I want to know the answer to the following question:
What is one explanation for the change in Mishnaic times?
All the background I'm provided with is that "He brings two likely explanations for the change in Mishnaic times: first, the Mishnah may have been applying the same logic to mixed marriages as it had applied to other mixtures (Kil'ayim).". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes