I want to know the answer to the following question:
If there is no profit involved, what would happen to criminal charges of fraud?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The ruling gave rise to what became known as the "LaMacchia Loophole," wherein criminal charges of fraud or copyright infringement would be dismissed under current legal standards, so long as there was no profit motive involved.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes