HDTenEightyP/NetNews huggingface dataset:
From: connolly@memstvx1.memst.edu
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: "Nominative" absolute?
Date: 16 Dec 92 00:24:18 -0600
Organization: Memphis State University

English school grammar teaches that English possesses a construction
known as the "nominative absolute".  Examples:

	The war being over, he returned home.
	Gaul having been conquered, Caesar returned to Rome.

The latter type is familiar mainly from overly literal translations in
the days when schoolboys (and some girls) regularly read Caesar's _Gallic
Wars_, where we find sentences of the type

	Gallia: victa:, Caesar Ro:mam rediit.

In Latin, and all other languages where I have found such a construction,
the case of the absolute is precisely *not* nominative.  Latin, as all
linguists would once have known, used the ablative, and Old English
used the dative.

The question then arises: on what basis do we say that the English
absolute construction contains a "nominative"?  Pronouns are quite
rare, but for me the only natural case with an occasional pronominal
absolute would be precisely accusative.

	Him being such a fool, of course she went off with another man.

Furthermore, a nominative would be unparalleled in English, since the
nominative is otherwise found only before *finite* verbs, which
_being_ is not

So, people: Does anyone have an idea how the *nominative* absolute
made its way into our school grammars?  Do you find my last example
acceptable, or would you prefer

	??He being such a fool, of course she ...

Any comments, plaudits, and brickbats are welcome.  Please post unless
you want to get personal, but after December 20 pleas e-mail, as I'll
be out of town.

--Leo Connolly
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: MHAASE@dosuni1.rz.uni-osnabrueck.de (Martin Haase)
Subject: Romanian infinitive
Organization: University of Osnabrueck, FRG
Date: Wed, 16 Dec 1992 10:49:25 GMT

(posted to soc.culture.romanian, sci.lang, linguist)
 
I'm currently working on a paper on infinitives in Romance languages.
Romanian presents an interesting case, as it has infinitives as well as
the Balkan "finite infinitive construction". I would like to know more
about it. So if you have bibliographic data, language data, and/or an
opinion about my example sentences, please let me know. I'll send a
summary to the list.
Martin
 
Examples (partly from grammar/text books, from the literature, and
my own):
 
1. Are all of the following sentences correct?
2. If two alternatives are given, is there a semantic/pragmatic/stylistic
difference between them?
3. If only one construction is given, is there an alternative one?
 
(1) Nu ma> pot ret,ine...
(2) Se cuvine a merge eu la milit,ie sa> o ins,tiint,ez
(3a) Vreau sa> ma> prega>tesc.
(3b) Trebuie sa> ma> prega>tesc.
(3c) Pot sa> ma> prega>tesc.
(4) (i)  Pot,i pleca.
    (ii) Pot,i sa> pleci.
(5) S,tit,i toarce.
(6) Nu avem unde parca.
(7) Incercarea sa sa>-s,i recupereze ra>minerea in urma> s-a soldat
cu un succes.
(8) Incercarea sa de a-s,i recupera ra>minerea in urma>...
(9) El a poruncit ca palatul sa> fie reconstruit cit mai curind.
(10) (i) ...porunci la vro doi ostas,i de-l scoase d-acolo.
     (ii)...porunci la vro doi ostas,i sa>-l scoata> d-acolo.
(11) El dores,te sa> vorbeasca> cu reponsabilul restaurantului.
 
-------------------------------------------------------------------
Martin Haase                    mhaase@dosuni1.bitnet
Universitaet Osnabrueck FB 7    mhaase@dosuni1.rz.uni-osnabrueck.de
Postfach 4469                   Phone: (+ 49 541) 969-4340
D-W-4500 Osnabrueck             FAX:   (+ 49 541) 969-4256
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: JAREA@UKCC.UKY.EDU
Subject: Re: myself
Organization: University of Kentucky
Date: Thu, 17 Dec 1992 01:51:29 GMT

 
This is not all that new a construction.  Fitzgerald's translation of _The
Rubaiyat_ has a quatrain that starts,
 
     "Myself, when young, did eagerly frequent Doctor and Saint...."
 
I quote from memory of my adolescence, no longer having a copy at hand
(eheu....!)
 
 
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: terry@csi.uottawa.ca (Terry Copeck)
Subject: A typology of texts
Organization: Dept. of Computer Science, University of Ottawa
Date: Fri, 18 Dec 92 01:15:08 GMT

In the course of trying to characterize technical texts I am investigating
text typologies and would welcome comments and leads.  The results will
ultimately appear in a departmental technical report which will be available
on request.

Terry Copeck (terry@csi.uottawa.ca)
From: iad@cogsci.ed.ac.uk (Ivan A Derzhanski)
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: If I ever get to speak to Cyril and Metodius...
Date: 11 Dec 92 14:58:05 GMT
Organization: Centre for Cognitive Science, Edinburgh, UK

In article <Byw7w3.KwB@usenet.ucs.indiana.edu> feldstei@silver.ucs.indiana.edu (Ronald F. Feldstein) writes:
>An additional argument was made in favor of the Latin alphabet by the
>Moldovan Republic, at the time it was switching from Cyrillic to Latin
>a short time ago.  I read in a Kishinev Russian-language newspaper that
>this was not done for political reasons,

I thought the idea behind it was achieving graphic unity with Rumanian
Rumanian, which is currently written in Roman script (I say
"currently", because Rumanian was first written in Cyrillic).

>but strictly as an economic measure.  The paper stated that Latin
>letters are, on average, 11% thinner than the Cyrillic ones, so that
>printers might expect to net a substantial savings.

I extracted the width information from romanl.mf (for cmr10) and the
lowercase section of a compatible Cyrillic fount.  Here goes (Roman in
left column, Cyrillic in right column; all widths are in u#s, 1u#=20/36pt#):

a     9    9      h     10   9.5   p     10   10
\u{a} 9    8      i     5    10    r     7    10
b     10   9      i     5    9     s     7.1  8
c     8    9      \^{\i}5    13    \c{s} 7.1  14
c     8    10     j     5.5  14    t     7    10
d     10   10     k     9.5  9     \c{t} 7    10
e     8    8      l     5    9     u     10   9.5
f     5.5  15.5   m     15   12    v     9.5  9
g     9    8      n     10   10    z     8    9
g     9    14     o     9    9

"c", "g" and "i" appear twice in the table, because their value
depends on their position (and therefore so do their counterparts in
the Cyrillic orthography, which adheres more closely to the phonetic
principle).  I believe the overall smaller width of the Roman letters
also makes up for the fact that Roman frequently uses digraphs where
Cyrillic has single letters ("ce", "ch", "ge", "gh" and a number of
"e"/"i"-diphthongs).  (On the other hand, Cyrillic uses a cluster for
the Roman "x", which however is very infrequent in Rumanian.)

But I still wonder how digraphs and diacritics affect reading speed.

>Maybe that's the solution to Russia's economic woes.

How is the current economic situation in Ukraine and Byelorussia,
compared to the one of Russia?  Ukrainian and Byelorussian both make
heavy use of the Roman-like "i", which is only 5u# wide.  Those
republics must have been saving hills of paper and lakes of ink.

Lev Uspenskij's _Slovo o slovax_ contains a rough calculation of the
amount of savings made possible by the post-Revolutionary orthography
reform, more specifically the abolishing of word-final ers (hard signs).

-- 
 `D'ye mind tellin me whit the two o ye are gaun oan aboot?' (The Glasgow
Ivan A Derzhanski  (iad@cogsci.ed.ac.uk; iad@chaos.cs.brandeis.edu)    Gospel)
* Centre for Cognitive Science,  2 Buccleuch Place,  Edinburgh EH8 9LW,  UK
* Cowan House, Pollock Halls, 18 Holyrood Park Road, Edinburgh EH16 5BD, UK
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: dennis@cadkey.com (Dennis Paul Himes)
Subject: Re: Christmas linguistics
Organization: cadkey
Date: Sat, 19 Dec 1992 04:05:09 GMT

In article <1gq0m3INNp2l@coli-gate.coli.uni-sb.de> simon@fsinfo.cs.uni-sb.de (Julia Simon) writes:
>LMEBGO@kiera.ericsson.se (Bengt G{llmo, L M Ericsson, Stockholm, Sweden) writes:
>> phrase "Gloria in excelsis Deo".  Our 
>> disagreement concerns the "c".  The choir pronounces it as an 
>> Englishman pronounces "ch" in "china".  I have told them that 
>> they sing Latin in Italian; that is how an Italian would
>> pronounce "excelsis".  It is also awkward to sing.  In Latin, 
>> I claim, the "c" should simply be pronounced "s".  A counter-
>> claim from somebody in the choir is that the "ch" pronounciation 
>> is correct if you are singing Latin from a certain century (the 
>> 17th?), to which I reply that the phrase must have been used in 
>> church at least a thousand years before that.   
>
>Yes, they're singing it in Italian - there's something called the "Italian
>pronunciation of Latin" or so, which must be the one this choir is using
>(I heard it's used fairly often by church choirs!). There "c" before "e" and
>"i" is pronounced "ch".
>
>As an Indo-European linguist I've learned that at some time (looooong ago) the
>Romans pronounced it "k". Later it became a fricative or affricate before "e"
>and "i" (as it still is in the modern Romance languages - "s" in French, "ch"
>in Italian and (I think) Rhaeto-Romanic, "th" in Spanish, ...).
>

	I studied Latin (looooong ago) at two different schools.  One was a
Catholic school were we learned Church Latin, which pronounces _c_ as _ch_
before _e_, _i_, _ae_, or _oe_, and as _k_ otherwise.  The other was a
public school were we learned Classical Latin, which always pronounces _c_
as _k_.  It is my understanding that any pronunciation scheme for Latin is
at best guesswork.
	BTW, I have noticed that singers invariably pronounce the _e_ in _Deo_
long, although it is really short.  (Vowels are pronounced the same in
Church and Classical.)

==============================================================================

               Dennis Paul Himes    <>    dennis@cadkey.com
 
"In watermelon sugar the deeds were done and done again as my life is done
in watermelon sugar."           - Richard Brautigan
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: JAREA@UKCC.UKY.EDU
Subject: Re: Mang-nam?
    <1gs62kINNmmo@majestix.informatik.uni-kiel.dbp.de> 
    <168C112CA0.JAREA@UKCC.UKY.EDU> <1992Dec19.202807.9631@enea.se>
Organization: University of Kentucky
Date: Sun, 20 Dec 1992 02:14:06 GMT

In article <1992Dec19.202807.9631@enea.se>
sommar@enea.se (Erland Sommarskog) writes:
 
>
>JAREA@UKCC.UKY.EDU writes:
>>>Other differences occur in words such as 'magnam' - is it mag-nam with a
>>>hard 'g' or is it 'manyam'?
>>
>>The classical pronunciation was 'mang-nam'
>
>Now wait here, this is interesting. What exactly do you mean
>with "ng"? Velar nasal only, or nasal + "g"?
>
>Or was "mang-nam" just a typo for "mag-nam"?
>
 
Sorry to have been unclear:  I assumed that most of the questions and dis-c
cussion on this topic involved primarily English speakers, and ones not adept
at phonetics.  The Latin word had its first syllable with initial [m], the
usual bilabial nasal consonant; vowel [a] as in English 'father' (most dia-
lects); final sound the velar nasal, with no [g], as in most pronunciations
of 'song'.  By the way, I find my machine converting square brackets to
colons, so that if they are arriving that way on your machine, imagine them
to be the usual square brackets used to embrace (no pun intended) phonetic
transcriptions.
 
>--
>Erland Sommarskog - ENEA Data, Stockholm - sommar@enea.se
From: miner@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: "Nominative" absolute?
Date: 18 Dec 92 21:18:25 CST
Organization: University of Kansas Academic Computing Services

In article <1992Dec17.233249.4681@memstvx1.memst.edu>, connolly@memstvx1.memst.edu writes:
> In article <1992Dec17.085109.45712@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu>, miner@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu writes:

[...]

>>> In Latin, and all other languages where I have found such a construction,
>>> the case of the absolute is precisely *not* nominative.  Latin, as all
>>> linguists would once have known, used the ablative, and Old English
>>> used the dative.
>> 
>> Medieval Latin however used both the nominative and accusative
>> absolutes.  An example of each from Harrington's _Mediaeval Latin_:
>> 
>> 	omnia genera tormentorum adhibita
>> 	all kinds of torments being applied
> 
> With all due respect, how do we know that this is not accusative?

Oops.  Right, we don't.  It's Harrington's only example and I can't
find any more, at least not today...(:> 

>> 	quem peremptum
>> 	who having been destroyed

[...]

> When our school grammars were developed, medieval
> Latin was regarded as barbarity itself, which is perhaps why I've always
> liked it.

Me too.  (Alas, our ancestors had an international language, and they
blew it...)

> Yet I must confess I can't ever recall seeing a nominative
> or accusative absolute in the flesh in medieval texts.

I am looking.  BTW in Ecclesiatical Latin, e.g., in the Vulgate, we
even have genitive absolutes, in immitation of Greek:

	Qui ostendunt opus legis scriptum in cordibus suis,
	testimonium reddente illis conscientia ipsorum, et inter
	se invicem cogitationum accusantium, aut etiam defendentium.

	Who show the work of the law written in their hearts,
	their own conscience bearing testimony to them, and
	their thoughts accusing them, or even defending them
	to themselves.

			- Rom. ii, 15.

Nunn gives this one and cites also Acts i, 8 and II Cor. x, 15.
 
> --Leo Connolly
-- 
miner@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu | Graecis ac barbaris, sapientibus et
opinions are my own      | insipientibus debitor sum
Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: oprytz@ulrik.uio.no (Otto Prytz)
Subject: Re: "Nominative" absolute?
Organization: University of Oslo
Date: Fri, 18 Dec 1992 13:45:26 GMT


In Spanish, in "absolute" clauses, the subject of an infinitive or a gerund
is clearly nominative: "No digas tales palabras, estando _yo_ aqui'" =
"Don't say such words, _i_ being here".
But there is much to be said about the term "absolute". In Latin,
I think the verb form used in absolute clauses was always a 
participle, i.e. an _adjectival_ form. The English -ing form can be
taken as adjectival or adverbial.
From: miner@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: "Nominative" absolute?
Date: 17 Dec 92 08:51:09 CST
Organization: University of Kansas Academic Computing Services

In article <1992Dec16.002418.4636@memstvx1.memst.edu>, connolly@memstvx1.memst.edu writes:
> English school grammar teaches that English possesses a construction
> known as the "nominative absolute".  Examples:
> 
> 	The war being over, he returned home.
> 	Gaul having been conquered, Caesar returned to Rome.
> 
> The latter type is familiar mainly from overly literal translations in
> the days when schoolboys (and some girls) regularly read Caesar's _Gallic
> Wars_, where we find sentences of the type
> 
> 	Gallia: victa:, Caesar Ro:mam rediit.
> 
> In Latin, and all other languages where I have found such a construction,
> the case of the absolute is precisely *not* nominative.  Latin, as all
> linguists would once have known, used the ablative, and Old English
> used the dative.

Medieval Latin however used both the nominative and accusative
absolutes.  An example of each from Harrington's _Mediaeval Latin_:

	omnia genera tormentorum adhibita
	all kinds of torments being applied

	quem peremptum
	who having been destroyed

> The question then arises: on what basis do we say that the English
> absolute construction contains a "nominative"?  Pronouns are quite
> rare, but for me the only natural case with an occasional pronominal
> absolute would be precisely accusative.
> 
> 	Him being such a fool, of course she went off with another man.

Why not just "oblique?"

> Furthermore, a nominative would be unparalleled in English, since the
> nominative is otherwise found only before *finite* verbs, which
> _being_ is not
> 
> So, people: Does anyone have an idea how the *nominative* absolute
> made its way into our school grammars?  

The term, along with "accusative absolute," could have come from work
on Medieval Latin.

> Do you find my last example
> acceptable, or would you prefer
> 
> 	??He being such a fool, of course she ...

I hear both with about equal frequency, but use neither, in English.
-- 
miner@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu | Graecis ac barbaris, sapientibus et
opinions are my own      | insipientibus debitor sum
From: connolly@memstvx1.memst.edu
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: "Nominative" absolute?
Date: 20 Dec 92 22:55:38 -0600
Organization: Memphis State University

In article <921118.144526.oprytz@pchf112>, oprytz@ulrik.uio.no (Otto Prytz) writes:
> 
> In Spanish, in "absolute" clauses, the subject of an infinitive or a gerund
> is clearly nominative: "No digas tales palabras, estando _yo_ aqui'" =
> "Don't say such words, _i_ being here".

Very interesting.  There is, of course, no logical reason why nominatives
cannot occur in absolute constructions, and your example shows that they
do -- in Spanish, anyway.

> But there is much to be said about the term "absolute". In Latin,
> I think the verb form used in absolute clauses was always a 
> participle, i.e. an _adjectival_ form. The English -ing form can be
> taken as adjectival or adverbial.

The Latin construction consisted of an NP + *either* participle, adjective,
or NP.  Latin permitted sentences such as

	Te  duce,  vincemus.  'With you as leader, we will conquer.'
	you leader

I don't see what you would gain by making the English participle adverbial,
and the morphology does not suggest it (some of the more adjectival parti-
ciples form adverbs by adding -ly, e.g. _knowingly_, _comnceitedly_).

--Leo Connolly
From: simon@fsinfo.cs.uni-sb.de (Julia Simon)
Newsgroups: sci.lang
Subject: Re: Christmas linguistics
Date: 18 Dec 1992 12:38:48 GMT
Organization: Fachschaft Computerlinguistik, U of Saarland, FRG
NNTP-Posting-Host: fsinfo.cs.uni-sb.de

s0gwb@exnet.co.uk (George Battrick) writes:
> In article <1gq0m3INNp2l@coli-gate.coli.uni-sb.de> simon@fsinfo.cs.uni-sb.de (Julia Simon) writes:
> >from colloquial Latin, not from Classical Latin! If they had developed from
> >Classical Latin maybe Caesar wouldn't be pronounced "Seesar" but "Keesar" :)
> 
> ... or even "Kaiser", na, Frau Simon?

...naja, wenn man beruecksichtigt, dass die Roemer ihr "ae" nicht wie ein
deutsches "ae", sondern eher wie "ai" gesprochen haben... aber ich wollte die
Diskussion eigentlich auf das "c" beschraenken.

			Julia 8-)

 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------
				Julia Simon

 Fachschaftsrat Computerlinguistik	DIaLOGIKa GmbH
 Fachbereich 8.7, Bau 17, Zi. 201
 Universit"at des Saarlandes		Albertstr., Pascalschacht
 D-W-6600 Saarbr"ucken, Germany		D-W-6602 Dudweiler, Germany

			email: simon@fsinfo.cs.uni-sb.de
			       sileas@coli.uni-sb.de
 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Xref: sparky sci.lang:8429 soc.culture.china:32632
From: hu@acs.bu.edu (qian hu)
Newsgroups: sci.lang,soc.culture.china
Subject: Chinese Words Frequency
Date: 12 Dec 92 21:05:06 GMT
Followup-To: sci.lang
Organization: Boston University, Boston, MA, USA
Originator: gao@cs

Hello everyone,
	I need to find out word frequencies for Chinese classifiers
(LiangCi, such as GE, LIANG, and ZHI). I heard that there are some books
on this subject, such as "Statistics of Chinese Word Frequency", published
in China. Does anyone know where I can find this information? Any pointers
and suggestions will be appreciated. Please send e-mail to hu@acs.bu.edu

	Qian Hu
From: rcooke@OAVAX.CSUCHICO.EDU (RON COOKE)
Newsgroups: sci.bio
Subject: Algae assay question
Date: 15 Dec 92 04:08:10 GMT
Reply-To: rcooke@OAVAX.CSUCHICO.EDU
Organization: California State University, Chico
NNTP-Posting-Host: oavax.csuchico.edu

Colleagues,
I want to investigate the effect of certain chemicals
on algae. My question: what is the best way to prepare
glassware? I found one protocol that has a wash followed
by a rinse with 10% HCl followed by rinse in 10% sodium
bicarbonate and finally rinsed with water.

Are there objections to acid/dichromate cleaning? How
about KOH cleaning?

Thanks.

Ron Cooke
Chem Dept
CSU-Chico
Chico, CA 95929-0210

rcooke@oavax.csuchico.edu
**********************************************************
RON COOKE, CALIFORNIA STATE UNIVERSITY, CHICO
RCOOKE@OAVAX.CSUCHICO.EDU
From: pkemp@byron.u.washington.edu (Paul Kemp)
Newsgroups: sci.bio
Subject: Re: listing of Bio. profs/researchers
Date: 12 Dec 92 22:22:37 GMT
Article-I.D.: u.1992Dec12.222237.6118
Organization: University of Washington, Seattle

In article <1gbf3aINNmov@agate.berkeley.edu> mytelka@codon1 (Daniel Mytelka;612 Barker;x2-5110) writes:
>>In article <1992Dec11.125233.64@acavax.lynchburg.edu> frye@acavax.lynchburg.edu writes:
>>
>>   Just a question:  is there a listing of biology professors in the USA and 
>>   the research that they are doing? 
>>
>
>Try Peterson's Guide to Graduate Schools for a rough idea. That lists all
>professors and a one-line summary of their area(s) of interest. If you are
>interested, write to the schools/professors or look up some of their
>papers.
>
Or, you could try the NSFGopher...it has abstracts of all NSF grants currently
funded.
pk

>DSM
>>
From: drm@ukc.ac.uk (D.R.Morse)
Newsgroups: sci.bio
Subject: Re: Lifespans of Males and Lifespans of Females
Date: 16 Dec 92 09:27:13 GMT
Reply-To: drm@ukc.ac.uk (D.R.Morse)
Organization: Computing Lab, University of Kent at Canterbury, UK.

In article <1947@spam.ua.oz> jaskew@spam.ua.oz (Joseph Askew) writes:
>Of course we are missing the important issue here which is why do right handed
>males live 10 years longer on average than left handed males?
>

I've never seen this statistic broken down by sex before.  Is there a sex
difference or is it also true that right handed females live 10 years longer
on average than left handed males?  (Actually, I thought it was seven years,
but the only `evidence' I have for that is a review of a book on left
handedness.)

>
>Joseph Askew

David Morse
Newsgroups: sci.bio
From: winalski@adserv.enet.dec.com (Paul S. Winalski)
Subject: Re: artificial breeding
Keywords: artificial, natural, selection, species
Reply-To: winalski@adserv.enet.dec.com (Paul S. Winalski)
Organization: Digital Equipment Corporation, Nashua NH
Date: Sat, 19 Dec 1992 04:07:36 GMT


In article <ldsoderb.724677131@reading>,
ldsoderb@susssys1.reading.ac.uk (David S. Oderberg) writes:
|>
|>Could someone please tell me whether artificial breeding/selection has
|>so far produced any news species, according to the generally accepted
|>definition/s of `species' among biologists (interbreeding capacity etc.)?
|>Even including the very latest in biotechnological achievements, has the
|>creation of new species been attained?
|>
|>I am aware of the alleged creation of plant hybrids which can't be crossed
|>with either parent species: do these, if they exist, qualify?  

There are quite a lot of cases of this, if you use the generally accepted
definition of "same species" and "different species", namely, populations of
organisms that, if brought together geographically, will merge into a single
breeding population are considered to be in the same species, while those
that will remain distinct, due to physical or behavioral reproductive isolation,
are considered to be of different species.

Consider the domestic dog, for example.  Chihuahuas and Great Danes are quite
reproductively isolated, physically.  They are considerably more distinct on
both morphological and biological grounds than Mallard and Pintail ducks,
which are generally recognized as separate species, although they freely
interbreed and hybridize in captivity.  Yes, one can mix the two populations of
dogs  by "transitive closure" using intermediate breeds of dogs, but the
situation has several natural analogs to clinal variation among closely
related species in the wild, where the ends of the cline are reproductively
distinct and considered two species, but there is a chain of hybrids that
link the two populations.

Since new "species" of dogs can essentially be created this way more or less at
will by selective breeding, taxonomists don't bother to give them all status as
separate species, which technically they are entitled to, but instead lump them
all together in the single species Canis domesticus.  From a practical
standpoint, it simply isn't useful to consider all the domestic breeds and
strains as separate species.

--PSW
Newsgroups: sci.bio