LucaSailor/old huggingface dataset:
Title: Gothic_architecture
Topic: Art and architecture

The greatest number of surviving Gothic buildings are churches. These range from tiny chapels to large cathedrals, and although many have been extended and altered in different styles, a large number remain either substantially intact or sympathetically restored, demonstrating the form, character and decoration of Gothic architecture. The Gothic style is most particularly associated with the great cathedrals of Northern France, the Low Countries, England and Spain, with other fine examples occurring across Europe.

Q1: What type of structures remaining today have the largest amount of examples of the Gothic style?
A1: churches
Q2: What is one region with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
A2: Northern France
Q3: What is another region with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
A3: the Low Countries
Q4: What is one country with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
A4: England
Q5: What is another country with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
A5: Spain
Title: Wood
Topic: Natural sciences

The greatest strength increase due to drying is in the ultimate crushing strength, and strength at elastic limit in endwise compression; these are followed by the modulus of rupture, and stress at elastic limit in cross-bending, while the modulus of elasticity is least affected.

Q1: What type of "ultimate" strength is one of the two types increased the most by drying wood?
A1: crushing
Q2: What property of wood is least affected by drying?
A2: elasticity
Q3: Is strength at elastic limit in endwise compression or stress at elastic limit in cross-bending increased more by drying wood?
A3: strength at elastic limit in endwise compression
Q4: Is the strength of the modulus of rupture or elasticity increased more when wood is dried?
A4: modulus of rupture
Title: Poultry
Topic: Natural sciences

The greylag goose (Anser anser) was domesticated by the Egyptians at least 3000 years ago, and a different wild species, the swan goose (Anser cygnoides), domesticated in Siberia about a thousand years later, is known as a Chinese goose. The two hybridise with each other and the large knob at the base of the beak, a noticeable feature of the Chinese goose, is present to a varying extent in these hybrids. The hybrids are fertile and have resulted in several of the modern breeds. Despite their early domestication, geese have never gained the commercial importance of chickens and ducks.

Q1: When was the greylag goose first domesticated by humans?
A1: The greylag goose (Anser anser) was domesticated by the Egyptians at least 3000 years ago
Q2: What other name is the swan goose know by ?
A2: Chinese goose
Q3: Where is it believed that the greylag goose was first domesticated in theworld?
A3: Siberia
Q4: Are geese an important part of the poultry industry?
A4: Despite their early domestication, geese have never gained the commercial importance of chickens and ducks.
Title: New_Delhi
Topic: Geography and places

The gross state domestic product (GSDP) of Delhi at current prices for the year 2011-12 has been estimated at Rs 3.13 lakh crore, which is an increase of 18.7 per cent over the previous fiscal.

Q1: What was the gross state domestic product of Delhi for 2011-12?
A1: Rs 3.13 lakh crore
Q2: The GSDP of Delhi increased by what percentage over the previous year in 2011-12?
A2: 18.7
Q3: In which fiscal year was the GSDP of Delhi estimated at Rs 3.13 lakh crore?
A3: 2011-12
Q4: Did the GSDP of Delhi in 2011-12 increase or decrease from the previous fiscal year?
A4: increase
Title: United_States_Air_Force
Topic: Warfare

The ground-attack aircraft of the USAF are designed to attack targets on the ground and are often deployed as close air support for, and in proximity to, U.S. ground forces. The proximity to friendly forces require precision strikes from these aircraft that are not possible with bomber aircraft listed below. They are typically deployed as close air support to ground forces, their role is tactical rather than strategic, operating at the front of the battle rather than against targets deeper in the enemy's rear.

Q1: What are the ground-attack aircraft in the USAF usually deployed in support for? 
A1: U.S. ground forces
Q2: What does the closeness to friendly troops require of these US Air Force aircraft?
A2: precision strikes
Q3: What part of a battle line are the precision strike aircraft of the USAF deployed?
A3: front of the battle
Q4: What type of aircraft is not appropriate to be used in close proximity of US ground troops? 
A4: bomber aircraft
Title: Beyoncé
Topic: Music

The group changed their name to Destiny's Child in 1996, based upon a passage in the Book of Isaiah. In 1997, Destiny's Child released their major label debut song "Killing Time" on the soundtrack to the 1997 film, Men in Black. The following year, the group released their self-titled debut album, scoring their first major hit "No, No, No". The album established the group as a viable act in the music industry, with moderate sales and winning the group three Soul Train Lady of Soul Awards for Best R&B/Soul Album of the Year, Best R&B/Soul or Rap New Artist, and Best R&B/Soul Single for "No, No, No". The group released their multi-platinum second album The Writing's on the Wall in 1999. The record features some of the group's most widely known songs such as "Bills, Bills, Bills", the group's first number-one single, "Jumpin' Jumpin'" and "Say My Name", which became their most successful song at the time, and would remain one of their signature songs. "Say My Name" won the Best R&B Performance by a Duo or Group with Vocals and the Best R&B Song at the 43rd Annual Grammy Awards. The Writing's on the Wall sold more than eight million copies worldwide. During this time, Beyoncé recorded a duet with Marc Nelson, an original member of Boyz II Men, on the song "After All Is Said and Done" for the soundtrack to the 1999 film, The Best Man.

Q1: Which film featured Destiny's Child's first major single?
A1: Men in Black
Q2: For which song, did Destiny's Child take home the grammy award for best R&B performance?
A2: "Say My Name"
Q3: Who did Beyonce record with for the movie "The Best Man?"
A3: Marc Nelson
Q4: Beyonce's group changed their name to Destiny's Child in what year?
A4: 1996
Q5: The name Destiny's Child was based on a quote in which book of the Bible?
A5: Book of Isaiah
Q6: Debut song, "Killing Time" was featured on what movie's sound track?
A6: Men in Black
Q7: What song won Best R&B Performance in the 43 Annual Grammy Awards?
A7: Say My Name
Q8: What singer did Beyonce record a song with for the movie, ''The Best Man"?
A8: Marc Nelson
Q9: Where did Destiny's Child get their name from?
A9: Book of Isaiah.
Q10: Destiny's Child song, Killing Time, was included in which film's soundtrack?
A10: Men in Black.
Q11: What was Destiny's Child's first major song hit?
A11: No, No, No
Q12: When did Destiny's Child release their second album?
A12: 1999
Q13: Who did Beyoncé sing a duet with for "The Best Man" film?
A13: Marc Nelson
Title: Queen_(band)
Topic: Music

The group's second LP, Queen II, was released in 1974, and features rock photographer Mick Rock's iconic image of the band on the cover. This image would be used as the basis for the 1975 "Bohemian Rhapsody" music video production. The album reached number five on the British album chart and became the first Queen album to chart in the UK. The Freddie Mercury-written lead single "Seven Seas of Rhye" reached number ten in the UK, giving the band their first hit. The album is the first real testament to the band's distinctive layered sound, and features long complex instrumental passages, fantasy-themed lyrics, and musical virtuosity. Aside from its only single, the album also included the song "The March of the Black Queen", a six-minute epic which lacks a chorus. The Daily Vault described the number as "menacing". Critical reaction was mixed; the Winnipeg Free Press, while praising the band's debut album, described Queen II as a "over-produced monstrosity". Allmusic has described the album as a favourite among the band's hardcore fans, and it is the first of three Queen albums to feature in the book 1001 Albums You Must Hear Before You Die.

Q1: What was the name of Queen's second LP?
A1: Queen II
Q2: What year was Queen's second album released?
A2: 1974
Q3: Who designed the cover of Queen's second album?
A3: Mick Rock
Q4: Who wrote the song Seven Seas of Rhye?
A4: Freddie Mercury
Q5: How long is the song The March of the Black Queen?
A5: six-minute
Title: George_VI
Topic: History

The growing likelihood of war in Europe dominated the early reign of George VI. The King was constitutionally bound to support Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler. However, when the King and Queen greeted Chamberlain on his return from negotiating the Munich Agreement in 1938, they invited him to appear on the balcony of Buckingham Palace with them. This public association of the monarchy with a politician was exceptional, as balcony appearances were traditionally restricted to the royal family. While broadly popular among the general public, Chamberlain's policy towards Hitler was the subject of some opposition in the House of Commons, which led historian John Grigg to describe the King's behaviour in associating himself so prominently with a politician as "the most unconstitutional act by a British sovereign in the present century".

Q1: Which prime minister was the King constitutionally bound to support?
A1: Neville Chamberlain
Q2: Which agreement was signed in 1938?
A2: Munich Agreement
Q3: The balcony in which palace is famous for being where the royal family makes appearances?
A3: Buckingham Palace
Q4: Which historian commented that the king's act in associating with Chamberlain as unconstitutional?
A4: John Grigg
Title: American_Idol
Topic: Music

The growth continued into the next season, starting with a season premiere of 26.5 million. The season attracted an average of 21.7 million viewers, and was placed second overall amongst the 18–49 age group. The finale night when Ruben Studdard won over Clay Aiken was also the highest-rated ever American Idol episode at 38.1 million for the final hour. By season three, the show had become the top show in the 18–49 demographic a position it has held for all subsequent years up to and including season ten, and its competition stages ranked first in the nationwide overall ratings. By season four, American Idol had become the most watched series amongst all viewers on American TV for the first time, with an average viewership of 26.8 million. The show reached its peak in season five with numbers averaging 30.6 million per episode, and season five remains the highest-rated season of the series.

Q1: How many people watched the first episode of American Idols second season? 
A1: 26.5 million
Q2: How many people on average tuned in to watch American Idol in its second season? 
A2: 21.7 million
Q3: What contestant won the second season of American Idol? 
A3: Ruben Studdard
Q4: During what season did American Idol become the highest rated show across all demographics? 
A4: season four
Q5: Which season of American Idol was watched by the most people? 
A5: season five
Q6: How many people watched the second season premiere of American Idol?
A6: 26.5 million
Q7: How many people watched on average for season two?
A7: 21.7 million
Q8: By what season was American Idol the most watched show on TV?
A8: four
Title: Association_football
Topic: History

The growth in women's football has seen major competitions being launched at both national and international level mirroring the male competitions. Women's football has faced many struggles. It had a "golden age" in the United Kingdom in the early 1920s when crowds reached 50,000 at some matches; this was stopped on 5 December 1921 when England's Football Association voted to ban the game from grounds used by its member clubs. The FA's ban was rescinded in December 1969 with UEFA voting to officially recognise women's football in 1971. The FIFA Women's World Cup was inaugurated in 1991 and has been held every four years since, while women's football has been an Olympic event since 1996.

Q1: What decade is considered the "golden age" of women's football?
A1: 1920s
Q2: Since what year has women's football been an Olympic event?
A2: 1996
Q3: Who voted to ban women's football from its grounds in 1921?
A3: England's Football Association
Q4: In 1971, who officially recognized women's football?
A4: UEFA
Q5: What year was the FIFA Women's first World cup?
A5: 1991
Title: Intellectual_property
Topic: History

The growth of the Internet, and particularly distributed search engines like Kazaa and Gnutella, have represented a challenge for copyright policy. The Recording Industry Association of America, in particular, has been on the front lines of the fight against copyright infringement, which the industry calls "piracy". The industry has had victories against some services, including a highly publicized case against the file-sharing company Napster, and some people have been prosecuted for sharing files in violation of copyright. The electronic age has seen an increase in the attempt to use software-based digital rights management tools to restrict the copying and use of digitally based works. Laws such as the Digital Millennium Copyright Act have been enacted, that use criminal law to prevent any circumvention of software used to enforce digital rights management systems. Equivalent provisions, to prevent circumvention of copyright protection have existed in EU for some time, and are being expanded in, for example, Article 6 and 7 the Copyright Directive. Other examples are Article 7 of the Software Directive of 1991 (91/250/EEC), and the Conditional Access Directive of 1998 (98/84/EEC). This can hinder legal uses, affecting public domain works, limitations and exceptions to copyright, or uses allowed by the copyright holder. Some copyleft licenses, like GNU GPL 3, are designed to counter that. Laws may permit circumvention under specific conditions like when it is necessary to achieve interoperability with the circumventor's program, or for accessibility reasons; however, distribution of circumvention tools or instructions may be illegal.

Q1: What does the recording industry call piracy?
A1: copyright infringement
Q2: What type of company was Napster?
A2: file-sharing
Q3: What law enforces digital rights management systems?
A3: Digital Millennium Copyright Act
Q4: Which articles of the EU Copyright Directive address circumvention of copyright protection?
A4: Article 6 and 7
Q5: When was the Conditional Access Directive passed in the EU?
A5: 1998
Title: Gene
Topic: Natural sciences

The growth, development, and reproduction of organisms relies on cell division, or the process by which a single cell divides into two usually identical daughter cells. This requires first making a duplicate copy of every gene in the genome in a process called DNA replication.:5.2 The copies are made by specialized enzymes known as DNA polymerases, which "read" one strand of the double-helical DNA, known as the template strand, and synthesize a new complementary strand. Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing, the sequence of one strand completely specifies the sequence of its complement; hence only one strand needs to be read by the enzyme to produce a faithful copy. The process of DNA replication is semiconservative; that is, the copy of the genome inherited by each daughter cell contains one original and one newly synthesized strand of DNA.:5.2

Q1: What does the growth, development, and reproduction of organisms rely on?
A1: cell division
Q2: In cell division, what two cells are created? 
A2: identical daughter cells
Q3: What specialized enzyme is responsible DNA replication?
A3: DNA polymerases
Q4: Why does the sequence of one strand completely specify the sequence of its complement?
A4: Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing
Q5: What one word characterizes the process of DNA replication?
A5: semiconservative
Title: Annelid
Topic: Natural sciences

The gut is generally an almost straight tube supported by the mesenteries (vertical partitions within segments), and ends with the anus on the underside of the pygidium. However, in members of the tube-dwelling family Siboglinidae the gut is blocked by a swollen lining that houses symbiotic bacteria, which can make up 15% of the worms' total weight. The bacteria convert inorganic matter – such as hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide from hydrothermal vents, or methane from seeps – to organic matter that feeds themselves and their hosts, while the worms extend their palps into the gas flows to absorb the gases needed by the bacteria.

Q1: What type of annelids are tube-dwelling?
A1: Siboglinidae
Q2: What blocks the Siboglinidae's gut?
A2: a swollen lining
Q3: How much of a Siboglinidae's weight is symbiotic bacteria?
A3: 15%
Q4: What gases come from hydrothermal vents?
A4: hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide
Q5: What gases come from seeps?
A5: methane
Title: Planck_constant
Topic: Mathematics

The gyromagnetic ratio γ is the constant of proportionality between the frequency ν of nuclear magnetic resonance (or electron paramagnetic resonance for electrons) and the applied magnetic field B: ν = γB. It is difficult to measure gyromagnetic ratios precisely because of the difficulties in precisely measuring B, but the value for protons in water at 7002298150000000000♠25 °C is known to better than one part per million. The protons are said to be "shielded" from the applied magnetic field by the electrons in the water molecule, the same effect that gives rise to chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy, and this is indicated by a prime on the symbol for the gyromagnetic ratio, γ′p. The gyromagnetic ratio is related to the shielded proton magnetic moment μ′p, the spin number I (I = 1⁄2 for protons) and the reduced Planck constant.

