I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who did Henry II express his fury and ill-will towards?
All the background I'm provided with is that "From Henry II onwards, ira et malevolentia had come to describe the right of the king to express his anger and displeasure at particular barons or clergy, building on the Norman concept of malevoncia – royal ill-will.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no