I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why did Schumann say the Poles were in mourning?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Schumann, in his 1836 review of the piano concertos, highlighted the composer's strong feelings for his native Poland, writing that "Now that the Poles are in deep mourning [after the failure of the November 1830 rising], their appeal to us artists is even stronger ...". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes