From: davidm@questor.Rational.COM (David Moore)
Subject: Re: Problems from Portland
Keywords: Just two fewer mistakes...
Organization: Rational
Date: Thu, 19 Nov 1992 00:01:45 GMT

sgm@sgfb.ssd.ray.com (Steve Myerson) writes:

You made a total of 5 errors between you over 2 sessions? That is 
really quite good bridge.

>1. None vul. East dealer. You are West: AJ9542, T, Q7, AT32

>West   North   East   South
>               pass   pass
>1S-1   1N-2    pass   2D       1. 11-15 HCP, at least 4 spades
>pass   2H      (all pass)      2. 15-17

>After West passed, South announced that there had been
>a failure to alert, and that 2D was a transfer to 2H.
>The director then permitted West to take back his final
>pass if he wished.  What do you do?

If I were to double now, would partner assume I had diamonds? (Actually,
a question for the law experts; is the fact that I passed originally and
have now doubled because of the belated alert "unauthorised information",
or is East allowed to "hear" the entire sequence because of the
infraction by the opponents?) 

Still, partner has had 3 chances to peep and hasn't. I would pass again.

>2. Both vul. South dealer. You are East: T74, KJ52, K7, Q975

>West   North   East   South
>                      1D-1     1. Shows at least 4
>dbl    1S      dbl-2  1N       2. Responsive, 6-9 HCP
>pass   5D      ?

How odd. North's 5D cannot be a pre-empt. After my responsive double 
and West's pass, North has to fancy the chances of 1N being passed out.
Certainly he expects to be able to buy it for some smallish number of
diamonds.

Therefore, he bid 5D expecting to make. (If it is a pre-empt, we are on 
a good result and it does not matter if I pass or double)

What can he have? Let's give partner and opener 12 HCP each. That gives 
North 7. His hand must be something like:  Axxxx x QJxxxx x 
That means that south is probably 4441 with a singleton spade.
Looks like this should make.

So, I'm passing(cluck cluck cluck).

>3. NS vul. West dealer. You are West: Q863, J63, 632, AQ6

>West   North   East   South
>pass   1C      2N-1   3H       1. 6-12 HCP, at least 4 spades and 4 diamonds
>3S     4H      pass   pass        with at least 9 cards total in the 2 suits
>?

4S. This may be a fake sack. However, my hand is worth 1 trick in defense
and I really cannot imagine partner having the other 3. Nor can I imagine
that I am going for 800 despite the flatness of my hand. I'm going to
be upset if South turns up with the club K. At any other vul, I pass.

>4. Both vul. South dealer. You are North: QJ95, T97, AKT762, void

>West   North   East   South
>                      1S-1     1. 11-15 HCP, at least 4 spades
>pass   2C-2    2H     pass-*   2. artificial, forcing to game
>3H     ?                          opener may not pass short of game
>                                  2C bidder may pass short of game on misfit

4S seems right. 3S is possibly invitational (I don't know your
methods) but the chance of partner leaving it there with his probable
singleton heart seems small, so I might as well go straight to game.
Saves wear and tear.

>5. NS vul. East dealer. You are South: 9, J4, AK7654, JT94

>West   North   East   South
>               pass   ?

>Do you preempt or not?

I'll open 2D. I do this as much to describe my hand as to pre-empt the
opponents; 2D never kept them out of anything anyway. What it does do
is slow my partner down if he has both majors. If we miss game or slam 
in clubs, that's too tough.
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