I want to know the answer to the following question:
What does "nihil in intellectu nisi prius fuerit in sensu" mean?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Aristotle's explanation of how this was possible was not strictly empiricist in a modern sense, but rather based on his theory of potentiality and actuality, and experience of sense perceptions still requires the help of the active nous.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no