I want to know the answer to the following question:
In the middle of the eighteenth century, how many Swedes could read and write?
All the background I'm provided with is that "By the middle of the eighteenth century, the literacy rate in England was about 60 per cent, in Scotland 65 per cent, and in Sweden eight of ten men and women were able to read and to write.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes