I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why do scholars say the times are different depending on the gospel it's written in?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Scholars have presented a number of arguments to deal with the issue, some suggesting a reconciliation, e.g., based on the use of Roman timekeeping in John but not in Mark, yet others have rejected the arguments.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes