I want to know the answer to the following question:
How should risk levels have been disclosed according to several scholars?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Several scholars have argued that a lack of transparency about banks' risk exposures prevented markets from correctly pricing risk before the crisis, enabled the mortgage market to grow larger than it otherwise would have, and made the financial crisis far more disruptive than it would have been if risk levels had been disclosed in a straightforward, readily understandable format.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes