I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why do some police acts limit when police can interfere without court orders?
All the background I'm provided with is that "To ensure that the police would not interfere in the regular competencies of the courts of law, some police acts require that the police may only interfere in such cases where protection from courts cannot be obtained in time, and where, without interference of the police, the realization of the private right would be impeded.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes