Title 26—Internal Revenue--Volume 1
PART 54—PENSION EXCISE TAXES
§ 54.4971-1   General rules relating to excise tax on failure to meet minimum funding standards.
(a)-(b) [Reserved]
(c) Additional tax. Section 4971(b) imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed under section 4971(a) on an accumulated funding deficiency and the accumulated funding deficiency is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in section 4971(c)(3)). The additional tax is 100 percent of the accumulated funding deficiency to the extent not corrected.
(d) [Reserved]
(e) Definition of taxable period —(1) In general. For purposes of any accumulated funding deficiency, the term “taxable period” means the period beginning with the end of the plan year in which there is an accumulated funding deficiency and ending on the earlier of:
(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4971(a), or
(ii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4971(a) is assessed.
(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.
§ 54.4971(c)-1   Taxes on failure to meet minimum funding standards; definitions.
(a) In general. This section sets forth definitions that apply for purposes of applying the rules of section 4971.
(b) Accumulated funding deficiency —(1) Multiemployer plans. With respect to a multiemployer plan defined in section 414(f), the term accumulated funding deficiency has the meaning given to that term by section 431. A plan's accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year takes into account all charges and credits to the funding standard account under section 412 for plan years before the first plan year for which section 431 applies to the plan.
(2) CSEC plans. With respect to a CSEC plan (that is, a plan that fits within the definition of a CSEC plan in section 414(y) for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014 and for which the election under section 414(y)(3)(A) has not been made), the term accumulated funding deficiency means the CSEC accumulated funding deficiency determined under section 433. A plan's CSEC accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year takes into account all charges and credits to the funding standard account under section 412 for plan years before the first plan year for which section 433 applies to the plan.
(c) Unpaid minimum required contribution —(1) In general. The term unpaid minimum required contribution means, with respect to any plan year, the portion of the minimum required contribution under section 430 for the plan year for which contributions have not been made on or before the due date for the plan year under section 430(j)(1). The unpaid minimum required contribution is determined after taking into account the interest adjustment to contributions under § 1.430(j)-1(b)(4) and any offsets from use of the funding balances under § 1.430(f)-1(d).
(2) Accumulated funding deficiency for pre-effective plan year. For purposes of this section, a plan's accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 for the pre-effective plan year is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution for that plan year until correction is made under the rules of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(d) Correct —(1) Accumulated funding deficiency. With respect to an accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year that is described in paragraph (b) of this section, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, the amount necessary to reduce the accumulated funding deficiency as of the end of that plan year to zero. To reduce the deficiency to zero, the contribution must include interest at the plan's valuation interest rate for the period between the end of that plan year and the date of the contribution (determined taking into account the rules of section 431(c)(8) or section 433(c)(9), as applicable).
(2) Unpaid minimum required contribution —(i) In general. With respect to an unpaid minimum required contribution for a plan year, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, an amount that, when discounted to the valuation date for the plan year for which the unpaid minimum required contribution is due at the appropriate rate of interest, equals or exceeds the unpaid minimum required contribution. For this purpose, the appropriate rate of interest is the plan's effective interest rate for the plan year for which the unpaid minimum required contribution is due except to the extent that the payments are subject to additional interest as provided under section 430(j)(3) or (4).
(ii) Pre-PPA accumulated funding deficiency. With respect to the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 for the pre-effective plan year that is described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, the amount of that accumulated funding deficiency increased with interest from the end of the pre-effective plan year to the date of the contribution at the plan's valuation interest rate for the pre-effective plan year.
(iii) Ordering rule. For purposes of section 4971 and this section, a contribution is attributable first to the earliest plan year of any unpaid minimum required contribution for which correction has not yet been made.
(3) Corrective action of certain retroactive plan amendments. Certain retroactive plan amendments that meet the requirements of section 412(d)(2) may reduce the minimum required contribution for a plan year, which would reduce the accumulated funding deficiency or the amount of the unpaid minimum required contribution for a plan year.
(e) Taxable period —(1) In general. The term taxable period means the period beginning with the end of the plan year in which there is an accumulated funding deficiency or unpaid minimum required contribution, whichever is applicable, and ending on the earlier of:
(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4971(a); or
(ii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4971(a) is assessed.
(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, is treated as the end of the taxable period.
(f) Single-employer plan. The term single-employer plan means a plan to which the minimum funding requirements of section 412 apply that is not a multiemployer plan as described in section 414(f). The term single-employer plan includes a multiple employer plan to which section 413(c) applies, other than a CSEC plan as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this section.
(ii) The contribution paid July 1, 2009 is discounted for 6 months (to the valuation date) at the effective interest rate ($200,000 ÷ 1.0590 (6/12) = $194,349). The unpaid minimum required contribution for the 2009 plan year is $250,000 minus $194,349, or $55,651. The excise tax due under section 4971(a) is 10% of the unpaid minimum required contribution, or $5,565.
(ii) Under the ordering rule in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the contribution made on December 31, 2010 is applied first to correct the unpaid minimum required contribution for 2009. The portion of the contribution paid December 31, 2010 that is required to eliminate the unpaid minimum required contribution for 2009 (taking into account the 2009 effective interest rate for the 24 months between January 1, 2009 and the payment date of December 31, 2010), is $55,651 multiplied by 1.059 (24/12) or $62,412. The remaining payment of $112,588 ($175,000 minus $62,412) is applied to the contribution required for the 2010 plan year.
(ii) In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 as of December 31, 2007 is considered an unpaid minimum required contribution until it is corrected. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the amount needed to correct that accumulated funding deficiency is $100,000 plus interest at the valuation interest rate of 7.5% for the period between December 31, 2007 and the date of payment of the contribution.
(iii) The funding shortfall as of January 1, 2008 is calculated as the difference between the funding target and the value of assets as of that date. The assets are not adjusted by the amount of the accumulated funding deficiency. The fact that the contribution was not made for the 2007 plan year means that the January 1, 2008 funding shortfall is larger than it would have been otherwise.
(ii) The total unpaid minimum required contribution as of December 31, 2008 is the sum of the $100,000 accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 from 2007 and the $125,000 unpaid minimum required contribution for 2008, or $225,000. The section 4971(a) excise tax applies to the aggregate unpaid minimum required contributions for all plan years that remain unpaid as of the end of 2008. In this case, there is an unpaid minimum required contribution of $100,000 for the 2007 plan year and an unpaid minimum required contribution of $125,000 for the 2008 plan year. The section 4971(a) excise tax is 10% of the aggregate of those unpaid amounts, $22,500.
(ii) In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 as of December 31, 2007 is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution until it is corrected.
(iii) The December 31, 2008 contribution is first applied to the 2007 accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 that is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution. Accordingly, the amount needed to correct the 2007 unpaid required minimum contribution ($100,000 multiplied by 1.075, or $107,500) is applied to eliminate this unpaid minimum required contribution for the 2007 plan year.
(iv) The remaining $42,500 December 31, 2008 contribution ($150,000 minus $107,500) is then applied to the 2008 minimum required contribution. This amount is first allocated to the required installment due April 15, 2008. In accordance with § 1.430(j)-1(b)(4)(ii) of this chapter, the adjustment for interest on late required installments is increased by 5 percentage points for the period of underpayment. Therefore, $25,000 of the remaining December 31, 2008 contribution is discounted using an interest rate of 10.75% for the 8 1/2 -month period between the payment date of December 31, 2008 and the required installment due date of April 15, 2008, and at the 5.75% effective interest rate for the 3 1/2 months between April 15, 2008 and January 1, 2008. This portion of the December 31, 2008 contribution results in an adjusted amount of $22,880 (that is, $25,000 ÷ 1.1075 (8.5/12) ÷ 1.0575 (3.5/12) ) as of January 1, 2008.
(v) The remaining December 31, 2008 contribution is then applied to the required installment due July 15, 2008. The $17,500 balance of the December 31, 2008 contribution ($150,000 minus $107,500 minus $25,000) is paid after the due date for the second required installment. Accordingly, the remaining $17,500 contribution is adjusted using an interest rate of 10.75% for the 5 1/2 -month period between the payment date of December 31, 2008 and the required installment due date of July 15, 2008, and at the 5.75% effective interest rate for the 6 1/2 months between July 15, 2008 and January 1, 2008. This portion of the December 31, 2008 contribution results in an adjusted amount of $16,202 (that is, $17,500 ÷ 1.1075 (5.5/12) ÷ 1.0575 (6.5/12) ) as of January 1, 2008.
(vi) The remaining unpaid minimum required contribution for 2008 is $125,000 minus the interest-adjusted amounts of $22,880 and $16,202 applied towards the 2008 minimum required contribution as determined in paragraphs (iv) and (v) of this Example 5. This results in an unpaid minimum required contribution of $85,918 for 2008. The section 4971(a) excise tax is 10% of the unpaid minimum required contribution, or $8,592.
(ii) The excise tax under section 4971(a) for the 2008 taxable year is 10% of the aggregate unpaid minimum required contributions for all plan years remaining unpaid as of the end of any plan year ending within the 2008 taxable year. Accordingly, the excise tax for the 2008 taxable year is $10,000 (that is, 10% of $100,000). The excise tax for the 2009 taxable year is $21,000 (that is, 10% of the sum of $100,000 and $110,000) and the excise tax for the 2010 taxable year is $33,500 (that is, 10% of the sum of $100,000, $110,000, and $125,000).
(iii) The contribution made on September 15, 2012 is applied to correct the unpaid minimum required contributions for the 2008 and 2009 plan years by the deadline for making contributions for the 2011 plan year. Therefore, the excise tax under section 4971(a) for the 2011 taxable year is based only on the remaining unpaid minimum required contributions for the 2010 and 2011 plan years, or $26,000 (that is, 10% of the sum of $125,000 and $135,000).
(iv) The plan sponsor may also be required to pay an excise tax of 100% under section 4971(b), if the unpaid minimum required contributions are not corrected by the end of the taxable period.
(h) Effective/applicability dates and transition rules —(1) Statutory effective date —(i) In general. In general, the amendments made to section 4971 by section 114 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, 120 Stat. 780 (2006), as amended (PPA '06), apply to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2008, but only with respect to a plan year that—
(A) Begins on or after January 1, 2008; and
(B) Ends with or within any such taxable year.
(ii) Plans with delayed PPA '06 effective dates. In the case of a plan for which the effective date of section 430 for purposes of determining the minimum required contribution is delayed in accordance with sections 104 through 106 of PPA '06, the amendments made to section 4971 by section 114 of PPA '06 apply to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2008, but only with respect to a plan year—
(A) To which section 430 applies to determine the minimum required contribution of the plan; and
(B) That ends with or within any such taxable year.
(2) Effective date of regulations. This section is effective for taxable years beginning on or after the statutory effective date described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, but in no event does this section apply to taxable years ending before April 15, 2008.
(3) Pre-effective plan year. For purposes of this section, the pre-effective plan year for a plan is the plan year described in § 1.430(a)-1(h)(5) of this chapter. Thus, except for plans with a delayed effective date under paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section, the pre-effective plan year for a plan is the last plan year beginning before January 1, 2008.
§ 54.4974-1   Excise tax on accumulations in qualified retirement plans.
(a) Imposition of excise tax —(1) In general. If the amount distributed to a payee under any qualified retirement plan or any eligible deferred compensation plan (as defined in section 457(b)) for a calendar year is less than the required minimum distribution for that year, section 4974 imposes an excise tax on the payee for the taxable year beginning with or within the calendar year during which the amount is required to be distributed. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the tax is equal to 25 percent of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year.
(2) Reduction of tax in certain cases —(i) In general. In the case of a taxpayer who satisfies this paragraph (a)(2), the tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is equal to 10 percent (in lieu of 25 percent) of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year.
(ii) Eligible taxpayers. This paragraph (a)(2) is satisfied if, by the last day of the correction window described in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the taxpayer—
(A) Receives a corrective distribution from the applicable plan described in paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year from that plan; and
(B) Files a return reflecting the tax described in this paragraph (a).
(iii) Correction window. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the correction window ends on the earliest of—
(A) The date a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4974(a) is mailed;
(B) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4974(a) is assessed; or
(C) The last day of the second taxable year that begins after the end of the taxable year in which the tax under section 4974(a) is imposed.
(iv) Applicable plan. If the minimum distribution was required to be paid from a particular qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan, then the applicable plan is that particular qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan. However, if the requirement to take a minimum distribution could have been satisfied by a payment from any one of a number of qualified retirement plans (such as an individual retirement account under section 408(a) or a section 403(b) plan), then the corrective distribution may be taken from any one of those qualified retirement plans.
(3) Definition of required minimum distribution. For purposes of section 4974, the term required minimum distribution means the minimum amount required to be distributed pursuant to section 401(a)(9), 403(b)(10), 408(a)(6), 408(b)(3), or 457(d)(2), as the case may be. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of this section (which provides a special rule for amounts required to be distributed by an employee's, or an individual's, required beginning date), the required minimum distribution for a calendar year is the required minimum distribution amount required to be distributed during the calendar year.
(b) Definition of qualified retirement plan. For purposes of section 4974, each of the following is a qualified retirement plan—
(1) A plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt from tax under section 501(a);
(2) An annuity plan described in section 403(a);
(3) An annuity contract, custodial account, or retirement income account described in section 403(b);
(4) An individual retirement account described in section 408(a) (including a Roth IRA described in section 408A);
(5) An individual retirement annuity described in section 408(b) (including a Roth IRA described in section 408A); or
(6) Any other plan, contract, account, or annuity that, at any time, has been treated as a plan, account, or annuity described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section but that no longer satisfies the applicable requirements for that treatment.
(c) Determination of required minimum distribution for individual accounts —(1) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), if a payee's interest under a qualified retirement plan or any eligible deferred compensation plan is in the form of an individual account (and distribution of that account is not being made under an annuity contract purchased in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(a)(5) and § 1.401(a)(9)-6(d)), the amount of the required minimum distribution for any calendar year for purposes of section 4974 is the amount required to be distributed to that payee for that calendar year determined in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5 as provided in the following (whichever applies)—
(i) Section 401(a)(9), §§ 1.401(a)(9)-1 through 1.401(a)(9)-5, and 1.401(a)(9)-7 through 1.401(a)(9)-9, in the case of a plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt under section 501(a) or an annuity plan described in section 403(a);
(ii) Section 403(b)(10) and § 1.403(b)-6(e) in the case of an annuity contract, custodial account, or retirement income account described in section 403(b);
(iii) Section 408(a)(6) or (b)(3) and § 1.408-8 in the case of an individual retirement account or annuity described in section 408(a) or (b); or
(iv) Section 457(d) and § 1.457-6(d) in the case of an eligible deferred compensation plan.
(2) Distributions under 5-year rule or 10-year rule. If an employee dies before the required beginning date and either § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(2) or (3) applies to the employee's beneficiary, there is no required minimum distribution until the end of the calendar year described in whichever of those paragraphs applies to the beneficiary (that is, the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary or the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, as applicable). The required minimum distribution due in that fifth or tenth calendar year is the employee's entire interest in the plan.
(3) Default provisions. Unless otherwise provided under the qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan (or, if applicable, the governing instrument of the plan), the default provisions in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(5)(i) apply in determining whether paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section applies.
(4) Plans providing uniform required beginning date. For purposes of this section, if the plan provides a uniform required beginning date for purposes of section 401(a)(9) for all employees in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-2(b)(4), then the required minimum distribution for each calendar year for an employee who is not a 5-percent owner is the lesser of the amount determined based on a required beginning date of April 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the employee attains the applicable age or the amount determined based on the required beginning date under the plan. Thus, for example, if an employee who was not a 5-percent owner participated in a defined contribution plan with a uniform required beginning date (as described in the preceding sentence) and the employee died after the applicable age (but before April 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the employee retired) without a designated beneficiary, then required minimum distributions for calendar years after the calendar year that includes the date of the employee's death are equal to the lesser of—
(i) The required minimum distribution determined by treating the employee as dying before the required beginning date (that is, the 5-year rule of § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(2)); or
(ii) The required minimum distribution determined by treating the employee as dying on or after the required beginning date (annual distributions over the employee's remaining life expectancy, as set forth in § 1.401(a)(9)-5(d)).
(d) Determination of required minimum distribution under a defined benefit plan or annuity —(1) General rule. If a payee's interest in a qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan is being distributed in the form of an annuity (either directly from the plan, in the case of a defined benefit plan, or under an annuity contract purchased from an insurance company), then the amount of the required minimum distribution for purposes of section 4974 depends on whether the annuity is a permissible annuity distribution option or an impermissible annuity distribution option. For this purpose—
(i) A permissible annuity distribution option is an annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, a distribution option) that specifically provides for distributions that, if made as provided, would for every calendar year equal or exceed the minimum distribution amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable section enumerated in paragraph (b) of this section for that calendar year; and
(ii) An impermissible annuity distribution option is any other annuity distribution option.
(2) Permissible annuity distribution option. If the annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, a distribution option) under which distributions to the payee are being made is a permissible annuity distribution option, then the required minimum distribution for a given calendar year for purposes of section 4974 equals the amount that the annuity contract (or distribution option) provides is to be distributed for that calendar year.
(3) Impermissible annuity distribution option —(i) General rule. If the annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, the distribution option) under which distributions to the payee are being made is an impermissible annuity distribution option, then the required minimum distribution for each calendar year for purposes of section 4974 is the amount that would be distributed under the applicable permissible annuity distribution option described in this paragraph (d)(3) (or the amount determined by the Commissioner if there is no option of this type). The determination of which permissible annuity distribution applies depends on whether distributions commenced before the death of the employee, whether the plan is a defined benefit or defined contribution plan, whether there is a designated beneficiary for purposes of section 401(a)(9), and whether the designated beneficiary is an eligible designated beneficiary under section 401(a)(9)(E)(ii). For this purpose, the determination of whether there is a designated beneficiary and whether that designated beneficiary is an eligible designated beneficiary is made in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-4, and the determination of which designated beneficiary's life is to be used in the case of multiple designated beneficiaries in made in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(f).
(ii) Defined benefit plan —(A) Benefits commence before employee dies. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined benefit plan, benefits commence before the employee dies, and there is a designated beneficiary, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the joint and survivor annuity option under the plan for the lives of the employee and the designated beneficiary that is a permissible annuity distribution option and that provides for the greatest level amount payable to the employee determined on an annual basis. If the plan does not provide an option described in the preceding sentence (or there is no designated beneficiary under the impermissible annuity distribution option), then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the life annuity option under the plan payable for the life of the employee in level amounts with no survivor benefit.
(B) Employee dies before benefits commence. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined benefit plan, the employee dies before benefits commence, there is a designated beneficiary, and the plan has a life annuity option payable for the life of the designated beneficiary in level amounts, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is that life annuity option. If there is no designated beneficiary, then the 5-year rule in section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section.
(iii) Defined contribution plan —(A) In general. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan and the impermissible annuity distribution option is an annuity contract purchased from an insurance company, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the applicable annuity described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section that could have been purchased with the portion of the employee's or individual's account that was used to purchase the annuity contract that is the impermissible annuity distribution option. The amount of the payments under that annuity contract are determined using the interest rate prescribed under section 7520 determined as of the date the contract was purchased, the ages of the annuitants on that date, and the mortality rates in § 1.401(a)(9)-9(e).
(B) Benefits commence before employee dies. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan, the benefits commence before the employee dies, and there is a designated beneficiary who is an eligible designated beneficiary within the meaning of section 401(a)(9)(E)(ii), then the applicable annuity is the joint and survivor annuity option providing level annual payments for the lives of the employee and the designated beneficiary, under which the amount of the periodic payment that would have been payable to the survivor is the applicable percentage under the table in § 1.401(a)(9)-6(b)(2) (taking into account the rules of § 1.401(a)(9)-6(k)(2)) of the amount of the periodic payment that would have been payable to the employee or individual. If there is no designated beneficiary, or if the designated beneficiary is not an eligible designated beneficiary under the impermissible distribution option, then the annuity described in this paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) is a life annuity for the life of the employee with no survivor benefit that provides level annual payments.
(C) Employee dies before benefits commence. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan, the employee dies before benefits commence, and there is an eligible designated beneficiary under the impermissible annuity distribution option, then the applicable annuity is a life annuity for the life of the designated beneficiary that provides level annual payments and that would have been a permissible annuity distribution option. If there is no designated beneficiary, then section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section. If the designated beneficiary is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
(4) Application of section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) —(i) Application of 5-year rule. If the 5-year rule in section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies to the distribution to the payee under the contract (or distribution option), then no amount is required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section in paragraph (b) of this section until the end of the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary of the date of the employee's death. For the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, the amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section is the payee's entire remaining interest in the annuity contract (or under the plan in the case of distributions from a defined benefit plan). However, see § 1.401(a)(9)-6(j) for rules regarding payments that are not permitted under section 436.
(ii) Application of 10-year rule. If the employee dies before distribution of the employee's entire interest, section 401(a)(9)(H) applies, and the designated beneficiary of the remaining interest is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then no amount is required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section in paragraph (b) of this section until the end of the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death. For the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, the amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section is the payee's entire remaining interest in the annuity contract.
(5) Plans providing uniform required beginning date. Rules similar to the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to plans that have adopted a uniform required beginning date) apply in the case of a defined benefit plan.
(e) Distribution of remaining benefit after deadline for required distribution. If there is any remaining benefit with respect to an employee (or IRA owner) after the calendar year in which the entire remaining benefit is required to be distributed, the required minimum distribution for each calendar year subsequent to that calendar year is the entire remaining benefit. Thus, for example, if the designated beneficiary of the employee is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then, pursuant to § 1.401(a)(9)-5(e)(2), the entire interest of the employee must be distributed no later than the end of the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, and the required minimum distribution for that calendar year and each subsequent calendar year is the remaining portion of the employee's interest in the plan.
(f) Excise tax for first distribution calendar year. If the amount not paid is an amount required to be paid by April 1 of a calendar year that includes the employee's required beginning date, the missed distribution is a required minimum distribution for the previous calendar year (that is, for the employee's or the individual's first distribution calendar year as determined in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(a)(2)(ii)). However, the excise tax under section 4974 is calculated with respect to the calendar year that includes the last day by which the amount is required to be distributed (that is, the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date) even though the preceding calendar year is the calendar year for which the amount is required to be distributed. There is also a required minimum distribution for the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date, and that distribution is also required to be made during the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date.
(g) Waiver of excise tax —(1) General rule. The tax under paragraph (a) of this section may be waived if the payee establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that—
(i) The failure to distribute the required minimum distribution described in this section was due to reasonable error; and
(ii) Reasonable steps are being taken to remedy the failure.
(2) Automatic waiver after election to distribute within 10 years of employee's death. Unless the Commissioner determines otherwise, the tax under paragraph (a) of this section is waived automatically if—
(i) The employee's or individual's death is before the employee's or individual's required beginning date;
(ii) The payee is an individual—
(A) Who is an eligible designated beneficiary (as defined in § 1.401(a)(9)-4(e));
(B) Whose required minimum distribution amount for a calendar year is determined under the life expectancy rule described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(4); and
(C) Who did not make an affirmative election to have the life expectancy rule apply as described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(5)(iii);
(iii) The payee fails to satisfy the minimum distribution requirement; and
(iv) The payee elects the 10-year rule described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(3) by the end of the ninth calendar year following the calendar year of the employee's death.
(3) Automatic waiver for failure to take required minimum distribution for the year of death. Unless the Commissioner determines otherwise, the tax under paragraph (a) of this section is waived automatically if—
(i) A distribution is required to be made to an individual under § 1.401(a)(9)-3 or § 1.401(a)(9)-5 in a calendar year;
(ii) The individual who was required to take the distribution described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section died in that calendar year without satisfying that distribution requirement; and
(iii) The beneficiary of the individual described in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section takes a corrective distribution in the amount needed to satisfy that distribution requirement no later than the tax filing deadline (including extensions thereof) for the taxable year of that beneficiary that begins with or within that calendar year (or, if later, the last day of the calendar year following that calendar year).
(h) Applicability date. This section applies for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025. For earlier taxable years, the rules of 26 CFR 54.4974-2 (as it appeared in the April 1, 2023, edition of 26 CFR part 54) apply.
§ 54.4974-2   [Reserved]
§ 54.4975-1   General rules relating to excise tax on prohibited transactions.
(a) Scope. This section provides general rules for the imposition of the excise taxes on prohibited transactions.
(b) Initial tax. Section 4975(a) imposes an initial tax on each prohibited transaction. The initial tax is 5 percent of the amount involved with respect to the prohibited transaction for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period.
(c) Additional tax. Section 4975(b) imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed under section 4975(a) on a prohibited transaction and the prohibited transaction is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). The additional tax is 100 percent of the amount involved with respect to the prohibited transaction.
(d) Taxable period —(1) In general. For purposes of any prohibited transaction, the term “taxable period” means the period beginning with the date on which the prohibited transaction occurs and ending on the earliest of:
(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4975(a);
(ii) The date on which correction of the prohibited transaction is completed; or
(iii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4975(a) is assessed.
(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.
§ 54.4975-6   Statutory exemptions for office space or services and certain transactions involving financial institutions.
(a) Exemption for office space or services —(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(2) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 payment by a plan to a disqualified person, including a fiduciary, for office space or any service (or a combination of services), if (i) such office space or service is necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan; (ii) such office space or service is furnished under a contract or arrangement which is reasonable; and (iii) no more than reasonable compensation is paid for such office space or service. However, section 4975(d)(2) does not contain an exemption for acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) or acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). Such acts are separate transactions not described in section 4975(d)(2). See §§ 54.4975-6(a)(5) and 54.4975-6(a)(6) for guidance as to whether transactions relating to the furnishing of office space or services by fiduciaries to plans involve acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(E).
(2) Necessary service. A service is necessary for the establishment or operation of a plan within the meaning of section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(i) if the service is appropriate and helpful to the plan obtaining the service in carrying out the purposes for which the plan is established or maintained. A person providing such a service to a plan (or a person who is disqualified person solely by reason of a relationship to such a service provider described in section 4975(e)(2) (F), (G), (H), or (I)) may furnish goods which are necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan in the course of, and incidental to, the furnishing of such service to the plan.
(3) Reasonable contract or arrangement. No contract or arrangement is reasonable within the meaning of section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(ii) if it does not permit termination by the plan without penalty to the plan on reasonably short notice under the circumstances to prevent the plan from becoming locked into an arrangement that has become disadvantageous. A long-term lease which may be terminated prior to its expiration (without penalty to the plan) on reasonably short notice under the circumstances is not generally an unreasonable arrangement merely because of its long term. A provision in a contract or other arrangement which reasonably compensates the service provider or lessor for loss upon early termination of the contract, arrangement or lease is not a penalty. For example, a minimal fee in a service contract which is charged to allow recoupment of reasonable start-up costs is not a penalty.
(4) Reasonable compensation. Section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(iii) permit a plan to pay a disqualified person reasonable compensation for the provision of office space or services described in section 4975(d)(2). Paragraph (e) of this section contains regulations relating to what constitutes reasonable compensation for the provision of services.
(5) Transactions with fiduciaries —(i) In general. If the furnishing of office space or a service involves an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F) (relating to acts involving conflicts of interest by fiduciaries), such an act constitutes a separate transaction which is not exempt under section 4975(d)(2). The prohibitions of sections 4975(c)(1) (E) and (F) supplement the other prohibitions of section 4975(c)(1) by imposing on disqualified persons who are fiduciaries a duty of undivided loyalty to the plans for which they act. These prohibitions are imposed upon fiduciaries to deter them from exercising the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such persons fiduciaries when they have interests which may conflict with the interests of the plans for which they act. In such cases, the fiduciaries have interests in the transactions which may affect the exercise of their best judgment as fiduciaries. Thus, a fiduciary may not use the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary (or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) to provide a service. Nor may a fiduciary use such authority, control, or responsibility to cause a plan to enter into a transaction involving plan assets whereby such fiduciary (or a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) will receive consideration from a third party in connection with such transaction.
(ii) Transactions not described in section 4975(c)(1)(E). A fiduciary does not engage in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) if the fiduciary does not use any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay additional fees for a service furnished by such fiduciary or to pay a fee for a service furnished by a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary. This may occur, for example, when one fiduciary is retained on behalf of a plan by a second fiduciary to provide a service for an additional fee. However, because the authority, control or responsibility which makes a person a fiduciary may be exercised “in effect” as well as in form, mere approval of the transaction by a second fiduciary does not mean that the first fiduciary has not used any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause the plan to pay the first fiduciary an additional fee for a service.
(iii) Services without compensation. If a fiduciary provides services to a plan without the receipt of compensation or other consideration (other than reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred in the performance of such services within the meaning of paragraph (e)(4) of this section), the provision of such services does not, in and of itself, constitute an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F). The allowance of a deduction to an employer under section 162 or 212 for the expense incurred in furnishing office space or services to a plan established or maintained by such employer does not constitute compensation or other consideration.
(6) Examples. The provisions of § 54.4975-6(a)(5) may be illustrated by the following examples:
(b) Exemption for bank deposits —(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(4) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 investment of all or a part of a plan's assets in deposits bearing a reasonable rate of interest in a bank or similar financial institution supervised by the United States or a State, even though such bank or similar financial institution is a fiduciary or other disqualified person with respect to the plan, if the conditions of either § 54.4975-6(b)(2) or § 54.4975-6(b)(3) are met. Section 4975(d)(4) provides an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(E) relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account), as well as sections 4975(c)(1) (A) through (D), because section 4975(d)(4) contemplates a bank or similar financial institution causing a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary to invest plan assets in its own deposits if the requirements of section 4975(d)(4) are met. However, it does not provide an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in the exemption. Section 4975(d)(4) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Code, such as section 401, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 4975(d)(4). See, for example, the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section 404 of the Act. The provisions of section 4975(d)(4) are further limited by the flush language at the end of section 4975(d) (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).
(2) Plan covering own employees. Such investment may be made if the plan is one which covers only the employees of the bank or similar financial institution, the employees of any of its affiliates, or the employees of both.
(3) Other plans —(i) General rule. Such investment may be made if the investment is expressly authorized by a provision of the plan or trust instrument or if the investment is expressly authorized (or made) by a fiduciary of the plan (other than the bank or similar financial institution or any of its affiliates) who has authority to make such investments, or to instruct the trustee or other fiduciary with respect to investments, and who has no interest in the transaction which may affect the exercise of such authorizing fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary so as to cause such authorization to constitute an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F). Any authorization to make investments contained in a plan or trust instrument will satisfy the requirement of express authorization for investments made prior to November 1, 1977.
(ii) Example. B, a bank, is the trustee of plan P's assets. The trust instruments give the trustee the right to invest plan assets in its discretion. B invests in the certificates of deposit of bank C, which is a fiduciary of the plan by virtue of performing certain custodial and administrative services. The authorization is sufficient for the plan to make such investment under section 4975(d)(4). Further, such authorization would suffice to allow B to make investments in deposits in itself prior to November 1, 1977. However, subsequent to October 31, 1977, B may not invest in deposits in itself, unless the plan or trust instrument specifically authorizes it to invest in deposits of B.
(4) Definitions. (i) The term “bank or similar financial institution” includes a bank (as defined in section 581), a domestic building and loan association (as defined in section 7701(a)(19)), and a credit union (as defined in section 101 (6) of the Federal Credit Union Act).
(ii) A person is an affiliate of a bank or similar financial institution if such person and such bank or similar financial institution would be treated as members of the same controlled group of corporations or as members of two or more trades or businesses under common control within the meaning of section 414 (b) or (c) and the regulations thereunder.
(iii) The term “deposits” includes any account, temporary or otherwise, upon which a reasonable rate of interest is paid, including a certificate of deposit issued by a bank or similar financial institution.
(c) Exemption for ancillary bank services —(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(6) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 the provision of certain ancillary services by a bank or similar financial institution (as defined in § 54.4975-6(b)(4)(i)) supervised by the United States or a State to a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary if the conditions in § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met. Such ancillary services include services which do not meet the requirements of section 4975(d)(2), because the provision of such services involves an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) by the fiduciary bank or similar financial institution. Section 4975(d)(6) provides an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(E), because section 4975 (d)(6) contemplates the provision of such ancillary services without the approval of a second fiduciary (as described in § 54.4975-6(a)(5)(ii)) if the conditions of § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met. Thus, for example, plan assets held by a fiduciary bank which are reasonably expected to be needed to satisfy current plan expenses may be placed by the bank in a non-interest-bearing checking account in the bank if the conditions of § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met, notwithstanding the provisions of section 4975(d)(4) (relating to investments in bank deposits). However, section 4975(d)(6) does not provide an exemption for an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in section 4975(d)(6).
(2) Conditions. Such service must be provided:
(i) At not more than reasonable compensation;
(ii) Under adequate internal safeguards which assure that the provision of such service is consistent with sound banking and financial practice, as determined by Federal or State supervisory authority; and
(iii) Only to the extent that such service is subject to specific guidelines issued by the bank or similar financial institution which meet the requirements of § 54.4975-6(c)(3).
(3) Specific guidelines. [Reserved]
(d) Exemption for services as a fiduciary. [Reserved]
(e) Compensation for services —(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(2) refers to the payment of reasonable compensation by a plan to a disqualified person for services rendered to the plan. Section 4975(d)(10) and §§ 54.4975-6(e)(2) through 54.4975-6(e)(5) clarify what constitutes reasonable compensation for such services.
(2) General rule. Generally, whether compensation is “reasonable” under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10) depends on the particular facts and circumstances of each case.
(3) Payments to certain fiduciaries. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), the term “reasonable compensation” does not include any compensation to a fiduciary who is already receiving full-time pay from an employer or association of employers (any of whose employees are participants in the plan) or from an employee organization (any of whose members are participants in the plan), except for the reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred and not otherwise reimbursed. The restrictions of this paragraph (e)(3) do not apply to a disqualified person who is not a fiduciary.
(4) Certain expenses not direct expenses. An expense is not a direct expense to the extent it would have been sustained had the service not been provided or if it represents an allocable portion of overhead costs.
(5) Expense advances. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), the term “reasonable compensation”, as applied to a fiduciary or an employee of a plan, includes an advance to such a fiduciary or employee by the plan to cover direct expenses to be properly and actually incurred by such person in the performance of such person's duties with the plan if:
(i) The amount of such advance is reasonable with respect to the amount of the direct expense which is likely to be properly and actually incurred in the immediate future (such as during the next month); and
(ii) The fiduciary or employee accounts to the plan at the end of the period covered by the advance for the expenses properly and actually incurred.
(6) Excessive compensation. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), any compensation which would be considered excessive under § 1.162-7 (relating to compensation for personal services which constitutes an ordinary and necessary trade or business expense) will not be “reasonable compensation”. Depending upon the facts and circumstances of the particular situation, compensation which is not excessive under § 1.162-7 may, nevertheless, not be “reasonable compensation” within the meaning of sections 4975(d) (2) and (10).
§ 54.4975-7   Other statutory exemptions.
(a) [Reserved]
(b) Loans to employee stock ownership plans —(1) Definitions. When used in this paragraph (b) and § 54.4975-11, the terms listed below have the following meanings:
(i) ESOP. The term “ESOP” refers to an employee stock ownership plan that meets the requirements of section 4975(e)(7) and § 54.4975-11. It is not synonymous with “stock bonus plan.” A stock bonus plan must, however, be an ESOP to engage in an exempt loan. The qualification of an ESOP under section 401(a) and § 54.4975-11 will not be adversely affected merely because it engages in a non-exempt loan.
(ii) Loan. The term “loan” refers to a loan made to an ESOP by a disqualified person or a loan to an ESOP which is guaranteed by a disqualified person. It includes a direct loan of cash, a purchase-money transaction, and an assumption of the obligation of an ESOP, “Guarantee” includes an unsecured guarantee and the use of assets of a disqualified person as collateral for a loan, even though the use of assets may not be a guarantee under applicable state law. An amendment of a loan in order to qualify as an exempt loan is not a refinancing of the loan or the making of another loan.
(iii) Exempt loan. The term “exempt loan” refers to a loan that satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b). A “nonexempt loan” is one that fails to satisfy such provisions.
(iv) Publicly traded. The term “publicly traded” refers to a security that is listed on a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) or that is quoted on a system sponsored by a national securities association registered under section 15A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o).
(v) Qualifying employer security. The term “qualifying employer security” refers to a security described in § 54.4975-12.
(2) Statutory exemption —(i) Scope. Section 4975(d)(3) provides an exemption from the excise tax imposed under section 4975 (a) and (b) by reason of section 4975(c)(1) (A) through (E). Section 4975(d)(3) does not provide an exemption from the imposition of such tax by reason of section 4975(c)(1)(F), relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan.
(ii) Special scrutiny of transaction. The exemption under section 4975(d)(3) includes within its scope certain transaction in which the potential for self-dealing by fiduciaries exists and in which the interests of fiduciaries may conflict with the interests of participants. To guard against those potential abuses, the Internal Revenue Service will subject these transactions to special scrutiny to ensure that they are primarily for the benefit of participants and their beneficiaries. Although the transactions need not be arranged and approved by an independent fiduciary, fiduciaries are cautioned to exercise scrupulously their discretion in approving them. For example, fiduciaries should be prepared to demonstrate compliance with the net effect test and the arm's-length standard under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section. Also, fiduciaries should determine that the transaction is truly arranged primarily in the interest of participants and their beneficiaries rather than, for example, in the interest of certain selling shareholders.
(3) Primary benefit requirement —(i) In general. An exempt loan must be primarily for the benefit of the ESOP participants and their beneficiaries. All the surrounding facts and circumstances, including those described in paragraph (b) (3) (ii) and (iii) of this section, will be considered in determining whether the loan satisfies this requirement. However, no loan will satisfy the requirement unless it satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) (4), (5), and (6) of this section.
(ii) Net effect on plan assets. At the time that a loan is made, the interest rate for the loan and the price of securities to be acquired with the loan proceeds should not be such that plan assets might be drained off.
(iii) Arm's-length standard. The terms of a loan, whether or not between independent parties, must, at the same time the loan is made, be at least as favorable to the ESOP as the terms of a comparable loan resulting from arm's-length negotiations between independent parties.
(4) Use of loan proceeds. The proceeds of an exempt loan must be used within a reasonable time after their receipt by the borrowing ESOP only for any or all of the following purposes:
(i) To acquire qualifying employer securities.
(ii) To repay such loan.
(iii) To repay a prior exempt loan. A new loan, the proceeds of which are so used, must satisfy the provisions of this paragraph (b).
(5) Liability and collateral of ESOP for loan. An exempt loan must be without recourse against the ESOP. Furthermore, the only assets of the ESOP that may be given as collateral on an exempt loan are qualifying employer securities of two classes: those acquired with the proceeds of the loan and those that were used as collateral on a prior exempt loan repaid with the proceeds of the current exempt loan. No person entitled to payment under the exempt loan shall have any right to assets of the ESOP other than:
(i) Collateral given for the loan,
(ii) Contributions (other than contributions of employers securities) that are made under an ESOP to meet its obligations under the loan, and
(iii) Earnings attributable to such collateral and the investment of such contributions.
(6) Default. In the event of default upon an exempt loan, the value of plan assets transferred in satisfaction of the loan must not exceed the amount of default. If the lender is a disqualified person, a loan must provide for a transfer of plan assets upon default only upon and to the extent of the failure of the plan to meet the payment schedule of the loan. For purposes of this subparagraph (6), the making of a guarantee does not make a person a lender.
(7) Reasonable rate of interest. The interest rate of a loan must not be in excess of a reasonable rate of interest. All relevant factors will be considered in determining a reasonable rate of interest, including the amount and duration of the loan, the security and guarantee (if any) involved, the credit standing of the ESOP and the guarantor (if any), and the interest rate prevailing for comparable loans. When these factors are considered, a variable interest rate may be reasonable.
(8) Release from encumbrance —(i) General rule. In general, an exempt loan must provide for the release from encumbrance under this subdivision (i) of plan assets used as collateral for the loan. For each plan year during the duration of the loan, the number of securities released must equal the number of encumbered securities held immediately before release for the current plan year multiplied by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the amount of principal and interest paid for the year. The denominator of the fraction is the sum of the numerator plus the principal and interest to be paid for all future years. See § 54.4975-7(b) (8) (iv). The number of future years under the loan must be definitely ascertainable and must be determined without taking into account any possible extensions or renewal periods. If the interest rate under the loan is variable, the interest to be paid in future years must be computed by using the interest rate applicable as of the end of the plan year. If collateral includes more than one class of securities, the number of securities of each class to be released for a plan year must be determined by applying the same fraction to each class.
(ii) Special rule. A loan will not fail to be exempt merely because the number of securities to be released from encumbrance is determined solely with reference to principal payments. However, if release is determined with reference to principal payments only, the following three additional rules apply. The first rule is that the loan must provide for annual payments of principal and interest at a cumulative rate that is not less rapid at any time than level annual payments of such amounts for 10 years. The second rule is that interest included in any payment is disregarded only to the extent that it would be determined to be interest under standard loan amoritization tables. The third rule is that this subdivision, (ii) is not applicable from the time that, by reason of a renewal, extension, or refinancing, the sum of the expired duration of the exempt loan, the renewal period, the extension period, and the duration of a new exempt loan exceeds 10 years.
(iii) Caution against plan disqualification. Under an exempt loan, the number of securities released from encumbrance may vary from year to year. The release of securities depends upon certain employer contributions and earnings under the ESOP. Under § 54.4975-11(d)(2) actual allocations to participants' accounts are based upon assets withdrawn from the suspense account. Nevertheless, for purposes of applying the limitations under section 415 to these allocations, under § 54.4975-11(a)(8)(ii) contributions used by the ESOP to pay the loan are treated as annual additions to participants' accounts. Therefore, particular caution must be exercised to avoid exceeding the maximum annual additions under section 415. At the same time, release from encumbrance in annual varying numbers may reflect a failure on the part of the employer to make substantial and recurring contributions to the ESOP which will lead to loss of qualification under section 401(a). The Internal Revenue Service will observe closely the operation of ESOP's that release encumbered securities in varying annual amounts, particularly those that provide for the deferral of loan payments or for balloon payments.
(iv) Illustration. The general rule under paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section operates as illustrated in the following example:
(9) Right of first refusal. Qualifying employer securities acquired with proceeds of an exempt loan may, but need not, be subject to a right of first refusal. However, any such right must meet the requirements of this subparagraph (9). Securities subject to such right must be stock or an equity security, or a debt security convertible into stock or an equity security. Also, the securities must not be publicly traded at the time the right may be exercised. The right of first refusal must be in favor of the employer, the ESOP, or both in any order of priority. The selling price and other terms under the right must not be less favorable to the seller than the greater of the value of the security determined under § 54.4975-11(d)(5), or the purchase price and other terms offered by a buyer, other than the employer or the ESOP, making a good faith offer to purchase the security. The right of first refusal must lapse no later than 14 days after the security holder gives written notice to the holder of the right that an offer by a third party to purchase the security has been received.
(10) Put option. A qualifying employer security acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan by an ESOP after September 30, 1976, must be subject to a put option if it is not publicly traded when distributed or if it is subject to a trading limitation when distributed. For purposes of subparagraph (10), a “trading limitation” on a security is a restriction under any Federal or state securities law, any regulation thereunder, or an agreement, not prohibited by this paragraph (b), affecting the security which would make the security not as freely tradable as one not subject to such restriction. The put option must be exercisable only by a participant, by the participant's donees, or by a person (including an estate or its distributee) to whom the security passes by reason of a participant's death. (Under this subparagraph (10), participant means a participant and beneficiaries of the participant under the ESOP.) The put option must permit a participant to put the security to the employer. Under no circumstances may the put option bind the ESOP. However, it may grant the ESOP an option to assume the rights and obligations of the employer at the time that the put option is exercised. If it is known at the time a loan is made that Federal or state law will be violated by the employer's honoring such put option, the put option must permit the security to be put, in a manner consistent with such law, to a third party (e.g., an affiliate of the employer or a shareholder other than the ESOP) that has substantial net worth at the time the loan is made and whose net worth is reasonably expected to remain substantial.
(11) Duration of put option —(i) General rule. A put option must be exercisable at least during a 15-month period which begins on the date the security subject to the put option is distributed by the ESOP.
(ii) Special rule. In the case of a security that is publicly traded without restriction when distributed but ceases to be so traded within 15 months after distribution, the employer must notify each security holder in writing on or before the tenth day after the date the security ceases to be so traded that for the remainder of the 15-month period the security is subject to a put option. The number of days between such tenth day and the date on which notice is actually given, if later than the tenth day, must be added to the duration of the put option. The notice must inform distributees of the terms of the put options that they are to hold. Such terms must satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b) (10) through (12) of this section.
(12) Other put option provisions —(i) Manner of exercise. A put option is exercised by the holder notifying the employer in writing that the put option is being exercised.
(ii) Time excluded from duration of put option. The period during which a put option is exercisable does not include any time when a distributee is unable to exercise it because the party bound by the put option is prohibited from honoring it by applicable Federal or state law.
(iii) Price. The price at which a put option must be exercisable is the value of the security, determined under § 54.4975-11(d)(5).
(iv) Payment terms. The provisions for payment under a put option must be reasonable. The deferral of payment is reasonable if adequate security and a reasonable interest rate are provided for any credit extended and if the cumulative payments at any time are no less than the aggregate of reasonable periodic payments as of such time. Periodic payments are reasonable if annual installments, beginning with 30 days after the date the put option is exercised, are substantially equal. Generally, the payment period may not end more than 5 years after the date the put option is exercised. However, it may be extended to a date no later than the earlier of 10 years from the date the put option is exercised or the date the proceeds of the loan used by the ESOP to acquire the security subject to the put option are entirely repaid.
(v) Payment restrictions. Payment under a put option may be restricted by the terms of a loan, including one used to acquire a security subject to a put option made before November 1, 1977. Otherwise, payment under a put option must not be restricted by the provisions of a loan or any other arrangement, including the terms of the employer's articles of incorporation, unless so required by applicable state law.
(13) Other terms of loan. An exempt loan must be for a specific term. Such loan may not be payable at the demand of any person, except in the case of default.
(14) Status of plan as ESOP. To be exempt, a loan must be made to a plan that is an ESOP at the time of such loan. However, a loan to a plan formally designated as an ESOP at the time of the loan that fails to be an ESOP because it does not comply with section 401(a) of the Code or § 54.4975-11 will be exempt as of the time of such loan if the plan is amended retroactively under section 401(b) or § 54.4975-11(a)(4).
(15) Special rules for certain loans —(i) Loans made before January 1, 1976. A loan made before January 1, 1976, or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on January 1, 1976 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of the agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of the loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b) for such period, even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section: the last sentence of paragraph (b) (4) and all of paragraph (b) (5), (6), (8) (i) and (ii), and (9) through (13), inclusive.
(ii) Loans made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977. A loan made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977 or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on November 1, 1977 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of the agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of the loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b) for such period even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section: paragraph (b) (6) and (9) and the three additional rules listed in paragraph (b) (8) (ii).
(iii) Release rule. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) (15) (i) and (ii) of this section, if the proceeds of a loan are used to acquire securities after November 1, 1977, the loan must comply by such date with the provisions of paragraph (b) (8) of this section.
(iv) Default rule. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) (15) (i) and (ii) of this section, a loan by a disqualified person other than a guarantor must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) (6) of this section. A loan will meet these requirements if it is retroactively amended before November 1, 1977 to meet these requirements.
(v) Put option rule. With respect to a security distributed before November 1, 1977, the put option provisions of paragraph (b) (10), (11), and (12) of this section will be deemed satisfied as of the date the security is distributed if by December 31, 1977, the security is subject to a put option satisfying such provisions, the security is subject to a put option satisfying such provisions. For purposes of satisfying such provisions, the security will be deemed distributed on the date the put option is issued. However, the put option provisions need not be satisfied with respect to a security that is not owned on November 1, 1977, by a person in whose hands a put option must be exercisable.
§ 54.4975-9   Definition of “fiduciary”.
(a)-(b) [Reserved]
(c) Investment advice. (1) A person shall be deemed to be rendering “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan, within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3)(B) and this paragraph, only if:
(i) Such person renders advice to the plan as to the value of securities or other property, or makes recommendations as to the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities or other property; and
(ii) Such person either directly or indirectly (e.g., through or together with any affiliate):
(A) Has discretionary authority or control, whether or not pursuant to agreement, arrangement or understanding, with respect to purchasing or selling securities or other property for the plan; or
(B) Renders any advice described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section on a regular basis to the plan pursuant to a mutual agreement, arrangement or understanding, written or otherwise, between such person and the plan or a fiduciary with respect to the plan, that such services will serve as a primary basis for investment decisions with respect to plan assets, and that such person will render individualized investment advice to the plan based on the particular needs of the plan regarding such matters as, among other things, investment policies or strategy, overall portfolio composition, or diversification of plan investments.
(2) A person who is a fiduciary with respect to a plan by reason of rendering investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or having any authority or responsibility to do so, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such person does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:
(i) Exempt such person from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
(ii) Exclude such person from the definition of the term disqualified person (as set forth in section 4975(e)(2)) with respect to any assets of the plan.
(d) Execution of securities transactions. (1) A person who is a broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, a reporting dealer who makes primary markets in securities of the United States Government or of an agency of the United States Government and reports daily to the Federal Reserve Bank of New York its positions with respect to such securities and borrowings thereon, or a bank supervised by the United States or a State, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary, within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3), with respect to an employee benefit plan solely because such person executes transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan in the ordinary course of its business as a broker, dealer, or bank, pursuant to instructions of a fiduciary with respect to such plan, if:
(i) Neither the fiduciary nor any affiliate of such fiduciary is such broker, dealer, or bank; and
(ii) The instructions specify (A) the security to be purchased or sold, (B) a price range within which such security is to be purchased or sold, or, if such security is issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1, et seq. ), a price which is determined in accordance with Rule 22c-1 under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (17 CFR 270.22c-1), (C) a time span during which such security may be purchased or sold (not to exceed five business days), and (D) the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold within such price range, or, in the case of security issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold, or the value of such security in dollar amount which may be purchased or sold, at the price referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(2) A person who is a broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank which is a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan solely by reason of the possession or exercise of discretionary authority or discretionary control in the management of the plan or the management or disposition of plan assets in connection with the execution of a transaction or transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan which fails to comply with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such broker-dealer, reporting dealer or bank does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:
(i) Exempt such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
(ii) Exclude such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the definition of the term disqualified person (as set forth in section 4975(e)(2)) with respect to any assets of the plan.
(e) Affiliate and control. (1) For purposes of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, an “affiliate” of a person shall include:
(i) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person;
(ii) Any officer, director, partner, employee or relative (as defined in section 4975(e)(6)) of such person; and
(iii) Any corporation or partnership of which such person is an officer, director or partner.
(2) For purposes of this paragraph, the term control means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
§ 54.4975-11   “ESOP” requirements.
(a) In general —(1) Type of plan. To be an “ESOP” (employee stock ownership plan), a plan described in section 4975(e)(7)(A) must meet the requirements of this section. See section 4975(e)(7)(B).
(2) Designation as ESOP. To be an ESOP, a plan must be formally designated as such in the plan document.
(3) Continuing loan provisions under plan —(i) Creation of protections and rights. The terms of an ESOP must formally provide participants with certain protections and rights with respect to plan assets acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan. These protections and rights are those referred to in the third sentence of § 54.4975-7(b)(4), relating to put, call, or other options and to buy-sell or similar arrangements, and in § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11), and (12), relating to put options.
(ii) “Nonterminable” protections and rights. The terms of an ESOP must also formally provide that these protections and rights are nonterminable. Thus, if a plan holds or has distributed securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan and either the loan is repaid or the plan ceases to be an ESOP, these protections and rights must continue to exist under the terms of the plan. However, the protections and rights will not fail to be nonterminable merely because they are not exercisable under § 54.4975-7(b) (11) and (12)(ii). For example, if, after a plan ceases to be an ESOP, securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan cease to be publicly traded, the 15-month period prescribed by § 54.4975-7(b)(11) includes the time when the securities are publicly traded.
(iii) No incorporation by reference of protections and rights. The formal requirements of paragraph (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section must be set forth in the plan. Mere reference to the third sentence of § 54.4975-7(b)(4) and to the provisions of § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11), and (12) is not sufficient.
(iv) Certain remedial amendments. Notwithstanding the limits under paragraph (a) (4) and (10) of this section on the retroactive effect of plan amendments, a remedial plan amendment adopted before December 31, 1979, to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section is retroactively effective as of the later of the date on which the plan was designated as an ESOP or November 1, 1977.
(4) Retroactive amendment. A plan meets the requirements of this section as of the date that it is designated as an ESOP if it is amended retroactively to meet, and in fact does meet, such requirements at any of the following times:
(i) 12 months after the date on which the plan is designated as an ESOP;
(ii) 90 days after a determination letter is issued with respect to the qualification of the plan as an ESOP under this section, but only if the determination is requested by the time in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section; or
(iii) A later date approved by the district director.
(5) Addition to other plan. An ESOP may form a portion of a plan the balance of which includes a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan which is not an ESOP. A reference to an ESOP includes an ESOP that forms a portion of another plan.
(6) Conversion of existing plan to an ESOP. If an existing pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan is converted into an ESOP, the requirements of section 404 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (88 Stat. 877), relating to fiduciary duties, and section 401(a) of the Code, relating to requirements for plans established for the exclusive benefit of employees, applying to such conversion. A conversion may constitute a termination of an existing plan. For definition of a termination, see the regulations under section 411(d)(3) of the Code and section 4041(f) of ERISA.
(7) Certain arrangements barred —(i) Buy-sell agreements. An arrangement involving an ESOP that creates a put option must not provide for the issuance of put options other than as provided under § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11) and (12). Also, an ESOP must not otherwise obligate itself to acquire securities from a particular security holder at an indefinite time determined upon the happening of an event such as the death of the holder.
(ii) Integrated plans. A plan designated as an ESOP after November 1, 1977, must not be integrated directly or indirectly with contributions or benefits under title II of the Social Security Act or any other State or Federal law. ESOP's established and integrated before such date may remain integrated. However, such plans must not be amended to increase the integration level or the integration percentage. Such plans may in operation continue to increase the level of integration if under the plan such increase is limited by reference to a criterion existing apart from the plan.
(8) Effect of certain ESOP provisions on section 401(a) status —(i) Exempt loan requirements. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(2) merely because it gives plan assets as collateral for an exempt loan under § 54.4975-7(b)(5) or uses plan assets under § 54.4975-7(b)(6) to repay and exempt loan in the event of default.
(ii) Individual annual contribution limitation. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(16) merely because annual additions under section 415(c) are calculated with respect to employer contributions used to repay an exempt loan rather than with respect to securities allocated to participants.
(iii) Income pass-through. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a) merely because it provides for the current payment of income under paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
(9) Transitional rules for ESOP's established before November 1, 1977. A plan established before November 1, 1977 that otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section constitutes an ESOP if it is amended by December 31, 1977, to comply from November 1, 1977 with this section even though before November 1, 1977 the plan did not satisfy paragraphs (c) and (d) (2), (4), and (5) of this section.
(10) Additional transitional rules. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(9) of this section, a plan established before November 1, 1977, that otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section constitutes an ESOP if by December 31, 1977, it is amended to comply from November 1, 1977, with this section even though before such date the plan did not satisfy the following provisions of this section:
(i) Paragraph (a) (3) and (8) (iii);
(ii) The last sentence of paragraph (d)(3); and
(iii) Paragraph (f)(3).
(b) Plan designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities. A plan constitutes an ESOP only if the plan specifically states that it is designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities. Thus, a stock bonus plan or a money purchase pension plan constituting an ESOP may invest part of its assets in other than qualifying employer securities. Such plan will be treated the same as other stock bonus plans or money purchase pension plans qualified under section 401a with respect to those investments.
(c) Suspense account. All assets acquired by an ESOP with the proceeds of an exempt loan under section 4975(d)(3) must be added to and maintained in a suspense account. They are to be withdrawn from the suspense account by applying § 54.4975-7(b) (8) and (15) as if all securities in the suspense account were encumbered. Such assets acquired before November 1, 1977, must be withdrawn by applying § 54.4975-7(b)(8) or the provision of the loan that controls release from encumbrance. Assets in such suspense accounts are assets of the ESOP. Thus, for example, such assets are subject to section 401(a)(2).
(d) Allocations to accounts of participants —(1) In general. Except as provided in this section, amounts contributed to an ESOP must be allocated as provided under § 1.401-1(b)(ii) and (iii) of this chapter, and securities acquired by an ESOP must be accounted for as provided under § 1.402(a)-1(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
(2) Assets withdrawn from suspense account. As of the end of each plan year, the ESOP must consistently allocate to the participants' accounts non-monetary units representing participants' interests in assets withdrawn from the suspense account.
(3) Income. Income with respect to securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan must be allocated as income of the plan except to the extent that the ESOP provides for the use of income from such securities to repay the loan. Certain income may be distributed currently under paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
(4) Forfeitures. If a portion of a participant's account is forfeited, qualifying employer securities allocated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be forfeited only after other assets. If interests in more than one class of qualifying employer securities have been allocated to the participant's account, the participant must be treated as forfeiting the same proportion of each such class.
(5) Valuation. For purposes of § 54.4975-7(b) (9) and (12) and this section, valuations must be made in good faith and based on all relevant factors for determining the fair market value of securities. In the case of a transaction between a plan and a disqualified person, value must be determined as of the date of the transaction. For all other purposes under this subparagraph (5), value must be determined as of the most recent valuation date under the plan. An independent appraisal will not in itself be a good faith determination of value in the case of a transaction between a plan and a disqualified person. However, in other cases, a determination of fair market value based on at least an annual appraisal independently arrived at by a person who customarily makes such appraisals and who is independent of any party to a transaction under § 54.4975-7(b) (9) and (12) will be deemed to be a good faith determination of value.
(e) Multiple plans —(1) General rule. An ESOP may not be considered together with another plan for purposes of applying section 401(a) (4) and (5) or section 410(b) unless:
(i) The ESOP and such other plan exist on November 1, 1977, or
(ii) Paragraph (e)(2) of this section is satisfied.
(2) Special rule for combined ESOP's. Two or more ESOP's, one or more of which does not exist on November 1, 1977, may be considered together for purposes of applying section 401(a) (4) and (5) or section 410(b) only if the proportion of qualifying employer securities to total plan assets is substantially the same for each ESOP and:
(i) The qualifying employer securities held by all ESOP's are all of the same class; or
(ii) The ratios of each class held to all such securities held is substantially the same for each plan.
(3) Amended coverage, contribution, or benefit structure. For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, if the coverage, contribution, or benefit structure of a plan that exists on November 1, 1977 is amended after that date, as of the effective date of the amendment, the plan is no longer considered to be a plan that exists on November 1, 1977.
(f) Distribution —(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (f) (2) and (3) of this section, with respect to distributions, a portion of an ESOP consisting of stock bonus plan or a money purchase pension plan is not to be distinguished from other such plans under section 401(a). Thus, for example, benefits distributable from the portion of an ESOP consisting of a stock bonus plan are distributable only in stock of the employer. Also, benefits distributable from the money-purchase portion of the ESOP may be, but are not required to be, distributable in qualifying employer securities.
(2) Exempt loan proceeds. If securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan available for distribution consist of more than one class, a distributee must receive substantially the same proportion of each such class. However, as indicated in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, benefits distributable from the portion of an ESOP consisting of a stock bonus plan are distributable only in stock of the employer.
(3) Income. Income paid with respect to qualifying employer securities acquired by an ESOP in taxable years beginning after December 31, 1974, may be distributed at any time after receipt by the plan to participants on whose behalf such securities have been allocated. However, under an ESOP that is a stock bonus plan, income held by the plan for a 2-year period or longer must be distributed under the general rules described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. (See the last sentence of section 803(h), Tax Reform Act of 1976.)
§ 54.4975-12   Definition of the term “qualifying employer security”.
(a) In general. For purposes of section 4975(e)(8) and this section, the term “qualifying employer security” means an employer security which is:
(1) Stock or otherwise an equity security, or
(2) A bond, debenture, note, or certificate or other evidence of indebtedness which is described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 503(e).
(b) Special rule. In determining whether a bond, debenture, note, or certificate or other evidence of indebtedness is described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 503(e), any organization described in section 401(a) shall be treated as an organization subject to the provisions of section 503.
§ 54.4975-14   Election to pay an excise tax for certain pre-1975 prohibited transactions.
(a) In general. Section 2003(c)(1)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 978) provides an election to pay an excise tax by certain persons involved prior to 1975 in prohibited transactions within the meaning of section 503 (b) or (g).
(b) Effect of election. If a valid election is made under this section with respect to a particular transaction, any loss of exemption under section 501(a) because of a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503 (b) or (g) shall not apply. Instead, the person who made the election referred to in this section shall be subject to the taxes which would have been imposed by section 4975 (a) or (b) as though section 4975 had imposed a tax in respect of the transaction. (However, section 4975(f)(1), relating to joint and several liability, shall not apply to any person who has not made an election under this section, and interest for late payment of tax shall not begin to accrue until after the date of the election.) Such an election is irrevocable. However, the making of the election does not affect the application of section 6501 for purposes of assessment and collection of tax and section 6511 for purposes of filing a claim for credit or refund with respect to taxpayers and to taxable years of taxpayers whose tax liability is or may be affected by reason of the nonapplication of a denial of exempt status.
(c) Method of election. A person shall make the election referred to in this section by filing the form issued for such purpose by the Internal Revenue Service, including therein the information required by such form and the instructions issued with respect thereto, and by paying the tax which the taxpayer indicates is due at the time the return is filed. To be valid the election must be made prior to the later of December 6, 1976, or 120 days after the date of notification referred to in § 1.503(a)-1(b) of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations), relating to loss of exemption for certain prohibited transactions. If there has been no notification of loss of exemption, the election may be made at any time. However, these limitations do not preclude an agreement between the disqualified person and the district director to extend the time within which the election is permitted.
(d) Computation of section 4975 excise tax. To the extent applicable, and solely for purposes associated with the payment of a section 4975 excise tax under the election referred to in this section, § 53.4941(e)-1 of this chapter (Foundation Excise Tax Regulations) is controlling.
§ 54.4975-15   Other transitional rules.
(a)-(c) [Reserved]
(d) Provision of certain services until June 30, 1977 —(1) In general. Section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) (88 Stat. 979) provides that section 4975 shall not apply to the provision of services before June 30, 1977, between a plan and a disqualified person if the three requirements contained in section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act are met. The first requirement is that such services must be provided either (in) under a binding contract in effect on July 1, 1974 (or pursuant to a renewal or modification of such contract); or (ii) by a disqualified person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974. The second requirement is that the services be provided on terms that remain at least as favorable to the plan as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated party would be.
(2) Persons deemed to be June 30, 1974, service providers. A disqualified person with respect to a plan which did not, on June 30, 1974, ordinarily and customarily furnish a particular service, will nevertheless be considered to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974, for purposes of this section and section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act, if either of the following conditions are met:
(i) At least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of such disqualified person are owned directly or through one or more intermediaries by the same person or persons who owned, directly or through one or more intermediaries, at least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of a person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974; or
(ii) Control, or the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of such disqualified person is possessed, directly or through one or more intermediaries, by the same person or persons who possessed directly or through one or more intermediaries control, or the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of a person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2) a person shall be deemed to be an “intermediary” of another person if at least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of such person are owned by such other person, directly or indirectly, or if such other person controls or has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of such person.
(3) Examples. The principals of § 54.4975-15(d)(2) may be illustrated by the following examples.
§ 54.4976-1T   Questions and answers relating to taxes with respect to welfare benefit funds (temporary).
Q-1: What does section 4976 provide?
A-1: Section 4976 imposes a tax on employers who provide disqualified benefits through a welfare benefit fund. The tax imposed is equal to 100 percent of the disqualified benefit.
Q-2: What constitutes a disqualified benefit?
A-2: A disqualified benefit is (a) any post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided with respect to a key employee (as defined in section 419A(d)(3)) through a welfare benefit fund if a separate account is required to be established for such employee under section 419A(d) and the cost for such coverage is not charged against or paid from such separate account; (b) any post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided through a welfare benefit fund with respect to an individual in whose favor discrimination is prohibited unless the plan of which the fund is a part meets the requirements of section 505(b) with respect to that benefit; and (c) any portion of the fund which reverts to the benefit of the employer. A post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided with respect to a key employee will not constitute a disqualified benefit even though such benefit is not provided through a separate account if the cost of such benefit is paid by the employer in the taxable year in which the benefit is provided and there is not (and there is not required to be) a separate account with an outstanding credit balance maintained for the key employee.
Q-3: What is the effective date of section 4976?
A-3: (a) Generally, section 4976 applies to disqualified benefits provided by a welfare benefit fund after December 31, 1985. However, a disqualified benefit, as defined in section 4976(b)(1) or (2), is not subject to section 4976(a) if it is provided from “existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits” that are within the transition rule set forth in section 512(a)(3)(E)(iii) and Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T (or would be if such transition rule applied to such welfare benefit fund). For example, if a welfare benefit fund in existence on July 18, 1984, provides an individual in whose favor discrimination is prohibited with a post-retirement life insurance benefit after December 31, 1985, that does not meet the requirements of section 505(b) and if the welfare benefit fund received no contributions after July 18, 1984, then the disqualified benefit provided by the fund is not subject to section 4976(a)
(b) A welfare benefit fund will be able to avoid the application of section 4976(b)(1) and (2) if the employer withdraws from such fund, before April 7, 1986, any amounts that are not attributable to “existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits” because they were neither actually set aside nor treated as actually set aside under Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T, on July 18, 1984. The employer making such a withdrawal must include the amount in income for the first taxable year ending after July 18, 1984, or, to the extent that the withdrawn amount is attributable to the following taxable year, for such following taxable year. Such a withdrawal will not be treated as an impermissible distribution or reversion under section 501(c)(9), and will not be treated as a disqualified benefit under section 4976(b)(3). Of course, to the extent that the welfare benefit fund contains amounts that are attributable to “existing reserves” but are not within the transition rule set forth in Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T (as applied to welfare benefit funds), for example, because such amounts exceed the amounts that could have been accumulated under the principles set forth in Revenue Rulings 69-382, 1969-2 C.B. 28; 69-478, 1969-2 C.B. 29; and 73-599, 1973-2 C.B. 40, the fund will not be able to avoid the application of section 4976(b)(1) and (2) under this paragraph.
(c) In the case of a plan which is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements (1) between employee representatives and one or more employers and (2) which are in effect on July 1, 1985 (or ratified on or before that date), the provision does not apply to disqualified benefits provided in years beginning before the termination of the last of the collective bargaining agreements pursuant to which the plan is maintained (determined without regard to any extension of the contract agreed to after July 1, 1985). For purposes of the preceding sentence, any plan amendment made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement relating to the plan which amends the plan solely to conform to any requirement added under section 511 of the Tax Reform Act 1984 ( i.e. , requirements under sections 419, 419A, 512(a)(3)(E), and 4976) shall not be treated as a termination of such collective bargaining agreement.
§ 54.4977-1T   Questions and answers relating to the election concerning lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984 (temporary).
The following questions and answers relate to the election by employers under section 4977 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as added by section 531(e)(1) of the Tax Reform Act of 1984 (98 Stat. 886), to treat all employees of any line of business in existence on January 1, 1984, as employees of one of those lines of business for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2):
Q-1: What does section 4977 provide with respect to the exclusion from gross income of certain fringe benefits?
A-1: In general, section 4977 provides an elective grandfather rule that allows an employer under certain circumstances to treat employees of all lines of business which were in existence on January 1, 1984, as employees of one of those lines of business for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2), but not for purposes of section 132(g)(2).
Q-2: Under what circumstances does the elective grandfather rule of section 4977 apply?
A-2: If:
(a) An election under section 4977 is in effect with respect to an employer for any calendar year, and
(b) On and after January 1, 1984, at least 85 percent of the employees of the employer in all of its lines of business which existed on January 1, 1984, were entitled to employee discounts or services provided by the employer in one line of business,
Q-3: How does an employer make the election provided for in section 4977?
A-3: An employer must file a statement with the director of the service center with which the employer's tax returns are filed. The statement must indicate that the employer is electing to apply the provisions of section 4977 to one or more of the employer's lines of business and must contain the following information:
(a) The employer's name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
(b) A description of all of the employer's lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984; and
(c) For each lines of business which is to have as an employee for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2) an individual but for the election under section 4977 would not be treated as an employee for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2):
(1) A description of the no-additional-cost service or qualified employee discount (including, with respect to discounts, the percentage discount) to be offered to employees pursuant to section 4977 in such line of business, and
(2) With respect to employees in all of the employer's lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984, the number of such employees and the number entitled to the described fringe benefit. Such numbers may be determined as of a date which does not precede the date the election is filed by more than 30 days.
Q-4: In order to make a timely section 4977 election, when must an employer file the election statement?
A-4: Except as otherwise provided in the second sentence of this answer, the employer must file the election statement before the end of the calendar year preceding the year for which the election is to apply. For calendar year 1985, however, the employer has until March 31, 1985, to file the election statement. However, the Commissioner may, in his discretion, extend the March 31, 1985 deadline to a later date.
Q-5: Does section 4977 apply to all calendar years following the calendar year in which the election is made?
A-5: Yes, unless the employer revokes the election.
Q-6: When is a revocation effective?
A-6: A revocation is effective with respect to the calendar year following the calendar year in which it is filed.
Q-7: If an employer does not make a timely section 4977 election with respect to 1985, will the employer be entitled to make an election with respect to any subsequent year?
A-7: No.
Q-8: If an employer revokes a section 4977 election, is the employer entitled to elect the application of section 4977 for subsequent years?
A-8: No.
§ 54.4978-1T   Questions and answers relating to the tax on certain dispositions by employee stock ownership plans and certain cooperatives (temporary).
Q-1: What does section 4978 provide?
A-1: Section 4978 imposes a tax (as determined under section 4978(b) and Q&A-2 of this section) on the amount realized on the disposition of any qualified securities, if:
(a) An employee stock ownership plan or eligible worker-owned cooperative acquires any qualified securities in a sale to which section 1042 applies;
(b) Such plan or cooperative disposes of any qualified securities during the 3-year period after the date on which any qualified securities were acquired in the sale to which section 1042 applies; and
(c) Either (1) the percentage of the total outstanding shares of the class of employer securities of which the disposed qualified securities are a part held by such plan or cooperative after such disposition is less than the percentage of the total outstanding shares of such class of employer securities held immediately after the sale to which section 1042 applies, or (2) the value of the employer securities held by such plan or cooperative immediately after such disposition is less than 30 percent of the total value of all employer securities outstanding at that time. For purposes of this section, the following terms have the same meanings given to such terms by the identified provisions: “employee stock ownership plan” (section 4975(e)(7)); “qualified securities” (section 1042(b)(1)); “eligible worker-owned cooperative” (section 1042(b)(2)); “employer securities” (section 409(l)). For purposes of determining what constitutes a disposition to which section 4978 applies, see Q&A-3 of this section.
Q-2: What is the amount of tax imposed under section 4978?
A-2: Section 4978 imposes a tax of 10 percent of the amount realized on the disposition of qualified securities. The amount realized that is subject to tax under section 4978 shall not exceed that portion of the amount realized that is allocable to qualified securities acquired within the 3-year period prior to the date of disposition and to which section 1042 applied (“restricted qualified securities”). In determining the amount realized (except as otherwise provided in Q&A-3 of this section), any disposition of employer securities with respect to which the condition contained in provision (c) of Q&A-1 is met shall be treated, first, as a disposition of restricted qualified securities (on a first in, first out basis) and, thereafter, as a disposition of any other employer securities. Thus, for example, if a plan disposes of more employer securities than the number of restricted qualified securities held by the plan at that time and immediately after such disposition the value of the employer securities held by the plan is less than 30 percent of the total value of all outstanding employer securities, the portion of the total amount realized that is allocable to restricted qualified securities subject to tax under section 4978 is determined by multiplying the total amount realized on the disposition by a fraction, the numerator of which is the total value of restricted qualified securities included in the disposition and the denominator of which is the total value of employer securities in the disposition.
Q-3: What constitutes a “disposition” under section 4978?
A-3: (a) Under section 4978, the term “disposition” includes any sale, exchange, or distribution. However, in the case of any exchange of qualified securities for stock of another corporation in any reorganization described in section 368(a)(1), such exchange shall not be treated as a disposition for purposes of section 4978.
(b) Section 4978 shall not apply to any disposition of qualified securities which is made by reason of:
(1) The death of the employee;
(2) The retirement of the employee after the employee has attained 59 1/2 years of age;
(3) The disability of the employee (within the meaning of section 72(m)(5)); or
(4) The separation of the employee from service for any period which results in a 1-year break in service (within the meaning of section 411(a)(6)(A)).
Any disposition of employer securities within this paragraph and any disposition of employer securities with respect to which the condition contained in provision (c) of Q&A-1 of this section is not met shall be treated, first, as a disposition of securities that are not restricted qualified securities and, thereafter, as a disposition of restricted qualified securities (on a first-in, first-out basis).
(c) If restricted qualified securities held by an employee stock ownership plan or eligible worker-owned cooperative no longer meet the definition of qualified securities (“old restricted qualified securities”) as a result of a transaction changing (1) the status of a corporation as an employer, or as a member of a controlled group of corporations including the employer, or (2) the existence of employer securities of the type described in section 409(l)(1), the disposition of such securities shall not be treated as a disposition of restricted qualified securities to which the tax under section 4978 is imposed if, within 90 days after such disposition, securities meeting the requirements of section 409(l) (“new restricted qualified securities”) that are of equal value to the old restricted qualfied securities (at the time of the disposition of the old restricted qualified securities) are substituted for such old restricted qualified securities. However, for purposes of determining the tax imposed under section 4978, old restricted qualified securities shall not be treated as if they retained their status as restricted qualified securities and new restricted qualified securities derived from the disposition of old restricted qualified securities pursuant to the preceding sentence shall be treated as restricted qualified securities for the remaining portion of the period during which the disposition of the old restricted qualified securities would have been subject to tax under section 4978.
Q-4: To whom does the tax under section 4978 apply?
A-4: The tax under section 4978 is imposed on the domestic corporation (or corporations) or the eligible worker-owned cooperative that made the written statement of consent as described in section 1042(a)(2)(B) and Q&A-2 of § 1.1042-1T with respect to the disposition of the restricted qualified securities.
Q-5: When does section 4978, as enacted by the Tax Reform Act of 1984, become effective?
A-5: Section 4978 applies to the disposition of qualified securities acquired in a sale to which section 1042 applies. See Q&A-6 of § 1.1042-1T for the effective date of section 1042.
§ 54.4979-0   Excise tax on certain excess contributions and excess aggregate contributions; table of contents.
This section contains the captions that appear in § 54.4979.
(a) In general.
(1) General rule.
(2) Liability for tax.
(3) Due date and form for payment of tax.
(4) Special rule for simplified employee pensions.
(b) Definitions.
(1) Excess aggregate contributions.
(2) Excess contributions.
(3) Plan.
(c) No tax when excess distributed within 2 1/2 months of close of year or additional employer contributions made.
(1) General rule.
(2) Tax treatment of distributions.
(3) Income.
(4) Example.
(d) Effective date.
(1) General rule.
(2) Section 403(b) annuity contracts.
(3) Collectively bargained plans and plans of state or local governments.
(4) Plan years beginning before January 1, 1992.
§ 54.4979-1   Excise tax on certain excess contributions and excess aggregate contributions.
(a) In general —(1) General rule. In the case of any plan (as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section), there is imposed a tax for the employer's taxable year equal to 10 percent of the sum of:
(i) Any excess contributions under a plan for the plan year ending in the taxable year; and
(ii) Any excess aggregate contributions under the plan for the plan year ending in the taxable year.
(2) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by paragraph (a)(1) of this section is to be paid by the employer. In the case of a collectively bargained plan to which section 413(b) applies, all employers who are parties to the collective bargaining agreement and whose employees are participants in the plan are jointly and severally liable for the tax.
(3) Due date and form for payment of tax —(i) The tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is due on the last day of the 15th month after the close of the plan year to which the excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions relate.
(ii) An employer that owes the tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must file the form prescribed by the Commissioner for the payment of the tax.
(4) Special rule for simplified employee pensions —(i) An employer that maintains a simplified employee pension (SEP) as defined in section 408(k) that accepts elective contributions is exempted from the tax of section 4979 and paragraph (a)(1) of this section if it notifies its employees of the fact and tax consequences of excess contributions within 2 1/2 months following the plan year for which excess contributions are made. The notification must meet the standards of paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section.
(ii) The employer's notification to each affected employee of the excess SEP contributions must specifically state, in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant: the amount of the excess contributions attributable to that employee's elective deferrals; the calendar year for which the excess contributions were made; that the excess contributions are includible in the affected employee's gross income for the specified calendar year; and that failure to withdraw the excess contributions and income attributable thereto by the due date (plus extensions) for filing the affected employee's tax return for the preceding calendar year may result in significant penalties.
(iii) If an employer does not notify its employees by the last day of the 12-month period following the year of excess SEP contributions, the SEP will no longer be considered to meet the requirements of section 408(k)(6).
(b) Definitions. The following is a list of terms and definitions to be used for purposes of section 4979 and this section:
(1) Excess aggregate contributions. The term “excess aggregate contribution” has the meaning set forth in § 1.401(m)-5 of this chapter. For purposes of determining excess aggregate contributions under an annuity contract described in section 403(b), the contract is treated as a plan described in section 401(a).
(2) Excess contributions. The term “excess contributions” has the meaning set forth in sections 401(k)(8)(B), 408(k)(6)(C)(ii), and 501(c)(18). See, e.g., § 1.401(k)-6 of this chapter.
(3) Plan. The term “plan” means:
(i) A plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt from tax under section 501(a);
(ii) Any annuity plan described in section 403(a);
(iii) Any annuity contract described in section 403(b);
(iv) A simplified employee pension of an employer that satisfies the requirements of section 408(k); and
(v) A plan described in section 501(c)(18).
(c) No tax when excess distributed within 2 1/2 months of close of year or additional employer contributions made —(1) General rule. No tax is imposed under this section on any excess contribution or excess aggregate contribution, as the case may be, to the extent the contribution (together with any income allocable thereto) is corrected before the close of the first 2 1/2 months of the following plan year (6 months in the case of a plan that includes an eligible automatic contribution arrangement within the meaning of section 414(w)). The extension to 6 months applies to a distribution of excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions for a plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2010, only where all the eligible NHCEs and eligible HCEs (both as defined in § 1.401(k)-6 of this Chapter) are covered employees under an eligible automatic contribution arrangement within the meaning of section 414(w) for the entire plan year (or the portion of the plan year that the eligible NHCEs and eligible HCEs are eligible employees under the plan)). Qualified nonelective contributions and qualified matching contributions taken into account under § 1.401(k)-2(a)(6) of this Chapter or qualified nonelective contributions or elective contributions taken into account under § 1.401(m)-2(a)(6) of this Chapter for a plan year may permit a plan to avoid excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions, respectively, even if made after the close of the 2 1/2 month (or 6 month) period for distributing excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions without the excise tax. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(1)(i) and (5)(i) of this Chapter for methods to avoid excess contributions, and § 1.401(m)-2(b)(1)(i) of the Chapter for methods to avoid excess aggregate contributions.
(2) Tax treatment of distributions. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(3)(ii) and (2)(vi) of this chapter for rules for determining the tax consequences to a participant of a distribution or recharacterization of excess contributions and income allocable thereto, including a special rule for de minimis distributions. See § 1.401(m)-2(b)(2)(vi) of this chapter for rules for determining the tax consequences to a participant of a distribution of excess aggregate contributions and income allocable thereto.
(3) Income. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter for rules for determining income allocable to excess contributions. See § 1.401(m)-2(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter for rules for determining income allocable to excess aggregate contributions.
(4) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following example.
(ii) On December 31, 1990, X determines that Y does not satisfy the actual deferral percentage test for the 1990 plan year, and that excess contributions for the year equal $5,000. On March 1, 1991, Y distributes $2,000 of these excess contributions. On May 30, 1991, X distributes another $2,000 of excess contributions. On December 17, 1991, X contributes QNECs for certain nonhighly compensated employees, thereby eliminating the remainder of the excess contributions for 1990.
(iii) X has incurred a tax liability under section 4979 for 1990 equal to 10 percent of the excess contributions that were in the plan as of December 31, 1990. However, this tax is not imposed on the $2,000 distributed on March 1, 1991, or the amount corrected by QNECs. X must pay an excise tax of $200, 10 percent of the $2,000 of excess contributions distributed after March 15, 1991. This tax must be paid by March 31, 1992.
(d) Effective date —(1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4), this section is effective for plan years beginning after December 31, 1986.
(2) Section 403(b) annuity contracts. In the case of an annuity contract under section 403(b), this section applies to plan years beginning after December 31, 1988.
(3) Collectively bargained plans and plans of state or local governments. For plan years beginning before January 1, 1993, the provisions of this section do not apply to a collectively bargained plan that automatically satisfies the requirements of section 410(b). See §§ 1.401(a)(4)-1(c)(5) and 1.410(b)-2(b)(7) of this chapter. In the case of a plan (including a collectively bargained plan) maintained by a state or local government, the provisions of this section do not apply for plan years beginning before the later of January 1, 1996, or 90 days after the opening of the first legislative session beginning on or after January 1, 1996, of the governing body with authority to amend the plan, if that body does not meet continuously. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), the term governing body with authority to amend the plan means the legislature, board, commission, council, or other governing body with authority to amend the plan.
(4) Plan years beginning before January 1, 1992. For plan years beginning before January 1, 1992, a reasonable interpretation of the rules set forth in section 4979, as in effect during those years, may be relied upon in determining whether the excise tax is due for those years.
§ 54.4980B-0   Table of contents.
This section contains first a list of the section headings and then a list of the questions in each section in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10.
Q-1: What are the health care continuation coverage requirements contained in section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code and in ERISA?
Q-2: What standard applies for topics not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10?
Q-1: For purposes of section 4980B, what is a group health plan?
Q-2: For purposes of section 4980B, what is the employer?
Q-3: What is a multiemployer plan?
Q-4: What group health plans are subject to COBRA?
Q-5: What is a small-employer plan?
Q-6: How is the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains determined?
Q-7: What is the plan year?
Q-8: How do the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply to cafeteria plans and other flexible benefit arrangements?
Q-9: What is the effect of a group health plan's failure to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?
Q-10: Who is liable for the excise tax if a group health plan fails to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?
Q-11: If a person is liable for the excise tax under section 4980B, what form must the person file and what is the due date for the filing and payment of the excise tax?
Q-1: Who is a qualified beneficiary?
Q-2: Who is an employee and who is a covered employee?
Q-3: Who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries?
Q-1: What is a qualifying event?
Q-2: Are the facts surrounding a termination of employment (such as whether it was voluntary or involuntary) relevant in determining whether the termination of employment is a qualifying event?
Q-1: What is COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-2: What deductibles apply if COBRA continuation coverage is elected?
Q-3: How do a plan's limits apply to COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-4: Can a qualified beneficiary who elects COBRA continuation coverage ever change from the coverage received by that individual immediately before the qualifying event?
Q-5: Aside from open enrollment periods, can a qualified beneficiary who has elected COBRA continuation coverage choose to cover individuals (such as newborn children, adopted children, or new spouses) who join the qualified beneficiary's family on or after the date of the qualifying event?
Q-1: What is the election period and how long must it last?
Q-2: Is a covered employee or qualified beneficiary responsible for informing the plan administrator of the occurrence of a qualifying event?
Q-3: During the election period and before the qualified beneficiary has made an election, must coverage be provided?
Q-4: Is a waiver before the end of the election period effective to end a qualified beneficiary's election rights?
Q-5: Can an employer or employee organization withhold money or other benefits owed to a qualified beneficiary until the qualified beneficiary either waives COBRA continuation coverage, elects and pays for such coverage, or allows the election period to expire?
Q-6: Can each qualified beneficiary make an independent election under COBRA?
Q-1: How long must COBRA continuation coverage be made available to a qualified beneficiary?
Q-2: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to coverage under another group health plan?
Q-3: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to the qualified beneficiary's entitlement to Medicare benefits?
Q-4: When does the maximum coverage period end?
Q-5: How does a qualified beneficiary become entitled to a disability extension?
Q-6: Under what circumstances can the maximum coverage period be expanded?
Q-7: If health coverage is provided to a qualified beneficiary after a qualifying event without regard to COBRA continuation coverage (for example, as a result of state or local law, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (38 U.S.C. 4315), industry practice, a collective bargaining agreement, severance agreement, or plan procedure), will such alternative coverage extend the maximum coverage period?
Q-8: Must a qualified beneficiary be given the right to enroll in a conversion health plan at the end of the maximum coverage period for COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-1: Can a group health plan require payment for COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-2: When is the applicable premium determined and when can a group health plan increase the amount it requires to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-3: Must a plan allow payment for COBRA continuation coverage to be made in monthly installments?
Q-4: Is a plan required to allow a qualified beneficiary to choose to have the first payment for COBRA continuation coverage applied prospectively only?
Q-5: What is timely payment for COBRA continuation coverage?
Q-1: For purposes of this section, what are a business reorganization, a stock sale, and an asset sale?
Q-2: In the case of a stock sale, what are the selling group, the acquired organization, and the buying group?
Q-3: In the case of an asset sale, what are the selling group and the buying group?
Q-4: Who is an M&A qualified beneficiary?
Q-5: In the case of a stock sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee who is employed by the acquired organization before the sale and who continues to be employed by the acquired organization after the sale, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee?
Q-6: In the case of an asset sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee whose employment immediately before the sale was associated with the purchased assets, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee who are covered under a group health plan of the selling group immediately before the sale?
Q-7: In a business reorganization, are the buying group and the selling group permitted to allocate by contract the responsibility to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries?
Q-8: Which group health plan has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries in a business reorganization?
Q-9: Can the cessation of contributions by an employer to a multiemployer group health plan be a qualifying event?
Q-10: If an employer stops contributing to a multiemployer group health plan, does the multiemployer plan have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary who was receiving coverage under the multiemployer plan on the day before the cessation of contributions and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was with the employer that has stopped contributing to the multiemployer plan?
Q-1: In what circumstances does a qualifying event occur if an employee does not return from leave taken under FMLA?
Q-2: If a qualifying event described in Q&A-1 of this section occurs, when does it occur, and how is the maximum coverage period measured?
Q-3: If an employee fails to pay the employee portion of premiums for coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave or declines coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave, does this affect the determination of whether or when the employee has experienced a qualifying event?
Q-4: Is the application of the rules in Q&A-1 through Q&A-3 of this section affected by a requirement of state or local law to provide a period of coverage longer than that required under FMLA?
Q-5: May COBRA continuation coverage be conditioned upon reimbursement of the premiums paid by the employer for coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave?
§ 54.4980B-1   COBRA in general.
The COBRA continuation coverage requirements are described in general in the following questions-and-answers:
Q-1: What are the health care continuation coverage requirements contained in section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code and in ERISA?
A-1: (a) Section 4980B provides generally that a group health plan must offer each qualified beneficiary who would otherwise lose coverage under the plan as a result of a qualifying event an opportunity to elect, within the election period, continuation coverage under the plan. The continuation coverage requirements were added to section 162 by the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA), Public Law 99-272 (100 Stat. 222), and moved to section 4980B by the Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act of 1988, Public Law 100-647 (102 Stat. 3342). Continuation coverage required under section 4980B is referred to in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 as COBRA continuation coverage.
(b) COBRA also added parallel continuation coverage requirements to Part 6 of Subtitle B of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1161-1168), which is administered by the U.S. Department of Labor. If a plan does not comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, the Internal Revenue Code imposes an excise tax on the employer maintaining the plan (or on the plan itself), whereas ERISA gives certain parties—including qualified beneficiaries who are participants or beneficiaries within the meaning of title I of ERISA, as well as the Department of Labor—the right to file a lawsuit to redress the noncompliance. The rules in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 apply for purposes of section 4980B and generally also for purposes of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements in title I of ERISA. However, certain provisions of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements (such as the definitions of group health plan, employee, and employer) are not identical in the Internal Revenue Code and title I of ERISA. In those cases in which the statutory language is not identical, the rules in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 nonetheless apply to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements of title I of ERISA, except to the extent those rules are inconsistent with the statutory language of title I of ERISA.
(c) A group health plan that is subject to section 4980B (or the parallel provisions under ERISA) is referred to as being subject to COBRA. (See Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2). A qualified beneficiary can be required to pay for COBRA continuation coverage. The term qualified beneficiary is defined in Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-3. The term qualifying event is defined in Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4. COBRA continuation coverage is described in § 54.4980B-5. The election procedures are described in § 54.4980B-6. Duration of COBRA continuation coverage is addressed in § 54.4980B-7, and payment for COBRA continuation coverage is addressed in § 54.4980B-8. Section 54.4980B-9 contains special rules for how COBRA applies in connection with business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from a multiemployer plan, and § 54.4980B-10 addresses how COBRA applies for individuals who take leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. Unless the context indicates otherwise, any reference in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to COBRA refers to section 4980B (as amended) and to the parallel provisions of ERISA.
Q-2: What standard applies for topics not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10?
A-2: For purposes of section 4980B, for topics relating to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements of section 4980B that are not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (such as methods for calculating the applicable premium), plans and employers must operate in good faith compliance with a reasonable interpretation of the statutory requirements in section 4980B.
§ 54.4980B-2   Plans that must comply.
The following questions-and-answers apply in determining which plans must comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements:
Q-1: For purposes of section 4980B, what is a group health plan?
A-1: (a) For purposes of section 4980B, a group health plan is a plan maintained by an employer or employee organization to provide health care to individuals who have an employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization or to their families. Individuals who have an employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization consist of employees, former employees, the employer, and others associated or formerly associated with the employer or employee organization in a business relationship (including members of a union who are not currently employees). Health care is provided under a plan whether provided directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise, and whether or not provided through an on-site facility (except as set forth in paragraph (d) of this Q&A-1), or through a cafeteria plan (as defined in section 125) or other flexible benefit arrangement. (See paragraphs (b) through (e) in Q&A-8 of this section for rules regarding the application of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements to certain health flexible spending arrangements.) For purposes of this Q&A-1, insurance includes not only group insurance policies but also one or more individual insurance policies in any arrangement that involves the provision of health care to two or more employees. A plan maintained by an employer or employee organization is any plan of, or contributed to (directly or indirectly) by, an employer or employee organization. Thus, a group health plan is maintained by an employer or employee organization even if the employer or employee organization does not contribute to it if coverage under the plan would not be available at the same cost to an individual but for the individual's employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization. These rules are further explained in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this Q&A-1. An exception for qualified long-term care services is set forth in paragraph (e) of this Q&A-1, and for medical savings accounts in paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1. See Q&A-6 of this section for rules to determine the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains.
(b) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, health care has the same meaning as medical care under section 213(d). Thus, health care generally includes the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, and any other undertaking for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the body. Health care also includes transportation primarily for and essential to health care as described in the preceding sentence. However, health care does not include anything that is merely beneficial to the general health of an individual, such as a vacation. Thus, if an employer or employee organization maintains a program that furthers general good health, but the program does not relate to the relief or alleviation of health or medical problems and is generally accessible to and used by employees without regard to their physical condition or state of health, that program is not considered a program that provides health care and so is not a group health plan. For example, if an employer maintains a spa, swimming pool, gymnasium, or other exercise/fitness program or facility that is normally accessible to and used by employees for reasons other than relief of health or medical problems, such a facility does not constitute a program that provides health care and thus is not a group health plan. In contrast, if an employer maintains a drug or alcohol treatment program or a health clinic, or any other facility or program that is intended to relieve or alleviate a physical condition or health problem, the facility or program is considered to be the provision of health care and so is considered a group health plan.
(c) Whether a benefit provided to employees constitutes health care is not affected by whether the benefit is excludable from income under section 132 (relating to certain fringe benefits). For example, if a department store provides its employees discounted prices on all merchandise, including health care items such as drugs or eyeglasses, the mere fact that the discounted prices also apply to health care items will not cause the program to be a plan providing health care, so long as the discount program would normally be accessible to and used by employees without regard to health needs or physical condition. If, however, the employer maintaining the discount program is a health clinic, so that the program is used exclusively by employees with health or medical needs, the program is considered to be a plan providing health care and so is considered to be a group health plan.
(d) The provision of health care at a facility that is located on the premises of an employer or employee organization does not constitute a group health plan if—
(1) The health care consists primarily of first aid that is provided during the employer's working hours for treatment of a health condition, illness, or injury that occurs during those working hours;
(2) The health care is available only to current employees; and
(3) Employees are not charged for the use of the facility.
(e) A plan does not constitute a group health plan subject to COBRA if substantially all of the coverage provided under the plan is for qualified long-term care services (as defined in section 7702B(c)). For this purpose, a plan is permitted to use any reasonable method in determining whether substantially all of the coverage provided under the plan is for qualified long-term care services.
(f) Under section 106(b)(5), amounts contributed by an employer to a medical savings account (as defined in section 220(d)) are not considered part of a group health plan subject to COBRA. Thus, a plan is not required to make COBRA continuation coverage available with respect to amounts contributed by an employer to a medical savings account. A high deductible health plan does not fail to be a group health plan subject to COBRA merely because it covers a medical savings account holder.
Q-2: For purposes of section 4980B, what is the employer?
A-2: (a) For purposes of section 4980B, employer refers to—
(1) A person for whom services are performed;
(2) Any other person that is a member of a group described in section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) that includes a person described in paragraph (a)(1) of this Q&A-2; and
(3) Any successor of a person described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this Q&A-2.
(b) An employer is a successor employer if it results from a consolidation, merger, or similar restructuring of the employer or if it is a mere continuation of the employer. See paragraph (c) in Q&A-8 of § 54.4980B-9 for rules describing the circumstances in which a purchaser of substantial assets is a successor employer to the employer selling the assets.
Q-3: What is a multiemployer plan?
A-3: For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, a multiemployer plan is a plan to which more than one employer is required to contribute, that is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between one or more employee organizations and more than one employer, and that satisfies such other requirements as the Secretary of Labor may prescribe by regulation. Whenever reference is made in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to a plan of or maintained by an employer or employee organization, the reference includes a multiemployer plan.
Q-4: What group health plans are subject to COBRA?
A-4: (a) All group health plans are subject to COBRA except group health plans described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-4. Group health plans described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-4 are referred to in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 as excepted from COBRA.
(b) The following group health plans are excepted from COBRA—
(1) Small-employer plans (see Q&A-5 of this section);
(2) Church plans (within the meaning of section 414(e)); and
(3) Governmental plans (within the meaning of section 414(d)).
(c) The COBRA continuation coverage requirements generally do not apply to group health plans that are excepted from COBRA. However, a small-employer plan otherwise excepted from COBRA is nonetheless subject to COBRA with respect to qualified beneficiaries who experience a qualifying event during a period when the plan is not a small-employer plan (see paragraph (g) of Q&A-5 of this section).
(d) Although governmental plans are not subject to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, group health plans maintained by state or local governments are generally subject to parallel continuation coverage requirements that were added by section 10003 of COBRA to the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300bb-1 through 300bb-8), which is administered by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Federal employees and their family members covered under the Federal Employees Health Benefit Program are covered by generally similar, but not parallel, temporary continuation of coverage provisions enacted by the Federal Employees Health Benefits Amendments Act of 1988. See 5 U.S.C. 8905a.
Q-5: What is a small-employer plan?
A-5: (a) Except in the case of a multiemployer plan, a small-employer plan is a group health plan maintained by an employer (within the meaning of Q&A-2 of this section) that normally employed fewer than 20 employees (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this Q&A-5) during the preceding calendar year. In the case of a multiemployer plan, a small-employer plan is a group health plan under which each of the employers contributing to the plan for a calendar year normally employed fewer than 20 employees during the preceding calendar year. See Q&A-6 of this section for rules to determine the number of plans that an employer or employee organization maintains. The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated in the following example:
(ii) Under § 1.414(b)-1 of this chapter, foreign corporations are not excluded from membership in a controlled group of corporations. Consequently, the group health plan maintained by S is not a small-employer plan during the current calendar year because the controlled group including S normally employed at least 20 employees in the preceding calendar year.
(b) An employer is considered to have normally employed fewer than 20 employees during a particular calendar year if, and only if, it had fewer than 20 employees on at least 50 percent of its typical business days during that year.
(c) All full-time and part-time common law employees of an employer are taken into account in determining whether an employer had fewer than 20 employees; however, an individual who is not a common law employee of the employer is not taken into account. Thus, the following individuals are not counted as employees for purposes of this Q&A-5 even though they are referred to as employees for all other purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10—
(1) Self-employed individuals (within the meaning of section 401(c)(1));
(2) Independent contractors (and their employees and independent contractors); and
(3) Directors (in the case of a corporation).
(d) In determining the number of the employees of an employer, each full-time employee is counted as one employee and each part-time employee is counted as a fraction of an employee, determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this Q&A-5.
(e) An employer may determine the number of its employees on a daily basis or a pay period basis. The basis used by the employer must be used with respect to all employees of the employer and must be used for the entire year for which the number of employees is being determined. If an employer determines the number of its employees on a daily basis, it must determine the actual number of full-time employees on each typical business day and the actual number of part-time employees and the hours worked by each of those part-time employees on each typical business day. Each full-time employee counts as one employee on each typical business day and each part-time employee counts as a fraction, with the numerator of the fraction equal to the number of hours worked by that employee and the denominator equal to the number of hours that must be worked on a typical business day in order to be considered a full-time employee. If an employer determines the number of its employees on a pay period basis, it must determine the actual number of full-time employees employed during that pay period and the actual number of part-time employees employed and the hours worked by each of those part-time employees during the pay period. For each day of that pay period, each full-time employee counts as one employee and each part-time employee counts as a fraction, with the numerator of the fraction equal to the number of hours worked by that employee during that pay period and the denominator equal to the number of hours that must be worked during that pay period in order to be considered a full-time employee. The determination of the number of hours required to be considered a full-time employee is based upon the employer's employment practices, except that in no event may the hours required to be considered a full-time employee exceed eight hours for any day or 40 hours for any week.
(f) In the case of a multiemployer plan, the determination of whether the plan is a small-employer plan on any particular date depends on which employers are contributing to the plan on that date and on the workforce of those employers during the preceding calendar year. If a plan that is otherwise subject to COBRA ceases to be a small-employer plan because of the addition during a calendar year of an employer that did not normally employ fewer than 20 employees on a typical business day during the preceding calendar year, the plan ceases to be excepted from COBRA immediately upon the addition of the new employer. In contrast, if the plan ceases to be a small-employer plan by reason of an increase during a calendar year in the workforce of an employer contributing to the plan, the plan ceases to be excepted from COBRA on the January 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the employer's workforce increased.
(g) A small-employer plan is generally excepted from COBRA. If, however, a plan that has been subject to COBRA (that is, was not a small-employer plan) becomes a small-employer plan, the plan remains subject to COBRA for qualifying events that occurred during the period when the plan was subject to COBRA. The rules of this paragraph (g) are illustrated by the following examples:
Q-6: How is the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains determined?
A-6: (a) The rules of this Q&A-6 apply in determining the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains. All references elsewhere in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to a group health plan are references to a group health plan as determined under Q&A-1 of this section and this Q&A-6. Except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this Q&A-6, all health care benefits, other than benefits for qualified long-term care services (as defined in section 7702B(c)), provided by a corporation, partnership, or other entity or trade or business, or by an employee organization, constitute one group health plan, unless—
(1) It is clear from the instruments governing an arrangement or arrangements to provide health care benefits that the benefits are being provided under separate plans; and
(2) The arrangement or arrangements are operated pursuant to such instruments as separate plans.
(b) A multiemployer plan and a nonmultiemployer plan are always separate plans.
(c) If a principal purpose of establishing separate plans is to evade any requirement of law, then the separate plans will be considered a single plan to the extent necessary to prevent the evasion.
(d) The significance of treating an arrangement as two or more separate group health plans is illustrated by the following examples:
(ii) X 's plan could comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements by giving a qualified beneficiary experiencing a qualifying event with respect to X's plan the choice of either electing both major medical and prescription drug benefits or not receiving any COBRA continuation coverage under X's plan. By contrast, for Y's plans to comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, a qualified beneficiary experiencing a qualifying event with respect to each of Y's plans must be given the choice of electing COBRA continuation coverage under either the major medical plan or the prescription drug plan or both.
Q-7: What is the plan year?
A-7: (a) The plan year is the year that is designated as the plan year in the plan documents.
(b) If the plan documents do not designate a plan year (or if there are no plan documents), then the plan year is determined in accordance with this paragraph (b).
(1) The plan year is the deductible/limit year used under the plan.
(2) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on an annual basis, then the plan year is the policy year.
(3) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on an annual basis, and either the plan is not insured or the insurance policy is not renewed on an annual basis, then the plan year is the employer's taxable year.
(4) In any other case, the plan year is the calendar year.
Q-8: How do the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply to cafeteria plans and other flexible benefit arrangements?
A-8: (a)(1) The provision of health care benefits does not fail to be a group health plan merely because those benefits are offered under a cafeteria plan (as defined in section 125) or under any other arrangement under which an employee is offered a choice between health care benefits and other taxable or nontaxable benefits. However, the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply only to the type and level of coverage under the cafeteria plan or other flexible benefit arrangement that a qualified beneficiary is actually receiving on the day before the qualifying event. See paragraphs (b) through (e) of this Q&A-8 for rules limiting the obligations of certain health flexible spending arrangements.
(2) The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following example:
(ii) B does not have to be offered COBRA continuation coverage upon terminating employment, nor is a subsequent open enrollment period for active employees required to be made available to B. However, if C terminates employment and the termination constitutes a qualifying event, C must be offered an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage under the indemnity arrangement. If C makes such an election and an open enrollment period for active employees occurs while C is still receiving the COBRA continuation coverage, C must be offered the opportunity to switch from the indemnity arrangement to the HMO (but not to the life insurance coverage because that does not constitute coverage provided under a group health plan).
(b) If a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA), within the meaning of section 106(c)(2), satisfies the two conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 for a plan year, the obligation of the health FSA to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event in that plan year is limited in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Q&A-8, as illustrated by an example in paragraph (f) of this Q&A-8. To the extent that a health FSA is obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary, the health FSA must comply with all the applicable rules of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, including the rules of Q&A-3 in § 54.4980B-5 (relating to limits).
(c) The conditions of this paragraph (c) are satisfied if—
(1) Benefits provided under the health FSA are excepted benefits within the meaning of sections 9831 and 9832; and
(2) The maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for a year of COBRA continuation coverage under Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8 equals or exceeds the maximum benefit available under the health FSA for the year.
(d) If the conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for a plan year, then the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for any subsequent plan year to any qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event during that plan year.
(e) If the conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for a plan year, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for that plan year to any qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event during that plan year unless, as of the date of the qualifying event, the qualified beneficiary can become entitled to receive during the remainder of the plan year a benefit that exceeds the maximum amount that the health FSA is permitted to require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for the remainder of the plan year. In determining the amount of the benefit that a qualified beneficiary can become entitled to receive during the remainder of the plan year, the health FSA may deduct from the maximum benefit available to that qualified beneficiary for the year (based on the election made under the health FSA for that qualified beneficiary before the date of the qualifying event) any reimbursable claims submitted to the health FSA for that plan year before the date of the qualifying event.
(f) The rules of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this Q&A-8 are illustrated by the following example:
(ii) Because the employer provides major medical benefits under another group health plan, and because the maximum benefit that any employee can receive under the health FSA is not greater than two times the employee's salary reduction election for the plan year, benefits under this health FSA are excepted benefits within the meaning of sections 9831 and 9832. Thus, the first condition of paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 is satisfied for the year. The maximum amount that a plan can require to be paid for coverage (outside of coverage required to be made available due to a disability extension) under Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8 is 102 percent of the applicable premium. Thus, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for coverage for the 2002 plan year is 2.04 times the employee's salary reduction election for the plan year. Because the maximum benefit available under the health FSA is 2.0 times the employee's salary reduction election for the year, the maximum benefit available under the health FSA for the year is less than the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for coverage for the year. Thus, the second condition in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 is also satisfied for the 2002 plan year. Because both conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for 2002, with respect to any qualifying event occurring in 2002, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for any year after 2002.
(iii) Whether the health FSA is obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available in 2002 to a qualified beneficiary with respect to a qualifying event that occurs in 2002 depends upon the maximum benefit that would be available to the qualified beneficiary under COBRA continuation coverage for that plan year. Case 1: Employee B has elected to reduce B 's salary by $1200 for 2002. Thus, the maximum benefit that B can become entitled to receive under the health FSA during the entire year is $2400. B experiences a qualifying event that is the termination of B 's employment on May 31, 2002. As of that date, B had submitted $300 of reimbursable expenses under the health FSA. Thus, the maximum benefit that B could become entitled to receive for the remainder of 2002 is $2100. The maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for the remainder of 2002 is 102 percent times 1/12 of the applicable premium for 2002 times the number of months remaining in 2002 after the date of the qualifying event. In B 's case, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for 2002 is 2.04 times $1200, or $2448. One-twelfth of $2448 is $204. Because seven months remain in the plan year, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for B 's coverage for the remainder of the year is seven times $204, or $1428. Because $1428 is less than the maximum benefit that B could become entitled to receive for the remainder of the year ($2100), the health FSA is required to make COBRA continuation coverage available to B for the remainder of 2002 (but not for any subsequent year).
(iv) Case 2: The facts are the same as in Case 1 except that B had submitted $1000 of reimbursable expenses as of the date of the qualifying event. In that case, the maximum benefit available to B for the remainder of the year would be $1400 instead of $2100. Because the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for B 's coverage is $1428, and because the $1400 maximum benefit for the remainder of the year does not exceed $1428, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to B in 2002 (or any later year). (Of course, the administrator of the health FSA is permitted to make COBRA continuation coverage available to every qualified beneficiary in the year that the qualified beneficiary's qualifying event occurs in order to avoid having to determine the maximum benefit available for each qualified beneficiary for the remainder of the plan year.)
Q-9: What is the effect of a group health plan's failure to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?
A-9: Under section 4980B(a), if a group health plan subject to COBRA fails to comply with section 4980B(f), an excise tax is imposed. Moreover, non-tax remedies may be available if the plan fails to comply with the parallel requirements in ERISA, which are administered by the Department of Labor.
Q-10: Who is liable for the excise tax if a group health plan fails to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?
A-10: (a) In general, the excise tax is imposed on the employer maintaining the plan, except that in the case of a multiemployer plan (see Q&A-3 of this section for a definition of multiemployer plan) the excise tax is imposed on the plan.
(b) In certain circumstances, the excise tax is also imposed on a person involved with the provision of benefits under the plan (other than in the capacity of an employee), such as an insurer providing benefits under the plan or a third party administrator administering claims under the plan. In general, such a person will be liable for the excise tax if the person assumes, under a legally enforceable written agreement, the responsibility for performing the act to which the failure to comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements relates. Such a person will be liable for the excise tax notwithstanding the absence of a written agreement assuming responsibility for complying with COBRA if the person provides coverage under the plan to a similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary (see Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-3 for a definition of similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries) and the employer or plan administrator submits a written request to the person to provide to a qualified beneficiary the same coverage that the person provides to the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary. If the person providing coverage under the plan to a similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary is the plan administrator and the qualifying event is a divorce or legal separation or a dependent child's ceasing to be covered under the generally applicable requirements of the plan, the plan administrator will also be liable for the excise tax if the qualified beneficiary submits a written request for coverage.
Q-11: If a person is liable for the excise tax under section 4980B, what form must the person file and what is the due date for the filing and payment of the excise tax?
A-11: (a) In general. See §§ 54.6011-2 and 54.6151-1.
(b) Due date for filing of return by employers or other persons responsible for benefits under a group health plan. See § 54.6071-1(a)(1).
(c) Due date for filing of return by multiemployer plans. See § 54.6071-1(a)(2).
(d) Effective/applicability date. In the case of an employer or other person mentioned in paragraph (b) of this Q & A-11, the rules in this Q & A-11 are effective for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2010. In the case of a plan mentioned in paragraph (c) of this Q & A-11, the rules in this Q & A-11 are effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2010.
§ 54.4980B-3   Qualified beneficiaries.
The determination of who is a qualified beneficiary, an employee, or a covered employee, and of who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries is addressed in the following questions-and-answers:
Q-1: Who is a qualified beneficiary?
A-1: (a)(1) Except as set forth in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this Q&A-1, a qualified beneficiary is—
(i) Any individual who, on the day before a qualifying event, is covered under a group health plan by virtue of being on that day either a covered employee, the spouse of a covered employee, or a dependent child of the covered employee; or
(ii) Any child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage.
(2) In the case of a qualifying event that is the bankruptcy of the employer, a covered employee who had retired on or before the date of substantial elimination of group health plan coverage is also a qualified beneficiary, as is any spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child of such a covered employee if, on the day before the bankruptcy qualifying event, the spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child is a beneficiary under the plan.
(3) In general, an individual (other than a child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage) who is not covered under a plan on the day before the qualifying event cannot be a qualified beneficiary with respect to that qualifying event, and the reason for the individual's lack of actual coverage (such as the individual's having declined participation in the plan or failed to satisfy the plan's conditions for participation) is not relevant for this purpose. However, if the individual is denied or not offered coverage under a plan under circumstances in which the denial or failure to offer constitutes a violation of applicable law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. 12101-12213, the special enrollment rules of section 9801, or the requirements of section 9802 prohibiting discrimination in eligibility to enroll in a group health plan based on health status), then, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, the individual will be considered to have had the coverage that was wrongfully denied or not offered.
(4) Paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1 describes how certain family members are not qualified beneficiaries even if they become covered under the plan; paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this Q&A-1 place limits on the general rules of this paragraph (a) concerning who is a qualified beneficiary; paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1 provides when an individual who has been a qualified beneficiary ceases to be a qualified beneficiary; paragraph (g) of this Q&A-1 defines placed for adoption ; and paragraph (h) of this Q&A-1 contains examples.
(b) In contrast to a child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, an individual who marries any qualified beneficiary on or after the date of the qualifying event and a newborn or adopted child (other than one born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee) are not qualified beneficiaries by virtue of the marriage, birth, or placement for adoption or by virtue of the individual's status as the spouse or the child's status as a dependent of the qualified beneficiary. These new family members do not themselves become qualified beneficiaries even if they become covered under the plan. (For situations in which a plan is required to make coverage available to new family members of a qualified beneficiary who is receiving COBRA continuation coverage, see Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-5, paragraph (c) in Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-5, and section 9801(f)(2).)
(c) An individual is not a qualified beneficiary if, on the day before the qualifying event referred to in paragraph (a) of this Q&A-1, the individual is covered under the group health plan by reason of another individual's election of COBRA continuation coverage and is not already a qualified beneficiary by reason of a prior qualifying event.
(d) A covered employee can be a qualified beneficiary only in connection with a qualifying event that is the termination, or reduction of hours, of the covered employee's employment, or that is the bankruptcy of the employer.
(e) An individual is not a qualified beneficiary if the individual's status as a covered employee is attributable to a period in which the individual was a nonresident alien who received from the individual's employer no earned income (within the meaning of section 911(d)(2)) that constituted income from sources within the United States (within the meaning of section 861(a)(3)). If, pursuant to the preceding sentence, an individual is not a qualified beneficiary, then a spouse or dependent child of the individual is not considered a qualified beneficiary by virtue of the relationship to the individual.
(f) A qualified beneficiary who does not elect COBRA continuation coverage in connection with a qualifying event ceases to be a qualified beneficiary at the end of the election period (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-6). Thus, for example, if such a former qualified beneficiary is later added to a covered employee's coverage (e.g., during an open enrollment period) and then another qualifying event occurs with respect to the covered employee, the former qualified beneficiary does not become a qualified beneficiary by reason of the second qualifying event. If a covered employee who is a qualified beneficiary does not elect COBRA continuation coverage during the election period, then any child born to or placed for adoption with the covered employee on or after the date of the qualifying event is not a qualified beneficiary. Once a plan's obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to an individual who has been a qualified beneficiary ceases under the rules of § 54.4980B-7, the individual ceases to be a qualified beneficiary.
(g) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, placement for adoption or being placed for adoption means the assumption and retention by the covered employee of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child in anticipation of the adoption of the child. The child's placement for adoption with the covered employee terminates upon the termination of the legal obligation for total or partial support. A child who is immediately adopted by the covered employee without a preceding placement for adoption is considered to be placed for adoption on the date of the adoption.
(h) The rules of this Q&A-1 are illustrated by the following examples:
(ii) B 's spouse is not a qualified beneficiary. Thus, if B dies during the period of COBRA continuation coverage, the plan does not have to offer B 's surviving spouse an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage.
(ii) The addition of the spouse during the open enrollment period does not make the spouse a qualified beneficiary. The plan thus will not have to offer the spouse an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage upon a later divorce from or death of C.
(ii) At that time, the child must be offered an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage. If the child elects COBRA continuation coverage, the child marries during the period of the COBRA continuation coverage, and the child's spouse becomes covered under the group health plan, the child's spouse is not a qualified beneficiary.
(ii) If a divorce from or death of D will result in E 's losing coverage, E will be a qualified beneficiary because E 's coverage under the plan on the day before the qualifying event (that is, the divorce or death) will have been by reason of D 's acceptance of 12 months of employer-paid coverage after the prior qualifying event ( D 's retirement) rather than by reason of an election of COBRA continuation coverage.
(ii) E does not have to be allowed to elect COBRA continuation coverage because the loss of coverage at the end of the 12-month period is not caused by the divorce or death, and thus the divorce or death does not constitute a qualifying event. See Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4.
Q-2: Who is an employee and who is a covered employee?
A-2: (a)(1) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except for purposes of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-2, relating to the exception from COBRA for plans maintained by an employer with fewer than 20 employees), an employee is any individual who is eligible to be covered under a group health plan by virtue of the performance of services for the employer maintaining the plan or by virtue of membership in the employee organization maintaining the plan. Thus, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except for purposes of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-2), the following individuals are employees if their relationship to the employer maintaining the plan makes them eligible to be covered under the plan—
(i) Self-employed individuals (within the meaning of section 401(c)(1));
(ii) Independent contractors (and their employees and independent contractors); and
(iii) Directors (in the case of a corporation).
(2) Similarly, whenever reference is made in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except in Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2) to an employment relationship (such as by referring to the termination of employment of an employee or to an employee's being employed by an employer), the reference includes the relationship of those individuals who are employees within the meaning of this paragraph (a). See paragraph (c) in Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2 for a narrower meaning of employee solely for purposes of Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2.
(b) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, a covered employee is any individual who is (or was) provided coverage under a group health plan (other than a plan that is excepted from COBRA on the date of the qualifying event; see Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2) by virtue of being or having been an employee. For example, a retiree or former employee who is covered by a group health plan is a covered employee if the coverage results in whole or in part from her or his previous employment. An employee (or former employee) who is merely eligible for coverage under a group health plan is generally not a covered employee if the employee (or former employee) is not actually covered under the plan. In general, the reason for the employee's (or former employee's) lack of actual coverage (such as having declined participation in the plan or having failed to satisfy the plan's conditions for participation) is not relevant for this purpose. However, if the employee (or former employee) is denied or not offered coverage under circumstances in which the denial or failure to offer constitutes a violation of applicable law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. 12101 through 12213, the special enrollment rules of section 9801, or the requirements of section 9802 prohibiting discrimination in eligibility to enroll in a group health plan based on health status), then, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, the employee (or former employee) will be considered to have had the coverage that was wrongfully denied or not offered.
Q-3: Who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries?
A-3: For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries means the group of covered employees, spouses of covered employees, or dependent children of covered employees receiving coverage under a group health plan maintained by the employer or employee organization who are receiving that coverage for a reason other than the rights provided under the COBRA continuation coverage requirements and who, based on all of the facts and circumstances, are most similarly situated to the situation of the qualified beneficiary immediately before the qualifying event.
§ 54.4980B-4   Qualifying events.
The determination of what constitutes a qualifying event is addressed in the following questions and answers:
Q-1: What is a qualifying event?
A-1: (a) A qualifying event is an event that satisfies paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Q&A-1. Paragraph (e) of this Q&A-1 further explains a reduction of hours of employment, paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1 describes the treatment of children born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, and paragraph (g) of this Q&A-1 contains examples. See Q&A-1 through Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-10 for special rules in the case of leave taken under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601-2619).
(b) An event satisfies this paragraph (b) if the event is any of the following—
(1) The death of a covered employee;
(2) The termination (other than by reason of the employee's gross misconduct), or reduction of hours, of a covered employee's employment;
(3) The divorce or legal separation of a covered employee from the employee's spouse;
(4) A covered employee's becoming entitled to Medicare benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ggg);
(5) A dependent child's ceasing to be a dependent child of a covered employee under the generally applicable requirements of the plan; or
(6) A proceeding in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code with respect to an employer from whose employment a covered employee retired at any time.
(c) An event satisfies this paragraph (c) if, under the terms of the group health plan, the event causes the covered employee, or the spouse or a dependent child of the covered employee, to lose coverage under the plan. For this purpose, to lose coverage means to cease to be covered under the same terms and conditions as in effect immediately before the qualifying event. Any increase in the premium or contribution that must be paid by a covered employee (or the spouse or dependent child of a covered employee) for coverage under a group health plan that results from the occurrence of one of the events listed in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1 is a loss of coverage. In the case of an event that is the bankruptcy of the employer, lose coverage also means any substantial elimination of coverage under the plan, occurring within 12 months before or after the date the bankruptcy proceeding commences, for a covered employee who had retired on or before the date of the substantial elimination of group health plan coverage or for any spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child of such a covered employee if, on the day before the bankruptcy qualifying event, the spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child is a beneficiary under the plan. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a loss of coverage need not occur immediately after the event, so long as the loss of coverage occurs before the end of the maximum coverage period (see Q&A-4 and Q&A-6 of § 54.4980B-7). However, if neither the covered employee nor the spouse or a dependent child of the covered employee loses coverage before the end of what would be the maximum coverage period, the event does not satisfy this paragraph (c). If coverage is reduced or eliminated in anticipation of an event (for example, an employer's eliminating an employee's coverage in anticipation of the termination of the employee's employment, or an employee's eliminating the coverage of the employee's spouse in anticipation of a divorce or legal separation), the reduction or elimination is disregarded in determining whether the event causes a loss of coverage.
(d) An event satisfies this paragraph (d) if it occurs while the plan is subject to COBRA. Thus, an event will not satisfy this paragraph (d) if it occurs while the plan is excepted from COBRA (see Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2). Even if the plan later becomes subject to COBRA, it is not required to make COBRA continuation coverage available to anyone whose coverage ends as a result of an event during a year in which the plan is excepted from COBRA. For example, if a group health plan is excepted from COBRA as a small-employer plan during the year 2001 (see Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2) and an employee terminates employment on December 31, 2001, the termination is not a qualifying event and the plan is not required to permit the employee to elect COBRA continuation coverage. This is the case even if the plan ceases to be a small-employer plan as of January 1, 2002. Also, the same result will follow even if the employee is given three months of coverage beyond December 31 (that is, through March of 2002), because there will be no qualifying event as of the termination of coverage in March. However, if the employee's spouse is initially provided with the three-month coverage through March 2002, but the spouse divorces the employee before the end of the three months and loses coverage as a result of the divorce, the divorce will constitute a qualifying event during 2002 and so entitle the spouse to elect COBRA continuation coverage. See Q&A-7 of § 54.4980B-7 regarding the maximum coverage period in such a case.
(e) A reduction of hours of a covered employee's employment occurs whenever there is a decrease in the hours that a covered employee is required to work or actually works, but only if the decrease is not accompanied by an immediate termination of employment. This is true regardless of whether the covered employee continues to perform services following the reduction of hours of employment. For example, an absence from work due to disability, a temporary layoff, or any other reason (other than due to leave that is FMLA leave; see § 54.4980B-10) is a reduction of hours of a covered employee's employment if there is not an immediate termination of employment. If a group health plan measures eligibility for the coverage of employees by the number of hours worked in a given time period, such as the preceding month or quarter, and an employee covered under the plan fails to work the minimum number of hours during that time period, the failure to work the minimum number of required hours is a reduction of hours of that covered employee's employment.
(f) The qualifying event of a qualified beneficiary who is a child born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage is the qualifying event giving rise to the period of COBRA continuation coverage during which the child is born or placed for adoption. If a second qualifying event has occurred before the child is born or placed for adoption (such as the death of the covered employee), then the second qualifying event also applies to the newborn or adopted child. See Q&A-6 of § 54.4980B-7.
(g) The rules of this Q&A-1 are illustrated by the following examples, in each of which the group health plan is subject to COBRA:
(ii) The loss of coverage at the end of the three months results from the termination of employment and, thus, the termination of employment is a qualifying event.
(ii) The increase in the premium or contribution required for coverage is a loss of coverage under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1 and, thus, the retirement is a qualifying event.
(ii) The requirement for the spouse to pay a higher premium at the end of the six months is a loss of coverage under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1. Thus, the retirement is a qualifying event and the spouse must be given an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage.
(ii) G 's death is not a qualifying event because G is not a covered employee.
(ii) The elimination of retiree coverage under these circumstances is a deferred loss of coverage for those retirees (and their spouses and dependent children) under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1 and, thus, the retirement is a qualifying event. The plan must make COBRA continuation coverage available to them for the balance of the maximum coverage period that applies to them in connection with the retirement.
Q-2: Are the facts surrounding a termination of employment (such as whether it was voluntary or involuntary) relevant in determining whether the termination of employment is a qualifying event?
A-2: Apart from facts constituting gross misconduct, the facts surrounding the termination or reduction of hours are irrelevant in determining whether a qualifying event has occurred. Thus, it does not matter whether the employee voluntarily terminated or was discharged. For example, a strike or a lockout is a termination or reduction of hours that constitutes a qualifying event if the strike or lockout results in a loss of coverage as described in paragraph (c) of Q&A-1 of this section. Similarly, a layoff that results in such a loss of coverage is a qualifying event.