Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-27-103 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 27 / Section 63-27-103
Board of respiratory care
Status: in_force

(a) A board is created, which shall be known as the board of respiratory care. This board shall consist of eight (8) members, who shall be appointed by the governor in the manner and for the terms of office as provided in this section. (b) The board shall be composed of four (4) members who are respiratory care practitioners holding a credential from the National Board for Respiratory Care, at least two (2) of whom shall be registered respiratory therapists; one (1) member who is a currently practicing physician having expertise in pulmonary medicine; one (1) member who is a hospital administrator; one (1) member who is a hospital employee licensed as a registered respiratory therapist; and one (1) citizen member who is not commercially or professionally associated with the health care field. (c) Each member of the board shall: (1) Be a resident of Tennessee for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment and during the member's term; (2) Be currently licensed in good standing in Tennessee, in the case of a professional member; and (3) Have had at least three (3) years of experience in that profession (in the case of a professional member). (d) The governor may consider for appointment to the board the names of qualified persons recommended by interested respiratory care groups, including, but not limited to, the professional organizations for each profession represented on the board. The Tennessee Society for Respiratory Care may submit a list of three (3) names for each position to be filled by a respiratory care practitioner. The Tennessee Medical Association may submit a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a physician having expertise in pulmonary medicine. The Tennessee Hospital Association (THA), an association of hospitals and health systems, may submit a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a hospital administrator and a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a hospital employee licensed as a registered respiratory therapist. The governor shall consult with the interested respiratory care groups to determine qualified persons to fill the positions. (e) Each member shall serve a term of three (3) years, except that initially the members of the council on respiratory care shall become members of the board and shall remain members of the board until their terms on the council on respiratory care would have expired. The governor shall stagger the terms of the remaining members appointed to the board, so that the terms of either two (2) or three (3) members shall expire each year. A vacancy occurring on the board shall be filled by the board itself for the unexpired term of that member. At or before the expiration of a member's term, an organization named in subsection (d) may submit three (3) names to the governor for appointment to that position. Each member shall serve until a successor is appointed. Members are eligible for reappointment to successive terms. (f) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) member is sixty (60) years of age or older, that at least one (1) member is a member of a racial minority, and that the gender balance of the board reflects the gender balance of the state's population. (g) Each member shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the performance of official duties on the board, and in addition thereto, shall be entitled to a per diem of fifty dollars ($50.00) for each day's services in conducting the business of the board. All reimbursement for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter. (h) Annually, the board shall choose a chair and a secretary from among its members. (i) The board shall hold at least one (1) regular meeting each year and such other meetings as the board determines necessary to conduct its business. (j) A majority of the members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. No action of the board shall be valid unless approved by a majority of members present at a meeting at which there is a quorum. (k) The governor has the power to remove from office any member of the board for neglect of duties required by this chapter, for malfeasance in office, for incompetence, or for unprofessional conduct. (l) The board shall deposit all moneys received by the board into the state treasury, and the department shall make such allotments out of the board's account in the general fund as the department deems proper for the necessary expenses of the board. (m) The division shall provide administrative, investigatory, and clerical services to the board as are necessary to implement and enforce this chapter. (n) On and after January 1, 1999, the board shall assume and fulfill all powers and duties heretofore assigned to the council on respiratory care and the board of medical examiners, and the rules heretofore adopted by the council on respiratory care and the board of medical examiners shall become the rules of the board on January 1, 1999, without further action by the board. The board shall consult with respiratory care professional organizations in the development of any additional regulations. Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1988, ch. 1013, § 44; 1993, ch. 86, § 1; T.C.A. § 63-6-403; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 24, 28, 29, 55; 2000, ch. 621, §3; 2012 , ch. 630, § 3.
(a) A board is created, which shall be known as the board of respiratory care. This board shall consist of eight (8) members, who shall be appointed by the governor in the manner and for the terms of office as provided in this section.
(b) The board shall be composed of four (4) members who are respiratory care practitioners holding a credential from the National Board for Respiratory Care, at least two (2) of whom shall be registered respiratory therapists; one (1) member who is a currently practicing physician having expertise in pulmonary medicine; one (1) member who is a hospital administrator; one (1) member who is a hospital employee licensed as a registered respiratory therapist; and one (1) citizen member who is not commercially or professionally associated with the health care field.
(c) Each member of the board shall: (1) Be a resident of Tennessee for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment and during the member's term; (2) Be currently licensed in good standing in Tennessee, in the case of a professional member; and (3) Have had at least three (3) years of experience in that profession (in the case of a professional member).
(1) Be a resident of Tennessee for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment and during the member's term;
(2) Be currently licensed in good standing in Tennessee, in the case of a professional member; and
(3) Have had at least three (3) years of experience in that profession (in the case of a professional member).
(d) The governor may consider for appointment to the board the names of qualified persons recommended by interested respiratory care groups, including, but not limited to, the professional organizations for each profession represented on the board. The Tennessee Society for Respiratory Care may submit a list of three (3) names for each position to be filled by a respiratory care practitioner. The Tennessee Medical Association may submit a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a physician having expertise in pulmonary medicine. The Tennessee Hospital Association (THA), an association of hospitals and health systems, may submit a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a hospital administrator and a list of three (3) names for the position to be filled by a hospital employee licensed as a registered respiratory therapist. The governor shall consult with the interested respiratory care groups to determine qualified persons to fill the positions.
(e) Each member shall serve a term of three (3) years, except that initially the members of the council on respiratory care shall become members of the board and shall remain members of the board until their terms on the council on respiratory care would have expired. The governor shall stagger the terms of the remaining members appointed to the board, so that the terms of either two (2) or three (3) members shall expire each year. A vacancy occurring on the board shall be filled by the board itself for the unexpired term of that member. At or before the expiration of a member's term, an organization named in subsection (d) may submit three (3) names to the governor for appointment to that position. Each member shall serve until a successor is appointed. Members are eligible for reappointment to successive terms.
(f) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) member is sixty (60) years of age or older, that at least one (1) member is a member of a racial minority, and that the gender balance of the board reflects the gender balance of the state's population.
(g) Each member shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the performance of official duties on the board, and in addition thereto, shall be entitled to a per diem of fifty dollars ($50.00) for each day's services in conducting the business of the board. All reimbursement for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter.
(h) Annually, the board shall choose a chair and a secretary from among its members.
(i) The board shall hold at least one (1) regular meeting each year and such other meetings as the board determines necessary to conduct its business.
(j) A majority of the members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. No action of the board shall be valid unless approved by a majority of members present at a meeting at which there is a quorum.
(k) The governor has the power to remove from office any member of the board for neglect of duties required by this chapter, for malfeasance in office, for incompetence, or for unprofessional conduct.
(l) The board shall deposit all moneys received by the board into the state treasury, and the department shall make such allotments out of the board's account in the general fund as the department deems proper for the necessary expenses of the board.
(m) The division shall provide administrative, investigatory, and clerical services to the board as are necessary to implement and enforce this chapter.
(n) On and after January 1, 1999, the board shall assume and fulfill all powers and duties heretofore assigned to the council on respiratory care and the board of medical examiners, and the rules heretofore adopted by the council on respiratory care and the board of medical examiners shall become the rules of the board on January 1, 1999, without further action by the board. The board shall consult with respiratory care professional organizations in the development of any additional regulations.
Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1988, ch. 1013, § 44; 1993, ch. 86, § 1; T.C.A. § 63-6-403; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 24, 28, 29, 55; 2000, ch. 621, §3; 2012 , ch. 630, § 3.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-22-104 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 22 / Section 63-22-104
Professional counselors - Fees - Qualifications
Status: in_force

An applicant for licensure as a professional counselor shall pay the board a nonrefundable fee as set by the board and shall satisfy the board that the applicant: (1) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age; (2) Is of good moral character; (3) (A) Has a conferred graduate degree in counseling or a closely related field; (B) Has obtained a total of sixty (60) graduate hours in counseling or a closely related field; and (C) Has completed a supervised field experience as either a practicum or internship; (4) Has had at least two (2) years of professional experience of a type judged to be acceptable by the board subsequent to being granted a graduate degree and has not violated § 63-22-110 ; (5) Has passed the examination offered by the National Board for Certified Counselors (NBCC) or such other examination approved by the board; (6) Has passed the Tennessee jurisprudence exam; and (7) Has met any additional criteria of the board established by rule. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1035,s 6, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1040, s 3, eff. 1/1/2023. Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1040, s 2, eff. 1/1/2023. Acts 1984, ch. 933, § 5; 1989, ch. 523, § 100; 1991, ch. 421, §§ 8-10; 1995, ch. 318, § 2.
An applicant for licensure as a professional counselor shall pay the board a nonrefundable fee as set by the board and shall satisfy the board that the applicant:
(1) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age;
(2) Is of good moral character;
(3) (A) Has a conferred graduate degree in counseling or a closely related field; (B) Has obtained a total of sixty (60) graduate hours in counseling or a closely related field; and (C) Has completed a supervised field experience as either a practicum or internship;
(A) Has a conferred graduate degree in counseling or a closely related field;
(B) Has obtained a total of sixty (60) graduate hours in counseling or a closely related field; and
(C) Has completed a supervised field experience as either a practicum or internship;
(4) Has had at least two (2) years of professional experience of a type judged to be acceptable by the board subsequent to being granted a graduate degree and has not violated § 63-22-110 ;
(5) Has passed the examination offered by the National Board for Certified Counselors (NBCC) or such other examination approved by the board;
(6) Has passed the Tennessee jurisprudence exam; and
(7) Has met any additional criteria of the board established by rule.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1035,s 6, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1040, s 3, eff. 1/1/2023.
Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1040, s 2, eff. 1/1/2023.
Acts 1984, ch. 933, § 5; 1989, ch. 523, § 100; 1991, ch. 421, §§ 8-10; 1995, ch. 318, § 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-23-214 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 23 / Section 63-23-214
Effective date, withdrawal, and amendment
Status: in_force

(a) This compact comes into effect on the date on which this compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh member state. (1) On or after the effective date of this compact, the commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the first seven (7) member states ("charter member states") to determine if the statute enacted by each such charter member state is materially different than the model compact statute. (A) A charter member state whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model compact statute is entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-23-213 . (B) If any member state is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from this compact, then the commission remains in existence and this compact remains in effect even if the number of member states should be less than seven (7). (2) Member states enacting this compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial charter member states are subject to the process set forth in § 63-23-210(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the model compact statute and whether they qualify for participation in this compact. (3) All actions taken for the benefit of the commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of this compact prior to the effective date of this compact or the commission coming into existence are considered to be actions of the commission unless specifically repudiated by the commission. (4) Any state that joins this compact subsequent to the commission's initial adoption of the rules and bylaws is subject to the rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which this compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the commission has the full force and effect of law on the day this compact becomes law in that state. (b) Any member state may withdraw from this compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. (1) A member state's withdrawal does not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. (2) Withdrawal does not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's licensing authority to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal. (3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this compact, a state must immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all licensees within that state. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing state shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal. (c) Nothing contained in this compact must be construed to invalidate or prevent any licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with this compact. (d) This compact may be amended by the member states. An amendment to this compact does not become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
(a) This compact comes into effect on the date on which this compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh member state. (1) On or after the effective date of this compact, the commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the first seven (7) member states ("charter member states") to determine if the statute enacted by each such charter member state is materially different than the model compact statute. (A) A charter member state whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model compact statute is entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-23-213 . (B) If any member state is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from this compact, then the commission remains in existence and this compact remains in effect even if the number of member states should be less than seven (7). (2) Member states enacting this compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial charter member states are subject to the process set forth in § 63-23-210(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the model compact statute and whether they qualify for participation in this compact. (3) All actions taken for the benefit of the commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of this compact prior to the effective date of this compact or the commission coming into existence are considered to be actions of the commission unless specifically repudiated by the commission. (4) Any state that joins this compact subsequent to the commission's initial adoption of the rules and bylaws is subject to the rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which this compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the commission has the full force and effect of law on the day this compact becomes law in that state.
(1) On or after the effective date of this compact, the commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the first seven (7) member states ("charter member states") to determine if the statute enacted by each such charter member state is materially different than the model compact statute. (A) A charter member state whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model compact statute is entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-23-213 . (B) If any member state is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from this compact, then the commission remains in existence and this compact remains in effect even if the number of member states should be less than seven (7).
(A) A charter member state whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model compact statute is entitled to the default process set forth in § 63-23-213 .
(B) If any member state is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from this compact, then the commission remains in existence and this compact remains in effect even if the number of member states should be less than seven (7).
(2) Member states enacting this compact subsequent to the seven (7) initial charter member states are subject to the process set forth in § 63-23-210(c)(21) to determine if their enactments are materially different from the model compact statute and whether they qualify for participation in this compact.
(3) All actions taken for the benefit of the commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of this compact prior to the effective date of this compact or the commission coming into existence are considered to be actions of the commission unless specifically repudiated by the commission.
(4) Any state that joins this compact subsequent to the commission's initial adoption of the rules and bylaws is subject to the rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which this compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the commission has the full force and effect of law on the day this compact becomes law in that state.
(b) Any member state may withdraw from this compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. (1) A member state's withdrawal does not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. (2) Withdrawal does not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's licensing authority to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal. (3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this compact, a state must immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all licensees within that state. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing state shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.
(1) A member state's withdrawal does not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute.
(2) Withdrawal does not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's licensing authority to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.
(3) Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this compact, a state must immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all licensees within that state. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing state shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.
(c) Nothing contained in this compact must be construed to invalidate or prevent any licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with this compact.
(d) This compact may be amended by the member states. An amendment to this compact does not become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-11-405 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 11 / Section 63-11-405
Application for licensure as a licensed professional art therapist
Status: in_force

(a) Applicants for licensure as a licensed professional art therapist shall submit an application and fee to the advisory committee. The application must include evidence that the applicant meets the following requirements for licensure: (1) The applicant has attained the age of majority; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) The applicant has: (A) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree in art therapy from a program approved by the American Art Therapy Association or accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs at the time the degree was conferred, and has completed not less than one thousand (1,000) client contact hours of experience after the master's degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; or (B) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree from a college or university that was accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation in a program with a graduate-level course of study and clinical training that, as determined by the advisory committee, is equivalent to an approved or accredited program in art therapy, and has completed not less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of client contact experience after the qualifying degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; and (5) The applicant has passed the board certification examination of the Art Therapy Credentials Board, Inc. (b) A person holding a national credential in good standing as a certified art therapist is deemed to have met the requirements of this section upon submitting an application and fee and providing evidence satisfactory to the advisory committee that the applicant: (1) Is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; and (2) Has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution. Added by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 160, s 2, eff. 7/1/2022.
(a) Applicants for licensure as a licensed professional art therapist shall submit an application and fee to the advisory committee. The application must include evidence that the applicant meets the following requirements for licensure: (1) The applicant has attained the age of majority; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) The applicant has: (A) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree in art therapy from a program approved by the American Art Therapy Association or accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs at the time the degree was conferred, and has completed not less than one thousand (1,000) client contact hours of experience after the master's degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; or (B) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree from a college or university that was accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation in a program with a graduate-level course of study and clinical training that, as determined by the advisory committee, is equivalent to an approved or accredited program in art therapy, and has completed not less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of client contact experience after the qualifying degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; and (5) The applicant has passed the board certification examination of the Art Therapy Credentials Board, Inc.
(1) The applicant has attained the age of majority;
(2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards;
(3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution;
(4) The applicant has: (A) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree in art therapy from a program approved by the American Art Therapy Association or accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs at the time the degree was conferred, and has completed not less than one thousand (1,000) client contact hours of experience after the master's degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; or (B) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree from a college or university that was accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation in a program with a graduate-level course of study and clinical training that, as determined by the advisory committee, is equivalent to an approved or accredited program in art therapy, and has completed not less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of client contact experience after the qualifying degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; and
(A) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree in art therapy from a program approved by the American Art Therapy Association or accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs at the time the degree was conferred, and has completed not less than one thousand (1,000) client contact hours of experience after the master's degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; or
(B) Received a master's degree or doctoral degree from a college or university that was accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation in a program with a graduate-level course of study and clinical training that, as determined by the advisory committee, is equivalent to an approved or accredited program in art therapy, and has completed not less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of client contact experience after the qualifying degree was conferred under the supervision of an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, credentialed art therapist, or other licensed mental health professional approved by the advisory committee. At least one-half (1/2) of the required supervision hours must be provided by an art therapy certified supervisor, licensed professional art therapist, or certified art therapist; and
(5) The applicant has passed the board certification examination of the Art Therapy Credentials Board, Inc.
(b) A person holding a national credential in good standing as a certified art therapist is deemed to have met the requirements of this section upon submitting an application and fee and providing evidence satisfactory to the advisory committee that the applicant: (1) Is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; and (2) Has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution.
(1) Is of good moral character and conducts the applicant's professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards; and
(2) Has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for unprofessional conduct, unless the advisory committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution.
Added by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 160, s 2, eff. 7/1/2022.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-1-801 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 1 / Section 63-1-801
Short title
Status: in_force

This part is known and may be cited as the "Healthcare Provider Advertising Law." Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 893,s 1, eff. 5/1/2024.
This part is known and may be cited as the "Healthcare Provider Advertising Law."
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 893,s 1, eff. 5/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-19-108 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 19 / Section 63-19-108
Unprofessional conduct by physician collaborating with a physician assistant
Status: in_force

When a licensed physician collaborates with a physician assistant or orthopedic physician assistant in a manner that is inconsistent with this chapter, it constitutes grounds for a finding of unprofessional conduct and the physician is subject to disciplinary action by the board of medical examiners in accordance with § 63-6-214 , the board of osteopathic examination in accordance with § 63-9-111 , or the board of podiatric medical examiners in accordance with § 63-3-119 . As used in this section, "disciplinary action" includes, but is not limited to, the discipline described in §§ 63-6-214(a) , 63-9-111(a) , and 63-3-119(a) , and the suspension of privileges to collaborate with a physician assistant or an orthopedic physician assistant. Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 565, s 6, eff. 5/26/2021. Acts 1985, ch. 376, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-19-208 ; Acts 1988, ch. 906, § 4.
When a licensed physician collaborates with a physician assistant or orthopedic physician assistant in a manner that is inconsistent with this chapter, it constitutes grounds for a finding of unprofessional conduct and the physician is subject to disciplinary action by the board of medical examiners in accordance with § 63-6-214 , the board of osteopathic examination in accordance with § 63-9-111 , or the board of podiatric medical examiners in accordance with § 63-3-119 . As used in this section, "disciplinary action" includes, but is not limited to, the discipline described in §§ 63-6-214(a) , 63-9-111(a) , and 63-3-119(a) , and the suspension of privileges to collaborate with a physician assistant or an orthopedic physician assistant.
Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 565, s 6, eff. 5/26/2021.
Acts 1985, ch. 376, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-19-208 ; Acts 1988, ch. 906, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-2-104 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 2 / Section 63-2-104
Electronic medical records - Information blocking prohibited - Procedure for disclosure of test results - Exclusions
Status: in_force

(a) A healthcare professional subject to this title who is considered a business associate, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 160.103 , shall comply with: (1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) ( 42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.) and standards for privacy of individually identifiable health information required by 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164; and (2) Federal laws regulating information blocking, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 171.103 . (b) Notwithstanding another law to the contrary, except as provided in subsection (c), a healthcare provider requesting a medical laboratory test for a patient shall not engage in information blocking as described in 42 U.S.C. § 300jj-52 . (c) The following reports, test results, and any other related results must not be disclosed by a designated entity, as defined under § 68-29-103 , to a patient as part of the patient's electronic health record until seventy-two (72) hours after the results are finalized, unless the healthcare provider directs the release of the results before the end of that seventy-two-hour period: (1) Pathology reports or radiology reports that have a reasonable likelihood of showing a finding of new or recurring malignancy; (2) Tests that could reveal genetic markers; (3) A positive HIV test, except that this section does not prevent the disclosure of HIV test results, including viral load and CD4 count test results, to a patient living with HIV by secure internet website or other electronic means if the patient has previously been informed about the results of a positive HIV test pursuant to the requirements of this section; or (4) Presence of antigens indicating a hepatitis infection. (d) This section does not apply to a person or entity that is licensed under this title or title 68. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 931,s 1, eff. 5/6/2024.
(a) A healthcare professional subject to this title who is considered a business associate, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 160.103 , shall comply with: (1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) ( 42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.) and standards for privacy of individually identifiable health information required by 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164; and (2) Federal laws regulating information blocking, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 171.103 .
(1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) ( 42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.) and standards for privacy of individually identifiable health information required by 45 CFR Parts 160 and 164; and
(2) Federal laws regulating information blocking, as that term is defined in 45 CFR § 171.103 .
(b) Notwithstanding another law to the contrary, except as provided in subsection (c), a healthcare provider requesting a medical laboratory test for a patient shall not engage in information blocking as described in 42 U.S.C. § 300jj-52 .
(c) The following reports, test results, and any other related results must not be disclosed by a designated entity, as defined under § 68-29-103 , to a patient as part of the patient's electronic health record until seventy-two (72) hours after the results are finalized, unless the healthcare provider directs the release of the results before the end of that seventy-two-hour period: (1) Pathology reports or radiology reports that have a reasonable likelihood of showing a finding of new or recurring malignancy; (2) Tests that could reveal genetic markers; (3) A positive HIV test, except that this section does not prevent the disclosure of HIV test results, including viral load and CD4 count test results, to a patient living with HIV by secure internet website or other electronic means if the patient has previously been informed about the results of a positive HIV test pursuant to the requirements of this section; or (4) Presence of antigens indicating a hepatitis infection.
(1) Pathology reports or radiology reports that have a reasonable likelihood of showing a finding of new or recurring malignancy;
(2) Tests that could reveal genetic markers;
(3) A positive HIV test, except that this section does not prevent the disclosure of HIV test results, including viral load and CD4 count test results, to a patient living with HIV by secure internet website or other electronic means if the patient has previously been informed about the results of a positive HIV test pursuant to the requirements of this section; or
(4) Presence of antigens indicating a hepatitis infection.
(d) This section does not apply to a person or entity that is licensed under this title or title 68.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 931,s 1, eff. 5/6/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-25-103 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 25 / Section 63-25-103
Chapter definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) "Board" means the board of dietitian/nutritionist examiners; (2) "Department" means the department of health; (3) "Dietetics/nutrition practice" means the integration and application of scientific principles of food, nutrition, biochemistry, physiology, management and behavioral and social sciences in achieving and maintaining health through the life cycle and in the treatment of disease. Methods of practice include, but are not limited to, nutritional assessment, development, implementation and evaluation of nutrition care plans, nutritional counseling and education, and the development and administration of nutrition care standards and systems; (4) "Dietitian" and "nutritionist" may be used interchangeably; (5) "Dietitian/nutritionist" means a health care professional practicing dietetics/nutrition and licensed under this chapter; and (6) "Division" means the division of health related boards within the department. Acts 1987, ch. 384, § 4.
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Board" means the board of dietitian/nutritionist examiners;
(2) "Department" means the department of health;
(3) "Dietetics/nutrition practice" means the integration and application of scientific principles of food, nutrition, biochemistry, physiology, management and behavioral and social sciences in achieving and maintaining health through the life cycle and in the treatment of disease. Methods of practice include, but are not limited to, nutritional assessment, development, implementation and evaluation of nutrition care plans, nutritional counseling and education, and the development and administration of nutrition care standards and systems;
(4) "Dietitian" and "nutritionist" may be used interchangeably;
(5) "Dietitian/nutritionist" means a health care professional practicing dietetics/nutrition and licensed under this chapter; and
(6) "Division" means the division of health related boards within the department.
Acts 1987, ch. 384, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-6-217 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 6 / Section 63-6-217
Practice after license revocation - Penalty
Status: in_force

After the board has revoked the license of any person for any of the grounds specified in §§ 63-6-214 and 63-6-215 , such person shall not thereafter practice medicine or surgery in the state, and for each and every instance of such practice the person commits a Class B misdemeanor. Acts 1919, ch. 117, § 2; Shan. Supp., § 3609a30b1; Code 1932, § 6934; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-621; Acts 1989, ch. 591, § 112.
After the board has revoked the license of any person for any of the grounds specified in §§ 63-6-214 and 63-6-215 , such person shall not thereafter practice medicine or surgery in the state, and for each and every instance of such practice the person commits a Class B misdemeanor.
Acts 1919, ch. 117, § 2; Shan. Supp., § 3609a30b1; Code 1932, § 6934; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-621; Acts 1989, ch. 591, § 112.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-12-202 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 12 / Section 63-12-202
Use of term "certified animal massage therapist" or "registered animal massage therapist" - Prohibitions
Status: in_force

(a) No person shall use the title "certified animal massage therapist" or "registered animal massage therapist" unless the person meets the requirements of this part. (b) This part shall not prohibit any person from rendering or offering to render animal massage therapy services; provided, that a person who is not certified or registered under this part shall not use, or knowingly allow themselves to be identified by, the title "certified animal massage therapist" or "registered animal massage therapist". (c) Persons who hold themselves out as certified animal massage therapists or registered animal massage therapists without complying with § 63-12-203 are in violation of the Tennessee Consumer Protection Act, compiled in title 47, chapter 18, part 1. Acts 2018 , ch. 679, § 4.
(a) No person shall use the title "certified animal massage therapist" or "registered animal massage therapist" unless the person meets the requirements of this part.
(b) This part shall not prohibit any person from rendering or offering to render animal massage therapy services; provided, that a person who is not certified or registered under this part shall not use, or knowingly allow themselves to be identified by, the title "certified animal massage therapist" or "registered animal massage therapist".
(c) Persons who hold themselves out as certified animal massage therapists or registered animal massage therapists without complying with § 63-12-203 are in violation of the Tennessee Consumer Protection Act, compiled in title 47, chapter 18, part 1.
Acts 2018 , ch. 679, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-10-315 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 10 / Section 63-10-315
Promulgation of rules
Status: in_force

All rules to effectuate this part must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5. Added by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 457, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023.
All rules to effectuate this part must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
Added by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 457, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-6-232 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 6 / Section 63-6-232
Disciplinary complaints against chelation therapist
Status: in_force

All disciplinary complaints filed against a chelation therapist shall be judged by the standard of medical care in the community where such complaint originated. Acts 2001, ch. 296, § 1.
All disciplinary complaints filed against a chelation therapist shall be judged by the standard of medical care in the community where such complaint originated.
Acts 2001, ch. 296, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-12-144 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 12 / Section 63-12-144
Certificate authorizing chemical capture of animals by certified animal chemical capture technicians - Protocol - Offense - Certification course
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The board of veterinary medical examiners, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any governmental animal control agency that the board determines to be qualified and that has a valid premises permit issued by the board a certificate authorizing chemical capture of animals under this section by certified animal chemical capture technicians. (2) The agencies shall submit, as part of the application, a written protocol for chemical capture of animals by certified animal chemical capture technicians to the board for approval. The protocol shall include, at a minimum: (A) The procedure for removing the dart from a captured animal; (B) First aid care of the dart wound; (C) The procedure for providing veterinary care to the animal immediately upon capture; (D) The appropriate location and handling of the animal during recovery from anesthesia; and (E) The supervisory structure regarding who makes the final decision to proceed with the chemical capture of an animal. (3) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person or entity to engage in the chemical capture of animals or imply that the person or entity has been granted a certificate as a certified animal control agency with a premises permit unless the certificate and permit have been granted under this title. (b) (1) The board, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any person who the board determines to be qualified a certificate for the person to function as a certified animal chemical capture technician. Applicants shall be required to have successfully completed a sixteen-hour chemical immobilization certification course. The course must be approved by the board, and the curriculum of the course shall include pharmacology, proper administration, recordkeeping, chemical capture technology, animal behavior, postimmobilization procedures, proper public and personnel safety, and marksmanship training. (2) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person to chemically capture animals or imply that the person has been granted a certificate as a certified animal chemical capture technician unless a certificate has been granted under this title. (c) The chemical capture of dogs and cats, as defined in § 44-17-601 , shall only be performed by a licensed veterinarian, a licensed veterinary technician employed by and functioning under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian or a certified animal chemical capture technician as provided by law. Telazol and such other drugs that the board may approve shall be the only drugs used for the chemical capture of dogs and cats by a certified animal chemical capture technician. (d) Tranquilizer guns shall be used for the humane chemical capture of dogs and cats. Any such tranquilizer gun shall have the capability to track the darts it shoots and shall be well maintained and kept in a high state of repair at all times. (e) Certified animal control agencies and certified animal chemical capture technicians shall be required to renew their certificates at such intervals, upon such conditions and upon the payment of such fees as may be established by the board. (f) Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit in any way the practice of a licensed veterinarian as provided by law. Acts 2008 , ch. 805, § 2.
(a) (1) The board of veterinary medical examiners, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any governmental animal control agency that the board determines to be qualified and that has a valid premises permit issued by the board a certificate authorizing chemical capture of animals under this section by certified animal chemical capture technicians. (2) The agencies shall submit, as part of the application, a written protocol for chemical capture of animals by certified animal chemical capture technicians to the board for approval. The protocol shall include, at a minimum: (A) The procedure for removing the dart from a captured animal; (B) First aid care of the dart wound; (C) The procedure for providing veterinary care to the animal immediately upon capture; (D) The appropriate location and handling of the animal during recovery from anesthesia; and (E) The supervisory structure regarding who makes the final decision to proceed with the chemical capture of an animal. (3) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person or entity to engage in the chemical capture of animals or imply that the person or entity has been granted a certificate as a certified animal control agency with a premises permit unless the certificate and permit have been granted under this title.
(1) The board of veterinary medical examiners, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any governmental animal control agency that the board determines to be qualified and that has a valid premises permit issued by the board a certificate authorizing chemical capture of animals under this section by certified animal chemical capture technicians.
(2) The agencies shall submit, as part of the application, a written protocol for chemical capture of animals by certified animal chemical capture technicians to the board for approval. The protocol shall include, at a minimum: (A) The procedure for removing the dart from a captured animal; (B) First aid care of the dart wound; (C) The procedure for providing veterinary care to the animal immediately upon capture; (D) The appropriate location and handling of the animal during recovery from anesthesia; and (E) The supervisory structure regarding who makes the final decision to proceed with the chemical capture of an animal.
(A) The procedure for removing the dart from a captured animal;
(B) First aid care of the dart wound;
(C) The procedure for providing veterinary care to the animal immediately upon capture;
(D) The appropriate location and handling of the animal during recovery from anesthesia; and
(E) The supervisory structure regarding who makes the final decision to proceed with the chemical capture of an animal.
(3) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person or entity to engage in the chemical capture of animals or imply that the person or entity has been granted a certificate as a certified animal control agency with a premises permit unless the certificate and permit have been granted under this title.
(b) (1) The board, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any person who the board determines to be qualified a certificate for the person to function as a certified animal chemical capture technician. Applicants shall be required to have successfully completed a sixteen-hour chemical immobilization certification course. The course must be approved by the board, and the curriculum of the course shall include pharmacology, proper administration, recordkeeping, chemical capture technology, animal behavior, postimmobilization procedures, proper public and personnel safety, and marksmanship training. (2) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person to chemically capture animals or imply that the person has been granted a certificate as a certified animal chemical capture technician unless a certificate has been granted under this title.
(1) The board, upon submission of a complete application and payment of a fee established by the board, shall issue to any person who the board determines to be qualified a certificate for the person to function as a certified animal chemical capture technician. Applicants shall be required to have successfully completed a sixteen-hour chemical immobilization certification course. The course must be approved by the board, and the curriculum of the course shall include pharmacology, proper administration, recordkeeping, chemical capture technology, animal behavior, postimmobilization procedures, proper public and personnel safety, and marksmanship training.
(2) It is a Class B misdemeanor for any person to chemically capture animals or imply that the person has been granted a certificate as a certified animal chemical capture technician unless a certificate has been granted under this title.
(c) The chemical capture of dogs and cats, as defined in § 44-17-601 , shall only be performed by a licensed veterinarian, a licensed veterinary technician employed by and functioning under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian or a certified animal chemical capture technician as provided by law. Telazol and such other drugs that the board may approve shall be the only drugs used for the chemical capture of dogs and cats by a certified animal chemical capture technician.
(d) Tranquilizer guns shall be used for the humane chemical capture of dogs and cats. Any such tranquilizer gun shall have the capability to track the darts it shoots and shall be well maintained and kept in a high state of repair at all times.
(e) Certified animal control agencies and certified animal chemical capture technicians shall be required to renew their certificates at such intervals, upon such conditions and upon the payment of such fees as may be established by the board.
(f) Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit in any way the practice of a licensed veterinarian as provided by law.
Acts 2008 , ch. 805, § 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-6-1006 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 6 / Section 63-6-1006
Renewal of certificate
Status: in_force

A certificate to practice acupuncture must be renewed every two (2) years. To renew a certificate, a person must submit proof of current active NCCAOM certification in acupuncture or document compliance with § 63-6-1005 . To renew an ADS certificate, a person must submit proof of current active practice in auricular detoxification treatment, as determined by the committee. Acts 2000, ch. 685, § 8.
A certificate to practice acupuncture must be renewed every two (2) years. To renew a certificate, a person must submit proof of current active NCCAOM certification in acupuncture or document compliance with § 63-6-1005 . To renew an ADS certificate, a person must submit proof of current active practice in auricular detoxification treatment, as determined by the committee.
Acts 2000, ch. 685, § 8.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-17-110 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 17 / Section 63-17-110
License requirements - Qualifications of applicants - Provisional license
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Any person wishing to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist in this state shall obtain a license from the board. Unless such person obtains a license, it is unlawful for such person to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist as defined in § 63-17-103 ; and if that person so practices or represents, the person shall be considered to have violated this chapter. (2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (a)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements. (b) To be eligible for licensure by the board as a speech language pathologist or audiologist, the applicant must: (1) Be of good moral character, be eighteen (18) years of age or older and possess at least a master's degree in the area of speech language pathology or audiology obtained from educational institutions approved by the board according to the regulations duly adopted under this chapter; (2) Pass an examination covering the areas of speech language pathology, audiology and speech and hearing services approved by the board. The board determines the scope of the examinations. Written examinations may be supplemented by such oral examinations as the board determines. An applicant who fails the examination may be reexamined at a subsequent examination upon payment of another examination fee; and (3) Submit evidence of the completion of the educational, clinical experience and employment requirements prescribed by the rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter. (c) (1) A person who has completed the educational requirements for licensure as a speech language pathologist and has received at least a master's degree from an approved educational institution may apply for and receive from the board a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the person's period of supervised clinical experience. The board may adopt rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses and the provisional license fee. (2) Until such time as the board has adopted rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses, the provisions of Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, governing registration of clinical fellows, apply to persons seeking a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the period of supervised clinical experience. (3) Any person who, on May 8, 2019, has been registered as a clinical fellow pursuant to Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, is deemed to have a provisional license for the same period of time that the person's registration would be effective under that rule. (d) A person who applies for licensure as an audiologist on or after January 1, 2009, shall possess a doctoral degree from an accredited educational program approved by the board. The doctoral degree may be a doctor of audiology degree (Au.D.) or other doctoral degree approved by the board. In addition to possessing a doctoral degree, the applicant shall meet the other requirements of subsection (b), except that the doctoral degree shall be in lieu of the master's degree previously required of applicants. (e) The requirement to have a doctoral degree shall not apply to audiologists who were licensed in this or any other state prior to January 1, 2009. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 15, eff. 5/11/2023. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 318, s 1, eff. 5/8/2019. Acts 1973, ch. 93, § 10; T.C.A., § 63-1710; Acts 1994, ch. 849, § 7; 2007 , ch. 177, § 1.
(a) (1) Any person wishing to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist in this state shall obtain a license from the board. Unless such person obtains a license, it is unlawful for such person to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist as defined in § 63-17-103 ; and if that person so practices or represents, the person shall be considered to have violated this chapter. (2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (a)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(1) Any person wishing to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist in this state shall obtain a license from the board. Unless such person obtains a license, it is unlawful for such person to practice or represent such person as a speech language pathologist or audiologist as defined in § 63-17-103 ; and if that person so practices or represents, the person shall be considered to have violated this chapter.
(2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (a)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(A) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(i) Render a decision on the application; or
(ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(B) As used in this subdivision (a)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(b) To be eligible for licensure by the board as a speech language pathologist or audiologist, the applicant must: (1) Be of good moral character, be eighteen (18) years of age or older and possess at least a master's degree in the area of speech language pathology or audiology obtained from educational institutions approved by the board according to the regulations duly adopted under this chapter; (2) Pass an examination covering the areas of speech language pathology, audiology and speech and hearing services approved by the board. The board determines the scope of the examinations. Written examinations may be supplemented by such oral examinations as the board determines. An applicant who fails the examination may be reexamined at a subsequent examination upon payment of another examination fee; and (3) Submit evidence of the completion of the educational, clinical experience and employment requirements prescribed by the rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(1) Be of good moral character, be eighteen (18) years of age or older and possess at least a master's degree in the area of speech language pathology or audiology obtained from educational institutions approved by the board according to the regulations duly adopted under this chapter;
(2) Pass an examination covering the areas of speech language pathology, audiology and speech and hearing services approved by the board. The board determines the scope of the examinations. Written examinations may be supplemented by such oral examinations as the board determines. An applicant who fails the examination may be reexamined at a subsequent examination upon payment of another examination fee; and
(3) Submit evidence of the completion of the educational, clinical experience and employment requirements prescribed by the rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(c) (1) A person who has completed the educational requirements for licensure as a speech language pathologist and has received at least a master's degree from an approved educational institution may apply for and receive from the board a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the person's period of supervised clinical experience. The board may adopt rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses and the provisional license fee. (2) Until such time as the board has adopted rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses, the provisions of Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, governing registration of clinical fellows, apply to persons seeking a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the period of supervised clinical experience. (3) Any person who, on May 8, 2019, has been registered as a clinical fellow pursuant to Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, is deemed to have a provisional license for the same period of time that the person's registration would be effective under that rule.
(1) A person who has completed the educational requirements for licensure as a speech language pathologist and has received at least a master's degree from an approved educational institution may apply for and receive from the board a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the person's period of supervised clinical experience. The board may adopt rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses and the provisional license fee.
(2) Until such time as the board has adopted rules to establish standards and procedures to govern provisional licenses, the provisions of Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, governing registration of clinical fellows, apply to persons seeking a provisional license to practice as a clinical fellow during the period of supervised clinical experience.
(3) Any person who, on May 8, 2019, has been registered as a clinical fellow pursuant to Rules and Regulations of the State of Tennessee, Rule 1370-01-.10, is deemed to have a provisional license for the same period of time that the person's registration would be effective under that rule.
(d) A person who applies for licensure as an audiologist on or after January 1, 2009, shall possess a doctoral degree from an accredited educational program approved by the board. The doctoral degree may be a doctor of audiology degree (Au.D.) or other doctoral degree approved by the board. In addition to possessing a doctoral degree, the applicant shall meet the other requirements of subsection (b), except that the doctoral degree shall be in lieu of the master's degree previously required of applicants.
(e) The requirement to have a doctoral degree shall not apply to audiologists who were licensed in this or any other state prior to January 1, 2009.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 15, eff. 5/11/2023.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 318, s 1, eff. 5/8/2019.
Acts 1973, ch. 93, § 10; T.C.A., § 63-1710; Acts 1994, ch. 849, § 7; 2007 , ch. 177, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-23-204 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 23 / Section 63-23-204
Social worker participation in the compact
Status: in_force

(a) To be eligible for a multistate license under the terms and provisions of this compact, an applicant, regardless of category must: (1) Hold or be eligible for an active, unencumbered license in the home state; (2) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the multistate license; (3) Submit, in connection with an application for a multistate license, fingerprints or other biometric data for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records; (4) Notify the home state of any adverse action, encumbrance, or restriction on any professional license taken by any member state or non-member state within thirty (30) days from the date the action is taken; (5) Meet any continuing competence requirements established by the home state; and (6) Abide by the laws, regulations, and applicable standards in the member state where the client is located at the time care is rendered. (b) An applicant for a clinical-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a clinical-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the clinical category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; (2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and (3) Fulfill a practice requirement, which is satisfied by demonstrating completion of either: (A) A period of postgraduate supervised clinical practice equal to a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours; (B) A minimum of two (2) years of full-time postgraduate supervised clinical practice; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing practice requirements that the commission may determine by rule. (c) An applicant for a master's-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a master's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the master's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state at the master's category and accompanied by a continuous period of social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and (2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education. (d) An applicant for a bachelor's-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a bachelor's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the bachelor's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and (2) Attain at least a bachelor's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education. (e) The multistate license for a regulated social worker is subject to the renewal requirements of the home state. The regulated social worker must maintain compliance with the requirements of subsection (a) to be eligible to renew a multistate license. (f) The regulated social worker's services in a remote state are subject to that member state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that member state's laws, remove a regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. (g) If a multistate license is encumbered, the regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice must be deactivated in all remote states until the multistate license is no longer encumbered. (h) If a multistate authorization to practice is encumbered in a remote state, the regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice may be deactivated in that state until the multistate authorization to practice is no longer encumbered. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
(a) To be eligible for a multistate license under the terms and provisions of this compact, an applicant, regardless of category must: (1) Hold or be eligible for an active, unencumbered license in the home state; (2) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the multistate license; (3) Submit, in connection with an application for a multistate license, fingerprints or other biometric data for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records; (4) Notify the home state of any adverse action, encumbrance, or restriction on any professional license taken by any member state or non-member state within thirty (30) days from the date the action is taken; (5) Meet any continuing competence requirements established by the home state; and (6) Abide by the laws, regulations, and applicable standards in the member state where the client is located at the time care is rendered.
(1) Hold or be eligible for an active, unencumbered license in the home state;
(2) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the multistate license;
(3) Submit, in connection with an application for a multistate license, fingerprints or other biometric data for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;
(4) Notify the home state of any adverse action, encumbrance, or restriction on any professional license taken by any member state or non-member state within thirty (30) days from the date the action is taken;
(5) Meet any continuing competence requirements established by the home state; and
(6) Abide by the laws, regulations, and applicable standards in the member state where the client is located at the time care is rendered.
(b) An applicant for a clinical-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a clinical-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the clinical category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; (2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and (3) Fulfill a practice requirement, which is satisfied by demonstrating completion of either: (A) A period of postgraduate supervised clinical practice equal to a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours; (B) A minimum of two (2) years of full-time postgraduate supervised clinical practice; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing practice requirements that the commission may determine by rule.
(1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a clinical-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the clinical category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule;
(A) Passage of a clinical-category qualifying national exam;
(B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the clinical category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or
(C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule;
(2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and
(A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and
(B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and
(i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or
(ii) The United States department of education; and
(3) Fulfill a practice requirement, which is satisfied by demonstrating completion of either: (A) A period of postgraduate supervised clinical practice equal to a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours; (B) A minimum of two (2) years of full-time postgraduate supervised clinical practice; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing practice requirements that the commission may determine by rule.
(A) A period of postgraduate supervised clinical practice equal to a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours;
(B) A minimum of two (2) years of full-time postgraduate supervised clinical practice; or
(C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing practice requirements that the commission may determine by rule.
(c) An applicant for a master's-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a master's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the master's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state at the master's category and accompanied by a continuous period of social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and (2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a master's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the master's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state at the master's category and accompanied by a continuous period of social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and
(A) Passage of a master's-category qualifying national exam;
(B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the master's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state at the master's category and accompanied by a continuous period of social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or
(C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and
(2) Attain at least a master's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and
(B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or
(ii) The United States department of education.
(d) An applicant for a bachelor's-category multistate license must meet all of the following requirements: (1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a bachelor's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the bachelor's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and (2) Attain at least a bachelor's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(1) Fulfill a competency requirement, which is satisfied by either: (A) Passage of a bachelor's-category qualifying national exam; (B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the bachelor's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or (C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and
(A) Passage of a bachelor's-category qualifying national exam;
(B) Licensure of the applicant in their home state at the bachelor's category, beginning prior to such time as a qualifying national exam was required by the home state and accompanied by a period of continuous social work licensure thereafter, all of which may be further governed by the rules of the commission; or
(C) The substantial equivalency of the foregoing competency requirements that the commission may determine by rule; and
(2) Attain at least a bachelor's degree in social work from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and (B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; and
(B) Accredited, or in candidacy that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education.
(i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation or its successor; or
(ii) The United States department of education.
(e) The multistate license for a regulated social worker is subject to the renewal requirements of the home state. The regulated social worker must maintain compliance with the requirements of subsection (a) to be eligible to renew a multistate license.
(f) The regulated social worker's services in a remote state are subject to that member state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that member state's laws, remove a regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens.
(g) If a multistate license is encumbered, the regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice must be deactivated in all remote states until the multistate license is no longer encumbered.
(h) If a multistate authorization to practice is encumbered in a remote state, the regulated social worker's multistate authorization to practice may be deactivated in that state until the multistate authorization to practice is no longer encumbered.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-206 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-206
Disposition of fees and moneys received - Operating expenses - Compensation
Status: in_force

(a) All fees and moneys from whatever source coming into the hands of the board shall be paid by the board to the state treasurer and become a part of the general fund. (b) The commissioner of finance and administration shall make allotments out of the general fund for the proper expenditures of the board, and no expenditure may be made by the board until allotment for the expenditure has been made by the commissioner. The allotments for the operation of the board shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state. (c) The members of the board shall be entitled to a per diem of one hundred dollars ($100) for each day's service in attending meetings of the board and other administrative or disciplinary functions of the board and necessary expenses for traveling and subsistence while attending such meetings or performing such functions. All reimbursement for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations as promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 7; 1976, ch. 501, § 1; 1976, ch. 806, § 1(114); T.C.A., § 63-735; modified; Acts 2005, ch. 80, § 1.
(a) All fees and moneys from whatever source coming into the hands of the board shall be paid by the board to the state treasurer and become a part of the general fund.
(b) The commissioner of finance and administration shall make allotments out of the general fund for the proper expenditures of the board, and no expenditure may be made by the board until allotment for the expenditure has been made by the commissioner. The allotments for the operation of the board shall be disbursed under the general budgetary laws of the state.
(c) The members of the board shall be entitled to a per diem of one hundred dollars ($100) for each day's service in attending meetings of the board and other administrative or disciplinary functions of the board and necessary expenses for traveling and subsistence while attending such meetings or performing such functions. All reimbursement for travel expenses shall be in accordance with the comprehensive travel regulations as promulgated by the department of finance and administration and approved by the attorney general and reporter.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 7; 1976, ch. 501, § 1; 1976, ch. 806, § 1(114); T.C.A., § 63-735; modified; Acts 2005, ch. 80, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-27-108 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 27 / Section 63-27-108
Respiratory assistants
Status: in_force

(a) The knowledge and skills for performing the functions of a respiratory assistant shall be acquired through compliance with the requirements of § 63-27-102(4) . (b) The assistant's role shall not include the exercising of independent, clinical judgment. The assistant may be expected to adjust or modify therapeutic techniques within well-defined procedures based on a limited range of patient responses. Therefore, the use of the assistant requires the supervision of a registered respiratory therapist, certified respiratory therapist, or physician experienced in respiratory care. No assistant shall be permitted to perform the functions for which the assistant is certified on a critical care patient being maintained on mechanical ventilation, unless the assistant possesses a certificate that indicates the assistant has passed the critical care section of the board approved examination for respiratory assistants. Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1987, ch. 192, § 3; T.C.A. §63-6-408; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 27 - 29, 55; 2000, ch. 621, §§ 2, 3.
(a) The knowledge and skills for performing the functions of a respiratory assistant shall be acquired through compliance with the requirements of § 63-27-102(4) .
(b) The assistant's role shall not include the exercising of independent, clinical judgment. The assistant may be expected to adjust or modify therapeutic techniques within well-defined procedures based on a limited range of patient responses. Therefore, the use of the assistant requires the supervision of a registered respiratory therapist, certified respiratory therapist, or physician experienced in respiratory care. No assistant shall be permitted to perform the functions for which the assistant is certified on a critical care patient being maintained on mechanical ventilation, unless the assistant possesses a certificate that indicates the assistant has passed the critical care section of the board approved examination for respiratory assistants.
Acts 1986, ch. 610, § 1; 1987, ch. 192, § 3; T.C.A. §63-6-408; Acts 1998, ch. 1106, §§ 27 - 29, 55; 2000, ch. 621, §§ 2, 3.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-23-203 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 23 / Section 63-23-203
State participation in the compact
Status: in_force

(a) To be eligible to participate in this compact, a potential member state must currently meet all of the following criteria: (1) License and regulate the practice of social work at either the clinical, master's, or bachelor's category; (2) Require applicants for licensure to graduate from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; (B) Accredited, or in candidacy by an institution that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and (C) Corresponds to the licensure sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ; (3) Require applicants for clinical licensure to complete a period of supervised practice; and (4) Have a mechanism in place for receiving, investigating, and adjudicating complaints about licensees. (b) To maintain membership in this compact, a member state must: (1) Require that applicants for a multistate license pass a qualifying national exam for the corresponding category of multistate license sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ; (2) Participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules; (3) Notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of this compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of current significant investigative information regarding a licensee; (4) Implement procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for a multistate license. Such procedures must include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records; (5) Comply with the rules of the commission; (6) Require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable home state laws; (7) Authorize a licensee holding a multistate license in any member state to practice in accordance with the terms of this compact and rules of the commission; and (8) Designate a delegate to participate in the commission meetings. (c) A member state meeting the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) shall designate the categories of social work licensure that are eligible for issuance of a multistate license for applicants in such member state. To the extent that any member state does not meet the requirements for participation in this compact at any particular category of social work licensure, such member state may choose, but is not obligated to, issue a multistate license to applicants that otherwise meets the requirements of § 63-23-204 for issuance of a multistate license in such category or categories of licensure. (d) The home state may charge a fee for granting the multistate license. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
(a) To be eligible to participate in this compact, a potential member state must currently meet all of the following criteria: (1) License and regulate the practice of social work at either the clinical, master's, or bachelor's category; (2) Require applicants for licensure to graduate from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; (B) Accredited, or in candidacy by an institution that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and (C) Corresponds to the licensure sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ; (3) Require applicants for clinical licensure to complete a period of supervised practice; and (4) Have a mechanism in place for receiving, investigating, and adjudicating complaints about licensees.
(1) License and regulate the practice of social work at either the clinical, master's, or bachelor's category;
(2) Require applicants for licensure to graduate from a program that is: (A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority; (B) Accredited, or in candidacy by an institution that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and (C) Corresponds to the licensure sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ;
(A) Operated by a college or university recognized by the licensing authority;
(B) Accredited, or in candidacy by an institution that subsequently becomes accredited, by an accrediting agency recognized by either: (i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor; or (ii) The United States department of education; and
(i) The Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor; or
(ii) The United States department of education; and
(C) Corresponds to the licensure sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ;
(3) Require applicants for clinical licensure to complete a period of supervised practice; and
(4) Have a mechanism in place for receiving, investigating, and adjudicating complaints about licensees.
(b) To maintain membership in this compact, a member state must: (1) Require that applicants for a multistate license pass a qualifying national exam for the corresponding category of multistate license sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ; (2) Participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules; (3) Notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of this compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of current significant investigative information regarding a licensee; (4) Implement procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for a multistate license. Such procedures must include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records; (5) Comply with the rules of the commission; (6) Require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable home state laws; (7) Authorize a licensee holding a multistate license in any member state to practice in accordance with the terms of this compact and rules of the commission; and (8) Designate a delegate to participate in the commission meetings.
(1) Require that applicants for a multistate license pass a qualifying national exam for the corresponding category of multistate license sought as outlined in § 63-23-204 ;
(2) Participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules;
(3) Notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of this compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of current significant investigative information regarding a licensee;
(4) Implement procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for a multistate license. Such procedures must include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the federal bureau of investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;
(5) Comply with the rules of the commission;
(6) Require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable home state laws;
(7) Authorize a licensee holding a multistate license in any member state to practice in accordance with the terms of this compact and rules of the commission; and
(8) Designate a delegate to participate in the commission meetings.
(c) A member state meeting the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) shall designate the categories of social work licensure that are eligible for issuance of a multistate license for applicants in such member state. To the extent that any member state does not meet the requirements for participation in this compact at any particular category of social work licensure, such member state may choose, but is not obligated to, issue a multistate license to applicants that otherwise meets the requirements of § 63-23-204 for issuance of a multistate license in such category or categories of licensure.
(d) The home state may charge a fee for granting the multistate license.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-5-117 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 5 / Section 63-5-117
License renewal
Status: in_force

(a) Each licensed dentist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board, payable in advance. The secretary of the board shall notify each licensed dentist that such renewal fee is due. (b) Each licensed dental hygienist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing year on or before December 31 of each year, which fees shall become part of the fees of the board and handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all licensed dental hygienists prior to December 31 of each year that the fee is due. (c) Each registered dental assistant shall pay a biennial renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing two (2) years on or before December 31 of each even year, which fees shall become a part of the fees of the board to be handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all registered dental assistants prior to December 31 of each even year that such fee is due. (d) When any licensed dentist, licensed dental hygienist or registered dental assistant fails to register and pay the registration fee within sixty (60) days after registration becomes due as provided in this section, the license or certificate of such person shall be automatically revoked at the expiration of sixty (60) days after the registration was required, without further notice or hearing. Any person whose license or certificate is automatically revoked as provided in this subsection (d) may make application in writing to the Tennessee board of dental examiners for the reinstatement of such license or certificate, and, upon good cause being shown, the board in its discretion may reinstate such license or certificate upon payment of all past-due renewal fees and upon the further payment of a sum as set by the board. (e) (1) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period; however, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢). (2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in subdivision (e)(1). Acts 1957, ch. 32, § 18; 1965, ch. 216, § 1; 1969, ch. 29, § 7; 1976, ch. 406, § 5; 1976, ch. 497, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-546; Acts 1985, ch. 71, §§ 3-6; 1989, ch. 360, §§ 20-22; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 16-19; 1990, ch. 1031, §§ 22, 23.
(a) Each licensed dentist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board, payable in advance. The secretary of the board shall notify each licensed dentist that such renewal fee is due.
(b) Each licensed dental hygienist shall pay an annual renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing year on or before December 31 of each year, which fees shall become part of the fees of the board and handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all licensed dental hygienists prior to December 31 of each year that the fee is due.
(c) Each registered dental assistant shall pay a biennial renewal fee to the board as set by the board, payable in advance, for the ensuing two (2) years on or before December 31 of each even year, which fees shall become a part of the fees of the board to be handled in the same manner as other fees of the board. The secretary shall notify all registered dental assistants prior to December 31 of each even year that such fee is due.
(d) When any licensed dentist, licensed dental hygienist or registered dental assistant fails to register and pay the registration fee within sixty (60) days after registration becomes due as provided in this section, the license or certificate of such person shall be automatically revoked at the expiration of sixty (60) days after the registration was required, without further notice or hearing. Any person whose license or certificate is automatically revoked as provided in this subsection (d) may make application in writing to the Tennessee board of dental examiners for the reinstatement of such license or certificate, and, upon good cause being shown, the board in its discretion may reinstate such license or certificate upon payment of all past-due renewal fees and upon the further payment of a sum as set by the board.
(e) (1) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period; however, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢). (2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in subdivision (e)(1).
(1) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the division, with the approval of the commissioner, shall establish a system of license renewals at alternative intervals that will allow for the distribution of the license workload as uniformly as is practicable throughout the calendar year. Licenses issued under the alternative method are valid for twenty-four (24) months and shall expire on the last day of the last month of the license period; however, during a transition period, or at any time thereafter when the board determines that the volume of work for any given interval is unduly burdensome or costly, either the licenses or renewals, or both of them, may be issued for terms of not less than six (6) months nor more than eighteen (18) months. The fee imposed for any license under the alternative interval method for a period of other than twenty-four (24) months shall be proportionate to the annual fee and modified in no other manner, except that the proportional fee shall be rounded off to the nearest quarter of a dollar (25¢).
(2) No renewal application will be accepted after the last day of the month following the license expiration date under the alternative method authorized in subdivision (e)(1).
Acts 1957, ch. 32, § 18; 1965, ch. 216, § 1; 1969, ch. 29, § 7; 1976, ch. 406, § 5; 1976, ch. 497, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-546; Acts 1985, ch. 71, §§ 3-6; 1989, ch. 360, §§ 20-22; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 16-19; 1990, ch. 1031, §§ 22, 23.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-3-204 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 3 / Section 63-3-204
Powers of the board
Status: in_force

(a) The board shall have the power to: (1) Deny, restrict or condition a license; (2) Permanently or temporarily withhold issuance of a license; (3) Suspend, limit or restrict a previously issued license, for such time and in such manner as the board may determine; (4) Reprimand, suspend, revoke or take such other disciplinary action in relation to an applicant or license holder as the board, in its discretion, may deem proper; or (5) Permanently revoke a license. (b) The grounds upon which the board shall exercise such power include, but are not limited to, circumstances in which the person: (1) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the procurement or holding of the license; (2) Has been convicted of a felony in a court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside of this state, unless the conviction has been reversed and the holder of the license discharged or acquitted or if the holder has been pardoned with full restoration of civil rights, in which case the license shall be restored; (3) Is or has been afflicted with any medical problem, disability or addiction that, in the opinion of the board, would impair professional competence; (4) Has knowingly aided and abetted a person who is not a license holder or is not otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter to perform the duties of a license holder under this chapter; (5) Has undertaken or engaged in any practice beyond the scope of duties permitted a license holder under this chapter; (6) Has impersonated a license holder or former license holder or is under an assumed name performing the duties authorized to be performed only by a licensed person; (7) Has been found guilty of violations of a code of ethics, which the board shall establish by regulation; (8) Is or has been found guilty of incompetence or negligence in performance as a license holder; (9) Acts in a manner unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical or has been found guilty of unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct; (10) Violates, or attempts to violate, directly or indirectly, or assists or aids in the violation of, or conspires to violate, any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant to this chapter or any of the rules or regulations promulgated pursuant to this chapter, or any criminal statute of the state; (11) Is habitually intoxicated or engages in personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice; or (12) Has received disciplinary action from another state or territory of the United States that has licensed or certified the person to practice in that state for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed in this state. A certified copy of the initial or final order, or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state or territory, shall constitute prima facie evidence of violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition licensure or renewal or to discipline a person licensed in this state. (c) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title. Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745,s 23, eff. 7/1/2018. Acts 2005, ch. 380, § 1; 2012, ch. 848, § 67.
(a) The board shall have the power to: (1) Deny, restrict or condition a license; (2) Permanently or temporarily withhold issuance of a license; (3) Suspend, limit or restrict a previously issued license, for such time and in such manner as the board may determine; (4) Reprimand, suspend, revoke or take such other disciplinary action in relation to an applicant or license holder as the board, in its discretion, may deem proper; or (5) Permanently revoke a license.
(1) Deny, restrict or condition a license;
(2) Permanently or temporarily withhold issuance of a license;
(3) Suspend, limit or restrict a previously issued license, for such time and in such manner as the board may determine;
(4) Reprimand, suspend, revoke or take such other disciplinary action in relation to an applicant or license holder as the board, in its discretion, may deem proper; or
(5) Permanently revoke a license.
(b) The grounds upon which the board shall exercise such power include, but are not limited to, circumstances in which the person: (1) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the procurement or holding of the license; (2) Has been convicted of a felony in a court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside of this state, unless the conviction has been reversed and the holder of the license discharged or acquitted or if the holder has been pardoned with full restoration of civil rights, in which case the license shall be restored; (3) Is or has been afflicted with any medical problem, disability or addiction that, in the opinion of the board, would impair professional competence; (4) Has knowingly aided and abetted a person who is not a license holder or is not otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter to perform the duties of a license holder under this chapter; (5) Has undertaken or engaged in any practice beyond the scope of duties permitted a license holder under this chapter; (6) Has impersonated a license holder or former license holder or is under an assumed name performing the duties authorized to be performed only by a licensed person; (7) Has been found guilty of violations of a code of ethics, which the board shall establish by regulation; (8) Is or has been found guilty of incompetence or negligence in performance as a license holder; (9) Acts in a manner unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical or has been found guilty of unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct; (10) Violates, or attempts to violate, directly or indirectly, or assists or aids in the violation of, or conspires to violate, any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant to this chapter or any of the rules or regulations promulgated pursuant to this chapter, or any criminal statute of the state; (11) Is habitually intoxicated or engages in personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice; or (12) Has received disciplinary action from another state or territory of the United States that has licensed or certified the person to practice in that state for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed in this state. A certified copy of the initial or final order, or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state or territory, shall constitute prima facie evidence of violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition licensure or renewal or to discipline a person licensed in this state.
(1) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the procurement or holding of the license;
(2) Has been convicted of a felony in a court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside of this state, unless the conviction has been reversed and the holder of the license discharged or acquitted or if the holder has been pardoned with full restoration of civil rights, in which case the license shall be restored;
(3) Is or has been afflicted with any medical problem, disability or addiction that, in the opinion of the board, would impair professional competence;
(4) Has knowingly aided and abetted a person who is not a license holder or is not otherwise authorized pursuant to this chapter to perform the duties of a license holder under this chapter;
(5) Has undertaken or engaged in any practice beyond the scope of duties permitted a license holder under this chapter;
(6) Has impersonated a license holder or former license holder or is under an assumed name performing the duties authorized to be performed only by a licensed person;
(7) Has been found guilty of violations of a code of ethics, which the board shall establish by regulation;
(8) Is or has been found guilty of incompetence or negligence in performance as a license holder;
(9) Acts in a manner unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical or has been found guilty of unprofessional, dishonorable or unethical conduct;
(10) Violates, or attempts to violate, directly or indirectly, or assists or aids in the violation of, or conspires to violate, any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant to this chapter or any of the rules or regulations promulgated pursuant to this chapter, or any criminal statute of the state;
(11) Is habitually intoxicated or engages in personal misuse of any drugs or the use of intoxicating liquors, narcotics, controlled substances, controlled substance analogues or other drugs or stimulants in such manner as to adversely affect the person's ability to practice; or
(12) Has received disciplinary action from another state or territory of the United States that has licensed or certified the person to practice in that state for any acts or omissions that would constitute grounds for discipline of a person licensed in this state. A certified copy of the initial or final order, or other equivalent document memorializing the disciplinary action from the disciplining state or territory, shall constitute prima facie evidence of violation of this section and shall be sufficient grounds upon which to deny, restrict or condition licensure or renewal or to discipline a person licensed in this state.
(c) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 1, part 1 of this title.
Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745,s 23, eff. 7/1/2018.
Acts 2005, ch. 380, § 1; 2012, ch. 848, § 67.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-11-304 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 11 / Section 63-11-304
Application for license - Requirements
Status: in_force

(a) Each person desiring to obtain a license shall submit an application and fee to the committee. The application shall include evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements for licensure: (1) The applicant is at least twenty-one (21) years of age; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards, including the certifying entity's Professional Disciplinary and Ethical Standards and Guidelines for Responsible Conduct for Behavior Analysts; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for reasons that relate to unprofessional conduct, unless the committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) LBA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral at the time of application; and (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and (5) LABA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a board certified assistant behavior analyst at the time of application; (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and (C) Provide proof of ongoing supervision by an LBA who is currently certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral in a manner consistent with the certifying entity's requirements for supervision of board certified assistant behavior analysts. (b) (1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 7, eff. 5/11/2023. Acts 2014 , ch. 918, § 2.
(a) Each person desiring to obtain a license shall submit an application and fee to the committee. The application shall include evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements for licensure: (1) The applicant is at least twenty-one (21) years of age; (2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards, including the certifying entity's Professional Disciplinary and Ethical Standards and Guidelines for Responsible Conduct for Behavior Analysts; (3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for reasons that relate to unprofessional conduct, unless the committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution; (4) LBA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral at the time of application; and (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and (5) LABA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a board certified assistant behavior analyst at the time of application; (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and (C) Provide proof of ongoing supervision by an LBA who is currently certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral in a manner consistent with the certifying entity's requirements for supervision of board certified assistant behavior analysts.
(1) The applicant is at least twenty-one (21) years of age;
(2) The applicant is of good moral character and conducts his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted professional and ethical standards, including the certifying entity's Professional Disciplinary and Ethical Standards and Guidelines for Responsible Conduct for Behavior Analysts;
(3) The applicant has not had a professional credential refused, revoked, suspended, or restricted and does not have a complaint, allegation, or investigation pending in any regulatory jurisdiction in the United States or in another country for reasons that relate to unprofessional conduct, unless the committee finds that the conduct has been corrected or that mitigating circumstances exist that prevent resolution;
(4) LBA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral at the time of application; and (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and
(A) Be certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral at the time of application; and
(B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and
(5) LABA applicants shall: (A) Be certified as a board certified assistant behavior analyst at the time of application; (B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and (C) Provide proof of ongoing supervision by an LBA who is currently certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral in a manner consistent with the certifying entity's requirements for supervision of board certified assistant behavior analysts.
(A) Be certified as a board certified assistant behavior analyst at the time of application;
(B) Not be the subject of disciplinary actions by the certifying entity; and
(C) Provide proof of ongoing supervision by an LBA who is currently certified as a BCBA or board certified behavior analyst-doctoral in a manner consistent with the certifying entity's requirements for supervision of board certified assistant behavior analysts.
(b) (1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 7, eff. 5/11/2023.
Acts 2014 , ch. 918, § 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-3-124 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 3 / Section 63-3-124
Retail sales of foot appliances and shoes
Status: in_force

No part or portion of this chapter shall be deemed to prohibit the usual and customary commercial sale and adjustment of foot appliances and remedies or shoes in retail stores. Acts 1931, ch. 31, § 10; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.22 (Williams, § 7182.23); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-326.
No part or portion of this chapter shall be deemed to prohibit the usual and customary commercial sale and adjustment of foot appliances and remedies or shoes in retail stores.
Acts 1931, ch. 31, § 10; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.22 (Williams, § 7182.23); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-326.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-110 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-110
Practical nurse licensure
Status: in_force

(a) By Examination. An applicant for a license to practice practical nursing shall be required to pass a written examination as prescribed by the board. The board shall issue a license to practice practical nursing to an applicant who successfully completes the examination. (b) Without Examination. (1) The board may issue a license to a licensed practical nurse who has been duly licensed in another state or territory if, in the opinion of the board, the individual meets the practical nurse qualifications that, at the time of the applicant's graduation, were in effect in this state. (2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory, then the board shall, within forty-five (45) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (b)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements. (c) Temporary Permits. The board may issue a temporary permit to a practical nurse duly licensed according to the laws of another state and who has made application for a permanent license in Tennessee. A permit issued under this subsection (c) shall be valid for a single period of six (6) months. (d) (1) Notwithstanding a law to the contrary, a graduate practical nurse may engage in the practice of practical nursing without a license for a period not to exceed one hundred twenty (120) calendar days from the date of receipt of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination if: (A) The graduate practical nurse's practice occurs in a healthcare institution licensed under title 33 or 68, or an affiliate of the institution; (B) The graduate practical nurse is at all times working under the supervision of an individual licensed in this state to practice as a professional or registered nurse. The graduate practical nurse shall provide the healthcare institution or affiliate of the institution in which the nurse is practicing with the following: (i) Proof of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; and (ii) Proof of graduation from an approved school of nursing within the previous ninety (90) days; (C) The supervising individual described in subdivision (d)(1)(B) is limited to supervising no more than one (1) graduate practical nurse at a time; and (D) The graduate practical nurse is prohibited from: (i) Being deemed a licensed practical nurse pursuant to this section; and (ii) Using another title or identifying as anything but a "graduate practical nurse" in a clinical setting. (2) As used in this subsection (d): (A) "Graduate practical nurse" means an individual who: (i) Holds a diploma or degree from an approved school of nursing that entitles the individual to take the NCLEX-PN licensing examination; and (ii) Has received authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; (B) "NCLEX-PN" means the national council licensure examination for practical nurses; and (C) "Supervision" means that the graduate practical nurse's supervising individual is located in the same unit as the graduate practical nurse when the graduate practical nurse is performing duties pursuant to this subsection (d). Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 443, s 4, eff. 5/22/2023. Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 954, s 2, eff. 4/29/2022. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 19; 1976, ch. 501, § 6; 1978, ch. 678, § 2; 1981, ch. 462, § 8; T.C.A., § 63-747; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 5; 2005, ch. 387, § 5.
(a) By Examination. An applicant for a license to practice practical nursing shall be required to pass a written examination as prescribed by the board. The board shall issue a license to practice practical nursing to an applicant who successfully completes the examination.
(b) Without Examination. (1) The board may issue a license to a licensed practical nurse who has been duly licensed in another state or territory if, in the opinion of the board, the individual meets the practical nurse qualifications that, at the time of the applicant's graduation, were in effect in this state. (2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory, then the board shall, within forty-five (45) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (b)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(1) The board may issue a license to a licensed practical nurse who has been duly licensed in another state or territory if, in the opinion of the board, the individual meets the practical nurse qualifications that, at the time of the applicant's graduation, were in effect in this state.
(2) (A) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory, then the board shall, within forty-five (45) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (B) As used in this subdivision (b)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(A) When the board receives a completed application for licensure from an applicant who is licensed in another state or territory, then the board shall, within forty-five (45) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (i) Render a decision on the application; or (ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(i) Render a decision on the application; or
(ii) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(B) As used in this subdivision (b)(2), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(c) Temporary Permits. The board may issue a temporary permit to a practical nurse duly licensed according to the laws of another state and who has made application for a permanent license in Tennessee. A permit issued under this subsection (c) shall be valid for a single period of six (6) months.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding a law to the contrary, a graduate practical nurse may engage in the practice of practical nursing without a license for a period not to exceed one hundred twenty (120) calendar days from the date of receipt of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination if: (A) The graduate practical nurse's practice occurs in a healthcare institution licensed under title 33 or 68, or an affiliate of the institution; (B) The graduate practical nurse is at all times working under the supervision of an individual licensed in this state to practice as a professional or registered nurse. The graduate practical nurse shall provide the healthcare institution or affiliate of the institution in which the nurse is practicing with the following: (i) Proof of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; and (ii) Proof of graduation from an approved school of nursing within the previous ninety (90) days; (C) The supervising individual described in subdivision (d)(1)(B) is limited to supervising no more than one (1) graduate practical nurse at a time; and (D) The graduate practical nurse is prohibited from: (i) Being deemed a licensed practical nurse pursuant to this section; and (ii) Using another title or identifying as anything but a "graduate practical nurse" in a clinical setting. (2) As used in this subsection (d): (A) "Graduate practical nurse" means an individual who: (i) Holds a diploma or degree from an approved school of nursing that entitles the individual to take the NCLEX-PN licensing examination; and (ii) Has received authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; (B) "NCLEX-PN" means the national council licensure examination for practical nurses; and (C) "Supervision" means that the graduate practical nurse's supervising individual is located in the same unit as the graduate practical nurse when the graduate practical nurse is performing duties pursuant to this subsection (d).
(1) Notwithstanding a law to the contrary, a graduate practical nurse may engage in the practice of practical nursing without a license for a period not to exceed one hundred twenty (120) calendar days from the date of receipt of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination if: (A) The graduate practical nurse's practice occurs in a healthcare institution licensed under title 33 or 68, or an affiliate of the institution; (B) The graduate practical nurse is at all times working under the supervision of an individual licensed in this state to practice as a professional or registered nurse. The graduate practical nurse shall provide the healthcare institution or affiliate of the institution in which the nurse is practicing with the following: (i) Proof of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; and (ii) Proof of graduation from an approved school of nursing within the previous ninety (90) days; (C) The supervising individual described in subdivision (d)(1)(B) is limited to supervising no more than one (1) graduate practical nurse at a time; and (D) The graduate practical nurse is prohibited from: (i) Being deemed a licensed practical nurse pursuant to this section; and (ii) Using another title or identifying as anything but a "graduate practical nurse" in a clinical setting.
(A) The graduate practical nurse's practice occurs in a healthcare institution licensed under title 33 or 68, or an affiliate of the institution;
(B) The graduate practical nurse is at all times working under the supervision of an individual licensed in this state to practice as a professional or registered nurse. The graduate practical nurse shall provide the healthcare institution or affiliate of the institution in which the nurse is practicing with the following: (i) Proof of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; and (ii) Proof of graduation from an approved school of nursing within the previous ninety (90) days;
(i) Proof of the first authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; and
(ii) Proof of graduation from an approved school of nursing within the previous ninety (90) days;
(C) The supervising individual described in subdivision (d)(1)(B) is limited to supervising no more than one (1) graduate practical nurse at a time; and
(D) The graduate practical nurse is prohibited from: (i) Being deemed a licensed practical nurse pursuant to this section; and (ii) Using another title or identifying as anything but a "graduate practical nurse" in a clinical setting.
(i) Being deemed a licensed practical nurse pursuant to this section; and
(ii) Using another title or identifying as anything but a "graduate practical nurse" in a clinical setting.
(2) As used in this subsection (d): (A) "Graduate practical nurse" means an individual who: (i) Holds a diploma or degree from an approved school of nursing that entitles the individual to take the NCLEX-PN licensing examination; and (ii) Has received authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination; (B) "NCLEX-PN" means the national council licensure examination for practical nurses; and (C) "Supervision" means that the graduate practical nurse's supervising individual is located in the same unit as the graduate practical nurse when the graduate practical nurse is performing duties pursuant to this subsection (d).
(A) "Graduate practical nurse" means an individual who: (i) Holds a diploma or degree from an approved school of nursing that entitles the individual to take the NCLEX-PN licensing examination; and (ii) Has received authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination;
(i) Holds a diploma or degree from an approved school of nursing that entitles the individual to take the NCLEX-PN licensing examination; and
(ii) Has received authorization to take the NCLEX-PN examination;
(B) "NCLEX-PN" means the national council licensure examination for practical nurses; and
(C) "Supervision" means that the graduate practical nurse's supervising individual is located in the same unit as the graduate practical nurse when the graduate practical nurse is performing duties pursuant to this subsection (d).
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 443, s 4, eff. 5/22/2023.
Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 954, s 2, eff. 4/29/2022.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 19; 1976, ch. 501, § 6; 1978, ch. 678, § 2; 1981, ch. 462, § 8; T.C.A., § 63-747; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 5; 2005, ch. 387, § 5.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-25-207 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 25 / Section 63-25-207
[Effective 1/1/2026] Adverse actions
Status: in_force

(a) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to: (1) Take adverse action against a licensee's compact privilege within that member state; and (2) Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing authority in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before that court. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located. (b) Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a licensee's home state license. (c) For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action. (d) The home state shall complete any pending investigations of a licensee who changes home states during the course of the investigations. The home state shall also have authority to take appropriate action(s) and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions. (e) A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected licensee the costs of investigations and dispositions of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee. (f) A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of another remote state; provided, that the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action. (g) Joint Investigations. (1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees. (2) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint investigation initiated under the compact. (h) If adverse action is taken by the home state against a licensee's home state license resulting in an encumbrance on the home state license, the licensee's compact privilege(s) in all other member states shall be revoked until all encumbrances have been removed from the home state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against a licensee shall include a statement that the licensee's compact privileges are revoked in all member states during the pendency of the order. (i) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to an unencumbered license, as certified by the home state's licensing authority, the licensee must meet the requirements of § 63-25-204(a) and follow the administrative requirements to reapply to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state. (j) If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the other member states of any adverse actions. (k) Nothing in this compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
(a) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to: (1) Take adverse action against a licensee's compact privilege within that member state; and (2) Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing authority in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before that court. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.
(1) Take adverse action against a licensee's compact privilege within that member state; and
(2) Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing authority in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before that court. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.
(b) Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a licensee's home state license.
(c) For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.
(d) The home state shall complete any pending investigations of a licensee who changes home states during the course of the investigations. The home state shall also have authority to take appropriate action(s) and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions.
(e) A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected licensee the costs of investigations and dispositions of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee.
(f) A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of another remote state; provided, that the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.
(g) Joint Investigations. (1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees. (2) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint investigation initiated under the compact.
(1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.
(2) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint investigation initiated under the compact.
(h) If adverse action is taken by the home state against a licensee's home state license resulting in an encumbrance on the home state license, the licensee's compact privilege(s) in all other member states shall be revoked until all encumbrances have been removed from the home state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against a licensee shall include a statement that the licensee's compact privileges are revoked in all member states during the pendency of the order.
(i) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to an unencumbered license, as certified by the home state's licensing authority, the licensee must meet the requirements of § 63-25-204(a) and follow the administrative requirements to reapply to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.
(j) If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the other member states of any adverse actions.
(k) Nothing in this compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-115 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-115
Grounds for denial, revocation or suspension of certificate or license
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The board has the power to deny, revoke or suspend any certificate or license to practice nursing or to otherwise discipline a licensee upon proof that the person: (A) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing; (B) Is guilty of a crime; (C) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits or other cause; (D) Is addicted to alcohol or drugs to the degree of interfering with nursing duties; (E) Is mentally incompetent; (F) Is guilty of unprofessional conduct; or (G) Has violated or attempted to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisted in or abetted the violation of or conspired to violate any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant thereto. (2) This section shall also apply to members of the board. (b) The board shall have concurrent enforcement power, pursuant to [former] § 63-1-122 [repealed], with the division to revoke or suspend any certificate of fitness of a nurse practitioner who has been issued a certificate of fitness pursuant to § 63-1-104 or to otherwise discipline such person in accordance with this section. (c) (1) The board may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in its investigative and disciplinary process to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for diversion to professional peer review organizations and/or impaired professionals associations or foundations those cases that the board, through established guidelines, deems appropriate. Upon diversion, such entities shall retain the same immunity as provided by law for the board. (2) The screening panels shall consist of as many members as the board directs, but shall include at least one (1) but no more than three (3) licensed nurses, who may be members of the board or may serve either voluntarily or through employment by or under contract with the board. (3) The activities of the screening panels and any mediation or arbitration sessions shall not be construed as meetings of an agency for purposes of the open meetings law, compiled in title 8, chapter 44, and shall remain confidential. The members of the screening panels, mediators and arbitrators have a deliberative privilege and the same immunity as provided by law for the board and are not subject to deposition or subpoena to testify regarding any matter or issue raised in any contested case, criminal prosecution or civil lawsuit that may result from or be incident to cases processed before them. (d) The board retains jurisdiction to modify or refuse to modify, upon request of any party, any of its orders issued pursuant to this section in compliance with procedures established by the board. The board, pursuant to duly promulgated rules, may, whenever a final order is issued after a disciplinary contested case hearing that contains findings that a licensee or other person has violated any provision of this chapter, assess the costs directly related to the prosecution of the case against the licensee or person. (e) Any elected officer of the board or any duly appointed or elected chair of any panel of the board or any screening panel and any hearing officer, arbitrator or mediator has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses and, upon probable cause being established, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 24; 1976, ch. 501, § 10; 1980, ch. 851, § 6; T.C.A., § 63-752; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 8; 1998, ch. 1047, § 1.
(a) (1) The board has the power to deny, revoke or suspend any certificate or license to practice nursing or to otherwise discipline a licensee upon proof that the person: (A) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing; (B) Is guilty of a crime; (C) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits or other cause; (D) Is addicted to alcohol or drugs to the degree of interfering with nursing duties; (E) Is mentally incompetent; (F) Is guilty of unprofessional conduct; or (G) Has violated or attempted to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisted in or abetted the violation of or conspired to violate any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant thereto. (2) This section shall also apply to members of the board.
(1) The board has the power to deny, revoke or suspend any certificate or license to practice nursing or to otherwise discipline a licensee upon proof that the person: (A) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing; (B) Is guilty of a crime; (C) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits or other cause; (D) Is addicted to alcohol or drugs to the degree of interfering with nursing duties; (E) Is mentally incompetent; (F) Is guilty of unprofessional conduct; or (G) Has violated or attempted to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisted in or abetted the violation of or conspired to violate any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant thereto.
(A) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing;
(B) Is guilty of a crime;
(C) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits or other cause;
(D) Is addicted to alcohol or drugs to the degree of interfering with nursing duties;
(E) Is mentally incompetent;
(F) Is guilty of unprofessional conduct; or
(G) Has violated or attempted to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisted in or abetted the violation of or conspired to violate any provision of this chapter or any lawful order of the board issued pursuant thereto.
(2) This section shall also apply to members of the board.
(b) The board shall have concurrent enforcement power, pursuant to [former] § 63-1-122 [repealed], with the division to revoke or suspend any certificate of fitness of a nurse practitioner who has been issued a certificate of fitness pursuant to § 63-1-104 or to otherwise discipline such person in accordance with this section.
(c) (1) The board may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in its investigative and disciplinary process to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for diversion to professional peer review organizations and/or impaired professionals associations or foundations those cases that the board, through established guidelines, deems appropriate. Upon diversion, such entities shall retain the same immunity as provided by law for the board. (2) The screening panels shall consist of as many members as the board directs, but shall include at least one (1) but no more than three (3) licensed nurses, who may be members of the board or may serve either voluntarily or through employment by or under contract with the board. (3) The activities of the screening panels and any mediation or arbitration sessions shall not be construed as meetings of an agency for purposes of the open meetings law, compiled in title 8, chapter 44, and shall remain confidential. The members of the screening panels, mediators and arbitrators have a deliberative privilege and the same immunity as provided by law for the board and are not subject to deposition or subpoena to testify regarding any matter or issue raised in any contested case, criminal prosecution or civil lawsuit that may result from or be incident to cases processed before them.
(1) The board may utilize one (1) or more screening panels in its investigative and disciplinary process to assure that complaints filed and investigations conducted are meritorious and to act as a mechanism for diversion to professional peer review organizations and/or impaired professionals associations or foundations those cases that the board, through established guidelines, deems appropriate. Upon diversion, such entities shall retain the same immunity as provided by law for the board.
(2) The screening panels shall consist of as many members as the board directs, but shall include at least one (1) but no more than three (3) licensed nurses, who may be members of the board or may serve either voluntarily or through employment by or under contract with the board.
(3) The activities of the screening panels and any mediation or arbitration sessions shall not be construed as meetings of an agency for purposes of the open meetings law, compiled in title 8, chapter 44, and shall remain confidential. The members of the screening panels, mediators and arbitrators have a deliberative privilege and the same immunity as provided by law for the board and are not subject to deposition or subpoena to testify regarding any matter or issue raised in any contested case, criminal prosecution or civil lawsuit that may result from or be incident to cases processed before them.
(d) The board retains jurisdiction to modify or refuse to modify, upon request of any party, any of its orders issued pursuant to this section in compliance with procedures established by the board. The board, pursuant to duly promulgated rules, may, whenever a final order is issued after a disciplinary contested case hearing that contains findings that a licensee or other person has violated any provision of this chapter, assess the costs directly related to the prosecution of the case against the licensee or person.
(e) Any elected officer of the board or any duly appointed or elected chair of any panel of the board or any screening panel and any hearing officer, arbitrator or mediator has the authority to administer oaths to witnesses and, upon probable cause being established, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents and records.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 24; 1976, ch. 501, § 10; 1980, ch. 851, § 6; T.C.A., § 63-752; Acts 1982, ch. 712, § 8; 1998, ch. 1047, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-1-174 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 1 / Section 63-1-174
Issuance of advisory private letter rulings - Effect of letter - Procedure for dispute resolution
Status: in_force

(a) All state entities that are created under this title and administratively attached to the division of health related boards must issue advisory private letter rulings to any affected person who is certified, licensed, or registered by such state entities and who makes such a request regarding any matters within the state entities' primary jurisdiction. The private letter ruling only affects the person making the inquiry and shall have no precedential value for any other inquiry or future contested case to come before the state entity. Any dispute regarding a private letter ruling may be resolved pursuant to the declaratory order provisions of § 4-5-223 if the board chooses to do so. (b) The commissioner of health shall promulgate rules to effectuate this section. The rules must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 944,s 2, eff. 7/1/2024.
(a) All state entities that are created under this title and administratively attached to the division of health related boards must issue advisory private letter rulings to any affected person who is certified, licensed, or registered by such state entities and who makes such a request regarding any matters within the state entities' primary jurisdiction. The private letter ruling only affects the person making the inquiry and shall have no precedential value for any other inquiry or future contested case to come before the state entity. Any dispute regarding a private letter ruling may be resolved pursuant to the declaratory order provisions of § 4-5-223 if the board chooses to do so.
(b) The commissioner of health shall promulgate rules to effectuate this section. The rules must be promulgated in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Procedures Act, compiled in title 4, chapter 5.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 944,s 2, eff. 7/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-6-106 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 6 / Section 63-6-106
Mandatory disclosure of career fatigue for initial licensure prohibited
Status: in_force

The board shall not require an applicant for licensure pursuant to this title to disclose career fatigue, as defined in § 63-1-173 , as a requirement for initial licensure. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 924,s 6, eff. 1/1/2025.
The board shall not require an applicant for licensure pursuant to this title to disclose career fatigue, as defined in § 63-1-173 , as a requirement for initial licensure.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 924,s 6, eff. 1/1/2025.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-7-202 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 7 / Section 63-7-202
Composition - Candidates - Qualifications - Vacancies
Status: in_force

(a) The governor shall appoint eleven (11) members to the board, as follows: (1) Nine (9) members, one (1) from each congressional district, who are either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse at the time of their appointment. At least two (2) members shall be registered nurses. At least three (3) members shall be advanced practice registered nurses. For the purposes of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse shall not include registered nurses; (2) One (1) member who is a licensed practical nurse at the time of such nurse's appointment; and (3) One (1) consumer member. (b) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall consider appointing members who work in a variety of healthcare positions, including the following practice settings: (1) A Level I trauma center licensed pursuant to title 68, chapter 11, part 2; (2) An acute care hospital; (3) A critical access hospital or a rural hospital; (4) A mental health facility licensed under title 33; and (5) A long-term care facility. (c) No more than three (3) members shall be engaged in an academic position at the time of their appointment to the board. (d) In making appointments to the board, the governor should consider the importance of geographical diversity to this board. (e) (1) Members of the board may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified persons submitted by interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations. Each list may contain a minimum of three (3) times as many names as the number of appointments to be made. Lists of persons shall be submitted at least forty-five (45) days prior to the expiration of the term of office of any members of the board. The appointment provisions of this subdivision (e)(1) shall not apply to the public member serving on the board. (2) In making appointments to the board in accordance with subdivision (e)(1), the governor shall consult with interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations to determine qualified persons to fill the positions. (f) Each licensee member appointed to serve on the board shall: (1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment; (2) Be currently licensed and in good standing with an unencumbered license; (3) Be currently engaged in the practice of nursing; and (4) Have no less than five (5) years of experience as an advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse. (g) The consumer member appointed to the board shall: (1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding their appointment; (2) Not have a direct or indirect financial interest in healthcare services; (3) Not have been a healthcare provider or be enrolled in any health-related educational program; and (4) Not be a member or employee of any board of control of any public or private healthcare organization. (h) A vacancy on the board shall be filled for the unexpired term by appointment by the governor in such a manner to ensure the requirements of this section are met. (i) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) person serving on the board is sixty (60) years of age or older and that at least one (1) person serving on the board is a member of a racial minority. (j) Except as provided in subsection (k), members currently holding appointments on the board shall serve their full terms. As vacancies occur, new appointments shall be filled by the governor in accordance with this section. (k) No member shall serve more than eight (8) continuous years on the board. A member shall be eligible to be reappointed after not serving on the board for four (4) years. The term of any member of the board with eight (8) or more years of service on the board on April 25, 2012, shall terminate January 1, 2013. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 980, s 17, eff. 7/1/2016. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 980, s 16, eff. 7/1/2016. Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 3; 1981, ch. 462, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-731; Acts 1984, ch. 755, § 4; 1988, ch. 1013, § 45; 2005, ch. 387, §§ 13, 14; 2012 , ch. 814, § 3.
(a) The governor shall appoint eleven (11) members to the board, as follows: (1) Nine (9) members, one (1) from each congressional district, who are either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse at the time of their appointment. At least two (2) members shall be registered nurses. At least three (3) members shall be advanced practice registered nurses. For the purposes of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse shall not include registered nurses; (2) One (1) member who is a licensed practical nurse at the time of such nurse's appointment; and (3) One (1) consumer member.
(1) Nine (9) members, one (1) from each congressional district, who are either an advanced practice registered nurse or a registered nurse at the time of their appointment. At least two (2) members shall be registered nurses. At least three (3) members shall be advanced practice registered nurses. For the purposes of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse shall not include registered nurses;
(2) One (1) member who is a licensed practical nurse at the time of such nurse's appointment; and
(3) One (1) consumer member.
(b) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall consider appointing members who work in a variety of healthcare positions, including the following practice settings: (1) A Level I trauma center licensed pursuant to title 68, chapter 11, part 2; (2) An acute care hospital; (3) A critical access hospital or a rural hospital; (4) A mental health facility licensed under title 33; and (5) A long-term care facility.
(1) A Level I trauma center licensed pursuant to title 68, chapter 11, part 2;
(2) An acute care hospital;
(3) A critical access hospital or a rural hospital;
(4) A mental health facility licensed under title 33; and
(5) A long-term care facility.
(c) No more than three (3) members shall be engaged in an academic position at the time of their appointment to the board.
(d) In making appointments to the board, the governor should consider the importance of geographical diversity to this board.
(e) (1) Members of the board may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified persons submitted by interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations. Each list may contain a minimum of three (3) times as many names as the number of appointments to be made. Lists of persons shall be submitted at least forty-five (45) days prior to the expiration of the term of office of any members of the board. The appointment provisions of this subdivision (e)(1) shall not apply to the public member serving on the board. (2) In making appointments to the board in accordance with subdivision (e)(1), the governor shall consult with interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations to determine qualified persons to fill the positions.
(1) Members of the board may be appointed by the governor from lists of qualified persons submitted by interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations. Each list may contain a minimum of three (3) times as many names as the number of appointments to be made. Lists of persons shall be submitted at least forty-five (45) days prior to the expiration of the term of office of any members of the board. The appointment provisions of this subdivision (e)(1) shall not apply to the public member serving on the board.
(2) In making appointments to the board in accordance with subdivision (e)(1), the governor shall consult with interested nursing groups, including, but not limited to, their respective organizations to determine qualified persons to fill the positions.
(f) Each licensee member appointed to serve on the board shall: (1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment; (2) Be currently licensed and in good standing with an unencumbered license; (3) Be currently engaged in the practice of nursing; and (4) Have no less than five (5) years of experience as an advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse.
(1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding appointment;
(2) Be currently licensed and in good standing with an unencumbered license;
(3) Be currently engaged in the practice of nursing; and
(4) Have no less than five (5) years of experience as an advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse.
(g) The consumer member appointed to the board shall: (1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding their appointment; (2) Not have a direct or indirect financial interest in healthcare services; (3) Not have been a healthcare provider or be enrolled in any health-related educational program; and (4) Not be a member or employee of any board of control of any public or private healthcare organization.
(1) Be a resident of this state for at least one (1) year immediately preceding their appointment;
(2) Not have a direct or indirect financial interest in healthcare services;
(3) Not have been a healthcare provider or be enrolled in any health-related educational program; and
(4) Not be a member or employee of any board of control of any public or private healthcare organization.
(h) A vacancy on the board shall be filled for the unexpired term by appointment by the governor in such a manner to ensure the requirements of this section are met.
(i) In making appointments to the board, the governor shall strive to ensure that at least one (1) person serving on the board is sixty (60) years of age or older and that at least one (1) person serving on the board is a member of a racial minority.
(j) Except as provided in subsection (k), members currently holding appointments on the board shall serve their full terms. As vacancies occur, new appointments shall be filled by the governor in accordance with this section.
(k) No member shall serve more than eight (8) continuous years on the board. A member shall be eligible to be reappointed after not serving on the board for four (4) years. The term of any member of the board with eight (8) or more years of service on the board on April 25, 2012, shall terminate January 1, 2013.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 980, s 17, eff. 7/1/2016.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 980, s 16, eff. 7/1/2016.
Acts 1967, ch. 78, § 3; 1981, ch. 462, § 1; T.C.A., § 63-731; Acts 1984, ch. 755, § 4; 1988, ch. 1013, § 45; 2005, ch. 387, §§ 13, 14; 2012 , ch. 814, § 3.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-25-213 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 25 / Section 63-25-213
[Effective 1/1/2026] Construction and severability
Status: in_force

(a) This compact and the compact commission's rulemaking authority shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes and the implementation and administration of the compact. Provisions of the compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of rules shall not be construed to limit the compact commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes. (b) The provisions of this compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, a state seeking participation in the compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person, or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. (c) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the compact commission may deny a state's participation in the compact or, in accordance with the requirements of § 63-25-211(b) , terminate a member state's participation in the compact, if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a member state is a material departure from the compact. Otherwise, if this compact shall be held to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
(a) This compact and the compact commission's rulemaking authority shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes and the implementation and administration of the compact. Provisions of the compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of rules shall not be construed to limit the compact commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes.
(b) The provisions of this compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, a state seeking participation in the compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person, or circumstance shall not be affected thereby.
(c) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the compact commission may deny a state's participation in the compact or, in accordance with the requirements of § 63-25-211(b) , terminate a member state's participation in the compact, if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a member state is a material departure from the compact. Otherwise, if this compact shall be held to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1025,s 1, eff. 1/1/2026.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-3-113 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 3 / Section 63-3-113
Issuance of licenses
Status: in_force

(a) If an applicant successfully passes the examination provided by this chapter and meets all of the requirements of this chapter, the board shall direct the division to issue the applicable license. (b) (1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 2, eff. 5/11/2023. Acts 1931, ch. 31, § 2; 1949, ch. 152, § 1; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.3 (Williams, § 7182.4); Acts 1971, ch. 188, § 7; 1973, ch. 393, § 10; 1976, ch. 796, § 1; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-313; Acts 1984, ch. 937, § 11.
(a) If an applicant successfully passes the examination provided by this chapter and meets all of the requirements of this chapter, the board shall direct the division to issue the applicable license.
(b) (1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board. (2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
(1) When the board receives a completed application for initial licensure from an applicant, then the board shall, within sixty (60) days from the date the board receives the completed application: (A) Render a decision on the application; or (B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(A) Render a decision on the application; or
(B) Inform the applicant of the need to appear before the board.
(2) As used in this subsection (b), "completed application" means an application that satisfies all statutory and board rule requirements.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 426, s 2, eff. 5/11/2023.
Acts 1931, ch. 31, § 2; 1949, ch. 152, § 1; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.3 (Williams, § 7182.4); Acts 1971, ch. 188, § 7; 1973, ch. 393, § 10; 1976, ch. 796, § 1; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 63-313; Acts 1984, ch. 937, § 11.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-13-211 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 13 / Section 63-13-211
Unlawful practices - Penalty
Status: in_force

(a) It is unlawful for any person to violate this part. It is unlawful for any person who is not licensed under this part as an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant or whose license has been suspended or revoked to use, in connection with the person's name or place of business, the words "occupational therapist," "occupational therapist registered," "licensed occupational therapist," "occupational therapy assistant," "certified occupational therapy assistant" or "licensed occupational therapy assistant," the letters "OT," "OTA," "OTR," "OT/L," "OTA/L" or "COTA" or any other words, letters, abbreviations or insignia indicating or implying that the person is an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant or who in any way, orally, in writing, in print or by sign, directly or by implication, claims to be an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant. (b) A violation of this part is a Class B misdemeanor. Acts 1984, ch. 921, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-13-309 ; Acts 1989, ch, 591, § 112; T.C.A. § 63-13-209 ; Acts 1999, ch. 415, § 2; 2006, ch. 765, § 10.
(a) It is unlawful for any person to violate this part. It is unlawful for any person who is not licensed under this part as an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant or whose license has been suspended or revoked to use, in connection with the person's name or place of business, the words "occupational therapist," "occupational therapist registered," "licensed occupational therapist," "occupational therapy assistant," "certified occupational therapy assistant" or "licensed occupational therapy assistant," the letters "OT," "OTA," "OTR," "OT/L," "OTA/L" or "COTA" or any other words, letters, abbreviations or insignia indicating or implying that the person is an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant or who in any way, orally, in writing, in print or by sign, directly or by implication, claims to be an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant.
(b) A violation of this part is a Class B misdemeanor.
Acts 1984, ch. 921, § 3; T.C.A., § 63-13-309 ; Acts 1989, ch, 591, § 112; T.C.A. § 63-13-209 ; Acts 1999, ch. 415, § 2; 2006, ch. 765, § 10.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-9-114 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 9 / Section 63-9-114
[Repealed] Reserved
Status: repealed

Repealed by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 4, s 2, eff. 3/15/2017. Acts 1996, ch. 1042, § 1.
Repealed by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 4, s 2, eff. 3/15/2017.
Acts 1996, ch. 1042, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-12-107 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 12 / Section 63-12-107
Meetings of board
Status: in_force

(a) The board shall meet at least once each year at such times and places as it may decide upon and remain in session sufficiently long to examine all who may make application at the appointed time for a license. (b) Four (4) members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business and examination of candidates for license. A majority of those present shall be necessary to reject any application, but such rejection shall not bar the applicant from reexamination at the next regular meeting of the board. Acts 1967, ch. 80, § 7; T.C.A., § 63-1207; Acts 1998, ch. 649, § 4.
(a) The board shall meet at least once each year at such times and places as it may decide upon and remain in session sufficiently long to examine all who may make application at the appointed time for a license.
(b) Four (4) members of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business and examination of candidates for license. A majority of those present shall be necessary to reject any application, but such rejection shall not bar the applicant from reexamination at the next regular meeting of the board.
Acts 1967, ch. 80, § 7; T.C.A., § 63-1207; Acts 1998, ch. 649, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-23-215 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 23 / Section 63-23-215
Construction and severability
Status: in_force

(a) This compact and the commission's rulemaking authority must be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes, and the implementation and administration of this compact. Provisions of this compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of rules must not be construed to limit the commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes. (b) The provisions of this compact are severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, a state seeking participation in this compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person, or circumstance must not be affected thereby. (c) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the commission may deny a state's participation in this compact or, in accordance with the requirements of § 63-23-213(b) , terminate a member state's participation in this compact if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a member state is a material departure from this compact. Otherwise, if this compact is held to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, then this compact must remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters. Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
(a) This compact and the commission's rulemaking authority must be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes, and the implementation and administration of this compact. Provisions of this compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of rules must not be construed to limit the commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes.
(b) The provisions of this compact are severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, a state seeking participation in this compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person, or circumstance must not be affected thereby.
(c) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the commission may deny a state's participation in this compact or, in accordance with the requirements of § 63-23-213(b) , terminate a member state's participation in this compact if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a member state is a material departure from this compact. Otherwise, if this compact is held to be contrary to the constitution of any member state, then this compact must remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters.
Added by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1041,s 1, eff. 7/1/2024.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-4-120 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 4 / Section 63-4-120
Externship certificates
Status: in_force

(a) The board may issue an externship certificate to practice chiropractic, to be used only under supervision of a licensed chiropractor, upon payment of a fee as set by the board, to a chiropractor who meets all qualifications and requirements for licensure pursuant to this chapter and who has applied to take the examinations as provided in § 63-4-110 . (b) Externs will be allowed to perform all diagnostic tests and therapeutic interventions as allowed providers licensed by this chapter. (c) Externship is to last no longer than three hundred sixty-five (365) days from date of certificate issuance. Applicants who provide proof of illness or hardship that hindered their ability to comply with § 63-4-110 may, at the board's discretion, be allowed a second year of externship. (d) The board may revoke an extern's certificate for violation of any portion of this chapter for failure to maintain proper supervision. "Supervision" is defined as direct oversight by a Tennessee licensed chiropractor. The supervisor shall be on the facility premises while the extern is conducting patient care. (e) The board reserves the right to adopt any rules and regulations as the board may deem appropriate for externs and the administration of externship program. (f) One hundred dollars ($100) shall be the administrative fee for applying to and participating in the externship program for each year of externship. Acts 1983, ch. 205, § 6; 1989, ch. 523, § 6; 2000, ch. 618, § 7.
(a) The board may issue an externship certificate to practice chiropractic, to be used only under supervision of a licensed chiropractor, upon payment of a fee as set by the board, to a chiropractor who meets all qualifications and requirements for licensure pursuant to this chapter and who has applied to take the examinations as provided in § 63-4-110 .
(b) Externs will be allowed to perform all diagnostic tests and therapeutic interventions as allowed providers licensed by this chapter.
(c) Externship is to last no longer than three hundred sixty-five (365) days from date of certificate issuance. Applicants who provide proof of illness or hardship that hindered their ability to comply with § 63-4-110 may, at the board's discretion, be allowed a second year of externship.
(d) The board may revoke an extern's certificate for violation of any portion of this chapter for failure to maintain proper supervision. "Supervision" is defined as direct oversight by a Tennessee licensed chiropractor. The supervisor shall be on the facility premises while the extern is conducting patient care.
(e) The board reserves the right to adopt any rules and regulations as the board may deem appropriate for externs and the administration of externship program.
(f) One hundred dollars ($100) shall be the administrative fee for applying to and participating in the externship program for each year of externship.
Acts 1983, ch. 205, § 6; 1989, ch. 523, § 6; 2000, ch. 618, § 7.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 63-23-102 — TN Code / Title 63 / Chapter 23 / Section 63-23-102
Practice of baccalaureate social work - Licensing requirements
Status: in_force

(a) The practice of baccalaureate social work is the professional application of social work theory, knowledge, methods, principles, values and ethics and the professional use of self to restore or enhance social, psychosocial or biopsychosocial functioning of individuals, couples, families, groups, organizations and communities. The practice of baccalaureate social work is basic generalist practice that includes interviewing, assessment, planning, intervention, evaluation, case management, mediation, supportive counseling, direct nonclinical practice, information and referral, problem solving, client education, advocacy, community organization, supervision of employees, and the development, implementation, and administration of policies, programs and activities. Baccalaureate social workers are not qualified to diagnose or treat mental illness nor provide psychotherapy services. A social worker at this level shall not provide services to clients in exchange for direct payment or third-party reimbursement. A social worker at this level shall work in or for an agency or organization and may not practice privately or independently. Licensed baccalaureate social workers shall not engage in advanced social work practice or in clinical social work practice or hold themselves out as a licensed master's social worker, a licensed advance practice social worker or a licensed clinical social worker. A social worker may not prescribe medication or interpret psychological tests. (b) (1) To obtain a license to engage in the practice of baccalaureate social work, an applicant must provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has: (A) Submitted a written application in the form prescribed by the board; (B) Paid all applicable fees specified by the board relative to the licensure process; (C) Attained the age of majority; (D) Graduated and received a baccalaureate degree in social work from a council on social work education approved program; and (E) Successfully passed the association of social work board's bachelor's licensing exam. (2) Any baccalaureate social worker who graduated before 1980 or who has graduated from a council on social work education accredited program since 1980 may apply for licensure as a baccalaureate social worker without examination until December 31, 2010. (c) No person shall, by verbal claim, advertisement, letterhead, card or in any other way represent that the person is a licensed baccalaureate social worker unless the person possesses a valid license issued pursuant to subsection (b). (d) A violation of subsection (c) is a Class A misdemeanor. (e) The board shall establish regulations for the issuance of temporary licenses to baccalaureate social workers who hold a baccalaureate degree in social work granted by any college, university, or school of social work that has applied for, but has not yet received, accreditation by the council on social work education. Acts 1984, ch. 1003, § 1; 1989, ch. 523, § 88; 1989, ch. 591, §§ 1, 6; 2006, ch. 658, §1; 2008 , ch. 1016, § 1.
(a) The practice of baccalaureate social work is the professional application of social work theory, knowledge, methods, principles, values and ethics and the professional use of self to restore or enhance social, psychosocial or biopsychosocial functioning of individuals, couples, families, groups, organizations and communities. The practice of baccalaureate social work is basic generalist practice that includes interviewing, assessment, planning, intervention, evaluation, case management, mediation, supportive counseling, direct nonclinical practice, information and referral, problem solving, client education, advocacy, community organization, supervision of employees, and the development, implementation, and administration of policies, programs and activities. Baccalaureate social workers are not qualified to diagnose or treat mental illness nor provide psychotherapy services. A social worker at this level shall not provide services to clients in exchange for direct payment or third-party reimbursement. A social worker at this level shall work in or for an agency or organization and may not practice privately or independently. Licensed baccalaureate social workers shall not engage in advanced social work practice or in clinical social work practice or hold themselves out as a licensed master's social worker, a licensed advance practice social worker or a licensed clinical social worker. A social worker may not prescribe medication or interpret psychological tests.
(b) (1) To obtain a license to engage in the practice of baccalaureate social work, an applicant must provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has: (A) Submitted a written application in the form prescribed by the board; (B) Paid all applicable fees specified by the board relative to the licensure process; (C) Attained the age of majority; (D) Graduated and received a baccalaureate degree in social work from a council on social work education approved program; and (E) Successfully passed the association of social work board's bachelor's licensing exam. (2) Any baccalaureate social worker who graduated before 1980 or who has graduated from a council on social work education accredited program since 1980 may apply for licensure as a baccalaureate social worker without examination until December 31, 2010.
(1) To obtain a license to engage in the practice of baccalaureate social work, an applicant must provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has: (A) Submitted a written application in the form prescribed by the board; (B) Paid all applicable fees specified by the board relative to the licensure process; (C) Attained the age of majority; (D) Graduated and received a baccalaureate degree in social work from a council on social work education approved program; and (E) Successfully passed the association of social work board's bachelor's licensing exam.
(A) Submitted a written application in the form prescribed by the board;
(B) Paid all applicable fees specified by the board relative to the licensure process;
(C) Attained the age of majority;
(D) Graduated and received a baccalaureate degree in social work from a council on social work education approved program; and
(E) Successfully passed the association of social work board's bachelor's licensing exam.
(2) Any baccalaureate social worker who graduated before 1980 or who has graduated from a council on social work education accredited program since 1980 may apply for licensure as a baccalaureate social worker without examination until December 31, 2010.
(c) No person shall, by verbal claim, advertisement, letterhead, card or in any other way represent that the person is a licensed baccalaureate social worker unless the person possesses a valid license issued pursuant to subsection (b).
(d) A violation of subsection (c) is a Class A misdemeanor.
(e) The board shall establish regulations for the issuance of temporary licenses to baccalaureate social workers who hold a baccalaureate degree in social work granted by any college, university, or school of social work that has applied for, but has not yet received, accreditation by the council on social work education.
Acts 1984, ch. 1003, § 1; 1989, ch. 523, § 88; 1989, ch. 591, §§ 1, 6; 2006, ch. 658, §1; 2008 , ch. 1016, § 1.