I want to know the answer to the following question:
For whom did Umar end the jizya?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Imam Abu Muhammad Adbullah ibn Abdul Hakam stated that Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz also stopped the personal allowance offered to his relatives stating that he could only give them an allowance if he gave an allowance to everyone else in the empire.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no