Title 17—Commodity and Securities Exchanges--Volume 1
PART 270—RULES AND REGULATIONS, INVESTMENT COMPANY ACT OF 1940
§ 270.17a-8   Mergers of affiliated companies.
(a) Exemption of affiliated mergers. A Merger of a registered investment company (or a series thereof) and one or more other registered investment companies (or series thereof) or Eligible Unregistered Funds is exempt from sections 17(a)(1) and (2) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(a)(1)-(2)) if:
(1) Surviving company. The Surviving Company is a registered investment company (or a series thereof).
(2) Board determinations. As to any registered investment company (or series thereof) participating in the Merger (“Merging Company”):
(i) The board of directors, including a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the Merging Company or of any other company or series participating in the Merger, determines that:
(A) Participation in the Merger is in the best interests of the Merging Company; and
(B) The interests of the Merging Company's existing shareholders will not be diluted as a result of the Merger.
For a discussion of factors that may be relevant to the determinations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, see Investment Company Act Release No. 25666, July 18, 2002.
(ii) The directors have requested and evaluated such information as may reasonably be necessary to their determinations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, and have considered and given appropriate weight to all pertinent factors.
(iii) The directors, in making the determination in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section, have approved procedures for the valuation of assets to be conveyed by each Eligible Unregistered Fund participating in the Merger. The approved procedures provide for the preparation of a report by an Independent Evaluator, to be considered in assessing the value of any securities (or other assets) for which market quotations are not readily available, that sets forth the fair value of each such asset as of the date of the Merger.
(iv) The determinations required in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the bases thereof, including the factors considered by the directors pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, are recorded fully in the minute books of the Merging Company.
(3) Shareholder approval. Participation in the Merger is approved by the vote of a majority of the outstanding voting securities (as provided in section 2(a)(42) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(42))) of any Merging Company that is not a Surviving Company, unless—
(i) No policy of the Merging Company that under section 13 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-13) could not be changed without a vote of a majority of its outstanding voting securities, is materially different from a policy of the Surviving Company;
(ii) No advisory contract between the Merging Company and any investment adviser thereof is materially different from an advisory contract between the Surviving Company and any investment adviser thereof, except for the identity of the investment companies as a party to the contract;
(iii) Directors of the Merging Company who are not interested persons of the Merging Company and who were elected by its shareholders, will comprise a majority of the directors of the Surviving Company who are not interested persons of the Surviving Company; and
(iv) Any distribution fees (as a percentage of the fund's average net assets) authorized to be paid by the Surviving Company pursuant to a plan adopted in accordance with § 270.12b-1 are no greater than the distribution fees (as a percentage of the fund's average net assets) authorized to be paid by the Merging Company pursuant to such a plan.
(4) Board composition. The board of directors of the Merging Company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7).
(5) Merger records. Any Surviving Company preserves written records that describe the Merger and its terms for six years after the Merger (and for the first two years in an easily accessible place).
(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Merger means the merger, consolidation, or purchase or sale of substantially all of the assets between a registered investment company (or a series thereof) and another company;
(2) Eligible Unregistered Fund means:
(i) A collective trust fund, as described in section 3(c)(11) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(11));
(ii) A common trust fund or similar fund, as described in section 3(c)(3) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(3)); or
(iii) A separate account, as described in section 2(a)(37) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(37)), that is neither registered under section 8 of the Act, nor required to be so registered;
(3) Independent Evaluator means a person who has expertise in the valuation of securities and other financial assets and who is not an interested person, as defined in section 2(a)(19) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(19)), of the Eligible Unregistered Fund or any affiliate thereof except the Merging Company; and
(4) Surviving Company means a company in which shareholders of a Merging Company will obtain an interest as a result of a Merger.
§ 270.17a-9   Purchase of certain securities from a money market fund by an affiliate, or an affiliate of an affiliate.
The purchase of a security from the portfolio of an open-end investment company holding itself out as a money market fund by any affiliated person or promoter of or principal underwriter for the money market fund or any affiliated person of such person shall be exempt from section 17(a) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(a)); provided that:
(a) In the case of a portfolio security that has ceased to be an Eligible Security (as defined in § 270.2a-7(a)(12)), or has defaulted (other than an immaterial default unrelated to the financial condition of the issuer):
(1) The purchase price is paid in cash; and
(2) The purchase price is equal to the greater of the amortized cost of the security or its market price (in each case, including accrued interest).
(b) In the case of any other portfolio security:
(1) The purchase price meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section; and
(2) In the event that the purchaser thereafter sells the security for a higher price than the purchase price paid to the money market fund, the purchaser shall promptly pay to the fund the amount by which the subsequent sale price exceeds the purchase price paid to the fund.
§ 270.17a-10   Exemption for transactions with certain subadvisory affiliates.
(a) Exemption. A person that is prohibited by section 17(a) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(a)) from entering into a transaction with a fund solely because such person is, or is an affiliated person of, a subadviser of the fund, or a subadviser of a fund that is under common control with the fund, may nonetheless enter into such transaction, if:
(1) Prohibited relationship. The person is not, and is not an affiliated person of, an investment adviser responsible for providing advice with respect to the portion of the fund for which the transaction is entered into, or of any promoter, underwriter, officer, director, member of an advisory board, or employee of the fund.
(2) Prohibited conduct. The advisory contracts of the subadviser that is (or whose affiliated person is) entering into the transaction, and any subadviser that is advising the fund (or portion of the fund) entering into the transaction:
(i) Prohibit them from consulting with each other concerning transactions for the fund in securities or other assets; and
(ii) If both such subadvisers are responsible for providing investment advice to the fund, limit the subadvisers' responsibility in providing advice with respect to a discrete portion of the fund's portfolio.
(b) Definitions. (1) Fund means a registered investment company and includes a separate series of a registered investment company.
(2) Subadviser means an investment adviser as defined in section 2(a)(20)(B) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(20)(B)).
§ 270.17d-1   Applications regarding joint enterprises or arrangements and certain profit-sharing plans.
(a) No affiliated person of or principal underwriter for any registered investment company (other than a company of the character described in section 12(d)(3) (A) and (B) of the Act) and no affiliated person of such a person or principal underwriter, acting as principal, shall participate in, or effect any transaction in connection with, any joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan in which any such registered company, or a company controlled by such registered company, is a participant, and which is entered into, adopted or modified subsequent to the effective date of this rule, unless an application regarding such joint enterprise, arrangement or profit-sharing plan has been filed with the Commission and has been granted by an order entered prior to the submission of such plan or modification to security holders for approval, or prior to such adoption or modification if not so submitted, except that the provisions of this rule shall not preclude any affiliated person from acting as manager of any underwriting syndicate or other group in which such registered or controlled company is a participant and receiving compensation therefor.
(b) In passing upon such applications, the Commission will consider whether the participation of such registered or controlled company in such joint enterprise, joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan on the basis proposed is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
(c) “Joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan” as used in this section shall mean any written or oral plan, contract, authorization or arrangement, or any practice or understanding concerning an enterprise or undertaking whereby a registered investment company or a controlled company thereof and any affiliated person of or a principal underwriter for such registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person or principal underwriter, have a joint or a joint and several participation, or share in the profits of such enterprise or undertaking, including, but not limited to, any stock option or stock purchase plan, but shall not include an investment advisory contract subject to section 15 of the Act.
(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, no application need be filed pursuant to this section with respect to any of the following:
(1) Any profit-sharing, stock option or stock purchase plan provided by any controlled company which is not an investment company for its officers, directors or employees, or the purchase of stock or the granting, modification or exercise of options pursuant to such a plan, provided:
(i) No individual participates therein who is either:
( a ) An affiliated person of any investment company which is an affiliated person of such controlled company; or
( b ) An affiliated person of the investment adviser or principal underwriter of such investment company; and
(ii) No participant has been an affiliated person of such investment company, its investment adviser or principal underwriter during the life of the plan and for six months prior to, as the case may be:
( a ) Institution of the profit-sharing plan;
( b ) The purchase of stock pursuant to a stock purchase plan; or
( c ) The granting of any options pursuant to a stock option plan.
(2) Any plan provided by any registered investment company or any controlled company for its officers or employees if such plan has been qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 and all contributions paid under said plan by the employer qualify as deductible under section 404 of said Code.
(3) Any loan or advance of credit to, or acquisition of securities or other property of, a small business concern, or any agreement to do any of the foregoing (“Investments”), made by a bank and a small business investment company (SBIC) licensed under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, whether such transactions are contemporaneous or separated in time, where the bank is an affiliated person of either (i) the SBIC or (ii) an affiliated person of the SBIC; but reports containing pertinent details as to Investments and transactions relating thereto shall be made at such time, on such forms and by such persons as the Commission may from time to time prescribe.
(4) The issuance by a registered investment company which is licensed by the Small Business Administration pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 of stock options which qualify under section 422 of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, and which conform to § 107.805(b) of Chapter I of Title 13 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(5) Any joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan (“joint enterprise”) in which a registered investment company or a company controlled by such a company, is a participant, and in which a portfolio affiliate (as defined in § 270.17a-6(b)(3)) of such registered investment company is also a participant, provided that:
(i) None of the persons identified in § 270.17a-6(a) is a participant in the joint enterprise, or has a direct or indirect financial interest in a participant in the joint enterprise (other than the registered investment company);
(ii) Financial interest. (A) The term financial interest as used in this section does not include:
( 1 ) Any interest through ownership of securities issued by the registered investment company;
( 2 ) Any interest of a wholly owned subsidiary of the registered investment company;
( 3 ) Usual and ordinary fees for services as a director;
( 4 ) An interest of a non-executive employee;
( 5 ) An interest of an insurance company arising from a loan or policy made or issued by it in the ordinary course of business to a natural person;
( 6 ) An interest of a bank arising from a loan to a person who is an officer, director, or executive of a company which is a participant in the joint transaction or from a loan to a person who directly or indirectly owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, five percent or more of the outstanding voting securities of a company which is a participant in the joint transaction;
( 7 ) An interest acquired in a transaction described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section; or
( 8 ) Any other interest that the board of directors of the investment company, including a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the investment company, finds to be not material, provided that the directors record the basis for that finding in the minutes of their meeting.
(B) A person has a financial interest in any party in which it has a financial interest, in which it had a financial interest within six months prior to the investment company's participation in the enterprise, or in which it will acquire a financial interest pursuant to an arrangement in existence at the time of the investment company's participation in the enterprise.
(6) The receipt of securities and/or cash by an investment company or a controlled company thereof and an affiliated person of such investment company or an affiliated person of such person pursuant to a plan of reorganization: Provided, That no person identified in § 270.17a-6(a)(1) or any company in which such a person has a direct or indirect financial interest (as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section):
(i) Has a direct or indirect financial interest in the corporation under reorganization, except owning securities of each class or classes owned by such investment company or controlled company;
(ii) Receives pursuant to such plan any securities or other property, except securities of the same class and subject to the same terms as the securities received by such investment company or controlled company, and/or cash in the same proportion as is received by the investment company or controlled company based on securities of the company under reorganization owned by such persons; and
(iii) Is, or has a direct or indirect financial interest in any person (other than such investment company or controlled company) who is:
(A) Purchasing assets from the company under reorganization; or
(B) Exchanging shares with such person in a transaction not in compliance with the standards described in this paragraph (d)(6).
(7) Any arrangement regarding liability insurance policies (other than a bond required pursuant to rule 17g-1 (§ 270.17g-1) under the Act); Provided, That
(i) The investment company's participation in the joint liability insurance policy is in the best interests of the investment company;
(ii) The proposed premium for the joint liability insurance policy to be allocated to the investment company, based upon its proportionate share of the sum of the premiums that would have been paid if such insurance coverage were purchased separately by the insured parties, is fair and reasonable to the investment company;
(iii) The joint liability insurance policy does not exclude coverage for bona fide claims made against any director who is not an interested person of the investment company, or against the investment company if it is a co-defendant in the claim with the disinterested director, by another person insured under the joint liability insurance policy;
(iv) The board of directors of the investment company, including a majority of the directors who are not interested persons with respect thereto, determine no less frequently than annually that the standards described in paragraphs (d)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section have been satisfied; and
(v) The board of directors of the investment company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7).
(8) An investment adviser's bearing expenses in connection with a merger, consolidation or purchase or sale of substantially all of the assets of a company which involves a registered investment company of which it is an affiliated person.
§ 270.17d-2   Form for report by small business investment company and affiliated bank.
Form N-17D-1 is hereby prescribed as the form for reports required by paragraph (d)(3) of § 270.17d-1.
§ 270.17d-3   Exemption relating to certain joint enterprises or arrangements concerning payment for distribution of shares of a registered open-end management investment company.
An affiliated person of, or principal underwriter for, a registered open-end management investment company and an affiliated person of such a person or principal underwriter shall be exempt from section 17(d) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(d)) and rule 17d-1 thereunder (17 CFR 270.17d-1), to the extent necessary to permit any such person or principal underwriter to enter into a written agreement with such company whereby the company will make payments in connection with the distribution of its shares, Provided, That:
(a) Such agreement is made in compliance with the provisions of § 270.12b-1; and
(b) No other registered management investment company which is either an affiliated person of such company or an affiliated person of such a person is a party to such agreement.
§ 270.17e-1   Brokerage transactions on a securities exchange.
For purposes of section 17(e)(2)(A) of the Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-17(e)(2)(A)], a commission, fee or other remuneration shall be deemed as not exceeding the usual and customary broker's commission, if:
(a) The commission, fee, or other remuneration received or to be received is reasonable and fair compared to the commission, fee or other remuneration received by other brokers in connection with comparable transactions involving similar securities being purchased or sold on a securities exchange during a comparable period of time;
(b) The board of directors, including a majority of the directors of the investment company who are not interested persons thereof:
(1) Has adopted procedures which are reasonably designed to provide that such commission, fee, or other remuneration is consistent with the standard described in paragraph (a) of this section;
(2) Makes and approves such changes as the board deems necessary; and
(3) Determines no less frequently than quarterly that all transactions effected pursuant to this section during the preceding quarter (other than transactions in which the person acting as broker is a person permitted to enter into a transaction with the investment company by § 270.17a-10) were effected in compliance with such procedures;
(c) The board of directors of the investment company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7); and
(d) The investment company:
(1) Shall maintain and preserve permanently in an easily accessible place a copy of the procedures (and any modification thereto) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
(2) Shall maintain and preserve for a period not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any transactions occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, a record of each such transaction (other than any transaction in which the person acting as broker is a person permitted to enter into a transaction with the investment company by § 270.17a-10) setting forth the amount and source of the commission, fee or other remuneration received or to be received, the identity of the person acting as broker, the terms of the transaction, and the information or materials upon which the findings described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section were made.
§ 270.17f-1   Custody of securities with members of national securities exchanges.
(a) No registered management investment company shall place or maintain any of its securities or similar investments in the custody of a company which is a member of a national securities exchange as defined in the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (whether or not such company trades in securities for its own account) except pursuant to a written contract which shall have been approved, or if executed before January 1, 1941, shall have been ratified not later than that date, by a majority of the board of directors of such investment company.
(b) The contract shall require, and the securities and investments shall be maintained in accordance with the following:
(1) The securities and similar investments held in such custody shall at all times be individually segregated from the securities and investments of any other person and marked in such manner as to clearly identify them as the property of such registered management company, both upon physical inspection thereof and upon examination of the books of the custodian. The physical segregation and marking of such securities and investments may be accomplished by putting them in separate containers bearing the name of such registered management investment company or by attaching tags or labels to such securities and investments.
(2) The custodian shall have no power or authority to assign, hypothecate, pledge or otherwise to dispose of any such securities and investments, except pursuant to the direction of such registered management company and only for the account of such registered investment company.
(3) Such securities and investments shall be subject to no lien or charge of any kind in favor of the custodian or any persons claiming through the custodian.
(4) Such securities and investments shall be verified by actual examination at the end of each annual and semi-annual fiscal period by an independent public accountant retained by the investment company, and shall be examined by such accountant at least one other time, chosen by the accountant, during each fiscal year. A certificate of such accountant stating that an examination of such securities has been made, and describing the nature and extent of the examination, shall be attached to a completed Form N-17f-1 (17 CFR 274.219) and transmitted to the Commission promptly after each examination.
(5) Such securities and investments shall, at all times, be subject to inspection by the Commission through its employees or agents.
(6) The provisions of paragraphs (b) (1), (2) and (3) of this section shall not apply to securities and similar investments bought for or sold to such investment company by the company which is custodian until the securities have been reduced to the physical possession of the custodian and have been paid for by such investment company: Provided, That the company which is custodian shall take possession of such securities at the earliest practicable time. Nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed to relieve any company which is a member of a national securities exchange of any obligation under existing law or under the rules of any national securities exchange.
(c) A copy of any contract executed or ratified pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be transmitted to the Commission promptly after execution or ratification unless it has been previously transmitted.
(d) Any contract executed or ratified pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be ratified by the board of directors of the registered management investment company at least annually thereafter.
§ 270.17f-2   Custody of investments by registered management investment company.
(a) The securities and similar investments of a registered management investment company may be maintained in the custody of such company only in accordance with the provisions of this section. Investments maintained by such a company with a bank or other company whose functions and physical facilities are supervised by Federal or State authority under any arrangement whereunder the directors, officers, employees or agents of such company are authorized or permitted to withdraw such investments upon their mere receipt, are deemed to be in the custody of such company and may be so maintained only upon compliance with the provisions of this section.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, all such securities and similar investments shall be deposited in the safekeeping of, or in a vault or other depository maintained by, a bank or other company whose functions and physical facilities are supervised by Federal or State authority. Investments so deposited shall be physically segregated at all times from those of any other person and shall be withdrawn only in connection with transactions of the character described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) The first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to securities on loan which are collateralized to the extent of their full market value, or to securities hypothecated, pledged, or placed in escrow for the account of such investment company in connection with a loan or other transaction authorized by specific resolution of its board of directors, or to securities in transit in connection with the sale, exchange, redemption, maturity or conversion, the exercise of warrants or rights, assents to changes in terms of the securities, or other transactions necessary or appropriate in the ordinary course of business relating to the management of securities.
(d) Except as otherwise provided by law, no person shall be authorized or permitted to have access to the securities and similar investments deposited in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section except pursuant to a resolution of the board of directors of such investment company. Each such resolution shall designate not more than five persons who shall be either officers or responsible employees of such company and shall provide that access to such investments shall be had only by two or more such persons jointly, at least one of whom shall be an officer; except that access to such investments shall be permitted (1) to properly authorized officers and employees of the bank or other company in whose safekeeping the investments are placed and (2) for the purpose of paragraph (f) of this section to the independent public accountant jointly with any two persons so designated or with such officer or employee of such bank or such other company. Such investments shall at all times be subject to inspection by the Commission through its authorized employees or agents accompanied, unless otherwise directed by order of the Commission, by one or more of the persons designated pursuant to this paragraph.
(e) Each person when depositing such securities or similar investments in or withdrawing them from the depository or when ordering their withdrawal and delivery from the safekeeping of the bank or other company, shall sign a notation in respect of such deposit, withdrawal or order which shall show (1) the date and time of the deposit, withdrawal or order, (2) the title and amount of the securities or other investments deposited, withdrawn or ordered to be withdrawn, and an identification thereof by certificate numbers or otherwise, (3) the manner of acquisition of the securities or similar investments deposited or the purpose for which they have been withdrawn, or ordered to be withdrawn, and (4) if withdrawn and delivered to another person the name of such person. Such notation shall be transmitted promptly to an officer or director of the investment company designated by its board of directors who shall not be a person designated for the purpose of paragraph (d) of this section. Such notation shall be on serially numbered forms and shall be preserved for at least one year.
(f) Such securities and similar investments shall be verified by actual examination by an independent public accountant retained by the investment company at least three times during each fiscal year, at least two of which shall be chosen by such accountant without prior notice to such company. A certificate of such accountant stating that an examination of such securities and investments has been made, and describing the nature and extent of the examination, shall be attached to a completed Form N-17f-2 (17 CFR 274.220) and transmitted to the Commission promptly after each examination.
§ 270.17f-3   Free cash accounts for investment companies with bank custodians.
No registered investment company having a bank custodian shall hold free cash except, upon resolution of its board or directors, a petty cash account may be maintained in an amount not to exceed $500: Provided, That such account is operated under the imprest system and is maintained subject to adequate controls approved by the board of directors over disbursements and reimbursements including, but not limited to fidelity bond coverage of persons having access to such funds.
§ 270.17f-4   Custody of investment company assets with a securities depository.
(a) Custody arrangement with a securities depository. A fund's custodian may place and maintain financial assets, corresponding to the fund's security entitlements, with a securities depository or intermediary custodian, if the custodian:
(1) Is at a minimum obligated to exercise due care in accordance with reasonable commercial standards in discharging its duty as a securities intermediary to obtain and thereafter maintain such financial assets;
(2) Is required to provide, promptly upon request by the fund, such reports as are available concerning the internal accounting controls and financial strength of the custodian; and
(3) Requires any intermediary custodian at a minimum to exercise due care in accordance with reasonable commercial standards in discharging its duty as a securities intermediary to obtain and thereafter maintain financial assets corresponding to the security entitlements of its entitlement holders.
(b) Direct dealings with securities depository. A fund may place and maintain financial assets, corresponding to the fund's security entitlements, directly with a securities depository, if:
(1) The fund's contract with the securities depository or the securities depository's written rules for its participants:
(i) Obligate the securities depository at a minimum to exercise due care in accordance with reasonable commercial standards in discharging its duty as a securities intermediary to obtain and thereafter maintain financial assets corresponding to the fund's security entitlements; and
(ii) Requires the securities depository to provide, promptly upon request by the fund, such reports as are available concerning the internal accounting controls and financial strength of the securities depository; and
(2) The fund has implemented internal control systems reasonably designed to prevent unauthorized officer's instructions (by providing at least for the form, content and means of giving, recording and reviewing all officer's instructions).
(c) Definitions. For purposes of this section the terms:
(1) Clearing corporation, financial asset, securities intermediary, and security entitlement have the same meanings as is attributed to those terms in § 8-102, § 8-103, and §§ 8-501 through 8-511 of the Uniform Commercial Code, 2002 Official Text and Comments, which are incorporated by reference in this section pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The Director of the Federal Register has approved this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy of the Uniform Commercial Code from the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, 211 East Ontario Street, Suite 1300, Chicago, Il 60611. You may inspect a copy at the following addresses: Louis Loss Library, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.
(2) Custodian means a bank or other person authorized to hold assets for the fund under section 17(f) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(f)) or Commission rules in this chapter, but does not include a fund itself, a foreign custodian whose use is governed by § 270.17f-5 or § 270.17f-7, or a vault, safe deposit box, or other repository for safekeeping maintained by a bank or other company whose functions and physical facilities are supervised by a federal or state authority if the fund maintains its own assets there in accordance with § 270.17f-2.
(3) Fund means an investment company registered under the Act and, where the context so requires with respect to a fund that is a unit investment trust or a face-amount certificate company, includes the fund's trustee.
(4) Intermediary custodian means any subcustodian that is a securities intermediary and is qualified to act as a custodian.
(5) Officer's instruction means a request or direction to a securities depository or its operator, or to a registered transfer agent, in the name of the fund by one or more persons authorized by the fund's board of directors (or by the fund's trustee, if the fund is a unit investment trust or a face-amount certificate company) to give the request or direction.
(6) Securities depository means a clearing corporation that is:
(i) Registered with the Commission as a clearing agency under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1); or
(ii) A Federal Reserve Bank or other person authorized to operate the federal book entry system described in the regulations of the Department of Treasury codified at 31 CFR 357, Subpart B, or book-entry systems operated pursuant to comparable regulations of other federal agencies.
§ 270.17f-5   Custody of investment company assets outside the United States.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Eligible Foreign Custodian means an entity that is incorporated or organized under the laws of a country other than the United States and that is a Qualified Foreign Bank or a majority-owned direct or indirect subsidiary of a U.S. Bank or bank-holding company.
(2) Foreign Assets means any investments (including foreign currencies) for which the primary market is outside the United States, and any cash and cash equivalents that are reasonably necessary to effect the Fund's transactions in those investments.
(3) Foreign Custody Manager means a Fund's or a Registered Canadian Fund's board of directors or any person serving as the board's delegate under paragraphs (b) or (d) of this section.
(4) Fund means a management investment company registered under the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a) and incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or of a state.
(5) Qualified Foreign Bank means a banking institution or trust company, incorporated or organized under the laws of a country other than the United States, that is regulated as such by the country's government or an agency of the country's government.
(6) Registered Canadian Fund means a management investment company incorporated or organized under the laws of Canada and registered under the Act pursuant to the conditions of § 270.7d-1.
(7) U.S. Bank means an entity that is:
(i) A banking institution organized under the laws of the United States;
(ii) A member bank of the Federal Reserve System;
(iii) Any other banking institution or trust company organized under the laws of any state or of the United States, whether incorporated or not, doing business under the laws of any state or of the United States, a substantial portion of the business of which consists of receiving deposits or exercising fiduciary powers similar to those permitted to national banks under the authority of the Comptroller of the Currency, and which is supervised and examined by state or federal authority having supervision over banks, and which is not operated for the purpose of evading the provisions of this section; or
(iv) A receiver, conservator, or other liquidating agent of any institution or firm included in paragraphs (a)(7)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
(b) Delegation. A Fund's board of directors may delegate to the Fund's investment adviser or officers or to a U.S. Bank or to a Qualified Foreign Bank the responsibilities set forth in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), or (c)(3) of this section, provided that:
(1) Reasonable Reliance. The board determines that it is reasonable to rely on the delegate to perform the delegated responsibilities;
(2) Reporting. The board requires the delegate to provide written reports notifying the board of the placement of Foreign Assets with a particular custodian and of any material change in the Fund's foreign custody arrangements, with the reports to be provided to the board at such times as the board deems reasonable and appropriate based on the circumstances of the Fund's arrangements; and
(3) Exercise of Care. The delegate agrees to exercise reasonable care, prudence and diligence such as a person having responsibility for the safekeeping of the Fund's Foreign Assets would exercise, or to adhere to a higher standard of care, in performing the delegated responsibilities.
(c) Maintaining Assets with an Eligible Foreign Custodian. A Fund or its Foreign Custody Manager may place and maintain the Fund's Foreign Assets in the care of an Eligible Foreign Custodian, provided that:
(1) General Standard. The Foreign Custody Manager determines that the Foreign Assets will be subject to reasonable care, based on the standards applicable to custodians in the relevant market, if maintained with the Eligible Foreign Custodian, after considering all factors relevant to the safekeeping of the Foreign Assets, including, without limitation:
(i) The Eligible Foreign Custodian's practices, procedures, and internal controls, including, but not limited to, the physical protections available for certificated securities (if applicable), the method of keeping custodial records, and the security and data protection practices;
(ii) Whether the Eligible Foreign Custodian has the requisite financial strength to provide reasonable care for Foreign Assets;
(iii) The Eligible Foreign Custodian's general reputation and standing; and
(iv) Whether the Fund will have jurisdiction over and be able to enforce judgments against the Eligible Foreign Custodian, such as by virtue of the existence of offices in the United States or consent to service of process in the United States.
(2) Contract. The arrangement with the Eligible Foreign Custodian is governed by a written contract that the Foreign Custody Manager has determined will provide reasonable care for Foreign Assets based on the standards specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(i) The contract must provide:
(A) For indemnification or insurance arrangements (or any combination) that will adequately protect the Fund against the risk of loss of Foreign Assets held in accordance with the contract;
(B) That the Foreign Assets will not be subject to any right, charge, security interest, lien or claim of any kind in favor of the Eligible Foreign Custodian or its creditors, except a claim of payment for their safe custody or administration or, in the case of cash deposits, liens or rights in favor of creditors of the custodian arising under bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar laws;
(C) That beneficial ownership of the Foreign Assets will be freely transferable without the payment of money or value other than for safe custody or administration;
(D) That adequate records will be maintained identifying the Foreign Assets as belonging to the Fund or as being held by a third party for the benefit of the Fund;
(E) That the Fund's independent public accountants will be given access to those records or confirmation of the contents of those records; and
(F) That the Fund will receive periodic reports with respect to the safekeeping of the Foreign Assets, including, but not limited to, notification of any transfer to or from the Fund's account or a third party account containing assets held for the benefit of the Fund.
(ii) The contract may contain, in lieu of any or all of the provisions specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, other provisions that the Foreign Custody Manager determines will provide, in their entirety, the same or a greater level of care and protection for the Foreign Assets as the specified provisions, in their entirety.
(3)(i) Monitoring the Foreign Custody Arrangements. The Foreign Custody Manager has established a system to monitor the appropriateness of maintaining the Foreign Assets with a particular custodian under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and to monitor performance of the contract under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(ii) If an arrangement with an Eligible Foreign Custodian no longer meets the requirements of this section, the Fund must withdraw the Foreign Assets from the Eligible Foreign Custodian as soon as reasonably practicable.
(d) Registered Canadian Funds. Any Registered Canadian Fund may place and maintain its Foreign Assets outside the United States in accordance with the requirements of this section, provided
(1) The Foreign Assets are placed in the care of an overseas branch of a U.S. Bank that has aggregate capital, surplus, and undivided profits of a specified amount, which must not be less than $500,000; and
(2) The Foreign Custody Manager is the Fund's board of directors, its investment adviser or officers, or a U.S. Bank.
When a Fund's (or its custodian's) custody arrangement with an Eligible Securities Depository (as defined in § 270.17f-7) involves one or more Eligible Foreign Custodians through which assets are maintained with the Eligible Securities Depository, § 270.17f-5 will govern the Fund's (or its custodian's) use of each Eligible Foreign Custodian, while § 270.17f-7 will govern an Eligible Foreign Custodian's use of the Eligible Securities Depository.
§ 270.17f-6   Custody of investment company assets with Futures Commission Merchants and Commodity Clearing Organizations.
(a) A Fund may place and maintain cash, securities, and similar investments with a Futures Commission Merchant in amounts necessary to effect the Fund's transactions in Exchange-Traded Futures Contracts and Commodity Options, Provided that:
(1) The manner in which the Futures Commission Merchant maintains the Fund's assets shall be governed by a written contract, which provides that:
(i) The Futures Commission Merchant shall comply with the segregation requirements of section 4d(2) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6d(2)) and the rules thereunder (17 CFR Chapter I) or, if applicable, the secured amount requirements of rule 30.7 under the Commodity Exchange Act (17 CFR 30.7);
(ii) The Futures Commission Merchant, as appropriate to the Fund's transactions and in accordance with the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 through 25) and the rules and regulations thereunder (including 17 CFR part 30), may place and maintain the Fund's assets to effect the Fund's transactions with another Futures Commission Merchant, a Clearing Organization, a U.S. or Foreign Bank, or a member of a foreign board of trade, and shall obtain an acknowledgment, as required under rules 1.20(a) or 30.7(c) under the Commodity Exchange Act [17 CFR 1.20(a) or 30.7(c)], as applicable, that such assets are held on behalf of the Futures Commission Merchant's customers in accordance with the provisions of the Commodity Exchange Act; and
(iii) The Futures Commission Merchant shall promptly furnish copies of or extracts from the Futures Commission Merchant's records or such other information pertaining to the Fund's assets as the Commission through its employees or agents may request.
(2) Any gains on the Fund's transactions, other than de minimis amounts, may be maintained with the Futures Commission Merchant only until the next business day following receipt.
(3) If the custodial arrangement no longer meets the requirements of this section, the Fund shall withdraw its assets from the Futures Commission Merchant as soon as reasonably practicable.
(b) For purposes of this section:
(1) Clearing Organization means a clearing organization as defined in rule 1.3(d) under the Commodity Exchange Act (17 CFR 1.3(d)) and includes a clearing organization for a foreign board of trade.
(2) Exchange-Traded Futures Contracts and Commodity Options means commodity futures contracts, options on commodity futures contracts, and options on physical commodities traded on or subject to the rules of:
(i) Any contract market designated for trading such transactions under the Commodity Exchange Act and the rules thereunder; or
(ii) Any board of trade or exchange outside the United States, as contemplated in Part 30 under the Commodity Exchange Act.
(3) Fund means an investment company registered under the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq. ).
(4) Futures Commission Merchant means any person that is registered as a futures commission merchant under the Commodity Exchange Act and that is not an affiliated person of the Fund or an affiliated person of such person.
(5) U.S. or Foreign Bank means a bank, as defined in section 2(a)(5) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(5)), or a banking institution or trust company that is incorporated or organized under the laws of a country other than the United States and that is regulated as such by the country's government or an agency thereof.
§ 270.17f-7   Custody of investment company assets with a foreign securities depository.
(a) Custody arrangement with an eligible securities depository. A Fund, including a Registered Canadian Fund, may place and maintain its Foreign Assets with an Eligible Securities Depository, provided that:
(1) Risk-limiting safeguards. The custody arrangement provides reasonable safeguards against the custody risks associated with maintaining assets with the Eligible Securities Depository, including:
(i) Risk analysis and monitoring. (A) The fund or its investment adviser has received from the Primary Custodian (or its agent) an analysis of the custody risks associated with maintaining assets with the Eligible Securities Depository; and
(B) The contract between the Fund and the Primary Custodian requires the Primary Custodian (or its agent) to monitor the custody risks associated with maintaining assets with the Eligible Securities Depository on a continuing basis, and promptly notify the Fund or its investment adviser of any material change in these risks.
(ii) Exercise of care. The contract between the Fund and the Primary Custodian states that the Primary Custodian will agree to exercise reasonable care, prudence, and diligence in performing the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, or adhere to a higher standard of care.
(2) Withdrawal of assets from eligible securities depository. If a custody arrangement with an Eligible Securities Depository no longer meets the requirements of this section, the Fund's Foreign Assets must be withdrawn from the depository as soon as reasonably practicable.
(b) Definitions. The terms Foreign Assets, Fund, Qualified Foreign Bank, Registered Canadian Fund, and U.S. Bank have the same meanings as in § 270.17f-5. In addition:
(1) Eligible Securities Depository means a system for the central handling of securities as defined in § 270.17f-4 that:
(i) Acts as or operates a system for the central handling of securities or equivalent book-entries in the country where it is incorporated, or a transnational system for the central handling of securities or equivalent book-entries;
(ii) Is regulated by a foreign financial regulatory authority as defined under section 2(a)(50) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(50));
(iii) Holds assets for the custodian that participates in the system on behalf of the Fund under safekeeping conditions no less favorable than the conditions that apply to other participants;
(iv) Maintains records that identify the assets of each participant and segregate the system's own assets from the assets of participants;
(v) Provides periodic reports to its participants with respect to its safekeeping of assets, including notices of transfers to or from any participant's account; and
(vi) Is subject to periodic examination by regulatory authorities or independent accountants.
(2) Primary Custodian means a U.S. Bank or Qualified Foreign Bank that contracts directly with a Fund to provide custodial services related to maintaining the Fund's assets outside the United States.
When a Fund's (or its custodian's) custody arrangement with an Eligible Securities Depository involves one or more Eligible Foreign Custodians (as defined in § 270.17f-5) through which assets are maintained with the Eligible Securities Depository, § 270.17f-5 will govern the Fund's (or its custodian's) use of each Eligible Foreign Custodian, while § 270.17f-7 will govern an Eligible Foreign Custodian's use of the Eligible Securities Depository.
§ 270.17g-1   Bonding of officers and employees of registered management investment companies.
(a) Each registered management investment company shall provide and maintain a bond which shall be issued by a reputable fidelity insurance company, authorized to do business in the place where the bond is issued, against larceny and embezzlement, covering each officer and employee of the investment company, who may singly, or jointly with others, have access to securities or funds of the investment company, either directly or through authority to draw upon such funds or to direct generally the disposition of such securities, unless the officer or employee has such access solely through his position as an officer or employee of a bank (hereinafter referred to as “covered persons”).
(b) The bond may be in the form of (1) an individual bond for each covered person or a schedule or blanket bond covering such persons, (2) a blanket bond which names the registered management investment company as the only insured (hereinafter referred to as “single insured bond”) or (3) a bond which names the registered management investment company and one or more other parties as insureds (hereinafter referred to as a “joint insured bond”), such other insured parties being limited to (i) persons engaged in the management or distribution of the shares of the registered investment company, (ii) other registered investment companies which are managed and/or whose shares are distributed by the same persons (or affiliates of such persons), (iii) persons who are engaged in the management and/or distribution of shares of companies included in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, (iv) affiliated persons of any registered management investment company named in the bond or of any person included in paragraph (b)(3)(i) or (b)(3)(iii) of this section who are engaged in the administration of any registered management investment company named as insured in the bond, and (v) any trust, pension, profit-sharing or other benefit plan for officers, directors or employees of persons named in the bond.
(c) A bond of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section shall provide that it shall not be cancelled, terminated or modified except after written notice shall have been given by the acting party to the affected party and to the Commission not less than sixty days prior to the effective date of cancellation, termination or modification. A joint insured bond described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section shall provide, that (1) it shall not be cancelled terminated or modified except after written notice shall have been given by the acting party to the affected party, and by the fidelity insurance company to all registered investment companies named as insureds and to the Commission, not less than sixty days prior to the effective date of cancellation, termination, or modification and (2) the fidelity insurance company shall furnish each registered management investment company named as an insured with (i) a copy of the bond and any amendment thereto promptly after the execution thereof, (ii) a copy of each formal filing of a claim under the bond by any other named insured promptly after the receipt thereof, and (iii) notification of the terms of the settlement of each such claim prior to the execution of the settlement.
(d) The bond shall be in such reasonable form and amount as a majority of the board of directors of the registered management investment company who are not “interested persons” of such investment company as defined by section 2(a)(19) of the Act shall approve as often as their fiduciary duties require, but not less than once every twelve months, with due consideration to all relevant factors including, but not limited to, the value of the aggregate assets of the registered management investment company to which any covered person may have access, the type and terms of the arrangements made for the custody and safekeeping of such assets, and the nature of the securities in the company's portfolio: Provided, however, That (1) the amount of a single insured bond shall be at least equal to an amount computed in accordance with the following schedule:
(2) A joint insured bond shall be in an amount at least equal to the sum of (i) the total amount of coverage which each registered management investment company named as an insured would have been required to provide and maintain individually pursuant to the schedule hereinabove had each such registered management investment company not been named under a joint insured bond, plus (ii) the amount of each bond which each named insured other than a registered management investment company would have been required to provide and maintain pursuant to federal statutes or regulations had it not been named as an insured under a joint insured bond.
(e) No premium may be paid for any joint insured bond or any amendment thereto unless a majority of the board of directors of each registered management investment company named as an insured therein who are not “interested persons” of such company shall approve the portion of the premium to be paid by such company, taking all relevant factors into consideration including, but not limited to, the number of the other parties named as insured, the nature of the business activities of such other parties, the amount of the joint insured bond, and the amount of the premium for such bond, the ratable allocation of the premium among all parties named as insureds, and the extent to which the share of the premium allocated to the investment company is less than the premium such company would have had to pay if it had provided and maintained a single insured bond.
(f) Each registered management investment company named as an insured in a joint insured bond shall enter into an agreement with all of the other named insureds providing that in the event recovery is received under the bond as a result of a loss sustained by the registered management investment company and one or more other named insureds, the registered management investment company shall receive an equitable and proportionate share of the recovery, but at least equal to the amount which it would have received had it provided and maintained a single insured bond with the minimum coverage required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(g) Each registered management investment company shall:
(1) File with the Commission (i) within 10 days after receipt of an executed bond of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section or any amendment thereof, ( a ) a copy of the bond, ( b ) a copy of the resolution of a majority of the board of directors who are not “interested persons” of the registered management investment company approving the form and amount of the bond, and ( c ) a statement as to the period for which premiums have been paid; (ii) within 10 days after receipt of an executed joint insured bond, or any amendment thereof, ( a ) a copy of the bond, ( b ) a copy of the resolution of a majority of the board of directors who are not “interested persons” of the registered management investment company approving the amount, type, form and coverage of the bond and the portion of the premium to be paid by such company, ( c ) a statement showing the amount of the single insured bond which the investment company would have provided and maintained had it not been named as an insured under a joint insured bond, ( d ) a statement as to the period for which premiums have been paid, and ( e ) a copy of each agreement between the investment company and all of the other named insureds entered into pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section; and (iii) a copy of any amendment to the agreement entered into pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section within 10 days after the execution of such amendment,
(2) File with the Commission, in writing, within five days after the making of any claim under the bond by the investment company, a statement of the nature and amount of the claim,
(3) File with the Commission, within five days of the receipt thereof, a copy of the terms of the settlement of any claim made under the bond by the investment company, and
(4) Notify by registered mail each member of the board of directors of the investment company at his last known residence address of (i) any cancellation, termination or modification of the bond, not less than forty-five days prior to the effective date of the cancellation or termination or modification, (ii) the filing and of the settlement of any claim under the bond by the investment company, at the time the filings required by paragraph (g) (2) and (3) of this section are made with the Commission, and (iii) the filing and of the proposed terms of settlement of any claim under the bond by any other named insured, within five days of the receipt of a notice from the fidelity insurance company.
(h) Each registered management investment company shall designate an officer thereof who shall make the filings and give the notices required by paragraph (g) of this section.
(i) Where the registered management investment company is an unincorporated company managed by a depositor, trustee or investment adviser, the terms “officer” and “employee” shall include, for the purposes of this rule, the officers and employees of the depositor, trustee, or investment adviser.
(j) Any joint insured bond provided and maintained by a registered management investment company and one or more other parties shall be a transaction exempt from the provisions of section 17(d) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(d)) and the rules thereunder, if:
(1) The terms and provisions of the bond comply with the provisions of this section;
(2) The terms and provisions of any agreement required by paragraph (f) of this section comply with the provisions of that paragraph; and
(3) The board of directors of the investment company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7).
(k) At the next anniversary date of an existing fidelity bond, but not later than one year from the effective date of this rule, arrangements between registered management investment companies and fidelity insurance companies and arrangements between registered management investment companies and other parties named as insureds under joint insured bonds which would not permit compliance with the provisions of this rule shall be modified by the parties so as to effect such compliance.
§ 270.17j-1   Personal investment activities of investment company personnel.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Access person means:
(i) Any Advisory Person of a Fund or of a Fund's investment adviser. If an investment adviser's primary business is advising Funds or other advisory clients, all of the investment adviser's directors, officers, and general partners are presumed to be Access Persons of any Fund advised by the investment adviser. All of a Fund's directors, officers, and general partners are presumed to be Access Persons of the Fund.
(ii) Any director, officer or general partner of a principal underwriter who, in the ordinary course of business, makes, participates in or obtains information regarding, the purchase or sale of Covered Securities by the Fund for which the principal underwriter acts, or whose functions or duties in the ordinary course of business relate to the making of any recommendation to the Fund regarding the purchase or sale of Covered Securities.
(2) Advisory person of a Fund or of a Fund's investment adviser means:
(i) Any director, officer, general partner or employee of the Fund or investment adviser (or of any company in a control relationship to the Fund or investment adviser) who, in connection with his or her regular functions or duties, makes, participates in, or obtains information regarding, the purchase or sale of Covered Securities by a Fund, or whose functions relate to the making of any recommendations with respect to such purchases or sales; and
(ii) Any natural person in a control relationship to the Fund or investment adviser who obtains information concerning recommendations made to the Fund with regard to the purchase or sale of Covered Securities by the Fund.
(3) Control has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(9) of the Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(9)].
(4) Covered security means a security as defined in section 2(a)(36) of the Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(36)], except that it does not include:
(i) Direct obligations of the Government of the United States;
(ii) Bankers' acceptances, bank certificates of deposit, commercial paper and high quality short-term debt instruments, including repurchase agreements; and
(iii) Shares issued by open-end Funds.
(5) Fund means an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act.
(6) An Initial public offering means an offering of securities registered under the Securities Act of 1933 [15 U.S.C. 77a], the issuer of which, immediately before the registration, was not subject to the reporting requirements of sections 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 [15 U.S.C. 78m or 78o(d)].
(7) Investment personnel of a Fund or of a Fund's investment adviser means:
(i) Any employee of the Fund or investment adviser (or of any company in a control relationship to the Fund or investment adviser) who, in connection with his or her regular functions or duties, makes or participates in making recommendations regarding the purchase or sale of securities by the Fund.
(ii) Any natural person who controls the Fund or investment adviser and who obtains information concerning recommendations made to the Fund regarding the purchase or sale of securities by the Fund.
(8) A Limited offering means an offering that is exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to section 4(a)(2) or section 4(a)(5) [15 U.S.C. 77d(a)(2) or 77d(a)(5)] or pursuant to rule 504, or rule 506 [17 CFR 230.504 or 230.506] under the Securities Act of 1933.
(9) Purchase or sale of a covered security includes, among other things, the writing of an option to purchase or sell a Covered Security.
(10) Security held or to be acquired by a Fund means:
(i) Any Covered Security which, within the most recent 15 days:
(A) Is or has been held by the Fund; or
(B) Is being or has been considered by the Fund or its investment adviser for purchase by the Fund; and
(ii) Any option to purchase or sell, and any security convertible into or exchangeable for, a Covered Security described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section.
(11) Automatic investment plan means a program in which regular periodic purchases (or withdrawals) are made automatically in (or from) investment accounts in accordance with a predetermined schedule and allocation. An Automatic Investment Plan includes a dividend reinvestment plan.
(b) Unlawful actions. It is unlawful for any affiliated person of or principal underwriter for a Fund, or any affiliated person of an investment adviser of or principal underwriter for a Fund, in connection with the purchase or sale, directly or indirectly, by the person of a Security Held or to be Acquired by the Fund:
(1) To employ any device, scheme or artifice to defraud the Fund;
(2) To make any untrue statement of a material fact to the Fund or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made to the Fund, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading;
(3) To engage in any act, practice or course of business that operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit on the Fund; or
(4) To engage in any manipulative practice with respect to the Fund.
(c) Code of Ethics —(1) Adoption and approval of Code of Ethics. (i) Every Fund (other than a money market fund or a Fund that does not invest in Covered Securities) and each investment adviser of and principal underwriter for the Fund, must adopt a written code of ethics containing provisions reasonably necessary to prevent its Access Persons from engaging in any conduct prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) The board of directors of a Fund, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons, must approve the code of ethics of the Fund, the code of ethics of each investment adviser and principal underwriter of the Fund, and any material changes to these codes. The board must base its approval of a code and any material changes to the code on a determination that the code contains provisions reasonably necessary to prevent Access Persons from engaging in any conduct prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section. Before approving a code of a Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter or any amendment to the code, the board of directors must receive a certification from the Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter that it has adopted procedures reasonably necessary to prevent Access Persons from violating the Fund's, investment adviser's, or principal underwriter's code of ethics. The Fund's board must approve the code of an investment adviser or principal underwriter before initially retaining the services of the investment adviser or principal underwriter. The Fund's board must approve a material change to a code no later than six months after adoption of the material change.
(iii) If a Fund is a unit investment trust, the Fund's principal underwriter or depositor must approve the Fund's code of ethics, as required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. If the Fund has more than one principal underwriter or depositor, the principal underwriters and depositors may designate, in writing, which principal underwriter or depositor must conduct the approval required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, if they obtain written consent from the designated principal underwriter or depositor.
(2) Administration of Code of Ethics. (i) The Fund, investment adviser and principal underwriter must use reasonable diligence and institute procedures reasonably necessary to prevent violations of its code of ethics.
(ii) No less frequently than annually, every Fund (other than a unit investment trust) and its investment advisers and principal underwriters must furnish to the Fund's board of directors, and the board of directors must consider, a written report that:
(A) Describes any issues arising under the code of ethics or procedures since the last report to the board of directors, including, but not limited to, information about material violations of the code or procedures and sanctions imposed in response to the material violations; and
(B) Certifies that the Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter, as applicable, has adopted procedures reasonably necessary to prevent Access Persons from violating the code.
(3) Exception for principal underwriters. The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section do not apply to any principal underwriter unless:
(i) The principal underwriter is an affiliated person of the Fund or of the Fund's investment adviser; or
(ii) An officer, director or general partner of the principal underwriter serves as an officer, director or general partner of the Fund or of the Fund's investment adviser.
(d) Reporting requirements of access persons —(1) Reports required. Unless excepted by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, every Access Person of a Fund (other than a money market fund or a Fund that does not invest in Covered Securities) and every Access Person of an investment adviser of or principal underwriter for the Fund, must report to that Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter:
(i) Initial holdings reports. No later than 10 days after the person becomes an Access Person (which information must be current as of a date no more than 45 days prior to the date the person becomes an Access Person):
(A) The title, number of shares and principal amount of each Covered Security in which the Access Person had any direct or indirect beneficial ownership when the person became an Access Person;
(B) The name of any broker, dealer or bank with whom the Access Person maintained an account in which any securities were held for the direct or indirect benefit of the Access Person as of the date the person became an Access Person; and
(C) The date that the report is submitted by the Access Person.
(ii) Quarterly transaction reports. No later than 30 days after the end of a calendar quarter, the following information:
(A) With respect to any transaction during the quarter in a Covered Security in which the Access Person had any direct or indirect beneficial ownership:
( 1 ) The date of the transaction, the title, the interest rate and maturity date (if applicable), the number of shares and the principal amount of each Covered Security involved;
( 2 ) The nature of the transaction (i.e., purchase, sale or any other type of acquisition or disposition);
( 3 ) The price of the Covered Security at which the transaction was effected;
( 4 ) The name of the broker, dealer or bank with or through which the transaction was effected; and
( 5 ) The date that the report is submitted by the Access Person.
(B) With respect to any account established by the Access Person in which any securities were held during the quarter for the direct or indirect benefit of the Access Person:
( 1 ) The name of the broker, dealer or bank with whom the Access Person established the account;
( 2 ) The date the account was established; and
( 3 ) The date that the report is submitted by the Access Person.
(iii) Annual Holdings Reports. Annually, the following information (which information must be current as of a date no more than 45 days before the report is submitted):
(A) The title, number of shares and principal amount of each Covered Security in which the Access Person had any direct or indirect beneficial ownership;
(B) The name of any broker, dealer or bank with whom the Access Person maintains an account in which any securities are held for the direct or indirect benefit of the Access Person; and
(C) The date that the report is submitted by the Access Person.
(2) Exceptions from reporting requirements. (i) A person need not make a report under paragraph (d)(1) of this section with respect to transactions effected for, and Covered Securities held in, any account over which the person has no direct or indirect influence or control.
(ii) A director of a Fund who is not an “interested person” of the Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(19) of the Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(19)], and who would be required to make a report solely by reason of being a Fund director, need not make:
(A) An initial holdings report under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section and an annual holdings report under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section; and
(B) A quarterly transaction report under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, unless the director knew or, in the ordinary course of fulfilling his or her official duties as a Fund director, should have known that during the 15-day period immediately before or after the director's transaction in a Covered Security, the Fund purchased or sold the Covered Security, or the Fund or its investment adviser considered purchasing or selling the Covered Security.
(iii) An Access Person to a Fund's principal underwriter need not make a report to the principal underwriter under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if:
(A) The principal underwriter is not an affiliated person of the Fund (unless the Fund is a unit investment trust) or any investment adviser of the Fund; and
(B) The principal underwriter has no officer, director or general partner who serves as an officer, director or general partner of the Fund or of any investment adviser of the Fund.
(iv) An Access Person to an investment adviser need not make a separate report to the investment adviser under paragraph (d)(1) of this section to the extent the information in the report would duplicate information required to be recorded under § 275.204-2(a)(13) of this chapter.
(v) An Access Person need not make a quarterly transaction report under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section if the report would duplicate information contained in broker trade confirmations or account statements received by the Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter with respect to the Access Person in the time period required by paragraph (d)(1)(ii), if all of the information required by that paragraph is contained in the broker trade confirmations or account statements, or in the records of the Fund, investment adviser or principal underwriter.
(vi) An Access Person need not make a quarterly transaction report under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section with respect to transactions effected pursuant to an Automatic Investment Plan.
(3) Review of reports. Each Fund, investment adviser and principal underwriter to which reports are required to be made by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must institute procedures by which appropriate management or compliance personnel review these reports.
(4) Notification of reporting obligation. Each Fund, investment adviser and principal underwriter to which reports are required to be made by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must identify all Access Persons who are required to make these reports and must inform those Access Persons of their reporting obligation.
(5) Beneficial ownership. For purposes of this section, beneficial ownership is interpreted in the same manner as it would be under § 240.16a-1(a)(2) of this chapter in determining whether a person is the beneficial owner of a security for purposes of section 16 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 [15 U.S.C. 78p] and the rules and regulations thereunder. Any report required by paragraph (d) of this section may contain a statement that the report will not be construed as an admission that the person making the report has any direct or indirect beneficial ownership in the Covered Security to which the report relates.
(e) Pre-approval of investments in IPOs and limited offerings. Investment Personnel of a Fund or its investment adviser must obtain approval from the Fund or the Fund's investment adviser before directly or indirectly acquiring beneficial ownership in any securities in an Initial Public Offering or in a Limited Offering.
(f) Recordkeeping Requirements. (1) Each Fund, investment adviser and principal underwriter that is required to adopt a code of ethics or to which reports are required to be made by Access Persons must, at its principal place of business, maintain records in the manner and to the extent set out in this paragraph (f), and must make these records available to the Commission or any representative of the Commission at any time and from time to time for reasonable periodic, special or other examination:
(A) A copy of each code of ethics for the organization that is in effect, or at any time within the past five years was in effect, must be maintained in an easily accessible place;
(B) A record of any violation of the code of ethics, and of any action taken as a result of the violation, must be maintained in an easily accessible place for at least five years after the end of the fiscal year in which the violation occurs;
(C) A copy of each report made by an Access Person as required by this section, including any information provided in lieu of the reports under paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section, must be maintained for at least five years after the end of the fiscal year in which the report is made or the information is provided, the first two years in an easily accessible place;
(D) A record of all persons, currently or within the past five years, who are or were required to make reports under paragraph (d) of this section, or who are or were responsible for reviewing these reports, must be maintained in an easily accessible place; and
(E) A copy of each report required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section must be maintained for at least five years after the end of the fiscal year in which it is made, the first two years in an easily accessible place.
(2) A Fund or investment adviser must maintain a record of any decision, and the reasons supporting the decision, to approve the acquisition by investment personnel of securities under paragraph (e), for at least five years after the end of the fiscal year in which the approval is granted.
§ 270.18c-1   Exemption of privately held indebtedness.
The issuance or sale of more than one class of senior securities representing indebtedness by a small business investment company, licensed under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, shall not be prohibited by section 18(c) so long as such small business investment company does not have outstanding any publicly held indebtedness, and all securities of any such class are (a) privately held by the Small Business Administration, or banks, insurance companies or other institutional investors, (b) not intended to be publicly distributed, and (c) not convertible into, exchangeable for, or accompanied by any option to acquire, any equity security.
§ 270.18c-2   Exemptions of certain debentures issued by small business investment companies.
(a) The issuance or sale of any class of senior security representing indebtedness by a small business investment company licensed under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 shall not be prohibited by section 18(c) of the Act provided such senior security representing indebtedness is (1) not convertible into, exchangeable for, or accompanied by an option to acquire any equity security; (2) fully guaranteed as to timely payment of all principal and interest by the Small Business Administration and backed by the full faith and credit of the United States; and (3) subordinated to any other debt securities not issued pursuant to this section or, if such security is not so subordinated, that such security, according to its own terms, will not be preferred over any other unsecured debt securities in the payment of principal and interest: And further provided, That all other debt securities then outstanding issued by such small business investment company were issued as permitted by § 270.18c-1 or this section.
(b) Any security issued and sold as permitted by paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed for purposes of § 270.18c-1 to be privately held by the Small Business Administration and for purposes of § 270.18c-1 shall not be deemed to be publicly held outstanding indebtedness.
(c) The issuance or sale of any security as permitted by paragraph (a) of this section shall not be deemed to be a sale to any person other than the Small Business Administration by any small business investment company licensed under the Small Business Investment Company Act of 1958 which is exempt from any provision of the Investment Company Act, if such exemption is conditioned on such company not offering or selling its securities to any person other than the Small Business Administration.
§ 270.18f-1   Exemption from certain requirements of section 18(f)(1) (of the Act) for registered open-end investment companies which have the right to redeem in kind.
(a) A registered open-end investment company which has the right to redeem securities of which it is the issuer in assets other than cash may file with the Commission at any time a notification of election on Form N-18F-1 (§ 274.51 of this chapter) committing itself to pay in cash all requests for redemption by any shareholder of record, limited in amount with respect to each shareholder during any 90-day period to the lesser of
(1) $250,000 or
(2) 1 percent of the net asset value of such company at the beginning of such period.
(b) An election pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) Shall be described in either the prospectus or the Statement of Additional Information, at the discretion of the investment company, and
(2) Shall be irrevocable while this § 270.18f-1 is in effect unless the Commission by order upon application permits the withdrawal of such notification of election as being appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors.
(c) Upon making the election described in paragraph (a) of this section, an investment company shall be exempt from the requirements of section 18(f)(1) (of the Act) to the extent necessary for such company to effectuate redemptions in the manner set forth in such paragraph.
§ 270.18f-2   Fair and equitable treatment for holders of each class or series of stock of series investment companies.
(a) For purposes of this § 270.18f-2 a series company is a registered open-end investment company which, in accordance with the provisions of section 18(f)(2) of the Act, issues two or more classes or series of preferred or special stock each of which is preferred over all other classes or series in respect of assets specifically allocated to that class or series. Any matter required to be submitted by the provisions of the Act or of applicable State law, or otherwise, to the holders of the outstanding voting securities of a series company shall not be deemed to have been effectively acted upon less approved by the holders of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of each class or series of stock affected by such matter.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this § 270.18f-2, a class or series of stock will be deemed to be affected by such a matter, unless (1) the interests of each class or series in the matter are substantially identical, or (2) the matter does not affect any interest of such class or series.
(c)(1) With respect to the submission of an investment advisory contract to the holders of the outstanding voting securities of a series company for the approval required by section 15(a) of the Act, such matter shall be deemed to be effectively acted upon with respect to any class or series of securities of such company if a majority of the outstanding voting securities of such class or series vote for the approval of such matter, notwithstanding (i) that such matter has not been approved by the holders of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of any other class or series affected by such matter, and (ii) that such matter has not been approved by the vote of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of such company, provided that if such a majority is required by State law or otherwise, such requirement shall apply.
(2) If any class or series of securities of a series company fails to approve an investment advisory contract in the manner required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the investment adviser of such company may continue to serve or act in such capacity for the period of time pending such required approval of such contract, of a new contract with the same or different adviser, or other definitive action: Provided, That the compensation received by such investment adviser during such period is equal to no more than its actual costs incurred in furnishing investment advisory services to such class or series or the amount it would have received under the advisory contract, whichever is less.
(d) With respect to the submission of a change in investment policy to the holders of the outstanding voting securities of a series company for the approval required by section 13 of the Act, such matter shall be deemed to have been effectively acted upon with respect to any class or series of such company if a majority of the outstanding voting securities of such class or series vote for the approval of such matter, notwithstanding (1) that such matter has not been approved by the holders of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of any other class or series affected by such matter, and (2) that such matter has not been approved by the vote of a majority of the outstanding voting securities of such company: Provided, That if such a majority is required by State law or otherwise, such requirement shall apply.
(e) The submission to shareholders of the selection of the independent public accountant of a series company required by section 32(a) (of the Act) shall be exempt from the separate voting requirements of paragraph (a) of this § 270.18f-2.
(f) The submission to shareholders of a contract with a principal underwriter of a series company required by section 15(b) of the Act shall be exempt from the separate voting requirements of paragraph (a) of this § 270.18f-2.
(g) The submission to shareholders of nominees for election as directors required by section 16(a) of the Act shall be exempt from the separate voting requirements of paragraph (a) of this § 270.18f-2.
(h) For the purposes of this § 270.18f-2 a “majority of the outstanding voting securities” of a class or series, (1) when used with respect to a matter required by any provision of the Act to be submitted to the outstanding voting securities of a series company, shall have the same meaning as a “majority of the outstanding voting securities of a company” as defined in section 2(a)(42) of the Act; and (2) when used with respect to any other matter required to be submitted to the outstanding voting securities of a series company, shall mean the lesser of (i) the minimum vote of the outstanding voting securities of a company required by applicable State law or other applicable requirement, or (ii) the minimum vote specified by paragraph (1) of this paragraph (h), unless State law requires approval of such matters by a specified percentage of the outstanding voting securities of a particular class or series, in which case, State law shall apply.
§ 270.18f-3   Multiple class companies.
Notwithstanding sections 18(f)(1) and 18(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(f)(1) and (i), respectively), a registered open-end management investment company or series or class thereof established in accordance with section 18(f)(2) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(f)(2)) whose shares are registered on Form N-1A [§§ 239.15A and 274.11A of this chapter] (“company”) may issue more than one class of voting stock, provided that:
(a) Each class:
(1)(i) Shall have a different arrangement for shareholder services or the distribution of securities or both, and shall pay all of the expenses of that arrangement;
(ii) May pay a different share of other expenses, not including advisory or custodial fees or other expenses related to the management of the company's assets, if these expenses are actually incurred in a different amount by that class, or if the class receives services of a different kind or to a different degree than other classes; and
(iii) May pay a different advisory fee to the extent that any difference in amount paid is the result of the application of the same performance fee provisions in the advisory contract of the company to the different investment performance of each class;
(2) Shall have exclusive voting rights on any matter submitted to shareholders that relates solely to its arrangement;
(3) Shall have separate voting rights on any matter submitted to shareholders in which the interests of one class differ from the interests of any other class; and
(4) Shall have in all other respects the same rights and obligations as each other class.
(b) Expenses may be waived or reimbursed by the company's adviser, underwriter, or any other provider of services to the company.
(c)(1) Income, realized gains and losses, unrealized appreciation and depreciation, and Fundwide Expenses shall be allocated based on one of the following methods (which method shall be applied on a consistent basis):
(i) To each class based on the net assets of that class in relation to the net assets of the company (“relative net assets”);
(ii) To each class based on the Simultaneous Equations Method;
(iii) To each class based on the Settled Shares Method, provided that the company is a Daily Dividend Fund (such a company may allocate income and Fundwide Expenses based on the Settled Shares Method and realized gains and losses and unrealized appreciation and depreciation based on relative net assets);
(iv) To each share without regard to class, provided that the company is a Daily Dividend Fund that maintains the same net asset value per share in each class; that the company has received undertakings from its adviser, underwriter, or any other provider of services to the company, agreeing to waive or reimburse the company for payments to such service provider by one or more classes, as allocated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, to the extent necessary to assure that all classes of the company maintain the same net asset value per share; and that payments waived or reimbursed under such an undertaking may not be carried forward or recouped at a future date; or
(v) To each class based on any other appropriate method, provided that a majority of the directors of the company, and a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the company, determine that the method is fair to the shareholders of each class and that the annualized rate of return of each class will generally differ from that of the other classes only by the expense differentials among the classes.
(2) For purposes of this section:
(i) Daily Dividend Fund means any company that has a policy of declaring distributions of net income daily, including any money market fund that operates in compliance with § 270.2a-7;
(ii) Fundwide Expenses means expenses of the company not allocated to a particular class under paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
(iii) The Settled Shares Method means allocating to each class based on relative net assets, excluding the value of subscriptions receivable; and
(iv) The Simultaneous Equations Method means the simultaneous allocation to each class of each day's income, realized gains and losses, unrealized appreciation and depreciation, and Fundwide Expenses and reallocation to each class of undistributed net investment income, undistributed realized gains or losses, and unrealized appreciation or depreciation, based on the operating results of the company, changes in ownership interests of each class, and expense differentials between the classes, so that the annualized rate of return of each class generally differs from that of the other classes only by the expense differentials among the classes.
(d) Any payments made under paragraph (a) of this section shall be made pursuant to a written plan setting forth the separate arrangement and expense allocation of each class, and any related conversion features or exchange privileges. Before the first issuance of a share of any class in reliance upon this section, and before any material amendment of a plan, a majority of the directors of the company, and a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the company, shall find that the plan as proposed to be adopted or amended, including the expense allocation, is in the best interests of each class individually and the company as a whole; initial board approval of a plan under this paragraph (d) is not required, however, if the plan does not make any change in the arrangements and expense allocations previously approved by the board under an existing order of exemption. Before any vote on the plan, the directors shall request and evaluate, and any agreement relating to a class arrangement shall require the parties thereto to furnish, such information as may be reasonably necessary to evaluate the plan.
(e) The board of directors of the investment company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7).
(f) Nothing in this section prohibits a company from offering any class with:
(1) An exchange privilege providing that securities of the class may be exchanged for certain securities of another company; or
(2) A conversion feature providing that shares of one class of the company (the “purchase class”) will be exchanged automatically for shares of another class of the company (the “target class”) after a specified period of time, provided that:
(i) The conversion is effected on the basis of the relative net asset values of the two classes without the imposition of any sales load, fee, or other charge;
(ii) The expenses, including payments authorized under a plan adopted pursuant to § 270.12b-1 (“rule 12b-1 plan”), for the target class are not higher than the expenses, including payments authorized under a rule 12b-1 plan, for the purchase class; and
(iii) If the shareholders of the target class approve any increase in expenses allocated to the target class under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii) of this section, and the purchase class shareholders do not approve the increase, the company will establish a new target class for the purchase class on the same terms as applied to the target class before that increase.
(3) A conversion feature providing that shares of a class in which an investor is no longer eligible to participate may be converted to shares of a class in which that investor is eligible to participate, provided that:
(i) The investor is given prior notice of the proposed conversion; and
(ii) The conversion is effected on the basis of the relative net asset values of the two classes without the imposition of any sales load, fee, or other charge.
§ 270.18f-4   Exemption from the requirements of section 18 and section 61 for certain senior securities transactions.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
Absolute VaR test means that the VaR of the fund's portfolio does not exceed 20% of the value of the fund's net assets, or in the case of a closed-end company that has issued to investors and has then outstanding shares of a class of senior security that is a stock, that the VaR of the fund's portfolio does not exceed 25% of the value of the fund's net assets.
Derivatives exposure means the sum of the gross notional amounts of the fund's derivatives transactions described in paragraph (1) of the definition of the term “derivatives transaction” of this section, and in the case of short sale borrowings, the value of the assets sold short. If a fund's derivatives transactions include reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the fund's derivatives exposure also includes, for each transaction, the proceeds received but not yet repaid or returned, or for which the associated liability has not been extinguished, in connection with the transaction. In determining derivatives exposure a fund may convert the notional amount of interest rate derivatives to 10-year bond equivalents and delta adjust the notional amounts of options contracts and exclude any closed-out positions, if those positions were closed out with the same counterparty and result in no credit or market exposure to the fund.
Derivatives risk manager means an officer or officers of the fund's investment adviser responsible for administering the program and policies and procedures required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided that the derivatives risk manager:
(1) May not be a portfolio manager of the fund, or if multiple officers serve as derivatives risk manager, may not have a majority composed of portfolio managers of the fund; and
(2) Must have relevant experience regarding the management of derivatives risk.
Derivatives risks means the risks associated with a fund's derivatives transactions or its use of derivatives transactions, including leverage, market, counterparty, liquidity, operational, and legal risks and any other risks the derivatives risk manager (or, in the case of a fund that is a limited derivatives user as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the fund's investment adviser) deems material.
Derivatives transaction means:
(1) Any swap, security-based swap, futures contract, forward contract, option, any combination of the foregoing, or any similar instrument (“derivatives instrument”), under which a fund is or may be required to make any payment or delivery of cash or other assets during the life of the instrument or at maturity or early termination, whether as margin or settlement payment or otherwise;
(2) Any short sale borrowing; and
(3) If a fund relies on paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, any reverse repurchase agreement or similar financing transaction.
Designated index means an unleveraged index that is approved by the derivatives risk manager for purposes of the relative VaR test and that reflects the markets or asset classes in which the fund invests and is not administered by an organization that is an affiliated person of the fund, its investment adviser, or principal underwriter, or created at the request of the fund or its investment adviser, unless the index is widely recognized and used. In the case of a blended index, none of the indexes that compose the blended index may be administered by an organization that is an affiliated person of the fund, its investment adviser, or principal underwriter, or created at the request of the fund or its investment adviser, unless the index is widely recognized and used.
Designated reference portfolio means a designated index or the fund's securities portfolio. Notwithstanding the first sentence of the definition of designated index of this section, if the fund's investment objective is to track the performance (including a leverage multiple or inverse multiple) of an unleveraged index, the fund must use that index as its designated reference portfolio.
Fund means a registered open-end or closed-end company or a business development company, including any separate series thereof, but does not include a registered open-end company that is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7.
