From: cavus@CAE.WISC.EDU
Newsgroups: soc.culture.turkish
Subject: DID JESUS (AS) CLAIM TO BE GOD THE ALMIGHTY ?
Date: 15 Aug 92 21:04:13 GMT

Esselamu Aleykum.

From doug.cae.wisc.edu!zazen!uakari.primate.wisc.edu!ames!data.nas.nasa.gov!mustang.mst6.lanl.gov!nntp-server.caltech.edu!iago.caltech.edu!mughal Sat Aug 15 15:50:03 CDT 1992


[Postmarked: 5 Aug '92] 

Does the Bible explicitly or implicitly state that Jesus was co-equal with
Yehwah (God)? Most Christians believe in such a mention within the Biblen
by putting undue emphasis on the use of terms "Son of Man" and
"Son of God" to refer to Jesus. If one reads the Bible carefully, one
can easily notice that the use of such terms is not unique for Jesus.
For example, the prophet Ezekiel is mentioned as 'Son of Man' in OT
in several places in the Book of Ezekiel (see chapters beginning from
2 to 7). In chapter 2:1, it reads, "And he proceeded to say to me:
"Son of man, stand up upon your feet that I may speak with you."
Did the Jews ever consider Ezekiel to be God? No. Why then should
the christians understand differently as to the meaning of the term
when it comes to Jesus?

Similarly, the term "Son of God" has also been used quite
extensively in the Bible. In Matthew 5:9, the peace-makers are called
Sons of God (Happy are the peace makers, since they are called sons of
God.). In John 8:41, the Jews claimed that their father is God. In
Romans 8:14, it states, "For all who are led by God's spirit, these
are God's sons." In Romans 8:16, it states, "The spirit itself bears
witness with our spirit that we are God's children." In John 1:12,
it reads, "However, as many as did receive him, to them he gave
authority to become God's children." In none of these verses, the
phrase 'son of God' was taken literally by the Jews. Why should the
Christians take this phrase literally when it comes to Jesus?
The semitic usage would never have allowed for the literal sense,
even though such an expression would be interpreted literally in the
Hellenistic (pagan) world of Jesus's later-day followers. No doubt,
here is where the confusion arose. But if Jesus or his original
disciples ever used the phrase 'son of God' to refer to Jesus, they
must have meant only 'servant of God.' For example, in Matthew 12:18
and Acts 3:13, we find that some Bible versions read 'Son' with
reference to Jesus, while others translate 'servant'.

The Pauline Christians also believe that the phrase 'Messiah' refers to
something like God. And since Jesus appears to be called the Messiah
(although a critical reading of the NT would show that Jesus actually
denied being the Messiah whom the Jews were expecting; e.g., Luke 9:21)
as such he is divine. If that be the case, how about the Isaiah 45:1
where Cyrus, the Medo-Persian King, was called "Messiah" (Christos)?
If Cyrus was considered nothing more than a mortal man by Jews, why
should Jesus be attributed divinity?

A believing Christian might suggest that Jesus's not having a mortal
father makes him divine. Is that a fact? Adam did not have a mortal
father (not even a mortal mother), did that make him divine? No.
If Jesus were to be God, then why should not Adam be considered a
superior-God (since he did not have both parents, as against Jesus
who had a mortal mother)? How about King Melchizedek about whom
Saul (Paul) of Tarsus, the self-appointed disciple of Jesus, writes
in Hebrews (7:3), "In being fatherless, motherless, without genealogy,
having neither a beginning of days nor an end of life, but having been
made like the *Son of God*, he remains a priest perpetually." Now if
Jesus were to claim Godhood, then we have a stronger claimant in
Melchizedek (thru' the writings of Paul). Don't you agree? Should
we interpret this sentence literally? If we were to, then Paul is
nothing but a liar (even according to Christianity's own dogmas).
Why then should the Christians selectively apply literal meanings
to certain verses in the Bible, while the same cannot be applied
to others.

My conclusion is that Jesus never claimed divinity. His prime
message was : "Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord."
(Mark 12:29). Jesus also is reported to have said -,
"I do nothing of myself." (John 14:28)
"My Father is greater than I." (John 14:2)
"But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels
which are in heaven, neither the son, but the Father." (Mark 13:32)
Again, I would like to reiterate, based on the arguments I have
put forward, that the terms 'son' and 'Father', should not be
taken literally, in the above context. Jesus was a mortal man,
a prophet of God. - H. Siddiqui.


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