I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who forbid the use of the word slekta?
All the background I'm provided with is that "After the Union of Horodło the Lithuanian nobility acquired equal status with the Polish szlachta, and over time began to become more and more polonized, although they did preserve their national consciousness, and in most cases recognition of their Lithuanian family roots.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no