Ohio Rev. Code § 3719.12 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3719 / § 3719.12
§ 3719.12. Prosecutor to report conviction to board that licensed, certified, or registered person
Status: in_force

March 22, 2020 Senate Bill 229 - 132nd General Assembly As used in this section, "prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code. Unless a report has been made pursuant to section 2929.42 of the Revised Code, on the conviction of a manufacturer, wholesaler, outsourcing facility, third-party logistics provider, repackager of dangerous drugs, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, pharmacist, pharmacy intern, registered pharmacy technician, certified pharmacy technician, pharmacy technician trainee, dentist, chiropractor, physician, podiatrist, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, optometrist, or veterinarian of the violation of this chapter or Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code, the prosecutor in the case promptly shall report the conviction to the board that licensed, certified, or registered the person to practice or to carry on business. The responsible board shall provide forms to the prosecutor. Within thirty days of the receipt of this information, the board shall initiate action in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether to suspend or revoke the person's license, certificate, or registration.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3781.342 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3781 / § 3781.342
§ 3781.342. Meetings
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) The underground technical committee may conduct meetings in person, by teleconference, or by video conference. (B) The committee shall establish a primary meeting location that is open and accessible to the public. (C) Before convening a meeting by teleconference or video conference, the committee shall send, via electronic mail, or United States postal service, a copy of meeting-related documents to each committee member. (D) The minutes of each meeting shall specify who was attending by teleconference, who was attending by video conference, and who was physically present. Any vote taken in a meeting held by teleconference that is not unanimous shall be recorded as a roll call vote. Last updated September 18, 2023 at 9:03 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3728.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3728 / § 3728.01
§ 3728.01. Definitions
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "Administer epinephrine" means to inject an individual with epinephrine using an autoinjector in a manufactured dosage form. (B) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the Revised Code and also includes a sheriff. (C) "Prescriber" means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs or dangerous drugs or drug therapy related devices in the course of the individual's professional practice, including only the following: (1) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code; (2) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery; (3) A physician assistant who is licensed under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code, holds a valid prescriber number issued by the state medical board, and has been granted physician-delegated prescriptive authority. (D) "Qualified entity" means either of the following: (1) Any public or private entity that is associated with a location where allergens capable of causing anaphylaxis may be present, including child care centers, colleges and universities, places of employment, restaurants, amusement parks, recreation camps, sports playing fields and arenas, and other similar locations, except that "qualified entity" does not include either of the following: (a) A chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school; community school; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school; college-preparatory boarding school; or a school operated by the board of education of a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district, as those entities are otherwise authorized to procure epinephrine autoinjectors pursuant to sections 3313.7110 , 3313.7111 , 3314.143 , 3326.28 , or 3328.29 of the Revised Code; (b) A camp described in section 5180.26 of the Revised Code that is authorized to procure epinephrine autoinjectors pursuant to that section; (2) Either of the following served by a peace officer: a law enforcement agency or other entity described in division (A) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 1, 2025 at 3:23 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3734.572 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3734 / § 3734.572
§ 3734.572. Disposal fee to defray costs of initial plan of district without disposal facility
Status: in_force

April 6, 1993 House Bill 141 - 120th General Assembly (A) For the purpose of defraying the cost of preparing, adopting, submitting, and implementing the initial solid waste management plan and subsequent amended plans of a solid waste management district that are required to be prepared, adopted, and submitted to the director of environmental protection under sections 3734.54 and 3734.56 of the Revised Code, respectively, and for paying the costs incurred by a board of health in inspecting any solid waste transfer facility located in the district, the solid waste management policy committee of the district established in accordance with section 3734.54 of the Revised Code may levy a fee of not more than fifty cents per ton on the disposal of solid wastes generated within the district that are disposed of at any solid waste disposal facility, located in another solid waste management district, that the former district has notified under division (B) of this section if no solid waste disposal facilities are located within the former district. The committee may levy a disposal fee under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the proposed fee. The resolution shall contain a proposed budget showing by major expenditure categories the uses of all of the moneys that will be generated by the proposed fee. The resolution shall be approved or disapproved and, if the resolution is approved, the fee shall be ratified in accordance with the procedures established under division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code governing resolutions levying disposal fees under that division. (B) A solid waste management policy committee that is levying a fee under division (A) of this section, immediately following ratification of the resolution levying the fee, may notify by certified mail the owner or operator of any solid waste disposal facility where those wastes will be disposed of that the district is levying that fee. An owner or operator receiving notice under this division shall monitor the amount of solid wastes disposed of at his facility that were generated in the district levying that fee and shall collect and forward the fee in accordance with section 3734.57 of the Revised Code. Collection of the fee shall commence not sooner than fifteen days after notification is sent to the owner or operator. An owner or operator that collects a fee under this division may retain one per cent of the moneys so collected to pay administrative costs incurred under this section. Any owner or operator who chooses to retain those moneys shall so notify the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the district in which his facility is located. A solid waste management policy committee that is levying a fee under division (A) of this section shall so notify the solid waste management policy committee of each solid waste management district in which any solid waste disposal facility that has been notified under this division is located. (C) Moneys received by a district levying a fee under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the fund of the district created in division (G) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code and shall be used exclusively for the purpose of defraying the cost of preparing, adopting, submitting, and implementing the initial solid waste management plan and subsequent amended plans of the district, including, without limitation, any costs incurred by the committee for that purpose prior to the collection of fees under this section, and for paying the costs incurred by a board of health in inspecting any solid waste transfer facility located in the district. (D) If a solid waste disposal facility commences operation within a district levying a fee under division (A) of this section, collection of that fee shall cease on the date on which the facility commences operation. (E) If a regional solid waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised Code for the purpose of managing a solid waste management district, all the duties and responsibilities imposed on or granted to a solid waste management policy committee under this section shall be vested in or exercised by the board of trustees of the regional authority. Any reference in this section to a solid waste management policy committee or to a board of county commissioners or directors of a county or joint district is deemed to include the board of trustees of a regional solid waste management authority.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3721.30 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3721 / § 3721.30
§ 3721.30. Competency evaluation program contents
Status: in_force

October 24, 2024 Senate Bill 144 - 135th General Assembly (A)(1) A training and competency evaluation program approved by the director of health under division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or a competency evaluation program conducted by the director under division (C) of that section shall evaluate the competency of a nurse aide in the following areas: (a) Basic nursing skills; (b) Personal care skills; (c) Recognition of mental health and social service needs; (d) Care of residents with cognitive impairments; (e) Basic restorative services; (f) Residents' rights; (g) Any other area specified by rule of the director. (2) Any training and competency evaluation program approved or competency evaluation program conducted by the director may include a written examination, but shall permit a nurse aide, at the nurse aide's option, to establish competency in another manner approved by the director. A nurse aide shall be permitted to have the competency evaluation conducted at the long-term care facility at which the nurse aide is or will be employed, unless the facility has been determined by the director or the United States secretary of health and human services to have been out of compliance with the requirements of subsection (b), (c), or (d) of section 1819 or 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, within the previous two years. (B) A training and competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the director under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code shall consist of training and competency evaluation specified by the director in rules adopted under division (C) of this section, including a minimum of seventy-five hours divided between skills training and classroom instruction in the following topic areas: (1) Basic nursing skills; (2) Personal care skills; (3) Recognition of mental health and social service needs; (4) Care of residents with cognitive impairments; (5) Basic restorative services; (6) Residents' rights; (7) Needs of various groups of long-term care facility residents and patients; (8) Other topic areas specified by rule of the director. (C) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director shall adopt rules establishing procedures and criteria for approval of training and competency evaluation programs. The requirements established by rules shall be no less stringent than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures established by the United States secretary of health and human services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act." The director also shall adopt rules governing all of the following: (1) Procedures for determination of an individual's competency to perform services as a nurse aide; (2) The curriculum of training and competency evaluation programs; (3) The clinical supervision and physical facilities used for training and competency evaluation programs; (4) The number of hours of training required in training and competency evaluation programs; (5) The qualifications for instructors, coordinators, and evaluators of training and competency evaluation programs, except that the rules shall not require an instructor for a training and competency evaluation program to have nursing home experience if the program is under the general supervision of a coordinator who is a registered nurse who possesses a minimum of two years of nursing experience, at least one of which is in the provision of services in a nursing home or intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities; (6) Requirements that training and competency evaluation programs must meet to retain approval; (7) Standards for successful completion of a training and competency evaluation program; (8) Procedures and criteria for review and reapproval of training and competency evaluation programs; (9) Fees for application for approval or reapproval of training and competency evaluation programs and programs to train instructors, coordinators, and evaluators for training and competency evaluation programs; (10) Fees for participation in any training and competency evaluation program or other program conducted by the director under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code; (11) Procedures for reporting to the nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code whether or not individuals participating in training and competency evaluation programs have successfully completed the programs. (D) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may adopt rules prescribing criteria and procedures for approval of training programs for instructors, coordinators, and evaluators for competency evaluation programs and training and competency evaluation programs. The director may adopt other rules that the director considers necessary for the administration and enforcement of sections 3721.28 to 3721.34 of the Revised Code or for compliance with requirements, guidelines, or procedures issued by the United States secretary of health and human services for implementation of section 1819 or 1919 of the "Social Security Act." (E) No person or government entity shall impose on a nurse aide any charge for participation in any competency evaluation program or training and competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the director under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code, including any charge for textbooks, other required course materials, or a competency evaluation. (F) No person or government entity shall require that an individual used by the person or government entity as a nurse aide or seeking employment as a nurse aide pay or repay, either before or while the individual is employed by the person or government entity or when the individual leaves the person or government entity's employ, any costs associated with the individual's participation in a competency evaluation program or training and competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the director. Last updated August 30, 2024 at 2:42 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3735.43 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3735 / § 3735.43
§ 3735.43. Housing authority may provide free housing to law enforcement officer
Status: in_force

September 19, 1996 Senate Bill 40 - 121st General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Housing" means housing in a housing project that a metropolitan housing authority operates or manages. (2) "Law enforcement officer" means a law enforcement officer described in division (K)(1) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code. (B) A metropolitan housing authority may provide free housing to a law enforcement officer. (C) Neither any provision of section 102.03 , 102.04 , 2921.42 , or 2921.43 of the Revised Code nor any other provision of law prohibits any of the following: (1) A metropolitan housing authority from providing to a law enforcement officer, or a law enforcement officer from accepting from a metropolitan housing authority, free housing; (2) A public utility from providing to a law enforcement officer who resides in free housing provided by a metropolitan housing authority, or the law enforcement officer from accepting from the public utility, utility services either for free or at a reduced rate, if such utility services are directly related to the free housing; (3) A financial institution from providing to a law enforcement officer, or a law enforcement officer from accepting from a financial institution, special home loan incentives not available to the general public for the purchase of a personal residence for the law enforcement officer, if the law enforcement officer resides, or has for at least five years resided, in free housing provided to the law enforcement officer by a metropolitan housing authority. Last updated November 6, 2025 at 12:15 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3707.07 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3707 / § 3707.07
§ 3707.07. Complaint concerning prevalence of disease - inspection by health commissioner
Status: in_force

October 1, 1953 House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly When complaint is made or a reasonable belief exists that an infectious or contagious disease prevails in a house or other locality which has not been reported as provided in section 3707.06 of the Revised Code, the board of health of a city or general health district shall cause such house or locality to be inspected by its health commissioner, and on discovering that such disease exists, the board may send the person diseased to a hospital or other place provided for such person, or may restrain him and others exposed within such house or locality from intercourse with other persons, and prohibit ingress and egress to or from such premises.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3705.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3705 / § 3705.01
§ 3705.01. Vital statistics definitions
Status: in_force

June 3, 2014 House Bill 95 - 130th General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother of a product of human conception that after such expulsion or extraction breathes or shows any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, whether or not the umbilical cord has been cut or the placenta is attached. (B)(1) "Fetal death" means death prior to the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, which after such expulsion or extraction does not breathe or show any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles. (2) "Stillborn" means that an infant of at least twenty weeks of gestation suffered a fetal death. (C) "Dead body" means a human body or part of a human body from the condition of which it reasonably may be concluded that death recently occurred. (D) "Physician" means a person licensed pursuant to Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine or surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. (E) "Attending physician" means the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition that resulted in death. (F) "Institution" means any establishment, public or private, that provides medical, surgical, or diagnostic care or treatment, or domiciliary care, to two or more unrelated individuals, or to persons committed by law. (G) "Funeral director" has the meaning given in section 4717.01 of the Revised Code. (H) "State registrar" means the head of the office of vital statistics in the department of health. (I) "Medical certification" means completion of the medical certification portion of the certificate of death or fetal death as to the cause of death or fetal death. (J) "Final disposition" means the interment, cremation, removal from the state, donation, or other authorized disposition of a dead body or a fetal death. (K) "Interment" means the final disposition of the remains of a dead body by burial or entombment. (L) "Cremation" means the reduction to ashes of a dead body. (M) "Donation" means gift of a dead body to a research institution or medical school. (N) "System of vital statistics" means the registration, collection, preservation, amendment, and certification of vital records, the collection of other reports required by this chapter, and activities related thereto. (O) "Vital records" means certificates or reports of birth, death, fetal death, marriage, divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, and data related thereto and other documents maintained as required by statute. (P) "File" means the presentation of vital records for registration by the office of vital statistics. (Q) "Registration" means the acceptance by the office of vital statistics and the incorporation of vital records into its official records. (R) "Birth record" means a birth certificate that has been registered with the office of vital statistics; or, if registered prior to March 16, 1989, with the division of vital statistics; or, if registered prior to the establishment of the division of vital statistics, with the department of health or a local registrar. (S) "Certification of birth" means a document issued by the director of health or state registrar or a local registrar under division (B) of section 3705.23 of the Revised Code. (T) "Certified nurse-midwife" has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3767.29 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3767 / § 3767.29
§ 3767.29. Prohibition against abandoned refrigerators
Status: in_force

June 29, 2011 House Bill 9 - 129th General Assembly No person shall abandon, discard, or knowingly permit to remain on premises under the person's control, in a place accessible to children, any abandoned or discarded icebox, refrigerator, or other airtight or semi-airtight container which has a capacity of one and one-half cubic feet or more and an opening of fifty square inches or more and which has a door or lid equipped with hinge, latch, or other fastening device capable of securing such door or lid, without rendering said equipment harmless to human life by removing such hinges, latches, or other hardware which may cause a person to be confined therein. This section shall not apply to an icebox, refrigerator, or other airtight or semi-airtight container located in that part of a building occupied by a dealer, warehouse, or repairer.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3707.28 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3707 / § 3707.28
§ 3707.28. Expenses of board - levy
Status: in_force

October 1, 1953 House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly When expenses are incurred by a board of health under sections 3707.01 to 3707.53 , inclusive, of the Revised Code, upon application and certificate from such board, the legislative authority of the municipal corporation shall pass the necessary appropriation ordinances to pay such expenses. The legislative authority may levy and set apart the necessary sum to pay such expenses and to carry such sections into effect.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3717.08 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3717 / § 3717.08
§ 3717.08. Director to promote food safety awareness and education
Status: in_force

September 29, 2013 House Bill 59 - 130th General Assembly (A) The director of agriculture and director of health shall strive to increase consumer confidence in the state's food supply by promoting food safety awareness and education. The efforts of the director of agriculture and director of health shall be made, when appropriate and available, through partnerships with representatives of retail food establishments, representatives of food service operations, and representatives of the academic community, including OSU extension. (B) As part of their promotion of food safety awareness, the director of agriculture and the director of health shall do the following: (1) Develop training programs regarding the Ohio uniform food safety code. The directors may offer the training programs separately but shall coordinate the content of the programs to the greatest extent practicable. The training programs shall be made available to the employees of the department of agriculture, employees of the department of health, representatives of boards of health and the health officials employed by the boards, representatives of retail food establishments, and representatives of food service operations. (2) Co-sponsor a biennial statewide food safety conference. Additional statewide food safety conferences may be held as considered appropriate by the director of agriculture and director of health.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3707.52 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3707 / § 3707.52
§ 3707.52. Concussion and head injury information sheet
Status: in_force

March 27, 2013 House Bill 143 - 129th General Assembly (A) The department of health shall create a concussion and head injury information sheet for participants in interscholastic athletics and youth sports organizations. The department shall include in the information sheet pertinent information to inform and educate coaches, athletes, and the parents, guardians, or other persons having care or charge of athletes of the signs and symptoms of concussion or head injury and the risks of continuing to practice for or compete in an athletic event or activity after sustaining a concussion or head injury. The department periodically shall review the information sheet and update it accordingly. The department shall make the information sheet available on its internet web site in a format suitable for easy downloading and printing. (B) The department shall provide a link on its internet web site to one or more free online training programs in recognizing the symptoms of concussions and head injuries. The department shall include one or more programs that are appropriate for coaches or referees of schools or youth sports organizations seeking to fulfill the requirements of section 3313.539 or 3707.511 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3727.77 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3727 / § 3727.77
§ 3727.77. Nature of designation
Status: in_force

March 21, 2017 House Bill 470 - 131st General Assembly (A) Sections 3727.70 to 3727.76 of the Revised Code do not require a patient or guardian to make a lay caregiver designation. (B) A lay caregiver designation does not obligate any individual to perform after-care. (C) A lay caregiver designation or the absence of one shall not interfere with, delay, or otherwise affect the provision of health care to the patient.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3734.573 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3734 / § 3734.573
§ 3734.573. Fee for generation of solid wastes within district
Status: in_force

September 5, 2012 Senate Bill 294 - 129th General Assembly (A) For the purposes specified in division (G) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code, the solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid waste management district may levy a fee on the generation of solid wastes within the district. The initial or amended solid waste management plan of the county or joint district approved under section 3734.521 , 3734.55 , or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, an amendment to the district's plan adopted under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the resolution adopted and ratified under division (B) of this section shall establish the rate of the fee levied under this division and shall specify whether the fee is levied on the basis of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. (B) Prior to the approval under division (A) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code of the first amended plan that the district is required to submit for approval under that section, the approval of an initial plan under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, the approval of an amended plan under section 3734.521 or division (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the amendment of the district's plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, the solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint district that is operating under an initial plan approved under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, or one for which approval of its initial plan is pending before the director of environmental protection on October 29, 1993, under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, may levy a fee under division (A) of this section by adopting and obtaining ratification of a resolution establishing the amount of the fee. A policy committee that, after December 1, 1993, concurrently proposes to levy a fee under division (A) of this section and to amend the fees levied by the district under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code may adopt and obtain ratification of one resolution proposing to do both. The requirements and procedures set forth in division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code governing the adoption, amendment, and repeal of resolutions levying fees under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of that section, the ratification of those resolutions, and the notification of owners and operators of solid waste facilities required to collect fees levied under those divisions govern the adoption of the resolutions authorized to be adopted under this division, the ratification thereof, and the notification of owners and operators required to collect the fees, except as otherwise specifically provided in division (C) of this section. (C) Any initial or amended plan of a district adopted under section 3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or resolution adopted under division (B) of this section, that proposes to levy a fee under division (A) of this section that exceeds five dollars per ton shall be ratified in accordance with the provisions of section 3734.55 or division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code, as applicable, except that such an initial or amended plan or resolution shall be approved by a combination of municipal corporations and townships with a combined population within the boundaries of the district comprising at least seventy-five per cent, rather than at least sixty per cent, of the total population of the district. (D) The policy committee of a county or joint district may amend the fee levied by the district under division (A) of this section by adopting and obtaining ratification of a resolution establishing the amount of the amended fee. The policy committee may abolish the fee or an amended fee established under this division by adopting and obtaining ratification of a resolution proposing to repeal it. The requirements and procedures under division (B) and, if applicable, division (C) of this section govern the adoption and ratification of a resolution authorized to be adopted under this division and the notification of owners and operators of solid waste facilities required to collect the fees. (E) Collection of a fee or amended fee levied under division (A) or (D) of this section shall commence or cease in accordance with division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code. If a district is levying a fee under section 3734.572 of the Revised Code, collection of that fee shall cease on the date on which collection of the fee levied under division (A) of this section commences in accordance with division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code. (F) In the case of solid wastes that are taken to a solid waste transfer facility prior to being transported to a solid waste disposal facility for disposal, the fee levied under division (A) of this section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the transfer facility as a trustee for the district. In the case of solid wastes that are not taken to a solid waste transfer facility prior to being transported to a solid waste disposal facility, the fee shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of. An owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal facility who is required to collect the fee shall collect and forward the fee to the district in accordance with section 3734.57 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under division (H) of that section. If the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal facility who did not receive notice pursuant to division (B) of this section to collect the fee levied by a district under division (A) of this section receives solid wastes generated in the district, the owner or operator, within thirty days after receiving the wastes, shall send written notice of that fact to the board of county commissioners or directors of the district. Within thirty days after receiving such a notice, the board of county commissioners or directors shall send written notice to the owner or operator indicating whether the district is levying a fee under division (A) of this section and, if so, the amount of the fee. (G) Moneys received by a district levying a fee under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the special fund of the district created in division (G) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code and shall be used exclusively for the purposes specified in that division. Prior to the approval under division (A) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code of the first amended plan that the district is required to submit for approval under that section, the approval of an initial plan under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, the approval of an amended plan under that section or division (D) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, or the amendment of the district's plan under division (E) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, moneys credited to the special fund arising from the fee levied pursuant to a resolution adopted and ratified under division (B) of this section shall be expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid waste management policy committee by resolution. (H) The fee levied under division (A) of this section does not apply to the management of solid wastes that: (1) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a premises where the wastes were generated; (2) Are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the combustion of primarily coal, regardless of whether the disposal facility is located on the premises where the wastes are generated; (3) Are asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or products disposed of at a construction and demolition debris facility that is licensed under Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code or at a solid waste facility that is licensed under this chapter. (I) When solid wastes that are burned in a disposal facility that is an incinerator or energy recovery facility are delivered to a solid waste transfer facility prior to being transported to the incinerator or energy recovery facility where they are burned, the fee levied under division (A) of this section shall be levied on the wastes delivered to the transfer facility. (J) When solid wastes that are burned in a disposal facility that is an incinerator or energy recovery facility are not delivered to a solid waste transfer facility prior to being transported to the incinerator or energy recovery facility where they are burned, the fee levied under division (A) of this section shall be levied on the wastes delivered to the incinerator or energy recovery facility. (K) The fee levied under division (A) of this section does not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge elimination system permit and that is disposed of through incineration, land application, or composting or at another resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill. (L) The fee levied under division (A) of this section does not apply to solid waste delivered to a solid waste composting facility for processing. If any unprocessed solid waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a composting facility for disposal at a landfill, the fee levied under division (A) of this section applies and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the landfill. (M) The fee levied under division (A) of this section does not apply to materials separated from a mixed waste stream for recycling by the generator or materials removed from the solid waste stream as a result of recycling, as "recycling" is defined in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code. (N) The director of environmental protection may issue an order exempting from the fees levied under this section solid wastes, including, but not limited to, scrap tires, that are generated, transferred, or disposed of as a result of a contract providing for the expenditure of public funds entered into by the administrator or regional administrator of the United States environmental protection agency, the director of environmental protection, or the director of administrative services on behalf of the director of environmental protection for the purpose of remediating conditions at a hazardous waste facility, solid waste facility, or other location at which the administrator or regional administrator or the director of environmental protection has reason to believe that there is a substantial threat to public health or safety or the environment or that the conditions are causing or contributing to air or water pollution or soil contamination. An order issued by the director of environmental protection under this division shall include a determination that the amount of fees not received by a solid waste management district as a result of the order will not adversely impact the implementation and financing of the district's approved solid waste management plan and any approved amendments to the plan. Such an order is a final action of the director of environmental protection.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3705.16 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3705 / § 3705.16
§ 3705.16. Statement of facts in certificates - death certificate
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly (A) For purposes of this section notwithstanding section 3705.01 of the Revised Code, "fetal death" does not include death of the product of human conception prior to twenty weeks of gestation. (B) Each death or fetal death that occurs in this state shall be registered with the local registrar of vital statistics of the district in which the death or fetal death occurred, by the funeral director or other person in charge of the final disposition of the remains. The personal and statistical information in the death or fetal death certificate shall be obtained from the best qualified persons or sources available, by the funeral director or other person in charge of the final disposition of the remains. The statement of facts relating to the disposition of the body and information relative to the armed services referred to in section 3705.19 of the Revised Code shall be signed by the funeral director or other person in charge of the final disposition of the remains. (C)(1) For certification of the cause of death, the funeral director or other person in charge of the final disposition of the remains shall present the death or fetal death certificate to one of the following individuals: (a) If a death or fetal death occurs under any circumstance described in section 313.12 of the Revised Code, the coroner in the county in which the death occurs or the medical examiner; (b) If a death or fetal death occurs under a circumstance other than as described in section 313.12 of the Revised Code, the attending physician of the decedent, except that, in the case of decedent who did not have an attending physician, the physician who, either in person or through a means of telehealth, last examined or treated the decedent for any illness or condition. (2) After the death or fetal death certificate is presented, the cause of death shall be certified and the medical certificate of death shall be completed and signed as follows: (a) If the death or fetal death certificate is presented to the coroner or medical examiner, the coroner, or a deputy coroner, medical examiner, or deputy medical examiner serving in an equivalent capacity, shall certify the cause of death. (b) If the death or fetal death certificate is presented to the physician described in division (C)(1)(b) of this section, that physician shall certify the cause of death. (3) The medical certificate of death shall be completed and signed by the coroner or medical examiner, physician who attended the decedent, or physician who last examined or treated the decedent, as appropriate, within forty-eight hours after notification of the death or fetal death. A coroner or medical examiner may satisfy the requirement of signing a medical certificate showing the cause of death or fetal death as pending by signing it within forty-eight hours after notification of the death or fetal death, provided that the coroner or medical examiner shall sign any other medical certificate of death or supplementary medical certification within forty-eight hours after the cause of death has been determined. A physician described in division (C)(1)(b) of this section may satisfy the requirement of signing a medical certificate by signing with an electronic signature. (D) A coroner, medical examiner, or physician who acts in good faith in accordance with this section, without fraud or malice, and upon reasonable belief of the cause of death or fetal death based on the information, if any, presented is not subject to civil liability or professional disciplinary action for any act or omission in certifying the cause of death or in completing and signing the medical certificate of death. (E) Any death certificate registered pursuant to this section shall contain the social security number of the decedent, if available. A social security number obtained under this section is a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 13, 2025 at 11:22 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3781.12 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3781 / § 3781.12
§ 3781.12. Petition for adoption, amendment or annulment of rule or regulation
Status: in_force

October 16, 2009 House Bill 1 - 128th General Assembly (A)(1) Any person may petition the board of building standards to adopt, amend, or annul a rule adopted pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code, or to permit the use of any particular fixture, device, material, system, method of manufacture, product of a manufacturing process, or method or manner of construction or installation that complies with performance standards adopted pursuant to section 3781.11 of the Revised Code, as regards the purposes declared in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, of the fixtures, devices, materials, systems, or methods or manners of construction, manufacture or installation described in any section of the Revised Code relating to those purposes, where the use is permitted by law. (2) Any person may petition the residential construction advisory committee to recommend a rule to update or amend the state residential building code. (B) Upon petition under division (A) of this section, the board shall cause to be conducted testing and evaluation that the board determines desirable of any fixture, device, material, system, assembly or product of a manufacturing process, or method or manner of construction or installation sought to be used under the rules the board adopts pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code. (C) If the board, after hearing, determines it advisable to adopt the rule, amendment, or annulment, or to permit the use of the materials or assemblages petitioned for under division (A) of this section, it shall give at least thirty days' notice of the time and place of a public hearing as provided by section 119.03 of the Revised Code. No rule shall be adopted, amended, or annulled or the use of materials or assemblages authorized until after the public hearing. A copy of every rule, amendment, or annulment, and a copy of every approved material or assembly authorization signed by the chairperson of the board of building standards and sealed with the seal of the department of commerce shall, after final adoption or authorization by the board, be filed with the secretary of state and published as the board determines. The issuance of the authorization for the use of the materials or assemblages described in the petition constitutes approval for their use anywhere in this state. Any rule, amendment, or annulment does not take effect until a date the board fixes and states. No rule, amendment, or annulment applies to any building for which the plans or drawings, specifications, and data were approved prior to the time the rule, amendment, or annulment becomes effective. All hearings of the board are open to the public. Each member of the board may administer oaths in the performance of the member's duties.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3731.02 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3731 / § 3731.02
§ 3731.02. Fire marshal rules and enforcement - building code standards for SRO facilities
Status: in_force

September 16, 2014 House Bill 486 - 130th General Assembly (A) The state fire marshal shall make such rules as are necessary to carry out this chapter, which shall include, but are not limited to, rules establishing requirements to renew a license issued under this chapter and fees for licensure and renewal and for inspections of hotels. Except as provided in division (G) of section 3731.12 of the Revised Code, the state fire marshal and the assistant state fire marshals shall enforce this chapter. (B) Except as otherwise provided in this division and divisions (C) and (D) of this section, the board of building standards shall adopt, pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code, rules that specify that the building code standards for SRO facilities shall be use group R-2. Any facility operating prior to October 16, 1996, in the nature of an SRO facility that met the building code standards for an SRO facility prior to that date, whether previously licensed as a hotel or not, and after October 16, 1996, licensed as an SRO facility under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, shall be permitted under the rules to have a building code standard of either use group R-1 or use group R-2 if the facility meets the requirements for those use groups as specified in the Ohio building code adopted pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code. The requirements of this division apply to an SRO facility that holds a license as an SRO facility on September 12, 2008, unless any of the following events occur on or after September 12, 2008: (1) The owner of the SRO facility constructs or alters the facility. (2) The owner of the SRO facility surrenders the license issued to that facility. (3) The owner of the SRO facility changes the use or occupancy of that facility. (4) The license issued to that SRO facility under this chapter is revoked or is not renewed. (C) If any of the events described in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section occur, the owner of the structure shall comply with division (D) of this section to obtain a new license to operate as an SRO facility. (D) Beginning on September 12, 2008, the state fire marshal shall not issue a new license to operate a facility as an SRO facility, and shall not renew such a license issued under this division, unless the SRO facility is constructed providing individual sleeping rooms for each guest; has, on a per-room or a communal basis within each building to be licensed as an SRO facility, permanent provisions for living, eating, cooking, and sanitation; and is constructed in accordance with the requirements specified for SRO facilities and is approved by the building official having jurisdiction over that facility to be an SRO facility. An SRO facility subject to this division shall only operate with, and shall properly maintain, individual sleeping rooms for each guest and shall only operate with, and shall properly maintain, on a per-room or communal basis, permanent provisions available to all guests for living, eating, cooking, and sanitation. (E) The state fire marshal may, pursuant to division (A) of this section, adopt rules establishing a fire code and sanitary standards compliance incentive program for persons required to procure a license for a hotel under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code. The rules may include provisions for the creation of a "Safe Stay Hotel" designation by the state fire marshal, the standards a licensed hotel must meet to achieve and maintain that designation, the procedures the state fire marshal shall use to publish and maintain a registry of hotels receiving that designation, and any monetary incentives offered by the state fire marshal to encourage a licensed hotel to achieve and maintain that designation. At a minimum, no hotel may be designated as a "Safe Stay Hotel" or maintain such a designation unless it meets the fire code and sanitary compliance standards established pursuant to this section for a continuous period of at least twenty-four months. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the power of this state, the department of commerce, the state fire marshal, or any other political subdivision of the state to administer and enforce any other sections of this chapter or any other applicable laws, rules, and regulations. Nothing in this division shall be construed to require the state fire marshal to designate a hotel as a "Safe Stay Hotel" or require the state fire marshal to award a monetary incentive to a hotel in any manner that is inconsistent or in conflict with the rules adopted under this section or any other applicable laws, rules, or regulations.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3734.123 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3734 / § 3734.123
§ 3734.123. Assessment of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity in state
Status: in_force

April 4, 2023 House Bill 364 - 134th General Assembly (A) As used in this section and section 3734.124 of the Revised Code, "commercial hazardous waste incinerator" means an enclosed device that treats hazardous waste by means of controlled flame combustion and that accepts for treatment hazardous waste that is generated off the premises on which the device is located by any person other than the one who owns or operates the device or one who controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the person who owns or operates the device. "Commercial hazardous waste incinerator" does not include any "boiler" or "industrial furnace" as those terms are defined in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. (B) Not sooner than three years after April 15, 1993, and triennially thereafter, the director of environmental protection shall prepare, publish, and issue as a final action an assessment of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity in this state. However, after the issuance as a final action of a determination under division (A) of section 3734.124 of the Revised Code that terminates the restrictions established in division (C) of this section, the director shall cease preparing, publishing, and issuing the periodic assessments required under this division. The assessment shall determine the amount of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity needed to manage the hazardous waste expected to be generated in this state and imported into this state for incineration at commercial hazardous waste incinerators during the next succeeding twenty calendar years. The assessment shall include at least all of the following: (1) A determination of the aggregate treatment capacity authorized at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state; (2) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that will be treated at those facilities; (3) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated outside this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located in this state and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated outside this state that will be treated at those facilities; (4) A determination of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that is being treated at commercial hazardous waste incinerators located outside this state, and projections of the quantity of hazardous waste generated in this state that will be treated at those facilities; (5) The amount of commercial hazardous waste incinerator capacity that the director reasonably anticipates will be needed during the first three years of the planning period to treat hazardous waste generated from the remediation of sites in this state that are on the national priority list required under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended; as a result of corrective actions implemented under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended; and as a result of clean-up activities conducted at sites listed on the master sites list prepared by the environmental protection agency; (6) Based upon available data, provided that the data are reliable and are compatible with the data base of the environmental protection agency, an identification of any hazardous waste first listed as a hazardous waste in regulations adopted under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, on or after April 15, 1993, and of any hazardous waste that has been proposed for such listing by publication of a notice in the federal register on or before December 1 of the year immediately preceding the triennial assessment; (7) An analysis of other factors that may result in capacity changes over the period addressed by the assessment. (C) Except as otherwise provided in section 3734.124 of the Revised Code, none of the following shall occur on or after April 15, 1993: (1) The director shall not do any of the following: (a) Issue any hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (D) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code for the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or issue any modified hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (I) of that section that would authorize an increase in either the treatment capacity of a commercial hazardous waste incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste authorized to be treated by it; (b) Issue any permit pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, division (J) of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code, or the solid waste provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under those provisions, that is necessary for the establishment, modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or equipment that is necessary for the operation of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or the modification of such an existing incinerator to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it. Upon determining that an application for any permit pertains to the establishment, modification, or operation of any appurtenant facility or equipment, the director shall cease reviewing the application and return the application and accompanying materials to the applicant along with a written notice that division (C)(1)(b) of this section precludes the director from reviewing and acting upon the application. (c) Issue any exemption order under division (G) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code exempting the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator; the modification of an existing facility to increase either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it; or the establishment, modification, or operation of any facility or equipment appurtenant to a new or modified commercial hazardous waste incinerator, from divisions (C)(1)(a) or (b) or (C)(2) of this section. (2) If the director determines that an application for a hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit submitted under division (D) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code pertains to the establishment of a new commercial hazardous waste incinerator, or a request for a modification of an existing incinerator submitted under division (I) of that section pertains to an increase of either the treatment capacity of the incinerator or the quantity of hazardous waste that is authorized to be treated by it, the director shall cease reviewing the application or request and shall return it and the accompanying materials to the applicant along with a written notice that division (C)(2) of this section precludes the review of the application or request. (D) Division (C) of this section does not apply to an application for a modified hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (I) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code for any hazardous waste incinerator in operation before April 15, 1993, if both of the following apply to the application: (1) The application seeks to install an improved air emission control system designed to achieve compliance with 40 C.F.R. 63, Subpart EEE. (2) The application does not seek to increase the treatment capacity of the hazardous waste incinerator or the quantity of waste to be treated by it. (E) Division (C) of this section does not apply to an application for a modified hazardous waste facility installation and operation permit under division (I) of section 3734.05 of the Revised Code for any hazardous waste incinerator in operation before April 15, 1993, if all of the following apply to the application: (1) The application seeks to increase the treatment capacity of the hazardous waste incineration operations or the quantity of waste to be treated by it. (2) The hazardous waste incinerator is at or near its actual maximum operating capacity on the effective date of this amendment. (3) The application seeks to install an improved air emission control system designed to achieve compliance with 40 C.F.R. 63, Subpart EEE. (4) The owner or operator of the hazardous waste incinerator has not been issued any other permit allowing for the expansion of the hazardous waste incinerator or construction of a new hazardous waste incinerator prior to the effective date of this amendment. Last updated February 8, 2023 at 3:17 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3770.24 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3770 / § 3770.24
§ 3770.24. Administration of lottery sports gaming
Status: in_force

March 23, 2022 House Bill 29 - 134th General Assembly (A) The state lottery commission shall operate lottery sports gaming as part of the statewide lottery in accordance with this section and with Chapter 3775. of the Revised Code. The state lottery commission may adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, in consultation with the Ohio casino control commission, to implement sections 3770.23 to 3770.25 of the Revised Code, so long as those rules are not in conflict with the rules of the Ohio casino control commission. (B)(1) Each type C sports gaming proprietor shall contract with the state lottery commission to operate lottery sports gaming on behalf of the state lottery commission in exchange for a portion of the state's proceeds from lottery sports gaming. (2) All provisions of Chapter 3775. of the Revised Code that apply to type C sports gaming proprietors and type C sports gaming hosts apply to those persons when they operate or offer lottery sports gaming. (3) A type C sports gaming proprietor may adapt any existing self-service or clerk-operated lottery terminals owned or operated by the sports gaming proprietor or the state lottery commission also to serve as lottery sports gaming terminals, subject to the rules of the Ohio casino control commission and the state lottery commission. Last updated February 14, 2022 at 3:42 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3702.981 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3702 / § 3702.981
§ 3702.981. Chiropractic loan repayment program - rules
Status: in_force

November 22, 2020 House Bill 151 - 133rd General Assembly The director of health, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules as necessary to implement and administer sections 3702.98 to 3702.9810 of the Revised Code. In preparing rules, the director shall consult with the chiropractic loan repayment advisory board.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3797.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3797 / § 3797.03
§ 3797.03. Notice of change in residence or employment required
Status: in_force

August 3, 2006 Senate Bill 17 - 126th General Assembly (A) A registrant who establishes a new residence or place of employment within a county in which the registrant is registered shall promptly send the sheriff written notice of the address of the new residence or place of employment. (B) A registrant who intends to reside in a county other than the one in which the registrant has registered a residence address shall send the sheriff of the county in which the registrant intends to reside written notice of the registrant's intent to reside in that county. The registrant shall send the notice at least twenty days before the date the registrant begins to reside in the county. The notice shall include the registrant's name and the address or addresses at which the registrant intends to reside. If the change of address is not to a fixed address, the registrant shall include in the notice a detailed description of the place or places at which the registrant intends to stay and, not later than the end of the first business day immediately following the day on which the registrant obtains a fixed residence address, shall provide the sheriff written notice of the fixed residence address. If a registrant whose residence address change is not to a fixed address describes in a notice under this division the place or places at which the registrant intends to stay, the place or places so described in the notice shall be considered the registrant's residence address until the registrant provides the written notice of a fixed residence address as described in this division.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3775.051 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3775 / § 3775.051
§ 3775.051. Management services providers
Status: in_force

March 23, 2022 House Bill 29 - 134th General Assembly (A)(1) A type B sports gaming proprietor may contract with one management services provider to offer sports gaming at a sports gaming facility on the sports gaming proprietor's behalf, in a manner authorized under the contract. (2)(a) If the holder of a type B sports gaming proprietor license is a professional sports organization and is a member of a league, association, or organization that prevents the holder from being subject to the regulatory control of the Ohio casino control commission or from otherwise operating under the license, the professional sports organization may contractually appoint a designee operator that is considered the management services provider for all aspects of commission oversight and operating under the license. The professional sports organization shall not have control over the management services provider, and the management services provider shall not have control over the professional sports organization, as determined by the commission under division (C) of section 3775.03 of the Revised Code. (b) A professional sports organization and a management services provider described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not exchange any information that may compromise the integrity of sporting events or of sports gaming. The commission shall adopt by rule procedures for the professional sports organization and the management services provider to follow to ensure the integrity of sporting events and of sports gaming, including procedures to prevent any exchange of information or conflict of interest between the professional sports organization and the management services provider. (3) A type C sports gaming proprietor shall not contract with a mobile management services provider or a management services provider to offer sports gaming under the type C sports gaming proprietor license on the sports gaming proprietor's behalf. (4) A management services provider may offer sports gaming only in accordance with this chapter, with the rules adopted by the Ohio casino control commission under this chapter, and with the nature of the sports gaming proprietor's license. (B)(1) A management services provider shall be licensed under this section before entering into a contract with a type B sports gaming proprietor as described in division (A) of this section. A management services provider license entitles the holder to contract with one type B sports gaming proprietor. An applicant for an initial or renewed management services provider license shall meet all requirements for licensure established by the commission by rule and shall pay the fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, along with a nonrefundable application fee in an amount determined by the commission by rule. (2) The commission may accept another jurisdiction's license, if the commission determines it has similar licensing requirements, as evidence that the applicant meets the requirements for a license issued under this section. (3) After receiving an initial or renewed management services provider license, the applicant shall pay the following nonrefundable license fees, as applicable, not later than the dates indicated: Upon issuance of license One year after license issued Two years after license issued Three years after license issued Four years after license issued Management services provider that is contracting with a type B sports gaming proprietor that is also a type A sports gaming proprietor $100,000 $10,000 $10,000 $10,000 $10,000 Any other management services provider $50,000 $10,000 $10,000 $10,000 $10,000 (C) A management services provider license shall be valid for a term of five years. In order to renew a management services provider license, the licensee shall apply to the commission for a renewed license in the same manner as for an initial license. (D) In order to permit a management services provider to offer sports gaming on behalf of a type B sports gaming proprietor, the sports gaming proprietor and the management services provider shall enter into a written contract that has been approved by the commission. If the sports gaming proprietor and the management services provider wish to make a material change to the contract, the sports gaming proprietor first shall submit the change to the commission for its approval or rejection. The sports gaming proprietor or the management services provider shall not assign, delegate, subcontract, or transfer the management service provider's duties and responsibilities under the contract to a third party. (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the provisions of this chapter concerning a type B sports gaming proprietor apply to a management services provider that contracts with the sports gaming proprietor with respect to all rights, duties, and liabilities of the sports gaming proprietor assigned, delegated, subcontracted, or transferred to the management services provider as though the management services provider were a type B sports gaming proprietor. Unless the context requires otherwise, references in the Revised Code to a sports gaming proprietor apply to a management services provider to the extent that the management services provider is acting on behalf of a type B sports gaming proprietor pursuant to the contract. (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not permit a management services provider to operate sports gaming other than pursuant to a contract with a type B sports gaming proprietor to operate sports gaming on behalf of the sports gaming proprietor. (F) The commission shall adopt a rule setting a maximum number of management services provider licenses a person may hold at any one time. Last updated February 14, 2022 at 3:48 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3701.0411 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3701 / § 3701.0411
§ 3701.0411. Suicide fatality review
Status: in_force

September 30, 2021 House Bill 110 - 134th General Assembly The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish a procedure for county or regional suicide fatality review committees to follow in conducting a review of a suicide death. The rules shall do all of the following: (A) Establish the format for the annual reports required by section 307.646 of the Revised Code; (B) Establish guidelines for a county or regional review committee to follow in compiling statistics for annual reports so that the reports do not contain any information that would permit any person's identity to be ascertained from a report; (C) Establish guidelines for a county or regional review committee to follow in creating and maintaining the comprehensive database of deaths by suicide required by section 307.643 of the Revised Code, including provisions establishing uniform record-keeping procedures; (D) Establish guidelines for reporting suicide fatality review data to the department of health, which must maintain the confidentiality of information that would permit a person's identity to be ascertained; (E) Establish guidelines, materials, and training to help educate members of county or regional review committees about the purpose of the review process and the confidentiality of the information described in section 307.649 of the Revised Code; (F) Establish guidelines, materials, and training, in consultation with the state board of pharmacy, about the appropriate use of the drug database maintained in accordance with section 4729.75 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 19, 2021 at 5:19 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3715.88 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3715 / § 3715.88
§ 3715.88. Dangerous drug donation definitions
Status: in_force

September 12, 2008 House Bill 283 - 127th General Assembly As used in this section and in sections 3715.89 to 3715.92 of the Revised Code: (A) "Expired" has the same meaning as in section 3715.55 of the Revised Code. (B) "National drug code number" means the number registered for a drug pursuant to the listing system established by the United States food and drug administration under the "Drug Listing Act of 1972," 86 Stat. 559, 21 U.S.C. 360, as amended. (C) "Pharmacy school" means a school, college, university, or other educational institution that operates a pharmacy program recognized and approved by the state board of pharmacy. (D) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (E) "Manufacturer of dangerous drugs," "terminal distributor of dangerous drugs," and "wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs" have the same meanings as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3719.141 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3719 / § 3719.141
§ 3719.141. Peace officer may sell controlled substance in performance of official duties
Status: in_force

September 29, 2011 House Bill 153 - 129th General Assembly (A) A peace officer may sell any controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties only if either of the following applies: (1) A peace officer may sell any controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties if all of the following apply: (a) Prior approval for the sale has been given by the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the sale takes place, in any manner described in division (B) of this section; (b) The peace officer who makes the sale determines that the sale is necessary in the performance of the officer's official duties; (c) Any of the following applies: (i) The person to whom the sale is made or any other person who is involved in the sale does not know that the officer who makes the sale is a peace officer, and the peace officer who makes the sale determines that the sale is necessary to prevent the person from determining or suspecting that the officer who makes the sale is a peace officer. (ii) The peace officer who makes the sale determines that the sale is necessary to preserve an identity that the peace officer who makes the sale has assumed in the performance of the officer's official duties. (iii) The sale involves a controlled substance that, during the course of another sale, was intercepted by the peace officer who makes the sale or any other peace officer who serves the same agency served by the peace officer who makes the sale; the intended recipient of the controlled substance in the other sale does not know that the controlled substance has been so intercepted; the sale in question is made to the intended recipient of the controlled substance in the other sale and is undertaken with the intent of obtaining evidence of a drug abuse offense against the intended recipient of the controlled substance; and the sale in question does not involve the transfer of any money or other thing of value to the peace officer who makes the sale or any other peace officer who serves the same agency served by the peace officer who makes the sale in exchange for the controlled substance. (d) If the sale is made under the circumstances described in division (A)(1)(c)(i) or (ii) of this section, no person is charged with any criminal offense or any delinquent act based upon the sale unless both of the following apply: (i) The person also is charged with a criminal offense or a delinquent act that is based upon an act or omission that is independent of the sale but that either is connected together with the sale, or constitutes a part of a common scheme or plan with the sale, or is part of a course of criminal conduct involving the sale. (ii) The criminal offense or delinquent act based upon the sale and the other criminal offense or delinquent act are charged in the same indictment, information, or complaint. (e) The sale is not part of a continuing course of conduct involving the sale of controlled substances by the peace officer who makes the sale. (f) The amount of the controlled substance sold and the scope of the sale of the controlled substance is as limited as possible under the circumstances. (g) Prior to the sale, the law enforcement agency served by the peace officer who makes the sale has adopted a written internal control policy that does all of the following: (i) Addresses the keeping of detailed records as to the amount of money or other things of value obtained in the sale in exchange for the controlled substance; (ii) Addresses the delivery of all moneys or things of value so obtained to the prosecuting attorney pursuant to division (D) of this section; (iii) Addresses the agency's use and disposition of all such moneys or things of value that are deposited in the law enforcement trust fund of the sheriff, municipal corporation, or township, pursuant to division (D) of this section, and that are used by the sheriff, are allocated to the police department of the municipal corporation by its legislative authority, or are allocated by the board of township trustees to the township police department, township or joint police district police force, or office of the constable; (iv) Provides for the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of the proceeds, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds received, and the specific amount of each general type of expenditure. The policy shall not provide for or permit the identification of any peace officer involved in the sale, any information that is or may be needed in an ongoing investigation, or any specific expenditure that is made in an ongoing investigation. (2) A peace officer may sell any controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties if all of the following apply: (a) Prior approval for the sale has been given by the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the sale takes place, in any manner described in division (B) of this section; (b) Prior to the sale, the law enforcement agency served by the peace officer has adopted a written internal control policy that does the things listed in divisions (A)(1)(g)(i) to (iv) of this section; (c) The purchaser of the controlled substance acquires possession of it in the presence of the peace officer who makes the sale. (d) Upon the consummation of the sale, either of the following occurs: (i) The peace officer arrests the purchaser of the controlled substance, recovers it and the proceeds of the sale, and secures it and the proceeds as evidence to be used in a subsequent prosecution. (ii) The peace officer makes a reasonable, good faith effort to arrest the purchaser of the controlled substance and to recover the controlled substance and the proceeds of the sale, but the officer is unable to make the arrest and recover all of the controlled substance and proceeds for reasons beyond the officer's control, and the peace officer secures all of the controlled substance recovered and all of the proceeds recovered as evidence to be used in a subsequent prosecution. (B) The approval of a prosecuting attorney required by division (A)(1)(a) or (2)(a) of this section may be in either of the following forms: (1) A general approval that is given by the prosecuting attorney to the peace officer who makes the sale or to the law enforcement agency served by that peace officer, that grants approval only to that peace officer, and that grants approval for any such sale that may be necessary, after the approval has been granted, under the standards described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section; (2) A specific approval that is given by the prosecuting attorney to the peace officer who makes the sale or to the law enforcement agency served by that peace officer, and that grants approval only to that peace officer and only for the particular sale in question, under the standards described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section. (C) If a peace officer sells a controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the peace officer, within a reasonable time after the sale, shall provide the prosecuting attorney who granted approval for the sale with a written summary that identifies the amount and type of controlled substance sold, the circumstances of the sale, and the amount of any money or other thing of value obtained in the sale in exchange for the controlled substance. The summary shall not identify or enable the identification of any peace officer involved in the sale and shall not contain any information that is or may be needed in an ongoing investigation. (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, if a peace officer sells a controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the peace officer, as soon as possible after the sale, shall deliver all money or other things of value obtained in the sale in exchange for the controlled substance to the prosecuting attorney who granted approval for the sale. The prosecuting attorney shall safely keep all money and other things of value the prosecuting attorney receives under this division for use as evidence in any criminal action or delinquency proceeding based upon the sale. All money so received by a prosecuting attorney that no longer is needed as evidence in any criminal action or delinquency proceeding shall be deposited by the prosecuting attorney in the law enforcement trust fund of the sheriff if the peace officer who made the sale is the sheriff or a deputy sheriff or the law enforcement trust fund of a municipal corporation or township if it is served by the peace officer who made the sale, as established pursuant to section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, and upon deposit shall be expended only as provided in that section. All other things of value so received by a prosecuting attorney that no longer are needed as evidence in any criminal action or delinquency proceeding shall be disposed of, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash; the proceeds of the sale shall be deposited by the prosecuting attorney in the law enforcement trust fund of the sheriff if the peace officer who made the sale is the sheriff or a deputy sheriff or the law enforcement trust fund of a municipal corporation or township if it is served by the peace officer who made the sale, as established pursuant to section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, and upon deposit shall be expended only as provided in that section. Each law enforcement agency that uses any money that was deposited in a law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division shall comply with the written internal control policy adopted by the agency, as required by division (A)(1)(g) or (2)(b) of this section, in its use of the money. (2) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply in relation to a peace officer who sells a controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties under division (A)(1) of this section in any of the following circumstances: (a) The person to whom the sale is made or any other person who is involved in the sale does not know that the officer is a peace officer, and, if the officer were to retain and deliver the money or other things of value to the prosecuting attorney, the person would determine or suspect that the officer is a peace officer. (b) If the officer were to retain and deliver the money or other things of value to the prosecuting attorney, an identity that has been assumed in the performance of the officer's official duties would not be preserved. (c) The sale is made under the circumstances described in division (A)(1)(c)(iii) of this section. (3) If division (D)(1) of this section does not apply in relation to a peace officer who sells a controlled substance in the performance of the officer's official duties under division (A)(1) of this section due to the operation of division (D)(2) of this section, the peace officer, as soon as possible after the sale, shall deliver to the prosecuting attorney who granted approval for the sale a written summary that describes the circumstances of the sale and the reason for which division (D)(1) of this section does not apply. The summary shall not identify or enable the identification of any peace officer involved in the sale and shall not contain any information that is or may be needed in an ongoing investigation. (E)(1) A written internal control policy adopted by a law enforcement agency that is served by a peace officer who sells a controlled substance under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, as required by division (A)(1)(g) or (2)(b) of this section, is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Each law enforcement agency that adopts a written internal control policy of that nature shall comply with it in relation to any sale of a controlled substance under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section. All records as to the amount of money or things of value obtained in the sale of a controlled substance, in exchange for the controlled substance, and all financial records of the receipts of the proceeds, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds received, and the specific amounts of each general type of expenditure by a law enforcement agency in relation to any sale of a controlled substance under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section are public records open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. (2) A summary required by division (C) or (D)(3) of this section is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. (F)(1) Each prosecuting attorney who grants approval for a sale of controlled substances by a peace officer and who receives in any calendar year one or more summaries under division (C) of this section relative to the sale of a controlled substance by a peace officer shall prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the information contained in each of the summaries so received in the calendar year and shall send the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general. (2) Each prosecuting attorney who receives any money or any other thing of value under division (D)(1) of this section shall keep detailed financial records of the receipts and dispositions of all such moneys or things of value so received. No record of that nature shall identify, or enable the identification of, any person from whom money or another thing of value was received as a result of the sale of a controlled substance under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section or contain any information that is or may be needed in an ongoing investigation. Each record of that nature is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following information: (a) The identity of each law enforcement agency that has so delivered any money or other thing of value to the prosecuting attorney; (b) The total amount of money or other things of value so received from each law enforcement agency; (c) The disposition made under this section of all money or other things of value so received. (G) Divisions (A) to (F) of this section do not apply to any peace officer, or to any officer, agent, or employee of the United States, who is operating under the management and direction of the United States department of justice. Any peace officer, or any officer, agent, or employee of the United States, who is operating under the management and direction of the United States department of justice may sell a controlled substance in the performance of the officer's, agent's, or employee's official duties if the sale is made in accordance with federal statutes and regulations. (H) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code and also includes a special agent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3752.07 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3752 / § 3752.07
§ 3752.07. Securing building, structure or outdoor location against unauthorized entry
Status: in_force

July 1, 1996 House Bill 98 - 120th General Assembly (A) Within thirty days after the cessation of regulated operations at a facility for which a notice and certification are required to be submitted under sections 3752.04 and 3752.06 of the Revised Code, the owner or operator of the facility shall secure against unauthorized entry each building or structure at the facility where regulated operations were conducted and that contains or is contaminated with regulated substances and each outdoor location of operation. The owner or operator shall secure each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation by boarding windows, doors, and other potential means of entry, by providing security personnel, or by other methods prescribed in rules adopted under section 3752.03 of the Revised Code. Within that thirty-day period, the owner or operator also shall post about each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation in publicly visible locations warning signs that prohibit trespassing and state that the building, structure, or outdoor location of operation contains or is contaminated with regulated substances that may endanger public health or safety if released into the environment. The owner or operator shall continue the security measures, and maintain the warning signs, as required at each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation until the owner or operator has complied with section 3752.06 of the Revised Code and the director has verified the compliance and concurred with the owner's or operator's certification made under that section. (B) Promptly after discovering that any of the entry barriers or warning signs installed pursuant to this section have been damaged, lost, or removed, the owner or operator shall repair or replace them in order to maintain the security of the building, structure, or outdoor location of operation. (C) No person shall fail to comply with this section. (D) Any law enforcement officer, as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, may arrest for violations of this section. (E) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code relating to the distribution and crediting of fines for violations of the Revised Code, fines imposed under division (B) or (C) of section 3752.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by the prosecuting attorney of a county, a city director of law, or a village solicitor shall be credited to the general fund of the political subdivision on whose behalf the legal officer prosecuted the violation and shall be used exclusively to defray the costs to the political subdivision of enforcing this chapter and rules adopted and orders issued under it.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3752.11 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3752 / § 3752.11
§ 3752.11. Duties of holder of first mortgage upon abandonment of facility by owner
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Reporting facility" means a reporting facility at which all regulated operations have been temporarily or permanently discontinued. (2) "Abandoned by the owner" means either of the following that occurs on or after July 1, 1996: (a) All of the fee owners of a reporting facility have indicated affirmatively in writing to the holder of the first mortgage on the real property at the facility that they, and all tenants claiming possession under those owners, have abandoned all rights of possession to the reporting facility; (b) The first mortgage loan on the real property at the reporting facility is in default, the property is not occupied by any tenants, and the holder of the first mortgage has been unable to contact the mortgagor under the mortgage regarding the default within the earlier of ninety days after the default or sixty days after the first time the first mortgage holder has attempted unsuccessfully to contact the mortgagor following the default if the first mortgage holder is unable to contact the mortgagor within the sixty-day period. (3) "Default" means the failure of the mortgagor to make any payment to the holder of the first mortgage required by the terms of the mortgage documents that is not cured by the mortgagor within any applicable cure periods, deferred with the consent of the holder of the first mortgage, or waived by the holder of the first mortgage. (4) "Contact" means actual person to person, telephonic, or similar direct voice conversation between the holder of the first mortgage and the mortgagor or written correspondence from the mortgagor to the holder of the first mortgage by mail, any other method capable of documenting the intended recipient's receipt of the document or notice, or similar means of communication. (B) Not later than fifteen days after a reporting facility has been abandoned by the owner, the holder of the first mortgage on real property at the reporting facility shall do both of the following: (1) Secure against unauthorized entry each building or structure at the facility where regulated operations were conducted and that contains or is contaminated with regulated substances and each outdoor location of operation. The holder shall secure each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation by boarding windows, doors, and other potential means of entry, by providing security personnel, or by other methods prescribed in rules adopted under section 3752.03 of the Revised Code. Within that period, the holder also shall post about each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation in publicly visible locations warning signs that prohibit trespassing and state that the building, structure, or outdoor location of operation contains or is contaminated with regulated substances that may endanger public health or safety if released into the environment. The holder shall continue the security measures, and maintain the warning signs, as required at each such building, structure, or outdoor location of operation until title to the facility has been transferred or until the holder files a release of the mortgage with the county recorder of the county in which the facility is located. Promptly after discovering that any of the entry barriers or warning signs installed pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section have been damaged, lost, or removed, the holder shall repair or replace them in order to maintain the security of the building, structure, or outdoor location of operation. (2) Submit to the director of environmental protection, the local emergency planning committee of the emergency planning district in which the facility is located, and the fire department having jurisdiction where the facility is located a notice of the abandonment of the facility by the owner and of the holder's compliance with division (B)(1) of this section. The holder shall submit the notice on a form prescribed by the director. (C) Within thirty days before the date when the holder of a mortgage will cease to maintain security and warning signs at a reporting facility pursuant to the filing of a release of the mortgage as provided in division (B)(1) of this section, the holder shall so notify the director, the local emergency planning committee of the emergency planning district in which the facility is located, and the fire department having jurisdiction where the facility is located. The holder shall submit the notice on a form prescribed by the director. (D) Actions undertaken by a holder of a mortgage under division (B) of this section, and the undertaking of any other activities relating to protecting and securing the facility, do not cause the holder to be an owner, operator, or mortgagee in possession of the facility or subject the holder to this chapter or any other provision of state law imposing liability or responsibility for the cleanup, removal, or remediation of regulated substances, provided that all activities not specified in that division shall be performed in compliance with the applicable requirements of Chapters 3704., 3714., 3734., 3737., 3750., 3751., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under them. (E) The holder of a mortgage who proceeds in good faith under divisions (B) and (C) of this section is not liable to the owner of the facility or the mortgagor, as appropriate, for damages suffered by the owner or mortgagor due to actions taken by the holder under those divisions. (F) Nothing in this section prevents the holder of a first mortgage from applying to the court for the appointment of a receiver. If a receiver is appointed, the receiver shall succeed to the obligations of the holder of the first mortgage under divisions (B) and (C) of this section. (G) No person shall fail to comply with this section. Last updated September 13, 2023 at 9:03 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3769.18 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3769 / § 3769.18
§ 3769.18. Determination of class for purpose of entry
Status: in_force

October 1, 1953 House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly The class to which a horse belongs for an entry in a contest of speed shall be determined by its public performance in former contests or trials of speed, as provided by the printed rules of the society or association under which such contest is advertised to be conducted.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3701.048 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3701 / § 3701.048
§ 3701.048. Protocols for the administration of drugs in a declared emergency
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 Senate Bill 95 - 135th General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code. (2) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (3) "Drug," "dangerous drug," and "licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" have the same meanings as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code. (4) "Registered volunteer" has the same meaning as in section 5502.281 of the Revised Code. (B) In consultation with the appropriate professional regulatory boards of this state, the director of health shall develop one or more protocols that authorize the following individuals to administer, deliver, or distribute drugs, other than schedule II and III controlled substances, during a period of time described in division (E) of this section, notwithstanding any statute or rule that otherwise prohibits or restricts the administration, delivery, or distribution of drugs by those individuals: (1) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery; (2) A physician assistant licensed under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code; (3) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code; (4) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, including an advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code; (5) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code; (6) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code; (7) A pharmacist or pharmacy intern licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code; (8) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code; (9) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic who holds a certificate to practice issued under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code; (10) A veterinarian licensed under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code; (11) A certified mental health assistant licensed under Chapter 4772. of the Revised Code. (C) In consultation with the executive director of the emergency management agency, the director of health shall develop one or more protocols that authorize employees of boards of health and registered volunteers to deliver or distribute drugs, other than schedule II and III controlled substances, during a period of time described in division (E) of this section, notwithstanding any statute or rule that otherwise prohibits or restricts the delivery or distribution of drugs by those individuals. (D) In consultation with the state board of pharmacy, the director of health shall develop one or more protocols that authorize pharmacists and pharmacy interns to dispense, during a period of time described in division (E) of this section, limited quantities of dangerous drugs, other than schedule II and III controlled substances, without a written, oral, or electronic prescription from a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs or without a record of a prescription, notwithstanding any statute or rule that otherwise prohibits or restricts the dispensing of drugs without a prescription or record of a prescription. (E) On the governor's declaration of an emergency that affects the public health, the director of health may issue an order to implement one or more of the protocols developed pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of this section. At a minimum, the director's order shall identify the one or more protocols to be implemented and the period of time during which the one or more protocols are to be effective. (F)(1) An individual who administers, delivers, distributes, or dispenses a drug or dangerous drug in accordance with one or more of the protocols implemented under division (E) of this section is not liable for damages in any civil action unless the individual's acts or omissions in performing those activities constitute willful or wanton misconduct. (2) An individual who administers, delivers, distributes, or dispenses a drug or dangerous drug in accordance with one or more of the protocols implemented under division (E) of this section is not subject to criminal prosecution or professional disciplinary action under any chapter in Title XLVII of the Revised Code. Last updated January 17, 2025 at 3:15 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3729.09 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3729 / § 3729.09
§ 3729.09. Rights coextensive with term of license
Status: in_force

October 13, 2004 House Bill 368 - 125th General Assembly Upon a license being issued under sections 3729.05 to 3729.08 of the Revised Code, any operator has the right to rent or use each lot or camping space for the parking or placement of a recreational vehicle or portable camping facility to be used for human habitation without interruption for any period coextensive with any license or consecutive licenses issued under sections 3729.05 to 3729.08 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3769.031 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3769 / § 3769.031
§ 3769.031. Licensure - required rulemaking
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 House Bill 238 - 135th General Assembly (A) The state racing commission may issue, deny, suspend, or revoke licenses to those persons engaged in racing and to those employees of permit holders as is in the public interest for the purpose of maintaining a proper control over horse-racing meetings, subject to the requirements of this section. (B)(1) The commission shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing the following licenses to be issued, including the activities regulated under each license, the qualifications and other requirements to receive and maintain each license, and the fees that apply to the license: (a) The following racing official licenses: state steward, steward, program director, director of racing, general manager, racing secretary, assistant racing secretary, horsemen's bookkeeper, identifier, presiding judge, paddock judge, placing judge, judge, clerk of course, clerk of scales, jockey room custodian, announcer, starter, timer, photographer, and videographer, provided that the license fee for a general manager shall not exceed seventy-five dollars; (b) The following participant licenses: primary and secondary stable name, owner, partnership, person eligible to claim, authorized agent, thoroughbred breeder, trainer, assistant trainer, driver-trainer, driver, jockey, apprentice jockey, jockey agent, outrider, pony person, exercise rider, valet, and supply salesperson; (c) The following equine care licenses: veterinarian, veterinarian's assistant, dentist, horseshoer, and groom; (d) The following wagering licenses: totalizator company, totalizator company management supervisory employee, totalizator company employee, and mutuel employee; (e) A fair license, which shall not require the payment of any fee, to be issued for the following positions: racing official, owner, quarter horse participant, driver-trainer, groom, totalizator, and mutuel employee; (f) The following race track facility licenses: security, medical and first aid, concession employee, and maintenance, provided that the license fee for a medical and first aid worker shall not exceed ten dollars. (2) The commission shall issue only the licenses listed in division (B)(1) of this section. No license issued by the commission is required to hold any position that is not listed in that division. (C)(1) Applicants for licenses issued by the commission shall submit their fingerprints to the commission, and the commission may forward the fingerprints to the federal bureau of investigation or to any other agency, or to both, for examination. (2) Each license issued by the commission, unless revoked for cause, shall be for the period of one year from the first day of January of the year in which it is issued, except as otherwise provided in section 3769.07 of the Revised Code. (3) The commission shall issue a license to a person engaged in racing or an employee of a permit holder in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code if that person or employee holds a license in another state, or that person or employee has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter in horse racing in a state that does not issue that license. (4) Any violation of this chapter, of any rule of racing adopted by the commission, or of any law or rule with respect to racing in any jurisdiction shall be sufficient reason for a refusal to issue a license, or a suspension or revocation of any license issued, pursuant to this section. With respect to the issuance, denial, suspension, or revocation of a license to a participant in horse racing, the action of the commission is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Last updated February 27, 2025 at 4:02 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3781.30 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3781 / § 3781.30
§ 3781.30. Duties of excavator
Status: in_force

March 27, 2013 House Bill 458 - 129th General Assembly (A) When making excavations using traditional or trenchless technologies, the excavator shall do all of the following: (1) Maintain reasonable clearance between any underground facility and the cutting edge or point of powered equipment; (2) Protect and preserve the markings of tolerance zones of underground utility facilities until those markings are no longer required for proper and safe excavations; (3) When approaching and excavating within the tolerance zone of underground utility facilities with powered equipment, require an individual other than the equipment operator, to visually monitor the excavation activity for any indication of the underground utility facility; (4) Conduct the excavation within the tolerance zone of underground utility facilities in a careful, prudent, and nondestructive manner, when necessary, in order to prevent damage; (5) Excavate up to the total depth of the excavation to either determine the precise location of underground utility facilities or verify that the total depth of excavation is free of such facilities; (6) As soon as any damage is discovered, including gouges, dents, or breaks to coatings, cable sheathes, and cathodic protection anodes or wiring, report the type and location of the damage to the utility and permit the utility a reasonable amount of time to make necessary repairs; (7) Immediately report to the utility, the protection service, and, if necessary, to the appropriate law enforcement agencies and fire departments by calling 9-1-1, any damage to an underground utility facility that results in escaping flammable, corrosive, explosive, or toxic liquids or gas, and take reasonable appropriate actions needed to protect persons and property and to minimize safety hazards until those agencies and departments and the utility arrive at the scene. (B) When utilizing trenchless excavation methods, the excavator must comply with the following requirements, in a manner consistent with division (A) of this section: (1) Expose and confirm all underground utility facilities at each crossing point by the proposed excavation in a nondestructive manner to the installation depth of the new facility; (2) Expose all parallel underground utility facilities in a nondestructive manner at the beginning and end of each trenchless excavation to the installation depth of the new facility. If the proposed alignment is within the tolerance zone of any parallel underground utility facility, the underground utility facility shall be exposed every one hundred feet. (3) Ensure that the final product installation maintains the proper clearances of existing underground utility facilities as determined pursuant to division (E)(4) of section 3781.27 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3707.57 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3707 / § 3707.57
§ 3707.57. Bloodborne infectious disease prevention programs
Status: in_force

July 1, 2017 Senate Bill 319 - 131st General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Bloodborne pathogens" means the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus, and hepatitis C virus. (2) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code. (B) A board of health may establish a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program. The cost of the program is the responsibility of the board of health. (C) A board of health that establishes a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program shall determine the manner in which the program is operated and the individuals who are eligible to participate. The program shall do all of the following: (1) If resources are available, provide on-site screening for bloodborne pathogens; (2) Provide education to each program participant regarding exposure to bloodborne pathogens; (3) Identify health and supportive services providers and substance abuse treatment programs available in the area served by the prevention program and, as appropriate, develop and enter into referral agreements with the identified providers and programs; (4) Encourage each program participant to seek appropriate medical care, mental health services, substance abuse treatment, or social services and, as appropriate, make referrals to health and supportive services providers and substance abuse treatment programs with which the prevention program has entered into referral agreements; (5) Use a recordkeeping system that ensures that the identity of each program participant remains anonymous; (6) Comply with applicable state and federal laws governing participant confidentiality; (7) Provide each program participant with documentation identifying the individual as an active participant in the program. (D) A bloodborne infectious disease prevention program may collect demographic information about each program participant, including the zip code applicable to the participant's address, and the participant's comorbidity diagnosis, if any. The program may report the information to the department of mental health and addiction services. (E)(1) Before establishing a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program, the board of health shall consult with all of the following: (a) Interested parties from the health district represented by the board, including all of the following: (i) Law enforcement representatives; (ii) Prosecutors, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code; (iii) Representatives of community addiction services providers whose alcohol and drug addiction services are certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code; (iv) Persons recovering from substance abuse; (v) Relevant private, nonprofit organizations, including hepatitis C and HIV advocacy organizations; (vi) Residents of the health district; (vii) The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves the area in which the health district is located. (b) Representatives selected by the governing authority of the city, village, or township in which the program is proposed to be established. (2) If the board of health, after consulting with the interested parties and representatives listed in division (D)(1) of this section, decides to establish a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program, the board shall provide written notice of the proposed location to the governing authority of the city, village, or township in which the program is to be located. The governing authority retains all zoning rights. (F)(1) If carrying out a duty under a component of a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program would be considered a violation of any of the following, an employee or volunteer of the program, when carrying out the duty, is not subject to criminal prosecution for the violation: (a) Section 2923.24 of the Revised Code; (b) Section 2925.12 of the Revised Code; (c) Division (C)(1) of section 2925.14 of the Revised Code regarding the prohibition against illegal possession of drug paraphernalia; (d) Division (C) or (D) of section 3719.172 of the Revised Code regarding the prohibition against furnishing a hypodermic needle to another person. (2) If participating in a component of a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program would be considered a violation of any of the following, a program participant who is within one thousand feet of a program facility and is in possession of documentation from the program identifying the individual as an active participant in the program is not subject to criminal prosecution for the violation: (a) Section 2923.24 of the Revised Code; (b) Section 2925.12 of the Revised Code; (c) Division (C)(1) of section 2925.14 of the Revised Code regarding the prohibition against illegal possession of drug paraphernalia. (G) A board of health that establishes a bloodborne infectious disease prevention program shall include details about the program in its annual report prepared under section 3707.47 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 22, 2025 at 2:13 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3715.55 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3715 / § 3715.55
§ 3715.55. Notice of adulteration, misbranding, or expiration
Status: in_force

September 12, 2008 House Bill 283 - 127th General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "expired" means: (1) In the case of a drug, that the expiration date required by 21 C.F.R. 211.137 has passed; (2) In the case of infant formula, the "use by" date required by 21 C.F.R. 107.20 has passed; (3) In the case of baby food, that any expiration date, "use by" date, or sale date established by state or federal law or marked on the container by the manufacturer, processor, or packager has passed. (B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whenever the director of agriculture or the state board of pharmacy finds or has cause to believe, that any food, drug, device, or cosmetic is adulterated, or so misbranded as to be dangerous or fraudulent, within the meaning of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the Revised Code, or that a drug, infant formula, or baby food is expired, the director or board shall affix to the article a tag or other appropriate marking, giving notice that the article is, or is suspected of being, adulterated, misbranded, or expired and has been detained or embargoed, and warning all persons not to remove or dispose of the article by sale or otherwise until permission for removal or disposal is given by the director or the board or the court. No person may remove or dispose of a detained or embargoed article by sale or otherwise without such permission. This division does not apply to expired drugs donated pursuant to sections 3715.88 to 3715.92 of the Revised Code. (C) When an article detained or embargoed has been found by the director or board to be adulterated, misbranded, or expired, the director or board shall petition the municipal or county court in whose jurisdiction the article is detained or embargoed for an order for condemnation of the article. When the director or the board has not found within ten days that an article so detained or embargoed is adulterated, misbranded, or expired, the director or board shall remove the tag or other marking. (D) If the court finds that a detained or embargoed article is adulterated, misbranded, or expired, the article shall, after entry of the decree, be destroyed at the expense of the claimant thereof, under the supervision of the director or the board, and all court costs, fees, storage, and other proper expenses shall be taxed against the claimant of the article or the claimant's agent; provided, that when the adulteration or misbranding can be corrected by proper labeling or processing of the article, the court, after entry of the decree and after such costs, fees, and expenses have been paid and a good and sufficient bond, conditioned that the article shall be so labeled or processed, has been executed, may by order direct that the article be delivered to the claimant thereof for labeling or processing under the supervision of the director or the board. The expense of supervision shall be paid by the claimant. The bond shall be returned to the claimant of the article on representation to the court by the director or the board that the article is no longer in violation of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the Revised Code, and that the expenses of supervision have been paid. (E) Whenever the director finds in any room, building, vehicle of transportation, or other structure, any meat, seafood, poultry, vegetable, fruit, or other perishable articles that are unsound, or contain any filthy, decomposed, or putrid substance, or that may be poisonous or deleterious to health or otherwise unsafe, the articles are declared to be a nuisance, and the director shall forthwith condemn or destroy the articles, or in any other manner render the articles unsalable as human food.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3716.11 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3716 / § 3716.11
§ 3716.11. Placing harmful or hazardous objects in food or confection
Status: in_force

January 1, 1974 House Bill 716 - 110th General Assembly No person shall do either of the following, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that any person may suffer physical harm or be seriously inconvenienced or annoyed thereby: (A) Place a pin, needle, razor blade, glass, laxative, drug of abuse, or other harmful or hazardous object or substance in any food or confection; (B) Furnish to any person any food or confection which has been adulterated in violation of division (A) of this section.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3734.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3734 / § 3734.01
§ 3734.01. Solid and hazardous waste definitions
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly As used in this chapter: (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of the Revised Code. (B) "Director" means the director of environmental protection. (C) "Health district" means a city or general health district as created by or under authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised Code. (D) "Agency" means the environmental protection agency. (E) "Solid wastes" means such unwanted residual solid or semisolid material as results from industrial, commercial, agricultural, and community operations, excluding earth or material from construction, mining, or demolition operations, or other waste materials of the type that normally would be included in demolition debris, nontoxic fly ash and bottom ash, including at least ash that results from the combustion of coal and ash that results from the combustion of coal in combination with scrap tires where scrap tires comprise not more than fifty per cent of heat input in any month, spent nontoxic foundry sand, nontoxic, nonhazardous, unwanted fired and unfired, glazed and unglazed, structural products made from shale and clay products, materials converted into a feedstock that replaces a raw material in a manufacturing process at an advanced recycling facility, materials used as a legitimate fuel at an advanced recycling facility, and slag and other substances that are not harmful or inimical to public health, and includes, but is not limited to, garbage, scrap tires, combustible and noncombustible material, street dirt, and debris. "Solid wastes" does not include any material that is an infectious waste or a hazardous waste. (F) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, emitting, or placing of any solid wastes or hazardous waste into or on any land or ground or surface water or into the air. When used in connection with solid waste, "disposal" does not include any of the following: (1) A disposition or placement that constitutes legitimate recycling; (2) A disposition or placement that constitutes storage; (3) A disposition or placement of scrap tires that constitutes a beneficial use or that occurs at a scrap tire recovery facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; (4) A disposition or placement of materials constituting a beneficial use authorized by a beneficial use permit issued under this chapter; (5) Advanced recycling or the storage of post-use polymers and recovered feedstocks prior to conversion through advanced recycling. (G) "Person" includes the state, any political subdivision and other state or local body, the United States and any agency or instrumentality thereof, and any legal entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code. (H) "Open burning" means the burning of solid wastes in an open area or burning of solid wastes in a type of chamber or vessel that is not approved or authorized in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, in rules adopted under division (V) of this section or section 3734.73 of the Revised Code, or the burning of treated or untreated infectious wastes in an open area or in a type of chamber or vessel that is not approved in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.021 of the Revised Code. (I) "Open dumping" means any of the following: (1) The depositing of solid wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a site that is not any of the following: (a) Licensed as a solid waste facility under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code; (b) A legitimate recycling facility; (c) An advanced recycling facility; (d) If the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, licensed as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code. (2) The depositing of solid wastes that consist of scrap tires onto the surface of the ground at a site or in a manner not specifically identified in divisions (C)(2) to (5), (7), or (10) of section 3734.85 of the Revised Code; (3) The depositing of untreated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground; or the depositing of treated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code; (4) The disposal of scrap tires in a trailer, vehicle, or building that is not licensed as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility. (J) "Hazardous waste" means any waste or combination of wastes in solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous form that in the determination of the director, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may do either of the following: (1) Cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness; (2) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or safety or to the environment when improperly stored, treated, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed. "Hazardous waste" includes any substance identified by regulation as hazardous waste under the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as amended, and does not include any substance that is subject to the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended. (K) "Treat" or "treatment," when used in connection with hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize the waste; recover energy or material resources from the waste; render the waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, or dispose of, or amenable for recovery or storage; or reduce the volume of the waste. When used in connection with infectious wastes, "treat" or "treatment" means any method, technique, or process that renders the wastes noninfectious so that it is no longer an infectious waste and is no longer an infectious substance as defined in applicable federal law, including, without limitation, steam sterilization and incineration, and, in the instance of wastes identified in division (R)(7) of this section, to substantially reduce or eliminate the potential for the wastes to cause lacerations or puncture wounds. (L) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the quantity, composition, origin, routing, and destination of hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage. (M)(1) When used in connection with hazardous waste, "storage" means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period in such a manner that it remains retrievable and substantially unchanged physically and chemically and, at the end of the period, is treated; disposed of; stored elsewhere; or reused, recycled, or reclaimed in a beneficial manner; (2) When used in connection with legitimate recycling of solid waste other than scrap tires, "storage" means the placement of solid waste on the ground prior to legitimate recycling for a period of less than ninety days provided all the following apply: (a) The solid waste remains retrievable and substantially unchanged. (b) The solid waste does not cause a nuisance. (c) The storage of solid waste occurs at a legitimate recycling facility. (d) The storage of solid waste does not pose a threat from vectors. (e) The storage of solid waste does not adversely impact public health, safety, or the environment. (f) Prior to the end of the storage period of less than ninety days, the solid waste is lawfully disposed, beneficially used, or recycled in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under it. (3) When used in connection with scrap tires, "storage" means the holding of scrap tires for a temporary period in such a manner that they remain retrievable and, at the end of that period, are beneficially used; stored elsewhere; placed in a scrap tire monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; processed at a scrap tire recovery facility licensed under that section or a solid waste incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; or transported to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another state and is operating in compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is located. (N) "Facility" means any site, location, tract of land, installation, or building used for incineration, composting, sanitary landfilling, or other methods of disposal of solid wastes or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for the collection, storage, or processing of the solid wastes; for the transfer of solid wastes; for the treatment of infectious wastes; or for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste. (O) "Closure" means the time at which a hazardous waste facility will no longer accept hazardous waste for treatment, storage, or disposal, the time at which a solid waste facility will no longer accept solid wastes for transfer or disposal or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for storage or processing, or the effective date of an order revoking the permit for a hazardous waste facility or the registration certificate, permit, or license for a solid waste facility, as applicable. "Closure" includes measures performed to protect public health or safety, to prevent air or water pollution, or to make the facility suitable for other uses, if any, including, but not limited to, the removal of processing residues resulting from solid wastes that consist of scrap tires; the establishment and maintenance of a suitable cover of soil and vegetation over cells in which hazardous waste or solid wastes are buried; minimization of erosion, the infiltration of surface water into such cells, the production of leachate, and the accumulation and runoff of contaminated surface water; the final construction of facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated surface water runoff, except as otherwise provided in this division; the final construction of air and water quality monitoring facilities, except as otherwise provided in this division; the final construction of methane gas extraction and treatment systems; or the removal and proper disposal of hazardous waste or solid wastes from a facility when necessary to protect public health or safety or to abate or prevent air or water pollution. With regard to a solid waste facility that is a scrap tire facility, "closure" includes the final construction of facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated surface water runoff and the final construction of air and water quality monitoring facilities only if those actions are determined to be necessary. (P) "Premises" means either of the following: (1) Geographically contiguous property owned by a generator; (2) Noncontiguous property that is owned by a generator and connected by a right-of-way that the generator controls and to which the public does not have access. Two or more pieces of property that are geographically contiguous and divided by public or private right-of-way or rights-of-way are a single premises. (Q) "Post-closure" means that period of time following closure during which a hazardous waste facility is required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without limitation, operation and maintenance of methane gas extraction and treatment systems, or the period of time after closure during which a scrap tire monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code is required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted under it. (R) "Infectious wastes" means any wastes or combination of wastes that include cultures and stocks of infectious agents and associated biologicals, human blood and blood products, and substances that were or are likely to have been exposed to or contaminated with or are likely to transmit an infectious agent or zoonotic agent, including all of the following: (1) Laboratory wastes; (2) Pathological wastes; (3) Animal blood and blood products; (4) Animal carcasses and parts; (5) Waste materials from the rooms of humans, or the enclosures of animals, that have been isolated because of diagnosed communicable disease that are likely to transmit infectious agents. Such waste materials from the rooms of humans do not include any wastes of patients who have been placed on blood and body fluid precautions under the universal precaution system established by the centers for disease control in the public health service of the United States department of health and human services, except to the extent specific wastes generated under the universal precautions system have been identified as infectious wastes by rules adopted under division (R)(7) of this section. (6) Sharp wastes used in the treatment, diagnosis, or inoculation of human beings or animals; (7) Any other waste materials generated in the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals, in research pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of biologicals, that the director of health, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, identifies as infectious wastes after determining that the wastes present a substantial threat to human health when improperly managed because they are contaminated with, or are likely to be contaminated with, infectious agents. As used in this division, "blood products" does not include patient care waste such as bandages or disposable gowns that are lightly soiled with blood or other body fluids unless those wastes are soiled to the extent that the generator of the wastes determines that they should be managed as infectious wastes. (S) "Infectious agent" means a type of microorganism, pathogen, virus, or proteinaceous infectious particle that can cause or significantly contribute to disease in or death of human beings. (T) "Zoonotic agent" means a type of microorganism, pathogen, or virus that causes disease in vertebrate animals, is transmissible to human beings, and can cause or significantly contribute to disease in or death of human beings. (U) "Solid waste transfer facility" means any site, location, tract of land, installation, or building that is used or intended to be used primarily for the purpose of transferring solid wastes that were generated off the premises of the facility from vehicles or containers into other vehicles for transportation to a solid waste disposal facility. "Solid waste transfer facility" does not include an advanced recycling facility, a legitimate recycling facility, or any facility that consists solely of portable containers that have an aggregate volume of fifty cubic yards or less. (V) "Beneficially use" includes: (1) With regard to scrap tires, to use a scrap tire in a manner that results in a commodity for sale or exchange or in any other manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; (2) With regard to material from a horizontal well that has come in contact with a refined oil-based substance and that is not technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material, to use the material in any manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.125 of the Revised Code. (W) "Commercial car," "commercial tractor," "farm machinery," "motor bus," "vehicles," "motor vehicle," and "semitrailer" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code. (X) "Construction equipment" means road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in construction work, or in mining or producing or processing aggregates, and not designed for or used in general highway transportation. (Y) "Motor vehicle salvage dealer" has the same meaning as in section 4738.01 of the Revised Code. (Z) "Scrap tire" means an unwanted or discarded tire. (AA) "Scrap tire collection facility" means any facility that meets all of the following qualifications: (1) The facility is used for the receipt and storage of whole scrap tires from the public prior to their transportation to a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is located. (2) The facility exclusively stores scrap tires in portable containers. (3) The aggregate storage of the portable containers in which the scrap tires are stored does not exceed five thousand cubic feet. (BB) "Scrap tire monocell facility" means an individual site within a solid waste landfill that is used exclusively for the environmentally sound storage or disposal of whole scrap tires or scrap tires that have been shredded, chipped, or otherwise mechanically processed. (CC) "Scrap tire monofill facility" means an engineered facility used or intended to be used exclusively for the storage or disposal of scrap tires, including at least facilities for the submergence of whole scrap tires in a body of water. (DD) "Scrap tire recovery facility" means any facility, or portion thereof, for the processing of scrap tires for the purpose of extracting or producing usable products, materials, or energy from the scrap tires through a controlled combustion process, mechanical process, or chemical process. "Scrap tire recovery facility" includes any facility that uses the controlled combustion of scrap tires in a manufacturing process to produce process heat or steam or any facility that produces usable heat or electric power through the controlled combustion of scrap tires in combination with another fuel, but does not include any solid waste incineration or energy recovery facility that is designed, constructed, and used for the primary purpose of incinerating mixed municipal solid wastes and that burns scrap tires in conjunction with mixed municipal solid wastes, or any tire retreading business, tire manufacturing finishing center, or tire adjustment center having on the premises of the business a single, covered scrap tire storage area at which not more than four thousand scrap tires are stored. (EE) "Scrap tire storage facility" means any facility where whole scrap tires are stored prior to their transportation to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is located. (FF) "Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and, as a result of that use, is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities. "Used oil" includes only those substances identified as used oil by the United States environmental protection agency under the "Used Oil Recycling Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2055, 42 U.S.C.A. 6901a, as amended. (GG) "Accumulated speculatively" has the same meaning as in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. (HH) "Horizontal well" has the same meaning as in section 1509.01 of the Revised Code. (II) "Technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material" has the same meaning as in section 3748.01 of the Revised Code. (JJ) "Post-use polymer" means a plastic to which all of the following apply: (1) It is derived from any industrial, commercial, agricultural, or domestic activities, and includes pre-consumer recovered materials and post-consumer materials. (2) Its use or intended use is as feedstock for the manufacturing of feedstocks, raw materials, other intermediate products, or final products using advanced recycling. (3) It has been sorted from solid waste and other regulated waste, but may contain incidental contaminants or impurities, such as paper labels or metal rings. (4) It is not mixed with solid waste or hazardous waste onsite or during processing at the advanced recycling facility. (5) It is processed at an advanced recycling facility or held at such facility prior to processing; (6) It is not accumulated speculatively. (KK) "Pyrolysis" means a manufacturing process through which post-use polymers or recovered feedstocks are heated in the absence of oxygen until melted and thermally decomposed, either noncatalytically or catalytically, and are then cooled, condensed, and converted into valuable raw materials, intermediate products, final products, including plastic monomers, chemicals, naphtha, waxes, or plastic and chemical feedstocks that are returned to economic utility in the form of raw materials and products. (LL) "Gasification" means a manufacturing process through which post-use polymers or recovered feedstocks are heated in an oxygen-controlled atmosphere and converted into syngas, followed by conversion into valuable raw, intermediate, and final products, including plastic monomers, chemicals, waxes, lubricants, coatings, and plastic and chemical feedstocks that are returned to economic utility in the form of raw materials or products. (MM) "Recovered feedstock" means one or more of the following materials that have not been mixed with solid waste or hazardous waste on-site or during processing at an advanced recycling facility and have been processed for use as a feedstock in an advanced recycling facility: (1) Post-use polymers; (2) Materials for which the United States environmental protection agency has made a non-waste determination or has otherwise determined are feedstocks and are not solid waste. "Recovered feedstock" does not include unprocessed municipal solid waste and is not accumulated speculatively. (NN) "Advanced recycling" means a manufacturing process for the conversion of post-use polymers and recovered feedstocks into basic raw materials, feedstocks, chemicals, and other recycled products through processes that include pyrolysis, gasification, depolymerization, catalytic cracking, reforming, hydrogenation, solvolysis, chemolysis, and other similar technologies. "Advanced recycling" does not include incineration of plastics or waste-to-energy processes. "Advanced recycling" is "recycling" as defined in section 3736.01 of the Revised Code. (OO) "Recycled products" include products produced at advanced recycling facilities including, monomers, oligomers, recycled plastics, plastic and chemical feedstocks, basic and unfinished chemicals, waxes, lubricants, coatings, and adhesives. "Recycled products" does not include products sold as fuel. (PP) "Advanced recycling facility" means a manufacturing facility that stores and converts post-use polymers and recovered feedstocks it receives using advanced recycling and that is subject to applicable agency regulations for air, water, waste, and land use. An "advanced recycling facility" is not a solid waste facility, a solid waste disposal facility, a solid waste management facility, a solid waste processing facility, a legitimate recycling facility, a solid waste recovery facility, an incinerator, or a waste-to-energy facility. (QQ) "Depolymerization" means a manufacturing process where post-use polymers are broken into smaller molecules such as monomers and oligomers or raw, intermediate, or final products, plastics and chemical feedstocks, basic and unfinished chemicals, waxes, lubricants, and coatings. (RR) "Mass balance attribution" means a chain of custody accounting methodology with rules defined by a third-party certification system that enables the attribution of the mass of advanced recycling feedstocks to one or more advanced recycling products. (SS) "Recycled plastic" means products that are produced from either of the following: (1) Mechanical recycling of pre-consumer recovered feedstocks or plastics, and post-consumer plastics; (2) The advanced recycling of pre-consumer recovered feedstocks or plastics, and post-consumer plastics via mass balance attribution under a third party certification system. (TT) "Solvolysis" means a manufacturing process to make useful products through which post-use polymers are purified by removing additives and contaminants with the aid of solvents and are heated at low temperatures or pressurized. "Solvolysis" includes hydrolysis, aminolysis, ammonoloysis, methanolysis, and glycolysis. (UU) "Useful products" means products produced through solvolysis, including monomers, intermediates, valuable chemicals, plastics and chemical feedstocks, and raw materials. (VV) "Third-party certification system" means an international and multi-national third-party certification system that consists of a set of rules for the implementation of mass balance attribution approaches for advanced recycling of materials. "Third-party certification system" includes international sustainability and carbon certification, underwriter laboratories, SCS recycled content, roundtable on sustainable biomaterials, ecoloop, and REDcert2. (WW) "Legitimate recycling facility" means any site, location, tract of land, installation, or building to which all of the following apply: (1) It is used or intended to be used for the purpose of processing, storing, or recycling solid waste that was generated off the premises of the facility. (2) Not less than sixty per cent of the weight of solid waste received in any nine months during a rolling twelve-month period is recycled monthly as shown by records, including invoices and contracts, maintained by the owner or operator of the facility. (3) Receipt, storage, and processing activities do not cause a nuisance, do not pose a threat from vectors, or do not adversely impact public health, safety, or the environment, or cause or contribute to air or water pollution. (XX) "Legitimate recycling" means processing, storing, or recycling of solid waste and returning the material to commerce as a commodity for use in a beneficial manner, including as a raw ingredient in a manufacturing process or as a legitimate fuel that does not constitute disposal. Last updated October 10, 2023 at 2:44 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3727.10 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3727 / § 3727.10
§ 3727.10. Prohibited acts regarding trauma care
Status: in_force

September 17, 2002 Senate Bill 124 - 124th General Assembly On and after November 3, 2002, no hospital in this state shall knowingly do any of the following: (A) Represent that it is able to provide adult or pediatric trauma care to a severely injured patient that is inconsistent with its level of categorization as an adult or pediatric trauma center, provided that a hospital that operates an emergency facility may represent that it provides emergency care; (B) Provide adult or pediatric trauma care to a severely injured patient that is inconsistent with applicable federal laws, state laws, and trauma care protocols and patient transfer agreements the hospital has adopted under section 3727.09 of the Revised Code; (C) Transfer a severely injured adult or pediatric trauma patient to a hospital that is not a trauma center with an appropriate level of adult or pediatric categorization or otherwise transfer a severely injured adult or pediatric trauma patient in a manner inconsistent with any applicable trauma patient transfer agreement adopted by the hospital under section 3727.09 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3796.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3796 / § 3796.01
§ 3796.01. Definitions
Status: in_force

March 20, 2026 Senate Bill 56 - 136th General Assembly (A) As used in this chapter: (1) "Marijuana" means marihuana as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (2) "Medical marijuana" means marijuana that is cultivated, processed, dispensed, tested, possessed, or used for a medical purpose in accordance with this chapter. "Medical marijuana" does not include adult-use marijuana or homegrown marijuana. (3) "Academic medical center" has the same meaning as in section 4731.297 of the Revised Code. (4) "Drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code. (5) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. (6) "Qualifying medical condition" means any of the following: (a) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome; (b) Alzheimer's disease; (c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; (d) Cancer; (e) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy; (f) Crohn's disease; (g) Epilepsy or another seizure disorder; (h) Fibromyalgia; (i) Glaucoma; (j) Hepatitis C; (k) Inflammatory bowel disease; (l) Multiple sclerosis; (m) Pain that is either of the following: (i) Chronic and severe; (ii) Intractable. (n) Parkinson's disease; (o) Positive status for HIV; (p) Post-traumatic stress disorder; (q) Sickle cell anemia; (r) Spinal cord disease or injury; (s) Tourette's syndrome; (t) Traumatic brain injury; (u) Ulcerative colitis; (v) Any other disease or condition added by the state medical board under section 4731.302 of the Revised Code. (7) "State university" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code. (8) "Adult-use consumer" means an individual who is at least twenty-one years of age. (9) "Adult-use marijuana" means marijuana that is cultivated, processed, dispensed, or tested for, or possessed or used by, an adult-use consumer, in accordance with this chapter. "Adult-use marijuana" includes marijuana cultivated, processed, dispensed, or tested for, or possessed or used by, an adult-use consumer before the effective date of this amendment in accordance with Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately prior to the effective date of this amendment. "Adult-use marijuana" does not include medical marijuana or homegrown marijuana. (10) "Church" has the meaning defined in section 1710.01 of the Revised Code. (11) "Public library" means a library provided for under Chapter 3375. of the Revised Code. (12) "Public park" means a park established by the state or a political subdivision of the state, including a county, township, municipal corporation, or park district. (13) "Public playground" means a playground established by the state or a political subdivision of the state, including a county, township, municipal corporation, or park district. (14) "School" means a child care center as defined under section 5104.01 of the Revised Code, a preschool as defined under section 2950.034 of the Revised Code, or a public or nonpublic primary school or secondary school. (15) "Public place" has the same meaning as in section 3794.01 of the Revised Code. (16) "Ohio investigative unit" means the investigative unit maintained by the department of public safety under section 5502.13 of the Revised Code. (17) "Homegrown marijuana" means marijuana cultivated, grown, processed, or possessed by an adult-use consumer in accordance with section 3796.04 of the Revised Code. "Homegrown marijuana" includes marijuana cultivated, grown, processed, or possessed before the effective date of this amendment under former section 3780.28 of the Revised Code, as that section existed immediately prior to the effective date of this amendment. "Homegrown marijuana" does not include medical marijuana or adult-use marijuana. (18) "Provisional license" means a temporary license issued to an applicant for a cultivator, processor, retail dispensary, or laboratory license under this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment, that establishes the conditions that must be met before the provisional license holder may engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.18 , 3796.19 , 3796.20 , or 3796.21 of the Revised Code. (19) "Certificate of operation" means a certificate issued to the holder of a provisional license that authorizes the recipient to engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.18 , 3796.19 , 3796.20 , or 3796.21 of the Revised Code. (20) "Licensed cultivator" means the holder of a current, valid license issued pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment, to engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.18 of the Revised Code. (21) "Licensed processor" means the holder of a current, valid license issued pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment, to engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.19 of the Revised Code. (22) "Licensed dispensary" means the holder of a current, valid license issued pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment, to engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.20 of the Revised Code. (23) "Licensed laboratory" means the holder of a current, valid license issued pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment, to engage in the activities authorized by section 3796.21 of the Revised Code. (24) "License holder" means the holder of a current, valid license issued under this chapter or Chapter 3780. of the Revised Code, as that chapter existed immediately before the effective date of this amendment; (25) "Physical control" means being in the operator's position of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, watercraft, or aircraft and having possession of the vehicle's, streetcar's, trackless trolley's, watercraft's, or aircraft's ignition key or other ignition device. (B) As used in the Revised Code, the "division of marijuana control" means the division of cannabis control and the "superintendent of marijuana control" means the superintendent of cannabis control. Whenever the division of marijuana control or the superintendent of marijuana control is referred to or designated in any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference or designation shall be deemed to refer to the division of cannabis control or the superintendent of cannabis control, as indicated by context. (C) Notwithstanding any conflicting provision of Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code or the rules adopted under it, for purposes of this chapter, marijuana is a schedule II controlled substance. Last updated January 12, 2026 at 11:26 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3752.05 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3752 / § 3752.05
§ 3752.05. Designating contact person for facility
Status: in_force

July 1, 1996 House Bill 98 - 120th General Assembly (A) Each owner or operator who is required to submit a notice of cessation of all regulated operations under section 3752.04 of the Revised Code and a certification of the removal of regulated substances under section 3752.06 of the Revised Code shall designate a contact person in connection with the reporting facility. The contact person shall have the responsibility to provide access to the facility named in the notice and certification to the director of environmental protection or his authorized representative to inspect the facility for the purpose of ascertaining compliance with this chapter and rules adopted and orders issued under it. In addition, the director or his authorized representative may request information regarding the facility and compliance with this chapter and rules adopted and orders issued under it from the contact person and may notify the contact person of emergencies and other occurrences at the facility; however, the designation of a contact person does not preclude the director or his authorized representative from requesting any such information from or making any such notification to the owner or operator. (B) The written designation of the contact person shall accompany the notice of the cessation of all regulated operations at the facility submitted under section 3752.04 of the Revised Code. The written designation shall include the address of the principal office of the owner or operator and the business or residence address and telephone number of the contact person and otherwise shall be in such form as the director prescribes. (C) An owner or operator shall maintain a contact person for the purposes of this chapter until the director has concurred in the owner's or operator's certification of compliance with section 3752.06 of the Revised Code. If the contact person changes, the owner or operator, within fourteen days after the change, shall provide the director with the name and business or residence address and telephone number of the new contact person in such form and manner as the director prescribes. (D) If the designated contact person changes his residence or business address or telephone number from that appearing on the record in the director's office, the owner or operator, or the contact person on behalf of the owner or operator, shall provide the director with the new address or telephone number in such form and manner as the director prescribes. (E) No person shall fail to comply with this section.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3715.504 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3715 / § 3715.504
§ 3715.504. Administering overdose reversal drugs
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 558 - 134th General Assembly (A) In the case of an individual who is not otherwise authorized under the Revised Code to administer drugs, the individual may administer an overdose reversal drug under this section. This authority may be exercised by any individual who is in a position to assist another individual who is apparently experiencing an opioid-related overdose. (B) An individual who administers an overdose reversal drug under the authority conferred by division (A) of this section is not liable for damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property for an act or omission that arises from administering the drug, and not subject to administrative action or criminal prosecution for an act or omission that arises from administering the drug, if the individual, acting in good faith, does all of the following: (1) Obtains the overdose reversal drug under section 3715.50 , 3715.501 , 3715.502 , or 3715.503 or the Revised Code; (2) Administers the overdose reversal drug to an individual who is apparently experiencing an opioid-related overdose; (3) Attempts to summon emergency services as soon as practicable either before or after administering the overdose reversal drug, except that making such an attempt is not required if the individual administering the drug knows that emergency services already have been summoned or are present. Last updated May 22, 2025 at 1:01 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3709.21 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3709 / § 3709.21
§ 3709.21. Orders and regulations of board of general health district
Status: in_force

September 29, 2011 House Bill 153 - 129th General Assembly The board of health of a general health district may make such orders and regulations as are necessary for its own government, for the public health, the prevention or restriction of disease, and the prevention, abatement, or suppression of nuisances. Such board may require that no human, animal, or household wastes from sanitary installations within the district be discharged into a storm sewer, open ditch, or watercourse without a permit therefor having been secured from the board under such terms as the board requires. All orders and regulations not for the government of the board, but intended for the general public, shall be adopted, recorded, and certified as are ordinances of municipal corporations and the record thereof shall be given in all courts the same effect as is given such ordinances, but the advertisements of such orders and regulations shall be by publication in a newspaper of general circulation within the district. Publication shall be made once a week for two consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, and such orders and regulations shall take effect and be in force ten days from the date of the first publication. In cases of emergency caused by epidemics of contagious or infectious diseases, or conditions or events endangering the public health, the board may declare such orders and regulations to be emergency measures, and such orders and regulations shall become effective immediately without such advertising, recording, and certifying.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3723.05 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3723 / § 3723.05
§ 3723.05. Using services of radon laboratory
Status: in_force

July 24, 1990 House Bill 279 - 118th General Assembly (A) No licensed radon tester shall use the services of a radon laboratory that has not been approved under section 3723.07 of the Revised Code. (B) No licensed radon mitigation contractor shall do any of the following: (1) Perform radon mitigation without the direct on-site supervision of a licensed radon mitigation specialist; (2) Provide radon testing services other than through the employment of a licensed radon tester or mitigation specialist; (3) Provide advice regarding radon testing, radon exposure, or health risks associated with radon exposure other than through the employment of a licensed radon tester or mitigation specialist; (4) Provide advice regarding radon mitigation or radon entry routes other than through the employment of a licensed radon mitigation specialist. (C) No licensed radon tester, licensed radon mitigation specialist, or licensed radon mitigation contractor involved in the testing of a particular building, or in the provision of advice with respect to a particular building, shall be involved in the performance of mitigation on that building unless the contract for mitigation is in writing and clearly and conspicuously states both of the following: (1) That the radon tester, mitigation specialist, or mitigation contractor was involved in the testing or provision of advice that led to the mitigation contract; (2) The advantages of long-term testing and the value of a second opinion as ways to verify test results and to assure that the proposed mitigation is appropriate, especially when the mitigation is to be performed by the tester, mitigation specialist, or mitigation contractor that was involved in the testing or provision of advice that led to the mitigation contract. (D) No licensed radon tester, licensed radon mitigation specialist, or licensed radon mitigation contractor shall perform radon testing or mitigation or provide any advice related to radon, radon testing, or radon mitigation unless it is performed in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted under it. (E) No licensed radon tester, licensed radon mitigation specialist, or licensed radon mitigation contractor shall violate any requirement of this chapter or any rule adopted under it.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3712.061 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3712 / § 3712.061
§ 3712.061. Pediatric respite care program; requirements
Status: in_force

April 6, 2023 House Bill 558 - 134th General Assembly (A) Any person or public agency licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a pediatric respite care program shall do all of the following: (1) Provide a planned and continuous pediatric respite care program, the medical components of which shall be under the direction of a physician; (2) Ensure that care commensurate with a pediatric respite care patient's needs is available twenty-four hours a day and seven days a week; (3) Establish an interdisciplinary plan of care for each pediatric respite care patient and the patient's family that: (a) Is coordinated by one designated individual who shall ensure that all components of the plan of care are addressed and implemented; (b) Addresses maintenance of patient-family participation in decision making related to the patient's health care and well-being; and (c) Is reviewed by the patient's attending physician and by the patient's interdisciplinary team immediately prior to or on admission to each session of respite care. (4) Have an interdisciplinary team or teams that provide or supervise the provision of pediatric respite care program services and establish the policies governing the provision of the services; (5) Maintain central clinical records on all pediatric respite care patients under its care. (B) A provider of a pediatric respite care program may include pharmacist services among the other services that are made available to its pediatric respite care patients. (C) A provider of a pediatric respite care program may arrange for another person or public agency to furnish a component or components of the pediatric respite care program pursuant to a written contract. When a provider of a pediatric respite care program arranges for a home health agency to furnish a component or components of the pediatric respite care program to its patient, the care shall be provided by a home health agency pursuant to a written contract under which: (1) The provider of a pediatric respite care program furnishes to the contractor a copy of the pediatric respite care patient's interdisciplinary plan of care that is established under division (A)(3) of this section and specifies the care that is to be furnished by the contractor; (2) The regimen described in the established plan of care is continued while the pediatric respite care patient receives care from the contractor, subject to the patient's needs, and with approval of the coordinator of the interdisciplinary team designated pursuant to division (A)(3)(a) of this section; (3) All care, treatment, and services furnished by the contractor are entered into the pediatric respite care patient's medical record; (4) The designated coordinator of the interdisciplinary team ensures conformance with the established plan of care; and (5) A copy of the contractor's medical record and discharge summary is retained as part of the pediatric respite care patient's medical record. Last updated March 15, 2023 at 12:45 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3702.967 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3702 / § 3702.967
§ 3702.967. Gifts
Status: in_force

October 17, 2019 House Bill 166 - 133rd General Assembly The director of health may accept gifts of money from any source for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.96 to 3702.965 of the Revised Code. The director shall pay all gifts accepted under this section and all damages collected under division (C)(3) of section 3702.965 of the Revised Code into the state treasury to the credit of the dental hygienist loan repayment fund, which is hereby created. The director shall use the dental hygienist loan repayment fund for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.96 to 3702.967 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3794.09 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3794 / § 3794.09
§ 3794.09. Enforcement; penalties
Status: in_force

September 29, 2023 Senate Bill 21, House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly Enforcement; Penalties. (A) Upon the receipt of a first report that a proprietor of a public place or place of employment or an individual has violated any provision of this chapter, the department of health or its designee shall investigate the report and, if it concludes that there was a violation, issue a warning letter to the proprietor or individual. (B) Upon a report of a second or subsequent violation of any provision of this chapter by a proprietor of a public place or place of employment or an individual, the department of health or its designee shall investigate the report. If the director of health or director's designee concludes, based on all of the information before the director or the director's designee, that there was a violation, the director or the director's designee shall impose a civil fine upon the proprietor or individual in accordance with the schedule of fines required to be promulgated under section 3794.07 of the Revised Code. (C) Any proprietor or individual against whom a finding of a violation is made under this chapter may appeal the finding in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code. (D) The director of health may institute an action in the court of common pleas seeking an order in equity against a proprietor or individual that has repeatedly violated the provisions of this chapter or fails to comply with its provisions. Last updated August 7, 2023 at 2:37 PM Disclaimer Contact About
Ohio Rev. Code § 3781.191 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3781 / § 3781.191
§ 3781.191. Board jurisdiction regarding residential building code
Status: in_force

September 29, 2005 House Bill 66 - 126th General Assembly The Ohio board of building appeals has no authority to hear any case based on the Ohio residential building code or to grant any variance to the Ohio residential building code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3704.15 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3704 / § 3704.15
§ 3704.15. Prohibiting sale of fluorocarbon aerosol products
Status: in_force

April 15, 1979 House Bill 232 - 112th General Assembly (A) No person shall sell, expose for sale, or offer to sell any aerosol spray can which contains as a propellant trichloromonofluoromethane, dichlorodifluoromethane, or any other saturated chlorofluorocarbon compound that does not contain hydrogen, except an aerosol spray can designed for administering any drug for the treatment of asthma or another respiratory disease through a device that measures the dosage, administering a prescription drug, or use in a surgical procedure, or an aerosol spray can the use of which is designated an essential use by the director of environmental protection in accordance with division (B) of this section. However, a particular product may be sold, exposed for sale, or offered for sale, in such a can at retail from a retailer's inventory that remains at the end of the day on April 14, 1979, if his inventory of the product during April, 1979 does not exceed his average monthly inventory of the product during the previous twenty-four calendar months. (B) The director of environmental protection shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing the essential uses of aerosol spray cans containing as a propellant trichloromonofluoromethane, dichlorodifluoromethane, or any other saturated chlorofluorocarbon that does not contain hydrogen. The director shall designate as being an essential use of such aerosol spray cans only those uses so designated under the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040, 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the "Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2003, 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, or the "Consumer Product Safety Act," 86 Stat. 1207, 15 U.S.C.A. 2051, as amended.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3712.07 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3712 / § 3712.07
§ 3712.07. Terminal care facilities for the homeless
Status: in_force

September 29, 2013 House Bill 59 - 130th General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "terminal care facility for the homeless" means a facility that provides accommodations to homeless individuals who are terminally ill. (B) A person or public agency licensed under this chapter to provide a hospice care program may enter into an agreement with a terminal care facility for the homeless under which hospice care program services may be provided to individuals residing at the facility, if all of the following apply: (1) Each resident of the facility has been diagnosed by a physician as having a terminal condition and an anticipated life expectancy of six months or less; (2) No resident of the facility has a relative or other person willing or capable of providing the care necessary to cope with the resident's terminal illness or is financially capable of hiring a person to provide such care; (3) Each resident of the facility is under the direct care of a physician; (4) No resident of the facility requires the staff of the facility to administer medication by injection; (5) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly or indirectly, from the residents; (6) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly or indirectly, from the medicaid program or the medicare program; (7) The facility meets all applicable state and federal health and safety standards, including standards for fire prevention, maintenance of safe and sanitary conditions, and proper preparation and storage of foods. (C) Hospice care program services may be provided at a terminal care facility for the homeless only by the personnel of the person or public agency that has entered into an agreement with the facility under this section. (D) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has entered into an agreement under this section may assist its residents with the self-administration of medication if the medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not administered by injection. In the event that a resident has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert, the facility may administer medication to that resident if the medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not administered by injection. Determinations of whether an individual has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert shall be based on directions from the personnel who provide hospice care program services at the facility.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3745.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3745 / § 3745.03
§ 3745.03. Hearing procedures
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly (A) The environmental review appeals commission shall adopt or amend, as appropriate, regulations governing procedure to be followed for hearings before it, including regulations governing all of the following: (1) Expedited hearings; (2) Expedited decisions; (3) Stays. (B) No regulation adopted by the commission shall be effective until the tenth day after it has been adopted by the filing of a certified copy thereof with the secretary of state who shall record them under the heading "regulations of the environmental review appeals commission." The regulations shall be numbered consecutively under the heading and shall bear the date of filing. The regulations shall be public records open to public inspection. (C) No regulation filed in the office of the secretary of state pursuant to this section shall be amended except by a regulation which contains the entire regulation as amended and which repeals the regulation amended. Each regulation which amends a regulation shall bear the same consecutive regulation number as the number of the regulation which it amends, and it shall bear the date of filing. (D) No regulation filed in the office of the secretary of state pursuant to this section shall be repealed except by a regulation. Each regulation which repeals a regulation shall bear the same consecutive regulation number as the number of the regulation which it repeals, and it shall bear the date of filing. (E) The authority and the duty of the commission to adopt regulations under this section shall not be governed by or be subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (F) The commission shall have available at all times copies of all regulations of the commission which it has filed in the office of the secretary of state pursuant to this section, and shall furnish them free of charge to any person requesting them. (G) The commission shall maintain and keep available for public inspection, at its principal office, a current register of all appeals filed, hearings pending, its final action thereon, and the dates on which such filings, hearings, and final actions occur.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3719.15 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3719 / § 3719.15
§ 3719.15. Exceptions
Status: in_force

July 22, 1998 Senate Bill 66 - 122nd General Assembly This chapter and Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code shall not apply, except as specifically provided otherwise in those chapters, to the following cases: (A) Where a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs administers or personally furnishes, or where a pharmacist sells at retail, any medicinal preparation that contains in thirty milliliters, or if a solid or semisolid preparation, in thirty grams, of any of the following: (1) Not more than one hundred thirty milligrams of opium; (2) Not more than sixteen and twenty-five one hundreths milligrams of morphine or of any of its salts; (3) Not more than sixty-five milligrams of codeine or of any of its salts; (4) Not more than thirty-two and five-tenths milligrams of dihydrocodeine or any of its salts; (5) Not more than sixteen and twenty-five one hundreths milligrams of ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Each preparation specified in divisions (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section shall in addition contain one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone. (6) Pharmaceutical preparations in solid form containing not more than two and five-tenths milligrams diphenoxylate and not less than twenty-five micrograms atropine sulfate per dosage unit. (B) Where a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs administers or personally furnishes, or where a pharmacist sells at retail, liniments, ointments, and other preparations, that are susceptible of external use only and that contain narcotic drugs in a combination that prevents the drugs from being readily extracted from the liniments, ointments, or preparations, except that this chapter and Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code shall apply to all liniments, ointments, and other preparations that contain coca leaves in any quantity or combination. The medicinal preparation, or the liniment, ointment, or other preparation susceptible of external use only, prescribed, personally furnished, administered, dispensed, or sold, shall contain, in addition to the narcotic drug in it, some drug or drugs conferring upon it medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone. The preparation shall be prescribed, personally furnished, administered, compounded, dispensed, and sold in good faith as a medicine, and not for the purpose of evading this chapter or Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3701.96 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3701 / § 3701.96
§ 3701.96. Fees for zoonotic disease programs
Status: in_force

September 29, 2013 House Bill 59 - 130th General Assembly As used in this section, "board of health" means a board of health of a city or general health district or an authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code. If a zoonotic disease program is administered by the department of health, the director of health may charge a board of health a fee for each service the program provides to the board. The fee amount shall be determined by the director and be commensurate with the department's cost to provide the service. The board shall pay the fee associated with a service at the time the service is provided.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3701.353 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3701 / § 3701.353
§ 3701.353. Business Fairness Act - operations during pandemic, epidemic, or bioterrorism event
Status: in_force

March 2, 2022 House Bill 215 - 134th General Assembly Notwithstanding section 3701.352 of the Revised Code, a business does not violate that section and may continue or resume operations if both of the following are true: (A) The business has been required to cease or limit operations by order or rule of the director or department of health that was issued under this chapter to prevent a threat to the public caused by a pandemic, epidemic, or bioterrorism event ; (B) The business complies with all safety precautions that the order or rule requires of businesses that are permitted to continue operations under the order or rule. This section does not apply to an order or rule of the director or department of health that is issued under this chapter and applicable only to a particular business or business location due to circumstances uniquely present at that particular business or business location. Last updated December 14, 2021 at 4:57 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3721.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3721 / § 3721.01
§ 3721.01. Nursing home and residential care facility definitions and classifications
Status: in_force

March 20, 2025 Senate Bill 196 - 135th General Assembly (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 3721.99 of the Revised Code: (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code. (b) "Home" also means both of the following: (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 3702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the version of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989; (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been licensed as a residential care facility. (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following: (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 5122.01 of the Revised Code; (ii) A residential facility as defined in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code; (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; (iv) A community addiction services provider as defined in section 5119.01 of the Revised Code; (v) A facility licensed under section 5119.37 of the Revised Code to operate an opioid treatment program; (vi) A facility providing services under contract with the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised Code; (vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for care of hospice patients; (viii) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for the care of pediatric respite care patients or a location operated by a pediatric transition care program registered under section 3712.042 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for the care of pediatric transition care patients; (ix) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and does not participate in the medicare program or the medicaid program if on January 1, 1994, the facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to members of the religious order; (x) A county home or district home that has never been licensed as a residential care facility. (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or uncle. (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness, as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or developmental disability, as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code. (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited to, the following: (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, and supervision of special diets; (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment; (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation; (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including observation of the patient after receipt of the medication; (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in administration. (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but not limited to, the following: (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living; (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code; (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician, certified nurse-midwife if authorized as described in section 4723.438 of the Revised Code, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse practitioner, or licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code. (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be providing personal care services. (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and skilled nursing care. (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides either of the following: (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code. (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or mental impairment. The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home. (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code. (10) "Change of operator" includes circumstances in which an entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home in the place of the exiting operator. (a) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the following: (i) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal organization, including the formation of a partnership or corporation from a sole proprietorship; (ii) A change in operational control of the nursing home, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property or personal property associated with the nursing home is also transferred; (iii) A lease of the nursing home to the entering operator or termination of the exiting operator's lease; (iv) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of the partnership, a merger of the partnership into another person that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of the partnership and at least one other person to form a new person; (v) If the exiting operator is a limited liability company, dissolution of the limited liability company, a merger of the limited liability company into another person that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of the limited liability company and at least one other person to form a new person; (vi) If the exiting operator is a corporation, dissolution of the corporation, a merger of the corporation into another person that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of the corporation and at least one other person to form a new person; (vii) A contract for a person to assume operational control of a nursing home; (viii) A change of fifty per cent or more in the ownership of the licensed operator that results in a change of operational control; (ix) Any pledge, assignment, or hypothecation of or lien or other encumbrance on any of the legal or beneficial equity interests in the operator or a person with operational control. (b) The following do not constitute a change of operator: (i) Actions necessary to create an employee stock ownership plan under section 401(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code," 26 U.S.C. 401(a); (ii) A change of ownership of real property or personal property associated with a nursing home; (iii) If the operator is a corporation that has securities publicly traded in a marketplace, a change of one or more members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the same corporation continues to be the operator; (iv) An initial public offering for which the securities and exchange commission has declared the registration statement effective, and the newly created public company remains the operator. (11) "Related party" means an individual or organization that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled by, the entering operator. (a) An individual who is a relative of an entering operator is a related party. (b) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership or equity in both the entering operator and a supplier. Significant ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the entering operator and another organization from which the entering operator purchases or leases real property. (c) Control exists when an individual or organization has the power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or direct the actions or policies of an organization. (d) An individual or organization that supplies goods or services to an entering operator shall not be considered a related party if all of the following conditions are met: (i) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization. (ii) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of the type carried on with the entering operator is transacted with others than the entering operator and there is an open, competitive market for the types of goods or services the supplier furnishes. (iii) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by other nursing homes from outside organizations and are not a basic element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients by nursing homes. (iv) The charge to the entering operator is in line with the charge for the goods or services in the open market and not more than the charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the supplier. (12) "SFF list" means the list of nursing facilities created by the United States department of health and human services under the special focus facility program. (13) "Special focus facility program" means the program conducted by the United States secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1919(f)(10) of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396r(f)(10). (14) "Real and present danger" means immediate danger of serious physical or life-threatening harm to one or more occupants of a home. (15) "Operator" means a person or government entity responsible for the operational control of a nursing home and that holds both of the following: (a) A license to operate the nursing home issued under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code, if such a license is required by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code; (b) A medicaid provider agreement issued under section 5165.07 of the Revised Code, if applicable. (16) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity that will become the operator of a nursing home when a change of operator occurs or following a license revocation. (17) "Relative of entering operator" means an individual who is related to an entering operator of a nursing home by one of the following relationships: (a) Spouse; (b) Natural parent, child, or sibling; (c) Adopted parent, child, or sibling; (d) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister; (e) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law; (f) Grandparent or grandchild; (g) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster sister. (18) "Exiting operator" means any of the following: (a) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a nursing home on the effective date of a change of operator; (b) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a nursing home on the effective date of a facility closure; (c) An operator of a nursing home that is undergoing or has undergone a surrender of license; (d) An operator of a nursing home that is undergoing or has undergone a license revocation. (19) "Operational control" means having the ability to direct the overall operations and cash flow of a nursing home. "Operational control" may be exercised by one person or by multiple persons acting together or by a government entity, and may exist by means of any of the following: (a) The person, persons, or government entity directly operating the nursing home; (b) The person, persons, or government entity directly or indirectly owning fifty per cent or more of the operator of the nursing home; (c) An agreement or other arrangement granting the person, persons, or government entity operational control of the nursing home. (20) "Property owner" means any person or government entity that has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following regarding a nursing home: (a) The land on which the nursing home is located; (b) The structure in which the nursing home is located; (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in which the nursing home is located; (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in which the nursing home is located. "Property owner" does not include a holder of a debenture or bond related to the nursing home and purchased at public issue or a regulated lender that has made a loan related to the nursing home, unless the holder or lender operates the nursing home directly or through a subsidiary. (21) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code. (B) The director of health may further classify homes. For the purposes of this chapter, any residence, institution, hotel, congregate housing project, or similar facility that meets the definition of a home under this section is such a home regardless of how the facility holds itself out to the public. (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a facility if they are provided by a person employed by or associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services nor the resident's sponsor is a party. (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an individual who does not require skilled nursing care. Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual who is capable of performing the activity in question without assistance. (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix) of this section does not prohibit a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that division from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code. (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any recognized church or religious denomination. Last updated January 24, 2025 at 10:30 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 3742.20 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3742 / § 3742.20
§ 3742.20. Effect of child support default on license
Status: in_force

March 22, 2001 Senate Bill 180 - 123rd General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 3703.99 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 37 / Chapter 3703 / § 3703.99
§ 3703.99. Penalty
Status: in_force

September 10, 2012 House Bill 487 - 129th General Assembly Whoever violates sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code, or any rule the division of industrial compliance is required to enforce under such sections, shall be fined not less than ten nor more than one hundred dollars or imprisoned for not less than ten nor more than ninety days, or both. No person shall be imprisoned under this section for the first offense, and the prosecution always shall be as for a first offense unless the affidavit upon which the prosecution is instituted contains the allegation that the offense is a second or repeated offense. Disclaimer Contact About