Kornimate/medical-research-clean huggingface dataset:
documentation of efficacy of intralymphatic allergen immunotherapy

Conditions: Allergic Rhinitis Due to Grass Pollen; Allergic Conjunctivitis of Both Eyes; Allergic Asthma

Summary: investigation of the clinical efficacy of 3 intralymphatic injections with grass pollen extract into inguinal lymph nodes on combined symptom-medication scores during grass pollen season in grass pollen allergic patients compared to placebo

a double-blind, parallel group, placebo controlled multi-site trial of the clinical efficacy of 3 intralymphatic injections with a low dose of grass pollen extract into inguinal lymph nodes in grass pollen allergic subjects. primary endpoint is the difference in combined symptom and medication score during grass pollen seasons following treatment compared with patients receiving placebo. injections are giving ultrasound-guided with at least 4 weeks intervals.

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * moderate-severe grass pollen allergic rhinoconjunctivitis * positive skin prick test for grass pollen extract exclusion criteria: * significant mugwort allergy * previous ait for grass pollen allergy * uncontrolled non-allergic upper airways disease * uncontrolled asthma * planned depot steroid injections during season * uncontrolled autoimmune diseases * active malignancies * uncontrolled other severe condition, including psychiatric diseases

Keywords: allergen immunotherapy allergic rhinoconjunctivitis grass pollen allergy intralymphatic immunotherapy
68ga-psma pet in the renal cell carcinoma

Conditions: Renal Cancer; Metastases; PSMA PET

Summary: the primary research purpose is to evaluate the diagnostic efficacy of 68ga-psma pet in metastatic lesions of locally advanced and advanced renal cell carcinoma, and to compare with that of enhanced ct. the second purpose is to evaluate whether 68ga-psma pet can change the treatment decision of patients with locally advanced and advanced renal cell carcinoma


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * 2017 ajcc renal cell carcinoma tnm stage iii, iv lesions; * in contrast-enhanced ct staging, suspicious metastases were found; * there were no known peripheral or central venous problems; * 68ga psma pet / ct imaging can be performed within 6 weeks after the diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma; * signed the informed consent form of voluntary participation in clinical trials. exclusion criteria: * age ≤ 18 years old; * can't stand lying flat in pet / ct examination; * there are contraindications for 68ga psma ligands; * in the past two years, there was a history of other malignant tumors, or according to the doctor's research judgment, complications may occur and affect the normal operation of the test; * renal function is impaired or hemodialysis is in progress.

Keywords: advnaced renal cancer psma pet metastases
a randomized cross over trial of two treatments for obstructive sleep apnea in veterans with post traumatic stress disorder

Conditions: Obstructive Sleep Apnea

Summary: sleep disturbances are cardinal features of veterans with post traumatic stress disorder (ptsd). in particular, obstructive sleep apnea is reported to occur more frequently in patients with ptsd compared to those without ptsd and contribute to worsening cognitive and behavioral functions. continuous positive airway pressure (cpap) is considered the treatment of choice for osa but adherence to cpap in veterans with ptsd is poor compared to the general population. the proposed study aims at comparing the efficacy, tolerability, and adherence of mandibular advancing devices-an alternative therapy to osa- to cpap. the study is instrumental in identifying the optimal osa therapy for veterans with ptsd and the osa phenotype that would predict mad response.


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * • consecutive patients aged 18-70 years of age * documented obstructive sleep apnea by polysomnography (ahi≥5 or more/hr) * established diagnosis of ptsd related to any past lifetime traumatic event and have a diagnosis of current, chronic ptsd exclusion criteria: * • central sleep apnea defined as central apnea/hypopnea \>50% of the total respiratory events * prior treatment for sleep apnea * veterans with fewer than 4 teeth remaining in either arch * coexisting narcolepsy * tempo-mandibular joint disease * epilepsy * prominent suicidal or homicidal ideation * diagnosis of dementia

Keywords: cpap mad sleep apnea ptsd
the effect of polycystic ovary syndrome on pelvic floor structure and function

Conditions: Reproductive System Disorder; Urinary Incontinence; Urogenital Disease; Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

Summary: polycystic ovarian syndrome (pcos) is the most common endocrinological disorder in women of reproductive age, and its prevalence is reported to be 6-21% in women aged 15-49 (1). although its etiopathogenesis is still not clear, it is known that it is due to the disregulation of ovarian steroidogenesis under the influence of some environmental and genetic factors. diagnosis of eshre / asrm has set rotterdam criteria in 2003; one of these criteria is the presence of hyperandrogenism (2). hyperandrogenism leads to an increase in general muscle mass in the body (1, 3, 4). pelvic floor muscles are associated with urethra in the anterior compartment, rectum and anus in the posterior compartment, and uterine support in the apex; major urinary and fecal continence ensuring its functions in order to stop in the appropriate position of the pelvic organs (5). the well-being of the pelvic floor muscle strength has a protective effect from urinary and fecal incontinence. it has been emphasized that the "anogenital distance" determined by the measurement of the anal region anterior to the clitoris anterior may also be a criteria in the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (7,8,9). in this study, patients in the reproductive age between 18-40 years, who applied to our gynecology outpatient clinic and were diagnosed as pcos according to rotterdam criteria wil be study gorup and the women without pcos will be control group. we aimed to evaluate the pelvic muscle strength with perineometry, to measure anogenital distance and to determine possible relationships with each other. in addition to demographic information, iciq-sf (urinary incontinence inquiry short form) will also be taken to evaluate pelvic floor function (10).


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * nulliparity exclusion criteria: * endocrine disorders * anabolic drug usage multiparity

Keywords: polycystic ovary syndrome urinary incontinence anogenital distance
heart pressure assessment study with tolvaptan to treat congestive heart failure

Conditions: Heart Failure, Congestive

Summary: this study will look at how a single dose of study medication (tolvaptan) versus an inactive sugar pill (placebo) effect pressures in the heart in patients with congestive heart failure. higher than normal pressures can be related to symptoms of heart failure (shortness of breath, fatigue, etc.).


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * diagnosed with class iii or iv heart failure for at least 3 months * left ventricular ejection fraction less than or equal to 40% * currently being treated for heart failure with standard therapies for at least one month exclusion criteria: * women who are pregnant or breastfeeding * inability to take oral medications * uncontrolled hypertension, bradyarrhythmias or tachyarrhythmias * hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy * severe obstructive pulmonary disease * significant renal impairment * significant uncorrected valvular or congenital heart disease
relative bioavailability study with bms-955176

Conditions: Infection, Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Summary: the purpose of this study is to select the best dose level (amount of drug given) and best formulation of the study drug (bms-955176) to develop further.

primary purpose: other: this study will assess the bioavailability of bms-955176 from a micronized crystalline (mc) tablet relative to a spray-dried dispersion (sdd) suspension. assessment of additional experimental formulations relative to the micronized crystalline tablet will also be performed

Eligibility criteria:
for more information regarding bms clinical trial participation, please visit www.bmsstudyconnect.com. inclusion criteria: * healthy subjects as determined by no clinically significant deviation from normal in medical history, physical examinations, vital sign measurements, 12-lead electrocardiogram (ecg) measurements and clinical laboratory test results * body mass index (bmi) of 18.0 to 32.0 kg/m2, inclusive. bmi = weight (kg) / \[height (m)\]2 * men and women, ages 18 to 50 years, inclusive * women must not be of childbearing potential, must not be breastfeeding exclusion criteria: * any significant acute or chronic medical illness * history of cardiac disease or clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias * current or recent (within 3 months of study drug administration) gastrointestinal disease * any major surgery within 4 weeks of study drug administration * any gastrointestinal surgery (including cholecystectomy) that could impact upon the absorption of study drug
a protocol for a virtual reality exposure therapy for fear of flying.

Conditions: Aerophobia; Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy; Randomized Controlled Trial; Anxiety

Summary: this study aims to assess whether adding vibrotactile stimulation to visual and auditory stimulation increases the efficacy of vret for fof treatment. eighty-four participants (18-65 years old) will be assigned to one of three intervention arms, namely the vret with multimodal feedback (visual, auditory, and vibrotactile; vret-m), the vret with bimodal feedback (visual and auditory; vret-b), or the imagery exposure treatment (iet) without sensory feedback. fof-related symptoms (primary outcomes) will be measured administering the fear of flying questionnaire-ii (qpv-ii), the fear of flying scale (ffs), and the visual analogic scale (vas-a) before and after eight sessions of treatment, and at six- and 12-month follow-ups. anxiety and the sense of presence experienced during exposure sessions (secondary outcome measures: vas-a and vas-p) will also be assessed. it is expected that participants in the vret-m group will report a further reduction of fof-related symptomatology after the treatment and at follow-ups compared to participants in the vret-b and iet groups. likewise, participants in the vret-m group are expected to show higher sense of presence levels during exposure sessions in comparison to participants in the vret-b and iet groups. it is expected that the iet group will report the lowest level of sense of presence and the poorest outcome after treatment and at follow-ups.

participants who meet the inclusion criteria will be invited to participate in the initial treatment session. they will be also required to purchase a flight ticket during the six months after the end of the treatment. participants will be treated weekly for eight individual sessions. while the first two sessions involve preparation and training, exposure will be conducted between the third and eighth session. the exposure sessions' structure and content will be the same in all conditions. nevertheless, the vret-m group will experience vibrotactile cues, while the vret-b group will not. furthermore, the iet group will experience its own subjective imagined environment without any external stimulation.

