Take the following as truth: Re the article on Cuthbert, Dickens uses intercourse to mean `communication between people' in A Christmas Carol when Scrooge says  I will not be the man I must have been but for this intercourse  to the third Spirit.
Then the following statement: "Dickens has used the term intercourse to signify communication between at least two people." is true, false, or inconclusive?
Answer: False