From: StarOwl@uiuc.edu (Michael D. Adams)
Subject: Re: God is intolerant of sin!
X-Still-Continued: Idaho
X-Job-Hunt-Header: Unemployed actuary will work for food
X-Politically-Correct-Statement: Bigotry is not a family value -- boycott
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Reply-To: StarOwl@uiuc.edu
X-Pcs-Continued: Colorado, think twice about Oregon, watch out for Ohio and
Organization: Actuarial Science Program at UIUC
Date: Fri, 22 Jan 1993 23:08:26 GMT

markc@eomer.hw.stratus.com (Mark Christensen) writes:
>greg_bradt@msmgate.mrg.uswest.com (Greg Bradt aka The Lensman) writes:
>>Actually, while some of it's citizens do in fact adhere to such a moral
>>code, our country adheres to a =legal= code.  That legal code has some of
>>it's roots in your moral code, as well as in many others.

>As it should.  Would homosexuals then allow beastiality?  

Mark, you're writing as if there was some sort of Ober-entity to which
all lesbigay people belong.

There are homosexuals who have no problems with bestiality, but
there are heterosexuals who have no problems with bestiality either.

There are heterosexuals who have moral problems with bestiality, and
there are homosexuals who have moral problems with bestiality.

>Beastiality is against the law, yet it isn't hurting anyone?  

It might injure the nonhuman party physically and or mentally....

>It sexual deviancy just like homosexuality.  What's the difference?  

Homosexual acts are ususally performed by consenting people.
If one or more of the people have not given consent, it becomes
rape.

A major difference between these forms of "sexual deviancy"
is illustrated by the question, "are animals capable of *really*
granting consent to engaging in sexual acts with a human?"
If the answer is no, then acts of bestiality are another form
of rape -- a human raping an animal.

>Well, our laws have developed from Judeo/Christian morals (for the most part).

Maybe.  There are some laws/morals which exist in most societies, regardless
of religious/philosophic tradition.  There are certain "rules" that must
exist for society to function.   Do our laws come from Christian morals,
or do they come from (supposed) common sense determining what rules 
are necessary for our society to work?

>Why is murder wrong?  

One's right to act freely does not extend to denying another person
hir right to live.  This value is hardly unique to Christendom.

>Why is child abuse wrong?  

One's right to act freely does not extend to inflicting harm on
another person.  Again, this "moral" is not unique to
Christianity.

>Why is theft wrong?  

One's right to act freely does not extend to violating another's right
of property.  I hear that Islam has some strong views as to whether
theft is moral or not....

>Why is lying wrong?  

First you have to ask a question: Is lying wrong?  It depends.
Some lies apparently are fin; there are no laws forbidding parents
to tell childrent that Santa Clause will be visiting at Christmas,
after all.

"Lying" is only illegal when one person's false testimony/whatever
impedes the justice machine, or injures someone in some way.
Yet another tenet necessary to the smooth operation and continued
existence.

>Because a moral code based on Judeo Christian beliefs says
>so and it has been incorporated into law.

Or is it because people have determined that *certain* laws must
exist for society to continue to function.  Would we have reached
this level of all-around technical sophistication in the world if
people went around killing each other, stealing back and forth,
and perjuring themselves?   No!  The world would be utter chaos,
and rather than working to improve the world's quality of life,
we'd just be struggling to stay alive.

--
Michael D. Adams	      | Those who deny freedom to others deserve it not
StarOwl@uiuc.edu	      | for themselves.  -- Abraham Lincoln
an692@anon.penet.fi	      | We cannot defend freedom abroad by deserting
NBCS: B1f+t-w+g+k++s+me+h-qv  | it at home.  -- Edward R. Murrow		
Newsgroups: alt.politics.homosexuality,alt.rush-limbaugh,alt.fan.rush-limbaugh