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Date:         Thu, 10 Sep 1992 22:34:00 CDT
From:         BKCOBB@LIFE.UAMS.EDU
Subject:      Second Parousia

>This is a reply as to 2 Peter 3 being a done deal.

>The main polemics I offer to prove my theory is the "Analogy of Scripture"
>and the local context of 2 Peter 3.

>First, as to the Analogy of Scripture ("Scripture interprets Scripture"),
>there is a lot of evidence from other sections of the N.T.
>In Hebrews 10, the audience is told that they SEE the Day approaching.

Heb. 10:25 "... as ye see the day approaching." comes at the end of an
exhortation to be ready.  The word SEE does not necsarrily mean to perceive
with the literal eye.  It may be used in the sense of perceiving.  Also,
assuming that the day being referred to here is the same as the day of the
Lord is a stretch.

>In 1 Pet 1, Christ is said to have been revealed in "... these LAST TIMES."

The events in MATT. 24, taken literally, not have been fulfilled in
70, therefore the LAST TIMES could not have ended in 70.

>Peter goes on to say in another section that "... the END of ALL things is
>NEAR, so be clear-headed ... so that you can pray." (obviously not the end of
>the globe as we call it).

The "end of all things", taken literally, cannot refer to the destruction of
one earthly city.   Also, it does not follow that scripture exhorting
believers to watch and be ready for the coming of the Lord refer to events
in 70 AD.  It seems to me that you are assuming the events in Matt 24 and
other places were fulfilled in 70 AD in order to "prove" that these passages
are intended for believers living in that time period only  -- i.e., you
are begging the question.

>John in 1 John says that it "... is the LAST HOUR"
>The level of imminence is HIGH as to this event.  Something, whatever it was,
>had to be imminent ... at least by John's writing and Peter's writing on a
>time scale.

>In the Johannineaccount of 1 Jn, he says not only that it was the last hour
>but also that many antichrists were on the loose and that THE antichrist
>was coming as well.

Something indeed had to be imminent.  There is no grounds for assuming that
it is the second Parousia, however.  Also the reference to antichrists refers
to false ministers as can clearly be seen in (1 Jn 2:18-19).  The word
Antichrist is never used to refer to the prince that will come mentioned
in Daniel, or the Beast mentioned in the book of revelation.


>Interestingly, Paul states the change in the wind, "this world in its present
>form is passing away.  Here is more cataclismic language to indicate the not
>quite end of the globe.

Are you referring to 1 Cor. 7:31?  The greek word there (kosmos) can be used
in the sense of governmental or societal structure, i.e. the world system.
So the word Paul uses is neither necessarily cataclismic nor escatological.

When Peter describes the destruction of the earth in 2 Peter 3:10 the word
(ge) is used.  This word normally refers to the physical earth.

I am still waiting for a passage of scripture in which a prophecy was
fulfilled and "cataclismic language" was not used in a literal
way.


Brian
Comments: Gated by NETNEWS@AUVM.AMERICAN.EDU