I want to know the answer to the following question:
Along with political controversy, what can the distinction between a language and dialect sometimes lead to?
All the background I'm provided with is that "A group speaking a separate "language" is often seen as having a greater claim to being a separate "people", and thus to be more deserving of its own independent state, while a group speaking a "dialect" tends to be seen not as "a people" in its own right, but as a sub-group, part of a bigger people, which must content itself with regional autonomy.[citation needed]". Is that enough to answer the question?
Answer: no