From: adam@irvine.com (Adam Beneschan)
Newsgroups: rec.games.bridge
Subject: Re: Bidding problem
Date: 11 Nov 92 18:54:27 GMT
Organization: Irvine Compiler Corp., Irvine, California, USA

In article <1dqvutINNagb@transfer.stratus.com> tnh@sw.stratus.com (Tim Hill) writes:

In article <9211090824.aa21965@Paris.ics.uci.edu>, kibler@turing.ICS.UCI.EDU 
(Dennis Kibler) writes:
> No opposition bidding, 2/1 with WJS.
> North deals and opens 1 spade. South responds 2 clubs.
> Now what?
> 
    North: QJ9xxx, AKQx, xxx,--
> 
>   South: K10x, xx,Axx,AKQxx

There have been a lot of good comments on this hand.  I guess we
should let you know what actually happened.  I was North, Dennis was
South.  I added the 9 of spades to my hand because I remember having
that card.  This was only the second time we've played together, and
the other time was well over a year ago.  The auction was:

   North (me)    South
      1S           2C
      2H           2S
      4S          pass

My thinking was along the same lines as Bharat Rao's, that I have a
void in my partner's suit and don't want to be too encouraging.

Tim Hill writes:
> Lawrence and Hardy agree on these systemic meanings for 1S-2C-2H-nS:
>
>    4S   Good spades, good clubs, no first or second round control in the
>         red suits
>    3S   Slam interest, 16+, at least QJx in spades
>    2S   Neither of the above (at least three spades)
>
> I'm not entirely clear on why this exception to the principle of
> fast arrival, but it does make possible the sequences 1S-2C,2H-2S,2N and 
> 1S-2C,2H-2S,3S offering responder a choice of 3N or 4S.

Since we were a new partnership, we hadn't discussed these sequences,
and even discussing it afterwards, we weren't sure what the different
meanings of the between these bids should be.  So Tim's explanation is
a big help.

Given that South bid 2S (without the specific meaning noted above),
what should North rebid?  Tim suggested a 3C cue-bid.  Playing 3C as a
cue-bid here may make sense, but I wouldn't do it without prior
discussion, since it sounds too much like a pattern bid.  Even if we
agree that 3C should be a cue-bid, I'd be very nervous about using it
to show a void in my partner's suit.  If partner's clubs are KQJxx,
and I show first-round control in clubs, he may get over-excited
thinking I have Ax or something, while I'd prefer him to be more
cautious because of our duplication of values.  

I suggested that 4C as a splinter might work here, but I also wouldn't
spring that on a new partner.  The way I play, though, most jumps that
don't have any other meaning tend to be splinters.  For example, this
type of auction has come up several times with my regular partners:
        1C-1S-2S-4C
where 4C is intended as a splinter.  So far, my partners haven't had
any trouble figuring it out.  (IMHO, 3C should be forcing in this
auction, so 4C isn't needed to show support.)

Similarly, after 1S-2C-2H-2S, I don't think 4C is needed as a natural
bid, since we're forced to game and 3C would do just fine.

The majority consensus seems to be that North should rebid 3S.  Don
Varvel writes:

> But wait a minute.  Even with a void in partner's suit this is no
> minimum.  Two first-round controls, 5 losers in a fit auction, a
> 6-card suit?  I think 4S is a gross underbid.
> 
> I would bid 3S and hardly think about it.  I will cuebid hearts on
> the next round.  Partner will bid slam or not bid slam.  With the
> present hand, of course, partner will bid slam.

I don't think this is the hand to be counting losers.  High-card
points and losing trick count don't seem to work too well when there's
lots of duplication of values, or at the other extreme, when the hands
fit together perfectly.  With void opposite AKQxx, I'd say this hand
fits into the "extreme case" category.  To illustrate this
dramatically, suppose we change the South hand a little bit:

   South: K10x    xx    Kxx AKQJx
   North: QJ9xxx  AKQx  xxx  --

This hand counts the same in HCP and losing tricks.  But 6S is
virtually cold on the actual hand, while there's a good chance of
going down in 4S on this hand---a possible 3-trick difference.

Having said all that, perhaps jumping to 4S is pessimistic,
particularly because of my sixth spade.  I was afraid that 3S would be
too encouraging, but perhaps 3S should be more of a neutral bid,
neither encouraging nor discouraging.

If I do jump to 4S, should North go on?  Bharat says he would jump
right to 6S, but North would bid the same way with something like
    QJ9xxx KQxx Kxx --
and now you're off two aces.  So you at least need to ask for aces.
Even that might not be enough, because it's possible that North has
neither first- nor second-round control of hearts.

Finally, nobody discussed whether strong jump shifts would be better
or worse on this hand.  If the auction had started 1S-3C (strong),
would we stand a better chance of reaching the slam?

I appreciate all the excellent comments on this hand.
                                -- Adam
Newsgroups: rec.games.bridge