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * subjects who meet the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (dsm-5, american psychiatric association, apa, 2013) criteria for fof. exclusion criteria: * individuals with a diagnosis of panic disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, or psychotic disorder who have received psychotherapy for their fof, have been taking prescribed medication for their fof, or have experienced cardiorespiratory disease or an epilepsy attack will be excluded from the study.

Keywords: virtual reality fear of flying exposure vibrotactile cues anxiety presence
zap, us. zomig for appropriate for primary care

Conditions: Migraine

Summary: the purpose of this study is to determine how useful and effective the use of zomig-zmt™ (zolmitriptan) 5.0 mg and zomig® nasal spray (zolmitriptan) 5.0 mg is for patients, in treating migraine over a period of 6 months


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * have an established diagnose of migraine as with an age at onset of less than 50 years * have experienced an average of at least 1 migraine headache per month in the previous three months * be able to differentiate between migraine and non-migraine headaches exclusion criteria: * use of any triptan within the last 12 months or use of mao-a inhibitors, methysergide or methylergonovine in the 2 weeks before entering the study. * history of basilar, ophthalmoplegic or hemiplegic migraine headache or any potentially serious neurological condition that is associated with headache * history, symptoms, or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart or other cardiovascular disease, including coronary vasospasm, cardiac accessory conduction pathways or arrhythmias or uncontrolled hypertension.

Keywords: zolmitriptan zomig migraine headache response headache headache pain midas hcpc
b-lynch transverse compression suture

Conditions: Blood Loss, Surgical

Summary: is b-lynch transverse compression suture safe and effective in controlling excessive blood loss during conservative management of women with placenta previa?

to perform b-lynch transverse compression suture the investigators will use the suture material 1 polyglactin 910 with a 70mm ½ circle needle mounted on a 90 cms suture. the investigators will use the needle blunt ended to puncture the uterus 3 cms above the upper margin of the incision posteriorly and behind the vascular bundle. the needle is retrieved through the cavity of the uterus and pulled inferiorly with the suture material lying on the posterior wall of the uterine cavity. the needle then perforates the posterior wall of the uterus 1-3 cms below the inferior margin of the caesarean incision and exists behind the vascular bundle of the same side of the uterus retrieved and runs on the surface of the lower segment below the incision margin parallel to it and taking a 1 cm bite of tissue for stabilization running to the other side. after encircling the para-uterine vasculature, the needle then perforates the posterior side of the uterus behind the vascular bundle entering the uterine cavity 1-3 cm below the inferior margin of the caesarean incision. the suture can lie freely on the posterior wall of the uterine cavity and exists 3 cms above the upper margin of the caesarean incision. it exits posteriorly and behind the vascular bundle to meet the suture from the other side. it is essential that the ureters are identified by palpation or visual observation after the bladder is displaced inferiorly and held by traction. any observed bleeding should be dealt with in the usual way. at the end of the suture application and before tying the knots, the lower segment is compressed again transversely whilst the suture is held taut to ensure that bleeding has ceased by swabbing the vagina again. a wide pore drain will be inserted in the douglas pouch, and the abdominal wall will be repaired.

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: 1. single gestation 2. elective cs for placenta preiva (diagnosed by transvaginal ultrasound). 3. muliparity (para 2 or more). exclusion criteria: 1. morbidly adherent placenta: accrete, increta or percreta, diagnosed by abdominal and/or transvaginal ultrasound. • ultrasonographic features of morbidly adherent placentas: * loss of retro-placental sonolucent zone. * vascular lacunae. * myometrial thinning. * interruption of the bladder border. 2. more than 3 previous c.s. 3. severely haemodynamic instablility needing immediate hysterectomy. 4. patients with the cardiac, hepatic, renal or thromboembolic disease 5. patients with coagulopathy: * receiving anticoagulant therapy. * with thrombocytopenia or thrombasthenia. * known coagulation factor defect. 6. distorted uterus as unicornuate, bicornuate, fibroid uterus and adenomyosis uteri.
optimization and individualization of diagnostic scintigraphy protocol and minimally invasive radio-guided parathyroid surgery

Conditions: Primary Hyperparathyroidism; Thyroid Disease; Parathyroid Diseases; Parathyroid Adenoma

Summary: the radio-guided technique offers both help with in-vivo identification and ex-vivo confirmation of parathyroid adenoma. in-vivo accuracy is most important but its results are not satisfactory. the aim of this study was to evaluate if there is a beneficial effect of individualized timing of surgery using preoperative multi-phase 99mtc-mibi single-photon emission computed tomography (spect)/ct on in-vivo characteristics of minimally invasive radio-guided parathyroidectomy.

despite the relatively accurate preoperative topographic information, minimally invasive parathyroid surgery can still be very challenging, especially in the case of small adenoma in ectopic localization. radioguided technique offers both help with in-vivo identification and ex-vivo confirmation of adenoma. excellent ex-vivo radio guidance results are referred. but, in-vivo accuracy is most important but its results are not satisfactory. the aim of this study was to evaluate if there is a beneficial effect of individualized timing of surgery using preoperative multi-phase 99mtc-mibi single-photon emission computed tomography (spect)/ct on in-vivo characteristics of minimally invasive radio-guided parathyroidectomy.

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * adult patients * no history of thyroid or parathyroid surgery * diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism * indication for 99mtc-mibi spect/ct examination exclusion criteria: * minor patients * negative spect/ct findings * patients refusing surgery * previous combined surgery on the thyroid gland * patients in high risk of general anesthesia * patients who do not undergo surgery in the recommended time span

Keywords: minimally-invasive radio-guided parathyroidectomy in-vivo ex-vivo multi-phase spect/ct individualized treatment
electrocardiogram (ecg) recordings in paediatric population

Conditions: Arrhythmia

Summary: the primary goal of this protocol is to collect ecg signals from paediatric patients using 4 surface electrodes placed in the configurations proposed for the cameron health, inc. subcutaneous implantable defibrillator (s-icd) system. these signals will then be used to test the s-icd system for future use in paediatric patients.

the surface ecgs collected from pediatric patients in normal sinus rhythm and a variety of ventricular and atrial arrhythmias will be used as test signals for the development of the s-icd system. these signals will be collected from patients undergoing electrophysiology (ep) study, transvenous defibrillator implantation or ablation procedures

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * patients \< 18 years of age * patient scheduled for an ep study, implantation of an icd or for an ablation procedure exclusion criteria: * patients whose parents/guardians do not sign an informed consent

Keywords: s icd icd ablation ep study paediatric ecg
a single-center evaluation of the pattern of allergic signs and symptoms during 4 weeks in ragweed season

Conditions: Allergic Conjunctivitis

Summary: the study was designed to evaluate the pattern of seasonal allergic signs and symptoms consistent with ongoing ocular allergic inflammation during ragweed season. it was hypothesized that a pattern of ongoing ocular allergic inflammation existed in certain subjects.

subjects who had a positive skin test to ragweed within 24 months of visit 1 were instructed to complete a diary, which assessed their allergic signs and symptoms 3 times a day for 4 weeks. during the in-office visits, subjects were asked to completed a quality of life questionnaire, as well as a retrospective and/or prospective eye allergy questionnaire.

Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * subjects must: 1. be willing and able to read, sign, and date the informed consent and hipaa documents prior to initiation of visit 1 procedures or exams; 2. be at least 18 years of age; 3. be willing to avoid disallowed medication, such as anti-allergy therapies 4. have a positive history of ocular allergies and a positive skin test reaction to ragweed within the past 24 months; 5. have a calculated logmar visual acuity score using the etdrs chart of 0.60 or better in each eye at visit 1; exclusion criteria: * subjects may not: 1. have preauricular lymphadenopathy or any ocular condition that could affect study parameters (particularly, clinically significant blepharitis, follicular conjunctivitis and iritis); 2. have had any ocular infection within the last 30 days; 3. have a positive diagnosis of moderate to severe dry eye syndrome (i.e., requiring daily use of artificial tears); 4. wear contact lenses to each office visit; note: subjects will be allowed to use cold compresses.
hcap18 levels and vitamin d deficiency in chronic kidney disease

Conditions: Chronic Kidney Disease; Vitamin D Deficiency

Summary: the human immune system produces a protein called hcap18 (also known as ll-37 or cathelicidin). this protein is believed to help the body to fight infections. studies suggest that vitamin d may important in the production of hcap18. this study is designed to test the ability of two different forms of vitamin d to affect levels of hcap18. vitamin d and hcap18 levels will be measured during an initial visit. individuals who are vitamin d deficient will be randomly assigned to receive one of two forms of vitamin d for two weeks. after this, follow-up levels will be measured.


Eligibility criteria:
inclusion criteria: * age 18-80 * chronic kidney disease stage 3-4 (estimated glomerular filtration rate 15-60 ml/min) exclusion criteria: * 6 month history of hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, or nephrolithiasis * use of active vitamin d analog within 30 days * functioning renal transplant * symptoms of active infection * granulomatous disorders

Keywords: vitamin d chronic kidney disease