Take the following as truth: In British English it is no longer considered a solecism to use the plurals they, their, them, theirs as a generalized pronoun for words like eyeryone, everybody, anyone, anybody , etc.
Then the following statement: "It is still a grammatical mistake to use the plurals they, their, them, theirs as a generalized pronoun for words like eyeryone, everybody, anyone, anybody , etc." is true, false, or inconclusive?
Answer: False