I want to know the answer to the following question:
When would American law be more likely to follow English law?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The reason is that although the courts of the various Commonwealth nations are often influenced by each other's rulings, American courts rarely follow post-Revolution Commonwealth rulings unless there is no American ruling on point, the facts and law at issue are nearly identical, and the reasoning is strongly persuasive.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes