I want to know the answer to the following question:
According to Locke, the revolutions of the late 1700s and early 1800s were caused when what could not be resolved peacefully?
All the background I'm provided with is that "In this view, the revolutions of the late 1700s and early 1800s were caused by the fact that this governance paradigm shift often could not be resolved peacefully, and therefore violent revolution was the result.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes