I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why did Hitler use terror bombing against Britain?
All the background I'm provided with is that "When this proved impossible, he began to fear that popular feeling would turn against his regime, and he redoubled efforts to mount a similar "terror offensive" against Britain in order to produce a stalemate in which both sides would hesitate to use bombing at all.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes