From: ahmed@dsg.cs.tcd.ie
Newsgroups: soc.religion.islam
Subject: Interpretations of the Quran
Date: 16 Dec 1992 00:08:32 GMT
Organization: MIT Artificial Intelligence Lab
Reply-To: ahmed@dsg.cs.tcd.ie
NNTP-Posting-Host: wookumz.gnu.ai.mit.edu
Originator: gwydion@wookumz.gnu.ai.mit.edu

From: gz@sei.cmu.edu (Gregory Zelesnik)

> I recently posted an inquiry to this news group about what the Quran
> says about mixed religious marriages, and I thank you for your responses.
> I have been learning quite a lot about Islam recently.  I hope you can 
> bear with me, though, I have a few other questions.  Please do not
> regard this as an attack on my part.  I am simply trying to find out
> as much as I can about Islam, for I have many Muslim friends.
> 
> My first questions are these.  Is it true that the Quran is believed by 
> Muslims to be the actual words of Allah, as delivered by the Angel Gabriel, 
> and recorded by Muhammad?

Muslims believe that Quran is the words of Allah, delivered to Muhammed
(saw), through the Angel Gabriel. wasch revelation was  memorized by 
Muhammed (saw) and written by a group of scribes.

> 
> I have noticed in my translation of the Quran (by 'Abdullah Yusuf 'Ali) that
> there are many footnotes among the verses.  If the verses are the words of
> Allah, are the paragraphs associated with the footnotes believed to be the
> actual words of Allah, as well, or are they interpretations placed on the
> verses by Muhammad, or by the author of the particular translation?

The footnotes are commentary, related to the verses, it could be based
on explanations related to Muhammed (saw), other companions or scholars,
as well as the authors.

Note that what is considered to be the word of Allah is the Arabic text
of the Quran.
> 
> If the versus are the words of Allah, and the footnotes are not, then how
> does man presume to know what Allah's intentions are regarding subject
> described in the footnote?
> 

The Quran is understood as explained by the Prophet, as explained by the
companions, and as can be understood by people who are versed in Arabic
language. In fact this is not to give different alternatives, but a
sequence of priority.

> Specifically, the passage that I was pointed to in the Quran regarding mixed
> religious marriages is verse 5 of Surah 5, Al Ma'idah, and it goes like this...
> "(Lawful unto you in marriage) are (not only) chaste women who are believers, 
> but chaste women among The People of the Book..."  This verse is obviously
> directed towards Muslim men.  However, the actual verse makes no statement
> at all about Muslim women in this regard.  In fact, nowhere in the Quran do
> the words of Allah forbid mixed religious marriages where the woman is the
> Muslim (that is, presuming that the footnotes are not the words of Allah,
> but of man).  In my version of the Quran, it is a footnote attached to this 
> verse which forbids Muslim women from marrying non-Muslim men.
> 

I think if you read the Quran you will find that it is forbidden for a
muslim woman to marry a non-muslim. Not only that but you will find also
that a muslim woman should not continue, in marriage relationship, with
a non-muslim man. 

> Additionally, verse 221 of Surah 2, Al Baqarah, describes marriages to 
> unbelievers as forbidden for *both* men and women.  Does not the symmetry
> of this verse actually justify a symmetrical interpretation of the verse
> I was pointed to in Al Ma'idah?
> 
This verse forbids for a muslim man or woman to marry a
non-muslim, but the verse you mentioned {5:5} overrides this verse
by allowing muslim MEN to marry the CHASTE WOMEN from The PEOPLE OF THE
BOOK.

The verse {60:10} clearly states that muslim women cannot stay in
marriage with non-muslim men.

> What are your thoughts and teachings in this regard?
> 
> Finally, this subject begs one last question.  Assuming that a Muslim person
> believed in every principle tenet of Islam, and believed that the verses of
> the Quran are the actual words of Allah, yet disagreed with one of the
> interpretations of a footnote in the Quran (and that footnote were not the
> word of Allah, but an interpretation made on it by man) then would this Muslim
> be a hypocrite?  Would this person not be a Muslim any more?  
> 
No, the footnotes, are not the words of Allah, but if the footnote says
that this was explained by the prophet as such, then that is it, but if
it was based on the induction of a scholar, which could differ from
other scholars in his interpretation, then you can use the
interpretations of other scholars, but ofcourse you cannot rely on your
own reasoning if your knowledge of the Quran, traditions of the Prophet,
the Arabic language, and the work of other scholars is not that much.

> Specifically, if the Muslim woman married a non-Muslim man because she did
> not interpret the footnote as the word of Allah, but as an interpretation of
> man, would she no longer be a Muslim?
> 

I think matters of marriage should be a bit serious matter. If the man
or woman cares about his or her Islam, he should ask some scholars if he
does not know. Any way the marriage issue is well known, and there is no
that difference in the interpretations concerning this issue.

Also Marriage in Islam is something that should be publicized, so surely
many muslims will know about it, and surely they will not be all
ignorant, particularly  about this  very important matter.

Even if the man claims that he is Muslim, this is not sufficient, he
should be known as  Muslim. At least he should observe all the five
pillars of Islam. A real muslim woman will be looking for more than the
minimum for a muslim; something beyond the five pillars, righteousness,
knowledge of Islam. Marriage in islam is a matter of building a unit in
the building of Islam, and if that unit is broken then it should be
rejected.

There are several possibilities, if a muslim woman married a non-muslim man:
(any way this cannot happen in an Islamic country).

- If that was a matter of disregard to what the Quran says, then she is
not a muslim. This is not only in marriage, but in general, even in very little
issues. If there is a disregard to the commands of Allah, then there is
no submission (Islam).

- She knows that it is forbidden, but she could not resist, and went for
marriage. In this case the marriage is void, and she is living a life of
adultery, untill she repent and break the marriage.

- If she does not know that it is forbidden, then she knows nothing
about what she claims as her religion, and then only Allah knows what sort 
of Islam she is following, and how she is going to be treated, but if latter 
at any time she knew her mistake, then her marriage is void, and then she has 
to break the marriage and repent.


> Again, remember that I seek to learn.  My intentions are honorable.
> 
> Thank you for any help you can give me.

You welcome.

> 
> Gregory Zelesnik                  Software Engineering Institute
> gz@sei.cmu.edu                    Carnegie Mellon University
> (412) 268 7797                    Pittsburgh, PA   15213
>	 			    U.S.A.



Ahmed I. El-Habbash,
Department of Computer Science, Trinity College, Dublin 2, Ireland.