I want to know the answer to the following question:
What type downpayments do substandard loans generally have?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Wallison notes that other developed countries had "large bubbles during the 1997–2007 period" but "the losses associated with mortgage delinquencies and defaults when these bubbles deflated were far lower than the losses suffered in the United States when the 1997–2007 [bubble] deflated."". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no