Input: Who is exempted from the educational requirements of planning board membership?

Output: Class I and III members; licensed planners; anyone who has completed a more extensive course

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What class of planning board member may serve as chair or vice-chair?

Output: Class IV (residents)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What population is required to have a 9-member joint planning and zoning board?

Output: 15,000 or less

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: In the case of a combined planning and zoning board, who may not participate in D variance applications?

Output: Class I and III members

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: In what case may a planning board serve as a historic commission?

Output: 2500 or less, municipal population

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Where a combined land use board exists, how can a municipality recreate a zoning board?

Output: Voter referendum, initiated by the governing body

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have, after referral from governing body, to issue a report regarding consistency with the Master Plan?

Output: 35 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What vote of the governing body is required to disapprove a recommendation of the planning board?

Output: majority of its full authorized membership

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How does the governing body refer matters to the planning board before final action?

Output: by ordinance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is a citizen's advisory committee?

Output: After the appointment of a planning board, the mayor may appoint one or more persons as a citizens' advisory committee to assist or collaborate with the planning board in its duties, but such person or persons shall have no power to vote or take other action required of the board. Such person or persons shall serve at the pleasure of the mayor.

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What shall the planning board and zoning board do when an environmental commission has prepared and submitted an index of natural resources?

Output: make available to the environmental commission an informational copy of every application for development submitted to either board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What are the required elements of a Master Plan?

Output: statement of objectives; land use element; relationship to other plans (although the housing element is required in order to create zoning)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is the projected time for a Capital Improvement Program?

Output: at least 6 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who authorizes and creates a Capital Improvement Program?

Output: Governing body authorizes the planning board to create

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to review plans and make recommendations from the governing body or public agency (using public funds for development)?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who adopts an official map of the municipality and how?

Output: Governing body, by ordinance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What may the governing body require as condition for filing a subdivision plat with the county recording officer?

Output: approval of subdivision plats by the planning board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What may the governing body require as condition for the issuance of a permit for any development?

Output: approval of site plans by the planning board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What applications are exempted from site plan or subdivision review?

Output: detached one or two dwelling unit buildings

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: An ordinance requiring approval by the planning board of either subdivisions or site plans, or both, shall include what provisions?

Output: -for submission and processing of applications for development -consistency with zoning -regulations for open space, natural features, water/utilities -for streets + access management -ensuring performance in substantial accordance with the final development plan

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: An ordinance requiring site plan review and shall include and shall be limited to standards and requirements relating to what elements?

Output: o Preservation of existing natural resources on the site o Safe and efficient vehicular and pedestrian circulation, parking and loading o Screening, landscaping and location of structures o Exterior lighting needed for safety reasons in addition to any requirements for street lighting o Conservation of energy and use of renewable energy sources o Recycling of designated recyclable materials

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: An ordinance requiring approval by the planning board of either subdivisions or site plans or both may include which elements?

Output: o Provisions for off-tract water, sewer, drainage, and street improvements which are necessitated by a subdivision or land development o Provisions for standards encouraging and promoting flexibility, and economy in layout and design through the use of planned unit development, planned unit residential development and residential cluster o Provisions for planned development o Provisions for development over a period of years, the protection of the interests of the public and others in the total completion of the development o Provisions that require that no taxes or assessments for local improvements are due or delinquent o Provisions for the creation of a Site Plan Review Advisory Board o Provisions for standards governing outdoor advertising o For subdivision ordinance: Provisions for minor subdivision approval

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What does a GDP set forth?

Output: the permitted number of dwelling units, the amount of nonresidential floor space, the residential density, and the nonresidential floor area ratio

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is the term of effect of an approved GDP?

Output: 20 Years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What may a GDP include?

Output: o A general land use plan o A circulation plan o An open space plan o A utility plan o A storm water management plan o An environmental inventory o A community facility plan o A housing plan o A local service plan o A fiscal report o A proposed timing schedule o A municipal development agreement,

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How big of a parcel is required for a GDP?

Output: 100 acres

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When is a GDP submitted?

Output: Prior to preliminary site plan approval

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to approve a GDP?

Output: 95 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Once the GDP has been adopted what variations must receive prior approval of the planning board?

Output: location of land uses within the planned development or to increase the density of residential development or the floor area ratio of nonresidential development

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How is the GDP amended?

Output: upon application by the developer approved by the planning board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What percent may a developer reduce the number of residential units, amount of non-residential floor space, or reduce the residential density or non-residential FAR?

Output: 15%

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How shall the developer notify the administrative officer as a section of the GDP is completed?

Output: by certified mail

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does a developer have complete any section of the plan from the date listed in the GDP?

Output: 8 months

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does a developer have to give evidence that he is fulfilling his obligations pursuant to the approved GDP if he misses his development deadline (and extra time)?

Output: 10 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does a developer have to apply for preliminary approval after GDP approval?

Output: Five years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When does GDP approval terminate?

Output: With the completion of development

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny preliminary site plan approval for less than 10 acres or 10 dus?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny preliminary site plan approval for 10 acres or more or more than 10 dus?

Output: 95 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Planning board may waive notice and hearing for an application that conforms to the definition of what?

Output: Minor site plan

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to review a minor site plan or minor subdivision?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long do the zoning regulations and terms and conditions of a minor site plan or minor subdivision at the time of approval last?

Output: 2 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: For what reason an a developer get an extension to a minor site plan or minor subdivision approval?

Output: if the developer proves that the developer was barred or prevented, directly or indirectly, from proceeding with the development because of delays in obtaining legally required approvals from other governmental entities and that the developer applied promptly for and diligently pursued the approvals.

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long of an extension can a developer get to a minor site plan or minor subdivision approval? When can he apply?

Output: One year; A developer shall apply for this extension before what would otherwise be the expiration date, or the 91st day after the date on which the developer receives the last of the legally required approvals from the other governmental entities, whichever occurs later

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When does the approval of a minor subdivision expire? or until what?

Output: Approval of a minor subdivision shall expire 190 days from the date on which the resolution of municipal approval is adopted unless a plat or a deed is filed by the developer with the county recording officer, the municipal engineer and the municipal tax assessor

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When may the period for filing a minor subdivision plat or deed be extended?

Output: if the developer proves to the reasonable satisfaction of the planning board that the developer was barred or prevented, directly or indirectly, from filing because of delays in obtaining legally required approvals from other governmental or quasi-governmental entities and that the developer applied promptly for and diligently pursued the required approvals.

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny preliminary approval for a major subdivision of 10 or fewer lots?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny preliminary approval for a major subdivision of more than 10 lots?

Output: 95 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What percentage of corporate or partnership ownership or interest must be listed for an application for permission to subdivide a parcel in to 6 or more lots, apply for a variance for a multi-family bldg with 25 units or more, and for commercial use applications?

Output: 10%

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does a preliminary approval of a major subdivision or site plan remain in effect?

Output: 3 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What may the applicant submit for final approval of a major subdivision or site plan before the expiration?

Output: the whole or a section or sections of the preliminary subdivision plat or site plan

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long of an extension to a preliminary approval of a major subdivision or site plan approval may be granted? Except for an area of what?

Output: additional periods of at least one year but not to exceed a total extension of two years -an area of 50 acres or more, the planning board may grant extensions longer than three years,

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When a planning board grants an extension on a preliminary approval after the expiration, when does the extension begin?

Output: On the date of expiration

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny a final approval of a site plan or major subdivision?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What happens if a planning board fails to grant or deny final approval of a site plan or major subdivision within the required time?

Output: shall constitute final approval

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When does the planning board have the power to grant exceptions from the requirements of preliminary or minor subdivisions or preliminary site plans?

Output: if the literal enforcement of one or more provisions of the ordinance is impracticable or will exact undue hardship because of peculiar conditions pertaining to the land in question

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When simultaneously revising conditional uses, site plan, and subdivisions, how long does a municipal agency have to act?

Output: The longest time period for action

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long shall the the zoning requirements remain unchanged following final approval of a site plan or major subdivision?

Output: 2 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long may a planning board extend the 2-year period of protection of final approval of a site plan or major subdivision?

Output: may extend such period of protection for extensions of one year but not to exceed three extensions.

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long may a planning board extend the 2-year period of protection for a site plan or major subdivision of 150 acres or more or non-residential of 200,000 sf or more?

Output: extensions longer than two years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What may the approving authority require (and shall receive) as a condition of final site plan approval or as a condition to the issuance of a zoning permit for the purposes of assuring the installation and maintenance of on-tract improvements?

Output: Performance guarantees, not to exceed 120% of cost of installation and 15% for maintenance guarantee

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When does the final approval of a major subdivision expire unless the plat has been filed by the developer with the County?

Output: 95 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the County recording officer have to notify the planning board that a plat has been filed?

Output: 7 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does an administrative officer have to issue a certificate that lets a prospective purchaser know if the subdivision of the property was approved by the planning board?

Output: 15 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Whenever the proposed development requires subdivision, site plan, or conditional use approval, but not a D variance, the planning board shall have the power to grant to the same extent and subject to the same restrictions as the ZBA what?

Output: -C Variances -Permit for a building in a road bed, public drainage way, flood basin, or public area -Permit for a building or structure not related to a street

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How may a developer bifurcate his application?

Output: separate application for variance or direction of the issuance of a permit and subsequent application for subdivision, site plan, or conditional use. approval is conditioned on subsequent approvals.

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the planning board have to grant or deny approval for an application that includes subdivision, site plan, or conditional use including a request for a C Variance?

Output: 120 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who has the authority to adopt or amend a zoning ordinance?

Output: The governing body

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is required to adopt a zoning ordinance?

Output: The planning board adopting a land use and housing element of the master plan that the zoning is consistent with

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may adopt an interim zoning ordinance?

Output: The governing body

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: May zoning ordinances or amendment be adopted by referendum?

Output: No

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How are zoning ordinance or amendment hearings noticed? What does this exclude?

Output: Properties within 200' of the existing and changed boundaries or classifications (military facility within 3000'), 10 days prior to the hearing by the municipal clerk either in person or by certified mail. except classification or boundary changes recommended in a master plan or reexamination

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may file a protest against any proposed zoning ordinance or amendment?

Output: 20% of owners within the proposed area of change or within 200' feet of the proposed change

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is required to adopt a zoning ordinance if there is a protest filed?

Output: 2/3rds vote of the full membership of the governing body

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Where shall family day care homes be permitted uses?

Output: residential districts

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Where shall child care centers be permitted uses?

Output: In non-residential districts

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How do child care centers count towards the density of a building?

Output: they are excluded

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What are methadone clinics considered for zoning purposes?

Output: businesses

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Where shall wind and solar facilities be permitted uses?

Output: industrial zones

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does a planning board have to grant or deny an application for a conditional use?

Output: 95 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What happens when an ordinance creates a nonconforming use or structure?

Output: It may continue upon the lot or in the structure and may be repaired or restored in the event of partial destruction

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: When shall the governing body create a zoning board of adjustment?

Output: When they adopt a zoning ordinance (unless they have a joint land use board)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How many members shall the ZBA have? Who are they?

Output: 7, no more than 4 alternates, all municipal residents

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long are the terms for regular and alternate members?

Output: 4 years for regular; 2 for alternates

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: May members of the ZBA hold elected office or position under the municipality?

Output: No

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Where are the chair, vice chair, and secretary from?

Output: Chair and vice chair are from the board, secretary may or may not be a member of the board or a municipal employee

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may serve as temporary members of the ZBA?

Output: Planning Board members

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What are the four basic powers of the ZBA

Output: -Appeal of zoning officer determination -interpretation of zoning map or ordinance -C (bulk) variance -D (use) variance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What are the two types of C Variances?

Output: C-1 Hardship Variance and C-2 (Flexible C) Variance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is a C-1 Variance used for?

Output: exceptional and undo hardship: -by reason of exceptional narrowness, shallowness, or property shape -by reason of exceptional topography or physical features -by reason of extraordinary and exceptional situation uniquely affecting a piece of property

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is a C-2 Variance used for?

Output: wherein an application would be advanced by a deviation from the zoning ordinance and the benefits of the deviation would substantially outweigh any detriment

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is a D Variance for?

Output: Use: -use or principal structure in a district restricted against such use -expansion of a non-conforming use -deviation from a conditional use -increase in FAR -increase in density (except for detached 1 or 2 unit bldgs or minor subdivision) -height that exceeds 10 feet or 10% of the maximum height permitted

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How many members' affirmative votes are required to pass a D Variance?

Output: 5 members (municipal board), 2/3rds (regional board)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: No variance or other relief can be granted without showing what?

Output: By showing that the variance can be granted without substantial detriment to the public good and will not substantially impair the intent and the purpose of the zone plan and zoning ordinance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How often does the ZBA produce a report of its decisions on applications and appeals for variances? How is the report memorialized?

Output: One year; prepare and adopt by resolution, send copies of the report and resolution to the governing body and planning board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may appeal the decision of an administrative officer to the ZBA? How long do they have to file an appeal?

Output: Any interested party affected by the decision, 20 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the ZBA have to render a decision on an appeal from an administrative officer or on a complete application?

Output: 120 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: The ZBA shall have the power to grant subdivision or site plan approval or conditional use approval whenever the proposed development requires approval of the ZBA for what?

Output: D Variance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: In a bifurcated application to the ZBA, is a five member affirmative vote required for the non-variance portion of the application?

Output: No, it is what ever is required for that application (majority)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: In a bifurcated application to the ZBA, does the board have 120 days to render a decision for the non-variance portion?

Output: No, it is what is required for that type of application

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may serve on a regional joint land use boards?

Output: Representative from each constituent municipality (appointed by mayor) or county (freeholder appointed); may have someone from DEP appointed by the commissioner

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: A regional ZBA shall consist of how many members? How long is their term?

Output: 7 members; 4 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: To whom do you appeal the decision of a regional planning or zoning board of adjustment? When?

Output: To the governing body of the municipality in which the land is situated within 10 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the governing body have to conclude a review of the record of a regional planning or zoning board?

Output: 95 days from the publication of the decision

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What vote is required of the governing body to reverse, remand, or affirm with or without conditions a decision of a regional planning or zoning board?

Output: affirmative vote of the majority of the full authorized membership of the governing body

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: In what County and how large is the Dismal Swamp Conservation Area?

Output: Middlesex County (3 municipalities); 660 acres

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How often shall the Master Plan be reexamined?

Output: 10 years

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who prepares and adopts the Master Plan reexamination and how?

Output: Planning Board by resolution

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who shall receive a copy of the Master Plan Reexamination report and copy of the resolution?

Output: County Planning Board

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who shall receive a notice that the Master Plan Reexamination Report and resolution have been prepared?

Output: Adjoining Municipality's clerk

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What shall a Master Plan Reexamination Report contain?

Output: -last Reexam objectives -how those problems/objectives have reduced or increased -significant changes in underlying assumptions/conditions -specific changes recommended for the Master Plan or development regulations -recommendations concerning incorporating Redevelopment Plans

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What shall the absence of the adoption of a reexam report constitute?

Output: A rebuttable presumption that the municipal development regulations are no longer reasonable

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: May a municipality prohibit development while preparing a Master Plan or development regulations?

Output: No (except when there is a clear imminent danger to the health of the inhabitants of the municipality - and for no more than 6 months)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who is required to prepare a storm water control ordinance and storm water management plan? When?

Output: Every Municipality, at the time they reexamine their Master Plan

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What should municipalities coordinate their storm water management plan with?

Output: Soil conservation districts Other local and county SWMPs relating to local river basins

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Shall solar panels be included in any calculation of impervious surface or cover?

Output: No

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What State Agency shall adopt regulations to protect the public safety with respect to storm water?

Output: NJ DEP

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who approves storm water management plans?

Output: County Planning Agency or County Water Resources Association

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How may the governing body provide for a historic preservation commission?

Output: By ordinance

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How many people shall the HPC consist of?

Output: 5, 7, or 9 (no more than 2 alternates)

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who makes up a HPC?

Output: At least 1 Class A member, 1 Class B members, and Class C members; Class A and B members must make up 1 less than the majority of the HPC

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What is a Class A member of the HPC?

Output: Knowledgeable in building design and construction or architecture history, may reside outside of the municipality

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who is a Class B member of the HPC?

Output: Knowledgeable or with demonstrated interest in local history and who may reside outside the municipality

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who is a Class C member of the HPC?

Output: Resident, no other municipal office or position except for Planning Board or ZBA

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Whom appoints HPC members and alternates?

Output: Mayor

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What responsibilities shall the HPC have?

Output: -historic site survey -make recommendations on relevant Master Plan Elements -advise PB + ZBA on development applications -provide written reports on application of zoning board provisions -promote historic preservation in the municipality

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: What shall the PB + ZBA refer to the HPC and when?

Output: Every application for development in historic zoning districts or on historic sites; when application is deemed complete

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: If the PB or ZBA fails to refer an application to the HPC, does that invalidate any hearing or proceeding?

Output: No

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How does the HPC provide its advice on an application?

Output: a member or staff person of the HPC testifies to PB + ZBA

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: Who may act in place of the full HPC in minor applications referred by the administrative officer?

Output: HPC Chairperson

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: How long does the HPC have to review and report on an application?

Output: 45 days

not less than once a month and shall be held as scheduled unless canceled for lack of applications


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Elocutionary Movement

Output: popular in britain and the united states in the 18-19 centuries. taught speakers how to emphasize, gesture, and use of tones to communicate meanings. elocution focused on delivery. on vocal qualities and body movements

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Physical Setting

Output: a room or place in which the performance takes place

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Cultural Setting

Output: dealing with broader social situations

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Literature

Output: a Written, visual, and oral art form that represents cultural history and the human experience.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Text

Output: any human document - Ranging from songs and physical movemnts to works of literature and to noncanonical and nonliterary text.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Diological Theory

Output: Conversation or dialogue forms the foundation for all communication.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Informative Purpose

Output: to increase to the audiences understanding or knowlege about the topic

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] to persuade

Output: create, maintain or to change thir audiences beliefs, behaviors, values or attitudes

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] to convince

Output: to influence mental processes.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] to actuate

Output: to motivate readers to behave in a specific way

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] to reinforce

Output: maintain readers current beliefs,actions or values

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] expressive purpose

Output: to express or confess their thoughts, feelings, and opinions about topics as disparate as nature's beauty, love of country, family ties, religious sentiment, and experiences that evoke stong emotional responses

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] process anxiety

Output: feeling like you dont know how to go about doing soemthing.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] performance anxiety

Output: related to the actual performance or delivery of the presentation

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] psychological response

Output: begins when you first get the assignment, in which your mind plays 'games' with you

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] physiological responses

Output: bodily reactions to frightening situations

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] fight or flight mechanism

Output: when faced with a threatening situation, your body goes into defense mode, whether the threat is real or imagined

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] stage fright

Output: the idea of standing in front of an audience and performing a piece of literature.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [Aesthetic communication] Prose

Output: the form of written language that is not organized according to the formal patters of verse.

defined by use, qualities, and effect or response.


Input: [2] Function [1]

Output: the use an environment will have/activities that will take place there

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] circulation [1]

Output: how we get around

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] natural traffic pattern [1]

Output: where people naturally walk/go

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] human factors [1]

Output: factors dealing with humans

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] anthropometry [1]

Output: human dimensions

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] standard clearance [1]

Output: 3', the amount of space needed to circulate comfortably

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] minimal clearance [1]

Output: 1.5'

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] proxemics [1]

Output: the way humans use space varying from culture to culture

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] intimate personal social public [1]

Output: 4 classifications of distance

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] intimate distance [1]

Output: contact-1'6"

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] personal distance [1]

Output: 1'6"-4'

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] social distance [1]

Output: 4'-12'

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] public distance [1]

Output: 12' +

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] crowding [1]

Output: too many people in a space, may cause stress, illness..neg effects

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] territoriality [1]

Output: the need to have space of our own

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] balance, scale and mass [1]

Output: use mass to create balance

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] rhythm [1]

Output: the way the eyes moves around the room. alternate wood and upholstery pieces

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] emphasis [1]

Output: creation of a focal point

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] harmony of line [1]

Output: all the lines in room working together. no random diagonal couches that don't fit

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] form and shape [1]

Output: make interesting shapes of space

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] proportion [1]

Output: the objects to the room itself...easiest is a rectangle room

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] straight line L U box circular parallel solo [1]

Output: 7 basic furniture groupings

Interior Design Chapter 8--Furniture Arrangement Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: popular in britain and the united states in the 18-19 centuries. taught speakers how to emphasize, gesture, and use of tones to communicate meanings. elocution focused on delivery. on vocal qualities and body movements [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Elocutionary Movement


Input: a room or place in which the performance takes place [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Physical Setting


Input: dealing with broader social situations [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Cultural Setting


Input: a Written, visual, and oral art form that represents cultural history and the human experience. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Literature


Input: any human document - Ranging from songs and physical movemnts to works of literature and to noncanonical and nonliterary text. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Text


Input: Conversation or dialogue forms the foundation for all communication. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Diological Theory


Input: to increase to the audiences understanding or knowlege about the topic [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Informative Purpose


Input: create, maintain or to change thir audiences beliefs, behaviors, values or attitudes [Aesthetic communication]

Output: to persuade


Input: to influence mental processes. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: to convince


Input: to motivate readers to behave in a specific way [Aesthetic communication]

Output: to actuate


Input: maintain readers current beliefs,actions or values [Aesthetic communication]

Output: to reinforce


Input: to express or confess their thoughts, feelings, and opinions about topics as disparate as nature's beauty, love of country, family ties, religious sentiment, and experiences that evoke stong emotional responses [Aesthetic communication]

Output: expressive purpose


Input: feeling like you dont know how to go about doing soemthing. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: process anxiety


Input: related to the actual performance or delivery of the presentation [Aesthetic communication]

Output: performance anxiety


Input: begins when you first get the assignment, in which your mind plays 'games' with you [Aesthetic communication]

Output: psychological response


Input: bodily reactions to frightening situations [Aesthetic communication]

Output: physiological responses


Input: when faced with a threatening situation, your body goes into defense mode, whether the threat is real or imagined [Aesthetic communication]

Output: fight or flight mechanism


Input: the idea of standing in front of an audience and performing a piece of literature. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: stage fright


Input: the form of written language that is not organized according to the formal patters of verse. [Aesthetic communication]

Output: Prose


Input: a force that continuously changes the direction of an object to make it move in a circle [Air Resistance]

Output: Centripetal Force


Input: a force associated with charged particles [Air Resistance]

Output: Electromagnetic Force


Input: a friction force that opposes the motion of an object through a fluid [Air Resistance]

Output: Fluid Friction


Input: a push or pull that acts on an object [Air Resistance]

Output: Force


Input: a force that opposes the motion of objects that touch as they move past each other The four types of friction are rolling, static, fluid, and sliding [Air Resistance]

Output: Friction


Input: an attractive force that acts between any two objects [Air Resistance]

Output: Gravitational Force


Input: the attraction between any two objects because of their masses [Air Resistance]

Output: Gravity


Input: the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion [Air Resistance]

Output: Inertia


Input: law stating that the total momentum of a system does not change if no net force acts on the system [Air Resistance]

Output: Law of Conservation of Momentum


Input: The amount of matter in an object, as measured by its inertia [Air Resistance]

Output: Mass


Input: the product of an object's mass and its velocity [Air Resistance]

Output: Momentum


Input: the overall force acting on an object after all the forces are combined [Air Resistance]

Output: Net Force


Input: the SI unit for force, equal to the force that causes a 1 kilogram mass to accelerate at a rate of one meter per second squared (1N=1 kg X m/s^2 [Air Resistance]

Output: Newton


Input: the curved path of an object in free fall after it is given an initial forward velocity [Air Resistance]

Output: Projectile Motion


Input: a friction force that acts on rolling objects, caused by the change in shape at the point of rolling contact the friction force between a rolling object and the surface on which it is moving Ex. Bicycle, Dog, Wheelchair, Anything with wheels [Air Resistance]

Output: Rolling Friction


Input: The friction resisting an object as you slide it over a surface Ex. Dragging a box across the floor (more sliding friction makes it harder to move) [Air Resistance]

Output: Sliding Friction


Input: a friction force that acts on objects that are not moving the friction you need to make an object move from a stationary position Ex, dragging a box that is sitting [Air Resistance]

Output: Static Friction


Input: the powerful attractive force that binds protons and neutrons together in the nucleus [Air Resistance]

Output: Strong Nuclear Force


Input: the constant velocity of a falling object when the force of air resistance equals the force of gravity [Air Resistance]

Output: Terminal Velocity


Input: a powerful attractive force that acts over a short range and affects all particles. [Air Resistance]

Output: Weak Nuclear Force


Input: The force of gravity acting on an object [Air Resistance]

Output: Weight


Input: A force can set an object at rest into motion, or it can accelerate a moving object by changing the object's speed or direction [Air Resistance]

Output: How does force affect an object?


Input: The combination of initial horizontal velocity and downward vertical force of gravity causes the object to follow a curved path. [Air Resistance]

Output: Why does a projectile create a curved path?


