I want to know the answer to the following question:
The disparity between Planck's law and the Rayleigh-Jeans law led to what conclusion?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Making an equation out of Planck's law that would reproduce the Rayleigh–Jeans law could not be done by changing the values of h, of the Boltzmann constant, or of any other constant or variable in the equation.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no