Q1: The gyromagnetic ratio is the constant proportion between the magentic field and what?
A1: the frequency ν of nuclear magnetic resonance
Q2: How does the water molecule impact the effect of magnetic fields on protons?
A2: The protons are said to be "shielded" from the applied magnetic field by the electrons in the water molecule
Q3: What three factors impact the gyromagnetic ratio?
A3: related to the shielded proton magnetic moment μ′p, the spin number I (I = 1⁄2 for protons) and the reduced Planck constant.
Q4: The gyromagnetic ratio is often difficult to determine due to difficulty accurately determining the value of what?
A4: the applied magnetic field B
Title: Mary_(mother_of_Jesus)
Topic: Philosophy and religion

The hagiography of Mary and the Holy Family can be contrasted with other material in the Gospels. These references include an incident which can be interpreted as Jesus rejecting his family in the New Testament: "And his mother and his brothers arrived, and standing outside, they sent in a message asking for him ... And looking at those who sat in a circle around him, Jesus said, 'These are my mother and my brothers. Whoever does the will of God is my brother, and sister, and mother'."[3:31-35] Other verses suggest a conflict between Jesus and his family, including an attempt to have Jesus restrained because "he is out of his mind", and the famous quote: "A prophet is not without honor except in his own town, among his relatives and in his own home." A leading Biblical scholar commented: "there are clear signs not only that Jesus's family rejected his message during his public ministry but that he in turn spurned them publicly".

Q1: Who did Jesus say were his "brother, and sister, and mother?"
A1: Whoever does the will of God
Q2: According to Jesus, who is "without honor except in his own town?"
A2: A prophet
Q3: What do some Biblical scholars claim that Jesus' family did with his message during his ministry?
A3: rejected
Title: Incandescent_light_bulb
Topic: Engineering and technology

The halogen lamp reduces uneven evaporation of the filament and eliminates darkening of the envelope by filling the lamp with a halogen gas at low pressure, rather than an inert gas. The halogen cycle increases the lifetime of the bulb and prevents its darkening by redepositing tungsten from the inside of the bulb back onto the filament. The halogen lamp can operate its filament at a higher temperature than a standard gas filled lamp of similar power without loss of operating life. Such bulbs are much smaller than normal incandescent bulbs, and are widely used where intense illumination is needed in a limited space. Fiber-optic lamps for optical microscopy is one typical application.

Q1: Does the halogen bulp increase, reduce, or have no effect on filament evaporation?
A1: reduces
Q2: How does the halogen bulb decrease darkening over time?
A2: by redepositing tungsten from the inside of the bulb back onto the filament
Q3: Does a halogen bulb operate at a higher or lower temperature than an incandescent?
A3: higher
Q4: How does the size of a halogen bulb compare to an incandescent?
A4: bulbs are much smaller than normal incandescent bulbs
Q5: What is the most common situation when a halogen bulb is used?
A5: where intense illumination is needed in a limited space
Title: Insect
Topic: Natural sciences

The head is enclosed in a hard, heavily sclerotized, unsegmented, exoskeletal head capsule, or epicranium, which contains most of the sensing organs, including the antennae, ocellus or eyes, and the mouthparts. Of all the insect orders, Orthoptera displays the most features found in other insects, including the sutures and sclerites. Here, the vertex, or the apex (dorsal region), is situated between the compound eyes for insects with a hypognathous and opisthognathous head. In prognathous insects, the vertex is not found between the compound eyes, but rather, where the ocelli are normally. This is because the primary axis of the head is rotated 90° to become parallel to the primary axis of the body. In some species, this region is modified and assumes a different name.:13

Q1: What part of the insect contains most of the sensing organs?
A1: head
Q2: What is another word for head capsule?
A2: epicranium
Q3: What displays the most features on an insect?
A3: Orthoptera
Q4: What is the vertex also known as?
A4: apex
Q5: The vertex is usually located between what kind of eyes?
A5: compound
Title: New_Delhi
Topic: Geography and places

The head of state of Delhi is the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi, appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Central government and the post is largely ceremonial, as the Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Delhi is the head of government and is vested with most of the executive powers. According to the Indian constitution, if a law passed by Delhi's legislative assembly is repugnant to any law passed by the Parliament of India, then the law enacted by the parliament will prevail over the law enacted by the assembly.

Q1: What is the official title of Delhi's head of state?
A1: Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi
Q2: Who is responsible for appointing the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi?
A2: President of India
Q3: Which takes precedent when a law passed by Parliament conflicts with a law passed by Delhi's Legislative assembly?
A3: the law enacted by the parliament
Q4: What government body advises the president on appointing a Lieutenant Governor?
A4: the Central government
Q5: Which government position is given most of the executive powers over Delhi?
A5: Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Delhi
Title: Ministry_of_Defence_(United_Kingdom)
Topic: Warfare

The headquarters of the MoD are in Whitehall and are now known as Main Building. This structure is neoclassical in style and was originally built between 1938 and 1959 to designs by Vincent Harris to house the Air Ministry and the Board of Trade. The northern entrance in Horse Guards Avenue is flanked by two monumental statues, Earth and Water, by Charles Wheeler. Opposite stands the Gurkha Monument, sculpted by Philip Jackson and unveiled in 1997 by Queen Elizabeth II. Within it is the Victoria Cross and George Cross Memorial, and nearby are memorials to the Fleet Air Arm and RAF (to its east, facing the riverside). A major refurbishment of the building was completed under a PFI contract by Skanska in 2004.

Q1: In what city are the headquarters of the MoD?
A1: Whitehall
Q2: Who designed the headquarters of the MoD?
A2: Vincent Harris
Q3: Who designed the statues that are on either side of the northern entrance to the MoD headquarters?
A3: Charles Wheeler
Q4: What is the headquarters of the MoD called?
A4: Main Building
Q5: Who made the Gurkha Monument?
A5: Philip Jackson
Title: Dog
Topic: Natural sciences

The health benefits of dogs can result from contact with dogs in general, and not solely from having dogs as pets. For example, when in the presence of a pet dog, people show reductions in cardiovascular, behavioral, and psychological indicators of anxiety. Other health benefits are gained from exposure to immune-stimulating microorganisms, which, according to the hygiene hypothesis, can protect against allergies and autoimmune diseases. The benefits of contact with a dog also include social support, as dogs are able to not only provide companionship and social support themselves, but also to act as facilitators of social interactions between humans. One study indicated that wheelchair users experience more positive social interactions with strangers when they are accompanied by a dog than when they are not. In 2015, a study found that pet owners were significantly more likely to get to know people in their neighborhood than non-pet owners.

Q1: What do humans get exposed to with pets that may help them not get sick?
A1: immune-stimulating microorganisms
Q2: Dogs can act as a facilitator of what between human beings?
A2: social interactions
Q3: What year was the study done that indicated people with pets are more likely to get to know neighbors?
A3: 2015
Q4: What is lessened when people are with their pet dogs?
A4: anxiety
Q5: People in wheelchairs have better social interactions with who when dogs are involved?
A5: strangers
Title: Roman_Republic
Topic: History

The heavy infantry of the maniples were supported by a number of light infantry and cavalry troops, typically 300 horsemen per manipular legion. The cavalry was drawn primarily from the richest class of equestrians. There was an additional class of troops who followed the army without specific martial roles and were deployed to the rear of the third line. Their role in accompanying the army was primarily to supply any vacancies that might occur in the maniples. The light infantry consisted of 1,200 unarmoured skirmishing troops drawn from the youngest and lower social classes. They were armed with a sword and a small shield, as well as several light javelins.

Q1: How many horseman were likely to be found in a single manipular legion?
A1: 300 horsemen
Q2: Where could you expect the extensive amount of cavalry troops to be sourced from?
A2: richest class of equestrians
Q3: What often neglected social class was the light infantry comprised of?
A3: lower social classes.
Q4: Small shields could be found in what section of the infantry?
A4: light infantry
Q5: What type of infantry joined light, and the cavalry in battle?
A5: heavy infantry
Title: Mosaic
Topic: Art and architecture

The heyday of mosaic making in Sicily was the age of the independent Norman kingdom in the 12th century. The Norman kings adopted the Byzantine tradition of mosaic decoration to enhance the somewhat dubious legality of their rule. Greek masters working in Sicily developed their own style, that shows the influence of Western European and Islamic artistic tendencies. Best examples of Sicilian mosaic art are the Cappella Palatina of Roger II, the Martorana church in Palermo and the cathedrals of Cefalù and Monreale.

Q1: when was the height of mosaic art in sicily?
A1: the 12th century
Q2: Who adopted the Byzantine mosaic tradition?
A2: Norman kings
Q3: Why did the Normans adopt a Byzantine art style?
A3: enhance the somewhat dubious legality of their rule
Q4: Who was influenced by Western European and Islamic tendencies?
A4: Greek masters working in Sicily
Q5: The Martorana church is an example of the best mosaic art in what part italy?
A5: Sicily
Title: Bird
Topic: Natural sciences

The high metabolic rates of birds during the active part of the day is supplemented by rest at other times. Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as vigilant sleep, where periods of rest are interspersed with quick eye-opening "peeks", allowing them to be sensitive to disturbances and enable rapid escape from threats. Swifts are believed to be able to sleep in flight and radar observations suggest that they orient themselves to face the wind in their roosting flight. It has been suggested that there may be certain kinds of sleep which are possible even when in flight. Some birds have also demonstrated the capacity to fall into slow-wave sleep one hemisphere of the brain at a time. The birds tend to exercise this ability depending upon its position relative to the outside of the flock. This may allow the eye opposite the sleeping hemisphere to remain vigilant for predators by viewing the outer margins of the flock. This adaptation is also known from marine mammals. Communal roosting is common because it lowers the loss of body heat and decreases the risks associated with predators. Roosting sites are often chosen with regard to thermoregulation and safety.

Q1: Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as what?
A1: vigilant sleep
Q2: What are believed to be able to sleep in flight?
A2: Swifts
Q3: Why is communal roosting common?
A3: because it lowers the loss of body heat
Title: History_of_India
Topic: History

The high points of this cultural creativity are magnificent architecture, sculpture, and painting. The Gupta period produced scholars such as Kalidasa, Aryabhata, Varahamihira, Vishnu Sharma, and Vatsyayana who made great advancements in many academic fields. The Gupta period marked a watershed of Indian culture: the Guptas performed Vedic sacrifices to legitimize their rule, but they also patronized Buddhism, which continued to provide an alternative to Brahmanical orthodoxy. The military exploits of the first three rulers – Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II - brought much of India under their leadership. Science and political administration reached new heights during the Gupta era. Strong trade ties also made the region an important cultural centre and established it as a base that would influence nearby kingdoms and regions in Burma, Sri Lanka, Maritime Southeast Asia, and Indochina. For these reasons, historian Dr.Barnett remarked:

Q1: What did the Guptas promote in their reigns?
A1: Indian culture
Q2: Besides the Vedic practices, what other religion did the Guptas patronize?
A2: Buddhism
Q3: What Guptas brought much of India under Gupta rule?
A3: first three rulers
Q4: What business activity made the Gupta Empire prominent in India?
A4: Strong trade ties
Q5: What did the Gupta Empires trade ties influence?
A5: nearby kingdoms
Title: Elevator
Topic: History

The high-speed observation deck elevators accelerate to a world-record certified speed of 1,010 metres per minute (61 km/h) in 16 seconds, and then it slows down for arrival with subtle air pressure sensations. The door opens after 37 seconds from the 5th floor. Special features include aerodynamic car and counterweights, and cabin pressure control to help passengers adapt smoothly to pressure changes. The downwards journey is completed at a reduced speed of 600 meters per minute, with the doors opening at the 52nd second.

Q1: How fast do the observation deck elevators travel?
A1: 1,010 metres per minute (61 km/h) in 16 seconds
Q2: This speed holds what record?
A2: world-record certified speed
Q3: What does cabin pressure control do? 
A3: help passengers adapt smoothly to pressure changes
Q4: How fast does the elevator drop down?
A4: 600 meters per minute
Q5: At what floor do the doors open on the way down?
A5: 52nd
Title: Insect
Topic: Natural sciences

The higher-level phylogeny of the arthropods continues to be a matter of debate and research. In 2008, researchers at Tufts University uncovered what they believe is the world's oldest known full-body impression of a primitive flying insect, a 300 million-year-old specimen from the Carboniferous period. The oldest definitive insect fossil is the Devonian Rhyniognatha hirsti, from the 396-million-year-old Rhynie chert. It may have superficially resembled a modern-day silverfish insect. This species already possessed dicondylic mandibles (two articulations in the mandible), a feature associated with winged insects, suggesting that wings may already have evolved at this time. Thus, the first insects probably appeared earlier, in the Silurian period.

Q1: From what period do researchers believe that the oldest known full-body impression of a flying insect originates?
A1: Carboniferous
Q2: What is believed to be the oldest known insect fossil?
A2: Devonian Rhyniognatha hirsti
Q3: In what year did Tufts researchers reportedly uncover what is believed to be the oldest known impression of a flying insect?
A3: 2008
Q4: What is the term for a mandible with two articulations?
A4: dicondylic
Q5: With what type of insect is a dicondylic mandible associated?
A5: winged
Q6: What higher-level is constantly up for debate and research?
A6: phylogeny
Q7: The higher-level phylogeny is of the what?
A7: arthropods
Q8: What kind of impression has been uncovered by a University?
A8: full-body
Q9: A University discovered a primitive flying what?
A9: insect
Q10: How old is the primitive plying insect found by the University?
A10: 300 million-year-old
Title: Alps
Topic: Geography and places

The highest peaks of the Western Alps and Eastern Alps, respectively, are Mont Blanc, at 4,810 m (15,780 ft) and Piz Bernina at 4,049 metres (13,284 ft). The second-highest major peaks are Monte Rosa at 4,634 m (15,200 ft) and Ortler at 3,905 m (12,810 ft), respectively

Q1: The highest peak of the Western Alps is where? 
A1: Mont Blanc
Q2: How tall is the peak at Mont Blanc? 
A2: 4,810 m
Q3: The highest peak of the Eastern Alps is where?
A3: Piz Bernina
Q4: How tall is the peak of Piz Bernina
A4: 4,049 metres
Title: Tennessee
Topic: Geography and places

The highest point in the state is Clingmans Dome at 6,643 feet (2,025 m). Clingmans Dome, which lies on Tennessee's eastern border, is the highest point on the Appalachian Trail, and is the third highest peak in the United States east of the Mississippi River. The state line between Tennessee and North Carolina crosses the summit. The state's lowest point is the Mississippi River at the Mississippi state line (the lowest point in Memphis, nearby, is at 195 ft (59 m)). The geographical center of the state is located in Murfreesboro.

Q1: What is the elevation of Tennessee's highest point?
A1: 6,643 feet
Q2: What mountain in Tennessee is the Appalachian Trail's highest point?
A2: Clingmans Dome
Q3: What river is situated on Tennessee point of lowest elevation?
A3: Mississippi River
Q4: Which city marks the geographical center of Tennessee?
A4: Murfreesboro
Title: Alps
Topic: Geography and places

The highest portion of the range is divided by the glacial trough of the Rhone valley, with the Pennine Alps from Mont Blanc to the Matterhorn and Monte Rosa on the southern side, and the Bernese Alps on the northern. The peaks in the easterly portion of the range, in Austria and Slovenia, are smaller than those in the central and western portions.

Q1: The highest portion of the Alp's range is divided by what? 
A1: the glacial trough of the Rhone valley
Q2: Where are the peaks smaller in the range? 
A2: the easterly portion
Q3: The Bernese Alps are located in what part of the range? 
A3: northern
Title: Ottoman_Empire
Topic: History

The highest position in Islam, caliphate, was claimed by the sultans starting since Murad I, which was established as Ottoman Caliphate. The Ottoman sultan, pâdişâh or "lord of kings", served as the Empire's sole regent and was considered to be the embodiment of its government, though he did not always exercise complete control. The Imperial Harem was one of the most important powers of the Ottoman court. It was ruled by the Valide Sultan. On occasion, the Valide Sultan would become involved in state politics. For a time, the women of the Harem effectively controlled the state in what was termed the "Sultanate of Women". New sultans were always chosen from the sons of the previous sultan. The strong educational system of the palace school was geared towards eliminating the unfit potential heirs, and establishing support among the ruling elite for a successor. The palace schools, which would also educate the future administrators of the state, were not a single track. First, the Madrasa (Ottoman Turkish: Medrese‎) was designated for the Muslims, and educated scholars and state officials according to Islamic tradition. The financial burden of the Medrese was supported by vakifs, allowing children of poor families to move to higher social levels and income. The second track was a free boarding school for the Christians, the Enderûn, which recruited 3,000 students annually from Christian boys between eight and twenty years old from one in forty families among the communities settled in Rumelia or the Balkans, a process known as Devshirme (Devşirme).

Q1: The Ottoman Caliphate claimed by Murad Ir epresented what in Islam?
A1: The highest position
Q2: The person with this what title was believed to be the embodiment of the Ottoman government?
A2: pâdişâh or "lord of kings"
Q3: What was the importantance of the imperial Harem?
A3: one of the most important powers of the Ottoman court
Q4: What was the purpose of the palace educational system?
A4: eliminating the unfit potential heirs, and establishing support among the ruling elite for a successor
Q5: What was the name of the boarding school for Christians during the Ottoman Caliphate?
A5: Enderûn
Title: Pub
Topic: History

The highest pub in the United Kingdom is the Tan Hill Inn, Yorkshire, at 1,732 feet (528 m) above sea level. The remotest pub on the British mainland is The Old Forge in the village of Inverie, Lochaber, Scotland. There is no road access and it may only be reached by an 18-mile (29 km) walk over mountains, or a 7-mile (11 km) sea crossing. Likewise, The Berney Arms in Norfolk has no road access. It may be reached by foot or by boat, and by train as it is served by the nearby Berney Arms railway station, which likewise has no road access and serves no other settlement.

Q1: What pub in England is the highest above sea level?
A1: the Tan Hill Inn
Q2: In what county is the Tan Hill Inn located?
A2: Yorkshire
Q3: How many meters above sea level is the Tan Hill Inn?
A3: 528
Q4: In what settlement is the pub known as The Old Forge located?
A4: Inverie
Q5: In what country of the United Kingdom is the Old Forge pub located?
A5: Scotland
Title: Charleston,_South_Carolina
Topic: Geography and places

The highest temperature recorded within city limits was 104 °F (40 °C), on June 2, 1985, and June 24, 1944, and the lowest was 7 °F (−14 °C) on February 14, 1899, although at the airport, where official records are kept, the historical range is 105 °F (41 °C) on August 1, 1999 down to 6 °F (−14 °C) on January 21, 1985. Hurricanes are a major threat to the area during the summer and early fall, with several severe hurricanes hitting the area – most notably Hurricane Hugo on September 21, 1989 (a category 4 storm). Dewpoint in the summer ranges from 67.8 to 71.4 °F (20 to 22 °C).

Q1: What is hottest temperature recorded with Charleston's city limits?
A1: 104 °F
Q2: What type of storm is a major threat to Charleston in the summer and early fall?
A2: Hurricanes
Q3: What hurricane hit Charleston in 1989?
A3: Hurricane Hugo
Q4: What was the lowest temperature ever recorded Charleston's city limit?
A4: 7 °F (−14 °C)
Q5: What day did Charleston's airport hit the coldest day on record?
A5: January 21, 1985
Title: Pub
Topic: History

The highwayman Dick Turpin used the Swan Inn at Woughton-on-the-Green in Buckinghamshire as his base. In the 1920s John Fothergill (1876–1957) was the innkeeper of the Spread Eagle in Thame, Berkshire, and published his autobiography: An Innkeeper's Diary (London: Chatto & Windus, 1931). During his idiosyncratic occupancy many famous people came to stay, such as H. G. Wells. United States president George W. Bush fulfilled his lifetime ambition of visiting a 'genuine British pub' during his November 2003 state visit to the UK when he had lunch and a pint of non-alcoholic lager (Bush being a teetotaler) with British Prime Minister Tony Blair at the Dun Cow pub in Sedgefield, County Durham in Blair's home constituency. There were approximately 53,500 public houses in 2009 in the United Kingdom. This number has been declining every year, so that nearly half of the smaller villages no longer have a local pub.

Q1: Who was based out of the Swan Inn?
A1: Dick Turpin
Q2: In what county was the Swan Inn located?
A2: Buckinghamshire
Q3: What was the name of the innkeeper at the Spread Eagle in the 1920s?
A3: John Fothergill
Q4: In what year was An Innkeeper's Diary published?
A4: 1931
Q5: What publishing house published An Innkeeper's Diary?
A5: Chatto & Windus
Title: Edmund_Burke
Topic: History

The historian Piers Brendon asserts that Burke laid the moral foundations for the British Empire, epitomised in the trial of Warren Hastings, that was ultimately to be its undoing: when Burke stated that "The British Empire must be governed on a plan of freedom, for it will be governed by no other", this was "...an ideological bacillus that would prove fatal. This was Edmund Burke's paternalistic doctrine that colonial government was a trust. It was to be so exercised for the benefit of subject people that they would eventually attain their birthright—freedom". As a consequence of this opinion, Burke objected to the opium trade, which he called a "smuggling adventure" and condemned "the great Disgrace of the British character in India".

Q1: Who thought Burke's trial of Hastings was a moral foundation of the British Empire?
A1: Piers Brendon
Q2: What did Burke think the British Empire should be governed based on?
A2: a plan of freedom
Q3: What did Burke call 'a smuggling adventure'?
A3: opium trade
Q4: What did Burke think had disgraced Britain in India?
A4: opium trade
Title: Cubism
Topic: Art and architecture

The historical study of Cubism began in the late 1920s, drawing at first from sources of limited data, namely the opinions of Guillaume Apollinaire. It came to rely heavily on Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler's book Der Weg zum Kubismus (published in 1920), which centered on the developments of Picasso, Braque, Léger, and Gris. The terms "analytical" and "synthetic" which subsequently emerged have been widely accepted since the mid-1930s. Both terms are historical impositions that occurred after the facts they identify. Neither phase was designated as such at the time corresponding works were created. "If Kahnweiler considers Cubism as Picasso and Braque," wrote Daniel Robbins, "our only fault is in subjecting other Cubists' works to the rigors of that limited definition."

Q1: When did the historical study of Cubism begin?
A1: in the late 1920s
Q2: On who's opinions were the beginnings of the this historical study of Cubism based?
A2: Guillaume Apollinaire
Q3: On which book and who was the author was one of the main sources of the historical study of Cubism based?
A3: Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler's book Der Weg zum Kubismus
Title: Age_of_Enlightenment
Topic: Philosophy and religion

The history of Academies in France during the Enlightenment begins with the Academy of Science, founded in 1635 in Paris. It was closely tied to the French state, acting as an extension of a government seriously lacking in scientists. It helped promote and organize new disciplines, and it trained new scientists. It also contributed to the enhancement of scientists' social status, considering them to be the "most useful of all citizens". Academies demonstrate the rising interest in science along with its increasing secularization, as evidenced by the small number of clerics who were members (13 percent). The presence of the French academies in the public sphere cannot be attributed to their membership; although the majority of their members were bourgeois, the exclusive institution was only open to elite Parisian scholars. They perceived themselves as "interpreters of the sciences for the people". For example, it was with this in mind that academicians took it upon themselves to disprove the popular pseudo-science of mesmerism.

Q1: What year was the Academy of Science in France founded?
A1: 1635
Q2: Members of what group were considered to be the "most useful of all citizens?"
A2: scientists
Q3: What percentage of clerics were members of the Academy of Science?
A3: 13 percent
Q4: The Academy of Science was only open to which societal group?
A4: elite Parisian scholars
Q5: How did elite Parisian scholars perceive themselves?
A5: interpreters of the sciences for the people
Title: History_of_India
Topic: History

The history of India includes the prehistoric settlements and societies in the Indian subcontinent; the blending of the Indus Valley Civilization and Indo-Aryan culture into the Vedic Civilization; the development of Hinduism as a synthesis of various Indian cultures and traditions; the rise of the Śramaṇa movement; the decline of Śrauta sacrifices and the birth of the initiatory traditions of Jainism, Buddhism, Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Shaktism; the onset of a succession of powerful dynasties and empires for more than two millennia throughout various geographic areas of the subcontinent, including the growth of Muslim dynasties during the Medieval period intertwined with Hindu powers; the advent of European traders resulting in the establishment of the British rule; and the subsequent independence movement that led to the Partition of India and the creation of the Republic of India.

Q1: In what geographic area was the country of India established?
A1: Indian subcontinent
Q2: What did the joining of the Indus Valley and Indo-Aryan cultures produce?
A2: Vedic Civilization
Q3: Of what is Hinduism a combination?
A3: Indian cultures and traditions
Q4: How long was the succession of powerful dynasties in the Indian subcontinent?
A4: two millennia
Q5: What movement lead to the founding of the Republic of India?
A5: independence movement
Title: Buddhism
Topic: Philosophy and religion

The history of Indian Buddhism may be divided into five periods: Early Buddhism (occasionally called Pre-sectarian Buddhism), Nikaya Buddhism or Sectarian Buddhism: The period of the Early Buddhist schools, Early Mahayana Buddhism, Later Mahayana Buddhism, and Esoteric Buddhism (also called Vajrayana Buddhism).

Q1: The periods of Buddhisma in India is divided into how many periods?
A1: five
Q2: What is the first period of Buddhism called?
A2: Early Buddhism
Q3: What is another name for Nikaya buddhism?
A3: Sectarian
Q4: What is the last period of Buddhism?
A4: Esoteric Buddhism
Q5: What is Esoteric Buddhism also called?
A5: Vajrayana
Title: Somalis
Topic: Geography and places

The history of Islam in Somalia is as old as the religion itself. The early persecuted Muslims fled to various places in the region, including the city of Zeila in modern-day northern Somalia, so as to seek protection from the Quraysh. Somalis were among the first populations on the continent to embrace Islam. With very few exceptions, Somalis are entirely Muslims, the majority belonging to the Sunni branch of Islam and the Shafi`i school of Islamic jurisprudence, although a few are also adherents of the Shia Muslim denomination.

Q1: In what geographic part of Somalia is Zeila located?
A1: northern
Q2: From whom were the early Muslims fleeing?
A2: the Quraysh
Q3: Along with the Shafi'i, to what sect of Islam do most Somalis belong?
A3: Sunni
Q4: What is the majority religion in Somalia?
A4: Islam
Q5: A small minority of Somalis belong to what branch of Islam?
A5: Shia