I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why was King George VI's personal assent in 1939 noteworthy?
All the background I'm provided with is that "One result, conceived as part of a string of royal duties intended to demonstrate Canada's status as an independent kingdom, was that King George VI personally assented to nine bills of the Canadian parliament during the 1939 royal tour of Canada—85 years after his great-grandmother, Queen Victoria, had last granted royal assent personally in the United Kingdom.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes