Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-1-164 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 1 / Section 63-1-164
Restrictions and limitations on treating patient with opioids
Status: in_force

(a) As used in this section: (1) "Alternative treatments" includes, but is not limited to, treatments such as chiropractic care, physical therapy, nonopioid medicinal drugs or drug products, occupational therapy, acupuncture, interventional procedures or treatments, and other such treatments that relieve pain without the use of opioids; (2) "Encounter" means a single visit where an opioid is administered or an opioid prescription is issued or dispensed; (3) "Healthcare practitioner" means a person licensed under this title who has the authority to prescribe or dispense controlled substances in the course of professional practice; (4) "ICD-10 code" means the code established in the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the code used in any successor classification system adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, that corresponds to the diagnosis of the condition being treated; (5) (A) "Informed consent" means consent voluntarily given in writing by the patient or the patient's legal representative after sufficient explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner of the subject matter involved to enable the person whose consent is sought to make a knowing and willful decision. This explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner to the patient or the patient's legal representative before consent may be obtained must include, at a minimum: (i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand: (a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion; (b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and (c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments; (ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative; (iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and (iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44); (B) Nothing in subdivision (a)(5)(A) limits other requirements imposed on healthcare practitioners by law or applicable licensing authority; (6) "Morphine milligram equivalent dose" means the morphine milligram equivalent calculation for the amount of a prescribed opioid, multiplied by the days of treatment; (7) "Palliative care" means specialized treatment for patients facing serious illness, which focuses on providing relief of suffering through a multidisciplinary approach in order to maximize quality of life for the patient. As used in this subdivision (a)(7), "serious illness" means a health condition that carries a high risk of mortality and negatively impacts a patient's daily bodily functions; (8) "Recent cancer treatment" means six (6) months following the end of an active cancer treatment; and (9) "Treat" means prescribe, dispense, or administer. (b) Except as provided in this section, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid and shall not treat a patient with an opioid dosage that exceeds a total of one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent dose. A healthcare practitioner shall not be required to include an ICD-10 code on any prescription for an opioid of a three-day supply or less and an opioid dosage of less than one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent. (c) (1) A patient shall not be treated with an opioid more frequently than every ten (10) days; provided, however, that if the patient has an adverse reaction to an opioid, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with a different opioid within a ten-day period under the following circumstances: (A) The healthcare practitioner is employed by the same practice that initially treated the patient with the opioid that caused the adverse reaction; (B) The healthcare practitioner personally evaluates the patient, assesses the patient's adverse reaction, and determines a different course of treatment is more medically appropriate; (C) The healthcare practitioner confirms with the dispenser that the remainder of the initial prescription has been cancelled by the dispenser; (D) The healthcare practitioner counsels the patient to appropriately destroy any remaining opioids that were previously dispensed to the patient; and (E) The healthcare practitioner's treatment of the patient conforms to the requirements of this section. (2) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(1), where the treatment provided by a healthcare practitioner is prescribing an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may authorize the prescription to be dispensed by partial fill by placing "partial fill" or "PF" on the prescription. (d) (1) (A) A healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid if the healthcare practitioner treats the patient with no more than one (1) prescription for an opioid per encounter and: (i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient; (ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted; (iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and (iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart. (B) A healthcare practitioner who is dispensing pursuant to a prescription written by another healthcare practitioner for more than a three-day supply of an opioid is not required to satisfy subdivisions (d)(1)(A)(i)-(iv) when filling a prescription that contains an ICD-10 code; provided, that the healthcare practitioner shall not dispense more than one (1) prescription for an opioid to a patient per encounter. (C) After issuing an initial prescription to a patient for an opioid in a manner that complies with subdivision (d)(1)(A), the healthcare practitioner who issued the initial prescription is not required to obtain and document informed consent as required under subdivision (d)(1)(A)(iv) if the subsequent prescription is for the same opioid and for the same episode of treatment. Notwithstanding this subdivision (d)(1)(C), informed consent must be updated periodically during any course of treatment. (2) If a healthcare practitioner treats a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may treat the patient with no more than a ten-day supply and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a five hundred (500) morphine milligram equivalent dose. (3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases where the patient has a condition that will be treated by a procedure that is more than minimally invasive and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a twelve hundred (1200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. (4) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases after trial and failure of reasonable, appropriate, and available non-opioid treatments for the pain condition or documenting the contraindication, inefficacy, or intolerance of non-opioid treatments, where medical necessity and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a one thousand two hundred (1,200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. The healthcare practitioner must include the phrase "medical necessity" on the prescription for any prescription issued pursuant to this subdivision (d)(4). (e) The restrictions of this section do not apply to the following; provided, that where a prescription is issued pursuant to this subsection (e), the prescription contains the ICD-10 code for the primary disease documented in the patient's chart and the word "exempt": (1) The treatment of patients who are undergoing active cancer treatment, have undergone recent cancer treatment, are undergoing palliative care treatment, or are receiving hospice care; (2) The treatment of patients with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease; (3) The administration of opioids directly to a patient during the patient's treatment at any facility licensed under title 68, chapter 11, or any hospital licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4; (4) Prescriptions issued by healthcare practitioners who are: (A) Pain management specialists, as that term is defined in § 63-1-301 , or who are collaborating with a pain management specialist in accordance with § 63-1-306(a)(3) ; provided, that the patient receiving the prescription is personally assessed by the pain management specialist, or by the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant collaborating with the pain management specialist; or (B) Treating patients in an outpatient setting of a hospital exempt under § 63-1-302(2) that holds itself out to the public as a pain management clinic. (5) The treatment of patients who have been treated with an opioid daily for ninety (90) days or more during the three hundred sixty-five (365) days prior to April 15, 2018, or those who are subsequently treated for ninety (90) days or more under one (1) of the exceptions listed in subdivision (d)(4) or this subsection (e); (6) The direct administration of, or dispensing of, methadone for the treatment of an opioid use disorder to a patient who is receiving treatment from a healthcare practitioner practicing under 21 U.S.C. § 823(g)(1) ; (7) The treatment of a patient for opioid use disorder with products that are approved by the U.S. food and drug administration for opioid use disorder by a healthcare practitioner; (8) The treatment of a patient with a product that is an opioid antagonist and does not contain an opioid agonist; or (9) The treatment of a patient who has suffered a severe burn or major physical trauma and for whom sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "severe burn" means an injury sustained from thermal or chemical causes resulting in second degree or third degree burns. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "major physical trauma" means a serious injury sustained due to blunt or penetrating force which results in serious blood loss, fracture, significant temporary or permanent impairment, or disability. (f) The commissioner of health, in consultation with the regulatory boards created pursuant to this title that license healthcare practitioners, shall provide a letter no later than November 1 of each even-numbered year to the governor, the speaker of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the health and welfare committee of the senate, and the health committee of the house of representatives that includes updated information on the impact and effects of the restrictions set forth in this section. The letter may include recommendations for revisions to the restrictions on the prescription of opioids. (g) This section applies only to the treatment of human patients. (h) This section does not apply to opioids approved by the food and drug administration to treat upper respiratory symptoms or cough. However, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a fourteen-day supply of such an opioid. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 575,s 6, eff. 3/15/2024. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 6, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 5, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 4, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 3, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 2, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 1, eff. 4/24/2023. Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 468, s 1, eff. 5/18/2021. Amended by 2020 Tenn. Acts, ch. 573, s 1, eff. 3/19/2020. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 124, Secs.s 7, s 9, s 10, s 11, s 12, s 13, eff. 4/9/2019 and s 8 eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, s 1, eff. 4/9/2019. Acts 2018 , ch. 1039, § 6, eff. 7/1/2023.
(a) As used in this section: (1) "Alternative treatments" includes, but is not limited to, treatments such as chiropractic care, physical therapy, nonopioid medicinal drugs or drug products, occupational therapy, acupuncture, interventional procedures or treatments, and other such treatments that relieve pain without the use of opioids; (2) "Encounter" means a single visit where an opioid is administered or an opioid prescription is issued or dispensed; (3) "Healthcare practitioner" means a person licensed under this title who has the authority to prescribe or dispense controlled substances in the course of professional practice; (4) "ICD-10 code" means the code established in the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the code used in any successor classification system adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, that corresponds to the diagnosis of the condition being treated; (5) (A) "Informed consent" means consent voluntarily given in writing by the patient or the patient's legal representative after sufficient explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner of the subject matter involved to enable the person whose consent is sought to make a knowing and willful decision. This explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner to the patient or the patient's legal representative before consent may be obtained must include, at a minimum: (i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand: (a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion; (b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and (c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments; (ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative; (iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and (iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44); (B) Nothing in subdivision (a)(5)(A) limits other requirements imposed on healthcare practitioners by law or applicable licensing authority; (6) "Morphine milligram equivalent dose" means the morphine milligram equivalent calculation for the amount of a prescribed opioid, multiplied by the days of treatment; (7) "Palliative care" means specialized treatment for patients facing serious illness, which focuses on providing relief of suffering through a multidisciplinary approach in order to maximize quality of life for the patient. As used in this subdivision (a)(7), "serious illness" means a health condition that carries a high risk of mortality and negatively impacts a patient's daily bodily functions; (8) "Recent cancer treatment" means six (6) months following the end of an active cancer treatment; and (9) "Treat" means prescribe, dispense, or administer.
(1) "Alternative treatments" includes, but is not limited to, treatments such as chiropractic care, physical therapy, nonopioid medicinal drugs or drug products, occupational therapy, acupuncture, interventional procedures or treatments, and other such treatments that relieve pain without the use of opioids;
(2) "Encounter" means a single visit where an opioid is administered or an opioid prescription is issued or dispensed;
(3) "Healthcare practitioner" means a person licensed under this title who has the authority to prescribe or dispense controlled substances in the course of professional practice;
(4) "ICD-10 code" means the code established in the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, or the code used in any successor classification system adopted by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services, that corresponds to the diagnosis of the condition being treated;
(5) (A) "Informed consent" means consent voluntarily given in writing by the patient or the patient's legal representative after sufficient explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner of the subject matter involved to enable the person whose consent is sought to make a knowing and willful decision. This explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner to the patient or the patient's legal representative before consent may be obtained must include, at a minimum: (i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand: (a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion; (b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and (c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments; (ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative; (iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and (iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44); (B) Nothing in subdivision (a)(5)(A) limits other requirements imposed on healthcare practitioners by law or applicable licensing authority;
(A) "Informed consent" means consent voluntarily given in writing by the patient or the patient's legal representative after sufficient explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner of the subject matter involved to enable the person whose consent is sought to make a knowing and willful decision. This explanation and disclosure by the healthcare practitioner to the patient or the patient's legal representative before consent may be obtained must include, at a minimum: (i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand: (a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion; (b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and (c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments; (ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative; (iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and (iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44);
(i) Adequate information to allow the patient or the patient's legal representative to understand: (a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion; (b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and (c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments;
(a) The risks, effects, and characteristics of opioids, including the risks of physical dependency and addiction, misuse, and diversion;
(b) What to expect when taking an opioid and how opioids should be used; and
(c) Reasonable alternatives to opioids for treating or managing the patient's condition or symptoms and the benefits and risks of the alternative treatments;
(ii) A reasonable opportunity for questions by the patient or patient's legal representative;
(iii) Discussion and consideration by the patient or the patient's legal representative and the healthcare practitioner of whether the patient should take an opioid medication; and
(iv) If the patient is a woman of childbearing age and ability, information regarding neonatal abstinence syndrome and specific information regarding how to access contraceptive services in the community. For purposes of this section, childbearing age is between the ages of fifteen (15) and forty-four (44);
(B) Nothing in subdivision (a)(5)(A) limits other requirements imposed on healthcare practitioners by law or applicable licensing authority;
(6) "Morphine milligram equivalent dose" means the morphine milligram equivalent calculation for the amount of a prescribed opioid, multiplied by the days of treatment;
(7) "Palliative care" means specialized treatment for patients facing serious illness, which focuses on providing relief of suffering through a multidisciplinary approach in order to maximize quality of life for the patient. As used in this subdivision (a)(7), "serious illness" means a health condition that carries a high risk of mortality and negatively impacts a patient's daily bodily functions;
(8) "Recent cancer treatment" means six (6) months following the end of an active cancer treatment; and
(9) "Treat" means prescribe, dispense, or administer.
(b) Except as provided in this section, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid and shall not treat a patient with an opioid dosage that exceeds a total of one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent dose. A healthcare practitioner shall not be required to include an ICD-10 code on any prescription for an opioid of a three-day supply or less and an opioid dosage of less than one hundred eighty (180) morphine milligram equivalent.
(c) (1) A patient shall not be treated with an opioid more frequently than every ten (10) days; provided, however, that if the patient has an adverse reaction to an opioid, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with a different opioid within a ten-day period under the following circumstances: (A) The healthcare practitioner is employed by the same practice that initially treated the patient with the opioid that caused the adverse reaction; (B) The healthcare practitioner personally evaluates the patient, assesses the patient's adverse reaction, and determines a different course of treatment is more medically appropriate; (C) The healthcare practitioner confirms with the dispenser that the remainder of the initial prescription has been cancelled by the dispenser; (D) The healthcare practitioner counsels the patient to appropriately destroy any remaining opioids that were previously dispensed to the patient; and (E) The healthcare practitioner's treatment of the patient conforms to the requirements of this section. (2) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(1), where the treatment provided by a healthcare practitioner is prescribing an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may authorize the prescription to be dispensed by partial fill by placing "partial fill" or "PF" on the prescription.
(1) A patient shall not be treated with an opioid more frequently than every ten (10) days; provided, however, that if the patient has an adverse reaction to an opioid, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with a different opioid within a ten-day period under the following circumstances: (A) The healthcare practitioner is employed by the same practice that initially treated the patient with the opioid that caused the adverse reaction; (B) The healthcare practitioner personally evaluates the patient, assesses the patient's adverse reaction, and determines a different course of treatment is more medically appropriate; (C) The healthcare practitioner confirms with the dispenser that the remainder of the initial prescription has been cancelled by the dispenser; (D) The healthcare practitioner counsels the patient to appropriately destroy any remaining opioids that were previously dispensed to the patient; and (E) The healthcare practitioner's treatment of the patient conforms to the requirements of this section.
(A) The healthcare practitioner is employed by the same practice that initially treated the patient with the opioid that caused the adverse reaction;
(B) The healthcare practitioner personally evaluates the patient, assesses the patient's adverse reaction, and determines a different course of treatment is more medically appropriate;
(C) The healthcare practitioner confirms with the dispenser that the remainder of the initial prescription has been cancelled by the dispenser;
(D) The healthcare practitioner counsels the patient to appropriately destroy any remaining opioids that were previously dispensed to the patient; and
(E) The healthcare practitioner's treatment of the patient conforms to the requirements of this section.
(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(1), where the treatment provided by a healthcare practitioner is prescribing an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may authorize the prescription to be dispensed by partial fill by placing "partial fill" or "PF" on the prescription.
(d) (1) (A) A healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid if the healthcare practitioner treats the patient with no more than one (1) prescription for an opioid per encounter and: (i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient; (ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted; (iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and (iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart. (B) A healthcare practitioner who is dispensing pursuant to a prescription written by another healthcare practitioner for more than a three-day supply of an opioid is not required to satisfy subdivisions (d)(1)(A)(i)-(iv) when filling a prescription that contains an ICD-10 code; provided, that the healthcare practitioner shall not dispense more than one (1) prescription for an opioid to a patient per encounter. (C) After issuing an initial prescription to a patient for an opioid in a manner that complies with subdivision (d)(1)(A), the healthcare practitioner who issued the initial prescription is not required to obtain and document informed consent as required under subdivision (d)(1)(A)(iv) if the subsequent prescription is for the same opioid and for the same episode of treatment. Notwithstanding this subdivision (d)(1)(C), informed consent must be updated periodically during any course of treatment. (2) If a healthcare practitioner treats a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may treat the patient with no more than a ten-day supply and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a five hundred (500) morphine milligram equivalent dose. (3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases where the patient has a condition that will be treated by a procedure that is more than minimally invasive and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a twelve hundred (1200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. (4) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases after trial and failure of reasonable, appropriate, and available non-opioid treatments for the pain condition or documenting the contraindication, inefficacy, or intolerance of non-opioid treatments, where medical necessity and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a one thousand two hundred (1,200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. The healthcare practitioner must include the phrase "medical necessity" on the prescription for any prescription issued pursuant to this subdivision (d)(4).
(1) (A) A healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid if the healthcare practitioner treats the patient with no more than one (1) prescription for an opioid per encounter and: (i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient; (ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted; (iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and (iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart. (B) A healthcare practitioner who is dispensing pursuant to a prescription written by another healthcare practitioner for more than a three-day supply of an opioid is not required to satisfy subdivisions (d)(1)(A)(i)-(iv) when filling a prescription that contains an ICD-10 code; provided, that the healthcare practitioner shall not dispense more than one (1) prescription for an opioid to a patient per encounter. (C) After issuing an initial prescription to a patient for an opioid in a manner that complies with subdivision (d)(1)(A), the healthcare practitioner who issued the initial prescription is not required to obtain and document informed consent as required under subdivision (d)(1)(A)(iv) if the subsequent prescription is for the same opioid and for the same episode of treatment. Notwithstanding this subdivision (d)(1)(C), informed consent must be updated periodically during any course of treatment.
(A) A healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid if the healthcare practitioner treats the patient with no more than one (1) prescription for an opioid per encounter and: (i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient; (ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted; (iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and (iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart.
(i) Personally conducts a thorough evaluation of the patient;
(ii) Documents consideration of non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies and why the strategies failed or were not attempted;
(iii) Includes the ICD-10 code for the primary disease in the patient's chart, and on the prescription when a prescription is issued; and
(iv) Obtains informed consent, except as provided in subdivision (d)(1)(C), and documents the reason for treating with an opioid in the chart.
(B) A healthcare practitioner who is dispensing pursuant to a prescription written by another healthcare practitioner for more than a three-day supply of an opioid is not required to satisfy subdivisions (d)(1)(A)(i)-(iv) when filling a prescription that contains an ICD-10 code; provided, that the healthcare practitioner shall not dispense more than one (1) prescription for an opioid to a patient per encounter.
(C) After issuing an initial prescription to a patient for an opioid in a manner that complies with subdivision (d)(1)(A), the healthcare practitioner who issued the initial prescription is not required to obtain and document informed consent as required under subdivision (d)(1)(A)(iv) if the subsequent prescription is for the same opioid and for the same episode of treatment. Notwithstanding this subdivision (d)(1)(C), informed consent must be updated periodically during any course of treatment.
(2) If a healthcare practitioner treats a patient with more than a three-day supply of an opioid, the healthcare practitioner may treat the patient with no more than a ten-day supply and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a five hundred (500) morphine milligram equivalent dose.
(3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases where the patient has a condition that will be treated by a procedure that is more than minimally invasive and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a twelve hundred (1200) morphine milligram equivalent dose.
(4) Notwithstanding subdivision (d)(2), in rare cases after trial and failure of reasonable, appropriate, and available non-opioid treatments for the pain condition or documenting the contraindication, inefficacy, or intolerance of non-opioid treatments, where medical necessity and sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event, a healthcare practitioner may treat a patient with up to a thirty-day supply of an opioid and with a dosage that does not exceed a total of a one thousand two hundred (1,200) morphine milligram equivalent dose. The healthcare practitioner must include the phrase "medical necessity" on the prescription for any prescription issued pursuant to this subdivision (d)(4).
(e) The restrictions of this section do not apply to the following; provided, that where a prescription is issued pursuant to this subsection (e), the prescription contains the ICD-10 code for the primary disease documented in the patient's chart and the word "exempt": (1) The treatment of patients who are undergoing active cancer treatment, have undergone recent cancer treatment, are undergoing palliative care treatment, or are receiving hospice care; (2) The treatment of patients with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease; (3) The administration of opioids directly to a patient during the patient's treatment at any facility licensed under title 68, chapter 11, or any hospital licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4; (4) Prescriptions issued by healthcare practitioners who are: (A) Pain management specialists, as that term is defined in § 63-1-301 , or who are collaborating with a pain management specialist in accordance with § 63-1-306(a)(3) ; provided, that the patient receiving the prescription is personally assessed by the pain management specialist, or by the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant collaborating with the pain management specialist; or (B) Treating patients in an outpatient setting of a hospital exempt under § 63-1-302(2) that holds itself out to the public as a pain management clinic. (5) The treatment of patients who have been treated with an opioid daily for ninety (90) days or more during the three hundred sixty-five (365) days prior to April 15, 2018, or those who are subsequently treated for ninety (90) days or more under one (1) of the exceptions listed in subdivision (d)(4) or this subsection (e); (6) The direct administration of, or dispensing of, methadone for the treatment of an opioid use disorder to a patient who is receiving treatment from a healthcare practitioner practicing under 21 U.S.C. § 823(g)(1) ; (7) The treatment of a patient for opioid use disorder with products that are approved by the U.S. food and drug administration for opioid use disorder by a healthcare practitioner; (8) The treatment of a patient with a product that is an opioid antagonist and does not contain an opioid agonist; or (9) The treatment of a patient who has suffered a severe burn or major physical trauma and for whom sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "severe burn" means an injury sustained from thermal or chemical causes resulting in second degree or third degree burns. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "major physical trauma" means a serious injury sustained due to blunt or penetrating force which results in serious blood loss, fracture, significant temporary or permanent impairment, or disability.
(1) The treatment of patients who are undergoing active cancer treatment, have undergone recent cancer treatment, are undergoing palliative care treatment, or are receiving hospice care;
(2) The treatment of patients with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease;
(3) The administration of opioids directly to a patient during the patient's treatment at any facility licensed under title 68, chapter 11, or any hospital licensed under title 33, chapter 2, part 4;
(4) Prescriptions issued by healthcare practitioners who are: (A) Pain management specialists, as that term is defined in § 63-1-301 , or who are collaborating with a pain management specialist in accordance with § 63-1-306(a)(3) ; provided, that the patient receiving the prescription is personally assessed by the pain management specialist, or by the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant collaborating with the pain management specialist; or (B) Treating patients in an outpatient setting of a hospital exempt under § 63-1-302(2) that holds itself out to the public as a pain management clinic.
(A) Pain management specialists, as that term is defined in § 63-1-301 , or who are collaborating with a pain management specialist in accordance with § 63-1-306(a)(3) ; provided, that the patient receiving the prescription is personally assessed by the pain management specialist, or by the advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant collaborating with the pain management specialist; or
(B) Treating patients in an outpatient setting of a hospital exempt under § 63-1-302(2) that holds itself out to the public as a pain management clinic.
(5) The treatment of patients who have been treated with an opioid daily for ninety (90) days or more during the three hundred sixty-five (365) days prior to April 15, 2018, or those who are subsequently treated for ninety (90) days or more under one (1) of the exceptions listed in subdivision (d)(4) or this subsection (e);
(6) The direct administration of, or dispensing of, methadone for the treatment of an opioid use disorder to a patient who is receiving treatment from a healthcare practitioner practicing under 21 U.S.C. § 823(g)(1) ;
(7) The treatment of a patient for opioid use disorder with products that are approved by the U.S. food and drug administration for opioid use disorder by a healthcare practitioner;
(8) The treatment of a patient with a product that is an opioid antagonist and does not contain an opioid agonist; or
(9) The treatment of a patient who has suffered a severe burn or major physical trauma and for whom sound medical judgment would determine the risk of adverse effects from the pain exceeds the risk of the development of a substance use disorder or overdose event. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "severe burn" means an injury sustained from thermal or chemical causes resulting in second degree or third degree burns. As used in this subdivision (e)(9), "major physical trauma" means a serious injury sustained due to blunt or penetrating force which results in serious blood loss, fracture, significant temporary or permanent impairment, or disability.
(f) The commissioner of health, in consultation with the regulatory boards created pursuant to this title that license healthcare practitioners, shall provide a letter no later than November 1 of each even-numbered year to the governor, the speaker of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the health and welfare committee of the senate, and the health committee of the house of representatives that includes updated information on the impact and effects of the restrictions set forth in this section. The letter may include recommendations for revisions to the restrictions on the prescription of opioids.
(g) This section applies only to the treatment of human patients.
(h) This section does not apply to opioids approved by the food and drug administration to treat upper respiratory symptoms or cough. However, a healthcare practitioner shall not treat a patient with more than a fourteen-day supply of such an opioid.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 575,s 6, eff. 3/15/2024.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 6, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 5, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 4, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 3, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 2, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 188, s 1, eff. 4/24/2023.
Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 468, s 1, eff. 5/18/2021.
Amended by 2020 Tenn. Acts, ch. 573, s 1, eff. 3/19/2020.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 124, Secs.s 7, s 9, s 10, s 11, s 12, s 13, eff. 4/9/2019 and s 8 eff. 7/1/2019.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, s 1, eff. 4/9/2019.
Acts 2018 , ch. 1039, § 6, eff. 7/1/2023.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-12-124 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 12 / Section 63-12-124
Denial, suspension or revocation of license - Investigation - Immunity of informants
Status: in_force

