I want to know the answer to the following question:
The ECHR found most states to have largely undefined definitions of group destruction, despite what factor?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The ECHR also noted that at the time of its judgement, apart from courts in Germany which had taken a broad view, that there had been few cases of genocide under other Convention States municipal laws and that "There are no reported cases in which the courts of these States have defined the type of group destruction the perpetrator must have intended in order to be found guilty of genocide".". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes