I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why is the Sumerian language usually thought of as a language isolate in linguistics?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The Sumerian language is generally regarded as a language isolate in linguistics because it belongs to no known language family; Akkadian, by contrast, belongs to the Semitic branch of the Afroasiatic languages.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes