I want to know the answer to the following question:
To what degree do variations in the Old Testament alter the meaning?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Professor Douglas Stuart states: "It is fair to say that the verses, chapters, and books of the Bible would read largely the same, and would leave the same impression with the reader, even if one adopted virtually every possible alternative reading to those now serving as the basis for current English translations."". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no