Take the following as truth: i think what they're trying to say is that there is a great deal of historical truth but the interpretation that actually got into the um the writing of the Bible itself is probably uh after the what uh was it the King James Version when the committee
Then the following statement: "After the King James Version, I decided to interpret the writing of the Bible by myself." is true, false, or inconclusive?
Answer: Inconclusive