I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why do scholars say the times are different depending on the gospel it's written in?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Several notable scholars have argued that the modern precision of marking the time of day should not be read back into the gospel accounts, written at a time when no standardization of timepieces, or exact recording of hours and minutes was available, and time was often approximated to the closest three-hour period.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no