I want to know the answer to the following question:
According to Hayek, what was the cause of the banks' wrongful allocation of funds?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Hayek claimed that "the past instability of the market economy is the consequence of the exclusion of the most important regulator of the market mechanism, money, from itself being regulated by the market process".". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no