I want to know the answer to the following question:
A treaty may be politicized due to disagreements within a party because the division between a self-executing treaty and a non-self-executing treaty can often be described as what?
All the background I'm provided with is that "If a treaty requires implementing legislation, a state may be in default of its obligations by the failure of its legislature to pass the necessary domestic laws.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no