I want to know the answer to the following question:
How would Vulgar Latin eventually differ from Classical Latin?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Although surviving Latin literature consists almost entirely of Classical Latin, an artificial and highly stylised and polished literary language from the 1st century BC, the actual spoken language was Vulgar Latin, which significantly differed from Classical Latin in grammar, vocabulary, and eventually pronunciation.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes