Utah Code § 58-37-108 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-37 / § 58-37-108
§ 58-37-108. Schedules of controlled substances -- Schedules I through V -- Findings required -- Specific substances included in schedules.
Status: in_force

(1) There are established five schedules of controlled substances known as Schedules I, II, III, IV, and V, which consist of substances listed in this section. (2) Schedules I, II, III, IV, and V consist of the following drugs or other substances by the official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated: (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3), Schedule I: (i) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, when the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide); (B) Acetyl fentanyl: (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide); (C) Acetylmethadol; (D) Acryl fentanyl (N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide); (E) Allylprodine; (F) Alphacetylmethadol, except levo-alphacetylmethadol also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM; (G) Alphameprodine; (H) Alphamethadol; (I) Alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine); (J) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4- piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide); (K) Benzylpiperazine; (L) Benzethidine; (M) Betacetylmethadol; (N) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4- piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide); (O) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl, other name: N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2- phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide; (P) Betameprodine; (Q) Betamethadol; (R) Betaprodine; (S) Butyryl fentanyl (N-(1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl)-N-phenylbutyramide); (T) Clonitazene; (U) Cyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide); (V) Dextromoramide; (W) Diampromide; (X) Diethylthiambutene; (Y) Difenoxin; (Z) Dimenoxadol; (AA) Dimepheptanol; (BB) Dimethylthiambutene; (CC) Dioxaphetyl butyrate; (DD) Dipipanone; (EE) Ethylmethylthiambutene; (FF) Etizolam (1-Methyl-6-o-chlorophenyl-8-ethyl-4H-s-triazolo[3,4-c]thieno[2,3-e]1,4-diazepine); (GG) Etonitazene; (HH) Etoxeridine; (II) Furanyl fentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl] furan-2-carboxamide); (JJ) Furethidine; (KK) Hydroxypethidine; (LL) Ketobemidone; (MM) Levomoramide; (NN) Levophenacylmorphan; (OO) Methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-Methoxy-N-(1-phenylethylpiperidinyl-4-yl)-N-acetamide); (PP) Morpheridine; (QQ) MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine); (RR) Noracymethadol; (SS) Norlevorphanol; (TT) Normethadone; (UU) Norpipanone; (VV) Para-fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-4- piperidinyl] propanamide); (WW) Para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-Fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide); (XX) PEPAP (1-(-2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine); (YY) Phenadoxone; (ZZ) Phenampromide; (AAA) Phenibut; (BBB) Phenomorphan; (CCC) Phenoperidine; (DDD) Piritramide; (EEE) Proheptazine; (FFF) Properidine; (GGG) Propiram; (HHH) Racemoramide; (III) Tetrahydrofuran fentanyl (N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide); (JJJ) Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]- propanamide; (KKK) Tianeptine; (LLL) Tilidine; (MMM) Trimeperidine; (NNN) 3-methylfentanyl, including the optical and geometric isomers (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]- N-phenylpropanamide); (OOO) 3-methylthiofentanyl (N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide); (PPP) 3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide also known as U-47700; and (QQQ) 4-cyano CUMYL-BUTINACA. (ii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Acetorphine; (B) Acetyldihydrocodeine; (C) Benzylmorphine; (D) Codeine methylbromide; (E) Codeine-N-Oxide; (F) Cyprenorphine; (G) Desomorphine; (H) Dihydromorphine; (I) Drotebanol; (J) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt); (K) Heroin; (L) Hydromorphinol; (M) Methyldesorphine; (N) Methylhydromorphine; (O) Morphine methylbromide; (P) Morphine methylsulfonate; (Q) Morphine-N-Oxide; (R) Myrophine; (S) Nicocodeine; (T) Nicomorphine; (U) Normorphine; (V) Pholcodine; and (W) Thebacon. (iii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or that contains any of their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation; as used in this Subsection (2)(a)(iii) only, "isomer" includes the optical, position, and geometric isomers: (A) Alpha-ethyltryptamine, some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; -ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; -ET; and AET; (B) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine, some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy--methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA; (C) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine, some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, Nexus; (D) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine, some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy--methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA; (E) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine, some trade or other names: DOET; (F) 4-methoxyamphetamine, some trade or other names: 4-methoxy--methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA; (G) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine; (H) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine, some trade and other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy--methylphenethylamine; "DOM"; and "STP"; (I) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine; (J) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA); (K) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine, also known as N-ethyl- alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA; (L) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine, also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA; (M) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine; (N) Bufotenine, some trade and other names: 3-(-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine; (O) Diethyltryptamine, some trade and other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET; (P) Dimethyltryptamine, some trade or other names: DMT; (Q) Ibogaine, some trade and other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1', 2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b] indole; Tabernanthe iboga; (R) Lysergic acid diethylamide; (S) Marijuana; (T) Mescaline; (U) Parahexyl, some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl; (V) Peyote, meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts (Interprets 21 USC 812(c), Schedule I(c) (12)); (W) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (X) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (Y) Psilocybin; (Z) Psilocyn; (AA) Tetrahydrocannabinols, naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), except for marijuana as defined in Subsection 58-37-101(1)(w)(i)(E), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the cannabis plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the plant, such as the following: 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers 6 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers 3,4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers, and since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered; (BB) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine, some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE; (CC) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine, some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP; (DD) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine, some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienylanalog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP; and (EE) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine, some other names: TCPy. (iv) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Mecloqualone; and (B) Methaqualone. (v) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers: (A) Aminorex, some other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine; (B) Cathinone, some trade or other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, and norephedrone; (C) Fenethylline; (D) Methcathinone, some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and UR1432, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers; (E) ()cis-4-methylaminorex (()cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine); (F) N-ethylamphetamine; and (G) N,N-dimethylamphetamine, also known as N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine. (vi) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including their optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers, subject to temporary emergency scheduling: (A) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl); and (B) N-[1- (2-thienyl)methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl). (vii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of gamma hydroxy butyrate (gamma hydrobutyric acid), including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers. (viii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, the following substances commonly found in Mitragyna speciosa, including synthetic versions, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, when the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) 7-hydroxymitragynine (methyl (E)-2[(2S,3S,7aS,12bS)-3-ethyl-7a-hydroxy-8-methoxy-2,3,4,6,7,12b-hexahydro-1H-indolo[2,3-a]quinolizin-2-yl]-3-methoxyprop-2-enoate); and (B) Mitragynine pseudoindoxyl (methyl (E)-2-[(2S,6'S,7'S,8'aS)-6'-ethyl-4-methoxy-3-oxospiro[1H-indole-2,1'-3,5,6,7,8,8a-hexahydro-2H-indolizine]-7'-yl]-3-methoxyprop-2-enoate). (b) Schedule II: (i) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: (A) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including: (I) Raw opium; (II) Opium extracts; (III) Opium fluid; (IV) Powdered opium; (V) Granulated opium; (VI) Tincture of opium; (VII) Codeine; (VIII) Ethylmorphine; (IX) Etorphine hydrochloride; (X) Hydrocodone; (XI) Hydromorphone; (XII) Metopon; (XIII) Morphine; (XIV) Oxycodone; (XV) Oxymorphone; and (XVI) Thebaine; (B) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation that is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in Subsection (2)(b)(i)(A), except that these substances may not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium; (C) Opium poppy and poppy straw; (D) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation that is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, and includes cocaine and ecgonine, their salts, isomers, derivatives, and salts of isomers and derivatives, whether derived from the coca plant or synthetically produced, except the substances may not include decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves, which extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine; and (E) Concentrate of poppy straw, which means the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid, or powder form that contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy. (ii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, when the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, except dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene: (A) Alfentanil; (B) Alphaprodine; (C) Anileridine; (D) Bezitramide; (E) Bulk dextropropoxyphene (nondosage forms); (F) Carfentanil; (G) Dihydrocodeine; (H) Diphenoxylate; (I) Fentanyl; (J) Isomethadone; (K) Levo-alphacetylmethadol, some other names: levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM; (L) Levomethorphan; (M) Levorphanol; (N) Metazocine; (O) Methadone; (P) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenyl butane; (Q) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid; (R) Pethidine (meperidine); (S) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine; (T) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate; (U) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid; (V) Phenazocine; (W) Piminodine; (X) Racemethorphan; (Y) Racemorphan; (Z) Remifentanil; and (AA) Sufentanil. (iii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system: (A) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers; (B) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers; (C) Phenmetrazine and its salts; and (D) Methylphenidate. (iv) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Amobarbital; (B) Glutethimide; (C) Pentobarbital; (D) Phencyclidine; (E) Phencyclidine immediate precursors: 1-phenylcyclohexylamine and 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC); and (F) Secobarbital. (v) (A) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of Phenylacetone. (B) Some of these substances may be known by trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; and methyl benzyl ketone. (vi) Nabilone, another name for nabilone: ()-trans-3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a-hexahydro-1-hydroxy-6, 6-dimethyl-9H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-9-one. (vii) A drug product or preparation that contains any component of marijuana, including tetrahydrocannabinol, and is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and scheduled by the Drug Enforcement Administration in Schedule II of the federal Controlled Substances Act, Title II, P.L. 91-513. (c) Schedule III: (i) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers whether optical, position, or geometric, and salts of the isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II, which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Section 1308.32 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and any other drug of the quantitive composition shown in that list for those drugs or that is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances; (B) Benzphetamine; (C) Chlorphentermine; (D) Clortermine; and (E) Phendimetrazine. (ii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system: (A) any compound, mixture, or preparation containing amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital, or any salt of any of them, and one or more other active medicinal ingredients that are not listed in any schedule; (B) any suppository dosage form containing amobarbital, secobarbital, or pentobarbital, or any salt of any of these drugs that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository; (C) any substance that contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt of any of them; (D) Chlorhexadol; (E) Buprenorphine; (F) any drug product containing gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, for which an application is approved under the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, Section 505; (G) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, some other names for ketamine: -2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone; (H) Lysergic acid; (I) Lysergic acid amide; (J) Methyprylon; (K) Sulfondiethylmethane; (L) Sulfonethylmethane; (M) Sulfonmethane; and (N) Tiletamine and zolazepam or any of their salts, some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product: Telazol, some trade or other names for tiletamine: 2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone, some trade or other names for zolazepam: 4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3,4-e] [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, flupyrazapon. (iii) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved drug product, some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-1-ol, or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol. (iv) Nalorphine. (v) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid: (A) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium; (B) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; (C) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium; (D) Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; (E) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; (F) Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; (G) Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; and (H) Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts. (vi) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, anabolic steroids including any of the following or any isomer, ester, salt, or derivative of the following that promotes muscle growth: (A) Boldenone; (B) Chlorotestosterone (4-chlortestosterone); (C) Clostebol; (D) Dehydrochlormethyltestosterone; (E) Dihydrotestosterone (4-dihydrotestosterone); (F) Drostanolone; (G) Ethylestrenol; (H) Fluoxymesterone; (I) Formebulone (formebolone); (J) Mesterolone; (K) Methandienone; (L) Methandranone; (M) Methandriol; (N) Methandrostenolone; (O) Methenolone; (P) Methyltestosterone; (Q) Mibolerone; (R) Nandrolone; (S) Norethandrolone; (T) Oxandrolone; (U) Oxymesterone; (V) Oxymetholone; (W) Stanolone; (X) Stanozolol; (Y) Testolactone; (Z) Testosterone; and (AA) Trenbolone. (vii) Anabolic steroids expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species, and approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for use, may not be classified as a controlled substance. (viii) A drug product or preparation that contains any component of marijuana, including tetrahydrocannabinol, and is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and scheduled by the Drug Enforcement Administration in Schedule III of the federal Controlled Substances Act, Title II, P.L. 91-513. (ix) Nabiximols. (d) Schedule IV: (i) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit, or any salts of any of them. (ii) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Alprazolam; (B) Barbital; (C) Bromazepam; (D) Butorphanol; (E) Camazepam; (F) Carisoprodol; (G) Chloral betaine; (H) Chloral hydrate; (I) Chlordiazepoxide; (J) Clobazam; (K) Clonazepam; (L) Clorazepate; (M) Clotiazepam; (N) Cloxazolam; (O) Delorazepam; (P) Diazepam; (Q) Dichloralphenazone; (R) Estazolam; (S) Ethchlorvynol; (T) Ethinamate; (U) Ethyl loflazepate; (V) Fludiazepam; (W) Flunitrazepam; (X) Flurazepam; (Y) Halazepam; (Z) Haloxazolam; (AA) Ketazolam; (BB) Loprazolam; (CC) Lorazepam; (DD) Lormetazepam; (EE) Mebutamate; (FF) Medazepam; (GG) Meprobamate; (HH) Methohexital; (II) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital); (JJ) Midazolam; (KK) Nimetazepam; (LL) Nitrazepam; (MM) Nordiazepam; (NN) Oxazepam; (OO) Oxazolam; (PP) Paraldehyde; (QQ) Pentazocine; (RR) Petrichloral; (SS) Phenobarbital; (TT) Pinazepam; (UU) Prazepam; (VV) Quazepam; (WW) Temazepam; (XX) Tetrazepam; (YY) Tramadol; (ZZ) Triazolam; (AAA) Zaleplon; and (BBB) Zolpidem. (iii) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation of fenfluramine that contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers whether optical, position, or geometric, and salts of the isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible. (iv) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers whether optical, position, or geometric isomers, and salts of the isomers when the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine); (B) Diethylpropion; (C) Fencamfamine; (D) Fenproprex; (E) Mazindol; (F) Mefenorex; (G) Modafinil; (H) Pemoline, including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof; (I) Phentermine; (J) Pipradrol; (K) Sibutramine; and (L) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane). (v) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane), including its salts. (vi) A drug product or preparation that contains any component of marijuana and is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and scheduled by the Drug Enforcement Administration in Schedule IV of the federal Controlled Substances Act, Title II, P.L. 91-513. (e) Schedule V: (i) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following limited quantities of narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, which includes one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone: (A) not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams; (B) not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams; (C) not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams; (D) not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit; (E) not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams; (F) not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit; and (G) unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains Pyrovalerone having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers. (ii) A drug product or preparation that contains any component of marijuana, including cannabidiol, and is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and scheduled by the Drug Enforcement Administration in Schedule V of the federal Controlled Substances Act, Title II, P.L. 91-513. (iii) Gabapentin. (3) (a) As used in this subsection, "pharmaceutical composition" means a drug that has United States Food and Drug Administration approval under 21 U.S.C. Sec. 355 following clinical trials. (b) If the federal government schedules a pharmaceutical composition of a Schedule I controlled substance or a pharmaceutical composition of any form of a Schedule I controlled substance in a schedule that is not Schedule I, that pharmaceutical composition is deemed scheduled under this section in the same schedule that the pharmaceutical composition is scheduled under 21 U.S.C. Sec. 812 and 21 C.F.R. Part 1308.
Utah Code § 58-55-111 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-55 / § 58-55-111
§ 58-55-111. Confidentiality of records and reports.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027 (1) A credit report, a financial statement, and other information an applicant submits or requests to have submitted to the division to demonstrate financial responsibility in accordance with Section 58-55-205: (a) is a protected record under Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management Act; and (b) notwithstanding Subsection (1)(a), may be considered by the commission in a public meeting, unless the owner of the information requests that the meeting be closed to the public in accordance with Title 52, Chapter 4, Open and Public Meetings Act. (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management Act, a record described in Subsection (1) is not open for public inspection and is not subject to discovery in civil or administrative proceedings.
Utah Code § 58-53-301 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-53 / § 58-53-301
§ 58-53-301. Licensure required--License classification.
Status: in_force

(1) A license is required to engage in the practice of landscape architecture except as specifically provided in Section 58-1-307 or 58-53-304. (2) The division shall issue a license under this chapter to a qualified person in the classification of landscape architecture.
Utah Code § 58-17b-901 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-17b / § 58-17b-901
§ 58-17b-901. Title.
Status: in_force

This part is known as the "Charitable Prescription Drug Recycling Act."
Utah Code § 58-3a-102 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-3a / § 58-3a-102
§ 58-3a-102. Definitions.
Status: in_force

In addition to the definitions in Section 58-1-102, as used in this chapter: (1) "Architect" means a person licensed under this chapter as an architect. (2) "Board" means the Architects and Landscape Architects Licensing Board created in Section 58-3a-201. (3) "Building" means a structure which has human occupancy or habitation as its principal purpose, and includes the structural, mechanical, and electrical systems, utility services, and other facilities required for the building, and is otherwise governed by the State Construction Code or an approved code under Title 15A, State Construction and Fire Codes Act. (4) "Complete construction plans" means a final set of plans and specifications for a building that normally includes: (a) floor plans; (b) elevations; (c) site plans; (d) foundation, structural, and framing detail; (e) electrical, mechanical, and plumbing design; (f) information required by the energy code; (g) specifications and related calculations as appropriate; and (h) all other documents required to obtain a building permit. (5) "Fund" means the Architects Education and Enforcement Fund created in Section 58-3a-103. (6) (a) "Practice of architecture" means rendering or offering to render the following services in connection with the design, construction, enlargement, or alteration of a building or group of buildings, and the space within and surrounding such buildings: (i) planning; (ii) facility programming; (iii) preliminary studies; (iv) preparation of designs, drawings, and specifications; (v) preparation of technical submissions and coordination of any element of technical submissions prepared by others including, as appropriate and without limitation, professional engineers, and landscape architects; and (vi) administration of construction contracts. (b) "Practice of architecture" does not include the practice of professional engineering as defined in Section 58-22-102, but a licensed architect may perform such professional engineering work as is incidental to the practice of architecture. (7) "Principal" means a licensed architect having responsible charge of an organization's architectural practice. (8) "Supervision of an employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter of an architect" means that a licensed architect is responsible for and personally reviews, corrects when necessary, and approves work performed by any employee, subordinate, associate, or drafter under the direction of the architect, and may be further defined by rule by the division in collaboration with the board. (9) "Unlawful conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 is further defined in Section 58-3a-501. (10) "Unprofessional conduct" as defined in Section 58-1-501 may be further defined by rule by the division in collaboration with the board.
Utah Code § 58-70a-501 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-70a / § 58-70a-501
§ 58-70a-501. Scope of practice.
Status: in_force

(1) (a) A physician assistant may provide any medical services that are not specifically prohibited under this chapter or rules adopted under this chapter, and that are within the physician assistant's skills and scope of competence. (b) Notwithstanding Sections 58-67-805 and 58-68-805, authorization to provide medical services under Subsection (1) includes performing minor surgical procedures. (2) A physician assistant shall consult, collaborate with, and refer to appropriate members of the health care team: (a) as indicated by the patient's condition; (b) based on the physician assistant's education, experience, and competencies; (c) the applicable standard of care; and (d) if applicable, in accordance with the requirements described in Section 58-70a-307. (3) Subject to Section 58-70a-307, the degree of collaboration under Subsection (2): (a) shall be determined at the physician assistant's practice, including decisions made by the physician assistant's: (i) employer; (ii) group; (iii) hospital service; or (iv) health care facility credentialing and privileging system; and (b) may also be determined by a managed care organization with whom the physician assistant is a network provider. (4) A physician assistant may only provide health care services: (a) for which the physician assistant has been trained and credentialed, privileged, or authorized to perform; and (b) that are within the physician assistant's practice specialty. (5) A physician assistant may authenticate through a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement any document that may be authenticated by a physician and that is within the physician assistant's scope of practice. (6) A physician assistant is responsible for the care that the physician assistant provides. (7) (a) As used in this Subsection (7): (i) "ALS/ACLS certification" means a certification: (A) in advanced life support by the American Red Cross; (B) in advanced cardiac life support by the American Heart Association; or (C) that is equivalent to a certification described in Subsection (7)(a)(i)(A) or (B). (ii) "Minimal sedation anxiolysis" means creating a drug induced state: (A) during which a patient responds normally to verbal commands; (B) which may impair cognitive function and physical coordination; and (C) which does not affect airway, reflexes, or ventilatory and cardiovascular function. (b) Except as provided in Subsections (7)(c) through (e), a physician assistant may not administer general anesthetics. (c) A physician assistant may perform minimal sedation anxiolysis if the procedure is within the physician assistant's scope of practice. (d) A physician assistant may perform rapid sequence induction for intubation of a patient if: (i) the procedure is within the physician assistant's scope of practice; (ii) the physician assistant holds a valid ALS/ACLS certification and is credentialed and privileged at the hospital where the procedure is performed; and (iii) (A) a qualified physician is not available and able to perform the procedure; or (B) the procedure is performed by the physician assistant under supervision of or delegation by a physician. (e) Subsection (7)(b) does not apply to anesthetics administered by a physician assistant: (i) in an intensive care unit of a hospital; (ii) for the purpose of enabling a patient to tolerate ventilator support or intubation; and (iii) under supervision of or delegation by a physician whose usual scope of practice includes the procedure. (8) (a) A physician assistant may prescribe or administer an appropriate controlled substance that is within the physician assistant's scope of practice if the physician assistant holds a Utah controlled substance license and a Drug Enforcement Administration registration. (b) A physician assistant may prescribe, order, administer, and procure a drug or medical device that is within the physician assistant's scope of practice. (c) A physician assistant may dispense a drug if dispensing the drug: (i) is permitted under Title 58, Chapter 17b, Pharmacy Practice Act; and (ii) is within the physician assistant's scope of practice. (9) A physician assistant may not perform or induce an abortion in violation of the requirements of Section 76-7-302 or Section 76-7a-201, regardless of whether the physician assistant is found guilty of a crime in connection with the violation. (10) A physician assistant practicing independently may only perform or provide a health care service that: (a) is appropriate to perform or provide outside of a health care facility; and (b) the physician assistant has been trained and credentialed or authorized to provide or perform independently without physician supervision. (11) A physician assistant, while practicing as a physician assistant: (a) shall wear an identification badge showing the physician assistant's license classification as a physician assistant; (b) shall identify themselves to a patient as a physician assistant; and (c) may not identify themselves to any person in connection with activities allowed under this chapter other than as a physician assistant or PA.
Utah Code § 58-94-307 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-94 / § 58-94-307
§ 58-94-307. Temporary permits for alarm company agents.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027 (1) The division may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for licensure as an alarm company agent if: (a) the division has received a background check on the applicant from the Bureau of Criminal Identification; (b) (i) the applicant is or will be employed at a call center, office, or administrative facility of an alarm company; and (ii) the applicant's only contact with a customer or potential customer of the alarm company is from the call center, office, or administrative facility; and (c) the alarm company by which the applicant is or will be employed affirms in writing to the division that the applicant will act only within the scope of the temporary license, as provided in Subsection (1)(b). (2) A temporary license shall expire on the earlier of: (a) 90 days after the day on which the division issues the temporary permit; (b) the date on which the individual to whom the division issues the temporary license leaves the employment of the alarm company in Subsection (1)(b); or (c) the date on which the division issues a license to the applicant or denies the applicant's application.
Utah Code § 58-92-302 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-92 / § 58-92-302
§ 58-92-302. General qualifications for licensure.
Status: in_force

9/1/2026 An applicant for licensure for a private investigator license, private investigator registrant, or private investigator apprentice under this chapter: (1) shall: (a) except for an applicant for a private investigator apprentice license, be at least 21 years old; (b) be a citizen or legal resident of the United States; (c) provide the applicant's name, address, date of birth, social security number, and fingerprints to the division; (d) disclose any criminal history the division requests on a form the division approves; (e) consent to, and complete, a criminal background check, described in Section 58-1-301.5; (f) meet any other standard related to the criminal background check described in Section 58-1-301.5, that the division establishes by rule in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (g) if currently licensed in another state or jurisdiction, be in good standing within that state or jurisdiction; and (2) may not: (a) have been convicted of: (i) a felony; (ii) any act involving illegally using, carrying, or possessing a dangerous weapon; (iii) an act of personal violence or force on another person; (iv) threatening to commit an act of personal violence or force against another person; (v) an act constituting dishonesty or fraud; (vi) impersonating a peace officer; or (vii) an act that, when considered with the functions and duties imposed by this title, bears a substantial relationship to the individual's ability to safely or competently perform the duties required under this chapter or indicates that the best interests of the public are not served by granting the applicant a license; (b) be on probation, parole, community supervision, or named in an outstanding arrest warrant; or (c) have been previously found or presently be in violation of this chapter.
Utah Code § 58-16a-301 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-16a / § 58-16a-301
§ 58-16a-301. Licensure required -- License classifications.
Status: in_force

(1) A license is required to engage in the practice of optometry, except as specifically provided in Section 58-1-307 or 58-16a-305. (2) The division shall issue to a person who qualifies under this chapter a license in the classification of optometrist.
Utah Code § 58-47b-304.1 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-47b / § 58-47b-304.1
§ 58-47b-304.1. Exemptions from registration -- Massage establishments.
Status: in_force

The following establishments or facilities are exempt from registering as massage establishments: (1) hospitals or medical clinics; (2) physician offices; (3) physical therapy facilities; (4) chiropractic offices; (5) athletic training facilities or institutions of secondary or higher education when massage services are performed in connection with employment related to athletic teams; (6) a sole practitioner who only rents or leases to a sole practitioner if the sole practitioner meets the requirements described in Section 58-47b-504; and (7) other facilities as defined by rule.
Utah Code § 58-1-501.5 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-1 / § 58-1-501.5
§ 58-1-501.5. Anatomic pathology services -- Billing violations.
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section, the following definitions apply: (a) (i) "Anatomic pathology services" including "technical or professional component of anatomic pathology services" means: (A) histopathology or surgical pathology, meaning the gross examination of, histologic processing of, or microscopic examination of human organ tissue performed by a physician or under the supervision of a physician; (B) cytopathology, meaning the examination of human cells, from fluids, aspirates, washings, brushings, or smears, including the pap test examination performed by a physician or under the supervision of a physician; (C) hematology, meaning the microscopic evaluation of human bone marrow aspirates and biopsies performed by a physician or under the supervision of a physician and peripheral human blood smears when the attending or treating physician or other practitioner of the healing arts or a technologist requests that a blood smear be reviewed by a pathologist; (D) subcellular pathology and molecular pathology; and (E) blood bank services performed by a pathologist. (ii) "Anatomic pathology services" including "technical or professional component of anatomic pathology services" does not include the initial collection or packaging of a sample for transport. (b) "Clinical laboratory" or "laboratory" means a facility for the biological, microbiological, serological, chemical, immunohematological, hematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological, or other examination of materials derived from the human body for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment of human beings or the assessment of the health of human beings. (c) "Health care facility" has the meaning provided in Section 26B-2-201. (d) "Health care provider" includes: (i) an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under Chapter 31b, Nurse Practice Act; (ii) a chiropractic physician licensed under Chapter 73, Chiropractic Physician Practice Act; (iii) a dentist licensed under Chapter 69, Dentist and Dental Hygienist Practice Act; (iv) a nurse midwife licensed under Chapter 44a, Nurse Midwife Practice Act; (v) an optometrist licensed under Chapter 16a, Utah Optometry Practice Act; (vi) an osteopathic physician and surgeon licensed under Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act; (vii) a podiatric physician licensed under Chapter 5a, Podiatric Physician Licensing Act; (viii) a physician and surgeon licensed under Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act; and (ix) a physician assistant licensed under Chapter 70a, Utah Physician Assistant Act. (e) "Insurer" includes: (i) any entity offering accident and health insurance as defined in Section 31A-1-301; (ii) workers' compensation benefits; (iii) a health maintenance organization; or (iv) any self-insurance, as defined in Section 31A-1-301, that offers health care insurance or benefits. (2) (a) A health care provider who orders anatomic pathology services for a patient from an independent physician or laboratory may not directly or indirectly mark up, charge a commission, or make a profit on the anatomic pathology service provided by the independent physician or laboratory. (b) Nothing in Subsection (2)(a): (i) restricts the ability of a health care provider, who has not performed or supervised either the technical or professional component of the anatomic pathology service, to obtain payment for services related solely to the collection and packaging of a sample and administrative billing costs; or (ii) restricts the ability of the lab function in the Department of Health and Human Services to bill for services. (3) A health care provider when billing a patient directly for anatomic pathology services provided by an independent physician or laboratory shall furnish an itemized bill which conforms with the billing practices of the American Medical Association that conspicuously discloses the charge for each anatomic pathology service, physician or laboratory name, and address for each anatomic pathology service rendered to the patient by the physician or laboratory that performed the anatomic pathology service. (4) The disclosure to be made under Subsection (3) shall not be required when the anatomic pathology service is being ordered by a hospital, a laboratory performing either the professional or technical component of the service, or a physician performing either the professional or technical component of the service, a public health clinic, or a state or federal agency. (5) Failure to comply with the requirements of this section shall be considered to be unprofessional conduct.
Utah Code § 58-11a-101 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-11a / § 58-11a-101
§ 58-11a-101. Title.
Status: in_force

This chapter is known as the "Cosmetology and Associated Professions Licensing Act."
Utah Code § 58-69-302 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-69 / § 58-69-302
§ 58-69-302. Qualifications -- Licensure as a dentist -- Licensure as a dental hygienist.
Status: in_force

(1) An applicant for licensure as a dentist, except as provided in Subsection (2), shall: (a) submit an application in a form the division approves; (b) pay a fee as determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504; (c) provide satisfactory documentation of having successfully completed a program of professional education preparing an individual as a dentist as evidenced by having received an earned doctor's degree in dentistry from a dental school accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association; (d) pass the National Board Dental Examinations as administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations of the American Dental Association; (e) pass any regional dental clinical licensure examination approved by division rule made in collaboration with the board and in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; (f) pass any other examinations regarding applicable law, rules, or ethics as established by division rule made in collaboration with the board and in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; (g) be able to read, write, speak, understand, and be understood in the English language and demonstrate proficiency to the satisfaction of the board if requested by the board; (h) meet with the board if requested by the board or division for the purpose of examining the applicant's qualifications for licensure; and (i) (i) consent to, and complete, a criminal background check, described in Section 58-1-301.5; (ii) meet any other standard related to the criminal background check described in Subsection (1)(i)(i), that the division establishes by rule in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (iii) disclose any criminal history the division requests on a form the division provides. (2) An applicant for licensure as a dentist qualifying under the endorsement provision of Section 58-1-302 shall: (a) be currently licensed in good standing with an unrestricted license in another jurisdiction described in Section 58-1-302; (b) document having met all requirements for licensure under Subsection (1) except Subsection (1)(c); and (c) document having been successfully engaged in clinical practice as a dentist for not less than 6,000 hours in the five years immediately preceding the date of application for licensure in Utah. (3) Except as provided in Subsection (4), an applicant for licensure as a dental hygienist shall: (a) submit an application in a form the division approves; (b) pay a fee as determined by the department pursuant to Section 63J-1-504; (c) be a graduate holding a certificate or degree in dental hygiene from a school accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association; (d) pass the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination as administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations of the American Dental Association; (e) pass an examination consisting of practical demonstrations in the practice of dental hygiene and written or oral examination in the theory and practice of dental hygiene as established by division rule made in collaboration with the board; (f) pass any other examinations regarding applicable law, rules, and ethics as established by rule by division rule made in collaboration with the board; (g) be able to read, write, speak, understand, and be understood in the English language and demonstrate proficiency to the satisfaction of the board if requested by the board; (h) meet with the board if requested by the board or division for the purpose of examining the applicant's qualifications for licensure; and (i) (i) consent to, and complete, a criminal background check, described in Section 58-1-301.5; (ii) meet any other standard related to the criminal background check described in Subsection (3)(i)(i), that the division establishes by rule in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (iii) disclose any criminal history the division requests on a form the division provides. (4) An applicant for licensure as a dental hygienist qualifying under the endorsement provision of Section 58-1-302 shall: (a) be currently licensed in another jurisdiction set forth in Section 58-1-302; (b) (i) document having met all requirements for licensure under Subsection (3) except, an applicant having received licensure in another state or jurisdiction before 1962, the year when the National Board Dental Hygiene Examinations were first administered, shall document having passed a state administered examination acceptable to the division in collaboration with the board; or (ii) document having obtained licensure in another state or jurisdiction upon which licensure by endorsement is based upon meeting requirements that were equal to licensure requirements in Utah at the time the applicant obtained licensure in the other state or jurisdiction; and (c) document having been successfully engaged in practice as a dental hygienist for not less than 2,000 hours in the two years immediately preceding the date of application for licensure in Utah.
Utah Code § 58-94-304 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-94 / § 58-94-304
§ 58-94-304. Qualifications for licensure.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027 (1) Each applicant for a license as an alarm company shall: (a) submit an application the division approves; (b) pay the fee the division determines in accordance with Section 63J-1-504; (c) have a qualifier who: (i) is an alarm company officer, alarm company owner, alarm company proprietor, alarm company trustee, or other responsible management personnel; (ii) demonstrates 6,000 hours of experience in the alarm company business; (iii) demonstrates 2,000 hours of experience as a manager or administrator in the alarm company business or in a construction business; (iv) passes an examination the division makes in collaboration with the board; (v) requires that each alarm company officer, alarm company owner, alarm company proprietor, alarm company trustee, and responsible management personnel with direct responsibility for managing operations of the applicant within the state: (A) provide the individual's name, address, date of birth, social security number, and fingerprints to the division; (B) consent to, and complete, a criminal background check, described in Section 58-1-301.5; (C) meet background check standards the division makes by rule under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (D) disclose criminal history the division requests on a form the division approves; (vi) documents that none of the individuals described in Subsection (1)(c)(v): (A) are declared by a court with jurisdiction incompetent by reason of mental defect or disease and not been restored; or (B) are currently suffering from a substance use disorder; (vii) files and maintains with the division evidence of: (A) comprehensive general liability insurance in form and in amounts the division determines by rule made in collaboration with the board in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; (B) workers' compensation insurance that covers employees of the applicant in accordance with applicable Utah law; and (C) registration as is required by applicable law with the Division of Corporations and Commercial Code, the Unemployment Insurance Division in the Department of Workforce Services for purposes of Title 35A, Chapter 4, Employment Security Act, the State Tax Commission, and the Internal Revenue Service; and (viii) meets with the division and board if the division or the board requests. (2) Each applicant for a license as an alarm company agent shall: (a) submit an application in a form the division approves; (b) submit fingerprints in a form the division approves; (c) pay the fee the division determines in accordance with Section 63J-1-504; (d) consent to and complete a criminal background check described in Section 58-1-301.5; (e) meet background check standards the division makes by rule under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; (f) disclose criminal history the division requests on a form the division approves; (g) attest the applicant has not been declared by a court with jurisdiction incompetent by reason of mental defect or disease and not been restored; (h) attest the applicant is not currently suffering from a substance use disorder; and (i) meet with the division and board if the division or the board requests. (3) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the division may make rules establishing when the division shall check Federal Bureau of Investigation records for an alarm company or an alarm company agent applicant under this section and Section 58-1-301.5. (4) (a) The division shall deny an application for licensure under this chapter if: (i) the applicant has had a previous license issued under this chapter suspended or revoked within two years before the date of the applicant's application; (ii) (A) the applicant is a partnership, corporation, or limited liability company; and (B) a person that serves the applicant entity in a control position previously served in a control position for an entity that held a license the division suspended or revoked less than two years before the date of the application; or (iii) (A) the applicant is an individual or sole proprietorship; and (B) any person that served in a control position in any entity which has had a previous license, which was issued under this chapter, suspended or revoked within two years before the date of the applicant's application. (b) The board shall review an application for licensure under this chapter before approval if: (i) the applicant has had a previous license, which was issued under this chapter, suspended or revoked more than two years before the date of the applicant's application; (ii) (A) the applicant is a partnership, corporation, or limited liability company; and (B) a person that serves the applicant entity in a control position previously served in a control position for an entity that held a license the division suspended or revoked less than two years before the date of the application; or (iii) (A) the applicant is an individual or sole proprietorship; and (B) a person that serves the applicant entity in a control position previously served in a control position for an entity that held a license that the division suspended or revoked two years or more before the date of the application.
Utah Code § 58-60-603 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-60 / § 58-60-603
§ 58-60-603. Qualification for licensure -- Ongoing development requirements.
Status: in_force

(1) The division shall grant licensure to a person who qualifies under this chapter to practice as a behavioral health coach. (2) The division shall grant state certification to a person who qualifies under this chapter to practice as a behavioral health technician. (3) An applicant for state certification as a behavioral health technician shall: (a) submit an application in a form prescribed by the division; (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504; and (c) provide certified transcripts verifying satisfactory completion of: (i) a one-year academic certificate relevant to practice as a behavioral health technician from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning, or an equivalence of that certification as determined by the division in rule; or (ii) an associate's degree or higher in a field determined by the division to be relevant to practice as a behavioral health technician, from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning, including: (A) human and social services; (B) counseling; (C) psychology; (D) social, behavioral, and health sciences; and (E) education and human development. (4) An applicant for licensure as a behavioral health coach by: (a) the higher education pathway shall: (i) submit an application in a form prescribed by the division; (ii) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504; and (iii) provide certified transcripts verifying satisfactory completion of a bachelor's degree or higher in a field determined by the division to be relevant to practice as a behavioral health coach, from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning, or an equivalence of that degree or higher, as determined by the division in rule, including: (A) human and social services; (B) counseling; (C) psychology; (D) social, behavioral, and health sciences; and (E) education and human development; (iv) provide certified transcripts verifying satisfactory completion of no less than nine credit hours in applied skills relevant to practice as a behavioral health coach, including: (A) ethical, legal, and professional issues in behavioral health; (B) therapeutic, counseling, or direct practice skills and methods; (C) clinical documentation; (D) case management; and (E) supervised internship or practicum experience; and (v) provide a letter of recommendation from an individual with direct knowledge of the applicant's competency to the practice as a behavioral health coach, who is qualified to evaluate the applicant's competency, including: (A) a supervisor from a current or past work experience, internship, or practicum relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach; or (B) an instructor of an applied skills course relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach; and (b) the stacked credentials and experience pathway shall: (i) submit an application in a form prescribed by the division; (ii) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504; (iii) provide certified transcripts verifying satisfactory completion of an associate's degree or higher in a field determined by the division to be relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning, including: (A) human and social services; (B) counseling; (C) psychology; (D) social, behavioral, and health sciences; and (E) education and human development; (iv) provide certified transcripts verifying satisfactory completion of no less than nine credit hours in applied skills relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach, including: (A) ethical, legal, and professional issues in behavioral health; (B) therapeutic, counseling, or direct practice skills and methods; (C) clinical documentation; (D) case management; and (E) supervised internship or practicum experience; (v) provide documentation of two years full-time work experience, or equivalent, in a context or role determined by the division to be relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach, including as a: (A) certified behavioral health technician; (B) certified peer support specialist; (C) certified case manager; (D) certified crisis worker; or (E) substance use disorder counselor; and (vi) provide a letter of recommendation from an individual with direct knowledge of the applicant's competency to the practice as a behavioral health coach, who is qualified to evaluate the applicant's competency, including: (A) a supervisor from a current or past work experience, internship, or practicum relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach; or (B) an instructor of an applied skills course relevant to the practice as a behavioral health coach. (5) (a) Subject to Subsection (5)(b), Section 58-60-104 governs the term, expiration, and renewal of licenses and certifications the division grants under this part. (b) At the time of renewal, an applicant for renewal shall provide satisfactory documentation that the applicant has completed any ongoing professional development requirements, as established by the division in rule made in consultation with the board.
Utah Code § 58-37f-601 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-37f / § 58-37f-601
§ 58-37f-601. Unlawful release or use of database information -- Criminal and civil penalties.
Status: in_force

(1) (a) Any person who knowingly and intentionally releases: (i) any information in the database or any information obtained from other state or federal prescription monitoring programs by means of the database in violation of the limitations under Part 3, Access and Utilization, is guilty of a third degree felony; or (ii) any information in the database accessed under Section 58-37f-303 by an electronic data system, or accessed by a person via an electronic data system, in violation of rules established by the division under Subsection 58-37f-303(4) is guilty of a third degree felony. (b) Any person who negligently or recklessly releases: (i) any information in the database or any information obtained from other state or federal prescription monitoring programs by means of the database in violation of the limitations under Part 3, Access and Utilization, is guilty of a class C misdemeanor; or (ii) any information in the database accessed under Section 58-37f-303 by an electronic data system, or accessed by a person via an electronic data system, in violation of rules established by the division under Subsection 58-37f-303(4) is guilty of a class C misdemeanor. (2) (a) Any person who obtains or attempts to obtain the following by misrepresentation or fraud is guilty of a third degree felony: (i) information from the database; (ii) information from any other state or federal prescription monitoring program by means of the database; or (iii) information from the database or any other state or federal prescription monitoring program via an electronic data system under Section 58-37f-303. (b) Any person who obtains or attempts to obtain information from the database, including via an electronic data system under Section 58-37f-303 that has access to the database, for a purpose other than a purpose authorized by this chapter or by rule is guilty of a third degree felony. (3) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (3)(e), a person may not knowingly and intentionally use, release, publish, or otherwise make available to any other person the following information for any purpose other than those specified in Part 3, Access and Utilization: (i) information obtained from the database; (ii) information obtained from any other state or federal prescription monitoring program by means of the database; or (iii) information in the database accessed under Section 58-37f-303 by: (A) an electronic data system; or (B) a person via an electronic data system. (b) Each separate violation of this Subsection (3) is a third degree felony and is also subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000. (c) The procedure for determining a civil violation of this Subsection (3) is in accordance with Section 58-1-108, regarding adjudicative proceedings within the division. (d) Civil penalties assessed under this Subsection (3) shall be deposited in the General Fund as a dedicated credit to be used by the division under Subsection 58-37f-502(1). (e) This Subsection (3) does not prohibit a person who obtains information from the database under Subsection 58-37f-301(2) (h), (i), (k), or (4)(c) from: (i) including the information in the person's medical chart or file for access by a person authorized to review the medical chart or file; or (ii) providing the information to a person in accordance with the requirements of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
Utah Code § 58-40-302 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-40 / § 58-40-302
§ 58-40-302. Qualifications for licensure.
Status: in_force

(1) An applicant for licensure under this chapter shall: (a) submit an application in a form prescribed by the division; and (b) pay a fee determined by the department under Section 63J-1-504. (2) In addition to the requirements of Subsection (1), an applicant for licensure as a master therapeutic recreation specialist under this chapter shall as defined by division rule: (a) complete an approved graduate degree; (b) complete 4,000 qualifying hours of paid experience as: (i) a licensed therapeutic recreation specialist if completed in the state; or (ii) a certified therapeutic recreation specialist certified in good standing by the National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification if completed outside of the state; and (c) pass an approved examination. (3) In addition to the requirements of Subsection (1), an applicant for licensure as a therapeutic recreation specialist under this chapter shall, as defined by division rule: (a) (i) complete an approved: (A) bachelor's degree in therapeutic recreation or recreational therapy; (B) bachelor's degree with an approved emphasis, option, or concentration in therapeutic recreation or recreational therapy; or (C) graduate degree; (ii) complete an approved practicum; and (iii) pass an approved examination; or (b) document proof of current certification in good standing as a Certified Therapeutic Recreation Specialist by the National Council for Therapeutic Recreation Certification, or an equivalence of that certification, as determined by division rule made in consultation with the board. (4) In addition to the requirements of Subsection (1), an applicant for licensure as a therapeutic recreation technician under this chapter shall, as defined by division rule: (a) complete an approved: (i) educational course in therapeutic recreation taught by a licensed master therapeutic recreation specialist; or (ii) six semester hours or nine quarter hours in therapeutic recreation or recreational therapy from an accredited college or university; (b) complete an approved practicum under the supervision of: (i) a licensed master therapeutic recreation specialist; or (ii) an on-site, full-time, employed therapeutic recreation specialist; and (c) complete a minimum of two hours of training in suicide prevention via a course that the division designates as approved.
Utah Code § 58-91-502 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-91 / § 58-91-502
§ 58-91-502. Unprofessional conduct.
Status: in_force

(1) "Unprofessional conduct" includes: (a) engaging or offering to engage by fraud or misrepresentation in any activities regulated by this chapter; (b) aiding or abetting a person who is not licensed pursuant to this chapter in representing that person is a constable in this state; (c) gross negligence in the practice of a licensee; (d) committing a felony or a misdemeanor involving any crime that is grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license; (e) making a fraudulent or untrue statement to the board or division; (f) failing to carry or display a copy of the constable's license or failing to comply with the identification requirements described in Section 58-91-305; (g) employing an individual whom the licensed constable knows or should know has engaged in conduct that is inconsistent with the duties and responsibilities of a licensee under this chapter; and (h) failing to comply with operating standards established under Section 58-91-306. (2) The division and board may take a licensee's conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction or entrance of a plea of no contest as conclusive evidence that the licensee committed a felony or misdemeanor described in Subsection (1)(d).
Utah Code § 58-67-306 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-67 / § 58-67-306
§ 58-67-306. Status of licenses held on the effective date of this chapter.
Status: in_force

An individual holding a current license as a physician and surgeon that was issued under any prior state law is considered to hold a current license in the same classification under this chapter.
Utah Code § 58-42a-308 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-42a / § 58-42a-308
§ 58-42a-308. No referral required for occupational therapy.
Status: in_force

An occupational therapist may evaluate, initiate, and provide occupational therapy treatment for a client without a referral from another health service provider.
Utah Code § 58-1-602 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-1 / § 58-1-602
§ 58-1-602. Auricular detoxification certification.
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section: (a) "Health care provider" means an individual who is licensed under: (i) Subsection 58-31b-301(2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(c), (2)(d), (2)(f), or (2)(g); (ii) Chapter 60, Mental Health Professional Practice Act; (iii) Chapter 61, Part 3, Licensing; or (iv) Chapter 70a, Utah Physician Assistant Act. (b) (i) "NADA protocol" means: (A) a protocol developed by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association; and (B) an adjunctive therapy using one to five invariant ear acupuncture or acupressure points for the adjunctive treatment and prevention of substance use disorders or to provide support for individuals who have experienced physical or emotional trauma. (ii) "NADA protocol" does not include the stimulation of other auricular or distal acupuncture points. (2) A health care provider may perform the NADA protocol if the health care provider: (a) obtains a certification from the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association to perform the NADA protocol; and (b) provides the division proof of obtaining the certification. (3) A health care provider may perform a protocol substantially similar to the NADA protocol if: (a) the division has determined the protocol is substantially similar to the NADA protocol; and (b) the individual has met each requirement the division has created to perform the protocol. (4) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the division may make rules for implementing Subsection (3).
Utah Code § 58-67-302.7 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-67 / § 58-67-302.7
§ 58-67-302.7. Licensing of physician-educators.
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section: (a) "Foreign country" means a country other than the United States, its territories, or Canada. (b) "Foreign medical school" means a medical school that is outside the United States, its territories, and Canada. (2) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, an individual may receive a type I foreign teaching license if the individual: (a) submits an application in a form prescribed by the division, which may include: (i) submission by the applicant of information maintained in a practitioner data bank, as designated by division rule, with respect to the applicant; (ii) a record of professional liability claims made against the applicant and settlements paid by or on behalf of the applicant; and (iii) the applicant's curriculum vitae; (b) is a graduate of a foreign medical school that is accepted for certification by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates; (c) is licensed in good standing in a foreign country, the United States, its territories, or Canada; (d) does not have an investigation or action pending against the physician's healthcare license, does not have a healthcare license that was suspended or revoked, and has not surrendered a healthcare license in lieu of disciplinary action, unless: (i) the license was subsequently reinstated in good standing; or (ii) the division in collaboration with the board determines to its satisfaction, after full disclosure by the applicant and full consideration by the division in collaboration with the board, that: (A) the conduct has been corrected, monitored, and resolved; or (B) a mitigating circumstance exists that prevents resolution, and the division in collaboration with the board is satisfied that but for the mitigating circumstance, the license would be reinstated; (e) submits documentation of legal status to work in the United States; (f) meets at least three of the following qualifications: (i) (A) published original results of clinical research, within 10 years before the day on which the application is submitted, in a medical journal listed in the Index Medicus or an equivalent scholarly publication; and (B) submits the publication to the Board in English or in a foreign language with a verifiable, certified English translation; (ii) held an appointment at a medical school approved by the LCME or at any medical school listed in the World Health Organization directory at the level of associate or full professor, or its equivalent, for at least five years; (iii) (A) developed a treatment modality, surgical technique, or other verified original contribution to the field of medicine within 10 years before the day on which the application is submitted; and (B) has the treatment modality, surgical technique, or other verified original contribution attested to by the dean of an LCME accredited school of medicine in Utah; (iv) actively practiced medicine cumulatively for 10 years; or (v) is board certified in good standing of a board of the American Board of Medical Specialities or equivalent specialty board; (g) is able to read, write, speak, understand, and be understood in the English language and demonstrates proficiency to the satisfaction of the division in collaboration with the board, if requested; (h) is invited by an LCME accredited medical school in Utah to serve as a full-time member of the medical school's academic faculty, as evidenced by written certification from: (i) the dean of the medical school, stating that the applicant has been appointed to a full-time faculty position, that because the applicant has unique expertise in a specific field of medicine the medical school considers the applicant to be a valuable member of the faculty, and that the applicant is qualified by knowledge, skill, and ability to practice medicine in the state; and (ii) the head of the department to which the applicant is to be appointed, stating that the applicant will be under the direction of the head of the department and will be permitted to practice medicine only as a necessary part of the applicant's duties, providing detailed evidence of the applicant's qualifications and competence, including the nature and location of the applicant's proposed responsibilities, reasons for any limitations of the applicant's practice responsibilities, and the degree of supervision, if any, under which the applicant will function; (i) pays a licensing fee set by the division under Section 63J-1-504; and (j) has practiced medicine for at least 10 years as an attending physician. (3) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, an individual may receive a type II foreign teaching license if the individual: (a) satisfies the requirements of Subsections (2)(a) through (e) and (g) through (i); (b) has delivered clinical care to patients cumulatively for five years after graduation from medical school; and (c) (i) will be completing a clinical fellowship while employed at the medical school described in Subsection (2)(h); or (ii) has already completed a medical residency accredited by the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, or New Zealand, or a comparable accreditation organization as determined by the division in collaboration with the board. (4) After an initial term of one year, a type I license may be renewed for periods of two years if the licensee continues to satisfy the requirements described in Subsection (2) and completes the division's continuing education renewal requirements established under Section 58-67-303. (5) A type II license may be renewed on an annual basis, up to four times, if the licensee continues to satisfy the requirements described in Subsection (3) and completes the division's continuing education renewal requirements established under Section 58-67-303. (6) A license issued under this section: (a) authorizes the licensee to practice medicine: (i) within the scope of the licensee's employment at the medical school described in Subsection (2)(h) and the licensee's academic position; and (ii) at a hospital or clinic affiliated with the medical school described in Subsection (2)(h) for the purpose of teaching, clinical care, or pursuing research; (b) shall list the limitations described in Subsection (6)(a); and (c) shall expire on the earlier of: (i) one year after the day on which the type I or type II license is initially issued, unless the license is renewed; (ii) for a type I license, two years after the day on which the license is renewed; (iii) for a type II license, one year after the day on which the license is renewed; or (iv) the day on which employment at the medical school described in Subsection (2)(h) ends. (7) A person who holds a type I license for five consecutive years may apply for licensure as a physician and surgeon in this state and shall be licensed if the individual satisfies the requirements described in Subsection (8). If the person fails to obtain licensure as a physician and surgeon in this state, the person may apply for a renewal of the type I license under Subsection (2). (8) An individual who holds a type I or type II license for five consecutive years is eligible for licensure as a physician and surgeon in this state if the individual: (a) worked an average of at least 40 hours per month at the level of an attending physician during the time the individual held the type I or type II license; (b) holds the rank of associate professor or higher at the medical school described in Subsection (2)(h); (c) obtains certification from the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates or any successor organization approved by the division in collaboration with the board; (d) spent a cumulative 20 hours per year while holding a type I or type II license: (i) teaching or lecturing to medical students or house staff; (ii) participating in educational department meetings or conferences that are not certified to meet the continuing medical education license renewal requirement; or (iii) attending continuing medical education classes in addition to the requirements for continuing education described in Subsections (4) and (5); (e) obtains a passing score on the final step of the licensing examination sequence required by division rule made in collaboration with the board; and (f) satisfies the requirements described in Subsections 58-67-302(1)(a) through (c), (h), and (i). (9) If a person who holds a type II license fails to obtain licensure as a physician and surgeon in this state after applying under the procedures described in Subsection (8), the person may not: (a) reapply for or renew a type II license; or (b) apply for a type I license. (10) The division or the board may require an applicant for licensure under this section to meet with the board and representatives of the division for the purpose of evaluating the applicant's qualifications for licensure. (11) The division in collaboration with the board may withdraw a license under this section at any time for material misrepresentation or unlawful or unprofessional conduct.
Utah Code § 58-60b-114 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-60b / § 58-60b-114
§ 58-60b-114. Section 14 -- Effective date, withdrawal, and amendment.
Status: in_force

A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Member State.1. On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the first seven Member States ("Charter Member States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Member State is materially different than the model Compact statute.a. A Charter Member State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model Compact statute shall be entitled to the default process set forth in Section 13.b. If any Member State is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from the Compact, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Member States should be less than seven.2. Member States enacting the Compact subsequent to the seven initial Charter Member States shall be subject to the process set forth in Section 10(C)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the model Compact statute and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.3. All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission.4. Any State that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the Rules and bylaws shall be subject to the Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that State.B. Any Member State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.1. A Member State's withdrawal shall not take effect until 180 days after enactment of the repealing statute.2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing State's Licensing Authority to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.3. Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this compact, a State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this compact for a minimum of 180 days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.C. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a Member State and a non-Member State that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.D. This Compact may be amended by the Member States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Member State until it is enacted into the laws of all Member States.
Utah Code § 58-91-104 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-91 / § 58-91-104
§ 58-91-104. Use of money for education, training, and enforcement.
Status: in_force

The director may, with the concurrence of the board, use fines collected under Section 58-91-803 for the following purposes: (1) educating and training licensees under this chapter; (2) educating and training the general public in matters concerning the laws that govern practices licensed under this chapter; and (3) enforcing this chapter by: (a) investigating unprofessional or unlawful conduct; and (b) providing legal representation to the division when the division takes legal action against an individual charged with unprofessional or unlawful conduct.
Utah Code § 58-69-503 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-69 / § 58-69-503
§ 58-69-503. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
Status: in_force

(1) Any person who violates the unlawful conduct provisions of Subsection 58-1-501(1)(a) and Section 58-69-501 with regard to the practice of dentistry is guilty of a third degree felony. (2) Any person who violates the unlawful conduct provisions of Subsection 58-1-501(1)(a) with regard to the practice of dental hygiene is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
Utah Code § 58-64-601 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-64 / § 58-64-601
§ 58-64-601. Deception detection instruments.
Status: in_force

(1) Instruments or software applications used in performing deception detection examinations shall be those that are generally recognized in the profession or, if approved by the director, those with results published in peer-reviewed, scientific journals generally recognized by the scientific community. (2) An instrument or software application used for deception detection shall have a permanent recording or written report produced by the instrument or software application for objective analysis by the examiner or the division. (3) A written interpretation by an examiner while conducting a deception detection examination does not satisfy the requirements of a permanent recording.
Utah Code § 58-37f-202 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-37f / § 58-37f-202
§ 58-37f-202. Duties of board in relation to the database.
Status: in_force

The board shall advise the division regarding: (1) establishing, maintaining, and operating the database; (2) access to the database and how access is obtained; and (3) control of information contained in the database.
Utah Code § 58-9-501 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-9 / § 58-9-501
§ 58-9-501. Unlawful conduct.
Status: in_force

"Unlawful conduct" includes: (1) doing any of the following to prepare a dead human body for disposition unless licensed as a funeral service director or a funeral service intern: (a) embalming; (b) calcinating; (c) pulverizing; (d) cremating; or (e) using any method that invades a dead human body; (2) using the title "funeral service director," "funeral service intern," "preneed funeral service sales agent," or "funeral service establishment" unless licensed under this chapter; (3) engaging in, providing, or agreeing to provide funeral arrangements to be provided under a preneed funeral arrangement without first obtaining a license as a funeral service establishment under this chapter; (4) engaging in selling, representing for sale, or in any other way offering to sell any contract under which preneed funeral arrangements are to be provided without first obtaining a license under this chapter as: (a) a preneed funeral arrangement sales agent; or (b) a funeral service director; and (5) failing to comply with Section 58-9-702.
Utah Code § 58-77-601 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-77 / § 58-77-601
§ 58-77-601. Standards of practice.
Status: in_force

(1) (a) Prior to providing any services, a licensed direct-entry midwife must obtain an informed consent from a client. (b) The consent must include: (i) the name and license number of the direct-entry midwife; (ii) the client's name, address, telephone number, and primary care provider, if the client has one; (iii) the fact, if true, that the licensed direct-entry midwife is not a certified nurse midwife or a physician; (iv) a description of the licensed direct-entry midwife's education, training, continuing education, and experience in midwifery; (v) a description of the licensed direct-entry midwife's peer review process; (vi) the licensed direct-entry midwife's philosophy of practice; (vii) a promise to provide the client, upon request, separate documents describing the rules governing licensed direct-entry midwifery practice, including a list of conditions indicating the need for consultation, collaboration, referral, transfer or mandatory transfer, and the licensed direct-entry midwife's personal written practice guidelines; (viii) a medical back-up or transfer plan; (ix) a description of the services provided to the client by the licensed direct-entry midwife; (x) the licensed direct-entry midwife's current legal status; (xi) the availability of a grievance process; (xii) client and licensed direct-entry midwife signatures and the date of signing; and (xiii) whether the licensed direct-entry midwife is covered by a professional liability insurance policy. (2) A licensed direct-entry midwife shall: (a) (i) limit the licensed direct-entry midwife's practice to a normal pregnancy, labor, postpartum, newborn and interconceptual care, which for purposes of this section means a normal labor: (A) that is not pharmacologically induced; (B) that is low risk at the start of labor; (C) that remains low risk through out the course of labor and delivery; (D) in which the infant is born spontaneously in the vertex position between 37 and 43 completed weeks of pregnancy; and (E) except as provided in Subsection (2)(a)(ii), in which after delivery, the mother and infant remain low risk; and (ii) the limitation of Subsection (2)(a)(i) does not prohibit a licensed direct-entry midwife from delivering an infant when there is: (A) intrauterine fetal demise; or (B) a fetal anomaly incompatible with life; and (b) appropriately recommend and facilitate consultation with, collaboration with, referral to, or transfer or mandatory transfer of care to a licensed health care professional when the circumstances require that action in accordance with this section and standards established by division rule. (3) If after a client has been informed that she has or may have a condition indicating the need for medical consultation, collaboration, referral, or transfer and the client chooses to decline, then the licensed direct-entry midwife shall: (a) terminate care in accordance with procedures established by division rule; or (b) continue to provide care for the client if the client signs a waiver of medical consultation, collaboration, referral, or transfer. (4) If after a client has been informed that she has or may have a condition indicating the need for mandatory transfer, the licensed direct-entry midwife shall, in accordance with procedures established by division rule, terminate the care or initiate transfer by: (a) calling 911 and reporting the need for immediate transfer; (b) immediately transporting the client by private vehicle to the receiving provider; or (c) contacting the physician to whom the client will be transferred and following that physician's orders. (5) The standards for consultation and transfer are the minimum standards that a licensed direct-entry midwife must follow. A licensed direct-entry midwife shall initiate consultation, collaboration, referral, or transfer of a patient sooner than required by administrative rule if in the opinion and experience of the licensed direct-entry midwife, the condition of the client or infant warrant a consultation, collaboration, referral, or transfer. (6) This chapter does not mandate health insurance coverage for midwifery services.
Utah Code § 58-67-807 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-67 / § 58-67-807
§ 58-67-807. Collaborative practice arrangement.
Status: in_force

(1) (a) The division, in consultation with the board, shall make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, regarding the approval of a collaborative practice arrangement. (b) The division shall require a collaborative practice arrangement to: (i) limit the associate physician to providing primary care services; (ii) be consistent with the skill, training, and competence of the associate physician; (iii) specify jointly agreed-upon protocols, or standing orders for the delivery of health care services by the associate physician; (iv) provide complete names, home and business addresses, zip codes, and telephone numbers of the collaborating physician and the associate physician; (v) list all other offices or locations besides those listed in Subsection (1)(b)(iv) where the collaborating physician authorizes the associate physician to prescribe; (vi) require at every office where the associate physician is authorized to prescribe in collaboration with a physician a prominently displayed disclosure statement informing patients that patients may be seen by an associate physician and have the right to see the collaborating physician; (vii) specify all specialty or board certifications of the collaborating physician and all certifications of the associate physician; (viii) specify the manner of collaboration between the collaborating physician and the associate physician, including how the collaborating physician and the associate physician shall: (A) engage in collaborative practice consistent with each professional's skill, training, education, and competence; (B) maintain geographic proximity; and (C) provide oversight of the associate physician during the absence, incapacity, infirmity, or emergency of the collaborating physician; (ix) describe the associate physician's controlled substance prescriptive authority in collaboration with the collaborating physician, including: (A) a list of the controlled substances the collaborating physician authorizes the associate physician to prescribe; and (B) documentation that the authorization to prescribe the controlled substances is consistent with the education, knowledge, skill, and competence of the associate physician and the collaborating physician; (x) list all other written practice arrangements of the collaborating physician and the associate physician; and (xi) specify the duration of the written practice arrangement between the collaborating physician and the associate physician. (c) An associate physician and the collaborating physician may modify a collaborative practice arrangement, but the changes to the collaborative practice arrangement are not binding unless: (i) the associate physician notifies the division within 10 days after the day on which the changes are made; and (ii) the division approves the changes. (2) An associate physician: (a) shall clearly identify himself or herself as an associate physician; (b) is permitted to use the title "doctor" or "Dr."; and (c) if authorized under a collaborative practice arrangement to prescribe Schedule III through V controlled substances, shall register with the United States Drug Enforcement Administration as part of the drug enforcement administration's mid-level practitioner registry. (3) (a) A physician or surgeon licensed and in good standing under Section 58-67-302 may enter into a collaborative practice arrangement with an associate physician licensed under Section 58-67-302.8. (b) A physician or surgeon may not enter into a collaborative practice arrangement with more than three full-time equivalent associate physicians. (c) (i) No contract or other agreement shall: (A) require a physician to act as a collaborating physician for an associate physician against the physician's will; (B) deny a collaborating physician the right to refuse to act as a collaborating physician, without penalty, for a particular associate physician; or (C) limit the collaborating physician's ultimate authority over any protocols or standing orders or in the delegation of the physician's authority to any associate physician. (ii) Subsection (3)(c)(i)(C) does not authorize a physician, in implementing protocols, standing orders, or delegation, to violate a hospital's established applicable standards for safe medical practice. (d) A collaborating physician is responsible at all times for the oversight of the activities of, and accepts responsibility for, the primary care services rendered by the associate physician. (4) The division shall makes rules, in consultation with the board, the deans of medical schools in the state, and primary care residency program directors in the state, and in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, establishing educational methods and programs that: (a) an associate physician shall complete throughout the duration of the collaborative practice arrangement; (b) shall facilitate the advancement of the associate physician's medical knowledge and capabilities; and (c) may lead to credit toward a future residency program.
Utah Code § 58-37-107 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-37 / § 58-37-107
§ 58-37-107. Controlled substances.
Status: in_force

(1) All substances listed in Section 58-37-108 or 58-37-109 are controlled. (2) All substances listed in the federal Controlled Substances Act, Title II, P.L. 91-513, are controlled.
Utah Code § 58-9-306 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-9 / § 58-9-306
§ 58-9-306. License by endorsement.
Status: in_force

The division may issue a license by endorsement under this chapter to a person who: (1) provides documentation that the funeral service director's current licensure is active, in good standing, and free from any disciplinary action; (2) submits an application on a form provided by the division; (3) pays a fee determined by the department; (4) has not been convicted of: (a) a first or second degree felony; or (b) crime that when considered with the duties and responsibilities of the license for which the person is applying is considered by the division and the board to indicate that the best interests of the public are not served by granting the applicant a license; (5) has completed five years of lawful and active practice as a licensed funeral service director and embalmer within the 10 years immediately preceding the application for licensure by endorsement; (6) has passed a national examination determined by the division; and (7) has demonstrated competency of the laws and the rules of the state as determined by the division.
Utah Code § 58-44a-503 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-44a / § 58-44a-503
§ 58-44a-503. Penalty for unlawful conduct.
Status: in_force

(1) Any individual who violates the unlawful conduct provisions of Subsection 58-44a-501(1) is guilty of a third degree felony. (2) Any individual who violates the unlawful conduct provisions of Subsection 58-44a-501(2), (3), or (4) is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. (3) Subject to Subsection (4), the division may assess administrative penalties in accordance with the provisions of Section 58-44a-402 for acts of unprofessional or unlawful conduct, or any other appropriate administrative action in accordance with the provisions of Section 58-44a-401. (4) If a licensee has been convicted of violating Section 58-44a-501 prior to an administrative finding of a violation of the same section, the licensee may not be assessed a administrative penalty under this chapter for the same offense for which the conviction was obtained.
Utah Code § 58-26a-601 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-26a / § 58-26a-601
§ 58-26a-601. Ownership of statements, records, schedules, working papers, and memoranda made by licensee.
Status: in_force

(1) All statements, records, schedules, working papers, and memoranda made by a licensee under this chapter, incident to or in the course of professional service to a client, are the property of the licensee, in the absence of any express agreement between the licensee and the client to the contrary. (2) A licensee may not sell, trade, or bequeath statements, records, schedules, working papers, or memoranda without the consent of the client or the client's personal representative or assignee to anyone other than another licensee or one or more surviving partners or shareholders or new partners or shareholders of the licensee or any combined or merged CPA firm or successors-in-interest to the CPA firm.
Utah Code § 58-94-503 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-94 / § 58-94-503
§ 58-94-503. Unprofessional conduct.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027A person engages in unprofessional conduct if the person: (1) commits, causes, or directs a willful, fraudulent, or deceitful act that causes material injury to another person; (2) commits a contract violation that threatens or potentially threatens the public health, safety, or welfare, including when the person fails to deposit funds for the benefit of an employee as required under a written contractual obligation; (3) as an alarm company, fails to notify the division when the company's qualifier ceases to perform or fails to replace the qualifier as required under Subsection 58-91-303(6); (4) as an alarm company agent, fails to carry or display a copy of the agent's license as required under Section 58-94-305; (5) fails to comply with operating standards the division makes by rule; (6) as an alarm company or alarm company agent, fails to inform a potential customer, before the customer purchases an alarm system or alarm service, about the policy of the county, city, or town where the customer resides about priority levels for responding to alarm signals transmitted by the alarm system; or (7) fails to continuously maintain insurance and registration as required under Subsection 304(1)(c)(vii).
Utah Code § 58-22-305 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-22 / § 58-22-305
§ 58-22-305. Exemption from licensure.
Status: in_force

(1) In addition to the exemptions from licensure in Section 58-1-307, the following may engage in the following acts or practices without being licensed under this chapter: (a) a person offering to render professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying services in this state when not licensed under this chapter if the person: (i) holds a current and valid professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor license issued by a licensing authority recognized by rule by the division in collaboration with the board; (ii) discloses in writing to the potential client the fact that the professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor: (A) is not licensed in the state; (B) may not provide professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying services in the state until licensed in the state; and (C) that such condition may cause a delay in the ability of the professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor to provide licensed services in the state; (iii) notifies the division in writing of the person's intent to offer to render professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying services in the state; and (iv) does not provide professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying services, or engage in the practice of professional engineering, professional structural engineering, or professional land surveying in this state until licensed to do so; (b) a person preparing a plan and specification for a one or two-family residence not exceeding two stories in height; (c) a person licensed to practice architecture under Title 58, Chapter 3a, Architects Licensing Act, performing architecture acts or incidental engineering or structural engineering practices that do not exceed the scope of the education and training of the person performing engineering or structural engineering; (d) unlicensed employees, subordinates, associates, or drafters of a person licensed under this chapter while preparing plans, maps, sketches, drawings, documents, specifications, plats, and reports under the supervision of a professional engineer, professional structural engineer, or professional land surveyor; (e) a person preparing a plan or specification for, or supervising the alteration of or repair to, an existing building affecting an area not exceeding 3,000 square feet when structural elements of a building are not changed, such as foundations, beams, columns, and structural slabs, joists, bearing walls, and trusses; (f) an employee of a communications, utility, railroad, mining, petroleum, or manufacturing company, or an affiliate of such a company, if the professional engineering or professional structural engineering work is performed solely in connection with the products or systems of the company and is not offered directly to the public; (g) an organization engaged in the practice of professional engineering, structural engineering, or professional land surveying, provided that: (i) the organization employs a principal; and (ii) all individuals employed by the organization, who are engaged in the practice of professional engineering, structural engineering, or land surveying, are licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter; (h) a person licensed as a professional engineer, a professional structural engineer, or a professional land surveyor in a state other than Utah serving as an expert witness, provided the expert testimony meets one of the following: (i) oral testimony as an expert witness in an administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding; or (ii) written documentation included as part of the testimony in a proceeding, including designs, studies, plans, specifications, or similar documentation, provided that the purpose of the written documentation is not to establish specifications, plans, designs, processes, or standards to be used in the future in an industrial process, system, construction, design, or repair; (i) a person certified by the National Institute for Certification in Engineering Technologies at level III or IV in Water-Based System Layout, who submits a fire sprinkler system to the authority having jurisdiction, the fire code official, or the building official for approval; (j) a person certified by the National Institute for Certification in Engineering Technologies at level III or IV in Fire Alarm Systems, who submits a fire alarm system layout to the authority having jurisdiction, the fire code official, or the building official for approval; (k) a fire code or building official reviewing construction documents for code compliance; and (l) a fire code or building official conducting an inspection for code compliance. (2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict a person from preparing plans for a client under the exemptions provided in Subsections (1)(b), (1)(i), or (1)(j), or taking those plans to a professional engineer for the engineer's review, approval, and subsequent fixing of the engineer's seal to that set of plans.
Utah Code § 58-56-9 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-56 / § 58-56-9
§ 58-56-9. Qualifications of inspectors -- Contract for inspection services.
Status: in_force

(1) A building inspector employed by a local regulator, state regulator, or compliance agency to enforce the codes shall: (a) be currently licensed by the division as meeting the minimum qualifications the division establishes in collaboration with the commission, by rule made in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (b) be subject to disciplinary or other action if the building inspector engages in unlawful or unprofessional conduct. (2) A local regulator, state regulator, or compliance agency may contract for the services of a building inspector not regularly employed by the regulator or agency. (3) A private home inspector shall: (a) be currently licensed by the division as meeting the minimum qualifications the division establishes in collaboration with the commission, by rule in accordance with the provisions of Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (b) be subject to disciplinary or other action if the individual engages in unlawful or unprofessional conduct. (4) In accordance with Section 58-1-401, the division may: (a) refuse to issue a license to an applicant; (b) refuse to renew the license of a licensee; (c) revoke, suspend, restrict, or place on probation the license of a licensee; (d) issue a public or private reprimand; (e) issue a citation to a licensee; and (f) issue a cease and desist order.
Utah Code § 58-86-204 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-86 / § 58-86-204
§ 58-86-204. Continuing education.
Status: in_force

(1) As a condition for the renewal of state certification under this chapter, a state certified commercial interior designer, during each two-year state certification cycle, shall complete 20 hours of continuing education that is offered or approved by the Interior Design Continuing Education Council, or another entity as determined by division rule. (2) At least 10 of the continuing education hours described in Subsection (1) shall primarily emphasize health and safety. (3) If a renewal cycle is extended or shortened under Section 58-86-203, the continuing education hours required for renewal under this section shall be increased or decreased proportionally.
Utah Code § 58-55-606 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-55 / § 58-55-606
§ 58-55-606. Investigation of a regulated activity.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027 (1) The division shall be responsible for the investigation of a person or an activity that violates the provisions of this chapter. (2) (a) The division shall investigate: (i) a licensee alleged to engage in unlawful or unprofessional conduct; and (ii) an unlicensed person engaged in a construction trade regulated under this chapter. (3) If the division finds there is no apparent material jeopardy to the public health, safety, or welfare, the division shall decline investigation of an alleged violation of this chapter. (4) (a) The division shall inspect construction trade to determine compliance with Subsections 58-1-501(2)(a)(vii), 58-55-601(14), and 58-55-602(2) through (4). (b) Except for Subsection (4)(a), the division has no obligation to inspect construction trade to determine compliance with applicable code or industry standard. (5) An authorized representative of the division may enter the premises or a site to inspect work regulated under this chapter for compliance.
Utah Code § 58-47b-306.1 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-47b / § 58-47b-306.1
§ 58-47b-306.1. Required signage and disclosures -- Massage establishments.
Status: in_force

(1) A massage establishment shall display prominently: (a) the massage establishment registration; (b) a copy of the state issued license for each licensed individual contracted with or employed by the establishment; (c) division resources required by rule made in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act; and (d) a sign that states some massage services offered at the registered massage establishment is performed by a massage assistant-in-training, a massage assistant, or a massage apprentice if the massage establishment employs or contracts with a massage assistant-in-training, a massage assistant, or a massage apprentice. (2) If a licensed individual has a reasonable belief that the licensed individual's safety may be compromised, the licensed individual may request that the provider redact the displayed license to provide only the first name and last initial and the license type for the licensed individual. (3) The massage establishment shall display signage that: (a) states the massage establishment has verified that all providers are licensed individuals under Section 58-47b-302; and (b) informs clients of: (i) the right to request the provider's first name and last initial and license type; and (ii) methods for reporting complaints to the division.
Utah Code § 58-11a-302.12 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-11a / § 58-11a-302.12
§ 58-11a-302.12. Practice of chemical hair services -- Chemical hair services permit -- Qualifications.
Status: in_force

(1) The practice of chemical hair services includes bleaching, tinting, coloring, relaxing, permanent waving, or similarly treating the hair of the head of an individual. (2) An individual may not engage in the practice of chemical hair services unless the individual holds a chemical hair services permit. (3) An applicant for a chemical hair service permit shall comply with the requirements in Section 58-11a-302 and: (a) attend a licensed or recognized school and complete a curriculum that: (i) covers chemical hair services; and (ii) has a minimum of 260 hours of instruction or the equivalent number of credit hours; or (b) complete an approved chemical hair service apprenticeship. (4) If the applicant graduates from a recognized school with less than 260 hours of instruction, the applicant may count hours practiced as a chemical hair service technician in a jurisdiction other than Utah to satisfy the 260 total hours requirement. (5) An individual with a chemical hair services permit may apply credit hours to another license or permit under this chapter, as allowed in Subsection 58-11a-302(2).
Utah Code § 58-55-505 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-55 / § 58-55-505
§ 58-55-505. Automatic fire sprinkler contractor.
Status: in_force

1/1/2027 (1) A fire sprinkler contractor shall have a qualifier that meets the requirements described in Section 58-55-107 and in Subsection (2). (2) The qualifier for a fire sprinkler contractor shall: (a) be a qualifier for a licensed general building contractor; or (b) submit evidence to the division of: (i) completing a United States Department of Labor federally approved apprentice training program, or two-years' experience supervised by a certified fire sprinkler contractor; (ii) passing the STAR Fire Sprinklerfitting Mastery Examination offered by the National Inspection Testing and Certification Corporation or an equivalent examination the division approves; or (iii) demonstrating to the division the equivalent training and experience, as the division determines by rules made with the director's concurrence and in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
Utah Code § 58-1-504 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-1 / § 58-1-504
§ 58-1-504. Court-ordered discipline.
Status: in_force

The division shall promptly withhold, suspend, restrict, or reinstate the use of a license issued under this title if so ordered by a court.
Utah Code § 58-89-103 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-89 / § 58-89-103
§ 58-89-103. State participation in the compact.
Status: in_force

(1) To participate in the Compact, a State must currently: (a) License and regulate the Practice of Dietetics; and (b) Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about Licensees. (2) A Member State shall: (a) Participate fully in the Compact Commission's Data System, including using the unique identifier as defined in Rules; (b) Notify the Compact Commission, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and Rules, of any Adverse Action or the availability of Current Significant Investigative Information regarding a Licensee; (c) Implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history record information of applicants for an initial Compact Privilege. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that State's criminal records; (i) A Member State must fully implement a criminal history record information requirement, within a time frame established by Rule, which includes receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search and shall use those results in determining Compact Privilege eligibility. (ii) Communication between a Member State and the Compact Commission or among Member States regarding the verification of eligibility for a Compact Privilege shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal history record information check performed by a Member State. (d) Comply with and enforce the Rules of the Compact Commission; (e) Require an applicant for a Compact Privilege to obtain or retain a License in the Licensee's Home State and meet the Home State's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable State laws; and (f) Recognize a Compact Privilege granted to a Licensee who meets all of the requirements outlined in Section 58-89-104 in accordance with the terms of the Compact and Rules. (3) Member States may set and collect a fee for granting a Compact Privilege. (4) Individuals not residing in a Member State shall continue to be able to apply for a Member State's Single State License as provided under the laws of each Member State. However, the Single State License granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting a Compact Privilege to engage in the Practice of Dietetics in any other Member State. (5) Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a Member State for the issuance of a Single State License. (6) At no point shall the Compact Commission have the power to define the requirements for the issuance of a Single State License to practice dietetics. The Member States shall retain sole jurisdiction over the provision of these requirements.
Utah Code § 58-76-103 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-76 / § 58-76-103
§ 58-76-103. Professional Geologist Education and Enforcement Account.
Status: in_force

(1) There is created a restricted account within the General Fund known as the "Professional Geologist Education and Enforcement Account." (2) The restricted account shall consist of money from: (a) a surcharge fee established by the department in accordance with Section 63J-1-504, placed on initial, renewal, and reinstatement licensure fees under this chapter not to exceed 50% of the respective initial, renewal, or reinstatement licensure fee; (b) administrative penalties collected pursuant to this chapter; and (c) interest earned on money in the account. (3) Money in the account may be appropriated by the Legislature for the following purposes: (a) education and training of licensees under this chapter; (b) education and training of the public or other interested persons in matters concerning geology laws and practices; (c) enforcement of this chapter by: (i) investigating unprofessional or unlawful conduct; (ii) providing legal representation to the division when legal action is taken against a person engaging in unprofessional or unlawful conduct; and (iii) monitoring compliance of renewal requirements; and (d) education and training of board members.
Utah Code § 58-17b-507 — Utah Code / Title 58 / Chapter 58-17b / § 58-17b-507
§ 58-17b-507. Opiate antagonist -- Immunity from liability -- Exclusion from unlawful or unprofessional conduct.
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section: (a) "Expired opiate antagonist" means an opiate antagonist that is no more than 24 months past the month and year of the opiate antagonist's expiration date. (b) (i) "Opiate antagonist" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26B-4-501. (ii) "Opiate antagonist" includes an expired opiate antagonist. (c) "Opiate-related drug overdose event" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26B-4-501. (2) A person licensed under this chapter that dispenses an opiate antagonist to an individual with a prescription for an opiate antagonist, to an overdose outreach provider with a prescription for an opiate antagonist, or pursuant to a standing prescription drug order issued in accordance with Subsection 26B-4-510(2) is not liable for any civil damages resulting from the outcomes of the eventual administration of the opiate antagonist to an individual who another individual believes is experiencing an opiate-related drug overdose event. (3) The provisions of this section and Title 26B, Chapter 4, Part 5, Treatment Access, do not establish a duty or standard of care in the prescribing, dispensing, or administration of an opiate antagonist. (4) It is not unprofessional conduct or unlawful conduct for a licensee under this chapter to dispense an opiate antagonist to a person, including a person described in Subsections 26B-4-512(1)(a)(i)(A) through (1)(a)(i)(F), on behalf of an individual if the person obtaining the opiate antagonist has a prescription for the opiate antagonist from a licensed prescriber or the opiate antagonist is dispensed pursuant to a standing prescription drug order issued in accordance with Subsection 26B-4-510(2). (5) It is not unprofessional conduct or unlawful conduct for a licensee under this chapter to dispense an opiate antagonist to an overdose outreach provider if the overdose outreach provider has a prescription for the opiate antagonist from a licensed prescriber issued pursuant to Subsection 26B-4-509(2)(a)(iii).