Input: [Management.] ensure reliability of financial reporting for external purposes.

Output: To comply with the second standard of fieldwork, the auditor need not be concerned with all five areas of internal control that apply to management. The auditor’s primary concerns are with the internal control’s ability to

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] the controls affecting the reliability of financial reporting are inadequate.

Output: The financial statements are not likely to correctly reflect generally accepted accounting principles if

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] classes of transactions.

Output: The primary emphasis by auditors is on controls over

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] high

Output: The most important difference in a nonpublic company in assessing control risk is the ability to assess control risk at _______ for any or all control-related objectives.

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] all companies that are listed on the NYSE, AMEX, and NASDAQ.

Output: Having an audit committee composed of outside directors is a requirement of

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] the design and utilization of the controls.

Output: An auditor should consider two key issues when obtaining an understanding of a client’s internal controls. These issues are

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] the work performed by internal auditors may be a factor in determining the nature, timing, and extent of the independent auditor’s procedures.

Output: The independent auditor should acquire an understanding of the internal audit function as it relates to the independent auditor’s study and evaluation of internal accounting control because

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] place limited reliance on the work performed by the internal audit staff.

Output: Taylor Sales Corp. maintains a large full-time internal audit staff that reports directly to the chief accountant. Audit reports prepared by the internal auditors indicate that the system is functioning as it should and that the accounting records are reliable. The independent auditor will probably

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] an economic issue, trading off the costs of testing controls against the cost of testing balances.

Output: When planning an audit, the auditor’s assessed level of control risk is

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] is no longer a concern because there is no longer a significant deficiency or material weakness.

Output: When a compensating control exists, the absence of a key control

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] Select and examine canceled checks and ascertain that the related vouchers are dated no later than the checks.

Output: An internal control narrative indicates that an approved voucher is required to support every check request for payment of merchandise. Which of the following procedures provides the greatest assurance that this control is operating effectively?

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: [Management.] management may establish appropriate policies and procedures but not act on them.

Output: When obtaining an understanding of an entity’s control environment, an auditor should concentrate on the substance of management’s policies and procedures rather than their form because

Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entity’s internal controls?


Input: Phase I

Output: Which phase of postanesthesia?: provide intensive monitoring and care of the patient in the immediate postoperative period

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The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Phase II

Output: Which phase of postanesthesia?: Provides less intensive care to surgery patients who will go to the next phase of care, to home, or to an extended care facility

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Phase III

Output: Which phase of postanesthesia?: provided when patients are being prepared for self-care and discharge

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - the PACU nurse and the ACP

Output: The initial admission of the patient to the PACU is a joint effort between what 2 surgical team members?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. General info (name, age, ACP, surgeon, and procedure) 2. Patient history (reason for surgery, med history, meds, allergies) 3. Intraoperative management (anesthesia, meds, blood loss, fluid replacement, urine output) 4. Intraoperative course (unexpected events, vitals, lab tests)

Output: On admission of the patient to the PACU, the ACP gives a verbal report to the admitting PACU nurse. What are the the 4 primary types of information relayed?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. Airway 2. Breathing 3. Circulation 4. Neurologic status 5. Genitourinary Status 6. Surgical Site 7. Pain

Output: While the patient is in the PACU, priority care includes monitoring what 7 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Restlessness - Agitation - Muscle Twitching - Seizures - Coma

Output: What are 5 CNS signs of inadequate oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Hypertension - Hypotension - Tachycardia - Bradycardia - Dysrhythmias

Output: What are 5 Cardiovascular signs of inadequate oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - cyanosis - prolonged capillary refill - flushed and moist skin

Output: What are 3 Integumentary signs of inadequate oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - increased to absent respiratory effort - used of accessory muscles - abnormal breath sounds - abnormal ABGs

Output: What are 4 Respiratory signs of inadequate oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: urine output less than 0.5mg/kg/hr

Output: In regards to the renal system, what might be an indicator of inadequate oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: pulse oximetry

Output: What monitoring tool is used postop b/c it provides a non-invasive means of assessing the adequancy of oxygenation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: ECG

Output: What monitoring tool is used to determine cardiac rate and rhythm post op?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - LOC - Orientation - sensory and motor status - pupils (size, equality & reactivity)

Output: The initial neurological assessment post op focuses on what 4 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Use of accessory muscles, snoring respirations, and decreased air movement could all be indicators - Patient stimulation, Jaw thrust, chin lift, and artificial airways are corrective measures

Output: Airway obstruction could possible occur b/c of muscular flaccidity post op. What are 3 indications that this may have occurred, and what might the nurse do to correct this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: the patient can be place in the recovery position

Output: What method might be used to prevent airway obstruction due to the tongue falling back?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Noisy respirations and coarse crackles might indicate the retention of thick fluids in the lungs - suctioning, teaching deep breathing and coughing, IV hydration, and respiratory or chest physical therapy might be ordered

Output: Retained secretions might cause airway obstruction. What are two indicators that this may have occurred, and what might the nurse do to correct this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - inspiratory stridor, sternal retraction, and acute respiratory distress are all signs - O2 administration, positive pressure ventilation, IV muscle relaxant, Lidocaine, or corticosteroids might be indicated for treatment

Output: Laryngospasm may occur from endotracheal tubes or anesthetic gases. What are 3 indicators that this has occurred, and what might the nurse do to correct this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Inspiratory stridor, sternal retraction, and acute respiratory distress are all signs - O2, antihistamines, corticosteriods, sedatives, and intubation are all possible interventions

Output: Laryngeal edema might occur from allergies, mechanical irritation from intubation, or fluid overload. What are 3 indicators that this has occurred, and what might the nurse do to correct this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - those who have had general anesthesia - older patients - those who smoke heavily - lung disease - obese - underwent abdominal, thoracic, or airway surgery

Output: What 6 groups of people are at higher risk for airway compromise?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: hypoxemia

Output: (def) a partial pressure of arterial oxygen of less than 60 mmHg


Input: low oxygen, less than 90% O2 saturation

Output: If a person has hypoxemia, pulse oximetry readings will indicate what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: atalectasis (alveolar collapse)

Output: What is the most common cause of hypoxemia?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - decreased breath sounds and decreased O2 stats - humidified O2, deep breathing, incentive spirometry, early mobilization are all possible interventions

Output: What are 2 signs that atalectasis is occurring in a post op patient, and what interventions may be used to treat this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - atalectasis - pulmonary edema - pulmonary embolism - aspiration - bronchospasm

Output: What are 5 causes of hypoxemia?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - crackles, infiltrates on chest x-ray, fluid overload, and decreased O2 saturation are all possible signs - O2 therapy, diuretics, and fluid restriction are all interventions

Output: What are 4 signs that pulmonary edema is occurring in a post op patient, and what intervention may be used to treat this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - bronchospasm, atalectasis, crackles, respiratory distress, and decreased O2 are all signs of aspiration - O2 therapy, cardiac support, and antibiotics are treatment measures

Output: Aspiration of stomach contents can lead to hypoxemia. What are 5 signs that this has occurred, and what are 3 treatment measures?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - wheezing, dyspnea, tachypnea, and decreased O2 are all signs of bronchospasm - O2 therapy and bronchodilators are interventions

Output: What are 4 signs of bronchospasm, and what are 2 interventions for treating bronchospasm?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - those with asthma or COPD

Output: Bronchospasms are seen more frequently in what type of patient?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - decreased respiratory rate/effort - hypoxemia - hypercapnia

Output: Hypoventilation is a common complication in the PACU. What are 3 signs of hypoventilation?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - airway patency - chest symmetry - depth, rate, and character of respirations

Output: For an adequate respiratory assessment, the PACU nurse must evaluate what 3 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: respiratory problems

Output: Regular monitoring of vital signs, use of pulse oximetry, and a through respiratory assessment permit the nurse to recognize early signs of what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - rapid breathing - gasping - apprehension - restlessness - rapid/thready pulse

Output: The presence of hypoxemia, regardless of cause, may manifest in what 5 ways?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - trachea/throat mucus is colorless and thin - lung/bronchi sputum is thick with a slight yellow tinge

Output: Describe normal mucus from the trachea/throat. Describe normal sputum from the lungs/bronchi.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Ineffective airway clearance - Ineffective breathing pattern - Impaired Gas Exchange - Risk for aspiration - Potential complication: hypoxemia

Output: What are 5 examples of nursing diagnoses related to actual/potential respiratory problems for the post op patient? (Note: these are just a select few; there are many possible diagnoses)

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: lateral "recovery" position; keeps airway open, reduces risk of aspiration

Output: Unless contraindicated by the surgical procedure, the post op unconscious patient is positioned how? What is the purpose of this position?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Supine with HOB elevated; maximizes expansion of the thorax by decreasing the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm

Output: Once the post op patient has gain consciousness, they will be positioned how (unless contraindicated)? What is the purpose of this position?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - aids in the elimination of anesthesia - helps meet increased demand for oxygen (due to fluid loss/increased cellular metabolism

Output: What is the purpose of O2 therapy post-operatively?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - prevents alveolar collapse & moves respiratory secretions

Output: What is the purpose of deep breathing and coughing techniques?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 10 times every hour while awake

Output: How often should a patient deep breath?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: splinting

Output: What technique can be taught to a patient who complains about abdominal pain when attempting deep breathing/coughing exercises?


Input: ASAP- as soon as cleared by a physician, the patient should begin walking

Output: How soon should a post op patient wait to begin ambulating?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - pain is the greatest deterrent - proper analgesics should be prescribed and administered as needed

Output: What is the greatest deterrent of patient participation in effective breathing techniques and ambulating post op? What should be done to decrease this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - hypertension - hypotension - dysrhythmias

Output: What are the 3 most common post op cardiovascular problems?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. those with cardiovascular disease history 2. those with alterations in respiratory function 3. elderly 4. debilitated 5. critically ill

Output: What 5 groups of patients are at a higher risk of cardiovascular complications post op?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - disorientation - loss of consciousness - chest pain - oliguria/anuria

Output: What are 4 clinical signs of hypotension?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. unreplaced fluid and blood loss is the most common 2. hemorrhage 3. cardiac dysfunction 4. systemic vascular resistance 5. dysrhythmias

Output: What is the most common cause of hypotension in the PACU? What are additional causes?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Primary

Output: _______ cardiac dysfunction occurs in the case of MI, cardiac tamponade, or pulmonary embolism and results in an acute fall in cardiac output.


Input: Secondary

Output: _______ cardiac dysfunction occurs as a result of negative chronotropic and negative inotropic effects of drugs (beta-blockers, opioids, digoxin).


Input: - sympathetic nervous system stimulation as a result of pain, anxiety, bladder distention, or respiratory compromise

Output: What is the most common cause of hypertension in the PACU?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Cardiovascular

Output: In the clinical unit, post op fluid and electrolyte imbalances are contributing factors to ________ problems.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: True- ADH, ACTH, and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system all participate in this reaction

Output: True/False: Fluid retention is often seen post op as a direct reaction to the stress of the surgery.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. tachypnea 2. dyspnea 3. tachypnea

Output: Pulmonary embolism should be suspected in any patient complaining of what 3 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: less than 90 or greater than 160

Output: The ACP or surgeon should be notified if SBP is less than ___ or greater than ___.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: less than 60 or greater than 120

Output: The ACP or surgeon should be notified if pulse rate is less than ____ or greater than ____.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: True

Output: True/False: The ACP/Surgeon should be notified if blood pressure gradually decreases.


Input: False- they should be reported immediately

Output: True/False: Irregular cardiac rhythms should be documented and only reported if they are not corrected within 48 hours.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - represents residual vasodilating effects of anesthesia - suggests a need for continued observation

Output: Hypotension accompanied by a normal pulse and warm, dry, pink skin usually represents what? What follow-up measures follow this assessment?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - may be caused by impending hypovolemic shock - requires immediate interventions and treatment

Output: Hypotension accompanied by a rapid pulse and cold, clammy, pale skin may be caused by what? What follow up measures follow this assessment?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Decreased CO - Deficient fluid volume - Excess fluid volume - Ineffective tissue perfusion - Potential complication: hypovolemic shock

Output: What are 5 nursing diagnoses related to cardiovascular issues/problems/risks? **Note: these are just examples; there are several possibilities for nursing dx**

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: oxygen therapy to promote oxygenation of hypoperfused organs

Output: Treatment of hypotension should always begin with what? Why?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 10 to 12 times every 1-2 hours while awake

Output: Leg exercises should be done how often?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: early ambulation (increases muscle tone, improves GI and GU function, stimulated circulation, increases vital capacity/normal respiratory function)

Output: What is the most significant general nursing measure to prevent postoperative complications?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: SC heparin with antiembolism stockings

Output: The combination of what 2 things is currently believed to be the best preventative measure against DVT in post op patients?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: Emergence delirium

Output: (def) restlessness, agitation, disorientation, thrashing, and/or shouting upon waking up from anesthesia; aka- "waking up wild"

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - anesthetic agents, hypoxia, bladder distention, pain, electrolyte abnormalities, or anxiety level preoperatively **Hypoxia should be suspected first

Output: Emergence delirium may be caused by what 6 things? Which should be suspected first?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - delayed waking from anesthesia - most commonly caused by prolonged drug action

Output: What is delayed emergence? What is it most commonly caused by?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. delirium 2. POCD (Postoperative cognitive disfunction)

Output: What are the 2 types of postoperative cognitive impairments seen in post op patients?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - fluid and electrolyte imbalances - hypoxemia - drug effects - sleep deprivation - sensory deprivation or overload

Output: What are 5 sources of confusion or delirium post op?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - LOC, orientation, memory & ability to follow commands - Pupils - Sleep/Wake cycle - sensory and motor status

Output: Neurologically, what should be assessed postoperatively?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: delirium

Output: If a patient was mentally alert before surgery and becomes cognitively impaired postoperatively, the nurse should suspect what?


Input: - Disturbed sensory perception - Risk for injury - Disturbed thought processes - Impaired Verbal communication

Output: What are 4 nursing diagnoses related to neurological status? **These are just a select few examples.**

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: hypoxemia - initially, respiratory function should be assessed

Output: The most common cause of postoperative agitation is what? As a result, what is the primary assessment focused on initially?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: An above ground barrel hall primarily found in Bordeaux

Output: What is a Chai?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. side rails up 2. securing IV lines and artificial airways 3. verifying presence of ID and allergy bands 4. monitoring physiological status

Output: What are 4 safety measures in place while the patient is unconscious and unable to communicate effectively?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - dysfunction of the immune system - dysfunctional blood clotting- delayed return of normal gastric and bowel function - increased risk of atelectasis and impaired respiratory function

Output: Postoperative pain can contribute to what type of complications?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - trauma from incision - positioning during surgery - anxiety and fear - movement/breathing after surgery

Output: What are some sources of postoperative pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: patient's self-report

Output: What is the most reliable indicator of pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - presence of a complication such as intestinal distention, bleeding, or abscess formation

Output: Deep visceral pain may signal what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: restlessness, increased heart rate, diaphoresis

Output: What are some external signs the nurse can observe that may indicate pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - acute pain - anxiety

Output: What are 2 nursing diagnoses related to pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: using a variety of analgesics

Output: What is the most effective intervention for postoperative pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: IV opioids

Output: What drug class provides the most rapid relief of pain?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: drugs that are administered slowly and are titrated

Output: What type of drugs allow for optimal pain management with minimal to no side/adverse effects?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: morphine

Output: Give an examples of a postoperative drug that might be ordered for the first 48 hours after surgery?


Input: False- opioids depress GI function and can further worsen pain. Opioids have a large amt of side effects, so careful assessment of the type of pain is essential prior to administering.

Output: True/False: If an opioid is ordered for pain control, the nurse should administer it when the patient complains of gas pain.

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: nature of pain, location, quality, and intensity. Determining this information will allow the nurse to make an informed decision with her next action.

Output: When assessing pain, what information should be included in your assessment?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - early ambulation - improved wound healing - earlier discharge - (patient control)

Output: What are some advantages of PCA?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - reaches opiate receptors in the spinal cord - results in constant circulating level

Output: Current research has determined that PCEA is superior to PCA. What factors were used to determine this?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - repositioning - massage - distraction - relaxation - deep breathing

Output: In addition to analgesics, what other nonpharmacologic approaches can enhance pain relief?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Output: Hypothermia is described as a core temperature of less than _____.


Input: - infusion of cool IV fluids - ventilation with dry gases

Output: In addition to the usual heat loss mechanisms, heat loss may occur in the perioperative setting because of what 2 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - elderly - debilitated - intoxicated

Output: What 3 types of patients are at a greater risk for hypothermia?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - moves it from the core of the body to the periphery

Output: Long surgical procedures and prolonged anesthetic have what effect on body heat?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - compromised immune function - postoperative pain - bleeding - myocardial ischemia - delayed drug metabolism

Output: What are 5 possible complications of hypothermia?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: -Increases oxygen consumption, -CO2 production -Increases CO -decreases comfort level

Output: Shivering may occur due to hypothermia. What effect does this have on the postoperative patient. (4)

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: the surgical stress response

Output: A mild elevation in temperature (up to 100.4) during the first 48 hrs postoperative usually reflects what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: respiratory congestion, atelectasis (might also indicate dehydration, but less common than respiratory issues)

Output: A moderate elevation in temperature postoperatively (above 100.4) usually indicates what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: infection

Output: After 48 hrs postoperatively, a moderate or marked elevation in temperature usually indicates what?


Input: fever that spike in the afternoon/evening and returns to normal in the morning

Output: Wound infection, particularly from aerobic organisms, has what effect on body temperature?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Output: Thrombophlebitis in the leg veins may produce a fever within ___ -____ days after surgery.


Input: - fever - diarrhea - abdominal pain

Output: Nosocomial infectious diarrhea caused by clostridium difficile may be signaled by what 3 things?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: septicemia

Output: Intermittent high fever accompanied by shaking chills and diaphoreses might indicate what?


Input: - hypothermia - hyperthermia - risk for imbalanced body temperature

Output: What are 3 examples of nursing diagnoses that may be used for the patient with altered temperature?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: passive= shivering active= warm blankets, air warmers, heated mattresses

Output: What is an example of passive rewarming? active rewarming?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: opioids

Output: Shivering can be suppressed by the administration of what drug class?


Input: - unanticipated hospital admission - increased patient discomfort - delays in discharge - patient dissatisfaction

Output: What are problems associated with nausea and vomiting?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: women

Output: Are men or women more @ risk for nausea?


Input: - history of motion sickness - history of postoperative nausea - action of anesthetics or opioids - duration and type of surgery - resumption of oral intake too soon - abdominal surgery

Output: What are reasons/risk factors for developing nausea postoperatively? (6)

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Nausea - Risk for aspiration - Risk for deficient fluid volume

Output: What are 3 examples of nursing diagnoses that relate to patients experiencing GI problems?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: how it feels

Output: When assessing nausea, you want to question the patient about what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - color - quantity - characteristics

Output: If vomiting occurs, it is important to determine what 3 things about the vomitus?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - antiemetic drugs - prokinetic drugs - oral fluids only as tolerated/IV fluids - prevent aspiration - suction equipment available - upright position - mouth care - cool washcloth to head

Output: What are 8 interventions for nausea/vomiting?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - increased aldosterone and ADH in response to stress - fluid restriction pre op - fluid loss during surgery, drainage, and diaphoresis

Output: What are some reasons for the decrease in urine output seen after surgery?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: both quantity and quality (color, amt, consistency, and odor)

Output: The urine of the postoperative patient should be examined for what?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 6-8 hours

Output: Most patients urinate how soon after surgery?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - impaired urinary elimination - potential complication: acute urinary retention

Output: What are 2 examples of nursing diagnoses related to the GU system?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: 1. exogenous flora present in teh environment and on the skin 2. oral flora 3. intestinal flora

Output: What are the 3 major sources of wound infection?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: - Risk for infection - Potential complication; impaired wound healing

Output: What are 2 nursing diagnoses related to surgical wounds?

Perioperative Care: Postoperative 3 of 3 (NAC1) Flashcards - Cram.com

The patient's immediate recovery period is supervised by who?


Input: [line of force] line of gravity

Output: direction of gravity (always center of earth)

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Angle of insertion

Output: angle formed between a tendon of a muscle and the long axis of the bones to which it inserts

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Center of Mass

Output: point that gravity acts on "balance point" -Dot indicating the balance point of the segment

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Static Linear Equilibrium

Output: opposing forces are equal and no motion is occurring

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Rotational Force

Output: in contrast to translation, describes a motion in which an assumed rigid body moves in a circular path around some pivot point.

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Translational Force

Output: describes a linear motion in which all parts of a rigid body move parallel to and in the same direction as every other part of the body . Ex: a point on the head moves in a general curvilinear manner.

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Movements in Sagittal plane

Output: flexion and extension

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Movements in frontal plane

Output: adduction and abduction lateral flexion

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Horizontal Plane

Output: internal (medial) and external (lateral) rotation. Axial rotation

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Axis of Rotation

Output: Bones rotate around a joint that is perpendicular to an axis of rotation. The axis is typically located in the convex member of the joint. The should allows movement in 3 planes so it has 3 axis of rotations.

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: [line of force] Torque

Output: Can be considered a rotary equivalent to a force. Torque= force x moment arm. torque rotates an object around an axis of raotation. Torque is the tendency of a force to rotate the body to which it is applied.Torque is always specified with regard to the axis of rotation. It is equal to the magnitude of the component of the force lying in the plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation, multiplied by the shortest distance between the axis and the direction of the force component. Torque is the force that affects rotational motion; the greater the torque, the greater the change in this motion. Whereas,force is the agency that alters the direction, speed, or shape that a body would exhibit in the absence of any external influence.It is a vector quantity, having both magnitude and direction. Force is commonly explained in terms of Newton's laws of motion. All known natural forces can be traced to the fundamental interactions. Force is measured in newtons (N).

Chapter 1 kinesiology Flashcards - Cram.com

direction of a muscle force (usually towards center of earth)


Input: The axon carries impulse to other neurons or to the effectors; the directioni of travel is away from the cell body.

Output: What is the function of the axon?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: The neuron either responds to stimuli (threshold was reached), or not at all.

Output: What is the All or None Theory?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: Action potential is the rapid reversal of charge across the axon membrane. The membrane is being depolarized, when an impulse travels through.

Output: What is action potential and when does occur?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: The space between a neuron's axon on its target for transmission. Also called the synaptic cleft.

Output: What is the synapse?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: Presynaptic neurons are before the cleft, and postsynaptic occur after the cleft.

Output: What is the difference between pre- and postsynaptic neurons?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: The impulse or travel down a myelinated axon.

Output: What is saltatory conduction?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: a)Sensory neurons begin with a sense organ or receptor, and carry impulses to the CNS. b)Interneurons connect other neurons together(eg. sensory and motor). They are found in the CNS. c)Motor neurons recieve impulses from the CNS and carry them to the effectors like muscles, tissues, or glands.

Output: What is the difference between sensory, inter-, and motor neurons? Define all three.

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: The Nodes of Ranvier are gaps between Schwann cells in the Myelin sheath that speed up transmission.

Output: What are the Nodes of Ranvier?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: 1. Reception 2. Transmission 3. Processing

Output: What three steps must all neural pathways include?

Karci's Nervous System Neuron Review Flashcards - Cram.com

What are the two main sections of the nervous system?


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Dissociative Disorder

Output: Disorder in which individuals feel detached from themselves or their surrounding and feel reality, experience, and identity may disintegrate

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Hypochondriasis

Output: Somatoform disorder involving severe anxiety over belief in having a disease process without any evident physical cause

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Somatization Disorder

Output: Somatoform disorder involving extreme and long-lasting focus on multiple physical symptoms for which no medical cause is evident

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Conversion Disorder

Output: Physical malfunctioning, such as blindness or paralysis, suggesting neurological impairment but with no organic pathology to account for it

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Malingering

Output: Deliberate faking of a physical or psychological disorder motivated by gain.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Factitious Disorder

Output: Nonexistent physical or psychological disorder deliberately faked for no apparent gain except, possibly sympathy and attention

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Pain Disorder

Output: Somatoform disorder featuring true pain but for which psychological factors play an important role in onset, severity, or maintenance

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Body Dysmorphic Disorder

Output: Somatoform disorder featuring a disruptive preoccupation with some imagined defect in appearance

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Depersonalization

Output: Altering of perception that causes people to temporarily lose a sense of their own reality; most prevalent in people with the dissociative disorders. There is often a feeling of being outside observers of their own behavior

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Derealization

Output: Situation in which the individual loses a sense of the reality of the external world

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Depersonalization Disorder

Output: Dissociative disorder in which feelings of depersonaliation are so severe they dominate the individual's life and prevent normal functioning.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Dissociative Amnesia

Output: Dissociative disorder featuring the inability to recall personal information; usually of a stressful or traumatic nature.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Generalized Amnesia

Output: Loss of memory of all personal information, including identity.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Localized Amnesia

Output: Memory loss limited to specific times and events, particularly traumatic events. Also known as selective amnesia.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Dissociative Fuge

Output: Dissociative disorder featuring sudden, unexpected travel away from home, along with an inability to recall the past, sometimes with assumption of a new identity.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Dissociative Trance Disorder

Output: Altered state of consciousness in which people firmly believe they are possessed by spirits; considered a disorder only where there is distress and dysfunction.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

Output: Disorder in which as many as 100 personalities or fragments of personalities coexist within one body and mind. Formerly known as multiple personality disorder.

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: [Somatoform Disorder] Alter

Output: Shorthand term for alter ego, one of the different personalities or identities in dissociative identity disorder

Abnormal Psych: Ch 5 Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

Pathological concern of individuals with the appearance or functioning of their bodies, usually in the absence of any identifiable medical condition


Input: __ divides into the right common carotid and subclavian arties [coronary arteries]

Output: innominate/ brachiocephalic

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the three branches of the aortic arch in order are [coronary arteries]

Output: innominate/ brachiocephalic, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ runs laterally to outer border of 1st rib becoming the axillary artery. Some branches include vertebral, thyrocervical, costocervical [coronary arteries]

Output: subclavian artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ after giving off several branches, becomes the brachial artery [coronary arteries]

Output: axillary a

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ branches into the radial and ulnar arteries at the inner aspect of the elbow, (also known as he anticubital fossa) [coronary arteries]

Output: brachial a

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ travels down lateral side of forearm into hand, branching to form the superficial palmar arch and terminates in the deep palmar arch by joining deep branch of the ulnar artery [coronary arteries]

Output: radial a

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ travels down medial side of forearm into hand, branching to form deep palmar arch and terminates in the superficial palmar arch [coronary arteries]

Output: ulnar a

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ is the predominate source of blood flow in the hand [coronary arteries]

Output: ulnar a

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ includes the distal portion of the ulnar artery and a branch of the radial artery [coronary arteries]

Output: superficial palmar (volar) arch

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ includes branch of ulnar artery and distal portion of the radial artery [coronary arteries]

Output: deep palmar volar arch

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: digital arteries arise from the ___ and extend into the fingers dividing into lateral and medial branches [coronary arteries]

Output: palmar arches

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the visceral branches of the abdominal aorta include [coronary arteries]

Output: celiac artery, sma, renal arteries, ima

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ supplies stomach, liver, pancreas,duodenum, spleen. branchesinto left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries [coronary arteries]

Output: celiac artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ supplies the small intestine, cecum, parts of colon. located about 1cm below celiac a [coronary arteries]

Output: sma

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ supply blood to the kidneys, suprarenal glands, ureters. [coronary arteries]

Output: renal arteries

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ renal arteries not uncommon bilaterally [coronary arteries]

Output: multiple

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: in transverse, a landmark for locating the left renal a is the ______ [coronary arteries]

Output: the left renal vein which crosses the aorta anteriorly, the artery being just posterior

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ supplies transverse, descending colon and part of rectum. arises about 3-4cm above bif. can act as a collateral connection [coronary arteries]

Output: IMA

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: both ___ are the most distal branches of the aorta carrying blood to the pelvis, abdominal and lower limbs [coronary arteries]

Output: common iliac arteries

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the common iliac artery divides into ___ and ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: internal iliac artery (hypogastric) and external iliac artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ travels along medial side of psoas major muscle [coronary arteries]

Output: external iliac artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: after the external iliac artery passes underneath the inguinal ligament it becomes the ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: common femoral artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ divides into the sfa and the deep femoral artery [coronary arteries]

Output: common femoral artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ runs the length of the thigh, passing through an opening in the tendon of the adductor (hunters canal). and enters the popliteal fossa behind the knee [coronary arteries]

Output: superficial femoral artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ is a large branch arises about 5cm from the inguinal ligament on the lateral side and can act as a collateral connection [coronary arteries]

Output: deep femoral (profunda femoris) artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ consists of deep plantar artery (branch of DPA) and the lateral plantar arteru (branch of the PTA) which unites with the deep plantar artery [coronary arteries]

Output: plantar arch

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ and __ distribute blood to the digits in the foot [coronary arteries]

Output: plantar and dorsal

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ passes toward fibula traveling down medail side of that bone to supply structures of the lateral side of leg/ foot [coronary arteries]

Output: peroneal artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ extends obliquely down posterior / medial side of the leg [coronary arteries]

Output: PTA

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ trunk is the short segment between ATA branch ad branches of PTA and peroneal arteries [coronary arteries]

Output: tibioperoneal trunk

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the first branch off distal popliteal artery [coronary arteries]

Output: anterior tibial artery

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ transport gases nutrients and other essential substances to the capillaries. [coronary arteries]

Output: arteries

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ are considered resistance vessels and assist with regulating blood flow though contraction and relaxation [coronary arteries]

Output: arterioles

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ is where nutrients and waste products are exchanged between the tissue and blood [coronary arteries]

Output: capillaries

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ layer is thin, consisting of a surface layer of smooth endothelium, base membrane and connective tissue [coronary arteries]

Output: tunica intima/ inner layer (artery)

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ layer is thicker composed of smooth muscle and connective tissue largely of the elastic type [coronary arteries]

Output: tunica media/ intermediate (artery)

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ layer is somewhat thinner than media contains fibrous connective tissue and some muscle fibers [coronary arteries]

Output: tunica externa/ outer layer (adventitia) artery wall

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: As a rule, the ___ layer contains the vasa vasorum, tiny vessels that carry blood to the walls of the larger arteries [coronary arteries]

Output: adventitial layer outer layer

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ set into oscillation by each beat of the heart [coronary arteries]

Output: multi-branched elastic conduit

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: each beat pumps about __ of blood into the aorta causing a blood pressure pulse [coronary arteries]

Output: 70 milliliters

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Order of cardis contration: 1. 2. 3. [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure in the left ventricle rises rapidly then left ventricle pressure exceeds that in the aorta and finally the aortic valve opens, blood is ejected causing the blood pressure to rise

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: Increased heart rate delivers an ___ blood volume [coronary arteries]

Output: increased

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ plays an important role in the movement of blood throughout the vascular system [coronary arteries]

Output: patients cardiac status

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the heart pump generates the pressure to move the blood resulting in a ____ that travels rapidly throughout the system, demonstrationing a gradual transformation as it travels distally [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure wave ( energy wave)

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: pumping acrion of heart results in high volume of blood in arteries to maintain a ___ between the arteries and veins [coronary arteries]

Output: high pressure gradient

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ governs the amount of blood that enters the arterial system; arterial pressure and total___ determines the amount that leaves it [coronary arteries]

Output: cardiac output peripheral resistance

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: each cardiac contraction __ the arteries ehich serve as reservoirs to store some blood volume and potential energy supplied th the system [coronary arteries]

Output: distends

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ is greater at the heart, gradually decreasing as the blood moves further away. this __ difference is necessary to maintain blood flow [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: movement of any fluid medium between two points requires two things [coronary arteries]

Output: apathway along which the fluid can flow and a difference in energy levels (pressure difference)

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: The amount of blood flow depends on [coronary arteries]

Output: the energy difference (includes losses resulting from fluid movement) and any resistance ehich tends to oppose such movement

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: lower resistance = ___ flow rate [coronary arteries]

Output: higher

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: higher resistance = __ flow rate [coronary arteries]

Output: lower

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: the total energy contained in oving fluid is the sum of __, __, and ___ energies [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure (potential) energy, kinetic energy and gravitational energy

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ is stored energy and is the major form of energy for circulation of blood; expressed in mmHg [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure (potential) energy

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ is small for circulationgblood; expressed in terms of fluid density and it =s velocity measurements [coronary arteries]

Output: kinetic energy

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ is equivalent to the weight of the column of blood extending from the heart to level where pressureis measured [coronary arteries]

Output: gravitational energy or hydrostatic pressure HP

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: there is a 0mmHg against the arteries and veins at the ankle when a patient is supine but when standing the the mmHg is at about ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: 100mmHg hydrostatic pressure

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: an ____ is needed to move blood from one point to another. greater amount of this cause greater amoutn of flow [coronary arteries]

Output: energy gradient

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ relates to the tendency of a fluid to resist changes in its velocity ( body at rest tends to stay at rest) [coronary arteries]

Output: inertia

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: as the blood moves farther out to the perphery, energy is dissipated largely in the form of ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: heat

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: energy is continually restored by what action? [coronary arteries]

Output: pumping of the heart

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: movement of fluid is dependent on ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: physical properties of the fluid and what its moving through

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ predicts when fluid becomes unstable [coronary arteries]

Output: reynolds number

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: diminishing vessel size increases ____ forces and ___ ___ losses [coronary arteries]

Output: frictional heat energy

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ consists of layers of fluid particles moving against one another [coronary arteries]

Output: laminar flow

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: faster moving flow is seen in the ___; stationary layer remains at the ___. laminar flow is considered ___ flow [coronary arteries]

Output: center wall stable

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: __ flow is likely seen at vessel origin [coronary arteries]

Output: plug

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ profile of laminar flow is usually seen downstream [coronary arteries]

Output: parabolic

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: although viscosity and vessel length have an effect on resistance, a change in ____ has a more dramatic effect [coronary arteries]

Output: vessel diameter

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: internal friction within a fluid is measured by its ___ [coronary arteries]

Output: viscosity

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: resistance is ___ proportional to viscosity and vessel length [coronary arteries]

Output: directly

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: resistance is ___ proportional to the vessel diameter [coronary arteries]

Output: inversely

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___energy loss is due to increased friction between molecules and layers which ultimately causes energy loss [coronary arteries]

Output: viscous

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ___ losses occur with deviations from laminar flow due to changes in direction and or velocity [coronary arteries]

Output: inertial (biggest loss of energy)

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____ defines relationship between: pressure, volume flow, resistance [coronary arteries]

Output: poiseuille's equation q=p/r

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: poiseuille's equation helps answer the question of how much fluid moves througha vessel. what is the equation _=_/_ [coronary arteries]

Output: Q=P/R Q=volume flow P=pressure R=resistance

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Input: ___ change has most dramatic effect on resistance [coronary arteries]

Output: diameter

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: radius of a vessel is ____ proportional to volume flow [coronary arteries]

Output: directly

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: total energy contained in moving fluid is the sum of __,__ and ___ energies [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure kinetic gravitational

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: velocity and pressure are ___ proportional [coronary arteries]

Output: inversely

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ______ occur because of a geometry change with or without intra-luminal disease; and because of curves [coronary arteries]

Output: pressure gradients flow separations

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Input: ____ flow of a continuous nature feeding dilated vascular bed [coronary arteries]

Output: low resistance flow

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what are some examples of low resistance arteries [coronary arteries]

Output: ica vertebral renal celiac splenic hepatic

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: _____ flow of a pulsatile nature. Between incident pulses, hydraulic reflections travel back up the vessel from the periphery producing flow reversals in the vascular compartment [coronary arteries]

Output: high resistance flow

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: what are some examples of a high resistance vessel [coronary arteries]

Output: eca subclavian aorta iliac extremity arteries fasting sma

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Input: the ___ of a high resistant signal may disappear distal to a stenosis because of decreased peripheral resistance, secondary to ischemia [coronary arteries]

Output: reversal component

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Input: doppler flow ___ to a significant stenosis is lower resistant. In addition its more rounded in appearance and is weaker in strength [coronary arteries]

Output: distal

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Input: a normally high resistant (biphasic or triphasic) signal may become _____ as it approaches the signififcant stenosis and/or arterial obstruction [coronary arteries]

Output: monophasic

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Input: doppler flow ___ to a significant stenosis is higher resistant in quality (could have no diastole or minimal diastole ) [coronary arteries]

Output: proximal

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Input: ___ is probably best single vasodilator of resistancevessels within skeletal muscle [coronary arteries]

Output: exercise

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Input: ___ - pain in muscle usually occuring during exercise; subsides with rest. results from inadequate blood supply to muscle. discomfort is predictable and subsides within minutes after exercise. level of disease usually proximal to location of symptoms. [coronary arteries]

Output: claudication

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Input: What are the signs and symptoms of chronic occlusive disease [coronary arteries]

Output: claudication, ischemic rest pain, and tissue loss

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____- a more severe symptom of diminished blood flow. occurs when limb not dependant; BP decreased (such as when sleeping) [coronary arteries]

Output: ischemic rest pain

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Input: ___- due to deficient or absent blood supply to tissue [coronary arteries]

Output: tissue loss necrosis or death of tissue

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Input: symptoms include the 6P's pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, polar. May result from thrombus, ebolism or trauma. [coronary arteries]

Output: acute arterial ocllusion

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: ____- a condition that exists when symptoms intermittent digital ischemia occur in response to cold exposure or emotional stress. Changes in skin color may include pallor, cyanosis or rubor [coronary arteries]

Output: raynauds phenomenon

vascular ultrasound Flashcards - Cram.com


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Sahel

Output: a strip of grassland along the southern edge of the Sahara

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Savanna

Output: a grassland region near the tropics

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Animism

Output: a belief that many spirits live within the natural world

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Ritual

Output: an activity that sacred meaning and is part of the practice of a religion

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Invader

Output: an outsider who comes into an area to conquer or destroy it

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Mosque

Output: an Islamic place of worship

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: [Sub-Saharan] Proverb

Output: a short saying that expresses the values or morals of a culture

ch 11 west africa Foreign Language Flashcards - Cram.com

the region of Africa south of the Sahara.


Input: conductivity as a measure of dissolved ions and as an estimator of productivity

Output: conductivity is proportional to the relative amount of electricity that can be conducted by water, and can be correlated approximately to system productivity because high nutrient waters have high conductivity, but other factors including concentration of nonnutrient salts also influence conductivity

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Input: chemical vs. mechanical weathering, and the role of microbes

Output: chemical weathering releases dissolved matter, whereas mechanical weathering releases particulate matter that may react to form dissolved matter at some point. microbes can enhance the rates of weathering

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why high runoff volume has low dissolved matter

Output: the total concentration of dissolved matter is related inversely to the amount of runoff because the higher the runoff, the less time water had to dissolve ions (but relationship is variable due to geomorphology, geology of parent material, and area of runoff)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: assimilation and how it decreases concentrations of ions in the water:

Output: ex. as nitrogen is taken up by an organism(assimilated) the concentration of nitrogen in the water decreases. Has to do with interactions with biota abundance of ions in water flowing from terrestrial habitats

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: indicators of water quality; what turbidity is and what influences it

Output: - color, taste, odor, suspended solids, and turbidity - turbidity: measured as light absorption or light scattering of water (influenced by suspended particles, and tannins and lignins from decomposition of organic material

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: what drives whether an environment is going to have oxidation or reduction, and generally why redox matters in ecosystems:

Output: -the relative availability (concentration) of electrons for chemical reactions in a solution (low redox=lots of available electrons (reducing environment) & high redox=few available electrons (oxidizing environment). when O2 is present, redox values are high because oxygen has an affinity for electrons). redox potential is a large determinant of what chemical reactions will occur without an input of energy, what reactions will require energy, and what products will be favored in the environment. -oxidizing environments only allows chemical reactions that release electrons to occur. -whether or not the environment is oxic or anoxic, in an oxic environment, oxidation takes place and in an anoxic environment, reduction takes place - “a compound will have high potential energy if it is a low redox compound in a high redox environment or a high redox compound in a low redox environment” (pg 297)

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Input: dissolved oxygen

Output: amount of O2 dissolved in the water. concentration is a primary determinant of redox (when present, redox values must be high)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: what processes determine how much oxygen is present in an ecosystem

Output: metabolic activity rates, diffusion, temperature, and proximity to atmosphere (sources in water: photosynthesis, diffusion, mixing, dams)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why oxygen supersaturation can occur

Output: if oxygen becomes supersaturated, it will form bubbles and come out of solution (in fish - leads to gas bubble trauma which causes strokes, ruptured swim bladder, decreased breathing abilities, and subdermal air bubbles) and can be caused by photosynthesis (e.g., when there is a high biomass of phytoplankton at the metalimnion)(during calm days O2 can build up in the epilimnion especially in littoral zones)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: main reactants and products of photosynthesis and respiration

Output: - photosynthesis: H2O + CO2 + light energy = CH2O + O2 - respiration: CH2O + O2 = CO2 + H2O + chemical energy (ATP)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: compensation point, and the relative net photosynthesis curves of high light adapted and low light adapted plants, and where you might find those different types of plants

Output: - compensation point: where gross production equals respiration - low light adapted: have a low compensation point, have rapid increase in P.S. rate as light increases, but tend to be photoinhibited at low irradiance. found in the benthos/profundal zone, heavy surrounding vegetation, or under dense canopy

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Input: how mixing affects phytoplankton photosynthesis in lakes

Output: if turbulent mixing is deep enough, the average light experienced can be too low to support growth. Phytoplankton are most likely to be below this depth during winter when lake is not stratified and ambient light is low

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: photoinhibition

Output: direct or indirect damaging effects of high-intensity light on the molecules in plant cells, reducing photosynthetic capacity

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: factors that influence photosynthetic rates and respiration rates

Output: - photosynthetic rates: light, temperature, nutrient availability, water velocity / dissolved oxygen content (high levels inhibit photosyn.), organic compounds (which lower photosynthetic rates) - respiration rates: quality of organic carbon available for consumption, temperature, exchange rates with the environment, compounds that influence physiology (e.g., toxins, extreme pH, salinity), activity levels (for animals)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: when and why there are low oxygen concentrations or anoxic conditions in the hypolimnion, and how it relates to lake mixing

Output: The hypolimnion is usually deep enough that little light reaches it, restricting photosynthesis. Respiration predominates as organic carbon rains down from above. Oxygen is depleted gradually in the hypolimnion over time. Mixing blends dissolved oxygen throughout

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why sewage releases can lead to anoxia

Output: the load of organic carbon in untreated sewage stimulates respiration and consumes oxygen at a rate in excess of that which can be replenished by exchange with the atmosphere. water then becomes anoxic and can lead to fish death

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why groundwater is generally anoxic

Output: because when it is deep enough, there are: a low supply of O2, high temperatures associated with geothermal heating, O2 consumption by organisms, reactions with organic chemicals, and long turnover times

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Input: ability of CO2 to be supersaturated

Output: increased atmospheric pressure, slight acidity see the Lake Nyos example in Sidebar 13.1

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: forms of organic C

Output: DOC (dissolved), POC (particulate), FPOM (fine particulate), CPOM (coarse particulate) -the difference between DOC and FPOM is 45um, the difference between FPOM and CPOM is 1mm

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Input: why organic C availability is particularly important in groundwater, benthic sediments, and forested streams

Output: because these habitats are dominated by heterotrophic organisms

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: biochemical oxygen demand, including basically how it's measured:

Output: the total demand for oxygen by chemical and biological (respiration) oxidative reactions; common method to estimate total available organic carbon for heterotrophs; look at Method 13.1 for how it’s measured-- incubate water in a sealed bottle and measure how much O2 is depleted over time, by how much O2 is used, you can figure out the biochemical oxygen demand

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: humic compounds and tannins

Output: Humic compounds are large molecular weight compounds and lend a brownish color to the water, by-product of breakdown of larger molecular weight compounds such as tannins, cellulose, and lignins. non-humic includes sugars & other carbs, amino acids, urea, proteins , pigment, lipids, Low molecular weight): - general interaction with organic pollutants and metals(Tannins and humic substances) 1. attach to many other organic substances, which is important for the transport of pollutants. 2. they form complexes with metal ions, which can be important for keeping iron in solution. 3. how they color the water, resistance to degradation(Both are resistant to biological degradation) 4. form colloids

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: factors that affect rates of decay of organic compounds

Output: (see Fig. 3.15 and p. 333) -simple vs complex carbon -macrophytes and organic material - temperature and inorganic nutrients - human land use can alter rates (agriculture input and disturbance)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why peat bogs form in anoxic conditions

Output: b/c anoxic conditions lead to slower breakdown of organic materials due to reduced efficiency of carbon oxidation and inhibition of microbial activity by metabolic by-products (lowering pH); thus, accumulation of organic compounds under anoxic (or acidic) conditions leads to formation of peat bogs

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: methanotrophs, including under what conditions they live:

Output: bacteria that specifically oxidize methane; generally found living in close proximity to anoxic habitats from which there is a constant diffusive influx of methane

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why wetlands and rice paddies are a source of methane

Output: methane escapes from wetlands b/c anoxic processes lead to methanogenesis

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: assimilation

Output: organismal acquisition of nutrients; generally occurs regardless of the redox state of the environment

Freshwater ecology final Flashcards - Cram.com

the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: remineralization

Output: the excretion of inorganic nutrients by organisms

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Input: forms of N

Output: N2 gas, inorganic nitrogen (nitrate, nitrite, ammonium), organic N (dissolved organic N (<.45um) and particulate organic N (>.45um)) - most common form is N2 gas (atmosphere composed of 78% N2); water contains N2 as a dissolved gas - NH3: ammonia (high pH conditions) - NO2: nitrite - toxic - NO3: nitrate - NH4: ammonium (ionic form found in neutral conditions) - organic: amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins, and urea

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: biological use of N – what biological molecules it's in, what form of N is necessary for use by cells

Output: - amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins, and urea - many animals can assimilate nitrogen only in the form of organic molecules (amino and nucleic acids in the tissues of other organisms) - primary producers and bacteria use nitrate, nitrite, or ammonium - understanding N fluxes are crucial because N can limit primary production

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: N fixation – what organisms use it, how it's a pathway for entry of N into aquatic habitats

Output: - many bacteria (cyanobacteria and some archaea) can assimilate N2 - enzyme nitrogenase used, and is extremely energy intensive. enters aquatic habitats through leaching, leaves falling into water, large populations of cyanobacteria and rainwater

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: nitrification as an oxidation process; importance to ecosystems

Output: -It is the oxidation of ammonia to nitrites, then those nitrites to nitrates. NH3 or NH4 to NO2- (+energy) to NO3- (+energy) -vital link in the nitrogen cycle, nitrite can impact health negatively, nitrifying bacteria compete for ammonium with primary producers

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: denitrification as a reductive process (in anoxic conditions); why it's a key link in the N cycle

Output: leads to the conversion of inorganic combined nitrogen (nitrate) to the relatively unavailable N2 gas - NO3- to N2O to N2

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: excretion of N by organisms; why it's an important flux in ecosystems; ammonification:

Output: - organisms can ingest more nitrogen than needed, and must excrete the surplus; - ammonification: when ammonium in remineralized. excessive ammonium produced by high densities of fish can be toxic

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: relative amounts of ammonium and nitrate in anoxic vs. oxidized waters, and what that would mean for where each would be concentrated in a f.w. environment, e.g., a stratified lake

Output: (Figs. 14.4, 14.5) - nitrate is predominant of dissolved inorganic nitrogen in oxidized waters - ammonium is in predominate form in anoxic waters - in a lake with an anoxic hypolimnion, ammonium dominates the hypolimnion, and nitrate is mainly confined to epilimnion during stratification (in the epilimnion, nitrification transforms ammonium to nitrate in the presence of O2, but in the hypolimnion nitrate is removed by denitrification under anoxic conditions, and nitrogen continues to be excreted in the form of ammonium) - high ammonium in streams is often associated with input of anoxic groundwaters or pollution

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Input: nitrate contamination problems for human health

Output: - methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome): nitrite binds more strongly to hemoglobin than O2 - conversion to carcinogenic nitrosamines in stomach (gastric cancer and fertilizer use correlation)

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Input: S cycle as a complex nutrient cycle, supplying energy for organisms under a variety of conditions (oxic and anoxic), and interacting with metals and thus, indirectly, other nutrients → do not memorize all the various transformations, but do know that by removing iron species from solution, it frees phosphate (p. 360)

Output: - complexity of the cycle driven by different redox states in which it can occur, and illustrates that organisms have evolved to use most of the possible common compounds in the biosphere that have potential energy - in aquatic systems, is rarely a limiting nutrient - removes iron from solutions, freeing phosphate that would normally precipitate - sulfides can combine with metals to form pyrites that have low solubility under anoxic conditions (can represent iron loss (iron pyrite) in aquatic ecosystems) - water quality factor (color and odor)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: P as a key limiting nutrient for primary production in aquatic habitats:

Output: phosphorus is mainly found in only one inorganic form (phosphate), and limits primary production in aquatic habitats

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Input: forms of P

Output: main inorganic form: phosphate(relative concentration in oligotrophic habitats), organic forms (DOP, PP) - phosphate (PO4) is a dominant form of inorganic phosphorus in natural waters - organic: nucleic acids and lipids

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: biological use of P – what molecules it's in

Output: - used in cells for nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP, and other compounds

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: interaction of P with Fe, when and how it happens (temporally and spatially), and why that's important

Output: - determines the availability of phosphorus in many aquatic systems - phosphate will precipitate with some metals (ferric iron) in the presence of oxygen (forms fericphosphate) and leads to the deposition of phosphorus in sediments when surface water is oxygenated. When it settles into an anoxic zone, the iron breaks off; eddy diffusion of dissolved materials moves the phosphorus back to the surface in the fall when fall mixing breaks stratification

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Input: Si as a limiting nutrient for diatom production; frustules

Output: diatoms rely on silicon as a component of their specialized cell walls (frustules)

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Input: silicic acid, and sources of Si

Output: - silicon cycles drive the dominance of diatoms in surface waters and can be a primary determinant of algal community structure in lakes and streams - silicic acid: usually the form dissolved in waters - sources: clays containing silicon compounds

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Input: temporal and spatial variability in Si concentrations, esp. in lakes (Fig. 14.10)

Output: - can be depleted in the epilimnion of lakes during summer because of the slow cycling of silicon, its incorporation into diatom frustules, and the sinking of these frustules before they can be re-dissolved

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Input: forms of Fe: Fe+3 and Fe+2 and under what conditions they're favored (anoxic vs. oxic)

Output: - under oxic (high redox) conditions iron becomes ferric (Fe3+) - under anoxic (low redox) conditions iron becomes ferrous (Fe2+)

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: biological use of Fe – what molecules and pathways it's in

Output: - key element in electron transport proteins, hemoglobins, enzymes used in synthetic pathways for chlorophyll and proteins, and enzymes used for nitrate assimilation, photosynthesis, and other essential metabolic processes

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: temporal and spatial variability in Fe concentrations, esp. in stratified lakes

Output: - variability is especially pronounced in concentrations related to anoxic events such as summer stratification in eutrophic lakes

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: Fe interaction with humic compounds and subsequent problems for organisms:

Output: large concentrations can complex with iron so successfully that they make iron unavailable to organisms

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: Fe relationship with phosphate

Output: iron can precipitate phosphate, settles to sediments in oligotrophic lake or wetland. If hypolimnion is anoxic (as expected in a eutrophic lake) the FePO4 precipitate will dissociate into phosphate and ferrous iron. Allows higher concentrations of phosphorus to be maintained in the surface waters and leads to algal growth (since it is often limiting)

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Input: generally, why redox gradients are important and how human impacts have changed redox heterogeneity (see p. 370)

Output: - redox gradients are sites of high rates and diverse types of metabolic activities, occur because of dependence of many aquatic microbial geochemical processes on either reduced chemicals in oxidized environments or oxidized chemicals in reduced environments; locations where reduced compounds are diffuse rapidly into oxidized conditions and vice versa. - humans changed: urbanization lowers heterogeneity and decreases anoxic carbon-rich habitats leading to lower rates of denitrification

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size


Input: why microorganisms tend to dominate extreme environments

Output: higher plants and animals have complex multicellular systems that cannot evolve to compensate for extremes

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the distinction is often arbitrary, commonly based on the ability to pass through a filter of a given size