Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-1-117 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 1 / Section 62-1-117
Reciprocity
Status: in_force

(a) (1) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 . Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3). (2) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has not verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 if the individual obtains from the board or its designee verification that the individual's CPA qualifications are substantially equivalent to the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter. Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3). (3) An individual licensee of another state exercising the privilege afforded under this section and the CPA firm that employs the licensee, as a condition of the grant of this privilege, simultaneously consent to the following: (A) To the personal and subject matter jurisdiction and disciplinary authority of the board; (B) To comply with this chapter and the board's rules; (C) That in the event the license from the state of the individual's principal place of business is no longer valid, the individual shall cease offering or rendering professional services in this state individually and on behalf of a CPA firm; and (D) To the appointment of the state board that issued the license as the agent upon whom process may be served in the action or proceeding by this board against the licensee. (4) The board may utilize the service of the NASBA National Qualification Appraisal Service to verify qualifications necessary for substantial equivalency. (b) A licensee of this state offering or rendering services or using the licensee's CPA title in another state shall be subject to disciplinary action in this state for an act committed in another state for which the licensee would be subject to discipline for an act committed in the other state. The board shall be required to investigate any complaint made by the board of accountancy of another state. Acts 1998, ch. 700, § 9; 2002, ch. 654, § 9; 2007 , ch. 19, §§ 1-3.
(a) (1) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 . Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3). (2) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has not verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 if the individual obtains from the board or its designee verification that the individual's CPA qualifications are substantially equivalent to the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter. Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3). (3) An individual licensee of another state exercising the privilege afforded under this section and the CPA firm that employs the licensee, as a condition of the grant of this privilege, simultaneously consent to the following: (A) To the personal and subject matter jurisdiction and disciplinary authority of the board; (B) To comply with this chapter and the board's rules; (C) That in the event the license from the state of the individual's principal place of business is no longer valid, the individual shall cease offering or rendering professional services in this state individually and on behalf of a CPA firm; and (D) To the appointment of the state board that issued the license as the agent upon whom process may be served in the action or proceeding by this board against the licensee. (4) The board may utilize the service of the NASBA National Qualification Appraisal Service to verify qualifications necessary for substantial equivalency.
(1) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 . Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3).
(2) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state having a valid license as a certified public accountant from any state that the board or its designee has not verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter shall be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a certificate or permit under § 62-1-107 or § 62-1-108 if the individual obtains from the board or its designee verification that the individual's CPA qualifications are substantially equivalent to the CPA licensure requirements of this chapter. Notwithstanding any other law, an individual who offers or renders professional services under this section, whether in person, by mail, telephone or electronic means, shall be granted practice privileges in this state; and no notice or other submission shall be provided by the individual. The individual shall be subject to the requirements in subdivision (a)(3).
(3) An individual licensee of another state exercising the privilege afforded under this section and the CPA firm that employs the licensee, as a condition of the grant of this privilege, simultaneously consent to the following: (A) To the personal and subject matter jurisdiction and disciplinary authority of the board; (B) To comply with this chapter and the board's rules; (C) That in the event the license from the state of the individual's principal place of business is no longer valid, the individual shall cease offering or rendering professional services in this state individually and on behalf of a CPA firm; and (D) To the appointment of the state board that issued the license as the agent upon whom process may be served in the action or proceeding by this board against the licensee.
(A) To the personal and subject matter jurisdiction and disciplinary authority of the board;
(B) To comply with this chapter and the board's rules;
(C) That in the event the license from the state of the individual's principal place of business is no longer valid, the individual shall cease offering or rendering professional services in this state individually and on behalf of a CPA firm; and
(D) To the appointment of the state board that issued the license as the agent upon whom process may be served in the action or proceeding by this board against the licensee.
(4) The board may utilize the service of the NASBA National Qualification Appraisal Service to verify qualifications necessary for substantial equivalency.
(b) A licensee of this state offering or rendering services or using the licensee's CPA title in another state shall be subject to disciplinary action in this state for an act committed in another state for which the licensee would be subject to discipline for an act committed in the other state. The board shall be required to investigate any complaint made by the board of accountancy of another state.
Acts 1998, ch. 700, § 9; 2002, ch. 654, § 9; 2007 , ch. 19, §§ 1-3.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-36-103 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 36 / Section 62-36-103
Chapter definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce and insurance or the commissioner's designee; (2) "Department" means the department of commerce and insurance; (3) "Geologist" means a person qualified by education and practical experience to engage in the practice of geology; (4) "Geologist in training" means a person who has met the educational requirements of § 62-36-109 , but is not qualified to be licensed as a professional geologist; (5) "Geology" means the science concerning the earth and its history, including: (A) The investigation, prediction of existence and location of: (i) Minerals; (ii) Rocks; (iii) Liquids, including groundwater; and (iv) Gases; (B) The natural processes that cause developments and changes in the earth; and (C) The applied science that uses knowledge of the earth and its constituent rocks, minerals, liquids, gases and other materials for the benefit of mankind; (6) "Licensed professional geologist" means a person who is licensed as a geologist under this chapter; (7) "Practice of geology" means providing geological services, except as specifically exempted by this chapter. Geological services include consultation, investigation, including the collection, removal and analysis of samples of minerals, rocks, fluids, gases and paleontological specimens, survey, evaluation, planning, mapping, inspection of work in the field of geology and the responsible supervision of work in the field of geology. The practice of geology means the practice of any branch of the profession of geology; (8) "Responsible charge of work" means accountable, independent control and direction by the use of initiative, skill and independent judgment of geological work or supervision of geological work; and (9) "Subordinate" means any person who assists a licensed professional geologist in the practice of geology without assuming the responsible charge of work. Acts 2007 , ch. 495, § 4.
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce and insurance or the commissioner's designee;
(2) "Department" means the department of commerce and insurance;
(3) "Geologist" means a person qualified by education and practical experience to engage in the practice of geology;
(4) "Geologist in training" means a person who has met the educational requirements of § 62-36-109 , but is not qualified to be licensed as a professional geologist;
(5) "Geology" means the science concerning the earth and its history, including: (A) The investigation, prediction of existence and location of: (i) Minerals; (ii) Rocks; (iii) Liquids, including groundwater; and (iv) Gases; (B) The natural processes that cause developments and changes in the earth; and (C) The applied science that uses knowledge of the earth and its constituent rocks, minerals, liquids, gases and other materials for the benefit of mankind;
(A) The investigation, prediction of existence and location of: (i) Minerals; (ii) Rocks; (iii) Liquids, including groundwater; and (iv) Gases;
(i) Minerals;
(ii) Rocks;
(iii) Liquids, including groundwater; and
(iv) Gases;
(B) The natural processes that cause developments and changes in the earth; and
(C) The applied science that uses knowledge of the earth and its constituent rocks, minerals, liquids, gases and other materials for the benefit of mankind;
(6) "Licensed professional geologist" means a person who is licensed as a geologist under this chapter;
(7) "Practice of geology" means providing geological services, except as specifically exempted by this chapter. Geological services include consultation, investigation, including the collection, removal and analysis of samples of minerals, rocks, fluids, gases and paleontological specimens, survey, evaluation, planning, mapping, inspection of work in the field of geology and the responsible supervision of work in the field of geology. The practice of geology means the practice of any branch of the profession of geology;
(8) "Responsible charge of work" means accountable, independent control and direction by the use of initiative, skill and independent judgment of geological work or supervision of geological work; and
(9) "Subordinate" means any person who assists a licensed professional geologist in the practice of geology without assuming the responsible charge of work.
Acts 2007 , ch. 495, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-7-112 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 7 / Section 62-7-112
Dog guide to be admitted - Penalties
Status: in_force

(a) As used in this section: (1) "Dog guide in training": (A) Means a dog being trained by an employee or puppy raiser from a recognized training agency or school to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability; and (B) Includes a dog in the socialization process that occurs with the dog's training or raiser prior to the dog's advanced training and that is authorized by an accredited school; and (2) "Place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation": (A) Means a place, store, or other establishment, either licensed or unlicensed, that supplies goods or services to the general public, or solicits or accepts the patronage or trade of the general public, or that is supported directly or indirectly by government funds, except that: (i) A bona fide private club is not a place of public accommodation, resort, or amusement if its policies are determined solely by its members; and (ii) Its facilities or services are available only to its members and their bona fide guests; and (B) Includes an inn, hotel, restaurant, eating house, barber shop, billiard parlor, store, public conveyance on land or water, theater, motion picture house, public education institution, or elevator. (b) (1) A proprietor, employee, or other person in charge of a place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not refuse to permit a blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person is being led or accompanied by a dog guide. (2) A dog guide must be under the control of its handler. (3) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not require documentation regarding the dog guide, such as proof that the guide dog has been certified, trained, or licensed as a dog guide. (c) A proprietor, employee, or other person in charge of a place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation: (1) Shall not refuse to permit a dog guide trainer to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the dog guide trainer is being led or accompanied by a dog guide in training; provided, that: (A) The dog guide in training, when led or accompanied by a dog guide trainer: (i) Wears a harness and is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; or (ii) Is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; and (B) The dog guide trainer presents for inspection credentials issued by an accredited school for training dog guides; and (2) May ask what task the dog guide in training is being trained to perform, and if the trainer is currently engaged in the training of the dog guide. (d) A person who utilizes a guide dog for tasks related to the person's disability or a trainer working with a dog guide in training is subject to the same liability for damages caused by the dog guide or dog guide in training as would be applied by the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation to a person whose pet causes damages to the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation. (e) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation is not required to provide care or food, or a special location, for a dog guide or dog guide in training. (f) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation may ask a person to remove a dog guide or dog guide in training from the premises if: (1) The dog guide or dog guide in training is out of control and its handler does not take effective action to control it; or (2) The dog guide or dog guide in training is not housebroken. (g) A violation of this section is a Class C misdemeanor. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 194, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2013 Tenn. Acts, ch. 69, s 1, eff. 7/1/2013. Acts 1955, ch. 1, §§ 1, 2; 1980, ch. 488, § 3; T.C.A., § 62-717; Acts 1982, ch. 748, § 1; 1984, ch. 612, § 1; 1989, ch. 591, § 113; 1996, ch. 668, § 1; 2001, ch. 174, §13; 2003 , ch. 123, § 1.
(a) As used in this section: (1) "Dog guide in training": (A) Means a dog being trained by an employee or puppy raiser from a recognized training agency or school to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability; and (B) Includes a dog in the socialization process that occurs with the dog's training or raiser prior to the dog's advanced training and that is authorized by an accredited school; and (2) "Place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation": (A) Means a place, store, or other establishment, either licensed or unlicensed, that supplies goods or services to the general public, or solicits or accepts the patronage or trade of the general public, or that is supported directly or indirectly by government funds, except that: (i) A bona fide private club is not a place of public accommodation, resort, or amusement if its policies are determined solely by its members; and (ii) Its facilities or services are available only to its members and their bona fide guests; and (B) Includes an inn, hotel, restaurant, eating house, barber shop, billiard parlor, store, public conveyance on land or water, theater, motion picture house, public education institution, or elevator.
(1) "Dog guide in training": (A) Means a dog being trained by an employee or puppy raiser from a recognized training agency or school to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability; and (B) Includes a dog in the socialization process that occurs with the dog's training or raiser prior to the dog's advanced training and that is authorized by an accredited school; and
(A) Means a dog being trained by an employee or puppy raiser from a recognized training agency or school to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability; and
(B) Includes a dog in the socialization process that occurs with the dog's training or raiser prior to the dog's advanced training and that is authorized by an accredited school; and
(2) "Place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation": (A) Means a place, store, or other establishment, either licensed or unlicensed, that supplies goods or services to the general public, or solicits or accepts the patronage or trade of the general public, or that is supported directly or indirectly by government funds, except that: (i) A bona fide private club is not a place of public accommodation, resort, or amusement if its policies are determined solely by its members; and (ii) Its facilities or services are available only to its members and their bona fide guests; and (B) Includes an inn, hotel, restaurant, eating house, barber shop, billiard parlor, store, public conveyance on land or water, theater, motion picture house, public education institution, or elevator.
(A) Means a place, store, or other establishment, either licensed or unlicensed, that supplies goods or services to the general public, or solicits or accepts the patronage or trade of the general public, or that is supported directly or indirectly by government funds, except that: (i) A bona fide private club is not a place of public accommodation, resort, or amusement if its policies are determined solely by its members; and (ii) Its facilities or services are available only to its members and their bona fide guests; and
(i) A bona fide private club is not a place of public accommodation, resort, or amusement if its policies are determined solely by its members; and
(ii) Its facilities or services are available only to its members and their bona fide guests; and
(B) Includes an inn, hotel, restaurant, eating house, barber shop, billiard parlor, store, public conveyance on land or water, theater, motion picture house, public education institution, or elevator.
(b) (1) A proprietor, employee, or other person in charge of a place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not refuse to permit a blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person is being led or accompanied by a dog guide. (2) A dog guide must be under the control of its handler. (3) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not require documentation regarding the dog guide, such as proof that the guide dog has been certified, trained, or licensed as a dog guide.
(1) A proprietor, employee, or other person in charge of a place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not refuse to permit a blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the blind, physically disabled, or deaf or hard-of-hearing person is being led or accompanied by a dog guide.
(2) A dog guide must be under the control of its handler.
(3) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation shall not require documentation regarding the dog guide, such as proof that the guide dog has been certified, trained, or licensed as a dog guide.
(c) A proprietor, employee, or other person in charge of a place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation: (1) Shall not refuse to permit a dog guide trainer to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the dog guide trainer is being led or accompanied by a dog guide in training; provided, that: (A) The dog guide in training, when led or accompanied by a dog guide trainer: (i) Wears a harness and is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; or (ii) Is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; and (B) The dog guide trainer presents for inspection credentials issued by an accredited school for training dog guides; and (2) May ask what task the dog guide in training is being trained to perform, and if the trainer is currently engaged in the training of the dog guide.
(1) Shall not refuse to permit a dog guide trainer to enter the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation or to make use of the accommodations provided by the public accommodation when the accommodations are available, for the reason that the dog guide trainer is being led or accompanied by a dog guide in training; provided, that: (A) The dog guide in training, when led or accompanied by a dog guide trainer: (i) Wears a harness and is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; or (ii) Is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; and (B) The dog guide trainer presents for inspection credentials issued by an accredited school for training dog guides; and
(A) The dog guide in training, when led or accompanied by a dog guide trainer: (i) Wears a harness and is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; or (ii) Is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; and
(i) Wears a harness and is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; or
(ii) Is held on a leash by the dog guide trainer; and
(B) The dog guide trainer presents for inspection credentials issued by an accredited school for training dog guides; and
(2) May ask what task the dog guide in training is being trained to perform, and if the trainer is currently engaged in the training of the dog guide.
(d) A person who utilizes a guide dog for tasks related to the person's disability or a trainer working with a dog guide in training is subject to the same liability for damages caused by the dog guide or dog guide in training as would be applied by the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation to a person whose pet causes damages to the place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation.
(e) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation is not required to provide care or food, or a special location, for a dog guide or dog guide in training.
(f) A place of public accommodation, amusement, or recreation may ask a person to remove a dog guide or dog guide in training from the premises if: (1) The dog guide or dog guide in training is out of control and its handler does not take effective action to control it; or (2) The dog guide or dog guide in training is not housebroken.
(1) The dog guide or dog guide in training is out of control and its handler does not take effective action to control it; or
(2) The dog guide or dog guide in training is not housebroken.
(g) A violation of this section is a Class C misdemeanor.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 194, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2013 Tenn. Acts, ch. 69, s 1, eff. 7/1/2013.
Acts 1955, ch. 1, §§ 1, 2; 1980, ch. 488, § 3; T.C.A., § 62-717; Acts 1982, ch. 748, § 1; 1984, ch. 612, § 1; 1989, ch. 591, § 113; 1996, ch. 668, § 1; 2001, ch. 174, §13; 2003 , ch. 123, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-4-102 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 4 / Section 62-4-102
Chapter definitions - Exceptions
Status: in_force

(a) As used in this part, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) "Aesthetics" means any of the following practices: (A) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work with hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (B) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; or (C) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing; (2) "Board" means the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners created by § 62-4-103 ; (3) "Cosmetology" means any of the following practices: (A) Arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cleansing, cutting, singeing, bleaching, coloring or similar work on the hair of any person by any means; (B) Caring and servicing of wigs and hair pieces; (C) Manicuring; (D) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work upon the hands, arms, face, neck or feet with hands or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (E) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; (F) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing; (G) Providing a necessary service that is preparatory or ancillary to a service pursuant to this subdivision (a)(3); (H) Treating a person's mustache or beard by arranging, beautifying, coloring, processing, styling, trimming, or shaving with a safety razor; (I) Shampooing; (J) Natural hair styling; or (K) Providing eyelash services; (4) "Cosmetology shop" means any place of business where any person engages or offers to engage in any practice of cosmetology for a fee or other form of compensation, but does not include a manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop; (5) "Designated manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, and who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity of the shop in the absence of the manager; (6) "Dual shop" means any shop licensed by the board where services are performed or offered to be performed in more than one (1) field of cosmetology, including aesthetics, natural hair styling, manicuring, and eyelash services, or in both cosmetology, or a field of cosmetology, and barbering. A dual shop does not include a shop licensed solely as a cosmetology shop or a single specialty thereof, or as a barber shop; (7) "Eyelash services" means applying and removing a semi-permanent, thread-like, natural or synthetic single fiber to an eyelash, including cleansing of the eye area and lashes prior to applying and after removing extensions; (8) "Eyelash services shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only eyelash services for a fee or other form of compensation; (9) "Hair braiding" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands, such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking, or braiding of the hair, by hand or mechanical appliances for compensation, without cutting, coloring, relaxing, removing, chemically treating, or using other preparations to straighten, curl, or alter the structure of the hair; (10) "Hair wrapping" means the wrapping of manufactured materials around a strand or strands of human hair for compensation, without cutting, coloring, permanent waving, relaxing, removing, weaving, chemically treating, braiding, using hair extensions or performing any other service otherwise covered by this part; (11) "Instructor trainee" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours to be completed within a period of six (6) months, which course includes practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor; (12) "Junior instructor" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a course of training in practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor for a period of time not to exceed three (3) years; (13) "Manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity in the shop, and whose information is filed with the board; (14) "Managing aesthetician" means a person licensed to practice aesthetics who is designated by the owner of a skin care shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (15) "Managing cosmetologist" means a licensed cosmetologist who is designated by the owner of a cosmetology shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (16) "Managing manicurist" means a person licensed to practice manicuring who is designated by the owner of a manicure shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (17) "Manicure shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform only manicuring services for a fee or other form of compensation; (18) "Manicuring" means manicuring or pedicuring the nails of any person or performing nail artistry; (19) "Mobile shop" means any self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed motor vehicle that may be used as a barber shop, cosmetology shop, dual shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, eyelash services shop, or other category of shop licensed by the board; (20) "Natural hair styling" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking or braiding of the hair by hand or mechanical appliances, which work does not include the application of dyes, reactive chemicals or other preparations to alter the color or to straighten, curl or alter the structure of the hair. The techniques include providing or offering to the general public for compensation any of the following services solely for development or improvement of physical qualities of the natural hair structure: (A) Intertwining in a systematic motion to create patterns in a three-dimensional form; (B) Inversion or outversion flat against the scalp along the part of a straight or curved row; or (C) Extension with natural or synthetic fibers; (21) "Natural hair styling shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only natural hair styling for a fee or other form of compensation; (22) "Natural hair stylist" means a person licensed to practice natural hair styling; (23) "Safety razor" means a razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge of the razor that is intended to: (A) Prevent the razor from cutting too deeply; and (B) Reduce the risk and incidence of accidental cuts; (24) "School" means a school of cosmetology; (25) "Shampooing" means any brushing, combing, shampooing, rinsing or conditioning upon the hair and scalp; (26) "Shop" means a cosmetology shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop; (27) "Skin care shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform exclusively aesthetics services for a fee or other form of compensation; and (28) "Student" means any person who is engaged in learning, performing or assisting in any of the practices of cosmetology under the immediate supervision of an instructor of cosmetology; however, for the purposes of this part, neither instructor trainees nor junior instructors shall be considered as students. (b) The practice of aesthetics or the practice of cosmetology does not include any treatment or attempt to treat any abnormality or disease-related condition of the skin, skin disease process or aging process of the skin. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 6, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 5, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 4, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 3, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 6, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 5, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 4, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 3, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 2, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 207, s 1, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 991, Secs.s 6, s 8eff. 7/1/2016. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 991, s 9, s 10 eff. 7/1/2016. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 983, s 3, eff. 4/27/2016. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 838, s 5, s 6 eff. 7/1/2016. Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 14, eff. 7/1/2015. Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 13, eff. 7/1/2015. Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 3; 1987, ch. 112, §§ 1, 2; 1988, ch. 902, §1; 1989, ch. 93, §§1-3; 1996, ch. 897, §§ 1, 2, 19; 2002, ch. 804, §1; 2007 , ch. 485, §§ 1, 2.
(a) As used in this part, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) "Aesthetics" means any of the following practices: (A) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work with hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (B) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; or (C) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing; (2) "Board" means the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners created by § 62-4-103 ; (3) "Cosmetology" means any of the following practices: (A) Arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cleansing, cutting, singeing, bleaching, coloring or similar work on the hair of any person by any means; (B) Caring and servicing of wigs and hair pieces; (C) Manicuring; (D) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work upon the hands, arms, face, neck or feet with hands or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (E) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; (F) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing; (G) Providing a necessary service that is preparatory or ancillary to a service pursuant to this subdivision (a)(3); (H) Treating a person's mustache or beard by arranging, beautifying, coloring, processing, styling, trimming, or shaving with a safety razor; (I) Shampooing; (J) Natural hair styling; or (K) Providing eyelash services; (4) "Cosmetology shop" means any place of business where any person engages or offers to engage in any practice of cosmetology for a fee or other form of compensation, but does not include a manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop; (5) "Designated manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, and who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity of the shop in the absence of the manager; (6) "Dual shop" means any shop licensed by the board where services are performed or offered to be performed in more than one (1) field of cosmetology, including aesthetics, natural hair styling, manicuring, and eyelash services, or in both cosmetology, or a field of cosmetology, and barbering. A dual shop does not include a shop licensed solely as a cosmetology shop or a single specialty thereof, or as a barber shop; (7) "Eyelash services" means applying and removing a semi-permanent, thread-like, natural or synthetic single fiber to an eyelash, including cleansing of the eye area and lashes prior to applying and after removing extensions; (8) "Eyelash services shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only eyelash services for a fee or other form of compensation; (9) "Hair braiding" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands, such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking, or braiding of the hair, by hand or mechanical appliances for compensation, without cutting, coloring, relaxing, removing, chemically treating, or using other preparations to straighten, curl, or alter the structure of the hair; (10) "Hair wrapping" means the wrapping of manufactured materials around a strand or strands of human hair for compensation, without cutting, coloring, permanent waving, relaxing, removing, weaving, chemically treating, braiding, using hair extensions or performing any other service otherwise covered by this part; (11) "Instructor trainee" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours to be completed within a period of six (6) months, which course includes practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor; (12) "Junior instructor" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a course of training in practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor for a period of time not to exceed three (3) years; (13) "Manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity in the shop, and whose information is filed with the board; (14) "Managing aesthetician" means a person licensed to practice aesthetics who is designated by the owner of a skin care shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (15) "Managing cosmetologist" means a licensed cosmetologist who is designated by the owner of a cosmetology shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (16) "Managing manicurist" means a person licensed to practice manicuring who is designated by the owner of a manicure shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees; (17) "Manicure shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform only manicuring services for a fee or other form of compensation; (18) "Manicuring" means manicuring or pedicuring the nails of any person or performing nail artistry; (19) "Mobile shop" means any self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed motor vehicle that may be used as a barber shop, cosmetology shop, dual shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, eyelash services shop, or other category of shop licensed by the board; (20) "Natural hair styling" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking or braiding of the hair by hand or mechanical appliances, which work does not include the application of dyes, reactive chemicals or other preparations to alter the color or to straighten, curl or alter the structure of the hair. The techniques include providing or offering to the general public for compensation any of the following services solely for development or improvement of physical qualities of the natural hair structure: (A) Intertwining in a systematic motion to create patterns in a three-dimensional form; (B) Inversion or outversion flat against the scalp along the part of a straight or curved row; or (C) Extension with natural or synthetic fibers; (21) "Natural hair styling shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only natural hair styling for a fee or other form of compensation; (22) "Natural hair stylist" means a person licensed to practice natural hair styling; (23) "Safety razor" means a razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge of the razor that is intended to: (A) Prevent the razor from cutting too deeply; and (B) Reduce the risk and incidence of accidental cuts; (24) "School" means a school of cosmetology; (25) "Shampooing" means any brushing, combing, shampooing, rinsing or conditioning upon the hair and scalp; (26) "Shop" means a cosmetology shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop; (27) "Skin care shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform exclusively aesthetics services for a fee or other form of compensation; and (28) "Student" means any person who is engaged in learning, performing or assisting in any of the practices of cosmetology under the immediate supervision of an instructor of cosmetology; however, for the purposes of this part, neither instructor trainees nor junior instructors shall be considered as students.
(1) "Aesthetics" means any of the following practices: (A) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work with hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (B) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; or (C) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing;
(A) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work with hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams;
(B) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; or
(C) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing;
(2) "Board" means the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners created by § 62-4-103 ;
(3) "Cosmetology" means any of the following practices: (A) Arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cleansing, cutting, singeing, bleaching, coloring or similar work on the hair of any person by any means; (B) Caring and servicing of wigs and hair pieces; (C) Manicuring; (D) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work upon the hands, arms, face, neck or feet with hands or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams; (E) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes; (F) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing; (G) Providing a necessary service that is preparatory or ancillary to a service pursuant to this subdivision (a)(3); (H) Treating a person's mustache or beard by arranging, beautifying, coloring, processing, styling, trimming, or shaving with a safety razor; (I) Shampooing; (J) Natural hair styling; or (K) Providing eyelash services;
(A) Arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cleansing, cutting, singeing, bleaching, coloring or similar work on the hair of any person by any means;
(B) Caring and servicing of wigs and hair pieces;
(C) Manicuring;
(D) Massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising, beautifying or similar work upon the hands, arms, face, neck or feet with hands or by the use of cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions or creams;
(E) Placing or applying artificial eyelashes;
(F) Giving facials, applying makeup, giving skin care or removing superfluous hair by tweezing, depilatories or waxing;
(G) Providing a necessary service that is preparatory or ancillary to a service pursuant to this subdivision (a)(3);
(H) Treating a person's mustache or beard by arranging, beautifying, coloring, processing, styling, trimming, or shaving with a safety razor;
(I) Shampooing;
(J) Natural hair styling; or
(K) Providing eyelash services;
(4) "Cosmetology shop" means any place of business where any person engages or offers to engage in any practice of cosmetology for a fee or other form of compensation, but does not include a manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop;
(5) "Designated manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, and who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity of the shop in the absence of the manager;
(6) "Dual shop" means any shop licensed by the board where services are performed or offered to be performed in more than one (1) field of cosmetology, including aesthetics, natural hair styling, manicuring, and eyelash services, or in both cosmetology, or a field of cosmetology, and barbering. A dual shop does not include a shop licensed solely as a cosmetology shop or a single specialty thereof, or as a barber shop;
(7) "Eyelash services" means applying and removing a semi-permanent, thread-like, natural or synthetic single fiber to an eyelash, including cleansing of the eye area and lashes prior to applying and after removing extensions;
(8) "Eyelash services shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only eyelash services for a fee or other form of compensation;
(9) "Hair braiding" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands, such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking, or braiding of the hair, by hand or mechanical appliances for compensation, without cutting, coloring, relaxing, removing, chemically treating, or using other preparations to straighten, curl, or alter the structure of the hair;
(10) "Hair wrapping" means the wrapping of manufactured materials around a strand or strands of human hair for compensation, without cutting, coloring, permanent waving, relaxing, removing, weaving, chemically treating, braiding, using hair extensions or performing any other service otherwise covered by this part;
(11) "Instructor trainee" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours to be completed within a period of six (6) months, which course includes practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor;
(12) "Junior instructor" means any person who holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board who is engaged in a course of training in practice teaching in a school under the personal supervision of a licensed instructor for a period of time not to exceed three (3) years;
(13) "Manager" means a person licensed under this part or chapter 3 of this title in at least one (1) discipline that a shop is licensed to offer, who serves in a supervisory or managerial capacity in the shop, and whose information is filed with the board;
(14) "Managing aesthetician" means a person licensed to practice aesthetics who is designated by the owner of a skin care shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees;
(15) "Managing cosmetologist" means a licensed cosmetologist who is designated by the owner of a cosmetology shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees;
(16) "Managing manicurist" means a person licensed to practice manicuring who is designated by the owner of a manicure shop to be responsible for supervising the operation of the shop and its employees;
(17) "Manicure shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform only manicuring services for a fee or other form of compensation;
(18) "Manicuring" means manicuring or pedicuring the nails of any person or performing nail artistry;
(19) "Mobile shop" means any self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed motor vehicle that may be used as a barber shop, cosmetology shop, dual shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, eyelash services shop, or other category of shop licensed by the board;
(20) "Natural hair styling" means techniques that result in tension on hair strands such as twisting, wrapping, weaving, extending, locking or braiding of the hair by hand or mechanical appliances, which work does not include the application of dyes, reactive chemicals or other preparations to alter the color or to straighten, curl or alter the structure of the hair. The techniques include providing or offering to the general public for compensation any of the following services solely for development or improvement of physical qualities of the natural hair structure: (A) Intertwining in a systematic motion to create patterns in a three-dimensional form; (B) Inversion or outversion flat against the scalp along the part of a straight or curved row; or (C) Extension with natural or synthetic fibers;
(A) Intertwining in a systematic motion to create patterns in a three-dimensional form;
(B) Inversion or outversion flat against the scalp along the part of a straight or curved row; or
(C) Extension with natural or synthetic fibers;
(21) "Natural hair styling shop" means a place of business where a person licensed pursuant to this part performs or offers to perform only natural hair styling for a fee or other form of compensation;
(22) "Natural hair stylist" means a person licensed to practice natural hair styling;
(23) "Safety razor" means a razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge of the razor that is intended to: (A) Prevent the razor from cutting too deeply; and (B) Reduce the risk and incidence of accidental cuts;
(A) Prevent the razor from cutting too deeply; and
(B) Reduce the risk and incidence of accidental cuts;
(24) "School" means a school of cosmetology;
(25) "Shampooing" means any brushing, combing, shampooing, rinsing or conditioning upon the hair and scalp;
(26) "Shop" means a cosmetology shop, manicure shop, skin care shop, natural hair styling shop, or eyelash services shop;
(27) "Skin care shop" means any place of business where any person performs or offers to perform exclusively aesthetics services for a fee or other form of compensation; and
(28) "Student" means any person who is engaged in learning, performing or assisting in any of the practices of cosmetology under the immediate supervision of an instructor of cosmetology; however, for the purposes of this part, neither instructor trainees nor junior instructors shall be considered as students.
(b) The practice of aesthetics or the practice of cosmetology does not include any treatment or attempt to treat any abnormality or disease-related condition of the skin, skin disease process or aging process of the skin.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 6, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 5, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 4, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 3, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 6, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 5, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 4, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 3, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 2, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 1, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 207, s 1, eff. 7/1/2019.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 991, Secs.s 6, s 8eff. 7/1/2016.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 991, s 9, s 10 eff. 7/1/2016.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 983, s 3, eff. 4/27/2016.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 838, s 5, s 6 eff. 7/1/2016.
Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 14, eff. 7/1/2015.
Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 13, eff. 7/1/2015.
Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 3; 1987, ch. 112, §§ 1, 2; 1988, ch. 902, §1; 1989, ch. 93, §§1-3; 1996, ch. 897, §§ 1, 2, 19; 2002, ch. 804, §1; 2007 , ch. 485, §§ 1, 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-6-102 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 6 / Section 62-6-102
Chapter definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: (1) "Board" means the state board for licensing contractors created pursuant to § 62-6-104 ; (2) "Commercial building contractors" are those contractors authorized to bid on and contract for every phase of the construction, direction, alteration, repair or demolition of any building or structure for use and occupancy by the general public; (3) "Contracting" means any person or entity that performs or causes to be performed any of the activities defined in subdivision (4)(A) or (7); (4) (A) (i) "Contractor" means any person or entity that undertakes to, attempts to or submits a price or bid or offers to construct, supervise, superintend, oversee, schedule, direct or in any manner assume charge of the construction, alteration, repair, improvement, movement, demolition, putting up, tearing down or furnishing labor to install material or equipment for any building, highway, road, railroad, sewer, grading, excavation, pipeline, public utility structure, project development, housing, housing development, improvement or any other construction undertaking for which the total cost is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; provided, however, with respect to a licensed masonry contractor, such term means and includes the masonry portion of the construction project, the total cost of which exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor; (ii) "Contractor" includes, but is not limited to, a prime contractor, electrical contractor, electrical subcontractor, mechanical contractor, mechanical subcontractor, plumbing contractor and plumbing subcontractor, masonry contractor, and roofing subcontractor where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; (iii) If the cost of a project exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000), "contractor" also includes a construction manager of any kind, including, but not limited to, a residential construction manager, construction consultant, architect or engineer who conducts or provides any activity or service described in this subdivision (4) other than normal architectural and engineering services; (B) As used in subdivision (4)(A)(iii), "normal architectural and engineering services" means: (i) The preparation of bids, proposals, plans, specifications or other contract documents or the evaluation of contractors, subcontractors or suppliers; (ii) The approval of shop drawings, submittals, substitutions, pay requests or other certifications required by contract documents; (iii) Conducting representative reviews for progress and quality of construction on behalf of the owner; (iv) Interpretations and clarifications of contract documents; (v) Preparation and approval of changes in construction; and (vi) Preparation of as-built drawings and operation and maintenance manuals; (C) "Contractor" does not include an engineer licensed in accordance with chapter 2 of this title who is: (i) Managing and supervising the removal, remediation or clean up of pollutants or wastes from the environment; (ii) Serving as a corrective action contractor, as defined by the rules and regulations of the department of environment and conservation; (iii) Conducting subsurface investigation or testing, or both, by drilling or boring to determine subsurface conditions; (iv) Conducting geophysical or chemical testing of soil, rock, ground water or residues; or (v) Installing of monitoring detection wells or piezometers for evaluating soil or ground water characteristics; (D) "Contractor" does not include: (i) Any undertaking, as described in former subdivision (3)(D)(i) [repealed] for the department of transportation; or (ii) Subcontractors other than electrical subcontractors, licensed masonry contractors, and roofing subcontractors where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more, mechanical subcontractors and plumbing subcontractors defined as a contractor pursuant to subdivision (4)(A); (E) "Contractor" does not include a person who erects or installs an on-premises device, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; digital display, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; or other improvement to a property or structure that is primarily intended to serve as advertising, and for which compensation is not being received and not intended to be received by the owner or occupant of the property or structure; (F) No contractor shall be authorized to perform contracting work as a licensed masonry contractor unless the contractor is licensed as a masonry contractor in accordance with this part; (5) "Licensed masonry contractor" means a contractor who builds structures from individual units of brick, stone, or concrete and glass block laid in and bound together by mortar, where the total cost of the masonry portion of the construction project exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor, and who is required to obtain a license as a licensed masonry contractor by the board; (6) "Limited licensed electrician" means any person or entity that performs any electrical work that has a total cost of less than twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) and that is required to be registered under § 68-102-150 ; (7) "Prime contractor" is one who contracts directly with the owner; (8) "Residential contractor" means one whose services are limited to construction, remodelling, repair or improvement of one (1), two (2), three (3) or four (4) family unit residences not exceeding three (3) stories in height and accessory use structures in connection with the residences; and (9) "Roofing work" means the act of removing, installing, repairing or otherwise maintaining any covering to any at- or above-grade structure for the purpose of providing weather proof protection or ornamental enhancement to such structure. Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 198, s 1, eff. 4/22/2021. Amended by 2013 Tenn. Acts, ch. 355, s 1, eff. 1/1/2014. Acts 1976, ch. 822, § 2; 1977, ch. 101, § 1; 1977, ch. 406, § 1; 1980, ch. 652, § 3; 1981, ch. 399, § 1; T.C.A., § 62-602; Acts 1982, ch. 737, § 1; 1985, ch. 245, § 1; 1988, ch. 589, § 1; 1989, ch. 336, § 1; 1991, ch. 173, §§ 1-3; 1991, ch. 217, § 1; 1992, ch. 1020, §§ 1-18; 1993, ch. 147, § 1; 1994, ch. 986, § 1; 1998, ch. 645, § 1; 1998, ch. 764, § 1; 1999, ch. 238, §§ 1, 2; 1999, ch. 245, § 1; 2000, ch. 625, § 1; 2002, ch. 772, § 1; 2003 , ch. 409, §§ 1, 2; 2006, ch. 577, § 1; 2009 , ch. 482, § 2; 2010 , ch. 950, §§ 1-5.
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Board" means the state board for licensing contractors created pursuant to § 62-6-104 ;
(2) "Commercial building contractors" are those contractors authorized to bid on and contract for every phase of the construction, direction, alteration, repair or demolition of any building or structure for use and occupancy by the general public;
(3) "Contracting" means any person or entity that performs or causes to be performed any of the activities defined in subdivision (4)(A) or (7);
(4) (A) (i) "Contractor" means any person or entity that undertakes to, attempts to or submits a price or bid or offers to construct, supervise, superintend, oversee, schedule, direct or in any manner assume charge of the construction, alteration, repair, improvement, movement, demolition, putting up, tearing down or furnishing labor to install material or equipment for any building, highway, road, railroad, sewer, grading, excavation, pipeline, public utility structure, project development, housing, housing development, improvement or any other construction undertaking for which the total cost is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; provided, however, with respect to a licensed masonry contractor, such term means and includes the masonry portion of the construction project, the total cost of which exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor; (ii) "Contractor" includes, but is not limited to, a prime contractor, electrical contractor, electrical subcontractor, mechanical contractor, mechanical subcontractor, plumbing contractor and plumbing subcontractor, masonry contractor, and roofing subcontractor where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; (iii) If the cost of a project exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000), "contractor" also includes a construction manager of any kind, including, but not limited to, a residential construction manager, construction consultant, architect or engineer who conducts or provides any activity or service described in this subdivision (4) other than normal architectural and engineering services; (B) As used in subdivision (4)(A)(iii), "normal architectural and engineering services" means: (i) The preparation of bids, proposals, plans, specifications or other contract documents or the evaluation of contractors, subcontractors or suppliers; (ii) The approval of shop drawings, submittals, substitutions, pay requests or other certifications required by contract documents; (iii) Conducting representative reviews for progress and quality of construction on behalf of the owner; (iv) Interpretations and clarifications of contract documents; (v) Preparation and approval of changes in construction; and (vi) Preparation of as-built drawings and operation and maintenance manuals; (C) "Contractor" does not include an engineer licensed in accordance with chapter 2 of this title who is: (i) Managing and supervising the removal, remediation or clean up of pollutants or wastes from the environment; (ii) Serving as a corrective action contractor, as defined by the rules and regulations of the department of environment and conservation; (iii) Conducting subsurface investigation or testing, or both, by drilling or boring to determine subsurface conditions; (iv) Conducting geophysical or chemical testing of soil, rock, ground water or residues; or (v) Installing of monitoring detection wells or piezometers for evaluating soil or ground water characteristics; (D) "Contractor" does not include: (i) Any undertaking, as described in former subdivision (3)(D)(i) [repealed] for the department of transportation; or (ii) Subcontractors other than electrical subcontractors, licensed masonry contractors, and roofing subcontractors where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more, mechanical subcontractors and plumbing subcontractors defined as a contractor pursuant to subdivision (4)(A); (E) "Contractor" does not include a person who erects or installs an on-premises device, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; digital display, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; or other improvement to a property or structure that is primarily intended to serve as advertising, and for which compensation is not being received and not intended to be received by the owner or occupant of the property or structure; (F) No contractor shall be authorized to perform contracting work as a licensed masonry contractor unless the contractor is licensed as a masonry contractor in accordance with this part;
(A) (i) "Contractor" means any person or entity that undertakes to, attempts to or submits a price or bid or offers to construct, supervise, superintend, oversee, schedule, direct or in any manner assume charge of the construction, alteration, repair, improvement, movement, demolition, putting up, tearing down or furnishing labor to install material or equipment for any building, highway, road, railroad, sewer, grading, excavation, pipeline, public utility structure, project development, housing, housing development, improvement or any other construction undertaking for which the total cost is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; provided, however, with respect to a licensed masonry contractor, such term means and includes the masonry portion of the construction project, the total cost of which exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor; (ii) "Contractor" includes, but is not limited to, a prime contractor, electrical contractor, electrical subcontractor, mechanical contractor, mechanical subcontractor, plumbing contractor and plumbing subcontractor, masonry contractor, and roofing subcontractor where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; (iii) If the cost of a project exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000), "contractor" also includes a construction manager of any kind, including, but not limited to, a residential construction manager, construction consultant, architect or engineer who conducts or provides any activity or service described in this subdivision (4) other than normal architectural and engineering services;
(i) "Contractor" means any person or entity that undertakes to, attempts to or submits a price or bid or offers to construct, supervise, superintend, oversee, schedule, direct or in any manner assume charge of the construction, alteration, repair, improvement, movement, demolition, putting up, tearing down or furnishing labor to install material or equipment for any building, highway, road, railroad, sewer, grading, excavation, pipeline, public utility structure, project development, housing, housing development, improvement or any other construction undertaking for which the total cost is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more; provided, however, with respect to a licensed masonry contractor, such term means and includes the masonry portion of the construction project, the total cost of which exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor;
(ii) "Contractor" includes, but is not limited to, a prime contractor, electrical contractor, electrical subcontractor, mechanical contractor, mechanical subcontractor, plumbing contractor and plumbing subcontractor, masonry contractor, and roofing subcontractor where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more;
(iii) If the cost of a project exceeds twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000), "contractor" also includes a construction manager of any kind, including, but not limited to, a residential construction manager, construction consultant, architect or engineer who conducts or provides any activity or service described in this subdivision (4) other than normal architectural and engineering services;
(B) As used in subdivision (4)(A)(iii), "normal architectural and engineering services" means: (i) The preparation of bids, proposals, plans, specifications or other contract documents or the evaluation of contractors, subcontractors or suppliers; (ii) The approval of shop drawings, submittals, substitutions, pay requests or other certifications required by contract documents; (iii) Conducting representative reviews for progress and quality of construction on behalf of the owner; (iv) Interpretations and clarifications of contract documents; (v) Preparation and approval of changes in construction; and (vi) Preparation of as-built drawings and operation and maintenance manuals;
(i) The preparation of bids, proposals, plans, specifications or other contract documents or the evaluation of contractors, subcontractors or suppliers;
(ii) The approval of shop drawings, submittals, substitutions, pay requests or other certifications required by contract documents;
(iii) Conducting representative reviews for progress and quality of construction on behalf of the owner;
(iv) Interpretations and clarifications of contract documents;
(v) Preparation and approval of changes in construction; and
(vi) Preparation of as-built drawings and operation and maintenance manuals;
(C) "Contractor" does not include an engineer licensed in accordance with chapter 2 of this title who is: (i) Managing and supervising the removal, remediation or clean up of pollutants or wastes from the environment; (ii) Serving as a corrective action contractor, as defined by the rules and regulations of the department of environment and conservation; (iii) Conducting subsurface investigation or testing, or both, by drilling or boring to determine subsurface conditions; (iv) Conducting geophysical or chemical testing of soil, rock, ground water or residues; or (v) Installing of monitoring detection wells or piezometers for evaluating soil or ground water characteristics;
(i) Managing and supervising the removal, remediation or clean up of pollutants or wastes from the environment;
(ii) Serving as a corrective action contractor, as defined by the rules and regulations of the department of environment and conservation;
(iii) Conducting subsurface investigation or testing, or both, by drilling or boring to determine subsurface conditions;
(iv) Conducting geophysical or chemical testing of soil, rock, ground water or residues; or
(v) Installing of monitoring detection wells or piezometers for evaluating soil or ground water characteristics;
(D) "Contractor" does not include: (i) Any undertaking, as described in former subdivision (3)(D)(i) [repealed] for the department of transportation; or (ii) Subcontractors other than electrical subcontractors, licensed masonry contractors, and roofing subcontractors where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more, mechanical subcontractors and plumbing subcontractors defined as a contractor pursuant to subdivision (4)(A);
(i) Any undertaking, as described in former subdivision (3)(D)(i) [repealed] for the department of transportation; or
(ii) Subcontractors other than electrical subcontractors, licensed masonry contractors, and roofing subcontractors where the total cost of the roofing portion of the construction project is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or more, mechanical subcontractors and plumbing subcontractors defined as a contractor pursuant to subdivision (4)(A);
(E) "Contractor" does not include a person who erects or installs an on-premises device, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; digital display, as defined in § 54-21-102 ; or other improvement to a property or structure that is primarily intended to serve as advertising, and for which compensation is not being received and not intended to be received by the owner or occupant of the property or structure;
(F) No contractor shall be authorized to perform contracting work as a licensed masonry contractor unless the contractor is licensed as a masonry contractor in accordance with this part;
(5) "Licensed masonry contractor" means a contractor who builds structures from individual units of brick, stone, or concrete and glass block laid in and bound together by mortar, where the total cost of the masonry portion of the construction project exceeds one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), materials and labor, and who is required to obtain a license as a licensed masonry contractor by the board;
(6) "Limited licensed electrician" means any person or entity that performs any electrical work that has a total cost of less than twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) and that is required to be registered under § 68-102-150 ;
(7) "Prime contractor" is one who contracts directly with the owner;
(8) "Residential contractor" means one whose services are limited to construction, remodelling, repair or improvement of one (1), two (2), three (3) or four (4) family unit residences not exceeding three (3) stories in height and accessory use structures in connection with the residences; and
(9) "Roofing work" means the act of removing, installing, repairing or otherwise maintaining any covering to any at- or above-grade structure for the purpose of providing weather proof protection or ornamental enhancement to such structure.
Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 198, s 1, eff. 4/22/2021.
Amended by 2013 Tenn. Acts, ch. 355, s 1, eff. 1/1/2014.
Acts 1976, ch. 822, § 2; 1977, ch. 101, § 1; 1977, ch. 406, § 1; 1980, ch. 652, § 3; 1981, ch. 399, § 1; T.C.A., § 62-602; Acts 1982, ch. 737, § 1; 1985, ch. 245, § 1; 1988, ch. 589, § 1; 1989, ch. 336, § 1; 1991, ch. 173, §§ 1-3; 1991, ch. 217, § 1; 1992, ch. 1020, §§ 1-18; 1993, ch. 147, § 1; 1994, ch. 986, § 1; 1998, ch. 645, § 1; 1998, ch. 764, § 1; 1999, ch. 238, §§ 1, 2; 1999, ch. 245, § 1; 2000, ch. 625, § 1; 2002, ch. 772, § 1; 2003 , ch. 409, §§ 1, 2; 2006, ch. 577, § 1; 2009 , ch. 482, § 2; 2010 , ch. 950, §§ 1-5.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-27-111 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 27 / Section 62-27-111
Internship
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Upon approval by the commissioner, an internship permit shall be issued to an intern applicant who has completed a recognized polygraph school; provided, that the intern applicant applies for the license and pays the required fee. (2) The application shall contain information that may be required by the commissioner. (b) An internship permit shall be valid for the term of twelve (12) months from the date of issue. The permit may be extended or renewed for any term not to exceed six (6) months upon good cause shown to the commissioner. The intern may apply for an examiner's license after completion of six (6) months from the date of issue of the internship; provided, however, that all other requirements of this chapter are met. (c) An intern shall not be entitled to hold an internship permit after the expiration date of the original twelve (12) month period and six (6) month extension if an extension is granted by the commissioner until twelve (12) months after the date of expiration of the last internship license held by the intern. (d) All intern applicants are required to take and pass an intern examination as prescribed by the commissioner prior to commencement of the internship unless the applicant has completed a polygraph school or held a polygraph examiner license in this state in the immediate preceding twenty-four month period. (e) No intern may administer an actual polygraph examination without an intern permit. (f) All internship programs shall be subject to inspection and review by the commissioner at the times and in the manner that it prescribes. The commissioner may require that interns administer certain numbers and types of polygraph examinations during their period of internship. (g) (1) In order to be eligible to serve as a sponsor for an intern polygraph examiner, a person must have held a valid Tennessee polygraph examiner's license for at least the immediately preceding two (2) years. (2) No licensed polygraph examiner may sponsor more than two (2) interns at any one time. Each sponsor shall submit to the commissioner on the prescribed forms progress reports on the sponsor's intern or interns every sixty (60) days. Acts 1978, ch. 900, § 13; T.C.A., § 62-2712; Acts 1982, ch. 720, §§ 14-16; 1999, ch. 252, §§4 - 6; 2003 , ch. 206, §§ 6-9.
(a) (1) Upon approval by the commissioner, an internship permit shall be issued to an intern applicant who has completed a recognized polygraph school; provided, that the intern applicant applies for the license and pays the required fee. (2) The application shall contain information that may be required by the commissioner.
(1) Upon approval by the commissioner, an internship permit shall be issued to an intern applicant who has completed a recognized polygraph school; provided, that the intern applicant applies for the license and pays the required fee.
(2) The application shall contain information that may be required by the commissioner.
(b) An internship permit shall be valid for the term of twelve (12) months from the date of issue. The permit may be extended or renewed for any term not to exceed six (6) months upon good cause shown to the commissioner. The intern may apply for an examiner's license after completion of six (6) months from the date of issue of the internship; provided, however, that all other requirements of this chapter are met.
(c) An intern shall not be entitled to hold an internship permit after the expiration date of the original twelve (12) month period and six (6) month extension if an extension is granted by the commissioner until twelve (12) months after the date of expiration of the last internship license held by the intern.
(d) All intern applicants are required to take and pass an intern examination as prescribed by the commissioner prior to commencement of the internship unless the applicant has completed a polygraph school or held a polygraph examiner license in this state in the immediate preceding twenty-four month period.
(e) No intern may administer an actual polygraph examination without an intern permit.
(f) All internship programs shall be subject to inspection and review by the commissioner at the times and in the manner that it prescribes. The commissioner may require that interns administer certain numbers and types of polygraph examinations during their period of internship.
(g) (1) In order to be eligible to serve as a sponsor for an intern polygraph examiner, a person must have held a valid Tennessee polygraph examiner's license for at least the immediately preceding two (2) years. (2) No licensed polygraph examiner may sponsor more than two (2) interns at any one time. Each sponsor shall submit to the commissioner on the prescribed forms progress reports on the sponsor's intern or interns every sixty (60) days.
(1) In order to be eligible to serve as a sponsor for an intern polygraph examiner, a person must have held a valid Tennessee polygraph examiner's license for at least the immediately preceding two (2) years.
(2) No licensed polygraph examiner may sponsor more than two (2) interns at any one time. Each sponsor shall submit to the commissioner on the prescribed forms progress reports on the sponsor's intern or interns every sixty (60) days.
Acts 1978, ch. 900, § 13; T.C.A., § 62-2712; Acts 1982, ch. 720, §§ 14-16; 1999, ch. 252, §§4 - 6; 2003 , ch. 206, §§ 6-9.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-3-101 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 3 / Section 62-3-101
Practice of barbering governed by board of cosmetology and barber examiners - Inspection - On-line training
Status: in_force

(a) The practice of barbering shall be governed by the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners, created by § 62-4-103 and this chapter. (b) Inspections of barber shops shall be performed by inspectors provided and supervised by the director of the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners. Annual inspections of barber schools and colleges may be performed by the inspectors or members of the board. (c) The state board of cosmetology and barber examiners has full rights and access to any approved online training required by this chapter and is responsible for making available online all training required by this chapter. Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, s 8, eff. 4/13/2021. Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 964,s 7, eff. 7/1/2014. Acts 1929, ch. 118, § 18; mod. Code 1932, § 7134; Acts 1963, ch. 335, §1; 1967, ch. 118, § 1; 1979, ch. 379, § 1; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-301; Acts 1986, ch. 921, § 1; 1988, ch. 1013, § 27; 2001, ch. 99, §1; 2010 , ch. 934, § 1.
(a) The practice of barbering shall be governed by the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners, created by § 62-4-103 and this chapter.
(b) Inspections of barber shops shall be performed by inspectors provided and supervised by the director of the state board of cosmetology and barber examiners. Annual inspections of barber schools and colleges may be performed by the inspectors or members of the board.
(c) The state board of cosmetology and barber examiners has full rights and access to any approved online training required by this chapter and is responsible for making available online all training required by this chapter.
Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, s 8, eff. 4/13/2021.
Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 964,s 7, eff. 7/1/2014.
Acts 1929, ch. 118, § 18; mod. Code 1932, § 7134; Acts 1963, ch. 335, §1; 1967, ch. 118, § 1; 1979, ch. 379, § 1; T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-301; Acts 1986, ch. 921, § 1; 1988, ch. 1013, § 27; 2001, ch. 99, §1; 2010 , ch. 934, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-27-108 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 27 / Section 62-27-108
License applications
Status: in_force

(a) An application for original license shall be made to the commissioner in writing under oath on forms prescribed by the commissioner and shall be accompanied by the required fee, which is not refundable. (b) The application shall contain information that the commissioner deems necessary to enable it to judge the qualifications of the applicant. (c) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 76, part 1 of this title. Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745, s 15, eff. 7/1/2018. Acts 1978, ch. 900, § 10; T.C.A., § 62-2709; Acts 1982, ch. 720, §11; 1999, ch. 252, § 4.
(a) An application for original license shall be made to the commissioner in writing under oath on forms prescribed by the commissioner and shall be accompanied by the required fee, which is not refundable.
(b) The application shall contain information that the commissioner deems necessary to enable it to judge the qualifications of the applicant.
(c) An action taken under this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Fresh Start Act that are compiled in chapter 76, part 1 of this title.
Amended by 2018 Tenn. Acts, ch. 745, s 15, eff. 7/1/2018.
Acts 1978, ch. 900, § 10; T.C.A., § 62-2709; Acts 1982, ch. 720, §11; 1999, ch. 252, § 4.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-32-207 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 32 / Section 62-32-207
Prohibited practices
Status: in_force

No person may: (1) Engage in the business of servicing portable fire extinguishers without a current certificate of registration; (2) Engage in the business of installing or servicing fixed fire extinguisher systems without a current certificate of registration; (3) Service portable fire extinguishers or service or install fixed fire extinguisher systems without a current license; (4) Perform hydrostatic testing of portable fire extinguishers without a valid authorization to do such work; (5) Obtain or attempt to obtain a certificate of registration or license by fraudulent representation; (6) Service portable fire extinguishers or service or install fixed fire extinguisher systems contrary to this part or the rules and regulations formulated and administered under the authority of this part; (7) Service or perform hydrostatic testing of a fire extinguisher that does not have a label of approval of a testing laboratory approved by the department; (8) Sell, service or recharge a carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher; or (9) Sell, rent or lease a portable fire extinguisher that has not been approved as provided by § 62-32-205(a) . Acts 1986, ch. 721, § 8.
No person may:
(1) Engage in the business of servicing portable fire extinguishers without a current certificate of registration;
(2) Engage in the business of installing or servicing fixed fire extinguisher systems without a current certificate of registration;
(3) Service portable fire extinguishers or service or install fixed fire extinguisher systems without a current license;
(4) Perform hydrostatic testing of portable fire extinguishers without a valid authorization to do such work;
(5) Obtain or attempt to obtain a certificate of registration or license by fraudulent representation;
(6) Service portable fire extinguishers or service or install fixed fire extinguisher systems contrary to this part or the rules and regulations formulated and administered under the authority of this part;
(7) Service or perform hydrostatic testing of a fire extinguisher that does not have a label of approval of a testing laboratory approved by the department;
(8) Sell, service or recharge a carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher; or
(9) Sell, rent or lease a portable fire extinguisher that has not been approved as provided by § 62-32-205(a) .
Acts 1986, ch. 721, § 8.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-5-605 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 5 / Section 62-5-605
Application for approval - Reports
Status: in_force

(a) Any organization or individual wishing to hold seminars with employees or other licensees shall: (1) Submit to the board no less than sixty (60) days from the planned event an application supplied by the board outlining the event, speaker and course description; provided, that for good cause, an amendment to the application may be submitted to the board no less than thirty (30) days from the planned event; and (2) Upon completion of an application, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the course a minimum of thirty (30) days before the courses are offered, or upon completion of an amendment, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the amendment a minimum of ten (10) days before the courses are offered; and (3) Following a seminar, submit paperwork within thirty (30) days with the following information: (A) Name of person attending; (B) License number; (C) Date of attendance; and (D) Hours completed. (b) The board may waive the requirements of subsection (a) and approve continuing education courses for good cause shown. Acts 1997, ch. 275, § 6; 2001, ch. 187, § 1.
(a) Any organization or individual wishing to hold seminars with employees or other licensees shall: (1) Submit to the board no less than sixty (60) days from the planned event an application supplied by the board outlining the event, speaker and course description; provided, that for good cause, an amendment to the application may be submitted to the board no less than thirty (30) days from the planned event; and (2) Upon completion of an application, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the course a minimum of thirty (30) days before the courses are offered, or upon completion of an amendment, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the amendment a minimum of ten (10) days before the courses are offered; and (3) Following a seminar, submit paperwork within thirty (30) days with the following information: (A) Name of person attending; (B) License number; (C) Date of attendance; and (D) Hours completed.
(1) Submit to the board no less than sixty (60) days from the planned event an application supplied by the board outlining the event, speaker and course description; provided, that for good cause, an amendment to the application may be submitted to the board no less than thirty (30) days from the planned event; and
(2) Upon completion of an application, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the course a minimum of thirty (30) days before the courses are offered, or upon completion of an amendment, be notified of the approval or disapproval of the amendment a minimum of ten (10) days before the courses are offered; and
(3) Following a seminar, submit paperwork within thirty (30) days with the following information: (A) Name of person attending; (B) License number; (C) Date of attendance; and (D) Hours completed.
(A) Name of person attending;
(B) License number;
(C) Date of attendance; and
(D) Hours completed.
(b) The board may waive the requirements of subsection (a) and approve continuing education courses for good cause shown.
Acts 1997, ch. 275, § 6; 2001, ch. 187, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-38-304 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 38 / Section 62-38-304
Inspections
Status: in_force

The commissioner shall conduct at least one (1) inspection of a business prior to issuing a permit under this part for a business to offer and perform body piercing services. The commissioner may conduct additional inspections as necessary for the approval process relative to each business. The commissioner may inspect an approved business at any time the commissioner deems necessary. In an inspection, the commissioner shall be given access to the premises of the business and to all records deemed relevant by the commissioner for the inspection. Acts 2001, ch. 336, § 5.
The commissioner shall conduct at least one (1) inspection of a business prior to issuing a permit under this part for a business to offer and perform body piercing services. The commissioner may conduct additional inspections as necessary for the approval process relative to each business. The commissioner may inspect an approved business at any time the commissioner deems necessary. In an inspection, the commissioner shall be given access to the premises of the business and to all records deemed relevant by the commissioner for the inspection.
Acts 2001, ch. 336, § 5.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-38-311 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 38 / Section 62-38-311
Sell to minors prohibited - Penalty
Status: in_force

(a) It is an offense to sell or distribute body piercing paraphernalia to a minor or to purchase body piercing paraphernalia on behalf of a minor. (b) A minor shall not purchase or accept receipt of body piercing paraphernalia, or present or offer to a person any purported proof of age that is false, fraudulent, or not actually that person's own for the purpose of purchasing or receiving body piercing paraphernalia. (c) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor. (d) A violation of subsection (b) is a delinquent act, punishable only by a fine not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00). (e) Each violation of subsection (a) or (b) is a separate offense. (f) This section does not preclude law enforcement efforts involving the use of a minor if the minor's parent or legal guardian has consented to this action. (g) A minor who is cooperating with law enforcement officers in an operation designed to test the compliance of other persons with this section is not subject to sanctions under subsection (d). (h) A person engaged in the sale or distribution of body piercing paraphernalia shall demand proof of age from a prospective purchaser or recipient if an ordinary person would conclude on the basis of appearance that the prospective purchaser or recipient may be under thirty (30) years of age. In the case of distribution by mail, the distributor of the body piercing paraphernalia shall obtain from the addressee as proof of age an affirmative statement that the person is eighteen (18) years of age or older, and shall inform the recipient that the person is strictly prohibited from distributing body piercing paraphernalia to a person under eighteen (18) years of age. Added by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 90, s 3, eff. 7/1/2023.
(a) It is an offense to sell or distribute body piercing paraphernalia to a minor or to purchase body piercing paraphernalia on behalf of a minor.
(b) A minor shall not purchase or accept receipt of body piercing paraphernalia, or present or offer to a person any purported proof of age that is false, fraudulent, or not actually that person's own for the purpose of purchasing or receiving body piercing paraphernalia.
(c) A violation of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.
(d) A violation of subsection (b) is a delinquent act, punishable only by a fine not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00).
(e) Each violation of subsection (a) or (b) is a separate offense.
(f) This section does not preclude law enforcement efforts involving the use of a minor if the minor's parent or legal guardian has consented to this action.
(g) A minor who is cooperating with law enforcement officers in an operation designed to test the compliance of other persons with this section is not subject to sanctions under subsection (d).
(h) A person engaged in the sale or distribution of body piercing paraphernalia shall demand proof of age from a prospective purchaser or recipient if an ordinary person would conclude on the basis of appearance that the prospective purchaser or recipient may be under thirty (30) years of age. In the case of distribution by mail, the distributor of the body piercing paraphernalia shall obtain from the addressee as proof of age an affirmative statement that the person is eighteen (18) years of age or older, and shall inform the recipient that the person is strictly prohibited from distributing body piercing paraphernalia to a person under eighteen (18) years of age.
Added by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 90, s 3, eff. 7/1/2023.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-22-101 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 22 / Section 62-22-101
Record keeping - Penalties
Status: in_force

(a) Every person, firm or corporation in the business of purchasing and selling antiques shall maintain a permanent ledger in which each item purchased exceeding the value of fifty dollars ($50.00) in the course of business shall be listed. (b) Each antique dealer shall, at the time of making any purchase, enter upon the book a clear and accurate description of each item purchased exceeding the value of fifty dollars ($50.00), the date of purchase, the amount paid for the item, the name and residence address of the seller and, if the article bears a serial number, the serial number. (c) The book shall be carefully preserved without alteration and shall at all times be open to the inspection of the sheriff of the county and the chief of police or any police officer of the city or county. (d) Every person, firm or corporation, or their agents or employees, who violates this chapter commits a Class C misdemeanor. Acts 1972, ch. 562, § 1; T.C.A., § 62-2201; Acts 1989, ch. 591, § 113.
(a) Every person, firm or corporation in the business of purchasing and selling antiques shall maintain a permanent ledger in which each item purchased exceeding the value of fifty dollars ($50.00) in the course of business shall be listed.
(b) Each antique dealer shall, at the time of making any purchase, enter upon the book a clear and accurate description of each item purchased exceeding the value of fifty dollars ($50.00), the date of purchase, the amount paid for the item, the name and residence address of the seller and, if the article bears a serial number, the serial number.
(c) The book shall be carefully preserved without alteration and shall at all times be open to the inspection of the sheriff of the county and the chief of police or any police officer of the city or county.
(d) Every person, firm or corporation, or their agents or employees, who violates this chapter commits a Class C misdemeanor.
Acts 1972, ch. 562, § 1; T.C.A., § 62-2201; Acts 1989, ch. 591, § 113.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-5-202 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 5 / Section 62-5-202
Oath of members
Status: in_force

Members of the board, before entering upon their duties, shall take and subscribe to the oath of office provided for state officers. Acts 1951, ch. 13, § 4 (Williams, § 7140.4); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-503.
Members of the board, before entering upon their duties, shall take and subscribe to the oath of office provided for state officers.
Acts 1951, ch. 13, § 4 (Williams, § 7140.4); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-503.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-19-106 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 19 / Section 62-19-106
Organization of commission - Rules - Seal - Records
Status: in_force

(a) Immediately upon their qualification, the commission shall meet and organize by selecting from among its members a chair and other officers considered necessary and may do all things necessary and convenient for carrying into effect this chapter. (b) The commission has the power to make bylaws, rules and regulations that it considers necessary that are not inconsistent with this chapter or other general laws of the state. (c) The commission shall adopt a seal for its use, which shall bear the words "Tennessee Auctioneer Commission," and the administrative director of the commission shall have care and custody of the seal. (d) Copies of all records and papers in the office of the commission shall be received in evidence in all courts and with like effect as the originals. (e) (1) The commission has the authority to establish continuing education requirements and standards for individual licensees. This subsection (e) shall apply only to those licensees who received their licenses after January 1, 1985. (2) An auctioneer shall be exempt from continuing education requirements if: (A) The auctioneer has reached sixty (60) years of age and has been licensed as an auctioneer for ten (10) years or longer; (B) The auctioneer has been licensed pursuant to this chapter since July 1, 1999; or (C) The auctioneer holds only a bid caller license. (3) No affiliate auctioneer is exempt from continuing education requirements. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 471, s 9, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 471, s 8, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 726, s 1, eff. 4/7/2016. Acts 1967, ch. 335, § 6; T.C.A., §62-1906; Acts 1997 , ch. 91, § 3; 1999, ch. 358, §§ 1, 2.
(a) Immediately upon their qualification, the commission shall meet and organize by selecting from among its members a chair and other officers considered necessary and may do all things necessary and convenient for carrying into effect this chapter.
(b) The commission has the power to make bylaws, rules and regulations that it considers necessary that are not inconsistent with this chapter or other general laws of the state.
(c) The commission shall adopt a seal for its use, which shall bear the words "Tennessee Auctioneer Commission," and the administrative director of the commission shall have care and custody of the seal.
(d) Copies of all records and papers in the office of the commission shall be received in evidence in all courts and with like effect as the originals.
(e) (1) The commission has the authority to establish continuing education requirements and standards for individual licensees. This subsection (e) shall apply only to those licensees who received their licenses after January 1, 1985. (2) An auctioneer shall be exempt from continuing education requirements if: (A) The auctioneer has reached sixty (60) years of age and has been licensed as an auctioneer for ten (10) years or longer; (B) The auctioneer has been licensed pursuant to this chapter since July 1, 1999; or (C) The auctioneer holds only a bid caller license. (3) No affiliate auctioneer is exempt from continuing education requirements.
(1) The commission has the authority to establish continuing education requirements and standards for individual licensees. This subsection (e) shall apply only to those licensees who received their licenses after January 1, 1985.
(2) An auctioneer shall be exempt from continuing education requirements if: (A) The auctioneer has reached sixty (60) years of age and has been licensed as an auctioneer for ten (10) years or longer; (B) The auctioneer has been licensed pursuant to this chapter since July 1, 1999; or (C) The auctioneer holds only a bid caller license.
(A) The auctioneer has reached sixty (60) years of age and has been licensed as an auctioneer for ten (10) years or longer;
(B) The auctioneer has been licensed pursuant to this chapter since July 1, 1999; or
(C) The auctioneer holds only a bid caller license.
(3) No affiliate auctioneer is exempt from continuing education requirements.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 471, s 9, eff. 7/1/2019.
Amended by 2019 Tenn. Acts, ch. 471, s 8, eff. 7/1/2019.
Amended by 2016 Tenn. Acts, ch. 726, s 1, eff. 4/7/2016.
Acts 1967, ch. 335, § 6; T.C.A., §62-1906; Acts 1997 , ch. 91, § 3; 1999, ch. 358, §§ 1, 2.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-10-107 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 10 / Section 62-10-107
Ticket or card with laundry delivered
Status: in_force

No commercial laundry shall deliver any laundry unless there is delivered with the laundry a ticket or card showing the name of the laundry plant at which the laundering was done. Acts 1937, ch. 94, § 3; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.43 (Williams, § 7182.45); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-1007.
No commercial laundry shall deliver any laundry unless there is delivered with the laundry a ticket or card showing the name of the laundry plant at which the laundering was done.
Acts 1937, ch. 94, § 3; C. Supp. 1950, § 7182.43 (Williams, § 7182.45); T.C.A. (orig. ed.), § 62-1007.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-1-123 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 1 / Section 62-1-123
Contingent fee arrangements
Status: in_force

(a) As used in this section, "contingent fee" means a fee established for the performance of any service pursuant to an arrangement under which a fee will not be charged unless a specified finding or result is attained or under which the amount of the fee is otherwise dependent upon the finding or result of such service. "Contingent fee" does not mean a fee fixed by a court or other public authority or a fee related to any tax matter that is based upon the results of a judicial proceeding or the findings of a governmental agency. (b) (1) A licensee shall not receive or agree to receive a contingent fee from a client for the following: (A) Performance of any professional services for a client for whom the licensee or person associated with the licensee performs any of the following: (i) An audit or review of a financial statement; (ii) A compilation of a financial statement when the licensee expects, or reasonably might expect, that a third party will use the financial statement and the licensee's compilation does not disclose a lack of independence; or (iii) An examination of prospective financial information; or (B) Preparation of an original tax return. (2) This prohibition applies during the period in which the licensee is engaged to perform any of the services listed in subdivision (b)(1) and the period covered by any historical financial statements involved related to those services. (c) Any licensee who accepts or agrees to accept a contingent fee shall disclose the terms of the contingent fee to the client in compliance with the requirements of this section. (d) The board shall promulgate regulations specifying the terms of the disclosures required by subsection (c) and the manner in which the disclosures shall be made. The regulations shall comply with the following: (1) The disclosure must be in writing and be clear and conspicuous; (2) The disclosure must state the amount of the contingent fee or must state the basis on which the contingent fee will be computed; and (3) The disclosure must be made at or prior to the time the licensee undertakes representation of or performance of the service upon which a contingent fee will be charged. (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit: (1) Payments for the purchase of all, or a part, of an accounting practice; (2) Retirement payments to persons formerly engaged in the practice of accountancy or payments to the heirs or estates of those persons; or (3) Payments, including incentive or bonus payments, to employees or members of an accounting firm as compensation for their services. Acts 1990, ch. 927, § 3; 1997, ch. 68, § 11; 1998, ch. 700, § 11.
(a) As used in this section, "contingent fee" means a fee established for the performance of any service pursuant to an arrangement under which a fee will not be charged unless a specified finding or result is attained or under which the amount of the fee is otherwise dependent upon the finding or result of such service. "Contingent fee" does not mean a fee fixed by a court or other public authority or a fee related to any tax matter that is based upon the results of a judicial proceeding or the findings of a governmental agency.
(b) (1) A licensee shall not receive or agree to receive a contingent fee from a client for the following: (A) Performance of any professional services for a client for whom the licensee or person associated with the licensee performs any of the following: (i) An audit or review of a financial statement; (ii) A compilation of a financial statement when the licensee expects, or reasonably might expect, that a third party will use the financial statement and the licensee's compilation does not disclose a lack of independence; or (iii) An examination of prospective financial information; or (B) Preparation of an original tax return. (2) This prohibition applies during the period in which the licensee is engaged to perform any of the services listed in subdivision (b)(1) and the period covered by any historical financial statements involved related to those services.
(1) A licensee shall not receive or agree to receive a contingent fee from a client for the following: (A) Performance of any professional services for a client for whom the licensee or person associated with the licensee performs any of the following: (i) An audit or review of a financial statement; (ii) A compilation of a financial statement when the licensee expects, or reasonably might expect, that a third party will use the financial statement and the licensee's compilation does not disclose a lack of independence; or (iii) An examination of prospective financial information; or (B) Preparation of an original tax return.
(A) Performance of any professional services for a client for whom the licensee or person associated with the licensee performs any of the following: (i) An audit or review of a financial statement; (ii) A compilation of a financial statement when the licensee expects, or reasonably might expect, that a third party will use the financial statement and the licensee's compilation does not disclose a lack of independence; or (iii) An examination of prospective financial information; or
(i) An audit or review of a financial statement;
(ii) A compilation of a financial statement when the licensee expects, or reasonably might expect, that a third party will use the financial statement and the licensee's compilation does not disclose a lack of independence; or
(iii) An examination of prospective financial information; or
(B) Preparation of an original tax return.
(2) This prohibition applies during the period in which the licensee is engaged to perform any of the services listed in subdivision (b)(1) and the period covered by any historical financial statements involved related to those services.
(c) Any licensee who accepts or agrees to accept a contingent fee shall disclose the terms of the contingent fee to the client in compliance with the requirements of this section.
(d) The board shall promulgate regulations specifying the terms of the disclosures required by subsection (c) and the manner in which the disclosures shall be made. The regulations shall comply with the following: (1) The disclosure must be in writing and be clear and conspicuous; (2) The disclosure must state the amount of the contingent fee or must state the basis on which the contingent fee will be computed; and (3) The disclosure must be made at or prior to the time the licensee undertakes representation of or performance of the service upon which a contingent fee will be charged.
(1) The disclosure must be in writing and be clear and conspicuous;
(2) The disclosure must state the amount of the contingent fee or must state the basis on which the contingent fee will be computed; and
(3) The disclosure must be made at or prior to the time the licensee undertakes representation of or performance of the service upon which a contingent fee will be charged.
(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit: (1) Payments for the purchase of all, or a part, of an accounting practice; (2) Retirement payments to persons formerly engaged in the practice of accountancy or payments to the heirs or estates of those persons; or (3) Payments, including incentive or bonus payments, to employees or members of an accounting firm as compensation for their services.
(1) Payments for the purchase of all, or a part, of an accounting practice;
(2) Retirement payments to persons formerly engaged in the practice of accountancy or payments to the heirs or estates of those persons; or
(3) Payments, including incentive or bonus payments, to employees or members of an accounting firm as compensation for their services.
Acts 1990, ch. 927, § 3; 1997, ch. 68, § 11; 1998, ch. 700, § 11.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-4-110 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 4 / Section 62-4-110
Application and qualifications for practicing or teaching - Fees
Status: in_force

(a) Any person who desires a cosmetologist's license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years; (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant either: (A) Has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours in practice and theory at a school of cosmetology; or (B) Holds a valid Tennessee master barber registration and has completed three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and (4) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (a)(3), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. (b) Any person who desires a license to practice manicuring only shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than six hundred (600) hours in the practice and theory of manicuring at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (b)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. (c) Any person who desires a license to instruct in a school shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant: (A) (i) [Deleted by 2024 amendment.] (ii) Holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's, or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board; (iii) Has completed and passed a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours within a period of six (6) months as an instructor trainee or has served as a junior instructor for a minimum of one (1) year; (iv) Has been licensed as a cosmetologist, aesthetician, manicurist, or natural hair stylist pursuant to this part for at least three (3) years; (v) Seeks to instruct only in the area in which the applicant is currently licensed; or (B) (i) Holds a valid certificate of registration as a barber instructor pursuant to § 62-3-124 ; and (ii) Completes three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (c)(2)(C), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. (d) Any person who desires a license to practice aesthetics only shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than seven hundred fifty (750) hours in the practice and theory of aesthetics at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (d)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. (e) Any person who desires a natural hair styling license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in the practice and theory of natural hair styling at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (e)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. (f) A person who desires an eyelash specialist license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application must be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant is at least sixteen (16) years of age and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in classroom instruction and practical experience, including at least eight (8) hours of theoretical instruction, and that includes instruction in the following areas: (A) Recognizing infectious or contagious diseases of the eye and allergic reactions to materials; (B) Proper sanitation practices; (C) Occupational health and safety practices; (D) Eyelash extension application procedures; and (E) Eyelash extension isolation and separation procedures; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (f)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 38, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 12, eff. 7/1/2024. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 7, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 114, s 41, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 955, s 2, eff. 7/1/2022. Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, Secs.s 10, s 11, s 12, s 13, s 14 eff. 4/13/2021. Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 226, s 3, eff. 7/1/2017. Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 227, s 3, eff. 4/28/2017. Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 450, s 1, eff. 7/1/2015. Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 17, eff. 7/1/2015. Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 10; 1987, ch. 112, § 4; 1988, ch. 902, §§2-5; 1989, ch. 93, § 6; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 109-112; 1996, ch. 897, §§4, 5, 20; 2007 , ch. 485, § 3.
(a) Any person who desires a cosmetologist's license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years; (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant either: (A) Has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours in practice and theory at a school of cosmetology; or (B) Holds a valid Tennessee master barber registration and has completed three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and (4) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (a)(3), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years;
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant either: (A) Has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours in practice and theory at a school of cosmetology; or (B) Holds a valid Tennessee master barber registration and has completed three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and
(A) Has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours in practice and theory at a school of cosmetology; or
(B) Holds a valid Tennessee master barber registration and has completed three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and
(4) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (a)(3), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(b) Any person who desires a license to practice manicuring only shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than six hundred (600) hours in the practice and theory of manicuring at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (b)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than six hundred (600) hours in the practice and theory of manicuring at a school of cosmetology; and
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (b)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(c) Any person who desires a license to instruct in a school shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant: (A) (i) [Deleted by 2024 amendment.] (ii) Holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's, or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board; (iii) Has completed and passed a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours within a period of six (6) months as an instructor trainee or has served as a junior instructor for a minimum of one (1) year; (iv) Has been licensed as a cosmetologist, aesthetician, manicurist, or natural hair stylist pursuant to this part for at least three (3) years; (v) Seeks to instruct only in the area in which the applicant is currently licensed; or (B) (i) Holds a valid certificate of registration as a barber instructor pursuant to § 62-3-124 ; and (ii) Completes three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (c)(2)(C), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant: (A) (i) [Deleted by 2024 amendment.] (ii) Holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's, or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board; (iii) Has completed and passed a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours within a period of six (6) months as an instructor trainee or has served as a junior instructor for a minimum of one (1) year; (iv) Has been licensed as a cosmetologist, aesthetician, manicurist, or natural hair stylist pursuant to this part for at least three (3) years; (v) Seeks to instruct only in the area in which the applicant is currently licensed; or (B) (i) Holds a valid certificate of registration as a barber instructor pursuant to § 62-3-124 ; and (ii) Completes three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and
(A) (i) [Deleted by 2024 amendment.] (ii) Holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's, or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board; (iii) Has completed and passed a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours within a period of six (6) months as an instructor trainee or has served as a junior instructor for a minimum of one (1) year; (iv) Has been licensed as a cosmetologist, aesthetician, manicurist, or natural hair stylist pursuant to this part for at least three (3) years; (v) Seeks to instruct only in the area in which the applicant is currently licensed; or
(i) [Deleted by 2024 amendment.]
(ii) Holds a valid cosmetologist's, manicurist's, aesthetician's, or natural hair stylist's license issued by the board;
(iii) Has completed and passed a board-approved course in instructor training of at least three hundred (300) hours within a period of six (6) months as an instructor trainee or has served as a junior instructor for a minimum of one (1) year;
(iv) Has been licensed as a cosmetologist, aesthetician, manicurist, or natural hair stylist pursuant to this part for at least three (3) years;
(v) Seeks to instruct only in the area in which the applicant is currently licensed; or
(B) (i) Holds a valid certificate of registration as a barber instructor pursuant to § 62-3-124 ; and (ii) Completes three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and
(i) Holds a valid certificate of registration as a barber instructor pursuant to § 62-3-124 ; and
(ii) Completes three hundred (300) hours in a licensed school of cosmetology learning the fundamentals of cosmetology technique and pedicuring; and
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (c)(2)(C), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(d) Any person who desires a license to practice aesthetics only shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than seven hundred fifty (750) hours in the practice and theory of aesthetics at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (d)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than seven hundred fifty (750) hours in the practice and theory of aesthetics at a school of cosmetology; and
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (d)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(e) Any person who desires a natural hair styling license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application shall be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in the practice and theory of natural hair styling at a school of cosmetology; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (e)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant has attained the age of at least sixteen (16) years and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in the practice and theory of natural hair styling at a school of cosmetology; and
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (e)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(f) A person who desires an eyelash specialist license shall submit an application for examination to the board on the prescribed form. The application must be accompanied by: (1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board; (2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant is at least sixteen (16) years of age and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in classroom instruction and practical experience, including at least eight (8) hours of theoretical instruction, and that includes instruction in the following areas: (A) Recognizing infectious or contagious diseases of the eye and allergic reactions to materials; (B) Proper sanitation practices; (C) Occupational health and safety practices; (D) Eyelash extension application procedures; and (E) Eyelash extension isolation and separation procedures; and (3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (f)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
(1) A nonrefundable, nontransferable application/examination fee as set by the board;
(2) Satisfactory proof that the applicant is at least sixteen (16) years of age and has completed and passed a course of instruction of no less than three hundred (300) hours in classroom instruction and practical experience, including at least eight (8) hours of theoretical instruction, and that includes instruction in the following areas: (A) Recognizing infectious or contagious diseases of the eye and allergic reactions to materials; (B) Proper sanitation practices; (C) Occupational health and safety practices; (D) Eyelash extension application procedures; and (E) Eyelash extension isolation and separation procedures; and
(A) Recognizing infectious or contagious diseases of the eye and allergic reactions to materials;
(B) Proper sanitation practices;
(C) Occupational health and safety practices;
(D) Eyelash extension application procedures; and
(E) Eyelash extension isolation and separation procedures; and
(3) Satisfactory proof that the applicant successfully completed, as part of the hours of instruction described in subdivision (f)(2), up to one (1) hour of online or in-person training, at no cost to the applicant, by a nonprofit anti-domestic violence organization recognized by the Tennessee Coalition to End Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault on domestic violence that focuses on how to recognize the signs of domestic violence, how to respond to these signs, and how to refer a client to resources for victims of domestic violence.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 38, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2024 Tenn. Acts, ch. 1060,s 12, eff. 7/1/2024.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 214, s 7, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2023 Tenn. Acts, ch. 114, s 41, eff. 7/1/2023.
Amended by 2022 Tenn. Acts, ch. 955, s 2, eff. 7/1/2022.
Amended by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 117, Secs.s 10, s 11, s 12, s 13, s 14 eff. 4/13/2021.
Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 226, s 3, eff. 7/1/2017.
Amended by 2017 Tenn. Acts, ch. 227, s 3, eff. 4/28/2017.
Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 450, s 1, eff. 7/1/2015.
Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 17, eff. 7/1/2015.
Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 10; 1987, ch. 112, § 4; 1988, ch. 902, §§2-5; 1989, ch. 93, § 6; 1989, ch. 523, §§ 109-112; 1996, ch. 897, §§4, 5, 20; 2007 , ch. 485, § 3.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-5-803 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 5 / Section 62-5-803
Alkaline hydrolysis facility operator duties
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility may schedule the time for the resomation of a dead human body to occur at the operator's own convenience at any time after the conditions in § 62-5-802 have been met and the decedent or body parts have been delivered to the facility, unless, in the case of a dead human body, the operator has received specific instructions to the contrary from the alkaline hydrolysis facility. (2) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility becomes responsible for a dead human body or body parts when the body or body parts have been delivered to or accepted by the facility or an employee or agent of the facility. (b) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall do the following: (1) (A) Upon receipt at the alkaline hydrolysis facility of a dead human body that has not been embalmed, place the body in a holding or refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility, and keep the body in the holding or refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences or until the body is held at the facility for less than eight (8) hours; and (B) If the body is held for eight (8) hours or longer, place the body in a refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences; or (2) Upon receipt of a dead human body that has been embalmed, place the body in a holding facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the holding facility until the resomation process commences. (c) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall resomate, in its entirety with the dead human body, the container, if any, in which the body was delivered or accepted by the facility, if the instructions for the disposition of the body requested the container be resomated with the body. However, the facility may remove noncombustible materials from the container prior to resomation. (d) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not simultaneously resomate more than one (1) decedent, or body parts removed from more than one (1) decedent or living person, in the same alkaline hydrolysis chamber. This subsection (d) does not prohibit the use of alkaline hydrolysis equipment that contains more than one (1) resomation chamber. (e) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not permit a person other than an employee of the facility, a licensed embalmer, or a person authorized pursuant to the instructions of the decedent, or an heir or personal representative of the decedent, if any, to be present in the holding facility or resomation room while a dead human body or body parts are being held there prior to resomation; a dead human body or body parts are being resomated; or resomated remains are being removed from the resomation chamber. (f) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not remove dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value from a dead human body prior to the resomation or from the resomated remains after resomation unless the operator was acting under instructions that specifically authorize the removal of dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value. (g) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility who removes dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value from a dead human body, or assists in the removal, shall not charge a fee for doing so that exceeds the actual cost to the facility for performing or assisting in the removal of those items. (h) (1) Upon completion of the resomation process, the operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall remove from the resomation chamber all resomation residue that is practicably recoverable. (2) If the recovered resomated remains do not fit in the urn selected or in the temporary container, then the operator shall place the remainder in a separate temporary container. Resomated remains placed in a separate temporary container must be delivered, released, or disposed of together with those in the urn or other temporary container. (3) This subsection (h) does not require an operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility to recover a specified quantity or quality of resomated remains upon the completion of a resomation. This subsection (h) only requires an operator to recover from the resomation chamber the resomation residue that is practicably recoverable. (i) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not knowingly represent that an urn or temporary container contains the recovered resomated remains of a specific decedent or of body parts removed from a specific decedent or living person when the urn or container does not. This subsection (i) does not prohibit the making of such a representation because of the presence in the recovered resomated remains of de minimis amounts of the resomated remains of another decedent or of body parts. (j) Operators of an alkaline hydrolysis facility or a funeral director shall ship or cause to be shipped any resomated remains by a class or method of mail, common carrier service, or delivery service that has an internal system for tracing the location of the resomated remains during shipment and that requires a signed receipt from the person accepting delivery of the resomated remains. (k) Operators of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall establish and maintain a system for accurately identifying each dead human body in the facility's possession and for identifying each decedent or living person from whom body parts in the facility's possession were removed throughout all phases of the holding and resomation process. (l) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not knowingly use or allow the use of the same resomation chamber for the resomation of dead human bodies or body parts and bodies or body parts of animals. Added by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 141, s 1, eff. 4/13/2021.
(a) (1) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility may schedule the time for the resomation of a dead human body to occur at the operator's own convenience at any time after the conditions in § 62-5-802 have been met and the decedent or body parts have been delivered to the facility, unless, in the case of a dead human body, the operator has received specific instructions to the contrary from the alkaline hydrolysis facility. (2) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility becomes responsible for a dead human body or body parts when the body or body parts have been delivered to or accepted by the facility or an employee or agent of the facility.
(1) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility may schedule the time for the resomation of a dead human body to occur at the operator's own convenience at any time after the conditions in § 62-5-802 have been met and the decedent or body parts have been delivered to the facility, unless, in the case of a dead human body, the operator has received specific instructions to the contrary from the alkaline hydrolysis facility.
(2) The operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility becomes responsible for a dead human body or body parts when the body or body parts have been delivered to or accepted by the facility or an employee or agent of the facility.
(b) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall do the following: (1) (A) Upon receipt at the alkaline hydrolysis facility of a dead human body that has not been embalmed, place the body in a holding or refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility, and keep the body in the holding or refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences or until the body is held at the facility for less than eight (8) hours; and (B) If the body is held for eight (8) hours or longer, place the body in a refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences; or (2) Upon receipt of a dead human body that has been embalmed, place the body in a holding facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the holding facility until the resomation process commences.
(1) (A) Upon receipt at the alkaline hydrolysis facility of a dead human body that has not been embalmed, place the body in a holding or refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility, and keep the body in the holding or refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences or until the body is held at the facility for less than eight (8) hours; and (B) If the body is held for eight (8) hours or longer, place the body in a refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences; or
(A) Upon receipt at the alkaline hydrolysis facility of a dead human body that has not been embalmed, place the body in a holding or refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility, and keep the body in the holding or refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences or until the body is held at the facility for less than eight (8) hours; and
(B) If the body is held for eight (8) hours or longer, place the body in a refrigerated facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the refrigerated facility until near the time the resomation process commences; or
(2) Upon receipt of a dead human body that has been embalmed, place the body in a holding facility at the alkaline hydrolysis facility and keep the body in the holding facility until the resomation process commences.
(c) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall resomate, in its entirety with the dead human body, the container, if any, in which the body was delivered or accepted by the facility, if the instructions for the disposition of the body requested the container be resomated with the body. However, the facility may remove noncombustible materials from the container prior to resomation.
(d) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not simultaneously resomate more than one (1) decedent, or body parts removed from more than one (1) decedent or living person, in the same alkaline hydrolysis chamber. This subsection (d) does not prohibit the use of alkaline hydrolysis equipment that contains more than one (1) resomation chamber.
(e) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not permit a person other than an employee of the facility, a licensed embalmer, or a person authorized pursuant to the instructions of the decedent, or an heir or personal representative of the decedent, if any, to be present in the holding facility or resomation room while a dead human body or body parts are being held there prior to resomation; a dead human body or body parts are being resomated; or resomated remains are being removed from the resomation chamber.
(f) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not remove dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value from a dead human body prior to the resomation or from the resomated remains after resomation unless the operator was acting under instructions that specifically authorize the removal of dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value.
(g) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility who removes dental gold or silver, body parts, organs, or other items of value from a dead human body, or assists in the removal, shall not charge a fee for doing so that exceeds the actual cost to the facility for performing or assisting in the removal of those items.
(h) (1) Upon completion of the resomation process, the operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall remove from the resomation chamber all resomation residue that is practicably recoverable. (2) If the recovered resomated remains do not fit in the urn selected or in the temporary container, then the operator shall place the remainder in a separate temporary container. Resomated remains placed in a separate temporary container must be delivered, released, or disposed of together with those in the urn or other temporary container. (3) This subsection (h) does not require an operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility to recover a specified quantity or quality of resomated remains upon the completion of a resomation. This subsection (h) only requires an operator to recover from the resomation chamber the resomation residue that is practicably recoverable.
(1) Upon completion of the resomation process, the operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall remove from the resomation chamber all resomation residue that is practicably recoverable.
(2) If the recovered resomated remains do not fit in the urn selected or in the temporary container, then the operator shall place the remainder in a separate temporary container. Resomated remains placed in a separate temporary container must be delivered, released, or disposed of together with those in the urn or other temporary container.
(3) This subsection (h) does not require an operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility to recover a specified quantity or quality of resomated remains upon the completion of a resomation. This subsection (h) only requires an operator to recover from the resomation chamber the resomation residue that is practicably recoverable.
(i) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not knowingly represent that an urn or temporary container contains the recovered resomated remains of a specific decedent or of body parts removed from a specific decedent or living person when the urn or container does not. This subsection (i) does not prohibit the making of such a representation because of the presence in the recovered resomated remains of de minimis amounts of the resomated remains of another decedent or of body parts.
(j) Operators of an alkaline hydrolysis facility or a funeral director shall ship or cause to be shipped any resomated remains by a class or method of mail, common carrier service, or delivery service that has an internal system for tracing the location of the resomated remains during shipment and that requires a signed receipt from the person accepting delivery of the resomated remains.
(k) Operators of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall establish and maintain a system for accurately identifying each dead human body in the facility's possession and for identifying each decedent or living person from whom body parts in the facility's possession were removed throughout all phases of the holding and resomation process.
(l) An operator of an alkaline hydrolysis facility shall not knowingly use or allow the use of the same resomation chamber for the resomation of dead human bodies or body parts and bodies or body parts of animals.
Added by 2021 Tenn. Acts, ch. 141, s 1, eff. 4/13/2021.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-21-127 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 21 / Section 62-21-127
[Repealed]
Status: repealed

Repealed by 2020 Tenn. Acts, ch. 640, s 12, eff. 4/1/2020. Acts 1978, ch. 844, § 27; T.C.A., § 62-2127.
Repealed by 2020 Tenn. Acts, ch. 640, s 12, eff. 4/1/2020.
Acts 1978, ch. 844, § 27; T.C.A., § 62-2127.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-20-103 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 20 / Section 62-20-103
Exemptions
Status: in_force

(a) This chapter does not apply to: (1) Any person handling claims, accounts or collections under order of any court; (2) Attorneys at law; (3) Any person engaged in the collection of indebtedness incurred in the normal course of business or the business of a parent, subsidiary or affiliated firm or corporation; however, no person who is or represents the person to be a collection service is exempt from this chapter; (4) Any state or national bank; state or federal mutual savings bank; state or federal savings institution; or any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of any of the foregoing; (5) Any state or federal credit union; (6) Any industrial loan and thrift company licensed or authorized by title 45, chapter 5; (7) Any small business development corporation authorized by title 45, chapter 8; (8) Any person that services or collects obligations secured by a consensual lien on a dwelling as defined by 12 C.F.R. 1026.2(a)(19) or any successor regulation; or (9) Any person that holds or acquires accounts, bills or other forms of indebtedness through purchase, assignment, or otherwise; and only engages in collection activity through the use of a licensed collection agency or an attorney authorized to practice law in this state. (b) Nothing contained within this chapter shall be construed to require an individual or business entity that collects only the individual's or its own unpaid accounts to submit to licensure or regulation by the collection service board. Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 996,s 2, eff. 5/22/2014. Acts 1981, ch. 170, §§ 3, 27; T.C.A., § 62-20-123 .
(a) This chapter does not apply to: (1) Any person handling claims, accounts or collections under order of any court; (2) Attorneys at law; (3) Any person engaged in the collection of indebtedness incurred in the normal course of business or the business of a parent, subsidiary or affiliated firm or corporation; however, no person who is or represents the person to be a collection service is exempt from this chapter; (4) Any state or national bank; state or federal mutual savings bank; state or federal savings institution; or any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of any of the foregoing; (5) Any state or federal credit union; (6) Any industrial loan and thrift company licensed or authorized by title 45, chapter 5; (7) Any small business development corporation authorized by title 45, chapter 8; (8) Any person that services or collects obligations secured by a consensual lien on a dwelling as defined by 12 C.F.R. 1026.2(a)(19) or any successor regulation; or (9) Any person that holds or acquires accounts, bills or other forms of indebtedness through purchase, assignment, or otherwise; and only engages in collection activity through the use of a licensed collection agency or an attorney authorized to practice law in this state.
(1) Any person handling claims, accounts or collections under order of any court;
(2) Attorneys at law;
(3) Any person engaged in the collection of indebtedness incurred in the normal course of business or the business of a parent, subsidiary or affiliated firm or corporation; however, no person who is or represents the person to be a collection service is exempt from this chapter;
(4) Any state or national bank; state or federal mutual savings bank; state or federal savings institution; or any parent, subsidiary, or affiliate of any of the foregoing;
(5) Any state or federal credit union;
(6) Any industrial loan and thrift company licensed or authorized by title 45, chapter 5;
(7) Any small business development corporation authorized by title 45, chapter 8;
(8) Any person that services or collects obligations secured by a consensual lien on a dwelling as defined by 12 C.F.R. 1026.2(a)(19) or any successor regulation; or
(9) Any person that holds or acquires accounts, bills or other forms of indebtedness through purchase, assignment, or otherwise; and only engages in collection activity through the use of a licensed collection agency or an attorney authorized to practice law in this state.
(b) Nothing contained within this chapter shall be construed to require an individual or business entity that collects only the individual's or its own unpaid accounts to submit to licensure or regulation by the collection service board.
Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 996,s 2, eff. 5/22/2014.
Acts 1981, ch. 170, §§ 3, 27; T.C.A., § 62-20-123 .
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-4-107 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 4 / Section 62-4-107
Record of board proceedings - Publication of laws and rules
Status: in_force

(a) The board shall keep a record of its proceedings. The record shall be prima facie evidence of matters contained in the records and shall at all reasonable times be open for public inspection. (b) The board shall publish a compilation of its laws, rules, and any amendments or other changes to the laws and rules on its website within ten (10) days of any effective date. Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 16, eff. 7/1/2015. Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 964,s 8, eff. 7/1/2014. Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 7.
(a) The board shall keep a record of its proceedings. The record shall be prima facie evidence of matters contained in the records and shall at all reasonable times be open for public inspection.
(b) The board shall publish a compilation of its laws, rules, and any amendments or other changes to the laws and rules on its website within ten (10) days of any effective date.
Amended by 2015 Tenn. Acts, ch. 402, s 16, eff. 7/1/2015.
Amended by 2014 Tenn. Acts, ch. 964,s 8, eff. 7/1/2014.
Acts 1986, ch. 817, § 7.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-32-317 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 32 / Section 62-32-317
Term of certification - Renewal
Status: in_force

(a) Each certification, license or registration granted by the commissioner shall expire on the last day of the twenty-fourth month following its issuance or renewal and shall become invalid on that date unless renewed. (b) Renewal notices shall be mailed ninety (90) days prior to the expiration date of the certification. The renewal must be received in the office of the commissioner prior to the expiration of the certification. (c) It is the duty of the commissioner to notify by mail every person certified under this part of the date of expiration of the person's certificate of certification and the amount of fee required for its renewal. The notice shall be mailed in accordance with this section. (d) Applications for certification and renewal of certification shall list all persons required to be licensed in accordance with § 62-32-312(a) . (e) The fee to be paid for the renewal of a certification after the expiration date shall be increased ten percent (10%) for each month or fraction of a month that payment for renewal is delayed; provided, that the maximum fee for a delayed renewal shall not exceed twice the normal fee. (f) No alarm systems contractor shall be qualified to receive a renewal certification when the alarm systems contractor has been in default in complying with this part for a period of three (3) months, and, in such event, the alarm systems contractor, in order to qualify under the law, shall make a new application as in the case of the issuance of the original license. Acts 1991, ch. 400, § 17; 1996, ch. 848, §§ 20, 21; 2004, ch. 509, § 1; 2008 , ch. 1038, §§ 11, 16.
(a) Each certification, license or registration granted by the commissioner shall expire on the last day of the twenty-fourth month following its issuance or renewal and shall become invalid on that date unless renewed.
(b) Renewal notices shall be mailed ninety (90) days prior to the expiration date of the certification. The renewal must be received in the office of the commissioner prior to the expiration of the certification.
(c) It is the duty of the commissioner to notify by mail every person certified under this part of the date of expiration of the person's certificate of certification and the amount of fee required for its renewal. The notice shall be mailed in accordance with this section.
(d) Applications for certification and renewal of certification shall list all persons required to be licensed in accordance with § 62-32-312(a) .
(e) The fee to be paid for the renewal of a certification after the expiration date shall be increased ten percent (10%) for each month or fraction of a month that payment for renewal is delayed; provided, that the maximum fee for a delayed renewal shall not exceed twice the normal fee.
(f) No alarm systems contractor shall be qualified to receive a renewal certification when the alarm systems contractor has been in default in complying with this part for a period of three (3) months, and, in such event, the alarm systems contractor, in order to qualify under the law, shall make a new application as in the case of the issuance of the original license.
Acts 1991, ch. 400, § 17; 1996, ch. 848, §§ 20, 21; 2004, ch. 509, § 1; 2008 , ch. 1038, §§ 11, 16.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-9-104 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 9 / Section 62-9-104
Taking of thumbprint impression - Scrap metal transaction records - Due diligence - Payment procedures - Vouchers - Dealer fees for administrative costs - Age restriction on sellers
Status: in_force

(a) Upon copying and recording the photo or other required identification and the information contained on the identification of the person proposing to sell scrap metal as required in § 62-9-103 , the dealer shall also require the person to provide a right thumbprint impression. However, if taking the right thumbprint is not possible, the dealer shall take a fingerprint from the left thumb or another finger and shall identify on the transaction sheet which finger has been used. A thumb or fingerprint taken pursuant to this subsection (a) must be clear and complete and contain no smears or smudges. A thumb or fingerprint taken pursuant to this subsection (a) shall be maintained by the dealer for a period of three (3) years from the date of the scrap metal sale. (b) (1) Before purchasing scrap metal from a person, the dealer shall conduct a reasonably diligent inquiry, based upon the seller, type and quantity of metal offered for sale and other circumstances surrounding the transaction, to determine whether the person selling or delivering the scrap metal has a legal right to do so and whether a lawful transaction may be made. If the person presents a bill of sale, receipt or other document indicating that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal or it was otherwise lawfully acquired, the dealer shall photocopy the document and maintain it with the transaction information otherwise required by this section. (2) In addition to identifying information required to be maintained by a dealer pursuant to § 62-9-103 , the dealer shall also maintain transaction records of each purchase by date of purchase, name of seller, the amount paid for the scrap metal and the weight of each kind of scrap metal. A detailed description of the metal being purchased shall also be maintained using the uniform terminology developed by the department. The entries shall be made in chronological order of sale from day to day, as the business is transacted. (c) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2), if it appears that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal and buying or otherwise receiving the metal from the seller would not violate this chapter, payment may take place by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction. (2) (A) If the person is offering for sale scrap metal that, in whole or in part, consists of copper or an unattached catalytic converter, the transaction must occur in accordance with this subdivision (c)(2). (B) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is selling as an agent or employee of a business, payment for the metal shall be made only by check or money order, mailed to the business address of the business for whom the employee or agent is employed, and the payee on the check shall be the name of the business. (ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(2)(B)(i), a business that sells the type of scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) on a regular or frequent basis may annually preregister with a scrap metal dealer a list of employees who are authorized to sell on behalf of the business. A scrap metal dealer may pay an authorized, preregistered employee by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction. (C) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is not an employee or agent of a business, payment for the scrap metal shall be by check, money order or voucher, at the option of the seller. (ii) (a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher. (b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees. (iii) If the seller elects payment by voucher, or if payment must be by voucher, the dealer shall give the seller a voucher for the amount of metal purchased. The voucher shall include the same information required under subdivision (b)(2) and the date on which the voucher can be redeemed. The voucher may only be redeemed by the person whose name appears on the voucher as the seller or by the person's heirs or legal representative. No voucher may be redeemed by the voucher holder or the holder's heirs or legal representative sooner than five (5) days from the date of the scrap metal transaction. (3) The department shall, by rule, establish a reasonable fee a dealer may charge the person selling the scrap metal for the dealer's administrative costs of processing and issuing any check required by this part. The fee may vary according to the dollar value of the purchase or the weight of the purchase, but shall, in no event, exceed five dollars ($5.00) per check. (4) No dealer shall purchase or receive, or otherwise acquire, any scrap metal from a person under eighteen (18) years of age, whether the metal is acquired directly from, through or by the aid of the minor. Acts 2008 , ch. 690, § 1.
(a) Upon copying and recording the photo or other required identification and the information contained on the identification of the person proposing to sell scrap metal as required in § 62-9-103 , the dealer shall also require the person to provide a right thumbprint impression. However, if taking the right thumbprint is not possible, the dealer shall take a fingerprint from the left thumb or another finger and shall identify on the transaction sheet which finger has been used. A thumb or fingerprint taken pursuant to this subsection (a) must be clear and complete and contain no smears or smudges. A thumb or fingerprint taken pursuant to this subsection (a) shall be maintained by the dealer for a period of three (3) years from the date of the scrap metal sale.
(b) (1) Before purchasing scrap metal from a person, the dealer shall conduct a reasonably diligent inquiry, based upon the seller, type and quantity of metal offered for sale and other circumstances surrounding the transaction, to determine whether the person selling or delivering the scrap metal has a legal right to do so and whether a lawful transaction may be made. If the person presents a bill of sale, receipt or other document indicating that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal or it was otherwise lawfully acquired, the dealer shall photocopy the document and maintain it with the transaction information otherwise required by this section. (2) In addition to identifying information required to be maintained by a dealer pursuant to § 62-9-103 , the dealer shall also maintain transaction records of each purchase by date of purchase, name of seller, the amount paid for the scrap metal and the weight of each kind of scrap metal. A detailed description of the metal being purchased shall also be maintained using the uniform terminology developed by the department. The entries shall be made in chronological order of sale from day to day, as the business is transacted.
(1) Before purchasing scrap metal from a person, the dealer shall conduct a reasonably diligent inquiry, based upon the seller, type and quantity of metal offered for sale and other circumstances surrounding the transaction, to determine whether the person selling or delivering the scrap metal has a legal right to do so and whether a lawful transaction may be made. If the person presents a bill of sale, receipt or other document indicating that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal or it was otherwise lawfully acquired, the dealer shall photocopy the document and maintain it with the transaction information otherwise required by this section.
(2) In addition to identifying information required to be maintained by a dealer pursuant to § 62-9-103 , the dealer shall also maintain transaction records of each purchase by date of purchase, name of seller, the amount paid for the scrap metal and the weight of each kind of scrap metal. A detailed description of the metal being purchased shall also be maintained using the uniform terminology developed by the department. The entries shall be made in chronological order of sale from day to day, as the business is transacted.
(c) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2), if it appears that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal and buying or otherwise receiving the metal from the seller would not violate this chapter, payment may take place by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction. (2) (A) If the person is offering for sale scrap metal that, in whole or in part, consists of copper or an unattached catalytic converter, the transaction must occur in accordance with this subdivision (c)(2). (B) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is selling as an agent or employee of a business, payment for the metal shall be made only by check or money order, mailed to the business address of the business for whom the employee or agent is employed, and the payee on the check shall be the name of the business. (ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(2)(B)(i), a business that sells the type of scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) on a regular or frequent basis may annually preregister with a scrap metal dealer a list of employees who are authorized to sell on behalf of the business. A scrap metal dealer may pay an authorized, preregistered employee by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction. (C) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is not an employee or agent of a business, payment for the scrap metal shall be by check, money order or voucher, at the option of the seller. (ii) (a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher. (b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees. (iii) If the seller elects payment by voucher, or if payment must be by voucher, the dealer shall give the seller a voucher for the amount of metal purchased. The voucher shall include the same information required under subdivision (b)(2) and the date on which the voucher can be redeemed. The voucher may only be redeemed by the person whose name appears on the voucher as the seller or by the person's heirs or legal representative. No voucher may be redeemed by the voucher holder or the holder's heirs or legal representative sooner than five (5) days from the date of the scrap metal transaction. (3) The department shall, by rule, establish a reasonable fee a dealer may charge the person selling the scrap metal for the dealer's administrative costs of processing and issuing any check required by this part. The fee may vary according to the dollar value of the purchase or the weight of the purchase, but shall, in no event, exceed five dollars ($5.00) per check. (4) No dealer shall purchase or receive, or otherwise acquire, any scrap metal from a person under eighteen (18) years of age, whether the metal is acquired directly from, through or by the aid of the minor.
(1) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2), if it appears that the person is in lawful possession of the scrap metal and buying or otherwise receiving the metal from the seller would not violate this chapter, payment may take place by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction.
(2) (A) If the person is offering for sale scrap metal that, in whole or in part, consists of copper or an unattached catalytic converter, the transaction must occur in accordance with this subdivision (c)(2). (B) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is selling as an agent or employee of a business, payment for the metal shall be made only by check or money order, mailed to the business address of the business for whom the employee or agent is employed, and the payee on the check shall be the name of the business. (ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(2)(B)(i), a business that sells the type of scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) on a regular or frequent basis may annually preregister with a scrap metal dealer a list of employees who are authorized to sell on behalf of the business. A scrap metal dealer may pay an authorized, preregistered employee by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction. (C) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is not an employee or agent of a business, payment for the scrap metal shall be by check, money order or voucher, at the option of the seller. (ii) (a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher. (b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees. (iii) If the seller elects payment by voucher, or if payment must be by voucher, the dealer shall give the seller a voucher for the amount of metal purchased. The voucher shall include the same information required under subdivision (b)(2) and the date on which the voucher can be redeemed. The voucher may only be redeemed by the person whose name appears on the voucher as the seller or by the person's heirs or legal representative. No voucher may be redeemed by the voucher holder or the holder's heirs or legal representative sooner than five (5) days from the date of the scrap metal transaction.
(A) If the person is offering for sale scrap metal that, in whole or in part, consists of copper or an unattached catalytic converter, the transaction must occur in accordance with this subdivision (c)(2).
(B) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is selling as an agent or employee of a business, payment for the metal shall be made only by check or money order, mailed to the business address of the business for whom the employee or agent is employed, and the payee on the check shall be the name of the business. (ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(2)(B)(i), a business that sells the type of scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) on a regular or frequent basis may annually preregister with a scrap metal dealer a list of employees who are authorized to sell on behalf of the business. A scrap metal dealer may pay an authorized, preregistered employee by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction.
(i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is selling as an agent or employee of a business, payment for the metal shall be made only by check or money order, mailed to the business address of the business for whom the employee or agent is employed, and the payee on the check shall be the name of the business.
(ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (c)(2)(B)(i), a business that sells the type of scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) on a regular or frequent basis may annually preregister with a scrap metal dealer a list of employees who are authorized to sell on behalf of the business. A scrap metal dealer may pay an authorized, preregistered employee by any method, on site, and at the time of the transaction.
(C) (i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is not an employee or agent of a business, payment for the scrap metal shall be by check, money order or voucher, at the option of the seller. (ii) (a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher. (b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees. (iii) If the seller elects payment by voucher, or if payment must be by voucher, the dealer shall give the seller a voucher for the amount of metal purchased. The voucher shall include the same information required under subdivision (b)(2) and the date on which the voucher can be redeemed. The voucher may only be redeemed by the person whose name appears on the voucher as the seller or by the person's heirs or legal representative. No voucher may be redeemed by the voucher holder or the holder's heirs or legal representative sooner than five (5) days from the date of the scrap metal transaction.
(i) If the person selling scrap metal specified in this subdivision (c)(2) is not an employee or agent of a business, payment for the scrap metal shall be by check, money order or voucher, at the option of the seller.
(ii) (a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher. (b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees.
(a) If the seller elects payment by check or money order, it shall be mailed to the physical address provided on the driver license the seller used for identification. If the seller did not produce a driver license with a physical address on it, payment shall be by voucher.
(b) If a voucher is not redeemed by an authorized person within six (6) months of the date of the transaction, the voucher expires and may no longer be honored by the dealer after the expiration date. The dealer shall have one (1) year from the date of the voucher's expiration to transmit the transaction amount to the department for use in the administration of this chapter. Unredeemed voucher funds may be transmitted to the department in the same manner as dealer registration and renewal fees.
(iii) If the seller elects payment by voucher, or if payment must be by voucher, the dealer shall give the seller a voucher for the amount of metal purchased. The voucher shall include the same information required under subdivision (b)(2) and the date on which the voucher can be redeemed. The voucher may only be redeemed by the person whose name appears on the voucher as the seller or by the person's heirs or legal representative. No voucher may be redeemed by the voucher holder or the holder's heirs or legal representative sooner than five (5) days from the date of the scrap metal transaction.
(3) The department shall, by rule, establish a reasonable fee a dealer may charge the person selling the scrap metal for the dealer's administrative costs of processing and issuing any check required by this part. The fee may vary according to the dollar value of the purchase or the weight of the purchase, but shall, in no event, exceed five dollars ($5.00) per check.
(4) No dealer shall purchase or receive, or otherwise acquire, any scrap metal from a person under eighteen (18) years of age, whether the metal is acquired directly from, through or by the aid of the minor.
Acts 2008 , ch. 690, § 1.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-35-140 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 35 / Section 62-35-140
Continuing education requirements
Status: in_force

Every certified trainer must complete twelve (12) hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner every two (2) years as a prerequisite for renewal. Proof of the continuing education must be submitted to the commissioner in conjunction with the application for renewal. Acts 2002, ch. 710, §1; 2008 , ch. 1038, § 18.
Every certified trainer must complete twelve (12) hours of continuing education approved by the commissioner every two (2) years as a prerequisite for renewal. Proof of the continuing education must be submitted to the commissioner in conjunction with the application for renewal.
Acts 2002, ch. 710, §1; 2008 , ch. 1038, § 18.
Tenn. Code Ann. § 62-2-508 — TN Code / Title 62 / Chapter 2 / Section 62-2-508
Exemption from continuing education requirements for certain architects
Status: in_force

Any continuing education requirements established pursuant to this chapter shall provide that architects who were born prior to January 1, 1928, shall be exempt from complying with continuing education standards and requirements. Acts 2004, ch. 529, § 1.
Any continuing education requirements established pursuant to this chapter shall provide that architects who were born prior to January 1, 1928, shall be exempt from complying with continuing education standards and requirements.
Acts 2004, ch. 529, § 1.