vote is needed to pass a shareholder vote?


Input: Shareholders who own relatively few voting shares can increase their influence by agreeing to vote alike. They can do this through: (1) Voting Trusts; OR (2) Shareholder Voting Agreements. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is Pooled or Block Voting?


Input: A formal delegation of voting power to a Voting Trustee. (a) Written trust agreement; (b) Typically filed w/ corporation; (c) transfer shares to voting trustee; (d) shareholders get trust certificates; AND (e) shareholders retain all rights except voting; (f) DURATION - GENERALLY 10 YRS unless extended by agreement. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are Voting Trusts and requirements?


Input: Agreement in writing, to vote shares as required in that WRITING, and now is binding on all signors, and w/ no time limit and no filing required. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are Shareholder Voting Agreements and what are the requirements?


Input: Each shareholder can cast a number of votes equal to the number of shares they own FOR EACH OPEN SLOT - i.e. each open slot is a different election. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is traditional or Straight Voting for directors?


Input: Number of votes = #Slots x #Shares. - i.e. all slots are treated as one election in which a shareholder has a number of votes equal to their shares multiplied by the number of open slots. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is Cumulative Voting for Directors?


Input: PRESUMPTION: No right to cumulative voting unless the right is granted in the articles. [Who are Promoters]

Output: When does cumulative voting or traditional (straight) voting apply?


Input: Any shareholder shall have access upon notice and at proper times [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the rights of the Shareholders to examine the books and records of the corporation?


Input: (1) To be declared in Board's DISCRETION, unless the corporation is insolvent or would be rendered insolvent by the dividend. . (a) NOTE: This means NO shareholder RIGHT to dividends (2)Board members are liable personally for unlawful distributions, but have a defense of good faith reliance on the financial officer's representations regarding solvency. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the shareholders rights to Dividends? And the directors liability?


Input: 1) Common stock is paid equally and paid last. 2) Preferred is paid first. 3) Participating is paid twice. 4) Cumulative add up. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the classes of Priority of Dividend Distribution?


Input: REQUIREMENTS: (1) Unanimous S/H election in the Articles, bylaws, or in a filed written agreement; AND (2) There must be a reasonable share transfer restriction to maintain closely held. RESULT: (1) No PCV for failure to maintain corp. formalities, AND (2) possible sub chapter S status (S-Corp -- treated as a partnership for tax purposes). [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the requirements for shareholder agreements to eliminate Corporate formalities (Closely-held corporations)? And what is the result?


Input: No more than 100 American Resident shareholders and no more than one class of stock. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are S-Corp Requirements?


Input: Licensed Professionals (i.e. lawyers, accountants, medical professionals) may incorporate as 'PC'. Requirements: (1) Organizers file articles w/ name designated 'Professional Corporation' or 'PC' (2) Shareholders must be licensed professionals. (3) Corproation may practice only ONE designated profession. (4) Professionals are liable personally for their own malpractice. (5) But, the professionals are NOT liable personally for each other's malpractice or the obligations of the corporation itself. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is a Professional Corporation? And what are the requirements?


Input: (1) Merger, Consolidation, and Dissolution 2. Fundamental (not ministerial) Amendment of the Articles; or Sale (not purchase of substantially all of the corporation's assets. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Recognized Fundamental Corporate Changes?


Input: (1) Resolution by Board at a valid meeting.; (2) Notice of Special Meeting; (3) Approval by MAJORITY of: . (a) all shares entitled to vote; AND . (b) any voting group adversely affected by the change . (c) NO APPROVAL necessary for 'short form' merger where parent corp. who owns 90% or more of subsidiary merges w/ subsidiary.; (4) Possibility of dissenting shareholder right of appraisal . (i) shareholder who does not vote in favor of a fundamental change has the right to force the corp. to buy her shares at fair value.; SEE perfecting right of appraisal (5) File notice w/ the state (i.e. articles of merger) [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the Procedural Steps for Fundamental Corporate Changes?


Input: (1) Actions by Shareholder to perfect right: . (a) B/f vote, file written notice of objection and intent to demand payment; . (b) do not vote in favor of the proposed change; . (c) make prompt written demand to be bought out; (2) If the shareholder and the corporation cannot agree on fair value. . (i) The court has the power to appoint an expert appraiser to value the shares and the appraisal is binding on the parties. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What must a shareholder do to perfect her right of appraisal?


Input: Requirements: (1) Scienter -- Intent to deceive; (2) Deception -- Material misrepresentation or misappropriation of material nonpublic information (i.e. trading on or tipping inside information); (3) In connection with the ACTUAL purchase or sale of securities. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What are the requirements of the Anti-Fraud, Section 10(b), of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?


Input: Occurs where an individual with a duty breaches by trading or disclosing on material inside information. 1) Duty - The following people have a duty to remain quiet: . a) Insiders - Directors, Officers, Controlling Shareholders, Employees, Outside Agents(CPAs, Attorneys, Bankers) 2) Material information - Information that an investor would think is important when deciding whether or not to invest. 3) Non-public - Information not yet disclosed to the public at large. Tipper - An insider may be liable for merely giving inside information if it was made for an IMPROPER PURPOSE. Tippee - Can be liable only if tipper breached a duty and tippee KNEW that tipper breached a duty. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is Insider Trading under SEC 10b-5? This was not in the lecture, but has come up in essays.


Input: (1) REPORTING CORPORATION -- . (i) listed on a national exchange or . (ii) at least 500 shareholders and $10 million in assets.; (2) Officer, Director, or 10% S/H (3) SHORT-SWING TRADING: Transaction involving the buying and selling of stock w/in a single six-month period ***Fraud is NOT Required ** ** NO Requirement of Inside Information***** [Who are Promoters]

Output: When does the Short-Swing trading profits, Section 16(b), requirement apply?


Input: All 'profits' from such 'short-swing trading' are recoverable by the corproation. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What happens if there is a violation of the Short-Swing trading profits, Section 16(b)?


Input: (1) Reporting corporation; (2) CEO and CFO must CERTIFY that based on the Officer's KNOWLEDGE, reports filed with the SEC: . (i) do not contain any material misrepresentations or omissions, AND . (ii) fairly present the fianancial position of the company.; (3) Willfully certifying a false report could bring $5 million fine and 20yrs; [Who are Promoters]

Output: How does the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 work?


Input: If false reports have to be restated, the corporation (directly or derivately) may recover Officer's profits made from trading the company's securities w/in 12 months after the false reports were filed, and may recover incentive-based compensation received during that period. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What remedies exist if false reports have to be restated under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?


Input: Corporations (directly or derivatively) may also recover any profits made by officers from trading corporations's stock during 'black out' periods of at least 3 days when at least 50% of the employeees are prohibited from trading in their retirement plan's securities. [Who are Promoters]

Output: What is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 'black out' period?


Input: [attention] cognitive categories

Output: Mental depositories for stroing information

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Schema

Output: Mental picture of an event or object

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] attention

Output: Being consciously aware of somehting or someone

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Stereotype

Output: Beliefs about the characteristics of a group

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Casual attributions

Output: Suspend or inferred causes of behavior

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Internal factors

Output: Personal characteristcs that cause behavior

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] External factors

Output: Enviromental characteristics that cause behavior

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] fundamental attribution bias

Output: Ignoring enviromental factors that affect behavior

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Self-serving bias

Output: Taking more personal responsibility for success than failure.

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Diversity

Output: The host of individual differences that make people different from and similiar to each other.

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Discrimination

Output: Occurs when employment decisions are based on factors that are not job related

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Affirmative action

Output: Focuses on achieving equality of opportunity in an organization.

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Managing diversity

Output: Creating organizational changes that enable all people to perfomr up to their maximum potential

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [attention] Glass ceiling

Output: Invisible barrier blocking women and minorities from top management positions

Being consciously aware of somehting or someone


Input: [dependent variable] descriptive statistic

Output: A number that conveys a particular characteristic of a set of data.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] epistemology

Output: The study or theory of the nature of knowledge.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] extraneous variable

Output: Variable other than the independent variable that may affect the dependent variable.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] independent variable

Output: Variable controlled by the researcher; changes in this variable may produce changes in the dependent variable.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] inferential statistics

Output: Method of reaching conclusions about unmeasurable populations that uses sample evidence and probability.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] interval scale

Output: Measurement scale in which equal differences between numbers represent equal differences in the thing measured. The zero point is arbitrarily defined.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] level

Output: One value of the independent variable.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] lower limit

Output: Bottom of the range of possible values that a measurement on a quantitative variable can take.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] mean

Output: Arithmetic average; sum of scores divided by number of scores.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] nominal scale

Output: Measurement scale in which numbers serve only as labels and do not indicate any quantitative relationship.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] ordinal scale

Output: Measurement scale in which numbers are ranks; equal differences between numbers do not represent equal differences between the things measured.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] parameter

Output: Numerical or nominal characteristic of a population.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] population

Output: All measurements of a specified group.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] qualitative variable

Output: Variable whose levels are different kinds, not different amounts.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] quantitative variable

Output: Variable whose levels indicate different amounts.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] ratio scale

Output: Measurement scale with characteristics of interval scale; plus zero means that none of the things measured is present.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] sample

Output: A subset of a population that may or may not be representative.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] statistic

Output: A numerical or nominal characteristic of a sample.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] treatment

Output: One value (or level) of the independent variable.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] upper limit

Output: The top of the range of possible values that a measurement on a quantitative variable can take.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: [dependent variable] variable

Output: Something that exists in more than one amount or in more than one form.

The observed variable that is expected to change as a result of changes in the independent variable in an experiment.


Input: what is the proper position to take when you suspect a client of substance abuse? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: It is contraindication for any bodywork

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what condition would cause massage to be contraindicated in working with a pregnant woman? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Toxemia, edema

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: why would deep tissue massage be contraindicated for someone with chronic asthma? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: It can cause stress or pain, which can trigger and episode.

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: for what reason bronchitis contraindicated for most type of massage therapy? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: It can be infectious, especially when the patient has a fever

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What condition always requires a doctor's approval before any bodywork can be administered? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Cancer

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the acceptable massage technique to be used with varicose veins [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Avoid the Area

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What is the purpose in finding out what medications yours client is taking? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: to research the reason for taking the medication

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: how can massage be beneficial for a client that has parkinsons disease? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: It may reduce muscle spasms, stress, and anxiety

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: What endangerment site is associated with the inuinal lymph nodes? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Femoral triangle

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: For a client who has informed you that he or she has experienced angina pectoris, what would be the appropriate action to take in massage? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Massage should be light and soothing because coronary circulation may be affected

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Why would universal precautions be used with someone who has AIDS? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: To help protect the patient from potential life threatening illness

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what symptoms would cause psoriasis to be contraindicated for massage? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Pain, itching, or weepy

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: craniosacral pulses or rhythm is based on which of the following physiological functions? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Cerebral spinal fluid production

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: which postural conditions is also known as forward head? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Kyphosis

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: when using a plumb line to evaluate posture, from a lateral view, where should the plumb line be in relation to the ear? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Through ear lobe

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what is a tool used in measuring range of motion (ROM)? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Goniometer

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Gait pattern refers to which type of movement? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Walking

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which condition is usually associated with hypomobility as it relates to ROM assessment? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: contracture

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Varicose veins appear as: [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Protruding, irregular veins during rest

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Massage is indicated in which of the following conditions? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Spider veins

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In which of the conditions is it important to receive a doctor's approval before giving a massage? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Carcinoma

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: If a new client efuses to fill out an intake form or questionaire, what action would you take first? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Ask as many questions as necessary and proceed with the massage

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what is not true about regarding treatment of a client with blood pressure? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: There are no contraindications; proceed as usual

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: For a massage therapist, what is most important aspect of personal hygiene? [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: Clean hands nails

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Increased pressure in the axillary region can put excess pressure on the: [Neck, brachial plexus]

Output: brachial plexus

Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork Assessment Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: every nongenetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us [behavior genetics]

Output: environment

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: threadlike structures made of DMA molecules that contain genes [behavior genetics]

Output: chromosomes

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: complex molecule containing the genetic information that makes us chromosomes [behavior genetics]

Output: DNA

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes, a segment of DNA capable of synthesizing a protein [behavior genetics]

Output: genes

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the complete instructions for making an organism, consisting of all the genetic material in that organisims chromosomes [behavior genetics]

Output: genome

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: twins who develop from a single fertilized egg that splits in two, creating two genetically identical organisims [behavior genetics]

Output: identical twins

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: twins who develop from separate fertilized eggs. They are genetically no closer than brothers and sisters, but they share a fetal environment [behavior genetics]

Output: fraternal twins

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a persons characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity [behavior genetics]

Output: temperament

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the interplay that occurs when the effects of one factor (such as environment) depends on another factor (such as heredity) [behavior genetics]

Output: interaction

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the subfield of biology that studies the molecular structure and function of genes [behavior genetics]

Output: molecular genetics

Chapter 4 Nature, Nurture, Human Diversity Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: -extension effects - dose related and predictable -side effects - dose dependent and predictable -idiosyncratic reactions - unpredictable -drug allergy - unpredictable, independent

Output: classification of adverse reactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: arise from an extension of the therapeutic effect. mechanism based. e.g. insult to lower blood glucose cuases hypoglycemia

Output: extension effects

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Output: % of drugs ok to use in pregnancy

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: elevated drug concentrations (due to reduced elimination rates or protein-bound drug displacement) leading to toxicity OR causes decreases in plasma concentratoins (via more rapid drug elimination or decreased drug absorption) leading to levels below therapeutic effectiveness.

Output: pharmacokinetic drug interactions can result in

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: phamcologic or physiolgoic enhancement or antagonism of drug action

Output: pharmacodynamic drug interactions at the receptor level can result in

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -elderly -pts in high risk clinical situations (dependent on drug treatment, acute illness, unstable disease) -pts with renal/hepatic disease -pts with multiple preswcribing physicians

Output: which pateints are high risk for drug-drug interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -absorption -distribution -metabolism -excretion

Output: PK interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: means they need to be monitored carefully in plasma insulin and warfarin -anticoagulants -antiseizure -antiarrhythmics -aminoglycoside Ab -cancer chemotherapeutics -HIV agents -immunosupressants (cyclosporine -neuromuscular blocking agents -digoxin -insulin

Output: which drugs have narrow therapeutic index

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: decreases in motility --> lower peak plasma drug levels increases in absorption less important physiochemical inactivatoin via changes in pH or formation of insoluble complexes reduces bioavailability

Output: PK interactions with absorption

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: protein bindingdisplacement interactions. competitive binding increases free drug cellular distribution interactions

Output: PK distribution interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: inducers (increase metaboilc rate) causing subtherapeutic levels inhibitors (decreased metaboilc rate) causing increased toxic levels of drug most interactions occur via CYP

Output: PK metabolism interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: most in KIDNEYS change in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) change in tubular secretion change in urine pH

Output: PK excretion interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -antagonistic effects -synergisitc or additive therapeutic efects -synergistic or additive side effects -indirect pharmacodynamic effect

Output: Pharmacodynamic interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: when 2 drugs mixed in same IV fluid chemical inactivation or precipitation via pH changes or alteration of vehicle

Output: pharmaceutic interactions

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: supportive care -cardiopulmonary support and protection of airway -assess electrolytes, acid-base balance and fluids -CNS precautions -renal function (direct drug toxicity and indirect hypotension renal failure)

Output: single most important determinant of poisoning outcomes is

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: study of absorption, distribution and elimination of toxic parent compounds and metaboic products that aids in predictino of amt of toxin that reaches site or injury and the resulting damage. -absorption (bioavailability F) -volume of distribution (Vd) -clearance (metabolism/excretion) -half-life

Output: toxicokinetics

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: large amt of ingested drug may slow tablet dissolution alter GI emptying injure GI tract --> altered absorption --> delayed peak effect

Output: absorption in toxicokinetics

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: important to know contribution of kidney and liver to elimiantion fo toxin to plan treatment strategy

Output: clearance (metabolism / excretion)

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: the published values are for therapeutic doses half life may be PROLONGED in toxic overdoses due to saturation of the elimination mechanisms

Output: half life in toxicokinetics

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: pharmacokinetic -prevent / decrease absorption -inhibit toxication (prevent conversion to toxic species) -enhance metabolism (detox) -increase elimination of toxin (decrease rate out) pharmacodynamic -antidotes

Output: general treatment strategies for poisoning

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -emesis (ipecac, apomorphine) -gastric lavage -chemical adsorption. activated charcoal

Output: prevention of absorption

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: local irritation and CNS stimulation of chemoreceptor zone effective orally but must be given BEFORE charcoal emesis after 15-30 minute lag, repeat after 20 minutes

Output: ipecac

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: not recommended in children, rarely used at all dopamine agonist, produces emesis by stimulation of chemoreceptor zone respiratory depressnat, toxic in children contraindications -comatose patient (lack of gag reflex --> risk of aspiration) -ingestion of corrosive poisons (strong acids or alkalis) -ingestion of CNS stimulatn such as strychnine (risk of seizures) ingestion of petroleum distillate (risk of pneumonitis) pregnancy category C

Output: apomorphine

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: most rapid and complete method of emptying stomach lavage + emesis removes only about 30% of most oral poisons -washing of stomach contents with saline and removal via nasogastric tube -best within 60 minutes of poison ingestion

Output: gastric lavage

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: binds drug in gut to limit absorption -effective without prior gastric emptying and can reduce eliminatino half lives of drugs that have been given IV (back diffusion of drug from blood with ion-trapping in the stomach)

Output: activated charcoal

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: decrease time of toxin in GI tract (via osmotic laxative effect) indicated if toxin ingestion is > 60 min -sorbitol -magnesium citrate/sulfate -sodium solfate -polethylene glycol

Output: osmotic cathartics

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: osmotic cathartic given together to prevent briquet formation

Output: sorbitol with charcoal

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: osmotic cathartic (decrease time of toxin in GI tract) avoid in renal disease or poisonings with nephrotoxic agents

Output: magnesium sulfate/citrate

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: osmotic cathartic (decrease time of toxin in GI tract. avoid use of sodium containing cathartics in CHF or hypertension (systemic absorption --> fluid overload)

Output: sodium sulfate

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: methanol/ehtylene glycol methanol metabolized --> formic acid (retinal damage & blindness) ethylene glycol metaboilzed --> oxalic acid (insoluble crystals in kidney - acute kidney failure) treatment - correction of metabolic acidosis with NaHCO3, removal of parent compounds and metabolites with hemodialysis, and suppression of production of production of toxic metabolites by inhibiting the rate limiting enzyme (alcohol dehydrogenase) with ethanol (competitive inhibitor) or fomepizole (specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase)

Output: inhibition of toxication

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: substrate and a competitive inhibitor of alcochol dehydrogenase

Output: ethanol as an inhibitor of toxication

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

Output: fomepizole as an inhibitor of toxication

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -acetaminophen -cyanide

Output: enhancement of detoxification is a method to treat toxic levels of

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: toxic single dose > 10-20 g will saturate phase II metabolic pathways leading to increased formation of phase I hepatotoxic metabolite AND deplete glutathione stores availble for detoxification hepatocellular injury

Output: acetaminophen toxicity

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: cyanide binds ferric ions in cytochrome oxidase inhibits: cellular respiration cytotoxic hypoxia lactic acidosis

