I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why did the anti-miscegenation not insure that there was no interracial mixing?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Anti-miscegenation laws were passed in most states during the 18th, 19th and early 20th centuries, but this did not prevent white slaveholders, their sons, or other powerful white men from taking slave women as concubines and having multiracial children with them.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes