Input: SIRS with suspected or confirmed infection and organ dysfunction or hypotension

Output: What is severe sepsis?

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Input: SIRS with suspected or confirmed infection with hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation

Output: What is septic shock?

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Input: Systemic hypoperfusion that manifests as lactic acidosis with organ dysfunction

Output: What is hemorrhagic shock?

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Input: Cardiac failure that cuases systemic hypoperfusion that manifests as lactic acidosis with organ dysfunction

Output: What is cardiogenic shock?

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Input: It involves measuring the blood lactate concentration at two or more times. If the lactate concentration has not decreased by 10% two hours after resuscitation has begun then additional steps should be taken.

Output: How can lactate clearance be used to monitor resuscitation?

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Input: It is the oxygen saturation of blood in the pulmonary artery after the venous effluent has been mixed thoroughly in the RV. It is measured by withdrawing a sample of blood from the distal port of the unwedged PAC.

Output: What is the mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2)

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Input: It is the oxygen saturation in the vena cava. It is measured through a central venous catheter and has been shown to closely parallel the Svo2

Output: What is central venous oxygen saturation (ScVO2)?

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Input: When red cells are separated from the blood at the time of collection

Output: What is red cell apheresis?

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Input: -lower pH -less 2,3 diphsphoglycerate -rbcs more spherical and right (increased resistance to capillary flow) -leakage of K+

Output: What changes occur in stored blood?

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Input: When a blood specimen from the patient is sent for ABO grouping, Rh typing and an antibody screen for unexpected (non-ABO/Rh) antibodies

Output: What is a 'type and screen'?

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Input: Acute hemolysis

Output: What happens when ABO incompatible blood is administered to a patient?

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Input: 1. Test a patient's red cells with serum containing anti-A and anti-B antibodies 2. Test a patient's serum agains A and B red cells

Output: What is involved in ABO grouping?

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Input: Add anti-D reagent to the recipients red cells.

Output: How is Rh typing done?

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Input: Take rbc reagents (which are red cells with clinically significant antigens) and mix them with the patient's serum.

Output: How is the antibody screen done?

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Input: When you mix the recipient's serum with donor rbcs.

Output: What is a crossmatch?

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Input: O- AB (serum from AB individuals has neither anti-A or anti-B antibodies)

Output: What is the universal type of blood? type of serum?

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Input: Transfusion equivalent to the patient's blood volume with stored rbis within a 24 hour period

Output: What is the definition of massive transfusion?

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Input: -Hypothermia -Transiently decreased patient levels of ionized calcium

Output: What are problems with prbc transfusion that are not related to storage?

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Input: -circumoral tingling -skeletal muscle tremors -QT prolongation

Output: What are the signs of hypocalcemia?

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Input: In the critical care setting a transfusion threshold of 7g/dL was as safe as a threshold of 10g/dL

Output: What did the TRICC trial demonstrate?

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Input: Administer if INR >1.5-2.0 and actively bleeding (or requires and invasive procedure)

Output: What are the current practice guidelines for the administration of FFP?

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Output: At what level should platelets be transfused?

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Output: What level of platelets is sufficient to perform a procedure?


Input: 10-15mL/kg (may use 5-8mL/kg in those that are warfarin anti coagulated)

Output: What is the usual dosage of FFP?

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Input: No, but platelets should be Rh compatible

Output: Is a crossmatch needed for platelet transfusion?

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Input: 10cc/kg 15cc/kg -1U/10Kg of body weight

Output: What are the doses for prcbs/FFP and platelets in children?

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Input: 1. Acute -Intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction -febrile transfusion reaction -allergic reaction -transfusion-related acute lung injury 2.Delayed -extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction -transfusion associated graft-versus host disease

Output: What are immune-mediated adverse effects of rbc transfusion?

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Input: -immediate onset -fever -chills -HA -N and V -Chest restriction -Joint and back pain -burning at the infusion site

Output: What are signs and symptoms of a intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?

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Input: Hypotension DIC ATN

Output: What are the clinical effects of an Intravascular Hemolytic Reaction?

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Input: Detect free Hgb in the blood and urine and a positive Coombs test on the post-transfusion test (but not pre-transfusion)

Output: How do you confirm an Intravascular Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction?

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Input: A 1 degree celsius increase in temperature associated with transfusion that has no medical explanation.

Output: What is the definition of a febrile transfusion reaction?

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Input: It is the result of anti leukocyte antibodies (therefore it should not occur in a first time transfusion)

Output: What is the medical explanation for a febrile transfusion reaction?

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Input: IgA deficient patients, the anaphylaxis is due to the presence of anti-IgA in IgA deficient patients

Output: Which patient's are more prone to anaphylactic transfusion reactions?

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Input: Give then washed prbcs and plasma from IgA deficient individuals.

Output: What precautions should be taken for IgA deficient patients to try and prevent transfusion related anaphylaxis?

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Input: prbcs FFP platelets cryoprecipitate

Output: What blood products can cause TRALI

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Input: A non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema picture with dyspnea, hypoxemia and bilateral infiltrates

Output: What is the clinical presentation of TRALI?

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Input: Use only male donors for plasma in order to avoid allotypic leukocyte antibodies which can occur in females.

Output: What strategy has been suggested to decrease the incidence of TRALI?

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Input: It is safe to continue transfusions of products from a different donor.

Output: Can you continue any blood product transfusions after TRALI?

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Input: It is a non-ABO mediated immune reaction often due to an anamnestic response in a patient previously sensitized to red cell antigens (from pregnancy, transfusion or transplant)

Output: What is an extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?

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Input: It occurs when transfused lymphocytes proliferate and attack the recipient

Output: What is transfusion associated GvHD?

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Input: -Cell mediated immunodeficiency -Identical HLA type between donor and recipient This diagnosis should be considered in anemic leukaemia and lymphoma patients

Output: What are Risk Factors for TA GvHD

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Input: -Circulatory overload (infuse over 4hrs) -bacterial contamination -Hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, hypothermia, acidosis, microemboli, coagulopathy (consequences of multiunit transfusions) -risk of transmission of virus' (HIV/Hep C - 1:2 million, Hep B 1: 200,000-500,000 and others CMV, West Nile)

Output: What are non-immune mediated AE associated with Transfusion?

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Input: Yersinia enterocolitica (it grows well in cool. iron-rich environments and more commonly occur in platelets and rbcs because of the temperature at which they are stored)

Output: What is the most common bacterial contaminant of blood products and why?

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Input: Cerebral perfusion pressure Cerebrovascular resistance Blood oxygen saturation

Output: What are the determinants of oxygen delivery to the brain?

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Input: Traditionally it has been estimated that closed chest compressions can generate 20-30% of normal cardiac output, however recent studies have led to estimates ranging from 1-60% of traditional CBF.

Output: What is the efficacy of closed chest compression generating adequate cerebral perfusion?

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Input: CO2 is a potent vasoactive agent therefore decreasing CO2 through hyperventilation results in rapid reduction of CBF through increase in Cerebrovascular resistance however when ICP is not elevated, increases in CVR can cause dangerous decreases in cerebral blood flow.

Output: Discuss PaCO2 and CBF

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Input: PaCO2 35-40mmHg

Output: What PaCO2 should you maintain in patients post cardiac arrest?

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Input: PaO2 80-100mmHg

Output: What PaO2 should be maintained post cardiac arrest?

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Input: NNT: 7

Output: What is the NNT for therapeutic hypothermia post cardiac arrest

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Input: Achieve 33 +/-1 degree within 2-8 hours and maintain for 12-24 hours.

Output: What was the therapeutic hypothermia protocol in the landmark trials?

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Input: -absence of pupillary and corneal reflexes at 24 hours -absence of motor responses at 72 hours

Output: What physical examination findings are considered the best predictors of a poor neurologic outcome post cardiac arrest?

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Input: -Ventricular fibrillation (less commonly pulseless ventricular tachycardia)

Output: What is the typical presentation of cardiac arrest from a primary cardiac origin?

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Input: Hyperkalemia

Output: What is the most common metabolic cause of cardiac arrest?

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Input: Dysrhythmia or apnea 100mA - 1A ->VF >10A -> ventricular asystole ligntening -> asystole or prolonged apnea

Output: By what mechanism does electrocution cause cardiac arrest?

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Input: bradyasystolic arrest

Output: What is the usual dysrhyhmia in drowning?

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Input: -triad of unconsciousness, apnea and pulselessness

Output: What is the definition of cardiopulmonary arrest?

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Input: -transient tachycardia and hypertension -LOC -bradycardia + pulselessness usually within 5 min

Output: What is the sequence of physiological events in a primary respiratory arrest?

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Input: The lack of a palpable pure may indicate inadequate forward flow, however the degree of forward flow cannot be estimated accurately in the presence of a palpable pulse because pressures generated are transmitted equally to the venous and arterial vasculature

Output: Discuss the use of a palpable pulse to monitor CPR adequacy?

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Input: -Administration of NaHCO3

Output: What may cause a false positive ETCO2 during CPR?

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Input: -CO2 production -alveolar ventilation -pulmonary blood flow (cardiac output)

Output: What parameters determine ETCO2?

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Input: (The normal ranges from 60-80%) -During cardiac arrest with CPR 25-35%. Failure to reach an SCVO2 of 40% has as 100% NPV for ROSC

Output: What are typical ScVo2 values in cardiac arrest?

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Input: In biphasic defibrillators the energy required for successful defibrillation (the defibrillation threshold) is less, but their superiority in achieving ROSC or survival to hospital discharge has not been proven

Output: What is the difference between monophasic and biphasic defibrillators?

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Input: Coordinated electrical activity of the heart with no myocardial contraction

Output: What is EMD?

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Input: Coordinated electrical activity of the heart with myocardial contractions (but no palpable pulse)

Output: What is pseudo-EMD?

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Input: bradycardia with wide QRS (abnormal automaticity)

Output: What is the typical true EMD rhythm

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Input: Narrow complex tachycardia which can progress to bradycardia with conduction abnormalities and QRS widening

Output: What is the typical initial rhythm of pseudo-EMD?

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Input: Check another lead (VF may appear as systole in a single lead if the rhythm vector is completely perpendicular to the lead vector)

Output: What should you do if systole is seen on the monitor

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Input: -witnessed arrest with initial VF -target temp 32-34 -time to target temp <2hrs to 16hour (median 8) -duration of hypothermia 12-24 hours -gradual rewarming for 12 hours

Output: What were the parameters/conditions of the RCTs that showed improved survival and functional outcomes for therapeutic hypothermia?

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Input: -ETCO2 -Coronary perfusion pressure -Central venous oxygen saturation

Output: What are 3 CPR monitoring techniques?

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Input: A situation where there is impaired tissue oxygen extraction -SCVO2 is abnormally high in the face of inadequate delivery of O2 -continually elevated lactate levels therapy involves decreasing vasopressors, volume loading with careful vasodilator therapy

Output: What is systemic shunting?

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Input: -MAP 70-90 -CVP 10-15mmHg -Hgb >10g/dL -lactate <2.0 mmol SaO2 94-98% ScVo2 65-75%

Output: List post cardiac arrest treatment goals?

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Input: -1st volume load to achieve CVP 10-15 mmHg -If MAP is still low, administer dobutamine -if Scvo2 inadequate ensure Hgb >10g/dL -IF still low consider revascularization or mechanical assistance (IABP or ECMO)

Output: List the order of interventions to achieve goals

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Output: What is the overall survival to discharge of paediatric in hospital cardiac arrest?


Input: 1) asphyxial (67%) 2) ischemic (61%) 3) arrhythmogenic (10%) (many are asphyxial and ischemic)

Output: What are the 3 common pathways to cardiac arrests and their frequencies in paediatric patients?

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Input: Cardiac output is greater (than in adults)

Output: What is the effect of the child's compliant chest wall on CPR?

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Input: -prearrest (the phase in which CA is prevented) -no flow phase (untreated CA) -low flow phase -post-resuscitation

Output: What are the 4 phases of cardiac arrest?

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Input: Two thumb circumferential technique results in higher systolic and diastolic blood pressures and a higher pulse pressure than traditional two-finger compression

Output: Which should be used in paediatrics: circumferential vs focal sternal compressions?

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Input: -cerebral blood flow is generated during the compression phase -myocardial blood flow is generated during the relaxation phase (by increasing DBP)

Output: When are myocardial and cerebral blood flow generated during CPR?

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Input: -patients with ST segment elevation MI or new LBBB (can be performed during therapeutic hypothermia) -angioplasty of acute coronary lesions regardless of history or initial post arrest ECG has been shown to be an independent predictor of survival after cardiac arrest

Output: When should PCI be performed on a post-arrest patient?

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Input: -CPR duration greater than 10minutes -evidence of significant CPR trauma

Output: What are relative exclusion criteria unique to the post arrest period?

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Input: to vasoconstrict and preferentially direct cardiac output during CPR to the coronary and cerebral circulations

Output: What is the role of epi/vasopressin during CPR?

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Input: -30:2 and 15:2 respectively

Output: What are the one-rescuer and two-rescuer compression to ventilation ratios in paediatric CPR?

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Output: What is the compression to ventilation ratio for the newly born?


Input: Incomplete decompression of the chest during the relaxation phase of chest compressions

Output: What is "leaning"?

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Input: -aortic diastolic pressure 20-30 mmHg -aortic systolic pressure >50mmHg - newborn 70-80mmHg - child 80-90 mmHg - adolescent

Output: What are goals for aortic pressures during CPR

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Input: -respiratory arrest and asphyxia generally precede paediatric cardiac arrest.

Output: Why is hands-only CPR for children not recommended?

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Input: Cessation of airflow -May be central, diaphragmatic, obstructive or mixed) -<15 seconds of central apnea can be normal at all ages

Output: Define apnea?

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Input: An abnormal respiratory pause -prolonged (>20s) -associated with cyanosis -marked pallor -hypotonia -bradycardia

Output: Define pathologic apnea?

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Input: Breathing pattern with 3 or more respiratory pauses of >3 seconds duration with < 20s respiration in between (may be a normal event)

Output: Define periodic breathing?

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Input: -Frightening to the observer some combination of -apnea -color change -marked change in muscle tone -choking -gagging -often the observer fears that the infant has died

Output: Define ALTE (apparent life threatening event)

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Input: -Sudden death of an infant -<1 year -remains unexplained after full investigation incl autopsy, examination of death scene, clinical hx.

Output: Define SIDS

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Input: -maternal smoking during pregnancy -preterm or low birth weight -male gender -prone sleeping -overheating (soft sleep surface, loose bedding, bed sharing)

Output: What are RF assc with SIDS

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Input: -place infant supine -do not place on waterbed, sofa, soft surface -no soft materials in infants sleeping environment -discourage smoking in pregnancy -avoid bed sharing -avoid overheating -avoid commecial SIDS prevention devices -home monitoring has no effect -place infant prone when awake

Output: Recommendations to decrease risks of SIDS

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Input: Multifactorial -genetic -maturation -environmental

Output: What is the pathophysiology of SIDS?

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Input: Children are generally <1year of age -between 2-3 months -predominantly male

Output: What is the epidemiology of an ALTE?

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Input: Cardiac Child Abuse GI Infectious Neuro Metabolic Respiratory Other (breath holding, vasovagal, drug/toxin exposure)

Output: What are the aetiologies of ALTE?

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Input: GERD seizures lower respiratory tract infections

Output: What are the most common causes of ALTE?

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Input: Many criteria have been suggested though none have been validated. 84% of cases of ALTE are admitted for evaluation and monitoring

Output: Which patients with ALTE are safe for discharge

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Input: Adenosine: SVT -0.1mg/kg IV push (max 6mg) -0.2mg/kg IV push (max 12mg) Albuterol - asthma/anaphylaxis/hyperkalemia -MDI 4-8puffs INH q 20min 2.5mg/dose (<20kg)/ 5mg/dose (>20kg) continuous 0.5mg/kg/hr (max 20mg/hr) Alprostadil - ductal dependant congenital heart disease 0.05-0.1ug/kg/min then 0.01-0.05ug/kg/min Amiodarone: SVT and VT with pulse 5mg/kg IV load (over 20-60min) repeat to a daily max 15mg/kg Pulseless VT 5mg/kg IV bolus, repeat to a daily max 15 mg/kg Atropine - bradycardia 0.02mg/kg (min dose 0.1mg, max child 0.5mg, adolescent 1mg) 0.04-0.06 mg/kg ETT atropine - toxins 0.02-0.05mg/kg (<12yrs) or 0.05 mg/kg (>12 yrs)

Output: What are indications and paediatric dosages of the following meds: adenosine, alprostadil, amiodarone, atropine

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Input: Calcium chloride 10% - hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia, CCB OD 20 mg/kg (0.2mL/kg) slow push Dextrose - hypoglycemia 0.5-1 g/kg 2-4 mL/Kg D25W 5-10mL/kg D10W Diphenhydramine - anaphylactic shock 1-2mg/kg dobutamine - CHF - cardiogenic shock 2-20ug/kg/min dopamine - cardiogenic shock, distributive shock 2-20ug/kg/min

Output: What are the indications and paediatric dosages of the following medications: calcium chloride, diphenhydramine, dobutamine, dopamine)

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Input: Pulseless arrest/bradycardia - 0.01mg/kg IV Hypotensive shock 0.1-1ug/kg/min IV Anaphylaxis 0.01mg/kg 1:1000 IM Asthma 0.01mg/kg 1:1000 SC Croup 0.25-0.5mL racemic solution (2.25%) mixed in 3mL NS INH or 3mL 1:1000 INH

Output: What are the indications and paediatric dosages of epinephrine?

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Input: furosemide - pulmonary edema - 1mg/kg (max 20mg) hydrocortisone - adrenal insufficiency - 2mg/kg (100mg) ipratropium bromide - asthma - 250ug-500ug INH q 20min x 3

Output: What are the indications and paediatric dosages of furosemide/hydrocortisone/ipratropium bromide

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Input: 10% require resuscitative assistance 1% require extensive resuscitative measures

Output: What percentage of newborns require resuscitative assistance at birth? Extensive resuscitation measures?

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Input: -newborns have rapidly changing cardiopulmonary physiology, their own range of VS and unique responses to stress -the approach focuses entirely on respiratory and not cardiac management -because of their small size, infants require special equipment

Output: How does neonatal resuscitation differ from paediatric and adult resuscitation?

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Input: -removal of fluid from unexpanded alveoli -redistribution of cardiac output to provide lung perfusion

Output: What are 2 major cardiorespiratory changes required for successful transition from the fetal to the extrauterine environment?

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Input: -40% -the remainder is shunted from the PA through the ductus arterioles to the descending aorta

Output: In fetal circulation, what % of RV output goes to the lung? Where does the remainder of the RV CO go?

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Input: 15 hours

Output: How long after birth does the sound/DA close?

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Input: The re-institution of fetal circulation with its attendant shunting

Output: What is persistent fetal circulation?

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Input: The cessation of respiration and decreasing heart rate the follows initial hypoxia in the newborn which and infant gasping rapidly

Output: What is primary apnea?

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Input: The apnea that follows ongoing asphyxia resulting in final deep gasping respirations

Output: What is secondary apnea?

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Input: Bradycardia

Output: What is a major indicator of hypoxia in the newborn?


Input: -Cannot generate heat by shivering -cannot retain heat because of low fat stores -relatively large surface to volume area

Output: Why can a newborn not maintain body temperature?

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Input: <2.2 mmol/L if >2.5kg <1.6 mmol/L if <2.5kg

Output: What is the definition of hypoglycaemia in a newborn?

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Input: That the infant has been stressed before delivery

Output: What does the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid at delivery indicate?

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Input: -suctioning of the trachea

Output: What is the first step in resuscitation of a non-vigorous infant where there was meconium in the amniotic fluid?

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Input: -gestational age <23weeks -BW <400g -confirmed anencephaly, trisomy 13 or 18

Output: In which neonates is resuscitation not recommended?

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Input: -After 10 min of continuous and adequate resuscitative efforts

Output: When should resuscitation efforts be terminated?

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Input: This is not currently recommended

Output: Should intrapartum suctioning (suctioning after delivery of the head but prior to delivery of the shoulders) be done

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Input: Meconium stained fluid and 1) absent/depressed respirations 2) poor muscle tone 3) HR <100bpm

Output: Which infants are candidates for tracheal suctioning?

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Input: Attach a meconium aspirator to the ETT connected to wall suction at 100mmHg

Output: How should meconium be suctioned?

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Input: -intubation (because ventilations distend the stomach)

Output: What should be done expeditiously if there is a diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia?

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Input: Cover the defect with gauze pads soaked in warm sterile saline and cover with a plastic covering

Output: What is the management of newborns with meningomyelocele or gastroschisis/omphalocele?

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Input: -small jaw and large tongue -LMA

Output: What are the anatomic anomalies in Pierre-Robin sequence and what is a good rescue airway?

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Input: Heart Rate Respirations Muscle Tone Reflex irritability Color

Output: What are the 5 components of the APGAR score?

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Input: 0 - absent 1 - HR<100bpm 2 - HR >100bpm

Output: What defines the APGAR 0,1 and 2 for HR?

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Input: 0 - absent/limp 1 - some, irregular 2 - good, crying

Output: What defines the APGAR 0,1 and 2 for Respirations?

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Input: 0 - limp 1 - some flexion 2 - active good flexion

Output: What defines the APGAR 0, 1 and 2 for Muscle tone?

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Input: 0 - no response 1 - grimace 2 - cough, sneeze

Output: What defines the APGAR 0, 1 and 2 for reflex irritability?

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Input: 0 - blue, pale 1 - pink body,blue hands/feet 2 - pink

Output: What defines APGAR 0, 1 and 2 for colour?

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Input: -term gestation? -amniotic fluid clear? -breathing or crying? -good muscle tone?

Output: What 4 questions should be asked immediately following birth?

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Input: -dry/warm -position/suction -stimulate

Output: What are the first steps in neonatal resuscitation?

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Input: With slight flexion rolled diaper or small towel under the shoulders

Output: How is the appropriate airway position for a neonate achieved?

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Input: Mouth before nose (M before N)

Output: What is the order of suctioning?

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Input: -Flicking the soles of the feet -rubbing the back

Output: How should an infant be stimulated?

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Input: -it is a newborn prognostic indicator -no, it is not useful in resusciation

Output: What is the roll of APGAR in neonatal resuscitation? Is it useful in resuscitation management

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Input: -HR -repiratory effort -color

Output: What are the most important indicators of hypoxia in a newborn?

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Input: -insufficient resp effort -HR <100bpm -central cyanosis is present

Output: What are indications that more resuscitation is needed?

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Input: 40-60 breaths/min

Output: What is the ventilation rate for a newborn?

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Input: -tracheal suctioning for meconium -ineffective/ prolonged BVM -when chest compressions are performed -extreme low birth weight infants -infants with anatomic anomalies (diaphragmatic hernia)

Output: When is endotracheal intubation indicated in neonatal resuscitation?

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Input: Post intubation D - dislodgement O - obstruction P - pneumothorax E - equipment

Output: What is the DOPE mnemonic?

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Input: -It has been shown to be useful in full term infants -limited data preterm

Output: Can an LMA be used to ventilate infants?

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Input: HR <60bpm for >30sec

Output: When should chest compressions be provided in a newborn?

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Input: 3:1 (90/min:30/min)

Output: What is the compression/ventilation ratio in newborns

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Input: 1/3 AP diameter

Output: What is the depth of compressions in a newborn?

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Input: The umbilical vein

Output: What is the preferred vascular access in the neonate?

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Input: 0.01-0.03 mg/kg (0.1-0.3mL/kg of 1:10,000) Indications: asystole or HR <60bpm despite effective ventilations and chest compressions

Output: What is the dose of dpi in neonatal resuscitation and what are the indications?

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Input: D10W 2-4mL/kg IV (do not give D25W because it is hyperosmolar)

Output: What is the treatment for hypoglycaemia in the neonate?

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Input: NS RL blood (10cc/kg over 5-10min)

Output: What are options for volume expansion in neonatal resuscitation?

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Input: -caustic exposure -sudden unilateral loss of vision -> in this case do fundoscopy to look for signs consistent with CRAO

Output: in what situations is VA not the first thing that you do with an eye complaint?

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Input: No

Output: Is subconjunctival hemorrhage painful?


Input: VVEEPPs Visual acuity Visual Fields EOM External exam Pupillary examination Pressure Slit lamp/fundoscopy

Output: What are the components of a complete eye exam?

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Input: 20 ft (6m)

Output: At what distance is a SNellen chart test done?

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Input: Rosenbaum chart at 14 inches

Output: What can be done instead of a Snellen chart?

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Input: Allen chart

Output: What chart is used for VA assessment in children who do not know letters and numbers?

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Input: Use a pin hole eye cover which negates most refractive error

Output: What can be done if the patient does not have their prescription lenses for an eye exam?

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Input: -qualitatively (can read a paper at 3ft for example) -fingers -hand motions -light perception

Output: If a patient cannot read a Snellen chart, how is VA recorded?

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Input: -a retinal problem -glaucoma

Output: What does detection of a scotoma imply?

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Input: a problem of the neural pathways to the brain

Output: What does hemi or quadra anopsia imply?

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Input: tonometry

Output: What should be done if exophthalmos is detected?


Input: pseudoenophthalmos (when the other globe is prophetic)

Output: What is the most common cause of enophthalmos?

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Input: -EOM entrapment -edema or hemorrhage related to injury

Output: What is the differential for diplopia in the extremes of gaze?

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Input: -vitreous hemorrhage -loss of retinal surface (secondary to schema or detachment) -lesions affecting the pre-chiasmal optic nerve such as optic neuritis

Output: What are causes of RAPD?

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Input: -glaucoma -suprachoroidal hemorrhage -space occupying retrobulbar pathology

Output: What are causes of elevated IOP?

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Input: -hyphema -irregular shaped pupil -absence of red reflex

Output: What are indirect indicators of globe penetration?

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Input: -place the HOB at 30 degrees -instill 2 drops of timolol 0.5% -instill dorzolamide (or give 500 mg acetazolamide PO or IV) -in SCD substitute dorzolamide with methazolamide

Output: What are the steps to emergently decrease IOP?

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Input: non-typable Haemophilus influenza strep pneumo staph aureus

Output: What are the most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis?

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Input: ceftriaxone IV (to cover n gonorrhea) azithromycin PO (to cover chlamydia)

Output: What should you use to trade the neonatal red eye?

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Input: Expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract which originates below the vocal cords

Output: What is the definition of hemoptysis?

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Input: -100-600cc in 24 hours

Output: What is considered massive blood loss in hemoptysis?

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Input: TB bronchiectasis CF Cancer AVM post procedural complication

Output: What are possible causes of hemoptysis?

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Input: bronchial arteries (high pressure system) pulmonary arteries (low pressure systems)

Output: What vessels does massive hemoptysis typically involve?

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Input: a chronic necrotizing infection of the lungs resulting in bronchial wall inflammation and dilatation

Output: What is the definition of bronchiectasis?

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Input: hypoxia from ventilation perfusion mismatch

Output: What is the most lethal sequelae of hemoptysis?

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Input: "lung down" position (place the bleeding lung down)

Output: What should be done in massive hemoptysis where the side of bleeding is known?

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Output: What size of ETT should be used in patients with massive hemoptysis?


Input: interventional angiography

Output: What is the next intervention in a patient with massive hemoptysis, filled bronchi and unstable for the OR?

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Input: -airway disease -parenchymal disease -vascular disease -hematologic disease -cardiac disease -miscellaneous (cocaine, post procedural, tracheo-aarterial fistula)

Output: What is the differential diagnosis of hemoptysis?

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Input: CT chest

Output: What is the diagnostic test of choice in stable patients with hemoptysis?

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Input: epiglottitis

Output: What should you think of in an adult patient with acute sore throat and severe symptoms?

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Input: No. a gag reflex is absent in 12-25% of normal adults. There is no evidence that it's presence or absence corresponds to airway protective reflexes or the need for intubation

Output: Is the presence of a gag reflex a reliable indicator of the ability to protect the airway?

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Output: In what proportion of cases of failure of intubation is BMV difficult?


Input: 4x greater for difficult intubation 12x greater for impossible intubation

Output: By how much is the likelihood of difficult intubation and impossible intubation increased by difficult BMV?

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Input: Patients for whom a high degree of intubation difficulty is predicted

Output: When should neuromuscular paralysis be avoided?

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Input: 3 - patient places 3 fingers between the open incisors 3 - patient paces 3 fingers along the floor of the mandible beginning at the mentum 2 - patient places 2 finger form the laryngeal prominence to the floor of the mandible

Output: Explain the 3-3-2 rule

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Input: Class I and II -> predict adequate oral access for intubation Class III -> predicts moderate difficulty with laryngoscopy Class IV -> predicts a high decree of difficulty with laryngoscopy A recent meta-analysis confirmed that the Mallampati score performs well as a predictor of difficult laryngoscopy (and less so difficult intubation) but that the Mallampati score alone is not a sufficient assessment tool

Output: Explain the Malampati scale?

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Input: Soft palate, uvula, fauces, pillars visible

Output: What is a Mallampati class I?

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Input: Soft palate, uvula, fauces visible

Output: What is a Mallampati class II?

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Input: Soft palate, base of the uvula visible

Output: What is a Mallapati class III?

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Input: Only hard palate visible

Output: What is a Mallampati class IV?

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Input: Infections: epiglottitis, croup, bacterial tracheitis, abscess (RPA, PTA), Ludwig's angina Allergic: anaphylaxis, angioedema Neoplastic: laryngeal and hypopharyngeal carcinomas Traumatic: blunt and penetrating neck and upper airway trauma Physical/chemical agents: FB, thermal injuries, caustic injuries, inhaled toxins

Output: Name conditions that are associated with upper airway obstruction and potentially difficult intubations?

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Input: By having the patient flex and extend the head and neck through a full range of motion

Output: How is neck mobility assessed?

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Input: Rheumatoid arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis C-spine injury or immobilization

Output: List conditions associated with limited neck mobility and potentially difficult laryngoscopy?

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Input: Difficult BMV: Redundant upper airway tissues Chest wall weight Resistance of abdominal mass More rapid oxyhemoglobin desaturation Difficult intubation: Chest wall volume interfering with laryngoscopy More rapid oxyhemoglobin desaturation

Output: Why is obesity associated with difficult BVM and intubation?

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Input: -leave dentures in place -use mask of appropriate size (not too large, not too small) -place the mask on the patients' face detached from the bag -apply the nasal part of the mask on the bridge of the nose first, then apply body of the mask downwards towards the chin -Use optimal single hand technique -Do not obstruct the soft tissues of the neck when applying the jaw thrust -add or remove air from the mask -put gel on beard -use two-person technique with two hand mask hold -use an oral airway and two nasal airways

Output: List maneuvers that facilitate effective BMV?

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Input: COPD Asthma Restrictive lung disease Pulmonary edema Term pregnancy

Output: What conditions are associated with resistance to ventilation?

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Input: Unrecognized esophageal intubation with resultant hypoxic brain injury

Output: What is the most serious complication of endotracheal intubation?

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Input: Esophageal intubation with BVMV prior to intubation Esophageal intubation after recent ingestion of carbonated beverages Esophageal intubation after recent ingestion of antacids Esophageal intubation with recent (5-10min) injection of bicarbonate Supraglottic placement of ETT

Output: What results in false positive ETCO2?

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Input: Tracheal intubation in the following situations -cardiac arrest -complete obstruction of the trachea or both mainstem bronchi -contamination of the ETCO2 with acidic substances like gastric acid, lidocaine or epinephrine -clogging of the ETCO2 detector with secretions -broken ETCO2 detector -post epi (transient decrease in pulmonary blood flow)

Output: What results in false negative ETCO2?

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Input: Cuff malfunction or supraglottic placement of ETT

Output: What is persistent obvious leak despite positive ETCO2 suggestive of?

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Input: O2 sat <90%

Output: When should laryngoscopy be aborted and BVMV resumed?

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Input: Glycopyrollate 0.2mg IVP Wait 10 minutes Suction mouth and dry with 4x4 gauze nebulized 5cc 4% lidocaine at 5L/min have patient gargle viscous lidocaine suction again Place laryngoscope 3 cc 4% lidocaine and atomize into the posterior pharynx and cords Ketofol sedation pass the bougie through the cords pass ETT confirm position

Output: Describe how you would perform an awake intubation?

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Input: Intubating conditions achieved with deep anesthesia are significantly inferior to those achieved when neuromuscular blocade is used

Output: Why is intubation with sedation alone considered inappropriate for ETI?

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Input: Action potential conducted down innervating axon release of ACh neurotransmitters from the terminal axon ACh reversibly binds to the receptors on the motor endplate Opens channels on the myocyte membrane Depolarization of the motor endplate Massive intracellular release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Contraction of myofibrils

Output: Explain the physiology of muscle contraction.

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Input: Adults 1.5mg/kg IV or 4mg/kg IM children <10 2mg/kg IV but length based dosing is recommended

Output: What are intubating doses of succinylcholine?

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Input: Administration of a competitive NMBA terminates the spasm if severe persistent spasm -> suspect malignant hyperthermia

Output: What is the management of masseter spasm?

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Input: Extremely rare myopathy characterized by rapid temperature rise and rhabdomyolysis that occurs in genetically predisposed individuals who receive such or certain volatile anesthetics

Output: What is malignant hyperthermia?

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Input: dantrolene 2mg/kg IV q 5min reduce body temperature

Output: What is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

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Input: Patients with myasthenia gravis may experience greater more prolonged paralysis at any given dose

Output: What are contraindications to rocuronium?

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Input: RSRL - reflex sympathetic response to laryngoscopy. Modest increase in BP and HR, clinically significant only in patients with increased ICP and patients with cardiovascular disease (AAA, aortic dissection, ACS, CAD) this is blunted by pretreatment with fentanyl 3mcg/kg Other separate reflex that increases ICP - this is blunted by pretreatment with lidocaine 1.5mg/kg

Output: Explain the 2 reflexes triggered by intubation?

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Input: Maintain MAP >/= 100mmHg so that CPP is maintained Pretreatment with fentanyl and lidocaine to blunt the 2 reflexes triggered by laryngoscopy and intubation

Output: What are the particularities of intubation in cases of increased ICP?

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Input: RSI with in-line stabilization because provides maximum control of the patient and conditions for intubation

Output: How do you perform RSI in a patient with a suspected c-spine injury?

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Input: If there was a secondary mechanism of injury (fall) or if there are neuro deficits suggesting spinal involvement

Output: When should you immobilize the c-spine in penetrating trauma?

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Input: extraglotting devices video laryngoscopy fiberoptic laryngoscopy lighted stylet rigid optical stylet retrograde intubation

Output: What are alternatives to intubation by direct laryngoscopy?

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Input: Supraglottic: sits above and surrounds the glottis Retroglottic: enters the upper esophagus

Output: How are extraglottic devices classified?

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Input: Rigid, stainless steel ventilation tube bent almost to a right angle attached to mask. There is a distal epiglottis elevator at the distal end of the mask

Output: How does the intubative LMA differ from the LMA?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Rescue emergency airway -rescue device in the "can't intubate can oxygenate situation" -single attempt in the "can't intubate, can't oxygenate" situation simultaneously with preparation for cricothyrotomy

Output: What are the indications for using the LMA and Combitube in the ED?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: When the cause of unsuccessful BVMV or intubation is laryngeal pathology

Output: When is the LMA contraindicated?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: PArtial insertion block when the distal collar tip rolls up during insertion (hinder optimal placement) Pharyngeal abrasion and bleeding during insertion Difficulty achieving sufficient seal -> difficult ventilation

Output: What are the complications associated with LMA insertion?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: -responsive patients with intact airway protective reflexes -Patients with known esophageal reflexes -caustic ingestions -upper airway obstruction due to laryngeal foreign bodies or pathology

Output: What are contraindications to using the retroglottic devices?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: -upper airway hematoma -pyriform perforation -perforation of the esophagus

Output: What are the complications associated with the insertion of the combitube?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: They do not prevent aspiration of gastric contents

Output: Why are the LMA and combitube used as a temporizing measure only?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Mouth opening <16mm because that is the width of the widest portion of the blade

Output: What is the only absolute contradindication to using the glidescope?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Distal angulation of the device allows better visualization of the anterior larynx when laryngoscopy is unsuccessful Does not require direct visualization of the larynx through the mouth -> less neck movement -> useful when cervical mobility or mouth opening is limited Performs well in the presence of secretions, blood and vomitus

Output: What are the advantages of the glidescope?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: A flexible wire is passed in retrograde fashion through the cricothyroid membrane puncture. The wire is retrieved through the mouth, then used to facilitate intubation serving as a guide over which the ETT is passed

Output: Explain the technique of retrograde intubation?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Faster more straightforward and more likely to be successful than tracheotomy. Less soft tissue, less thyroid, less vascularity

Output: Why is cricothyrotomy preferred over tracheotomy?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: -hemorrhage -laryngeal/tracheal injury -voice change -barotrauma -pneumomediastinum -infection -subglottic stenosis

Output: What are 7 complications of surgical airway management?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Melker universal kit

Output: What kit has all the necessary equipment for either a Seldinger percutaneous cricothyrotomy or an open cricothyrotomy?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Hot potato voice Difficulty in swallowing secretions because of pain or obstruction with patient typically sitting up, leaning forward and spitting or drooling secretions stridor

Output: What are 3 cardinal signs of acute upper airway obstruction?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: stridor -> implies the patient has already lost at least 50% of the airway caliber -> intervention is required -> in children with croup, medical treatment may be sufficient, in adults and older children surgical airway or at lease a double set up

Output: Which sign suggests total upper airway obstruction is imminent?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Ideally move to OR for removal under double set up If not possible, attempt extraction using awake technique with caution not to push the FB further down -> risk of converting the partial obstruction into a complete one

Output: How do you approach partial airway FB obstruction?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: Heimlich until unconscious Once unconscious -look into the mouth for FB -laryngoscoty, remove FB if possible -if unremovable supraglottic FB then cric -if no FB seen -> intubate and assess ventilation if able to ventilate arrrage for definitive removal by bronchoscopy if unable to ventilate-> deflate cuff and push ETT down in an attempt to force down the maindtem bronchus After FB removal-> r/o residual FB with bronchoscopy Monitor patient for 12-24 hours post procedure

Output: How do you approach complete airway FB obstruction?

Fundamental Clinical Concepts Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the three essential criteria upon which to base your decision to intubate?


Input: 1) acquire genes 2) develop resistance by mutation 3) naturally resistant 4) pharmacokinetic Factors

Output: what are the 4 reasons that were discussed about why bacteria become resistant?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: Beta-lactamase that gives resistance to penicillin -- Augmentin inhibits beta-lactamase Chloramphenicol acetyl transferase --chemical modification of original antibiotic

Output: What are 2 examples given about bacteria that acquire resistant genes? How are they combated?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - triple cocktail drug therapy for TB

Output: Rifampicin developed resistance by bacterial mutation what is our solution to this?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: aminoglycosides and anaerobic bacteria --synergism: use penicillin and another antibiotic together

Output: What is one example of a naturally resistant bacteria? what is the solution?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - Tissue penetration: antibiotic cant get to right area - Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) cannot get high enough concentration in correct area

Output: What are some pharmacokinetic factors that induce bacterial resistance?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: 1) mobile genetic elements that transfer resistance 2) plasmids 3) transposons 4) phages

Output: What are the 4 ways that we discussed about how bacteria become resistant?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - small, circular, episomal, pieces of DNA - form functional modules, but important part is the replication module

Output: What are plasmids? how are they constructed?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - 2 plasmids with same replication module cannot exist in same cell

Output: What are the importance of imcompatibility groups?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - male reels in female and burrows hole in her - male makes a copy of his plasmid and gives it to female--female now is male - how resistance gene is spread, allows exponential amplification of plasmid

Output: Describe conjugation and plasmids

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - transposons

Output: how does the gene get on the plasmid?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - jumping genes

Output: What are transposons?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: 1) inverted repeats (identifies as jumping gene) 2) transposase (enzyme) 3) direct repeat at site of transposition

Output: What are 3 important structures of transposons?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - first saw that all isolated R (resistance) plasmids were associated with transposons - indicated that resistance genes were first part of normal chromosome

Output: Why was the fertility "F" plasmid important?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - bacterial virus

Output: What is a phage?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - virus chops up bacterial DNA, some bacterial DNA gets incorporated into viral DNA and passed on to other bacteria - what does the new DNA contain?

Output: Transduction and phages

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: 1) acquisition is rare: if patient responds to antimicrobial therapy they won't suddenly gain resistance under your watch 2) longer therapy duration wont in itself induce resistance 3) prophylatic administration of antibiotics doesn't promote resistance 4) patients that initially respond to antimicrobials and then get worse most likely have new bug

Output: What are 4 clinical implications of mobile genetic elements causing antibiotic resistance?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: some genes have always been there --penicillins are natural antimicrobials and evolved with bacteria, normal that bacteria developed resistance against --some resistance genes recruited for double duty --evolve by mutating the target from antimicrobial horizontal gene flow: b/c resistance genes recruited by mobile elements

Output: What is the importance of resistance genes?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: -SELECTION - kill off bacteria that can be killed my antibiotics, only leaves resistant ones left

Output: How are resistant bacteria formed?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - may acquire resistance to more than one antibiotic if one resistance gene carries several antibiotic resistance capabilities on one plasmid

Output: What is piggyback selection?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: - new antibiotics - altruism (reduces selective pressures, and lower use of antibiotics lowers antibiotic resistance frequencies - limit use of antimicrobials on farm

Output: How can you cope with antibiotic resistance?

Topic 13 Microbial Resistance Flashcards - Cram.com

What is the number one reason why bacteria become resistant?


Input: A collection of individuals who have at least one attribute in common but otherwise don’t necessarily interact. [social group]

Output: social category

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A collection of people who are in the same place at the same time but who otherwise don’t necessarily interact, except in the most superficial of ways, or have anything else in common. [social group]

Output: social aggregate

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A group that is usually small, that is characterized by extensive interaction and strong emotional ties, and that lasts over time. [social group]

Output: primary group

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A group that is larger and more impersonal than a primary group and that exists to achieve a specific purpose. [social group]

Output: secondary group

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A group that sets a standard for guiding our own behavior and attitudes. [social group]

Output: reference group

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A group to which members feel particularly loyal and take great pride in belonging. [social group]

Output: in-group

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A group with which an in-group feels it is competing for various kinds of rewards and compared to which the in-group feels superior. [social group]

Output: out-group

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The totality of relationships that link us to other people and groups and through them to still other people and groups. [social group]

Output: social network

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A two-person group. [social group]

Output: dyad

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A three-person group. [social group]

Output: triad

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A leader whose main focus is to achieve group goals and accomplish group tasks. [social group]

Output: instrumental leader

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A leader whose main focus is to maintain and improve the quality of relationships among group members and more generally to ensure group harmony. [social group]

Output: expressive leader

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Leadership with a primary focus on achieving group goals and on rigorous compliance with group rules. [social group]

Output: authoritarian leadership

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Leadership that involves extensive consultation with group members on decisions. [social group]

Output: democratic leadership

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Leadership that allows a group to function on its own. [social group]

Output: laissez-faire leadership

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The tendency of group members to remain silent and, against their better judgments, to go along with the desires and views of other group members. [social group]

Output: groupthink

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A large group that follows explicit rules and procedures to achieve specific goals and tasks. [social group]

Output: formal organization

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Organizations that people join to provide them an income or some other personal benefit. [social group]

Output: utilitarian organizations

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Formal organizations that people join to pursue their moral goals and commitment. [social group]

Output: normative organizations

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Normative organizations. [social group]

Output: voluntary organizations

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Formal organizations that people enter involuntarily. [social group]

Output: coercive organizations

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: A formal organization with certain organizational features designed to achieve goals in the most efficient way possible. [social group]

Output: bureaucracy

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: In a bureaucracy, a greater devotion to rules and regulations (red tape) than to organizational goals. [social group]

Output: bureaucratic ritualism

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Robert Michels’s prediction that large organizations inevitably develop an oligarchy, or the undemocratic rule of many people by just a few people, because their leaders monopolize knowledge and act to advance their own positions. [social group]

Output: iron law of oligarchy

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The revealing by an employee of organizational practices that the employee believes to be illegal and/or immoral. [social group]

Output: whistle-blowing

Sociology Terms and Theory Ch.6 Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Repeating units that serveas the building blocks of a polymer. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What is a monomer?


Input: Make Polymers - Dehydration Reaction - Connects monomers by removing water molecule, which forms new bond. Break polymers - Hydrolysis. Polymers disassembled to monomers by addition of water. Hydrogen of water attaches to one monomer and hydroxly group attaching to other monomer. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Name and describe chemical reactions that are used to make and break polymers.


Input: Two monomers are linked when dehydration removes a water molecule, then the two monomers link. When water lost, one monomer provides hydroxyl group while other provides Hydrogen. [What is a polymer?]

Output: How are monomers assembled to make polymers?


Input: Requires enzyme Releases energy [What is a polymer?]

Output: Hydrolysis - what it requires and what it does with energy


Input: Requires enzyme Requires energy [What is a polymer?]

Output: Dehydration - what it requires and what it does with energy


Input: Both occur within cell. Hydrolisis can occur outside the cell. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Where do hydrolisis and dehydration occur?


Input: Carbohydrates, Nucleic Acids, Proteins [What is a polymer?]

Output: Which of the four classes of biological molecules form polymers?


Input: A giant molecule formed by the joing of smaller molecules, usually by a condensation reaction. Polysacharides, proteins, and nucleic acids are macromolecules. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What is a macrolecule?


Input: Energy Source ( Monosacharides - glucose, fructose and lactose ) Source of Calcium ( Monosacharides) For storage (Polysacharides - glycogen, starch, cellulose ) Structure ( Polysacharides) [What is a polymer?]

Output: Summarize diff. roles carbohydrates play in organims, and give ex. of each.


Input: Have molecular formula in some form of CH2O. A sugar, a carbonyl group and multiple hydroxly groups. Also classified by number of carbon skeleton - normally 3-7 carbon long. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Basic Strucuture of monosacharide


Input: Trioses - 3 carbon sugars Pentose - 5 carbon sugars Hexose - 6 Carbon sugars. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Explain term triose, pentose, and hexose.


Input: Form of Rings [What is a polymer?]

Output: What type of structure do cellular monosacharides typically have?


Input: Isomer is a compound that has the same number of atoms of the same elements but diff. structures and hence diff. properties. Glucose and Galactose differ only in the placement of parts around one asymmetric carbon. This small diff gives sugars distinctive shapes and behaviors. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Give ex. of ways in which monosacharides differ leading to diff. isomers.


Input: Alpha glucose - has all hydroxyl groups attached to the #1 carbon positioned below plane of the ring. Beta glucose - Hydroxly group attached to carbon 1 is above plane of the ring. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Explain difference between alpha and beta glucose


Input: Monosacharides joined by a glycosidic linkage ( a covalent bond formed between two monosacharides through dehydration reaction. ) [What is a polymer?]

Output: How are monosacharides assembled to make polysacharides?


Input: Two monosacharides joing by glycosidic linkage. Ex. Maltose, Sucrose. Lactose [What is a polymer?]

Output: What are disacharides?


Input: Consists of 3-10 monosacharides. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What are oligosacharide?


Input: 3 Monosacharides: Glucose, Fructose, Galactose 3 Disaccharides: Sucrose, Maltose, Lactose [What is a polymer?]

Output: List 3 monosacharides and 3 disacharides commonly found in our diet.


Input: Glycogen - Polymer of glucose. Extensively branched.Found in liver and muscle cells of humans and other vertebrates. Branching is imp because Glycogen is branched to allow more efficient energy storage and to provide multiple attachment points for enzymes that add to its glucose monomers. Starch - Helical shape, found in plants, stored as granules within cellular structures known as plastids, which include chloroplast. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Discuss polysacharide glycogen and starch with regard to makeup, 3d structure, which org found, and where they are stored in org. Also why is branching imp factor for them.


Input: Starch - Polymer of glucose monomer, Helical shape, All monomers in same orientation, thus alpha glucose. ( 1-4 linkage of alpha glucose monomers ). Structure makes it better to store, plants synthesize it to stockpile surplus glucose. Humans can also break this down. Cellulose - Polymer of Glucose, 1-4 linkage of Beta glucose monomers, this molecule is straight. Structure allows chain to form intermolecular weak interactions. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Contrast starch and cellulose with regard to the following: 1. Makeup 2. 3d Structure 3. at what value are there struct. differences to plants. 4. which ones are humans able to break down?


Input: Lipids - Fats - Energy nutrient, cushion organs, provide insulation. Major: store energy Phospholipids: Make up cell membrane Steroids: precursor for steroid hormones, bile, vitamin D, also in cell membrane. Used to make coenzymes. Make sex hormones. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Summarize diff. roles lipids play in organisms


Input: Long carbon skeleton, usually 16 or 18 carbon atoms long. Carbon at one end is part of carboxyl group and attached to this carboxyl group is a long hydrocarbon chain. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Structural features of fatty acids


Input: Saturated fat - term refers to hydrocarbon chain in fatty acid.. If there are no double bonds between carbon atoms, then as many H as possible are bonded to C skeleton, thus saturated with H. Unsaturated - has one or more double bonds, formed by the removal of H atoms from carbon skeleton.Fatty Acid will have kink in hydrocarbon chain wherever a cis double bond occurs. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Explain diff. between saturated and unsaturated?


Input: Cis - double bond and hydrogens on same side. Trans - double bond and hydrogen on opposite ends across. Cis most common in nature. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Explain cis vs. trans double bond config Which config. most common in nature


Input: first double bond, counting c's from the methyl end. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What determines the omega number of a fatty acid?


Input: Constructed from two kinds of smaller molecules, glycerol and fatty acids. Glycerol is alcohol with 3 carbons, each bearing hydroxyl group. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Structural features of fat?


Input: Saturated fats - fat made from saturated fatty acids. Unsaturated fats - Built of one or more types of unsaturated fatty acids. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What is meant by saturated and unsaturated fats


Input: Unsaturated fats at room temperature. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What are oils?


Input: Has two fatty acids attached to glycerol instead of 3 like fats. The 3rd hydroxly group of glycerol is joined to a phosphate group, which has a negative electrical charge. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What are the structural features of phospholipids?


Input: Alcohol with 3 carbons each bearing a hydroxyl group. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What is glycerol?


Input: Hydrocarbon tail are hydrophobic and excluded from water.Phosphate group is hydropholic. .When added to water they self assemble into double layers. Forms boundary between cell and outside env. [What is a polymer?]

Output: How do phospholipids behave in cell?


Input: Fats - linear, formed by chains Cholesterol - Carbon skeleton consisting of four fused rings. [What is a polymer?]

Output: How does structure of fats differ from that of fats?


Input: Steroid hormones, bile, vitamin D, also found in cell membrane [What is a polymer?]

Output: For what products does cholesterol serve as precursor?


Input: Energy Source/ C source - Storage Structural support Intercellular signalling movement transport defense Enzymes [What is a polymer?]

Output: Summarize diff. roles proteins play in org. give ex. of each


Input: A protein is made of one or more polypeptide. Polypeptides are polymers of amino acids. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Are protein and polypeptide synonymous.


Input: Possess both carboxyl group and amino groups. In the middle there is an alpha carbon. It has 4 diff. partners, a an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom and a variable group symbolized by R, R group differs with each amino acid. [What is a polymer?]

Output: What is basic structure of an amino acid?


Input: To build the thousands of proteins needed by cells. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Why do amino acids have distinct chemical properties?


Input: When 2 amino acids are positioned so that the carboxyl group of one is adjacent to the amino group of the other, they can become joined by a dehydration reaction, with removal of water molecule. The resulting covalent bond forms a peptide backbone. Repeated over and over. [What is a polymer?]

Output: How are amino acids assembled to make polypeptides?


Input: Amino acids are linked by peptide chain. At one end of the chain is a free amino group and at other end is a free carboxyl group. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Summarize structural feature of polypeptide chain


Input: unique sequence of amino acids. Determined by the inherited genetic information. The order of nucleotides in a gene determine the order of amino acids in a protein. Protein folds in a precise way, based on primary structure. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Levels of Protein Structure - Primary Structure


Input: Coils and folds of polypeptide chains. Result of hydrogen bonds between the repearting constituents of polypeptide backbone. - Alpha Helix - delicate coild held together by hydrogen bonding between every 4th amino acid. - Beta pleated sheet - Two or more regions of the polypeptide chain lying side by side are connected by hydrogen bonds by two parallel polypeptide backbones. [What is a polymer?]

Output: Protein structure - Secondary Structure


Input: Results from overall shape of a polypeptide based on interaction between R groups of various amino groups. - Hydrophobic interactions lead to this structure. -hydrogen bonds -ionic bonds -van der waals [What is a polymer?]

Output: Protein Structure - Tertiary


Input: [Primary intervention] Secondary intervention

Output: seeks to reduce the prevalence of illness by early detection and treatment of mental illness

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] tertiary intervention

Output: interventions that reduce the severity, disability, or residual impairments resulting from mental illness.

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] norepinephrine

Output: may help control mood

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] dopamine

Output: controls decision-making ability and pleasure

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] seratonin

Output: controls pain, sleep, and appetite

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] GABA

Output: controls anxiety

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] Axis 1

Output: Major clinical disorders

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] Axis 2

Output: mental retardation personality D/O

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] Axis 3

Output: General Medical disorders

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] Axis 4

Output: psychosocial and environmental problems stressors (mild-moderate-severe)

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] Axis 5

Output: Global assessment of functioning (1-100)

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] inner peace, tranquility

Output: self-actualization 5

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] achievement, master, reputation, prestige

Output: esteem, status 4

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] belongingness, love

Output: social affection 3

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] stability, free from fear and anxiety, certainty

Output: safety security order 2

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] food drink warmth

Output: physiological needs 1

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] milieu therapy

Output: providing a supportive and nurturing environment

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] birth-18 months erikson

Output: trust vs. mistrust

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 18mo-3 years erikson

Output: autonomy vs shame

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 3-6yrs

Output: initiative vs guilt

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 6-12yrs erikson

Output: industry vs inferiority

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 12-20 years old erikson

Output: identity vs role confusion

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 20-30 yo erikson

Output: intimacy vs isolation

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness


Input: [Primary intervention] 30-65 yo erikson

Output: generativity vs stagnation

Mental Health: Frameworks Flashcards - Cram.com

interventions that promote mental health or reduce the incidences of illness