Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3606.2 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 36 / Section 54.1-3606.2
Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact
Status: in_force

Article I. Purpose.

Whereas, states license psychologists, in order to protect the public through verification of education, training, and experience and ensure accountability for professional practice; and

Whereas, this Compact is intended to regulate the day-to-day practice of telepsychology (i.e., the provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies) by psychologists across state boundaries in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority; and

Whereas, this Compact is intended to regulate the temporary in-person, face-to-face practice of psychology by psychologists across state boundaries for 30 days within a calendar year in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority; and

Whereas, this Compact is intended to authorize State Psychology Regulatory Authorities to afford legal recognition, in a manner consistent with the terms of the Compact, to psychologists licensed in another state; and

Whereas, this Compact recognizes that states have a vested interest in protecting the public's health and safety through their licensing and regulation of psychologists and that such state regulation will best protect public health and safety; and

Whereas, this Compact does not apply when a psychologist is licensed in both the Home and Receiving States; and

Whereas, this Compact does not apply to permanent in-person, face-to-face practice, it does allow for authorization of temporary psychological practice.

Consistent with these principles, this Compact is designed to achieve the following purposes and objectives:

1. Increase public access to professional psychological services by allowing for telepsychological practice across state lines, as well as temporary in-person, face-to-face services into a state in which the psychologist is not licensed to practice psychology;

2. Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety, especially client/patient safety;

3. Encourage the cooperation of Compact States in the areas of psychology licensure and regulation;

4. Facilitate the exchange of information between Compact States regarding psychologist licensure, adverse actions, and disciplinary history;

5. Promote compliance with the laws governing psychological practice in each Compact State; and

6. Invest all Compact States with the authority to hold licensed psychologists accountable through the mutual recognition of Compact State licenses.

Article II. Definitions.

A. "Adverse Action" means any action taken by a State Psychology Regulatory Authority that finds a violation of a statute or regulation that is identified by the State Psychology Regulatory Authority as discipline and is a matter of public record.

B. "Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards" (ASPPB) means the recognized membership organization composed of State and Provincial Psychology Regulatory Authorities responsible for the licensure and registration of psychologists throughout the United States and Canada.

C. "Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology" means a licensed psychologist's authority to practice telepsychology, within the limits authorized under this Compact, in another Compact State.

D. "Bylaws" means those bylaws established by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission pursuant to Article X for its governance, or for directing and controlling its actions and conduct.

E. "Client/Patient" means the recipient of psychological services, whether psychological services are delivered in the context of health care, corporate, supervision, and/or consulting services.

F. "Commissioner" means the voting representative appointed by each State Psychology Regulatory Authority pursuant to Article X.

G. "Compact State" means a state, the District of Columbia, or United States territory that has enacted this Compact legislation and which has not withdrawn pursuant to Article XIII, Section C or been terminated pursuant to Article XII, Section B.

H. "Coordinated Licensure Information System," also referred to as "Coordinated Database," means an integrated process for collecting, storing, and sharing information on psychologists' licensure and enforcement activities related to psychology licensure laws, which is administered by the recognized membership organization composed of State and Provincial Psychology Regulatory Authorities.

I. "Confidentiality" means the principle that data or information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized persons and/or processes.

J. "Day" means any part of a day in which psychological work is performed.

K. "Distant State" means the Compact State where a psychologist is physically present (not through the use of telecommunications technologies) to provide temporary in-person, face-to-face psychological services.

L. "E.Passport" means a certificate issued by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB) that promotes the standardization in the criteria of interjurisdictional telepsychology practice and facilitates the process for licensed psychologists to provide telepsychological services across state lines.

M. "Executive Board" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission.

N. "Home State" means a Compact State where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one Compact State and is practicing under the Authorization to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology, the Home State is the Compact State where the psychologist is physically present when the telepsychological services are delivered. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one Compact State and is practicing under the Temporary Authorization to Practice, the Home State is any Compact State where the psychologist is licensed.

O. "Identity History Summary" means: a summary of information retained by the FBI, or other designee with similar authority, in connection with arrests and, in some instances, federal employment, naturalization, or military service.

P. "In-Person, Face-to-Face" means interactions in which the psychologist and the client/patient are in the same physical space and which does not include interactions that may occur through the use of telecommunication technologies.

Q. "Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate (IPC)" means a certificate issued by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB) that grants temporary authority to practice based on notification to the State Psychology Regulatory Authority of intention to practice temporarily, and verification of one's qualifications for such practice.

R. "License" means authorization by a State Psychology Regulatory Authority to engage in the independent practice of psychology, which would be unlawful without the authorization.

S. "Non-Compact State" means any State which is not at the time a Compact State.

T. "Psychologist" means an individual licensed for the independent practice of psychology.

U. "Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission" also referred to as "Commission" means the national administration of which all Compact States are members.

V. "Receiving State" means a Compact State where the client/patient is physically located when the telepsychological services are delivered.

W. "Rule" means a written statement by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission promulgated pursuant to Article XI of the Compact that is of general applicability, implements, interprets, or prescribes a policy or provision of the Compact, or an organizational, procedural, or practice requirement of the Commission and has the force and effect of statutory law in a Compact State, and includes the amendment, repeal or suspension of an existing rule.

X. "Significant Investigatory Information" means:

1. Investigative information that a State Psychology Regulatory Authority, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity to respond if required by state law, has reason to believe, if proven true, would indicate more than a violation of state statute or ethics code that would be considered more substantial than minor infraction; or

2. Investigative information that indicates that the psychologist represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the psychologist has been notified and/or had an opportunity to respond.

Y. "State" means a state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States.

Z. "State Psychology Regulatory Authority" means the Board, office, or other agency with the legislative mandate to license and regulate the practice of psychology.

AA. "Telepsychology" means the provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies.

BB. "Temporary Authorization to Practice" means a licensed psychologist's authority to conduct temporary in-person, face-to-face practice, within the limits authorized under this Compact, in another Compact State.

CC. "Temporary In-Person, Face-to-Face Practice" means where a psychologist is physically present (not through the use of telecommunications technologies) in the Distant State to provide for the practice of psychology for 30 days within a calendar year and based on notification to the Distant State.

Article III. Home State Licensure.

A. The Home State shall be a Compact State where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology.

B. A psychologist may hold one or more Compact State licenses at a time. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one Compact State, the Home State is the Compact State where the psychologist is physically present when the services are delivered as authorized by the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology under the terms of this Compact.

C. Any Compact State may require a psychologist not previously licensed in a Compact State to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in the Compact State under circumstances not authorized by the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology under the terms of this Compact.

D. Any Compact State may require a psychologist to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in a Compact State under circumstances not authorized by Temporary Authorization to Practice under the terms of this Compact.

E. A Home State's license authorizes a psychologist to practice in a Receiving State under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology only if the Compact State:

1. Currently requires the psychologist to hold an active E.Passport;

2. Has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;

3. Notifies the Commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;

4. Requires an Identity History Summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), or other designee with similar authority, no later than 10 years after activation of the Compact; and

5. Complies with the Bylaws and Rules of the Commission.

F. A Home State's license grants Temporary Authorization to Practice to a psychologist in a Distant State only if the Compact State:

1. Currently requires the psychologist to hold an active IPC;

2. Has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;

3. Notifies the Commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;

4. Requires an Identity History Summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the FBI, or other designee with similar authority, no later than 10 years after activation of the Compact; and

5. Complies with the Bylaws and Rules of the Commission.

Article IV. Compact Privilege to Practice Telepsychology.

A. Compact States shall recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a Compact State in conformance with Article III, to practice telepsychology in other Compact States (Receiving States) in which the psychologist is not licensed, under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology as provided in the Compact.

B. To exercise the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology under the terms and provisions of this Compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a Compact State must:

1. Hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was, at the time the degree was awarded:

a. Regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, or authorized by Provincial Statute or Royal Charter to grant doctoral degrees; or

b. A foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to 1 a by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES) or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service; and

2. Hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:

a. The program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists;

b. The psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution;

c. There must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines;

d. The program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study;

e. There must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities;

f. The designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty;

g. The program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree;

h. The program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology;

i. The curriculum shall encompass a minimum of three academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degree and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for master's degree; and

j. The program includes an acceptable residency as defined by the Rules of the Commission;

3. Possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a Home State which is a Compact State;

4. Have no history of adverse action that violate the Rules of the Commission;

5. Have no criminal record history reported on an Identity History Summary that violates the Rules of the Commission;

6. Possess a current, active E.Passport;

7. Provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice, conformity with standards of practice, competence in telepsychology technology; criminal background; and knowledge and adherence to legal requirements in the home and receiving states, and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the Commission; and

8. Meet other criteria as defined by the Rules of the Commission.

C. The Home State maintains authority over the license of any psychologist practicing into a Receiving State under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology.

D. A psychologist practicing into a Receiving State under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology will be subject to the Receiving State's scope of practice. A Receiving State may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology in the Receiving State and may take any other necessary actions under the Receiving State's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the Receiving State's citizens. If a Receiving State takes action, the state shall promptly notify the Home State and the Commission.

E. If a psychologist's license in any Home State, another Compact State, or any Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology in any Receiving State, is restricted, suspended or otherwise limited, the E.Passport shall be revoked and therefore the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice telepsychology in a Compact State under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology.

Article V. Compact Temporary Authorization to Practice.

A. Compact States shall also recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a Compact State in conformance with Article III, to practice temporarily in other Compact States (Distant States) in which the psychologist is not licensed, as provided in the Compact.

B. To exercise the Temporary Authorization to Practice under the terms and provisions of this Compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a Compact State must:

1. Hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was, at the time the degree was awarded:

a. Regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, OR authorized by Provincial Statute or Royal Charter to grant doctoral degrees; OR

b. A foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to 1 a above by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES) or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service; AND

2. Hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:

a. The program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists;

b. The psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution;

c. There must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines;

d. The program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study;

e. There must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities;

f. The designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty;

g. The program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree;

h. The program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology;

i. The curriculum shall encompass a minimum of three academic years of full- time graduate study for doctoral degrees and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for master's degrees;

j. The program includes an acceptable residency as defined by the Rules of the Commission;

3. Possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a Home State which is a Compact State;

4. No history of adverse action that violate the Rules of the Commission;

5. No criminal record history that violates the Rules of the Commission;

6. Possess a current, active IPC;

7. Provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice and work experience and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the Commission; and

8. Meet other criteria as defined by the Rules of the Commission.

C. A psychologist practicing into a Distant State under the Temporary Authorization to Practice shall practice within the scope of practice authorized by the Distant State.

D. A psychologist practicing into a Distant State under the Temporary Authorization to Practice will be subject to the Distant State's authority and law. A Distant State may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's Temporary Authorization to Practice in the Distant State and may take any other necessary actions under the Distant State's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the Distant State's citizens. If a Distant State takes action, the state shall promptly notify the Home State and the Commission.

E. If a psychologist's license in any Home State, another Compact State, or any Temporary Authorization to Practice in any Distant State, is restricted, suspended or otherwise limited, the IPC shall be revoked and therefore the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice in a Compact State under the Temporary Authorization to Practice.

Article VI. Conditions of Telepsychology Practice in a Receiving State.

A. A psychologist may practice in a Receiving State under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology only in the performance of the scope of practice for psychology as assigned by an appropriate State Psychology Regulatory Authority, as defined in the Rules of the Commission, and under the following circumstances:

1. The psychologist initiates a client/patient contact in a Home State via telecommunications technologies with a client/patient in a Receiving State;

2. Other conditions regarding telepsychology as determined by Rules promulgated by the Commission.

Article VII. Adverse Actions.

A. A Home State shall have the power to impose adverse action against a psychologist's license issued by the Home State. A Distant State shall have the power to take adverse action on a psychologist's Temporary Authorization to Practice within that Distant State.

B. A Receiving State may take adverse action on a psychologist's Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology within that Receiving State. A Home State may take adverse action against a psychologist based on an adverse action taken by a Distant State regarding temporary in-person, face-to-face practice.

C. If a Home State takes adverse action against a psychologist's license, that psychologist's Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology is terminated and the E.Passport is revoked. Furthermore, that psychologist's Temporary Authorization to Practice is terminated and the IPC is revoked.

1. All Home State disciplinary orders that impose adverse action shall be reported to the Commission in accordance with the Rules promulgated by the Commission. A Compact State shall report adverse actions in accordance with the Rules of the Commission.

2. In the event discipline is reported on a psychologist, the psychologist will not be eligible for telepsychology or temporary in-person, face-to-face practice in accordance with the Rules of the Commission.

3. Other actions may be imposed as determined by the Rules promulgated by the Commission.

D. A Home State's Psychology Regulatory Authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a licensee which occurred in a Receiving State as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the Home State. In such cases, the Home State's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's license.

E. A Distant State's Psychology Regulatory Authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a psychologist practicing under Temporary Authorization Practice that occurred in that Distant State as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the Home State. In such cases, Distant State's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's Temporary Authorization to Practice.

F. Nothing in this Compact shall override a Compact State's decision that a psychologist's participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the Compact State's law. Compact States must require psychologists who enter any alternative programs to not provide telepsychology services under the Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology or provide temporary psychological services under the Temporary Authorization to Practice in any other Compact State during the term of the alternative program.

G. No other judicial or administrative remedies shall be available to a psychologist in the event a Compact State imposes an adverse action pursuant to subsection C.

Article VIII. Additional Authorities Invested in a Compact State's Psychology Regulatory Authority.

A. In addition to any other powers granted under state law, a Compact State's Psychology Regulatory Authority shall have the authority under this Compact to:

1. Issue subpoenas, for both hearings and investigations, which require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a Compact State's Psychology Regulatory Authority for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and/or the production of evidence from another Compact State shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to that court's practice and procedure in considering subpoenas issued in its own proceedings. The issuing State Psychology Regulatory Authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses and/or evidence are located; and

2. Issue cease and desist and/or injunctive relief orders to revoke a psychologist's Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology and/or Temporary Authorization to Practice.

B. During the course of any investigation, a psychologist may not change his Home State licensure. A Home State Psychology Regulatory Authority is authorized to complete any pending investigations of a psychologist and to take any actions appropriate under its law. The Home State Psychology Regulatory Authority shall promptly report the conclusions of such investigations to the Commission. Once an investigation has been completed, and pending the outcome of said investigation, the psychologist may change his Home State licensure. The Commission shall promptly notify the new Home State of any such decisions as provided in the Rules of the Commission. All information provided to the Commission or distributed by Compact States pursuant to the psychologist shall be confidential, filed under seal and used for investigatory or disciplinary matters. The Commission may create additional rules for mandated or discretionary sharing of information by Compact States.

Article IX. Coordinated Licensure Information System.

A. The Commission shall provide for the development and maintenance of a Coordinated Licensure Information System (Coordinated Database) and reporting system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on all psychologists individuals to whom this Compact is applicable in all Compact States as defined by the Rules of the Commission.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a Compact State shall submit a uniform data set to the Coordinated Database on all licensees as required by the Rules of the Commission, including:

1. Identifying information;

2. Licensure data;

3. Significant investigatory information;

4. Adverse actions against a psychologist's license;

5. An indicator that a psychologist's Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology and/or Temporary Authorization to Practice is revoked;

6. Non-confidential information related to alternative program participation information;

7. Any denial of application for licensure, and the reasons for such denial; and

8. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the Rules of the Commission.

C. The Coordinated Database administrator shall promptly notify all Compact States of any adverse action taken against, or significant investigative information on, any licensee in a Compact State.

D. Compact States reporting information to the Coordinated Database may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the Compact State reporting the information.

E. Any information submitted to the Coordinated Database that is subsequently required to be expunged by the law of the Compact State reporting the information shall be removed from the Coordinated Database.

Article X. Establishment of the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission.

A. The Compact States hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission.

1. The Commission is a body politic and an instrumentality of the Compact States.

2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

3. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

B. Membership, Voting, and Meetings.

1. The Commission shall consist of one voting representative appointed by each Compact State who shall serve as that state's Commissioner. The State Psychology Regulatory Authority shall appoint its delegate. This delegate shall be empowered to act on behalf of the Compact State. This delegate shall be limited to:

a. Executive Director, Executive Secretary or similar executive;

b. Current member of the State Psychology Regulatory Authority of a Compact State; OR

c. Designee empowered with the appropriate delegate authority to act on behalf of the Compact State.

2. Any Commissioner may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the Commissioner is appointed. Any vacancy occurring in the Commission shall be filled in accordance with the laws of the Compact State in which the vacancy exists.

3. Each Commissioner shall be entitled to one (1) vote with regard to the promulgation of Rules and creation of Bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. A Commissioner shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the Bylaws. The Bylaws may provide for Commissioners' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

4. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the Bylaws.

5. All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Article XI.

6. The Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the Commission must discuss:

a. Non-compliance of a Compact State with its obligations under the Compact;

b. The employment, compensation, discipline or other personnel matters, or practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

c. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation against the Commission;

d. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase or sale of goods, services, or real estate;

e. Accusation against any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

f. Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential;

g. Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

h. Disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law-enforcement purposes;

i. Disclosure of information related to any investigatory reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility for investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; or

j. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal and state statute.

7. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision. The Commission shall keep minutes which fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, of any person participating in the meeting, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

C. The Commission shall, by a majority vote of the Commissioners, prescribe Bylaws and/or Rules to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes and exercise the powers of the Compact, including but not limited to:

1. Establishing the fiscal year of the Commission;

2. Providing reasonable standards and procedures:

a. For the establishment and meetings of other committees; and

b. Governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the Commission;

3. Providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Commission, ensuring reasonable advance notice of all meetings and providing an opportunity for attendance of such meetings by interested parties, with enumerated exceptions designed to protect the public's interest, the privacy of individuals of such proceedings, and proprietary information, including trade secrets. The Commission may meet in closed session only after a majority of the Commissioners vote to close a meeting to the public in whole or in part. As soon as practicable, the Commission must make public a copy of the vote to close the meeting revealing the vote of each Commissioner with no proxy votes allowed;

4. Establishing the titles, duties and authority and reasonable procedures for the election of the officers of the Commission;

5. Providing reasonable standards and procedures for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the Commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other similar law of any Compact State, the Bylaws shall exclusively govern the personnel policies and programs of the Commission;

6. Promulgating a Code of Ethics to address permissible and prohibited activities of Commission members and employees;

7. Providing a mechanism for concluding the operations of the Commission and the equitable disposition of any surplus funds that may exist after the termination of the Compact after the payment and/or reserving of all of its debts and obligations;

8. The Commission shall publish its Bylaws in a convenient form and file a copy thereof and a copy of any amendment thereto, with the appropriate agency or officer in each of the Compact States;

9. The Commission shall maintain its financial records in accordance with the Bylaws; and

10. The Commission shall meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the Bylaws.

D. The Commission shall have the following powers:

1. The authority to promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rule shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all Compact States;

2. To bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any State Psychology Regulatory Authority or other regulatory body responsible for psychology licensure to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

3. To purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

4. To borrow, accept or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a Compact State;

5. To hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;

6. To accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services, and to receive, utilize and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the Commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety and/or conflict of interest;

7. To lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal or mixed; provided that at all times the Commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety;

8. To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal or mixed;

9. To establish a budget and make expenditures;

10. To borrow money;

11. To appoint committees, including advisory committees comprised of Members, State regulators, State legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the Bylaws;

12. To provide and receive information from, and to cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;

13. To adopt and use an official seal; and

14. To perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of psychology licensure, temporary in-person, face-to-face practice and telepsychology practice.

E. The Executive Board.

1. The elected officers shall serve as the Executive Board, which shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact. The Executive Board shall be comprised of six members:

a. Five voting members who are elected from the current membership of the Commission by the Commission;

b. One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization composed of State and Provincial Psychology Regulatory Authorities.

2. The ex-officio member must have served as staff or member on a State Psychology Regulatory Authority and will be selected by its respective organization.

3. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in Bylaws.

4. The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.

5. The Executive Board shall have the following duties and responsibilities:

a. Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the Rules or Bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees paid by Compact States such as annual dues, and any other applicable fees;

b. Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;

c. Prepare and recommend the budget;

d. Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission;

e. Monitor Compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission;

f. Establish additional committees as necessary; and

g. Other duties as provided in Rules or Bylaws.

F. Financing of the Commission.

1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.

2. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.

3. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each Compact State or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all Compact States.

4. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the Compact States, except by and with the authority of the Compact State. 5. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its Bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.

G. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification.

1. The members, officers, Executive Director, employees and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit and/or liability for any damage, loss, injury or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, Executive Director, employee or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.

3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, Executive Director, employee or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

Article XI. Rulemaking.

A. The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this Article and the Rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.

B. If a majority of the legislatures of the Compact States rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact, then such rule shall have no further force and effect in any Compact State.

C. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.

D. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or Rules by the Commission, and at least 60 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:

1. On the website of the Commission; and

2. On the website of each Compact States' Psychology Regulatory Authority or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

E. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:

1. The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;

2. The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

3. A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

4. The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.

F. Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

G. The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:

1. At least 25 persons who submit comments independently of each other;

2. A governmental subdivision or agency; or

3. A duly-appointed person in an association that has having at least 25 members.

H. If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing.

1. All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the Executive Director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not fewer than five business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.

2. Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.

3. No transcript of the hearing is required, unless a written request for a transcript is made, in which case the person requesting the transcript shall bear the cost of producing the transcript. A recording may be made in lieu of a transcript under the same terms and conditions as a transcript. This subsection shall not preclude the Commission from making a transcript or recording of the hearing if it so chooses.

4. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section.

I. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

J. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

K. If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.

L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:

1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

2. Prevent a loss of Commission or Compact State funds;

3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or

4. Protect public health and safety.

M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing, and delivered to the Chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.

Article XII. Oversight, Dispute Resolution and Enforcement.

A. Oversight.

1. The executive, legislative, and judicial branches of state government in each Compact State shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of this Compact and the rules promulgated hereunder shall have standing as statutory law.

2. All courts shall take judicial notice of the Compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a Compact State pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact which may affect the powers, responsibilities or actions of the Commission.

3. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding, and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the Commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact or promulgated rules.

B. Default, Technical Assistance, and Termination.

1. If the Commission determines that a Compact State has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated rules, the Commission shall:

a. Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other Compact States of the nature of the default, the proposed means of remedying the default and/or any other action to be taken by the Commission; and

b. Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

2. If a state in default fails to remedy the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the Compact States, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by this Compact shall be terminated on the effective date of termination. A remedy of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

3. Termination of membership in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be submitted by the Commission to the Governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting state's legislature, and each of the Compact States.

4. A Compact State which has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations which extend beyond the effective date of termination.

5. The Commission shall not bear any costs incurred by the state which is found to be in default or which has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting state.

6. The defaulting state may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the state of Georgia or the federal district where the Compact has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

C. Dispute Resolution.

1. Upon request by a Compact State, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact which arise among Compact States and between Compact and Non-Compact States. 2. The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes that arise before the commission.

D. Enforcement.

1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and Rules of this Compact.

2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the State of Georgia or the federal district where the Compact has its principal offices against a Compact State in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules and Bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

3. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

Article XIII. Date of Implementation of the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission and Associated Rules, Withdrawal, and Amendments.

A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact is enacted into law in the seventh Compact State. The provisions which become effective at that time shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact.

B. Any state which joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state. Any rule which has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state.

C. Any Compact State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.

1. A Compact State's withdrawal shall not take effect until six months after enactment of the repealing statute.

2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing State's Psychology Regulatory Authority to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this act prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

D. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any psychology licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a Compact State and a Non-Compact State which does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.

E. This Compact may be amended by the Compact States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Compact State until it is enacted into the law of all Compact States.

Article XIV. Construction and Severability.

This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any state member thereto, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining Compact States.

2020, c. 1162 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-507 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 5 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-507
Repealed
Status: repealed

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 477.
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2814 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 28 / Article 3 / Section 54.1-2814
Examination
Status: in_force

Each applicant for license for the practice of funeral service shall be examined in writing on:

1. Basic and health sciences including anatomy, chemistry, bacteriology, pathology, hygiene and public health;

2. Funeral service arts and sciences including embalming and restorative art;

3. Funeral service administration including accounting, funeral law, psychology, and funeral principles, directing and management.

The Board may recognize other examinations that it considers equivalent to its examination.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 773 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3613 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 36 / Section 54.1-3613
Repealed
Status: repealed

Repealed by Acts 2004, cc. 40 and 68 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3926 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle IV / Chapter 39 / Article 4 / Section 54.1-3926
Preliminary proof of education required of applicant
Status: in_force

Before an applicant will be permitted to take any examination under this article, the applicant shall furnish to the Board satisfactory evidence that he has:

1. Satisfactorily completed legal studies amounting to at least five semesters, or the equivalent of at least five semesters on a system other than a semester system, of full-time study at a law school approved by the American Bar Association or the Board;

2. Received a bachelor's, master's, or doctoral degree from an institution of higher education accredited by an accreditor recognized by the U.S. Department of Education and studied law for three years, consisting of not less than 18 hours per week for at least 40 weeks per year, in the office of an attorney practicing in the Commonwealth, whose full time is devoted to the practice of law;

3. Studied law for at least three years partly in a law school approved by the American Bar Association or the Board and partly, for not less than 18 hours per week for at least 40 weeks per year, in the office of an attorney practicing in the Commonwealth whose full time is devoted to the practice of law;

4. Received a bachelor's, master's, or doctoral degree from an institution of higher education accredited by an accreditor recognized by the U.S. Department of Education and studied law for three years, consisting of not less than 18 hours per week for at least 40 weeks per year, with a retired circuit court judge who served the Commonwealth as a circuit court judge for a minimum of 10 years and who at the time of commencement of the three-year study period was retired for not more than five years; or

5. Completed all degree requirements from a law school not approved by the American Bar Association, including a foreign law school, obtained an LL.M. from a law school approved by the American Bar Association, and been admitted to practice law before the court of last resort in any state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

The attorney in whose office or the judge with whom the applicant intends to study shall be approved by the Board, which shall prescribe reasonable conditions as to the course of study.

Code 1950, § 54-62; 1952, c. 553; 1960, c. 379; 1980, c. 533; 1988, c. 765; 1995, c. 336 ; 1998, cc. 119 , 796 ; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 296 ; 2022, c. 148 ; 2025, c. 39 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3446 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34 / Article 5 / Section 54.1-3446
Schedule I
Status: in_force

The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule I:

1. Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

1-{1-[1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl}-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzimidazol-2-one (other name: Brorphine);

1-[2-methyl-4-(3-phenyl-2-propen-1-yl)-1-piperazinyl]-1-butanone (other name: 2-methyl AP-237);

1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine (other name: PEPAP);

1-(4-cinnamyl-2,6-dimethylpiperazin-1-yl)propan-1-one (other name: AP-238);

1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol (other name: zipeprol);

1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (other name: MPPP);

2-[2-[(4-ethoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitrobenzimidazol-1-yl]-N-ethylethanamine (other name: N-desethyl etonitazene);

2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole (other names: N-piperidinyl etonitazene; etonitazepipne);

2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-[2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl]-1H-benzimidazole (other names: N-pyrrolidino etonitazene, etonitazepyne);

2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitro-1-(2-pyrrolidin-1-ylethyl)benzimidazole (other names: metonitazepyne, N-pyrrolidino metonitazene);

2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-N,N-diethyl-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine (other name: Metonitazene);

2-methoxy-N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-acetamide (other name: Methoxyacetyl fentanyl);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-benzamide (other name: U-47700);

3,4-dichloro-N-{[1-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]methyl}benzamide (other name: AH-7921);

3-furanyl fentanyl (other name: N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-3-carboxamide);

2',5'-dimethoxyfentanyl (other name: N-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpropionamide);

7-[(3-chloro-6-methyl-5,5-dioxo-11H-benzo[c][2,1]benzothiazepin-11-yl)amino]heptanoic acid (other name: Tianeptine);

Acetyl fentanyl (other name: desmethyl fentanyl);

Acetylmethadol;

Allylprodine;

Alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

Alphameprodine;

Alphamethadol;

Benzethidine;

Betacetylmethadol;

Betameprodine;

Betamethadol;

Betaprodine;

Clonitazene;

Dextromoramide;

Diampromide;

Diethylthiambutene;

Difenoxin;

Dimenoxadol;

Dimepheptanol;

Dimethylthiambutene;

Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

Dipipanone;

Ethyl N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]carbamate (other name: fentanyl carbamate);

Ethylmethylthiambutene;

Etonitazene;

Etoxeridine;

Furethidine;

Hydroxypethidine;

Isovaleryl fentanyl (other name: 3-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide);

Ketobemidone;

Levomoramide;

Levophenacylmorphan;

Meta-fluorofentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide);

Meta-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide);

Morpheridine;

MT-45 (1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine);

N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide (other name: Cyclopropyl fentanyl);

N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide (other name: Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl);

N-[1-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: alpha-methylthiofentanyl);

N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylacetamide (other name: acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl);

N-{1-[2-hydroxy-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl}-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxythiofentanyl);

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxyfentanyl);

N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]propionanilide (other names: 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine, alpha-methylfentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]prop-2-enamide (other name: ortho-fluoroacryl fentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other names: 2-fluorofentanyl, ortho-fluorofentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: ortho-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-[2-(2-fluorophenyl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other names: 2'-fluoro ortho-fluorofentanyl; 2'-fluoro 2-fluorofentanyl);

N-[1-[2-(4-methylphenyl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-N-phenylacetamide (other name: 4'-methyl acetyl fentanyl);

N-ethyl-2-[5-nitro-2-[(4-propan-2-yloxyphenyl)methyl]benzimidazol-1-yl]ethanamine (other name: N-desethyl Isotonitazene);

N,3-diphenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other names: beta'-phenyl fentanyl; beta'-phenyl fentanyl; 3-phenylpropanoyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: beta-methyl fentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]butanamide (other name: ortho-fluorobutyryl fentanyl; 2-fluorobutyryl fentanyl);

N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]acetamide (other names: ortho-methyl acetylfentanyl; 2-methyl acetylfentanyl);

N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: ortho-methylfentanyl);

N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other names: para-methylfentanyl; 4-methylfentanyl);

N-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: para-chloroisobutyryl fentanyl);

N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: 3-fluorofentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenylethyl)4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: 3-methylfentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: 3-methylthiofentanyl);

N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other names: para-chlorofentanyl, 4-chlorofentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]furan-2-carboxamide (other name: para-fluoro furanyl fentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: para-fluorobutyrylfentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: para-fluorofentanyl);

N,N-diethyl-2-[2-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-5-nitrobenzimidazol-1-yl] ethanamine (other name: Flunitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (other name: Isotonitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-{[(4-ethoxyphenyl) methyl]-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl}-ethan-1-amine (other names: Etazene, Desnitroetonitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-1H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine (other name: Metodesnitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-[5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl]ethanamine (other name: Protonitazene);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylmethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-furancarboxamide (other name: N-benzyl Furanyl norfentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-(4-piperidinyl)-propanamide (other name: Norfentanyl);

Noracymethadol;

Norlevorphanol;

Normethadone;

Norpipanone;

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-furancarboxamide (other name: Furanyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-propenamide (other name: Acryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: butyryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-pentanamide (other name: Pentanoyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: thiofentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]thiophene-2-carboxamide (other name: thiophene fentanyl);

Ortho-fluorofuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

Para-methoxyfuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

Para-methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide);

Phenadoxone;

Phenampromide;

Phenomorphan;

Phenoperidine;

Piritramide;

Proheptazine;

Properidine;

Propiram;

Racemoramide;

Tilidine;

Trimeperidine;

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-1,3-benzodioxole-5-carboxamide (other name: Benzodioxole fentanyl);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(diethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide (other name: U-49900);

2-methoxy-N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]acetamide (other names: ortho-methyl methoxyacetylfentanyl; 2-methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl);

2-methyl-N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]butanamide (other names: 2-methyl butyryl fentanyl, alpha'-methyl butyryl fentanyl);

2-[2-[(4-butoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitrobenzimidazol-1-yl]-N,N-diethylethanamine (other name: Butonitazene);

2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl acetamide (other name: U-48800);

2-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl acetamide (other name: U-51754);

2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-[2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl]-1H-benzo[d]imidazole (other name: N-Pyrrolidino Isotonitazene);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-acetamide (other name: Ocfentanil);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)pentanamide (other names: para-fluoro valeryl fentanyl, para-fluoro pentanoyl fentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]acetamide (other name: para-fluoroacetyl fentanyl);

N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: 4-methoxybutyrylfentanyl);

N-phenyl-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: Isobutyryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-cyclopentanecarboxamide (other name: Cyclopentyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-(1-methyl-4-piperidinyl)-propanamide (other name: N-methyl norfentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-(1-propionyl-4-piperidinyl)-propanamide (other name: N-propionyl norfentanyl);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-1,3-benzodioxole-5-carboxamide (other names: 3,4-methylenedioxy U-47700 or 3,4-MDO-U-47700);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-butenamide (other name: Crotonyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[4-phenyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: 4-phenylfentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-benzamide (other names: Phenyl fentanyl, Benzoyl fentanyl);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide (other name: Furanyl UF-17);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-phenylpropionamide (other name: UF-17);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-isopropyl-benzamide (other name: Isopropyl U-47700);

5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1-[2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl]-1H-benzo[d]imidazole (other names: N-Pyrrolidino Protonitazene, Protonitazepyne).

2. Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

Acetorphine;

Acetyldihydrocodeine;

Benzylmorphine;

Codeine methylbromide;

Codeine-N-Oxide;

Cyprenorphine;

Desomorphine;

Dihydromorphine;

Drotebanol;

Etorphine;

Heroin;

Hydromorphinol;

Methyldesorphine;

Methyldihydromorphine;

Morphine methylbromide;

Morphine methylsulfonate;

Morphine-N-Oxide;

Myrophine;

Nicocodeine;

Nicomorphine;

Normorphine;

Pholcodine;

Thebacon.

3. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of this subdivision only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position, and geometric isomers):

3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-ol (other names: 4-hydroxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-hydroxy DET; ethocin);

[3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] acetate (other names: 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-acetoxy DET; 4-AcO-DET; ethacetin);

3-methylmethcathinone (other names: 3-MMC; metaphedrone; 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one);

Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: Monase; a-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-2-aminobutyl] indole; a-ET; AET);

4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (some trade or other names: 2-4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]-1-aminoethane;alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B; Nexus);

3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;

5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;

3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine;

Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT);

Bufotenine;

Diethyltryptamine;

Dimethyltryptamine;

4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine (DOET);

4-fluoro-N-ethylamphetamine;

2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name: 2C-T-7);

Ibogaine;

5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT);

Lysergic acid diethylamide;

Mescaline;

Parahexyl (some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo [b,d] pyran; Synhexyl);

Peyote;

N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

N,N-dipropyl -1H-indole-3-ethanamine (other names: Dipropyltryptamine; N,N-DPT);

Psilocybin;

Psilocyn;

Salvinorin A;

2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), its optical, positional and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers;

3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4 (methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA);

N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (some other names: N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA);

4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

4-methoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine (some other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE);

Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine (some other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP);

Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP);

1-1 -(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine (other name: TCPy);

3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (other name: MDPV);

4-methylmethcathinone (other names: mephedrone, 4-MMC);

3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone (other name: methylone);

Naphthylpyrovalerone (other name: naphyrone);

4-fluoromethcathinone (other names: flephedrone, 4-FMC);

4-methoxymethcathinone (other names: methedrone; bk-PMMA);

Ethcathinone (other name: N-ethylcathinone);

3,4-methylenedioxyethcathinone (other name: ethylone);

Beta-keto-N-methyl-3,4-benzodioxolylbutanamine (other name: butylone);

N,N-dimethylcathinone (other name: metamfepramone);

Alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: alpha-PPP);

4-methoxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MOPPP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MDPPP);

Alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: alpha-PVP);

6,7-dihydro-5H-indeno-(5,6-d)-1,3-dioxol-6-amine (other name: MDAI);

3-fluoromethcathinone (other name: 3-FMC);

4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: 2C-E);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: 2C-I);

4-Methylethcathinone (other name: 4-MEC);

4-Ethylmethcathinone (other name: 4-EMC);

N,N-diallyl-5-methoxytryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DALT);

Beta-keto-methylbenzodioxolylpentanamine (other names: Pentylone, bk-MBDP);

Alpha-methylamino-butyrophenone (other name: Buphedrone);

Alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: Pentedrone);

3,4-Dimethylmethcathinone (other name: 3,4-DMMC);

4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MPPP);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 25-I, 25I-NBOMe, 2C-I-NBOMe);

Methoxetamine (other names: MXE, 3-MeO-2-Oxo-PCE);

4-Fluoromethamphetamine (other name: 4-FMA);

4-Fluoroamphetamine (other name: 4-FA);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-D);

2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-C);

2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (other name: 2C-T-2);

2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (other name: 2C-T-4);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-H);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-N);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-P);

(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: APB);

(2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (other name: APDB);

4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 2C-C-NBOMe, 25C-NBOMe, 25C);

4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 2C-B-NBOMe, 25B-NBOMe, 25B);

Acetoxydimethyltryptamine (other names: AcO-DMT, Psilacetin);

Benocyclidine (other names: BCP, BTCP);

Alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (other name: alpha-PBP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylcathinone (other names: Dimethylone, bk-MDDMA);

4-bromomethcathinone (other name: 4-BMC);

4-chloromethcathinone (other name: 4-CMC);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25I-NBOH);

Alpha-Pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: alpha-PHP);

Alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: PV8);

5-methoxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-MIPT);

Beta-keto-N,N-dimethylbenzodioxolylbutanamine (other names: Dibutylone, bk-DMBDB);

Beta-keto-4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: bk-2C-B);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-ethylpentylone);

1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 3-methoxy PCP);

1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 4-methoxy PCP);

4-Chloroethcathinone (other name: 4-CEC);

3-Methoxy-2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-1-propanone (other name: Mexedrone);

1-propionyl lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: 1P-LSD);

(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: MAPB);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)-1-pentanone (other names: N,N-Dimethylpentylone, Dipentylone);

1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)octan-1-one (other name: 4-methoxy-PV9);

3,4-tetramethylene-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: TH-PVP);

4-allyloxy-3,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: Allylescaline);

4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25B-NBOH);

4-chloro-alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: 4-chloropentedrone);

4-chloro-alpha-Pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: 4-chloro-alpha-PVP);

4-fluoro-alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-PV8);

4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4-OH-DIPT);

4-methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone;

4-methyl-alpha-Pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: MPHP);

5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DMT);

5-methoxy-N-ethyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-EIPT);

6-ethyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: ETH-LAD);

6-allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: AL-LAD);

(N-methyl aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (other name: MAPDB);

2-(methylamino)-2-phenyl-cyclohexanone (other name: Deschloroketamine);

2-(ethylamino)-2-phenyl-cyclohexanone (other name: deschloro-N-ethyl-ketamine);

2-methyl-1-(4-(methylthio)phenyl)-2-morpholinopropiophenone (other name: MMMP);

Alpha-ethylaminohexanophenone (other name: N-ethylhexedrone);

N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexylamine (other name: 3-methoxy-PCE);

4-fluoro-alpha-pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-alpha-PHP);

N-ethyl-1,2-diphenylethylamine (other name: Ephenidine);

2,5-dimethoxy-4-chloroamphetamine (other name: DOC);

3,4-methylenedioxy-N-tert-butylcathinone;

Alpha-pyrrolidinoisohexiophenone (other name: alpha-PiHP);

1-[1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 3-hydroxy PCP);

4-acetyloxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (other name: 4-AcO-DALT);

4-hydroxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4-hydroxy-MiPT);

3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone (other name: MDPHP);

5-methoxy-N,N-dibutyltryptamine (other name: 5-methoxy-DBT);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-1-butanone (other names: Eutylone, bk-EBDB);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(butylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-butylpentylone);

N-benzyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-benzyl-3,4-DMA);

1-(benzo[d][1,3]dioxol-5-yl)-2-(sec-butylamino)pentan-1-one (other name: N-sec-butyl Pentylone);

1-cyclopropionyl lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: 1cP-LSD);

2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylheptan-1-one (other name: N-ethylheptedrone);

(2-ethylaminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: EAPB);

4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25E-NBOH);

2-fluoro-Deschloroketamine (other name: 2-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone);

4-hydroxy-N-ethyl-N-propyltryptamine (other name: 4-hydroxy-EPT);

2-(isobutylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one (other names: N-Isobutyl Hexedrone, alpha-isobutylaminohexanphenone);

1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: para-Methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA);

N-ethyl-1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexylamine (other name: 3-hydroxy-PCE);

N-heptyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-heptyl-3,4-DMA);

N-hexyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-hexyl-3,4-DMA);

4-fluoro-3-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-3-methyl-alpha-PVP);

4-fluoro-alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: 4-fluoropentedrone);

N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-DMA);

4,5-methylenedioxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4,5-MDO-DiPT);

Alpha-pyrrolidinocyclohexanophenone (other name: alpha-PCYP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: MDPV8);

4-chloro-alpha-methylaminobutiophenone (other name: 4-chloro Buphedrone);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(cyclohexylamino)butan-1-one (other names: Cybutylone, N-cyclohexyl Butylone);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(propylamino)-1-butanone (other names: 3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha-propylaminobutiophenone; N-propyl butylone);

1-[1-(3-chlorophenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine (other names: 3-Chloro Phencyclidine, 3Cl-PCP, 3-chloro PCP);

1-[1-(3-fluorophenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other names: 3-fluoro Phencyclidine, 3F-PCP);

1-(7-methoxy-1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)propan-2-amine (other names: 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine, 3-methoxy MDA, MMDA);

2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (other names: N-ethylpentedrone, alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone);

2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-fluorophenyl)-cyclohexanone (other names: 2-fluoro-2-oxo PCE, 2-fluoro NENDCK);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-cyclohexylaminopropiophenone (other name: Cyputylone);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-cyclohexylmethylaminopropiophenone (other name: 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N-cyclohexylmethcathinone);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-isopropylaminobutiophenone (other name: N-isopropyl butylone);

4-chloro-N-butylcathinone (other names: 4-chlorobutylcathinone, para-chloro-N-butylcathinone);

4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (other names: 4-hydroxy MET, Metocin);

4-methallyloxy-3,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: Methallylescaline);

Alpha-pyrrolidino-2-phenylacetophenone (other name: alpha-D2PV);

1-(3,5-Dimethoxy-4-propoxyphenyl)-2-propanamine (other names: 4-propoxy-3,5-DMA, 3C-P, 1-(3,5-Dimethoxy-4-propoxyphenyl)propan-2-amine);

2-(5-methoxy-1H-indol-3-yl)ethanamine (other names: 5-methoxytryptamine, 5-MeOT);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(isobutylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-isobutylpentylone);

1-(1,3-benzodioxyl-5-yl)-2-(tert-butylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-tert-butyl pentylone);

1-Phenyl-N-propylcyclohexanamine (other names: N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)propanamine, PCPr);

1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-4-methylpiperazine (other names: 4-fluoro-MBZP, 4-fluoro methylbenzylpiperazine);

4-fluoro-alpha-pyrrolidinoisohexiophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-alpha-PiHP);

8-bromo-1-methyl-6-pyridin-2-yl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other name: pyrazolam).

4. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-3-methyl-7-nitro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Meclonazepam);

7-Bromo-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: phenazepam);

7-chloro-5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Norfludiazepam);

Bromazolam;

Clonazolam;

Deschloroetizolam;

Etizolam;

Flualprazolam;

Flubromazepam;

Flubromazolam;

Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (some other names include GHB; gamma hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate);

Mecloqualone;

Methaqualone;

6-(4-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other names: 4'-chloro Deschloroalprazolam, 4'Cl-Deschloroalprazolam);

7-bromo-5-phenyl-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other names: Desalkylgidazepam, Bromonordiazepam);

7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-3H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other names: Diclazepam, 2-Chlorodiazepam);

8-bromo-6-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other names: Clobromazolam, Phenazolam).

5. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:

2-(3-fluorophenyl)-3-methylmorpholine (other name: 3-fluorophenmetrazine);

Aminorex (some trade or other names; aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; 4,5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

Cathinone (some trade or other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, norephedrone), and any plant material from which Cathinone may be derived;

Cis-4-methylaminorex (other name: cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

Ethylamphetamine;

Ethyl phenyl(piperidin-2-yl)acetate (other name: Ethylphenidate);

Fenethylline;

Methcathinone (some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)-propiophenone; 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and UR 1432);

N-Benzylpiperazine (some other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiperazine);

N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine (other name: methiopropamine);

N,N-dimethylamphetamine (other names: N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine, N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

N-phenyl-N'-(3-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1,2,3-oxadiazol-3-ium-5-yl)carbamimidate (other name: mesocarb);

Methyl 2-(4-fluorophenyl)-2-(2-piperidinyl)acetate (other name: 4-fluoromethylphenidate);

Isopropyl-2-phenyl-2-(2-piperidinyl)acetate (other name: Isopropylphenidate);

2-(3-chlorophenyl)-3-methylmorpholine (other name: 3-chlorophenmetrazine);

4-chloro-N,N-dimethylcathinone;

3,4-methylenedioxy-N-benzylcathinone (other name: BMDP);

4-methylmethamphetamine (other names: N-alpha,4-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine, 4-MMA);

4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine (other names: 4,4'-Dimethylaminorex, 4,4'-DMAR);

7-[(10,11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-yl)amino]heptanoic acid (other name: amineptine).

6. Any substance that contains one or more cannabimimetic agents or that contains their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, and any preparation, mixture, or substance containing, or mixed or infused with, any detectable amount of one or more cannabimimetic agents.

a. "Cannabimimetic agents" includes any substance that is within any of the following structural classes:

2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl or alkenyl, whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent;

3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthoyl or naphthyl ring to any extent;

3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring, whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthoyl ring to any extent;

1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene with substitution of the 3-position of the indene ring, whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent;

3-phenylacetylindole or 3-benzoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the phenyl ring to any extent;

3-cyclopropoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the cyclopropyl ring to any extent;

3-adamantoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent;

N-(adamantyl)-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent; and

N-(adamantyl)-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution at a nitrogen atom of the indazole ring, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent.

b. The term "cannabimimetic agents" includes:

Methyl N-[(5-methyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)carbonyl]-3-methyl-valinate (other name: MDMB-5Me-INACA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-INACA);

N-cyclohexyl-2-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)acetamide (other names: cyclohexyl-PIATA, CH-PIACA, CH-PIATA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzamide (other name: AB-MDMSBA);

Methyl 2-[[1-(4-fluorobutyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 4F-MDMB-BUTICA; 4F-MDMB-BICA);

5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151);

Ethyl 2-[[1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 5F-EDMB-PICA; 5F-EDMB-2201);

5-bromo-N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-5Br-INACA);

5-(1,1-Dimethylheptyl)-2-[3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (other name: CP 47,497);

5-(1,1-Dimethylhexyl)-2-[3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (other name: CP 47,497 C6 homolog);

5-(1,1-Dimethyloctyl)-2-[3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (other name: CP 47,497 C8 homolog);

5-(1,1-Dimethylnonyl)-2-[3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (other name: CP 47,497 C9 homolog);

1-pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (other names: JWH-018, AM-678);

1-butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-073);

1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (other name: JWH-250);

1-hexyl-3-(naphthalen-1-oyl)indole (other name: JWH-019);

1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-200);

(6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tet rahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (other name: HU-210);

1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-081);

1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-122);

1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (other name: JWH-203);

1-pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-210);

1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: JWH-398);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (other name: AM-694);

1-((N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: AM-1220);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (other name: AM-2201);

1-[(N-methylpiperidin-2-yl)methyl]-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (other name: AM-2233);

Pravadoline (4-methoxyphenyl)-[2-methyl-1-(2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3-yl]methanone (other name: WIN 48,098);

1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole (other names: RCS-4, SR-19);

1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (other names: RCS-8, SR-18);

1-pentyl-3-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropylmethanone)indole (other name: UR-144);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropylmethanone)indole (other names: XLR-11, 5-fluoro-UR-144);

N-adamantyl-1-fluoropentylindole-3-carboxamide (other name: STS-135);

N-adamantyl-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide (other names: AKB48, APINACA);

1-pentyl-3-(1-adamantoyl)indole (other name: AB-001);

(8-quinolinyl)(1-pentylindol-3-yl)carboxylate (other name: PB-22);

(8-quinolinyl)(1-(5-fluoropentyl)indol-3-yl)carboxylate (other name: 5-fluoro-PB-22);

(8-quinolinyl)(1-cyclohexylmethyl-indol-3-yl)carboxylate (other name: BB-22);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-5-bromo-1-butylindazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-5'Br-BUTINACA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide (other name: AB-PINACA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: AB-FUBINACA);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole (other name: THJ-2201);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-PINACA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: AB-CHMINACA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5-fluoro-AB-PINACA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: ADB-CHMINACA, MAB-CHMINACA);

Methyl N-[(5-bromo-1H-indazol-3-yl)carbonyl]-3-methyl-valinate (other name: MDMB-5Br-INACA);

Methyl-2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (other name: 5-fluoro-AMB);

1-naphthalenyl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (other name: NM-2201);

1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-3-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropylmethanone)indole (other name: FUB-144);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (other name MAM-2201);

N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-FUBINACA);

Methyl 2-[1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: MDMB-FUBINACA);

Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: 5-fluoro-ADB, 5-Fluoro-MDMB-PINACA);

Methyl 2-({1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl}amino)-3-methylbutanoate (other names: AMB-FUBINACA, FUB-AMB);

N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: FUB-AKB48, 5F-APINACA);

N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5F-AKB48);

N-(adamantanyl)-1-(5-chloropentyl) indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5-chloro-AKB48);

Naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxylate (other name: SDB-005);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indole-3-carboxamide (other name: AB-CHMICA);

1-pentyl-N-(phenylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (other name: SDB-006);

Quinolin-8-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (other name: FUB-PB-22);

Methyl N-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl]valinate (other name: MMB-CHMICA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5-fluoro-ADB-PINACA);

1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 4-cyano CUMYL-BUTINACA);

Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: 5-fluoro MDMB-PICA, 5F-MDMB-PICA);

Ethyl 2-({1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl}amino)-3-methylbutanoate (other name: EMB-FUBINACA);

Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl-2-[(1-(pent-4-enylindazole-3-carbonyl)amino]butanoate (other name: EDMB-4en-PINACA);

Methyl 2-[ 1-4 -fluorobutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: 4-fluoro-MDMB-BUTINACA);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5-fluoro CUMYL-PICA);

Methyl 2-[1-(pent-4-enyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamindo]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: MDMB-4en-PINACA);

Methyl 2-({1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-1H-indole-3-carbonyl}amino)-3-methylbutanoate (other names: MMB-FUBICA, AMB-FUBICA);

Methyl 2-[1-(4-penten-1-yl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoate (other names: MMB022, MMB-4en-PICA);

Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoate (other name: MMB 2201);

Methyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-phenylpropanoate (other name: 5-fluoro-MPP-PICA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-butylindazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-BUTINACA);

N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-chloropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: 5-chloro-AB-PINACA);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: 5F-CUMYL-PINACA, 5-fluoro CUMYL-PINACA, CUMYL-5F-PINACA);

1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide (other name: 5F-CUMYL-P7AICA);

Ethyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: 5F-EDMB-PINACA, 5-fluoro EDMB-PINACA);

Ethyl-2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoate (other names: 5-fluoro-EMB-PINACA, 5F-AEB);

Ethyl 2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3-methylbutanoate (other name: 5-fluoro-EMB-PICA);

Ethyl-2-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: 5-fluoro EDMB-PICA);

Methyl 2-[1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: 4-fluoro-MDMB-BUTICA);

Methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: MDMB-CHMICA, MMB-CHMINACA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(pent-4-enyl)indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-4en-PINACA);

Ethyl 2-[1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido]-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: EDMB-PINACA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-phenethyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-PHETINACA);

N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-acetamide (other names: ADB-FUBIATA, AD-18, FUB-ACADB);

Methyl N-(1H-indazol-3-ylcarbonyl)-3-methyl-valinate (other name: MDMB-INACA);

Methyl-2-(1-butyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: MDMB-BUTINACA).

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.84:4; 1973, c. 479; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 302; 1979, cc. 387, 435; 1982, c. 505; 1984, cc. 186, 192; 1986, c. 463; 1988, c. 765; 1994, c. 763 ; 1996, c. 408 ; 1997, c. 594 ; 1999, c. 722 ; 2000, c. 348 ; 2005, c. 119 ; 2008, c. 59 ; 2011, cc. 384 , 410 ; 2012, cc. 762 , 816 ; 2013, cc. 295 , 785 ; 2014, cc. 674 , 719 ; 2015, cc. 726 , 757 ; 2016, cc. 103 , 112 ; 2017, cc. 414 , 434 ; 2018, c. 372 ; 2019, cc. 85 , 653 , 654 ; 2020, cc. 101 , 229 , 1285 , 1286 ; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 73 , 110 ; 2022, cc. 114 , 115 ; 2023, cc. 188 , 189 , 744 , 794 ; 2024, cc. 62 , 228 ; 2025, c. 118 ; 2026, c. 171 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2973 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 29 / Article 6 / Section 54.1-2973
Persons who may authorize postmortem examination of decedent's body
Status: in_force

Any of the following persons, in order of priority stated, may authorize and consent to a postmortem examination and autopsy on a decedent's body for the purpose of determining the cause of death of the decedent, for the advancement of medical or dental education and research, or for the general advancement of medical or dental science, if: (i) no person in a higher class exists or no person in a higher class is available at the time authorization or consent is given, (ii) there is no actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent, and (iii) there is no actual notice of opposition by a member of the same or a prior class.

The order of priority shall be as follows: (1) any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains upon his death pursuant to § 54.1-2825 ; (2) the spouse; (3) an adult son or daughter; (4) either parent; (5) an adult brother or sister; (6) a guardian of the person of the decedent at the time of his death; or (7) any other person authorized or under legal obligation to dispose of the body.

If the physician or surgeon has actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent or of opposition to an autopsy by a member of the same or a prior class, the autopsy shall not be performed. The persons authorized herein may authorize or consent to the autopsy after death or before death.

In cases of death where official inquiry is authorized or required by law, the provisions of Article 1 (§ 32.1-277 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1 shall apply. If at the time of death, a postmortem examination is authorized or required by law, any prior authorization or consent pursuant to this section shall not be valid unless the body is released by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

A surgeon or physician acting in accordance with the terms of this section shall not have any liability, civil or criminal, for the performance of the autopsy.

Code 1950, § 32-364.4:1; 1973, c. 357; 1979, c. 720, § 54-325.8; 1986, c. 237; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 718 ; 2014, c. 583 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2012 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 20.1 / Section 54.1-2012
Real Estate Appraiser Board; membership; chairman; meetings; seal
Status: in_force

A. The Real Estate Appraiser Board shall be composed of 10 members as follows: (i) six members shall be licensed as real estate appraisers, provided that, at all times, at least two of the appraiser members on the Board shall be certified general real estate appraisers and one shall be a certified residential real estate appraiser, and provided further, that all six appraiser members have been licensed for a period of at least five years prior to their appointment; (ii) one member shall be an officer or employee familiar with mortgage lending of a financial institution as defined in § 6.2-100 or an affiliate or subsidiary thereof; (iii) one member shall be an officer or employee of an appraisal management company; and (iv) two members shall be citizen members. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

The appointment of appraiser members may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by Virginia affiliates of professional appraisal organizations that are members of the Appraisal Foundation. The appointment of the bank or savings institution member may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by the Virginia Bankers Association and the Virginia Association of Community Banks. The appointment of the appraisal management company member may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by the Virginia Bankers Association. Nominations for appointments to regular terms shall be submitted to the Governor on or before June 1 of each year. The Governor may notify the above organizations of any vacancy other than by expiration and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

Notwithstanding § 54.1-200 , all members of the Board, including the citizen members, shall be eligible to participate in all matters, including decisions regarding the examination of applicants for licensure and decisions regarding the professional competence of licensees.

The Board shall elect a chairman and a vice-chairman from its membership, provided that the chairman shall be an appraiser member.

The Board shall meet at least once each year, and additional meetings may be called by the chairman or, if the chairman is incapacitated, by the vice-chairman, as deemed necessary.

The Board shall adopt a seal by which it shall authenticate its proceedings.

B. As soon as practicable, the Board shall determine the anticipated availability of licensed and certified appraisers to perform appraisals in Virginia. If, at any time, the Board determines that there is, or will be, a scarcity of certified general real estate appraisers, certified residential real estate appraisers, or licensed residential real estate appraisers to perform appraisals in connection with federally related transactions in any part of Virginia that leads, or will lead, to significant delays in the performance of such appraisals, the Board, subject to federal approval, shall extend the effective date of the licensing requirements of this chapter to the extent permitted under any temporary waiver granted under the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. § 3301 et seq.).

1990, c. 459; 1992, c. 68; 1999, cc. 208 , 505 ; 2010, c. 91 ; 2012, cc. 405 , 522 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3917 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle IV / Chapter 39 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-3917
Master retirement program
Status: in_force

The Virginia State Bar through its governing body is authorized to approve and be a party to a master retirement program for the benefit of the members of the Virginia State Bar, their employees and families, including the power to execute, amend and revoke a master plan and trust agreement and to pay from the State Bar Fund in the manner provided in § 54.1-3913 the printing and administrative costs incurred in the promulgation and explanation of such program to the members of the Virginia State Bar. Any such program entered into or expenditure made before June 28, 1968, is hereby validated.

1968, c. 370, § 54-52.2; 1988, c. 765.
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-101.1 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle I / Chapter 1 / Section 54.1-101.1
Certified mail; subsequent mail or notices may be sent by regular mail
Status: in_force

Whenever in this title any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions is required to send any mail or notice by certified mail and such mail or notice is sent certified mail, return receipt requested, then any subsequent, identical mail or notice that is sent by any such regulatory board may be sent by regular mail.

2011, c. 566 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3420.3 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-3420.3
Prohibition on refusing to fill prescription from telemedicine provider
Status: in_force

A. A pharmacy shall not implement or enforce a policy that prevents a pharmacist from dispensing a prescription solely on the basis of the prescriber's use of a telemedicine platform to provide services.

B. A pharmacist shall not prioritize dispensing a prescription from a prescriber who does not use telemedicine over dispensing a prescription from a prescriber who does use telemedicine solely on the basis of the prescriber's use of a telemedicine platform to provide services.

2023, c. 368 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2525 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 25.2 / Section 54.1-2525
Unlawful disclosure of information; disciplinary action authorized; penalties
Status: in_force

A. It shall be unlawful for any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program to disclose such confidential information except as provided in this chapter. Any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program who discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who lawfully receives confidential information from the Prescription Monitoring Program to redisclose or use such confidential information in any way other than the authorized purpose for which the request was made. Any person who lawfully receives information from the Prescription Monitoring Program and discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

C. Nothing in this section shall prohibit (i) a person who prescribes or dispenses a covered substance to a recipient required to be reported to the program from redisclosing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program to another prescriber or dispenser who has responsibility for treating the recipient or (ii) a person who prescribes a covered substance from placing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program in the recipient's medical record.

D. Information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to subdivision B 7 of § 32.1-276.12 shall become part of the patient's medical record.

E. Unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information received from the Prescription Monitoring Program shall also be grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

2002, c. 481 ; 2011, cc. 812 , 844 ; 2016, c. 309 ; 2020, cc. 1066 , 1067 ; 2023, cc. 628 , 629 ; 2026, c. 930 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2956.01 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 29 / Article 4 / Section 54.1-2956.01
Exceptions to respiratory therapist's licensure
Status: in_force

The licensure requirements for respiratory therapists provided in this chapter shall not prohibit the practice of respiratory care as an integral part of a program of study by students enrolled in an accredited respiratory care education program approved by the Board. Any student enrolled in accredited respiratory care education programs shall be identified as "Student RT" and shall only deliver respiratory care under the direct supervision of an appropriate clinical instructor recognized by the education program.

1998, c. 557 ; 2015, c. 302 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2520 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 25.2 / Section 54.1-2520
Program establishment; Director's regulatory authority
Status: in_force

A. The Director shall establish, maintain, and administer an electronic system to monitor the dispensing of covered substances to be known as the Prescription Monitoring Program.

B. The Director, after consultation with relevant health regulatory boards, shall promulgate, in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), such regulations as are necessary to implement the prescription monitoring program as provided in this chapter, including, but not limited to, the establishment of criteria for granting waivers of the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521 .

C. The Director may enter into contracts as may be necessary for the implementation and maintenance of the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director shall provide dispensers with a basic file layout to enable electronic transmission of the information required in this chapter. For those dispensers unable to transmit the required information electronically, the Director shall provide an alternative means of data transmission.

E. The Director shall also establish an advisory committee within the Department to assist in the implementation and evaluation of the Prescription Monitoring Program. Such advisory committee shall provide guidance to the Director regarding information disclosed pursuant to subdivision C 9 of § 54.1-2523 .

2002, c. 481 ; 2005, cc. 637 , 678 ; 2014, c. 664 ; 2016, cc. 410 , 568 ; 2018, cc. 185 , 379 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-904 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 9 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-904
Limitation of powers of Board
Status: in_force

Nothing in this chapter shall authorize the Board to decide upon the liability of a pilot or his apprentice to any person injured by his negligence or misconduct, or to prevent such person from recovering for any damage occasioned thereby.

Code 1950, § 54-535; 1988, c. 765.
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-4303 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle V / Chapter 43 / Section 54.1-4303
Local ordinances
Status: in_force

Nothing in this chapter shall prevent any county, city or town in the Commonwealth from enacting an ordinance regulating itinerant merchants.

1999, c. 701 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2009 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 20.1 / Section 54.1-2009
Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Appraisal" means an analysis, opinion, or conclusion relating to the nature, quality, value, or utility of specified interests in, or aspects of, identified real estate or identified real property. An appraisal may be classified by subject matter into either a valuation or analysis. A "valuation" is an estimate of the value of real estate or real property. An "analysis" is a study of real estate or real property other than estimating value. The term "appraiser" or "appraisal" may be used only by a person licensed or certified by the Board.

"Appraisal report" means any communications, written or oral, of an appraisal.

"Board" means the Real Estate Appraiser Board.

"Certified general real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure that relate to the appraisal of all types of real estate and real property and is licensed as a certified general real estate appraiser. This designation is identified in Title 11, § 1116 (a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (a)) as a "state certified real estate appraiser."

"Certified residential real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure for the appraisal of (i) all types of real estate and real property that a licensed residential real estate appraiser is permitted to appraise and (ii) such other real estate and real property as the Board, by regulation, may permit.

To the extent permitted by federal law and regulation, a certified residential real estate appraiser shall be considered a state certified real estate appraiser within the meaning of Title 11, § 1116 (a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (a)).

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Evaluation" means an opinion of the market value of real property or real estate that may be utilized in connection with a real estate-related financial transaction where an appraisal by a state-certified or state-licensed appraiser is not required by the state or federal financial institution's regulatory agency engaging in, contracting for, or regulating such real estate-related financial transaction or regulating the financial institution or lender engaged in or about to engage in such real estate-related financial transaction. An evaluation is limited in its scope and development to the requirements for evaluations as set forth in the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines promulgated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency et al. (75 F.R. 77450).

"Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies" means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the National Credit Union Administration, the Resolution Trust Corporation, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.

"Federally related transaction" means any real estate-related financial transaction which:

1. A federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for or regulates; and

2. Requires the services of an appraiser.

"General real estate appraisal" means an appraisal conducted by an individual licensed as a certified general real estate appraiser.

"Licensed residential real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure for the appraisal of any residential real estate or real property of one to four family residential units as the Board, by regulation, may permit, and such other real estate and real property as the Board, by regulation, may permit.

This designation is identified in Title 11, § 1116 (c) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (c)) as a "state-licensed appraiser."

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including improvements thereon, if any.

"Real estate-related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

1. The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof;

2. The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or

3. The use of real property or interests in real property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.

"Real property" means one or more defined interests, benefits or rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Regulation" means any regulations promulgated by the Real Estate Appraiser Board pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

"Residential real estate appraisal" means an appraisal conducted by a licensed residential real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser.

1990, c. 459; 1995, c. 327 ; 2018, c. 644 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3908 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle IV / Chapter 39 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-3908
Liability for words used in proceedings concerning conduct
Status: in_force

No person shall be held liable in any civil action for words written or spoken in any complaint regarding, proceeding concerning, or investigation of, the professional conduct of any member of the Virginia State Bar, unless it is shown that such statements were false and were made willfully and maliciously.

Code 1950, § 54-47; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 1996, c. 399 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3911 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle IV / Chapter 39 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-3911
Transmission of certain information to the House and Senate Committees for Courts of Justice
Status: in_force

The Virginia State Bar is authorized to transmit to the House and Senate Committees for Courts of Justice, upon request of the Chairman of either Committee, any evidence that it has in its possession with reference to any pending disciplinary proceeding involving a licensed attorney whose name has been placed before the Committee for consideration for election as a judge of a court of this Commonwealth and the record of any previous disciplinary action taken against the attorney.

1985, c. 264, § 54-49.1; 1988, c. 765.
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2522.2 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 25.2 / Section 54.1-2522.2
Requirements for dispensers
Status: in_force

The Department shall register every dispenser licensed by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 3 (§ 54.1-3310 et seq.) of Chapter 33 with the Prescription Monitoring Program.

2015, c. 517 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2300 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 23 / Section 54.1-2300
Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals.

"Onsite sewage system" means a conventional onsite sewage system or alternative onsite sewage system as defined in § 32.1-163 .

"Operator" means any individual employed or appointed by any owner, and who is designated by such owner to be the person in responsible charge, such as a supervisor, a shift operator, or a substitute in charge, and whose duties include testing or evaluation to control waterworks or wastewater works operations or to operate and maintain onsite sewage systems. Not included in this definition are superintendents or directors of public works, city engineers, or other municipal or industrial officials whose duties do not include the actual operation or direct supervision of waterworks or wastewater works.

"Owner" means the Commonwealth of Virginia, or any political subdivision thereof, any public or private institution, corporation, association, firm or company organized or existing under the laws of this Commonwealth or of any other state or nation, or any person or group of persons acting individually or as a group, who own, manage, or maintain waterworks or wastewater works.

"Person" means any individual, group of individuals, a corporation, a partnership, a business trust, an association or other similar legal entity engaged in operating waterworks or wastewater works.

"Wastewater works" means each system of (i) sewerage systems or sewage treatment works, serving more than 400 persons, as set forth in § 62.1-44.18 ; (ii) sewerage systems or sewage treatment works serving fewer than 400 persons, as set forth in § 62.1-44.18 , if so certified by the State Water Control Board; and (iii) facilities for discharge to state waters of industrial wastes or other wastes, if certified by the State Water Control Board.

"Waterworks" means each system of structures and appliances used in connection with the collection, storage, purification, and treatment of water for drinking or domestic use and the distribution thereof to the public, except distribution piping. Systems serving fewer than 400 persons shall not be considered to be a waterworks unless certified by the Board to be such.

1970, c. 768, § 54-573.2; 1972, c. 682; 1988, c. 765; 2007, cc. 892 , 924 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-309 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 3 / Section 54.1-309
Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation; members, terms, chairman; meetings
Status: in_force

There shall be a Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The Board shall consist of nine members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly. Members shall serve for four-year terms and no member shall serve for more than two full successive terms. The chairman of the Board shall be elected annually by the Board.

The Board shall meet at least once each year and on the call of the chairman when he deems additional meetings necessary.

1979, c. 408, §§ 54-1.23, 54-1.24; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2012, c. 522 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3435.3 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34 / Article 3 / Section 54.1-3435.3
Inspection and audit
Status: in_force

Medical equipment suppliers shall allow the Board or its authorized agents to enter and inspect, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, their premises and delivery vehicles, and to audit their records and written operating procedures.

1992, c. 737; 2007, c. 662 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3701 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 37 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-3701
Exemption from requirements of licensure
Status: in_force

The requirements for licensure provided for in this chapter shall not be applicable to:

1. Persons who render services that are like or similar to those falling within the scope of the classifications or categories in this chapter, so long as the recipients or beneficiaries of such services are not subject to any charge or fee, or any financial requirement, actual or implied, and the person rendering such service is not held out, by himself or otherwise, as a licensed practitioner.

2. The activities or services of a student pursuing a course of study in social work in an institution recognized by the Board for purposes of licensure upon completion of the course of study or under the supervision of a practitioner licensed under this chapter; if such activities or services constitute a part of his course of study and are adequately supervised.

3. The activities of rabbis, priests, ministers or clergymen of any religious denomination or sect when such activities are within the scope of the performance of their regular or specialized ministerial duties, and no separate charge is made or when such activities are performed, whether with or without charge, for or under auspices or sponsorship, individually or in conjunction with others, of an established and legally cognizable church, denomination or sect, and the person rendering service remains accountable to its established authority.

4. Persons employed as salaried employees or volunteers of the federal government, the Commonwealth, a locality, or of any agency established or funded, in whole or part, by any such governmental entity or of a private, nonprofit organization or agency sponsored or funded, in whole or part, by a community-based citizen group or organization. Any person who renders psychological services, as defined in Chapter 36 (§ 54.1-3600 et seq.) of this title, shall be subject to the requirements of that chapter. Any person who, in addition to the above-enumerated employment, engages in an independent private practice shall not be exempt from the requirements for licensure.

5. Persons regularly employed by private business firms as personnel managers, deputies or assistants so long as their counseling activities relate only to employees of their employer and in respect to their employment.

6. Any person who is licensed to practice as a clinical social worker in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory or possession and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state, the District of Columbia, or that United States territory or possession who provides behavioral health services, as defined in § 37.2-100 , to a patient located in the Commonwealth when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the clinical social worker has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship with the patient. A person who is licensed to practice as clinical social worker who provides behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth through use of telemedicine services pursuant to this subdivision may provide such services for a period of no more than one year from the date on which the clinical social worker began providing such services to such patient.

1976, c. 608, § 54-944; 1986, c. 581; 1988, c. 765; 2022, c. 275 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3017.1 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 30 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-3017.1
Registered nurse provisional license
Status: in_force

The Board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who has met the educational and examination requirements for licensure, in order to allow the applicant to obtain clinical experience, as specified by the Board in regulation. A person practicing under a provisional license shall only practice under the supervision of a licensed registered nurse, in accordance with regulations established by the Board.

2011, c. 712 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-402.1 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 4 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-402.1
State and local government employees
Status: in_force

A. The chief administrative officer of any agency of the Commonwealth or political subdivision thereof employing persons engaged in the practice of engineering, architecture, or land surveying as regular, full-time, salaried employees shall have the authority and responsibility to determine the engineering, architecture, and land surveying positions which have responsible charge of engineering, architectural, or land surveying decisions.

B. Notwithstanding these provisions, any state agency or political subdivision of the Commonwealth unable to employ a qualified licensed engineer, architect, or land surveyor to fill a responsible charge position, after a reasonable and unsuccessful search, may fill the position with an unlicensed person upon the determination by the chief administrative officer of the agency or political subdivision that the person, by virtue of education, experience, and expertise, can perform the work required of the position.

1992, cc. 780, 783; 1994, c. 379 ; 2026, c. 460 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2983.2 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 29 / Article 8 / Section 54.1-2983.2
Capacity; required determinations
Status: in_force

A. Every adult shall be presumed to be capable of making an informed decision unless he is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision in accordance with this article. A determination that a patient is incapable of making an informed decision may apply to a particular health care decision, to a specified set of health care decisions, or to all health care decisions. No person shall be deemed incapable of making an informed decision based solely on a particular clinical diagnosis.

B. Except as provided in subsection C, prior to providing, continuing, withholding, or withdrawing health care pursuant to an authorization that has been obtained or will be sought pursuant to this article and prior to, or as soon as reasonably practicable after initiating health care for which authorization has been obtained or will be sought pursuant to this article, and no less frequently than every 180 days while the need for health care continues, the attending physician shall certify in writing upon personal examination of the patient that the patient is incapable of making an informed decision regarding health care and shall obtain written certification from a capacity reviewer that, based upon a personal examination of the patient, the patient is incapable of making an informed decision. However, certification by a capacity reviewer shall not be required if the patient is unconscious or experiencing a profound impairment of consciousness due to trauma, stroke, or other acute physiological condition. The capacity reviewer providing written certification that a patient is incapable of making an informed decision, if required, shall not be otherwise currently involved in the treatment of the person assessed, unless an independent capacity reviewer is not reasonably available. The cost of the assessment shall be considered for all purposes a cost of the patient's health care.

C. If a person has executed an advance directive granting an agent the authority to consent to the person's admission to a facility as defined in § 37.2-100 for mental health treatment and if the advance directive so authorizes, the person's agent may exercise such authority after a determination that the person is incapable of making an informed decision regarding such admission has been made by (i) the attending physician, (ii) a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) a licensed physician assistant, (v) a licensed clinical social worker, or (vi) a designee of the local community services board as defined in § 37.2-809 . Such determination shall be made in writing following an in-person examination of the person and certified by the physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed clinical social worker, or designee of the local community services board who performed the examination prior to admission or as soon as reasonably practicable thereafter. Admission of a person to a facility as defined in § 37.2-100 for mental health treatment upon the authorization of the person's agent shall be subject to the requirements of § 37.2-805.1 . When a person has been admitted to a facility for mental health treatment upon the authorization of an agent following such a determination, such agent may authorize specific health care for the person, consistent with the provisions of the person's advance directive, only upon a determination that the person is incapable of making an informed decision regarding such health care in accordance with subsection B.

D. If, at any time, a patient is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision, the patient shall be notified, as soon as practical and to the extent he is capable of receiving such notice, that such determination has been made before providing, continuing, withholding, or withdrawing health care as authorized by this article. Such notice shall also be provided, as soon as practical, to the patient's agent or person authorized by § 54.1-2986 to make health care decisions on his behalf.

E. A single physician may, at any time, upon personal evaluation, determine that a patient who has previously been determined to be incapable of making an informed decision is now capable of making an informed decision, provided such determination is set forth in writing.

2009, cc. 211 , 268 ; 2010, c. 792 ; 2017, cc. 456 , 474 ; 2020, cc. 40 , 231 ; 2023, c. 183 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3490 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34.1 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-3490
Adverse actions
Status: in_force

A. A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against a license issued by the home state.

B. A home state may take adverse action based on the investigative information of a remote state, so long as the home state follows its own procedures for imposing adverse action.

C. Nothing in this Compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the member state's laws. Member states must require licensees who enter any alternative programs in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice in any other member state during the term of the alternative program without prior authorization from such other member state.

D. Any member state may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and rules authorizing the practice of physical therapy in any other member state in which a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant holds a license or compact privilege.

E. A remote state shall have the authority to:

1. Take adverse actions as set forth in subsection D of § 54.1-3488 against a licensee's compact privilege in the state;

2. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a physical therapy licensing board in a party state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and/or the production of evidence from another party state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses and/or evidence are located; and

3. If otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee.

F. Joint investigations.

1. In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective physical therapy practice act or other applicable state law, a member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.

2. Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact.

2019, c. 300 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2807.02 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 28 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-2807.02
Absence of next of kin
Status: in_force

In the absence of a next of kin, a person designated to make arrangements for the decedent's burial or the disposition of his remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825 , an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984 , or any guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019 , or upon the failure or refusal of such next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian to accept responsibility for the disposition of the decedent, then any other person 18 years of age or older who is able to provide positive identification of the deceased and is willing to pay for the costs associated with the disposition of the decedent's remains shall be authorized to make arrangements for such disposition of the decedent's remains. If a funeral service establishment or funeral service licensee makes arrangements with a person other than a next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian in accordance with this section, then the funeral service licensee or funeral service establishment shall be immune from civil liability unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent.

2014, c. 355 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-100.1 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle I / Chapter 1 / Section 54.1-100.1
Department of Commerce continued as Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation
Status: in_force

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, formerly known as the Department of Commerce, is continued, and wherever "Department of Commerce" is used in this Code, it shall mean the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation, formerly known as the Board of Commerce, is continued, and wherever "Board of Commerce" is used in this Code, it shall mean the Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation.

1993, c. 499.
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-4012 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle V / Chapter 40 / Section 54.1-4012
Property pawned or purchased not to be disfigured or changed
Status: in_force

No property received on deposit or pledged or purchased by any pawnbroker shall be disfigured or its identity destroyed or affected in any manner (i) so long as it continues in pawn or in the possession of the pawnbroker while in pawn or (ii) in an effort to obtain a serial number or other information for identification purposes.

Code 1950, § 54-855; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 848 ; 1999, c. 327 ; 2003, c. 448 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2708.5 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 27 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-2708.5
Digital scans for use in the practice of dentistry; practice of digital scan technicians
Status: in_force

A. No person other than a dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant I, dental assistant II, digital scan technician, or other person under the direction of a dentist shall obtain dental scans for use in the practice of dentistry.

B. A digital scan technician who obtains dental scans for use in the practice of teledentistry shall work under the direction of a dentist who is (i) licensed by the Board to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth, (ii) accessible and available for communication and consultation with the digital scan technician at all times during the patient interaction, and (iii) responsible for ensuring that the digital scan technician has a program of training approved by the Board for such purpose. All protocols and procedures for the performance of digital scans by digital scan technicians and evidence that a digital scan technician has complied with the training requirements of the Board shall be made available to the Board upon request.

2020, cc. 37 , 220 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2138 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 21 / Article 3 / Section 54.1-2138
Disclosure of brokerage relationship in residential real estate transactions
Status: in_force

A. Upon having a substantive discussion about a specific property or properties in a residential real estate transaction with an actual or prospective buyer or seller who is not the client of the licensee and who is not represented by another licensee, a licensee shall disclose any broker relationship the licensee has with another party to the transaction. Further, except as provided in § 54.1-2139 or 54.1-2139.1 , such disclosure shall be made in writing at the earliest practical time, but in no event later than the time when specific real estate assistance is first provided. Such disclosure may be given in combination with other disclosures or provided with other information, but if so, the disclosure must be conspicuous, printed in bold lettering, all capitals, underlined, or within a separate box. Any disclosure which complies substantially in effect with the following shall be deemed in compliance with this disclosure requirement:

DISCLOSURE OF BROKERAGE RELATIONSHIP IN A RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE TRANSACTION

The undersigned do hereby acknowledge disclosure that:

The licensee.....................… (name of broker or salesperson) associated with.........................…(Name of Brokerage Firm) represents the following party in a residential real estate transaction:

....… Seller(s) or ....… Buyer(s)

....… Landlord(s) or ....… Tenant(s)

................… ..........................…

Date Name

................… ..........................…

Date Name

B. A licensee shall disclose to an actual or prospective landlord or tenant, who is not the client of the licensee and who is not represented by another licensee, that the licensee has a brokerage relationship with another party or parties to the transaction. Such disclosure shall be in writing and included in all applications for lease or in the lease itself, whichever occurs first. If the terms of the lease do not provide for such disclosure, disclosure shall be made in writing no later than the signing of the lease. Such disclosure requirement shall not apply to lessors or lessees in single or multifamily residential units for lease terms of less than two months.

C. If a licensee's relationship to a client or customer changes, the licensee shall disclose that fact in writing to all clients and customers already involved in the specific contemplated transaction.

D. Copies of any disclosures relative to fully executed purchase contracts shall be kept by the licensee for a period of three years as proof of having made such disclosure, whether or not such disclosure is acknowledged in writing by the party to whom such disclosure was shown or given.

E. A limited service agent shall also make the disclosure required by § 54.1-2138.1 .

1995, cc. 741 , 813 ; 1997, cc. 86 , 119 ; 2006, c. 627 ; 2012, c. 750 ; 2016, c. 334 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3931 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle IV / Chapter 39 / Article 4 / Section 54.1-3931
Granting certificates without examination; law professors
Status: in_force

A. The Supreme Court shall have discretion to grant a certificate without examination to any attorney who has been admitted to practice law before the court of last resort of any state or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia for at least five years. The certificate shall entitle the holder, after paying his license tax, to practice in the courts of this Commonwealth.

B. The Supreme Court shall also have discretion to grant a certificate without examination to any person connected with any foreign embassy or legation to appear in the courts of this Commonwealth in all matters connected with his official duties, provided that the person has been admitted to practice in the court of last resort of the jurisdiction of the embassy or legation to which he is attached or he has received a degree from a law school approved by the American Bar Association.

C. The Supreme Court shall have the authority to promulgate rules and regulations allowing professors in law schools located in the Commonwealth, which are accredited by the American Bar Association, to become associate members of the Virginia State Bar. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the granting of a certificate without examination to a professor who is otherwise eligible for such a certificate under any other provision of this section.

D. The Supreme Court may authorize the Board or any committee thereof to administer the provisions of this section.

E. All other persons shall take the examinations and comply with the applicable provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-67; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 796 ; 2013, c. 396 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3448 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34 / Article 5 / Section 54.1-3448
Schedule II
Status: in_force

The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule II:

1. Any of the following substances, except those narcotic drugs listed in other schedules, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, naldemedine, nalmefene, naloxone, naltrexone and their respective salts, but including the following:

Raw opium;

Opium extracts;

Opium fluid extracts;

Powdered opium;

Granulated opium;

Tincture of opium;

Codeine;

Dihydroetorphine;

Ethylmorphine;

Etorphine hydrochloride;

Hydrocodone;

Hydromorphone;

Metopon;

Oripavine (3-O-demethylthebaine or 6,7,8,14-tetradehydro-4, 5-alpha-epoxy-6-methoxy-17-methylmorphinan-3-ol);

Morphine;

Noroxymorphone;

Oxycodone;

Oxymorphone;

Thebaine.

Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in this subdivision, but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.

Opium poppy and poppy straw.

Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine; cocaine or any salt or isomer thereof.

Concentrate of poppy straw, the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form, which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy.

2. Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

Alfentanil;

Alphaprodine;

Anileridine;

Bezitramide;

Bulk dextropropoxyphene (nondosage forms);

Carfentanil;

Dihydrocodeine;

Diphenoxylate;

Fentanyl;

Isomethadone;

Levo-alphacetylmethadol (levo-alpha-acetylmethadol)(levomethadyl acetate)(LAAM);

Levomethorphan;

Levorphanol;

Metazocine;

Methadone;

Methadone — Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenyl butane;

Moramide — Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenyl-propane-carboxylicacid;

Oliceridine;

Pethidine (other name: meperidine);

Pethidine — Intermediate — A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;

Pethidine — Intermediate — B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;

Pethidine — Intermediate — C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;

Phenazocine;

Piminodine;

Racemethorphan;

Racemorphan;

Remifentanil;

Sufentanil;

Tapentadol;

Thiafentanil.

3. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;

Phenmetrazine and its salts;

Any substance which contains any quantity of methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

Methylphenidate;

Lisdexamfetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers.

4. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

Amobarbital;

Glutethimide;

Secobarbital;

Pentobarbital;

Phencyclidine.

5. The following hallucinogenic substances:

Nabilone;

Dronabinol ((-)-delta-9-trans tetrahydrocannabinol) in an oral solution in a drug product approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

6. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances which are:

a. Immediate precursors to amphetamine and methamphetamine:

Phenylacetone.

b. Immediate precursor to phencyclidine:

1-phenylcyclohexylamine;

1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (other name: PCC).

c. Immediate precursor to fentanyl:

4-anilino-N-phenethyl-4-piperidine (ANPP).

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.84:6; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 302; 1978, c. 833; 1979, c. 387; 1981, c. 30; 1984, c. 192; 1986, c. 463; 1988, cc. 283, 765; 1992, c. 737; 1994, c. 763 ; 1998, c. 105 ; 2000, c. 135 ; 2005, c. 119 ; 2008, c. 74 ; 2010, c. 423 ; 2011, c. 700 ; 2017, c. 612 ; 2019, c. 85 ; 2022, cc. 114 , 115 ; 2024, cc. 62 , 228 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-2103 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle II / Chapter 21 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-2103
Exemptions from chapter
Status: in_force

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Any person, partnership, association, corporation, entity, or their regular employees, who as owner or lessor perform any of the acts enumerated in § 54.1-2100 with reference to property owned or leased by them, where the acts are performed in the regular course of or incident to the management of the property and the investment therein. For property governed by the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the term "owner" for purposes of this subdivision shall include affiliated entities, provided that (i) the owner has a controlling interest in the affiliated entity or (ii) the affiliated entity and the owner have a common parent company;

2. Any person acting without compensation as attorney-in-fact under a power of attorney issued by a property owner solely for the purpose of authorizing the final performance required of such owner under a contract for the sale, lease, purchase, or exchange of real estate;

3. Service rendered by an attorney-at-law in the performance of his duties as such;

4. A person acting as a receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, or executor, or any person selling real estate under order of any court;

5. A trustee acting under a trust agreement, deed of trust, or will, or the regular salaried employees thereof;

6. Any corporation managing rental housing when the officers, directors, and members in the ownership corporation and the management corporation are the same and the management corporation manages no other property for other persons, partnerships, associations, or corporations;

7. Any existing tenant of a residential dwelling unit who refers a prospective tenant to the owner of the unit or to the owner's duly authorized agent or employee and for the referral receives, or is offered, a referral fee from the owner, agent, or employee;

8. Any auctioneer licensed in accordance with Chapter 6 (§ 54.1-600 et seq.) selling real estate at public auction when employed for such purpose by the owner of the real estate and provided the bidding at such auction is held open for no longer than 48 hours. An auctioneer shall not advertise that he is authorized to sell real estate. An auctioneer may advertise for sale at public auction any real estate when employed to do so as herein provided, and may advertise that he is authorized to auction real estate at public auction;

9. [Expired.]

10. Any person who is licensed and is in good standing as a real estate broker or salesperson in another state, and who assists a prospective purchaser, tenant, optionee, or licensee located in another state to purchase, lease, option, or license an interest in commercial real estate, as defined in § 55.1-1100 , in the Commonwealth. Such real estate licensee from another state may be compensated by a real estate broker in the Commonwealth. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit any person not licensed and in good standing as a real estate broker or salesperson in the Commonwealth to otherwise act as a real estate broker or salesperson under this chapter.

B. The provisions of this chapter shall not prohibit the selling of real estate (i) by an attorney-at-law in the performance of his duties as such, (ii) by a receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or special commissioner, or any person selling real estate under order of court, or (iii) by a trustee acting under the trust agreement, deed of trust, or will, or the regular salaried employees thereof.

C. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any person employed by a licensed real estate broker for and on behalf of the owner of any real estate or the improvements thereon that the licensed broker has contracted to manage for the owner if the actions of such employee are limited to (i) exhibiting residential units on such real estate to prospective tenants, if the employee is employed on the premises of such real estate; (ii) providing prospective tenants with factual information about the rental of residential real estate; (iii) accepting applications for the rental of such real estate; (iv) accepting and signing broker-approved rental agreements, state or federal required disclosures, and any documents required for compliance with Chapter 5.1 (§ 36-96.1 et seq.) of Title 36 related to such rental transaction; and (v) accepting security deposits, periodic rent, and other payments as contracted for in the rental agreement for such real estate. Such deposits and rent shall be made payable to the owner or the broker employed by such owner. The employee shall not negotiate the amounts of such security deposits, periodic rent, or other payments contracted for in the rental agreement and shall not negotiate any rental agreements on behalf of such owner or broker.

D. A licensee of the Board shall comply with the Board's regulations, notwithstanding the fact that the licensee would be otherwise exempt from licensure under subsection A. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a person to be licensed in accordance with this chapter if he would be otherwise exempt from such licensure.

E. An attorney-at-law referring a client to a licensee shall not be entitled to receive any compensation from a listing firm or offered by a common source information company to cooperating brokers, unless the attorney is also licensed under this chapter as a real estate broker or salesperson.

Code 1950, § 54-734; 1972, c. 324; 1973, cc. 487, 527; 1975, c. 238; 1980, c. 127; 1982, cc. 633, 682; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 84; 1993, cc. 816, 899; 1995, c. 227 ; 1998, cc. 261 , 262 ; 2001, Sp. Sess. I, c. 9 ; 2009, cc. 88 , 262 ; 2015, cc. 24 , 272 ; 2024, cc. 459 , 621 ; 2025, cc. 463 , 466 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3410.2 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 34 / Article 1 / Section 54.1-3410.2
Compounding; pharmacists' authority to compound under certain conditions; labeling and record maintenance requirements
Status: in_force

A. A pharmacist may engage in compounding of drug products when the dispensing of such compounded products is (i) pursuant to valid prescriptions for specific patients and (ii) consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-3303 relating to the issuance of prescriptions and the dispensing of drugs.

Pharmacists shall label all compounded drug products that are dispensed pursuant to a prescription in accordance with this chapter and the Board's regulations, and shall include on the labeling an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding.

B. A pharmacist may also engage in compounding of drug products in anticipation of receipt of prescriptions based on a routine, regularly observed prescribing pattern.

Pharmacists shall label all products compounded prior to dispensing with (i) the name and strength of the compounded medication or a list of the active ingredients and strengths; (ii) the pharmacy's assigned control number that corresponds with the compounding record; (iii) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; and (iv) the quantity.

C. In accordance with the conditions set forth in subsections A and B, pharmacists shall not distribute compounded drug products for subsequent distribution or sale to other persons or to commercial entities, including distribution to pharmacies or other entities under common ownership or control with the facility in which such compounding takes place, except for distribution within health systems under common ownership when the compounded drug products are administered only to patients within the hospital or health system; however, a pharmacist may distribute to a veterinarian in accordance with federal law.

Compounded products for companion animals, as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and distributed by a pharmacy to a veterinarian for further distribution or sale to his own patients shall be limited to drugs necessary to treat an emergent condition when timely access to a compounding pharmacy is not available as determined by the prescribing veterinarian.

A pharmacist may, however, deliver compounded products dispensed pursuant to valid prescriptions to alternate delivery locations pursuant to § 54.1-3420.2 .

A pharmacist may provide a reasonable amount of compounded products to practitioners of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry to administer to their patients, either personally or under their direct and immediate supervision, if there is a critical need to treat an emergency condition, or as allowed by federal law or regulations. A pharmacist may also provide compounded products to practitioners of veterinary medicine for office-based administration to their patients.

Pharmacists who provide compounded products for office-based administration for treatment of an emergency condition or as allowed by federal law or regulations shall label all compounded products distributed to practitioners other than veterinarians for administration to their patients with (i) the statement "For Administering in Prescriber Practice Location Only"; (ii) the name and strength of the compounded medication or list of the active ingredients and strengths; (iii) the facility's control number; (iv) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; (v) the name and address of the pharmacy; and (vi) the quantity.

Pharmacists shall label all compounded products for companion animals, as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and distributed to a veterinarian for either further distribution or sale to his own patient or administration to his own patient with (a) the name and strength of the compounded medication or list of the active ingredients and strengths; (b) the facility's control number; (c) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; (d) the name and address of the pharmacy; and (e) the quantity.

D. Pharmacists shall personally perform or personally supervise the compounding process, which shall include a final check for accuracy and conformity to the formula of the product being prepared, correct ingredients and calculations, accurate and precise measurements, appropriate conditions and procedures, and appearance of the final product.

E. Pharmacists shall ensure compliance with USP-NF standards for both sterile and non-sterile compounding.

F. Pharmacists may use bulk drug substances in compounding when such bulk drug substances:

1. Comply with the standards of an applicable United States Pharmacopoeia or National Formulary monograph, if such monograph exists, and the United States Pharmacopoeia chapter on pharmacy compounding; or are drug substances that are components of drugs approved by the FDA for use in the United States; or are otherwise approved by the FDA; or are manufactured by an establishment that is registered by the FDA; and

2. Are distributed by a licensed wholesale distributor or registered nonresident wholesale distributor, or are distributed by a supplier otherwise approved by the Board and the FDA to distribute bulk drug substances if the pharmacist can establish purity and safety by reasonable means, such as lot analysis, manufacturer reputation, or reliability of the source.

G. Pharmacists may compound using ingredients that are not considered drug products in accordance with the USP-NF standards and guidance on pharmacy compounding.

H. Pharmacists shall not engage in the following:

1. The compounding for human use of a drug product that has been withdrawn or removed from the market by the FDA because such drug product or a component of such drug product has been found to be unsafe. However, this prohibition shall be limited to the scope of the FDA withdrawal;

2. The regular compounding or the compounding of inordinate amounts of any drug products that are essentially copies of commercially available drug products. However, this prohibition shall not include (i) the compounding of any commercially available product when there is a change in the product ordered by the prescriber for an individual patient, (ii) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug only during times when the product is not available from the manufacturer or supplier, (iii) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug whose manufacturer has notified the FDA that the drug is unavailable due to a current drug shortage, (iv) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug when the prescriber has indicated in the oral or written prescription for an individual patient that there is an emergent need for a drug that is not readily available within the time medically necessary, or (v) the mixing of two or more commercially available products regardless of whether the end product is a commercially available product; or

3. The compounding of inordinate amounts of any preparation in cases in which there is no observed historical pattern of prescriptions and dispensing to support an expectation of receiving a valid prescription for the preparation. The compounding of an inordinate amount of a preparation in such cases shall constitute manufacturing of drugs.

I. Pharmacists shall maintain records of all compounded drug products as part of the prescription, formula record, formula book, or other log or record. Records may be maintained electronically, manually, in a combination of both, or by any other readily retrievable method.

1. In addition to other requirements for prescription records, records for products compounded pursuant to a prescription order for a single patient where only manufacturers' finished products are used as components shall include the name and quantity of all components, the date of compounding and dispensing, the prescription number or other identifier of the prescription order, the total quantity of finished product, the signature or initials of the pharmacist or pharmacy technician performing the compounding, and the signature or initials of the pharmacist responsible for supervising the pharmacy technician and verifying the accuracy and integrity of compounded products.

2. In addition to the requirements of subdivision I 1, records for products compounded in bulk or batch in advance of dispensing or when bulk drug substances are used shall include: the generic name and the name of the manufacturer of each component or the brand name of each component; the manufacturer's lot number and expiration date for each component or when the original manufacturer's lot number and expiration date are unknown, the source of acquisition of the component; the assigned lot number if subdivided, the unit or package size and the number of units or packages prepared; and the beyond-use date. The criteria for establishing the beyond-use date shall be available for inspection by the Board.

3. A complete compounding formula listing all procedures, necessary equipment, necessary environmental considerations, and other factors in detail shall be maintained where such instructions are necessary to replicate a compounded product or where the compounding is difficult or complex and must be done by a certain process in order to ensure the integrity of the finished product.

4. A formal written quality assurance plan shall be maintained that describes specific monitoring and evaluation of compounding activities in accordance with USP-NF standards. Records shall be maintained showing compliance with monitoring and evaluation requirements of the plan to include training and initial and periodic competence assessment of personnel involved in compounding, monitoring of environmental controls and equipment calibration, and any end-product testing, if applicable.

J. Practitioners who may lawfully compound drugs for administering or dispensing to their own patients pursuant to §§ 54.1-3301 , 54.1-3304 , and 54.1-3304.1 shall comply with all provisions of this section and the relevant Board regulations.

K. Every pharmacist-in-charge or owner of a permitted pharmacy or a registered nonresident pharmacy engaging in sterile compounding shall notify the Board of its intention to dispense or otherwise deliver a sterile compounded drug product into the Commonwealth. Upon renewal of its permit or registration, a pharmacy or nonresident pharmacy shall notify the Board of its intention to continue dispensing or otherwise delivering sterile compounded drug products into the Commonwealth. Failure to provide notification to the Board shall constitute a violation of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) or Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). The Board shall maintain this information in a manner that will allow the production of a list identifying all such sterile compounding pharmacies.

2003, c. 509 ; 2005, c. 200 ; 2012, c. 173 ; 2013, c. 765 ; 2014, c. 147 ; 2015, c. 300 ; 2016, c. 221 ; 2025, cc. 48 , 71 .
Va. Code Ann. § 54.1-3307.3 — Virginia Code / Title 54.1 / Subtitle III / Chapter 33 / Article 2 / Section 54.1-3307.3
Waiver of requirements; declared disaster or state of emergency
Status: in_force

When the Governor has declared a disaster or a state of emergency pursuant to Chapter 3.2 (§ 44-146.13 et seq.) of Title 44 and it is necessary to permit the provision of needed drugs, devices, and pharmacy services to the citizens of the Commonwealth, the Board may waive the requirements of this chapter, the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), and the Board's regulations governing the practice of pharmacy ( 18VAC110-20-10 et seq.). However, the Board shall not authorize the administering or dispensing of controlled substances by persons whose scope of practice does not include such authority.

2003, c. 794 .