I want to know the answer to the following question:
What initially moved King James 1 to grant subsidiary licences to other trading companies in England?
All the background I'm provided with is that "But in 1609 he renewed the charter given to the company for an indefinite period, including a clause that specified that the charter would cease to be in force if the trade turned unprofitable for three consecutive years.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no