Input: According to Newton's first law of motion, the state of motion of an object does not change as long as the net force acting on the object is zero. [Air Resistance]

Output: Newton's First Law of Motion


Input: According to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration of an object is equal to the net force acting on it divided by the object's mass. A= Net Force/ Mass [Air Resistance]

Output: Newton's Second Law of Motion


Input: According to Newton's third law of motion, whenever one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts an equal and opposite force on the first object. [Air Resistance]

Output: Newton's Third Law of Motion


Input: F= A x M A= F/M M= F/A [Air Resistance]

Output: Calculate Force


Input: Weight= Mass x Acceleration due to gravity W=mg [Air Resistance]

Output: Calculate Weight


Input: Momentum= Mass x Velocity [Air Resistance]

Output: Calculate Momentum


Input: Characteristics that enable Marines and Sailors to overcome fear

Output: MEDPM Morale - individuals state of mind Esprit de corps- loyalty to, pride in and enthusiasm for the unit Discipline - prompt obedience to orders and initiation of appropriate action in the absence of orders Proficiency - ability to perform the job or mission Motivation - based on psychological factors such as need, desires and impulses

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: The six troop leading steps

Output: BAMCIS Troop leading steps Begin planning Arrange for reconnaissance Make reconnaissance Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article I of the Code of Conduct

Output: I am an American, fighting in the armed forces which gaurd my country and out way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defenses.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article II of the Code of Conduct

Output: I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while thay still have the means to resist.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article III of the Code of Conduct

Output: If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole noe special favors from the enemy.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article IV of the Code of Conduct

Output: If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information nor take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them in every way.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article V of the Code of Conduct

Output: When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies, or harmful to their cause.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Article VI of the Code of Conduct

Output: I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated tot the principles which made my country free. I will trust in God and in the United States of America.

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: The rights of a prisioner of war

Output: To receive sanitary, protective housing and clothing To receive a sufficient amount of food to sustain good health To receive adequate medical care To receive necessary facilities for proper hygiene To practice religious faith To keep personal property except weapons, military equipment, and military documents The right to send and receive mail - 2 letter and 4 cards monthly To receive packages containing non-contraband items such as food, clothing, educational, religious, and recreational materials. To select a fellow POW to represent you. To receive humane treatment To have a copy of the Geneva Convention To have a copy of all camp regulations

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Information required to give

Output: name, rank, date of birth and SSN

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Responsibility to perform paid labor

Output: Labor that is not military Not degrading Not dangerous Not unhealthy

HIVIFCCCC Homesickness Isolation Violent, unnerving sights and sounds Individual discomfort and physical fatigue Fear, stress and mental fatigue Confusion and lack of information Continuous operations Communications breakdown Casualties


Input: Rights, privileges, or benefits that result from owning long-lived assets that lack physical substance e.g., patents, trademarks, copyrights

Output: Intangible Assets

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Assets with physical substance; can be seen and touched e.g., buildings, equipment, land

Output: Tangible Assets

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Useful life is expressed as the total units of activity or production expected from an asset; the asset is written off in proportion to its activity during an accounting period

Output: Depreciation Method: Activity or Units or Production

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An equal amount of depreciation expense is recognized in each accounting period of an asset’s life

Output: Depreciation Method: Straight-Line

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The amortization of a natural resource

Output: Depletion

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Cost that is recorded as an asset at the time it is incurred

Output: Capital Expenditure

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The price at which an asset could be exchanged in the market between willing buyers and sellers

Output: Market Value

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The write-off (or expensing) of the cost of a long-term asset over multiple accounting periods; usually relates to intangible assets

Output: Amortization

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: To record a cost as an asset rather than an expense

Output: Capitalize

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The difference between the proceeds from the sale of a long-term asset and the book value at the time of the sale; positive differences are gains, negative differences are losses

Output: Gains and Losses

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: An accelerated method of depreciation in which depreciation expense is based on a percentage of the asset’s book value; depreciation expense is higher in the early part of an asset’s life and lower in the later part of an asset’s life

Output: Depreciation Method: Double Declining Balance

ACCTG211(SP11-WC) - Chapter 04 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Ethics] Opinion surveys

Output: Questionnaires that regularly ask employees their opinions about the company, management, and work life.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Discipline

Output: Procedure that corrects or punishes a subordinate for violating a rule or procedure.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Guaranteed fair treatment

Output: Employer programs aimed at ensuring that all employees are treated fairly, generally by providing formalized, well-documented, and highly publicized vehicles through which employees can appeal any eligible issues.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Dismissal

Output: Involuntary termination of an employee’s employment with the firm.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Terminate at will

Output: Idea, based in law, that the employment relationship can be terminated at will by either the employer or the employee for any reason.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Insubordination

Output: Willful disregard or disobedience of the boss’ authority or legitimate orders.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Wrongful discharge

Output: Employee dismissal that does not comply with the law or does not comply with the contractual arrangement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Termination interview

Output: Interview in which an employee is informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Outplacement counseling

Output: A systematic process by which a terminated person is trained and counseled in the techniques of self-appraisal and securing a new position.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Exit interviews

Output: Interviews conducted by the employer immediately prior to the employee leaving the firm with the aim of better understanding what the employee thinks about the company.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Layoff

Output: Situation in which employees are told there is no work for them but that management intends to recall them when work is again available.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [Ethics] Downsizing

Output: Refers to the process of reducing, usually dramatically, the number of people employed by the firm.

Study of standards of conduct and moral judgment; also the standards of right conduct.


Input: [1] Abridged [2]

Output: To shorten\, reduce, to diminish but not to loose its meaning


Input: [1] Countenance [2]

Output: A calm expression, a mental composure


Input: [1] Philosophy [2]

Output: A course of study, in the pursuit of wisdom


Input: [1] Essence [2]

Output: The most Important element of something, of utmost importance


Input: [1] Distraught [2]

Output: Agitated with doubt, or mental conflict or pain


Input: [1] Alchemists [2]

Output: A person who studies alchemy which is a medieval science that deals with transforming something common into something uncommon


Input: [1] Futile [2]

Output: Ineffective, serving no purpose


Input: [1] Transfigure [2]

Output: To Transform outwardly, to give a new appearance


Input: [1] Destiny [2]

Output: A predetermined course of events


Input: [1] Inconceivable [2]

Output: Impossible to believe or comprehend


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Ocuflox

Output: bacterial infections of the eye

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Viroptic

Output: treat viral infections of the eye, specifically herpes simplex virus

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? carboplatin

Output: kill rapidly dividing cancer cells of the eye; chemotherapy drug

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Cytoxin

Output: kill rapidly dividing cancer cells of the eye; chemotherapy drug

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Maxidex

Output: treat inflammations of the eye; corticosteroid

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Azopt

Output: glaucoma; acts by decreasing the amount of aqueous humor or by constricting the pupil to open up the angle between the iris and the cornea; drugs for glaucoma

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? atropine

Output: dilate the pupil and prepare the eye for an internal examination; mydriatics

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? vincristine

Output: cancer of the eye; chemotherapy drug

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Inflamase Forte

Output: treat inflammation of the eye; corticosteroid

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? pilocarpine

Output: glaucoma

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Flarex

Output: inflammation of the eye; corticosteroid

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Cytoxan

Output: cancer of the eye; chemotherapy drug

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Betoptic

Output: glaucoma

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Ocupress

Output: glaucoma

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: What would this be prescribed for? Mydriacyl

Output: mydriatic to dilate the pupil

WEEK 8.4 OPHTHALMIC DRUGS - Turley Medical Language Flashcards - Cram.com

bacterial infections of the eye; (antibiotic)


Input: a measure of activity such as direct labor-hours or machine hours that is used to assign costs to cost objects [absorption costing]

Output: allocation base

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a document that shows the quantity of each type of direct materials required to make a product [absorption costing]

Output: bill of materials

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a factor, such as machine-hours, beds occupied, computer time, or flight-hours, that causes overhead costs [absorption costing]

Output: cost driver

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a form prepared for a job that records the materials, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs charged to that job [absorption costing]

Output: job cost sheet

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a costing system used in situations where many different products, jobs, or services are produced each period [absorption costing]

Output: job-order costing system

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a detailed source document that specifies the type and quantity of materials to be drawn from the storeroom and that identifies the job that will be charged for the cost of those materials. [absorption costing]

Output: materials requisition form

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a costing system with multiple overhead cost pools with a different predetermined overhead rate for each cost pool, rather than a single predetermined overhead rate for the entire company. each production department is often treated as a separate overhead cost pool. [absorption costing]

Output: multiple predetermined overhead rates

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a costing system in which overhead costs are applied to a job by multiplying a predetermined overhead rate by the actual amount of the allocation base incurred by the job. [absorption costing]

Output: normal cost system

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a credit balance in the manufacturing overhead account that occurs when the amount of overhead cost applied to work in process exceeds the amount of overhead cost actually incurred during a period. [absorption costing]

Output: overapplied overhead

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the process of charging manufacturing overhead cost to job cost sheets and to the work in process account [absorption costing]

Output: overhead application

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a single predetermined overhead rate that is used throughout a plant [absorption costing]

Output: plantwide overhead rate

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a rate used to charge manufacturing overhead cost to jobs that is established in advance for each period. it is computed by dividing the estimated total manufacturing overhead cost for the period by the estimated total amount of the allocation base for the period [absorption costing]

Output: predetermined overhead rate

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a costing system used in situations where a single, homogeneous product (such as cement or flour) is produced for long periods of time [absorption costing]

Output: process costing system

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a detailed source document that is used to record the amount of time an employee spends on various activities [absorption costing]

Output: time ticket

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: a debit balance in the manufacturing overhead account that occurs when the amount of overhead cost actually incurred exceeds the amount of overhead cost applied to work in process during a period [absorption costing]

Output: underapplied overhead

Accounting Chapter 3 vocab Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Personification of Israel's political enemies during period of the judges

Output: Disheveled figure on bottom right

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Israel's enemies during the period of the judges were the small powers of the immediate locale

Output: Figure holds stone axe

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: These small powers, who had attacked the Israelites and subjected them to bondage for brief periods, were defeated under rallies led by the judges

Output: Figure with ripped tunic and broken axe handle in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: The six major judges of Israel

Output: Six figures in center of picture

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Othniel delivered Israel from the Mesopotamian oppression

Output: Judge with raised arm

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Ehud delivered Israel from the Moabite attack--sword symbolic of gift given to King Egion

Output: Judge with sword in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Deborah won victory over the Canaanites--tent spike associated with Sisera's death

Output: Judge with tent spike in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Gideon carried out psychological warfare against the Midianites with trumpets and lamps

Output: Judge with lamp and trumpet in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Jephthah defeated the Ammonites and in the process made rash vows

Output: Judge with manuscript in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: Samson defeated the Philistines

Output: Judge with jawbone in hand

Bethel Picture 11 Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

Vacant throne, unclaimed crown, and robe


Input: SWAP 1) Special manu + substantial Beg 2) Written Confirmatory memo by - Merchant + conf memo + 10 day rule. 3) Admissions in pleadings/court 4) Payment of Goods/Delivery (performance)

Output: Goods over $500 exceptions for a writing

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: LOANS L – Later Unforeseen Event Impossibility, Impracticability, Frustration of Purpose O – Other party’s breach A – Anticipatory Repudiation N – Non-Occurrence of Express Condition unless Waiver, Estoppel or Hindrance S – Secondary K Rescission Accord & Satisfaction Modification Novation

Output: Contract Excuse Defenses

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: “Conviser is a Mother Fucking Douchebag” Contract is Valid (certainty) & Conditions are satisfied Inadequate Legal Remedy Mutuality of Obligation Feasibility of SP decree Defenses

Output: Specific Performance

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Classification? Facially Discriminatory/Facially Neutral Level of Scrutiny? Apply the Test

Output: Equal Protection Attack

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: “I Put Five Bucks Down” Inadequate Legal Remedies Property Right is involved/Protectable Interest Feasibility of Enforcement Balancing of Hardships Defenses

Output: Permanent Injunction

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: “My fucking ignorance creates real dangers” Material Fact Falsity (Scienter) Intent Causation Reliance (Justifiable) Damages

Output: Intentional Misrepresentation

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Absolute Duty to make safe Dangerous aspect is Cause Damages (ADA, Animals)

Output: Strict Liability

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Duty owed by commercial supplier Defective product Defective when left D’s control Forseeable use Actual & proximate cause Damages

Output: SPL

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Defamatory Language Of and Concerning P Publication Damage to P’s rep – libel & slander per se Falsity & Fault in Con cases Matter of public concern – falsity is part of PF case ublic Figure – must show actual malice. Private figure – negligence

Output: Defamation

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: “Fuck Conlaw Every Single Time” Facial Challenge Content Based/Content Neutral Exceptions to Content Based Symbolic Time Place Manner

Output: First Amendment

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: PING Prescription Implicaon Necessity Grant

Output: Creation of Eastment

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ENDCRAMP Estoppel Necessity Ends Destruction of servient land Condemnation (eminent Domain) Release Abandonment Merger Prescription

Output: Termination of Easement

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: SING Serious Interference Notice Goodbye

Output: Constructive Eviction

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: LASSS Light Air Support Stream Water from art flow Scenic View (CA only)

Output: Negative Easements

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Covenant of Quiet Use and Enjoyment (constructive eviction) Implied warranty of habitability

Output: Landlords can breach these

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Move out (terminate lease) Repair and Deduct Pay only rent for FMV Pay rent and sue

Output: T's options with Implied Warranty of Habitability

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: "People are really stupid for wanting further education" Present (Against Encumberances, Right to Convey, Seisin) Future (Warranty, Further Assurances, Enjoyment (Quiet)

Output: Covenants of title in a General Warranty Deed

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: do they atTACH Trade Fixtures Attachment Custom Harm to premises if removed

Output: Fixtures analysis

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Caveat Emptor unless CLAPS Common Areas Latent Defects Assumption of repairs Public Use Short term lease of furnished dwelling

Output: Tort Liability for Landlords at CL

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: William Clinton Rarely preaches immorality Will Formation Components of the Wil Revocation/Revival Problems w/ Devises Intestacy

Output: Wills Attack

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Acts of Indepedant Signifcance Incorporation by Reference California sep writing for pers property Codicil

Output: With any writing outside a will bring:

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 3 theories CL - Susceptability + Opp + Participation + Unnatural Result Presumption - Confidential Relationship + Active Participation + Unnatural Result California Presumption (see another flash card)

Output: Undue Influence

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Drafter of instrument unless relative Person in fiduciary relationship Care custodian w/ in 90 days Employees and cohabitants of the above 3rd degree relatives of the above Partners/shareholders of law firm of first two

Output: California Stautory Presumption of Undue Influence

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: “Clients love fierce counsel, Courts feel differently, Courts and Lawyers Talk profusely.”

Output: PR Attack in General

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Confidentiality (A/C priv too), Loyalty, Financial, Competence & common sense

Output: Duties to Clients

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Candor, Fairness, Dignity and Decorum

Output: Duties to Others

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: To public when advertising, to court to state law and facts truthfully

Output: Duty of Candor

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: To the other party - Indvertent disclosures, use of press to taint jury pool, Prosecutors - must have PC

Output: Fairness

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: No improper influence in court No abusive conduct Duty to exidite case Duty to profession to avoid unauthorized practice of law, to supervise and to police misconduct.

Output: Dignity & Decorum

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Court, Adversaries, Lawyers, Third Parties, Public

Output: Who you owe other duties to

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: First Discuss Over Coffee Fair Terms Disclosed in ambiguous writng Opportunity for independent counsel Consent, written, by client

Output: Business TXs between Lawyer and Client

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: JDs can play real lawyers Jurisdiction Deception (affirmative or duty w/ omiission) Scienter Connection with buy/sell of stocks Private Action requires Reliance + Loss Causation

Output: 10b actions

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Insider Trading, Tipper, Tipee - Confidential realtionships and Family members unless they have no reason to know of confidential nature.

Output: 10b misappropriation theory

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Really Big Bad Profits Reporting company or one that has 500 SH and 10 mil in assets Big Wig D Buy/Sell or Sell/Buy in less than 6 months Profits - Disgorge

Output: 16(b)

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Reporting Company False statement filed or trading during blackout fines and jailtime Loss of incentive pay (12 months after) Loss of profits (12 months after)

Output: Sarbanes Oxley

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Source, Actions, Presumptions, Disposition

Output: Community Property Attack

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When SP is used to improve CP - for DIP Downpayment, Improvments, Principal payments

Output: Anti-Lucas Reimbursement

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: FED Family Expenes are always CP Exhaustion method Direct Tracing (quick in out)

Output: Commingled Bank Accounts

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Periera - Personal value increases - so pay interest on the separate property owned when marriage occured, the rest is CP Van Camp (valuable company) CP is presumed from labor & any community expenses are presumed - then the rest is SP.

Output: SP owned businesses where value increases

BAR Final Study Set 1 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Lateral Cricoarytenoid (LCA) Transverse Arytenoid Oblique Arytenoid [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Adductor Muscles

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Thyroarytnoid Muscles Cricothyroid Muscles [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Vocal Fold Tensor Muscle

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Infrahyoids Suprahyoids [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Entrinsic Laryngeal Muscles

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Sternohyoid Omohyoid Sternothyroid Thyrohyoid Muscles [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Infrahyoid muscles

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Diagastric Muscles Geniohyoid Mylohoyoid Genioglossus Hyoglossus Styloyoid [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Suprahyoid Muscles

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Origin - posterior cricoid Insertion - muscular process of arytenoid Function- contraction causes arytenoids to ROCK, opening the VF's [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Posterior Cricoarytenoids

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] Origin- side of cricoid cartilidge Insertion- muscular process of arytenoid Function- contraction causes vocal process of arytenoids to move together [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Lateral Cricoarytenoids

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] origin - posterior surface of one arytenoid insertion- apex and lateral side of other arytenoid function - draws arytenoids together [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Transverse Arytenoid

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Posterior Cricoarytenoids] origin-lower posterior surface of one arytnoid [Abductor Muscles]

Output: Oblique Arytenoid

A&P of speech and hearing: larynx Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The ability to use, manipulate, modify, or affect an object [2]

Output: Access

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The resource that is being protected. Can be logical such as a website, or physical such as a computer [2]

Output: Asset

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] An act that takes advantage of a vulnerability to compromise a controlled system [2]

Output: Attack

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Security mechanism, policy, or procedure that can counter a system attack, reduce risks, and resolve vulnerabilities [2]

Output: Control (safeguard or countermeasure)

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A technique used to compromise a system [2]

Output: Exploit

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A single instance of a system being open to damage [2]

Output: Exposure

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A passive entity in an information system that receives or contains information [2]

Output: Object

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The probability that something can happen [2]

Output: Risk

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The basis for the design, selection, and implementation of all security program elements including policy implementation, ongoing policy management, risk management programs, education and training programs, technological controls, and maintenance of the security program [2]

Output: Security Blueprint

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The implementation of an organizations security policies, procedures, and programs [2]

Output: Security Posture (Security Profile)

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] An active entity that interacts with an information system and causes information to move through the system for a specific purpose. examples include: individuals, technical components, and computer processes [2]

Output: Subject

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] An object, person, or other entity that represents a constant danger to an asset [2]

Output: Threat

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A specific instancew or component that represents a danger to an organizations asset. threats can be accidental or purposeful, for example lightning strikes or hackers [2]

Output: Threat Agent

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Weakness in a controlled system, where controls are not present or are no longer effective [2]

Output: Vulnerability

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Security measures such as a badge reader that admits or prohibits people from entering sensitive areas [2]

Output: Access Control

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The process of attracting attention to a system by placing tantalizing bits of information in key locations [2]

Output: Enticement

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Security systems that use two or more authentication mechanisms [2]

Output: Strong authentication

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A data-gathering process that discovers the assets that can be accessed from a network. Usually performed in advance of a planned attack. This is a systematic examination of the entire set of internet addresses of the organization [2]

Output: Fingerprinting

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems [2]

Output: Honey Pot

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A type of attack on information assets in which the instigator attempts to gain entry into a system or disrupt the normal operations of a system with, almost always, the intent to do malicious harm [2]

Output: Intrusion

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Devices that detect unauthorized activity within the inner network or on individual machines [2]

Output: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A network tool that collects copies of packets from the network and analyzes them [2]

Output: Packet sniffer

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A honeypot that has been protected so that it cannot easily be compromised [2]

Output: Padded Cell

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A private word or combination of characters that only the user knows [2]

Output: Password

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The tool used to identify (or fingerprint) computers that are active on a network, as well as the ports and services active on those computers, the functions and roles the machines are fulfilling, and other useful information [2]

Output: Port Scanner

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The act of luring an individual into committing a crime to get a conviction [2]

Output: Entrapment

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The process of making and using codes to secure the transmission of information [2]

Output: Cryptography

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Decrypting without knowing the keys [2]

Output: Cryptoanalysis

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The information used in conjunction with an algorithm to create the ciphertext from the plaintext or derive the plaintext from the ciphertext. This can be a series of bits used by a computer program, or it can be a passphrase used by humans [2]

Output: Key

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Mathematical algorithms that generate a message summary or message digest that allows a hash algorithm to confirm that the content of a specific message has not been altered [2]

Output: Hash Function

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A method of communicating on a network using a single key to both encrypt and decrypt a message [2]

Output: Symmetric encryption

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A method of communicating on a network using one key to encrypt and another to decrypt a message [2]

Output: Asymmetric encryption

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] An integrated system of software, encryption methodologies, protocols, legal agreements, and third-party services that enables users to communicate securely [2]

Output: Public Key Infrastructure(PKI)

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Encrypted messages that can be mathematically proven authentic [2]

Output: Digital Signatures

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Public-key container files that allow computer programs to validate the key and identify to whom it belongs [2]

Output: Digital certificates

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A method of hiding the existence of a secret message [2]

Output: Steganography

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Access-control devices that use a biometric detection device as a release mechanism [2]

Output: Biometric lock

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Synonymous with application firewall and application-level firewall. A device that selectively discriminates against information flowing into or out of the organization. In the context of physical security, a firewall is a wall that limits the spread of damage should a fire break out in an office [2]

Output: Firewall

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Offsite computing that uses internet connections, dial-up connections, connections over leased point-to-point links between offices, and other connection mechanisms [2]

Output: Telecommuting

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] An aspect of information security that addresses the design, implementation, and maintenance of countermeasures that protect the physical resources of an organization [2]

Output: Physical security

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The spark that occurs when two materials are rubbed or touched and electrons are exchanged, resulting in one object becoming more positively charged and the other more negatively charged [2]

Output: Static Electricity

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] A small physical enclosure that is used in secure facilities that has an entry point and a different exit point [2]

Output: Mantrap

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The protection of information and the systems and hardware that use, store, and transmit that information [2]

Output: Information Security

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] What are the phases of the Security Systems Development Life Cycle [2]

Output: Investigation Analysis Logical Design Physical Design Implementation Maintenance Change

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] What are some issues facing software developers? [2]

Output: Command Injection Cross-Site Scripting Failure to Handle Errors Failure to Protect Network Traffic Failure to Store and Protect Data Securely Failure to use cryptographically strong numbers format string problems sql injection

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] What is the difference between Laws and Ethics [2]

Output: Laws are rules that mandate or prohibit certain behavior. Ethics are socially acceptable behaviors

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986 National Information Infrastructure Protection Act of 1996 USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 Computer Security Act of 1987 [2]

Output: Computer Security LAws

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The process of identifying vulnerabilities in an organization's information systems and taking carefully reasoned steps to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all components in the organization's information system [2]

Output: Risk Management

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The formal process of examining and documenting the security posture of an organizations information technology and the risks it faces [2]

Output: Risk Identification

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] The process of applying controls to reduce the risks to an organization's data and information systems [2]

Output: Risk Control

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Access [1]

Output: The ability to use, manipulate, modify, or affect an object

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Asset [1]

Output: The resource that is being protected. Can be logical such as a website, or physical such as a computer

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Attack [1]

Output: An act that takes advantage of a vulnerability to compromise a controlled system

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Control (safeguard or countermeasure) [1]

Output: Security mechanism, policy, or procedure that can counter a system attack, reduce risks, and resolve vulnerabilities

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Exploit [1]

Output: A technique used to compromise a system

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Exposure [1]

Output: A single instance of a system being open to damage

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Object [1]

Output: A passive entity in an information system that receives or contains information

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Risk [1]

Output: The probability that something can happen

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Security Blueprint [1]

Output: The basis for the design, selection, and implementation of all security program elements including policy implementation, ongoing policy management, risk management programs, education and training programs, technological controls, and maintenance of the security program

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Security Posture (Security Profile) [1]

Output: The implementation of an organizations security policies, procedures, and programs

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Subject [1]

Output: An active entity that interacts with an information system and causes information to move through the system for a specific purpose. examples include: individuals, technical components, and computer processes

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Threat [1]

Output: An object, person, or other entity that represents a constant danger to an asset

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Threat Agent [1]

Output: A specific instancew or component that represents a danger to an organizations asset. threats can be accidental or purposeful, for example lightning strikes or hackers

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Vulnerability [1]

Output: Weakness in a controlled system, where controls are not present or are no longer effective

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Access Control [1]

Output: Security measures such as a badge reader that admits or prohibits people from entering sensitive areas

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Enticement [1]

Output: The process of attracting attention to a system by placing tantalizing bits of information in key locations

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Strong authentication [1]

Output: Security systems that use two or more authentication mechanisms

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Fingerprinting [1]

Output: A data-gathering process that discovers the assets that can be accessed from a network. Usually performed in advance of a planned attack. This is a systematic examination of the entire set of internet addresses of the organization

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Honey Pot [1]

Output: Decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Intrusion [1]

Output: A type of attack on information assets in which the instigator attempts to gain entry into a system or disrupt the normal operations of a system with, almost always, the intent to do malicious harm

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Intrusion detection systems (IDS) [1]

Output: Devices that detect unauthorized activity within the inner network or on individual machines

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Packet sniffer [1]

Output: A network tool that collects copies of packets from the network and analyzes them

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Padded Cell [1]

Output: A honeypot that has been protected so that it cannot easily be compromised

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [2] Password [1]

Output: A private word or combination of characters that only the user knows

Information Security Final Exam Flashcards - Cram.com