I want to know the answer to the following question:
Overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages was based on the theory that housing prices would continue to do this?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The bursting of the U.S. (United States) housing bubble, which peaked in 2004, caused the values of securities tied to U.S. real estate pricing to plummet, damaging financial institutions globally.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no