(a) The board, pursuant to the procedure prescribed in this section, has the power to deny, suspend or revoke any license or to otherwise discipline an applicant or licensee who is found guilty by the board of one (1) or more of the following: (1) Willful or repeated violation of any provisions of this chapter or any rules of the board; (2) Fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice veterinary medicine, or presenting to the board dishonest or fraudulent evidence of qualification or fraud or deception in the process of examination for the purpose of securing a license; (3) The willful failure to display a license; (4) Fraud, deception, misrepresentation, dishonest or illegal practices in or connected with the practice of veterinary medicine in any of its branches; (5) Willfully making any misrepresentation in the inspection of food for human consumption; (6) Fraudulently issuing or using any health certificate, vaccination certificate, inspection certificate, test chart or other blank form used in the practice of veterinary medicine to the dissemination of animal disease, transportation of diseased animals or the sale of inedible products of animal origin for human consumption; (7) Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating or reporting on tuberculin, diagnostic or other biological test; (8) Failure to keep the equipment and premises of the business establishment in a clean and sanitary condition; (9) Refusing to permit the board or any legal representative of the board to inspect the business premises of the licensee during regular business hours; (10) Circulating knowingly untrue, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive advertising; (11) Gross malpractice or a pattern of continued or repeated malpractice, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of veterinary medical practice; (12) Unprofessional or unethical conduct or engaging in practices in connection with the practice of veterinary medicine that are in violation of the standards of professional conduct as defined in this section or prescribed by the rules of the board; (13) Conduct reflecting unfavorably upon the profession of veterinary medicine; (14) The willful making of any false statement as to a material matter in any oath or affidavit that is required by this chapter; (15) Revocation by another state of a license to practice veterinary medicine in that state, in which case the record of such revocation shall be conclusive evidence; (16) Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals; (17) Conviction of a felony under federal or state law involving use, misuse, possession or sale of any controlled substance or controlled substance analogue; (18) Conviction of a felony in the courts of this state, or of any other state, territory or country that, if committed in this state, would be a felony; (A) The record of conviction in a court of competent jurisdiction shall be sufficient evidence for disciplinary action to be taken as may be considered proper by the board. For the purpose of this chapter, a conviction shall be considered to be a conviction that has been upheld by the highest appellate court having jurisdiction or a conviction upon which the time for filing an appeal has passed; and (B) A record of conviction upon charges that involve the unlawful practice of veterinary medicine; and based upon such record of conviction, without any other testimony, the board may take temporary disciplinary action even though an appeal for review by a higher court may be pending; (19) Permitting or allowing another to use the licensee's license for the purpose of treating or offering to treat sick, injured or affected animals; (20) Engaging in the practice of veterinary medicine under a false or assumed name or the impersonation of another practitioner of a like, similar or different name; (21) Has been guilty of employing or permitting any person who does not hold a license to practice veterinary medicine in this state to perform work that, under this chapter, can lawfully be done only by persons holding such license and permitted by law to practice veterinary medicine in this state. It shall be conclusively presumed that any unlicensed person, if employed by a licensed person, was employed for such purpose if the unlicensed person has attended any school of veterinary medicine or surgery, accredited or otherwise, for a period of over thirty (30) days; (22) Addiction to the habitual use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics or other stimulants to such an extent as to incapacitate the applicant or licensee from the performance of the applicant's or the licensee's professional obligations and duties; (23) Professional incompetence; (24) Having been adjudged mentally incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction and the disabilities of such person not having been restored or the voluntary commitment or admission to a state hospital or other mental institution. The record of adjudication, judgment, order or voluntary commitment is conclusive evidence of such mental illness; and upon receipt of a certified copy of any such adjudication, judgment, order or record of voluntary commitment by the board, it may suspend the license of the person so adjudicated or committed; (25) Failure to report, as required by law, or making false report of, any contagious or infectious disease as referred to under the United States department of agriculture (USDA) standards for accreditation of veterinarians in Tennessee and other states; (26) Has been found guilty of using biologicals or other drugs that have deteriorated or after the expiration date of that particular lot or serial number; (27) Has been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude; (28) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance or any other drug not in the course of the accepted practice of veterinary medicine; or (29) Practicing veterinary medicine without establishing and maintaining a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship. (b) The board may, on its own motion, cause to be investigated any report indicating that a veterinarian is or may be in violation of this chapter. (c) Any person who in good faith shall report to the board any information that a veterinarian is or may be in violation of any provisions of this chapter shall not be subject to suit for civil damages as a result thereof. (d) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title. Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745, s 29, eff. 7/1/2018. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 819, s 4, eff. 7/1/2016. Acts 1967, ch. 80, § 24; T.C.A., § 63-1224; Acts 1983, ch. 57, § 14; 2012 , ch. 848, § 76.
(a) The board, pursuant to the procedure prescribed in this section, has the power to deny, suspend or revoke any license or to otherwise discipline an applicant or licensee who is found guilty by the board of one (1) or more of the following: (1) Willful or repeated violation of any provisions of this chapter or any rules of the board; (2) Fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice veterinary medicine, or presenting to the board dishonest or fraudulent evidence of qualification or fraud or deception in the process of examination for the purpose of securing a license; (3) The willful failure to display a license; (4) Fraud, deception, misrepresentation, dishonest or illegal practices in or connected with the practice of veterinary medicine in any of its branches; (5) Willfully making any misrepresentation in the inspection of food for human consumption; (6) Fraudulently issuing or using any health certificate, vaccination certificate, inspection certificate, test chart or other blank form used in the practice of veterinary medicine to the dissemination of animal disease, transportation of diseased animals or the sale of inedible products of animal origin for human consumption; (7) Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating or reporting on tuberculin, diagnostic or other biological test; (8) Failure to keep the equipment and premises of the business establishment in a clean and sanitary condition; (9) Refusing to permit the board or any legal representative of the board to inspect the business premises of the licensee during regular business hours; (10) Circulating knowingly untrue, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive advertising; (11) Gross malpractice or a pattern of continued or repeated malpractice, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of veterinary medical practice; (12) Unprofessional or unethical conduct or engaging in practices in connection with the practice of veterinary medicine that are in violation of the standards of professional conduct as defined in this section or prescribed by the rules of the board; (13) Conduct reflecting unfavorably upon the profession of veterinary medicine; (14) The willful making of any false statement as to a material matter in any oath or affidavit that is required by this chapter; (15) Revocation by another state of a license to practice veterinary medicine in that state, in which case the record of such revocation shall be conclusive evidence; (16) Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals; (17) Conviction of a felony under federal or state law involving use, misuse, possession or sale of any controlled substance or controlled substance analogue; (18) Conviction of a felony in the courts of this state, or of any other state, territory or country that, if committed in this state, would be a felony; (A) The record of conviction in a court of competent jurisdiction shall be sufficient evidence for disciplinary action to be taken as may be considered proper by the board. For the purpose of this chapter, a conviction shall be considered to be a conviction that has been upheld by the highest appellate court having jurisdiction or a conviction upon which the time for filing an appeal has passed; and (B) A record of conviction upon charges that involve the unlawful practice of veterinary medicine; and based upon such record of conviction, without any other testimony, the board may take temporary disciplinary action even though an appeal for review by a higher court may be pending; (19) Permitting or allowing another to use the licensee's license for the purpose of treating or offering to treat sick, injured or affected animals; (20) Engaging in the practice of veterinary medicine under a false or assumed name or the impersonation of another practitioner of a like, similar or different name; (21) Has been guilty of employing or permitting any person who does not hold a license to practice veterinary medicine in this state to perform work that, under this chapter, can lawfully be done only by persons holding such license and permitted by law to practice veterinary medicine in this state. It shall be conclusively presumed that any unlicensed person, if employed by a licensed person, was employed for such purpose if the unlicensed person has attended any school of veterinary medicine or surgery, accredited or otherwise, for a period of over thirty (30) days; (22) Addiction to the habitual use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics or other stimulants to such an extent as to incapacitate the applicant or licensee from the performance of the applicant's or the licensee's professional obligations and duties; (23) Professional incompetence; (24) Having been adjudged mentally incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction and the disabilities of such person not having been restored or the voluntary commitment or admission to a state hospital or other mental institution. The record of adjudication, judgment, order or voluntary commitment is conclusive evidence of such mental illness; and upon receipt of a certified copy of any such adjudication, judgment, order or record of voluntary commitment by the board, it may suspend the license of the person so adjudicated or committed; (25) Failure to report, as required by law, or making false report of, any contagious or infectious disease as referred to under the United States department of agriculture (USDA) standards for accreditation of veterinarians in Tennessee and other states; (26) Has been found guilty of using biologicals or other drugs that have deteriorated or after the expiration date of that particular lot or serial number; (27) Has been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude; (28) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance or any other drug not in the course of the accepted practice of veterinary medicine; or (29) Practicing veterinary medicine without establishing and maintaining a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship.
(1) Willful or repeated violation of any provisions of this chapter or any rules of the board;
(2) Fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice veterinary medicine, or presenting to the board dishonest or fraudulent evidence of qualification or fraud or deception in the process of examination for the purpose of securing a license;
(3) The willful failure to display a license;
(4) Fraud, deception, misrepresentation, dishonest or illegal practices in or connected with the practice of veterinary medicine in any of its branches;
(5) Willfully making any misrepresentation in the inspection of food for human consumption;
(6) Fraudulently issuing or using any health certificate, vaccination certificate, inspection certificate, test chart or other blank form used in the practice of veterinary medicine to the dissemination of animal disease, transportation of diseased animals or the sale of inedible products of animal origin for human consumption;
(7) Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating or reporting on tuberculin, diagnostic or other biological test;
(8) Failure to keep the equipment and premises of the business establishment in a clean and sanitary condition;
(9) Refusing to permit the board or any legal representative of the board to inspect the business premises of the licensee during regular business hours;
(10) Circulating knowingly untrue, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive advertising;
(11) Gross malpractice or a pattern of continued or repeated malpractice, ignorance, negligence or incompetence in the course of veterinary medical practice;
(12) Unprofessional or unethical conduct or engaging in practices in connection with the practice of veterinary medicine that are in violation of the standards of professional conduct as defined in this section or prescribed by the rules of the board;
(13) Conduct reflecting unfavorably upon the profession of veterinary medicine;
(14) The willful making of any false statement as to a material matter in any oath or affidavit that is required by this chapter;
(15) Revocation by another state of a license to practice veterinary medicine in that state, in which case the record of such revocation shall be conclusive evidence;
(16) Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals;
(17) Conviction of a felony under federal or state law involving use, misuse, possession or sale of any controlled substance or controlled substance analogue;
(18) Conviction of a felony in the courts of this state, or of any other state, territory or country that, if committed in this state, would be a felony; (A) The record of conviction in a court of competent jurisdiction shall be sufficient evidence for disciplinary action to be taken as may be considered proper by the board. For the purpose of this chapter, a conviction shall be considered to be a conviction that has been upheld by the highest appellate court having jurisdiction or a conviction upon which the time for filing an appeal has passed; and (B) A record of conviction upon charges that involve the unlawful practice of veterinary medicine; and based upon such record of conviction, without any other testimony, the board may take temporary disciplinary action even though an appeal for review by a higher court may be pending;
(A) The record of conviction in a court of competent jurisdiction shall be sufficient evidence for disciplinary action to be taken as may be considered proper by the board. For the purpose of this chapter, a conviction shall be considered to be a conviction that has been upheld by the highest appellate court having jurisdiction or a conviction upon which the time for filing an appeal has passed; and
(B) A record of conviction upon charges that involve the unlawful practice of veterinary medicine; and based upon such record of conviction, without any other testimony, the board may take temporary disciplinary action even though an appeal for review by a higher court may be pending;
(19) Permitting or allowing another to use the licensee's license for the purpose of treating or offering to treat sick, injured or affected animals;
(20) Engaging in the practice of veterinary medicine under a false or assumed name or the impersonation of another practitioner of a like, similar or different name;
(21) Has been guilty of employing or permitting any person who does not hold a license to practice veterinary medicine in this state to perform work that, under this chapter, can lawfully be done only by persons holding such license and permitted by law to practice veterinary medicine in this state. It shall be conclusively presumed that any unlicensed person, if employed by a licensed person, was employed for such purpose if the unlicensed person has attended any school of veterinary medicine or surgery, accredited or otherwise, for a period of over thirty (30) days;
(22) Addiction to the habitual use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics or other stimulants to such an extent as to incapacitate the applicant or licensee from the performance of the applicant's or the licensee's professional obligations and duties;
(23) Professional incompetence;
(24) Having been adjudged mentally incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction and the disabilities of such person not having been restored or the voluntary commitment or admission to a state hospital or other mental institution. The record of adjudication, judgment, order or voluntary commitment is conclusive evidence of such mental illness; and upon receipt of a certified copy of any such adjudication, judgment, order or record of voluntary commitment by the board, it may suspend the license of the person so adjudicated or committed;
(25) Failure to report, as required by law, or making false report of, any contagious or infectious disease as referred to under the United States department of agriculture (USDA) standards for accreditation of veterinarians in Tennessee and other states;
(26) Has been found guilty of using biologicals or other drugs that have deteriorated or after the expiration date of that particular lot or serial number;
(27) Has been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude;
(28) Dispensing, prescribing or otherwise distributing any controlled substance or any other drug not in the course of the accepted practice of veterinary medicine; or
(29) Practicing veterinary medicine without establishing and maintaining a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship.
(b) The board may, on its own motion, cause to be investigated any report indicating that a veterinarian is or may be in violation of this chapter.
(c) Any person who in good faith shall report to the board any information that a veterinarian is or may be in violation of any provisions of this chapter shall not be subject to suit for civil damages as a result thereof.
(d) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title.
Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745, s 29, eff. 7/1/2018.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 819, s 4, eff. 7/1/2016.
Acts 1967, ch. 80, § 24; T.C.A., § 63-1224; Acts 1983, ch. 57, § 14; 2012 , ch. 848, § 76.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-209 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-209
Duties of executive director
Status: in_force

The duties of the executive director of the board shall be such as are prescribed by the board and shall include the following: (1) Within thirty (30) days after the election of the officers of the board, the executive director shall certify to the governor the names of the officers so elected. A vacancy in any office or in the board membership shall likewise be certified by the executive director to the governor; (2) Keep a record of the minutes of the meetings of the board, a record of all persons applying for licenses under this chapter and of the actions of the board thereon and a register of all nurses who have complied with the requirements of the chapter. Such records shall at all reasonable times be open to public inspection; (3) Make a bond in such sum as required by the board, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties of the office. The premium of the bond shall be paid by the board; (4) Issue licenses to nurses complying with the requirements of this chapter and issue renewal certificates as provided in this chapter; and (5) From time to time, as may be determined by the board, render such reports and accountings as the board may order. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 10; T.C.A., § 63-738.
The duties of the executive director of the board shall be such as are prescribed by the board and shall include the following:
(1) Within thirty (30) days after the election of the officers of the board, the executive director shall certify to the governor the names of the officers so elected. A vacancy in any office or in the board membership shall likewise be certified by the executive director to the governor;
(2) Keep a record of the minutes of the meetings of the board, a record of all persons applying for licenses under this chapter and of the actions of the board thereon and a register of all nurses who have complied with the requirements of the chapter. Such records shall at all reasonable times be open to public inspection;
(3) Make a bond in such sum as required by the board, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties of the office. The premium of the bond shall be paid by the board;
(4) Issue licenses to nurses complying with the requirements of this chapter and issue renewal certificates as provided in this chapter; and
(5) From time to time, as may be determined by the board, render such reports and accountings as the board may order.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 10; T.C.A., § 63-738.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-114 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-114
Renewal of license
Status: in_force

(a) All licensed professional or registered nurses shall submit an application for renewal of licensure registration to the board of nursing with a biennial renewal fee as set by the board. (b) Each licensed practical nurse shall submit an application for the renewal of licensure registration to the board with a biennial renewal fee as set by the board. (c) (1) Notwithstanding this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period. However, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board shall determine that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢). (2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in this subsection (c). (d) The executive director of the board shall notify each person holding a current licensure registration to practice as a professional or registered nurse or as a practical nurse at least sixty (60) days prior to the due date of the renewal fee that the fee is due. Failure of any licensee to receive such notice shall not relieve or exempt such licensee from the requirements of this section. (e) The license of any nurse who fails to renew the licensure registration, provide any information requested by the board to perform its duties or pay any fees required by this chapter shall be automatically revoked unless registration is made within sixty (60) days. Reinstatement may be obtained upon good cause being shown to the board, payment of all past due fees and upon payment of a reinstatement fee as set by the board. The board may request evidence of nursing competence prior to renewal of the nursing license. (f) Any nurse who has not been engaged in the practice of nursing for five (5) years or more shall be issued an inactive license. If such nurse desires to resume practice, notice in writing shall be given to the board and evidence of nursing competence may be required prior to license renewal. The board shall evaluate, on an individual basis, evidence of nursing competence, which may include, but is not limited to, continuing education, a refresher program, comprehensive orientation program, employment in a health-related policy position or nursing educational program. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 23; 1972, ch. 523, § 2; 1976, ch. 501, § 9; 1981, ch. 462, § 13; T.C.A., § 63-751; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 7; 1989, ch. 360, §§ 27-29; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 209-211; 2005, ch. 387, §§ 8, 9.
(a) All licensed professional or registered nurses shall submit an application for renewal of licensure registration to the board of nursing with a biennial renewal fee as set by the board.
(b) Each licensed practical nurse shall submit an application for the renewal of licensure registration to the board with a biennial renewal fee as set by the board.
(c) (1) Notwithstanding this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period. However, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board shall determine that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢). (2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in this subsection (c).
(1) Notwithstanding this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period. However, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board shall determine that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢).
(2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in this subsection (c).
(d) The executive director of the board shall notify each person holding a current licensure registration to practice as a professional or registered nurse or as a practical nurse at least sixty (60) days prior to the due date of the renewal fee that the fee is due. Failure of any licensee to receive such notice shall not relieve or exempt such licensee from the requirements of this section.
(e) The license of any nurse who fails to renew the licensure registration, provide any information requested by the board to perform its duties or pay any fees required by this chapter shall be automatically revoked unless registration is made within sixty (60) days. Reinstatement may be obtained upon good cause being shown to the board, payment of all past due fees and upon payment of a reinstatement fee as set by the board. The board may request evidence of nursing competence prior to renewal of the nursing license.
(f) Any nurse who has not been engaged in the practice of nursing for five (5) years or more shall be issued an inactive license. If such nurse desires to resume practice, notice in writing shall be given to the board and evidence of nursing competence may be required prior to license renewal. The board shall evaluate, on an individual basis, evidence of nursing competence, which may include, but is not limited to, continuing education, a refresher program, comprehensive orientation program, employment in a health-related policy position or nursing educational program.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 23; 1972, ch. 523, § 2; 1976, ch. 501, § 9; 1981, ch. 462, § 13; T.C.A., § 63-751; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 7; 1989, ch. 360, §§ 27-29; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 209-211; 2005, ch. 387, §§ 8, 9.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-29-107 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 29 / Section 63-29-107
Responsibilities of council
Status: in_force

The council shall: (1) Assist and advise the board and the department in developing rules with guidance from the Midwives Alliance of North America's Core Competencies and not inconsistent with the law. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, the allowable scope of midwifery practice regarding use of equipment, procedures, and administration of medication as prescribed by a physician; (2) Make recommendations to the board and the department regarding: (A) Certified professional midwifery; (B) Applications and renewals; (C) Development of forms for reporting and receiving certified professional midwifery forms as set forth in this chapter; (D) Up-to-date files on all active CPM-TN in Tennessee including emergency plan guidelines; and (E) Compilation of annual statistics on CPM-TN deliveries; and (3) Educate the public and other providers of obstetrical care about the role of the CPM-TN. Acts 2000, ch. 576, § 8.
The council shall:
(1) Assist and advise the board and the department in developing rules with guidance from the Midwives Alliance of North America's Core Competencies and not inconsistent with the law. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, the allowable scope of midwifery practice regarding use of equipment, procedures, and administration of medication as prescribed by a physician;
(2) Make recommendations to the board and the department regarding: (A) Certified professional midwifery; (B) Applications and renewals; (C) Development of forms for reporting and receiving certified professional midwifery forms as set forth in this chapter; (D) Up-to-date files on all active CPM-TN in Tennessee including emergency plan guidelines; and (E) Compilation of annual statistics on CPM-TN deliveries; and
(A) Certified professional midwifery;
(B) Applications and renewals;
(C) Development of forms for reporting and receiving certified professional midwifery forms as set forth in this chapter;
(D) Up-to-date files on all active CPM-TN in Tennessee including emergency plan guidelines; and
(E) Compilation of annual statistics on CPM-TN deliveries; and
(3) Educate the public and other providers of obstetrical care about the role of the CPM-TN.
Acts 2000, ch. 576, § 8.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-25-208 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 25 / Section 63-25-208
[Effective 1/1/2026] Establishment of the dietitian licensure compact commission
Status: in_force

(a) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all member states that have enacted the compact known as the dietitian licensure compact commission. The compact commission is an instrumentality of the compact states acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one (1) state. The compact commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the compact as set forth in § 63-25-212 . (b) Membership, voting, and meetings. (1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one (1) delegate selected by that member state's licensing authority. (2) The delegate shall be the primary administrator of the licensing authority or their designee. (3) The compact commission shall by rule or bylaw establish a term of office for delegates and may by rule or bylaw establish term limits. (4) The compact commission may recommend removal or suspension of any delegate from office. (5) A member state's licensing authority shall fill any vacancy of its delegate occurring on the compact commission within sixty (60) days of the vacancy. (6) Each delegate shall be entitled to one (1) vote on all matters before the compact commission requiring a vote by the delegates. (7) Delegates shall meet and vote by such means as set forth in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates to meet and vote in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication. (8) The compact commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The compact commission may meet in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication. (c) The compact commission shall have the following powers: (1) Establish the fiscal year of the compact commission; (2) Establish code of conduct and conflict of interest policies; (3) Establish and amend rules and bylaws; (4) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; (5) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact, the compact commission's rules, and the bylaws; (6) Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the compact commission; provided, that the standing of any licensing authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected; (7) Maintain and certify records and information provided to a member state as the authenticated business records of the compact commission, and designate an agent to do so on the compact commission's behalf; (8) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds; (9) Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state; (10) Conduct an annual financial review; (11) Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the compact commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters; (12) Assess and collect fees; (13) Accept any and all appropriate donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, services, and gifts, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that at all times the compact commission shall avoid any actual or appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest; (14) Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein; (15) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed; (16) Establish a budget and make expenditures; (17) Borrow money; (18) Appoint committees, including standing committees, composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact or the bylaws; (19) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies; (20) Establish and elect an executive committee, including a chair and a vice chair; (21) Determine whether a state's adopted language is materially different from the model compact language such that the state would not qualify for participation in the compact; and (22) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact. (d) The executive committee. (1) The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the compact commission according to the terms of this compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the executive committee shall include: (A) Oversee the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact, including enforcement and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its rules and bylaws, and other such duties as deemed necessary; (B) Recommend to the compact commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees charged to compact member states, fees charged to licensees, and other fees; (C) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract; (D) Prepare and recommend the budget; (E) Maintain financial records on behalf of the compact commission; (F) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the compact commission; (G) Establish additional committees as necessary; (H) Exercise the powers and duties of the compact commission during the interim between compact commission meetings, except for adopting or amending rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the compact commission by rule or bylaw; and (I) Other duties as provided in the rules or bylaws of the compact commission. (2) The executive committee shall be composed of nine (9) members: (A) The chair and vice chair of the compact commission shall be voting members of the executive committee; (B) Five (5) voting members from the current membership of the compact commission, elected by the compact commission; (C) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized professional association representing dietitians; and (D) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national credentialing organization for dietitians. (3) The compact commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in the compact commission's bylaws. (4) The executive committee shall meet at least annually. (A) Executive committee meetings shall be open to the public, except that the executive committee may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (B) The executive committee shall give thirty-days' notice of its meetings, posted on the website of the compact commission and as determined to provide notice to persons with an interest in the business of the compact commission. (C) The executive committee may hold a special meeting in accordance with subdivision (f)(1)(B). (e) The compact commission shall adopt and provide to the member states an annual report. (f) Meetings of the compact commission. (1) All meetings shall be open to the public, except that the compact commission may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (A) Public notice for all meetings of the full compact commission shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 63-25-210 , except that the compact commission may hold a special meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(1)(B). (B) The compact commission may hold a special meeting when it must meet to conduct emergency business by giving twenty-four-hours' notice to all member states, on the compact commission's website, and other means as provided in the compact commission's rules. The compact commission's legal counsel shall certify that the compact commission's need to meet qualifies as an emergency. (2) The compact commission or the executive committee or other committees of the compact commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the compact commission or executive committee or other committees of the compact commission to receive legal advice or to discuss: (A) Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact; (B) The employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees; (C) Current or threatened discipline of a licensee by the compact commission or by a member state's licensing authority; (D) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation; (E) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate; (F) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person; (G) Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential; (H) Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; (I) Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes; (J) Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the compact commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; (K) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state law; or (L) Other matters as specified in the rules of the compact commission. (3) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes. (4) The compact commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the compact commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction. (g) Financing of the compact commission. (1) The compact commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities. (2) The compact commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources as provided in subdivision (c)(13). (3) The compact commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state and impose fees on licensees of member states to whom it grants a compact privilege to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the compact commission and its staff, which must, in a total amount, be sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for member states shall be allocated based upon a formula that the compact commission shall promulgate by rule. (4) The compact commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the compact commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state. (5) The compact commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the compact commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the compact commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the compact commission. (h) Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification. (1) The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the compact commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the compact commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder. (2) The compact commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the compact commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct. (3) The compact commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. (4) Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable state laws. (5) Nothing in this compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a member state's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other state or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation. (6) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the member states or by the compact commission. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
(a) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all member states that have enacted the compact known as the dietitian licensure compact commission. The compact commission is an instrumentality of the compact states acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one (1) state. The compact commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the compact as set forth in § 63-25-212 .
(b) Membership, voting, and meetings. (1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one (1) delegate selected by that member state's licensing authority. (2) The delegate shall be the primary administrator of the licensing authority or their designee. (3) The compact commission shall by rule or bylaw establish a term of office for delegates and may by rule or bylaw establish term limits. (4) The compact commission may recommend removal or suspension of any delegate from office. (5) A member state's licensing authority shall fill any vacancy of its delegate occurring on the compact commission within sixty (60) days of the vacancy. (6) Each delegate shall be entitled to one (1) vote on all matters before the compact commission requiring a vote by the delegates. (7) Delegates shall meet and vote by such means as set forth in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates to meet and vote in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication. (8) The compact commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The compact commission may meet in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication.
(1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one (1) delegate selected by that member state's licensing authority.
(2) The delegate shall be the primary administrator of the licensing authority or their designee.
(3) The compact commission shall by rule or bylaw establish a term of office for delegates and may by rule or bylaw establish term limits.
(4) The compact commission may recommend removal or suspension of any delegate from office.
(5) A member state's licensing authority shall fill any vacancy of its delegate occurring on the compact commission within sixty (60) days of the vacancy.
(6) Each delegate shall be entitled to one (1) vote on all matters before the compact commission requiring a vote by the delegates.
(7) Delegates shall meet and vote by such means as set forth in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates to meet and vote in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication.
(8) The compact commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The compact commission may meet in person or by telecommunication, video conference, or other means of communication.
(c) The compact commission shall have the following powers: (1) Establish the fiscal year of the compact commission; (2) Establish code of conduct and conflict of interest policies; (3) Establish and amend rules and bylaws; (4) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; (5) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact, the compact commission's rules, and the bylaws; (6) Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the compact commission; provided, that the standing of any licensing authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected; (7) Maintain and certify records and information provided to a member state as the authenticated business records of the compact commission, and designate an agent to do so on the compact commission's behalf; (8) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds; (9) Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state; (10) Conduct an annual financial review; (11) Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the compact commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters; (12) Assess and collect fees; (13) Accept any and all appropriate donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, services, and gifts, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that at all times the compact commission shall avoid any actual or appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest; (14) Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein; (15) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed; (16) Establish a budget and make expenditures; (17) Borrow money; (18) Appoint committees, including standing committees, composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact or the bylaws; (19) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies; (20) Establish and elect an executive committee, including a chair and a vice chair; (21) Determine whether a state's adopted language is materially different from the model compact language such that the state would not qualify for participation in the compact; and (22) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact.
(1) Establish the fiscal year of the compact commission;
(2) Establish code of conduct and conflict of interest policies;
(3) Establish and amend rules and bylaws;
(4) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(5) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact, the compact commission's rules, and the bylaws;
(6) Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the compact commission; provided, that the standing of any licensing authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(7) Maintain and certify records and information provided to a member state as the authenticated business records of the compact commission, and designate an agent to do so on the compact commission's behalf;
(8) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(9) Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state;
(10) Conduct an annual financial review;
(11) Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the compact commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(12) Assess and collect fees;
(13) Accept any and all appropriate donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, services, and gifts, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that at all times the compact commission shall avoid any actual or appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
(14) Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein;
(15) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(16) Establish a budget and make expenditures;
(17) Borrow money;
(18) Appoint committees, including standing committees, composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact or the bylaws;
(19) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(20) Establish and elect an executive committee, including a chair and a vice chair;
(21) Determine whether a state's adopted language is materially different from the model compact language such that the state would not qualify for participation in the compact; and
(22) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact.
(d) The executive committee. (1) The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the compact commission according to the terms of this compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the executive committee shall include: (A) Oversee the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact, including enforcement and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its rules and bylaws, and other such duties as deemed necessary; (B) Recommend to the compact commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees charged to compact member states, fees charged to licensees, and other fees; (C) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract; (D) Prepare and recommend the budget; (E) Maintain financial records on behalf of the compact commission; (F) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the compact commission; (G) Establish additional committees as necessary; (H) Exercise the powers and duties of the compact commission during the interim between compact commission meetings, except for adopting or amending rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the compact commission by rule or bylaw; and (I) Other duties as provided in the rules or bylaws of the compact commission. (2) The executive committee shall be composed of nine (9) members: (A) The chair and vice chair of the compact commission shall be voting members of the executive committee; (B) Five (5) voting members from the current membership of the compact commission, elected by the compact commission; (C) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized professional association representing dietitians; and (D) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national credentialing organization for dietitians. (3) The compact commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in the compact commission's bylaws. (4) The executive committee shall meet at least annually. (A) Executive committee meetings shall be open to the public, except that the executive committee may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (B) The executive committee shall give thirty-days' notice of its meetings, posted on the website of the compact commission and as determined to provide notice to persons with an interest in the business of the compact commission. (C) The executive committee may hold a special meeting in accordance with subdivision (f)(1)(B).
(1) The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the compact commission according to the terms of this compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the executive committee shall include: (A) Oversee the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact, including enforcement and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its rules and bylaws, and other such duties as deemed necessary; (B) Recommend to the compact commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees charged to compact member states, fees charged to licensees, and other fees; (C) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract; (D) Prepare and recommend the budget; (E) Maintain financial records on behalf of the compact commission; (F) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the compact commission; (G) Establish additional committees as necessary; (H) Exercise the powers and duties of the compact commission during the interim between compact commission meetings, except for adopting or amending rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the compact commission by rule or bylaw; and (I) Other duties as provided in the rules or bylaws of the compact commission.
(A) Oversee the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact, including enforcement and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its rules and bylaws, and other such duties as deemed necessary;
(B) Recommend to the compact commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees charged to compact member states, fees charged to licensees, and other fees;
(C) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract;
(D) Prepare and recommend the budget;
(E) Maintain financial records on behalf of the compact commission;
(F) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the compact commission;
(G) Establish additional committees as necessary;
(H) Exercise the powers and duties of the compact commission during the interim between compact commission meetings, except for adopting or amending rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the compact commission by rule or bylaw; and
(I) Other duties as provided in the rules or bylaws of the compact commission.
(2) The executive committee shall be composed of nine (9) members: (A) The chair and vice chair of the compact commission shall be voting members of the executive committee; (B) Five (5) voting members from the current membership of the compact commission, elected by the compact commission; (C) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized professional association representing dietitians; and (D) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national credentialing organization for dietitians.
(A) The chair and vice chair of the compact commission shall be voting members of the executive committee;
(B) Five (5) voting members from the current membership of the compact commission, elected by the compact commission;
(C) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized professional association representing dietitians; and
(D) One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national credentialing organization for dietitians.
(3) The compact commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in the compact commission's bylaws.
(4) The executive committee shall meet at least annually. (A) Executive committee meetings shall be open to the public, except that the executive committee may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (B) The executive committee shall give thirty-days' notice of its meetings, posted on the website of the compact commission and as determined to provide notice to persons with an interest in the business of the compact commission. (C) The executive committee may hold a special meeting in accordance with subdivision (f)(1)(B).
(A) Executive committee meetings shall be open to the public, except that the executive committee may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2).
(B) The executive committee shall give thirty-days' notice of its meetings, posted on the website of the compact commission and as determined to provide notice to persons with an interest in the business of the compact commission.
(C) The executive committee may hold a special meeting in accordance with subdivision (f)(1)(B).
(e) The compact commission shall adopt and provide to the member states an annual report.
(f) Meetings of the compact commission. (1) All meetings shall be open to the public, except that the compact commission may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (A) Public notice for all meetings of the full compact commission shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 63-25-210 , except that the compact commission may hold a special meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(1)(B). (B) The compact commission may hold a special meeting when it must meet to conduct emergency business by giving twenty-four-hours' notice to all member states, on the compact commission's website, and other means as provided in the compact commission's rules. The compact commission's legal counsel shall certify that the compact commission's need to meet qualifies as an emergency. (2) The compact commission or the executive committee or other committees of the compact commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the compact commission or executive committee or other committees of the compact commission to receive legal advice or to discuss: (A) Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact; (B) The employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees; (C) Current or threatened discipline of a licensee by the compact commission or by a member state's licensing authority; (D) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation; (E) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate; (F) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person; (G) Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential; (H) Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; (I) Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes; (J) Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the compact commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; (K) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state law; or (L) Other matters as specified in the rules of the compact commission. (3) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes. (4) The compact commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the compact commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(1) All meetings shall be open to the public, except that the compact commission may meet in a closed, non-public meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(2). (A) Public notice for all meetings of the full compact commission shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 63-25-210 , except that the compact commission may hold a special meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(1)(B). (B) The compact commission may hold a special meeting when it must meet to conduct emergency business by giving twenty-four-hours' notice to all member states, on the compact commission's website, and other means as provided in the compact commission's rules. The compact commission's legal counsel shall certify that the compact commission's need to meet qualifies as an emergency.
(A) Public notice for all meetings of the full compact commission shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 63-25-210 , except that the compact commission may hold a special meeting as provided in subdivision (f)(1)(B).
(B) The compact commission may hold a special meeting when it must meet to conduct emergency business by giving twenty-four-hours' notice to all member states, on the compact commission's website, and other means as provided in the compact commission's rules. The compact commission's legal counsel shall certify that the compact commission's need to meet qualifies as an emergency.
(2) The compact commission or the executive committee or other committees of the compact commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the compact commission or executive committee or other committees of the compact commission to receive legal advice or to discuss: (A) Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact; (B) The employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees; (C) Current or threatened discipline of a licensee by the compact commission or by a member state's licensing authority; (D) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation; (E) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate; (F) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person; (G) Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential; (H) Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; (I) Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes; (J) Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the compact commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; (K) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state law; or (L) Other matters as specified in the rules of the compact commission.
(A) Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;
(B) The employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees;
(C) Current or threatened discipline of a licensee by the compact commission or by a member state's licensing authority;
(D) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(E) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(F) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(G) Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(H) Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(I) Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(J) Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the compact commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact;
(K) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state law; or
(L) Other matters as specified in the rules of the compact commission.
(3) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes.
(4) The compact commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the compact commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(g) Financing of the compact commission. (1) The compact commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities. (2) The compact commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources as provided in subdivision (c)(13). (3) The compact commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state and impose fees on licensees of member states to whom it grants a compact privilege to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the compact commission and its staff, which must, in a total amount, be sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for member states shall be allocated based upon a formula that the compact commission shall promulgate by rule. (4) The compact commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the compact commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state. (5) The compact commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the compact commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the compact commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the compact commission.
(1) The compact commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
(2) The compact commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources as provided in subdivision (c)(13).
(3) The compact commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state and impose fees on licensees of member states to whom it grants a compact privilege to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the compact commission and its staff, which must, in a total amount, be sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for member states shall be allocated based upon a formula that the compact commission shall promulgate by rule.
(4) The compact commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the compact commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.
(5) The compact commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the compact commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the compact commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the compact commission.
(h) Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification. (1) The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the compact commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the compact commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder. (2) The compact commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the compact commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct. (3) The compact commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. (4) Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable state laws. (5) Nothing in this compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a member state's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other state or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation. (6) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the member states or by the compact commission.
(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the compact commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the compact commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder.
(2) The compact commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the compact commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
(3) The compact commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the compact commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of compact commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
(4) Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable state laws.
(5) Nothing in this compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a member state's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other state or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation.
(6) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the member states or by the compact commission.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-1-601 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 1 / Section 63-1-601
Reporting suspected opiod abuse or diversion
Status: in_force

(a) The department of health shall accept allegations of opioid abuse or diversion. The department shall publicize a means of reporting allegations of opioid abuse or diversion. (b) Any entity that prescribes, dispenses, or handles opioids shall provide information to employees about reporting suspected opioid abuse or diversion. The information may be provided to each employee individually in writing, documented by the employing entity, or by posting, in a conspicuous location in a nonpublic area regularly used by employees, a sign at least eleven inches (11") in height and seventeen inches (17") in width stating: NOTICE: PLEASE REPORT ANY SUSPECTED ABUSE OR DIVERSION OF OPIOIDS, OR ANY OTHER IMPROPER BEHAVIOR WITH RESPECT TO OPIOIDS, TO THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S COMPLAINT INTAKE LINE: [NUMBER OF INTAKE LINE] (c) The department shall refer reports received to the appropriate health-related board or law enforcement official. Added by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 675, s 1, eff. 1/1/2019.
(a) The department of health shall accept allegations of opioid abuse or diversion. The department shall publicize a means of reporting allegations of opioid abuse or diversion.
(b) Any entity that prescribes, dispenses, or handles opioids shall provide information to employees about reporting suspected opioid abuse or diversion. The information may be provided to each employee individually in writing, documented by the employing entity, or by posting, in a conspicuous location in a nonpublic area regularly used by employees, a sign at least eleven inches (11") in height and seventeen inches (17") in width stating: NOTICE: PLEASE REPORT ANY SUSPECTED ABUSE OR DIVERSION OF OPIOIDS, OR ANY OTHER IMPROPER BEHAVIOR WITH RESPECT TO OPIOIDS, TO THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S COMPLAINT INTAKE LINE: [NUMBER OF INTAKE LINE]
NOTICE: PLEASE REPORT ANY SUSPECTED ABUSE OR DIVERSION OF OPIOIDS, OR ANY OTHER IMPROPER BEHAVIOR WITH RESPECT TO OPIOIDS, TO THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S COMPLAINT INTAKE LINE:
[NUMBER OF INTAKE LINE]
(c) The department shall refer reports received to the appropriate health-related board or law enforcement official.
Added by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 675, s 1, eff. 1/1/2019.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-11-605 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 11 / Section 63-11-605
Requirements for applicants for certification as a certified professional music therapist
Status: in_force

(a) Applicants for certification as a certified professional music therapist shall submit an application and fee to the advisory committee. (b) The application must include evidence that the applicant meets the following requirements for certification: (1) The applicant has attained the age of majority; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) The applicant: (A) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher in music therapy, or its equivalent, including clinical training hours from a music therapy program within an accredited college or university; (B) Provides proof of passing the examination for board certification offered by the certification board for music therapists or any successor organization or provides proof of being transitioned into board certification; and (C) Provides proof that the applicant is currently a board-certified music therapist. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1010,s 2, eff. 1/1/2025.
(a) Applicants for certification as a certified professional music therapist shall submit an application and fee to the advisory committee.
(b) The application must include evidence that the applicant meets the following requirements for certification: (1) The applicant has attained the age of majority; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) The applicant: (A) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher in music therapy, or its equivalent, including clinical training hours from a music therapy program within an accredited college or university; (B) Provides proof of passing the examination for board certification offered by the certification board for music therapists or any successor organization or provides proof of being transitioned into board certification; and (C) Provides proof that the applicant is currently a board-certified music therapist.
(1) The applicant has attained the age of majority;
(2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards;
(3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution;
(4) The applicant: (A) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher in music therapy, or its equivalent, including clinical training hours from a music therapy program within an accredited college or university; (B) Provides proof of passing the examination for board certification offered by the certification board for music therapists or any successor organization or provides proof of being transitioned into board certification; and (C) Provides proof that the applicant is currently a board-certified music therapist.
(A) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher in music therapy, or its equivalent, including clinical training hours from a music therapy program within an accredited college or university;
(B) Provides proof of passing the examination for board certification offered by the certification board for music therapists or any successor organization or provides proof of being transitioned into board certification; and
(C) Provides proof that the applicant is currently a board-certified music therapist.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1010,s 2, eff. 1/1/2025.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-27-107 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 27 / Section 63-27-107
Certified respiratory therapist
Status: in_force

(a) The knowledge and skills for performing the functions of a certified respiratory therapist shall be acquired by academic and clinical preparation in a respiratory care program approved by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or its successor organization or other accrediting organization recognized by the board or by certification from the National Board for Respiratory Care. Under the supervision of a physician, certified respiratory therapists may assume clinical responsibility for specified respiratory care modalities involving the application of well-defined therapeutic techniques. (b) The certified respiratory therapist's role shall not require the exercising of independent, clinical judgment; however, the certified respiratory therapist may be expected to adjust or modify therapeutic techniques within well-defined procedures based on a limited range of patient responses. Therefore, the effective use of the certified respiratory therapist, especially in the critical care setting, shall require the supervision of a physician experienced in respiratory care. The certified respiratory therapist may accept telephone or verbal orders and responsibilities involving the supervision of respiratory care therapists and respiratory assistants. Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1987, ch. 192, § 2; T.C.A. §63-6-407; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 28, 53, 55; 2000, ch. 621, § 2.
(a) The knowledge and skills for performing the functions of a certified respiratory therapist shall be acquired by academic and clinical preparation in a respiratory care program approved by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or its successor organization or other accrediting organization recognized by the board or by certification from the National Board for Respiratory Care. Under the supervision of a physician, certified respiratory therapists may assume clinical responsibility for specified respiratory care modalities involving the application of well-defined therapeutic techniques.
(b) The certified respiratory therapist's role shall not require the exercising of independent, clinical judgment; however, the certified respiratory therapist may be expected to adjust or modify therapeutic techniques within well-defined procedures based on a limited range of patient responses. Therefore, the effective use of the certified respiratory therapist, especially in the critical care setting, shall require the supervision of a physician experienced in respiratory care. The certified respiratory therapist may accept telephone or verbal orders and responsibilities involving the supervision of respiratory care therapists and respiratory assistants.
Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1987, ch. 192, § 2; T.C.A. §63-6-407; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 28, 53, 55; 2000, ch. 621, § 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-11-610 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 11 / Section 63-11-610
Additional authorized acts for certified professional music therapists
Status: in_force

In addition to any other authority granted under this part, certified professional music therapists may: (1) Accept referrals for music therapy services from medical, developmental, mental health, or education professionals; family members; clients; caregivers; or others involved with and authorized to provide client services; (2) Conduct a music therapy assessment of a client to determine if treatment is indicated. If treatment is indicated, then the certified professional music therapist may collect systematic, comprehensive, and accurate information to determine the appropriateness and type of music therapy services to provide for the client; (3) Develop an individualized music therapy treatment plan for the client that is based upon the results of the music therapy assessment. The music therapy treatment plan should include individualized goals and objectives that focus on the assessed needs and strengths of the client and specify the music therapy approaches and interventions to be used to address these goals and objectives; (4) Implement an individualized music therapy treatment plan that is consistent with any other developmental, rehabilitative, habilitative, medical, mental health, preventive, wellness care, or educational services being provided to the client; (5) Evaluate a client's response to music therapy and the music therapy treatment plan, documenting change and progress, and suggesting modifications, as appropriate; (6) Develop a plan for determining when the provision of music therapy services is no longer needed in collaboration with the client, physician, or other provider of health care or education of the client, family members of the client, and any other appropriate person upon whom the client relies for support; (7) Minimize barriers to ensure that the client receives music therapy services in the least restrictive environment; (8) Collaborate with and educate the client and the family, caregiver of the client, or any other appropriate person regarding the needs of the client that are being addressed in music therapy and the manner in which the music therapy treatment addresses those needs; and (9) Utilize their appropriate knowledge and skills to practice, which include the use of research, reasoning, and problem-solving skills in determining appropriate actions in the context of each clinical setting. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1010,s 2, eff. 1/1/2025.
In addition to any other authority granted under this part, certified professional music therapists may:
(1) Accept referrals for music therapy services from medical, developmental, mental health, or education professionals; family members; clients; caregivers; or others involved with and authorized to provide client services;
(2) Conduct a music therapy assessment of a client to determine if treatment is indicated. If treatment is indicated, then the certified professional music therapist may collect systematic, comprehensive, and accurate information to determine the appropriateness and type of music therapy services to provide for the client;
(3) Develop an individualized music therapy treatment plan for the client that is based upon the results of the music therapy assessment. The music therapy treatment plan should include individualized goals and objectives that focus on the assessed needs and strengths of the client and specify the music therapy approaches and interventions to be used to address these goals and objectives;
(4) Implement an individualized music therapy treatment plan that is consistent with any other developmental, rehabilitative, habilitative, medical, mental health, preventive, wellness care, or educational services being provided to the client;
(5) Evaluate a client's response to music therapy and the music therapy treatment plan, documenting change and progress, and suggesting modifications, as appropriate;
(6) Develop a plan for determining when the provision of music therapy services is no longer needed in collaboration with the client, physician, or other provider of health care or education of the client, family members of the client, and any other appropriate person upon whom the client relies for support;
(7) Minimize barriers to ensure that the client receives music therapy services in the least restrictive environment;
(8) Collaborate with and educate the client and the family, caregiver of the client, or any other appropriate person regarding the needs of the client that are being addressed in music therapy and the manner in which the music therapy treatment addresses those needs; and
(9) Utilize their appropriate knowledge and skills to practice, which include the use of research, reasoning, and problem-solving skills in determining appropriate actions in the context of each clinical setting.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1010,s 2, eff. 1/1/2025.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-19-312 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 19 / Section 63-19-312
Date of implementation of the PA licensure compact commission
Status: in_force

(a) This Compact shall come into effect on the date on which this Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Participating State. (1) On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the States that enacted the Compact prior to the Commission convening ("Charter Participating States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Participating State is materially different than the Model Compact. (A) A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-19-311(b) . (B) If any Participating State later withdraws from the Compact or its participation is terminated, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7). Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Commission convening shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact. (2) Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial Charter Participating States shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact. (3) All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission. (b) Any State that joins this Compact shall be subject to the Commission's Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which this Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day this Compact becomes law in that State. (c) Any Participating State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. (1) A Participating State's withdrawal shall not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. During this one-hundred-eighty-day-period, all Compact Privileges that were in effect in the withdrawing State and were granted to Licensees licensed in the withdrawing State shall remain in effect. If any Licensee licensed in the withdrawing State is also licensed in another Participating State or obtains a license in another Participating State within the one hundred eighty (180) days, the Licensee's Compact Privileges in other Participating States shall not be affected by the passage of the one hundred eighty (180) days. (2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the State Licensing Board(s) of the withdrawing State to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal. (3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing a State from this Compact, the State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal. (d) Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any Physician Assistant licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between Participating States and between a Participating State and non-Participating State that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact. (e) This Compact may be amended by the Participating States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Participating State until it is enacted materially in the same manner into the laws of all Participating States as determined by the Commission. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1018,s 1, eff. 1/1/2025.
(a) This Compact shall come into effect on the date on which this Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Participating State. (1) On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the States that enacted the Compact prior to the Commission convening ("Charter Participating States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Participating State is materially different than the Model Compact. (A) A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-19-311(b) . (B) If any Participating State later withdraws from the Compact or its participation is terminated, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7). Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Commission convening shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact. (2) Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial Charter Participating States shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact. (3) All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission.
(1) On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the States that enacted the Compact prior to the Commission convening ("Charter Participating States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Participating State is materially different than the Model Compact. (A) A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-19-311(b) . (B) If any Participating State later withdraws from the Compact or its participation is terminated, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7). Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Commission convening shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.
(A) A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-19-311(b) .
(B) If any Participating State later withdraws from the Compact or its participation is terminated, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7). Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Commission convening shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.
(2) Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial Charter Participating States shall be subject to the process set forth in § 63-19-308(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.
(3) All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission.
(b) Any State that joins this Compact shall be subject to the Commission's Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which this Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day this Compact becomes law in that State.
(c) Any Participating State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. (1) A Participating State's withdrawal shall not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. During this one-hundred-eighty-day-period, all Compact Privileges that were in effect in the withdrawing State and were granted to Licensees licensed in the withdrawing State shall remain in effect. If any Licensee licensed in the withdrawing State is also licensed in another Participating State or obtains a license in another Participating State within the one hundred eighty (180) days, the Licensee's Compact Privileges in other Participating States shall not be affected by the passage of the one hundred eighty (180) days. (2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the State Licensing Board(s) of the withdrawing State to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal. (3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing a State from this Compact, the State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.
(1) A Participating State's withdrawal shall not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. During this one-hundred-eighty-day-period, all Compact Privileges that were in effect in the withdrawing State and were granted to Licensees licensed in the withdrawing State shall remain in effect. If any Licensee licensed in the withdrawing State is also licensed in another Participating State or obtains a license in another Participating State within the one hundred eighty (180) days, the Licensee's Compact Privileges in other Participating States shall not be affected by the passage of the one hundred eighty (180) days.
(2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the State Licensing Board(s) of the withdrawing State to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.
(3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing a State from this Compact, the State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.
(d) Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any Physician Assistant licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between Participating States and between a Participating State and non-Participating State that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.
(e) This Compact may be amended by the Participating States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Participating State until it is enacted materially in the same manner into the laws of all Participating States as determined by the Commission.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1018,s 1, eff. 1/1/2025.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-16-104 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 16 / Section 63-16-104
Qualifications for licensure
Status: in_force

(a) (1) An applicant for a license shall submit evidence of good moral character and suitability prescribed by the board and that the applicant: (A) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age; (B) Is a citizen of the United States or legally in this country; (C) Has completed preliminary education satisfactory to the board; and (D) Has paid a nonrefundable application fee as set annually by the board no later than fifty (50) days in advance of the next scheduled examination. (2) Such applicant, upon notification by the board that the applicant has fulfilled the requirements for admission and upon payment of an examination fee as set annually by the board shall be admitted to the examination. (3) No applicant for license as a nursing home administrator shall be admitted to such licensing examination, nor be entitled to a license or to be certified to the state licensing board for issuance of a license as a nursing home administrator, unless the applicant has graduated from a high school or secondary school approved by the state in which the school is located or has submitted a certificate indicating that the applicant has obtained a high school diploma or high school equivalency credential approved by the state board of education. (b) The board has the authority to grant a temporary license, not to exceed six (6) months, to an individual applying for licensure to fill a position of nursing home administrator that unexpectedly becomes vacant. To receive a temporary license, the individual must either be licensed in another state or meet the majority of the board's standards for licensure. If the individual holding a temporary license must take the board required examination to be fully licensed and fails to achieve the required scores, the temporary license shall be revoked. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 114,s 52, eff. 7/1/2023. Acts 1970, ch. 565, § 4; impl. am. Acts 1971, ch. 161, § 3; Acts 1976, ch. 444, § 1; 1981, ch. 464, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-1604; Acts 1987, ch. 247, §§ 1, 2, 8; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 83, 84.
(a) (1) An applicant for a license shall submit evidence of good moral character and suitability prescribed by the board and that the applicant: (A) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age; (B) Is a citizen of the United States or legally in this country; (C) Has completed preliminary education satisfactory to the board; and (D) Has paid a nonrefundable application fee as set annually by the board no later than fifty (50) days in advance of the next scheduled examination. (2) Such applicant, upon notification by the board that the applicant has fulfilled the requirements for admission and upon payment of an examination fee as set annually by the board shall be admitted to the examination. (3) No applicant for license as a nursing home administrator shall be admitted to such licensing examination, nor be entitled to a license or to be certified to the state licensing board for issuance of a license as a nursing home administrator, unless the applicant has graduated from a high school or secondary school approved by the state in which the school is located or has submitted a certificate indicating that the applicant has obtained a high school diploma or high school equivalency credential approved by the state board of education.
(1) An applicant for a license shall submit evidence of good moral character and suitability prescribed by the board and that the applicant: (A) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age; (B) Is a citizen of the United States or legally in this country; (C) Has completed preliminary education satisfactory to the board; and (D) Has paid a nonrefundable application fee as set annually by the board no later than fifty (50) days in advance of the next scheduled examination.
(A) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age;
(B) Is a citizen of the United States or legally in this country;
(C) Has completed preliminary education satisfactory to the board; and
(D) Has paid a nonrefundable application fee as set annually by the board no later than fifty (50) days in advance of the next scheduled examination.
(2) Such applicant, upon notification by the board that the applicant has fulfilled the requirements for admission and upon payment of an examination fee as set annually by the board shall be admitted to the examination.
(3) No applicant for license as a nursing home administrator shall be admitted to such licensing examination, nor be entitled to a license or to be certified to the state licensing board for issuance of a license as a nursing home administrator, unless the applicant has graduated from a high school or secondary school approved by the state in which the school is located or has submitted a certificate indicating that the applicant has obtained a high school diploma or high school equivalency credential approved by the state board of education.
(b) The board has the authority to grant a temporary license, not to exceed six (6) months, to an individual applying for licensure to fill a position of nursing home administrator that unexpectedly becomes vacant. To receive a temporary license, the individual must either be licensed in another state or meet the majority of the board's standards for licensure. If the individual holding a temporary license must take the board required examination to be fully licensed and fails to achieve the required scores, the temporary license shall be revoked.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 114,s 52, eff. 7/1/2023.
Acts 1970, ch. 565, § 4; impl. am. Acts 1971, ch. 161, § 3; Acts 1976, ch. 444, § 1; 1981, ch. 464, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-1604; Acts 1987, ch. 247, §§ 1, 2, 8; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 83, 84.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-17-222 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 17 / Section 63-17-222
Licensed hearing aid dispenser eligible for hearing instrument specialist license
Status: in_force

(a) Upon July 1, 1995, any person who is a trainee, apprentice or who has entered into a training program to become a licensed hearing aid dispenser shall be eligible to receive a license as a hearing instrument specialist; provided, that such person complies with all of the requirements of chapter 15 of this title [repealed], as it existed upon July 1, 1995. (b) Upon July 1, 1995, any person who is a licensed hearing aid dispenser shall be eligible to receive a license as a hearing instrument specialist. Any person who is a licensed hearing aid dispenser upon July 1, 1995, who wishes to obtain a license as a hearing instrument specialist shall submit a request to the council to receive the appropriate license as a hearing instrument specialist. No additional fee shall be imposed upon persons for the issuance of a license as a hearing instrument specialist pursuant to this subsection (b). Acts 1995, ch. 481, § 24.
(a) Upon July 1, 1995, any person who is a trainee, apprentice or who has entered into a training program to become a licensed hearing aid dispenser shall be eligible to receive a license as a hearing instrument specialist; provided, that such person complies with all of the requirements of chapter 15 of this title [repealed], as it existed upon July 1, 1995.
(b) Upon July 1, 1995, any person who is a licensed hearing aid dispenser shall be eligible to receive a license as a hearing instrument specialist. Any person who is a licensed hearing aid dispenser upon July 1, 1995, who wishes to obtain a license as a hearing instrument specialist shall submit a request to the council to receive the appropriate license as a hearing instrument specialist. No additional fee shall be imposed upon persons for the issuance of a license as a hearing instrument specialist pursuant to this subsection (b).
Acts 1995, ch. 481, § 24.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-6-501 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 6 / Section 63-6-501
Short title
Status: in_force

This part shall be known as the "Physicians' Conflict of Interest Disclosure Act of 1991." Acts 1991, ch. 349, § 1.
This part shall be known as the "Physicians' Conflict of Interest Disclosure Act of 1991."
Acts 1991, ch. 349, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-1-104 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 1 / Section 63-1-104
Issuance of licenses
Status: in_force

(a) Upon proper direction by the appropriate licensing board, the division shall forthwith issue to the applicant a license of a size and artistic design to be determined by the board. (b) Every such license issued by the division shall be dated and be numbered in the order of issuance and shall be signed by the executive officer and by the members of the state board charged with the duty by law of issuing the preliminary certificates. (c) No license, examination or certification shall be denied to any person for practice of any of the healing arts under this title because such person is not a citizen of the United States, if such person is legally entitled to live within the United States. (d) Any board, committee, council, or agency created pursuant to this title or title 68 that regulates health professionals shall have the authority to do the following at its discretion: (1) Issue a limited license of temporary duration to applicants who have been out of clinical practice or inactive in their practice for an extended period of time, or who have been or are at the time of their application engaged exclusively in administrative practice; provided, that the applicant meets all other requirements for licensure; (2) Restrict the scope of practice under such limited license as deemed appropriate; (3) Restrict the duration of such limited license as deemed appropriate; (4) Condition the granting of a full license upon an applicant's completion of any educational measures or supervised practice requirements deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice the profession for which a license is sought. (e) At the conclusion of the duration of a limited license granted pursuant to subsection (d), an applicant may be eligible for full licensure if the applicant has completed the educational measures or supervised practice requirements the board, committee, council, or agency deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice. The board, committee, council, or agency may grant a full license before the conclusion of a limited license's duration if an applicant has completed the specified educational measures or practice requirements prior to the expiration of the limited license. (f) A board, committee, council, or agency may promulgate rules establishing other conditions or requirements with respect to the issuance of limited licenses pursuant to this section in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5. (g) The recipient of a limited license pursuant to this section may engage in the full scope of practice of the applicable profession subject to any limitations or restrictions imposed by the board, committee, council, or agency. Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 240,s 2, eff. 5/2/2017. Acts 1947, ch. 9, § 4; C. Supp. 1950, § 6907.4 (Williams, § 6917.21); Acts 1969, ch. 338, § 1; 1980, ch. 851, § 5; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-109; Acts 1975, ch. 355, § 1; 1984, ch. 937, § 62; T.C.A., §§ 63-1-103 , 63-1-110 .
(a) Upon proper direction by the appropriate licensing board, the division shall forthwith issue to the applicant a license of a size and artistic design to be determined by the board.
(b) Every such license issued by the division shall be dated and be numbered in the order of issuance and shall be signed by the executive officer and by the members of the state board charged with the duty by law of issuing the preliminary certificates.
(c) No license, examination or certification shall be denied to any person for practice of any of the healing arts under this title because such person is not a citizen of the United States, if such person is legally entitled to live within the United States.
(d) Any board, committee, council, or agency created pursuant to this title or title 68 that regulates health professionals shall have the authority to do the following at its discretion: (1) Issue a limited license of temporary duration to applicants who have been out of clinical practice or inactive in their practice for an extended period of time, or who have been or are at the time of their application engaged exclusively in administrative practice; provided, that the applicant meets all other requirements for licensure; (2) Restrict the scope of practice under such limited license as deemed appropriate; (3) Restrict the duration of such limited license as deemed appropriate; (4) Condition the granting of a full license upon an applicant's completion of any educational measures or supervised practice requirements deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice the profession for which a license is sought.
(1) Issue a limited license of temporary duration to applicants who have been out of clinical practice or inactive in their practice for an extended period of time, or who have been or are at the time of their application engaged exclusively in administrative practice; provided, that the applicant meets all other requirements for licensure;
(2) Restrict the scope of practice under such limited license as deemed appropriate;
(3) Restrict the duration of such limited license as deemed appropriate;
(4) Condition the granting of a full license upon an applicant's completion of any educational measures or supervised practice requirements deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice the profession for which a license is sought.
(e) At the conclusion of the duration of a limited license granted pursuant to subsection (d), an applicant may be eligible for full licensure if the applicant has completed the educational measures or supervised practice requirements the board, committee, council, or agency deemed necessary and appropriate to ensure the applicant's competency to practice. The board, committee, council, or agency may grant a full license before the conclusion of a limited license's duration if an applicant has completed the specified educational measures or practice requirements prior to the expiration of the limited license.
(f) A board, committee, council, or agency may promulgate rules establishing other conditions or requirements with respect to the issuance of limited licenses pursuant to this section in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
(g) The recipient of a limited license pursuant to this section may engage in the full scope of practice of the applicable profession subject to any limitations or restrictions imposed by the board, committee, council, or agency.
Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 240,s 2, eff. 5/2/2017.
Acts 1947, ch. 9, § 4; C. Supp. 1950, § 6907.4 (Williams, § 6917.21); Acts 1969, ch. 338, § 1; 1980, ch. 851, § 5; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-109; Acts 1975, ch. 355, § 1; 1984, ch. 937, § 62; T.C.A., §§ 63-1-103 , 63-1-110 .
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-22-401 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 22 / Section 63-22-401
Short title
Status: in_force

This part is known and may be cited as the "Interstate Compact for License Portability Act." Added by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1088, s 1, eff. 5/27/2022.
This part is known and may be cited as the "Interstate Compact for License Portability Act."
Added by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1088, s 1, eff. 5/27/2022.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-19-305 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 19 / Section 63-19-305
Compact privilege
Status: in_force

(a) To exercise the Compact Privilege, a Licensee must: (1) Have graduated from a Physician Assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, Inc., or other programs authorized by Commission Rule; (2) Hold current NCCPA certification; (3) Have no felony or misdemeanor Conviction; (4) Have never had a controlled substance license, permit, or registration suspended or revoked by a State or by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration; (5) Have a unique identifier as determined by Commission Rule; (6) Hold a Qualifying License; (7) Have had no revocation of a License or limitation or restriction on any License currently held due to an adverse action; (8) If a Licensee has had a limitation or restriction on a License or Compact Privilege due to an Adverse Action, two (2) years must have elapsed from the date on which the License or Compact Privilege is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action; (9) If a Compact Privilege has been revoked or is limited or restricted in a Participating State for conduct that would not be a basis for disciplinary action in a Participating State in which the Licensee is practicing or applying to practice under a Compact Privilege, that Participating State shall have the discretion not to consider such action as an Adverse Action requiring the denial or removal of a Compact Privilege in that State; (10) Notify the Compact Commission that the Licensee is seeking the Compact Privilege in a Remote State; (11) Meet any Jurisprudence Requirement of a Remote State in which the Licensee is seeking to practice under the Compact Privilege and pay any fees applicable to satisfying the Jurisprudence Requirement; and (12) Report to the Commission any Adverse Action taken by a non-participating State within thirty (30) days after the action is taken. (b) The Compact Privilege is valid until the expiration or revocation of the Qualifying License unless terminated pursuant to an Adverse Action. The Licensee must also comply with all of the requirements of subsection (a) to maintain the Compact Privilege in a Remote State. If the Participating State takes Adverse Action against a Qualifying License, the Licensee shall lose the Compact Privilege in any Remote State in which the Licensee has a Compact Privilege until all of the following occur: (1) The License is no longer limited or restricted; and (2) Two (2) years have elapsed from the date on which the License is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action. (c) Once a restricted or limited License satisfies the requirements of subdivisions (b)(1) and (2), the Licensee must meet the requirements of subsection (a) to obtain a Compact Privilege in any Remote State. (d) For each Remote State in which a Physician Assistant seeks authority to prescribe controlled substances, the Physician Assistant shall satisfy all requirements imposed by such State in granting or renewing such authority. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1018,s 1, eff. 1/1/2025.
(a) To exercise the Compact Privilege, a Licensee must: (1) Have graduated from a Physician Assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, Inc., or other programs authorized by Commission Rule; (2) Hold current NCCPA certification; (3) Have no felony or misdemeanor Conviction; (4) Have never had a controlled substance license, permit, or registration suspended or revoked by a State or by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration; (5) Have a unique identifier as determined by Commission Rule; (6) Hold a Qualifying License; (7) Have had no revocation of a License or limitation or restriction on any License currently held due to an adverse action; (8) If a Licensee has had a limitation or restriction on a License or Compact Privilege due to an Adverse Action, two (2) years must have elapsed from the date on which the License or Compact Privilege is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action; (9) If a Compact Privilege has been revoked or is limited or restricted in a Participating State for conduct that would not be a basis for disciplinary action in a Participating State in which the Licensee is practicing or applying to practice under a Compact Privilege, that Participating State shall have the discretion not to consider such action as an Adverse Action requiring the denial or removal of a Compact Privilege in that State; (10) Notify the Compact Commission that the Licensee is seeking the Compact Privilege in a Remote State; (11) Meet any Jurisprudence Requirement of a Remote State in which the Licensee is seeking to practice under the Compact Privilege and pay any fees applicable to satisfying the Jurisprudence Requirement; and (12) Report to the Commission any Adverse Action taken by a non-participating State within thirty (30) days after the action is taken.
(1) Have graduated from a Physician Assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, Inc., or other programs authorized by Commission Rule;
(2) Hold current NCCPA certification;
(3) Have no felony or misdemeanor Conviction;
(4) Have never had a controlled substance license, permit, or registration suspended or revoked by a State or by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration;
(5) Have a unique identifier as determined by Commission Rule;
(6) Hold a Qualifying License;
(7) Have had no revocation of a License or limitation or restriction on any License currently held due to an adverse action;
(8) If a Licensee has had a limitation or restriction on a License or Compact Privilege due to an Adverse Action, two (2) years must have elapsed from the date on which the License or Compact Privilege is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action;
(9) If a Compact Privilege has been revoked or is limited or restricted in a Participating State for conduct that would not be a basis for disciplinary action in a Participating State in which the Licensee is practicing or applying to practice under a Compact Privilege, that Participating State shall have the discretion not to consider such action as an Adverse Action requiring the denial or removal of a Compact Privilege in that State;
(10) Notify the Compact Commission that the Licensee is seeking the Compact Privilege in a Remote State;
(11) Meet any Jurisprudence Requirement of a Remote State in which the Licensee is seeking to practice under the Compact Privilege and pay any fees applicable to satisfying the Jurisprudence Requirement; and
(12) Report to the Commission any Adverse Action taken by a non-participating State within thirty (30) days after the action is taken.
(b) The Compact Privilege is valid until the expiration or revocation of the Qualifying License unless terminated pursuant to an Adverse Action. The Licensee must also comply with all of the requirements of subsection (a) to maintain the Compact Privilege in a Remote State. If the Participating State takes Adverse Action against a Qualifying License, the Licensee shall lose the Compact Privilege in any Remote State in which the Licensee has a Compact Privilege until all of the following occur: (1) The License is no longer limited or restricted; and (2) Two (2) years have elapsed from the date on which the License is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action.
(1) The License is no longer limited or restricted; and
(2) Two (2) years have elapsed from the date on which the License is no longer limited or restricted due to the Adverse Action.
(c) Once a restricted or limited License satisfies the requirements of subdivisions (b)(1) and (2), the Licensee must meet the requirements of subsection (a) to obtain a Compact Privilege in any Remote State.
(d) For each Remote State in which a Physician Assistant seeks authority to prescribe controlled substances, the Physician Assistant shall satisfy all requirements imposed by such State in granting or renewing such authority.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1018,s 1, eff. 1/1/2025.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-17-103 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 17 / Section 63-17-103
Chapter definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) (A) "Audiologist" means one who practices audiology or one holding oneself out to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words "audiologist," "audiology," "audiological," "hearing center," "hearing clinic," "hearing clinician," "hearing therapist" or any similar titles or descriptions of service; (B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent or prohibit any hearing instrument specialist from employing and using such terms as "hearing aid center," "hearing aid clinic," "hearing instrument center," "hearing instrument clinic" or any similar titles or descriptions of services, so long as the word "aid" or "instrument" is incorporated in any such title or description of service and insofar as such terms do not connote qualifications or education for which the hearing instrument specialist does not have valid credentials or do not imply rehabilitative or professional services that the hearing instrument specialist is not qualified to offer; (2) "Board" means the board of communications disorders and sciences; (3) "Person" means any individual, organization or corporate body except that only individuals can be licensed under this chapter; (4) (A) "Practice of audiology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the assessment of the auditory and vestibular systems, including the interpretation of behavioral and physiologic measures, and the design and implementation of programs of hearing conservation and preservation and programs of habilitation and rehabilitation for auditory and vestibular disorders including the assessment, selection, fitting and sale of amplification systems or other assistive devices and technologies; (B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent a person licensed under part 2 of this chapter as a hearing instrument dispenser from engaging in the practice of measuring, testing, appraisal, prediction, counseling and instructions related to fitting, usage and dispensing of hearing instruments; (5) (A) "Practice of speech language pathology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the measurement, testing, assessment, prediction, counseling or instruction related to the development and disorders of speech, voice, language or oral, pharyngeal and laryngeal sensorimotor competencies for the purpose of assessing, preventing, treating, ameliorating or modifying such disorders and conditions in individuals and groups of individuals; (B) The practice of speech language pathology shall include the use of rigid and flexible endoscopes to observe the pharyngeal and laryngeal areas of the throat in order to observe, collect data and measure the parameters of communication and swallowing for the purpose of functional assessment and rehabilitation planning. A speech language pathologist who uses an endoscope shall meet all of the following conditions: (i) Obtain written verification from a board certified otolaryngologist that the speech language pathologist is competent in the proper and safe use of an endoscope. The otolaryngologist's determination of competency shall be based on the speech language pathologist's training in the proper use of endoscopes, the successful completion of a university course or other educational program of at least fifteen (15) hours on endoscopy and the successful performance of at least twenty-five (25) endoscopic procedures under the supervision of an otolaryngologist or another speech language pathologist who has successfully performed at least fifty (50) endoscopic procedures and has been approved in writing by a board-certified otolaryngologist to provide that supervision. The speech language pathologist shall maintain this written verification on file at all times at the primary practice location of the speech language pathologist; (ii) Not perform a procedure utilizing an endoscope unless the patient has been referred to the speech language pathologist by an otolaryngologist or other qualified physician for the performance of the procedure; (iii) Perform only nonoperative procedures with an endoscope; (iv) Have protocols in place for emergency medical backup for every setting in which the speech language pathologist performs a procedure using an endoscope. A physician must provide general supervision and be readily available in the event of an emergency, including, but not limited to, physical presence at the setting or availability by telephone or telehealth, as defined in § 63-1-155 ; and (v) Send to the referring physician in a timely manner a report and visual recording of each endoscopic procedure performed upon referral of that physician. If the referring physician is not an otolaryngologist, the speech language pathologist shall also provide a visual recording of the endoscopic procedure to an otolaryngologist, if directed to do so by the referring physician; (6) "Speech language pathologist" means one who practices speech pathology, one who holds out to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words "speech language pathologist," "speech pathologist," "speech pathology," "speech therapy," "speech correction," "speech correctionist," "speech therapist," "speech clinic," "speech clinician," "language pathologist," "language pathology," "language therapist," "logopedics," "logopedist," "communicology," "communicologist," "asphasiologist," "voice therapy," "voice therapist," "voice pathology," "voice pathologist" or "phoniatrist" or any similar titles or description of services; and (7) "Speech language pathology assistant" means any person who meets minimum qualifications that the board may establish for speech language pathology assistants, which qualifications are less than those established by this chapter as necessary for licensure as a speech language pathologist and who works under the supervision of a licensed speech language pathologist. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 125, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023. Acts 1973, ch. 93, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-1703; Acts 1989, ch. 269, § 1; 1994, ch. 849, §§ 1, 2; 1995, ch. 481, §§ 26-28, 32, 33; 2005, ch. 330, § 1; 2007 , ch. 324, § 1.
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) (A) "Audiologist" means one who practices audiology or one holding oneself out to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words "audiologist," "audiology," "audiological," "hearing center," "hearing clinic," "hearing clinician," "hearing therapist" or any similar titles or descriptions of service; (B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent or prohibit any hearing instrument specialist from employing and using such terms as "hearing aid center," "hearing aid clinic," "hearing instrument center," "hearing instrument clinic" or any similar titles or descriptions of services, so long as the word "aid" or "instrument" is incorporated in any such title or description of service and insofar as such terms do not connote qualifications or education for which the hearing instrument specialist does not have valid credentials or do not imply rehabilitative or professional services that the hearing instrument specialist is not qualified to offer;
(A) "Audiologist" means one who practices audiology or one holding oneself out to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words "audiologist," "audiology," "audiological," "hearing center," "hearing clinic," "hearing clinician," "hearing therapist" or any similar titles or descriptions of service;
(B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent or prohibit any hearing instrument specialist from employing and using such terms as "hearing aid center," "hearing aid clinic," "hearing instrument center," "hearing instrument clinic" or any similar titles or descriptions of services, so long as the word "aid" or "instrument" is incorporated in any such title or description of service and insofar as such terms do not connote qualifications or education for which the hearing instrument specialist does not have valid credentials or do not imply rehabilitative or professional services that the hearing instrument specialist is not qualified to offer;
(2) "Board" means the board of communications disorders and sciences;
(3) "Person" means any individual, organization or corporate body except that only individuals can be licensed under this chapter;
(4) (A) "Practice of audiology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the assessment of the auditory and vestibular systems, including the interpretation of behavioral and physiologic measures, and the design and implementation of programs of hearing conservation and preservation and programs of habilitation and rehabilitation for auditory and vestibular disorders including the assessment, selection, fitting and sale of amplification systems or other assistive devices and technologies; (B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent a person licensed under part 2 of this chapter as a hearing instrument dispenser from engaging in the practice of measuring, testing, appraisal, prediction, counseling and instructions related to fitting, usage and dispensing of hearing instruments;
(A) "Practice of audiology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the assessment of the auditory and vestibular systems, including the interpretation of behavioral and physiologic measures, and the design and implementation of programs of hearing conservation and preservation and programs of habilitation and rehabilitation for auditory and vestibular disorders including the assessment, selection, fitting and sale of amplification systems or other assistive devices and technologies;
(B) Nothing in this chapter shall prevent a person licensed under part 2 of this chapter as a hearing instrument dispenser from engaging in the practice of measuring, testing, appraisal, prediction, counseling and instructions related to fitting, usage and dispensing of hearing instruments;
(5) (A) "Practice of speech language pathology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the measurement, testing, assessment, prediction, counseling or instruction related to the development and disorders of speech, voice, language or oral, pharyngeal and laryngeal sensorimotor competencies for the purpose of assessing, preventing, treating, ameliorating or modifying such disorders and conditions in individuals and groups of individuals; (B) The practice of speech language pathology shall include the use of rigid and flexible endoscopes to observe the pharyngeal and laryngeal areas of the throat in order to observe, collect data and measure the parameters of communication and swallowing for the purpose of functional assessment and rehabilitation planning. A speech language pathologist who uses an endoscope shall meet all of the following conditions: (i) Obtain written verification from a board certified otolaryngologist that the speech language pathologist is competent in the proper and safe use of an endoscope. The otolaryngologist's determination of competency shall be based on the speech language pathologist's training in the proper use of endoscopes, the successful completion of a university course or other educational program of at least fifteen (15) hours on endoscopy and the successful performance of at least twenty-five (25) endoscopic procedures under the supervision of an otolaryngologist or another speech language pathologist who has successfully performed at least fifty (50) endoscopic procedures and has been approved in writing by a board-certified otolaryngologist to provide that supervision. The speech language pathologist shall maintain this written verification on file at all times at the primary practice location of the speech language pathologist; (ii) Not perform a procedure utilizing an endoscope unless the patient has been referred to the speech language pathologist by an otolaryngologist or other qualified physician for the performance of the procedure; (iii) Perform only nonoperative procedures with an endoscope; (iv) Have protocols in place for emergency medical backup for every setting in which the speech language pathologist performs a procedure using an endoscope. A physician must provide general supervision and be readily available in the event of an emergency, including, but not limited to, physical presence at the setting or availability by telephone or telehealth, as defined in § 63-1-155 ; and (v) Send to the referring physician in a timely manner a report and visual recording of each endoscopic procedure performed upon referral of that physician. If the referring physician is not an otolaryngologist, the speech language pathologist shall also provide a visual recording of the endoscopic procedure to an otolaryngologist, if directed to do so by the referring physician;
(A) "Practice of speech language pathology" means the nonmedical application of principles, methods and procedures for the measurement, testing, assessment, prediction, counseling or instruction related to the development and disorders of speech, voice, language or oral, pharyngeal and laryngeal sensorimotor competencies for the purpose of assessing, preventing, treating, ameliorating or modifying such disorders and conditions in individuals and groups of individuals;
(B) The practice of speech language pathology shall include the use of rigid and flexible endoscopes to observe the pharyngeal and laryngeal areas of the throat in order to observe, collect data and measure the parameters of communication and swallowing for the purpose of functional assessment and rehabilitation planning. A speech language pathologist who uses an endoscope shall meet all of the following conditions: (i) Obtain written verification from a board certified otolaryngologist that the speech language pathologist is competent in the proper and safe use of an endoscope. The otolaryngologist's determination of competency shall be based on the speech language pathologist's training in the proper use of endoscopes, the successful completion of a university course or other educational program of at least fifteen (15) hours on endoscopy and the successful performance of at least twenty-five (25) endoscopic procedures under the supervision of an otolaryngologist or another speech language pathologist who has successfully performed at least fifty (50) endoscopic procedures and has been approved in writing by a board-certified otolaryngologist to provide that supervision. The speech language pathologist shall maintain this written verification on file at all times at the primary practice location of the speech language pathologist; (ii) Not perform a procedure utilizing an endoscope unless the patient has been referred to the speech language pathologist by an otolaryngologist or other qualified physician for the performance of the procedure; (iii) Perform only nonoperative procedures with an endoscope; (iv) Have protocols in place for emergency medical backup for every setting in which the speech language pathologist performs a procedure using an endoscope. A physician must provide general supervision and be readily available in the event of an emergency, including, but not limited to, physical presence at the setting or availability by telephone or telehealth, as defined in § 63-1-155 ; and (v) Send to the referring physician in a timely manner a report and visual recording of each endoscopic procedure performed upon referral of that physician. If the referring physician is not an otolaryngologist, the speech language pathologist shall also provide a visual recording of the endoscopic procedure to an otolaryngologist, if directed to do so by the referring physician;
(i) Obtain written verification from a board certified otolaryngologist that the speech language pathologist is competent in the proper and safe use of an endoscope. The otolaryngologist's determination of competency shall be based on the speech language pathologist's training in the proper use of endoscopes, the successful completion of a university course or other educational program of at least fifteen (15) hours on endoscopy and the successful performance of at least twenty-five (25) endoscopic procedures under the supervision of an otolaryngologist or another speech language pathologist who has successfully performed at least fifty (50) endoscopic procedures and has been approved in writing by a board-certified otolaryngologist to provide that supervision. The speech language pathologist shall maintain this written verification on file at all times at the primary practice location of the speech language pathologist;
(ii) Not perform a procedure utilizing an endoscope unless the patient has been referred to the speech language pathologist by an otolaryngologist or other qualified physician for the performance of the procedure;
(iii) Perform only nonoperative procedures with an endoscope;
(iv) Have protocols in place for emergency medical backup for every setting in which the speech language pathologist performs a procedure using an endoscope. A physician must provide general supervision and be readily available in the event of an emergency, including, but not limited to, physical presence at the setting or availability by telephone or telehealth, as defined in § 63-1-155 ; and
(v) Send to the referring physician in a timely manner a report and visual recording of each endoscopic procedure performed upon referral of that physician. If the referring physician is not an otolaryngologist, the speech language pathologist shall also provide a visual recording of the endoscopic procedure to an otolaryngologist, if directed to do so by the referring physician;
(6) "Speech language pathologist" means one who practices speech pathology, one who holds out to the public by any title or description of services incorporating the words "speech language pathologist," "speech pathologist," "speech pathology," "speech therapy," "speech correction," "speech correctionist," "speech therapist," "speech clinic," "speech clinician," "language pathologist," "language pathology," "language therapist," "logopedics," "logopedist," "communicology," "communicologist," "asphasiologist," "voice therapy," "voice therapist," "voice pathology," "voice pathologist" or "phoniatrist" or any similar titles or description of services; and
(7) "Speech language pathology assistant" means any person who meets minimum qualifications that the board may establish for speech language pathology assistants, which qualifications are less than those established by this chapter as necessary for licensure as a speech language pathologist and who works under the supervision of a licensed speech language pathologist.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 125, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023.
Acts 1973, ch. 93, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-1703; Acts 1989, ch. 269, § 1; 1994, ch. 849, §§ 1, 2; 1995, ch. 481, §§ 26-28, 32, 33; 2005, ch. 330, § 1; 2007 , ch. 324, § 1.