I want to know the answer to the following question:
Overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages was based on the theory that housing prices would continue to do this?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The financial crisis was triggered by a complex interplay of policies that encouraged home ownership, providing easier access to loans for subprime borrowers, overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages based on the theory that housing prices would continue to escalate, questionable trading practices on behalf of both buyers and sellers, compensation structures that prioritize short-term deal flow over long-term value creation, and a lack of adequate capital holdings from banks and insurance companies to back the financial commitments they were making.". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: yes