I want to know the answer to the following question:
What did the query starter believe had been done by Mary's direct  maternal line that contradict the conception theory of immaculate for Mary ?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Bernard would seem to have been speaking of conception in the active sense of the mother's cooperation, for in his argument he says: "How can there be absence of sin where there is concupiscence (libido)?" and stronger expressions follow, showing that he is speaking of the mother and not of the child.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes