I want to know the answer to the following question:
In Old English, noun endings vary on what basis?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The only remnants of this system in Modern English are in the forms of a few pronouns (such as I/me/mine, she/her, who/whom/whose) and in the possessive ending -'s, which derives from the old (masculine and neuter) genitive ending -es.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no