Ohio Rev. Code § 4705.09 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4705 / § 4705.09
§ 4705.09. Depositing client funds
Status: in_force

March 22, 2019 House Bill 595 - 132nd General Assembly (A)(1) Any person admitted to the practice of law in this state by order of the supreme court in accordance with its prescribed and published rules, or any law firm or legal professional association, may establish and maintain an interest-bearing trust account, for purposes of depositing client funds held by the attorney, firm, or association that are nominal in amount or are to be held by the attorney, firm, or association for a short period of time, with any bank, savings bank, or savings and loan association that is authorized to do business in this state and is insured by the federal deposit insurance corporation or the successor to that corporation, or any credit union insured by the national credit union administration operating under the "Federal Credit Union Act," 84 Stat. 994 (1970), 12 U.S.C. 1751, or insured by a credit union share guaranty corporation established under Chapter 1761. of the Revised Code. Each account established under this division shall be in the name of the attorney, firm, or association that established and is maintaining it and shall be identified as an IOLTA or an interest on lawyer's trust account. The name of the account may contain additional identifying features to distinguish it from other trust accounts established and maintained by the attorney, firm, or association. (2) Each attorney who receives funds belonging to a client shall do one of the following: (a) Establish and maintain one or more interest-bearing trust accounts in accordance with division (A)(1) of this section or maintain one or more interest-bearing trust accounts previously established in accordance with that division, and deposit all client funds held that are nominal in amount or are to be held by the attorney for a short period of time in the account or accounts; (b) If the attorney is affiliated with a law firm or legal professional association, comply with division (A)(2)(a) of this section or deposit all client funds held that are nominal in amount or are to be held by the attorney for a short period of time in one or more interest-bearing trust accounts established and maintained by the firm or association in accordance with division (A)(1) of this section. (3) No funds belonging to any attorney, firm, or legal professional association shall be deposited in any interest-bearing trust account established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, except that funds sufficient to pay or enable a waiver of depository institution service charges on the account shall be deposited in the account and other funds belonging to the attorney, firm, or association may be deposited as authorized by the Code of Professional Responsibility adopted by the supreme court. The determinations of whether funds held are nominal or more than nominal in amount and of whether funds are to be held for a short period or longer than a short period of time rests in the sound judgment of the particular attorney. No imputation of professional misconduct shall arise from the attorney's exercise of judgment in these matters. (B) All interest earned on funds deposited in an interest-bearing trust account established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state for deposit in the legal aid fund established under section 120.52 of the Revised Code. No part of the interest earned on funds deposited in an interest-bearing trust account established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be paid to, or inure to the benefit of, the attorney, the attorney's law firm or legal professional association, the client or other person who owns or has a beneficial ownership of the funds deposited, or any other person other than in accordance with this section, section 4705.10 , and sections 120.51 to 120.55 of the Revised Code. (C) No liability arising out of any act or omission by any attorney, law firm, or legal professional association with respect to any interest-bearing trust account established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be imputed to the depository institution. (D) The supreme court may adopt and enforce rules of professional conduct that pertain to the use, by attorneys, law firms, or legal professional associations, of interest-bearing trust accounts established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, and that pertain to the enforcement of division (A)(2) of this section. Any rules adopted by the supreme court under this authority shall conform to the provisions of this section, section 4705.10 , and sections 120.51 to 120.55 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.09 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.09
§ 4729.09. Reciprocity
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly The state board of pharmacy shall issue a license to practice pharmacy in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (A) The applicant holds a license in another state. (B) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter as a pharmacist in a state that does not issue that license. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:24 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4765.56 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4765 / § 4765.56
§ 4765.56. Effect of child support default on certificate to practice
Status: in_force

July 1, 2013 House Bill 51 - 130th General Assembly On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate to practice issued pursuant to this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4761.05 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4761 / § 4761.05
§ 4761.05. Issuing license, permits
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly (A) Except as provided in division (C) of section 4761.04 of the Revised Code, the state medical board shall issue a license to any applicant who complies with the requirements of section 4761.04 of the Revised Code, files the prescribed application form, and pays the fee or fees required under section 4761.07 of the Revised Code. The license entitles the holder to practice respiratory care. (B)(1) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the board shall issue a limited permit to any applicant who files an application on a form furnished by the board, pays the fee required under section 4761.07 of the Revised Code, and meets either of the following requirements: (a) Is enrolled in and is in good standing in a respiratory care educational program approved by the board that meets the requirements of division (A)(1) of section 4761.04 of the Revised Code leading to a degree or certificate of completion or is a graduate of the program; (b) Is employed as a provider of respiratory care in this state and was employed as a provider of respiratory care in this state prior to March 14, 1989. (2) If no grounds apply under section 4761.09 of the Revised Code for denying a limited permit to the applicant and the applicant meets the requirements of division (B) of this section, the board shall issue a limited permit to the applicant. The limited permit authorizes the holder to provide respiratory care under the supervision of a respiratory care professional. A person issued a limited permit under division (B)(1)(a) of this section may practice respiratory care under the limited permit for not more than three years after the date the limited permit is issued, except that the limited permit shall cease to be valid one year following the date of receipt of a certificate of completion from a board-approved respiratory care education program or immediately if the holder discontinues participation in the educational program. The holder shall notify the board as soon as practicable when the holder completes a board-approved respiratory care education program or discontinues participation in the educational program. This division does not require a student enrolled in an educational program leading to a degree or certificate of completion in respiratory care approved by the board to obtain a limited permit to perform any duties that are part of the required course of study. (3) A person issued a limited permit under division (B)(1)(b) of this section may practice under a limited permit for not more than three years, except that this restriction does not apply to a permit holder who, on March 14, 1989, has been employed as a provider of respiratory care for an average of not less than twenty-five hours per week for a period of not less than five years by a hospital. (4) During the three-year period in which a person may practice under a limited permit, the person shall apply for renewal on an annual basis in accordance with section 4761.06 of the Revised Code. (5) The board may revoke a limited permit upon proof satisfactory to the board that the permit holder has engaged in practice in this state outside the scope of the permit, that the holder has engaged in unethical conduct, or that there are grounds for action against the holder under section 4761.09 of the Revised Code. (C) The holder of a license or limited permit issued under this section shall either provide verification of licensure or permit status from the board's internet web site on request or prominently display a wall certificate in the license holder's office or place where the majority of the holder's practice is conducted. (D) The board shall issue a limited permit to practice respiratory care in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (1) The applicant holds a license or permit in another state. (2) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter as a provider of respiratory care in a state that does not issue that license or permit. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 5:48 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4719.15 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4719 / § 4719.15
§ 4719.15. Civil action by purchaser
Status: in_force

December 5, 1996 Senate Bill 214 - 121st General Assembly (A) A purchaser injured by a violation of a provision of sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of the Revised Code or a rule adopted under any provision of those sections may bring a civil action against the telephone solicitor or salesperson who committed the violation for damages in a court of common pleas and may apply to the court for an order enjoining the violation. Upon the purchaser's showing that the telephone solicitor or salesperson has committed a violation of one of those sections or rules, the court shall grant an injunction, temporary restraining order, or other appropriate relief. (B) If a court awards damages under division (A) of this section, the court shall award damages in an amount that is not less than the amount that the purchaser paid to the telephone solicitor or salesperson and shall order the telephone solicitor or salesperson to pay reasonable attorney's fees and court costs to the purchaser. (C) The court may award the purchaser punitive or exemplary damages upon the purchaser's showing that the telephone solicitor or salesperson knowingly committed an act or practice that violated a provision of sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of the Revised Code. (D) An action under this section shall be brought within two years after the date of the telephone solicitation upon which the action is based.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4760.032 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4760 / § 4760.032
§ 4760.032. License applicant to comply with RC Chapter 4776
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for a license to practice as an anesthesiologist assistant shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 4:56 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4741.57 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4741 / § 4741.57
§ 4741.57. Certified amount for transfers to program fund
Status: in_force

April 12, 2021 House Bill 67 - 133rd General Assembly On August 1, 2021, and every two years thereafter, the state veterinary medical licensing board shall certify to the director of budget and management the amount resulting from the following formula: 0.9 X {(the board's total revenue credited to the occupational licensing and regulatory fund during the previous biennium) - [(the board's amount of actual expenditures during the first fiscal year of the previous biennium) + (the amount appropriated to the board during the second fiscal year of the previous biennium)]}.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4734.202 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4734 / § 4734.202
§ 4734.202. License applicant to comply with RC Chapter 4776
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "license" and "applicant for an initial license" have the same meanings as in section 4776.01 of the Revised Code, except that "license" as used in both of those terms refers to the types of authorizations otherwise issued or conferred under this chapter. (B) In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for an initial license shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The state chiropractic board shall not grant a license to an applicant for an initial license unless the applicant complies with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 5:09 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4753.17 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4753 / § 4753.17
§ 4753.17. Audiology and speech-language pathology interstate compact
Status: in_force

September 30, 2021 House Bill 252 - 134th General Assembly The "Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by the state of Ohio as a party to the compact with any other state that has legally joined in the compact as follows: SECTION 1: PURPOSE The purpose of this Compact is to facilitate interstate practice of audiology and speech-language pathology with the goal of improving public access to audiology and speech-language pathology services. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology occurs in the state where the patient/client/ student is located at the time of the patient/client/student encounter. The Compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure. This Compact is designed to achieve the following objectives: 1. Increase public access to audiology and speech-language pathology services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses; 2. Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety; 3. Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multistate audiology and speech-language pathology practice; 4. Support spouses of relocating active duty military personnel; 5. Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative and disciplinary information between member states; 6. Allow a remote state to hold a provider of services with a compact privilege in that state accountable to that state's practice standards; and 7. Allow for the use of telehealth technology to facilitate increased access to audiology and speech-language pathology services. SECTION 2: DEFINITIONS As used in this Compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following definitions shall apply: A. "Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. Chapter 1209 and 1211. B. "Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable or criminal action permitted by a state's laws which is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against an audiologist or speech-language pathologist, including actions against an individual's license or privilege to practice such as revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, or restriction on the licensee's practice. C. "Alternative program" means a non-disciplinary monitoring process approved by an audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to address impaired practitioners. D. "Audiologist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice audiology. E. "Audiology" means the care and services provided by a licensed audiologist as set forth in the member state's statutes and rules. F. "Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Compact Commission" or "Commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the Compact. G. "Audiology and speech-language pathology licensing board," "audiology licensing board," "speech-language pathology licensing board," or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of audiologists and/or speech-language pathologists. H. "Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of audiology or speech-language pathology occurs in the member state where the patient/client/student is located at the time of the patient/client/student encounter. I. "Current significant investigative information" means investigative information that a licensing board, after an inquiry or investigation that includes notification and an opportunity for the audiologist or speech-language pathologist to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction. J. "Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including, but not limited to, continuing education, examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege and adverse action. K. "Encumbered license" means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology by the licensee and said adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank (NPDB). L. "Executive Committee" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission. M. "Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence. N. "Impaired practitioner" means individuals whose professional practice is adversely affected by substance abuse, addiction, or other health-related conditions. O. "Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state licensing board to practice as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist. P. "Member state" means a state that has enacted the Compact. Q. "Privilege to practice" means a legal authorization permitting the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology in a remote state. R. "Remote state" means a member state other than the home state where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege. S. "Rule" means a regulation, principle or directive promulgated by the Commission that has the force of law. T. "Single-state license" means an audiology or speech-language pathology license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a privilege to practice in any other member state. U. "Speech-language pathologist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice speech-language pathology. V. "Speech-language pathology means the care and services provided by a licensed speech-language pathologist as set forth in the member state's statutes and rules. W. "State" means any state, commonwealth, district or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of audiology and speech-language pathology. X. "State practice laws" means a member state's laws, rules and regulations that govern the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology, define the scope of audiology or speech-language pathology practice, and create the methods and grounds for imposing discipline. Y. "Telehealth" means the application of telecommunication, audio-visual, or other technologies that meet the applicable standard of care to deliver audiology or speech-language pathology services at a distance for assessment, intervention and/or consultation. SECTION 3. STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT A. A license issued to an audiologist or speech-language pathologist by a home state to a resident in that state shall be recognized by each member state as authorizing an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to practice audiology or speech-language pathology, under a privilege to practice, in each member state where the licensee obtains such a privilege. B. A state must implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for initial privilege to practice. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records. 1. A member state must fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and use the results in making licensure decisions. 2. Communication between a member state, the Commission and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the Compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under Public Law 92-544. C. Upon application for a privilege to practice, the licensing board in the issuing remote state shall ascertain, through the data system, whether the applicant has ever held, or is the holder of, a license issued by any other state, whether there are any encumbrances on any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant, whether any adverse action has been taken against any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant. D. Each member state shall require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as, all other applicable state laws. E. For an audiologist: 1. Must meet one of the following educational requirements: a. On or before, Dec. 31, 2007, has graduated with a master's degree or doctorate in audiology, or equivalent degree regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; or b. On or after, Jan. 1, 2008, has graduated with a Doctoral degree in audiology, or equivalent degree, regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; or c. Has graduated from an audiology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States (a) for which the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and (b) the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program. 2. Has completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an accredited educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the Commission; 3. Has successfully passed a national examination approved by the Commission; 4. Holds an active, unencumbered license; 5. Has not been convicted or found guilty, and has not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of audiology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; 6. Has a valid United States Social Security or National Practitioner Identification number. F. For a speech-language pathologist: 1. Must meet one of the following educational requirements: a. Has graduated with a master's degree from a speech-language pathology program that is accredited by an organization recognized by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; or b. Has graduated from a speech-language pathology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States (a) for which the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and (b) the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program. 2. Has completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the Commission; 3. Has completed a supervised postgraduate professional experience as required by the Commission; 4. Has successfully passed a national examination approved by the Commission; 5. Holds an active, unencumbered license; 6. Has not been convicted or found guilty, and has not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of speech-language pathology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; 7. Has a valid United States Social Security or National Practitioner Identification number. G. The privilege to practice is derived from the home state license. H. An audiologist or speech-language pathologist practicing in a member state must comply with the state practice laws of the state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology shall include all audiology and speech-language pathology practice as defined by the state practice laws of the member state in which the client is located. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology in a member state under a privilege to practice shall subject an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to the jurisdiction of the licensing board, the courts and the laws of the member state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. I. Individuals not residing in a member state shall continue to be able to apply for a member state's single-state license as provided under the laws of each member state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting the privilege to practice audiology or speech-language pathology in any other member state. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license. J. Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege. K. Member states must comply with the bylaws and rules and regulations of the Commission. SECTION 4. COMPACT PRIVILEGE A. To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the Compact, the audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall: 1. Hold an active license in the home state; 2. Have no encumbrance on any state license; 3. Be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with Section 3; 4. Have not had any adverse action against any license or compact privilege within the previous 2 years from date of application; 5. Notify the Commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state(s); 6. Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege; 7. Report to the Commission adverse action taken by any non-member state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken. B. For the purposes of the compact privilege, an audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall only hold one home state license at a time. C. Except as provided in Section 6, if an audiologist or speech-language pathologist changes primary state of residence by moving between two-member states, the audiologist or speech-language pathologist must apply for licensure in the new home state, and the license issued by the prior home state shall be deactivated in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Commission. D. The audiologist or speech-language pathologist may apply for licensure in advance of a change in primary state of residence. E. A license shall not be issued by the new home state until the audiologist or speech-language pathologist provides satisfactory evidence of a change in primary state of residence to the new home state and satisfies all applicable requirements to obtain a license from the new home state. F. If an audiologist or speech-language pathologist changes primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a non-member state, the license issued by the prior home state shall convert to a single-state license, valid only in the former home state and the privilege to practice in any member state is deactivated in accordance with the rules promulgated by the Commission. G. The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of Section 4A to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state. H. A licensee providing audiology or speech-language pathology services in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state. I. A licensee providing audiology or speech-language pathology services in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and/or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. J. If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur: 1. The home state license is no longer encumbered; and 2. Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action. K. Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of Section 4A to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state. L. Once the requirements of Section 4J have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in Section 4A to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state. SECTION 5. COMPACT PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE TELEHEALTH Member states shall recognize the right of an audiologist or speech-language pathologist, licensed by a home state in accordance with Section 3 and under rules promulgated by the Commission, to practice audiology or speech-language pathology in any member state via telehealth under a privilege to practice as provided in the Compact and rules promulgated by the Commission. A licensee providing audiology or speech-language pathology services in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the state where the patient/client is located. SECTION 6. ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES Active duty military personnel, or their spouse, shall designate a home state where the individual has a current license in good standing. The individual may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, the individual shall only change their home state through application for licensure in the new state. SECTION 7. ADVERSE ACTIONS A. In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to: 1. Take adverse action against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice within that member state. 2. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located. 3. Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's license issued by the home state. B. For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action. C. The home state shall complete any pending investigations of an audiologist or speech-language pathologist who changes primary state of residence during the course of the investigations. The home state shall also have the authority to take appropriate action(s) and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions. D. If otherwise permitted by state law, the member state may recover from the affected audiologist or speech-language pathologist the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that audiologist or speech-language pathologist. E. The member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the member state follows the member state's own procedures for taking the adverse action. F. Joint Investigations 1. In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective audiology or speech-language pathology practice act or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees. 2. Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact. G. If adverse action is taken by the home state against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's license, the audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's license shall include a statement that the audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order. H. If a member state takes adverse action against a licensee, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state and any remote states in which the licensee has a privilege to practice of any adverse actions by the home state or remote states. I. Nothing in this Compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action. SECTION 8. ESTABLISHMENT OF THE AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY COMPACT COMMISSION A. The Compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Compact Commission: 1. The Commission is an instrumentality of the Compact states. 2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings. 3. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity. B. Membership, Voting and Meetings 1. Each member state shall have two (2) delegates selected by that member state's licensing board. The delegates shall be current members of the licensing board. One shall be an audiologist and one shall be a speech-language pathologist. 2. An additional five (5) delegates, who are either a public member or board administrator from a state licensing board, shall be chosen by the Executive Committee from a pool of nominees provided by the Commission at Large. 3. Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed. 4. The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring on the Commission, within 90 days. 5. Each delegate shall be entitled to one (1) vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. 6. A delegate shall vote in person or by other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication. 7. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws. C. The Commission shall have the following powers and duties: 1. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission; 2. Establish bylaws; 3. Establish a Code of Ethics; 4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; 5. Meet and take actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the bylaws; 6. Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states to the extent and in the manner provided for in the Compact; 7. Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any state audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected; 8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds; 9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state; 10. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters; 11. Accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services, and to receive, utilize and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and/or conflict of interest; 12. Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal or mixed; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety; 13. Sell convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed; 14. Establish a budget and make expenditures; 15. Borrow money; 16. Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, and other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws; 17. Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies; 18. Establish and elect an Executive Committee; and 19. Perform other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of audiology and speech-language pathology licensure and practice. The Commission shall have no authority to change or modify the laws of the member states that define the practice of audiology and speech-language pathology in the respective states. D. The Executive Committee The Executive Committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission, within the powers of the Commission, according to the terms of this Compact: 1. The Executive Committee shall be composed of ten (10) members: a. Seven (7) voting members who are elected by the Commission from the current membership of the Commission; b. Two (2) ex-officios, consisting of one nonvoting member from a recognized national audiology professional association and one nonvoting member from a recognized national speech-language pathology association; and c. One (1) ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization of the audiology and speech-language pathology licensing boards. E. The ex-officio members shall be selected by their respective organizations. 1. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Committee as provided in bylaws. 2. The Executive Committee shall meet at least annually. 3. The Executive Committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities: a. Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees paid by Compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission Compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege; b. Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise; c. Prepare and recommend the budget; d. Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission; e. Monitor Compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission; f. Establish additional committees as necessary; g. Other duties as provided in rules or bylaws. 4. Meetings of the Commission or Executive Committee All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Section 10. 5. The Commission or the Executive Committee or other committees of the Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the Commission or Executive Committee or other committees of the Commission must discuss: a. Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the Compact; b. The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures; c. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation; d. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate; e. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person; f. Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential; g. Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; h. Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes; i. Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; or j. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute. 6. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision. 7. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in minutes. All minutes and documents of meetings other than closed meetings shall be made available to members of the public upon request at the requesting person's expense. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction. 8. Financing of the Commission a. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities. b. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services. c. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states. 9. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state. 10. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission. F. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification 1. The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any person from suit and/or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. 2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct. 3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. SECTION 9. DATA SYSTEM A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action, and investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states. B. Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a member state shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the rules of the Commission, including: 1. Identifying information; 2. Licensure data; 3. Adverse actions against a license or compact privilege; 4. Non-confidential information related to alternative program participation; 5. Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason(s) for denial; and 6. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the rules of the Commission. C. Investigative information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall only be available to other member states. D. The Commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall be available to any other member state. E. Member states contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state. F. Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system. SECTION 10. RULEMAKING A. The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this Section and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment. B. If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact within 4 years of the date of adoption of the rule, the rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state. C. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission. D. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least thirty (30) days in advance of the meeting at which the rule shall be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: 1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform; and 2. On the website of each member state audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules. E. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include: 1. The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule shall be considered and voted upon; 2. The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule; 3. A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and 4. The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments. F. Prior to the adoption of a proposed rule, the Commision shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions and arguments, which shall be made available to the public. G. The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by: 1. At least twenty-five (25) persons; 2. A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or 3. An association having at least twenty-five (25) members. H. If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the hearing is held via electronic means, the Commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing. 1. All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not less than five (5) business days before the scheduled date of the hearing. 2. Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing. 3. All hearings shall be recorded. A copy of the recording shall be made available to any person on request and at the requesting person's expense. 4. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section. I. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received. J. If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing. K. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule. L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to: 1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare; 2. Prevent a loss of Commission or member state funds; or 3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule. M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision shall take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission. SECTION 11. OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION, AND ENFORCEMENT A. Dispute Resolution 1. Upon request by a member state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among member states and between member and non-member states. 2. The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate. B. Enforcement 1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact. 2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. 3. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law. SECTION 12. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION OF THE INTERSTATE COMMISSION FOR AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY PRACTICE AND ASSOCIATED RULES, WITHDRAWAL, AND AMENDMENT A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the 10th member state. The provisions, which become effective at that time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact. B. Any state that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state. C. Any member state may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. 1. A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six (6) months after enactment of the repealing statute. 2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this act prior to the effective date of withdrawal. D. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any audiology or speech-language pathology licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact. E. This Compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states. SECTION 13. CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this Compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any member state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any member state, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters. SECTION 14. BINDING EFFECT OF COMPACT AND OTHER LAWS A. Nothing herein prevents the enforcement of any other law of a member state that is not inconsistent with the Compact. B. All laws in a member state in conflict with the Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict. C. All lawful actions of the Commission, including all rules and bylaws promulgated by the Commission, are binding upon the member states. D. All agreements between the Commission and the member states are binding in accordance with their terms. E. In the event any provision of the Compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any member state, the provision shall be ineffective to the extent of the conflict with the constitutional provision in question in that member state. Last updated July 14, 2021 at 5:10 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.81 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.81
§ 4729.81. Board review of drug database for violations of law
Status: in_force

September 29, 2013 House Bill 59 - 130th General Assembly If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, the board shall review the information in the drug database. If the board determines from the review that a violation of law may have occurred, it shall notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and supply information required by the agency or entity for an investigation of the violation of law that may have occurred. The board also shall notify the medicaid director if the board determines that the violation may have been committed by a provider of services under a program administered by the department of medicaid.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.41 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.41
§ 4723.41. Requirements for practicing nurse-midwifery or other specialty
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly (A) Each person who desires to practice nursing as a certified nurse-midwife and has not been authorized to practice midwifery prior to December 1, 1967, and each person who desires to practice nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or certified nurse practitioner shall file with the board of nursing a written application for a license to practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse and designation in the desired specialty. The application must be filed, under oath, on a form prescribed by the board accompanied by the application fee required by section 4723.08 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, at the time of making application, the applicant shall meet all of the following requirements: (1) Be a registered nurse; (2) Submit documentation satisfactory to the board that the applicant has earned a master's or doctoral degree with a major in a nursing specialty or in a related field that qualifies the applicant to sit for the certification examination of a national certifying organization approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code; (3) Submit documentation satisfactory to the board of having passed the certification examination of a national certifying organization approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code to examine and certify, as applicable, nurse-midwives, registered nurse anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, or nurse practitioners; (4) Submit an affidavit with the application that states all of the following: (a) That the applicant is the person named in the documents submitted under this section and is the lawful possessor thereof; (b) The applicant's age, residence, the school at which the applicant obtained education in the applicant's nursing specialty, and any other facts that the board requires; (c) The specialty in which the applicant seeks designation. (B)(1) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who is practicing or has practiced as such in another jurisdiction other than another state may apply for a license by endorsement to practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse and designation as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner in this state if the nurse meets the requirements set forth in division (A) of this section or division (B)(2) of this section. (2) If an applicant who is practicing or has practiced in another jurisdiction other than another state applies for designation under division (B)(2) of this section, the application shall be submitted to the board in the form prescribed by rules of the board and be accompanied by the application fee required by section 4723.08 of the Revised Code. The application shall include evidence that the applicant meets the requirements of division (B)(2) of this section, holds authority to practice nursing and is in good standing in another jurisdiction other than another state granted after meeting requirements approved by the entity of that jurisdiction that regulates nurses, and other information required by rules of the board of nursing. With respect to the educational requirements and national certification requirements that an applicant under division (B)(2) of this section must meet, both of the following apply: (a) If the applicant is a certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who, on or before December 31, 2000, obtained certification in the applicant's nursing specialty with a national certifying organization listed in division (A)(3) of section 4723.41 of the Revised Code as that division existed prior to March 20, 2013, or that was at that time approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code, the applicant must have maintained the certification. The applicant is not required to have earned a master's or doctoral degree with a major in a nursing specialty or in a related field that qualifies the applicant to sit for the certification examination. (b) If the applicant is a clinical nurse specialist, one of the following must apply to the applicant: (i) On or before December 31, 2000, the applicant obtained a master's or doctoral degree with a major in a clinical area of nursing from an educational institution accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization. The applicant is not required to have passed a certification examination. (ii) On or before December 31, 2000, the applicant obtained a master's or doctoral degree in nursing or a related field and was certified as a clinical nurse specialist by the American nurses credentialing center or another national certifying organization that was at that time approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code. (3) The board shall grant a license to practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (a) The applicant holds a license in another state. (b) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter as an advanced practice registered nurse in a state that does not issue that license. (4) The board may grant a nonrenewable temporary permit to practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse to an applicant for licensure under division (B)(2) or (3) of this section if the board is satisfied by the evidence that the applicant holds a valid, unrestricted license in or equivalent authorization from another jurisdiction. Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to a temporary permit issued under this division. The temporary permit shall expire at the earlier of one hundred eighty days after issuance or upon the issuance of a license under division (B)(2) or (3) of this section. (C) An applicant who desires to practice nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner is exempt from the educational requirements in division (A)(2) of this section if all of the following are the case: (1) Before January 1, 2001, the board issued to the applicant a certificate of authority to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner; (2) The applicant submits documentation satisfactory to the board that the applicant obtained certification in the applicant's nursing specialty with a national certifying organization listed in division (A)(3) of section 4723.41 of the Revised Code as that division existed prior to March 20, 2013, or that was at that time approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code; (3) The applicant submits documentation satisfactory to the board that the applicant has maintained the certification described in division (C)(2) of this section. (D) An applicant who desires to practice as a clinical nurse specialist is exempt from the examination requirement in division (A)(3) of this section if both of the following are the case: (1) Before January 1, 2001, the board issued to the applicant a certificate of authority to practice as a clinical nurse specialist; (2) The applicant submits documentation satisfactory to the board that the applicant earned either of the following: (a) A master's or doctoral degree with a major in a clinical area of nursing from an educational institution accredited by a national or regional accrediting organization; (b) A master's or doctoral degree in nursing or a related field and was certified as a clinical nurse specialist by the American nurses credentialing center or another national certifying organization that was at that time approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:31 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4701.30 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4701 / § 4701.30
§ 4701.30. Compliance with law regarding sanctions for human trafficking
Status: in_force

March 22, 2013 House Bill 247 - 129th General Assembly The accountancy board shall comply with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4738.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4738 / § 4738.03
§ 4738.03. Prohibiting activities by salvage dealer, auction or pool licensees
Status: in_force

March 23, 2015 House Bill 468 - 130th General Assembly (A) No person licensed as a motor vehicle salvage dealer under this chapter shall engage in the business of selling at retail salvage motor vehicle parts or salvage motor vehicles, unless the business is operated primarily for the purpose of selling at retail salvage motor vehicle parts. Any person operating such a business primarily for the purpose of selling at retail salvage motor vehicle parts may secondarily sell at retail salvage motor vehicles or manufacture a product of gradable scrap metal for sale to scrap metal processors or any other consumer. (B) No person licensed as a salvage motor vehicle auction under this chapter shall: (1) Knowingly sell a salvage motor vehicle to anyone other than an authorized purchaser; (2) Sell a salvage motor vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe it is not offered by the legal owner thereof; (3) Fail to make an Ohio salvage certificate of title available to the purchaser of a salvage motor vehicle sold by the salvage motor vehicle auction, before payment for the salvage motor vehicle is completed; (4) Operate as a motor vehicle salvage dealer at the same location where any salvage motor vehicle auction is operated. (C) No person licensed as a salvage motor vehicle pool under this chapter shall: (1) Knowingly sell a salvage motor vehicle to anyone other than an authorized purchaser; (2) Sell a salvage motor vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe it is not offered by the legal owner thereof; (3) Fail to make an Ohio salvage certificate of title available to the purchaser of a salvage motor vehicle sold by the salvage motor vehicle pool, before payment for the salvage motor vehicle is completed; (4) Operate as a motor vehicle salvage dealer at the same location where any salvage motor vehicle pool is operated.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4772.19 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4772 / § 4772.19
§ 4772.19. Rulemaking
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 Senate Bill 95 - 135th General Assembly (A) The state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement and administer this chapter. (B) The rules adopted under this section shall include all of the following: (1) Standards and procedures for issuing and renewing licenses to practice as a certified mental health assistant; (2) Application fees for an initial or renewed license; (3) Rules governing physician-delegated prescriptive authority for certified mental health assistants; (4) Rules establishing quality assurance standards for certified mental health assistants, including a process to be used for all of the following: (a) Routine review by the supervising physician of selected patient record entries made by the certified mental health assistant and selected medical orders issued by the certified mental health assistant; (b) Discussion of complex cases; (c) Discussion of new medical developments relevant to the practice of the supervising physician and certified mental health assistant; (d) Performance of any other quality assurance activities the board considers necessary. (5) Any other standards and procedures the board considers necessary to govern the practice of certified mental health assistants, the supervisory relationship between certified mental health assistants and supervising physicians, and the administration and enforcement of this chapter. Last updated April 8, 2025 at 4:01 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4737.012 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4737 / § 4737.012
§ 4737.012. Bulk merchandise containers; record keeping
Status: in_force

September 28, 2012 Senate Bill 193 - 129th General Assembly (A) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 4737.01 of the Revised Code, a dealer who is in the business of purchasing, reselling, exchanging, recycling, shredding, or receiving bulk merchandise containers shall not purchase or receive plastic bulk merchandise containers that are marked with a company name or logo, or more than nine wooden bulk merchandise containers, from any other person at one time, unless the dealer maintains a record book or electronic file in which the dealer keeps an accurate and complete record of all containers purchased or received by the dealer. Every entry in the record book or electronic file shall be numbered consecutively. Until the registry developed by the director of public safety pursuant to section 4737.045 of the Revised Code is operational, a dealer shall maintain the record for each container purchased or received for a minimum period of one year after the date the dealer purchased or received the container. Beginning on the date the registry is operational, a dealer shall maintain the record for each container purchased or received only for a period of sixty days after the date the dealer purchased or received the container. The director shall adopt rules for the format and maintenance of the records required under this division. The records shall contain all of the following: (1) The name and residence of the person from whom the containers were purchased or received, a copy of that person's personal identification card, and, if required, a photograph of the person taken pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section; (2) A description of the containers, including the number purchased or received and, if required, a photograph of the containers taken pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section; (3) The date and time the dealer purchased or received the containers; (4) If the seller or provider of the containers arrives at the dealer's place of business in a motor vehicle, the license plate number of that motor vehicle along with the state that issued the license plate. (B) Every dealer who is in the business of reselling bulk merchandise containers shall take a photograph, in accordance with rules adopted by the director, of both of the following: (1) Each container for which the dealer must make a record under division (A) of this section; (2) Each person who sells or otherwise gives the dealer the containers. The dealer shall take the required photographs at the time the dealer purchases or receives the containers and shall keep the photographs as part of the record in accordance with division (A) of this section. (C) A dealer who is in the business of purchasing, reselling, exchanging, recycling, shredding, or receiving bulk merchandise containers shall fulfill the requirements of section 4737.041 of the Revised Code with respect to the containers purchased or received by the dealer for which the dealer must make a record under division (A) of this section. No dealer shall purchase or receive any bulk merchandise container for which the dealer must make a record under division (A) of this section without complying with division (B), (C), or (D) of section 4737.041 of the Revised Code. (D) As used in this section, "bulk merchandise container" means a plastic or wooden carrier or holder used by a manufacturer or distributor to transport merchandise to wholesale and retail outlets.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4745.03 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4745 / § 4745.03
§ 4745.03. Adjustments in fees
Status: in_force

June 11, 1968 House Bill 911 - 107th General Assembly When a new renewal-expiration date is established by legislative enactment for any license covered by sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 , inclusive, of the Revised Code, the licensing agency has discretion in making any adjustments for fees already paid, and covering unexpired, pre-existing renewal periods.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.37 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.37
§ 4731.37. Sonographer delegation
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. (2) "Sonographer" means an individual who uses ultrasonic imaging devices to produce diagnostic images, scans, or videos or three-dimensional volumes of anatomical and diagnostic data. (B) A physician may delegate to a sonographer the authority to administer intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent if all of the following conditions are met: (1) The physician's normal course of practice and expertise includes the intravenous administration of ultrasound enhancing agents. (2) The facility where the physician practices has developed, in accordance with clinical standards and industry guidelines, standards for administering ultrasound enhancing agents intravenously and has included the facility's standards in a written practice protocol. (3) The sonographer, as determined by the facility where the physician practices, satisfies all of the following: (a) Has successfully completed an education and training program in sonography; (b) Is certified or registered as a sonographer by another jurisdiction or a nationally recognized accrediting organization; (c) Has successfully completed training in the intravenous administration of ultrasound enhancing agents that was provided in any of the following ways: (i) As part of an education and training program in sonography; (ii) As part of training provided to the sonographer by the physician who delegates to the sonographer the authority to administer intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent; (iii) As part of a training program developed and offered by the facility in which the physician practices. (C) A sonographer may administer intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent if all of the following conditions are met: (1) In accordance with division (B) of this section, a physician delegates to the sonographer the authority to administer the agent. (2) The sonographer administers the agent in accordance with the written practice protocol described in division (B) of this section. (3) The delegating physician is physically present at the facility where the sonographer administers the agent. Division (C)(3) of this section does not require the delegating physician to be in the same room as the sonographer when the sonographer administers the agent. (D) This section does not prohibit any of the following from administering intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent: (1) An individual who is otherwise authorized by the Revised Code to administer intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent, including a physician assistant licensed under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code or a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code; (2) An individual who meets all of the following conditions: (a) Has successfully completed an education and training program in sonography; (b) Has applied for certification or registration as a sonographer with another jurisdiction or a nationally recognized accrediting organization; (c) Is awaiting that certification's or registration's issuance; (d) Administers intravenously an ultrasound enhancing agent under the general supervision of a physician and the direct supervision of either a sonographer described in divisions (B) and (C) of this section or an individual otherwise authorized to administer intravenously ultrasound enhancing agents. (3) An individual who is enrolled in an education and training program in sonography and, as part of the program, administers intravenously ultrasound enhancing agents. (E) For purposes of this section, the authority to administer an ultrasound enhancing agent intravenously also includes the authority to insert, maintain, and remove any mechanism necessary for the agent's administration. Last updated October 4, 2023 at 1:30 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4701.04 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4701 / § 4701.04
§ 4701.04. Registration
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly (A) No public accounting firm located in this state shall engage in the practice of public accounting in this state unless it registers with the accountancy board and pays a registration fee set by the board. (B) Public accounting firms shall apply for initial registration within ninety days after formation or within ninety days after the commencement of practicing public accounting in this state. All public accounting firms shall renew their registration triennially. All public accounting firms shall submit with their initial and renewal registration applications all of the following: (1) A list of the names, addresses, and certificate or registration numbers of all individuals who hold an Ohio permit and who own an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm or are employed by the public accounting firm; (2) A list of the names and addresses of each person who does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate and who owns an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm if the person's principal place of business is located in this state; (3) A statement that the public accounting firm and each person who owns an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm or is employed by the public accounting firm and who does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate is in compliance with divisions (C) and (D) of this section. (C) A public accounting firm shall satisfy all of the following requirements in order to register: (1) Except as provided in division (C)(7) of this section, more than fifty per cent of the total equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm shall be owned by individuals who hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate. (2) If a public accounting firm has a board of directors, more than fifty per cent of the directors shall hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate. (3) If a public accounting firm has an employee stock ownership plan, more than fifty per cent of the trustees of the employee stock ownership plan shall hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate. (4) The public accounting firm shall designate an individual who holds an Ohio permit who shall be responsible for the proper registration of the firm. The public accounting firm shall identify this individual to the board. (5) Each individual in a public accounting firm who signs any attest report issued from an office of the public accounting firm located in this state shall hold an Ohio permit. (6) An individual who owns an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm or is employed by the public accounting firm and who holds an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate, or a qualified firm that owns an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm, shall assume ultimate responsibility for any attest report issued from an office of the public accounting firm located in this state. (7) Any person who does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate and who holds an equity interest or shares in the public accounting firm shall satisfy the conditions set forth in division (D) of this section. (8) The public accounting firm shall provide for the transfer of the equity interest or shares owned by persons who do not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate to either the public accounting firm or to another person who owns an equity interest or shares in the firm if a person who does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate withdraws from or ceases to be employed by the public accounting firm. The public accounting firm may make payments in connection with the person's withdrawal from the firm to that person or, if that person is deceased or dissolved, to the person's estate or successor in interest. (D) A person who does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate may own an equity interest or shares in a public accounting firm if all of the following conditions are met: (1) All of the individuals who hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate and who own equity interests or shares in the public accounting firm, and qualified firms that own equity interests or shares in the public accounting firm, own, in the aggregate, a majority of the equity interests or shares in the public accounting firm and control the public accounting firm. (2) The person does not assume or use any titles or designations specified in division (A) of section 4701.14 of the Revised Code. The person may designate or refer to the person as a shareholder, partner, member, principal, owner, or officer of the public accounting firm and also may use any other title that the board authorizes by rule. (3) The person is not in violation of any standard regarding the character or conduct of that person that the board establishes by rule. (4) The person's participation in the business of the public accounting firm is the person's principal occupation and consists of providing services to or on behalf of the public accounting firm, and the person is not functioning solely or predominately as a passive investor in the public accounting firm. (5) The person meets or exceeds the continuing education requirements that the board establishes by rule. (6) A person who holds a professional license, registration, or certification issued by this state or another state complies with the requirements of that license, registration, or certification. (7) The person abides by the code of conduct of the American institute of certified public accountants or a comparable code of professional conduct that the board adopts by rule. (8) The person complies with all applicable provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted by the board. (E) A person who owns a voting equity interest or shares in a public accounting firm may not delegate, by proxy or otherwise, the duty to exercise any voting rights to a person that does not hold an Ohio permit or a foreign certificate or to a person that is not a qualified firm. (F) As a condition for initial or renewal registration of a public accounting firm on and after January 1, 1993, the board, by rule, shall require that each public accounting firm undergo a peer review to determine the public accounting firm's degree of compliance in the practice of public accounting with generally accepted accounting principles, generally accepted auditing standards, and other generally accepted technical standards as defined by the board in rule, unless the public accounting firm meets one of the exceptions in division (J) of this section. (G) The board shall adopt rules establishing guidelines for peer reviews, and may authorize an agent to administer all or part of the board's peer review program and to assess a reasonable fee to firms to cover the costs incurred by the agent for program administration. The rules shall do all of the following: (1) Designate a peer review committee consisting of accounting professionals to serve as advisors to the board and to ensure that the board's guidelines are followed. (2) Require that the peer review be conducted by a reviewer that is both independent of the public accounting firm reviewed and qualified pursuant to board rules; (3) Require that the standards and practices applied by the reviewer be at least as stringent as those applied by the American institute of certified public accountants; (4) Prohibit the use or disclosure of information obtained by members of the board or a committee of peer reviewers during or in connection with the peer review process for purposes other than those related to determining the degree of compliance by the public accounting firm with generally accepted accounting principles, generally accepted auditing standards, and other generally accepted technical standards as defined by the board in rule. Division (G)(4) of this section does not apply to the use or disclosure of information that is described in division (K)(3) of this section or that is necessary to comply with any provision of law. (H)(1) If a peer review report indicates that a public accounting firm does not comply with standards and practices set forth in the rules adopted by the board, the board, in its discretion, may review the results of the peer review report. If the board, or its authorized peer review program administrator, determines that the public accounting firm does not comply with the standards and practices, it may require both of the following: (a) Remedial action, which may include any of the following: (i) Requiring employees of the public accounting firm to complete general or specific continuing professional education courses; (ii) Requiring the public accounting firm to undergo peer review more frequently than triennially and peer review that is conducted in whole or part under the direct supervision of the board or its designee; (iii) Any other remedial action specified by the board. (b) An affidavit and supporting documentation from the public accounting firm submitted within the time specified by the board indicating completion of required remedial actions. (2) If the board, or its authorized peer review program administrator, determines that a public accounting firm has not complied with any requirement ordered under division (H) of this section, or if the board determines, after the review of a peer review report, that the public accounting firm has a history of noncompliance with standards and practices set forth in board rules, the board may hold a hearing to determine the extent of the firm's noncompliance. If the board, after conducting the hearing, determines that the public accounting firm does not comply with appropriate standards and practices, the board may issue an order that imposes any disciplinary measure set forth in division (B) of section 4701.16 of the Revised Code. (3) Notwithstanding divisions (K)(1) and (2) of this section, all matters relating to the procedures for determining compliance with the standards and practices under division (H)(2) of this section are subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, including the notice and conduct of any hearing and the issuance and appeal of any order. Remedial orders made under division (H)(1) of this section are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (I) The public accounting firm reviewed shall pay for any peer review performed. (J) The board may exempt a public accounting firm from the requirement to undergo a peer review if the public accounting firm submits to the board a written and notarized statement that the public accounting firm meets at least one of the following grounds for exemption identified in the statement: (1) Within three years of the date of application for initial or renewal registration, the public accounting firm has completed a peer review acceptable to the board and conducted pursuant to standards not less stringent than the peer review standards promulgated by the American institute of certified public accountants. A peer review that does not comply with standards and practices set forth in the rules adopted by the board and that may subject a public accounting firm to remedial or disciplinary action pursuant to division (H) of this section, does not qualify as an acceptable peer review. The public accounting firm shall submit to the board a copy of the results of the peer review and any additional documentation required by the board. The board shall not require submittal of the working papers related to the peer review process. (2) Within three years of the date of application for initial or renewal registration, the public accounting firm has completed a peer review acceptable to the board that was conducted in another state or foreign country. The public accounting firm shall submit to the board a copy of the results of the peer review and any additional documentation required by the board, including a detailed report of the procedures and standards applied by the reviewer. (3) The public accounting firm has never practiced public accounting in this state or any other state or foreign country, will complete a peer review acceptable to the board within eighteen months of initial registration, and will review its registration with the board two years after initial registration as specified in rules the board adopts. (4) The public accounting firm, on a schedule as required by rule adopted by the board, submits a report to the board that states all of the following: (a) The public accounting firm does not undertake any engagement that will result in the issuance of an attest report or other engagement that is subject to peer review in accordance with division (F) of this section. (b) The public accounting firm agrees to notify the board within ninety days after accepting any engagement that will result in the issuance of any attest report or other engagement that is subject to peer review in accordance with division (F) of this section and will complete a peer review acceptable to the board within one year after the acceptance of an engagement of that nature. (5) Subject to the board's approval and for good cause as defined in rules the board adopts, the public accounting firm is entitled to an exemption. (K) In any civil action, arbitration, or administrative proceeding involving a public accounting firm, all of the following shall apply: (1) The proceedings, records, and work papers of any reviewer, including board members and review committee members, involved in the peer review process are privileged and not subject to discovery, subpoena, or other means of legal process and may not be introduced into evidence. (2) No reviewer, including board members and review committee members, involved in the peer review process shall be permitted or required to testify as to any matters produced, presented, disclosed, or discussed during or in connection with the peer review process or shall be required to testify to any finding, recommendation, evaluation, opinion, or other actions of those committees or their members. (3) No privilege exists under this section for either of the following: (a) Information presented or considered in the peer review process that was otherwise available to the public; (b) Materials prepared in connection with a particular engagement merely because they subsequently are presented or considered as part of the peer review process. (L)(1) If a peer review report indicates that a public accounting firm complies with standards and practices set forth in rules adopted by the board, the board shall destroy all documents and reports related to the peer review within thirty days after the board completes its review of the report. (2) If a peer review report indicates that a public accounting firm does not comply with those standards and practices set forth in rules adopted by the board, the board shall retain all documents and reports related to the peer review until completion of the next peer review that complies with standards and practices set forth in rules adopted by the board pursuant to division (G) of this section. The board also may use these documents to determine a history of noncompliance with standards and practices in any proceeding held under division (H)(2) of this section. Last updated August 7, 2025 at 4:43 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4778.99 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4778 / § 4778.99
§ 4778.99. Penalties
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly Whoever violates section 4778.02 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent offense. Whoever violates division (B)(1) or (2) of section 4778.171 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense and a misdemeanor of the first degree on each subsequent offense. Whoever violates division (E) of section 4778.18 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Last updated August 8, 2025 at 2:27 PM Disclaimer Contact About
Ohio Rev. Code § 4759.011 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4759 / § 4759.011
§ 4759.011. References to board or executive director
Status: in_force

January 21, 2018 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly Whenever the term "Ohio board of dietetics" is used in any statute, rule, contract, or other document, the use shall be construed to mean the "state medical board," with respect to implementing Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code. Whenever the executive secretary of the Ohio board of dietetics is used in any statute, rule, contract, or other document, the use shall be construed to mean the executive director of the state medical board, with respect to implementing Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.08 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.08
§ 4731.08. License applicant to comply with R.C. 4776.01 to 4776.04
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for a license to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, and each applicant as set forth in section 5(b)(2) of the "Interstate Medical Licensure Compact" entered into under section 4731.11 of the Revised Code, shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. Last updated October 2, 2023 at 12:04 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4771.02 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4771 / § 4771.02
§ 4771.02. Athlete agent contract with athlete - requirements
Status: in_force

March 22, 2001 House Bill 107 - 123rd General Assembly (A) No athlete agent shall enter into an agent contract with an athlete unless the agent complies with all of the following agent contract requirements: (1) The agent contract is in writing on a form approved by the Ohio athletic commission and includes all agreements between the parties. (2) The agent contract includes in boldface, twelve-point type, on the initial page of the agent contract, the following language: "The athlete agent entering this agreement is registered to serve as an athlete agent with the Ohio athletic commission. Registration of an athlete agent under Chapter 4771. of the Revised Code does not imply approval by the commission of the terms and conditions of this contract or the competence of the athlete agent." (3) The agent contract includes the following language in boldface, twelve-point type, near the space provided for an athlete to sign or otherwise acknowledge agreement to the terms of the contract: "Warning to the student athlete: when you sign this contract, you may immediately lose your eligibility to compete in any amateur or intercollegiate athletics. Accordingly, you must give written notice that you have entered into this contract to the athletic director or person of similar position at the educational institution or institution of higher education in which you are enrolled, or to which you have formally acknowledged your plans to attend, prior to the earlier of participating in or practicing for an officially sanctioned athletic competition or intercollegiate athletic event, or seventy-two hours after entering into this contract. Do not sign this contract until you have read it and filled in any blank spaces. Under Ohio law, as a student athlete signing this contract, you have the right to rescind this contract for a period of up to ten days after the latest of the following occurrences: (a) The date the contract is signed; (b) The date the athletic director or person of similar position at the educational institution or institution of higher education in which you are enrolled, or have acknowledged plans to attend, receives notice of this contract; or (c) The last date you participate in an officially sanctioned athletic competition or intercollegiate athletic event if no notice of this contract is provided to the athletic director or person of similar position. Despite cancellation of this contract, the educational institution, institution of higher education, or intercollegiate athletic association or conference to which your institution of higher education belongs may not restore your eligibility to participate in amateur or intercollegiate athletics. If you sign this contract prior to the last officially sanctioned athletic competition or intercollegiate athletic event you participate in and fail to notify your institution of this contract, your athletic team may be required to forfeit all games in which you participated after signing. Such action also may cause your athletic team to be declared ineligible for post-season play." (4) The athlete agent agrees in the agent contract to provide written notice of the agent contract to the athletic director or person of similar position at the educational institution or institution of higher education in which the athlete is enrolled prior to the earlier of the time the athlete next participates in or practices for an officially sanctioned athletic competition or intercollegiate athletic event after entering that agent contract, or seventy-two hours after entering that agent contract. (5) All terms and conditions contained in the agent contract comply with state and federal law. (B) A provision in an agent contract that provides for the resolution of any controversy in connection with the contract by arbitration is void and unenforceable unless both of the following apply: (1) The provision is contained in an agent contract between an athlete agent and an athlete for whom the athlete agent undertakes to secure employment. (2) The provision is included in the agent contract pursuant to a rule, regulation, or contract of a bona fide labor union or organization that regulates the relations of its members with athlete agents. (C) An athlete and athlete agent who enter an agent contract each shall provide written notice of that agent contract to the athletic director or person of similar position at the educational institution or institution of higher education in which the athlete is enrolled prior to the earlier of the time the athlete next participates in or practices for an officially sanctioned athletic competition or intercollegiate athletic event after entering that agent contract, or seventy-two hours after entering that agent contract.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4717.15 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4717 / § 4717.15
§ 4717.15. Issuing notice of violation
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly (A) The board of embalmers and funeral directors, without the necessity for conducting a prior adjudication hearing, may issue a notice of violation to the holder of an embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming facility, or crematory facility license, or a crematory operator permit or a courtesy card permit issued under this chapter who the board finds has committed any of the violations described in division (A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. The notice shall set forth the specific violation committed by the licensee or permit holder and shall be sent by certified mail. The notice shall be accompanied by an order requiring the payment of the appropriate forfeiture prescribed in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code and by a notice informing the licensee or permit holder that the licensee is entitled to an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order if the licensee or permit holder requests a hearing and if the board receives the request within thirty days after the mailing of the notice of violation and order. The board shall conduct any such adjudicatory hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in this division. A licensee or permit holder who receives a notice of violation and order under this division shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after the notice of violation and order were mailed to the licensee or permit holder unless, within that time, the licensee or permit holder submits a request for an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order. If such a request for an adjudicatory hearing is timely filed, the licensee or permit holder need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, nonappealable administrative or judicial decision is rendered on the order requiring payment of the forfeiture. If a final nonappealable administrative or judicial decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee or permit holder shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A forfeiture is considered to be paid when the licensee's or permit holder's certified check is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee or permit holder fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive director within that time, the board shall issue an order suspending or revoking the individual's license or permit, as the board considers appropriate. (B) The board shall send to the crematory review board written notice that it proposes to issue to the holder of a license to operate a crematory facility issued under this chapter a notice of violation and order requiring payment of a forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. If, after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing on the matter conducted under division (F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and funeral directors finds that the licensee has committed any of the violations described in division (A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code in connection with the operation of a crematory facility or cremation, the board of embalmers and funeral directors may issue a final order under division (F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code requiring payment of the appropriate forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. A licensee who receives such an order shall pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive director by certified check within thirty days after the order was sent to the licensee unless, within that time, the licensee files a notice of appeal in accordance with division (F) of section 4717.03 and section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If such a notice of appeal is timely filed, the licensee or permit holder need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered in the appeal. If a final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee or permit holder shall pay to the executive director the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee or permit holder. A forfeiture is considered paid when the licensee's or permit holder's certified check is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee or permit holder fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive director within that time, the board shall issue an order suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board considers appropriate. Last updated October 10, 2023 at 3:57 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.071 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.071
§ 4731.071. Internet directory of certificates and licenses issued by board
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 Senate Bill 95 - 135th General Assembly The state medical board shall develop and publish on its internet web site a directory containing the names of, and business address for, all persons who hold current, valid certificates or licenses issued by the board under this chapter or Chapter 4730., 4759., 4760., 4761., 4762., 4772., 4774., or 4778. of the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 4731.10 of the Revised Code, the directory shall be the sole source for verifying that a person holds a current, valid certificate or license issued by the board. Last updated January 31, 2025 at 10:04 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4728.11 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4728 / § 4728.11
§ 4728.11. Chapter not applicable
Status: in_force

March 23, 2018 House Bill 199 - 132nd General Assembly This chapter does not apply to any of the following: (A) Any purchase of an article that is made of or contains gold, silver, platinum, or other precious metals or jewels of any description if both the buyer and seller, or the respective agents, brokers, or other intermediaries of both the buyer and seller, deal in such articles or otherwise by their respective occupations, or by their respective avocations as collectors, speculators, or investors, hold themselves out as having knowledge or skill peculiar to such articles or the practices involved in their purchase or sale; (B) Licensees who obtain licenses under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code, registrants who obtain certificates of registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, or persons registered as mortgage lenders under Chapter 1322. of the Revised Code; (C) National banks, state banks, credit unions, or savings and loan associations; (D) The holder of a salvage motor vehicle dealer's license under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code who purchases or sells precious metal which, in its original form, is a motor vehicle component part, or a scrap metal processor subject to Chapter 4737. of the Revised Code; (E) Any purchase of silverware or an article of jewelry made of or containing gold, silver, platinum, or other precious metals or jewels that is made by a person who complies with all of the following: (1) The person is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, articles of jewelry and silverware; (2) The person holds a valid vendor's license issued under section 5739.17 of the Revised Code; (3) The person maintains a fixed place of business in this state at which the person regularly exhibits articles of jewelry and silverware that are for sale at retail; (4) The person establishes to the satisfaction of the superintendent of financial institutions or the chief or head of the local police department, upon their request, that the person's purchases of silverware and articles of jewelry that are made of or contain gold, silver, platinum, or other precious metals or jewels are incidental to the person's primary business as described in division (E)(1) of this section. Such purchases are "incidental" if: (a) In the case of a person who has been in business for less than one year, the average monthly value of the person's purchases of jewelry from the public represents less than twenty-five per cent of the person's total inventory of articles of jewelry held for sale at retail to the public, as computed under section 5711.15 of the Revised Code; (b) In the case of a person who has been in business for at least one year, the total value of the person's purchases of jewelry from the public represents less than twenty-five per cent of the person's total retail sales of articles of jewelry to the public during the immediately preceding year; (c) The purchases are of items described in division (F) of this section. (F) Any purchase of coins, hallmark bars, registered ingots, and other items as numismatic objects, and not for their content of precious metals. (G) Any purchase made under the supervision of a probate court from the estate of a decedent as provided under section 2113.40 of the Revised Code. (H) Except as specified in division (B) of section 4728.02 of the Revised Code, any person licensed under Chapter 4727. of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4732.10 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4732 / § 4732.10
§ 4732.10. Qualifications for admission
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) The state board of psychology shall appoint an entrance examiner who shall determine the sufficiency of an applicant's qualifications for admission to the appropriate examination. A member of the board or the executive director may be appointed as the entrance examiner. (B) Requirements for admission to examination for a psychologist license shall be that the applicant: (1) Is at least twenty-one years of age; (2) Meets one of the following requirements: (a) Received an earned doctoral degree from an institution accredited or recognized by a national or regional accrediting agency and a program accredited by any of the following: (i) The American psychological association, office of program consultation and accreditation; (ii) The accreditation office of the Canadian psychological association; (iii) A program listed by the association of state and provincial psychology boards/national register designation committee; (iv) The national association of school psychologists. (b) Received an earned doctoral degree in psychology or school psychology from an institution accredited or recognized by a national or regional accrediting agency but the program does not meet the program accreditation requirements of division (B)(2)(a) of this section; (c) Received from an academic institution outside of the United States or Canada a degree determined, under rules adopted by the board under division (F) of this section, to be equivalent to a doctoral degree in psychology from a program described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section; (d) Held a psychologist license, certificate, or registration required for practice in a Canadian jurisdiction for a minimum of ten years and meets educational, experience, and professional requirements established under rules adopted by the board. (3) Has had at least two years of supervised professional experience in psychological work of a type satisfactory to the board, at least one year of which must be a predoctoral internship. The board shall adopt guidelines for the kind of supervised professional experience that fulfill this requirement. (4) If applying under division (B)(2)(b) or (c) of this section, has had at least two years of supervised professional experience in psychological work of a type satisfactory to the board, at least one year of which must be postdoctoral. The board shall adopt guidelines for the kind of supervised professional experience that fulfill this requirement. (C) Requirements for admission to examination for an independent school psychologist license shall be that the applicant: (1) Has received from an educational institution accredited or recognized by national or regional accrediting agencies as maintaining satisfactory standards, including those approved by the state board of education for the training of independent school psychologists, at least a master's degree in school psychology, or a degree considered equivalent by the board; (2) Is at least twenty-one years of age; (3) Has completed at least sixty quarter hours, or the semester hours equivalent, at the graduate level, of accredited study in course work relevant to the study of school psychology; (4) Has completed an internship in an educational institution approved by the department of education and workforce for school psychology supervised experience or one year of other training experience acceptable to the board, such as supervised professional experience under the direction of a licensed psychologist, licensed independent school psychologist, or licensed school psychologist; (5) Furnishes proof of at least twenty-seven months, exclusive of internship, of full-time experience as a certificated school psychologist employed by a board of education or a private school meeting the standards prescribed by the director of education and workforce, or of experience that the board deems equivalent. (D) Requirements for admission to examination for a school psychologist shall be that the applicant: (1) Has received from an educational institution accredited or recognized by national or regional accrediting agencies as maintaining satisfactory standards, including those approved by the state board of education for the training of school psychologists, at least a master's degree in school psychology, or a degree considered equivalent by the board; (2) Is at least twenty-one years of age; (3) Has completed a nine month, full-time internship in an approved school setting as described in rules adopted by the board. (E) If the entrance examiner finds that the applicant meets the requirements set forth in this section, the applicant shall be admitted to the appropriate examination. (F) The board shall adopt under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules for determining for the purposes of division (B)(2)(c) of this section whether a degree is equivalent to a degree in psychology from an institution in the United States. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 5:05 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.06 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.06
§ 4707.06. Record of auctioneers
Status: in_force

September 13, 2022 House Bill 321 - 134th General Assembly The department of agriculture shall maintain a record of the names and addresses of all auction firms and auctioneers licensed by the department. This record shall also include a list of all persons whose licenses have been suspended or revoked as well as any other information relative to the enforcement of this chapter that the department considers of interest to the public. Last updated July 7, 2022 at 2:07 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4703.30 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4703 / § 4703.30
§ 4703.30. Landscape architect definitions
Status: in_force

June 3, 2014 House Bill 202 - 130th General Assembly As used in sections 4703.30 to 4703.49 of the Revised Code: (A) "Landscape architect," "professional landscape architect," or "registered landscape architect" means a person who has been registered as provided in sections 4703.30 to 4703.49 of the Revised Code. (B) "Landscape architecture" or "the practice of landscape architecture" includes: (1) The preparation of master, site, and comprehensive development plans, the preparation of feasibility and site selection studies, and the supervision of the execution of projects thereon, in accordance with the accepted professional standards of public health, welfare, and safety, where the dominant purpose of such service involves: (a) The preservation, conservation, enhancement, or determination of proper land and water uses, natural land features, ground cover and plantings, naturalistic and aesthetic values, natural systems, reforestation, restoration, and reclamation; (b) The determination of settings, grounds, and approaches for buildings and structures or other improvements; the determination of environmental problems of land relating to erosion and sediment control, flooding, blight and other hazards; the shaping and contouring of land and water forms; the determination of grades; and the determination of surface and ground water drainage and providing for drainage systems where such systems do not require structural design of system components or a hydraulic analysis of the receiving storm water conveyance system; (c) The development of roadways and parkways, equestrian, bicycle, and pedestrian circulation systems, sidewalks, parking, planting, pools, irrigation systems, and other ancillary elements, for public and private use and enjoyment. (2) The preparation of construction documents, provided that these are limited to and are necessary for projects within the scope of the practice of landscape architecture as defined in divisions (B)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this section; (3) The following services as they relate to the practice of landscape architecture: (a) Construction observation; (b) Project coordination and review of technical submissions, plans, and construction documents; (c) Collaboration with architects and professional engineers in the design of streets, highways, bridges, buildings, and structures with respect to the functional and aesthetic requirements of the area in which such facilities are to be placed. (4) This practice shall include the location and arrangement of such tangible objects and features as are incidental and necessary to the purposes outlined in this section, but shall not include the design of structures or facilities with separate and self-contained purposes for habitation or industry, or the design of streets and highways, utilities, storm and sanitary sewers, and water and sewage treatment facilities, such as are exclusive to the practice of engineering or architecture. A landscape architect shall undertake to perform professional services only when the landscape architect is qualified by education, training, and experience in the specific technical areas involved. This division shall not be construed to prohibit a landscape architect from engaging individuals performing services outside the scope of the landscape architect's qualifications as consultants. (5) The practice of landscape architecture does not include the practice of surveying as defined in section 4733.01 of the Revised Code. (C) "Board" means the Ohio landscape architects board.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4758.11 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4758 / § 4758.11
§ 4758.11. Terms of appointees
Status: in_force

September 29, 2013 House Bill 59 - 130th General Assembly Of the initial appointees to the chemical dependency professionals board appointed by the governor under division (B) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code, four shall be appointed for terms ending one year after December 23, 2002, four shall be appointed for terms ending two years after December 23, 2002, and four shall be appointed for terms ending three years after December 23, 2002. After the initial appointments, terms of office shall be three years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as the term it succeeds. A voting member of the board shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. A voting member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A voting member shall continue in office after the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Voting members may be reappointed, except that an individual who has held office for two consecutive full terms shall not be reappointed sooner than one year after the expiration of the second full term. The ex officio member of the board appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services under division (C) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code shall serve at the pleasure of the director. Last updated October 20, 2025 at 11:52 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.02 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.02
§ 4729.02. State board of pharmacy
Status: in_force

July 22, 1998 Senate Bill 66 - 122nd General Assembly There shall be a state board of pharmacy, consisting of nine members, eight of whom shall be pharmacists licensed under this chapter, representing to the extent practicable various phases of the practice of pharmacy, and one of whom shall be a public member at least sixty years of age. Members shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Terms of office shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June. The Ohio pharmacists association may annually submit to the governor the names of not less than five pharmacists licensed under this chapter, and from the names submitted or from others, at the governor's discretion, the governor each year shall make appointments to the board. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until a successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No member of the board shall be reappointed to the board more than once.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.27 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.27
§ 4715.27. Reciprocity
Status: in_force

January 1, 2025 Senate Bill 131 (GA 134), House Bill 509 (GA 134) (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, the state dental board may issue a license to an applicant who furnishes satisfactory proof of being at least eighteen years of age and who demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, knowledge of the laws, regulations, and rules governing the practice of a dental hygienist; who proves, to the satisfaction of the board, intent to practice as a dental hygienist in this state; who is a graduate from an accredited school of dental hygiene and who holds a license by examination from a similar dental board, and who passes an examination as prescribed by the board relating to dental hygiene. (2) The board shall issue a license to practice as a dental hygienist in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (a) The applicant holds a license to practice as a dental hygienist in another state. (b) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter in the practice of a dental hygienist in a state that does not issue that license. The Legislative Service Commission presents the text of this section as a composite of the section as amended by multiple acts of the General Assembly. This presentation recognizes the principle stated in R.C. 1.52(B) that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation. Last updated August 27, 2025 at 11:00 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4709.14 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4709 / § 4709.14
§ 4709.14. Injunctive relief
Status: in_force

October 24, 2024 House Bill 158 - 135th General Assembly If the state cosmetology and barber board determines that any individual is violating or is about to violate any provision of this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant thereto, the board may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for injunctive relief and such other relief to prevent further violations. The attorney general shall, at the board's request, represent the board in any such action. Last updated August 27, 2024 at 10:02 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.111 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.111
§ 4723.111. Administrator to the interstate commission of nurse licensure compact administrators
Status: in_force

January 1, 2023 Senate Bill 3 - 134th General Assembly Not later than thirty days after the "Nurse Licensure Compact" is entered into under section 4723.11 of the Revised Code, the board of nursing, in accordance with article VII of the compact, shall select an individual to serve as an administrator to the interstate commission of nurse licensure compact administrators created under the compact. The board shall fill a vacancy in this position not later than thirty days after the vacancy occurs. Last updated August 20, 2021 at 4:30 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4734.19 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4734 / § 4734.19
§ 4734.19. Current copy of statutes and rules
Status: in_force

August 22, 2007 Senate Bill 33 - 127th General Assembly A chiropractor shall retain at the chiropractor's primary practice location a current copy of the statutes and rules governing the practice of chiropractic and acupuncture under this chapter.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4703.19 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4703 / § 4703.19
§ 4703.19. Attorney general duties - complaints
Status: in_force

June 20, 2008 Senate Bill 225 - 127th General Assembly The attorney general is hereby designated as the legal advisor of the architects board. Any person having knowledge of facts leading to the belief that a violation of division (A) of section 4703.18 of the Revised Code has occurred, may file an affidavit stating such facts with the prosecuting attorney of the county in which such alleged violation occurred, for the purpose of having a complaint filed by such prosecuting attorney.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.90 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.90
§ 4755.90. Telehealth services
Status: in_force

March 23, 2022 House Bill 122 - 134th General Assembly An occupational therapist or physical therapist may provide telehealth services in accordance with section 4743.09 of the Revised Code. An occupational therapy assistant or physical therapist assistant may provide telehealth services in accordance with section 4743.09 of the Revised Code. Last updated January 27, 2022 at 3:34 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4765.37 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4765 / § 4765.37
§ 4765.37. Authorized services by EMT-basic
Status: in_force

July 6, 2022 House Bill 138 - 134th General Assembly (A) An emergency medical technician-basic may perform any of the emergency medical services specified for EMTs-basic in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services. An EMT-basic shall perform the emergency medical services in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the board. (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency medical services provided by an EMT-basic shall be performed only pursuant to one of the following: (a) The written or verbal authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board; (b) An authorization transmitted through a direct communication device by a physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician; (c) Any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which the EMT-basic is affiliated. (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not prohibit an EMT-basic from complying with a do-not-resuscitate order issued by a physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to section 2133.211 of the Revised Code. Last updated April 13, 2022 at 1:38 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.77 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.77
§ 4729.77. Drug database information to be supplied by terminal distributors
Status: in_force

September 29, 2017 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, each pharmacy licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs that dispenses drugs to patients in this state and is included in the types of pharmacies specified in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board the following prescription information: (1) Terminal distributor identification; (2) Patient identification; (3) Prescriber identification; (4) Date prescription was issued by prescriber; (5) Date drug was dispensed; (6) Indication of whether the drug dispensed is new or a refill; (7) Name, strength, and national drug code of the drug dispensed; (8) Quantity of drug dispensed; (9) Number of days' supply of drug dispensed; (10) Serial or prescription number assigned by the terminal distributor; (11) Source of payment for the drug dispensed; (12) Any other data fields recognized by the American society for automation in pharmacy and specified in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code. (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code. (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a waiver allowing the distributor to submit the information in another format. (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any time limits specified by the board, except that the board may grant an extension if either of the following occurs: (a) The distributor suffers a mechanical or electronic failure, or cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the distributor's control. (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions. (C) This section does not apply to a prescriber personally furnishing or administering dangerous drugs to the prescriber's patient.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4723.487 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4723 / § 4723.487
§ 4723.487. Adoption of rules regarding review of patient information available through drug database
Status: in_force

April 6, 2017 House Bill 216 - 131st General Assembly (A) As used in this section: (1) "Drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code. (2) "Opioid analgesic" and "benzodiazepine" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse who is designated as a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition: (1) Before initially prescribing the drug, the advanced practice registered nurse or the advanced practice registered nurse's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the advanced practice registered nurse practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the advanced practice registered nurse or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county. (2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the advanced practice registered nurse or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database. (3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the advanced practice registered nurse shall assess the information in the report. The advanced practice registered nurse shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed. (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply if in any of the following circumstances: (1) A drug database report regarding the patient is not available, in which case the advanced practice registered nurse shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available. (2) The drug is prescribed in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days. (3) The drug is prescribed for the treatment of cancer or another condition associated with cancer. (4) The drug is prescribed to a hospice patient in a hospice care program, as those terms are defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any other patient diagnosed as terminally ill. (5) The drug is prescribed for administration in a hospital, nursing home, or residential care facility. (D) The board of nursing may adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that establish standards and procedures to be followed by an advanced practice registered nurse regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (E) This section and any rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.12 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.12
§ 4755.12. Fees
Status: in_force

September 30, 2021 House Bill 110 - 134th General Assembly (A) The occupational therapy section of the Ohio occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board may charge any or all of the following fees: (1) A nonrefundable examination fee, which is to be paid at the time of application for licensure; (2) An application fee for an initial license; (3) An initial licensure fee; (4) A fee for biennial renewal of a license; (5) A fee for late renewal of a license; (6) A fee for the review of continuing education activities; (7) A fee for verification of a license. (B) The section may, by rule, provide for the waiver of all or part of a fee when the license is issued less than one hundred days before the date on which it will expire. (C) Except when all or part of a fee is waived under division (B) of this section, the amount charged by the occupational therapy section for each of its fees shall be the applicable amount established in rules adopted under section 4755.06 of the Revised Code. Last updated August 24, 2021 at 2:22 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.035 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.035
§ 4715.035. Calculation of time period for recommendation
Status: in_force

April 9, 2025 House Bill 238 - 135th General Assembly Both of the following periods of time shall not be counted for purposes of determining the time within which the secretary and vice-secretary of the state dental board are required to make their recommendation to the state dental board under section 4715.034 of the Revised Code: (A) The period during which the secretary and vice-secretary suspend the investigation of an individual because the individual is also the subject of a criminal investigation and are asked to do so by the entity conducting the criminal investigation or the secretary and vice-secretary determine it is necessary to do so as a result of the criminal investigation. (B) The period beginning when the board moves for an order compelling the production of persons or records, as permitted by division (D) of section 4715.033 of the Revised Code, and ending when either of the following occurs: (1) The court renders a decision not to issue the order. (2) The court renders a decision to issue the order and the person subject to the order produces the persons or records. Last updated February 13, 2025 at 2:32 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.36 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.36
§ 4729.36. Advertisements
Status: in_force

March 4, 2026 Senate Bill 152 - 136th General Assembly (A) No place except a pharmacy licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs and no person except a licensed pharmacist shall knowingly display any sign or advertise in any fashion using the words "pharmacy," "drugs," "drug store," "drug store supplies," "pharmacist," "druggist," "pharmaceutical chemist," "drug sundries," or "medicine" or knowingly use any equivalent of those words in any manner that would lead or tend to lead the public to believe that the place is a pharmacy or the person is a pharmacist. (B) A pharmacy making retail sales may advertise by name or therapeutic class the availability for sale or dispensing of any dangerous drug provided that the advertising includes the price information specified in the definition of that term in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code. Last updated January 9, 2026 at 12:37 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4781.39 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4781 / § 4781.39
§ 4781.39. Obligations of resident
Status: in_force

January 21, 2018 House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly (A) A resident who is a party to a rental agreement shall: (1) Keep that part of the premises that the resident occupies and uses safe and sanitary; (2) Dispose of all rubbish, garbage, and other waste in a clean, safe, and sanitary manner; (3) Comply with the requirements imposed on residents by all applicable state and local housing, health, and safety codes, rules of the division of industrial compliance, and rules of the manufactured home park; (4) Personally refrain, and forbid any other person who is on the premises with the resident's permission, from intentionally or negligently destroying, defacing, damaging, or removing any fixture, appliance, or other part of the residential premises; (5) Conduct self and require other persons on the premises with the resident's consent to conduct themselves in a manner that will not disturb the resident's neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of the manufactured home park. (B) The resident shall not unreasonably withhold consent for the park operator to enter the home to inspect utility connections, or enter onto the premises in order to inspect the premises, make ordinary, necessary, or agreed repairs, decorations, alterations, or improvements, deliver parcels which are too large for the resident's mail facilities, or supply necessary or agreed services. (C) If the resident violates any provision of this section, the park operator may recover any actual damages which result from the violation and reasonable attorneys' fees. This remedy is in addition to any right of the park operator to terminate the rental agreement, to maintain an action for the possession of the premises, or injunctive relief to compel access under division (B) of this section.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4796.35 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4796 / § 4796.35
§ 4796.35. Political subdivisions
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly A political subdivision shall not prohibit an individual who holds a license or government certification issued by a state agency under this chapter from engaging in the respective profession, occupation, or occupational activity in the political subdivision's jurisdiction. Last updated March 6, 2023 at 4:56 PM Disclaimer Contact About
Ohio Rev. Code § 4731.86 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4731 / § 4731.86
§ 4731.86. Civil actions for assisted reproduction procedure performed without consent - definitions
Status: in_force

April 4, 2023 Senate Bill 288 - 134th General Assembly As used in sections 4731.861 to 4731.8611 of the Revised Code: (A) "Assisted reproduction," "human reproductive material," "health care professional," and "donor" have the same meanings as in section 2907.13 of the Revised Code. (B)(1) "Assisted reproduction procedure performed without consent" means the performance of an assisted reproduction procedure by a health care professional who recklessly did any of the following: (a) Used either the professional's or a donor's human reproductive material when the patient on whom the procedure was performed did not consent to the use of the material from that person; (b) Failed to comply with the standards or requirements of sections 3111.88 to 3111.96 of the Revised Code, including the terms of the written consent form; (c) Misrepresented to the patient receiving the procedure any material information about the donor's profile, including the types of information listed in division (A)(2) of section 3111.93 of the Revised Code, or the manner or extent to which the material was used. (2) "Assisted reproduction procedure performed without consent" includes the performance of an assisted reproduction procedure by a health care professional using the professional's human reproductive material in situations in which the patient consented to use of an anonymous donor. Last updated March 10, 2023 at 3:44 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4764.12 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4764 / § 4764.12
§ 4764.12. Violations; investigation
Status: in_force

April 5, 2019 Senate Bill 255 - 132nd General Assembly (A) On receipt of a written complaint or on the superintendent's or the board's own motion, the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing may investigate licensed home inspectors concerning any alleged violation of this chapter. Investigators and auditors employed by the superintendent may review and audit, during normal business hours, the licensed home inspector's business records that are directly related to complaints. The licensed home inspector shall permit such a review and audit. (B) Within five business days after a person files a complaint against a licensed home inspector with the superintendent, the superintendent shall provide to that person an acknowledgment of the receipt of the complaint and send a notice regarding that complaint to the licensee who is the subject of the complaint. The superintendent shall include in that notice a description of the activities in which the licensed home inspector allegedly engaged that violate this chapter. Within twenty days after the superintendent sends the notice to the complainant and the licensed home inspector who is the subject of the complainant's complaint, the complainant and the licensed home inspector may file with the superintendent a request to have an informal mediation hearing. If both the complainant and the licensed home inspector file such a request, the superintendent shall notify the complainant and the licensed home inspector of the date and time of the informal mediation hearing. A mediator employed by the superintendent shall conduct the informal mediation hearing. If the complainant and the licensed home inspector reach an accommodation during that informal mediation hearing, the mediator shall send a written report describing the accommodation to the superintendent, complainant, and licensee. Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, the written report describing the accommodation is confidential and is not a public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall close the complaint upon satisfactory completion of the accommodation. If the licensee or the complainant fails to file a request for an informal mediation hearing, or if the parties fail to agree on an accommodation during that informal mediation hearing, the superintendent shall proceed with an investigation of the complaint. (C) This section does not prohibit the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing from releasing information relating to licensees to the superintendent of financial institutions for purposes relating to the administration of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of the division of securities for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code, to the attorney general, or to local law enforcement and appropriate prosecutorial authorities. Information released by the superintendent pursuant to this section remains confidential. (D) The Ohio home inspector board or the superintendent may compel, by order or subpoena, the attendance of witnesses to testify in relation to any matter over which the board or superintendent has jurisdiction and that is the subject of inquiry and investigation by the board or superintendent, and may require the production of any book, paper, or document pertaining to such a matter. For that purpose, the board or superintendent shall have the same power as judges of county courts to administer oaths, compel the attendance of witnesses, and punish them for refusal to testify. Service of the subpoena may be made by sheriffs or constables, or by certified mail, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be considered served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refused to accept delivery. A witness shall receive, after the witness's appearance before the board or superintendent, the fees and mileage allowed in civil actions in courts of common pleas. If two or more witnesses travel together in the same vehicle, the mileage fee shall be paid to only one of those witnesses, but the witnesses may agree to divide the fee among themselves in any manner. (E) If any person fails to file any statement or report, obey any subpoena, give testimony, answer questions, or produce any books, records, or papers as required by the board or superintendent under this chapter, the board or superintendent may apply to the court of common pleas of any county in the state setting forth the failure. T he court may make an order awarding process of subpoena or subpoena duces tecum for the person to appear and testify before the board or superintendent. The court also may order any person to give testimony and answer questions, and to produce books, records, or papers, as required by the board or superintendent. Upon the filing of such order in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas, the clerk, under the seal of the court, shall issue process of subpoena for the person to appear before the board or superintendent at a time and place named in the subpoena, and each day thereafter until the examination of such person is completed. The subpoena may contain a direction that the witness bring with the witness to the examination any books, records, or papers mentioned in the subpoena. The clerk shall also issue, under the seal of the court, such other orders, in reference to the examination, appearance, and production of books, records, or papers, as the court directs. If any person so summoned by subpoena fails to obey the subpoena, to give testimony, to answer questions as required, or to obey an order of the court, the court, on motion supported by proof, may order an attachment for contempt to be issued against the person charged with disobedience of any order or injunction issued by the court under this chapter. If the person is brought before the court by virtue of the attachment, and if upon a hearing the disobedience appears, the court may order the offender to be committed and kept in close custody.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4703.17 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4703 / § 4703.17
§ 4703.17. Exceptions
Status: in_force

June 13, 1990 Senate Bill 110 - 118th General Assembly The following shall be exempted from sections 4703.01 to 4703.19 of the Revised Code: (A) Engaging in architectural work as an employee of a registered architect, provided that the work may not include responsible charge of design or inspection; (B) Practice of architecture by any person not a resident of and having no established place of business in this state as a consultant of an architect registered under sections 4703.01 to 4703.19 of the Revised Code, provided that such nonresident consultant is qualified for such professional service in his own state or country. "Consultant," as used in this section, does not include a partner of a nonresident architect registered under sections 4703.01 to 4703.19 of the Revised Code. (C) Practice of architecture solely as an officer or as an employee of the United States.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4772.21 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4772 / § 4772.21
§ 4772.21. Reporting, investigations, and hearings
Status: in_force

September 30, 2025 House Bill 96 - 136th General Assembly (A) The state medical board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that any person has violated this chapter or the rules adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a signed writing any information the person has that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or the rules adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, a person who reports such information or testifies before the board in an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of reporting the information or providing testimony. Each complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number and be recorded by the board. (B) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 4772.24 of the Revised Code. The board's president may designate another member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the supervising member. Upon a vote of the majority of the board to authorize the addition of a consumer member in the supervision of any part of any investigation, the president shall designate a consumer member for supervision of investigations as determined by the president. The authorization of consumer member participation in investigation supervision may be rescinded by a majority vote of the board. A member of the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall not participate in further adjudication of the case. (C) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it, the board may administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation. On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure. A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence. When the person being served is a certified mental health assistant, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept delivery. A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage provided for witnesses in civil cases in the courts of common pleas. (D) All hearings and investigations of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code. (E) Information received by the board pursuant to an investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action. The board shall conduct all investigations and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make public the names or any other identifying information about patients or complainants unless proper consent is given. The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records. No person shall knowingly access, use, or disclose confidential investigatory information in a manner prohibited by law. (F) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding three months. The report shall contain the following information for each case with which the board has completed its activities: (1) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged violation; (2) The type of license, if any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is directed; (3) A description of the allegations contained in the complaint; (4) Whether witnesses were interviewed; (5) Whether the individual against whom the complaint is directed is the subject of any pending complaints; (6) The disposition of the case. The report shall state how many cases are still pending, and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each person involved in each case. The report is a public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. (G) The board may provide a status update regarding an investigation to a complainant on request if the board verifies the complainant's identity. Last updated August 8, 2025 at 2:22 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4781.36 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4781 / § 4781.36
§ 4781.36. Whistleblower protection
Status: in_force

September 10, 2012 House Bill 487 - 129th General Assembly (A) Subject to section 4781.37 of the Revised Code, a park operator shall not retaliate against a resident by increasing the resident's rent, decreasing services that are due to the resident, refusing to renew or threatening to refuse to renew the rental agreement with the resident, or bringing or threatening to bring an action for possession of the resident's premises because: (1) The resident has complained to an appropriate governmental agency of a violation of a building, housing, health, or safety code that is applicable to the premises, and the violation materially affects health and safety; (2) The resident has complained to the park operator of any violation of section 4781.38 of the Revised Code; (3) The resident joined with other residents for the purpose of negotiating or dealing collectively with the park operator on any of the terms and conditions of a rental agreement. (B) If a park operator acts in violation of division (A) of this section, the resident may: (1) Use the retaliatory action of the park operator as a defense to an action by the park operator to recover possession of the premises; (2) Recover possession of the premises; (3) Terminate the rental agreement. In addition, the resident may recover from the park operator any actual damages together with reasonable attorneys fees. (C) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits a park operator from increasing the rent to reflect the cost of improvements installed by the park operator in or about the premises or to reflect an increase in other costs of operation of the premises.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4765.33 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4765 / § 4765.33
§ 4765.33. Disciplinary actions
Status: in_force

July 1, 2013 House Bill 51 - 130th General Assembly The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services may suspend or revoke certificates to practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code, and may take other disciplinary action against first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4707.091 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4707 / § 4707.091
§ 4707.091. Placement of license on deposit - reacquisition - proof of financial responsibility
Status: in_force

September 13, 2022 House Bill 321 - 134th General Assembly (A) Prior to the expiration of an auctioneer's license, an auctioneer may submit an application to the department of agriculture, on forms provided by the department, to place the license on deposit with the department for a period not to exceed two years. Not later than fourteen days after receipt of an application under this section, the department shall accept or deny the application. (B) If the department accepts the application, an auctioneer who has a license on deposit with the department under this section shall not act as an auctioneer while the license is on deposit. In addition, such an auctioneer shall not be required to pay an assessment under section 4707.25 of the Revised Code. (C) An auctioneer may reacquire a license on deposit from the department if the auctioneer does all of the following prior to reacquisition: (1) Submits a written request to the department that contains the business address and telephone number of the auctioneer; (2) Pays a reactivation fee for the license in the following amount: (a) In the case of an auctioneer whose license is reacquired during the first half of the biennium according to the biennial schedule established in division (A) of section 4707.10 of the Revised Code, two hundred dollars; (b) In the case of an auctioneer whose license is reacquired during the second half of the biennium according to that biennial schedule, one hundred dollars. (3) Pays the assessment that is levied under section 4707.25 of the Revised Code for the current year, if applicable; (4) Provides proof of financial responsibility as required in section 4707.11 of the Revised Code, if applicable; (5) Complies with any other requirement established in rules adopted by the director under section 4707.19 of the Revised Code. (D) If an auctioneer, at the time of placing the auctioneer's license on deposit, has not maintained proof of financial responsibility for the entire period of time required under section 4707.11 of the Revised Code, the auctioneer, beginning at the time of reacquisition, shall maintain proof of financial responsibility for the remainder of the time required under that section. Last updated July 7, 2022 at 2:09 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4715.431 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4715 / § 4715.431
§ 4715.431. Scope of permit
Status: in_force

April 12, 2021 Senate Bill 276 - 133rd General Assembly (A) If all of the conditions in division (B) of this section are met, an authorizing dentist may do either of the following under a teledentistry permit without examining a patient in person: (1) Authorize a dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary to perform services as set forth in division (E) or (F) of this section, as applicable, at a location where no dentist is physically present; (2) Prescribe a drug that is not a controlled substance for a patient who is at a location where no dentist is physically present. (B) The conditions that must be met under division (A) of this section are the following: (1) The authorizing dentist must prepare a written authorization that includes all of the following: (a) The authorizing dentist's name and permit number; (b) The name of the dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary; (c) The patient's name; (d) The name and address of the location where the services are to be provided; (e) The date of the authorization; (f) A statement signed by the dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary agreeing to comply with the written protocols or written standing orders the authorizing dentist establishes, including those for dealing with emergencies; (g) Any other information the dentist considers appropriate. (2) Before any dental services are provided all of the following must occur: (a) The patient is notified that an authorizing dentist will perform a clinical evaluation through teledentistry. (b) The patient is given an explanation of alternatives to, and the capabilities and limitations of, teledentistry. (c)(i) Subject to division (B)(2)(c)(ii) of this section, the patient consents to the provision of services through teledentistry and the consent is documented in the patient's record. (ii) If the services to be provided are the placement of interim therapeutic restorations or the application of silver diamine fluoride, the requirements for informed consent in rules adopted under division (C) of section 4715.436 of the Revised Code have been met. (3) The authorizing dentist establishes the patient's identity and physical location through synchronous, real-time communication. (4) The authorizing dentist provides dental services through teledentistry only as is appropriate for the patient and in accordance with appropriate standards of care. (5) The authorizing dentist establishes a diagnosis and treatment plan and documents it in the patient's record. (6) The authorizing dentist specifies the services the dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary is authorized to provide to the patient. (7) The dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary is employed by, or under contract with, one of the following: (a) The authorizing dentist; (b) A dentist who is any of the following: (i) The authorizing dentist's employer; (ii) A shareholder in a professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code of which the authorizing dentist is a shareholder; (iii) A member or manager of a limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. or 1706. of the Revised Code of which the authorizing dentist is a member or manager; (iv) A shareholder in a corporation formed under division (B) of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code of which the authorizing dentist is a shareholder; (v) A partner or employee of a partnership, formed under Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, of which the authorizing dentist is a partner or employee; (vi) A partner or employee of a limited liability partnership, formed under Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, of which the authorizing dentist is a partner or employee. (C) A dentist retains responsibility for ensuring the safety and quality of services provided to patients through teledentistry. Services delivered through teledentistry must be consistent with in-person services. Persons involved with providing services through teledentistry must abide by laws addressing the privacy and security of the patient's dental and medical information. (D) An authorizing dentist may not have more than a total of three dental hygienists and expanded function dental auxiliaries working under the dentist's authorization pursuant to this section at any time. (E)(1) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, a dental hygienist may provide dental hygiene services at a location where no dentist is physically present if all of the following requirements are met: (a) The dental hygienist has at least one year and a minimum of one thousand five hundred hours of experience in the practice of dental hygiene. (b) The dental hygienist has completed a course described in division (C)(2) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code on the identification and prevention of potential medical emergencies. (c) The authorizing dentist has evaluated the dental hygienist's skills. (d) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols or written standing orders established by the authorizing dentist, including written protocols established for emergencies. (2) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, a dental hygienist may place interim therapeutic restorations when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the dental hygienist is practicing if the requirements of division (E)(1) of this section are met and the dental hygienist has successfully completed a state dental board-approved course in the proper placement of interim therapeutic restorations. (3) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, a dental hygienist may apply silver diamine fluoride when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the dental hygienist is practicing if the requirements of division (E)(1) of this section are met and the dental hygienist has successfully completed a state dental board-approved course in the application of silver diamine fluoride. (F)(1) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, an expanded function dental auxiliary may provide the services listed in divisions (A)(2) to (10) of section 4715.64 of the Revised Code, and any additional procedures authorized pursuant to division (A)(11) of that section, when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is practicing if all of the following requirements are met: (a) The expanded function dental auxiliary has at least one year and a minimum of one thousand five hundred hours of experience practicing as an expanded function dental auxiliary. (b) The expanded function dental auxiliary has completed a course described in division (C)(2) of section 4715.64 of the Revised Code on the identification and prevention of potential medical emergencies. (c) The authorizing dentist has evaluated the expanded function dental auxiliary's skills. (d) The expanded function dental auxiliary complies with written protocols or written standing orders established by the authorizing dentist, including written protocols for emergencies. (2) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, an expanded function dental auxiliary who meets the requirements of division (F)(1) of this section and has successfully completed a state dental board-approved course in the proper placement of interim therapeutic restorations may place interim therapeutic restorations when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is practicing. (3) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, an expanded function dental auxiliary who meets the requirements of division (F)(1) of this section and has successfully completed a state dental board-approved course in the application of silver diamine fluoride may apply silver diamine fluoride when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is practicing. (4) If authorized to do so by an authorizing dentist in accordance with this section, an expanded function dental auxiliary who meets the requirements of division (F)(1) of this section and holds a current, valid dental x-ray machine operator certificate issued by the board pursuant to section 4715.53 of the Revised Code may perform, for the purpose of contributing to the provision of dental care to a dental patient, standard, diagnostic radiologic procedures when a dentist is not physically present at the location where the expanded function dental auxiliary is practicing. Last updated September 10, 2021 at 12:03 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4735.57 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4735 / § 4735.57
§ 4735.57. Agency disclosure statement - dual agency disclosure
Status: in_force

January 1, 2005 Senate Bill 106 - 125th General Assembly (A) The superintendent of real estate, with the approval of the Ohio real estate commission, shall establish by rule an agency disclosure statement. The agency disclosure statement shall contain a place for the licensee and the parties to the transaction to sign and date the statement and shall contain sections for the disclosure or explanation of all of the following: (1) Unless confidential, the names of all the parties in the transaction; (2) The address of the real estate being sold or leased; (3) The name of the licensee or licensees and the brokerage with which each licensee is affiliated; (4) The party that each licensee in the named brokerage represents in the transaction; (5) If a licensee representing a purchaser of real estate and a licensee representing the seller of that real estate are affiliated with the same brokerage, whether the two licensees are acting as dual agents or are individually representing the purchaser and seller separately; (6) If only one licensee is involved in the transaction, whether that licensee is a dual agent or represents only one party to the transaction; (7) If both the purchaser and the seller are represented by licensees affiliated with the same brokerage, that the brokerage is a dual agent; (8) That the signature of the client indicates the client's informed consent to the agency relationship and that if the client does not understand the agency disclosure statement, the client should consult an attorney. (B) The agency disclosure statement shall specify the duties of a licensee acting as a dual agent and shall contain sections disclosing all of the following: (1) An explanation of the nature of a dual agency relationship, including a statement that in serving as a dual agent, licensees in the brokerage represent two clients whose interests are, or at times could be, different or adverse; (2) That as a result of the dual agency relationship, the dual agent may not be able to advocate on behalf of the client to the same extent the agent may have if the agent represented only one client; (3) A description of the duties the brokerage and its affiliated licensees and employees owe to each client, including the duty of confidentiality; (4) That neither the brokerage nor its affiliated licensees have any material relationship with either client other than incidental to the transaction, or if the brokerage or its affiliated licensees have a material relationship, a disclosure of the nature of the relationship. For purposes of this division, "material relationship" means any actually known personal, familial, or business relationship between the brokerage or an affiliated licensee and a client that could impair the ability of the brokerage or affiliated licensee to exercise lawful and independent judgment relative to another client. (5) That as a dual agent, the brokerage cannot engage in conduct that is contrary to the interests or instructions of one party or act in a biased manner on behalf of one party; (6) A section specifying the source of compensation to the real estate broker; (7) That the client does not have to consent to the dual agency relationship, and the options available to the client for representation in the transaction if the client does not consent, including the right of the client to terminate the agency relationship and seek representation from another source; (8) That the consent to the dual agency relationship by the client has been given voluntarily, that the signature indicates informed consent, and that the duties of a licensee acting as a dual agent disclosed to the client pursuant to division (B) of this section have been read and understood.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4757.361 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4757 / § 4757.361
§ 4757.361. Suspension of license
Status: in_force

October 3, 2023 House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly (A) As used in this section, with regard to offenses committed in Ohio, "aggravated murder," "murder," "voluntary manslaughter," "felonious assault," "kidnapping," "rape," "sexual battery," "gross sexual imposition," "aggravated arson," "aggravated robbery," and "aggravated burglary" mean such offenses as defined in Title XXIX of the Revised Code; with regard to offenses committed in other jurisdictions, the terms mean offenses comparable to offenses defined in Title XXIX of the Revised Code. (B) When there is clear and convincing evidence that continued practice by an individual licensed under this chapter presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public, as determined on consideration of the evidence by the professional standards committees of the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board, the appropriate committee shall impose on the individual a summary suspension without a hearing. Immediately following the decision to impose a summary suspension, the appropriate committee shall serve a written order of suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the suspension requests an adjudication, the date set for the adjudication shall be within fifteen days but not earlier than seven days after the individual makes the request, unless another date is agreed to by both the individual and the committee imposing the suspension. The summary suspension shall remain in effect, unless reversed by the committee, until a final adjudication order issued by the committee pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The committee shall issue its final adjudication order within ninety days after completion of the adjudication. If the committee does not issue a final order within the ninety-day period, the summary suspension shall be void, but any final adjudication order issued subsequent to the ninety-day period shall not be affected. (C) The license issued to an individual under this chapter is automatically suspended on that individual's conviction of, plea of guilty to, or judicial finding with regard to any of the following: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. The suspension shall remain in effect from the date of the conviction, plea, or finding until an adjudication is held under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the appropriate committee has knowledge that an automatic suspension has occurred, it shall notify the individual subject to the suspension. If the individual is notified and either fails to request an adjudication within the time periods established by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or fails to participate in the adjudication, the committee shall enter a final order permanently revoking the person's license or certificate. Last updated October 3, 2023 at 1:26 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.511 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.511
§ 4729.511. Overdose reversal drug distributor; priorities
Status: in_force

September 23, 2022 House Bill 193 - 134th General Assembly (A) As used in this section, "overdose reversal drug distributor" means either of the following: (1) A wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs; (2) A terminal distributor of dangerous drugs that supplies overdose reversal drugs to any entity under division (B)(1) of this section. (B)(1) An overdose reversal drug distributor shall prioritize the sale, distribution, and delivery of overdose reversal drugs to all of the following: (a) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code; (b) A hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code; (c) An emergency medical service organization, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code; (d) A facility that is operated as an urgent care center. (2) The order in which the entities are listed in division (B)(1) of this section does not establish levels of priority among the listed entities. (C) An overdose reversal drug distributor who in good faith complies with division (B) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following for an act or omission arising from that compliance: damages in any civil action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional disciplinary action. Last updated October 19, 2022 at 1:23 PM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4721.01 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4721 / § 4721.01
§ 4721.01. Liability for loss of property
Status: in_force

October 1, 1953 House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly An innkeeper, whether a person, partnership, or corporation, having in his inn a metal safe or vault in good order suitable for the custody of money, bank notes, jewelry, articles of gold and silver manufacture, precious stones, personal ornaments, railroad mileage books or tickets, negotiable or valuable papers, and bullion, and keeping on the doors of the sleeping rooms used by his guests suitable locks or bolts, and on the transoms and windows of such rooms suitable fastenings, and keeping a copy of this section printed in distinct type conspicuously suspended in the office, ladies' parlor or sitting room, barroom, washroom, and five other conspicuous places in such inn, or not less than ten conspicuous places in all, shall not be liable for loss or injury suffered by a guest, unless such guest has offered to deliver such property to such innkeeper for custody in such metal safe or vault, and the innkeeper has omitted or refused to take and deposit it in the safe or vault for custody and give the guest a receipt therefor.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4735.16 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4735 / § 4735.16
§ 4735.16. Sign on business premises; advertising
Status: in_force

September 29, 2011 House Bill 153 - 129th General Assembly (A) Every real estate broker licensed under this chapter shall erect or maintain a sign on the business premises plainly stating that the licensee is a real estate broker. If the real estate broker maintains one or more branch offices, the real estate broker shall erect or maintain a sign at each branch office plainly stating that the licensee is a real estate broker. (B)(1) Any licensed real estate broker or salesperson who advertises to buy, sell, exchange, or lease real estate, or to engage in any act regulated by this chapter, with respect to property the licensee does not own, shall be identified in the advertisement by name and indicate the name of the brokerage with which the licensee is affiliated. (2) Any licensed real estate broker or sales person who advertises to sell, exchange, or lease real estate, or to engage in any act regulated by this chapter, with respect to property that the licensee owns, shall be identified in the advertisement by name and indicate that the property is agent owned, and if the property is listed with a real estate brokerage, the advertisement shall also indicate the name of the brokerage with which the property is listed. (3) The name of the brokerage shall be displayed in equal prominence with the name of the salesperson in the advertisement. For purposes of this section, "brokerage" means the name the real estate company or sole broker is doing business as, or if the real estate company or sole broker does not use such a name, the name of the real estate company or sole broker as licensed. (4) A real estate broker who is representing a seller under an exclusive right to sell or lease listing agreement shall not advertise such property to the public as "for sale by owner" or otherwise mislead the public to believe that the seller is not represented by a real estate broker. (5) If any real estate broker or real estate salesperson advertises in a manner other than as provided in this section or the rules adopted under this section, that advertisement is prima-facie evidence of a violation under division (A)(21) of section 4735.18 of the Revised Code. When the superintendent determines that prima-facie evidence of a violation of division (A)(21) of section 4735.18 of the Revised Code or any of the rules adopted thereunder exists, the superintendent may do either of the following: (a) Initiate disciplinary action under section 4735.051 of the Revised Code for a violation of division (A)(21) of section 4735.18 of the Revised Code, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; (b) Personally, or by certified mail, serve a citation upon the licensee. (C)(1) Every citation served under this section shall give notice to the licensee of the alleged violation or violations charged and inform the licensee of the opportunity to request a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The citation also shall contain a statement of a fine of two hundred dollars per violation, not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars per citation. All fines collected pursuant to this section shall be credited to the real estate recovery fund, created in the state treasury under section 4735.12 of the Revised Code. (2) If any licensee is cited three times within twelve consecutive months, the superintendent shall initiate disciplinary action pursuant to section 4735.051 of the Revised Code for any subsequent violation that occurs within the same twelve-month period. (3) If a licensee fails to request a hearing within thirty days of the date of service of the citation, or the licensee and the superintendent fail to reach an alternative agreement, the citation shall become final. (4) Unless otherwise indicated, the licensee named in a final citation must meet all requirements contained in the final citation within thirty days of the effective date of that citation. (5) The superintendent shall suspend automatically a licensee's license if the licensee fails to comply with division (C)(4) of this section. (D) A real estate broker or salesperson obtaining the signature of a party to a listing or other agreement involved in a real estate transaction shall furnish a copy of the listing or other agreement to the party immediately after obtaining the party's signature. Every broker's office shall prominently display in the same immediate area as licenses are displayed a statement that it is illegal to discriminate against any person because of race, color, religion, sex, familial status as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, national origin, military status as defined in that section, disability as defined in that section, or ancestry in the sale or rental of housing or residential lots, in advertising the sale or rental of housing, in the financing of housing, or in the provision of real estate brokerage services and that blockbusting also is illegal. The statement shall bear the United States department of housing and urban development equal housing logo, shall contain the information that the broker and the broker's salespersons are licensed by the division of real estate and professional licensing and that the division can assist with any consumer complaints or inquiries, and shall explain the provisions of section 4735.12 of the Revised Code. The statement shall provide the division's address and telephone number. The Ohio real estate commission shall provide by rule for the wording and size of the statement. The pamphlet required under section 4735.03 of the Revised Code shall contain the same statement that is required on the statement displayed as provided in this section and shall be made available by real estate brokers and salespersons to their clients. The commission shall provide the wording and size of the pamphlet.
Ohio Rev. Code § 4747.05 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4747 / § 4747.05
§ 4747.05. Application for license
Status: in_force

December 29, 2023 Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly (A)(1) The state speech and hearing professionals board shall issue to each applicant, within sixty days of receipt of a properly completed application and payment of an application fee set by the board in rules adopted under section 4747.04 of the Revised Code, a hearing aid dealer's or fitter's license if the applicant: (a) In the case of an individual, the individual is at least eighteen years of age, is free of contagious or infectious disease, and has successfully passed a qualifying examination specified and administered by the board. (b) In the case of a firm, partnership, association, or corporation, the application, in addition to such information as the board requires, is accompanied by an application for a license for each person, whether owner or employee, of the firm, partnership, association, or corporation, who engages in dealing in or fitting of hearing aids, or contains a statement that such applications are submitted separately. No firm, partnership, association, or corporation licensed pursuant to this chapter shall permit any unlicensed person to sell or fit hearing aids. (2) The board shall issue a hearing aid dealer's or fitter's license in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies: (a) The applicant holds a license in another state. (b) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter as a hearing aid dealer or fitter in a state that does not issue that license. (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, the board shall not adopt or enforce any rule that precludes an individual from renewing a license issued under this chapter due to any past criminal activity, unless the individual has committed a crime of moral turpitude or a disqualifying offense as those terms are defined in section 4776.10 of the Revised Code. The board shall comply with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code when denying an individual a license renewal. (2) The board may refuse to issue a license to an applicant because of a conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense if the refusal is in accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code. (3) In considering a renewal of an individual's license, the board shall not consider any conviction or plea of guilty prior to the initial licensing. However, the board may consider a conviction or plea of guilty if it occurred after the individual was initially licensed, or after the most recent license renewal. (4) The board may grant an individual a conditional license that lasts for one year. After the one-year period has expired, the license is no longer considered conditional, and the individual shall be considered fully licensed. (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, each license issued is valid from the date of issuance until the thirty-first day of December of the even-numbered year that follows the date of issuance. (2) A license issued less than one hundred days before the thirty-first day of December of an even-numbered year is valid from the date of issuance until the thirty-first day of December of the even-numbered year that follows the thirty-first day of December immediately after the date of issuance. Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:05 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4757.13 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4757 / § 4757.13
§ 4757.13. Prominent display of fee schedule
Status: in_force

October 17, 2019 House Bill 166 - 133rd General Assembly A person holding a license issued under this chapter who is engaged in a private individual practice, partnership, or group practice shall prominently display the license holder's fee schedule in the office or place where a major portion of the license holder's practice is conducted. The bottom of the first page of the fee schedule shall include the following statement, which shall be followed by the name, address, and telephone number of the board: "This information is required by the Counselor, Social Worker, and Marriage and Family Therapist Board, which regulates the practices of professional counseling, social work, and marriage and family therapy in this state."
Ohio Rev. Code § 4729.90 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4729 / § 4729.90
§ 4729.90. Applicants for registration as registered pharmacy technician
Status: in_force

October 9, 2021 House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly (A)(1) An applicant for registration as a registered pharmacy technician shall: (a) Be at least eighteen years of age; (b) Possess a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalence or have been employed continuously since prior to April 8, 2009, as a pharmacy technician without a high school diploma or certificate of high school equivalence; (c) Comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code; (d) Have successfully completed education and training that meets the requirements established by the board in rules adopted under section 4729.94 of the Revised Code. (2) An applicant for registration as a certified pharmacy technician shall: (a) Comply with divisions (A)(1)(a) and (c) of this section; (b) Possess a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalence; (c) Have successfully completed education and training that meets the requirements established by the board in rules adopted under section 4729.94 of the Revised Code; (d) Have a current pharmacy technician certification from an organization that has been recognized by the board. (B) A pharmacist or pharmacy intern whose license has been denied, revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted by the board shall not be registered as a registered pharmacy technician or certified pharmacy technician. Last updated October 9, 2021 at 5:02 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4741.13 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4741 / § 4741.13
§ 4741.13. Limited license to practice veterinary medicine
Status: in_force

October 24, 2024 Senate Bill 28 - 135th General Assembly The state veterinary medical licensing board may issue a limited license to practice veterinary medicine to an individual whose sole professional capacity is with a veterinary academic institution or veterinary technology institution recognized by the board in accordance with rules the board adopts or with a government diagnostic laboratory. A person holding a limited license is authorized to engage in the practice of veterinary medicine only to the extent necessary to fulfill the person's employment or educational obligations as an instructor, researcher, diagnostician, intern, resident in a veterinary specialty, or graduate student. The board may issue a limited license to an applicant who submits a completed application on a form prescribed by the board, pays the applicable fee prescribed in section 4741.17 of the Revised Code, and meets the criteria established by the board. The board shall not require an individual issued a limited license under this section to obtain a license under Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code. Last updated August 20, 2024 at 11:28 AM
Ohio Rev. Code § 4755.60 — Ohio Revised Code / Title 47 / Chapter 4755 / § 4755.60
§ 4755.60. Athletic trainer definitions
Status: in_force

January 27, 2022 House Bill 176 - 134th General Assembly As used in sections 4755.60 to 4755.65 and 4755.99 of the Revised Code: (A) "Athletic trainer" means a person who meets the qualifications of this chapter for licensure and is authorized to engage in the activities described in section 4755.621 or 4755.622 of the Revised Code. (B) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" or "prescriber" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code. (C) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery. Last updated November 3, 2021 at 2:57 PM