I want to know the answer to the following question:
According to the doctrine of Immaculate Conception, where was Mary when she first become filled with grace?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Orthodox Christians reject the Immaculate Conception dogma principally because their understanding of ancestral sin (the Greek term corresponding to the Latin "original sin") differs from the Augustinian interpretation and that of the Roman Catholic Church.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no