Leveraged/inverse fund means a fund that seeks, directly or indirectly, to provide investment returns that correspond to the performance of a market index by a specified multiple (“leverage multiple”), or to provide investment returns that have an inverse relationship to the performance of a market index (“inverse multiple”), over a predetermined period of time.
Relative VaR test means that the VaR of the fund's portfolio does not exceed 200% of the VaR of the designated reference portfolio, or in the case of a closed-end company that has issued to investors and has then outstanding shares of a class of senior security that is a stock, that the VaR of the fund's portfolio does not exceed 250% of the VaR of the designated reference portfolio.
Securities portfolio means the fund's portfolio of securities and other investments, excluding any derivatives transactions, that is approved by the derivatives risk manager for purposes of the relative VaR test, provided that the fund's securities portfolio reflects the markets or asset classes in which the fund invests ( i.e., the markets or asset classes in which the fund invests directly through securities and other investments and indirectly through derivatives transactions).
Unfunded commitment agreement means a contract that is not a derivatives transaction, under which a fund commits, conditionally or unconditionally, to make a loan to a company or to invest equity in a company in the future, including by making a capital commitment to a private fund that can be drawn at the discretion of the fund's general partner.
Value-at-risk or VaR means an estimate of potential losses on an instrument or portfolio, expressed as a percentage of the value of the portfolio's assets (or net assets when computing a fund's VaR), over a specified time horizon and at a given confidence level, provided that any VaR model used by a fund for purposes of determining the fund's compliance with the relative VaR test or the absolute VaR test must:
(1) Take into account and incorporate all significant, identifiable market risk factors associated with a fund's investments, including, as applicable:
(i) Equity price risk, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, foreign currency risk and commodity price risk;
(ii) Material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of a fund's investments, including options and positions with embedded optionality; and
(iii) The sensitivity of the market value of the fund's investments to changes in volatility;
(2) Use a 99% confidence level and a time horizon of 20 trading days; and
(3) Be based on at least three years of historical market data.
(b) Derivatives transactions. If a fund satisfies the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section, the fund may enter into derivatives transactions, notwithstanding the requirements of sections 18(a)(1), 18(c), 18(f)(1), and 61 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(a)(1), 80a-18(c), 80a-18(f)(1), and 80a-60), and derivatives transactions entered into by the fund in compliance with this section will not be considered for purposes of computing asset coverage, as defined in section 18(h) of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(h)).
(c) Conditions —(1) Derivatives risk management program. The fund adopts and implements a written derivatives risk management program (“program”), which must include policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to manage the fund's derivatives risks and to reasonably segregate the functions associated with the program from the portfolio management of the fund. The program must include the following elements:
(i) Risk identification and assessment. The program must provide for the identification and assessment of the fund's derivatives risks. This assessment must take into account the fund's derivatives transactions and other investments.
(ii) Risk guidelines. The program must provide for the establishment, maintenance, and enforcement of investment, risk management, or related guidelines that provide for quantitative or otherwise measurable criteria, metrics, or thresholds of the fund's derivatives risks. These guidelines must specify levels of the given criterion, metric, or threshold that the fund does not normally expect to exceed, and measures to be taken if they are exceeded.
(iii) Stress testing. The program must provide for stress testing to evaluate potential losses to the fund's portfolio in response to extreme but plausible market changes or changes in market risk factors that would have a significant adverse effect on the fund's portfolio, taking into account correlations of market risk factors and resulting payments to derivatives counterparties. The frequency with which the stress testing under this paragraph is conducted must take into account the fund's strategy and investments and current market conditions, provided that these stress tests must be conducted no less frequently than weekly.
(iv) Backtesting. The program must provide for backtesting to be conducted no less frequently than weekly, of the results of the VaR calculation model used by the fund in connection with the relative VaR test or the absolute VaR test by comparing the fund's gain or loss that occurred on each business day during the backtesting period with the corresponding VaR calculation for that day, estimated over a one-trading day time horizon, and identifying as an exception any instance in which the fund experiences a loss exceeding the corresponding VaR calculation's estimated loss.
(v) Internal reporting and escalation —(A) Internal reporting. The program must identify the circumstances under which persons responsible for portfolio management will be informed regarding the operation of the program, including exceedances of the guidelines specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section and the results of the stress tests specified in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
(B) Escalation of material risks. The derivatives risk manager must inform in a timely manner persons responsible for portfolio management of the fund, and also directly inform the fund's board of directors as appropriate, of material risks arising from the fund's derivatives transactions, including risks identified by the fund's exceedance of a criterion, metric, or threshold provided for in the fund's risk guidelines established under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section or by the stress testing described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
(vi) Periodic review of the program. The derivatives risk manager must review the program at least annually to evaluate the program's effectiveness and to reflect changes in risk over time. The periodic review must include a review of the VaR calculation model used by the fund under paragraph (c)(2) of this section (including the backtesting required by paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section) and any designated reference portfolio to evaluate whether it remains appropriate.
(2) Limit on fund leverage risk. (i) The fund must comply with the relative VaR test unless the derivatives risk manager reasonably determines that a designated reference portfolio would not provide an appropriate reference portfolio for purposes of the relative VaR test, taking into account the fund's investments, investment objectives, and strategy. A fund that does not apply the relative VaR test must comply with the absolute VaR test.
(ii) The fund must determine its compliance with the applicable VaR test at least once each business day. If the fund determines that it is not in compliance with the applicable VaR test, the fund must come back into compliance promptly after such determination, in a manner that is in the best interests of the fund and its shareholders.
(iii) If the fund is not in compliance with the applicable VaR test within five business days:
(A) The derivatives risk manager must provide a written report to the fund's board of directors and explain how and by when ( i.e., number of business days) the derivatives risk manager reasonably expects that the fund will come back into compliance;
(B) The derivatives risk manager must analyze the circumstances that caused the fund to be out of compliance for more than five business days and update any program elements as appropriate to address those circumstances; and
(C) The derivatives risk manager must provide a written report within thirty calendar days of the exceedance to the fund's board of directors explaining how the fund came back into compliance and the results of the analysis and updates required under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section. If the fund remains out of compliance with the applicable VaR test at that time, the derivatives risk manager's written report must update the report previously provided under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section and the derivatives risk manager must update the board of directors on the fund's progress in coming back into compliance at regularly scheduled intervals at a frequency determined by the board.
(3) Board oversight and reporting —(i) Approval of the derivatives risk manager. A fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund, must approve the designation of the derivatives risk manager.
(ii) Reporting on program implementation and effectiveness. On or before the implementation of the program, and at least annually thereafter, the derivatives risk manager must provide to the board of directors a written report providing a representation that the program is reasonably designed to manage the fund's derivatives risks and to incorporate the elements provided in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section. The representation may be based on the derivatives risk manager's reasonable belief after due inquiry. The written report must include the basis for the representation along with such information as may be reasonably necessary to evaluate the adequacy of the fund's program and, for reports following the program's initial implementation, the effectiveness of its implementation. The written report also must include, as applicable, the derivatives risk manager's basis for the approval of any designated reference portfolio or any change in the designated reference portfolio during the period covered by the report; or an explanation of the basis for the derivatives risk manager's determination that a designated reference portfolio would not provide an appropriate reference portfolio for purposes of the relative VaR test.
(iii) Regular board reporting. The derivatives risk manager must provide to the board of directors, at a frequency determined by the board, a written report regarding the derivatives risk manager's analysis of exceedances described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the results of the stress testing conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and the results of the backtesting conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section since the last report to the board. Each report under this paragraph must include such information as may be reasonably necessary for the board of directors to evaluate the fund's response to exceedances and the results of the fund's stress testing.
(4) Limited derivatives users. (i) A fund is not required to adopt a program as prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, comply with the limit on fund leverage risk in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or comply with the board oversight and reporting requirements as prescribed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, if:
(A) The fund adopts and implements written policies and procedures reasonably designed to manage the fund's derivatives risk; and
(B) The fund's derivatives exposure does not exceed 10 percent of the fund's net assets, excluding, for this purpose, currency or interest rate derivatives that hedge currency or interest rate risks associated with one or more specific equity or fixed-income investments held by the fund (which must be foreign-currency-denominated in the case of currency derivatives), or the fund's borrowings, provided that the currency or interest rate derivatives are entered into and maintained by the fund for hedging purposes and that the notional amounts of such derivatives do not exceed the value of the hedged investments (or the par value thereof, in the case of fixed-income investments, or the principal amount, in the case of borrowing) by more than 10 percent.
(ii) If a fund's derivatives exposure exceeds 10 percent of its net assets, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) of this section, and the fund is not in compliance with that paragraph within five business days, the fund's investment adviser must provide a written report to the fund's board of directors informing them whether the investment adviser intends either:
(A) To reduce the fund's derivatives exposure to less than 10 percent of the fund's net assets promptly, but within no more than thirty calendar days of the exceedance, in a manner that is in the best interests of the fund and its shareholders; or
(B) For the fund to establish a program as prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, comply with the limit on fund leverage risk in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and comply with the board oversight and reporting requirements as prescribed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, as soon as reasonably practicable.
(5) Leveraged/inverse funds. A leveraged/inverse fund that cannot comply with the limit on fund leverage risk in paragraph (c) of this section is not required to comply with the limit on fund leverage risk if, in addition to complying with all other applicable requirements of this section:
(i) As of October 28, 2020, the fund is in operation; has outstanding shares issued in one or more public offerings to investors; and discloses in its prospectus a leverage multiple or inverse multiple that exceeds 200% of the performance or the inverse of the performance of the underlying index;
(ii) The fund does not change the underlying market index or increase the level of leveraged or inverse market exposure the fund seeks, directly or indirectly, to provide; and
(iii) The fund discloses in its prospectus that it is not subject to the limit on fund leverage risk in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(6) Recordkeeping —(i) Records to be maintained. A fund must maintain a written record documenting, as applicable:
(A) The fund's written policies and procedures required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, along with:
( 1 ) The results of the fund's stress tests under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section;
( 2 ) The results of the backtesting conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section;
( 3 ) Records documenting any internal reporting or escalation of material risks under paragraph (c)(1)(v)(B) of this section; and
( 4 ) Records documenting the reviews conducted under paragraph (c)(1)(vi) of this section.
(B) Copies of any materials provided to the board of directors in connection with its approval of the designation of the derivatives risk manager, any written reports provided to the board of directors relating to the program, and any written reports provided to the board of directors under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) and (C) of this section.
(C) Any determination and/or action the fund made under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, including a fund's determination of: The VaR of its portfolio; the VaR of the fund's designated reference portfolio, as applicable; the fund's VaR ratio (the value of the VaR of the fund's portfolio divided by the VaR of the designated reference portfolio), as applicable; and any updates to any VaR calculation models used by the fund and the basis for any material changes thereto.
(D) If applicable, the fund's written policies and procedures required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, along with copies of any written reports provided to the board of directors under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Retention periods. (A) A fund must maintain a copy of the written policies and procedures that the fund adopted under paragraph (c)(1) or (4) of this section that are in effect, or at any time within the past five years were in effect, in an easily accessible place.
(B) A fund must maintain all records and materials that paragraphs (c)(6)(i)(A)( 1 ) through ( 4 ) and (c)(6)(i)(B) through (D) of this section describe for a period of not less than five years (the first two years in an easily accessible place) following each determination, action, or review that these paragraphs describe.
(7) Current reports. A fund that experiences an event specified in the parts of Form N-RN [referenced in 17 CFR 274.223] titled “Relative VaR Test Breaches,” “Absolute VaR Test Breaches,” or “Compliance with VaR Test” must file with the Commission a report on Form N-RN within the period and according to the instructions specified in that form.
(d) Reverse repurchase agreements. (1) A fund may enter into reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions, notwithstanding the requirements of sections 18(c) and 18(f)(1) of the Investment Company Act, if the fund:
(i) Complies with the asset coverage requirements of section 18, and combines the aggregate amount of indebtedness associated with all reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions with the aggregate amount of any other senior securities representing indebtedness when calculating the asset coverage ratio; or
(ii) Treats all reverse repurchase agreements or similar financing transactions as derivatives transactions for all purposes under this section.
(2) A fund relying on paragraph (d) of this section must maintain a written record documenting whether the fund is relying on paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section for a period of not less than five years (the first two years in an easily accessible place) following the determination.
(e) Unfunded commitment agreements. (1) A fund may enter into an unfunded commitment agreement, notwithstanding the requirements of sections 18(a), 18(c), 18(f)(1), and 61 of the Investment Company Act, if the fund reasonably believes, at the time it enters into such agreement, that it will have sufficient cash and cash equivalents to meet its obligations with respect to all of its unfunded commitment agreements, in each case as they come due. In forming a reasonable belief, the fund must take into account its reasonable expectations with respect to other obligations (including any obligation with respect to senior securities or redemptions), and may not take into account cash that may become available from the sale or disposition of any investment at a price that deviates significantly from the market value of those investments, or from issuing additional equity. Unfunded commitment agreements entered into by the fund in compliance with this section will not be considered for purposes of computing asset coverage, as defined in section 18(h) of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(h)).
(2) For each unfunded commitment agreement that a fund enters into under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, a fund must document the basis for its reasonable belief regarding the sufficiency of its cash and cash equivalents to meet its unfunded commitment agreement obligations, and maintain a record of this documentation for a period of not less than five years (the first two years in an easily accessible place) following the date that the fund entered into the agreement.
(f) When issued, forward-settling, and non-standard settlement cycle securities transactions. Notwithstanding the requirements of sections 18(a)(1), 18(c), 18(f)(1), and 61 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-18(a)(1), 80a018(c), 80a-18(f)(1), and 80a-60), a fund or registered open-end company that is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7 may invest in a security on a when-issued or forward-settling basis, or with a non-standard settlement cycle, and the transaction will be deemed not to involve a senior security, provided that: The fund intends to physically settle the transaction; and the transaction will settle within 35 days of its trade date.
§ 270.19a-1   Written statement to accompany dividend payments by management companies.
(a) Every written statement made pursuant to section 19 by or on behalf of a management company shall be made on a separate paper and shall clearly indicate what portion of the payment per share is made from the following sources:
(1) Net income for the current or preceding fiscal year, or accumulated undistributed net income, or both, not including in either case profits or losses from the sale of securities or other properties.
(2) Accumulated undistributed net profits from the sale of securities or other properties (except that an open-end company may treat as a separate source its net profits from such sales during its current fiscal year).
(3) Paid-in surplus or other capital source.
(b) If the payment is made in whole or in part from a source specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section the written statement shall indicate, after giving effect to the part of such payment so specified, the deficit, if any, in the aggregate of (1) accumulated undistributed realized profits less losses on the sale of securities or other properties and (2) the net unrealized appreciation or depreciation of portfolio securities, all as of a date reasonably close to the end of the period as of which the dividend is paid. Any statement made pursuant to the preceding sentence shall specify the amount, if any, of such deficit which represents unrealized depreciation of portfolio securities.
(c) Accumulated undistributed net income and accumulated undistributed net profits from the sale of securities or other properties shall be determined, at the option of the company, either (1) from the date of the organization of the company, (2) from the date of a reorganization, as defined in clause (A) or (B) of section 2(a)(33) of the Act (54 Stat. 790; 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(33)), (3) from the date as of which a write-down of portfolio securities was made in connection with a corporate readjustment, approved by stockholders, of the type known as “quasi- reorganization,” or (4) from January 1, 1925, to the close of the period as of which the dividend is paid, without giving effect to such payment.
(d) For the purpose of this section, open-end companies which upon the sale of their shares allocate to undistributed income or other similar account that portion of the consideration received which represents the approximate per share amount of undistributed net income included in the sales price, and make a corresponding deduction from undistributed net income upon the purchase or redemption of shares, need not treat the amounts so allocated as paid-in surplus or other capital source.
(e) For the purpose of this section, the source or sources from which a dividend is paid shall be determined (or reasonably estimated) to the close of the period as of which it is paid without giving effect to such payment. If any such estimate is subsequently ascertained to be inaccurate in a significant amount, a correction thereof shall be made by a written statement pursuant to section 19(a) of the Act or in the first report to stockholders following discovery of the inaccuracy.
(f) Insofar as a written statement made pursuant to section 19(a) of the Act relates to a dividend on preferred stock paid for a period of less than a year, a company may elect to indicate only that portion of the payment which is made from sources specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and need not specify the sources from which the remainder was paid. Every company which in any fiscal year elects to make a statement pursuant to the preceding sentence shall transmit to the holders of such preferred stock, at a date reasonably near the end of the last dividend period in such fiscal year, a statement meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section on an annual basis.
(g) The purpose of this section, in the light of which it shall be construed, is to afford security holders adequate disclosure of the sources from which dividend payments are made. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the inclusion in any written statement of additional information in explanation of the information required by this section. Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a dividend payment in violation of any State law or to prevent compliance with any requirement of State law regarding dividends consistent with this rule.
For interpretative release applicable to § 270.19a-1, see No. 71 in tabulation, part 271 of this chapter.
§ 270.19b-1   Frequency of distribution of capital gains.
(a) No registered investment company which is a “regulated investment company” as defined in section 851 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (“Code”) shall distribute more than one capital gain dividend (“distribution”), as defined in section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Code, with respect to any one taxable year of the company, other than a distribution otherwise permitted by this rule or made pursuant to section 855 of the Code which is supplemental to the prior distribution with respect to the same taxable year of the company and which does not exceed 10% of the aggregate amount distributed for such taxable year.
(b) No registered investment company which is not a “regulated investment company” as defined in section 851 of the Code shall make more than one distribution of long-term capital gains, as defined in the Code, in any one taxable year of the company: Provided, That a unit investment trust may distribute capital gain dividends received from a “regulated investment company” within a reasonable time after receipt.
(c) The provisions of this rule shall not apply to a unit investment trust (hereinafter referred to as the “Trust”) engaged exclusively in the business of investing in eligible trust securities (as defined in Rule 14a-3(b) (17 CFR 270.14a-3(b)) under this Act); Provided, That:
(1) The capital gain distribution is a result of—
(i) An issuer's calling or redeeming an eligible trust security held by the Trust,
(ii) The sale of an eligible trust security by the Trust to provide funds for redemption of Trust units when the amount received by the Trust for such sale exceeds the amount required to satisfy the redemption distribution,
(iii) The sale of an eligible trust security to maintain qualification of the Trust as a “regulated investment company” under section 851 of the Code,
(iv) Regular distributions of principal and prepayment of principal on eligible trust securities, or
(v) The sale of an eligible trust security in order to maintain the investment stability of the Trust; and
(2) Capital gains distributions are clearly described as such in a report to the unitholder which accompanies each such distribution.
(d) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, sales made to maintain the investment stability of the Trust means sales made to prevent deterioration of the value of the eligible trust securities held in the Trust portfolio when one or more of the following factors exist:
(1) A default in the payment of principal or interest on an eligible trust security;
(2) An action involving the issuer of an eligible trust security which adversely affects the ability of such issuer to continue payment of principal or interest on its eligible trust securities; or
(3) A change in market, revenue or credit factors which adversely affects the ability of such issuer to continue payment of principal or interest on its eligible trust securities.
(e) If a registered investment company because of unforeseen circumstances in a particular taxable year proposes to make a distribution which would be prohibited by the provisions of this section, it may file a request with the Commission for authorization to make such a distribution. Such request shall comply with the requirements of § 270.0-2 of this chapter and shall set forth the pertinent facts and explain the circumstances which the company believes justify such distribution. The request shall be deemed granted unless the Commission within 15 days after receipt thereof shall deny such request as not being necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors and notify the company in writing of such denial.
(f) A registered investment company may make one additional distribution of long-term capital gains, as defined in the Code, with respect to any one taxable year of the company, which distribution is made, in whole or in part, for the purpose of not incurring any tax under section 4982 of the Code. Such additional distribution may be made prior or subsequent to any distribution otherwise permitted by paragraph (a) of this section.
§ 270.20a-1   Solicitation of proxies, consents and authorizations.
(a) No person shall solicit or permit the use of his or her name to solicit any proxy, consent, or authorization with respect to any security issued by a registered fund, except upon compliance with Regulation 14A (§ 240.14a-1 of this chapter), Schedule 14A (§ 240.14a-101 of this chapter), and all other rules and regulations adopted pursuant to section 14(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that would be applicable to such solicitation if it were made in respect of a security registered pursuant to section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Unless the solicitation is made in respect of a security registered on a national securities exchange, none of the soliciting material need be filed with such exchange.
(b) If the solicitation is made by or on behalf of the management of the investment company, then the investment adviser or any prospective investment adviser and any affiliated person thereof as to whom information is required in the solicitation shall upon request of the investment company promptly transmit to the investment company all information necessary to enable the management of such company to comply with the rules and regulations applicable to such solicitation. If the solicitation is made by any person other than the management of the investment company, on behalf of and with the consent of the investment adviser or prospective investment adviser, then the investment adviser or prospective investment adviser and any affiliated person thereof as to whom information is required in the solicitation shall upon request of the person making the solicitation promptly transmit to such person all information necessary to enable such person to comply with the rules and regulations applicable to the solicitation.
Instruction. Registrants that have made a public offering of securities and that hold security holder votes for which proxies, consents, or authorizations are not being solicited pursuant to the requirements of this section should refer to section 14(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78n(c)) and the information statement requirements set forth in the rules thereunder.
§§ 270.20a-2--270.20a-4   [Reserved]
§ 270.22c-1   Pricing of redeemable securities for distribution, redemption and repurchase.
(a) No registered investment company issuing any redeemable security, no person designated in such issuer's prospectus as authorized to consummate transactions in any such security, and no principal underwriter of, or dealer in, any such security shall sell, redeem, or repurchase any such security except at a price based on the current net asset value of such security which is next computed after receipt of a tender of such security for redemption or of an order to purchase or sell such security: Provided, That:
(1) This paragraph shall not prevent a sponsor of a unit investment trust (hereinafter referred to as the “Trust”) engaged exclusively in the business of investing in eligible trust securities (as defined in Rule 14a-3(b) (17 CFR 270.14a-3(b))) from selling or repurchasing Trust units in a secondary market at a price based on the offering side evaluation of the eligible trust securities in the Trust's portfolio, determined at any time on the last business day of each week, effective for all sales made during the following week, if on the days that such sales or repurchases are made the sponsor receives a letter from a qualified evaluator stating, in its opinion, that:
(i) In the case of repurchases, the current bid price is not higher than the offering side evaluation, computed on the last business day of the previous week; and
(ii) In the case of resales, the offering side evaluation, computed as of the last business day of the previous week, is not more than one-half of one percent ($5.00 on a unit representing $1,000 principal amount of eligible trust securities) greater than the current offering price.
(2) This paragraph shall not prevent any registered investment company from adjusting the price of its redeemable securities sold pursuant to a merger, consolidation or purchase of substantially all of the assets of a company which meets the conditions specified in § 270.17a-8.
(3) Notwithstanding this paragraph (a), a registered open-end management investment company (but not a registered open-end management investment company that is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7 or an exchange-traded fund as defined in paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section) (a “fund”) may use swing pricing to adjust its current net asset value per share to mitigate dilution of the value of its outstanding redeemable securities as a result of shareholder purchase or redemption activity, provided that it has established and implemented swing pricing policies and procedures in compliance with the paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (v) of this section.
(i) The fund's swing pricing policies and procedures must:
(A) Provide that the fund must adjust its net asset value per share by a single swing factor or multiple factors that may vary based on the swing threshold(s) crossed once the level of net purchases into or net redemptions from such fund has exceeded the applicable swing threshold for the fund. In determining whether the fund's level of net purchases or net redemptions has exceeded the applicable swing threshold(s), the person(s) responsible for administering swing pricing shall be permitted to make such determination based on receipt of sufficient information about the fund investors' daily purchase and redemption activity (“investor flow”) to allow the fund to reasonably estimate whether it has crossed the swing threshold(s) with high confidence, and shall exclude any purchases or redemptions that are made in kind and not in cash. This investor flow information may consist of individual, aggregated, or netted orders, and may include reasonable estimates where necessary.
(B) Specify the process for how the fund's swing threshold(s) shall be determined, considering:
(1) The size, frequency, and volatility of historical net purchases or net redemptions of fund shares during normal and stressed periods;
(2) The fund's investment strategy and the liquidity of the fund's portfolio investments;
(3) The fund's holdings of cash and cash equivalents, and borrowing arrangements and other funding sources; and
(4) The costs associated with transactions in the markets in which the fund invests.
(C) Specify the process for how the swing factor(s) shall be determined, which must include: The establishment of an upper limit on the swing factor(s) used, which may not exceed two percent of net asset value per share; and the determination that the factor(s) used are reasonable in relationship to the costs discussed in this paragraph. In determining the swing factor(s) and the upper limit, the person(s) responsible for administering swing pricing may take into account only the near-term costs expected to be incurred by the fund as a result of net purchases or net redemptions that occur on the day the swing factor(s) is used, including spread costs, transaction fees and charges arising from asset purchases or asset sales resulting from those purchases or redemptions, and borrowing-related costs associated with satisfying redemptions.
(ii) The fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund must:
(A) Approve the fund's swing pricing policies and procedures;
(B) Approve the fund's swing threshold(s) and the upper limit on the swing factor(s) used, and any changes to the swing threshold(s) or the upper limit on the swing factor(s) used;
(C) Designate the fund's investment adviser, officer, or officers responsible for administering the swing pricing policies and procedures (“person(s) responsible for administering swing pricing”). The administration of swing pricing must be reasonably segregated from portfolio management of the fund and may not include portfolio managers; and
(D) Review, no less frequently than annually, a written report prepared by the person(s) responsible for administering swing pricing that describes:
( 1 ) Its review of the adequacy of the fund's swing pricing policies and procedures and the effectiveness of their implementation, including the impact on mitigating dilution;
(2) Any material changes to the fund's swing pricing policies and procedures since the date of the last report; and
( 3 ) Its review and assessment of the fund's swing threshold(s), swing factor(s), and swing factor upper limit considering the requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, including the information and data supporting the determination of the swing threshold(s), swing factor(s), and swing factor upper limit.
(iii) The fund shall maintain the policies and procedures adopted by the fund under this paragraph (a)(3) that are in effect, or at any time within the past six years were in effect, in an easily accessible place, and shall maintain a written copy of the report provided to the board under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section for six years, the first two in an easily accessible place.
(iv) Any fund (a “feeder fund”) that invests, pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-12(d)(1)(E)), in another fund (a “master fund”) may not use swing pricing to adjust the feeder fund's net asset value per share; however, a master fund may use swing pricing to adjust the master fund's net asset value per share, pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (a)(3).
(v) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3):
(A) Exchange-traded fund means an open-end management investment company (or series or class thereof), the shares of which are listed and traded on a national securities exchange, and that has formed and operates under an exemptive order under the Act granted by the Commission or in reliance on an exemptive rule adopted by the Commission.
(B) Swing factor means the amount, expressed as a percentage of the fund's net asset value and determined pursuant to the fund's swing pricing policies and procedures, by which a fund adjusts its net asset value per share once a fund's applicable swing threshold has been exceeded.
(C) Swing pricing means the process of adjusting a fund's current net asset value per share to mitigate dilution of the value of its outstanding redeemable securities as a result of shareholder purchase and redemption activity, pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (a)(3).
(D) Swing threshold means an amount of net purchases or net redemptions, expressed as a percentage of the fund's net asset value, that triggers the application of swing pricing.
(E) Transaction fees and charges means brokerage commissions, custody fees, and any other charges, fees, and taxes associated with portfolio asset purchases and sales.
(b) For the purposes of this section,
(1) The current net asset value of any such security shall be computed no less frequently than once daily, Monday through Friday, at the specific time or times during the day that the board of directors of the investment company sets, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, except on:
(i) Days on which changes in the value of the investment company's portfolio securities will not materially affect the current net asset value of the investment company's redeemable securities;
(ii) Days during which no security is tendered for redemption and no order to purchase or sell such security is received by the investment company; or
(iii) Customary national business holidays described or listed in the prospectus and local and regional business holidays listed in the prospectus; and
(2) A “qualified evaluator” shall mean any evaluator which represents it is in a position to determine, on the basis of an informal evaluation of the eligible trust securities held in the Trust's portfolio, whether—
(i) The current bid price is higher than the offering side evaluation, computed on the last business day of the previous week, and
(ii) The offering side evaluation, computed as of the last business day of the previous week, is more than one-half of one percent ($5.00 on a unit representing $1,000 principal amount of eligible trust securities) greater than the current offering price.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions above, any registered separate account offering variable annuity contracts, any person designated in such account's prospectus as authorized to consummate transactions in such contracts, and any principal underwriter of or dealer in such contracts shall be permitted to apply the initial purchase payment for any such contract at a price based on the current net asset value of such contract which is next computed:
(1) Not later than two business days after receipt of the order to purchase by the insurance company sponsoring the separate account (“insurer”), if the contract application and other information necessary for processing the order to purchase (collectively, “application”) are complete upon receipt; or
(2) Not later than two business days after an application which is incomplete upon receipt by the insurer is made complete, Provided, That, if an incomplete application is not made complete within five business days after receipt,
(i) The prospective purchaser shall be informed of the reasons for the delay, and
(ii) The initial purchase payment shall be returned immediately and in full, unless the prospective purchaser specifically consents to the insurer retaining the purchase payment until the application is made complete.
(3) As used in this section:
(i) Prospective Purchaser shall mean either an individual contractowner or an individual participant in a group contract.
(ii) Initial Purchase Payment shall refer to the first purchase payment submitted to the insurer by, or on behalf of, a prospective purchaser.
(d) The board of directors shall initially set the time or times during the day that the current net asset value shall be computed, and shall make and approve such changes as the board deems necessary.
§ 270.22c-2   Redemption fees for redeemable securities.
(a) Redemption fee. It is unlawful for any fund issuing redeemable securities, its principal underwriter, or any dealer in such securities, to redeem a redeemable security issued by the fund within seven calendar days after the security was purchased, unless it complies with the following requirements:
(1) Board determination. The fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund, must either:
(i) Approve a redemption fee, in an amount (but no more than two percent of the value of shares redeemed) and on shares redeemed within a time period (but no less than seven calendar days), that in its judgment is necessary or appropriate to recoup for the fund the costs it may incur as a result of those redemptions or to otherwise eliminate or reduce so far as practicable any dilution of the value of the outstanding securities issued by the fund, the proceeds of which fee will be retained by the fund; or
(ii) Determine that imposition of a redemption fee is either not necessary or not appropriate.
(2) Shareholder information. With respect to each financial intermediary that submits orders, itself or through its agent, to purchase or redeem shares directly to the fund, its principal underwriter or transfer agent, or to a registered clearing agency, the fund (or on the fund's behalf, the principal underwriter or transfer agent) must either:
(i) Enter into a shareholder information agreement with the financial intermediary (or its agent); or
(ii) Prohibit the financial intermediary from purchasing in nominee name on behalf of other persons, securities issued by the fund. For purposes of this paragraph, “purchasing” does not include the automatic reinvestment of dividends.
(3) Recordkeeping. The fund must maintain a copy of the written agreement under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section that is in effect, or at any time within the past six years was in effect, in an easily accessible place.
(b) Excepted funds. The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to the following funds, unless they elect to impose a redemption fee pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
(1) Money market funds;
(2) Any fund that issues securities that are listed on a national securities exchange; and
(3) Any fund that affirmatively permits short-term trading of its securities, if its prospectus clearly and prominently discloses that the fund permits short-term trading of its securities and that such trading may result in additional costs for the fund.
(c) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:
(1) Financial intermediary means:
(i) Any broker, dealer, bank, or other person that holds securities issued by the fund, in nominee name;
(ii) A unit investment trust or fund that invests in the fund in reliance on section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-12(d)(1)(E)); and
(iii) In the case of a participant-directed employee benefit plan that owns the securities issued by the fund, a retirement plan's administrator under section 3(16)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002(16)(A)) or any person that maintains the plan's participant records.
(iv) Financial intermediary does not include any person that the fund treats as an individual investor with respect to the fund's policies established for the purpose of eliminating or reducing any dilution of the value of the outstanding securities issued by the fund.
(2) Fund means an open-end management investment company that is registered or required to register under section 8 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), and includes a separate series of such an investment company.
(3) Money market fund means an open-end management investment company that is registered under the Act and is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7.
(4) Shareholder includes a beneficial owner of securities held in nominee name, a participant in a participant-directed employee benefit plan, and a holder of interests in a fund or unit investment trust that has invested in the fund in reliance on section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act. A shareholder does not include a fund investing pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-12(d)(1)(G)), a trust established pursuant to section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529), or a holder of an interest in such a trust.
(5) Shareholder information agreement means a written agreement under which a financial intermediary agrees to:
(i) Provide, promptly upon request by a fund, the Taxpayer Identification Number (or in the case of non U.S. shareholders, if the Taxpayer Identification Number is unavailable, the International Taxpayer Identification Number or other government issued identifier) of all shareholders who have purchased, redeemed, transferred, or exchanged fund shares held through an account with the financial intermediary, and the amount and dates of such shareholder purchases, redemptions, transfers, and exchanges;
(ii) Execute any instructions from the fund to restrict or prohibit further purchases or exchanges of fund shares by a shareholder who has been identified by the fund as having engaged in transactions of fund shares (directly or indirectly through the intermediary's account) that violate policies established by the fund for the purpose of eliminating or reducing any dilution of the value of the outstanding securities issued by the fund; and
(iii) Use best efforts to determine, promptly upon request of the fund, whether any specific person about whom it has received the identification and transaction information set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, is itself a financial intermediary (“indirect intermediary”) and, upon further request by the fund:
(A) Provide (or arrange to have provided) the identification and transaction information set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section regarding shareholders who hold an account with an indirect intermediary; or
(B) Restrict or prohibit the indirect intermediary from purchasing, in nominee name on behalf of other persons, securities issued by the fund.
§ 270.22d-1   Exemption from section 22(d) to permit sales of redeemable securities at prices which reflect sales loads set pursuant to a schedule.
A registered investment company that is the issuer of redeemable securities, a principal underwriter of such securities or a dealer therein shall be exempt from the provisions of section 22(d) to the extent necessary to permit the sale of such securities at prices that reflect scheduled variations in, or elimination of, the sales load. These price schedules may offer such variations in or elimination of the sales load to particular classes of investors or transactions, Provided, That:
(a) The company, the principal underwriter and dealers in the company's shares apply any scheduled variation uniformly to all offerees in the class specified;
(b) The company furnishes to existing shareholders and prospective investors adequate information concerning any scheduled variation, as prescribed in applicable registration statement form requirements;
(c) Before making any new sales load variation available to purchasers of the company's shares, the company revises its prospectus and statement of additional information to describe that new variation; and
(d) The company advises existing shareholders of any new sales load variation within one year of the date when that variation is first made available to purchasers of the company's shares.
§ 270.22d-2   Exemption from section 22(d) for certain registered separate accounts.
A registered separate account, any principal underwriter for such account, any dealer in contracts or units of interest or participations in such contracts issued by such account and any insurance company maintaining such account shall, with respect to any variable annuity contracts, units, or participations therein issued by such account, be exempted from section 22(d) to the extent necessary to permit the sale of such contracts, units or participations by such persons at prices which reflect variations in the sales load or in any administrative charge or other deductions from the purchase payments; Provided, however, That (a) the prospectus discloses as precisely as possible the amount of the variations and the circumstances, if any, in which such variations shall be available or describes the basis for such variations and the manner in which entitlement shall be determined, and (b) any such variations reflect differences in costs or services and are not unfairly discriminatory against any person.
§ 270.22e-1   Exemption from section 22(e) of the Act during annuity payment period of variable annuity contracts participating in certain registered separate accounts.
(a) A registered separate account, shall during the annuity payment period of variable annuity contracts participating in such account, be exempt from the provisions of section 22(e) of the Act prohibiting the suspension of the right of redemption or postponement of the date of payment or satisfaction upon redemption of any redeemable security, with respect to such contracts under which payments are being made based upon life contingencies.
§ 270.22e-2   Pricing of redemption requests in accordance with Rule 22c-1.
An investment company shall not be deemed to have suspended the right of redemption if it prices a redemption request by computing the net asset value of the investment company's redeemable securities in accordance with the provisions of Rule 22c-1.
§ 270.22e-3   Exemption for liquidation of money market funds.
(a) Exemption. A registered open-end management investment company or series thereof (“fund”) that is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7 is exempt from the requirements of section 22(e) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-22(e)) if:
(1) The fund, at the end of a business day, has invested less than ten percent of its total assets in weekly liquid assets or, in the case of a fund that is a government money market fund, as defined in § 270.2a-7(a)(14) or a retail money market fund, as defined in § 270.2a-7(a)(21), the fund's price per share as computed for the purpose of distribution, redemption and repurchase, rounded to the nearest one percent, has deviated from the stable price established by the board of directors or the fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund, determines that such a deviation is likely to occur;
(2) The fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund, irrevocably has approved the liquidation of the fund; and
(3) The fund, prior to suspending redemptions, notifies the Commission of its decision to liquidate and suspend redemptions by electronic mail directed to the attention of the Director of the Division of Investment Management or the Director's designee.
(b) Conduits. Any registered investment company, or series thereof, that owns, pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-12(d)(1)(E)), shares of a money market fund that has suspended redemptions of shares pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section also is exempt from the requirements of section 22(e) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-22(e)). A registered investment company relying on the exemption provided in this paragraph must promptly notify the Commission that it has suspended redemptions in reliance on this section. Notification under this paragraph shall be made by electronic mail directed to the attention of the Director of the Division of Investment Management or the Director's designee.
(c) Commission Orders. For the protection of shareholders, the Commission may issue an order to rescind or modify the exemption provided by this section, after appropriate notice and opportunity for hearing in accordance with section 40 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-39).
(d) Definitions. Each of the terms business day, total assets, and weekly liquid assets has the same meaning as defined in § 270.2a-7.
§ 270.22e-4   Liquidity risk management programs.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Acquisition (or acquire) means any purchase or subsequent rollover.
(2) Business day means any day, other than Saturday, Sunday, or any customary business holiday.
(3) Convertible to cash means the ability to be sold, with the sale settled.
(4) Exchange-traded fund or ETF means an open-end management investment company (or series or class thereof), the shares of which are listed and traded on a national securities exchange, and that has formed and operates under an exemptive order under the Act granted by the Commission or in reliance on an exemptive rule adopted by the Commission.
(5) Fund means an open-end management investment company that is registered or required to register under section 8 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-8) and includes a separate series of such an investment company, but does not include a registered open-end management investment company that is regulated as a money market fund under § 270.2a-7 or an In-Kind ETF.
(6) Highly liquid investment means any cash held by a fund and any investment that the fund reasonably expects to be convertible into cash in current market conditions in three business days or less without the conversion to cash significantly changing the market value of the investment, as determined pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
(7) Highly liquid investment minimum means the percentage of the fund's net assets that the fund invests in highly liquid investments that are assets pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
(8) Illiquid investment means any investment that the fund reasonably expects cannot be sold or disposed of in current market conditions in seven calendar days or less without the sale or disposition significantly changing the market value of the investment, as determined pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
(9) In-Kind Exchange Traded Fund or In-Kind ETF means an ETF that meets redemptions through in-kind transfers of securities, positions, and assets other than a de minimis amount of cash and that publishes its portfolio holdings daily.
(10) Less liquid investment means any investment that the fund reasonably expects to be able to sell or dispose of in current market conditions in seven calendar days or less without the sale or disposition significantly changing the market value of the investment, as determined pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, but where the sale or disposition is reasonably expected to settle in more than seven calendar days.
(11) Liquidity risk means the risk that the fund could not meet requests to redeem shares issued by the fund without significant dilution of remaining investors' interests in the fund.
(12) Moderately liquid investment means any investment that the fund reasonably expects to be convertible into cash in current market conditions in more than three calendar days but in seven calendar days or less, without the conversion to cash significantly changing the market value of the investment, as determined pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
(13) Person(s) designated to administer the program means the fund or In-Kind ETF's investment adviser, officer, or officers (which may not be solely portfolio managers of the fund or In-Kind ETF) responsible for administering the program and its policies and procedures pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
(14) Unit Investment Trust or UIT means a unit investment trust as defined in section 4(2) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-4).
(b) Liquidity Risk Management Program. Each fund and In-Kind ETF must adopt and implement a written liquidity risk management program (“program”) that is reasonably designed to assess and manage its liquidity risk.
(1) Required program elements. The program must include policies and procedures reasonably designed to incorporate the following elements:
(i) Assessment, management, and periodic review of liquidity risk. Each fund and In-Kind ETF must assess, manage, and periodically review (with such review occurring no less frequently than annually) its liquidity risk, which must include consideration of the following factors, as applicable:
(A) The fund or In-Kind ETF's investment strategy and liquidity of portfolio investments during both normal and reasonably foreseeable stressed conditions, including whether the investment strategy is appropriate for an open-end fund, the extent to which the strategy involves a relatively concentrated portfolio or large positions in particular issuers, and the use of borrowings for investment purposes and derivatives;
(B) Short-term and long-term cash flow projections during both normal and reasonably foreseeable stressed conditions;
(C) Holdings of cash and cash equivalents, as well as borrowing arrangements and other funding sources; and
(D) For an ETF:
( 1 ) The relationship between the ETF's portfolio liquidity and the way in which, and the prices and spreads at which, ETF shares trade, including, the efficiency of the arbitrage function and the level of active participation by market participants (including authorized participants); and
( 2 ) The effect of the composition of baskets on the overall liquidity of the ETF's portfolio.
(ii) Classification. Each fund must, using information obtained after reasonable inquiry and taking into account relevant market, trading, and investment-specific considerations, classify each of the fund's portfolio investments (including each of the fund's derivatives transactions) as a highly liquid investment, moderately liquid investment, less liquid investment, or illiquid investment. A fund must review its portfolio investments' classifications, at least monthly in connection with reporting the liquidity classification for each portfolio investment on Form N-PORT in accordance with § 270.30b1-9, and more frequently if changes in relevant market, trading, and investment-specific considerations are reasonably expected to materially affect one or more of its investments' classifications.
If an investment could be viewed as either a highly liquid investment or a moderately liquid investment, because the period to convert the investment to cash depends on the calendar or business day convention used, a fund should classify the investment as a highly liquid investment. For a discussion of considerations that may be relevant in classifying the liquidity of the fund's portfolio investments, see Investment Company Act Release No. IC-32315 (Oct. 13, 2016).
(A) The fund may generally classify and review its portfolio investments (including the fund's derivatives transactions) according to their asset class, provided, however, that the fund must separately classify and review any investment within an asset class if the fund or its adviser has information about any market, trading, or investment-specific considerations that are reasonably expected to significantly affect the liquidity characteristics of that investment as compared to the fund's other portfolio holdings within that asset class.
(B) In classifying and reviewing its portfolio investments or asset classes (as applicable), the fund must determine whether trading varying portions of a position in a particular portfolio investment or asset class, in sizes that the fund would reasonably anticipate trading, is reasonably expected to significantly affect its liquidity, and if so, the fund must take this determination into account when classifying the liquidity of that investment or asset class.
(C) For derivatives transactions that the fund has classified as moderately liquid investments, less liquid investments, and illiquid investments, identify the percentage of the fund's highly liquid investments that it has pledged as margin or collateral in connection with derivatives transactions in each of these classification categories.
For purposes of calculating these percentages, a fund that has pledged highly liquid investments and non-highly liquid investments as margin or collateral in connection with derivatives transactions classified as moderately liquid, less liquid, or illiquid investments first should apply pledged assets that are highly liquid investments in connection with these transactions, unless it has specifically identified non-highly liquid investments as margin or collateral in connection with such derivatives transactions.
(iii) Highly liquid investment minimum. (A) Any fund that does not primarily hold assets that are highly liquid investments must:
( 1 ) Determine a highly liquid investment minimum, considering the factors specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section, as applicable (but considering those factors specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) and (B) only as they apply during normal conditions, and during stressed conditions only to the extent they are reasonably foreseeable during the period until the next review of the highly liquid investment minimum). The highly liquid investment minimum determined pursuant to this paragraph may not be changed during any period of time that a fund's assets that are highly liquid investments are below the determined minimum without approval from the fund's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund;
( 2 ) Periodically review, no less frequently than annually, the highly liquid investment minimum; and
( 3 ) Adopt and implement policies and procedures for responding to a shortfall of the fund's highly liquid investments below its highly liquid investment minimum, which must include requiring the person(s) designated to administer the program to report to the fund's board of directors no later than its next regularly scheduled meeting with a brief explanation of the causes of the shortfall, the extent of the shortfall, and any actions taken in response, and if the shortfall lasts more than 7 consecutive calendar days, must include requiring the person(s) designated to administer the program to report to the board within one business day thereafter with an explanation of how the fund plans to restore its minimum within a reasonable period of time.
(B) For purposes of determining whether a fund primarily holds assets that are highly liquid investments, a fund must exclude from its calculations the percentage of the fund's assets that are highly liquid investments that it has pledged as margin or collateral in connection with derivatives transactions that the fund has classified as moderately liquid investments, less liquid investments, and illiquid investments, as determined pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of this section.
(iv) Illiquid investments. No fund or In-Kind ETF may acquire any illiquid investment if, immediately after the acquisition, the fund or In-Kind ETF would have invested more than 15% of its net assets in illiquid investments that are assets. If a fund or In-Kind ETF holds more than 15% of its net assets in illiquid investments that are assets:
(A) It must cause the person(s) designated to administer the program to report such an occurrence to the fund's or In-Kind ETF's board of directors within one business day of the occurrence, with an explanation of the extent and causes of the occurrence, and how the fund or In-Kind ETF plans to bring its illiquid investments that are assets to or below 15% of its net assets within a reasonable period of time; and
(B) If the amount of the fund's or In-Kind ETF's illiquid investments that are assets is still above 15% of its net assets 30 days from the occurrence (and at each consecutive 30 day period thereafter), the fund or In-Kind ETF's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund or In-Kind ETF, must assess whether the plan presented to it pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) continues to be in the best interest of the fund or In-Kind ETF.
(v) Redemptions in Kind. A fund that engages in, or reserves the right to engage in, redemptions in kind and any In-Kind ETF must establish policies and procedures regarding how and when it will engage in such redemptions in kind.
(2) Board oversight. A fund or In-Kind ETF's board of directors, including a majority of directors who are not interested persons of the fund or In-Kind ETF, must:
(i) Initially approve the liquidity risk management program;
(ii) Approve the designation of the person(s) designated to administer the program; and
(iii) Review, no less frequently than annually, a written report prepared by the person(s) designated to administer the program that addresses the operation of the program and assesses its adequacy and effectiveness of implementation, including, if applicable, the operation of the highly liquid investment minimum, and any material changes to the program.
(3) Recordkeeping. The fund or In-Kind ETF must maintain:
(i) A written copy of the program and any associated policies and procedures adopted pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(2) of this section that are in effect, or at any time within the past five years were in effect, in an easily accessible place;
(ii) Copies of any materials provided to the board of directors in connection with its approval under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and materials provided to the board of directors under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, for at least five years after the end of the fiscal year in which the documents were provided, the first two years in an easily accessible place; and
(iii) If applicable, a written record of the policies and procedures related to how the highly liquid investment minimum, and any adjustments thereto, were determined, including assessment of the factors incorporated in paragraphs (b)(1)(iii)(A) through (B) of this section and any materials provided to the board pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A)( 3 ) of this section, for a period of not less than five years (the first two years in an easily accessible place) following the determination of, and each change to, the highly liquid investment minimum.
(c) UIT liquidity. On or before the date of initial deposit of portfolio securities into a registered UIT, the UIT's principal underwriter or depositor must determine that the portion of the illiquid investments that the UIT holds or will hold at the date of deposit that are assets is consistent with the redeemable nature of the securities it issues, and must maintain a record of that determination for the life of the UIT and for five years thereafter.
§ 270.23c-1   Repurchase of securities by closed-end companies.
(a) A registered closed-end company may purchase for cash a security of which it is the issuer, subject to the following conditions:
(1) If the security is a stock entitled to cumulative dividends, such dividends are not in arrears.
(2) If the security is a stock not entitled to cumulative dividends, at least 90 percent of the net income of the issuer for the last preceding fiscal year, determined in accordance with good accounting practice and not including profits or losses realized from the sale of securities or other properties, was distributed to its shareholders during such fiscal year or within 60 days after the close of such fiscal year.
(3) If the security to be purchased is junior to any class of outstanding security of the issuer representing indebtedness (except notes or other evidences of indebtedness held by a bank or other person, the issuance of which did not involve a public offering) all securities of such class shall have an asset coverage of at least 300 percent immediately after such purchase; and if the security to be purchased is junior to any class of outstanding senior security of the issuer which is a stock, all securities of such class shall have an asset coverage of at least 200 percent immediately after such purchase, and shall not be in arrears as to dividends.
(4) The seller of the security is not to the knowledge of the issuer an affiliated person of the issuer.
(5) Payment of the purchase price is accompanied or preceded by a written confirmation of the purchase.
(6) The purchase is made at a price not above the market value, if any, or the asset value of such security, whichever is lower, at the time of such purchase.
(7) The issuer discloses to the seller or, if the seller is acting through a broker, to the seller's broker, either prior to or at the time of purchase the approximate or estimated asset coverage per unit of the security to be purchased.
(8) No brokerage commission is paid by the issuer to any affiliated person of the issuer in connection with the purchase.
(9) The purchase is not made in a manner or on a basis which discriminates unfairly against any holders of the class of securities purchased.
(10) If the security is a stock, the issuer has, within the preceding six months, informed stockholders of its intention to purchase stock of such class by letter or report addressed to all the stockholders of such class.
(11) The issuer files with the Commission, as an exhibit to Form N-CSR (§ 249.331 and § 274.128), a copy of any written solicitation to purchase securities under this section sent or given during the period covered by the report by or on behalf of the issuer to 10 or more persons.
(b) Notwithstanding the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section, a closed-end company may purchase fractional interests in, or fractional rights to receive, any security of which it is the issuer.
(c) This rule does not apply to purchase of securities made pursuant to section 23(c)(1) or (2) of the Act (54 Stat. 825; 15 U.S.C. 80a-23). A registered closed-end company may file an application with the Commission for an order under section 23(c)(3) of the Act permitting the purchase of any security of which it is the issuer which does not meet the conditions of this rule and which is not to be made pursuant to section 23(c)(1) or (2) of the Act.
(d) This rule relates exclusively to the requirements of section 23(c) of the Act, and the provisions hereof shall not be construed to authorize any action which contravenes any other applicable law, statutory or otherwise, or the provision of any indenture or other instrument pursuant to which securities of the issuer were issued.
For interpretative release applicable to § 270.23c-1, see No. 78 in tabulation, part 271 of this chapter.
§ 270.23c-2   Call and redemption of securities issued by registered closed-end companies.
(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of § 270.23c-1 (Rule N-23c-1), a registered closed-end investment company may call or redeem any securities of which it is the issuer, in accordance with the terms of such securities or the charter, indenture or other instrument pursuant to which such securities were issued: Provided, That, if less than all the outstanding securities of a class or series are to be called or redeemed the call or redemption shall be made by lot, on a pro rata basis, or in such other manner as will not discriminate unfairly against any holder of the securities of such class or series.
(b) A registered closed-end investment company which proposes to call or redeem any securities of which it is the issuer shall file with the Commission notice of its intention to call or redeem such securities at least 30 days prior to the date set for the call or redemption; Provided, however, That if notice of the call or the redemption is required to be published in a newspaper or otherwise, notice shall be given to the Commission at least 10 days in advance of the date of publication. Such notice shall be filed in triplicate and shall include (1) the title of the class of securities to be called or redeemed, (2) the date on which the securities are to be called or redeemed, (3) the applicable provisions of the governing instrument pursuant to which the securities are to be called or redeemed and, (4) if less than all the outstanding securities of a class or series are to be called or redeemed, the principal amount or number of shares and the basis upon which the securities to be called or redeemed are to be selected.
§ 270.23c-3   Repurchase offers by closed-end companies.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Periodic interval shall mean an interval of three, six, or twelve months.
(2) Repurchase offer shall mean an offer pursuant to this section by an investment company to repurchase common stock of which it is the issuer.
(3) Repurchase offer amount shall mean the amount of common stock that is the subject of a repurchase offer, expressed as a percentage of such stock outstanding on the repurchase request deadline, that an investment company offers to repurchase in a repurchase offer. The repurchase offer amount shall not be less than five percent nor more than twenty-five percent of the common stock outstanding on a repurchase request deadline. Before each repurchase offer, the repurchase offer amount for that repurchase offer shall be determined by the directors of the company.
(4) Repurchase payment deadline with respect to a tender of common stock shall mean the date by which an investment company must pay securities holders for any stock repurchased. A repurchase payment deadline shall occur seven days after the repurchase pricing date applicable to such tender.
(5) Repurchase pricing date with respect to a tender of common stock shall mean the date on which an investment company determines the net asset value applicable to the repurchase of the securities. A repurchase pricing date shall occur no later than the fourteenth day after a repurchase request deadline, or the next business day if the fourteenth day is not a business day. In no event shall an investment company determine the net asset value applicable to the repurchase of the stock before the close of business on the repurchase request deadline.
(i) For an investment company making a repurchase offer pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the number of days between the repurchase request deadline and the repurchase pricing date for a repurchase offer shall be the maximum number specified by the company pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D) of this section.
(ii) For an investment company making a repurchase offer pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the repurchase pricing date shall be such date as the company shall disclose to security holders in the notification pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section with respect to such offer.
(iii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a repurchase pricing date may be a date earlier than the date determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(5) (i) or (ii) of this section if, on or immediately following the repurchase request deadline, it appears that the use of an earlier repurchase pricing date is not likely to result in significant dilution of the net asset value of either stock that is tendered for repurchase or stock that is not tendered.
(6) Repurchase request shall mean the tender of common stock in response to a repurchase offer.
(7) Repurchase request deadline with respect to a repurchase offer shall mean the date by which an investment company must receive repurchase requests submitted by security holders in response to that offer or withdrawals or modifications of previously submitted repurchase requests. The first repurchase request deadline after the effective date of the registration statement for the common stock that is the subject of a repurchase offer, or after a shareholder vote adopting the fundamental policy specifying a company's periodic interval, whichever is later, shall occur no later than two periodic intervals thereafter.
(b) Periodic repurchase offers. A registered closed-end company or a business development company may repurchase common stock of which it is the issuer from the holders of the stock at periodic intervals, pursuant to repurchase offers made to all holders of the stock, Provided that:
(1) The company shall repurchase the stock for cash at the net asset value determined on the repurchase pricing date and shall pay the holders of the stock by the repurchase payment deadline except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The company may deduct from the repurchase proceeds only a repurchase fee, not to exceed two percent of the proceeds, that is paid to the company and is reasonably intended to compensate the company for expenses directly related to the repurchase. A company may not condition a repurchase offer upon the tender of any minimum amount of shares.
(2)(i) The company shall repurchase the security pursuant to a fundamental policy, changeable only by a majority vote of the outstanding voting securities of the company, stating:
(A) That the company will make repurchase offers at periodic intervals pursuant to this section, as this section may be amended from time to time;
(B) The periodic intervals between repurchase request deadlines;
(C) The dates of repurchase request deadlines or the means of determining the repurchase request deadlines; and
(D) The maximum number of days between each repurchase request deadline and the next repurchase pricing date.
(ii) The company shall include a statement in its annual report to shareholders of the following:
(A) Its policy under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
(B) With respect to repurchase offers by the company during the period covered by the annual report, the number of repurchase offers, the repurchase offer amount and the amount tendered in each repurchase offer, and the extent to which in any repurchase offer the company repurchased stock pursuant to the procedures in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
(iii) A company shall be deemed to be making repurchase offers pursuant to a policy within paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if:
(A) The company makes repurchase offers to its security holders at periodic intervals and, before May 14, 1993, has disclosed in its registration statement its intention to make or consider making such repurchase offers; and
(B) The company's board of directors adopts a policy specifying the matters required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and the periodic interval specified therein conforms generally to the frequency of the company's prior repurchase offers.
(3)(i) The company shall not suspend or postpone a repurchase offer except pursuant to a vote of a majority of the directors, including a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the company, and only:
(A) If the repurchase would cause the company to lose its status as a regulated investment company under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code [26 U.S.C. 851-860];
(B) If the repurchase would cause the stock that is the subject of the offer that is either listed on a national securities exchange or quoted in an inter-dealer quotation system of a national securities association to be neither listed on any national securities exchange nor quoted on any inter-dealer quotation system of a national securities association;
(C) For any period during which the New York Stock Exchange or any other market in which the securities owned by the company are principally traded is closed, other than customary week-end and holiday closings, or during which trading in such market is restricted;
(D) For any period during which an emergency exists as a result of which disposal by the company of securities owned by it is not reasonably practicable, or during which it is not reasonably practicable for the company fairly to determine the value of its net assets; or
(E) For such other periods as the Commission may by order permit for the protection of security holders of the company.
(ii) If a repurchase offer is suspended or postponed, the company shall provide notice to security holders of such suspension or postponement. If the company renews the repurchase offer, the company shall send a new notification to security holders satisfying the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
(4)(i) No less than twenty-one and no more than forty-two days before each repurchase request deadline, the company shall send to each holder of record and to each beneficial owner of the stock that is the subject of the repurchase offer a notification providing the following information:
(A) A statement that the company is offering to repurchase its securities from security holders at net asset value;
(B) Any fees applicable to such repurchase;
(C) The repurchase offer amount;
(D) The dates of the repurchase request deadline, repurchase pricing date, and repurchase payment deadline, the risk of fluctuation in net asset value between the repurchase request deadline and the repurchase pricing date, and the possibility that the company may use an earlier repurchase pricing date pursuant to paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section;
(E) The procedures for security holders to tender their shares and the right of the security holders to withdraw or modify their tenders until the repurchase request deadline;
(F) The procedures under which the company may repurchase such shares on a pro rata basis pursuant to paragraph (b)(5) of this section;
(G) The circumstances in which the company may suspend or postpone a repurchase offer pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section;
(H) The net asset value of the common stock computed no more than seven days before the date of the notification and the means by which security holders may ascertain the net asset value thereafter; and
(I) The market price, if any, of the common stock on the date on which such net asset value was computed, and the means by which security holders may ascertain the market price thereafter.
(ii) The company shall file three copies of the notification with the Commission within three business days after sending the notification to security holders. Those copies shall be accompanied by copies of Form N-23c-3 (§ 274.221 of this chapter) (“Notification of Repurchase Offer”). The format of the copies shall comply with the requirements for registration statements and reports under § 270.8b-12 of this chapter.
(iii) For purposes of sending a notification to a beneficial owner pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, where the company knows that shares of common stock that is the subject of a repurchase offer are held of record by a broker, dealer, voting trustee, bank, association or other entity that exercises fiduciary powers in nominee name or otherwise, the company shall follow the procedures for transmitting materials to beneficial owners of securities that are set forth in § 240.14a-13 of this chapter.
(5) If security holders tender more than the repurchase offer amount, the company may repurchase an additional amount of stock not to exceed two percent of the common stock outstanding on the repurchase request deadline. If the company determines not to repurchase more than the repurchase offer amount, or if security holders tender stock in an amount exceeding the repurchase offer amount plus two percent of the common stock outstanding on the repurchase request deadline, the company shall repurchase the shares tendered on a pro rata basis; Provided, however, That this provision shall not prohibit the company from:
(i) Accepting all stock tendered by persons who own, beneficially or of record, an aggregate of not more than a specified number which is less than one hundred shares and who tender all of their stock, before prorating stock tendered by others; or
(ii) Accepting by lot stock tendered by security holders who tender all stock held by them and who, when tendering their stock, elect to have either all or none or at least a minimum amount or none accepted, if the company first accepts all stock tendered by security holders who do not so elect.
(6) The company shall permit tenders of stock for repurchase to be withdrawn or modified at any time until the repurchase request deadline but shall not permit tenders to be withdrawn or modified thereafter.
(7)(i) The current net asset value of the company's common stock shall be computed no less frequently than weekly on such day and at such specific time or times during the day that the board of directors of the company shall set.
(ii) The current net asset value of the company's common stock shall be computed daily on the five business days preceding a repurchase request deadline at such specific time or times during the day that the board of directors of the company shall set.
(iii) For purposes of section 23(b) [15 U.S.C. 80a-23(b)], the current net asset value applicable to a sale of common stock by the company shall be the net asset value next determined after receipt of an order to purchase such stock. During any period when the company is offering its common stock, the current net asset value of the common stock shall be computed no less frequently than once daily, Monday through Friday, at the specific time or times during the day that the board of directors of the company shall set, except on:
(A) Days on which changes in the value of the company's portfolio securities will not materially affect the current net asset value of the common stock;
(B) Days during which no order to purchase its common stock is received, other than days when the net asset value would otherwise be computed pursuant to paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section; or
(C) Customary national, local, and regional business holidays described or listed in the prospectus.
(8) The board of directors of the investment company satisfies the fund governance standards defined in § 270.0-1(a)(7).
(9) Any senior security issued by the company or other indebtedness contracted by the company either shall mature by the next repurchase pricing date or shall provide for the redemption or call of such security or the repayment of such indebtedness by the company by the next repurchase pricing date, either in whole or in part, without penalty or premium, as necessary to permit the company to repurchase securities in such repurchase offer amount as the directors of the company shall determine in compliance with the asset coverage requirements of section 18 [15 U.S.C. 80a-18] or 61 [15 U.S.C. 80a-60], as applicable.
(10)(i) From the time a company sends a notification to shareholders pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section until the repurchase pricing date, a percentage of the company's assets equal to at least 100 percent of the repurchase offer amount shall consist of assets that can be sold or disposed of in the ordinary course of business, at approximately the price at which the company has valued the investment, within a period equal to the period between a repurchase request deadline and the repurchase payment deadline, or of assets that mature by the next repurchase payment deadline.
(ii) In the event that the company's assets fail to comply with the requirements in paragraph (b)(10)(i) of this section, the board of directors shall cause the company to take such action as it deems appropriate to ensure compliance.
(iii) In supervising the company's operations and portfolio management by the investment adviser, the company's board of directors shall adopt written procedures reasonably designed, taking into account current market conditions and the company's investment objectives, to ensure that the company's portfolio assets are sufficiently liquid so that the company can comply with its fundamental policy on repurchases, and comply with the liquidity requirements of paragraph (b)(10)(i) of this section. The board of directors shall review the overall composition of the portfolio and make and approve such changes to the procedures as the board deems necessary.
(11) The company, or any underwriter for the company, shall comply, as if the company were an open-end company, with the provisions of section 24(b) [15 U.S.C. 80a-24(b)] and rules issued thereunder with respect to any advertisement, pamphlet, circular, form letter, or other sales literature addressed to or intended for distribution to prospective investors.
(c) Discretionary repurchase offers. A registered closed-end company or a business development company may repurchase common stock of which it is the issuer from the holders of the stock pursuant to a repurchase offer that is not made pursuant to a fundamental policy and that is made to all holders of the stock not earlier than two years after another offer pursuant to this paragraph (c) if the company complies with the requirements of paragraphs (b) (1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7)(ii), (8), (10)(i), and (10)(ii) of this section.
(d) Exemption from the definition of redeemable security. A company that makes repurchase offers pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section shall not be deemed thereby to be an issuer of redeemable securities within section 2(a)(32) [15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(32)].
(e) Registration of an indefinite amount of securities. A company that makes repurchase offers pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall be deemed to have registered an indefinite amount of securities pursuant to Section 24(f) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-24(f)) upon the effective date of its registration statement.
§ 270.24b-1   Definitions.
(a) The term form letter as used in section 24(b) of the Act includes (1) one of a series of identical sales letters, and (2) any sales letter a substantial portion of which consists of a statement which is in essence identical with similar statements in sales letters sent to 25 or more persons within any period of 90 consecutive days.
(b) The term distribution as used in section 24(b) of the Act includes the distribution or redistribution to prospective investors of the content of any written sales literature, whether such distribution or redistribution is effected by means of written or oral representations or statements.
(c) The terms rules and regulations as used in section 24 (a) and (c) of the Act shall include the forms for registration of securities under the Securities Act of 1933 and the related instructions thereto.
§ 270.24b-2   Filing copies of sales literature.
Copies of material filed with the Commission for the sole purpose of complying with section 24(b) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-24(b)) either shall be accompanied by a letter of transmittal which makes appropriate references to said section or shall make such appropriate reference on the face of the material.
§ 270.24b-3   Sales literature deemed filed.
Any advertisement, pamphlet, circular, form letter or other sales literature addressed to or intended for distribution to prospective investors shall be deemed filed with the Commission for purposes of section 24(b) of the Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-24(b)] upon filing with a national securities association registered under section 15A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 [15 U.S.C. 78 o ] that has adopted rules providing standards for the investment company advertising practices of its members and has established and implemented procedures to review that advertising.
§ 270.24b-4   Filing copies of covered investment fund research reports.
A covered investment fund research report, as defined in paragraph (c)(3) of § 230.139b of this chapter under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a et seq. ), of a covered investment fund registered as an investment company under the Act, shall not be subject to section 24(b) of the Act or the rules and regulations thereunder, except that such report shall be subject to such section and the rules and regulations thereunder to the extent that it is otherwise not subject to the content standards in the rules of any self-regulatory organization related to research reports, including those contained in the rules governing communications with the public regarding investment companies or substantially similar standards.
§ 270.24e-1   Filing of certain prospectuses as post-effective amendments to registration statements under the Securities Act of 1933.
Section 24(e) of the Act requires that when a prospectus is revised so that it may be available for use in compliance with section 10(a)(3) of the Securities Act of 1933 for a period extending beyond the time when the previous prospectus would have ceased to be available for such use, such revised prospectus, in order to meet the requirements of section 10 of said Act, must be filed as an amendment to the registration statement under said Act and such amendment must have become effective prior to the use of the revised prospectus. Except as hereinabove provided, section 24(e) of the Act shall not be deemed to govern the times and conditions under which post-effective amendments shall be filed to registration statements under the Securities Act of 1933.
§ 270.24f-2   Registration under the Securities Act of 1933 of certain investment company securities.
(a) General. Any face-amount certificate company, open-end management company, closed-end management company that makes periodic repurchase offers pursuant to § 270.23c-3(b), or unit investment trust (“issuer”) that is deemed to have registered an indefinite amount of securities pursuant to Section 24(f) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-24(f)) must not later than 90 days after the end of any fiscal year during which it has publicly offered such securities, file Form 24F-2 (17 CFR 274.24) with the Commission.  Form 24F-2 must be prepared in accordance with the requirements of that form, and must be accompanied by the payment of a registration fee with respect to the securities sold during the fiscal year in reliance upon registration pursuant to section 24(f) of the Act calculated in the manner specified in section 24(f) of the Act and in the Form. An issuer that pays the registration fee more than 90 days after the end of its fiscal year must pay interest in the manner specified in section 24(f) of the Act and in Form 24F-2.
(b) Issuer ceasing operations; mergers and other transactions. For purposes of this section, if an issuer ceases operations, the date the issuer ceases operations will be deemed to be the end of its fiscal year. In the case of a liquidation, merger, or sale of all or substantially all of the assets (“merger”) of the issuer, the issuer will be deemed to have ceased operations for the purposes of this section on the date the merger is consummated; provided, however, that in the case of a merger of an issuer or a series of an issuer (“Predecessor Issuer”) with another issuer or a series of an issuer (“Successor Issuer”), the Predecessor Issuer will not be deemed to have ceased operations and the Successor issuer will assume the obligations, fees, and redemption credits of the Predecessor Issuer incurred pursuant to section 24(f) of the Act and § 270.24e-2 (as in effect prior to October 11, 1997; see 17 CFR part 240 to end, revised as of April 1, 1997) if the Successor Issuer:
(1) had no assets or liabilities, other than nominal assets or liabilities, and no operating history immediately prior to the merger;
(2) Acquired substantially all of the assets and assumed substantially all of the liabilities and obligations of the Predecessor Issuer; and
(3) The merger is not designed to result in the Predecessor Issuer merging with, or substantially all of its assets being acquired by, an issuer (or a series of an issuer) that would not meet the conditions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(c) Counting days. To determine the date on which Form 24F-2 must be filed with the Commission under paragraph (a) of this section, the first day of the 90-day period is the first calendar day of the fiscal year following the fiscal year for which the Form is to be filed. If the last day of the 90-day period falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday, the period ends on the first business day thereafter.
For example, a Form 24F-2 for a fiscal year ending on June 30 must be filed no later than September 28. If September 28 falls on a Saturday, Sunday, the Form must be filed on the following Monday.