Output: cyanide toxicity

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -gastric lavage -supportive theray -N-acetylcysteine (precursor for glutathione synthesis and nucleophile to capture the electrophilic heatotoxic metabolite)

Output: treatment of acetaminophen toxicity

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: hydroxocobalimin (vitamin b12 precursor that binds cyanide to make cyanocobalamin)

Output: treatment of cyanide toxicity

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -extracorporeal removal -enahnced metabolism -enhanced renal excretion -chelation of heavy metals

Output: enhancement of elimination

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: method to enhance elimination -hemodialisis/peritoneal dialysis (blood pumped through filter) -hemoperfusion (bloodpumped through column of adsorbent material)

Output: extracorporeal removal

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: blood pumped through filter -effective for toxins with small Vd -toxins should have low protein binding capacity -helps in correction of fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Output: hemodialysis / peritoneal dialysis

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: no because hemodialysis useful for toxins with small Vd

Output: if drug is outside plasma, large Vd, would hemodialysis /peritoneal dialysis be useful

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: blood pumped through column of adsorbent material. -useful for high MW toxins with poor water solubility -risks: bleeding (removal of platelets) and electrolyte distubances

Output: hemoperfusion

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: method to enhance elimination -induction of cytochrome p450 is NOT REALISTIC due to delay (1-3 days for onset of action) -enhancement of detoxificatoin metaboilc pathways with N-acetylcysteine in acetaminophen toxicity and thiocyanate in cyanide poisoning -inhibition of metabolism to block formation of toxic metabolistes (e.g. inhibition of alcohold dehydrogenase in methanol or ethylene glycol toxicity)

Output: enhanced metabolism

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: enhances detoxification of metabolic pathways in acetaminophen toxicity

Output: N acetylcysteine

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: enhances detox metabolic pathways in cyanide poisoning

Output: thiocyanide

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: method of enhancment of elimination in toxic -forced diuresis -block reabsorption from kidney -block active reabsorption

Output: enhancement of renal excretion

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: normal saline plushigh efficacy diuretics (furosemide) -small effect with danger of fluid overload (worsens pulmonary function) -protects kidney (beneficial effect)

Output: forced diuresis

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: prevention of passive reabsorption via alteration of urinary pH and ion trapping -make urine more basic (with NaHCO3) then trap weak acids like aspirin -make urine more acidic(with NH4Cl or ascorbic acid) then trap weak bases

Output: block reabsorption from kidney

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -enhances elimination of toxins (increase renal excretion) and inactivate toxin (decreases ability to interact with and damage target tissue)

Output: chelation of heavy metals

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: heavy metals coordinate covalent bonds with protein side chain nucleophiles

Output: normal physiology of chelation of heavy metals

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: enzyme inhibition AND alteration of membrane structure

Output: mechanism of toxicity in of heavy metals

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: give chelating agent to complex with free metal ions. this promotes dissociation of metals from intracellular macromolecules.

Output: treatment of heavy metal toxicity

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: -dimercaprol -penicillamine -succimer

Output: chelating agents

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: chelating agents -treats mercury poisoning -treats lead poisoning (Ca-Na2-EDTA) better at preventing binding to sulfhydryl groups than reactivating them.

Output: dimercaprol

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: treat Cu++ toxicity (Wilsons disease) treats mercury and lead poisoning rheumatoid arthritis (uncertain mechanism) and cystinuria)

Output: penicillamine

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: treat children with elevated blood lead levels mercury poisoning

Output: succimer

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: useful to metals more tightly bound than Ca++ treats lead intoxification not useful for mercury toxicity

Output: CaNA2EDTA

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: mercury toxicity

Output: Ca Na2-EDTA is not useful to treat

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: treats acute iron intoxication, chronic iron overload, possible use for Al+++chelation in dialysis patients

Output: deferoxamine

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: N-acetylcysteine

Output: acetaminophen

DD - Adverse drug reactions / poisoning Flashcards - Cram.com

FDA categories for drug use in pregnancy


Input: naloxone

Output: narcotics (opiates)


Input: flumazenil

Output: benzodiazepines