ORS § 676.780 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 676 / Section 676.780
676.780 State Board of Sign Language Interpreters
Status: in_force

(1) There is established within the Health Licensing Office the State Board of Sign Language Interpreters consisting of seven members appointed by the Governor as follows:

(a) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(A) Two members who are deaf, deafblind or hard of hearing and who represent an association in this state that promotes and protects the rights of persons who are deaf and hard of hearing;

(B) One member who represents a professional organization in this state for sign language interpreters and who holds a license issued under ORS 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) ;

(C) One member who represents a sign language interpreter education program at a post-secondary institution in this state and who holds a license issued under ORS 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) ;

(D) Two members who are hearing interpreters certified by or registered with a national organization for sign language interpreters and who hold licenses issued under ORS 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) ; and

(E) One member who is a deaf interpreter certified by or registered with a national organization for sign language interpreters and who holds a license issued under ORS 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) .

(b) All members must be residents of this state and proficient in American Sign Language. To the extent practicable, the members must reflect the geographic and racial diversity of this state.

(2) The term of office of each member of the board is three years, but a member serves at the pleasure of the Governor. Before the expiration of a term of a member, the Governor shall appoint a successor whose term begins on January 1 next following. A member is eligible for reappointment. If there is a vacancy for any cause, the Governor shall make an appointment to become immediately effective for the unexpired term.

(3) A member of the board is entitled to compensation and expenses as provided in ORS 292.495 (Compensation and expenses of members of state boards and commissions) .

(4) The board shall select one of its members as chairperson and another as vice chairperson, for such terms and with duties and powers necessary for the performance of the functions of the office of chairperson and vice chairperson as the board determines.

(5) A majority of the members constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business.

(6) The board shall meet at least once each quarter as determined by the office. The board may also meet at other times and places specified by the call of the chairperson or of a majority of the members of the board. [2023 c.414 §11]

Note: Section 27, chapter 414, Oregon Laws 2023, provides:

Sec. 27. (1) Notwithstanding the term of office specified by section 11 of this 2023 Act [ 676.780 (State Board of Sign Language Interpreters) ], of the members first appointed to the State Board of Sign Language Interpreters:

(a) Two shall serve for a term ending December 31, 2024.

(b) Two shall serve for a term ending December 31, 2025.

(c) Three shall serve for a term ending December 31, 2026.

(2) The members who are required to hold a license under sections 1 to 14 of this 2023 Act [ 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) ] shall obtain a license not later than January 31, 2024. [2023 c.414 §27]

Source: Section 676.780 — State Board of Sign Language Interpreters , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors676.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 701.269 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 701 / Section 701.269
701.269 Residential general master builder certification program
Status: in_force

(1) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The Construction Contractors Board may establish a voluntary certification program for a residential general master builder of vertical homeownership structures and other structures and may define a vertical homeownership structure by rule. At a minimum, the certification program must provide education, training, assessment and evaluation of individuals with respect to the individuals’ knowledge of and skills in:

(A) Foundations;

(B) Roofing;

(C) Wall construction;

(D) Siding installation; and

(E) Energy systems.

(b) The board may specify certification standards that differ by the type of structure in which the master builder may specialize, in the qualifications necessary to obtain certification in each type of structure and in education and training standards necessary to qualify for each type of certification.

(2) The board may adopt rules to implement the provisions of this section and may establish and charge to applicants for certification any fees that are necessary to pay the expenses of administering the certification program under this section. [2021 c.413 §2]

Source: Section 701.269 — Residential general master builder certification program; requirements; standards; fees; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors701.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 673.415 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 673 / Section 673.415
673.415 Furnishing of signature block of income tax return or report by Department of Revenue
Status: in_force

(1) The Department of Revenue may furnish to the Oregon Board of Accountancy a copy of the signature block of an income tax return prepared by any person for another. The signature block may be furnished in instances in which the department or the board has reasonable grounds to believe the person preparing the return prepared it in violation of any provision of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) . The signature block shall include the name, address and signature of the person who prepared the income tax return and the date the return was prepared. The department may include with the signature block the name and address of the taxpayer, the number of the tax form prepared, the tax year of the income tax return prepared and the information described in ORS 314.835 (Divulging particulars of returns and reports prohibited) . The board, and its members, officers and employees, shall use the names and addresses furnished under this section solely in the enforcement of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) and shall not otherwise divulge or make known such information. A violation of this prohibition against disclosure is punishable as provided in ORS 314.991 (Penalties) (2).

(2) The Department of Revenue may furnish to the board a copy of the signature block of a tax return or report permitted or required to be filed with the department and prepared by any person for another. The signature block may be furnished in instances where the department or the board has reasonable grounds to believe the person preparing the return or report prepared it in violation of any provision of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) , or any rule adopted thereunder. The signature block shall include the name, address and signature of the person who prepared the tax return or report and the date the return or report was prepared. The department may include with the signature block the name and address of the taxpayer, the number of the tax form or report prepared, the tax year of the return or report prepared and the information described in ORS 314.835 (Divulging particulars of returns and reports prohibited) . The board, its members, officers and employees, shall use the names and addresses furnished under this section solely in the enforcement of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) and shall not divulge or make known such information. Any person who violates this prohibition against disclosure, upon conviction, is punishable as provided in ORS 314.991 (Penalties) (2). [1985 c.602 §12; 1985 c.605 §19; 1999 c.322 §27a; 1999 c.441 §1; 2009 c.640 §3]

Source: Section 673.415 — Furnishing of signature block of income tax return or report by Department of Revenue; use of information; unlawful disclosure , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors673.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 683.530 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 683 / Section 683.530
683.530 Discrimination against opticians prohibited
Status: in_force

No official, board, commission or other agency of this state or any political subdivision or municipality in the state shall discriminate between dispensing opticians and any other persons authorized by law to render professional services that a dispensing optician may render, when such services are required. Such services shall be paid for in the same manner and under the same standards as are similar professional services. [1991 c.904 §2]

Source: Section 683.530 — Discrimination against opticians prohibited , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors683.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.890 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.890
696.890 Duties of real estate property managers
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Management of rental real estate” has the meaning given that term in ORS 696.010 (Definitions) .

(b) “Property management agreement” has the meaning given that term in ORS 696.010 (Definitions) .

(c) “Real estate property manager” has the meaning given that term in ORS 696.010 (Definitions) .

(2) A real estate property manager who represents a property owner, for compensation, in the management of rental real estate is the property owner’s agent.

(3) A real estate property manager may engage in the management of rental real estate for an owner of rental real estate only pursuant to a property management agreement.

(4) A real estate property manager owes the property owner the following affirmative duties:

(a) To deal honestly and in good faith;

(b) To disclose material facts known by the property manager and not apparent or readily ascertainable to the owner;

(c) To exercise reasonable care and diligence;

(d) To account in a timely manner for all funds received from or on behalf of the owner;

(e) To act in a fiduciary manner in all matters relating to trust funds;

(f) To be loyal to the owner by not taking action that is adverse or detrimental to the owner’s interest;

(g) To disclose in a timely manner to the owner any existing or contemplated conflict of interest;

(h) To advise the owner to seek expert advice on matters that are beyond the property manager’s expertise; and

(i) To maintain as confidential all information from or about the owner, except under subpoena or court order, even after the agency relationship ends.

(5) The affirmative duties listed in subsection (4) of this section may not be waived.

(6) Nothing in this section implies a duty beyond or in addition to those activities that are reasonably within the scope of the management of rental real estate. [2011 c.158 §1; 2013 c.145 §2]

Note: 696.890 (Duties of real estate property managers) was enacted into law by the Legislative Assembly but was not added to or made a part of ORS chapter 696 or any series therein by legislative action. See Preface to Oregon Revised Statutes for further explanation.

Source: Section 696.890 — Duties of real estate property managers , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 675.550 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 675 / Section 675.550
675.550 Reissuance of authorization to practice
Status: in_force

If the State Board of Licensed Social Workers has revoked or refused to reissue or renew an authorization to practice regulated social work, the board may reissue the authorization after one year from the date of the revocation or the date the reissuance or renewal was refused. [1977 c.677 §7; 1979 c.769 §6; 1989 c.721 §33; 2009 c.442 §13]

Source: Section 675.550 — Reissuance of authorization to practice , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors675.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 694.085 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 694 / Section 694.085
694.085 Licensing
Status: in_force

(1) Subject to ORS 676.612 (Disciplinary authority) , the Health Licensing Office shall grant a hearing aid specialist license to each applicant, without discrimination, who possesses the required training and experience and who satisfactorily passes the examination and pays the applicable fees established under ORS 676.576 (Fees) . The license is effective for one year following issuance.

(2) The office shall waive the examination required under subsection (1) of this section and grant a license to an applicant who:

(a) Is certified by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association or, if not so certified, satisfies the office that the applicant possesses equivalent training and education achievements; and

(b) Passes an examination related to Oregon law in the area of hearing aid dispensing and pays the applicable fees established under ORS 676.576 (Fees) .

(3) Notwithstanding subsection (1) of this section, the office may adopt rules for the issuance of a temporary license to an applicant who has not yet passed the examination if the applicant otherwise meets the qualifications for licensure. [1959 c.634 §7; 1973 c.182 §8; 1977 c.873 §14; 1985 c.227 §9; 1991 c.703 §36; 1993 c.133 §5; 1995 c.280 §26; 1997 c.249 §210; 2001 c.104 §275; 2003 c.547 §80; 2009 c.701 §62b; 2013 c.82 §7; 2013 c.314 §54; 2013 c.568 §116]

Source: Section 694.085 — Licensing; fees; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors694.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 679.606 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 679 / Section 679.606
679.606 Examinations, reexamination
Status: in_force

(1) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The Oregon Board of Dentistry may require an applicant for a license to practice dental therapy to pass written, laboratory or clinical examinations to test the professional knowledge and skills of the applicant.

(b) The examinations may not be affiliated with or administered by a dental pilot project or a dental therapy education program described in ORS 679.603 (Dental therapy license) .

(c) The examinations must:

(A) Be elementary and practical in character, and sufficiently thorough to test the fitness of the applicant to practice dental therapy;

(B) Be written in English; and

(C) Include questions on subjects pertaining to dental therapy.

(2) If a test or examination was taken within five years of the date of application and the applicant received a passing score on the test or examination, as established by the board by rule, the board:

(a) To satisfy the written examination authorized under this section, may accept the results of national standardized examinations.

(b) To satisfy the laboratory or clinical examination authorized under this section:

(A) Shall accept the results of regional and national testing agencies or clinical board examinations administered by other states; and

(B) May accept the results of board-recognized testing agencies.

(3) The board shall accept the results of regional and national testing agencies or of clinical board examinations administered by other states, and may accept results of board-recognized testing agencies, in satisfaction of the examinations authorized under this section for applicants who have engaged in the active practice of dental therapy in Oregon, another state, the Armed Forces of the United States, the United States Public Health Service or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs for a period of at least 3,500 hours in the five years immediately preceding application and who meet all other requirements for licensure.

(4) The board shall establish rules related to reexamination for an applicant who fails an examination. [2021 c.530 §4]

Source: Section 679.606 — Examinations, reexamination; acceptable results; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors679.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 689.045 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 689 / Section 689.045
689.045 Severability
Status: in_force

If any provision of ORS 167.203 (Definitions for ORS 167.212 to 167.252) , 414.325 (Prescription drugs) , 430.405 (Definition) , 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 475.005 (Definitions for ORS 475.005 to 475.285 and 475.752 to 475.980) , 475.135 (Grounds to grant or deny registration) , 475.185 (When prescriptions required) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) , 475.906 (Penalties for unlawful delivery to minors) and 616.855 (Items exempt from unit pricing requirements) and ORS chapter 689 is declared unconstitutional or illegal, or the applicability of ORS 167.203 (Definitions for ORS 167.212 to 167.252) , 414.325 (Prescription drugs) , 430.405 (Definition) , 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 475.005 (Definitions for ORS 475.005 to 475.285 and 475.752 to 475.980) , 475.135 (Grounds to grant or deny registration) , 475.185 (When prescriptions required) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) , 475.906 (Penalties for unlawful delivery to minors) and 616.855 (Items exempt from unit pricing requirements) and ORS chapter 689 to any person or circumstances is held invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction, the constitutionality or legality of the remaining provisions of ORS 167.203 (Definitions for ORS 167.212 to 167.252) , 414.325 (Prescription drugs) , 430.405 (Definition) , 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 475.005 (Definitions for ORS 475.005 to 475.285 and 475.752 to 475.980) , 475.135 (Grounds to grant or deny registration) , 475.185 (When prescriptions required) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) , 475.906 (Penalties for unlawful delivery to minors) and 616.855 (Items exempt from unit pricing requirements) and ORS chapter 689 and the application of ORS 167.203 (Definitions for ORS 167.212 to 167.252) , 414.325 (Prescription drugs) , 430.405 (Definition) , 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 475.005 (Definitions for ORS 475.005 to 475.285 and 475.752 to 475.980) , 475.135 (Grounds to grant or deny registration) , 475.185 (When prescriptions required) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) , 475.906 (Penalties for unlawful delivery to minors) and 616.855 (Items exempt from unit pricing requirements) and ORS chapter 689 to other persons and circumstances shall not be affected and shall remain in full force and effect without the invalid provision or application. [1979 c.777 §63; 1999 c.605 §6; 1999 c.1051 §137]

Note: 689.045 (Severability) was enacted into law by the Legislative Assembly but was not added to or made a part of ORS chapter 689 or any series therein by legislative action. See Preface to Oregon Revised Statutes for further explanation.

Source: Section 689.045 — Severability , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors689.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 688.805 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 688 / Section 688.805
688.805 Exceptions to license requirements
Status: in_force

(1) Nothing in ORS 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) is intended to limit, preclude or otherwise interfere with the practices of other persons and health providers licensed by appropriate agencies of this state.

(2) Nothing in ORS 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) prohibits:

(a) The practice of respiratory care by a student enrolled in a respiratory care education program approved by the American Medical Association in collaboration with the Joint Review Committee for Respiratory Therapy Education or their successors or equivalent organizations, as approved by the Respiratory Therapist and Polysomnographic Technologist Licensing Board.

(b) The practice of polysomnography by a student who is:

(A) Enrolled in an educational program for polysomnography approved by the board; and

(B) In the physical presence of a supervisor approved by the board.

(c) Self-care by a patient, or gratuitous care by a friend or family member who does not claim to be a respiratory care practitioner.

(d) Respiratory care services rendered in the course of an emergency.

(3) Persons in the military services or working in federal facilities are exempt from the provisions of ORS 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) when functioning in the course of assigned duties.

(4) Nothing in ORS 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) is intended to permit the practice of medicine by a person licensed to practice respiratory care or polysomnography unless the person is also licensed to practice medicine.

(5) The practice of respiratory care:

(a) May be performed in any clinic, hospital, skilled nursing facility, private dwelling or other setting approved by the board.

(b) Must be performed in accordance with the prescription or verbal order of a physician or naturopathic physician and shall be performed under a qualified medical director for respiratory care.

(6) The practice of polysomnography:

(a) May be performed in a clinic, hospital, skilled nursing facility, sleep center, sleep laboratory, physician’s office, naturopathic physician’s office, private dwelling or other setting approved by the board.

(b) Must be performed in accordance with the prescription or verbal order of a physician, naturopathic physician or physician assistant licensed under ORS chapter 677 or a nurse practitioner licensed under ORS 678.375 (Nurse practitioners) to 678.390 (Authority of nurse practitioner and clinical nurse specialist to write prescriptions or dispense drugs) and under the direction of a qualified medical director for polysomnography. [1997 c.792 §7; 2011 c.715 §2; 2017 c.356 §91]

Source: Section 688.805 — Exceptions to license requirements; practice requirements , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors688.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 673.170 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 673 / Section 673.170
673.170 Disciplinary actions
Status: in_force

(1) The Oregon Board of Accountancy may take any of the following disciplinary actions:

(a) Revoke, suspend, refuse to issue or limit the privileges of any certificate issued under ORS 673.040 (Eligibility for certificate of certified public accountant) to 673.075 (Credit for examination sections taken in other states) .

(b) Revoke, suspend, refuse to issue or limit the privileges of any public accountant’s license issued under ORS 673.100 (License as public accountant) .

(c) Revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, refuse to issue or limit the privileges of any permit described in ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) .

(d) Revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, refuse to issue or limit the privileges of any registration issued under ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) .

(e) Censure a person authorized to practice public accountancy in this state under ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) .

(f) Censure the holder of any permit described in ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) or authorization described in ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) .

(g) Revoke, suspend or limit the privileges of a person authorized to practice public accountancy in this state under ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) or the holder of any authorization described in ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) .

(h) Censure the holder of any registration issued under ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) .

(i) Censure a business organization providing accounting services in this state that is exempt from registering under ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) (3).

(2) The board may take any of the actions described in subsection (1) of this section for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(a) Fraud or deceit in obtaining or applying for:

(A) A certificate under ORS 673.040 (Eligibility for certificate of certified public accountant) to 673.075 (Credit for examination sections taken in other states) ;

(B) A public accountant’s license under ORS 673.100 (License as public accountant) ;

(C) A registration under ORS 58.345 (Registration and renewal with professional licensing agency) or 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) ;

(D) A permit under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) ;

(E) Authorization to practice public accountancy in this state under ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) ; or

(F) Admission to the roster of authorized accountants referred to in ORS 297.670 (Board of Accountancy to prepare and maintain roster) .

(b) Dishonesty, fraud or gross negligence in the practice of public accountancy.

(c) Incompetence in the practice of public accountancy. A holder of a license issued under ORS 673.100 (License as public accountant) , certificate, permit or registration or a person authorized to practice public accountancy in this state under ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) is incompetent in the practice of public accountancy if the holder:

(A) Engages or has engaged in conduct that evidences a lack of ability or fitness to discharge the duty owed to a client or the general public; or

(B) Engages or has engaged in conduct that evidences a lack of knowledge or ability to apply principles or skills of the practice of public accountancy, as adopted by the board.

(d) Violation of any of the provisions of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) .

(e) Violation of any of the provisions of ORS 297.405 (Definitions for ORS 297.020, 297.230, 297.405 to 297.740 and 297.990) to 297.555 (Short title) .

(f) Violation of any provision of the Code of Professional Conduct or accounting standards adopted by the board by rule.

(g) Conduct resulting in a conviction of a felony under the laws of any state, of any foreign jurisdiction or of the United States. However, such conduct may be considered only to the extent permissible under the provisions of ORS 670.280 (Denial, suspension or revocation of license based on criminal conviction) .

(h) Conviction of any crime, an essential element of which is dishonesty, fraud or misrepresentation, under the laws of any state, of any foreign jurisdiction or of the United States.

(i) Conviction of willful failure to pay any tax, file any tax return, keep records or supply information required under the tax laws of any state, of any foreign jurisdiction or of the United States, or conviction of the willful making, rendering, delivery, disclosure, signing or verifying of any false or fraudulent list, return, account, statement or other document, or of supplying any false or fraudulent information, required under the tax laws of any state, of any foreign jurisdiction or of the United States.

(j) Cancellation, revocation or suspension of, or refusal to renew, authority to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state or foreign jurisdiction.

(k) Cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal to renew by any state, any foreign jurisdiction or any federal agency of the right to practice law, to practice as an enrolled agent before the Internal Revenue Service pursuant to 31 C.F.R. part 10, or to practice under other regulatory law if the cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal to renew was related to the practice of public accountancy or if dishonesty, fraud or deception was involved.

(L) Failure to comply with the continuing education requirements under ORS 673.165 (Continuing education) unless such requirements have been waived by the board.

(m) Failure to pay a civil penalty imposed by the board after the period for requesting a hearing on the civil penalty terminates if the person or business organization against whom the penalty is imposed has not requested a hearing, or after the period for seeking judicial review of the order assessing the civil penalty has passed.

(n) Failure to comply with the terms of a consent agreement described in subsection (4) of this section.

(o) Failure to comply with any reporting or other requirement established by the board by rule.

(p) Issuance of a cease and desist order against the person under subsection (9) of this section.

(3) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The board may investigate any alleged violation that may subject a person to discipline under this section.

(b) Investigatory information developed or obtained by the board is confidential and not subject to disclosure by the board unless a notice is issued for a contested case hearing or the matter investigated is finally resolved by board action or a consent order.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subsection:

(A) The board may disclose to the public that an investigation is being conducted and describe the general nature of the matter being investigated; and

(B) The board shall notify the person being investigated of the investigation.

(4) In lieu of disciplinary actions under subsection (1) of this section, the board may enter into a consent agreement with the holder of any certificate described in ORS 673.040 (Eligibility for certificate of certified public accountant) to 673.075 (Credit for examination sections taken in other states) , the holder of any public accountant’s license, the holder of any registration described in ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) , the holder of any permit described in ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) or the holder of any authorization described in ORS 673.153 (Holders of licenses issued by other states) , under which the holder agrees to comply with conditions prescribed by the board.

(5) In addition to the causes in subsection (2) of this section, the board may take any of the actions described in subsection (1) of this section for dishonesty, fraud or misrepresentation not in the practice of public accountancy.

(6) In lieu of or in addition to any action described in subsection (1) of this section, the board may take any of the following actions:

(a) Require a holder of a permit under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) that provides compilation services or a business organization registered under ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) to undergo a peer review conducted as the board may specify; or

(b) Require a holder of a permit under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) to complete any continuing professional education programs the board may specify.

(7) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A licensee offering or providing professional services in another state or using the title “certified public accountant” or any abbreviation for that term in another state is subject to disciplinary action in this state for actions taken by the licensee in the other state that constitute a cause for disciplinary action under this section.

(b) The board shall investigate any complaint made by a board of accountancy of another state.

(8) In the case of a registered business organization, the board may take any of the actions described in subsection (1) of this section for any of the following additional causes:

(a) The cancellation, revocation or suspension of, or refusal to renew, the authority to provide professional services, in this state or any other jurisdiction, of any partner, officer, shareholder, member, manager or owner of the business organization; or

(b) The cancellation, revocation or suspension of, or refusal to renew, the authority of the business organization to practice public accountancy or provide other professional services in any other state or foreign jurisdiction.

(9) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) If the board has reasonable cause to believe that any person has engaged, is engaging or is about to engage in any violation of any provision of ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) or any rule or order adopted under ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) , the board may issue an order of emergency suspension or an order directed to the person, and to any other person directly or indirectly controlling the person, to cease and desist from the violation or threatened violation.

(b) An order issued under this subsection must include the following:

(A) A statement of the facts constituting the violation;

(B) If the order is an order of emergency suspension, a provision requiring the person to suspend practicing public accountancy in this state;

(C) If the order is an order directing the person to cease and desist, a provision requiring the person named in the order to cease and desist from the violation or threatened violation;

(D) The effective date of the order; and

(E) A notice to the person named in the order of the right to a contested case hearing under ORS 183.430 (Hearing on refusal to renew license) (2).

(10) Notwithstanding any protective order issued under ORCP 36 C, upon motion of the board, the court shall order disclosure of materials or information subject to a protective order under ORCP 36 C. The board may use the material or information to take disciplinary action under this section.

(11) If the board takes disciplinary action under this section, the board may assess against the person disciplined costs associated with the disciplinary action. An assessment under this subsection is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other action taken by the board. Moneys collected under this subsection shall be deposited in the Oregon Board of Accountancy Fund established under ORS 673.425 (Oregon Board of Accountancy Fund) . [Amended by 1971 c.734 §112; 1975 c.438 §4a; 1975 c.440 §14; 1979 c.84 §2; 1981 c.89 §11; 1983 c.255 §3; 1985 c.605 §10; 1987 c.455 §3; 1993 c.431 §5; 1999 c.322 §14; 2001 c.638 §8; 2005 c.39 §1; 2005 c.837 §12; 2009 c.531 §5; 2011 c.40 §1; 2015 c.451 §13]

Source: Section 673.170 — Disciplinary actions; grounds; investigations; costs; orders; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors673.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 691.415 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 691 / Section 691.415
691.415 License required
Status: in_force

A person who is not licensed under ORS 691.435 (Licensing requirements) may not practice or attempt to practice as a licensed dietitian using in connection with the name of the person the words or letters “L.D.,” or “Licensed Dietitian.” [1989 c.487 §2; 2011 c.630 §5]

Source: Section 691.415 — License required , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors691.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 702.019 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 702 / Section 702.019
702.019 Temporary certificate of registration
Status: in_force

The Department of Education may issue a temporary certificate of registration while an application for registration or renewal of registration is pending. [2005 c.525 §6]

Source: Section 702.019 — Temporary certificate of registration , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors702.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 697.512 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 697 / Section 697.512
697.512 Application fee and investigation fee
Status: in_force

(1) Each person who submits an application under ORS 697.510 (License application form and contents) shall at the same time pay a nonrefundable application fee and a nonrefundable investigation fee to the Director of the Department of Consumer and Business Services in amounts the director prescribes by rule. If the director approves the application and issues a license under ORS 697.514 (Application review and license issuance) , the application fee shall constitute the license fee for the remaining portion of the first calendar year and the subsequent full calendar year in which the applicant conducts a check-cashing business.

(2) The director shall prescribe fee amounts under subsection (1) of this section that in the aggregate are sufficient to pay all expenses of the Department of Consumer and Business Services related to administering ORS 697.500 (Definitions for ORS 697.500 to 697.555) to 697.555 (Civil penalties) . The director shall pay all moneys received under this section into the Consumer and Business Services Fund as provided in ORS 705.145 (Consumer and Business Services Fund) . [2007 c.358 §5]

Source: Section 697.512 — Application fee and investigation fee; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors697.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 672.615 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 672 / Section 672.615
672.615 State Board of Geologist Examiners
Status: in_force

(1) The State Board of Geologist Examiners shall operate as a semi-independent state agency subject to ORS 182.456 (Definitions for ORS 182.456 to 182.472) to 182.472 (Reports) for the purpose of carrying out ORS 672.505 (Definitions for ORS 672.505 to 672.705) to 672.705 (Fees) . The board shall consist of four geologists and one public member, appointed by the Governor.

(2) Each member of the board shall be a citizen of the United States, and shall have been a resident of this state for one year preceding appointment. Each of the appointed geologist members of the board shall be a geologist registered under ORS 672.505 (Definitions for ORS 672.505 to 672.705) to 672.705 (Fees) . The State Geologist shall be an ex officio member of the board. Insofar as possible the board shall be composed of members having diverse geological specialties including at least one engineering geologist.

(3) Members of the board shall hold office until the expiration of the term for which they were appointed and until their successors have been appointed and qualified. On the expiration of the term of any member, the successor of the member shall be appointed in like manner for a term of three years.

(4) A person may not serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive three-year terms.

(5) The Governor may remove any member of the board for misconduct, incompetency, neglect of duty or other sufficient cause. Vacancies in the membership of the board shall be filled for the unexpired term by appointment as provided for in this section.

(6) The board shall hold at least two regular meetings each year.

(7) The board shall fix the qualifications of an administrator.

(8) The board may:

(a) In accordance with ORS 182.468 (Administrators) (1), select and appoint an administrator; or

(b) Notwithstanding ORS 182.468 (Administrators) (1), enter into an interagency agreement with another state agency to provide for the sharing of an administrator.

(9) The administrator may not be a member of the board.

(10) The board shall fix the compensation of the administrator, who shall be in the unclassified service.

(11) The board shall have the authority to appoint committees as required or as considered advisable to perform such duties as the board may direct. Such committees shall be composed of registered geologists. Membership on all such committees is at the pleasure of the board. [1977 c.612 §13; 1987 c.158 §135; 1987 c.414 §49; 1987 c.454 §1; 1993 c.744 §239; 1997 c.643 §24; 1999 c.1084 §63; 2019 c.277 §1]

Source: Section 672.615 — State Board of Geologist Examiners; members; powers , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors672.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 673.010 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 673 / Section 673.010
673.010 Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465
Status: in_force

As used in ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) :

(1) “Attestation services” means the following professional services required to be performed under rules adopted by the Oregon Board of Accountancy:

(a) Any audit or other engagement for which performance standards are included in the Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS);

(b) Any review of a financial statement for which performance standards are included in the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS);

(c) Any examination of prospective financial information for which performance standards are included in the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE);

(d) Any examination, review or agreed upon procedures engagement other than an examination described in paragraph (c) of this subsection for which performance standards are included in the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE); and

(e) Any engagement for which performance standards are included in the Auditing Standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.

(2) “Business organization” means any form of business organization authorized by law, including but not limited to a proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership or professional corporation.

(3) “Certificate” means a certificate of certified public accountant issued under ORS 673.040 (Eligibility for certificate of certified public accountant) .

(4) “Client” means a person who agrees with a licensee or employer of a licensee to receive any professional service from the licensee or employer of a licensee.

(5) “Commission” means money or other consideration recognized by the Oregon Board of Accountancy as a commission by rule.

(6) “Compilation services” means professional services required to be performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) under rules adopted by the board in which the person performing the services presents a financial statement that:

(a) Is based on the representation of the owner or management of the company for which the statement is presented; and

(b) Does not include assurances by the person that the representations in the financial statement conform to generally accepted accounting principles.

(7) “Contingent fee” means a fee established for the performance of any professional service and directly or indirectly paid to a licensee pursuant to an arrangement in which no fee will be charged unless a specified finding or result is attained, or in which the amount of the fee is otherwise dependent upon the finding or result of such service. A fee is not contingent if the fee:

(a) Is fixed by courts or other public authorities; or

(b) In tax matters, is determined based on the results of judicial proceedings or the findings of governmental agencies.

(8) “License” means:

(a) A certificate, permit or registration, or a license issued under ORS 673.100 (License as public accountant) , enabling the holder thereof to practice public accountancy in this state; or

(b) A certificate, permit, registration or other authorization issued by a jurisdiction outside this state enabling the holder thereof to practice public accountancy in that jurisdiction.

(9) “Licensee” means the holder of a license as defined in subsection (8)(a) of this section.

(10) “Manager” means a manager of a limited liability company.

(11) “Member” means a member of a limited liability company.

(12) “Peer review” means a study, appraisal or review of one or more aspects of the public accountancy work of a holder of a permit under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) , or of a registered business organization that performs attestation services or compilation services, that is conducted by:

(a) A certified public accountant who holds an active permit issued under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) or an active license issued by the licensing authority for the practice of public accountancy in another state and who is independent of the permit holder or registered business organization being reviewed; or

(b) A public accountant who holds an active permit issued under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) and who is independent of the permit holder or registered business organization being reviewed.

(13) “Permit” means a permit to practice public accountancy issued under ORS 673.150 (Permits to engage in practice of public accountancy) .

(14) “Principal place of business” means the office location designated by a person for purposes of substantial equivalency and reciprocity.

(15) “Professional” means arising out of or related to the specialized knowledge or skills associated with certified public accountants and public accountants.

(16) “Public accountant” means a public accountant licensed under ORS 673.100 (License as public accountant) .

(17) “Referral fee” means a fee recognized by the board as a referral by rule.

(18) “Registration” means the authority issued under ORS 673.160 (Registration of business organizations) by the board to a business organization to practice public accountancy in this state.

(19) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) “Report,” when used with reference to attestation services or compilation services, means an opinion or other form of written language that states or implies assurance as to the reliability of the attested information or the compiled financial statements and that includes or is accompanied by a statement or implication that the person issuing the report has special knowledge or competence in public accountancy. Such a statement or implication of special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of names or titles indicating that the issuer is a public accountancy professional or organization or may arise from the language of the report itself.

(b) “Report” includes any form of written language that:

(A) Disclaims an opinion when the form of language implies any positive assurance as to the reliability of the attested information or the compiled financial statements referred to, or of the special knowledge or competence on the part of the person issuing the language;

(B) Implies any positive assurance as to the reliability of the attested information or compiled financial statements referred to, or of the special knowledge or competence on the part of the person issuing the language; or

(C) Relates to the affairs of a person and that is conventionally used by licensees in reports or financial statements.

(c) “Report” does not include:

(A) The following statement signed by a person who does not hold a certificate, license or permit under ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) as long as the statement is not accompanied by any wording indicating the person is an accountant or auditor or any other language prohibited by ORS 673.310 (Words or abbreviations of similar import to certified public accountant, public accountant, C.P.A. or P.A. prohibited) or 673.320 (Requirements for providing attestation services or compilation services or issuing report) :

The accompanying balance sheet (or ___) of XYZ Company as of (date), and the related statements of income (or retained earnings or cash flow) for the year then ended have been prepared by me (us).

The information presented in these financial statements is the representation of management (owners).

(B) Any other financial statements or reports that are not and do not purport to be in compliance with national standards, including but not limited to Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) and Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) adopted by the board by rule, when the statements or reports are issued by persons not otherwise subject to regulation by the board under ORS 673.010 (Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465) to 673.465 (Authority of Oregon Board of Accountancy to require fingerprints) .

(20) “State” means any state, territory or insular possession of the United States, and the District of Columbia.

(21) “Substantial equivalency” means that:

(a) An individual holds a valid license as a certified public accountant from another state that requires an individual, as a condition of licensure as a certified public accountant, to:

(A) Complete at least 150 semester hours of college education and obtain a baccalaureate or higher degree conferred by a college or university;

(B) Achieve a passing grade on the Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination; and

(C) Possess at least one year of experience, verified by a licensee, providing any type of service or advice involving the use of accounting, attestation, compilation, management advisory, financial advisory, tax or related consulting skills, obtained through public practice or government, industry or academic work; or

(b) An individual has the qualifications specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection and holds a valid license as a certified public accountant from another state that does not require an individual to have the qualifications specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection as a condition of licensure as a certified public accountant. [Amended by 1981 c.89 §2; 1993 c.431 §1; 1999 c.322 §2; 2001 c.313 §1; 2001 c.638 §1a; 2005 c.30 §1; 2007 c.112 §1; 2009 c.531 §1; 2015 c.451 §1]

Source: Section 673.010 — Definitions for ORS 673.010 to 673.465; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors673.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 688.040 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 688 / Section 688.040
688.040 Licensing procedure
Status: in_force

(1) Any person desiring to be a licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant shall apply in writing to the Oregon Board of Physical Therapy in the form and manner provided by the board by rule.

(2) Each application shall include or be accompanied by evidence, satisfactory to the board, that the applicant possesses the qualifications prescribed by ORS 688.050 (Qualifications of physical therapist) for applicants for licensing as a physical therapist and ORS 688.055 (Qualifications of physical therapist assistant) for applicants for licensing as a physical therapist assistant.

(3) An applicant shall include with the application any application and examination fees prescribed by the board by rule.

(4) The board shall notify an applicant of any deficiencies in the application. [1959 c.461 §6; 1969 c.339 §3; 1971 c.585 §3; 1975 c.111 §4; 1995 c.79 §347; 2005 c.21 §7; 2005 c.627 §4a; 2019 c.43 §15]

Source: Section 688.040 — Licensing procedure , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors688.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 686.420 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 686 / Section 686.420
686.420 Notice of license expiration
Status: in_force

(1) A license to practice veterinary medicine or to act as a veterinary technician expires on December 31 or on such date as may be specified by rule of the Oregon State Veterinary Medical Examining Board. The board shall give each person holding a license a notice of pending expiration at least 60 days before the license expires. This notice shall be sufficient if mailed to the last address filed with the board by the license holder. Appropriate forms for the presentation of evidence of professional activity shall be mailed with the notice of expiration.

(2) The board shall determine whether the professional educational activity participated in by each applicant for license renewal is within the criteria established under ORS 686.410 (Continuing education required) . The board may excuse any applicant for license renewal from the professional educational activity requirement when the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the board of exceptional circumstances which have prevented compliance.

(3) Any person may renew a license that has expired for failure to comply with ORS 686.410 (Continuing education required) (1) by making written application for license renewal, presenting evidence of professional educational activity equivalent to that which would have been required had the license been renewed annually, and paying the current license renewal fee plus the delinquent fee set by the board. [1979 c.743 §4; 1997 c.241 §3; 2003 c.178 §7; 2007 c.768 §49]

Source: Section 686.420 — Notice of license expiration; rules; effect of failure to comply with criteria for continuing education; waiver , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors686.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 701.340 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 701 / Section 701.340
701.340 Commercial structure warranty
Status: in_force

A commercial general contractor level 1 or level 2 that constructs a new large commercial structure shall provide the owner with a two-year warranty of the building envelope and penetration components against defects in materials and workmanship. The warranty shall provide for the contractor to annually inspect the building envelope and penetration components during the warranty period. The warranty need not cover conditions resulting from improper maintenance by the owner. [2007 c.836 §12]

Source: Section 701.340 — Commercial structure warranty , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors701.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 676.459 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 676 / Section 676.459
676.459 Health care workforce needs
Status: in_force

(1) The Oregon Health Policy Board, in consultation with the Oregon Health and Science University and the Office of Rural Health, shall conduct an assessment of the health care workforce needs in this state, including but not limited to the health care workforce needed to address:

(a) The continuing expansion in commercial and publicly funded health care coverage;

(b) Health disparities among medically underserved populations; and

(c) The need for health care providers in rural communities.

(2) The board shall report to the Legislative Assembly no later than February 1 in each odd-numbered year on the health care workforce needs in this state and proposals for addressing those needs with programs funded by the Health Care Provider Incentive Fund established under ORS 676.450 (Health Care Provider Incentive Fund) . [2017 c.718 §1]

Source: Section 676.459 — Health care workforce needs; report to Legislative Assembly , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors676.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 678.730 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 678 / Section 678.730
678.730 Licensing qualifications of nursing home administrator
Status: in_force

(1) An individual qualifies for licensure as a nursing home administrator if the individual:

(a) Has a baccalaureate degree from an accredited school of higher education;

(b) Has passed an examination as provided in ORS 678.740 (Examination for nursing home administrator license) ; and

(c) Has completed training requirements established by the Long Term Care Administrators Board by rule.

(2) The requirement that an individual have a baccalaureate degree under subsection (1)(a) of this section does not apply to a person who was licensed as a nursing home administrator in any state or territory of the United States before January 1, 1983.

(3) The training requirements established under subsection (1)(c) of this section do not apply to a person who has at least one year of experience as an administrator of a dual facility.

(4) Notwithstanding the requirements established under subsection (1) of this section, upon the request of the governing body of a hospital, as defined in ORS 442.015 (Definitions) , the board shall adopt standards by rule that deem a health care administrator to have met the requirements for licensure as a nursing home administrator if the health care administrator possesses an advanced degree in management and has at least 10 years of experience in health care management. [1971 c.663 §6; 1973 c.827 §68; 1973 c.829 §58a; 1985 c.47 §3; 1987 c.544 §1; 1989 c.495 §2; 1995 c.667 §5; 2001 c.104 §260; 2009 c.595 §1061; 2009 c.768 §17; 2009 c.792 §47; 2013 c.314 §19; 2021 c.97 §79]

Source: Section 678.730 — Licensing qualifications of nursing home administrator; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors678.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 692.040 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 692 / Section 692.040
692.040 Application of chapter
Status: in_force

This chapter does not apply to any of the following:

(1) A public institution, medical college, county medical society, anatomical association, college of embalming or institution approved by the State Mortuary and Cemetery Board to accept bodies for education or research purposes under ORS 97.170 (Disposition of unclaimed body of deceased person) .

(2) The customs or rites of any religious sect except as to the burial or other disposition of their dead.

(3) A person who picks up dead human bodies under the direction of a licensed funeral service practitioner for delivery to a licensed funeral service practitioner, a licensed funeral establishment, an authorized cemetery, an authorized crematorium or another authorized facility for final disposition of human remains pursuant to an agreement with the funeral service practitioner, if the person is not otherwise engaged in any of the activities of a funeral service practitioner, an embalmer, a funeral establishment, a death care consultant, a cemetery, a crematorium or an alternative disposition facility as described in ORS 692.025 (License required for funeral service practitioner, embalmer, death care consultant, funeral establishment operator, cemetery operator, crematory operator or alternative disposition facility) or another authorized facility for final disposition of human remains as described in ORS 692.275 (Certificate of authority for operating cemetery, crematorium or facility for final disposition) .

(4) A person who picks up dead human bodies under the direction of a licensed funeral service practitioner employed by a funeral establishment registered under ORS 692.270 (Certificate of removal registration for removal of dead human bodies) for transportation out of the state or for delivery out of the state to a funeral service practitioner, funeral establishment, cemetery, crematorium or alternative disposition facility pursuant to an agreement with the funeral service practitioner, if the person is not otherwise engaged in any of the activities of a funeral service practitioner, an embalmer, a funeral establishment, a death care consultant, a cemetery, a crematorium or an alternative disposition facility as described in ORS 692.025 (License required for funeral service practitioner, embalmer, death care consultant, funeral establishment operator, cemetery operator, crematory operator or alternative disposition facility) or another authorized facility for final disposition of human remains as described in ORS 692.275 (Certificate of authority for operating cemetery, crematorium or facility for final disposition) . [Amended by 1957 c.596 §2; 1983 c.810 §5; 1985 c.207 §10; 1999 c.724 §5; 2009 c.709 §11; 2015 c.651 §7; 2021 c.296 §21]

Source: Section 692.040 — Application of chapter , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors692.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 697.005 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 697 / Section 697.005
697.005 Definitions for ORS 697.005 to 697.095
Status: in_force

As used in ORS 697.005 (Definitions for ORS 697.005 to 697.095) to 697.095 (Civil penalties) :

(1) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) “Collection agency” means:

(A) A person that engages directly or indirectly in soliciting a claim for collection, or collecting or attempting to collect a claim that is owed, due or asserted to be owed or due to another person or to a public body at the time the person solicits, collects or attempts to collect the claim;

(B) A person that directly or indirectly furnishes, attempts to furnish, sells or offers to sell forms represented to be a collection system even if the forms direct the debtor to pay the creditor and even if the creditor may or does use the forms in the creditor’s own name;

(C) A person that, in attempting to collect or in collecting the person’s own claim, uses a fictitious name or any name other than the person’s own name that indicates to the debtor that a third person is collecting or attempting to collect the claim;

(D) A person that engages in the business of soliciting the right to repossess or in repossessing collateral security due or asserted to be due to another person; or

(E) A person that, in collecting claims from another person:

(i) Uses any name other than the name regularly used in conducting the business out of which the claim arose; and

(ii) Engages in any action or conduct that tends to convey the impression that a third party has been employed or engaged to collect the claim.

(b) “Collection agency” does not include:

(A) An individual who engages in soliciting claims for collection, or who collects or attempts to collect claims on behalf of a registrant under ORS 697.005 (Definitions for ORS 697.005 to 697.095) to 697.095 (Civil penalties) , if the individual is an employee of the registrant.

(B) An individual who collects or attempts to collect claims for not more than three employers, if the individual carries on all collection efforts in the name of the employer and the individual is an employee of the employer.

(C) A person that prepares or mails monthly or periodic statements of accounts due on behalf of another person if all payments are made to the other person and the person that prepares the statements of accounts does not make other collection efforts.

(D) An attorney-at-law rendering services in the performance of the duties of an attorney-at-law.

(E) A licensed certified public accountant or public accountant who performs the duties of a licensed certified public accountant or public accountant.

(F) A bank, mutual savings bank, consumer finance company, trust company, savings and loan association, credit union or debt consolidation agency.

(G) A principal real estate broker that is licensed under ORS 696.020 (License required for individuals engaged in professional real estate activities) , with respect to any collection or billing activity that involves a real estate closing escrow, as defined in ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) .

(H) An escrow agent that is licensed under ORS 696.511 (License requirement) , with respect to the escrow agent’s:

(i) Collection or billing activities that are related to closing an escrow, as defined in ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) , or related to a collection escrow, as defined in ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) ; or

(ii) Service as a trustee of a trust deed in accordance with ORS 86.713 (Qualifications of trustee) .

(I) An individual who is regularly employed as a credit person or in a similar capacity by one person, firm or corporation that is not a collection agency.

(J) A public officer or a person that acts under order of a court.

(K) A person that acts as a property manager in collecting or billing for rent, fees, deposits or other sums due landlords of managed units.

(L) A person that provides billing services. A person provides billing services for the purposes of this subparagraph if the person engages, directly or indirectly, in the business or pursuit of collecting claims for another person, whether in the other person’s name or any other name, by any means that:

(i) Uses an accounting procedure, preparation of mail billing or any other means intended to accelerate cash flow to the other person’s bank account or to any separate trust account; and

(ii) Does not include any personal contact or contact by telephone with the person from whom the claim is sought to be collected.

(M) A person that provides factoring services. A person provides factoring services for the purposes of this subparagraph if the person engages, directly or indirectly, in the business or pursuit of:

(i) Lending or advancing money to commercial clients on the security of merchandise or accounts receivable and then enforcing collection actions or procedures for the loans or advances; or

(ii) Soliciting or collecting on accounts that have been purchased from commercial clients under an agreement whether or not the agreement:

(I) Allows recourse against the commercial client;

(II) Requires the commercial client to provide any form of guarantee of payment of the purchased account; or

(III) Requires the commercial client to establish or maintain a reserve account in any form.

(N) An individual employed by another person that operates as a collection agency unless the individual operates as an independent collection agency while a collection agency employs the individual.

(O) A mortgage banker as defined in ORS 86A.100 (Definitions) .

(P) A public utility, as defined in ORS 757.005 (Definition of public utility) , a telecommunications utility, as defined in ORS 759.005 (Definitions) , a people’s utility district, as defined in ORS 261.010 (Definitions) , and a cooperative corporation that engages in furnishing electric or communication service to consumers.

(Q) A public body or an individual that collects or attempts to collect claims owed, due or asserted to be owed or due to a public body, if the individual is an employee of the public body.

(R) A person that receives an assignment of debt in any form without an obligation to pay the assignor any of the proceeds resulting from a collection of all or a portion of the debt.

(S) A person for whom the Director of the Department of Consumer and Business Services determines by order or by rule that the protection of the public health, safety and welfare does not require registration with the Department of Consumer and Business Services as a collection agency.

(2) “Collection system” means a scheme intended or calculated to be used to collect claims sent, prepared or delivered by:

(a) A person that in collecting or attempting to collect the person’s own claim uses a fictitious name or any name other than the person’s own name that indicates to the debtor that a third person is collecting or attempting to collect the claim; or

(b) A person that engages directly or indirectly in soliciting claims for collection, or collecting or attempting to collect claims owed or due or asserted to be owed or due another person.

(3) “Claim” means an obligation to pay money or value if the obligation arises out of an agreement or contract, express or implied.

(4) “Client” or “customer” means a person that authorizes or employs a collection agency to collect a claim.

(5) “Debtor” means a person that owes or is alleged to owe a claim.

(6) “Nationwide Multistate Licensing System” means a system that the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators, or assignees of the Conference of State Bank Supervisors or the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators, develop and maintain for participating state agencies to use in licensing and registering mortgage loan originators, as defined in ORS 86A.200 (Definitions) , and other persons that provide nondepository financial services.

(7) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) “Out-of-state collection agency” means a collection agency located outside of this state the activities of which, within this state, are limited to collecting a debt that a debtor located in this state incurs outside this state.

(b) As used in this subsection, “collecting a debt” means collecting a debt on behalf of clients located outside this state by means of interstate communications, including telephone, mail or facsimile transmission from the collection agency’s location in another state.

(8) “Person” means an individual, firm, partnership, trust, joint venture, association, limited liability company or corporation.

(9) “Public body” has the meaning given that term in ORS 174.109 (“Public body” defined) .

(10) “Registrant” means a person that is registered under ORS 697.005 (Definitions for ORS 697.005 to 697.095) to 697.095 (Civil penalties) or that is registered or licensed as a collection agency under the laws of another state.

(11) “Statement of account” means a report setting forth amounts billed, invoices, credits allowed or aged balance due. [1981 c.85 §2; 1987 c.373 §43; 1993 c.744 §20; 1995 c.622 §1; 1999 c.468 §1; 2001 c.917 §5; 2009 c.134 §1; 2013 c.444 §1; 2019 c.106 §1]

Source: Section 697.005 — Definitions for ORS 697.005 to 697.095 , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors697.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.202 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.202
677.202 When procedure inapplicable
Status: in_force

ORS 677.200 (Disciplinary procedure) does not apply in cases where the license of a person to practice under this chapter has been suspended automatically as provided in ORS 677.225 (Automatic suspension of license for mental illness or imprisonment) . [1967 c.470 §33; 1983 c.486 §24; 1989 c.830 §12; 1991 c.485 §6]

Source: Section 677.202 — When procedure inapplicable , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.590 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.590
696.590 Penalty amounts
Status: in_force

(1) Any person who violates ORS 696.511 (License requirement) (1) may be required by the Real Estate Commissioner to forfeit and pay to the General Fund of the State Treasury a civil penalty in an amount determined by the commissioner of:

(a) Not less than $500 nor more than $1,000 for the first offense of unlicensed professional escrow activity; and

(b) Not less than $1,000 nor more than $3,000 for the second and subsequent offenses of unlicensed professional escrow activity.

(2) In addition to the civil penalty set forth in subsection (1) of this section, any person who violates ORS 696.511 (License requirement) may be required by the commissioner to forfeit and pay to the General Fund of the State Treasury a civil penalty in an amount determined by the commissioner but not to exceed the amount by which such person profited in any transaction which violates ORS 696.511 (License requirement) .

(3) Civil penalties under this section must be imposed in the manner provided in ORS 183.745 (Civil penalty procedures) .

(4) The civil penalty provisions of subsections (1) and (2) of this section are in addition to and not in lieu of the criminal penalties for unlicensed professional escrow activity in ORS 696.990 (Penalties) (1) and (2). [1991 c.874 §17; 2003 c.427 §14]

Source: Section 696.590 — Penalty amounts , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 674.220 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 674 / Section 674.220
674.220 Prohibited activities
Status: in_force

(1) An appraisal management company or an employee, controlling person or agent of an appraisal management company may not:

(a) Attempt to influence the development or reporting of an appraisal or appraisal review through coercion, extortion, collusion, compensation, inducement, intimidation, bribery or any other manner, including but not limited to:

(A) Withholding or threatening to withhold timely payment for an appraisal;

(B) Withholding or threatening to withhold future business for an appraiser;

(C) Expressly or impliedly promising future business, promotions or increased compensation for an appraiser;

(D) Conditioning the ordering of an appraisal report or any payment on the opinion, conclusion or valuation to be reached, or on a preliminary estimate or opinion requested from an appraiser;

(E) Requesting that an appraiser provide an estimated, predetermined or desired valuation in an appraisal report, or provide estimated values or comparable sales at any time prior to the appraiser’s completion of real estate appraisal activity;

(F) Providing to an appraiser an anticipated, estimated, encouraged or desired value for a subject property or a proposed or target amount to be loaned to the borrower, except that a copy of the sales contract for a purchase transaction may be provided; or

(G) Providing to an appraiser, or any entity or individual related to the appraiser, stock or other financial or nonfinancial benefits;

(b) Require an appraiser to accept an appraisal assignment if the appraiser has notified the company that the appraiser declines the assignment because the assignment must be completed within a time frame that the appraiser, in the appraiser’s professional judgment, believes does not afford the appraiser the ability to meet the appraiser’s legal and professional obligations;

(c) Require an appraiser to accept an appraisal assignment if the appraiser has notified the company that the appraiser declines the assignment because, in the appraiser’s professional judgment, the appraiser does not have the necessary expertise for the assignment;

(d) Prohibit lawful communications between the appraiser and any other person who the appraiser, in the appraiser’s professional judgment, believes possesses information that would be relevant;

(e) Knowingly require an appraiser to take any action that does not comply with the provisions of ORS chapter 674, the rules of the Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board or any assignment conditions and certifications required by the client for whom an appraisal is being performed;

(f) Require an appraiser to indemnify the appraisal management company or any other party against liability, damages, losses or claims that arise out of any act or conduct of the appraisal management company or that do not arise out of the services performed by the appraiser;

(g) Prohibit an appraiser from reporting the fee paid to the appraiser in the appraisal report;

(h) Allow a person to perform an appraisal review relating to a property located in this state if the person is not an appraiser with the licensure required to perform the appraisal review;

(i) Substantively alter in any way a completed appraisal report submitted by an appraiser; or

(j) Remove the appraiser from the appraiser panel without prior written notice to the appraiser, including notice of evidence of the reason for removal.

(2) An appraisal management company may request, on behalf of and with the approval of a financial institution at the request of a consumer, that an appraiser:

(a) Provide additional information about the basis for the valuation;

(b) Correct objective factual errors in a completed appraisal report; or

(c) Consider the prices of other comparable properties. [2010 c.87 §5; 2011 c.447 §12; 2021 c.313 §3]

Note: See note under 674.200 (Definitions for ORS 674.200 to 674.250) .

Source: Section 674.220 — Prohibited activities , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors674.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 703.050 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 703 / Section 703.050
703.050 Polygraph examiner license requirement
Status: in_force

No person, including persons employed by a state agency or public body in this state, may engage in conducting polygraph examinations, refer to that person as a polygraph examiner or offer or advertise services as a polygraph examiner unless that person is licensed under ORS 703.010 (Definitions) to 703.310 (Polygraph equipment requirements) as a polygraph examiner. [1975 c.608 §4]

Source: Section 703.050 — Polygraph examiner license requirement , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors703.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 680.560 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 680 / Section 680.560
680.560 Board meetings
Status: in_force

The State Board of Denture Technology shall hold a meeting at least once each year and shall annually elect a chairperson from its members. [1979 c.1 §10; 1981 c.313 §6; 1991 c.921 §13; 1993 c.142 §13; 1999 c.885 §29; 2003 c.547 §18]

Source: Section 680.560 — Board meetings , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors680.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 689.305 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 689 / Section 689.305
689.305 Registration of drug outlets
Status: in_force

(1) All drug outlets shall annually register with the State Board of Pharmacy.

(2) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) Each drug outlet shall apply for a certificate of registration in one or more of the following classifications:

(A) Retail drug outlet.

(B) Institutional drug outlet.

(C) Manufacturer drug outlet.

(D) Wholesale distributor drug outlet.

(E) Nonprescription drug outlet.

(F) Third-party logistics provider drug outlet.

(b) An individual who is employed by a corporation that is registered under any classification listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection is not required to register under the provisions of this section.

(3) The board shall establish by rule pursuant to ORS 689.155 (Authority of board over medications, drugs, devices and other materials) and 689.205 (Rules) the criteria that each drug outlet must meet to qualify for registration in each classification designated in subsection (2)(a) of this section. The board may issue various types of certificates of registration with varying restrictions to the designated outlets where the board deems it necessary by reason of the type of drug outlet requesting a certificate.

(4) A drug outlet registered under this section may lawfully sell and distribute nonprescription drugs. Drug outlets engaging in the sale and distribution of nonprescription drugs may not be deemed to be improperly engaged in the practice of pharmacy. [1979 c.777 §30; 1993 c.571 §8; 2023 c.93 §2]

Source: Section 689.305 — Registration of drug outlets; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors689.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 684.150 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 684 / Section 684.150
684.150 Powers and duties of board
Status: in_force

(1) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall adopt a seal which shall be affixed to all licenses issued by it. The board shall from time to time adopt such rules as it deems proper and necessary for the administration of this chapter and the performance of its work. Upon receipt of a complaint, the board has authority to make investigations, administer oaths, take affidavits, summon witnesses, and require the production of evidence, documents and records pertaining to the complaint. The board may also take testimony as to matters pertaining to its duties and for the administration of this chapter. A majority of the board constitutes a quorum.

(2) The board shall meet as a board of examiners during the months of January and July each year on such days and at such times and places as may be found necessary for the performance of its duties.

(3) The board shall adopt a schedule of minimum educational requirements, which shall be without prejudice or discrimination as to the different colleges teaching chiropractic. [Amended by 1975 c.492 §6; 1987 c.376 §4; 2001 c.598 §2a]

Source: Section 684.150 — Powers and duties of board; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors684.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 674.120 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 674 / Section 674.120
674.120 Nonresident certificate or license recognized
Status: in_force

The Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board shall recognize temporarily the certificate or license of an appraiser issued by another state if:

(1) The appraiser’s business is of a temporary nature; and

(2) The appraiser registers with the board. [1991 c.5 §8; 1993 c.465 §6]

Source: Section 674.120 — Nonresident certificate or license recognized; criteria , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors674.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 681.400 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 681 / Section 681.400
681.400 State Board of Examiners for Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology
Status: in_force

(1) There is established a State Board of Examiners for Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology. The board consists of eight members appointed by the Governor and subject to confirmation by the Senate in the manner provided in ORS 171.562 (Procedures for confirmation) and 171.565 (Vote required for confirmation) . All members of the board must be residents of this state. Of the members of the board:

(a) Two must be audiologists licensed under this chapter.

(b) Two must be speech-language pathologists licensed under this chapter.

(c) One must be a speech-language pathology assistant certified under ORS 681.360 (Certificate for speech-language pathology assistant) .

(d) One must be a person licensed to practice medicine who also holds board certification from the American Board of Otolaryngology.

(e) Two must be members of the public who are not:

(A) Otherwise eligible for appointment to the board; or

(B) A spouse, domestic partner, child, parent or sibling of:

(i) An audiologist;

(ii) A speech-language pathologist;

(iii) A speech-language pathology assistant; or

(iv) A person licensed to practice medicine who also holds board certification from the American Board of Otolaryngology.

(2) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) Board members required to be licensed audiologists, licensed speech-language pathologists or certified speech-language pathology assistants may be selected by the Governor from a list of three to five nominees for each vacancy, submitted by:

(A) Any professional organization representing audiologists, if the vacancy on the board is for an audiologist position;

(B) Any professional organization representing speech-language pathologists, if the vacancy on the board is for a speech-language pathologist position; or

(C) Any professional organization representing speech-language pathology assistants, if the vacancy on the board is for a speech-language pathology assistant position.

(b) In selecting the members of the board, the Governor shall strive to balance the representation on the board according to:

(A) Geographic areas of this state; and

(B) Ethnic group.

(3) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The term of office of each member is three years, but a member serves at the pleasure of the Governor. The terms must be staggered so that no more than three terms end each year. Before the expiration of the term of a member, the Governor shall appoint a successor whose term begins on July 1 next following. A member is eligible for reappointment. If there is a vacancy for any cause, the Governor shall make an appointment to become immediately effective for the unexpired term.

(b) A board member shall be removed immediately from the board if, during the member’s term, the member:

(A) Is not a resident of this state;

(B) Has been absent from three consecutive board meetings, unless at least one absence is excused;

(C) Is not a licensed audiologist or a retired audiologist who was a licensed audiologist whose license was in good standing at the time of retirement, if the board member was appointed to serve on the board as an audiologist;

(D) Is not a licensed speech-language pathologist or a retired speech-language pathologist who was a licensed speech-language pathologist whose license was in good standing at the time of retirement, if the board member was appointed to serve on the board as a speech-language pathologist; or

(E) Is not a certified speech-language pathology assistant or a retired speech-language pathology assistant who was a certified speech-language pathology assistant whose certificate was in good standing at the time of retirement, if the board member was appointed to serve on the board as a speech-language pathology assistant. [Formerly 694.445; 1985 c.64 §7; 1995 c.280 §16; 2005 c.698 §16; 2009 c.535 §16; 2009 c.756 §43a; 2021 c.138 §1]

Source: Section 681.400 — State Board of Examiners for Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors681.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.415 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.415
677.415 Investigation of incompetence
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Health care facility” means a facility licensed under ORS 441.015 (Licensing of facilities and health maintenance organizations) to 441.119 (Exemptions) and 441.993 (Civil penalties and administrative actions) .

(b) “Official action” means a restriction, limitation, loss or denial of privileges of a licensee to practice medicine, or any formal action taken against a licensee by a government agency or a health care facility based on a finding of medical incompetence, unprofessional conduct, physical incapacity or impairment.

(2) The Oregon Medical Board on the board’s own motion may investigate any evidence that appears to show that a licensee licensed by the board is or may be medically incompetent or is or may be guilty of unprofessional or dishonorable conduct or is or may be a licensee with a physical incapacity or an impairment as defined in ORS 676.303 (Purposes of health professional regulatory boards) .

(3) A licensee licensed by the Oregon Medical Board, the Oregon Medical Association, Inc., or any component society thereof, the Osteopathic Physicians and Surgeons of Oregon, Inc. or the Oregon Podiatric Medical Association shall report within 10 working days, and any other person may report, to the board any information such licensee, association, society or person may have that appears to show that a licensee is or may be medically incompetent or is or may be guilty of unprofessional or dishonorable conduct or is or may be a licensee with a physical incapacity.

(4) A licensee shall self-report within 10 working days any official action taken against the licensee.

(5) A health care facility shall report to the Oregon Medical Board any official action taken against a licensee within 10 business days of the date of the official action.

(6) A licensee’s voluntary withdrawal from the practice of medicine or podiatry, voluntary resignation from the staff of a health care facility or voluntary limitation of the licensee’s staff privileges at such a health care facility shall be promptly reported to the Oregon Medical Board by the health care facility and the licensee if the licensee’s voluntary action occurs while the licensee is under investigation by the health care facility or a committee thereof for any reason related to possible medical incompetence, unprofessional conduct or physical incapacity or impairment as defined in ORS 676.303 (Purposes of health professional regulatory boards) .

(7) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A report made in accordance with subsection (3) of this section shall contain:

(A) The name, title, address and telephone number of the person making the report; and

(B) Information that appears to show that a licensee is or may be medically incompetent, is or may be guilty of unprofessional or dishonorable conduct or is or may be a licensee with a physical incapacity.

(b) The Oregon Medical Board may not require in a report made in accordance with subsection (5) or (6) of this section more than:

(A) The name, title, address and telephone number of the licensee making the report or the name, address and telephone number of the health care facility making the report;

(B) The date of an official action taken against the licensee or the licensee’s voluntary action under subsection (6) of this section; and

(C) A description of the official action or the licensee’s voluntary action, as appropriate to the report, including:

(i) The specific restriction, limitation, suspension, loss or denial of the licensee’s medical staff privileges and the effective date or term of the restriction, limitation, suspension, loss or denial; or

(ii) The fact that the licensee has voluntarily withdrawn from the practice of medicine or podiatry, voluntarily resigned from the staff of a health care facility or voluntarily limited the licensee’s privileges at a health care facility and the effective date of the withdrawal, resignation or limitation.

(c) The Oregon Medical Board may not require in a report made in accordance with subsection (4) of this section more than:

(A) The name, title, address and telephone number of the licensee making the report; and

(B) The specific restriction, limitation, suspension, loss or denial of the licensee’s staff privileges and the effective date or term of the restriction, limitation, suspension, loss or denial.

(8) A report made in accordance with this section may not include any data that is privileged under ORS 41.675 (Inadmissibility of certain data provided to peer review body of health care providers and health care groups) .

(9) If, in the opinion of the Oregon Medical Board, it appears that information provided to it under this section is or may be true, the board may order an informal interview with the licensee subject to the notice requirement of ORS 677.320 (Investigation of complaints and suspected violations) .

(10) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A health care facility’s failure to report an official action as required under subsection (5) of this section constitutes a violation of this section. The health care facility is subject to a penalty of not more than $10,000 for each violation. The Oregon Medical Board may impose the penalty in accordance with ORS 183.745 (Civil penalty procedures) and, in addition to the penalty, may assess reasonable costs the board incurs in enforcing the requirements of this section against the health care facility if the enforcement results in the imposition of a civil penalty.

(b) The Attorney General may bring an action in the name of the State of Oregon in a court of appropriate jurisdiction to recover a civil penalty and costs assessed under this subsection.

(c) A civil penalty assessed or recovered in accordance with this subsection shall be paid to the State Treasury and the State Treasurer shall credit the amount of the payment to the Primary Care Services Fund established under ORS 442.570 (Primary Care Services Fund) .

(11) A person who reports in good faith to the Oregon Medical Board as required by this section is immune from civil liability by reason of making the report. [1975 c.796 §6; 1977 c.448 §11; 1981 c.339 §2; 1983 c.486 §42; 1985 c.322 §5; 1989 c.830 §27; 1997 c.792 §27; 2003 c.554 §1; 2007 c.70 §302; 2007 c.803 §2; 2009 c.756 §28; 2010 c.42 §15]

Source: Section 677.415 — Investigation of incompetence; reports to board; contents; informal interview; penalty for failure to report official action , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.800 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.800
696.800 Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in ORS 696.392 (Power of commissioner to administer oaths, take depositions and issue subpoenas) , 696.600 (Definitions for ORS 696.392, 696.600 to 696.785 and 696.995) to 696.785 (Commissioner duties when illegal commingling of funds found) , 696.800 (Definitions) to 696.870 (Duties of real estate licensee under ORS 105.462 to 105.490, 696.301 and 696.870) and 696.995 (Civil penalties for violation of ORS 696.603, 696.606 or 696.612) , unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) “Agent” means:

(a) A principal real estate broker who has entered into:

(A) A listing agreement with a seller;

(B) A service contract with a buyer to represent the buyer; or

(C) A disclosed limited agency agreement; or

(b) A real estate broker associated with a principal real estate broker to act as the principal real estate broker’s agent in connection with acts requiring a real estate license and to function under the principal real estate broker’s supervision.

(2) “Buyer” means a potential transferee in a real property transaction, and includes a person who:

(a) Executes an offer to purchase real property from a seller through an agent; or

(b) Enters into an exclusive representation contract or buyer’s service agreement with an agent, whether or not a sale or transfer of property results.

(3) “Confidential information” means information communicated to an agent by the buyer or seller of one to four residential units regarding the real property transaction, including but not limited to price, terms, financial qualifications or motivation to buy or sell. “Confidential information” does not mean information that:

(a) The buyer instructs the agent to disclose about the buyer to the seller or the seller instructs the agent to disclose about the seller to the buyer; and

(b) The agent knows or should know failure to disclose would constitute fraudulent representation.

(4) “Disclosed limited agency” means a real property transaction in which the representation of a buyer and seller or the representation of two or more buyers occurs within the same real estate business.

(5) “Listing agreement” means a contract between an agent and a seller of real property that authorizes the agent, in exchange for compensation, to act on behalf of the seller in offering the real property for sale or in finding and obtaining a buyer.

(6) “Listing price” means the amount expressed in dollars, specified in the listing agreement, for which the seller is willing to sell the real property through the listing agent.

(7) “Offer” means a written proposal executed by a buyer for the sale or lease of real property.

(8) “Offering price” is the amount expressed in dollars specified in an offer to purchase for which the buyer is willing to buy the real property.

(9) “Principal” means the person who has permitted or directed an agent to act on the principal’s behalf. In a real property transaction, this generally means the buyer or the seller.

(10) “Real property” means any estate in real property, including a condominium as defined in ORS 100.005 (Definitions) , a timeshare property as defined in ORS 94.803 (Definitions for ORS 94.803 and 94.807 to 94.945) and the granting of an option or right of first refusal. “Real property” also includes a manufactured structure, as defined in ORS 446.561 (Definitions for ORS 446.566 to 446.646) , owned by the same person who owns the land upon which the manufactured structure is situated. “Real property” does not include a leasehold in real property.

(11) “Real property transaction” means a transaction regarding real property in which an agent is employed by one or more of the principals to act in that transaction and includes but is not limited to listing agreements, buyer’s service agreements, exclusive representation contracts and offers to purchase.

(12) “Sale” or “sold” refers to a transaction for the transfer of real property from the seller to the buyer and includes:

(a) Exchanges of real property between the seller and the buyer and third parties; and

(b) Land sales contracts.

(13) “Seller” means a potential transferor in a real property transaction and includes an owner:

(a) Who enters into a listing agreement with an agent, whether or not a transfer results; or

(b) Who receives an offer to purchase real property that the seller owns from an agent acting on behalf of a buyer. [1993 c.570 §2; 2001 c.300 §44; 2003 c.655 §84; 2005 c.116 §§13,14; 2007 c.319 §21; 2017 c.234 §27]

Note: Section 351, chapter 79, Oregon Laws 1995, provides:

Sec. 351. The provisions of ORS 696.800 (Definitions) to 696.855 (Common law application to statutory obligations and remedies) [series became 696.800 (Definitions) to 696.870 (Duties of real estate licensee under ORS 105.462 to 105.490, 696.301 and 696.870) ] apply to ORS 696.010 (Definitions) to 696.495 (Revolving fund) . [1995 c.79 §351]

Source: Section 696.800 — Definitions , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 701.990 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 701 / Section 701.990
701.990 Criminal penalties
Status: in_force

(1) Violation of ORS 701.021 (License requirement) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) The intentional use of a contractor’s license number without the authorization of the licensed contractor is a Class A misdemeanor.

(3) Use of a contractor’s license number, with or without the authorization of the licensed contractor, with the intent to deceive the public is a Class A misdemeanor. [1971 c.740 §22; 1999 c.344 §7; 2001 c.104 §282; 2001 c.850 §7; 2007 c.836 §37]

Source: Section 701.990 — Criminal penalties , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors701.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 679.050 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 679 / Section 679.050
679.050 Nonresident dentists giving or receiving instruction
Status: in_force

(1) If a reputable and duly licensed practitioner in dentistry of another state or country is asked to appear and demonstrate, receive or give instruction in the practice of dentistry before any qualified dental college or dental organization or dental study group recognized by the Oregon Board of Dentistry, the secretary of the board shall issue on written request of an authorized officer of such college or dental organization or dental study group, without fee, a permit for such purpose. A permit shall be issued upon such terms as the board shall prescribe.

(2) If a reputable and duly licensed practitioner in dentistry of another state has been granted staff privileges, either limited, special or general, by any duly licensed hospital in this state, the secretary of the board shall issue on written request and verification of an authorized officer of such hospital, a permit for such nonresident practitioner to practice dentistry in said hospital. [Amended by 1963 c.284 §4; 1965 c.122 §3; 1967 c.282 §1; 1973 c.390 §2; 2013 c.114 §2]

Source: Section 679.050 — Nonresident dentists giving or receiving instruction; hospital permits , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors679.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 684.090 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 684 / Section 684.090
684.090 Annual registration
Status: in_force

(1) In addition to meeting the requirements of ORS 684.092 (Completion of continuing education and pain management program required) , a person practicing chiropractic in this state shall, on or before the renewal date of each year after a license is issued to the person, pay to the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners an annual registration fee in an amount established by the board by rule and approved by the Oregon Department of Administrative Services.

(2) The maximum annual registration fee for an active senior may not exceed 75 percent of the annual registration fee.

(3) The board, at least 30 days prior to the renewal date, shall mail to the last-known professional address of each licensee a notice of the requirements of ORS 684.092 (Completion of continuing education and pain management program required) and that the annual registration fee will be due on or before the renewal date next following.

(4) The annual registration fee is payable only by personal, corporate or certified check, money order, credit card or other electronic method.

(5) If a person holding a license or certificate to practice under this chapter fails to pay the annual registration fee and to show compliance with or exemption from the requirement of ORS 684.092 (Completion of continuing education and pain management program required) before the renewal date, the license or certificate expires 30 days after the renewal date.

(6) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A license or certificate that is not renewed on time may not be renewed except:

(A) Upon written application and payment to the board of a fee established by the board by rule for the late renewal of the license or certificate; and

(B) Upon compliance with or exemption from the requirements of ORS 684.092 (Completion of continuing education and pain management program required) .

(b) A licensee who pays the annual renewal fee and shows compliance or exemption within 12 months of the expiration date of the license may not be required to submit to an examination for the reissuance of a license. [Amended by 1957 c.40 §1; 1969 c.191 §8; 1971 c.14 §2; 1974 c.48 §1; 1975 c.492 §4; 1989 c.805 §3; 1991 c.300 §5; 1991 c.892 §6; 1995 c.493 §5; 1997 c.264 §8; 2001 c.598 §2; 2001 c.745 §1; 2007 c.618 §4; 2013 c.514 §5]

Source: Section 684.090 — Annual registration; fees; rules; failure to renew license , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors684.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 676.595 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 676 / Section 676.595
676.595 Disclosure of certain investigatory information
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section, “board” means the:

(a) Sexual Offense Treatment Board established under ORS 675.395 (Sexual Offense Treatment Board) .

(b) Behavior Analysis Regulatory Board created under ORS 676.806 (Behavior Analysis Regulatory Board) .

(c) Long Term Care Administrators Board established under ORS 678.800 (Long Term Care Administrators Board) .

(d) State Board of Denture Technology established under ORS 680.556 (State Board of Denture Technology) .

(e) State Board of Direct Entry Midwifery established under ORS 687.470 (State Board of Direct Entry Midwifery) .

(f) Board of Athletic Trainers established under ORS 688.705 (Board of Athletic Trainers) .

(g) Respiratory Therapist and Polysomnographic Technologist Licensing Board established under ORS 688.820 (Respiratory Therapist and Polysomnographic Technologist Licensing Board) .

(h) Board of Licensed Dietitians established under ORS 691.485 (Board of Licensed Dietitians) .

(i) Environmental Health Registration Board established under ORS 700.210 (Environmental Health Registration Board) .

(2) Except to the extent that disclosure is necessary to conduct a full and proper investigation, the Health Licensing Office may not disclose information, including complaints and information identifying complainants, obtained by the office as part of an investigation conducted under:

(a) ORS 675.365 (Definitions for ORS 675.365 to 675.410) to 675.410 (Duties of Health Licensing Office under ORS 675.365 to 675.410) , 676.802 (Definitions for ORS 676.802 to 676.830) to 676.830 (Health benefit plan credentialing for applied behavior analysis providers) , 678.710 (Definitions for ORS 678.710 to 678.820) to 678.820 (Duties and powers of board and Health Licensing Office) , 680.500 (Definitions for ORS 680.500 to 680.565) to 680.565 (Authority of Health Licensing Office and director) , 687.405 (“Direct entry midwifery” defined) to 687.495 (Collection of data on birth and fetal death outcomes) , 688.701 (Definitions for ORS 688.701 to 688.734) to 688.734 (Disciplinary authority of Health Licensing Office) , 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) or 691.405 (Definitions for ORS 691.405 to 691.485) to 691.485 (Board of Licensed Dietitians) or ORS chapter 700.

(b) ORS 676.560 (Purpose of Health Licensing Office) to 676.625 (Health Licensing Office Account) if the investigation is related to the regulation of:

(A) Sexual abuse specific treatment under ORS 675.365 (Definitions for ORS 675.365 to 675.410) to 675.410 (Duties of Health Licensing Office under ORS 675.365 to 675.410) ;

(B) Applied behavior analysis under ORS 676.802 (Definitions for ORS 676.802 to 676.830) to 676.830 (Health benefit plan credentialing for applied behavior analysis providers) ;

(C) Nursing home administration and residential care facility administration under ORS 678.710 (Definitions for ORS 678.710 to 678.820) to 678.820 (Duties and powers of board and Health Licensing Office) ;

(D) The practice of denture technology under ORS 680.500 (Definitions for ORS 680.500 to 680.565) to 680.565 (Authority of Health Licensing Office and director) ;

(E) Direct entry midwifery under ORS 687.405 (“Direct entry midwifery” defined) to 687.495 (Collection of data on birth and fetal death outcomes) ;

(F) Athletic training under ORS 688.701 (Definitions for ORS 688.701 to 688.734) to 688.734 (Disciplinary authority of Health Licensing Office) ;

(G) Respiratory care and polysomnography under ORS 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) ;

(H) Dietetics under ORS 691.405 (Definitions for ORS 691.405 to 691.485) to 691.485 (Board of Licensed Dietitians) ; or

(I) Environmental or waste water sanitation under ORS chapter 700.

(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, if the office or board decides not to impose a disciplinary sanction after conducting an investigation described in subsection (2) of this section:

(a) The office shall disclose information obtained as part of the investigation if the person requesting the information demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that the public interest in disclosure outweighs other interests in nondisclosure, including the public interest in nondisclosure.

(b) The office may disclose to a complainant who made a complaint related to the investigation a written summary of information obtained as part of the investigation to the extent that disclosure is necessary to explain the office’s or board’s decision. The person who is the subject of the investigation may review and obtain a copy of a written summary disclosed under this paragraph after the office has redacted any information identifying the complainant.

(4) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, if a decision is made to impose a disciplinary sanction and to issue a notice of intent to impose a disciplinary sanction after conducting an investigation described in subsection (2) of this section, upon written request by the person who is the subject of the investigation, the office shall disclose to the person all information obtained by the office or board during the investigation, except that the office may not disclose:

(a) Information that is otherwise privileged or confidential under state or federal law.

(b) Information identifying a person who provided information that led to the investigation, unless the person will provide testimony at a hearing arising out of the investigation.

(c) Information identifying a complainant.

(d) Reports of expert witnesses.

(5) Information disclosed to a person under subsection (4) of this section may be further disclosed by the person only to the extent that disclosure is necessary to prepare for a hearing arising out of the investigation.

(6) The office shall disclose:

(a) Any notice related to the imposition of a disciplinary sanction.

(b) A final order related to the imposition of a disciplinary sanction.

(c) An emergency suspension order.

(d) A consent order or stipulated agreement that involves the conduct of a person against whom discipline is sought.

(e) Information to further an investigation into board conduct under ORS 192.685 (Additional enforcement by Oregon Government Ethics Commission) .

(7) The office or board must summarize the factual basis for the office’s or board’s disposition of:

(a) A final order related to the imposition of a disciplinary sanction;

(b) An emergency suspension order; or

(c) A consent order or stipulated agreement that involves the conduct of a person against whom discipline is sought.

(8) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) An office or board record or order, or any part of an office or board record or order, that is obtained during an investigation described in subsection (2) of this section, during a contested case proceeding or as a result of entering into a consent order or stipulated agreement is not admissible as evidence and may not preclude an issue or claim in a civil proceeding.

(b) This subsection does not apply to a proceeding between the office or board and a person against whom discipline is sought as otherwise authorized by law.

(9) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) Notwithstanding subsection (2) of this section, the office is not publicly disclosing information when the office permits other public officials and members of the press to attend executive sessions where information obtained as part of an investigation is discussed. Public officials and members of the press attending such executive sessions may not disclose information obtained as part of an investigation to any other member of the public.

(b) For purposes of this subsection, “public official” means a member, member-elect or employee of a public entity as defined in ORS 676.177 (Disclosure of confidential information to another public entity) .

(10) The office may establish fees reasonably calculated to reimburse the actual cost of disclosing information to a person against whom discipline is sought as required by subsection (4) of this section. [2017 c.101 §2; 2018 c.61 §23; 2019 c.68 §15; 2019 c.456 §18; 2023 c.500 §12]

Source: Section 676.595 — Disclosure of certain investigatory information; further disclosure; required disclosures; fees , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors676.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.080 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.080
677.080 Prohibited acts
Status: in_force

A person may not:

(1) Knowingly make any false statement or representation on a matter, or willfully conceal any fact material to the right of the person to practice medicine or to obtain a license under this chapter.

(2) Sell or fraudulently obtain or furnish any medical and surgical diploma, license, record or registration, or aid or abet in the same.

(3) Impersonate anyone to whom a license has been granted by the Oregon Medical Board.

(4) Except as provided in ORS 676.347 (Volunteer practice by out-of-state health care practitioner) , 677.060 (Persons and practices not within scope of chapter) and 677.137 (License required for practice of medicine across state lines) , practice medicine in this state without a license required by this chapter. [Formerly 677.050; 1983 c.486 §5; 2022 c.62 §2; 2023 c.147 §1]

Source: Section 677.080 — Prohibited acts , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.132 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.132
677.132 Limited license
Status: in_force

(1) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) When a need exists, the Oregon Medical Board may issue a limited license for a specified period to an applicant who possesses the qualifications prescribed by the rules of the board.

(b) The board shall supervise the activities of the holder of a limited license and impose restrictions as the board finds necessary.

(c) Each person holding a limited license under this subsection must obtain an unlimited license at the earliest time possible. The board shall refuse to renew a limited license issued under this subsection at the end of a period specified by rule if the board determines that the holder of the limited license is not pursuing diligently an attempt to become qualified for an unlimited license.

(d) The board by rule shall prescribe the types of and limitations upon licenses issued under this subsection.

(2) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The board may issue a limited license to practice medicine in this state to a physician who is licensed to practice medicine in another state or country and who:

(A) Holds a degree of Doctor of Medicine, Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine or its equivalent;

(B) Is appointed as a full-time professor of medicine at a school of medicine in this state;

(C) Is in good standing with the state or country from which the physician holds a license to practice medicine;

(D) Meets any requirements established by rule of the board;

(E) Pays the license fee established by rule of the board;

(F) Submits to the board letters that attest to the applicant’s distinguished status and that are written by:

(i) The dean of the school of medicine where the applicant is a full-time professor of medicine;

(ii) The department chairpersons at the school of medicine who are directly involved in the applicant’s faculty assignments; and

(iii) At least five of the applicant’s academic colleagues who work outside of this state and who are nationally or internationally recognized experts in the specialty area in which the applicant practices or are current or former deans of schools of medicine;

(G) Maintains active membership in at least two medical specialty societies that restrict membership based on academic or area-of-practice criteria; and

(H) Has published at least two medical papers in peer-reviewed journals.

(b) The board may establish by rule other criteria or qualifications that a physician applying for the limited license described in this subsection must meet.

(c) A physician who is issued the limited license described in this subsection may practice medicine only in conjunction with a full-time appointment as a professor of medicine. A limited license is valid only so long as the physician maintains the full-time appointment.

(3) A person licensed under this section is subject to all the provisions of this chapter and to all the rules of the board and has the same duties and responsibilities and is subject to the same penalties and sanctions as any other person licensed under this chapter.

(4) The board may not issue more than eight licenses under subsection (2) of this section in a four-year period. The board shall ensure by rule the availability of at least two licenses in each year in a four-year period. [1967 c.470 §12; 1973 c.31 §3; 1983 c.486 §11; 1989 c.830 §7; 2015 c.582 §1; 2017 c.409 §23]

Source: Section 677.132 — Limited license; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 697.692 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 697 / Section 697.692
697.692 Fees
Status: in_force

(1) Subject to subsection (4) of this section, a debt management service provider may charge a consumer only the following fees:

(a) An initial fee of not more than $50.

(b) A fee reasonably calculated to recover the costs that the debt management service provider incurs in providing an initial counseling session or education class. The debt management service provider may charge the fee described in this paragraph in advance, but the fee may not exceed $50.

(c) A monthly fee equivalent to 15 percent of the funds that the debt management service provider receives from a consumer for payment to the consumer’s creditors. The debt management service provider may charge the fee described in this paragraph only if the debt management service provider holds a consumer’s funds, directly or indirectly, on the consumer’s behalf. The fee described in this paragraph may not exceed $65 per month.

(d) A fee equivalent to 15 percent of the amount of debt a consumer owes to one or more creditors at the time the consumer signs the agreement described in ORS 697.652 (Written agreement and budget analysis requirement) and places funds in a bank account that the consumer establishes or maintains in the consumer’s own name with an insured institution, as defined in ORS 706.008 (Additional definitions for Bank Act) , and designates specifically for making disbursements in connection with a debt management service. The debt management service provider may charge the fee described in this paragraph only if the debt management service provider does not hold a consumer’s funds directly or indirectly. The debt management service provider may not charge the fee described in this paragraph in amounts or installments that exceed $65 per month.

(e) A fee equivalent to 7.5 percent of the difference between the principal amount of the debt the consumer owed to the consumer’s creditor at the time the consumer signed the agreement described in ORS 697.652 (Written agreement and budget analysis requirement) and the amount the consumer paid to the creditor to settle the debt, exclusive of fees the consumer paid to the debt management service provider under paragraph (a), (b) or (d) of this subsection. The debt management service provider may charge the fee described in this paragraph only if the debt management service provider obtains from the consumer’s creditor a reduction in the principal amount of the consumer’s debt.

(f) A fee of not more than $50 per month during the term of an agreement between the consumer and the debt management service provider under which the debt management service provider improves or preserves, or offers to improve or preserve, a consumer’s credit record, credit history or credit rating but does not conduct a budget analysis for the consumer, act as a broker for another debt management service provider or otherwise engage in any other activity that constitutes a debt management service. A fee that a debt management service provider charges under paragraph (a) of this subsection is the fee for the first month of service under this paragraph.

(2) A debt management service provider may accept payment for a fee described in subsection (1) of this section by means of:

(a) A check, draft or similar paper instrument; or

(b) A transfer of funds through an electronic terminal, telephonic instrument, computer or magnetic tape that transmits an order, instruction or authorization to a financial institution to debit or credit an account.

(3) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A consumer may void a contract for debt management services, and a debt management service provider shall return to the consumer all sums the consumer paid to the debt management service provider and reimburse the consumer for reasonable attorney fees the consumer incurred in any action to enforce rights the consumer has under this subsection, if the debt management service provider charges the consumer more than the amounts set forth in this section.

(b) A consumer may not waive any of the rights the consumer has under this subsection, and any provision in any contract or other agreement that purports to waive the consumer’s rights is void.

(4) The director by rule may adjust the fees set forth in this section to reflect changes in the U.S. City Average Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (All Items) as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor. In adjusting fees, the director may consider whether changes in fees that other states charge for similar services warrant a change in fees in this state. [1983 c.17 §11; 1999 c.483 §1; 2005 c.309 §1; 2009 c.604 §§9,9a; 2017 c.465 §1]

Source: Section 697.692 — Fees; circumstances in which consumer may void contract; prohibition of waiver; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors697.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 670.030 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 670 / Section 670.030
670.030 Consideration of experience in lieu of education
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section:

(a) “Occupational or professional service” means a service:

(A) That an individual must possess a license, certificate or other form of authorization to provide under the laws of this state; and

(B) Over which a professional licensing board has regulatory oversight.

(b) “Professional licensing board” means a state agency or board that licenses, certifies or otherwise authorizes individuals to provide an occupational or professional service.

(2) A professional licensing board that regulates an occupational or professional service and that requires up to a high school diploma or equivalent for licensure, certification or other authorization to provide the occupational or professional service may consider an applicant’s relevant experience in lieu of the required education.

(3) A professional licensing board may adopt rules to carry out the provisions of this section. [2017 c.368 §1]

Source: Section 670.030 — Consideration of experience in lieu of education; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors670.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 689.445 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 689 / Section 689.445
689.445 Penalties and reinstatement
Status: in_force

(1) Upon the finding of the existence of grounds for discipline of any person holding a license, seeking a license or renewal of a license under the provisions of ORS 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) to 435.030 (Wholesale and manufacturer license) , 475.125 (Registration requirements) and 475.135 (Grounds to grant or deny registration) and this chapter, the State Board of Pharmacy may impose one or more of the following penalties:

(a) Suspension of the offender’s license for a term to be determined by the board;

(b) Revocation of the offender’s license;

(c) Restriction of the offender’s license to prohibit the offender from performing certain acts or from engaging in the practice of pharmacy in a particular manner for a term to be determined by the board;

(d) A civil penalty not to exceed:

(A) $1,000 for each offense committed by an individual; and

(B) $10,000 for each offense committed by a drug outlet;

(e) Refusal to renew offender’s license; or

(f) Placement of the offender on probation and supervision by the board for a period to be determined by the board.

(2) Any person whose license issued pursuant to this chapter has been suspended, revoked or restricted pursuant to this chapter, whether voluntarily or by action of the board, shall have the right, at reasonable intervals, to petition the board for reinstatement of such license. Such petition shall be made in writing and in the form prescribed by the board. Upon investigation and hearing, the board may in its discretion grant or deny such petition, or it may modify its original finding to reflect any circumstances which have changed sufficiently to warrant such modifications. Pardon and restoration of civil rights to any person formerly licensed by the board does not obligate the board to restore revoked, restricted or suspended licenses.

(3) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as barring criminal prosecutions for violations of ORS 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) to 435.130 (Jurisdiction over prosecutions) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 453.045 (Poison registers) , 475.035 (Authority to control schedule) to 475.190 (Exception to prescription requirement) , 475.744 (Providing hypodermic device or pipe to minor prohibited) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) to 475.980 (Affirmative defense to ORS 475.969, 475.971, 475.975 (1) and 475.976 (1)) and this chapter where such violations are deemed as criminal offenses in other statutes of this state or of the United States.

(4) Civil penalties under this section shall be imposed as provided in ORS 183.745 (Civil penalty procedures) .

(5) All penalties recovered under ORS 435.010 (License required for manufacture or sale of contraceptives) to 435.130 (Jurisdiction over prosecutions) , 453.025 (Certain practices not affected by ORS 453.005 to 453.135) , 453.045 (Poison registers) , 475.035 (Authority to control schedule) to 475.190 (Exception to prescription requirement) , 475.744 (Providing hypodermic device or pipe to minor prohibited) , 475.752 (Prohibited acts generally) to 475.980 (Affirmative defense to ORS 475.969, 475.971, 475.975 (1) and 475.976 (1)) and this chapter shall be deposited into the State Board of Pharmacy Account established in ORS 689.139 (State Board of Pharmacy Account) . [1979 c.777 §29; 1985 c.131 §5; 1991 c.734 §75; 1995 c.440 §12; 1997 c.729 §4; 2005 c.726 §12; 2007 c.90 §1]

Source: Section 689.445 — Penalties and reinstatement , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors689.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.490 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.490
696.490 Real Estate Account
Status: in_force

(1) There is established in the General Fund of the State Treasury the Real Estate Account. All moneys, fees and charges collected or received by the Real Estate Agency shall be deposited in the account.

(2) The moneys in the Real Estate Account are continuously appropriated for the payment of the expenses of the agency in carrying out the provisions of ORS 92.305 (Definitions for ORS 92.305 to 92.495) to 92.495 (Cease and desist order) , 94.803 (Definitions for ORS 94.803 and 94.807 to 94.945) , 94.807 (Application) to 94.945 (Advertising regulation) , 100.005 (Definitions) to 100.910 (Use of fees) , 100.990 (Criminal penalties) , 696.010 (Definitions) to 696.785 (Commissioner duties when illegal commingling of funds found) , 696.800 (Definitions) to 696.870 (Duties of real estate licensee under ORS 105.462 to 105.490, 696.301 and 696.870) and 696.995 (Civil penalties for violation of ORS 696.603, 696.606 or 696.612) . [Amended by 1955 c.457 §2; 1961 c.309 §4; 1963 c.440 §16; 1963 c.580 §50; 1965 c.617 §7; 1971 c.293 §2; 1974 c.26 §1; 1977 c.41 §2; 1981 c.85 §11; 1983 c.17 §30; 1983 c.530 §53; 1985 c.565 §117]

Source: Section 696.490 — Real Estate Account; disposition of receipts , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 680.070 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 680 / Section 680.070
680.070 Additional requirements for certain applicants
Status: in_force

The Oregon Board of Dentistry may adopt rules requiring additional education and examination of applicants who have failed the licensing examination three times. [Amended by 1963 c.266 §7; 1967 c.90 §2; 1971 c.34 §3; 1977 c.444 §4; 1979 c.526 §2; 1981 c.232 §3; 1983 c.169 §23; 2003 c.83 §11]

Source: Section 680.070 — Additional requirements for certain applicants; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors680.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.250 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.250
677.250 Records to be kept
Status: in_force

The executive director of the Oregon Medical Board shall keep a record of all board proceedings, and also a record of all applicants for a license, together with their ages, the time such applicants have spent in the study and practice of medicine, the name and location of all institutions granting to applicants degrees in medicine and such other information as the board may deem advisable. The record also shall show whether such applicants were rejected or licensed under this chapter. The record is prima facie evidence of all the matters therein recorded, and failure of a person’s name to appear in the record is prima facie evidence that such person does not have a license to practice medicine in this state. [Amended by 1967 c.470 §48; 2009 c.756 §25]

Source: Section 677.250 — Records to be kept , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.241 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.241
696.241 Clients’ trust accounts
Status: in_force

(1) As used in this section, “trust funds” means money belonging to others that is received or handled by a licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker in the course of conducting professional real estate activity and in the real estate licensee’s fiduciary capacity.

(2) A licensed real estate property manager, or a principal real estate broker who engages in the management of rental real estate, shall open and maintain in this state one or more separate federally insured bank accounts that are designated clients’ trust accounts under ORS 696.245 (Clients’ trust accounts) . A principal real estate broker who engages in the management of rental real estate or a licensed real estate property manager shall deposit in a clients’ trust account all trust funds received or handled by the principal real estate broker, licensed real estate property manager or real estate licensees subject to the supervision of the principal real estate broker.

(3) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) A principal real estate broker who receives or handles trust funds and does not deposit the trust funds in a licensed neutral escrow depository as described in paragraph (b) of this subsection shall open and maintain in this state one or more separate federally insured bank accounts that are designated clients’ trust accounts under ORS 696.245 (Clients’ trust accounts) . Pursuant to written agreement of all parties to a real estate transaction having an interest in the trust funds, the principal real estate broker shall immediately place the trust funds in a clients’ trust account.

(b) A principal real estate broker may deposit trust funds in a licensed neutral escrow depository in this state.

(4) A principal real estate broker or licensed real estate property manager who opens a clients’ trust account under subsection (2) or (3) of this section, or to whom ownership of a clients’ trust account is transferred, is liable for all deposits and disbursements made using the clients’ trust account until the principal real estate broker or licensed real estate property manager closes the account or transfers ownership of the account.

(5) A principal real estate broker or licensed real estate property manager may not commingle any other funds with the trust funds held in a clients’ trust account, except for:

(a) Earned interest on a clients’ trust account as provided in subsections (7) and (8) of this section; and

(b) Earned compensation as provided in subsection (9) of this section.

(6) If a licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker maintains a separate clients’ trust account in a branch office, a separate bookkeeping system must be maintained in the branch office and a copy of the records required under ORS 696.280 (Records of licensed real estate property managers and real estate brokers) must be maintained in the main office of the licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker.

(7) Trust funds received by a licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker may be deposited by the licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker in a federally insured interest-bearing bank account that is designated a clients’ trust account under ORS 696.245 (Clients’ trust accounts) , but only with the prior written approval of all parties who have an interest in the trust funds. The earnings of the interest-bearing account inure to the benefit of the licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker only if expressly approved in writing by all parties who have an interest in the trust funds before deposit of the trust funds.

(8) With prior written notice to all parties who have an interest in the trust funds, a principal real estate broker may place trust funds received by the principal real estate broker in a real estate sales, purchase or exchange transaction in a federally insured interest-bearing bank account that is designated a clients’ trust account under ORS 696.245 (Clients’ trust accounts) , the earnings of which inure to the benefit of a public benefit corporation, as defined in ORS 65.001 (Definitions) , for distribution to organizations and individuals for first-time homebuying assistance and for development of affordable housing. The principal real estate broker shall select a qualified public benefit corporation to receive the interest earnings.

(9) In connection with a real estate sales, purchase or exchange transaction, a principal real estate broker is not entitled to any part of any interest earnings on trust funds deposited under subsection (7) of this section or to any part of the earnest money or other money paid to the principal real estate broker as part or all of the principal real estate broker’s compensation until the transaction has been completed or terminated. The principal real estate broker and the seller shall negotiate and agree in writing to the disposition of forfeited earnest money at the time of execution by the seller of any listing agreement or earnest money agreement. An agreement about the disposition of forfeited earnest money must be initialed by the seller or immediately precede the seller’s signature.

(10) Trust funds in a clients’ trust account are not subject to execution or attachment on any claim against a licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker.

(11) The Real Estate Agency by rule shall establish an optional procedure by which a principal real estate broker may elect to disburse disputed funds held in relation to the sale, exchange or purchase of real estate from a clients’ trust account to the person who delivered the funds to the principal real estate broker. The procedure must allow disbursal not more than 20 days after a request is made for the disbursal. A disbursal pursuant to the procedure does not affect the claim of any other person to the funds.

(12) The agency may provide by rule for other records to be maintained and for the manner in which trust funds are deposited, held and disbursed. The rules adopted under this subsection may include requirements for interest or compensation held in a clients’ trust account pursuant to subsection (5) of this section to be disbursed from the clients’ trust account to a licensed real estate property manager or principal real estate broker.

(13) A real estate licensee who, for the purpose of transmitting a check, receives the check from a buyer or tenant that is payable to a property owner or seller is exempt from the deposit requirements of subsections (2) and (3) of this section. The agency may determine by rule the records that must be maintained for checks received as described in this subsection and the manner in which the checks must be transmitted. [1975 c.746 §18 (enacted in lieu of 696.240); 1977 c.649 §39; 1981 c.617 §11a; 1985 c.589 §4; 1991 c.5 §37; 2001 c.300 §21; 2003 c.224 §1; 2005 c.116 §18; 2005 c.393 §2a; 2007 c.224 §1; 2007 c.319 §9; 2007 c.337 §4; 2009 c.224 §5; 2009 c.324 §5; 2011 c.158 §4; 2013 c.145 §13; 2017 c.234 §15]

Source: Section 696.241 — Clients’ trust accounts; commingling of funds; branch trust account; interest earnings on trust account; when broker entitled to earnest money; funds not subject to execution; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 701.046 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 701 / Section 701.046
701.046 License application
Status: in_force

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, an applicant for a construction contractor license must submit the application on a form prescribed by the Construction Contractors Board. The application must include, but is not limited to, the following information:

(a) The endorsement being sought.

(b) A list of construction debts involving the applicant, or an owner or officer of the applicant, if the order, award, penalty or judgment that establishes the debt was issued within the preceding five years.

(c) For each person described in paragraphs (h), (i) and (j) of this subsection, a Social Security number.

(d) The applicant’s workers’ compensation insurance account number, if the applicant is required to have workers’ compensation insurance.

(e) The applicant’s unemployment insurance account number, if the applicant is required to have unemployment insurance.

(f) The applicant’s state withholding tax account number, if the applicant is required to withhold state income tax.

(g) The applicant’s federal employer identification number, if the applicant is required to have a federal employer identification number.

(h) The name and address of:

(A) Each of the applicant’s partners, if the applicant is a partnership, limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership.

(B) The applicant’s general partner, if the applicant is a limited partnership.

(C) Each joint venturer, if the applicant is a joint venture.

(D) The applicant’s owner, if the applicant is a sole proprietorship.

(E) The applicant’s officers, if the applicant is a corporation.

(F) The applicant’s manager and each member, if the applicant is a manager-managed limited liability company.

(G) Each of the applicant’s members, if the applicant is a member-managed limited liability company.

(H) The responsible managing individual designated by the applicant.

(I) Each of the applicant’s trustees, if the applicant is a trust.

(i) The name and address of the following if the applicant is a partnership, limited liability partnership, foreign limited liability partnership, joint venture, manager-managed limited liability company or member-managed limited liability company:

(A) Each partner in a partnership, limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(B) Each general partner in a limited partnership that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(C) Each joint venturer in a joint venture that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(D) The manager and each member of a manager-managed limited liability company that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(E) Each member of a member-managed limited liability company that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(F) Each officer of a corporation that is a partner, joint venturer or member of the applicant.

(G) Each individual who has a controlling ownership interest in, or management authority over, the applicant and who meets criteria adopted by the board by rule.

(j) The name and address of the following if the applicant is a limited partnership:

(A) Each partner of any partnership, limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership that is the general partner of the applicant.

(B) Each general partner of any limited partnership that is the general partner of the applicant.

(C) Each joint venturer in any joint venture that is the general partner of the applicant.

(D) The manager and each member of any manager-managed limited liability company that is the general partner of the applicant.

(E) Each member of any member-managed limited liability company that is the general partner of the applicant.

(F) Each officer of any corporation that is the general partner of the applicant.

(k) For each person described in paragraphs (h), (i) and (j) of this subsection, information as required by board rule regarding the following if related to construction activities:

(A) A final judgment against the person by a court in any state entered within five years preceding the application date that requires the person to pay money to another person or to a public body if the judgment remains unsatisfied on the application date.

(B) A final order against the person by an administrative agency in any state issued within five years preceding the application date that requires the person to pay money to another person or to a public body if the order remains unsatisfied on the application date.

(C) A court action against the person in any state pending on the application date that alleges the person owes money to another person or to a public body.

(D) An action by an administrative agency in any state pending on the application date that seeks an order that the person pay money to another person or to a public body.

(E) A conviction for a crime listed in ORS 701.098 (Grounds for discipline) (1)(L) entered within five years preceding the application date.

(F) An indictment for a crime listed in ORS 701.098 (Grounds for discipline) (1)(L) filed within five years preceding the application date.

(L) The basis on which the applicant meets the standards for independent contractor status under ORS 670.600 (Independent contractor defined) .

(2) Subsection (1)(h), (i) and (j) of this section does not apply if the applicant is a company that offers securities registered with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission for sale to the general public.

(3) The application described in subsection (1) of this section must be accompanied by proof satisfactory to the board that the applicant:

(a) Is in compliance with ORS 701.091 (Responsible managing individual) .

(b) Has the legal capacity to enter into contracts.

(4) Subsection (3)(a) of this section does not apply to an applicant for licensing with endorsement solely as a residential or commercial developer.

(5) An applicant shall conform to the information provided by the applicant on the application and to the terms of the application. [Formerly 701.075; 2009 c.11 §§90,91; 2009 c.226 §3; 2013 c.300 §1; 2023 c.277 §3]

Source: Section 701.046 — License application , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors701.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 674.205 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 674 / Section 674.205
674.205 Registration requirement
Status: in_force

(1) A person may not directly or indirectly engage in or attempt to engage in business as an appraisal management company or advertise or represent that the entity is an appraisal management company unless the person is:

(a) Registered as an appraisal management company with the Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board; or

(b) An appraisal management company owned and controlled by an insured depository institution as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 that is regulated by the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(2) A business entity may apply for registration as an appraisal management company on forms prescribed by rule by the Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board. The application must include:

(a) The name, address and phone contact information of the entity;

(b) The name, address and phone contact information of a controlling person of the entity;

(c) If the entity is not domiciled in this state, the name and phone contact information for the entity’s agent for service of process in this state;

(d) The name, address and phone contact information of any person that owns 10 percent or more of the entity;

(e) A certification that:

(A) Each owner, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, of the entity and the controlling person identified in the application have not had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, canceled, surrendered in lieu of revocation or revoked in any state, territory or possession of the United States, for a substantive cause, as determined by the Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board;

(B) The entity has a system to verify that each appraiser on the entity’s appraiser panel is licensed or certified under ORS 674.310 (Duties and powers of board) ;

(C) The entity requires an appraiser completing an appraisal at the entity’s request to confirm that the appraiser is competent to perform the appraisal assignment before accepting the assignment;

(D) The entity requires appraisers completing appraisals at the entity’s request to comply with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;

(E) The entity has a system in place to require that appraisals are conducted independently and without inappropriate influence or coercion as required by the appraisal independence standards established under section 129E of the Truth in Lending Act; and

(F) The entity maintains and retains for at least five years, or as required under ORS 674.150 (Maintenance of appraisal records) , a detailed record of each appraisal management services request the entity receives and the appraiser who performs the real estate appraisal activity contained in the request;

(f) The surety bond, letter of credit or deposit required by ORS 674.210 (Surety bond) ;

(g) Fees in an amount prescribed by rule by the board, which must be sufficient to cover the costs of administering ORS 674.200 (Definitions for ORS 674.200 to 674.250) to 674.250 (Fees) and 674.995 (Civil penalties for violation of ORS 674.200 to 674.250) ; and

(h) Any other information required by the board by rule.

(3) The board may not issue a registration to a business entity as an appraisal management company unless:

(a) Each individual who owns 10 percent or more of the entity and the controlling person identified by the entity in the application have completed a criminal records check;

(b) The board finds that no owner, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, of the entity or the controlling person identified in the application has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, canceled, surrendered in lieu of revocation or revoked in any state or territory or possession of the United States, for a substantive cause, as determined by the Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board; and

(c) The board determines that each individual who owns more than 10 percent of the entity and the controlling person identified by the entity in the application are of good moral character.

(4) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The board shall issue a unique registration number to each appraisal management company registered under this section.

(b) The board shall maintain a published list of appraisal management companies registered under this section.

(c) An appraisal management company registered under this section shall disclose the company’s registration number to each appraiser used by the company.

(5) An appraisal management company registration expires two years after the date of the issuance of the registration. The board shall adopt rules establishing the requirements for renewal or reactivation of a registration. The rules must require that an appraisal management company provide all of the information and certifications required for an initial application for registration under subsection (2) of this section in the renewal application. [2010 c.87 §2; 2011 c.447 §9; 2021 c.313 §2; 2023 c.4 §1]

Note: See note under 674.200 (Definitions for ORS 674.200 to 674.250) .

Source: Section 674.205 — Registration requirement; exceptions; list of registrants; renewal; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors674.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 676.622 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 676 / Section 676.622
676.622 Exemption from certain requirements for original signatures
Status: in_force

(1) A transaction conducted through a state or local system or network that provides electronic access to the Health Licensing Office information and services is exempt from any requirement under ORS 675.365 (Definitions for ORS 675.365 to 675.410) to 675.410 (Duties of Health Licensing Office under ORS 675.365 to 675.410) , 676.560 (Purpose of Health Licensing Office) to 676.625 (Health Licensing Office Account) , 676.630 (Definitions for ORS 676.630 to 676.660) to 676.660 (Health Licensing Office authority to discipline persons certified to practice advanced nonablative esthetics procedures) , 676.665 (Definitions for ORS 676.665 to 676.689) to 676.689 (Rules) , 676.695 (Definitions for ORS 676.695 to 676.725) to 676.725 (Civil penalties) , 676.730 (Definitions for ORS 676.730 to 676.748) to 676.748 (Rules) , 676.750 (Definitions for ORS 676.750 to 676.789) to 676.789 (Criminal penalties) , 676.810 (Board duties) , 676.815 (Behavior analysis interventionists) , 676.992 (Civil penalties) , 680.500 (Definitions for ORS 680.500 to 680.565) to 680.565 (Authority of Health Licensing Office and director) , 681.700 (Definitions for ORS 681.700 to 681.730) to 681.730 (Rules) , 681.740 (Definitions for ORS 681.740 to 681.758) to 681.758 (Rules) , 687.405 (“Direct entry midwifery” defined) to 687.495 (Collection of data on birth and fetal death outcomes) , 688.701 (Definitions for ORS 688.701 to 688.734) to 688.734 (Disciplinary authority of Health Licensing Office) , 688.800 (Definitions for ORS 688.800 to 688.840) to 688.840 (Immunity from civil liability) , 690.005 (Definitions for ORS 690.005 to 690.225) to 690.225 (Inspections) , 690.350 (Definitions for ORS 690.350 to 690.410) to 690.410 (Minimum standards of education and training) , 691.405 (Definitions for ORS 691.405 to 691.485) to 691.485 (Board of Licensed Dietitians) and 694.015 (Definitions for ORS 694.015 to 694.170) to 694.170 (Duties of council) and ORS chapter 700, and rules adopted thereunder, requiring an original signature or the submission of handwritten materials.

(2) Electronic signatures subject to ORS 84.001 (Short title) to 84.061 (Federal electronic signatures law partially superseded) and facsimile signatures are acceptable and have the same force as original signatures. [2009 c.701 §3; 2011 c.346 §29; 2011 c.630 §18; 2013 c.568 §32; 2013 c.771 §15; 2015 c.674 §14; 2017 c.155 §12; 2017 c.499 §17; 2019 c.456 §22; 2021 c.231 §13; 2021 c.366 §6; 2022 c.92 §13; 2023 c.414 §§24,25]

Source: Section 676.622 — Exemption from certain requirements for original signatures , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors676.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 692.146 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 692 / Section 692.146
692.146 Application for funeral establishment or immediate disposition company license
Status: in_force

(1) The State Mortuary and Cemetery Board shall issue a license to a funeral establishment or immediate disposition company if the person who will operate the establishment or immediate disposition company applies to the board for a license on a form provided by the board. The application shall be accompanied by the application fee established under ORS 692.160 (License, certificate and registration fees) .

(2) The application shall disclose the following:

(a) The name and address of the establishment or company.

(b) That the establishment is operated by a licensed funeral service practitioner.

(c) That the immediate disposition company is operated by a licensed funeral service practitioner.

(3) For purposes of this section and ORS 692.025 (License required for funeral service practitioner, embalmer, death care consultant, funeral establishment operator, cemetery operator, crematory operator or alternative disposition facility) , each branch of a licensee’s funeral establishment or immediate disposition company is a separate establishment and must be licensed at a fixed place of business. [1957 c.596 §5; 1971 c.115 §8; 1983 c.810 §11; 1989 c.177 §6; 1997 c.638 §7]

Source: Section 692.146 — Application for funeral establishment or immediate disposition company license , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors692.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.508 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.508
696.508 Legislative finding
Status: in_force

(1) The Legislative Assembly finds the activity of escrow agents in handling large sums of money and important rights of clients to be of public concern. In order to permit uniform and equitable regulation of all escrow agents and to improve the standards of escrow conduct, the provisions of ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) to 696.590 (Penalty amounts) shall be construed to grant the Real Estate Commissioner authority to protect the public.

(2) ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) to 696.590 (Penalty amounts) may be cited as the Oregon Escrow Law. [1977 c.351 §2]

Source: Section 696.508 — Legislative finding; short title , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 675.565 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 675 / Section 675.565
675.565 Continuing education
Status: in_force

(1) The State Board of Licensed Social Workers may establish by rule continuing education requirements for the renewal of authorizations to practice regulated social work.

(2) The board may require applicants for renewal of authorization to practice regulated social work to submit evidence of completion of continuing education requirements as a condition of renewal in order to ensure the highest quality of professional services to the public. [1989 c.721 §39; 2009 c.442 §15]

Source: Section 675.565 — Continuing education; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors675.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 687.895 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 687 / Section 687.895
687.895 Procedure for civil penalties
Status: in_force

Any civil penalty under ORS 687.011 (Definitions) to 687.250 (Enforcement) , 687.895 (Procedure for civil penalties) and 687.991 (Criminal penalties) shall be imposed as provided in ORS 183.745 (Civil penalty procedures) . [Formerly 687.087; 1997 c.626 §16]

Source: Section 687.895 — Procedure for civil penalties , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors687.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 703.425 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 703 / Section 703.425
703.425 Application requirements
Status: in_force

(1) An application for a private investigator’s license or a provisional investigator’s license must be in writing on a form prescribed by the Department of Public Safety Standards and Training, stating the applicant’s:

(a) Legal name;

(b) Birthdate;

(c) Citizenship;

(d) Physical description;

(e) Current residence;

(f) Residence for the preceding 10 years;

(g) Current employment;

(h) Employment for the preceding 10 years;

(i) Experience qualifications;

(j) Education;

(k) Business address, which may be a post office box; and

(L) Any other information required by the department.

(2) The application must be accompanied by:

(a) The application fee as prescribed by the Board on Public Safety Standards and Training by rule;

(b) Recent photographs of the applicant as prescribed by the board by rule to be used for an identification card and for the files of the department;

(c) Complete sets of the applicant’s fingerprints as prescribed by the board by rule;

(d) Three professional references, none of which may be from a person who is related to the applicant by blood or marriage;

(e) Proof of a corporate surety bond, an irrevocable letter of credit issued by an insured institution as defined in ORS 706.008 (Additional definitions for Bank Act) or such other security as the department may prescribe by rule in the sum of at least $5,000, or errors and omissions insurance in the sum of at least $5,000; and

(f) Proof of a passing score on the test of investigator competency adopted by the board and administered by the department.

(3) All applicants must disclose any acts constituting grounds for denial of an investigator’s license and must notify the department if the applicant is charged with a criminal offense. The department shall conduct a special review of any applicant making a disclosure under this subsection.

(4) The Department of Public Safety Standards and Training shall forward a complete set of an applicant’s fingerprints to the Department of State Police and shall request that the Department of State Police conduct criminal records checks as provided in ORS 181A.195 (Criminal records check) .

(5) Employees of or partners in a firm who are covered by the firm’s errors and omissions insurance meet the requirements of subsection (2)(e) of this section as long as the coverage is at least $5,000 per investigator. [1997 c.870 §6; 1999 c.59 §212; 1999 c.125 §1; 1999 c.312 §1; 1999 c.363 §1; 2001 c.838 §4; 2005 c.21 §11; 2005 c.730 §§43,89; 2007 c.320 §3; 2017 c.228 §6]

Source: Section 703.425 — Application requirements; fee; rules; investigation of applicant , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors703.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 687.031 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 687 / Section 687.031
687.031 Application of ORS 687.011 to 687.250, 687.895 and 687.991
Status: in_force

(1) ORS 687.011 (Definitions) to 687.250 (Enforcement) , 687.895 (Procedure for civil penalties) and 687.991 (Criminal penalties) do not apply to:

(a) Persons licensed under any other law of this state to do any acts included in the definition of massage in ORS 687.011 (Definitions) or persons working under the direction of any such person.

(b) Trainers of any amateur, semiprofessional or professional athlete or athletic team.

(c) Massage practiced at the athletic department of any institution maintained by public funds of the state or of any of its political subdivisions.

(d) Massage practiced at the athletic department of any school or college.

(e) Massage clinics operated as part of a certified class for the purpose of student training supervised by an approved instructor or preceptor if:

(A) Any charge for the massage does not exceed the cost incurred in providing the massage; and

(B) The student is not compensated.

(f) Students enrolled in a certified class when practicing massage techniques in a nonclinical setting, at or away from massage school premises or program sites, under the supervision of an approved instructor or preceptor, if:

(A) The student is clearly identified as a student to any member of the public receiving massage services; and

(B) The student is not compensated.

(g) Nonresident practitioners holding a valid license, permit, certificate or registration issued by any other state or territory of the United States or by a foreign country and temporarily practicing massage in this state for a period not exceeding 30 days for the purpose of:

(A) Presenting educational or clinical programs, lectures, seminars or workshops;

(B) Furnishing massage services during an emergency as part of a disaster response team; or

(C) Consulting with a massage therapist licensed in this state regarding massage practices or services.

(h) Trained or licensed practitioners of psychotherapy or counseling modalities that use physical techniques to access or support psychotherapeutic processes when practicing within the scope of a license or if the practitioner has an express oral or written agreement that the sole intent in using the physical techniques is to render the psychotherapy or counseling.

(i) Practitioners of reflexology who do not claim expressly or implicitly to be massage therapists and who limit their work to the practice of reflexology through the application of pressure with the thumbs to reflex points on the feet, hands and ears for the purpose of bringing the body into balance, thereby promoting the well-being of clients.

(j) Practitioners who:

(A) Do not claim expressly or implicitly to be massage therapists;

(B) Limit their work to one or more of the following practices:

(i) Using touch, words and directed movement to deepen awareness of existing patterns of movement and suggest new possibilities of movement;

(ii) Using minimal touch over specific points on the body to facilitate balance in the nervous system; or

(iii) Using touch to affect the energy systems or channels of energy of the body;

(C) Are certified by a professional organization or credentialing agency that:

(i) Requires a minimum level of training, demonstration of competence and adherence to an approved scope of practice and ethical standards; and

(ii) Maintains disciplinary procedures to ensure adherence to the requirements of the organization or agency; and

(D) Provide contact information in the practitioner’s place of business for any organization or agency that has certified the practitioner.

(2) The State Board of Massage Therapists has the authority to verify that a practitioner claiming to be exempt from application of ORS 687.011 (Definitions) to 687.250 (Enforcement) , 687.895 (Procedure for civil penalties) and 687.991 (Criminal penalties) under subsection (1)(j) of this section is certified by a professional organization or credentialing agency as required by subsection (1)(j)(C) of this section.

(3) A nonresident practitioner performing massage under subsection (1)(g) of this section must obtain a temporary practice permit if practicing in this state for a total of more than 30 days in a calendar year. Applications must be accompanied by the application fee provided for in ORS 687.071 (Fees) . A temporary practice permit shall allow the nonresident practitioner to practice massage in this state for a maximum of 180 days in a calendar year. [1955 c.492 §12; 1985 c.82 §3; 1993 c.564 §1; 1997 c.626 §4; 1999 c.537 §7; 2007 c.332 §1; 2011 c.44 §1]

Source: Section 687.031 — Application of ORS 687.011 to 687.250, 687.895 and 687.991 , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors687.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 676.830 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 676 / Section 676.830
676.830 Health benefit plan credentialing for applied behavior analysis providers
Status: in_force

A health benefit plan as defined in ORS 743B.005 (Definitions) may establish credentialing requirements for the provision of applied behavior analysis by licensed health care professionals, behavior analysts or assistant behavior analysts licensed under ORS 676.810 (Board duties) or by behavior analysis interventionists registered by the Health Licensing Office under ORS 676.815 (Behavior analysis interventionists) . [2015 c.674 §17; 2023 c.500 §4]

Source: Section 676.830 — Health benefit plan credentialing for applied behavior analysis providers , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors676.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 674.305 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 674 / Section 674.305
674.305 Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board
Status: in_force

(1) The Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board is established. The board shall operate as a semi-independent state agency subject to ORS 182.456 (Definitions for ORS 182.456 to 182.472) to 182.472 (Reports) for purposes of carrying out the provisions of this chapter. The board shall consist of eight members. The members shall be appointed by the Governor and must be residents of this state.

(2) The board shall be composed of:

(a) Five appraisers certified or licensed under ORS 674.310 (Duties and powers of board) ;

(b) One individual who is employed by a financial institution or a mortgage banker;

(c) One member who represents appraisal management companies registered under ORS 674.205 (Registration requirement) ; and

(d) One individual who is a public member and who:

(A) Is not engaged in professional real estate activity;

(B) Is not a state certified or state licensed appraiser;

(C) Is not employed by a financial institution or a mortgage banker; and

(D) Does not have a direct financial interest in any person who is required, or whose employees or agents are required, to be state licensed or state certified appraisers.

(3) The term of office of each member is four years with two terms maximum, but a member serves at the pleasure of the Governor. Before the expiration of the term of a member, the Governor shall appoint a successor whose term begins on July 1 next following. A member is eligible for reappointment. If there is a vacancy for any cause, the Governor shall make an appointment to become immediately effective for the unexpired term. A member may not be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms on the board.

(4) The board shall select one of its members as chairperson and another as vice chairperson, for such terms and with duties and powers necessary for the performance of the functions of such offices as the board determines.

(5) A majority of the members of the board constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business.

(6) The board shall meet at least once every three months at a place, day and hour determined by the board. The board also shall meet at other times and places specified by the call of the chairperson or of a majority of the members of the board.

(7) In accordance with applicable provisions of ORS chapter 183, the board shall adopt rules necessary for the administration of this chapter.

(8) The appointment of a member of the board is subject to confirmation by the Senate in the manner prescribed in ORS 171.562 (Procedures for confirmation) and 171.565 (Vote required for confirmation) . [1991 c.5 §4; 1993 c.18 §146; 1993 c.744 §219; 2001 c.521 §11; 2005 c.109 §4; 2011 c.447 §22]

Source: Section 674.305 — Appraiser Certification and Licensure Board; appointment; term; compensation; conduct of business; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors674.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 688.480 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 688 / Section 688.480
688.480 Qualifications of operators of certain equipment
Status: in_force

Persons who operate hybrid imaging or radiation therapy equipment incorporating more than one medical imaging modality shall:

(1) Hold a primary credential in at least one of the modalities in use.

(2) Be a medical imaging licensee in at least one of the modalities in use and have a restricted license in all other modalities incorporated into the hybrid imaging or radiation therapy equipment in accordance with rules adopted by the Board of Medical Imaging. [1979 c.449 §6; 2005 c.151 §4; 2009 c.833 §8]

Source: Section 688.480 — Qualifications of operators of certain equipment , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors688.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.618 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.618
696.618 Denial of right to court action for unlicensed real estate marketing organization
Status: in_force

No person carrying on, conducting or transacting any real estate marketing activity may maintain any suit or action in any of the courts of this state to enforce any claim arising out of real estate marketing activity without alleging and proving that the person was licensed under ORS 696.606 (Real estate marketing organization license) at the time of performing such activities. [1995 c.217 §8]

Source: Section 696.618 — Denial of right to court action for unlicensed real estate marketing organization , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 673.695 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 673 / Section 673.695
673.695 Secretary of State as agent for service of process against nonresident
Status: in_force

(1) The acceptance by a nonresident of a license as tax consultant or a tax preparer shall be considered equivalent to the appointment by the nonresident of the Secretary of State as attorney upon whom may be served any summons, process or pleading in any action or suit against the nonresident in any court of this state, arising out of any business done by the nonresident as a tax consultant or tax preparer in this state.

(2) The acceptance of a license shall be considered equivalent to any agreement by the nonresident that any summons, process or pleading in the action or suit may be made by leaving a copy thereof, with a fee of $2, with the Office of Secretary of State. Such service shall be sufficient and valid personal service upon the defendant if notice of such service and a copy of the summons, process or pleading is sent forthwith by registered mail or by certified mail with return receipt by the plaintiff or the attorney of the plaintiff to the defendant at the most recent address furnished to the State Board of Tax Practitioners by the nonresident tax consultant or tax preparer or to the last-known address. An affidavit of the plaintiff or the attorney of the plaintiff of the mailing shall be appended to the summons, process or pleading and entered as a part of the return thereof. However, personal service outside of the state in accordance with the statute relating to personal service of summons outside of the state shall relieve the plaintiff from such mailing requirement.

(3) Any summons received or provided in this section shall require the defendant to appear and answer the complaint within four weeks after receipt thereof by the Secretary of State. The court in which the action or suit is brought may order such continuance as may be necessary to afford the defendant reasonable opportunity to defend the action. The fee of $2 paid by the plaintiff to the Secretary of State shall be taxed as costs in favor of the plaintiff if the plaintiff prevails in the action. The Secretary of State shall keep a record of each summons, process or pleading served upon the Secretary of State under this section, showing the day and hour of service. [1973 c.387 §18; 1987 c.414 §67; 1991 c.249 §61]

Source: Section 673.695 — Secretary of State as agent for service of process against nonresident; fee , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors673.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 697.990 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 697 / Section 697.990
697.990 Penalties
Status: in_force

(1) Violation of ORS 697.015 (Registration requirement) or 697.058 (Agency records) by an individual is a Class A violation.

(2) Violation of ORS 697.015 (Registration requirement) or 697.058 (Agency records) by a corporation or association is a Class A violation. Any officer or agent of a corporation or association who personally participates in any violation of ORS 697.015 (Registration requirement) or 697.058 (Agency records) by the corporation or association is subject to the penalty prescribed in subsection (1) of this section.

(3) Violation of ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) or 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) is punishable, upon conviction, as a Class A misdemeanor. [Amended by 1959 c.525 §35; subsection (1) derived from subsection (1) of 697.990 (Penalties) (1957 Replacement Part) and subsection (1) of 1959 c.635 §37; subsection (2) derived from subsection (2) of 697.990 (Penalties) (1957 Replacement Part) and subsection (2) of 1959 c.635 §37; subsection (3) derived from subsection (3) of 1959 c.635 §37; 1981 c.85 §14; 1983 c.17 §31; subsection (3) enacted as 1983 c.17 §26; 1983 c.69 §6; 1999 c.1051 §219; 2005 c.338 §21]

Source: Section 697.990 — Penalties , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors697.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 680.990 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 680 / Section 680.990
680.990 Criminal penalties
Status: in_force

(1) Violation of any of the provisions of ORS 680.010 (Definitions for ORS 680.010 to 680.205) to 680.205 (Services rendered under permit) is a Class C misdemeanor.

(2) Violation of any provision of ORS 680.505 (Practice of denture technology prohibited without license) and 743A.028 (Services provided by denturist) is a Class B misdemeanor. [Amended by 1977 c.192 §11; subsection (2) enacted as 1979 c.1 §17; 1983 c.169 §32; 2003 c.547 §19]

Source: Section 680.990 — Criminal penalties , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors680.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 701.480 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 701 / Section 701.480
701.480 Certification
Status: in_force

(1) An individual may not undertake, offer to undertake or submit a bid to do work as a locksmith for compensation, or with the expectation to be compensated, unless the individual is certified as a locksmith under ORS 701.485 (Standards of practice and professional conduct) by the Construction Contractors Board and is an owner of, or employed by, a business that is licensed by the board.

(2) A business may not undertake, offer to undertake or submit a bid to provide locksmith services unless the business is licensed by the board under this chapter and has an owner or an employee who is certified as a locksmith under ORS 701.485 (Standards of practice and professional conduct) .

(3) A person may not use the title of locksmith, locksmith professional, commercial locksmith, lock installer or any title using a form of the word “locksmith” that indicates or tends to indicate that the person is a locksmith or provider of locksmith services unless the person is certified as a locksmith by the board or is a business licensed by the board that has an owner or employee who is certified by the board as a locksmith.

(4) A person may not use any sign, card or device that indicates or tends to indicate that the person is a locksmith or provider of locksmith services unless the person is certified as a locksmith by the board or is a business licensed by the board that has an owner or employee who is certified by the board as a locksmith. [2009 c.781 §3]

Source: Section 701.480 — Certification; licensing; holding out as locksmith or locksmithing business , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors701.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 677.761 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 677 / Section 677.761
677.761 Persons and practices not within scope of ORS 677.757 to 677.770
Status: in_force

Nothing in ORS 677.757 (Definitions for ORS 677.757 to 677.770) to 677.770 (Fees) is intended to:

(1) Prevent, limit or interfere with an individual licensed or certified by the Oregon Medical Board from practicing health care other than acupuncture within the scope of the license or certification of the individual.

(2) Limit any other licensed or certified health care practitioner from practicing acupressure or other therapy within the scope of the license or certification of the individual.

(3) Limit the activities of any person who engages in the business of providing Oriental massage, exercise and related therapeutic methods or who provides substances listed in an Oriental pharmacopoeia, or vitamins or minerals or dietary advice, so long as the activities of the person are not otherwise prohibited by law.

(4) Limit the ability of practitioners from outside Oregon to demonstrate the practice of acupuncture as part of a recognized and limited duration educational program, lecture or event within this state under rules adopted by the board. [1993 c.378 §5; 2005 c.370 §1]

Note: 677.761 (Persons and practices not within scope of ORS 677.757 to 677.770) was enacted into law by the Legislative Assembly but was not added to or made a part of ORS chapter 677. See Preface to Oregon Revised Statutes for further explanation.

Source: Section 677.761 — Persons and practices not within scope of ORS 677.757 to 677.770 , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors677.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 703.401 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 703 / Section 703.401
703.401 Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in ORS 703.401 (Definitions) to 703.490 (Moneys credited to Police Standards and Training Account) , 703.993 (Criminal penalties for investigators) and 703.995 (Civil penalties for investigators) , unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) “Client” means a person who engages an investigator, firm, partnership, corporation or other entity for the purpose of conducting lawful activity on the person’s behalf.

(2) “Investigator” means a person who is a licensed investigator under ORS 703.430 (Issuance of license) and who engages in the business of obtaining or furnishing, or who solicits or accepts employment to obtain or furnish, information about:

(a) Crimes or wrongs done or threatened against the United States or any state or territory of the United States;

(b) The identity, habits, conduct, business, occupation, honesty, integrity, credibility, knowledge, trustworthiness, efficiency, loyalty, activities, movements, whereabouts, affiliations, associations, transactions, acts, reputation or character of any person;

(c) The location, disposition or recovery of lost or stolen property;

(d) The cause of or responsibility for fires, libels, losses, accidents, damages or injuries to persons or property; or

(e) Evidence to be used before any court, board, officer, referee, arbitrator or investigation committee. [1997 c.870 §1; 2001 c.838 §1; 2005 c.613 §9]

Source: Section 703.401 — Definitions , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors703.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 696.541 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 696 / Section 696.541
696.541 Authority of commissioner over escrow agents
Status: in_force

(1) The Real Estate Commissioner shall have general supervision and control over all escrow agents doing business in this state. Subject to ORS chapter 183, the commissioner may adopt such rules as reasonably necessary for the administration and enforcement of ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) to 696.590 (Penalty amounts) .

(2) All escrow agents are subject to audits or examinations by the commissioner, or the commissioner’s authorized representatives at any time the commissioner considers advisable. The commissioner may collect from each escrow agent the reasonable expenses of such audit or examination including but not limited to any administrative expense for travel.

(3) The provisions of this section and of any other section relating to the examination of the affairs of an escrow agent shall extend to an escrow agent whose license has expired or been revoked or suspended, if in the judgment of the commissioner, such agent has violated any provisions of ORS 696.505 (Definitions for ORS 696.505 to 696.590) to 696.590 (Penalty amounts) . [1977 c.351 §12 (enacted in lieu of 696.540); 1981 c.617 §27; 1985 c.399 §4; 1991 c.874 §7; 2001 c.300 §39; 2003 c.427 §11]

Source: Section 696.541 — Authority of commissioner over escrow agents; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors696.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 684.035 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 684 / Section 684.035
684.035 Chapter not applicable to other methods of healing
Status: in_force

Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to interfere with any other method or science of healing in this state. [Formerly 684.120]

Source: Section 684.035 — Chapter not applicable to other methods of healing , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors684.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 685.106 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 685 / Section 685.106
685.106 Approval of continuing education programs
Status: in_force

(1) The Oregon Board of Naturopathic Medicine may offer a program of continuing education in naturopathic medicine to meet the requirements of ORS 685.102 (Continuing education required) . The board may also approve a program to be presented by persons reasonably qualified to do so.

(2) Any person seeking approval of a program of continuing education in naturopathic medicine, to be offered to assist persons holding licenses under this chapter to comply with the requirements of ORS 685.102 (Continuing education required) (1), shall submit to the board, at such time as the board may require, a copy of the program to be offered and proof of such other qualifications as the board may require. Approval granted to any program of continuing education shall be reviewed periodically and approval may be withdrawn from any program that fails to meet the requirements of the board.

(3) Any program of continuing education in naturopathic medicine offered or approved under this section shall consist of study covering new, review, experimental, research and specialty subjects in the field of naturopathic medicine. [1969 c.381 §4; 1985 c.624 §12; 2009 c.43 §21; 2021 c.50 §10]

Source: Section 685.106 — Approval of continuing education programs , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors685.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 697.732 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 697 / Section 697.732
697.732 Examinations
Status: in_force

(1) To enforce the provisions of ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) and 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) , the Director of the Department of Consumer and Business Services may:

(a) Examine a debt management service provider or a person required to obtain a registration as a debt management service provider under ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) and the debt management service provider’s or the person’s accounts for the purpose of investigating a violation of ORS 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) .

(b) Undertake an investigation, including an investigation outside this state, that the director considers necessary to:

(A) Determine whether a debt management service provider or a person required to obtain a registration as a debt management service provider under ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) violated, is violating or is about to violate ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) or 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) or a rule the director adopted under ORS 697.632 (Registration procedure) ; or

(B) Aid in enforcing the provisions of ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) and 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) and in formulating rules for adoption under ORS 697.632 (Registration procedure) .

(c) Require a debt management service provider or a person required to obtain a registration as a debt management service provider under ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) to file a written statement, under oath or otherwise, that addresses a matter the director is investigating.

(d) Administer oaths and affirmations, subpoena witnesses, compel the witnesses to attend, take evidence and require a person that the director is investigating to produce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, agreements or other documents or records that the director deems relevant or material to the investigation. A witness who appears before the director under a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage described in ORS 44.415 (Fees and mileage of witnesses) (2).

(e) Charge and require a debt management service provider or a person required to obtain a registration as a debt management service provider under ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) to pay for the reasonable cost of an examination or investigation conducted under this section in an amount the director specifies.

(2) If a person does not comply with a subpoena that the director issues under this section, a circuit court in this state upon the director’s application shall begin contempt proceedings to compel compliance in the same manner in which the court would compel compliance with a subpoena in a civil action.

(3) A debt management service provider or a person required to obtain a registration as a debt management service provider under ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) shall provide the director for the purpose of investigating a violation of ORS 697.612 (Registration requirement) or 697.642 (Bond requirement) to 697.702 (Interference with records of debt management service provider) with free access to the debt management service provider’s or the person’s offices, places of business, books, accounts, records, papers, files, safes and vaults.

(4) Intentionally left blank —Ed.

(a) The director shall maintain for public inspection a record of any order the director issued that:

(A) Suspended, revoked or refused to renew a person’s registration as a debt management service provider; or

(B) Imposed a civil penalty under ORS 697.832 (Civil penalties) .

(b) The record that the director maintains of the director’s order shall show:

(A) The form of the order that the director issued;

(B) The name of the person that is the subject of the order; and

(C) The grounds for the action that the director took in the order.

(c) The director shall maintain as a public record any notice or other information that indicates that a collection on a deposit or on the bond required under ORS 697.642 (Bond requirement) has occurred.

(d) Except as provided in this subsection, records, reports and other information that the director receives or compiles as a result of an investigation conducted under this section are exempt from the disclosure required under ORS 192.314 (Right to inspect public records) . [1983 c.17 §15; 2005 c.338 §17; 2009 c.604 §13]

Source: Section 697.732 — Examinations; investigations; costs; access; public disclosure requirements and exemptions , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors697.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 688.705 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 688 / Section 688.705
688.705 Board of Athletic Trainers
Status: in_force

(1) There is established within the Health Licensing Office the Board of Athletic Trainers, consisting of five members appointed by the Governor. In making appointments to the board, the Governor shall take into consideration nominations received from professional organizations of athletic trainers that are based in Oregon.

(2) Of the membership of the Board of Athletic Trainers:

(a) All members must be residents of this state.

(b) Three members must be athletic trainers who have practiced continuously in this state for the three years prior to the date of appointment.

(c) One member must be a member of the general public who is not an athletic trainer.

(d) One member must be a physician licensed under ORS chapter 677.

(3) The term of office of each member of the board is four years, but a member serves at the pleasure of the Governor. Vacancies shall be filled by the Governor by appointment for the unexpired term. A member shall hold the member’s office until the appointment and qualification of a successor. A member is eligible for reappointment. If a person serves two consecutive full terms, a period of at least four years must elapse before the person is again eligible for appointment to serve on the board.

(4) A member of the board is entitled to compensation and expenses as provided in ORS 292.495 (Compensation and expenses of members of state boards and commissions) . [1999 c.736 §2; 2005 c.648 §15; 2009 c.701 §24; 2013 c.568 §62]

Source: Section 688.705 — Board of Athletic Trainers; appointment; membership; terms , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors688.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 681.230 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 681 / Section 681.230
681.230 Exemptions from licensure requirement
Status: in_force

(1) Without obtaining a license under this chapter, a person may use a procedure included in the practice of speech-language pathology or audiology if the procedure is within the person’s scope of practice and the person is:

(a) Licensed by a health professional regulatory board as defined in ORS 676.160 (Definitions for ORS 676.165 to 676.180) ;

(b) Performing basic audiometric testing under the supervision of a physician licensed under ORS chapter 677 or a naturopathic physician licensed under ORS chapter 685 and representing that the person is a medical assistant or audiology assistant;

(c) A teacher who is licensed by the Teacher Standards and Practices Commission and who holds a hearing impaired endorsement issued by the commission;

(d) A student participating in supervised field work or supervised course work in speech-language pathology or audiology as part of a college or university program approved by the State Board of Examiners for Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology; or

(e) A student taking an undergraduate course in speech-language pathology approved by the board.

(2) A person practicing speech-language pathology or audiology without a license under subsection (1) of this section may not represent or imply that the person is a speech-language pathologist, speech-language pathology assistant or audiologist.

(3) A person practicing speech-language pathology or audiology without a license under subsection (1)(d) or (e) of this section:

(a) Must use a title that indicates that the person is a student trainee.

(b) May not be paid for speech-language pathology or audiology services provided by the person, except that the person may be provided a reasonable educational stipend.

(4) Without obtaining a license under this chapter, a person may:

(a) Consult with or disseminate the person’s research findings and scientific information to an accredited academic institution or a governmental agency; and

(b) Offer lectures to the public for a fee, monetary or otherwise. [Formerly 694.325; 1989 c.491 §67a; 1995 c.280 §3; 2003 c.547 §88; 2005 c.698 §3; 2009 c.701 §62c; 2011 c.133 §1; 2015 c.271 §1; 2017 c.356 §89]

Note: Section 3, chapter 271, Oregon Laws 2015, provides:

Sec. 3. Practice of speech-language pathology by licensed teacher. Notwithstanding the amendments to ORS 681.230 (Exemptions from licensure requirement) by section 1 of this 2015 Act, a teacher who is licensed by the Teacher Standards and Practices Commission and who holds a communications disorders or speech impaired endorsement issued by the commission may continue to practice speech-language pathology on and after July 1, 2016, without obtaining a license under ORS chapter 681 if the person:

(1) Was licensed and endorsed by the commission before July 1, 2016;

(2) Practices speech-language pathology solely in the course and scope of the person’s duties as an employee of an education service district, a school district or a charter school; and

(3) Complies with ORS 681.360 (Certificate for speech-language pathology assistant) to 681.375 (Role of speech-language pathology assistants) and rules adopted under ORS 681.360 (Certificate for speech-language pathology assistant) to 681.375 (Role of speech-language pathology assistants) when supervising speech-language pathology assistants. [2015 c.271 §3]

Source: Section 681.230 — Exemptions from licensure requirement , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors681.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 679.060 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 679 / Section 679.060
679.060 Application for license
Status: in_force

(1) Any person desiring to practice dentistry in this state shall file an application with the Oregon Board of Dentistry.

(2) At the time of making the application, the applicant shall:

(a) Pay to the board the required application and examination fee.

(b) Furnish the board with evidence satisfactory to the board of details of any convictions recorded in any police records. Such details are subject to the findings required by ORS 670.280 (Denial, suspension or revocation of license based on criminal conviction) .

(c) Present to the board a diploma or evidence satisfactory to the board of having graduated from an accredited dental education program approved by the board.

(3) If an applicant has been in practice in another state or states the applicant shall furnish an affidavit from the secretary of the board of dental examiners or similar body of such state or states that the applicant has been engaged in the legal practice of dentistry in such state or states for a period of time prescribed by the rules of the Oregon Board of Dentistry.

(4) The board may refuse to issue a license to or renew a license of an applicant who has been convicted of a violation of the law if the board makes the findings required by ORS 670.280 (Denial, suspension or revocation of license based on criminal conviction) . A certified copy of the record of conviction is conclusive evidence of conviction.

(5) The board may refuse to issue a license to or renew a license of an applicant who has been disciplined by a state licensing or regulatory agency of this or another state regarding any health care profession when, in the judgment of the board, the act or conduct resulting in the disciplinary action bears a demonstrable relationship to the ability of the licensee or applicant to practice dentistry in accordance with the provisions of this chapter. A certified copy of the record of the disciplinary action is conclusive evidence of the disciplinary action.

(6) The board may refuse to issue a license to or renew a license of an applicant who has falsified a license application, or any person for any cause described under ORS 679.140 (Discipline of licensee) or 679.170 (Prohibited practices) .

(7) Fees paid are not refundable. [Amended by 1963 c.284 §5; 1973 c.390 §3; 1973 c.827 §69; 1973 c.829 §62a; 1977 c.444 §1; 1981 c.232 §1; 1983 c.169 §6; 1985 c.323 §4; 1995 c.199 §1; 2003 c.83 §2]

Source: Section 679.060 — Application for license; fees; grounds for refusal of license , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors679.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 689.702 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 689 / Section 689.702
689.702 Access to pharmacy electronic database
Status: in_force

(1) A pharmacist, pharmacy technician or intern, or an individual similarly licensed or otherwise authorized by another state, who is contracted or employed by a pharmacy may access the pharmacy’s electronic database regardless of whether the pharmacist, pharmacy technician or intern or other individual described in this subsection is physically located inside the pharmacy if:

(a) The pharmacy has established standards and controls to protect the confidentiality and integrity of any patient information contained in the electronic database when the electronic database is accessed from inside the pharmacy or remotely; and

(b) No information from the electronic database is duplicated, downloaded or removed from the electronic database when the electronic database is accessed remotely.

(2) The State Board of Pharmacy may adopt rules to carry out this section. In adopting rules under this subsection, the board may not establish standards for the remote access of a pharmacy’s electronic database that are more restrictive than standards for accessing the electronic database from inside the pharmacy. This subsection may not be construed to limit the authority of the board to adopt rules to require compliance with any applicable federal law. [2022 c.45 §18]

Source: Section 689.702 — Access to pharmacy electronic database; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors689.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 675.655 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 675 / Section 675.655
675.655 Oregon Health Authority duties regarding incentives for recruitment, retention of behavioral health care workforce
Status: in_force

(1) The Oregon Health Authority shall provide incentives to increase the recruitment and retention of providers in the behavioral health care workforce with associate, bachelor’s, master’s, or doctoral degrees or other credentials that increase access to services that are peer- and community-driven and that provide culturally specific and culturally responsive services for people of color, tribal communities and persons with lived behavioral health experiences.

(2) The authority shall increase access to services for rural and underserved communities by:

(a) Expanding funding to provide incentives to culturally specific peers, traditional health workers, unlicensed, licensed or certified providers of behavioral health care and licensed prescribers.

(b) Developing programs and providing incentives to increase the number of individuals training for and entering the field of behavioral health and to improve the retention of behavioral health care providers in this state through:

(A) Scholarships for undergraduate and graduate students going into the behavioral health field;

(B) Loan forgiveness and repayment incentives for qualified behavioral health care providers;

(C) Housing assistance;

(D) Sign-on bonuses;

(E) Part-time and flex time opportunities;

(F) Retention bonuses;

(G) Professional development;

(H) Tax subsidies;

(I) Child care subsidies;

(J) Subsidized dual certification with a specific focus on rural and vulnerable populations and pay equity;

(K) Tuition assistance;

(L) Bonuses and stipends for supervisors of interns;

(M) Licensing examination preparation;

(N) Stipends for students enrolled in graduate behavioral health programs; or

(O) Other programs and incentives.

(3) The authority shall develop a program to award qualified mental health care providers student loan forgiveness or student loan repayment subsidies if the qualified mental health care provider commits to two consecutive years of full-time practice in:

(a) A publicly funded or public mental health facility;

(b) A nonprofit mental health facility that contracts with a county to provide mental health services;

(c) A mental health professional shortage area, as defined by the authority by rule; or

(d) Other programs or facilities that serve the communities described in subsection (1) of this section.

(4) The subsidy described in subsection (3) of this section applies to a qualified mental health care provider’s student loans incurred for the educational program that led to the qualified mental health care provider’s licensure or certification as:

(a) A licensed psychologist, as defined in ORS 675.010 (Definitions for ORS 675.010 to 675.150) ;

(b) A clinical social worker licensed under ORS 675.530 (License) ;

(c) A master’s social worker licensed under ORS 675.533 (Licensure for practice of master’s social work) ;

(d) A clinical social work associate certified under ORS 675.537 (Certification as clinical social work associate) ;

(e) A licensed marriage and family therapist, as defined in ORS 675.705 (Definitions for ORS 675.715 to 675.835) ;

(f) A licensed professional counselor, as defined in ORS 675.705 (Definitions for ORS 675.715 to 675.835) ; or

(g) Another type of behavioral health care provider as prescribed by the authority by rule.

(5) The authority may adopt rules to carry out this section. [2021 c.677 §2; 2022 c.17 §1]

Note: See note under 675.650 (Oregon Health Authority duties regarding behavioral health care workforce training, endorsements, certifications) .

Source: Section 675.655 — Oregon Health Authority duties regarding incentives for recruitment, retention of behavioral health care workforce; increase in access to services; provider loan forgiveness program; rules , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors675.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 671.670 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 671 / Section 671.670
671.670 Rulemaking authority
Status: in_force

In accordance with any applicable provision of ORS chapter 183, the State Landscape Contractors Board may adopt rules the board considers reasonable for the administration and enforcement of ORS 671.510 (Short title) to 671.760 (Business income tax) and 671.997 (Civil penalties for violations of ORS 671.510 to 671.760) . [1971 c.764 §19; 1981 c.536 §26; 2005 c.609 §17]

Source: Section 671.670 — Rulemaking authority , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors671.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).
ORS § 685.050 — OR Code / Title 52 / Chapter 685 / Section 685.050
685.050 Execution of reports of live birth and death
Status: in_force

Licensees under this chapter are authorized to sign reports of live birth and death. Reports signed under this section shall be accepted as fulfilling all the requirements of the laws of this state dealing with such reports. [Amended by 2001 c.526 §7; 2013 c.366 §79]

Source: Section 685.050 — Execution of reports of live birth and death , https://www.­oregonlegislature.­gov/bills_laws/ors/ors685.­html (accessed May 26, 2025).