Melricflash/CW_MedAbstractsAlt huggingface dataset:
Bleeding gastroesophageal varices: gastric vein embolization after partial portal decompression. Shunts that decompress the portal vein are effective in the treatment of bleeding esophageal varices. Use of large-caliber portacaval shunts, however, results in the complete decompression of the portal system and the risk of subsequent development of hepatic encephalopathy. Use of small-caliber portacaval shunts results in mild portal hypertension and less frequent hepatic encephalopathy but may increase the risk of recurrent bleeding. Thirty-three patients underwent angiography after partial decompression portacaval shunting (median trans-shunt pressures, 8 mm Hg). Embolization of residual varices, noted in 13 patients, was performed. Results included one complication with no sequelae and no bleeding a mean of 13 months after the procedure was performed. Trans-shunt embolization of esophageal varices effectively prevents bleeding varices after partial portal decompression. 

Category: digestive system diseases
Alcohol and pyruvate cardioplegia. Twenty-four-hour in situ preservation of hamster hearts. Isolated hamster hearts were first perfused with a normal Krebs-Henseleit medium to demonstrate comparable viability of hearts before perfusing and storing them for 24 hours in one of three solutions. The three solutions were a physiologic saline with pyruvate as the substrate and 4% alcohol to arrest the heart (group 1), a standard cardioplegic solution (group 2), and an alcohol-free physiologic saline with pyruvate as the substrate (group 3). Recovery in terms of rate/pressure product and oxygen consumption after 30 minutes of reperfusion was 81% and 93%, respectively, for group 1, 13% and 32% for group 2, and 70% and 72% for group 3. Percent of physiologic recovery was not related to recovery of adenosine triphosphate. The adenosine triphosphate level returned to approximately 40% control level in all three groups, and in all three groups inorganic phosphate remained approximately 320% over control level after 30 minutes of reperfusion. Phosphocreatine level significantly higher in groups 1 and 3 than in group 2, as a result of improved oxygen consumption. Intracellular pH, determined by phosphorous 31 nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, was physiologic in groups 1 and 3 but alkaline in group 2. This alkalinity may have been caused by leaky membranes. Pyruvate helped preserve mitochondrial function during depressed oxygen delivery, such as was seen during the 24-hour storage period. Four percent alcohol arrested the heart; combined with pyruvate plus alcohol solution were better than a standard cardioplegic solution for maintaining functional capability. 

Category: cardiovascular diseases
Hypothalamic obesity due to hydrocephalus caused by aqueductal stenosis. A case is presented of 14 year old female with hypothalamic obesity due to hydrocephalus caused by aqueductal stenosis. Evidence of hypothalamic obesity included 1) acute hyperphagia and weight gain, 2) neuroradiology showed hydrocephalus with focal enlargement of the third ventricle, 3) endocrinological studies revealed hyperinsulinaemia and impaired growth hormone (GH) response to arginine, but normal GH response to growth hormone-releasing factor (GRF) and 4) Torkildsen's ventriculo-cisternal shunting resulted in improvement in hyperphagia and obesity. 

Category: general pathological conditions
Use of the calcium agonist BAY K 8644 for in vitro diagnosis of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia. We have studied the effects of the calcium agonist BAY K 8644 on the in vitro halothane test in 10 malignant hyperthermia-susceptible (MHS), 12 MH "equivocal" to halothane (MHEh), 30 MH non-susceptible (MHN) and 10 control patients. BAY K 8644 potentiated the halothane-induced contracture in muscle strips from both MHS and MHEh patients. The drug produced a more obvious difference in contracture responses between the MHEh group compared with the MHN and control groups. 

Category: general pathological conditions
Patellar resurfacing in total knee arthroplasty. Technical errors in patellar resurfacing at the time of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) are responsible for many of the complications that affect the patellofemoral joint. Instability, patellar fracture, and wear of metal-backed patellar implants are significantly affected by errors of patellar resurfacing. A review of 50 TKAs using a condylar prosthesis and a standardized technique for patellar resurfacing was performed to evaluate the accuracy of the technique. The patients were evaluated at a mean of 2.5 years (range, two to five years) after surgery. The Hospital for Special Surgery Knee Score improved from a preoperative mean of 56 to 92 at the last evaluation. The Hospital for Special Surgery Knee Scores were excellent in 92% and good in 8%. The Knee Society Knee Score improved from a preoperative mean of 28 for pain and 49 for function to a last evaluation mean of 96 for pain and 85 for function. None of the patients had symptoms referable to the patellofemoral joint. There were no patellar fractures, dislocations, or instances of implant loosening of the patella. Roentgenograms revealed nine asymmetrically resurfaced patellae and five tilted patellae. There were no patellar subluxations. Patellar thickness was maintained at the preoperative level of 21 mm. Joint-line height was elevated 1 mm. The patellar height was decreased 2 mm from the preoperative height. Using a standard technique, satisfactory clinical results can be achieved, but minor errors in resurfacing and alignment will still occur. 

Category: nervous system diseases
Effects of two chest tube clearance protocols on drainage in patients after myocardial revascularization surgery. The purpose of the study was to determine the effects of two methods of clot clearance on chest tube drainage in patients undergoing myocardial revascularization. Two hundred adult patients immediately after myocardial revascularization were randomly assigned to a specific chest tube manipulation group. The dependent variables were drainage, incidence of cardiac tamponade, incidence of surgical reentry, hemodynamic values, and number of manipulation episodes. Statistical analyses revealed no difference in any of the dependent variables when milking and stripping were used. Of the 200 patients, 78 did not require any manipulation of the chest tubes in the first 8 hours after surgery. One patient had signs of cardiac tamponade and six other patients required surgical reentry. Positioning of the connecting tube in a nondependent position assisted with the removal of drainage from the chest cavity. In conclusion, patients having myocardial revascularization did not need their chest tubes manipulated the first 8 hours after surgery. Visible drainage in the chest tube did not cause a lack of patency. 

Category: cardiovascular diseases
Multiple parathyroid adenomas: report of thirty-three cases. An increasing number of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism are found to have two or three enlarged parathyroid glands. Of 865 patients successfully operated on by one surgeon (J.N.A.), multiple enlarged parathyroid glands (adenomas) were found and resected in 33 cases (3.8%), with resulting normocalcemia lasting from 1 to 22 years (mean 5.8). Twenty-nine patients had two adenomas and four had three adenomas. In 28 patients the multiple adenomas were synchronous. Twenty-five patients underwent removal of all of the enlarged parathyroid glands in one operation; in three patients one adenoma was removed, reoperation for persistent hypercalcemia was performed, and a second adenoma was resected with cure. In five patients one adenoma was removed, normocalcemia ensued for 3 to 18 years, and a second (metachronous) adenoma occurred and was resected successfully. Although 10 of 70 enlarged parathyroid glands removed were labeled hyperplasia, cure in all but one of our patients by selective resection of only enlarged parathyroid glands emphasizes the unreliability of histologic criteria in differentiating between parathyroid adenoma and hyperplasia. Based on this study, we support the existence of multiple adenomas and advocate removal of only macroscopically enlarged parathyroid glands in patients with primary hyperparathyroidism. 

Category: neoplasms
Rupture of atheromatous plaque as a cause of thrombotic occlusion of stenotic internal carotid artery. We analyzed the clinical profiles and autopsy findings of five patients who died shortly after developing cerebral infarction following thrombotic occlusion of the internal carotid artery. In all five cases, thrombotic occlusion was caused by rupture of the fibrous lining over the gruel of atheroma at the origin of the internal carotid artery showing tight stenosis of the lumen. The mean +/- SD shorter diameter of the lumen at the site of occlusion was 1.5 +/- 0.4 mm. Our results show that an internal carotid artery with tight stenosis of the lumen by atheroma containing gruel harbors a risk of thrombotic occlusion, which may give rise to cerebral infarction by artery-to-artery embolism or by reduced cerebral perfusion. 

Category: nervous system diseases
Intestinal permeability in patients with chronic urticaria-angioedema with and without arthralgia. We evaluated the clinical response to oligoallergenic dietary treatment and the intestinal absorption of a protein antigen, cow milk beta-lactoglobulin (BLG) in 24 patients with chronic urticaria/angioedema syndrome 13 of whom also suffered from joint symptoms. Sixteen patients (77% of those with arthralgia) responded to diet (RD) with marked reduction of symptoms; the others did not respond (NR). Ten (all but one RD with arthralgia) had increased permeability to BLG after oral administration of cow milk. Four with high titers of IgG to BLG showed the highest absorption of BLG and the groups with arthralgia showed higher BLG levels than those without arthralgia. In all cases, specific IgE to cow milk was absent. These data suggest that the symptoms of a subgroup of patients with chronic urticaria, and especially patients with joint complaints that subside with diet, are related to excess intestinal permeability. The measurement of gut permeability to food proteins may be useful to define those who may benefit from dietary restriction. 

Category: general pathological conditions
Contribution of calmodulin and protein kinase C to renin release in spontaneously hypertensive rats. This study was designed to evaluate the contribution of calmodulin and protein kinase C to renin release from isolated glomeruli of spontaneously hypertensive rats (SHR, Okamoto and Aoki). Male 7-week-old SHR and age-matched control Wistar-Kyoto rats (WKY) were used in this study. Isolated glomeruli were sealed in the superfusion chamber and perfused with Krebs-Ringer solution at a constant flow of 0.3 mL/min. Renin release was increased by calmodulin inhibitor, W-7, and protein kinase C inhibitor, H-7, in both SHR and WKY. SHR showed higher maximal levels of renin release by W-7 and lower maximal levels by H-7 compared to WKY. These results indicate that calmodulin and protein kinase C play inhibitory roles in renin release from juxtaglomerular cells. The calmodulin-mediated suppression mechanism in renin release appears to be augmented in the SHR, whereas the protein kinase C-mediated system is attenuated. 

Category: cardiovascular diseases
Mesial temporal sclerosis: pathogenesis, diagnosis, and management. Mesial temporal sclerosis (MTS) is probably the most common symptomatic pathologic entity--alone or mixed with other pathologic features--for seizures of temporal lobe origin. The pathophysiology of MTS, including any genetic influence, needs clarification. A characteristic ictal expression for seizures of MTS origin appears not to exist. The majority of patients (78%) with postresection MTS who are seizure-free have tightly localized interictal abnormalities restricted to F7/F8, Sp1/Sp2, T3/T4, and T5/T6 more than 96% of the time. MRI abnormalities may be seen in 55% of patients with MTS if both "hard" and "soft" criteria are used or in 20% when only "hard" criteria are used. The neuropsychologic evaluation of patients with MTS, which includes intracarotid amobarbital test (IAT), may prove to be increasingly useful in identifying patterns of cognitive deficit that correlate with enhancement of both lateralizing and localizing preoperative information. 

Category: general pathological conditions
Feasibility of reversing benzodiazepine tolerance with flumazenil To examine whether the benzodiazepine antagonist flumazenil can reverse tolerance to benzodiazepines but without precipitating withdrawal seizures, the antiepileptic effect of flumazenil itself and its ability to reverse tolerance at a dose that would leave sufficient receptors free for the binding of benzodiazepines were investigated. Electroencephalographic studies in 6 patients with partial and 6 with generalised seizures showed that flumazenil had a short (20 min) non-dose-dependent suppressant effect on epileptic discharges in those with partial seizures. Receptor occupancy studies in 12 patients showed that 1.5 mg flumazenil given intravenously occupied 55% receptors, whereas 15 mg occupied nearly all receptors. When 3 patients with partial seizures who had become tolerant to clonazepam were given 1.5 mg flumazenil, they were seizure-free for 6-21 days after the injection. The value of intermittent therapy with a benzodiazepine antagonist for preventing or reversing tolerance to benzodiazepine agonists ought to be investigated further. 

Category: nervous system diseases
Free-tissue transfers for limb salvage utilizing in situ saphenous vein bypass conduit as the inflow. Using vein grafts to bypass sclerotic and occluded arterial segments is a well-established technique in vascular surgery. For infrapopliteal bypass, autogenous veins have better patency rates than synthetic grafts. Although not resolved, in situ bypasses seem to be better than reversed bypasses, especially for "far away" segments. Although the etiology is not understood, it is a well-known clinical finding that sclerosis affects arteries more than the veins and, as a whole, is more advanced in lower extremities compared with the trunk and upper extremities. Our experience with eight patients in whom critical soft-tissue defects were covered with free-tissue transfers in severely compromised lower extremities utilizing the in situ saphenous vein bypass as the inflow is presented. Simultaneous bypass and free-tissue transfers were performed in seven and delayed free-tissue transfer was done in one. Follow-up ranged from 6 months to 3 years. To date, two patients underwent amputations. Five patients are able to maintain bipedal ambulation. One patient is wheelchair-bound with intact lower extremities. In well-selected patients, this procedure may offer an alternative treatment to amputation. However, because of the complexity of these combined procedures, we strongly urge careful patient selection. 

Category: cardiovascular diseases
Transitional cell carcinoma of the upper urinary tract: prognostic variables and post-operative recurrences. In a retrospective study of 198 patients with transitional cell carcinoma of the upper urinary tract, post-operative recurrences developed as contralateral tumours in 2.5%, in the ureteric stump after conservative resection in 19% and in the bladder in 36.4%. Upper tract recurrences resembled the primary tumours in terms of grade and stage; of the bladder tumours, 89% were similar in grade and 72% similar in stage to the primary tumours. Age, sex, grade and stage had no effect on the number of bladder recurrences, but ureteric tumours had significantly more recurrences than renal pelvicaliceal tumours. Sex, bladder recurrences and site of primary tumours did not influence survival. Thus grade and stage of the primary tumour were the only predictive variables of the final outcome. 

Category: neoplasms
Pain on common bile duct injection during ERCP: does it indicate sphincter of Oddi dysfunction? The reproduction of a patient's biliary-type pain upon initial injection of contrast material into the common bile duct during diagnostic ERCP is a dramatic experience for both patient and physician. The significance of this phenomenon is not clear, but it is touted by some to be a provocative test for sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. Sphincter of Oddi manometry was performed on 224 consecutive patients referred over a 2-year period for evaluation of post-cholecystectomy syndrome and suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. All patients received only intravenous diazepam as premedication for ERCP. Delayed drainage time (greater than 45 min), bile duct dilation (greater than or equal to 12 mm), and a basal sphincter of Oddi pressure of greater than 40 mm Hg (mean +/- 3 SD) were considered elevated. We observed a reproduction of pain in 15 of 224 patients (6.7%) immediately following contrast injection. There was no correlation between pain on contrast injection and elevated basal sphincter of Oddi pressure, delayed common bile duct drainage, bile duct dilation, or abnormal liver enzymes. Therefore, we feel that reproduction of the patient's biliary-type pain associated with contrast injection of ERCP is not a provocative test for sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. 

Category: nervous system diseases
The cutaneous manifestations in children with familial Mediterranean fever (recurrent hereditary polyserositis). A six-year study. In a six-year study of 46 children with familial Mediterranean fever (recurrent hereditary polyserositis), 20 children (43 per cent) developed cutaneous manifestations. Ten children had 18 episodes of erysipelas-like erythema which proved to be specific for the disease. Twelve children (26 per cent) had 31 episodes of non-specific purpuric rash and six children (13 per cent) had nine episodes of Henoch-Schonlein purpura. Other manifestations included diffuse erythema of the face, and/or trunk, angioneurotic oedema, diffuse erythema of the palms and soles followed by mild desquamation of the skin, Raynaud's phenomenon and a subcutaneous nodule. The mean frequency of the cutaneous lesions was 1.6/patient/year before colchicine therapy and 0.4/patient/year after colchicine therapy (p = 0.0005). The high incidence of cutaneous manifestations and their response to colchicine strongly suggest that skin involvement is an integral part familial Mediterranean fever. 

Category: cardiovascular diseases
Thyroiditis. Acute, subacute, and chronic. Inflammatory diseases of the thyroid are collectively the commonest thyroid disorder. Individually, they range from the rare case of acute bacterial thyroiditis to the other end of the spectrum, the even rarer Riedel's thyroiditis. Relatively common thyroid inflammatory diseases include the subacute thyroiditis syndromes. Of particular interest to endocrinologists is that both subacute granulomatous (painful) thyroiditis and subacute lymphocytic (painless) thyroiditis are very similar in terms of clinical course, although most likely have different etiologies. Nevertheless, their similarities suggest the possibility that there may be etiologic heterogeneity for the syndromes. From a clinical standpoint, it is essential to differentiate subacute painless thyroiditis from Graves' disease, because these two disorders also may mimic each other, yet only Graves' disease requires specific therapy. Chronic lymphocytic (Hashimoto's) thyroiditis, the commonest of the thyroiditides, presents with goiter and either hyperthyroidism (uncommon), hypothyroidism (common), or euthyroidism (most common). When L-T4 therapy is used in the treatment of Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the physician must be alert to the possibility of excess thyroid hormone administration. Sensitive TSH measurements help to avoid this therapeutic pitfall. 

Category: general pathological conditions
Association between extent of colonic mucosal sialomucin change and subsequent local recurrence after curative excision of primary colorectal cancer. Two interrelated studies were carried out to determine whether extent of sialomucin change adjacent to a primary colorectal carcinoma predicted local tumour invasiveness and risk of local recurrence. In the first, depth of tumour penetration was correlated with the length of the sialomucin band adjacent to 72 primary colorectal cancers. There was a significant (P less than 0.05) increase in sialomucin band length adjacent to tumours invading adjacent structures compared with those which had not (Mann-Whitney U test), although there was no overall correlation between depth of penetration, Duke's classification or degree of differentiation (Kruskal-Wallis test). A sialomucin band of greater than 3 cm was associated with a 70 per cent probability of adjacent structure (T4) invasion. These observations were then tested prospectively in a second study involving 256 patients to determine whether the presence of a greater than 3 cm sialomucin band could predict local recurrence. Presence of a greater than 3 cm sialomucin band was a significant (x2 = 7.12, d.f. = 1, P less than 0.001) and independent predictor of local but not distant recurrence. In addition both the interval to local recurrence and survival were significantly shorter if a greater than 3 cm sialomucin band was present. However the accuracy of greater than 3 cm sialomucin band as a predictive test for local recurrence was only 70 per cent. The extent of sialomucin adjacent to a primary colorectal cancer does provide a crude assessment of tumour invasiveness and risk of local recurrence. 

Category: neoplasms
The increased frequency of cervical dysplasia-neoplasia in women infected with the human immunodeficiency virus is related to the degree of immunosuppression. Cytologic and histologic investigations of the uterine cervix and studies of the lymphocyte functions were performed in human immunodeficiency virus-infected and human immunodeficiency virus antibody-negative women to study possible linkages between human papillomavirus-induced dysplasia and degree of human immunodeficiency virus-induced immunosuppression. Cytologic smears of the uterine cervix of 111 human immunodeficiency virus-infected women were compared with findings in 76 female intravenous drug users negative for human immunodeficiency virus antibodies and in a group of 526 women of the outpatient population of the hospital. Cervical dysplasia-neoplasia (including five cases of invasive carcinoma) was seen in 41% of the human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients. In human immunodeficiency virus-negative intravenous drug users dysplasia-neoplasia was seen in 9%, and in the sample from outpatients in 4%, including two cases of invasive carcinoma (p less than 0.01). Cytologic features that were attributable to infection with human papillomavirus were observed in human immunodeficiency virus-infected women four times more often than in the sample from the outpatient population (p less than 0.01). Frequency and severity of dysplasia appear to increase with diminishing numbers of CD4+ helper/inducer T lymphocytes and correlated significantly (p less than 0.01) with a loss of blastogenic response to phytohemagglutinin, pokeweed mitogen, and tetanus toxoid. These results suggest an increased risk for the development of dysplasia of the uterine cervix in women with human immunodeficiency virus infection, which is related to the degree of immunosuppression. 

Category: neoplasms