Context: when were they published?

Context: Between October 1787 and April 1788

Context: and who wrote them?

Context: have they been used by the judiciary?

Context: what was the last case all about?

Context: and what was the outcome of it?

Context: The United States Supreme Court held that a Pennsylvania state system of alien registration was superseded by a federal system (the Alien Registration Act) because it was an "obstacle to the accomplishment" of its goals.

Question: where is this state you just mentioned located?

Answer: In the Northeastern, Great Lakes, Appalachian, and Mid-Atlantic regions of the United States.

Pennsylvania [SEP] Introduction

Pennsylvania ( ), officially the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, is a state founded by William Penn in the Northeastern, Great Lakes, Appalachian, and Mid-Atlantic regions of the United States. The Appalachian Mountains run through its middle. The Commonwealth is bordered by Delaware to the southeast, Maryland to the south, West Virginia to the southwest, Ohio to the west, Lake Erie and the Canadian province of Ontario to the northwest, New York to the north, and New Jersey to the east. Pennsylvania is the 33rd-largest state by area, and the 5th-most populous state according to the most recent official U.S. Census count in 2010.


Context: in the 1780s the publication of the federalist papers was intended to

Context: promote the ratification of the United States Constitution

Context: when were they published?

Context: Between October 1787 and April 1788

Context: and who wrote them?

Context: Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay

Context: have they been used by the judiciary?

Context: Federal judges, when interpreting the Constitution, frequently use "The Federalist Papers" as a contemporary account of the intentions of the framers and ratifiers.

Context: can you name some court cases where these papers have been invoked?

Context: "McCulloch v. Maryland", "Calder v. Bull", "Hines v. Davidowitz"

Context: what was the last case all about?

Context: A case applying the law of conflict preemption

Context: and what was the outcome of it?

Context: where is this state you just mentioned located?

Context: In the Northeastern, Great Lakes, Appalachian, and Mid-Atlantic regions of the United States.

Question: what are some of the major agricultural products from here?

Answer: UNANSWERABLE

Pennsylvania [SEP] Introduction


Context: when were they published?

Context: Between October 1787 and April 1788

Context: and who wrote them?

Context: have they been used by the judiciary?

Context: what was the last case all about?

Context: and what was the outcome of it?

Context: what are some of the major agricultural products from here?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Question: are there any universities here?

Answer: Pennsylvania State University, Lincoln University, the University of Pittsburgh, and Temple University

Pennsylvania [SEP] Higher education

The Pennsylvania State System of Higher Education (PASSHE) is the public university system of the Commonwealth, with 14 state-owned schools. West Chester University has by far the largest student body of the 14 universities. The Commonwealth System of Higher Education is an organizing body of the four state-related schools in Pennsylvania; these schools (Pennsylvania State University, Lincoln University, the University of Pittsburgh, and Temple University) are independent institutions that receive some state funding. There are also 15 publicly funded two-year community colleges and technical schools that are separate from the PASSHE system. Additionally, there are many private two- and four-year technical schools, colleges, and universities.


Context: when were they published?

Context: Between October 1787 and April 1788

Context: and who wrote them?

Context: have they been used by the judiciary?

Context: what was the last case all about?

Context: and what was the outcome of it?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: are there any universities here?

Context: Pennsylvania State University, Lincoln University, the University of Pittsburgh, and Temple University

Question: is the state known by any other names?

Answer: "Keystone" "State", "Quaker" "State"

Explanation: "Quaker" "State"

Pennsylvania [SEP] Nicknames

Pennsylvania has been known as the "Keystone" "State" since 1802, based in part upon its central location among the original Thirteen Colonies forming the United States, and also in part because of the number of important American documents signed in the state (such as the Declaration of Independence). It was also a keystone state economically, having both the industry common to the North (making such wares as Conestoga wagons and rifles) and the agriculture common to the South (producing feed, fiber, food, and tobacco). Another one of Pennsylvania's nicknames is the "Quaker" "State"; in colonial times, it was known officially as the "Quaker Province", in recognition of Quaker William Penn's "First Frame of Government" constitution for Pennsylvania that guaranteed liberty of conscience.


Question: in which evolutionary force does competition play the biggest role

Answer: UNANSWERABLE

Apex predator [SEP] Introduction

An apex predator, also known as an alpha predator or top predator, is a predator at the top of a food chain, without natural predators. Apex predators are usually defined in terms of trophic dynamics, meaning that they occupy the highest trophic levels. Food chains are often far shorter on land, usually limited to being secondary consumers – for example, wolves prey mostly upon large herbivores (primary consumers), which eat plants (primary producers). The apex predator concept is applied in wildlife management, conservation and ecotourism. Apex predators have a long evolutionary history, dating at least to the Cambrian period when animals such as "Anomalocaris" dominated the seas.


Context: in which evolutionary force does competition play the biggest role

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Question: what is apex predator?

Answer: An apex predator, also known as an alpha predator or top predator, is a predator at the top of a food chain, without natural predators.

Explanation: An apex predator, also known as an alpha predator or top predator, is a predator at the top of a food chain, without natural predators.

Apex predator [SEP] Introduction


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: An apex predator, also known as an alpha predator or top predator, is a predator at the top of a food chain, without natural predators.

Question: how is it conserved?

Answer: By reintroducing them to nature .

Explanation:
They are increasingly threatened by climate change. For example, the polar bear requires extensive areas of sea ice to hunt its prey, typically seals, but climate change is shrinking the sea ice of the Arctic, forcing polar bears to fast on land for increasingly long periods.

Dramatic changes in the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem were recorded after the gray wolf, both an apex predator and a keystone species (one with a large effect on its ecosystem), was reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park in 1995 as a conservation measure. Elk, the wolves' p

Apex predator [SEP] Conservation

Elk, the wolves' primary prey, became less abundant and changed their behavior, freeing riparian zones from constant grazing and allowing willows, aspens and cottonwoods to flourish, creating habitats for beaver, moose and scores of other species. In addition to their effect on prey species, the wolves' presence also affected one of the park's vulnerable species, the grizzly bear: emerging from hibernation, having fasted for months, the bears chose to scavenge wolf kills, especially during the autumn as they prepared to hibernate once again. The grizzly bear gives birth during hibernation, so the increased food supply is expected to produce an increase in the numbers of cubs observed.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Question: what effect does it have on community?

Answer: Apex predators affect prey species' population dynamics and populations of other predators, both in aquatic and in terrestrial ecosystems.

Apex predator [SEP] Effects on community

Apex predators affect prey species' population dynamics and populations of other predators, both in aquatic and in terrestrial ecosystems. Non-native predatory fish, for instance, have sometimes devastated formerly dominant predators. A lake manipulation study found that when the non-native smallmouth bass was removed, lake trout, the suppressed native apex predator, diversified its prey selection and increased its trophic level. As a terrestrial example, the badger, an apex predator, predates on and also competes with the hedgehog, a mesopredator, for food such as insects, small mammals, reptiles, amphibians and the eggs of ground-nesting birds. Removal of badgers (in a trial investigating bovine tuberculosis) caused hedgehog densities to more than double.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: Apex predators affect prey species' population dynamics and populations of other predators, both in aquatic and in terrestrial ecosystems.

Question: what is its history in evolution?

Answer: Apex predators are thought to have existed since at least the Cambrian period, around 500 million years ago.

Apex predator [SEP] Evolutionary history

Apex predators are thought to have existed since at least the Cambrian period, around 500 million years ago. Extinct species cannot be directly determined to be apex predators as their behaviour cannot be observed, and clues to ecological relationships, such as bite marks on bones or shells, do not form a complete picture. However, indirect evidence such as the absence of any discernible predator in an environment is suggestive. "Anomalocaris" was an aquatic apex predator, in the Cambrian. Its mouthparts are clearly predatory, and there were no larger animals in the seas at that time. Carnivorous theropod dinosaurs including "Allosaurus" and "Tyrannosaurus" have been described as apex predators, based on their size, morphology, and dietary needs.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: Apex predators are thought to have existed since at least the Cambrian period, around 500 million years ago.

Question: what is this aforesaid period?

Answer: It was the first geological period of the Paleozoic Era, and of the Phanerozoic Eon.

Cambrian [SEP] Introduction

The Cambrian Period ( ) was the first geological period of the Paleozoic Era, and of the Phanerozoic Eon. The Cambrian lasted 55.6 million years from the end of the preceding Ediacaran Period 541 million years ago (mya) to the beginning of the Ordovician Period mya. Its subdivisions, and its base, are somewhat in flux. The period was established (as “Cambrian series”) by Adam Sedgwick, who named it after Cambria, the Latin name of Wales, where Britain's Cambrian rocks are best exposed. The Cambrian is unique in its unusually high proportion of sedimentary deposits, sites of exceptional preservation where "soft" parts of organisms are preserved as well as their more resistant shells.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: what is this aforesaid period?

Context: It was the first geological period of the Paleozoic Era, and of the Phanerozoic Eon.

Question: what are its divisions?

Answer: The Cambrian is divided into four epochs (series) and ten ages (stages).

Cambrian [SEP] Subdivisions

The Cambrian Period followed the Ediacaran Period and was followed by the Ordovician Period. The Cambrian is divided into four epochs (series) and ten ages (stages). Currently only three series and six stages are named and have a GSSP (an internationally agreed-upon stratigraphic reference point). Because the international stratigraphic subdivision is not yet complete, many local subdivisions are still widely used. In some of these subdivisions the Cambrian is divided into three series (epochs) with locally differing names – the Early Cambrian (Caerfai or Waucoban, mya), Middle Cambrian (St Davids or Albertan, mya) and Furongian ( mya; also known as Late Cambrian, Merioneth or Croixan).


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: what is this aforesaid period?

Context: what are its divisions?

Context: The Cambrian is divided into four epochs (series) and ten ages (stages).

Question: what are some flora found here?

Answer: Although there were a variety of macroscopic marine plants no land plant (embryophyte) fossils are known from the Cambrian.

Cambrian [SEP] Flora

Although there were a variety of macroscopic marine plants no land plant (embryophyte) fossils are known from the Cambrian. However, biofilms and microbial mats were well developed on Cambrian tidal flats and beaches 500 mya., and microbes forming microbial Earth ecosystems, comparable with modern soil crust of desert regions, contributing to soil formation.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: what is this aforesaid period?

Context: what are its divisions?

Context: what are some flora found here?

Context: Although there were a variety of macroscopic marine plants no land plant (embryophyte) fossils are known from the Cambrian.

Question: what is the life in the ocean like?

Answer: Most animal life during the Cambrian was aquatic with arthropods being the most dominant animals in the ocean.

Cambrian [SEP] Oceanic life

Most animal life during the Cambrian was aquatic. Trilobites were once assumed to be the dominant life form at that time, but this has proven to be incorrect. Arthropods were by far the most dominant animals in the ocean, but trilobites were only a minor part of the total arthropod diversity. What made them so apparently abundant was their heavy armor reinforced by calcium carbonate (CaCO), which fossilized far more easily than the fragile chitinous exoskeletons of other arthropods, leaving numerous preserved remains. The period marked a steep change in the diversity and composition of Earth's biosphere. The Ediacaran biota suffered a mass extinction at the start of the Cambrian Period, which corresponded with an increase in the abundance and complexity of burrowing behaviour.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: what is this aforesaid period?

Context: what are its divisions?

Context: what are some flora found here?

Context: what is the life in the ocean like?

Context: Most animal life during the Cambrian was aquatic with arthropods being the most dominant animals in the ocean.

Question: what are some animals found here?

Answer: Bryozoa.

Explanation: nvironment that now offered new ecological niches. Around the same time there was a seemingly rapid appearance of representatives of all the mineralized phyla except the Bryozoa, which appeared in the Lower Ordovician. However, many of those phyla were represented only by stem-group forms; and since mineralized phyla generally have a benthic origin, they may not be a good proxy for (more abundant) non-mineralized phyla.

Cambrian [SEP] Oceanic life

500 million years ago, oxygen levels fell dramatically in the oceans, leading to hypoxia, while the level of poisonous hydrogen sulfide simultaneously increased, causing another extinction. The later half of Cambrian was surprisingly barren and showed evidence of several rapid extinction events; the stromatolites which had been replaced by reef building sponges known as Archaeocyatha, returned once more as the archaeocyathids became extinct. This declining trend did not change until the Great Ordovician Biodiversification Event.


Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: what is apex predator?

Context: how is it conserved?

Context: By reintroducing them to nature .

Context: what effect does it have on community?

Context: what is its history in evolution?

Context: what is this aforesaid period?

Context: what are its divisions?

Context: what are some flora found here?

Context: what is the life in the ocean like?

Context: what are some animals found here?

Context: Bryozoa.

Question: what is this animal?

Answer: They are a phylum of aquatic invertebrate animals.

Bryozoa [SEP] Introduction

Bryozoa (also known as the Polyzoa, Ectoprocta or commonly as moss animals) are a phylum of aquatic invertebrate animals. Typically about long, they are filter feeders that sieve food particles out of the water using a retractable lophophore, a "crown" of tentacles lined with cilia. Most marine species live in tropical waters, but a few occur in oceanic trenches, and others are found in polar waters. One class lives only in a variety of freshwater environments, and a few members of a mostly marine class prefer brackish water. 5869 living species are known. One genus is solitary and the rest are colonial.


Question: who was william harper?

Answer: He was a politician, general contractor and Royal Air Force fighter pilot

William Harper (Rhodesian politician) [SEP] Introduction

William John Harper (22 July 1916 – 8 September 2006) was a politician, general contractor and Royal Air Force fighter pilot who served as a Cabinet minister in Rhodesia (or Southern Rhodesia) from 1962 to 1968, and signed that country's Unilateral Declaration of Independence (UDI) from Britain in 1965. Born into a prominent Anglo-Indian merchant family in Calcutta, Harper was educated in India and England and joined the RAF in 1937. He served as an officer throughout the Second World War and saw action as one of "The Few" in the Battle of Britain, during which he was wounded in action.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: He was a politician, general contractor and Royal Air Force fighter pilot

Question: where was he born?

Answer: Born in Calcutta

Explanation: Born into a prominent Anglo-Indian merchant family in Calcutta,


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Question: which political party was he a member of?

Answer: Dominion Party

Explanation: Dominion Party i

Appalled by Britain's granting of independence to India in 1947, he emigrated to Rhodesia on retiring from the Air Force two years later. Harper contended that British rule in the subcontinent should never have ended and took a similar stance regarding his adopted homeland, reportedly declaring that it, South Africa, and the neighbouring Portuguese territories would "be under white rule forever". He entered politics with the Dominion Party in 1958 and became Minister of Irrigation, Roads and Road Traffic in the Rhodesian Front (RF) government in 1962. The head of a far-right group within the RF, he called for Rhodesia to abolish black representation in parliament and adopt "a form of political apartheid".


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: which political party was he a member of?

Context: Dominion Party

Question: can you mention any political achievement of his?

Answer: Called for Rhodesia to abolish black representation in parliament and adopt "a form of political apartheid".

Explanation: he called for Rhodesia to abolish black representation in parliament and adopt "a form of political apartheid".

He subsequently became a vocal critic of the Prime Minister, greeting each step Smith made towards settlement with black nationalists during the Bush War with public indignation. By the time black majority rule began in Zimbabwe Rhodesia in 1979, following the Internal Settlement of the previous year, Harper had left for South Africa, being unwilling to accept majority rule in Rhodesia. He died in 2006 at the age of 90.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: can you mention any political achievement of his?

Context: Called for Rhodesia to abolish black representation in parliament and adopt "a form of political apartheid".

Question: when did he join the air force?

Answer: Joined the RAF in 1937

Explanation: joined the RAF in 1937.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Question: how did this air force originate?

Answer: Following publication of the "Smuts report" prepared by Jan Smuts the RAF was founded on 1 April 1918

Royal Air Force [SEP] Origins

While the British were not the first to make use of heavier-than-air military aircraft, the RAF is the world's oldest independent air force: that is, the first air force to become independent of army or navy control. Following publication of the "Smuts report" prepared by Jan Smuts the RAF was founded on 1 April 1918, with headquarters located in the former Hotel Cecil, during the First World War, by the amalgamation of the Royal Flying Corps (RFC) and the Royal Naval Air Service (RNAS). At that time it was the largest air force in the world. After the war, the service was drastically cut and its inter-war years were relatively quiet, with the RAF taking responsibility for the control of Iraq and executing a number of minor actions in other parts of the British Empire.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: Following publication of the "Smuts report" prepared by Jan Smuts the RAF was founded on 1 April 1918

Question: which country does it belong to?

Answer: It is the United Kingdom's aerial warfare force

Royal Air Force [SEP] Introduction

The Royal Air Force (RAF) is the United Kingdom's aerial warfare force. It was formed towards the end of the First World War on 1 April 1918 and is the world's oldest independent national air force. Following the Allied victory over the Central Powers in 1918, the RAF emerged as the largest air force in the world at the time. Since its formation, the RAF has taken a significant role in British military history. In particular, it played a large part in the Second World War where it fought its most famous campaign, the Battle of Britain. The RAF's mission is to support the objectives of the British Ministry of Defence (MoD), which are to "provide the capabilities needed to ensure the security and defence of the United Kingdom and overseas territories, including against terrorism; to support the Government's foreign policy objectives particularly in promoting international peace and security".


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: It is the United Kingdom's aerial warfare force

Question: what symbols represent this organization?

Answer: French system of three concentric rings was adopted, with the colours reversed to a red disc surrounded by a white ring and an outer blue ring.

Royal Air Force [SEP] Symbols, flags, emblems and uniform

Following the tradition of the other British fighting services, the RAF has adopted symbols to represent it, use as rallying devices for members and promote esprit de corps. British aircraft in the early stages of the First World War carried the Union Flag as an identifying feature; however, this was easily confused with Germany's Iron Cross motif. In October 1914, therefore, the French system of three concentric rings was adopted, with the colours reversed to a red disc surrounded by a white ring and an outer blue ring. The relative sizes of the rings have changed over the years and during World War II an outer yellow ring was added to the fuselage roundel.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: what symbols represent this organization?

Context: French system of three concentric rings was adopted, with the colours reversed to a red disc surrounded by a white ring and an outer blue ring.

Question: could you please describe the military of the country that it belongs to?

Answer: "Her Majesty's Armed Forces" consist of three professional service branches: the Royal Navy and Royal Marines (forming the Naval Service), the British Army and the Royal Air Force.

United Kingdom [SEP] Military

"Her Majesty's Armed Forces" consist of three professional service branches: the Royal Navy and Royal Marines (forming the Naval Service), the British Army and the Royal Air Force. The armed forces of the United Kingdom are managed by the Ministry of Defence and controlled by the Defence Council, chaired by the Secretary of State for Defence. The Commander-in-Chief is the British monarch, to whom members of the forces swear an oath of allegiance. The Armed Forces are charged with protecting the UK and its overseas territories, promoting the UK's global security interests and supporting international peacekeeping efforts. They are active and regular participants in NATO, including the Allied Rapid Reaction Corps, as well as the Five Power Defence Arrangements, RIMPAC and other worldwide coalition operations.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: could you please describe the military of the country that it belongs to?

Context: "Her Majesty's Armed Forces" consist of three professional service branches: the Royal Navy and Royal Marines (forming the Naval Service), the British Army and the Royal Air Force.

Question: which ethnic groups are found here?

Answer: The Celts, Romans, Anglo-Saxons, Norse and the Normans.

United Kingdom [SEP] Ethnic groups

Historically, indigenous British people were thought to be descended from the various ethnic groups that settled there before the 12th century: the Celts, Romans, Anglo-Saxons, Norse and the Normans. Welsh people could be the oldest ethnic group in the UK. A 2006 genetic study shows that more than 50 per cent of England's gene pool contains Germanic Y chromosomes. Another 2005 genetic analysis indicates that "about 75 per cent of the traceable ancestors of the modern British population had arrived in the British isles by about 6,200 years ago, at the start of the British Neolithic or Stone Age", and that the British broadly share a common ancestry with the Basque people.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: which ethnic groups are found here?

Context: The Celts, Romans, Anglo-Saxons, Norse and the Normans.

Question: what weapons were used by the first group?

Answer: A long bladed sword which was used for hacking edgewise rather than stabbing.

Celts [SEP] Warfare and weapons

Tribal warfare appears to have been a regular feature of Celtic societies. While epic literature depicts this as more of a sport focused on raids and hunting rather than organised territorial conquest, the historical record is more of tribes using warfare to exert political control and harass rivals, for economic advantage, and in some instances to conquer territory. The Celts were described by classical writers such as Strabo, Livy, Pausanias, and Florus as fighting like "wild beasts", and as hordes. Dionysius said that their Such descriptions have been challenged by contemporary historians. Polybius (2.33) indicates that the principal Celtic weapon was a long bladed sword which was used for hacking edgewise rather than stabbing.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: which ethnic groups are found here?

Context: what weapons were used by the first group?

Context: A long bladed sword which was used for hacking edgewise rather than stabbing.

Question: what clothes do they wear?

Answer: Long-sleeved shirts or tunics and long trousers

Celts [SEP] Clothing

During the later Iron Age the Gauls generally wore long-sleeved shirts or tunics and long trousers (called "braccae" by the Romans). Clothes were made of wool or linen, with some silk being used by the rich. Cloaks were worn in the winter. Brooches and armlets were used, but the most famous item of jewellery was the torc, a neck collar of metal, sometimes gold. The horned Waterloo Helmet in the British Museum, which long set the standard for modern images of Celtic warriors, is in fact a unique survival, and may have been a piece for ceremonial rather than military wear.


Context: who was william harper?

Context: where was he born?

Context: Born in Calcutta

Context: Dominion Party

Context: when did he join the air force?

Context: Joined the RAF in 1937

Context: how did this air force originate?

Context: which country does it belong to?

Context: which ethnic groups are found here?

Context: what clothes do they wear?

Context: Long-sleeved shirts or tunics and long trousers

Question: what religion do they follow?

Answer: Christianity

Explanation: Christianity

Celts [SEP] Celtic Christianity

While the regions under Roman rule adopted Christianity along with the rest of the Roman empire, unconquered areas of Ireland and Scotland began to move from Celtic polytheism to Christianity in the 5th century. Ireland was converted by missionaries from Britain, such as Saint Patrick. Later missionaries from Ireland were a major source of missionary work in Scotland, Anglo-Saxon parts of Britain, and central Europe (see Hiberno-Scottish mission). Celtic Christianity, the forms of Christianity that took hold in Britain and Ireland at this time, had for some centuries only limited and intermittent contact with Rome and continental Christianity, as well as some contacts with Coptic Christianity.


Question: what are some provisions of the 14th amendment

Answer: The Citizenship Clause, Privileges or Immunities Clause, Due Process Clause, and Equal Protection Clause

Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution [SEP] Introduction

Board of Education" (1954) regarding racial segregation, "Roe v. Wade" (1973) regarding abortion, "Bush v. Gore" (2000) regarding the 2000 presidential election, and "Obergefell v. Hodges" (2015) regarding same-sex marriage. The amendment limits the actions of all state and local officials, and also those acting on behalf of such officials. The amendment's first section includes several clauses: the Citizenship Clause, Privileges or Immunities Clause, Due Process Clause, and Equal Protection Clause. The Citizenship Clause provides a broad definition of citizenship, nullifying the Supreme Court's decision in "Dred Scott v. Sandford" (1857), which had held that Americans descended from African slaves could not be citizens of the United States.


Context: what are some provisions of the 14th amendment

Context: The Citizenship Clause, Privileges or Immunities Clause, Due Process Clause, and Equal Protection Clause

Question: when was this amendment adopted?

Answer: July 9, 1868

Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution

The Fourteenth Amendment (Amendment XIV) to the United States Constitution was adopted on July 9, 1868, as one of the Reconstruction Amendments. Arguably one of the most consequential amendments, it addresses citizenship rights and equal protection under the law and was proposed in response to issues related to former slaves following the American Civil War. The amendment was bitterly contested, particularly by the states of the defeated Confederacy, which were forced to ratify it in order to regain representation in Congress. The amendment, particularly its first section, is one of the most litigated parts of the Constitution, forming the basis for landmark Supreme Court decisions such as "Brown v.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Question: what do you mean by the first provision mentioned above?

Answer: This clause reversed the decision that African Americans were not and could not become citizens of the United States or enjoy any of the privileges and immunities of citizenship

Citizenship Clause [SEP] Introduction

The Citizenship Clause is the first sentence of the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution, which was adopted on July 9, 1868, which states: This clause reversed a portion of the "Dred Scott v. Sandford" decision, which had declared that African Americans were not and could not become citizens of the United States or enjoy any of the privileges and immunities of citizenship. The concepts of state and national citizenship were already mentioned in the original U.S. Constitution adopted in 1789, but the details were unclear. Prior to the Civil War, only some persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, were citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside, according to the various applicable state and federal laws and court decisions.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: what do you mean by the first provision mentioned above?

Context: This clause reversed the decision that African Americans were not and could not become citizens of the United States or enjoy any of the privileges and immunities of citizenship

Question: what does it tells about birthright citizenship?

Answer: Children born on United States soil, with very few exceptions, are U.S. citizens

Citizenship Clause [SEP] Birthright citizenship

The Citizenship Clause has been interpreted to the effect that children born on United States soil, with very few exceptions, are U.S. citizens. This type of guarantee—legally termed "jus soli", or "right of the territory"—does not exist in most of Europe, Asia or the Middle East, although it is part of English common law and is common in the Americas. (For birthright citizenship for children born abroad to US citizen parents, see "Birthright citizenship in the United States"). The “jurisdiction” requirement was considered in two Supreme Court cases. In "Elk v. Wilkins", , the Court held that Native American tribes represented independent political powers with no allegiance to the United States, and that their peoples were under a special jurisdiction of the United States.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: what does it tells about birthright citizenship?

Context: Children born on United States soil, with very few exceptions, are U.S. citizens

Question: did the amendment face any criticism?

Answer: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution [SEP] Criticism

Abolitionist leaders criticized the amendment's failure to specifically prohibit the states from denying people the right to vote on the basis of race. Section 2 protects the right to vote only of adult males, not adult females, making it the only provision of the Constitution to explicitly discriminate on the basis of sex. Section2 was condemned by women's suffragists, such as Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Susan B. Anthony, who had long seen their cause as linked to that of black rights. The separation of black civil rights from women's civil rights split the two movements for decades.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: did the amendment face any criticism?

Context: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Question: what are the general aspects of this amendment?

Answer: Due process deals with the administration of justice and thus the due process clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by the government outside the sanction of law

Explanation:
Due process deals with the administration of justice and thus the due process clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by the government outside the sanction of law. In "Hurtado v. California" (1884), the U.S. Supreme Court said:

The Due Process Clause has been used to strike down legislation.

Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution [SEP] General aspects

Procedural due process is the guarantee of a fair legal process when the government tries to interfere with a person's protected interests in life, liberty, or property, and substantive due process is the guarantee that the fundamental rights of citizens will not be encroached on by government. Furthermore, as observed by Justice John M. Harlan II in his dissenting opinion in "Poe v. Ullman", 367 U.S. 497, 541 (1961), quoting "Hurtado v. California", 110 U.S. 516, 532 (1884), "the guaranties of due process, though having their roots in Magna Carta's 'per legem terrae' and considered as procedural safeguards 'against executive usurpation and tyranny', have in this country 'become bulwarks also against arbitrary legislation'." The Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment also incorporates most of the provisions in the Bill of Rights, which were originally applied against only the federal government, and applies them against the states.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: did the amendment face any criticism?

Context: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Context: what are the general aspects of this amendment?

Question: what can you tell me about the third provision?

Answer: Due process deals with the administration of justice and thus the due process clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by the government outside the sanction of law

Due Process Clause [SEP] Introduction

The Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the United States Constitution each contain a due process clause. Due process deals with the administration of justice and thus the due process clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by the government outside the sanction of law. The Supreme Court of the United States interprets the clauses broadly, concluding that these clauses provide three protections: procedural due process (in civil and criminal proceedings); substantive due process, a prohibition against vague laws; and as the vehicle for the incorporation of the Bill of Rights. The clause in the Fifth Amendment reads: While the clause in the Fourteenth Amendment says:


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: did the amendment face any criticism?

Context: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Context: what can you tell me about the third provision?

Question: what are the levels of scrutiny under this provision?

Answer: Strict scrutiny, rational basis review, and intermediate scrutiny

Explanation:
If the governmental action infringes upon a fundamental right, the highest level of review—strict scrutiny—is used. To pass strict scrutiny review, the law or act must be narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest.

When the governmental restriction restricts liberty in a manner that does not implicate a fundamental right, rational basis review is used. Here a legitimate government interest is enough to pass this review. There is also a middle level of scrutiny, called intermediate scrutiny, but it is primarily used in Equal Protection cases rather than in Due Process cases.

Due Process Clause [SEP] Levels of scrutiny

When a law or other act of government is challenged as a violation of individual liberty under the due process clause, courts nowadays primarily use two forms of scrutiny, or judicial review, which is used by the Judicial Branch. This inquiry balances the importance of the governmental interest being served and the appropriateness of the government's method of implementation against the resulting infringement of individual rights. If the governmental action infringes upon a fundamental right, the highest level of review—strict scrutiny—is used. To pass strict scrutiny review, the law or act must be narrowly tailored to further a compelling government interest.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: did the amendment face any criticism?

Context: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Context: what are the levels of scrutiny under this provision?

Context: Strict scrutiny, rational basis review, and intermediate scrutiny

Question: what is the last one?

Answer: It is the second level of deciding issues using judicial review

Intermediate scrutiny [SEP] Introduction

Intermediate scrutiny, in U.S. constitutional law, is the second level of deciding issues using judicial review. The other levels are typically referred to as rational basis review (least rigorous) and strict scrutiny (most rigorous). In order to overcome the intermediate scrutiny test, it must be shown that the law or policy being challenged furthers an important government interest by means that are substantially related to that interest. Intermediate scrutiny may be contrasted with "strict scrutiny", the higher standard of review that requires narrowly tailored and least restrictive means to further a compelling governmental interest, and "rational basis review", a lower standard of review that requires the law or policy be rationally related to a legitimate government interest.


Context: when was this amendment adopted?

Context: July 9, 1868

Context: did the amendment face any criticism?

Context: Yes, Abolitionist leaders criticized it

Context: what is the last one?

Context: It is the second level of deciding issues using judicial review

Question: what is the first scrutiny?

Answer: It is the highest and most stringent standard of judicial review, and results in a judge striking down a law unless the government can demonstrate in court that a law or regulation

Strict scrutiny [SEP] Introduction

In American constitutional law, strict scrutiny is the highest and most stringent standard of judicial review, and results in a judge striking down a law unless the government can demonstrate in court that a law or regulation: It is part of the hierarchy of standards that courts use to determine which is weightier: a constitutional right or principle, or the government's interest against observance of the principle. The lesser standards are rational basis review and exacting or intermediate scrutiny. These standards are used to test statutes and government action at all levels of government within the United States. The notion of "levels of judicial scrutiny", including strict scrutiny, was introduced in Footnote 4 of the U.S.


Question: true or false anaphylaxis generally only affects the skin and eyes

Answer: False

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Signs and symptoms

Anaphylaxis typically presents many different symptoms over minutes or hours with an average onset of 5 to 30 minutes if exposure is intravenous and 2 hours if from eating food. The most common areas affected include: skin (80–90%), respiratory (70%), gastrointestinal (30–45%), heart and vasculature (10–45%), and central nervous system (10–15%) with usually two or more being involved.


Context: true or false anaphylaxis generally only affects the skin and eyes

Context: False

Question: what all does it affect?

Answer: Skin,  respiratory, gastrointestinal, heart and vasculature, and central nervous system.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Signs and symptoms


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: Skin,  respiratory, gastrointestinal, heart and vasculature, and central nervous system.

Question: what is anaphylaxis?

Answer: It is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Introduction

Anaphylaxis ( and φύλαξις "(phylaxis)" 'protection'.) is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death. It typically causes more than one of the following: an itchy rash, throat or tongue swelling, shortness of breath, vomiting, lightheadedness, low blood pressure, and temporary blindness. These symptoms typically come on over minutes to hours. Common causes include insect bites and stings, foods, and medications. Other causes include latex exposure and exercise. Additionally, cases may occur without an obvious reason. The mechanism involves the release of mediators from certain types of white blood cells triggered by either immunologic or non-immunologic mechanisms.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: It is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death.

Question: what are some of its signs?

Answer: Itchy rash, throat or tongue swelling, shortness of breath, vomiting, lightheadedness, low blood pressure, and temporary blindness.

Explanation: It typically causes more than one of the following: an itchy rash, throat or tongue swelling, shortness of breath, vomiting, lightheadedness, low blood pressure, and temporary blindness.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Introduction


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: Itchy rash, throat or tongue swelling, shortness of breath, vomiting, lightheadedness, low blood pressure, and temporary blindness.

Question: what are some of its symptoms?

Answer: Itchy rash, throat or tongue swelling, shortness of breath, vomiting, lightheadedness, low blood pressure, and temporary blindness.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Introduction


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Question: what are its causes?

Answer: Common triggers include venom from insect bites or stings, foods, and medication.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Causes

Anaphylaxis can occur in response to almost any foreign substance. Common triggers include venom from insect bites or stings, foods, and medication. Foods are the most common trigger in children and young adults while medications and insect bites and stings are more common in older adults. Less common causes include: physical factors, biological agents such as semen, latex, hormonal changes, food additives such as monosodium glutamate and food colors, and topical medications. Physical factors such as exercise (known as exercise-induced anaphylaxis) or temperature (either hot or cold) may also act as triggers through their direct effects on mast cells. Events caused by exercise are frequently associated with cofactors such as the ingestion of certain foods or taking an NSAID.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: Common triggers include venom from insect bites or stings, foods, and medication.

Question: what are its risk factors?

Answer: People with atopic diseases such as asthma, eczema, or allergic rhinitis are at high risk of anaphylaxis from food, latex, and radiocontrast agents but not from injectable medications or stings.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Risk factors

People with atopic diseases such as asthma, eczema, or allergic rhinitis are at high risk of anaphylaxis from food, latex, and radiocontrast agents but not from injectable medications or stings. One study in children found that 60% had a history of previous atopic diseases, and of children who die from anaphylaxis, more than 90% have asthma. Those with mastocytosis or of a higher socioeconomic status are at increased risk. The longer the time since the last exposure to the agent in question, the lower the risk.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: People with atopic diseases such as asthma, eczema, or allergic rhinitis are at high risk of anaphylaxis from food, latex, and radiocontrast agents but not from injectable medications or stings.

Question: how is it diagnosed?

Answer: During an attack, blood tests for tryptase or histamine (released from mast cells) might be useful in diagnosing anaphylaxis due to insect stings or medications.

Explanation: During an attack, blood tests for tryptase or histamine (released from mast cells) might be useful in diagnosing anaphylaxis due to insect stings or medications.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Diagnosis

However these tests are of limited use if the cause is food or if the person has a normal blood pressure, and they are not specific for the diagnosis.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Question: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Answer: Skin involvement may include: hives, itchiness or a swollen tongue among others. Respiratory difficulties may include: shortness of breath, stridor, or low oxygen levels among others.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Diagnosis

Anaphylaxis is diagnosed on the basis of a person's signs and symptoms. When any one of the following three occurs within minutes or hours of exposure to an allergen there is a high likelihood of anaphylaxis: Skin involvement may include: hives, itchiness or a swollen tongue among others. Respiratory difficulties may include: shortness of breath, stridor, or low oxygen levels among others. Low blood pressure is defined as a greater than 30% decrease from a person's usual blood pressure. In adults a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mmHg is often used. During an attack, blood tests for tryptase or histamine (released from mast cells) might be useful in diagnosing anaphylaxis due to insect stings or medications.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: Skin involvement may include: hives, itchiness or a swollen tongue among others. Respiratory difficulties may include: shortness of breath, stridor, or low oxygen levels among others.

Question: how is it classified?

Answer: There are three main classifications of anaphylaxis: Anaphylactic, Biphasic anaphylaxis, and Pseudoanaphylaxis or anaphylactoid.

Explanation: There are three main classifications of anaphylaxis. Anaphylactic shock is associated with systemic vasodilation that causes low blood pressure which is by definition 30% lower than the person's baseline or below standard values. Biphasic anaphylaxis is the recurrence of symptoms within 1–72 hours with no further exposure to the allergen. Reports of incidence vary, with some studies claiming as many as 20% of cases. The recurrence typically occurs within 8 hours. It is managed in the same manner as anaphylaxis. Pseudoanaphylaxis or anaphylactoid reactions are a type of anaphylaxis that does not involve an allergic reaction but is due to direct mast cell degranulation. Non-immune anaphylaxis is the current term used by the World Allergy Organization with some recommending that the old terminology no longer be used.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Classification


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: There are three main classifications of anaphylaxis: Anaphylactic, Biphasic anaphylaxis, and Pseudoanaphylaxis or anaphylactoid.

Question: which tests are conducted for allergies?

Answer: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Explanation:
Allergy testing may help in determining the trigger. Skin allergy testing is available for certain foods and venoms. Blood testing for specific IgE can be useful to confirm milk, egg, peanut, tree nut and fish allergies.

Skin testing is available to confirm penicillin allergies, but is not available for other medications. Non-immune forms of anaphylaxis can only be determined by history or exposure to the allergen in question, and not by skin or blood testing.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Allergy testing


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: which tests are conducted for allergies?

Context: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Question: what are its post-mortem findings?

Answer: Aryngeal edema, eosinophilia in lungs, heart and tissues, and evidence of myocardial hypoperfusion.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Post-mortem findings

In a person who died from anaphylaxis, autopsy may show an "empty heart" attributed to reduced venous return from vasodilation and redistribution of intravascular volume from the central to the peripheral compartment. Other signs are laryngeal edema, eosinophilia in lungs, heart and tissues, and evidence of myocardial hypoperfusion. Laboratory findings could detect increased levels of serum tryptase, increase in total and specific IgE serum levels.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Context: what are its post-mortem findings?

Context: Aryngeal edema, eosinophilia in lungs, heart and tissues, and evidence of myocardial hypoperfusion.

Question: how can it be prevented?

Answer: Immunotherapy with Hymenoptera venoms is effective at desensitizing 80–90% of adults and 98% of children against allergies to bees, wasps, hornets, yellowjackets, and fire ants.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Prevention

Avoidance of the trigger of anaphylaxis is recommended. In cases where this may not be possible, desensitization may be an option. Immunotherapy with Hymenoptera venoms is effective at desensitizing 80–90% of adults and 98% of children against allergies to bees, wasps, hornets, yellowjackets, and fire ants. Oral immunotherapy may be effective at desensitizing some people to certain food including milk, eggs, nuts and peanuts; however, adverse effects are common. For example, many people develop an itchy throat, cough, or lip swelling during immunotherapy. Desensitization is also possible for many medications, however it is advised that most people simply avoid the agent in question.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Context: what are its post-mortem findings?

Context: how can it be prevented?

Context: Immunotherapy with Hymenoptera venoms is effective at desensitizing 80–90% of adults and 98% of children against allergies to bees, wasps, hornets, yellowjackets, and fire ants.

Question: how can it be managed?

Answer: Airway management, supplemental oxygen, large volumes of intravenous fluids, and close monitoring.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Management

Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that may require resuscitation measures such as airway management, supplemental oxygen, large volumes of intravenous fluids, and close monitoring. Passive leg raise may also be helpful in the emergency management. Administration of epinephrine is the treatment of choice with antihistamines and steroids (for example, dexamethasone) often used as adjuncts. A period of in-hospital observation for between 2 and 24 hours is recommended for people once they have returned to normal due to concerns of biphasic anaphylaxis.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Context: what are its post-mortem findings?

Context: how can it be prevented?

Context: how can it be managed?

Context: Airway management, supplemental oxygen, large volumes of intravenous fluids, and close monitoring.

Question: what research has been done into it?

Answer: There are ongoing efforts to develop sublingual epinephrine to treat it.

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Research

There are ongoing efforts to develop sublingual epinephrine to treat anaphylaxis. Subcutaneous injection of the anti-IgE antibody omalizumab is being studied as a method of preventing recurrence, but it is not yet recommended.


Context: False

Context: what all does it affect?

Context: what is anaphylaxis?

Context: what are some of its signs?

Context: what are some of its symptoms?

Context: what are its causes?

Context: what are its risk factors?

Context: how is it diagnosed?

Context: are there any other kinds of diagnosis?

Context: how is it classified?

Context: Skin allergy testing and blood testing

Context: what are its post-mortem findings?

Context: how can it be prevented?

Context: how can it be managed?

Context: what research has been done into it?

Context: There are ongoing efforts to develop sublingual epinephrine to treat it.

Question: by whom?

Answer: UNANSWERABLE

Anaphylaxis [SEP] Research


Question: when does amazon make their decision on hq2

Answer: September 2017

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Introduction

Amazon HQ2 is a planned corporate headquarters in Crystal City, Arlington, Virginia for technology company Amazon. HQ2 was announced in September 2017, and is an expansion of the existing headquarters in Seattle, Washington. Amazon intended to spend $5 billion on construction, saying that HQ2 would house 50,000 workers when completed. The corporation also invited governments and economic development organizations to give the corporation tax breaks and other incentives to entice it to their locality. More than 200 cities in Canada, Mexico, and the United States eventually offered tax breaks, expedited construction approvals, promises of infrastructure improvements, new crime-reduction programs, and other incentives.


Context: when does amazon make their decision on hq2

Context: September 2017

Question: what is amazon hq2?

Answer: Amazon HQ2 is a planned corporate headquarters in Crystal City, Arlington, Virginia for technology company Amazon.

Explanation: Amazon HQ2 is a planned corporate headquarters in Crystal City, Arlington, Virginia for technology company Amazon.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Introduction


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Question: are the corporate headquarters located in two different places?

Answer: Yes, they expanded the existing headquarters

Explanation: Amazon HQ2 is a planned corporate headquarters in Crystal City, Arlington, Virginia for technology company Amazon. HQ2 was announced in September 2017, and is an expansion of the existing headquarters in Seattle, Washington.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Introduction


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: are the corporate headquarters located in two different places?

Context: Yes, they expanded the existing headquarters

Question: when was it founded?

Answer: 1994

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Background

Amazon was founded in 1994 in Bellevue, Washington, and moved to leased space in the SoDo neighborhood of Seattle. As the company grew, it went through a series of office moves around Downtown Seattle, until announcing a move to a purpose-built headquarters campus in the South Lake Union neighborhood, then a light industrial enclave undergoing urban renewal. , Amazon occupies of office space in 33 buildings in Seattle, employing 40,000 white collar workers.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Question: what were the requirements proposed for building it?

Answer: Amazon's request for proposals outlined several core requirements, as well as optional preferences. Optional preferences included airports with direct flights to Seattle, New York City, San Francisco, and Washington, D.C., urban locations, and proximity to major universities.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Requirements

Amazon's request for proposals outlined several core requirements, as well as optional preferences. Optional preferences included airports with direct flights to Seattle, New York City, San Francisco, and Washington, D.C., urban locations, and proximity to major universities. The deadline for Phase I bids was set at October 19, 2017. A final site was planned to be selected and announced in November 2018, from a shortlist of 20 cities released in January.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: what were the requirements proposed for building it?

Context: Amazon's request for proposals outlined several core requirements, as well as optional preferences. Optional preferences included airports with direct flights to Seattle, New York City, San Francisco, and Washington, D.C., urban locations, and proximity to major universities.

Question: was this building proposal submitted for auctioning?

Answer: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Explanation: The selections

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Winning bids

The selections of New York City and Northern Virginia for the HQ2 sites were confirmed early on November 13, 2018. Amazon made the official announcement later that day. In Amazon's announcement, a joint press release was presented by the Northern Virginia bidders that Amazon's HQ2 neighborhood location would officially be renamed "National Landing", which encompasses not only Crystal City but also the nearby areas of Pentagon City and Potomac Yard. Amazon also announced that it would employ 5,000 people at a new Operations Center of Excellence in Nashville, Tennessee.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: was this building proposal submitted for auctioning?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Question: who won the auction for the headquarters?

Answer: Northern Virginia bidders

Explanation: Northern Virginia bidders

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Winning bids


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: who won the auction for the headquarters?

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Question: was there a promotional campaign to promote it?

Answer: Several cities and groups promoted their HQ2 bids by engaging in promotional campaigns and gimmicks, including offers and gifts to Amazon.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Promotional campaigns

Several cities and groups promoted their HQ2 bids by engaging in promotional campaigns and gimmicks, including offers and gifts to Amazon. Sun Corridor, a Tucson, Arizona economic development firm, sent a 21-foot saguaro cactus to Amazon in an attempt to promote the city's bid. The gift was rejected due to the company's corporate gifts policy, instead donating it to the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum. The city of Stonecrest, Georgia, a suburb of Atlanta, voted to de-annex of land for Amazon to establish its own city named "Amazon" around its headquarters. Sly James, mayor of Kansas City, Missouri, purchased 1,000 products from Amazon, which he donated to charity.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Context: was there a promotional campaign to promote it?

Context: Several cities and groups promoted their HQ2 bids by engaging in promotional campaigns and gimmicks, including offers and gifts to Amazon.

Question: who are the shortlisted finalists?

Answer: Amazon announced its shortlist of 20 finalists for the HQ2 bidding process. The list focuses mainly on the U.S. East Coast and Midwest, with Los Angeles the only selection from the West Coast and Toronto the only one outside of the United States.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Finalists

On January 18, 2018, Amazon announced its shortlist of 20 finalists for the HQ2 bidding process. The list focuses mainly on the U.S. East Coast and Midwest, with Los Angeles the only selection from the West Coast and Toronto the only one outside of the United States. Amazon began tours of its finalist cities in late February. Bidding cities also signed non-disclosure agreements with Amazon for the duration of the bid process. According to an Amazon spokesperson, the NDA does not cover financial incentives that cities have offered. NBC News reported in May that visits to the 20 finalists had been finished by Amazon.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Context: who are the shortlisted finalists?

Context: Amazon announced its shortlist of 20 finalists for the HQ2 bidding process. The list focuses mainly on the U.S. East Coast and Midwest, with Los Angeles the only selection from the West Coast and Toronto the only one outside of the United States.

Question: who were the finalists?

Answer: UNANSWERABLE

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Finalists


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Context: who are the shortlisted finalists?

Context: who were the finalists?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Question: why was it criticized?

Answer: Conservative and liberal advocacy groups voiced their opposition to various tax breaks promised by cities in hopes of luring Amazon.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Criticism and opposition

Steven Strauss, a visiting professor of public policy at Princeton University and an expert on economic development, in an editorial in "USA Today" suggested that metropolitan areas should be cautious about bidding too generously to win the Amazon bid. He pointed to examples where companies have gone bankrupt or failed to follow up on expansion plans. Strauss also wrote that it was possible that cities could over-pay (the so-called "winner's curse") by providing an overly generous incentive package, which would turn out to be a money-losing proposition for the municipality if all the promised jobs did not materialize. Conservative and liberal advocacy groups voiced their opposition to various tax breaks promised by cities in hopes of luring Amazon.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Context: who are the shortlisted finalists?

Context: who were the finalists?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: why was it criticized?

Context: Conservative and liberal advocacy groups voiced their opposition to various tax breaks promised by cities in hopes of luring Amazon.

Question: what was canceled during this process?

Answer: Amazon announced that it would cancel the planned Long Island City location due to opposition.

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Cancellation

Kim and Fordham University professor Zephyr Teachout wrote an opinion piece in "The New York Times" in which they stated that the city should "not offer incentives and giveaways to an internet giant known for squashing small businesses." "Politico" reported that the Long Island City location would be built on land intended for 6,000 homes, including 1,500 affordable homes, to which State Senator Michael Gianaris said, "The more we learn about this deal, the worse it gets." On February 14, 2019, Amazon announced that it would cancel the planned Long Island City location due to opposition. The company also said that it would continue developing the Crystal City and Nashville locations.


Context: September 2017

Context: what is amazon hq2?

Context: when was it founded?

Context: Yes, it is submitted for selection

Context: Northern Virginia bidders

Context: who are the shortlisted finalists?

Context: who were the finalists?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: why was it criticized?

Context: what was canceled during this process?

Context: Amazon announced that it would cancel the planned Long Island City location due to opposition.

Question: was the long island city chosen?

Answer: No, it was cancelled

Amazon HQ2 [SEP] Long Island City

Both states proposed that Amazon be given access to a helipad, and the New York state government also promised to upgrade infrastructure in conjunction with HQ2's construction there. Amazon was said to have chosen New York City as one of the sites for HQ2 because of the city's highly skilled pool of talent; existing tech, finance, and media industries; and strong university system, including Columbia University and Cornell Tech.


Question: who is douglas albert munro?

Answer: He was a United States Coast Guardsman who was posthumously decorated with the Medal of Honor for an act of "extraordinary heroism" during World War II.

Douglas Albert Munro [SEP] Introduction

Douglas Albert Munro (October 11, 1919 – September 27, 1942) was a United States Coast Guardsman who was posthumously decorated with the Medal of Honor for an act of "extraordinary heroism" during World War II. He is the only person to have received the medal for actions performed during service in the Coast Guard. Munro was born in Canada to an American father and a British mother, and his family moved to the United States when he was a child. He was raised in South Cle Elum, Washington, and attended Central Washington College of Education before volunteering for military service shortly before the United States entered World War II.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: He was a United States Coast Guardsman who was posthumously decorated with the Medal of Honor for an act of "extraordinary heroism" during World War II.

Question: what were the casualties of this war mentioned above?

Answer: Some 60 million people

Explanation:
Most suggest that some 60 million people died in the war, including about 20 million military personnel and 40 million civilians.
Many of the civilians died because of deliberate genocide, massacres, mass bombings, disease, and starvation.

World War II [SEP] Casualties and war crimes

An estimated 11 to 17 million civilians died as a direct or as an indirect result of Nazi racist policies, including mass killing of around 6million Jews, along with Roma, homosexuals, at least 1.9 million ethnic Poles and millions of other Slavs (including Russians, Ukrainians and Belarusians), and other ethnic and minority groups. Between 1941 and 1945, more than 200,000 ethnic Serbs, along with gypsies and Jews, were persecuted and murdered by the Axis-aligned Croatian Ustaše in Yugoslavia. Also, more than 100,000 Poles were massacred by the Ukrainian Insurgent Army in the Volhynia massacres, between 1943 and 1945. At the same time about 10,000–15,000 Ukrainians were killed by the Polish Home Army and other Polish units, in reprisal attacks.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: what were the casualties of this war mentioned above?

Context: Some 60 million people

Question: when did the allies of this war gained momentum?

Answer: 1943

Explanation: . In May 1943, Canadian and US forces were sent to eliminate Japanese forces from the Aleutians. Soon after, the United States, with support from Australia, New Zealand and Pacific Islander forces, began major ground, sea and air operations to isolate Rabaul by capturing surrounding islands, and breach the Japanese Central Pacific perimeter at the Gilbert and Marshall Islands. By the end of March 1944, the Allies had completed both of these objectives and had also neutralised the major Japanese base at Truk in the Caroline Islands. In April, the Allies launched an operation to retake Western New Guinea.

World War II [SEP] Allies gain momentum (1943–44)

In April, the Allies launched an operation to retake Western New Guinea. In the Soviet Union, both the Germans and the Soviets spent the spring and early summer of 1943 preparing for large offensives in central Russia. On 4 July 1943, Germany attacked Soviet forces around the Kursk Bulge. Within a week, German forces had exhausted themselves against the Soviets' deeply echeloned and well-constructed defences, and for the first time in the war Hitler cancelled the operation before it had achieved tactical or operational success. This decision was partially affected by the Western Allies' invasion of Sicily launched on 9 July, which, combined with previous Italian failures, resulted in the ousting and arrest of Mussolini later that month.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: when did the allies of this war gained momentum?

Question: where was the aforementioned person born?

Answer: Sacramento, California

Douglas Albert Munro [SEP] Family

Munro's father, James Munro (1891–1962), was born in Sacramento, California as James Wilkins. By age eight he had moved to Canada; his divorced mother remarried a Canadian citizen whose surname he took. Munro's mother, Edith Fairey (1895–1983), was born in Liverpool, England, and—in childhood—relocated with her family to Canada. James Munro and Fairey married in 1914 at Vancouver's Christ Church Cathedral; under U.S. naturalization laws at the time, Fairey automatically assumed American citizenship upon her marriage to Munro.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: where was the aforementioned person born?

Context: Sacramento, California

Question: what was his career like?

Answer: He was assigned to the Treasury-class cutter USCGC "Spencer", serving aboard the vessel until 1941.

Explanation: Munro and Evans underwent recruit training at Coast Guard Air Station Port Angeles. They were then assigned to the Treasury-class cutter USCGC "Spencer", serving aboard the vessel until 1941. During the course of his military service, Munro received consistently high marks on his performance evaluations and—according to Evans—expressed a desire to become a career Coast Guardsman.

Douglas Albert Munro [SEP] Career


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: Sacramento, California

Context: what was his career like?

Context: He was assigned to the Treasury-class cutter USCGC "Spencer", serving aboard the vessel until 1941.

Question: what happened to this aforementioned place during the modern era?

Answer: Several events happened  in Sacramento: Standard Oil executive Verne McGeorge established McGeorge School of Law, American department store Weinstock & Lubin opened a new store at 12th and K street, the US$2 million Senator Hotel was opened

Sacramento, California [SEP] Modern era

In April 1946, after 12 years of litigation, a judge ordered Pacific Gas & Electric to transfer title of Sacramento's electric distribution system to SMUD. Today SMUD is the sixth-largest public electric utility in the U.S., and is a leader for innovative programs and services, including the development of clean fuel resources, such as solar power. The year following the creation of SMUD, 1924, brought several events in Sacramento: Standard Oil executive Verne McGeorge established McGeorge School of Law, American department store Weinstock & Lubin opened a new store at 12th and K street, the US$2 million Senator Hotel was opened, Sacramento's drinking water became filtered and treated drinking water, and Sacramento boxer Georgie Lee fought Francisco Guilledo, a Filipino professional boxer known as Pancho Villa, at L Street Auditorium on March 21.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: Sacramento, California

Context: what was his career like?

Context: what happened to this aforementioned place during the modern era?

Context: Several events happened  in Sacramento: Standard Oil executive Verne McGeorge established McGeorge School of Law, American department store Weinstock & Lubin opened a new store at 12th and K street, the US$2 million Senator Hotel was opened

Question: what are some museums located here?

Answer: The Crocker Art Museum, Governor's Mansion State Historic Park

Explanation:
The Crocker Art Museum is the oldest public art museum west of the Mississippi River. On July 26, 2007, the museum broke ground for an expansion that more than tripled the museum's floor space. The modern architecture is very different from the museum's original Victorian style building. Construction was completed in 2010.

Also of interest is the Governor's Mansion State Historic Park, a large Victorian Mansion which was home to 13 of California's Governors, as well as the official residence for former governor Jerry Brown following renovations in 2015.

Sacramento, California [SEP] Museums

Guided public tours are available. The California Museum for History, Women, and the Arts, home of the California Hall of Fame, is a cultural destination dedicated to telling the rich history of California and its unique influence on the world of ideas, innovation, art and culture. The museum educates tens of thousands of school children through inspiring programs, sharing with world visitors California's rich art, history and cultural legacy through dynamic exhibits, and serving as a public forum and international meeting place. The California State Railroad Museum in Old Sacramento has historical exhibits and live steam locomotives that patrons may ride.


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: Sacramento, California

Context: what was his career like?

Context: what are some museums located here?

Context: The Crocker Art Museum, Governor's Mansion State Historic Park

Question: what is its international relations like?

Answer: The City of Sacramento has 13 sister cities.

Sacramento, California [SEP] International relations

As of 2015, the City of Sacramento has 13 sister cities. They are:


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: Sacramento, California

Context: what was his career like?

Context: what are some museums located here?

Context: what is its international relations like?

Context: The City of Sacramento has 13 sister cities.

Question: what are some original collection belonging to the first museum?

Answer: Artists represented in Crocker's original collection include Maarten van Heemskerck, Jan Brueghel the Elder, Klaes Molenaer, Pieter Quast, Antonio Joli, Francesco Solimena, Paolo de Matteis, Claude-Joseph Vernet, Jacques-Louis David, Andreas Achenbach, and Karl von Piloty.

Explanation: Artists represented in Crocker's original collection include Maarten van Heemskerck, Jan Brueghel the Elder, Klaes Molenaer, Pieter Quast, Antonio Joli, Francesco Solimena, Paolo de Matteis, Claude-Joseph Vernet, Jacques-Louis David, Andreas Achenbach, and Karl von Piloty.

Crocker Art Museum [SEP] Original collection


Context: who is douglas albert munro?

Context: Some 60 million people

Context: Sacramento, California

Context: what was his career like?

Context: what are some museums located here?

Context: what are some original collection belonging to the first museum?

Context: Artists represented in Crocker's original collection include Maarten van Heemskerck, Jan Brueghel the Elder, Klaes Molenaer, Pieter Quast, Antonio Joli, Francesco Solimena, Paolo de Matteis, Claude-Joseph Vernet, Jacques-Louis David, Andreas Achenbach, and Karl von Piloty.

Question: what were some works of the first mentioned artist?

Answer: "Adam and Eve" and "St. Luke painting the Likeness of the Virgin and Child",  "Ecce Homo"

Explanation:
"Adam and Eve" and "St. Luke painting the Likeness of the Virgin and Child" in presence of a poet crowned with ivy leaves, and a parrot in a cage – an altar-piece in the gallery of Haarlem, and the "Ecce Homo" in the Museum of Fine Arts in Ghent, are characteristic works of the period preceding van Heemskerck's visit to Italy. An altar-piece executed for the St. Laurence Church of Alkmaar in 1539–1543, composed of at least a dozen large panels, which including portraits of historical figures, preserved in Linköping Cathedral, Sweden since the Reformation, shows his style after his return from Italy.

He painted a crucifixion for the Riches Claires at Ghent (now in the Museum of Fine Arts, Ghent) in 1543, and an altar-piece for the Drapers' Company at Haarlem, finished in 1546 and now in the gallery of the Hague.

Maarten van Heemskerck [SEP] Paintings

Many works by van Heemskerck survive. "Adam and Eve" and "St. Luke painting the Likeness of the Virgin and Child" in presence of a poet crowned with ivy leaves, and a parrot in a cage – an altar-piece in the gallery of Haarlem, and the "Ecce Homo" in the Museum of Fine Arts in Ghent, are characteristic works of the period preceding van Heemskerck's visit to Italy. An altar-piece executed for the St. Laurence Church of Alkmaar in 1539–1543, composed of at least a dozen large panels, which including portraits of historical figures, preserved in Linköping Cathedral, Sweden since the Reformation, shows his style after his return from Italy.


Question: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Answer: Kristen Bell

Anna (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction

Anna of Arendelle () is a fictional character who appears in Walt Disney Animation Studios' 53rd animated film "Frozen" and its sequel "Frozen II". She is voiced by Kristen Bell as an adult. At the beginning of the film, Livvy Stubenrauch and Katie Lopez provide her speaking and singing voice as a young child, respectively. Agatha Lee Monn portrayed her as a nine-year-old (singing). In "Frozen II", Hadley Gannaway provided her voice as a young child while Stubenrauch is the archive audio. Created by co-directors Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck, Anna is loosely based on Gerda, a character from the Danish fairytale "The Snow Queen" by Hans Christian Andersen.


Context:
who does the voice for anna in frozen
Kristen Bell

Question: who designed her?

Answer: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Explanation: Created by co-directors Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck,

Anna (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction


Context:
who does the voice for anna in frozen
Kristen Bell
who designed her?
Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Question: what can you tell me about the origin of the character?

Answer: UNANSWERABLE

Anna (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: what can you tell me about the origin of the character?

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Question: where is she potrayed?

Answer: In the Broadway musical

Explanation: Patti Murin originated the role of Anna in the Broadway musical, which opened in March 2018.

Anna (Frozen) [SEP] Broadway musical


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Question: can you tell me more about this character?

Answer: Anna of Arendelle is a fictional character who appears in Walt Disney Animation Studios' 53rd animated film "Frozen" and its sequel "Frozen II"

Explanation: Anna of Arendelle () is a fictional character who appears in Walt Disney Animation Studios' 53rd animated film "Frozen" and its sequel "Frozen II"

Anna (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: can you tell me more about this character?

Context: Anna of Arendelle is a fictional character who appears in Walt Disney Animation Studios' 53rd animated film "Frozen" and its sequel "Frozen II"

Question: what was the role of the aforesaid voice cast in veronica mars?

Answer: She played the role of the title character who is seventeen-year-old anti-establishment high school student and private detective

Explanation: At 24, she won the role of the title character in the UPN noir drama series "Veronica Mars", which was launched in the fall of 2004. Created by Rob Thomas, the series starred Bell as the seventeen-year-old anti-establishment high school student and private detective.

Kristen Bell [SEP] 2004–2006: "Veronica Mars" and other roles

The musical was a spoof of the 1936 exploitation film of the same name. "Reefer Madness: The Movie Musical" debuted on the Showtime network on April 16, 2005. Also in April, Bell starred as Gracie in "Fifty Pills", an entry for the Tribeca Film Festival. She appeared in a short independent film called "The Receipt" and the horror film "Roman", which was directed by her "Crucible" co-star Angela Bettis. Released on August 11, 2006, "Pulse" starred Bell as the lead Mattie. A remake of the Japanese horror film "Kairo", the film grossed US$27.9 million worldwide but garnered negative response from critics.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: what was the role of the aforesaid voice cast in veronica mars?

Context: She played the role of the title character who is seventeen-year-old anti-establishment high school student and private detective

Question: is she active in philanthropical works?

Answer: She supports the San Diego-based Helen Woodward Animal Center and often attends fundraisers for the American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

Explanation: and she now supports the San Diego-based Helen Woodward Animal Center. Bell often attends fundraisers for the American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals and other non-profit organizations dedicated to protecting animals.

Kristen Bell [SEP] Beliefs, interests and charity work

Bell has also done a public service announcement for Do Something's Healthy Living Campaign. In 2014, Bell launched a Prizeo campaign offering fans a chance to win a date with her in return for donating to Invisible Children, Inc. Kristen Bell won a 2020 Webby Special Achievement Award. Bell supported and campaigned for Barack Obama during the 2008 United States presidential election. Along with Rashida Jones, she visited college campuses in Missouri to discuss the candidates and encourage voter registration. Bell showed support for the Writers Guild of America in the writers' strike, appearing in the picket lines in December 2007, stating, "the writers are just looking for some fairness."


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: She supports the San Diego-based Helen Woodward Animal Center and often attends fundraisers for the American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

Question: what are some of her future works?

Answer: She will produce and voice a lead character in the animated musical pre-school series "Do, Re, & Mi" and will narrate the titular character of the teen drama series "Gossip Girl"

Kristen Bell [SEP] Upcoming projects

Bell is set to produce and voice a lead character in the Prime Video animated musical pre-school series "Do, Re, & Mi". She will narrate the titular character of the HBO Max teen drama series ""Gossip Girl". The series serves as a soft reboot and sequel to the 2007 series of the same, which Bell also narrated. Bell will also star alongside Kirby Howell-Baptiste as a pair of housewives who create a multi-million dollar coupon scam in the comedy film "Queenpins".


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: She will produce and voice a lead character in the animated musical pre-school series "Do, Re, & Mi" and will narrate the titular character of the teen drama series "Gossip Girl"

Question: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Answer: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Frozen II [SEP] Introduction

Frozen II, also known as Frozen 2, is a 2019 American 3D computer-animated musical fantasy film produced by Walt Disney Animation Studios. The 58th animated film produced by the studio, and the sequel to the 2013 film "Frozen", it features the return of directors Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee, producer Peter Del Vecho, songwriters Kristen Anderson-Lopez and Robert Lopez, and composer Christophe Beck. Lee also returns as screenwriter, penning the screenplay from a story by her, Buck, Marc E. Smith, Anderson-Lopez, and Lopez, while Byron Howard executive-produced the film. Kristen Bell, Idina Menzel, Josh Gad, Jonathan Groff, and Ciarán Hinds reprised their roles, while they are joined by newcomers Sterling K.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Question: who are the other characters in the movie?

Answer: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Frozen II [SEP] Introduction

Brown, Evan Rachel Wood, Alfred Molina, Martha Plimpton, Jason Ritter, Rachel Matthews, and Jeremy Sisto. Set three years after the events of the first film, the story follows Elsa, Anna, Kristoff, Olaf, and Sven, who embark on a journey beyond their kingdom of Arendelle in order to discover the origin of Elsa's magical powers and save their kingdom after a mysterious voice calls out to Elsa. "Frozen II's" world premiere was held at the Dolby Theatre in Hollywood on November 7, 2019, followed by the film's release by Walt Disney Studios Motion Pictures in the United States on November 22, 2019.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Context: who are the other characters in the movie?

Context: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Question: who voiced for elsa?

Answer: Idina Menzel

Elsa (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction

Elsa of Arendelle is a fictional character who appears in Walt Disney Animation Studios' 53rd animated film "Frozen" and its sequel "Frozen II". She is voiced primarily by Broadway actress and singer Idina Menzel. She is voiced by Eva Bella as a young child and by Spencer Ganus as a teenager in "Frozen". In "Frozen II", young Elsa is voiced by Mattea Conforti (at the start of the film) and Eva Bella (archive audio). Created by directors Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee, Elsa is loosely based on the title character of "The Snow Queen", a Danish fairytale by Hans Christian Andersen.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Context: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Context: who voiced for elsa?

Context: Idina Menzel

Question: what is her relationship with anna?

Answer: Elder sister

Explanation: In the Disney film adaptation, she is introduced as a princess in the fictional Scandinavian Kingdom of Arendelle, heiress to the throne and the elder sister of Princess Anna (Kristen Bell).

Elsa (Frozen) [SEP] Introduction

Several film executives, including Walt Disney, attempted to build on the character, and a number of scheduled film adaptations were shelved when they could not work out the character. Buck and his co-director, Jennifer Lee, were ultimately able to solve the dilemma by depicting Elsa and Anna as sisters. As much as Anna's struggle is external, Elsa's is internal. This led to Elsa being gradually rewritten as a sympathetic, misunderstood character.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Context: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Context: who voiced for elsa?

Context: Idina Menzel

Context: what is her relationship with anna?

Context: Elder sister

Question: who did the soundtrack for the movie?

Answer: Christophe Beck

Frozen II [SEP] Music

Kristen Anderson-Lopez and Robert Lopez returned from the first film to write new songs for the sequel, while Christophe Beck returned to compose the film's score. The soundtrack was officially released on November 15, a week before the movie's theatrical release. Harding also dispatched a camera crew to the Lopezes' studio in Brooklyn to try to document their songwriting/composing process, but the Lopezes found that having camera operators watching them disrupted their creativity and ended up doing most of that work off-camera.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Context: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Context: who voiced for elsa?

Context: Idina Menzel

Context: what is her relationship with anna?

Context: Elder sister

Context: who did the soundtrack for the movie?

Context: Christophe Beck

Question: what response did the movie receive?

Answer: On Rotten Tomatoes, the film holds an approval rating of 77% based on 324 reviews, with an average rating of 6.72/10

Frozen II [SEP] Critical response

On Rotten Tomatoes, the film holds an approval rating of 77% based on 324 reviews, with an average rating of 6.72/10. The site's critical consensus reads, ""Frozen II" can't quite recapture the showstopping feel of its predecessor, but it remains a dazzling adventure into the unknown." On Metacritic, the film has a weighted average score of 64 out of 100, based on 47 critics, indicating "generally favorable reviews." Audiences polled by CinemaScore gave the film an average grade of "A–" on an A+ to F scale, while those at PostTrak gave it an average 4.5 out of 5 stars, with 71% saying they would definitely recommend it.


Context: who does the voice for anna in frozen

Context: Kristen Bell

Context: who designed her?

Context: Jennifer Lee and Chris Buck

Context: UNANSWERABLE

Context: where is she potrayed?

Context: In the Broadway musical

Context: is she active in philanthropical works?

Context: what are some of her future works?

Context: who created the aforesaid latter film?

Context: Chris Buck and Jennifer Lee

Context: Elsa, Kristoff, Olaf and Sven

Context: who voiced for elsa?

Context: Idina Menzel

Context: what is her relationship with anna?

Context: Elder sister

Context: who did the soundtrack for the movie?

Context: Christophe Beck

Context: what response did the movie receive?

Context: On Rotten Tomatoes, the film holds an approval rating of 77% based on 324 reviews, with an average rating of 6.72/10

Question: when was the movie premiered?

Answer: November 7, 2019

Frozen II [SEP] Release

"Frozen II's" world premiere was held at the Dolby Theatre in Hollywood on November 7, 2019, and it was widely released on November 22, 2019 by Walt Disney Studios Motion Pictures. It was previously set for November 27, 2019. It was released in Australia and New Zealand on November 28, 2019. On January 17, 2020, a sing-along re-issue was released.