Ohio Rev. Code § 4778.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4778 / § 4778.01
§ 4778.01. Definitions
Status: in_force

September 6, 2012 House Bill 292 - 129th General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "American board of genetic counseling" means the organization known by that name, its successor organization, or an equivalent organization recognized by the state medical board. (B) "American board of medical genetics" means the organization known by that name, its successor organization, or an equivalent organization recognized by the state medical board. (C) "Certified genetic counselor" means either of the following: (1) An individual who possesses the certified genetic counselor credential from the American board of genetic counseling; (2) An individual who is a diplomate of the American board of medical genetics. (D) "Collaborating physician" means a physician who has entered into a collaborative agreement with a genetic counselor under division (B) of section 4778.11 of the Revised Code. (E) "Collaborative agreement" means the document that is established under division (B) of section 4778.11 of the Revised Code by a genetic counselor and the genetic counselor's collaborating physician. (F) "Genetic counselor" means an individual who engages in any of the activities authorized under section 4778.11 of the Revised Code. (G) "National society of genetic counselors" means the organization known by that name, its successor organization, or an equivalent organization recognized by the state medical board. (H) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4732.17 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4732 / § 4732.17
§ 4732.17. Actions against applicants or license holders
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) Subject to division (F) of this section and except as provided in division (G) of this section, the state board of psychology may take any of the actions specified in division (C) of this section against an applicant for or a person who holds a license issued under this chapter on any of the following grounds as applicable: (1) Conviction, including a plea of guilty or no contest, of a felony, or of any offense involving moral turpitude, in a court of this or any other state or in a federal court; (2) A judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for a felony or any offense involving moral turpitude in a court of this or any other state or in a federal court; (3) Using fraud or deceit in the procurement of the license to practice psychology, independent school psychology, or school psychology or knowingly assisting another in the procurement of such a license through fraud or deceit; (4) Accepting commissions or rebates or other forms of remuneration for referring persons to other professionals; (5) Willful, unauthorized communication of information received in professional confidence; (6) Being negligent in the practice of psychology, independent school psychology, or school psychology; (7) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of a mental, emotional, physiological, or pharmacological condition or substance abuse; (8) Subject to section 4732.28 of the Revised Code, violating any rule of professional conduct promulgated by the board; (9) Practicing in an area of psychology for which the person is clearly untrained or incompetent; (10) An adjudication by a court, as provided in section 5122.301 of the Revised Code, that the person is incompetent for the purpose of holding the license. Such person may have the person's license issued or restored only upon determination by a court that the person is competent for the purpose of holding the license and upon the decision by the board that such license be issued or restored. The board may require an examination prior to such issuance or restoration. (11) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers psychological services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that provider; (12) Advertising that the person will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers psychological services, would otherwise be required to pay; (13) Any of the following actions taken by the agency responsible for authorizing or certifying the person to practice or regulating the person's practice of a health care occupation or provision of health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, as evidenced by a certified copy of that agency's records and findings for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: (a) Limitation, revocation, or suspension of the person's license to practice; (b) Acceptance of the person's license surrender; (c) Denial of a license to the person; (d) Refuse to renew or reinstate the person's license; (e) Imposition of probation on the person; (f) Issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand against the person; (g) Other negative action or finding against the person about which information is available to the public. (14) Offering or rendering psychological services after a license issued under this chapter has expired due to a failure to timely register under section 4732.14 of the Revised Code or complete continuing education requirements; (15) Offering or rendering psychological services after a license issued under this chapter has been placed in retired status pursuant to section 4732.142 of the Revised Code; (16) Unless the person is an independent school psychologist or school psychologist licensed under this chapter: (a) Offering or rendering independent school psychological or school psychological services after a license issued under this chapter has expired due to a failure to timely register under section 4732.14 of the Revised Code or complete continuing education requirements; (b) Offering or rendering independent school psychological or school psychological services after a license issued under this chapter has been placed in retired status pursuant to section 4732.142 of the Revised Code. (17) Violating any adjudication order or consent agreement adopted by the board; (18) Failure to submit to mental, cognitive, substance abuse, or medical evaluations, or a combination of these evaluations, ordered by the board under division (E) of this section. (B) Notwithstanding divisions (A)(11) and (12) of this section, sanctions shall not be imposed against any license holder who waives deductibles and copayments: (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copays shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Such consent shall be made available to the board upon request. (2) For professional services rendered to any other person licensed pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board. (C) For any of the reasons specified in division (A) of this section, the board may do one or more of the following: (1) Refuse to issue a license to an applicant; (2) Issue a reprimand to a license holder; (3) Suspend the license of a license holder; (4) Revoke the license of a license holder; (5) Limit or restrict the areas of practice of an applicant or a license holder; (6) Require mental, substance abuse, or physical evaluations, or any combination of these evaluations, of an applicant or a license holder; (7) Require remedial education and training of an applicant or a license holder. (D) When it revokes the license of a license holder under division (C)(4) of this section, the board may specify that the revocation is permanent. An individual subject to permanent revocation is forever thereafter ineligible to hold a license, and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the license or issuance of a new license. (E) When the board issues a notice of opportunity for a hearing on the basis of division (A)(7) of this section, the supervising member of the board, with cause and upon consultation with the board's executive director and the board's legal counsel, may compel the applicant or license holder to submit to mental, cognitive, substance abuse, or medical evaluations, or a combination of these evaluations, by a person or persons selected by the board. Notice shall be given to the applicant or license holder in writing signed by the supervising member, the executive director, and the board's legal counsel. The applicant or license holder is deemed to have given consent to submit to these evaluations and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or evaluation reports that constitute a privileged communication. The expense of the evaluation or evaluations shall be the responsibility of the applicant or license holder who is evaluated. (F) Before the board may take action under this section, written charges shall be filed with the board by the secretary and a hearing shall be had thereon in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as follows: (1) On receipt of a complaint that any of the grounds listed in division (A) of this section exist, the state board of psychology may suspend a license issued under this chapter prior to holding a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, based on the complaint, that there is an immediate threat to the public. A telephone conference call may be used to conduct an emergency meeting for review of the matter by a quorum of the board, taking the vote, and memorializing the action in the minutes of the meeting. After suspending a license pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section, the board shall notify the license holder of the suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the individual whose license is suspended fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall enter a final order permanently revoking the license. (2) The board shall adopt rules establishing a case management schedule for pre-hearing procedures by the hearing examiner or presiding board member. The schedule shall include applicable deadlines related to the hearing process, including all of the following: (a) The date of the hearing; (b) The date for the disclosure of witnesses and exhibits; (c) The date for the disclosure of the identity of expert witnesses and the exchange of written reports; (d) The deadline for submitting a request for the issuance of a subpoena for the hearing as provided under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (F)(4) of this section. (3) Either party to the hearing may submit a written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than thirty-seven days prior to the hearing, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of witnesses, summary of their testimony, and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension. Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in accordance with this section may, at the discretion of the hearing officer or presiding board member, result in exclusion from the hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents. (4) In addition to subpoenas for the production of books, records, and papers requested under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, either party may ask the board to issue a subpoena for the production of other tangible items. The person subject to a subpoena for the production of books, records, papers, or other tangible items shall respond to the subpoena at least twenty days prior to the date of the hearing. If a person fails to respond to a subpoena issued by the board, after providing reasonable notice to the person, the board, the hearing officer, or both may proceed with enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to section 119.09 of the Revised Code. (G) The board shall not refuse to issue a license to an applicant because of a conviction or plea of guilty or no contest to an offense or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, unless the refusal is in accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 3, 2023 at 12:39 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4717.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4717 / § 4717.01
§ 4717.01. Embalmer, funeral director, crematory definitions
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "Embalming" means the process of chemically treating the dead human body by any of the following to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to temporarily slow organic decomposition, and to restore acceptable physical appearance: (1) Arterial injection; (2) Cavity treatment; (3) Hypodermic tissue injection. (B) "Funeral business" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other business entity that is engaged in funeral directing for profit or for free from one or more funeral homes licensed under this chapter. (C) "Funeral directing" means the business or profession of directing or supervising funerals for profit from one or more funeral homes licensed under this chapter, the arrangement or sale of funeral services, the filling out or execution of a funeral service contract, the business or profession of preparing dead human bodies for burial by means other than embalming, the disposition of dead human bodies, the provision or maintenance of a place for the preparation, the care, or disposition of dead human bodies, the use in connection with a business of the term "funeral director," "undertaker," "mortician," or any other term from which can be implied the business of funeral directing, or the holding out to the public that one is a funeral director or a disposer of dead human bodies. (D) "Funeral home" means a fixed place for the care, preparation for burial, or disposition of dead human bodies or the conducting of funerals. Each business location is a funeral home, regardless of common ownership or management. (E) "Embalmer" means a person who engages, in whole or in part, in embalming and who is licensed under this chapter. (F) "Funeral director" means a person who engages, in whole or in part, in funeral directing and who is licensed under this chapter. (G) "Final disposition" has the same meaning as in division (J) of section 3705.01 of the Revised Code. (H) "Supervision" means the operation of all phases of the business of funeral directing or embalming under the specific direction of a licensed funeral director or licensed embalmer. (I) "Direct supervision" means the physical presence of a licensed funeral director or licensed embalmer while the specific functions of the funeral or embalming are being carried out. (J) "Embalming facility" means a fixed location, separate from the funeral home, that is licensed under this chapter whose only function is the embalming and preparation of dead human bodies. (K) "Crematory facility" means the physical location at which a cremation chamber is located and the cremation process takes place. "Crematory facility" does not include an infectious waste incineration facility for which a license is held under division (B) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code, or a solid waste incineration facility for which a license is held under division (A) of that section that includes a notation pursuant to division (B)(3) of that section authorizing the facility to also treat infectious wastes, in connection with the incineration of body parts other than dead human bodies that were donated to science for purposes of medical education or research. (L) "Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the holding facility and the cremation chamber. (M) "Cremation" means the technical process of using heat and flame to reduce human or animal remains to bone fragments or ashes or any combination thereof. "Cremation" includes processing and may include the pulverization of bone fragments. (N) "Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which cremation takes place. (O) "Cremated remains" means all human or animal remains recovered after the completion of the cremation process, which may include the residue of any foreign matter such as casket material, dental work, or eyeglasses that were cremated with the human or animal remains. (P) "Lapsed license" means a license issued under this chapter that has become invalid because of the failure of the licensee to renew the license within the time limits prescribed under this chapter. (Q) "Crematory operator" means the person who engages, in whole or in part, in cremation from one or more crematories licensed under this chapter and who has been issued a crematory operator permit under this chapter. (R) "Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments to unidentifiable bone fragments through manual or mechanical means after the completion of the cremation process. (S) "Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments to granulated particles by manual or mechanical means after the completion of the cremation process. (T) "Preneed funeral contract" means a written agreement, contract, or series of contracts to sell or otherwise provide any funeral services, funeral goods, or any combination thereof to be used in connection with the funeral or final disposition of a dead human body, where payment for the goods or services is made either outright or on an installment basis, prior to the death of the person purchasing the goods or services or for whom the goods or services are purchased. "Preneed funeral contract" does not include any preneed cemetery merchandise and services contract or any agreement, contract, or series of contracts pertaining to the sale of any burial lot, burial or interment right, entombment right, or columbarium right with respect to which an endowment care fund is established or is exempt from establishment pursuant to section 1721.21 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of division (T) of this section, "funeral goods" includes caskets. (U) "Purchaser" means the individual who has purchased and financed a preneed funeral contract, and who may or may not be the contract beneficiary. (V) "Contract beneficiary" means the individual for whom funeral goods and funeral services are provided pursuant to a preneed funeral contract. (W) "Seller" means any person that enters into a preneed funeral contract with a purchaser for the provision of funeral goods, funeral services, or both. (X) "Felony" means a criminal act classified as a felony by this state, any other state, or federal law. Last updated October 10, 2023 at 3:26 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.51 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.51
§ 4731.51. Defining practice of podiatric medicine and surgery
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly The practice of podiatric medicine and surgery consists of the medical, mechanical, and surgical treatment of ailments of the foot, the muscles and tendons of the leg governing the functions of the foot; and superficial lesions of the hand other than those associated with trauma. Podiatrists are permitted the use of such preparations, medicines, and drugs as may be necessary for the treatment of such ailments. A podiatrist may treat the local manifestations of systemic diseases as they appear in the hand and foot, but the patient shall be concurrently referred to a doctor of medicine or a doctor of osteopathic medicine and surgery for the treatment of the systemic disease itself. General anaesthetics may be used under this section only in colleges of podiatric medicine and surgery in good standing with the state medical board and in hospitals approved by the joint commission or the American osteopathic association. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be ordered by a podiatrist to treat ailments within the scope of practice of podiatry as set forth in this section and, in accordance with section 4731.511 of the Revised Code, the podiatrist may supervise hyperbaric oxygen therapy for the treatment of such ailments. The use of x-ray or radium for therapeutic purposes is not permitted.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.156 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.156
§ 4731.156. Interstate massage compact (IMpact)
Status: in_force

September 20, 2024 Senate Bill 56 - 135th General Assembly The "Interstate Massage Compact (IMpact)" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by the state of Ohio as a party to the compact with any other state that has legally joined in the compact as follows: INTERSTATE MASSAGE COMPACT ARTICLE 1- PURPOSE The purpose of this Compact is to reduce the burdens on State governments and to facilitate the interstate practice and regulation of Massage Therapy with the goal of improving public access to, and the safety of, Massage Therapy Services. Through this Compact, the Member States seek to establish a regulatory framework which provides for a new multistate licensing program. Through this additional licensing pathway, the Member States seek to provide increased value and mobility to licensed massage therapists in the Member States, while ensuring the provision of safe, competent, and reliable services to the public. This Compact is designed to achieve the following objectives, and the Member States hereby ratify the same intentions by subscribing hereto: A. Increase public access to Massage Therapy Services by providing for a multistate licensing pathway; B. Enhance the Member States' ability to protect the public's health and safety; C. Enhance the Member States' ability to prevent human trafficking and licensure fraud; D. Encourage the cooperation of Member States in regulating the multistate Practice of Massage Therapy; E. Support relocating military members and their spouses; F. Facilitate and enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative, and disciplinary information between the Member States; G. Create an Interstate Commission that will exist to implement and administer the Compact; H. Allow a Member State to hold a Licensee accountable, even where that Licensee holds a Multistate License; I. Create a streamlined pathway for Licensees to practice in Member States, thus increasing the mobility of duly licensed massage therapists; and J. Serve the needs of licensed massage therapists and the public receiving their services; however, K. Nothing in this Compact is intended to prevent a State from enforcing its own laws regarding the Practice of Massage Therapy. ARTICLE 2- DEFINITIONS As used in this Compact, except as otherwise provided and subject to clarification by the Rules of the Commission, the following definitions shall govern the terms herein: A. "Active Military Member" - any person with full-time duty status in the armed forces of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve. B. "Adverse Action" - any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a Member State's laws which is imposed by a Licensing Authority or other regulatory body against a Licensee, including actions against an individual's Authorization to Practice such as revocation, suspension, probation, surrender in lieu of discipline, monitoring of the Licensee, limitation of the Licensee's practice, or any other Encumbrance on licensure affecting an individual's ability to practice Massage Therapy, including the issuance of a cease and desist order. C. "Alternative Program" - a non-disciplinary monitoring or prosecutorial diversion program approved by a Member State's Licensing Authority. D. "Authorization to Practice" - a legal authorization by a Remote State pursuant to a Multistate License permitting the Practice of Massage Therapy in that Remote State, which shall be subject to the enforcement jurisdiction of the Licensing Authority in that Remote State. E. "Background Check" - the submission of an applicant's criminal history record information, as further defined in 28 C.F.R. § 20.3(d), as amended from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining State criminal records in the applicant's Home State. F. "Charter Member States" - Member States who have enacted legislation to adopt this Compact where such legislation predates the effective date of this Compact as defined in Article 12. G. "Commission" - the government agency whose membership consists of all States that have enacted this Compact, which is known as the Interstate Massage Compact Commission, as defined in Article 8, and which shall operate as an instrumentality of the Member States. H. "Continuing Competence" - a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, and completion of, educational or professional activities that maintain, improve, or enhance Massage Therapy fitness to practice. I. "Current Significant Investigative Information" - Investigative Information that a Licensing Authority, after an inquiry or investigation that complies with a Member State's due process requirements, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate a violation of that State's laws regarding the Practice of Massage Therapy. J. "Data System" - a repository of information about Licensees who hold Multistate Licenses which may include but is not limited to license status, Investigative Information, and Adverse Actions. K. "Disqualifying Event" - any event which shall disqualify an individual from holding a Multistate License under this Compact, which the Commission may by Rule specify. L. "Encumbrance" - a revocation or suspension of, or any limitation or condition on, the full and unrestricted Practice of Massage Therapy by a Licensing Authority. M. "Executive Committee" - a group of delegates elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission. N. "Home State" - means the Member State which is a Licensee's primary state of residence where the Licensee holds an active Single-State License. O. "Investigative Information" - information, records, or documents received or generated by a Licensing Authority pursuant to an investigation or other inquiry. P. "Licensing Authority" - a State's regulatory body responsible for issuing Massage Therapy licenses or otherwise overseeing the Practice of Massage Therapy in that State. Q. "Licensee" - an individual who currently holds a license from a Member State to fully practice Massage Therapy, whose license is not a student, provisional, temporary, inactive, or other similar status. R. "Massage Therapy", "Massage Therapy Services", and the "Practice of Massage Therapy" - the care and services provided by a Licensee as set forth in the Member State's statutes and regulations in the State where the services are being provided. S. "Member State" - any State that has adopted this Compact. T. "Multistate License" - a license that consists of Authorizations to Practice Massage Therapy in all Remote States pursuant to this Compact, which shall be subject to the enforcement jurisdiction of the Licensing Authority in a Licensee's Home State. U. "National Licensing Examination" - A national examination developed by a national association of Massage Therapy regulatory boards, as defined by Commission Rule, that is derived from a practice analysis and is consistent with generally accepted psychometric principles of fairness, validity and reliability, and is administered under secure and confidential examination protocols. V. "Remote State" - any Member State, other than the Licensee's Home State. W. "Rule" - any opinion or regulation promulgated by the Commission under this Compact, which shall have the force of law. X. "Single-State License" - a current, valid authorization issued by a Member State's Licensing Authority allowing an individual to fully practice Massage Therapy, that is not a restricted, student, provisional, temporary, or inactive practice authorization and authorizes practice only within the issuing State. Y. "State" - a state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia. ARTICLE 3- MEMBER STATE REQUIREMENTS A. To be eligible to join this Compact, and to maintain eligibility as a Member State, a State must: 1. License and regulate the Practice of Massage Therapy; 2. Have a mechanism or entity in place to receive and investigate complaints from the public, regulatory or law enforcement agencies, or the Commission about Licensees practicing in that State; 3. Accept passage of a National Licensing Examination as a criterion for Massage Therapy licensure in that State; 4. Require that Licensees satisfy educational requirements prior to being licensed to provide Massage Therapy Services to the public in that State; 5. Implement procedures for requiring the Background Check of applicants for a Multistate License, and for the reporting of any Disqualifying Events, including but not limited to obtaining and submitting, for each Licensee holding a Multistate License and each applicant for a Multistate License, fingerprint or other biometric-based information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for Background Checks; receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on Background Checks and considering the results of such a Background Check in making licensure decisions; 6. Have Continuing Competence requirements as a condition for license renewal; 7. Participate in the Data System, including through the use of unique identifying numbers as described herein; 8. Notify the Commission and other Member States, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and Rules of the Commission, of any disciplinary action taken by the State against a Licensee practicing under a Multistate License in that State, or of the existence of Investigative Information or Current Significant Investigative Information regarding a Licensee practicing in that State pursuant to a Multistate License; 9. Comply with the Rules of the Commission; 10. Accept Licensees with valid Multistate Licenses from other Member States as established herein; B. Individuals not residing in a Member State shall continue to be able to apply for a Member State's Single-State License as provided under the laws of each Member State. However, the Single-State License granted to those individuals shall not be recognized as granting a Multistate License for Massage Therapy in any other Member State; C. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a Member State for the issuance of a Single-State License; and D. A Multistate License issued to a Licensee shall be recognized by each Remote State as an Authorization to Practice Massage Therapy in each Remote State. ARTICLE 4- MULTISTATE LICENSE REQUIREMENTS A. To qualify for a Multistate License under this Compact, and to maintain eligibility for such a license, an applicant must: 1. Hold an active Single-State License to practice Massage therapy in the applicant's Home State; 2. Have completed at least six hundred and twenty-five (625) clock hours of Massage Therapy education or the substantial equivalent which the Commission may approve by Rule. 3. Have passed a National Licensing Examination or the substantial equivalent which the Commission may approve by Rule. 4. Submit to a Background Check; 5. Have not been convicted or found guilty, or have entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony offense under applicable State or federal criminal law, within five (5) years prior to the date of their application, where such a time period shall not include any time served for the offense, and provided that the applicant has completed any and all requirements arising as a result of any such offense; 6. Have not been convicted or found guilty, or have entered into an agreed disposition, of a misdemeanor offense related to the Practice of Massage Therapy under applicable State or federal criminal law, within two (2) years prior to the date of their application where such a time period shall not include any time served for the offense, and provided that the applicant has completed any and all requirements arising as a result of any such offense; 7. Have not been convicted or found guilty, or have entered into an agreed disposition, of any offense, whether a misdemeanor or a felony, under State or federal law, at any time, relating to any of the following: a. Kidnapping; b. Human trafficking; c. Human smuggling; d. Sexual battery, sexual assault, or any related offenses; or e. Any other category of offense which the Commission may by Rule designate. 8. Have not previously held a Massage Therapy license which was revoked by, or surrendered in lieu of discipline to an applicable Licensing Authority; 9. Have no history of any Adverse Action on any occupational or professional license within two (2) years prior to the date of their application; and 10. Pay all required fees. B. A Multistate License granted pursuant to this Compact may be effective for a definite period of time concurrent with the renewal of the Home State license. C. A Licensee practicing in a Member State is subject to all scope of practice laws governing Massage Therapy Services in that State. D. The Practice of Massage Therapy under a Multistate License granted pursuant to this Compact will subject the Licensee to the jurisdiction of the Licensing Authority, the courts, and the laws of the Member State in which the Massage Therapy Services are provided. ARTICLE 5- AUTHORITY OF INTERSTATE MASSAGE COMPACT COMMISSION AND MEMBER STATE LICENSING AUTHORITIES A. Nothing in this Compact, nor any Rule of the Commission, shall be construed to limit, restrict, or in any way reduce the ability of a Member State to enact and enforce laws, regulations, or other rules related to the Practice of Massage Therapy in that State, where those laws, regulations, or other rules are not inconsistent with the provisions of this Compact. B. Nothing in this Compact, nor any Rule of the Commission, shall be construed to limit, restrict, or in any way reduce the ability of a Member State to take Adverse Action against a Licensee's Single-State License to practice Massage Therapy in that State. C. Nothing in this Compact, nor any Rule of the Commission, shall be construed to limit, restrict, or in any way reduce the ability of a Remote State to take Adverse Action against a Licensee's Authorization to Practice in that State. D. Nothing in this Compact, nor any Rule of the Commission, shall be construed to limit, restrict, or in any way reduce the ability of a Licensee's Home State to take Adverse Action against a Licensee's Multistate License based upon information provided by a Remote State. E. Insofar as practical, a Member State's Licensing Authority shall cooperate with the Commission and with each entity exercising independent regulatory authority over the Practice of Massage Therapy according to the provisions of this Compact. ARTICLE 6- ADVERSE ACTIONS A. A Licensee's Home State shall have exclusive power to impose an Adverse Action against a Licensee's Multistate License issued by the Home State. B. A Home State may take Adverse Action on a Multistate License based on the Investigative Information, Current Significant Investigative Information, or Adverse Action of a Remote State. C. A Home State shall retain authority to complete any pending investigations of a Licensee practicing under a Multistate License who changes their Home State during the course of such an investigation. The Licensing Authority shall also be empowered to report the results of such an investigation to the Commission through the Data System as described herein. D. Any Member State may investigate actual or alleged violations of the scope of practice laws in any other Member State for a massage therapist who holds a Multistate License. E. A Remote State shall have the authority to: 1. Take Adverse Actions against a Licensee's Authorization to Practice; 2. Issue cease and desist orders or impose an Encumbrance on a Licensee's Authorization to Practice in that State. 3. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a Licensing Authority in a Member State for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another Member State shall be enforced in the latter State by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings before it. The issuing Licensing Authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the State in which the witnesses or evidence are located. 4. If otherwise permitted by State law, recover from the affected Licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any Adverse Action taken against that Licensee. 5. Take Adverse Action against the Licensee's Authorization to Practice in that State based on the factual findings of another Member State. F. If an Adverse Action is taken by the Home State against a Licensee's Multistate License or Single-State License to practice in the Home State, the Licensee's Authorization to Practice in all other Member States shall be deactivated until all Encumbrances have been removed from such license. All Home State disciplinary orders that impose an Adverse Action against a Licensee shall include a statement that the Massage Therapist's Authorization to Practice is deactivated in all Member States during the pendency of the order. G. If Adverse Action is taken by a Remote State against a Licensee's Authorization to Practice, that Adverse Action applies to all Authorizations to Practice in all Remote States. A Licensee whose Authorization to Practice in a Remote State is removed for a specified period of time is not eligible to apply for a new Multistate License in any other State until the specific time for removal of the Authorization to Practice has passed and all encumbrance requirements are satisfied. H. Nothing in this Compact shall override a Member State's authority to accept a Licensee's participation in an Alternative Program in lieu of Adverse Action. A Licensee's Multistate License shall be suspended for the duration of the Licensee's participation in any Alternative Program. I. Joint Investigations 1. In addition to the authority granted to a Member State by its respective scope of practice laws or other applicable State law, a Member State may participate with other Member States in joint investigations of Licensees. 2. Member States shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact. ARTICLE 7- ACTIVE MILITARY MEMBER AND THEIR SPOUSES Active Military Member, or their spouses, shall designate a Home State where the individual has a current license to practice Massage Therapy in good standing. The individual may retain their Home State designation during any period of service when that individual or their spouse is on active duty assignment. ARTICLE 8- ESTABLISHMENT AND OPERATION OF INTERSTATE MASSAGE COMPACT COMMISSION A. The Compact Member States hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all Member States that have enacted the Compact known as the Interstate Massage Compact Commission. The Commission is an instrumentality of the Compact States acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one State. The Commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the Compact as set forth in Article 12. B. Membership, Voting, and Meetings 1. Each Member State shall have and be limited to one (1) delegate selected by that Member State's State Licensing Authority. 2. The delegate shall be the primary administrative officer of the State Licensing Authority or their designee. 3. The Commission shall by Rule or bylaw establish a term of office for delegates and may by Rule or bylaw establish term limits. 4. The Commission may recommend removal or suspension of any delegate from office. 5. A Member State's State Licensing Authority shall fill any vacancy of its delegate occurring on the Commission within 60 days of the vacancy. 6. Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote on all matters that are voted on by the Commission. 7. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The Commission may meet by telecommunication, video conference or other similar electronic means. C. The Commission shall have the following powers: 1. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission; 2. Establish code of conduct and conflict of interest policies; 3. Adopt Rules and bylaws; 4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; 5. Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact, the Commission's Rules, and the bylaws; 6. Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any State Licensing Authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected; 7. Maintain and certify records and information provided to a Member State as the authenticated business records of the Commission, and designate an agent to do so on the Commission's behalf; 8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds; 9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a Member State; 10. Conduct an annual financial review; 11. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters; 12. Assess and collect fees; 13. Accept any and all appropriate gifts, donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest; 14. Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein; 15. Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed; 16. Establish a budget and make expenditures; 17. Borrow money; 18. Appoint committees, including standing committees, composed of members, State regulators, State legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws; 19. Accept and transmit complaints from the public, regulatory or law enforcement agencies, or the Commission, to the relevant Member State(s) regarding potential misconduct of Licensees; 20. Elect a Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary and Treasurer and such other officers of the Commission as provided in the Commission's bylaws; 21. Establish and elect an Executive Committee, including a chair and a vice chair; 22. Adopt and provide to the Member States an annual report. 23. Determine whether a State's adopted language is materially different from the model Compact language such that the State would not qualify for participation in the Compact; and 24. Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact. D. The Executive Committee 1. The Executive Committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the Executive Committee shall include: a. Overseeing the day-to-day activities of the administration of the Compact including compliance with the provisions of the Compact, the Commission's Rules and bylaws, and other such duties as deemed necessary; b. Recommending to the Commission changes to the Rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees charged to Compact Member States, fees charged to Licensees, and other fees; c. Ensuring Compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract; d. Preparing and recommending the budget; e. Maintaining financial records on behalf of the Commission; f. Monitoring Compact compliance of Member States and providing compliance reports to the Commission; g. Establishing additional committees as necessary; h. Exercise the powers and duties of the Commission during the interim between Commission meetings, except for adopting or amending Rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the Commission by Rule or bylaw; and i. Other duties as provided in the Rules or bylaws of the Commission. 2. The Executive Committee shall be composed of seven voting members and up to two ex-officio members as follows: a. The chair and vice chair of the Commission and any other members of the Commission who serve on the Executive Committee shall be voting members of the Executive Committee; and b. Other than the chair, vice-chair, secretary and treasurer, the Commission shall elect three voting members from the current membership of the Commission. c. The Commission may elect ex-officio, nonvoting members as necessary as follows: i. One ex-officio member who is a representative of the national association of State Massage Therapy regulatory boards ii. One ex-officio member as specified in the Commission's bylaws. 3. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Committee as provided in the Commission's bylaws. 4. The Executive Committee shall meet at least annually. a. Executive Committee meetings shall be open to the public, except that the Executive Committee may meet in a closed, non-public session of a public meeting when dealing with any of the matters covered under subsection F.4. b. The Executive Committee shall give five business days advance notice of its public meetings, posted on its website and as determined to provide notice to persons with an interest in the public matters the Executive Committee intends to address at those meetings. 5. The Executive Committee may hold an emergency meeting when acting for the Commission to: a. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare; b. Prevent a loss of Commission or Participating State funds; or c. Protect public health and safety. E. The Commission shall adopt and provide to the Member States an annual report. F. Meetings of the Commission 1. All meetings of the Commission that are not closed pursuant to this subsection shall be open to the public. Notice of public meetings shall be posted on the Commission's website at least thirty (30) days prior to the public meeting. 2. Notwithstanding subsection F.1 of this Article, the Commission may convene an emergency public meeting by providing at least twenty-four (24) hours prior notice on the Commission's website, and any other means as provided in the Commission's Rules, for any of the reasons it may dispense with notice of proposed rulemaking under Article 10.L. The Commission's legal counsel shall certify the that one of the reasons justifying an emergency public meeting has been met. 3. Notice of all Commission meetings shall provide the time, date, and location of the meeting, and if the meeting is to be held or accessible via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the notice shall include the mechanism for access to the meeting. 4. The Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the Commission to discuss: a. Non-compliance of a Member State with its obligations under the Compact; b. The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures; c. Current or threatened discipline of a Licensee by the Commission or by a Member State's Licensing Authority; d. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation; e. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate; f. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person; g. Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential; h. Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; i. Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes; j. Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; k. Legal advice; l. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure to the public by federal or Member State law; or m. Other matters as promulgated by the Commission by Rule. 5. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes. 6. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction. G. Financing of the Commission 1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities. 2. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate sources of revenue, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services. 3. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each Member State and impose fees on Licensees of Member States to whom it grants a Multistate License to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for Member states shall be allocated based upon a formula that the Commission shall promulgate by Rule. 4. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any Member States, except by and with the authority of the Member State. 5. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission. H. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification 1. The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the Commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder. 2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the Commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct. 3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. 4. Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any Licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable State laws. 5. Nothing in this Compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a Member State's State action immunity or State action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other State or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation. 6. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the Member States or by the Commission. ARTICLE 9- DATA SYSTEM A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, operation, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system. B. The Commission shall assign each applicant for a Multistate License a unique identifier, as determined by the Rules of the Commission. C. Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, a Member State shall submit a uniform data set to the Data System on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the Rules of the Commission, including: 1. Identifying information; 2. Licensure data; 3. Adverse Actions against a license and information related thereto; 4. Non-confidential information related to Alternative Program participation, the beginning and ending dates of such participation, and other information related to such participation; 5. Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason(s) for such denial (excluding the reporting of any criminal history record information where prohibited by law); 6. The existence of Investigative Information; 7. The existence presence of Current Significant Investigative Information; and 8. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact or the protection of the public, as determined by the Rules of the Commission. D. The records and information provided to a Member State pursuant to this Compact or through the Data System, when certified by the Commission or an agent thereof, shall constitute the authenticated business records of the Commission, and shall be entitled to any associated hearsay exception in any relevant judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative proceedings in a Member State. E. The existence of Current Significant Investigative Information and the existence of Investigative Information pertaining to a Licensee in any Member State will only be available to other Member States. F. It is the responsibility of the Member States to report any Adverse Action against a Licensee who holds a Multistate License and to monitor the database to determine whether Adverse Action has been taken against such a Licensee or License applicant. Adverse Action information pertaining to a Licensee or License applicant in any Member State will be available to any other Member State. G. Member States contributing information to the Data System may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing State. H. Any information submitted to the Data System that is subsequently expunged pursuant to federal law or the laws of the Member State contributing the information shall be removed from the Data System. ARTICLE 10- RULEMAKING A. The Commission shall promulgate reasonable Rules in order to effectively and efficiently implement and administer the purposes and provisions of the Compact. A Rule shall be invalid and have no force or effect only if a court of competent jurisdiction holds that the Rule is invalid because the Commission exercised its rulemaking authority in a manner that is beyond the scope and purposes of the Compact, or the powers granted hereunder, or based upon another applicable standard of review. B. The Rules of the Commission shall have the force of law in each Member State, provided however that where the Rules of the Commission conflict with the laws of the Member State that establish the Member State's scope of practice as held by a court of competent jurisdiction, the Rules of the Commission shall be ineffective in that State to the extent of the conflict. C. The Commission shall exercise its Rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this article and the Rules adopted thereunder. Rules shall become binding as of the date specified by the Commission for each Rule. D. If a majority of the legislatures of the Member States rejects a Rule or portion of a Rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact within four (4) years of the date of adoption of the Rule, then such Rule shall have no further force and effect in any Member State or to any State applying to participate in the Compact. E. Rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission. F. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule, the Commission shall hold a public hearing and allow persons to provide oral and written comments, data, facts, opinions, and arguments. G. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule by the Commission, and at least thirty (30) days in advance of the meeting at which the Commission will hold a public hearing on the proposed Rule, the Commission shall provide a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: 1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform; 2. To persons who have requested notice of the Commission's notices of proposed rulemaking, and 3. In such other way(s) as the Commission may by Rule specify. H. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include: 1. The time, date, and location of the public hearing at which the Commission will hear public comments on the proposed Rule and, if different, the time, date, and location of the meeting where the Commission will consider and vote on the proposed Rule; 2. If the hearing is held via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the Commission shall include the mechanism for access to the hearing in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking; 3. The text of the proposed Rule and the reason therefor; 4. A request for comments on the proposed Rule from any interested person; and 5. The manner in which interested persons may submit written comments. I. All hearings will be recorded. A copy of the recording and all written comments and documents received by the Commission in response to the proposed Rule shall be available to the public. J. Nothing in this article shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each Rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this article. K. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all Commissioners, take final action on the proposed Rule based on the Rulemaking record. 1. The Commission may adopt changes to the proposed Rule provided the changes do not enlarge the original purpose of the proposed Rule. 2. The Commission shall provide an explanation of the reasons for substantive changes made to the proposed Rule as well as reasons for substantive changes not made that were recommended by commenters. 3. The Commission shall determine a reasonable effective date for the Rule. Except for an emergency as provided in subsection L, the effective date of the Rule shall be no sooner than thirty (30) days after the Commission issuing the notice that it adopted or amended the Rule. L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency Rule with 24 hours notice, provided that the usual Rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this article shall be retroactively applied to the Rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the Rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency Rule is one that must be adopted immediately to: 1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare; 2. Prevent a loss of Commission or Member State funds; 3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of a Rule that is established by federal law or rule; or 4. Protect public health and safety. M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted Rule for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a Rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission. N. No Member State's rulemaking requirements shall apply under this Compact. ARTICLE 11- OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION, AND ENFORCEMENT A. Oversight 1. The executive and judicial branches of State government in each Member State shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to implement the Compact. 2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings. Nothing herein shall affect or limit the selection or propriety of venue in any action against a Licensee for professional malpractice, misconduct or any such similar matter. 3. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any proceeding regarding the enforcement or interpretation of the Compact and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide the Commission service of process shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or promulgated Rules. B. Default, Technical Assistance, and Termination 1. If the Commission determines that a Member State has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated Rules, the Commission shall provide written notice to the defaulting State. The notice of default shall describe the default, the proposed means of curing the default, and any other action that the Commission may take, and shall offer training and specific technical assistance regarding the default. 2. The Commission shall provide a copy of the notice of default to the other Member States. C. If a State in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting State may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the delegates of the Member States, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred on that State by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending State of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default. D. Termination of membership in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting State's legislature, the defaulting State's State Licensing Authority and each of the Member States' State Licensing Authority. E. A State that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination. F. Upon the termination of a State's membership from this Compact, that State shall immediately provide notice to all Licensees who hold a Multistate License within that State of such termination. The terminated State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of said notice of termination. G. The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a State that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting State. H. The defaulting State may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. I. Dispute Resolution 1. Upon request by a Member State, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among Member States and between Member and non-Member States. 2. The Commission shall promulgate a Rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate. J. Enforcement 1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions of this Compact and the Commission's Rules. 2. By majority vote as provided by Commission Rule, the Commission may initiate legal action against a Member State in default in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or the defaulting Member State's law. 3. A Member State may initiate legal action against the Commission in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. 4. No individual or entity other than a Member State may enforce this Compact against the Commission. ARTICLE 12- EFFECTIVE DATE, WITHDRAWAL, AND AMENDMENT A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Member State. 1. On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the Charter Member States to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Member State is materially different than the model Compact statute. a. A Charter Member State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the model Compact statute shall be entitled to the default process set forth in Article 11. b. If any Member State is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from the Compact, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Member States should be less than seven (7). 2. Member States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Charter Member States shall be subject to the process set forth in Article 8.C.23 to determine if their enactments are materially different from the model Compact statute and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact. 3. All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission. 4. Any State that joins the Compact shall be subject to the Commission's Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that State. B. Any Member State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing that State's enactment of the Compact. 1. A Member State's withdrawal shall not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute. 2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing State's Licensing Authority to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal. 3. Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this Compact, a State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all licenses granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of 180 days after the date of such notice of withdrawal. C. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a Member State and a non-Member State that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact. D. This Compact may be amended by the Member States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Member State until it is enacted into the laws of all Member States. ARTICLE 13. CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY A. This Compact and the Commission's rulemaking authority shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes, and the implementation and administration of the Compact. Provisions of the Compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of Rules shall not be construed to limit the Commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes. B. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this Compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any Member State, a State seeking participation in the Compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. C. Notwithstanding subsection B of this article, the Commission may deny a State's participation in the Compact or, in accordance with the requirements of Article 11.B, terminate a Member State's participation in the Compact, if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a Member State is a material departure from the Compact. Otherwise, if this Compact shall be held to be contrary to the constitution of any Member State, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining Member States and in full force and effect as to the Member State affected as to all severable matters. ARTICLE 14. CONSISTENT EFFECT AND CONFLICT WITH OTHER STATE LAWS Nothing herein shall prevent or inhibit the enforcement of any other law of a Member State that is not inconsistent with the Compact. Any laws, statutes, regulations, or other legal requirements in a Member State in conflict with the Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict. All permissible agreements between the Commission and the Member States are binding in accordance with their terms. Last updated July 9, 2024 at 5:06 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4703.31 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4703 / § 4703.31
§ 4703.31. Ohio landscape architects board
Status: in_force

December 19, 2013 Senate Bill 68 - 130th General Assembly (A) There is hereby created the Ohio landscape architects board. The board shall consist of five members appointed by the governor. All appointments made to the board shall be for a five-year term commencing on the eleventh day of November and ending on the tenth day of November. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term to which the member was appointed. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor is appointed, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Three of the members shall be landscape architects registered under sections 4703.33 to 4703.37 of the Revised Code for not less than five years prior to appointment to the board. One member shall be appointed from a licensed design profession and one member shall represent the public. Any member of the board may be removed by the governor at any time for cause. (B) In the event of a vacancy in the office of a member of the board other than by reason of the expiration of a term, the governor, not later than ninety days after the occurrence of the vacancy, shall appoint a person to hold office for the remainder of the unexpired term. (C) The board shall elect from its members a president and a secretary who shall hold those offices for one year. (D) Each member of the board shall receive as a part of the expense of the board an amount fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code for each day actually employed in the discharge of official duties, along with other necessary expenses. (E) The board shall meet at least twice each calendar year for purposes of transacting regular business and may hold other meetings upon the call of the president or a majority of the members of the board after reasonable notice to the other board members of the time and place of the meeting. Three members of the board constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. (F) The board shall utilize the physical facilities and administrative staff of the architects board for the discharge of all the Ohio landscape architects board's administrative duties in connection with the administration and enforcement of sections 4703.30 to 4703.52 of the Revised Code. The Ohio landscape architects board shall bear a proportionate share of the cost of those administrative services, which shall not exceed its revenue.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4737.041 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4737 / § 4737.041
§ 4737.041. Special purchase articles and bulk merchandise containers
Status: in_force

September 28, 2012 Senate Bill 193 - 129th General Assembly A scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer shall do all of the following with respect to each special purchase article the scrap metal dealer purchases or receives or with respect to each bulk merchandise container a bulk merchandise container dealer purchases or receives that is subject to division (A) of section 4737.012 of the Revised Code: (A) Comply with the requirements of this section in addition to complying with the applicable requirements of section 4737.012 or 4737.04 of the Revised Code; (B) Take a photograph of each special purchase article or bulk merchandise container; (C) Obtain from the seller or provider of the special purchase article or bulk merchandise container proof that the seller or provider owns the special purchase article or bulk merchandise container; (D) If payment is rendered for the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers, issue a check for the purchase of the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers; (E) Withhold payment for the purchase of the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers for a period of two days after the day the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers are purchased; (F) If an asserted owner of stolen special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers or that owner's agent provides proof of having filed a stolen property report with the appropriate law enforcement agency, make records describing special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers the dealer purchased or received after the alleged date of theft available for inspection to the asserted owner or owner's agent for a period of six months after the alleged date of theft of the articles, except that the dealer shall withhold the name of the person from whom the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers were purchased or received and the amount paid for the special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.27 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.27
§ 4707.27. Filing notice of application
Status: in_force

July 1, 2003 Senate Bill 262 - 124th General Assembly A person who applies to a court of common pleas for an order directing payment from the auction recovery fund under section 4707.261 of the Revised Code shall file notice of the application with the director of agriculture. The director may defend any such action on behalf of the fund and shall have recourse to all appropriate means of defense and review, including examination of witnesses, verification of actual and direct losses, and challenges to the underlying judgment obtained from a court of competent jurisdiction to determine whether the underlying judgment is based on activity that only a person holding a valid license issued under this chapter is authorized to perform. The director may move the court of common pleas at any time to dismiss the application when it appears that there are no triable issues and the application is without merit, provided that the director shall give written notice to the applicant not fewer than ten days before the motion is made. The motion may be supported by affidavit of any person having knowledge of the facts and may be made on the basis that the application, including the underlying judgment referred to in it, does not form the basis for a meritorious recovery claim. Subject to court approval, the director may compromise a claim based on the application of the aggrieved party. The director shall not be bound by any prior compromise or stipulation of the licensee who is the judgment debtor.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4762.131 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4762 / § 4762.131
§ 4762.131. Effect of child support default on license
Status: in_force

October 17, 2019 House Bill 166 - 133rd General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state medical board shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license to practice as an oriental medicine practitioner or license to practice as an acupuncturist issued pursuant to this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.23 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.23
§ 4707.23. Effect of child support default on license
Status: in_force

October 1, 2001 House Bill 94 - 124th General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the department of agriculture shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4730.201 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4730 / § 4730.201
§ 4730.201. Administration of local anesthesia by physician assistant
Status: in_force

October 15, 2015 Senate Bill 110 - 131st General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "local anesthesia" means the injection of a drug or combination of drugs to stop or prevent a painful sensation in a circumscribed area of the body where a painful procedure is to be performed. "Local anesthesia" includes only local infiltration anesthesia, digital blocks, and pudendal blocks. (B) A physician assistant may administer, monitor, or maintain local anesthesia as a component of a procedure the physician assistant is performing or as a separate service when the procedure requiring local anesthesia is to be performed by the physician assistant's supervising physician or another person. A physician assistant shall not administer, monitor, or maintain any other form of anesthesia, including regional anesthesia or any systemic sedation.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4766.05 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4766 / § 4766.05
§ 4766.05. Fees
Status: in_force

July 1, 2013 House Bill 51 - 130th General Assembly (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall establish by rule a license fee, a permit fee for each ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle owned or leased by the licensee that is or will be used as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code, and fees for renewals of licenses and permits, taking into consideration the actual costs incurred by the board in carrying out its duties under this chapter. However, the fee for each license and each renewal of a license shall not exceed one hundred dollars, and the fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit shall not exceed one hundred dollars for each ambulance, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle. The board shall determine by rule the fee, which shall not exceed fifty dollars, for each permit and each renewal of a permit for each ambulette. For purposes of establishing fees, "actual costs" includes the costs of salaries, expenses, inspection equipment, supervision, and program administration. (B) The board shall deposit all fees and other moneys collected pursuant to sections 4766.04 , 4766.07 , and 4766.08 of the Revised Code in the state treasury to the credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is created by section 4513.263 of the Revised Code. (C) The board, subject to the approval of the controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the maximum amounts allowed under division (A) of this section, but such fees shall not exceed those maximum amounts by more than fifty per cent.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.488 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.488
§ 4723.488. [Former R.C. 4723.486, renumbered effective 12/16/2020 by H.B. 341, 133rd General Assembly] Access to drug database required for license renewal
Status: in_force

December 16, 2020 House Bill 341 - 133rd General Assembly (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, in the case of a license holder who is seeking renewal of a license to practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse and who prescribes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, the holder shall certify to the board whether the holder has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code. (B) The requirement in division (A) of this section does not apply if any of the following is the case: (1) The state board of pharmacy notifies the board of nursing pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the license holder has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database. (2) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database. (3) The license holder does not practice nursing in this state. (C) If a license holder certifies to the board of nursing that the holder has been granted access to the drug database and the board finds through an audit or other means that the holder has not been granted access, the board may take action under section 4723.28 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 19, 2022 at 1:11 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.52 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.52
§ 4755.52. Administrative rules for approval of courses, programs and activities
Status: in_force

April 6, 2007 House Bill 403 - 126th General Assembly (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the physical therapy section of the Ohio occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board shall adopt rules specifying standards, in addition to the standards specified by division (B) of this section, for approval of continuing education courses, programs, and activities for physical therapists and physical therapist assistants. (B) To be eligible for approval by the physical therapy section, a continuing education course, program, or activity shall meet all of the following requirements: (1) Include significant intellectual or practical content, the primary objective of which is to improve the professional competence of the participant; (2) Be an organized program of learning dealing with matters directly related to the practice of physical therapy, professional responsibility, ethical obligations, or similar subjects that the section determines maintain and improve the quality of physical therapy services in this state; (3) Consist of in-person instruction or other methods of instruction, including the use of self-study materials prepared and conducted by an individual or a group qualified by practical or academic experience as determined by the section; (4) Be presented in a setting physically suited to the educational activity of the course, program, or activity; (5) Include thorough, high-quality written material; (6) Meet any other standards established by rule of the section adopted under division (A) of this section. (C) The physical therapy section shall review physical therapy continuing education programs, courses, and activities and grant approval to those that meet the standards established under divisions (A) and (B) of this section. If the section denies approval of a course, program, or activity, it shall give a written explanation of the reason for denial to the person requesting approval. The physical therapy section may approve continuing education courses, programs, and activities that have been approved by an agency in another state that governs the licensure of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants if the section determines that the standards for continuing education courses established by the agency are comparable to those established pursuant to this section. The physical therapy section may contract with the Ohio chapter of the American physical therapy association for assistance in performance of the section's duties under this section.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4772.082 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4772 / § 4772.082
§ 4772.082. License restoration
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 Senate Bill 95 - 135th General Assembly (A) This section applies to both of the following: (1) An applicant seeking restoration of a license issued under this chapter that has been in a suspended or inactive state for any cause for more than two years; (2) An applicant seeking issuance of a license pursuant to this chapter who for more than two years has not been practicing as a certified mental health assistant as either of the following: (a) An active practitioner; (b) A student in an academic program as described in section 4772.04 of the Revised Code. (B) Before issuing a license to an applicant subject to this section or restoring a license to good standing for an applicant subject to this section, the state medical board may impose terms and conditions including any one or more of the following: (1) Requiring the applicant to pass an oral or written examination, or both, to determine the applicant's present fitness to resume practice; (2) Requiring the applicant to obtain additional training and to pass an examination upon completion of such training; (3) Requiring an assessment of the applicant's physical skills for purposes of determining whether the applicant's coordination, fine motor skills, and dexterity are sufficient for performing evaluations and procedures in a manner that meets the minimal standards of care; (4) Requiring an assessment of the applicant's skills in recognizing and understanding diseases and conditions; (5) Requiring the applicant to undergo a comprehensive physical examination, which may include an assessment of physical abilities, evaluation of sensory capabilities, or screening for the presence of neurological disorders; (6) Restricting or limiting the extent, scope, or type of practice of the applicant. The board shall consider the moral background and the activities of the applicant during the period of suspension or inactivity. The board shall not issue or restore a license under this section unless the applicant complies with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated April 8, 2025 at 3:54 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4705.99 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4705 / § 4705.99
§ 4705.99. Penalty
Status: in_force

September 15, 2004 House Bill 38 - 125th General Assembly Whoever violates division (A)(1) or (2) of section 4705.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Disclaimer Contact About
Ohio Rev. Code § 4713.21 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4713 / § 4713.21
§ 4713.21. Reapplying for examination
Status: in_force

September 13, 2016 Senate Bill 213 - 131st General Assembly Both of the following may apply again under section 4713.20 of the Revised Code for admission to an examination conducted under section 4713.24 of the Revised Code: (A) An individual who failed to appear for an examination that the individual was previously scheduled to take; (B) An individual who appeared for a previously scheduled examination but failed to pass it.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4734.40 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4734 / § 4734.40
§ 4734.40. Establishing standards for approving treatment providers for impaired chiropractors
Status: in_force

April 10, 2001 House Bill 506 - 123rd General Assembly (A) The state chiropractic board may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards for approving treatment providers for impaired chiropractors. If rules are adopted, the rules shall include standards for both inpatient and outpatient treatment. The rules shall provide that to be approved, a treatment provider must be capable of making an initial examination to determine the type of treatment an impaired chiropractor requires and must be capable of adhering to guidelines the board considers appropriate for assessment and referral of impaired chiropractors. The board shall review treatment providers on a regular basis and designate those providers that meet the standards for approval. The board may deny or withdraw its approval if it finds that the treatment provider being reviewed does not meet or no longer meets the standards for approval. (B) A chiropractor who enters into treatment by an approved treatment provider shall be deemed to have waived any confidentiality requirements that would otherwise prevent the treatment provider from making reports required under this section.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.13 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.13
§ 4729.13. Failure to renew license
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly A pharmacist who fails to make application to the state board of pharmacy for a license renewal within a period of three years from the expiration of the license must pass an examination for licensure and comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code; except that a pharmacist whose license has expired, but who has continually practiced pharmacy in another state under a license issued by the authority of that state, may obtain a renewed license upon payment to the executive director of the board the fee designated under division (A)(6) of section 4729.15 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4762.20 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4762 / § 4762.20
§ 4762.20. Fees in excess of statutory amounts
Status: in_force

August 10, 2000 House Bill 341 - 123rd General Assembly The state medical board, subject to the approval of the controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the amounts specified in this chapter, except that the fees may not exceed the specified amounts by more than fifty per cent. All fees, penalties, and other funds received by the board under this chapter shall be deposited in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4753.061 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4753 / § 4753.061
§ 4753.061. Criminal records checks
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "license" and "applicant for an initial license" have the same meanings as in section 4776.01 of the Revised Code, except that "license" as used in both of those terms refers to the types of authorizations otherwise issued or conferred under this chapter. (B) In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for an initial license shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The state speech and hearing professionals board shall not grant a license to an applicant for an initial license unless the applicant complies with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 4:59 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.623 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.623
§ 4755.623. Required referrals for athletic training
Status: in_force

January 27, 2022 House Bill 176 - 134th General Assembly (A) A person licensed as an athletic trainer pursuant to this chapter shall engage in the activities described in section 4755.621 or 4755.622 only if the person acts upon the referral of one or more of the following: (1) A physician; (2) A dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code; (3) A physical therapist licensed under this chapter; (4) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code; (5) Subject to division (B) of this section, an athletic trainer licensed under this chapter; (6) A physician assistant licensed under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code; (7) A certified nurse practitioner licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code. (B) A person licensed as an athletic trainer pursuant to this chapter may practice upon the referral of an athletic trainer described in division (A) of this section only if athletic training has already been recommended and referred by a health care provider described in division (A) of this section who is not an athletic trainer. Last updated November 8, 2021 at 11:43 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4725.09 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4725 / § 4725.09
§ 4725.09. Administrative rules
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly (A) The state vision professionals board shall adopt rules as it considers necessary to govern the practice of optometry and to administer and enforce sections 4725.01 to 4725.34 of the Revised Code. All rules adopted under those sections shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (B) The board, in consultation with the state board of pharmacy, shall adopt rules specifying any oral drugs or dangerous drugs that are therapeutic pharmaceutical agents under division (C)(3) of section 4725.01 of the Revised Code. (C) The board shall adopt rules that establish standards to be met and procedures to be followed with respect to the delegation by an optometrist of the performance of an optometric task to a person who is not licensed or otherwise specifically authorized by the Revised Code to perform the task. The rules shall permit an optometrist to delegate the administration of drugs included in the optometrist's scope of practice. The rules adopted under this division shall provide for all of the following: (1) On-site supervision when the delegation occurs in an institution or other facility that is used primarily for the purpose of providing health care, unless the board established a specific exception to the on-site supervision requirement with respect to routine administration of a topical drug; (2) Evaluation of whether delegation is appropriate according to the acuity of the patient involved; (3) Training and competency requirements that must be met by the person administering the drugs; (4) Other standards and procedures the board considers relevant. (D) The board shall adopt rules establishing criminal records checks requirements for applicants under section 4776.03 of the Revised Code. Last updated February 24, 2023 at 4:32 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.36 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.36
§ 4715.36. Definitions
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly As used in this section and sections 4715.361 to 4715.374 of the Revised Code: (A) "Accredited dental hygiene school" means a dental hygiene school accredited by the American dental association commission on dental accreditation or a dental hygiene school whose educational standards are recognized by the American dental association commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state dental board. (B) "Authorizing dentist" means a dentist who authorizes a dental hygienist to perform dental hygiene services under section 4715.365 of the Revised Code. (C) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnosis and treatment plan formulated for an individual patient by a dentist. (D) "Dentist" means an individual licensed under this chapter to practice dentistry. (E) "Dental hygienist" means an individual licensed under this chapter to practice as a dental hygienist. (F) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, preventive, and other procedures that dentists are authorized by this chapter and rules of the state dental board to assign to dental hygienists, except for procedures while a patient is anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival curettage, the administration of local anesthesia, and the procedures specified in rules adopted by the board as described in division (C)(3) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code. (G) "Facility" means any of the following: (1) A health care facility, as defined in section 4715.22 of the Revised Code; (2) A state correctional institution, as defined in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code; (3) A comprehensive child development program that receives funds distributed under the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 499 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended, and is licensed as a child care center; (4) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; (5) A public school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code; (6) A nonpublic school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code; (7) A federally qualified health center or federally qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code; (8) A shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code; (9) A facility operated by the department of youth services under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code; (10) A foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code; (11) A nonprofit clinic, as defined in section 3715.87 of the Revised Code; (12) The residence of one or more individuals receiving services provided by a home health agency, as defined in section 3740.11 of the Revised Code; (13) A dispensary; (14) A health care facility, such as a clinic or hospital, of the United States department of veterans affairs; (15) The residence of one or more individuals enrolled in a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code; (16) A facility operated by the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code; (17) A women, infants, and children clinic; (18) A mobile dental facility, as defined in section 4715.70 of the Revised Code, located at any location listed in divisions (G)(1) to (17) of this section; (19) Any other location, as specified by the state dental board in rules adopted under section 4715.372 of the Revised Code, that is in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code and provides health care services to individuals who are medicaid recipients and to indigent and uninsured persons, as defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 23, 2023 at 9:13 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4703.544 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4703 / § 4703.544
§ 4703.544. Satisfaction and release of landscape architect lien
Status: in_force

September 30, 2021 Senate Bill 49 - 134th General Assembly (A) When a claim underlying a lien perfected pursuant to section 4703.542 of the Revised Code is satisfied, the landscape architect holding the lien shall record a written release of the landscape architect's lien in the county recorder's office of the county in which the lien was recorded. (B) The landscape architect shall file the lien release for recording within thirty days after the underlying claim is satisfied. (C) The county recorder shall record the release and charge and collect from the landscape architect the fees set forth in section 317.32 of the Revised Code for the recorder's services. Last updated July 14, 2021 at 12:34 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4796.30 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4796 / § 4796.30
§ 4796.30. Administrative rules
Status: in_force

April 3, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly Each licensing authority shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this chapter, including rules regarding issuing restricted or limited licenses or government certifications under section 4796.10 of the Revised Code. Last updated March 6, 2023 at 4:56 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4735.022 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4735 / § 4735.022
§ 4735.022. Nonresident commercial brokers and salespersons
Status: in_force

April 5, 2002 House Bill 272 - 124th General Assembly (A) An out-of-state commercial broker, for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or in the expectation, or upon the promise of receiving or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, may perform those acts that require a license under this chapter, with respect to commercial real estate, provided that the out-of-state commercial broker does all of the following: (1) Works in cooperation with an Ohio real estate broker who holds a valid, active license issued under this chapter; (2) Enters into a written agreement with the Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section that includes the terms of cooperation and compensation and a statement that the out-of-state commercial broker and its agents will agree to adhere to the laws of Ohio; (3) Furnishes the Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section with a copy of the out-of-state commercial broker's current certificate of good standing from any jurisdiction where the out-of-state commercial broker maintains an active real estate license; (4) Files an irrevocable written consent with the Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section that legal actions arising out of the conduct of the out-of-state commercial broker or its agents may be commenced against the out-of-state commercial broker in the court of proper jurisdiction of any county in Ohio where the cause of action arises or where the plaintiff resides; (5) Includes the name of the Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section on all advertising in accordance with section 4735.16 of the Revised Code; (6) Deposits all escrow funds, security deposits, and other money received by either the out-of-state commercial broker or Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section in trust or special accounts maintained by the Ohio broker; (7) Deposits all documentation required by this section and records and documents related to the transaction with the Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section. The Ohio broker described in division (A)(1) of this section shall retain the documentation that is provided by the out-of-state commercial broker as required under division (A)(7) of this section, and the records and documents related to a transaction, for a period of three years after the date the documentation is provided, or the transaction occurred, as appropriate. (B) An out-of-state commercial salesperson may perform those acts that require a real estate salesperson license under this chapter with respect to commercial real estate, provided that the out-of-state commercial salesperson meets all of the following requirements: (1) Is licensed with and works under the direct supervision of the out-of-state commercial broker; (2) The out-of-state commercial broker with whom the salesperson is associated meets all of the requirements of division (A) of this section ; (3) Provides the Ohio broker who is working in cooperation with the out-of-state broker with whom the salesperson is associated, with a copy of the commercial salesperson's current certificate of good standing from the jurisdiction where the out-of-state commercial salesperson maintains an active real estate license in connection with the out-of-state commercial broker; (4) Collects money, including commissions, deposits, payments, rentals, or otherwise, only in the name of and with the consent of the out-of-state commercial broker under whom the out-of-state commercial salesperson is licensed. (C) By filing a consent-to-jurisdiction document as described under division (A)(4) of this section, the person giving the consent makes and constitutes the secretary of state as an agent for service of process in this state including service of summonses and subpoenas. Service of process upon any person may be initiated by leaving with the secretary of state or an assistant secretary of state four copies of the process, an affidavit stating the address of the person given on the consent-to-jurisdiction document, and a fee of five dollars. Upon receipt of the process, affidavit, and fee, the secretary of state immediately shall give notice of the process to the person, at the address given in the affidavit and forward to that address by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the process. Service is considered to be complete upon the mailing of the notice and copy of process in accordance with this division. (D) A person, partnership, association, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or corporation licensed in a jurisdiction where there is no legal distinction between a real estate broker license and a real estate salesperson license must meet the requirements of division (A) of this section before engaging in any activity described in this section that requires a real estate broker license in this state.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4753.06 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4753 / § 4753.06
§ 4753.06. License qualifications
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly No person is eligible for licensure as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist unless: (A) The person has obtained a broad general education to serve as a background for the person's specialized academic training and preparatory professional experience. Such background may include study from among the areas of human psychology, sociology, psychological and physical development, the physical sciences, especially those that pertain to acoustic and biological phenomena, and human anatomy and physiology, including neuroanatomy and neurophysiology. (B) If the person seeks licensure as a speech-language pathologist, the person submits to the state speech and hearing professionals board an official transcript demonstrating that the person has at least a master's degree in speech-language pathology or the equivalent as determined by the board. The person's academic credit must include course work accumulated in the completion of a well-integrated course of study approved by the board and delineated by rule dealing with the normal aspects of human communication, development and disorders thereof, and clinical techniques for the evaluation and the improvement or eradication of such disorders. The course work must have been completed at colleges or universities accredited by regional or national accrediting organizations recognized by the board. (C) If the person seeks licensure as an audiologist, the person submits to the board an official transcript demonstrating that the person has at least a doctor of audiology degree or the equivalent as determined by the board. The person's academic credit must include course work accumulated in the completion of a well-integrated course of study approved by the board and delineated by rules dealing with the normal aspects of human hearing, balance, and related development and clinical evaluation, audiologic diagnosis, and treatment of disorders of human hearing, balance, and related development. The course work must have been completed in an audiology program that is accredited by an organization recognized by the United States department of education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board. (D) The person submits to the board evidence of the completion of appropriate, supervised clinical experience in the professional area, speech-language pathology or audiology, for which licensure is requested, dealing with a variety of communication disorders. The appropriateness of the experience shall be determined under rules of the board. This experience shall have been obtained in an accredited college or university, in a cooperating program of an accredited college or university, or in another program approved by the board. (E) The person submits to the board evidence that the person has passed the examination for licensure to practice speech-language pathology or audiology pursuant to division (B) of section 4753.05 of the Revised Code. (F) In the case of a person seeking licensure as a speech-language pathologist, the person presents to the board written evidence that the person has obtained professional experience. The professional experience shall be appropriately supervised as determined by board rule. The amount of professional experience shall be determined by board rule and shall be bona fide clinical work that has been accomplished in speech-language pathology. This experience shall not begin until the requirements of divisions (B), (D), and (E) of this section have been completed unless approved by the board. Before beginning the supervised professional experience pursuant to this section, the applicant shall obtain a conditional license pursuant to section 4753.071 of the Revised Code. Last updated March 22, 2023 at 12:47 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4705.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4705 / § 4705.03
§ 4705.03. Procedure for suspension or removal
Status: in_force

October 1, 1953 House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly Before an attorney at law is suspended or removed, or publicly or privately reprimanded, written charges must be filed against him, stating distinctly the grounds of complaint, and a copy thereof, certified by the clerk, under the seal of the court, served upon him. After such service, such attorney shall be allowed a reasonable time to collect and present testimony in his own defense, and he shall be heard by himself or counsel.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4735.80 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4735 / § 4735.80
§ 4735.80. Anti-discrimination disclosure
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly (A) The superintendent of real estate shall, within one year after April 3, 2025, adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that require a licensee, prior to listing residential real estate for sale, exchange, or purchase, to provide to the seller a disclosure form, developed and maintained by the division of real estate, that outlines both of the following: (1) The federal and state laws that relate to anti-discrimination in the home-buying process with which a seller of residential real estate shall comply, including the laws listed in divisions (C)(2) and (3) of section 4735.55 of the Revised Code; (2) The penalties associated with violating any of the laws specified pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. (B) No licensee shall market or show a seller's residential real estate before providing the seller with the disclosure required by this section and receiving a copy of that disclosure that is signed and dated by the seller. The licensee shall retain the signed and dated copy of the disclosure for not less than three years following the closing date on the seller's residential real estate. (C) Notwithstanding any provision of section 121.95 of the Revised Code to the contrary, a regulatory restriction contained in a rule adopted under this section is not subject to sections 121.95 to 121.953 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 7, 2025 at 1:44 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4725.13 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4725 / § 4725.13
§ 4725.13. Issuing and display of certificate
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 (GA 134), House Bill 509 (GA 134) (A) The state vision professionals board, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, shall issue a certificate of licensure authorizing the holder to engage in the practice of optometry under its seal to every applicant who passes all parts of the licensing examination accepted by the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code and otherwise complies with the requirements of sections 4725.01 to 4725.34 of the Revised Code. (B) Each person to whom a certificate of licensure is issued pursuant to this section by the board shall keep the certificate of licensure displayed in a conspicuous place in the location at which that person practices optometry and shall whenever required exhibit the certificate of licensure to any member or agent of the board. If an optometrist practices outside of or away from the location at which the optometrist's certificate of licensure is displayed, the optometrist shall deliver to each person examined or fitted with optical accessories by the optometrist, a receipt signed by the optometrist in which the optometrist shall set forth the amounts charged, the optometrist's post-office address, and the number assigned to the optometrist's certificate of licensure. The information may be provided as part of a prescription given to the person. (C) Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to certificates issued under division (A)(2) or (3) of this section. The Legislative Service Commission presents the text of this section as a composite of the section as amended by multiple acts of the General Assembly. This presentation recognizes the principle stated in R.C. 1.52(B) that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 7:01 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4751.41 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4751 / § 4751.41
§ 4751.41. Display of license
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly Every licensed nursing home administrator and licensed health services executive shall display the individual's license or temporary license in the place at which the individual practices nursing home administration and the long-term services and supports setting at which the individual serves in a leadership position or directs the practices of others. Last updated March 22, 2023 at 12:45 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4765.111 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4765 / § 4765.111
§ 4765.111. Disciplinary proceedings
Status: in_force

July 1, 2013 House Bill 51 - 130th General Assembly Except as provided in this section or sections 4765.112 to 4765.116 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall conduct disciplinary proceedings regarding the holder of a certificate issued under this chapter in accordance with rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The board and a holder of a certificate are the parties to a hearing conducted under this chapter. Either party may submit a written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than thirty-seven days prior to the commencement of the hearing, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of witnesses and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension of time to provide the list and copies. Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in accordance with this section shall result in exclusion from the hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.87 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.87
§ 4723.87. Community health worker training programs
Status: in_force

April 6, 2017 House Bill 216 - 131st General Assembly (A) A person or government entity seeking to operate a training program that prepares individuals to become certified community health workers shall submit an application to the board of nursing on forms the board shall prescribe and furnish. The applicant shall include all information the board requires to process the application. The application shall be accompanied by the fee established in rules adopted under section 4723.87 of the Revised Code. The board shall review all applications received. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if an applicant meets the standards for approval established in the board's rules adopted under section 4723.88 of the Revised Code, the board shall approve the program. (B)(1) The board shall deny approval of the program if an applicant submits or causes to be submitted to the board false, misleading, or deceptive statements, information, or documentation in the process of applying for approval of the program. (2) The board may deny approval if the program is controlled by a person who controls or has controlled a program that had its approval withdrawn, revoked, suspended, or restricted by the board or a board of another jurisdiction that is a member of the national council of state boards of nursing. As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "control" means any of the following: (i) Holding fifty per cent or more of the program's outstanding voting securities or membership interest; (ii) In the case of a program that is not incorporated, having the right to fifty per cent or more of the program's profits or in the event of a dissolution, fifty per cent or more of the program's assets; (iii) In the case of a program that is a for-profit or not-for-profit corporation, having the contractual authority presently to designate fifty per cent or more of the program's directors; (iv) In the case of a program that is a trust, having the contractual authority presently to designate fifty per cent or more of the program's trustees; (v) Having the authority to direct the program's management, policies, or investments. (3) If the board proposes to deny approval of a program, it shall do so pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (C) The board's approval of a training program expires biennially and may be renewed in accordance with the schedule and procedures established by the board in rules adopted under section 4723.88 of the Revised Code. (D) If an approved community health worker training program ceases to meet the standards for approval, the board shall withdraw its approval of the program, refuse to renew its approval of the program, or place the program on provisional approval. In withdrawing or refusing to renew its approval, the board shall act in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. In placing a program on provisional approval, the board shall specify the period of time during which the provisional approval is valid. Prior to or at the end of the period, the board shall reconsider whether the program meets the standards for approval. If the program meets the standards for approval, the board shall reinstate its full approval of the program or renew its approval of the program. If the program does not meet the standards for approval, the board shall proceed by withdrawing or refusing to renew its approval of the program. (E) When an action taken by the board is required to be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may, in lieu of an adjudication hearing, enter into a consent agreement to resolve the matter. A consent agreement, when ratified by a vote of a quorum of the board, constitutes the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the agreement are of no effect. In any instance in which the board is required under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice to a program of an opportunity for a hearing and the program does not make a timely request for a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by a vote of a quorum, a final order that contains the board's findings. When the board denies, withdraws, or refuses to renew approval of a program, the board may specify that its action is permanent. A program subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever ineligible for approval and the board shall not accept an application for the program's reinstatement or approval. Last updated January 13, 2023 at 1:28 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4766.23 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4766 / § 4766.23
§ 4766.23. Compliance with law regarding sanctions for human trafficking
Status: in_force

March 22, 2013 House Bill 247 - 129th General Assembly The Ohio medical transportation board shall comply with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4772.24 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4772 / § 4772.24
§ 4772.24. Enforcement
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 Senate Bill 95 - 135th General Assembly The secretary of the state medical board shall enforce the laws relating to the practice of certified mental health assistants. If the secretary has knowledge or notice of a violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it, the secretary shall investigate the matter, and, upon probable cause appearing, file a complaint and prosecute the offender. When requested by the secretary, the prosecuting attorney of the proper county shall take charge of and conduct the prosecution. Last updated April 8, 2025 at 4:05 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4759.99 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4759 / § 4759.99
§ 4759.99. Penalty
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly Whoever violates section 4759.02 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If the offender has been previously convicted once of a violation of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code, then the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the offender has been previously convicted more than once of a violation of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code, then the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Whoever violates division (B)(1) or (2) of section 4759.14 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense; on each subsequent offense, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Whoever violates division (B) of section 4759.05 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Last updated August 4, 2025 at 11:46 AM Disclaimer Contact About
Ohio Rev. Code § 4771.10 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4771 / § 4771.10
§ 4771.10. Continuing education
Status: in_force

March 22, 2001 House Bill 107 - 123rd General Assembly The commission may require each registered athlete agent to complete not more than six hours of continuing education during a biennial registration in programs to be determined or approved by the commission. If the commission imposes continuing education requirements on athlete agents, not less than two of the six hours of continuing education shall be devoted to ethics. A continuing education program shall promote the ability of an athlete agent to serve as an athlete agent in an ethical and legal manner. A continuing education program may address laws and rules governing athlete agents and rules and policies established by an athletic conference or a collegiate athletic organization. An athlete agent also may obtain credit for continuing education by participating in or attending lectures, courses at institutions of higher education, seminars, or rule-making or disciplinary proceedings approved by the commission, or by teaching a subject that pertains to the profession of an athlete agent. If the commission requires athlete agents to fulfill continuing education requirements under this section, the commission shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this section. The rules shall contain procedures by which the commission shall monitor an athlete agent's compliance with the continuing education requirements prior to renewal of an athlete agent's certificate of registration.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.24 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.24
§ 4707.24. Provisions inapplicable to one-time residential auction
Status: in_force

September 26, 2003 House Bill 95 - 125th General Assembly Except for the purposes of divisions (A) and (B) of section 4707.25 of the Revised Code, sections 4707.25 to 4707.31 of the Revised Code do not apply with respect to a license issued under section 4707.072 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.08 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.08
§ 4729.08. License qualifications
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly Every applicant for examination and licensure as a pharmacist shall: (A) Be at least eighteen years of age; (B) Have obtained a degree in pharmacy from a program that has been recognized and approved by the state board of pharmacy, except that graduates of schools or colleges of pharmacy that are located outside the United States and have not demonstrated that the standards of their programs are at least equivalent to programs recognized and approved by the board shall be required to pass an equivalency examination recognized and approved by the board and to establish written and oral proficiency in English. (C) Have satisfactorily completed at least the minimum requirements for pharmacy internship as outlined by the board. If the board is satisfied that the applicant meets the foregoing requirements and if the applicant passes the examination required under section 4729.07 of the Revised Code, the board shall issue to the applicant a license authorizing the individual to practice pharmacy. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 5:03 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4769.06 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4769 / § 4769.06
§ 4769.06. Powers of department of health
Status: in_force

July 1, 2009 House Bill 525 - 127th General Assembly In investigating possible violations of section 4769.02 of the Revised Code or conducting hearings under section 4769.03 of the Revised Code, the department of health may administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, and issue subpoenas compelling attendance of witnesses or production of documents. The subpoenas shall be served in the same manner as subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum issued for a trial of a civil action in a court of common pleas. The department shall pay each witness who appears before the department in obedience to a subpoena the fees and mileage provided under section 119.094 of the Revised Code. If a person who is served a subpoena fails to attend a hearing or to produce documents, or refuses to be sworn or to answer any question put to the person, the department may apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the person resides, or the county in which the hearing under division (B) of section 4769.03 of the Revised Code is conducted, for a contempt order, as in the case of a failure of a person who is served a subpoena issued by the court to attend or to produce documents or a refusal of such person to testify.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.72 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.72
§ 4731.72. Physician's bill for anatomical pathology services
Status: in_force

October 15, 2015 Senate Bill 110 - 131st General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Anatomic pathology services," "assignment of benefits," "histologic processing," "insurer," "physician," and "referring clinical laboratory" have the same meanings as in section 3701.86 of the Revised Code. (2) "Professional component of an anatomic pathology service" means the entire anatomic pathology service other than histologic processing. (3) "Technical component of an anatomic pathology service" means only histologic processing. (B) No physician shall present or cause to be presented a claim, bill, or demand for payment for anatomic pathology services to any person or entity other than the following: (1) The patient who receives the services or another individual, such as a parent, spouse, or guardian, who is responsible for the patient's bills; (2) A responsible insurer or other third-party payor of a patient who receives the services; (3) A hospital, public health clinic, or not-for-profit health clinic ordering the services; (4) A referring clinical laboratory; (5) A governmental agency or any person acting on behalf of a governmental agency; (6) A physician who is permitted to bill for the services under division (D) of this section. (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no physician shall charge, bill, or otherwise solicit payment, directly or indirectly, for anatomic pathology services unless the services are personally rendered by the physician or rendered under the on-site supervision of the physician. (D) A physician who performs the professional component of an anatomic pathology service on a patient specimen may bill for the amount incurred in doing either of the following: (1) Having a clinical laboratory or another physician perform the technical component of the anatomic pathology service; (2) Obtaining another physician's consultation regarding the patient specimen. (E) A violation of division (B) or (C) of this section constitutes a reason for taking action under division (B)(20) of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to mandate the assignment of benefits for anatomic pathology services.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4733.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4733 / § 4733.01
§ 4733.01. Professional engineer and professional surveyor definitions
Status: in_force

June 3, 2014 House Bill 202 - 130th General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "Professional engineer" means a person registered as a professional engineer under this chapter. (B) "Engineer" means a graduate of an accredited engineering curriculum or a person registered as a professional engineer under this chapter, or both. (C) "Accredited engineering curriculum" means an engineering curriculum accredited by the engineering accreditation commission of ABET, Inc. (D) "ABET, Inc." means the accreditation board for engineering and technology. (E) "The practice of engineering" includes any professional service, such as consultation, investigation, evaluation, planning, design, or inspection of construction or operation for the purpose of assuring compliance with drawings or specifications in connection with any public or privately owned public utilities, structures, buildings, machines, equipment, processes, works, or projects in the proper rendering of which the qualifications of section 4733.11 of the Revised Code are required to protect the public welfare or to safeguard life, health, or property. (F) "Professional surveyor" means a person who is registered as a professional surveyor under this chapter. (G) "Practice of surveying" means any professional service that requires the application of special knowledge of the principles of mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant requirements of law for the adequate performance of the art of surveying, including, but not limited to, measuring the area or the contours of any portion of the earth's surface, the lengths and directions of the bounding lines, and the contour of the surface, for their correct determination and description and for conveyancing for recording, or for the establishment or re-establishment of land boundaries and the platting of lands and subdivisions; and like measurements and operations involved in the surveying of mines, commonly known as "mine surveying."
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.97 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.97
§ 4731.97. Eligible patients
Status: in_force

March 22, 2020 Senate Bill 229 - 132nd General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Investigational drug, product, or device" means a drug, product, or device that has successfully completed phase one of United States food and drug administration clinical trials and remains under clinical investigation, but has not been approved for general use by the United States food and drug administration. "Investigational drug, product, or device" does not include controlled substances in schedule I, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (2) "Drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code. (3) "Product" means a biological product, other than a drug, that is made from a natural human, animal, or microorganism source and is intended to treat a disease or medical condition. (4) "Device" means a medical device that is intended for use in the diagnosis or treatment of a disease or medical condition. (5) "Physician" means an individual authorized by this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. (6) "Terminal condition" means any of the following conditions, if irreversible, incurable, and untreatable through a method of treatment approved by the United States food and drug administration: (a) A progressive form of cancer; (b) A progressive neurological disorder; (c) A progressive musculoskeletal disorder; (d) A condition that, based on reasonable medical standards and a reasonable degree of medical certainty, appears likely to cause death within a period of time that is relatively short but does not exceed twelve months. (7) "Treating physician" means the physician primarily responsible for providing medical care and treating an eligible patient's terminal condition. "Treating physician" does not include the patient's primary care physician unless that physician is treating the patient's terminal condition and no other physician is primarily responsible for treating the terminal condition. The patient may have more than one treating physician. (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, an individual is an eligible patient if all of the following conditions are met: (a) The individual has a terminal condition, as determined by the individual's treating physician and by one other physician who has examined the individual. (b) The individual, as determined by the individual's treating physician, has considered all treatment options for the terminal condition that are approved by the United States food and drug administration and determined that there are no satisfactory or comparable approved treatments and that the risk from the investigational drug, product, or device is no greater than the probable risk from not treating the terminal condition. (c) The individual's treating physician recommends the use of the investigational drug, product, or device as a last option available for the individual, attests that it represents the individual's best chance at survival, and agrees to either administer or personally furnish it or has issued a prescription to the individual for the investigational drug, product, or device. (d) The treating physician includes documentation in the patient's medical record that all of the foregoing conditions have been met. (2) An individual who meets the requirements of division (B)(1) of this section is not an eligible patient if a clinical trial using the investigational drug, product, or device is actively being conducted within one hundred miles of the individual's residence, unless the individual applied for participation but was denied access to that clinical trial. (C)(1) A treating physician may treat an eligible patient with an investigational drug, product, or device after securing the patient's informed consent in a signed statement. If the patient is a minor or lacks the capacity to consent, the informed consent must be obtained from a parent, guardian, or other person legally responsible for the patient. (2) To secure informed consent, the treating physician must do all of the following: (a) On a form based on the template created by the state medical board under division (I) of this section, record all of the following: (i) An explanation of the approved treatment options for the terminal condition from which the patient suffers; (ii) The specific proposed investigational drug, product, or device; (iii) The potentially best and worst outcomes of using the investigational drug, product, or device with a realistic description of the most likely outcome, including that there is no proof of efficacy and that it is possible new, unanticipated, different, or worse symptoms might result, and that death could be hastened by the investigational drug, product, or device; (iv) An explanation that the manufacturer of the investigational drug, product, or device may hold the patient liable for all expenses that arise from the patient's use of the investigational drug, product, or device; (v) An explanation that any health insurance or government program that covers the individual may not include coverage of any charges by the treating physician or another health care provider for any care or treatment resulting from the patient's use of the investigational drug, product, or device; (vi) A statement explaining that the manufacturer of the investigational drug, product, or device, the pharmacy or other distributor of the drug, and the patient's treating physician or administering hospital are not liable for or subject to any of the following for an act or omission related to providing, distributing, or treating with, an investigational drug, product, or device, unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct: damages in any civil action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional disciplinary action. (b) Have the individual giving consent sign the form in the conscious presence of a competent witness; (c) Have the witness also sign the form and attest that the individual giving consent appeared to do all of the following: (i) Concur with the treating physician in believing that all approved treatment options would be unlikely to prolong the patient's life; (ii) Understand the risks involved with using the investigational drug, product, or device; (iii) Willingly desire to use the investigational drug, product, or device to treat the terminal condition. (3) An eligible patient, or the patient's parent, guardian, or other person legally responsible for the patient, may revoke consent to treatment with an investigational drug, product, or device at any time and in any manner that communicates the revocation. (D)(1) Except for actions constituting willful or wanton misconduct, a treating physician who recommends or treats an eligible patient with an investigational drug, product, or device in compliance with this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following for an action or omission related to treatment with the investigational drug, product, or device: damages in any civil action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional disciplinary action. (2) This section does not create a new cause of action or substantive legal right against a treating physician or hospital related to a physician's not recommending the use of an investigational drug, product, or device. (E) An official, employee, or agent of this state shall not, solely because an investigational drug, product, or device has not been approved for general use by the United States food and drug administration, prevent or attempt to prevent access by an eligible patient or eligible patient's treating physician to an investigational drug, product, or device that is being provided or is to be provided in accordance with this section or section 4729.89 of the Revised Code. (F) If an eligible patient dies while being treated with an investigational drug, product, or device and there are any outstanding costs related to treating the patient, the patient's estate, devisees, and heirs shall not be held liable by any person or government entity for those costs. (G) Nothing in this section requires a health care insurer, the medicaid program or any other government health care program, or any other entity that offers health care benefits to provide coverage for the costs incurred from the use of any investigational drug, product, or device. (H) Nothing in this section condones, authorizes, or approves of assisted suicide, as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code, or any action that is considered mercy killing or euthanasia. (I) As soon as practicable after April 6, 2017, the state medical board shall create a template of the form to be used by a treating physician to secure a patient's informed consent under division (C)(2) of this section and make the template available to physicians and hospitals.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.53 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.53
§ 4715.53. License qualifications
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly (A) Each individual seeking a certificate to practice as a dental x-ray machine operator shall apply to the state dental board on a form the board shall prescribe and provide. Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the application shall be accompanied by an application fee of thirty-two dollars. (B) The board shall review all applications received and, except as provided in division (C) of this section, issue a dental x-ray machine operator certificate to each applicant who submits evidence satisfactory to the board of one of the following: (1) The applicant holds certification from the dental assisting national board, the Ohio commission on dental assistant certification, or the American medical technologists. (2) The applicant has successfully completed an educational program consisting of at least seven hours of instruction in dental x-ray machine operation that meets either of the following requirements: (a) Has been approved by the board in accordance with section 4715.57 of the Revised Code; (b) Is conducted by an institution accredited by the American dental association commission on dental accreditation. (C) The board shall issue a certificate in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (1) The applicant holds a license or certificate in another state. (2) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter as a dental x-ray machine operator in a state that does not issue that license or certificate. (D) A certificate issued under this section expires two years after it is issued and may be renewed if the certificate holder does both of the following: (1) Certifies to the board that the certificate holder has completed at least two hours of instruction in dental x-ray machine operation approved by the board in accordance with section 4715.57 of the Revised Code during the two-year period preceding the date the renewal application is received by the board. (2) Submits a renewal fee of thirty-two dollars to the board. Renewals shall be made in accordance with the standard renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:35 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4712.14 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4712 / § 4712.14
§ 4712.14. Administrative rules
Status: in_force

September 26, 1996 Senate Bill 293 - 121st General Assembly The superintendent of financial institutions may adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, reasonable rules to carry out the purposes of sections 4712.01 to 4712.14 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4701.15 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4701 / § 4701.15
§ 4701.15. Employees
Status: in_force

January 9, 1961 House Bill 1 - 104th General Assembly Nothing contained in sections 4701.01 to 4701.19 , inclusive, of the Revised Code, shall prohibit any person not a certified public accountant or public accountant from serving as an employee of, or an assistant to, a certified public accountant or public accountant or partnership composed of certified public accountants or public accountants or a foreign accountant registered under section 4701.09 of the Revised Code; provided that such employee or assistant does not issue any accounting or financial statement over his name. Nothing contained in sections 4701.01 to 4701.19 , inclusive, of the Revised Code, shall prohibit a certified public accountant or a registered public accountant of another state, or any accountant who holds a certificate, degree, or license in a foreign country, constituting a recognized qualification for the practice of public accounting in such country, from temporarily practicing in this state on professional business incident to his regular practice outside the state; provided, that such temporary practice is conducted in conformity with the regulations and rules of professional conduct promulgated by the accountancy board.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4741.18 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4741 / § 4741.18
§ 4741.18. Prohibiting fraud or error in obtaining license or permit
Status: in_force

March 2, 1992 House Bill 184 - 119th General Assembly No person shall sell or fraudulently obtain or furnish a license or a temporary permit or abet therein. No person shall practice veterinary medicine in this state under cover of any license or temporary permit fraudulently obtained or signed or issued unlawfully or under fraudulent representation or issued through an error of the state veterinary medical licensing board.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4719.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4719 / § 4719.01
§ 4719.01. Telephone solicitor definitions - exemptions
Status: in_force

September 30, 2021 House Bill 110 - 134th General Assembly (A) As used in sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of the Revised Code: (1) "Affiliate" means a business entity that is owned by, operated by, controlled by, or under common control with another business entity. (2) "Communication" means a written or oral notification or advertisement that meets both of the following criteria, as applicable: (a) The notification or advertisement is transmitted by or on behalf of the seller of goods or services and by or through any printed, audio, video, cinematic, telephonic, or electronic means. (b) In the case of a notification or advertisement other than by telephone, either of the following conditions is met: (i) The notification or advertisement is followed by a telephone call from a telephone solicitor or salesperson. (ii) The notification or advertisement invites a response by telephone, and, during the course of that response, a telephone solicitor or salesperson attempts to make or makes a sale of goods or services. As used in division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section, "invites a response by telephone" excludes the mere listing or inclusion of a telephone number in a notification or advertisement. (3) "Gift, award, or prize" means anything of value that is offered or purportedly offered, or given or purportedly given by chance, at no cost to the receiver and with no obligation to purchase goods or services. As used in this division, "chance" includes a situation in which a person is guaranteed to receive an item and, at the time of the offer or purported offer, the telephone solicitor does not identify the specific item that the person will receive. (4) "Goods or services" means any real property or any tangible or intangible personal property, or services of any kind provided or offered to a person. "Goods or services" includes, but is not limited to, advertising; labor performed for the benefit of a person; personal property intended to be attached to or installed in any real property, regardless of whether it is so attached or installed; timeshare estates or licenses; and extended service contracts. (5) "Purchaser" means a person that is solicited to become or does become financially obligated as a result of a telephone solicitation. (6) "Salesperson" means an individual who is employed, appointed, or authorized by a telephone solicitor to make telephone solicitations but does not mean any of the following: (a) An individual who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section; (b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by a person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section; (c) An individual under a written contract with a person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section, if liability for all transactions with purchasers is assumed by the person so exempted. (7) "Telephone solicitation" means a communication to a person that meets both of the following criteria: (a) The communication is initiated by or on behalf of a telephone solicitor or by a salesperson. (b) The communication either represents a price or the quality or availability of goods or services or is used to induce the person to purchase goods or services, including, but not limited to, inducement through the offering of a gift, award, or prize. (8) "Telephone solicitor" means a person that engages in telephone solicitation directly or through one or more salespersons either from a location in this state, or from a location outside this state to persons in this state. "Telephone solicitor" includes, but is not limited to, any such person that is an owner, operator, officer, or director of, partner in, or other individual engaged in the management activities of, a business. (B) A telephone solicitor is exempt from the provisions of sections 4719.02 to 4719.18 and section 4719.99 of the Revised Code if the telephone solicitor is any one of the following: (1) A person engaging in a telephone solicitation that is a one-time or infrequent transaction not done in the course of a pattern of repeated transactions of a like nature; (2) A person engaged in telephone solicitation solely for religious or political purposes; a charitable organization, fund-raising counsel, or professional solicitor in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code; or any person or other entity exempt under section 1716.03 of the Revised Code from filing a registration statement under section 1716.02 of the Revised Code; (3) A person, making a telephone solicitation involving a home solicitation sale as defined in section 1345.21 of the Revised Code, that makes the sales presentation and completes the sale at a later, face-to-face meeting between the seller and the purchaser rather than during the telephone solicitation. However, if the person, following the telephone solicitation, causes another person to collect the payment of any money, this exemption does not apply. (4) A licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or associated person when making a telephone solicitation within the scope of the person's license. As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or associated person" means a person subject to licensure or registration as such by the securities and exchange commission; the National Association of Securities Dealers or other self-regulatory organization, as defined by 15 U.S.C.A. 78c; by the division of securities under Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code; or by an official or agency of any other state of the United States. (5)(a) A person primarily engaged in soliciting the sale of a newspaper of general circulation; (b) As used in division (B)(5)(a) of this section, "newspaper of general circulation" includes, but is not limited to, both of the following: (i) A newspaper that is a daily law journal designated as an official publisher of court calendars pursuant to section 2701.09 of the Revised Code; (ii) A newspaper or publication that has at least twenty-five per cent editorial, non-advertising content, exclusive of inserts, measured relative to total publication space, and an audited circulation to at least fifty per cent of the households in the newspaper's retail trade zone as defined by the audit. (6)(a) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that has a class of securities to which all of the following apply: (i) The class of securities is subject to section 12 of the "Securities Exchange Act of 1934," 15 U.S.C.A. 78l, and is registered or is exempt from registration under 15 U.S.C.A. 78l(g)(2)(A), (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), or (H); (ii) The class of securities is listed on the New York stock exchange, the American stock exchange, or the NASDAQ national market system; (iii) The class of securities is a reported security as defined in 17 C.F.R. 240.11Aa3-1(a)(4). (b) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that formerly had a class of securities that met the criteria set forth in division (B)(6)(a) of this section if the issuer, or its subsidiary, has a net worth in excess of one hundred million dollars, files or its parent files with the securities and exchange commission an S.E.C. form 10-K, and has continued in substantially the same business since it had a class of securities that met the criteria in division (B)(6)(a) of this section. As used in division (B)(6)(b) of this section, "issuer" and "subsidiary" include the successor to an issuer or subsidiary. (7) A person soliciting a transaction regulated by the commodity futures trading commission, if the person is registered or temporarily registered for that activity with the commission under 7 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq. and the registration or temporary registration has not expired or been suspended or revoked; (8) A person soliciting the sale of any book, record, audio tape, compact disc, or video, if the person allows the purchaser to review the merchandise for at least seven days and provides a full refund within thirty days to a purchaser who returns the merchandise or if the person solicits the sale on behalf of a membership club operating in compliance with regulations adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 425; (9) A supervised financial institution or its subsidiary. As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "supervised financial institution" means a bank, trust company, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, industrial loan company, consumer finance lender, commercial finance lender, or institution described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the "Bank Holding Company Act of 1956," 12 U.S.C.A. 1841(c)(2)(F), as amended, supervised by an official or agency of the United States, this state, or any other state of the United States; or a licensee or registrant under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 , 1321.51 to 1321.60 , or 1321.71 to 1321.83 , or Chapter 1322. of the Revised Code. (10)(a) An insurance company, association, or other organization that is licensed or authorized to conduct business in this state by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, when soliciting within the scope of its license or authorization. (b) A licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor when soliciting within the scope of the person's license. As used in division (B)(10)(b) of this section, "licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor" means any person licensed as an insurance broker, agent, or solicitor by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code. (11) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a cable television system operating under authority of a governmental franchise or permit; (12) A person soliciting a business-to-business sale under which any of the following conditions are met: (a) The telephone solicitor has been operating continuously for at least three years under the same business name under which it solicits purchasers, and at least fifty-one per cent of its gross dollar volume of sales consists of repeat sales to existing customers to whom it has made sales under the same business name. (b) The purchaser business intends to resell the goods purchased. (c) The purchaser business intends to use the goods or services purchased in a recycling, reuse, manufacturing, or remanufacturing process. (d) The telephone solicitor is a publisher of a periodical or of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications as defined in division (CC) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and is soliciting sales of advertising, subscriptions, reprints, lists, information databases, conference participation or sponsorships, trade shows or media products related to the periodical or magazine, or other publishing services provided by the controlled circulation publication. (13) A person that, not less often than once each year, publishes and delivers to potential purchasers a catalog that complies with both of the following: (a) It includes all of the following: (i) The business address of the seller; (ii) A written description or illustration of each good or service offered for sale; (iii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the sale price of each good or service; shipping, handling, and other charges; and return policy. (b) One of the following applies: (i) The catalog includes at least twenty-four pages of written material and illustrations, is distributed in more than one state, and has an annual postage-paid mail circulation of not less than two hundred fifty thousand households; (ii) The catalog includes at least ten pages of written material or an equivalent amount of material in electronic form on the internet or an on-line computer service, the person does not solicit customers by telephone but solely receives telephone calls made in response to the catalog, and during the calls the person takes orders but does not engage in further solicitation of the purchaser. As used in division (B)(13)(b)(ii) of this section, "further solicitation" does not include providing the purchaser with information about, or attempting to sell, any other item in the catalog that prompted the purchaser's call or in a substantially similar catalog issued by the seller. (14) A political subdivision or instrumentality of the United States, this state, or any state of the United States; (15) A college or university or any other public or private institution of higher education in this state; (16) A public utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code or a retail natural gas supplier as defined in section 4929.01 of the Revised Code, if the utility or supplier is subject to regulation by the public utilities commission, or the affiliate of the utility or supplier; (17) A person that solicits sales through a television program or advertisement that is presented in the same market area no fewer than twenty days per month or offers for sale no fewer than ten distinct items of goods or services; and offers to the purchaser an unconditional right to return any good or service purchased within a period of at least seven days and to receive a full refund within thirty days after the purchaser returns the good or cancels the service; (18)(a) A person that, for at least one year, has been operating a retail business under the same name as that used in connection with telephone solicitation and both of the following occur on a continuing basis: (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services for sale and provides them at the person's business premises. (ii) At least fifty-one per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the person's business premises. (b) An affiliate of a person that meets the requirements in division (B)(18)(a) of this section if the affiliate meets all of the following requirements: (i) The affiliate has operated a retail business for a period of less than one year; (ii) The affiliate either displays goods and offers them for retail sale at the affiliate's business premises or offers services for sale and provides them at the affiliate's business premises; (iii) At least fifty-one per cent of the affiliate's gross dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the affiliate's business premises. (c) A person that, for a period of less than one year, has been operating a retail business in this state under the same name as that used in connection with telephone solicitation, as long as all of the following requirements are met: (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services for sale and provides them at the person's business premises; (ii) The goods or services that are the subject of telephone solicitation are sold at the person's business premises, and at least sixty-five per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the person's business premises; (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities according to sections 310.3 , 310.4 , and 310.5 of the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310. (19) A person who performs telephone solicitation sales services on behalf of other persons and to whom one of the following applies: (a) The person has operated under the same ownership, control, and business name for at least five years, and the person receives at least seventy-five per cent of its gross revenues from written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section. (b) The person is an affiliate of one or more exempt persons and makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only the exempt persons of which it is an affiliate. (c) The person makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only exempt persons, the person and each exempt person on whose behalf telephone solicitations are made have entered into a written contract that specifies the manner in which the telephone solicitations are to be conducted and that at a minimum requires compliance with the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and the person conducts the telephone solicitations in the manner specified in the written contract. (d) The person performs telephone solicitation for religious or political purposes, a charitable organization, a fund-raising council, or a professional solicitor in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code; and meets all of the following requirements: (i) The person has operated under the same ownership, control, and business name for at least five years, and the person receives at least fifty-one per cent of its gross revenues from written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come within the exemption in division (B)(2) of this section; (ii) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer the sale of an investment opportunity; (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities according to sections 310.3 , 310.4 , and 310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310. (20) A person that is a licensed real estate salesperson or broker under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of the person's license; (21)(a) Either of the following: (i) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person that solicits a sale of that nature on behalf of a publisher under a written agreement directly between the publisher and the person. (ii) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person that solicits a sale of that nature as authorized by a publisher under a written agreement directly with a publisher's clearinghouse provided the person is a resident of Ohio for more than three years and initiates all telephone solicitations from Ohio and the person conducts the solicitation and sale in compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 310, as adopted by the federal trade commission. (b) As used in division (B)(21) of this section, "periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation" excludes a periodical or magazine circulated only as part of a membership package or given as a free gift or prize from the publisher or person. (22) A person that solicits the sale of food, as defined in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or the sale of products of horticulture, as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, if the person does not intend the solicitation to result in, or the solicitation actually does not result in, a sale that costs the purchaser an amount greater than five hundred dollars. (23) A funeral director licensed pursuant to Chapter 4717. of the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of that license, if both of the following apply: (a) The solicitation and sale are conducted in compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 453, as adopted by the federal trade commission, and with sections 1107.33 and 1345.21 to 1345.28 of the Revised Code; (b) The person provides to the purchaser of any preneed funeral contract a notice that clearly and conspicuously sets forth the cancellation rights specified in division (G) of section 1107.33 of the Revised Code, and retains a copy of the notice signed by the purchaser. (24) A person, or affiliate thereof, licensed to sell or issue Ohio instruments designated as travelers checks pursuant to sections 1315.01 to 1315.18 of the Revised Code. (25) A person that solicits sales from its previous purchasers and meets all of the following requirements: (a) The solicitation is made under the same business name that was previously used to sell goods or services to the purchaser; (b) The person has, for a period of not less than three years, operated a business under the same business name as that used in connection with telephone solicitation; (c) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer the sale of an investment opportunity; (d) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities according to sections 310.3 , 310.4 , and 310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310; (e) Neither the person nor any of its principals has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has entered a plea of no contest for a felony or a theft offense as defined in sections 2901.02 and 2913.01 of the Revised Code or similar law of another state or of the United States; (f) Neither the person nor any of its principals has had entered against them an injunction or a final judgment or order, including an agreed judgment or order, an assurance of voluntary compliance, or any similar instrument, in any civil or administrative action involving engaging in a pattern of corrupt practices, fraud, theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of property; the use of any untrue, deceptive, or misleading representation; or the use of any unfair, unlawful, deceptive, or unconscionable trade act or practice. (26) An institution defined as a home health agency in section 3740.01 of the Revised Code, that conducts all telephone solicitation activities according to sections 310.3 , 310.4 , and 310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and engages in telephone solicitation only within the scope of the institution's certification, accreditation, contract with the department of aging, or status as a home health agency; and that meets one of the following requirements: (a) The institution is certified as a provider of home health services under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 49 Stat. 620, 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended; (b) The institution is accredited by either the joint commission on accreditation of health care organizations or the community health accreditation program; (c) The institution is providing PASSPORT services under the direction of the department of aging under sections 173.52 to 173.523 of the Revised Code; (d) An affiliate of an institution that meets the requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section when offering for sale substantially the same goods and services as those that are offered by the institution that meets the requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section. (27) A person licensed by the department of health pursuant to section 3712.04 or 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a hospice care program or pediatric respite care program when conducting telephone solicitations within the scope of the person's license and according to sections 310.3 , 310.4 , and 310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310. Last updated August 24, 2021 at 2:20 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.751 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.751
§ 4723.751. Examinations
Status: in_force

March 20, 2013 House Bill 303 - 129th General Assembly The board of nursing shall either conduct dialysis technician certification examinations itself or, in accordance with rules adopted under section 4723.79 of the Revised Code, approve testing organizations to conduct the examinations. If it conducts the examinations, the board may use all or part of a standard examination created by a testing organization approved by the board. Regardless of who conducts it, the examination shall cover all of the subjects specified in rules adopted under section 4723.79 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4740.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4740 / § 4740.03
§ 4740.03. Administrative section of board - organization
Status: in_force

September 10, 2012 House Bill 487 - 129th General Assembly (A) The administrative section of the Ohio construction industry licensing board annually shall elect from among its members a chairperson and other officers as the board, by rule, designates. The chairperson shall preside over meetings of the administrative section or designate another member to preside in the chairperson's absence. The administrative section shall hold at least two regular meetings each year, but may meet at additional times as specified by rule, at the call of the chairperson, or upon the request of two or more members. A majority of the members of the administrative section constitutes a quorum for the transaction of all business. The administrative section may not take any action without the concurrence of at least three of its members. (B)(1) The administrative section shall employ a secretary, who is not a member of the board, to serve at the pleasure of the administrative section, and shall fix the compensation of the secretary. The secretary shall be in the unclassified civil service of the state. (2) The secretary shall do all of the following: (a) Keep or set standards for and delegate to another person the keeping of the minutes, books, and other records and files of the board and each section of the board; (b) Issue all licenses in the name of the board; (c) Send out all notices, including advance notices of meetings of the board and each section of the board, and attend to all correspondence of the board and each section of the board, under the direction of the administrative section; (d) Receive and deposit all fees payable pursuant to this chapter into the industrial compliance operating fund created pursuant to section 121.084 of the Revised Code; (e) Perform all other duties incidental to the office of the secretary or properly assigned to the secretary by the administrative section of the board. (3) Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of the secretary, the secretary shall file with the treasurer of state a bond in the sum of five thousand dollars, payable to the state, to ensure the faithful performance of the secretary's duties. The board shall pay the premium of the bond in the same manner as it pays other expenditures of the board. (C) Upon the request of the administrative section of the board, the director of commerce shall supply the board and its sections with personnel, office space, and supplies, as the director determines appropriate. The administrative section of the board shall employ any additional staff it considers necessary and appropriate. (D) The chairperson of the board or the secretary, or both, as authorized by the board, shall approve all vouchers of the board.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4717.06 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4717 / § 4717.06
§ 4717.06. Application for licensing funeral home or embalming or crematory facility
Status: in_force

September 13, 2022 Senate Bill 224 - 134th General Assembly (A)(1) A licensed funeral director who desires to obtain a license to operate a funeral home, a licensed embalmer who desires to obtain a license to operate an embalming facility, or a holder of a crematory operator permit who desires to obtain a license to operate a crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and funeral directors on a form prescribed by the board. The application shall include the initial license application fee set forth in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code and proof satisfactory to the board that the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility is in compliance with rules adopted by the board under section 4717.04 of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the board of building standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code, and all other federal, state, and local requirements relating to the safety of the premises. (2) If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the license application pertains is owned by a corporation or limited liability company, the application shall include the name and address of the corporation's or limited liability company's statutory agent appointed under section 1701.07 of the Revised Code, former section 1705.06 of the Revised Code as that section existed prior to February 11, 2022, or section 1706.09 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a foreign corporation, the corporation's designated agent appointed under section 1703.041 of the Revised Code. If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the application pertains is owned by a partnership, the application shall include the name and address of each of the partners. If, at any time after the submission of a license application or issuance of a license, the statutory or designated agent of a corporation or limited liability company owning a funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility or the address of the statutory or designated agent changes or, in the case of a partnership, any of the partners of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility or the address of any of the partners changes, the applicant for or holder of the license to operate the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility shall submit written notice to the board, within thirty days after the change, informing the board of the change and of any name or address of a statutory or designated agent or partner that has changed from that contained in the application for the license or the most recent notice submitted under division (A)(2) of this section. (B)(1) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall issue a license to operate a funeral home only to a licensed funeral director who is named in the application as the funeral director actually in charge and ultimately responsible for the funeral home. The board shall issue the license only for the address at which the funeral home is physically located and operated. The funeral home license and licenses of the embalmers and funeral directors employed by the funeral home shall be displayed in a conspicuous place within the funeral home. (2) The funeral home shall have on the premises one of the following: (a) If embalming will take place at the funeral home, an embalming room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used only for the embalming, preparation, or holding of dead human bodies. The embalming room shall contain only the articles, facilities, and instruments necessary for those purposes. (b) If embalming will not take place at the funeral home, a holding room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The holding room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used only for the preparation, other than embalming, and holding of dead human bodies. The holding room shall contain only the articles and facilities necessary for those purposes. (3) Each funeral home shall be directly supervised by a funeral director licensed under this chapter, who may supervise more than one funeral home. (C)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate an embalming facility only to a licensed embalmer who is actually in charge of and ultimately responsible for the embalming facility. The board shall issue the license only for the address at which the embalming facility is physically located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place within the facility. (2) The embalming facility shall be adequately equipped and maintained in a sanitary manner. The embalming room at such a facility shall contain only the articles, facilities, and instruments necessary for its stated purpose. The embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary condition and used only for the care and preparation of dead human bodies. (D)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a crematory facility only to a crematory operator who is actually in charge and ultimately responsible for the crematory facility. The board shall issue the license only for the address at which the crematory facility is physically located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place within the crematory facility. (2) The crematory facility shall be adequately equipped and maintained in a clean and sanitary manner. The crematory facility may be located in a funeral home, embalming facility, cemetery building, or other building in which the crematory facility may lawfully operate. If a crematory facility engages in the cremation of animals, the crematory facility shall cremate animals in a cremation chamber that also is not used to cremate dead human bodies or human body parts and shall not cremate animals in a cremation chamber used for the cremation of dead human bodies and human body parts. Cremation chambers that are used for the cremation of dead human bodies or human body parts and cremation chambers used for the cremation of animals may be located in the same area. Cremation chambers used for the cremation of animals shall have conspicuously displayed on the unit a notice that the unit is to be used for animals only. (3) A license to operate a crematory facility shall be issued to the person actually in charge of the crematory facility. This section does not require the individual who is actually in charge of the crematory facility to be an embalmer or funeral director licensed under this chapter. (4) Nothing in this section or rules adopted under section 4717.04 of the Revised Code precludes the establishment and operation of a crematory facility on or adjacent to the property on which a cemetery, funeral home, or embalming facility is located. Last updated October 10, 2023 at 3:38 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.101 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.101
§ 4715.101. License applicant to comply with RC Chapter 4776
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "license" and "applicant for an initial license" have the same meanings as in section 4776.01 of the Revised Code. (B) In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for an initial license issued pursuant to section 4715.12 , 4715.16 , 4715.21 , or 4715.27 of the Revised Code shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The state dental board shall not grant a license to an applicant for an initial license issued pursuant to section 4715.12 , 4715.16 , 4715.21 , or 4715.27 of the Revised Code unless the applicant complies with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 5:05 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4744.24 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4744 / § 4744.24
§ 4744.24. Reports
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly The state speech and hearing professionals board shall annually, on or before the first day of February, submit a report to the governor of all its official acts during the preceding year, its receipts and disbursements, and a complete report of the conditions of the professions regulated by the board. The board shall submit its first report to the governor not later than February 1, 2019. The board shall submit the reports to the governor electronically.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.256 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.256
§ 4731.256. Foundation to support monitoring programs
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly (A) In addition to all other powers and duties conferred on the monitoring organization under contract with the state medical board pursuant to section 4731.25 of the Revised Code, the board shall require the monitoring organization to implement this section as a condition of entering into and maintaining the contract. (B) Not later than thirty days after the effective date of this section, the monitoring organization, in collaboration with the Ohio state medical association and Ohio hospital association, shall create a foundation to be operated for the sole purpose of supporting programs approved under the criteria established by sections 4731.25 to 4731.254 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under section 4731.255 of the Revised Code. Once the foundation is created, the monitoring organization shall notify the treasurer of state. As part of organizing the foundation's operations, the monitoring organization, in collaboration with the other creating entities, shall establish a three-member governing board. The members shall consist of one individual appointed by the chief executive officer of the monitoring organization, one individual appointed by the chief executive officer of Ohio state medical association, and one individual appointed by the chief executive officer of the Ohio hospital association. Any vacancy in the membership shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. The foundation's governing board shall hold at least one meeting each year to approve an annual plan for the disbursement of funds held by the foundation. In determining the amount to be disbursed, the governing board shall consider factors related to the cost of providing monitoring services, the revenue generated from participants who receive services from the monitoring organization, and the extent to which the monitoring organization's services are being used, particularly by individuals who are applicants and practitioners, as those terms are defined in section 4731.25 of the Revised Code. The determination of the amount to be disbursed under this section is solely a power and duty of the foundation's governing board. Last updated September 2, 2025 at 4:57 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.64 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.64
§ 4755.64. Disciplinary actions
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the athletic trainers section of the Ohio occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board may suspend, revoke, or, except as provided in division (B) of this section, refuse to issue or renew an athletic trainers license, or reprimand, fine, or place a licensee on probation, for any of the following: (1) Conviction of a felony or offense involving moral turpitude, regardless of the state or country in which the conviction occurred; (2) Violation of sections 4755.61 to 4755.65 of the Revised Code or any order issued or rule adopted thereunder; (3) Obtaining a license through fraud, false or misleading representation, or concealment of material facts; (4) Negligence or gross misconduct in the practice of athletic training; (5) Violating the standards of ethical conduct in the practice of athletic training as adopted by the athletic trainers section under section 4755.61 of the Revised Code; (6) Using any controlled substance or alcohol to the extent that the ability to practice athletic training at a level of competency is impaired; (7) Practicing in an area of athletic training for which the individual is untrained or incompetent, or practicing without the referral of a practitioner described in division (A) of section 4755.623 of the Revised Code; (8) Employing, directing, or supervising a person in the performance of athletic training procedures who is not authorized to practice as a licensed athletic trainer under this chapter; (9) Misrepresenting educational attainments or the functions the individual is authorized to perform for the purpose of obtaining some benefit related to the individual's athletic training practice; (10) Failing the licensing examination; (11) Aiding or abetting the unlicensed practice of athletic training; (12) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of authority to practice a health care occupation, including athletic training, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or another state or jurisdiction; (13) Regardless of whether it is consensual, engaging in any of the following with a patient other than the spouse of the athletic trainer: (a) Sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code; (b) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code; (c) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually demeaning; (14) In the case of an athletic trainer who has entered into a collaboration agreement as described in section 4755.621 of the Revised Code, failing to practice in accordance with the agreement. (B) The athletic trainers section shall not refuse to issue a license to an applicant because of a criminal conviction unless the refusal is in accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code. (C) If the athletic trainers section places a licensee on probation under division (A) of this section, the section's order for placement on probation shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the person may be removed from probation and restored to unrestricted practice. (D) A licensee whose license has been revoked under division (A) of this section may apply to the athletic trainers section for reinstatement of the license one year following the date of revocation. The athletic trainers section may accept or deny the application for reinstatement and may require that the applicant pass an examination as a condition for reinstatement. (E) On receipt of a complaint that a person licensed by the athletic trainers section has committed any of the prohibited actions listed in division (A) of this section, the section may immediately suspend the license of a licensed athletic trainer prior to holding a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, based on the complaint, that the licensee poses an immediate threat to the public. The section may review the allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone conference call. If the section votes to suspend a license under this division, the section shall serve a written order of summary suspension to the licensed athletic trainer in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the individual whose license is suspended fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the section shall enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's license. Notwithstanding section 119.12 of the Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall not grant a suspension of the section's order of summary suspension pending the determination of an appeal filed under that section. Any order of summary suspension issued under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication order issued by the section pursuant to division (A) of this section becomes effective. The section shall issue its final adjudication order regarding an order of summary suspension issued under this division not later than ninety days after completion of its hearing. Failure to issue the order within ninety days shall result in immediate dissolution of the suspension order, but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudication order. Last updated October 4, 2023 at 10:32 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4751.40 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4751 / § 4751.40
§ 4751.40. Changes to addresses
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly Each licensed nursing home administrator and licensed health services executive shall report to the board of executives of long-term services and supports any change in any of the following not later than ten days after the change: (A) The individual's residence mailing address; (B) The name and address of each place at which the individual practices nursing home administration; (C) The name and address of each long-term services and supports setting at which the individual serves in a leadership position or directs the practices of others. Last updated March 22, 2023 at 12:45 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.072 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.072
§ 4707.072. Nonresident one-auction license
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly The department of agriculture may grant one-auction licenses to any nonresident individual who is determined to be qualified by the department. Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to one-auction licenses issued under this section. Any individual who applies for a one-auction license shall attest, on forms provided by the department, and furnish to the department, satisfactory proof that the license applicant meets the following requirements: (A) Has a good reputation; (B) Is of trustworthy character; (C) Has attained the age of at least eighteen years; (D) Has a general knowledge of the requirements of the Revised Code relative to auctioneers, the auction profession, and the principles involved in conducting an auction; (E) Has two years of professional auctioneering experience immediately preceding the date of application that includes the personal conduct by the applicant of at least twelve auction sales in any state; (F) Has paid a fee of five hundred dollars; (G) Has not applied for or previously obtained a license under this section; (H) Has provided proof of financial responsibility in the form of either an irrevocable letter of credit or a cash bond or a surety bond in the amount of fifty thousand dollars. If the applicant gives a surety bond, the bond shall be executed by a surety company authorized to do business in this state. A bond shall be made to the department and shall be conditioned that the applicant shall comply with this chapter and rules adopted under it, including refraining from conduct described in section 4707.15 of the Revised Code. All bonds shall be on a form approved by the director of agriculture. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:40 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4717.08 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4717 / § 4717.08
§ 4717.08. Renewals
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly (A) Every license and permit issued under this chapter expires on the last day of December of each even-numbered year and shall be renewed on or before that date according to the standard license renewal procedure set forth in Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Licenses and permits not renewed by the last day of December of each even-numbered year are lapsed. (B) A holder of a lapsed license to operate a funeral home, license to operate an embalming facility, or license to operate a crematory facility or a crematory operator permit may reinstate the license or permit with the board by paying the lapsed license fee established under section 4717.07 of the Revised Code. (C) A holder of a lapsed embalmer's or funeral director's license may reinstate the license with the board by paying the lapsed license fee established under section 4717.07 of the Revised Code, except that if the license is lapsed for more than one hundred eighty days after its expiration date, the holder also shall take and pass the Ohio laws examination for each license as a condition for reinstatement. Last updated October 10, 2023 at 3:48 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4709.073 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4709 / § 4709.073
§ 4709.073. Hours of instruction
Status: in_force

October 24, 2024 House Bill 158 - 135th General Assembly When determining the total hours of instruction received by an applicant under section 4709.07 or 4709.072 of the Revised Code, the state cosmetology and barber board shall not take into account more than ten hours of instruction per day. The board shall take into account instruction received more than five years before the date of application for the license in accordance with rules adopted under section 4709.05 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 29, 2024 at 4:18 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4727.031 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4727 / § 4727.031
§ 4727.031. Effect of child support default on license
Status: in_force

March 22, 2001 Senate Bill 180 - 123rd General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the division of consumer finance shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.064 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.064
§ 4723.064. Access to information from Ohio law enforcement gateway
Status: in_force

May 20, 2011 House Bill 93 - 129th General Assembly The board of nursing may access and view, but not alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway established under section 109.57 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4725.531 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4725 / § 4725.531
§ 4725.531. Effect of child support default on license
Status: in_force

January 21, 2018 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state vision professionals board shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license issued by the board pursuant to this chapter.