Input: Special Housing Unit Syndrome (SHU)

Output: Total isolation results in oversensitivity to stimuli, social withdrawal, anxiousness around other people, emotional flatness, and ruminations about retribution Officers have total control and inmates feel helpless and depressed Have delusions and hallucinations Creates mental illness

Psychology and the Law Final Flashcards - Cram.com

Unbiased selection of fillers Blind administrators Instructions Confidence rating immediately after ID Sequential lineup may be better than simultaneous (studies vary)


Input: Madrid v. Gomez

Output: Class action suit brought against the warden at Pelican Bay because of cruelty of SHU Found that solitary confinement was cruel and unusual punishment (only at that facility)

Psychology and the Law Final Flashcards - Cram.com

Unbiased selection of fillers Blind administrators Instructions Confidence rating immediately after ID Sequential lineup may be better than simultaneous (studies vary)


Input: The Three Justices

Output: Distributive - outcome Procedural - treatment Commonsense - intutions

Psychology and the Law Final Flashcards - Cram.com

Unbiased selection of fillers Blind administrators Instructions Confidence rating immediately after ID Sequential lineup may be better than simultaneous (studies vary)


Input: fixed pay an employee receives on a regular basis [Total compensation equation]

Output: base compensation

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: reward employees for good performances [Total compensation equation]

Output: Pay incentives

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: approaches 41% of workers' compensation [Total compensation equation]

Output: Benefits

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: perceived fairness of the pay structure within a firm [Total compensation equation]

Output: Internal equity

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: perceived fairness in pay relative to what other employers are paying for the same type of labor [Total compensation equation]

Output: External equity

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Employees exchange their contributions or input to the firm for a set of outcomes Compare what they bring to the firm and what they receive in return Compare input/output ratio [Total compensation equation]

Output: Distributive Justice model

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: supploy of labor equals the demand for labor in the marketyplace [Total compensation equation]

Output: Labor Market Model

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: internal equity focus for older and more established firms retention bonuses in bad times [Total compensation equation]

Output: Balancing equity

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: reduces risk to both employer and employee [Total compensation equation]

Output: Fixed pay

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: helps reduce unemployment 10% of U.S. pay is variable [Total compensation equation]

Output: Variable

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: P- pay tied to individual or group contributions piece-rate plans/commissions M- contingent compensations- provide the same or similar wage to every employee in a given job [Total compensation equation]

Output: Performance vs. Membership

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pay system in which employees are paid on the basis of the jobs they can do or talents they have that can be successfully applied to a variety of tasks and situations [Total compensation equation]

Output: Skill Based Pay

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Elitism- different compensation plans by organization level Egalitarianism- most employees under same compensation More flexibility without promotion into management [Total compensation equation]

Output: Elitism vs. Egalitarianism

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Above- markety pay policies are more prevalent among large companies in less competitve industries Below- work in depressed areas [Total compensation equation]

Output: Below Market vs. Above-Market

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Pay ranks higher than people comment on Stable workforce- emphasize more nonmonetary rewards [Total compensation equation]

Output: Monetary vs. Nonmonetary Rewards

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: O- eliminates paranoi, force managers to be more fair, but managers are forced to defend decisions and more time involved in this argument [Total compensation equation]

Output: Open vs. Secret Pay

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: HR department should do it because of frequent legal issues Decentralized in large and diverse organization [Total compensation equation]

Output: Centralization vs. Decentralization of Pay Decisions

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: groups of jobs that are paid within the same pay range most important jobs pay the most GOALS: Achieving internal equity Achieving external equity Achieving individual equity [Total compensation equation]

Output: Pay grades

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. Conduct a job analysis 2. Write a job description 3. Determine Job Specifications 4. Rate worth of all jobs using a predetermined system 5. Create a Job Hierarchy 6. Clarify Jobs by Grade Levels [Total compensation equation]

Output: Achieving Intteranl Equity through Job Evaluation

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: work related crteria that an organization considers most imiportant in assessing the relative value of different jobs [Total compensation equation]

Output: Compensable factors

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: listing of jobs in terms of their relative assesssed value [Total compensation equation]

Output: Job Hierarchy

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. Identify Benchmark or Key Jobs 2. Establish a pay policy [Total compensation equation]

Output: Achieving External Equity: Markety Surveys

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Jobs that are similar or comparable in content across firms [Total compensation equation]

Output: Benchmark

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: firms decison to pay above at or below market [Total compensation equation]

Output: Pay policy

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: fairness in pay decisions for employees holding the same job [Total compensation equation]

Output: Individual equity

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Definitions of jobs change and vary Subjective process Less approrpiate at higher levels Jobs continue to be more broadly defined Bureaucratic, mechanistic, inflexible Discriminates against women No definitive data Employees perception is the one tha counts [Total compensation equation]

Output: Evaluating Job-Based Compensation Plans

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: think strategically in making policy decisions concerning pay Secure employee input job banding examine statistics and dual career ladders [Total compensation equation]

Output: Suggestions for practice for Jobs based pay

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: replacing narrowly defined jobs with ones more broadly defined [Total compensation equation]

Output: Job banding

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Depth skill- expert in a field Horizontal skill- knowledge of job within a firm Verical skills- SM abilities [Total compensation equation]

Output: Skill based compensation plans: 3 skills

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ADV: Flexible workforce Promotes cross-training Fewer supervisors Increases employee control over compensation Disadvantages: Leads to higher compensation and training costs Employee skills may become rusty When at top/no motivation occurs Can become a guessing game May require time-consuming processes [Total compensation equation]

Output: Advantages and Disadvantages of skill based compensation plans.

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Must keep accurate records of how much employees work exempt vs. non exempt [Total compensation equation]

Output: FLSA Fair Labor Standards Act

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Four exceptions that allow employees to pay one sex more than another 1. seniority 2. better job performance 3. Greater quantity or quality of production 4. Night shift, etc. [Total compensation equation]

Output: Equal Pay Act

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: comparable pay for jobs that require comparable skills [Total compensation equation]

Output: comparable owth

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: affects how much of their earning employees can keep withhold part of employees income [Total compensation equation]

Output: IRC Internal Revenue Code

MGMT 335 Test 3 CHP.10 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: general- because it applies to more than a momentary event, like hearing a loud noise. lasting- because it tends to endure over time [What is an attitude?]

Output: What makes an attitude general and lasting?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: was developed by Daniel Katz to explain how attitudes faciliate social behaviour. According to this approach, attitudes exist because they serve some function for the person; that is, they are determined by a person's motives. Ex: two people can each have the same attitude toward some object for very different reasons [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the functional theory of attitudes.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: it is related to the basic principles of reward and punishment. We develop some of our attitudes toward products simply on the basis of whether these products provide pleasure or pain [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the utilitarian function of attitudes.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: attitudes that perform a value-expressive function express the consumer's central values or self-concept. What does the product he or she buys, say about them? Ex: what sort of man rides a Harley? [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the value-expressive function of attitudes.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: attitudes that are formed to protect the person, either from external threats or internal feelings, perform an ego-defensive function. Ex: products that make a man have a "macho" image may be appealing to his insecurity about his masculinity [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the ego-defensive function of attitudes.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: some attitudes are formed as the result of a need for order, structure, or meaning. This need is often present when a person is in an ambiguous situation or is confronted with a new product ("bayer wants you to know about pain relievers") [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the knowledge function of attitudes.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: affect, behaviour and cognition [What is an attitude?]

Output: What are the three components an attitude has?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: affect- the way a consumer FEELS about an attitude object behaviour- involves the person's intentions to do something with regard to an attitude object cognition- refers to the BELIEFS a consumer has about an attitude object ABC model of attitudes [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the three components that an attitude has.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: high involvement: cognition>affect>behaviour=attitude based on cognitive information processing Low involvement: Cognition>behaviour>affect=attitude based on behavioural learning processes Zajonc's model: Affect>Behaviour>cognition= Attitude based on hedonic consumption [What is an attitude?]

Output: What are the three hierarchies of effects?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: attitude towards the advertisement. It is the consumers reactions to a product that are influenced by their evaluations of its advertising. [What is an attitude?]

Output: What does Aad stand for?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: classical conditioning- in an attitude object where mcdonalds is repeatedly paired with the jingle "I'm lovin' it". Instrumental conditioning- where consumption of the attitude object is reinforced Ex: pepsi quenches one's thirst [What is an attitude?]

Output: What are the main ways in which attitudes can form?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 1. Compliance- lowest level of involvement, an attitude is formed because it helps gain rewards or avoid punishments from others. This attitude is likely to change when the person's behaviour is no longer monitored by others or when other options become available. 2. Identification- Occurs when attitudes are formed so that the consumer will then feel similar to another person or group. Some ads depict the social consequences of choosing some products over others 3. Internalization- High level of involvement, seated attitudes are internalized and become part of the person's value system. These attitudes are very difficult to change because they are so important to the individual. [What is an attitude?]

Output: What are the three different levels of commitment to an attitude?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This says that consumers value harmony among their thoughts, feelings and behaviours and they are motivated to maintain this. This means that a consumer, if necessary, will change their thoughts, feelings or behaviours to make them consistent with other experiences. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the principle of cognitive consistency.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This is a conflict between what you think vs. what you do. How do you resolve the dissonance? you can either change the attitude or change behaviour. Ex: two cognitive elements about smoking "I know smoking causes cancer, however I smoke cigarettes" the consumer will resolve the dissonance by either satisfying the urge to smoke or by stopping the behaviour. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the theory of cognitive dissonance related to marketing?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Is an alternative explanation of dissonance effects. It assumes that people use observations of their own behaviour to determine what their attitudes are, just as we assume that we know the attitudes of others by watching what they do. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the self-perception theory.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Low-involvement hierarchy. Buying a product out of habit may result in a positive attitude toward it after the fact. [What is an attitude?]

Output: What level of the hierarchies of effects is similar to the self-perception theory?

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This is a sales strategy where a consumer is more likely to comply with a request if he or she has first agreed to comply with smaller requests. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the foot-in-the-door technique.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Sales strategy in which a person is asked for a small favour and is informed after agreeing to it that it will be very costly. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the low-ball technique.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This is where a person is first asked to do something extreme (where it is usually refused) and then asked to do something smaller. People tend to go along with the smaller request possibly because they feel guilty about denying the larger one [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the door-in-the-face technique.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This assumes that people assimilate new information about attitude object in the light of what they already know or feel. The initial attitude acts as a "Frame of reference" where new information is categorized in terms of the existing standard. Ex: when someone thinks a box is heavy depends on how many boxes they have lifted. This is considered a subject standard (thinking box is heavy due to previous experiences) [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the social judgement theory.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This means that people differ in terms of the information they will find acceptable or unacceptable. Ex: a consumer has a favorable attitude towards designated drivers. He is likely to be more encouraged to communications urging him to play this role before heading out with friends at night. If he were opposed to this practice, these messages would most likely not be considered. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the latitudes of acceptance and rejection aspect to the social judgment theory.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This theory states that people desire relations among elements in a triad to be harmonious or balanced. It they are not, a state of tension will result until somehow perceptions are changes and balance is restored. This balance act is used commonly for celebrity endorsements where it is hoped that the star's popularity will transfer to the product. [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the balance theory in the marketing perspective

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This type of model assumes that a consumer's attitude (evaluation) of an attitude object (Ao) will depend on the beliefs he or she has about several or many attributes of the object. *Grocery store model* [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the multi-attribute attitude models.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This model measures three components of attitude: 1) Salient beliefs- people have about an attitude object (those beliefs about an object that are considered during evaluation) 2) Object-attribute linkages- the probability that a particular object has an important feature 3)Evaluation of each of the important features [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the three components of attitude according to the fishbein model that relates to the multi-attribute model.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: This perspective recognizes that additional factors might intervene between intent and performance- both personal and environmental barriers might prevent the individual from attaining the goal. 1. Past frequency 2. Recency 3. Beliefs 4. Evaluations of consequences 5. The process 6. Expectations of success and failure 7. Subjective norms toward trying [What is an attitude?]

Output: Describe the theory of trying. Name 7 common issues that can happen when someone tries to accomplish something.

Consumer Behaviour Chapter 7 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [1] how you feel about change [2]

Output: situation


Input: [1] how you view the change [2]

Output: yourself


Input: [1] people and resources that can be of assistance [2]

Output: supports


Input: [1] steps taken to engage change [2]

Output: coping strategies


Input: [1] fear, self-interest, habit [2]

Output: resistance to change


Input: [1] uniformed optimism, informed pessimism, informed optimism, completion, hopeful realism [2]

Output: positive reasons for change


Input: [1] actions of ppl [2]

Output: behavior


Input: [1] extraversion, agreeablenes, emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience [2]

Output: the big five personality dimensions


Input: [1] most strongly correlated to job performance [2]

Output: conscientiousness


Input: [1] commonly used personality trait test [2]

Output: MBTI


Input: [1] 4 dimensions of MBTI [2]

Output: social interaction. preference for gathering dat, preference for decision making, style of making decisions


Input: [1] identifies the degree to which people are capible of reading and using the cues from the environment to determine behavior [2]

Output: self monitoring scale


Input: [1] set of managerial decisions and actions that determines the long-run performance of an organization [2]

Output: strategic management process


Input: [1] what are the 3 types of organizational strategies [2]

Output: corporate-determines what business you should be in business-how to determine should compete in business functional- how to support the business level strategy


Input: [1] enviromental screening [2]

Output: screening of large amounts of info to anticipate changes in environment


Input: [1] 2 types of forecasting [2]

Output: Quantitative-applies data Qualitative-uses jusdgement


Input: [1] benchmarking [2]

Output: search for the best practices among competitiors that lead to best performance


Input: [1] 6 elements of org design [2]

Output: work specialization-tasks are divided into seperate jobs


Input: [1] basis on which jobs are grouped [2]

Output: departmentalization


Input: [1] line of authority [2]

Output: chain of command


Input: [1] # of employees a manager can supervise effectively [2]

Output: span of control


Input: [1] who, where, and how decisions are made in orgs [2]

Output: centralization/decentralization


Input: [1] degree to which jobs are satndardized and the extent to which employee behavior is guided [2]

Output: formalization


Input: [1] 4 contingency variables [2]

Output: org size, strategy, technology, environmental uncertainty


Input: [1] 4 major forms of communication [2]

Output: control motivation, emotional expression, informatoin


Input: [1] the deliberate manipulation of info to make it appear more favorable [2]

Output: filtering


Input: [1] from manager to employees [2]

Output: downward communication


Input: [1] from employees to manager [2]

Output: upward comm.


Input: [1] among employees on the same level [2]

Output: lateral commm.


Input: [Primary Prevention] Tertiary Prevention

Output: A 72-year-old man diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 5 years ago has been participating for the last 2 years in a pulmonary rehabilitation exercise class offered by the local hospital at a fitness facility. This is what level of prevention?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Fluoridation of drinking water

Output: All of the following are examples of active strategies of health promotion except:

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Primary Prevention

Output: A nurse teaches the importance of folic acid intake to a group of pregnant women. This is considered which level of preventive care?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Pender's health promotion model

Output: Which of the following models of health or illness defines health as a positive, dynamic state, not merely the absence of disease?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Secondary Prevention

Output: The nurse in a diabetic clinic conducts monthly seminars for diabetic clients. During these seminars, the importance of taking insulin as directed to prevent diabetic complications is emphasized. This is considered which level of preventive care?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Above the elbows

Output: When a nurse is performing surgical hand hygiene, the nurse must keep the hands:

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Keep all draining tube below the level of the waist and/or site of insertion

Output: Which of the following statements reflects the current trend in the directives from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for minimizing risks of infection?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Chicken pox and pulmonary tuberculosis

Output: For which airborne disease(s) would the nurse be required to use gloves, respiratory devices, and gown when in close contact with the client?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Mask

Output: Before the nurse washes the hands when leaving an isolation room, what is the last thing that is removed?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] The fingers are held down to rinse in routine hand-washing but are held upright when performing a surgical scrub.

Output: Which statement comparing a surgical scrub with a regular hand-washing session is correct?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Spread of hepatitis A

Output: When providing health maintenance teaching to new employees in the food-handling department, the nurse emphasizes the need to perform hand hygiene after using the bathroom to prevent:

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Slide the client to the floor and cradle the client's head in the nurse's lap.

Output: After the nurse assists a client with a history of seizures to a recliner chair, the client begins to have a seizure. The nurse should immediately:

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Active

Output: While the nurse is administering flu immunizations in November to a group of older adults at a community senior citizens' center, one of the seniors expresses a fear of contracting the flu from the injection. The nurse reassures the senior that this is not possible because the vaccine contains a dead virus and explains that this injection will produce _________ immunity, in which the senior's body will make antibodies to the virus.

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: [Primary Prevention] Wear an isolation gown, gloves, and high-efficiency particle arrestor (HEPA) mask and Have the client remove clothing and place it in a sealed biohazard bag

Output: Health care workers who have direct contact with individuals suspected of being contaminated with anthrax should do which of the following?

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com

A parish nurse for a Catholic church provides a free blood pressure screening the first Sunday of every month. This is what level of prevention?


Input: 1. isolation of parts. 2. alter physical form or size 3. improve palatability 4. inprove digestibility 5. prevent spoilage 6. detoxification 7, improve feed intake 8. facilitate transportation 9. facilitates storage 10. reduce wastage [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the 10 reasons for feed processing?


Input: isolate parts of seed such as removal of hull or breaking of waxy seed coat as to facilitate digestion by microbes and digestive juices [what is feed processing?]

Output: why would isolation of specific parts in feed processing be useful?


Input: roasting [what is feed processing?]

Output: how would you improve palatability during feed processing?


Input: in ruminants, digestibility tends to decrease as level of feeding increases due to fast passage of feed in GIT. Appropriate processing method may counteract the decline in digestibility [what is feed processing?]

Output: why would feed processing become concerned with improving digestibility, example?


Input: during pelleting, the heat inactivates heat-liable toxins. addition of ferrous sulphate in cotton seed cake removes gossypol toxicity [what is feed processing?]

Output: To detoxify in feed processing,what would have to be done?


Input: reduces bulkiness and increases density [what is feed processing?]

Output: how does feed processing facilitate transportation?


Input: drying reduces rancidity, mold [what is feed processing?]

Output: how does feed processing facilitate storage?


Input: uniform product, the animals can't pick out what they want to eat. [what is feed processing?]

Output: how is wastage reduced in feed processing?


Input: consumption rate of gain utilized more efficiently reduce wastage [what is feed processing?]

Output: the the feed processing method to be effective it must increase ___ and rate of ___, be utilized more ___ or reduce _____


Input: 1. cutting and chopping 2. chem. tx. 3. sun or art. drying 4. direct heat tx. 5. pelleting 6. grinding [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the 6 methods involved in feed processing?


Input: to improve utilization of low quality feedstuffs e.g. crop residues alkaline cmpds such as urea, NaOH or sodium bicarb. [what is feed processing?]

Output: why would chem. tx in feed processing be useful?


Input: grass w/ 60-75% moisture content must be dried to 15% moisture to maintain its quality and storage [what is feed processing?]

Output: why is sun or art. drying useful in feed processing?


Input: steam rolling/ dry rolling boiling cooking or frying [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the methods of direct heat tx. ?


Input: sorghum (milo) processing can be: ground, dry-rolled, steam processed flaked, pressure cooked flaked, popped (low density feed), micronized (infrared energy), exploded [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are some examples of direct heat tx.?


Input: grinding the feed and forcing it through a die. Pelleting prevents sorting by animals [what is feed processing?]

Output: how are pellets made, why is pelleting useful ?


Input: coursely ground grains are more favored by ruminants. Fine and dusty meals are favored by monogastrics. [what is feed processing?]

Output: why is grinding by using roller or hammer mills useful?


Input: 1. mailard rxn. 2. decreased promotion of growth 3. vit. destroyed by heat 4. alters micro elements 5. acreolins 6. destroyed vitamins 7. reduction in intake 8. increased rate of passage [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the 8 negative effects of processing feeds?


Input: a reaction that takes palce when proteins are excessively heated in the presence of carbohydrates. Reaction leads to binding of lysine and other AA to pentose sugars making them partially unavailable to the animal. [what is feed processing?]

Output: what is the Mailard reaction


Input: denaturation, the animals cannot utilize them for growth [what is feed processing?]

Output: what happens when proteins are heated too much?


Input: most vitamins are heat liable and easily destroyed by heat. [what is feed processing?]

Output: what does heat do to vitamins?


Input: excessive heating of fat will result into production of acreolins which are toxic to most animals. [what is feed processing?]

Output: how are acreolins produced?


Input: destruction of vitamins (easily oxidized) [what is feed processing?]

Output: what happens to vitamins when ground grains are stored?


Input: feed intake is reduced [what is feed processing?]

Output: when feedstuff is finely ground what happens?


Input: increases rate of passage in ruminants leading to reduced digestibility [what is feed processing?]

Output: what happens when forage in ground or chopped too much?


Input: 1. nutrient req. 2. availability of feed ingredients 3. cost of feed 4. physical comp. of feed 5. presence of toxic factors 6. type or ration-complete, supplemental 7. level of consumption [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the 7 factors to consider when formulating rations?


Input: complete supplemental [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are the 2 types of rations?


Input: supply all the required nutrients and can be fed as sold ration without any supplement except water. [what is feed processing?]

Output: what are complete feeds?


Input: for herbivores, are fed over and above basal roughage ration, to meet required nutrient demand [what is feed processing?]

Output: what is a supplementary feed?


Input: large percentage economically feasible [what is feed processing?]

Output: cost of feeds constitutes ___ percentage of the livestock production enterprise. Diet formulation must therefore be ____ feasilbe.


Input: nutrient requirements [what is feed processing?]

Output: in formulating diets, various feed ingredients are combined to meet the ____ ____ of the animal


Input: based on specie and physiological function terms: energy, fat, protein, mineral elements, and vitamins [what is feed processing?]

Output: nutrient requirement of an animal is based on what two things, and what are the 5 terms they can be expressed in?


Input: farm animals, horses, dogs, and cats. [what is feed processing?]

Output: The NRC is used for feeding guidelines for which animals?


Input: laboratory analysis of feed ingredients can be done by commerical lab's or such service is rendered by state [what is feed processing?]

Output: where are feedstuffs analysis peformed?


Input: NRC [what is feed processing?]

Output: average comp. data of feed ingredients can be obtained from the ___ tables.


Input: A 72-year-old man diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 5 years ago has been participating for the last 2 years in a pulmonary rehabilitation exercise class offered by the local hospital at a fitness facility. This is what level of prevention? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Tertiary Prevention

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: All of the following are examples of active strategies of health promotion except: [Primary Prevention]

Output: Fluoridation of drinking water

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A nurse teaches the importance of folic acid intake to a group of pregnant women. This is considered which level of preventive care? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Primary Prevention

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which of the following models of health or illness defines health as a positive, dynamic state, not merely the absence of disease? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Pender's health promotion model

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The nurse in a diabetic clinic conducts monthly seminars for diabetic clients. During these seminars, the importance of taking insulin as directed to prevent diabetic complications is emphasized. This is considered which level of preventive care? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Secondary Prevention

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When a nurse is performing surgical hand hygiene, the nurse must keep the hands: [Primary Prevention]

Output: Above the elbows

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which of the following statements reflects the current trend in the directives from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for minimizing risks of infection? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Keep all draining tube below the level of the waist and/or site of insertion

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: For which airborne disease(s) would the nurse be required to use gloves, respiratory devices, and gown when in close contact with the client? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Chicken pox and pulmonary tuberculosis

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Before the nurse washes the hands when leaving an isolation room, what is the last thing that is removed? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Mask

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Which statement comparing a surgical scrub with a regular hand-washing session is correct? [Primary Prevention]

Output: The fingers are held down to rinse in routine hand-washing but are held upright when performing a surgical scrub.

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When providing health maintenance teaching to new employees in the food-handling department, the nurse emphasizes the need to perform hand hygiene after using the bathroom to prevent: [Primary Prevention]

Output: Spread of hepatitis A

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: After the nurse assists a client with a history of seizures to a recliner chair, the client begins to have a seizure. The nurse should immediately: [Primary Prevention]

Output: Slide the client to the floor and cradle the client's head in the nurse's lap.

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: While the nurse is administering flu immunizations in November to a group of older adults at a community senior citizens' center, one of the seniors expresses a fear of contracting the flu from the injection. The nurse reassures the senior that this is not possible because the vaccine contains a dead virus and explains that this injection will produce _________ immunity, in which the senior's body will make antibodies to the virus. [Primary Prevention]

Output: Active

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Health care workers who have direct contact with individuals suspected of being contaminated with anthrax should do which of the following? [Primary Prevention]

Output: Wear an isolation gown, gloves, and high-efficiency particle arrestor (HEPA) mask and Have the client remove clothing and place it in a sealed biohazard bag

Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz 2 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Innate Immunity] Adaptive Immunity

Output: Self vs. non-self; Clonal lymphocyte response, Antigen recognition molecules, Memory

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Immune cells develop in______

Output: bone marrow

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] ______ cells take infections to lymph nodes and stimulate adaptive immunity

Output: dendritic

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Antigen recognition induces expression of effector molecules by __ cells which activate __ cells.

Output: T, B

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Proliferating B cells differentiate to resting ____ cells and antibody secreting _____ cells.

Output: memory, plasma

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Primary Organs

Output: Bone Marrow, Thymus; sites of lymphocyte production and development.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Secondary Organs

Output: Lymph Nodes, Spleen, Mucosal Lymphoid Tissue; sites where lymphocytes encounter and respond to antigens.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] T cells

Output: include several functionally distinct subtypes and are responsible for cell-mediated responses. They assist B cells in developing antibody responses

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] B cells

Output: develop into antibody-secreting plasma cells. Each plasma cell secretes only one class of immunoglobulin that binds only one antigen. The memory cells can react to the same antigen in subsequent encounters.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] thymus

Output: no significant filtering function, but supports the proliferation and programming of T lymphocyte precursors.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Where is the thymus?

Output: lies in the mediastinum anterior to the large vessels emerging from the heart. It is divided into two lobes and covered by a thin connective tissue capsule that penetrates the lobes as septa, dividing each lobe into lobules.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Each thymic lobule has an outer, dark-staining _____ and an inner, lighter-staining _____.

Output: cortex, medulla

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Part of the maturation process for T-cells is the elimination of self-reactive cells, to limit ______ disease.

Output: autoimmune

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What goes down w/in the thymic cortex and medulla?

Output: The densely-packed cortex contains the rapidly proliferating more immature thymocytes. As they mature they move towards the medulla. As many as 95% of the thymocytes fail to develop or display inappropriate self-reactivity, and die by apoptosis.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Describe the blood supply of the Thymus.

Output: Enters through the capsule and connective tissue septa. Branches of arteries and then capillaries go into the cortex. The continuous capillaries are sheathed by processes of epithelial reticular cells.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What makes up the blood-thymus barrier?

Output: The epithelial reticular cells, thick basal lamina, and continuous capillaries

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] There are no ____ lymphatic vessels coming into the thymus.

Output: afferent; it's job is not to filter lymph, but grow T cells.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What primarily constitutes the thymic cortex?

Output: thymocytes, along with epithelial reticular cells (large pale cells), and macrophages

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] cortical epithelial reticular cells

Output: program which thymocytes (T cells) will die and which ones will live and progress to the thymic medulla.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] The medulla contains ____ epithelial reticular cells and ____ T lymphocytes than the cortex

Output: more, fewer

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Does the medulla or cortex have more mature T lymphocytes?

Output: medulla

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Hassall's Corpuscles

Output: -concentric layers of flattened epithelial reticular cells that have died and calcified with age. They are found only in the thymic medulla and their function is unknown.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Compared to a young thymus, an aged thymus looks______.

Output: moth eaten

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] T/F: Babies are born with a fully fnx thymus gland.

Output: true; w/ aging, thymic tissue is replaced with adipose.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Digeorge's Syndrome

Output: congenital thymus abnormality- chromosome 22 defect. Complete Digeorge means there is no thymus present.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Lymphatic System

Output: vast complex network of capillaries, thin vessels, valves, ducts, nodes, and organs. It helps to protect and maintain the fluid environment of the body by producing, filtering, and conveying lymph

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Lymph is roughly __% of the tissue fluid that surrounds cells; usually 1-2 quarts makes up___% of the body weight

Output: 10%, 1-3%

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What do Lymph Node concave and convex surfaces do/contain?

Output: Convex surface = receives afferent lymphatic vessels Concave surface = contains arterioles and efferent lymphatic vessels

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] The lymph node stroma contains_____.

Output: reticular fibers

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What's in the cortex and paracortex of lymph nodes?

Output: cortex= . Lymphoid follicles (B cells with some T cells & other cell types) paracortex= mostly T cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] germinal centers

Output: light staining regions containing activated B cells undergoing transformations that yield memory cells and plasma cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] the paracortex is ____ staining because it's full of T cells.

Output: dark

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] lymph node medulla

Output: contains cords with reticular cells and plasma cells present; stains lighter than cortex

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Lymphadenopathy

Output: When antigen-specific T and B cells are stimulated, they rapidly proliferate in the follicles (B-cells) and paracortex (T-cells) to produce effector clones and memory cells. This cellular expansion can result in the lymph node enlarging

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] high endothelial venule-HEV

Output: paracortex of lymph node; lymphocyte point of entry from blood

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] largest lymphoid organ

Output: spleen; filters blood

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] in the spleen, connective tissue _____ pass from capsule to interior.

Output: trabeculae; trabecular artery→ central artery (w/ sheath full of T-cells)→ penicillar arterioles→ sheathed capillaries

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] white pulp

Output: spleen; a thick accumulation of lymphocytes surrounding the central arterioles; thickens to form splenic nodules

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] red pulp

Output: occurs in irregular masses - splenic cords, and splenic sinuses

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What separates red and white pulp?

Output: marginal zone

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] What makes up PALS in white pulp?

Output: T cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Where are the B cells in white pulp?

Output: splenic nodules

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] cords of billroth

Output: red pulp; The regions between sinusoids are occupied by pulp cords, rich in macrophages, reticular cells, and plasma cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Does the spleen have afferent lymphatics? Lymph sinuses?

Output: no, no.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Where is most of the spleen's lymphoid tissue located?

Output: white pulp (i.e. B cell nodules and PALS)

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] MALT

Output: mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue, found on mucus membranes lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and urogenital systems; secondary lymphoid tissue

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] non-encapsulated lymphoid nodules

Output: inactive= primary, active=secondary; B cells in the germinal center's center surrounded by marginal zone of memory cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] peyer's patches

Output: Large aggregates of lymphoid follicles/nodules in the *ileum.* Nodules originate in the lamina propria and extend into the submucosa.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] microfold (M) cells

Output: specialized epithelial cells over follicles that endocytose microorganisms from the lumen, and pass them intact to the antigen-presenting cells in the Peyer’s patches.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Pharyngeal Tonsils (Adenoids)

Output: nasopharynx posterior wall; covered with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium- some portions may be stratified squamous epithelium (especially in older individuals).

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Tonsillectomy

Output: surgical excision of the palatine tonsils

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Waldeyer’s ring

Output: composed of the tonsils and form a ring of lymphoid tissue around the entrance to the GI and respiratory tracts.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: [Innate Immunity] Lingual Tonsils

Output: diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes or multiple small nodules below epithelium of the posterior third of the tongue.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com

Barriers to primary infection: Phagocytosis, Inflammation and Complement System


Input: Delivery (at 35 weeks, the risks of abruption significantly outweigh the risks of prematurity).

Output: Best management for placenta abruption

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: Hypertension (chronic and preeclampsia) Cocaine use Short umbilical cord Trauma Uteroplacental insufficiency Submucous leiomyomata Sudden uterine decompression (hydramnios) Cigarette smoking Preterm premature rupture of membranes

Output: risk factors for abruptio placentae

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: placental abruption.

Output: patient complains of painful antepartum bleeding, which is consistent with

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: Ultrasound examination is not helpful in the majority of cases; a normal ultra- sound examination does not rule out placental abruption. There is no one test that is diagnostic of placental abruption, but rather the clinical picture must be taken as a whole.

Output: How is placenta abruption dx

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: , which takes advantage of the different solubilities of mater- nal versus fetal hemoglobin.

Output: Kleihauer–Betke test

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: magnesium sulfate

Output: seizure (eclampsia prophylaxis)

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: Early age of coitus Sexually transmitted diseases Early childbearing Low socioeconomic status Human papillomavirus HIV infection Cigarette smoking Multiple sexual partners

Output: cervical cancer risk factors

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: 51 years

Output: mean age of presentation of cervical cancer

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: Removal of the uterus, cervix, and supportive ligaments, such as the cardinal ligament, uterosacral ligament, and proximal vagina.

Output: RADICAL HYSTERECTOMY:

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: The quadrivalent vaccine has been granted FDA approval to be used in females aged 9 to 26. It consists of the anti- gens of HPV subtypes 6 and 11, which cause the majority of condyloma accumi- nata (venereal warts), and more importantly subtypes 16 and 18, which cause 50% to 70% of cervical cancer.

Output: HPV vaccine

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: Cervical cancer is staged clinically (Table 16–2). Early cervical cancer (contained within the cervix) may be treated equally well with surgery (radical hysterectomy) or radiation therapy. However, advanced cervical cancer is best treated with radiotherapy, consisting of brachytherapy (implants) with teletherapy (whole pelvis radiation) along with chemotherapy, usually platinum-based (cis-platinum), to sensitize the tissue to the radiotherapy.

Output: Tx of cervical cancer

Complications that can occur with placenta abruption


Input: A set of beliefs about right and wrong behavior within a society is called ____ [moral code]

Output: ethics


Input: describes standards or codes of behavior expected of an individual by a group (nation- organization- profession) to which an individual belongs [moral code]

Output: ethics


Input: One characteristic of an organization that has a successful ethics program is [moral code]

Output: employees are rewarded for ethical behavior


Input: While nearly half of all employees surveyed saw some form of ethical misconduct in 2007- less than ____ of those employees reported the misconduct to management [moral code]

Output: 60%


Input: Is a likely cause of employees feeling ?No one will ever know the difference- and if they do- so what [moral code]

Output: Management setting and holding people accountable to meet ?stretch? goals- quotas- and budgets


Input: The step in the five-step decision-making process during which the decision maker(s) consider laws- guidelines- policies- and principles that might apply to the decision is the [moral code]

Output: evaluate and choose alternative


Input: The step of the five-step decision process during which those who will be affected by the decision are identified is the [moral code]

Output: develop problem statement


Input: Part of developing a good problem statement [moral code]

Output: determining who is directly affected by the problem


Input: An approach to ethical decision making that is based on a vision of society as a community whose members work together to achieve a common set of values and goals is the [moral code]

Output: approach common good


Input: An approach to ethical decision making that states you should choose the action or policy that has the best overall consequences for all people who are directly or indirectly affected is the ____ approach [moral code]

Output: utilitarian


Input: As a result of increased ____- clients and service providers have built their working relationships on the expectation that they can communicate easily and instantly around the globe through electronic teleconferences- audio conferences- e-mail- and wireless devices [moral code]

Output: connectivity


Input: As a result of improved ____- clients are able to break down their business processes into their fundamental steps and decide which they will perform themselves and which they will outsource to service providers [moral code]

Output: Modularization


Input: Software manufacturers can file a civil suit against software pirates with penalties of up to ____ per copyrighted work [moral code]

Output: $100K


Input: Studies have shown that around ____ of all job applicants exaggerate their accomplishments on their resume [moral code]

Output: 30%


Input: An IT professional organization whose mission is to provide superior leadership and education in information technology and that has a goal to help its members make themselves more marketable within their industry is [moral code]

Output: AITP


Input: The obligation to protect people against any unreasonable harm or risk is [moral code]

Output: duty of care


Input: Because there are no ____ against which to compare a software engineer?s professional behavior- he or she cannot be subject to malpractice lawsuits [moral code]

Output: uniform standards


Input: Adherence to a professional code of ethics means that practitioners use a common set of ____ as a guideline for ethical decision making [moral code]

Output: core values and beliefs


Input: The Societe Generale employee alleged to have committed fraud against the firm that resulted in a loss to the bank of some ?4.9 billion was [moral code]

Output: Jerome Kerviel


Input: is a form of Trojan horse which executes when it is triggered by a specific event such as a change in a particular files- by typing a specific series of keystrokes- or by a specific time or date [moral code]

Output: Logic bomb


Input: A ____ attack keeps the target so busy responding to a stream of automated requests that legitimate users cannot get in [moral code]

Output: distributed denial-of-service


Input: The ____ code portion of a rootkit gets the rootkit installation started and can be easily activated by clicking on a link to a malicious Website in an e-mail or opening an infected .pdf file [moral code]

Output: dropper


Input: Spammers can defeat the registration process of free e-mail services by launching a coordinated ____ attack that can sign up for thousands of untraceable e-mail accounts [moral code]

Output: bot


Input: Edward Davidson ran a spamming operation out of his home that sent hundreds of thousands of spam e-mails. The header information of these e-mails concealed the actual sender from the recipient of the e-mail- a violation of the ____ Act [moral code]

Output: CAN-SPAM


Input: The ____ is a Federal law that primarily addresses unlawful access to stored electronic communications [moral code]

Output: US Code Title 18- Part I- Chapter 121


Input: The concept of ____ recognizes that managers must use their judgment to ensure that the cost of control does not exceed the system?s benefits or the risks involved [moral code]

Output: reasonable assurance


Input: The ____ is a nonregulatory federal agency within the U.S. Department of Commerce whose Computer Security Division develops security standards and technology against threats to the confidentiality- integrity- and availability of information and services [moral code]

Output: National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)


Input: The ____ is a partnership between the Department of Homeland Security and the public and private sectors- established in 2003 to protect the nation?s Internet infrastructure against cyber attacks [moral code]

Output: U.S. Computer Emergency Readiness Team (US_CERT)


Input: A software and/or hardware device that monitors system and network resources and activities- and notifies network security personnel when it identifies possible intrusions from outside the organization or misuse from within the organization is a(n) [moral code]

Output: intrusion detection system (IDS)


Input: A(n) ____ works to prevent an attack by blocking viruses- malformed packets- and other threats from getting into the protected network [moral code]

Output: intrusion prevention system (IPS)


Input: The concept of privacy is [moral code]

Output: protected by a number of amendments in the Bill of Rights


Input: The Supreme Court has ruled that [moral code]

Output: without a reasonable expectation of privacy there is no privacy right


Input: The ____ is a 1970 federal act that outlines who may access your credit information- how you can find out what is in your file- how to dispute inaccurate data- and how long data is retained [moral code]

Output: Fair Credit Reporting Act


Input: The ____ is an act that repealed a depression-era law known as Glass-Steagell. Some place partial blame for the financial crises that began in 2008 on the passage of this act and the loosening of banking restrictions [moral code]

Output: Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act


Input: Does not cover the dissemination of information to children [moral code]

Output: The Children?s Online Privacy Protection Act


Input: Allows surveillance- without court order- within the United States for up to a year unless the surveillance will acquire the contents of any communications to which a U.S. person is a party [moral code]

Output: The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act


Input: The ____ prohibits unauthorized access to stored wire and electronic communications- such as the contents of e-mail in-boxes- instant messages- message boards- and social networking sites that are not readily accessible to the general public [moral code]

Output: Electronic Communications Privacy Act


Input: Under the ____- the Federal Communications Commission responded to appeals from the Justice Department by requiring providers of Internet phone services and broadband services to ensure that their equipment accommodated the use of law enforcement wiretaps [moral code]

Output: Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act


Input: Roving wiretap [moral code]

Output: allows the FBI to intercept any communications to or by an intelligence target without specifying the telephone line- computer- or other facility to be monitored


Input: Fair Information Practices [moral code]

Output: The 1980 privacy guidelines set by the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development are also known as the ____ and are often held up as the model of ethical treatment of consumer data for organizations to adopt


Input: The ____ requires member countries to ensure that data transferred to non-European Union countries is protected- and bars the export of data to countries that do not have data privacy protection standards comparable to the European Union?s [moral code]

Output: European Union Data Protection Directive


Input: The ____ seal program identifies online businesses that honor their own stated privacy protection policies [moral code]

Output: BBBOnLine


Input: BBBOnLine [moral code]

Output: For a Web site to receive the ____ seal- its operators must demonstrate that it adheres to established privacy principles. The Web site must also agree to comply with that organization?s oversight and consumer resolution process- and pay an annual fee


Input: The Privacy Act [moral code]

Output: prohibits the government from concealing the existence of any personal data record-keeping systems


Input: Spyware [moral code]

Output: is keystroke-logging software downloaded to users computers without the knowledge or consent of the user


Input: Click-stream data [moral code]

Output: information gathered by monitoring a consumers online activity


Input: uses business rules tied to customer-supplied preferences or online behavior to determine the appropriate page views and product information to display when users visit a site [moral code]

Output: Rules-based personalized software


Input: A screening technology called ____ helps shield users from sites that do not provide the level of privacy protection they desire [moral code]

Output: Platform for Privacy Preferences


Input: Fourth Amendment [moral code]

Output: protects citizens from unreasonable government searches and is often invoked to protect the privacy of government employees


Input: protects Americans rights to freedom of religion and freedom of expression [moral code]

Output: First Amendment


Input: The Supreme Court has held that this form of speech is not protected by the First Amendment and may be forbidden by the government [moral code]

Output: Perjury


Input: is the Supreme Court case that established a test to determine if material is obscene [moral code]

Output: Miller v. California


Input: The problem with the Communications Decency Act was its broad language and vague definition of____- resulting in the Act being ruled unconstitutional [moral code]

Output: indecency


Input: After a three judge federal panel ruled unanimously that the Communications Decency Act unconstitutionally restricted ____- the government appealed to the Supreme Court in a case that became known as Reno v. ACLU [moral code]

Output: free speech


Input: Privacy advocacy groups such as the Electronic Privacy Information Center- the ACLU- and the Electronic Frontier Foundation claimed that the language in the Child Online Protection Act was overly vague and limited the ability of ____ to access material protected under the First Amendment [moral code]

Output: adults


Input: The Children?s Internet Protection Act (CIPA) [moral code]

Output: is still in effect and has not been ruled unconstitutional


Input: Internet filter [moral code]

Output: Organizations may direct their network administrators to install a(n) ____ on employee?s computers to prevent them from viewing sites that contain pornography or other objectionable material


Input: Attempted to protect children from accessing pornography and other explicit material online [moral code]

Output: The Childrens Internet Protection Act


Input: Proponents of the Children?s Internet Protection Act argued that ____schools and libraries could elect to not implement the program [moral code]

Output: they just would not receive Federal money for Internet access


Input: Implementing the Childrens Internet Protection Act is more difficult for a library than a school because [moral code]

Output: the librarys services are open to people of all ages


Input: In United States v. American Library Association- the Supreme Court- in a 6-3 decision- held that public libraries [moral code]

Output: must purchase filtering software and comply with all portions of the Childrens Internet Protection Act


Input: Was a printer who was prosecuted for seditious libel because s(he) refused to reveal the names of anonymous authors whose writings were critical of the governor of new York [moral code]

Output: John Zenger


Input: A pamphlet called ____ was published by Thomas Paine and critiqued the British monarchy and urged the colonies to become independent [moral code]

Output: Common Sense


Input: One of the first rulings by the Supreme Court to address anonymity as an aspect of the Bill or Rights was the 1958 case [moral code]

Output: NAACP v. Alabama


Input: Internet users who want to remain anonymous can send e-mail to a(n) ____ service- which uses software to strip the originating IP address from the message [moral code]

Output: anonymous remailer


Input: An organizations IT department can set up a(n) ____ to prohibit employees from accessing remailers [moral code]

Output: firewall


Input: The use of a remailer keeps communications anonymous; what is communicated- and whether it is ethical or legal [moral code]

Output: is up to the user of the remailer


Input: John Doe lawsuit [moral code]

Output: is often filed against a defendant whose identity is temporarily unknown


Input: In the United States- speech that is merely annoying- critical- demeaning- or offensive enjoys protection under the First Amendment. Legal recourse is possible only when that speech turns into clear threats and intimidation against [moral code]

Output: specific citizens


Input: RIAA [moral code]

Output: trade group that represents the U.S. recording industry


Input: Copyright and patent protection was established by [moral code]

Output: the U.S. Constitution


Input: The concept that an idea cannot be copyrighted but the ____ of an idea can be is key to understanding copyright protection [moral code]

Output: expression


Input: The ____ requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced under their laws and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further violations [moral code]

Output: TRIPS agreement


Input: Unlike traditional copyright law- the ____ does not govern copying; instead- it focuses on the distribution of tools and software that can be used for copyright infringement as well as for legitimate non-infringing use [moral code]

Output: Digital Millennium Copyright Act


Input: One of the tests that an invention must pass to be eligible for a patent is [moral code]

Output: it must not be obvious to a person having ordinary skill in the same field


Input: The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that there are ____ classes of items that cannot be patented [moral code]

Output: three


Input: Some software experts think that too many software patents are being granted- inhibiting new software development. For example- ____ obtained a patent for ?one-click shopping-? based on the use of a shopping cart purchase system for electronic commerce [moral code]

Output: Amazon.com


Input: In 2009- ____ announced that it would donate some 3-000 patents for free use by developers to help them innovate and build new hardware and software. The announcement represented a major shift in this firm?s intellectual property strategy and was meant to encourage other patent holders to donate their own intellectual property [moral code]

Output: IBM


Input: submarine patent [moral code]

Output: A patented process or invention that is surreptitiously included within a standard without being made public until after the standard is broadly adopted


Input: One key advantage that trade secret law has over the use of patents and copyrights in protecting companies from losing control of their intellectual property is [moral code]

Output: there is no need to file an application or disclose the trade secret to gain protection


Input: can qualify for trade secret protection under the Uniform Trade Secrets Act [moral code]

Output: Both computer hardware and software


Input: A(n) ____ can read the machine language of a software program and produce the source code [moral code]

Output: decompiler


Input: The courts have ruled in favor of using reverse engineering to enable [moral code]

Output: interoperability


Input: Legally obtained information that is gathered to help a company gain an advantage over its rivals is called [moral code]

Output: competitive intelligence


Input: The ____ Act enacted in 1999- allows trademark owners to challenge foreign cyber squatters who might otherwise be beyond the jurisdiction of U.S. courts [moral code]

Output: Anti-cybersquatting Consumer Protection


Input: register domain names for famous trademarks or company names to which they have no connection [moral code]

Output: Cyber squatters


Input: Under the ACPA- trademark holders can seek civil damages of up to ____ from cyber squatters that register their trade names or similar-sounding names as domain names [moral code]

Output: $100K


Input: The basic premise behind open source code is that when many programmers can read- redistribute- and modify a programs code- the software [moral code]

Output: improves


Input: The objective of quality management is to [moral code]

Output: deliver high-quality systems that meet the needs of their users


Input: The first release of any software [moral code]

Output: rarely meets all its users expectations


Input: A primary cause of poor software quality is that [moral code]

Output: many developers do not know how to design quality into software from the very start


Input: The degree to which a software product meets the needs of its users is called software [moral code]

Output: Software quality


Input: Additional features in a new release of software [moral code]

Output: make it more useful and easier to sell


Input: Software used to control many industrial processes in an effort to reduce costs- eliminate human error- improve quality- and shorten the time it takes to manufacture products is called a(n) [moral code]

Output: process control system


Input: There is no federal product liability law; instead- product liability is mainly covered by common law and ____ which deals with the sale of goods [moral code]

Output: The Code of Federal Regulations


Input: When sued for negligence- a software developer is not held responsible for every product defect that could have been detected that causes customer or third-party loss [moral code]

Output: Instead


Input: original seller is not liable if the software was materially altered after it left the sellers possession and the alteration caused the injury [moral code]

Output: Under the doctrine of supervening event


Input: Requires several standards must be met including; the goods must be fit for the ordinary purpose for which they are used- the quality of the goods must pass without objection in the trade- and the goods must meet a fair average or middle range of quality [moral code]

Output: implied warranty of merchantability


Input: Occurs when a seller or lessor either misrepresents the quality of a product or conceals a defect in it [moral code]

Output: Intentional misrepresentation


Input: is a standard- proven work process that enables project team members to make controlled and orderly progress in developing high-quality software [moral code]

Output: Software development methodology


Input: One approach to quality assurance is to test the code of a completed unit of software by actually entering test data and comparing the results to the expected results [moral code]

Output: dynamic testing


Input: After successful unit testing- the software units are combined into an integrated subsystem that undergoes rigorous testing to ensure that the linkages among the various subsystems work successfully [moral code]

Output: integration testing


Input: defines five levels of software development maturity and identifies the issues that are most critical to software quality and process improvement [moral code]

Output: Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)


Input: After an organization decides to adopt CMMI-DEC [moral code]

Output: conduct an assessment of its software development practices


Input: When developing safety-critical software [moral code]

Output: a project safety engineer maintains a hazard log


Input: describes how a product or process could fail to perform the desired function described by the customer [moral code]

Output: FMEA actually is should be failure mode


Input: Of the roughly 1 billion Internet users worldwide- only _____ are estimated to live in less developed nations [moral code]

Output: 20 million


Input: A University of Chicago study found that the E-Rate program led to _____ in California students scores in the six subjects covered by the Stanford Achievement Test [moral code]

Output: no change


Input: created a competitor to the OLPC laptop computer called the classmate [moral code]

Output: Intel


Input: The healthcare industry invests about _____ in IT for each worker- compared with nearly $15K per worker in the banking industry [moral code]

Output: $3K


Input: program was launched in recognition that the ability to use computers and access the Internet is a requirement for succeeding in the U.S. educational system and global workforce [moral code]

Output: Ed-Tech


Input: Labor productivity in the United States remained relatively high despite a(n) _____ level of investment in IT from 1999 to 2004 [moral code]

Output: reduced


Input: In the United States- it is estimated that there are roughly _____ employees who telework more than eight hours per week [moral code]

Output: 14 million


Input: A 1999 report by the Institute of Medicine found that 98-000 Americans die annually due to preventable medical errors. A 2009 Consumers Union report claims that we have _____ the number of such deaths [moral code]

Output: made no change in


Input: As part of the $787 billion 2009 economic stimulus plan- the federal government earmarked $33 billion in incentives for healthcare providers to implement government certified- interoperable _____ systems by 2015 [moral code]

Output: Electronic Health Records


Input: The two basic forms of telemedicine are [moral code]

Output: store-and-forward and live


Input: As of 2007-what percent of all U.S. heads-of-household have never used e-mail [moral code]

Output: 20%


Input: Of the roughly 1.0 billion people around the world who earn less than $1K USD per year have access to a computer [moral code]

Output: Nearly 0%


Input: Organizations are trying to improve IT systems and business processes that have already gone through several rounds of improvement. This makes it difficult to measure significant improvements in [moral code]

Output: productivity


Input: In the United States- labor productivity growth has averaged about _____ percent per year for the past century [moral code]

Output: 2%


Input: In a Commonwealth Fund study of 41 Texas hospitals that treat a diverse group of patients- researchers found that when physicians electronically entered patient care instructions- there was a _____ reduction in the likelihood of death related to some procedures [moral code]

Output: 50%


Input: A 2006 Institute of Medicine report concluded that more than _____ preventable medication errors per year cost the United States about $3.5 billion annually [moral code]

Output: 1.5 million


Input: U.S. regulations make it easier for companies to hire and fire workers and to start and end business activities compared to many other industrialized nations. This flexibility makes it easier for markets to relocate workers to _____ firms and sectors [moral code]

Output: more productive


Input: Percent of teenagers in the U.S. using social networking Web sites [moral code]

Output: 65%


Input: created its own social networking Web site- IdeaStorm- as a means for its millions of customers around the world to talk about new products- services- or improvements they would like [moral code]

Output: Dell


Input: Of those hiring managers who use social networking Web sites to screen candidates- _____ have found information that made them drop a candidate from consideration [moral code]

Output: one-third


Input: as a social shopping Web site that implemented a reward system for members in which they are paid a commission each time another shopper acts on their recommendations to purchase a specific item [moral code]

Output: Stuffpit


Input: Recent survey results show that _____ of students ages 13-17 had experienced cyber bullying within the last year [moral code]

Output: 43%


Input: Estimates from Internet safety groups reveal an increasing number of cyber stalking reports with _____ reports per day for help from victims of cyber stalking [moral code]

Output: 50 to 500


Input: MySpace purged _____ sex offenders from its site over a period of two years [moral code]

Output: 90-000


Input: using real world cash to purchase virtual cash [moral code]

Output: Avatars can earn virtual money by


Input: Online muggings and sex crimes in a virtual world can cause real life anguish for the human owners of the avatars involved. Such acts _____ rise to the level of a real life crime [moral code]

Output: may or may not


Input: Which of the following is a true statement about the number of declared undergraduate computer science majors at doctoral-granting computer science departments [moral code]

Output: there was a decline in enrollment in spite of the forecast for an increased number of workers in this field


Input: Which of the following statements is true about the Bureau of Labor Statistics forecast for employment between 2006 and 2014 [moral code]

Output: Jobs related to networking and data communications analysis had the highest forecasted growth rate at 50 percent.


Input: Which of these statements about contingent workers is true [moral code]

Output: A firm is likely to use contingent IT workers if it experiences pronounced fluctuations in its technical staffing needs


Input: A situation in which two employers have actual or potential legal rights and duties with respect to the same employee or group of employees is called [moral code]

Output: coemployment relationship


Input: Because contingent workers are already specialists in a particular task- the hiring firm does not customarily incur [moral code]

Output: training expenses


Input: One potential disadvantage of using contingent workers is [moral code]

Output: they may not feel a strong connection to the company for which they are working


Input: contingent workers may pass on information about corporate processes and strategies to subsequent clients who could be competitors [moral code]

Output: Another disadvantage of using contingent workers is that


Input: lawsuit dramatically illustrated the cost of misclassifying employees and violating laws that cover compensation- taxes- unemployment insurance- and overtime [moral code]

Output: Viscaino v. Microsoft


Input: if contractors sign an agreement indicating that they are contractors and not employees- the deciding factor is not the agreement but the degree of control the company exercises over the employees [moral code]

Output: The key lesson from Viscaino v. Microsoft is that


Input: Before a company can apply for an H-1B visa worker [moral code]

Output: it must submit Labor Condition Statement


Input: is an internationally recognized standard that companies can use to ensure that company data is protected in an outsourcing arrangement [moral code]

Output: Auditing Standards No. 70


Input: [Types of government?] Authoritarian [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: is when the leader has all the power.

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Dictator [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: that the ruler comes to power by military force

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Monarchy [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: they are born into it

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Democracy [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: people have all the power

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Representative democracy [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: eletic people

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Direct democracy [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: everyone votes for everyone

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Types of government?] Constitutional monarchy [Authoritarian and Democracy]

Output: they resistant the country

Chapter 4 Louisiana history Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] calibration

Output: adjustment of an instrument/examiner or its measurements so the distribution of measurements matches a standard

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] community periodontal index CPI

Output: a measure of periodontal health, developed and supported by WHO

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] deans flourosis index

Output: measures the prevalance and severity of dental flourosis

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] df index

Output: a measure of dental carries in the primary dentition that includes decayed and filled primary teeth of tooth surface

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] dmf index

Output: a measure of dental carries in the deciduous dentition that includes decayed, missing, filled disid. teeth or tooth surface

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] DMF index

Output: measure of casies in the perm dentition that includes decayed, misssing, filled tooth/surface

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] gingival index GI

Output: a measure of the prevalence and severity of gingival bleeding

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] intErexaminer reliability

Output: the level to which different examiners agree

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] intrAexaminer reliability

Output: the level to wich an examiner agrees with him/herself at two different points in time

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] plaque index P1l

Output: measures the precence and amount of dental plaque

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] ramfjord index teeth

Output: 6 index teeth used when eval. peio health UR1M, ULCI, UL1P, LL1M, LRCI, LRP

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] reliability

Output: a particular technique applied repeatedly yeailds the same result

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] root carries index RCI

Output: measures root carries; # of exposed root surfaces is the denominator

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] simplified oral hygine index OHI-S

Output: measures the precence of plaque and calculus; considered an obsolete index

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] surveillence

Output: the ongoing systematic collection/analysis/omterpretation of outcome specific data for use in planning/implementing/evaluating public health survices

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] tooth surface index of flourosis TSIF

Output: a measure of prevalance and severity of dental flourosis

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: [basic screening survey BSS] validity

Output: an instrument does what it is inteded to do

a model for oral health surveilence developed by the ASTDD


Input: Self vs. non-self; Clonal lymphocyte response, Antigen recognition molecules, Memory [Innate Immunity]

Output: Adaptive Immunity

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: bone marrow [Innate Immunity]

Output: Immune cells develop in______

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: dendritic [Innate Immunity]

Output: ______ cells take infections to lymph nodes and stimulate adaptive immunity

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: T, B [Innate Immunity]

Output: Antigen recognition induces expression of effector molecules by __ cells which activate __ cells.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: memory, plasma [Innate Immunity]

Output: Proliferating B cells differentiate to resting ____ cells and antibody secreting _____ cells.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Bone Marrow, Thymus; sites of lymphocyte production and development. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Primary Organs

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Lymph Nodes, Spleen, Mucosal Lymphoid Tissue; sites where lymphocytes encounter and respond to antigens. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Secondary Organs

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: include several functionally distinct subtypes and are responsible for cell-mediated responses. They assist B cells in developing antibody responses [Innate Immunity]

Output: T cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: develop into antibody-secreting plasma cells. Each plasma cell secretes only one class of immunoglobulin that binds only one antigen. The memory cells can react to the same antigen in subsequent encounters. [Innate Immunity]

Output: B cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: no significant filtering function, but supports the proliferation and programming of T lymphocyte precursors. [Innate Immunity]

Output: thymus

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lies in the mediastinum anterior to the large vessels emerging from the heart. It is divided into two lobes and covered by a thin connective tissue capsule that penetrates the lobes as septa, dividing each lobe into lobules. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Where is the thymus?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: cortex, medulla [Innate Immunity]

Output: Each thymic lobule has an outer, dark-staining _____ and an inner, lighter-staining _____.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: autoimmune [Innate Immunity]

Output: Part of the maturation process for T-cells is the elimination of self-reactive cells, to limit ______ disease.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The densely-packed cortex contains the rapidly proliferating more immature thymocytes. As they mature they move towards the medulla. As many as 95% of the thymocytes fail to develop or display inappropriate self-reactivity, and die by apoptosis. [Innate Immunity]

Output: What goes down w/in the thymic cortex and medulla?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Enters through the capsule and connective tissue septa. Branches of arteries and then capillaries go into the cortex. The continuous capillaries are sheathed by processes of epithelial reticular cells. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Describe the blood supply of the Thymus.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The epithelial reticular cells, thick basal lamina, and continuous capillaries [Innate Immunity]

Output: What makes up the blood-thymus barrier?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: afferent; it's job is not to filter lymph, but grow T cells. [Innate Immunity]

Output: There are no ____ lymphatic vessels coming into the thymus.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: thymocytes, along with epithelial reticular cells (large pale cells), and macrophages [Innate Immunity]

Output: What primarily constitutes the thymic cortex?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: program which thymocytes (T cells) will die and which ones will live and progress to the thymic medulla. [Innate Immunity]

Output: cortical epithelial reticular cells

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: more, fewer [Innate Immunity]

Output: The medulla contains ____ epithelial reticular cells and ____ T lymphocytes than the cortex

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: medulla [Innate Immunity]

Output: Does the medulla or cortex have more mature T lymphocytes?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: -concentric layers of flattened epithelial reticular cells that have died and calcified with age. They are found only in the thymic medulla and their function is unknown. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Hassall's Corpuscles

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: moth eaten [Innate Immunity]

Output: Compared to a young thymus, an aged thymus looks______.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: true; w/ aging, thymic tissue is replaced with adipose. [Innate Immunity]

Output: T/F: Babies are born with a fully fnx thymus gland.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: congenital thymus abnormality- chromosome 22 defect. Complete Digeorge means there is no thymus present. [Innate Immunity]

Output: Digeorge's Syndrome

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: vast complex network of capillaries, thin vessels, valves, ducts, nodes, and organs. It helps to protect and maintain the fluid environment of the body by producing, filtering, and conveying lymph [Innate Immunity]

Output: Lymphatic System

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: 10%, 1-3% [Innate Immunity]

Output: Lymph is roughly __% of the tissue fluid that surrounds cells; usually 1-2 quarts makes up___% of the body weight

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Convex surface = receives afferent lymphatic vessels Concave surface = contains arterioles and efferent lymphatic vessels [Innate Immunity]

Output: What do Lymph Node concave and convex surfaces do/contain?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: reticular fibers [Innate Immunity]

Output: The lymph node stroma contains_____.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: cortex= . Lymphoid follicles (B cells with some T cells & other cell types) paracortex= mostly T cells [Innate Immunity]

Output: What's in the cortex and paracortex of lymph nodes?

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: light staining regions containing activated B cells undergoing transformations that yield memory cells and plasma cells [Innate Immunity]

Output: germinal centers

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: dark [Innate Immunity]

Output: the paracortex is ____ staining because it's full of T cells.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: contains cords with reticular cells and plasma cells present; stains lighter than cortex [Innate Immunity]

Output: lymph node medulla

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: When antigen-specific T and B cells are stimulated, they rapidly proliferate in the follicles (B-cells) and paracortex (T-cells) to produce effector clones and memory cells. This cellular expansion can result in the lymph node enlarging [Innate Immunity]

Output: Lymphadenopathy

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: paracortex of lymph node; lymphocyte point of entry from blood [Innate Immunity]

Output: high endothelial venule-HEV

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: spleen; filters blood [Innate Immunity]

Output: largest lymphoid organ

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: trabeculae; trabecular artery→ central artery (w/ sheath full of T-cells)→ penicillar arterioles→ sheathed capillaries [Innate Immunity]

Output: in the spleen, connective tissue _____ pass from capsule to interior.

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: spleen; a thick accumulation of lymphocytes surrounding the central arterioles; thickens to form splenic nodules [Innate Immunity]

Output: white pulp

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: occurs in irregular masses - splenic cords, and splenic sinuses [Innate Immunity]

Output: red pulp

Microanatomy 2-4 Immune System Flashcards - Cram.com