I want to know the answer to the following question:
What theory was Aristotle's explanation based on?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Aristotle was considered to give a more important position to sense perception than Plato, and commentators in the Middle Ages summarized one of his positions as "nihil in intellectu nisi prius fuerit in sensu" (Latin for "nothing in the intellect without first being in the senses").". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no