32 M.R.S. § 9854 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 103 / Section 9854
32 §9854. License required; exceptions
Status: in_force

1. License required. A person may not practice or profess to be authorized to practice after September 1, 1984, as a radiographer, a nuclear medicine technologist or a radiation therapist unless that person is licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter. [PL 2009, c. 112, Pt. A, §15 (AMD).]

2. Effect of Act. Nothing in this Act may limit, enlarge or affect the practice of licensed practitioners. [PL 1983, c. 524 (NEW).]

3. Exceptions. The requirement of a license does not apply to: A. A dentist, dental hygienist, expanded function dental assistant or dental radiographer licensed under chapter 143 ; [PL 2025, c. 83, §1 (AMD); PL 2025, c. 314, §5 (AMD).] B. [PL 2015, c. 429, §20 (RP).] C. A resident physician or a student enrolled in and attending a school or college of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, dentistry or radiologic technology or an individual who is concurrently obtaining the education and clinical training required by the board by rule who applies ionizing radiation to a human being while under the supervision of a licensed practitioner; [PL 2023, c. 100, §1 (AMD).] D. Any person serving in the United States Armed Services or public health service or employed by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or other federal agency performing the person's official duties as long as the duties are limited to that service or employment; [PL 2025, c. 314, §5 (AMD).] E. A cardiovascular technologist credentialed by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs, Cardiovascular Credentialing International or a successor organization who is performing the activities permitted under this paragraph and is acting under the delegated authority and direct supervision of a physician while the physician is performing cardiac catheterization or electrophysiology procedures. For the purposes of this paragraph, the activities permitted are limited to procedure table actions that are necessary during cardiac catheterization or electrophysiology procedures, including enabling fluoroscopy to start the procedure, changing the field of view, positioning the image intensifier, adjusting collimation, placing the wedge filter, panning the procedure table during exposure, stepping on the pedal at the physician's direction when the physician cannot reach the pedal and performing other similar actions under the delegated authority and direct supervision of the physician; or [PL 2025, c. 314, §5 (AMD).] F. A chiropractic assistant certified as a chiropractic radiographer pursuant to section 559 . [PL 2025, c. 314, §5 (NEW).] [PL 2025, c. 83, §1 (AMD); PL 2025, c. 314, §5 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 18566 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 147 / Section 18566
32 §18566. Binding effect of compact and other laws
Status: in_force

1. Adherence. A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations, including scope of practice, of the remote state. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]

2. Enforcement. Nothing in this chapter prevents the enforcement of any other law of a member state that is not inconsistent with the compact. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]

3. Conflict. Any laws in a member state in conflict with the compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]

4. Binding actions. Any lawful actions of the commission, including all rules and bylaws properly promulgated by the commission, are binding upon the member states. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]

5. Binding agreements. All permissible agreements between the commission and the member states are binding in accordance with their terms. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]

6. Constitutional limits. In the event any provision of the compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any member state, the provision is ineffective to the extent of the conflict with the constitutional provision in question in that member state. [PL 2021, c. 547, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14012 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 124 / Section 14012
32 §14012. Rules
Status: in_force

The board may establish guidelines and rules by which this chapter must be administered. Rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II‑A . Rules are subject to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II . [PL 1999, c. 185, §5 (NEW).]

1. Hearings. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. GG, §4 (RP).]

2. Investigations. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. GG, §5 (RP).]

3. Standards. The board may adopt rules consistent with the standards set forth in this chapter governing real estate appraisal conduct in order to establish standards of practice that serve the interest of the public and the appraisal business. [PL 1999, c. 185, §5 (NEW).]

4. License qualifications. The board may adopt rules relating to the qualifications and application for any license authorized under this chapter that it considers necessary to ensure that applicants are sufficiently trustworthy and competent to make real estate appraisals. [PL 1999, c. 185, §5 (NEW).]

5. Education. The board may adopt rules to be applied in determining whether educational programs meet the license qualifications required under this chapter. [PL 1999, c. 185, §5 (NEW).]

6. Other. The board may adopt and enforce other rules that are necessary for the performance of its duties under this chapter. [PL 1999, c. 185, §5 (NEW).]

7. Fees. [PL 2005, c. 262, Pt. D, §1 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 16604 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 135 / Section 16604
32 §16604. Administrative enforcement
Status: in_force

1. Issuance of order or notice. If the administrator determines that a person has engaged, is engaging or is about to engage in an act, practice or course of business constituting a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter or that a person has materially aided, is materially aiding or is about to materially aid an act, practice or course of business constituting a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter, the administrator may: A. Issue an order directing the person to cease and desist from engaging in the act, practice or course of business or to take other action necessary or appropriate to comply with this chapter; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] B. Issue an order denying, suspending, revoking or conditioning the exemptions for a broker-dealer under section 16401, subsection 2, paragraph A , subparagraph (4) or (6) or an investment adviser under section 16403, subsection 2, paragraph A , subparagraph (3); or [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] C. Issue an order under section 16204 . [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

2. Summary process. An order under subsection 1 is effective on the date of issuance. Upon issuance of the order, the administrator shall promptly serve each person subject to the order with a copy of the order and a notice that the order has been entered. The order must include a statement of any censure, bar, civil fine or costs of investigation the administrator will seek, a statement of the reasons for the order and notice that, within 15 days after receipt of a request in a record from the person, the matter will be scheduled for a hearing. If a person subject to the order does not request a hearing and none is ordered by the administrator within 30 days after the date of service of the order, the order, including the imposition of a censure, bar or civil fine or requirement for payment of the costs of investigation sought in a statement in the order, becomes final as to that person by operation of law. A summary order issued against any person becomes a final order 30 days after the administrator mails notice to the interested parties of the right to request a hearing if they fail to request a hearing or on the date of the hearing if the person requesting the hearing fails to appear. If a hearing is requested or ordered, the administrator, after notice of and opportunity for hearing to each person subject to the order, may modify or vacate the order or extend it until final determination. [PL 2007, c. 14, §12 (AMD).]

3. Procedure for final order. If a hearing is requested or ordered pursuant to subsection 2 , a hearing must be held pursuant to the Maine Administrative Procedure Act. A final order may not be issued unless the administrator makes findings of fact and conclusions of law in a record in accordance with the Maine Administrative Procedure Act. The final order may make final, vacate or modify the order issued under subsection 1 . [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

4. Civil fine; final orders and remedies. In a final order under subsection 3 , the administrator may: order remedies described in subsection 1 ; censure that person; bar that person from association with any issuer, broker-dealer or investment adviser in this State; order restitution; or impose a civil fine not to exceed $5,000 per violation. For a violation involving an investor 65 years of age or older, the amount of the civil fine may be doubled to an amount not to exceed a maximum of $10,000 per violation. [PL 2013, c. 39, §3 (AMD).]

5. Costs. In a final order, the administrator may charge the actual cost of an investigation or proceeding for a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

6. Filing of certified final order with court; effect of filing. If a petition for judicial review of a final order is not filed in accordance with section 16609 , the administrator may file a certified copy of the final order with the clerk of a court of competent jurisdiction. The order so filed has the same effect as a judgment of the court and may be recorded, enforced or satisfied in the same manner as a judgment of the court. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

7. Enforcement by court; further civil fine. If a person does not comply with an order under this section, the administrator may request that the Attorney General petition a court of competent jurisdiction to enforce the order. The court may not require the administrator to post a bond in an action or proceeding under this section. If the court finds, after service and opportunity for hearing, that the person was not in compliance with the order, the court may adjudge the person in contempt of the order. The court may impose a further civil fine against the person for contempt in an amount not to exceed $10,000 per violation and may grant any other relief the court determines is just and proper in the circumstances. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

8. Appointment of presiding officer. For purposes of any hearing conducted pursuant to this section, the administrator may appoint a qualified person to preside at the hearing and to make proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The responsibility for the entry of the final findings of fact and conclusions of law and for the issuance of any final order remain with the administrator. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 3298 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 48 / Section 3298
32 §3298. Establishment of protocols for operation of professional review committee
Status: in_force

The board may establish protocols for the operation of a professional review committee as defined in Title 24, section 2502, subsection 4‑A . The protocols must include the committee reporting information the board considers appropriate regarding reports received, contacts or investigations made and the disposition of each report, provided that the committee is not required to disclose any personally identifiable information. The protocols may not prohibit an impaired physician or physician associate from seeking alternative forms of treatment. [PL 1993, c. 39, §2 (AMD); PL 2025, c. 316, §3 (REV).]
32 M.R.S. § 222 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 3-A / Section 222
32 §222. Fees
Status: in_force

The director of the office may establish by rule fees for purposes authorized under this chapter in amounts that are reasonable and necessary for their respective purposes, except that the fee for any one purpose may not exceed $200. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RPR).]

1. Application for licensure and certification. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]

2. Examination fee. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]

3. License; certification; resident. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]

4. License; nonresident. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]

5. Renewal. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]

6. Reissuance. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §16 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 14307 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 127 / Section 14307
32 §14307. Exemptions to registration or certification
Status: in_force

1. Other professionals. This chapter does not apply to the activities or services of members of other professions licensed, certified or registered by the State, including, but not limited to, physicians, chiropractors, physical therapists, cosmetologists or registered nurses performing soft tissue manipulation consistent with the laws of the State governing their practices, provided they do not use the title "massage therapist" or "massage practitioner." [PL 1993, c. 245, §8 (AMD).]

2. Other exemptions. This chapter does not apply to the activities and services of individuals who practice other forms of tissue work exclusive of massage therapy, such as rolfing, Trager, reflexology, Shiatsu, Reiki and polarity, if those practitioners do not use the title "massage therapist" or "massage practitioner," unless they choose to meet the requirements of this chapter. [PL 1993, c. 245, §8 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 4877 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 71-A / Section 4877
32 §4877. Veterinarian-client-patient relationship required; Good Samaritan exception
Status: in_force

In order to practice veterinary medicine, a veterinarian must be engaged in a veterinarian-client-patient relationship. A veterinarian-client-patient relationship exists when a veterinarian: [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

1. Engaged by client. Has been engaged by the client; [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

2. Assumed responsibility. Has assumed responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the patient; [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

3. Knowledge of patient. Has sufficient knowledge of the patient to initiate a preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the patient and has personal knowledge of the keeping and care of the patient as a result of: A. A timely examination of the patient by the veterinarian; or [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).] B. A medically appropriate and timely visit or visits by the veterinarian to the patient while that patient is under the care of the veterinarian's practice; [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).] [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

4. Follow-up evaluation. Is readily available for follow-up evaluation or has arranged for veterinary emergency coverage and continuing care and treatment; and [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

5. Records. Maintains patient records. [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]

A licensed veterinarian who in good faith engages in the practice of veterinary medicine by rendering or attempting to render emergency care to a patient when a client cannot be identified and a veterinarian-client-patient relationship is not established is not subject to any disciplinary sanctions authorized by Title 10, section 8003, subsection 5‑A based solely upon the veterinarian's inability to establish a veterinarian-client-patient relationship. [PL 2015, c. 209, §21 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 18377 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 143 / Section 18377
32 §18377. Dental therapist
Status: in_force

1. Scope of practice. A dental therapist may perform the following procedures in limited practice settings, if authorized by a written practice agreement under the general supervision of a supervising dentist licensed in this State pursuant to subsection 3 . A. To the extent permitted in a written practice agreement, a dental therapist may provide the care and services listed in this paragraph under the general supervision of the supervising dentist: (1) Perform oral health assessments, pulpal disease assessments for primary and young teeth, simple cavity preparations and restorations and simple extractions; (2) Prepare and place stainless steel crowns and aesthetic anterior crowns for primary incisors and prepare, place and remove space maintainers; (4) Administer local anesthesia and nitrous oxide analgesia; (6) Conduct urgent management of dental trauma, perform suturing, extract primary teeth and perform nonsurgical extractions of periodontally diseased permanent teeth if authorized in advance by the supervising dentist; and (7) Provide, dispense and administer anti-inflammatories, nonprescription analgesics, antimicrobials, antibiotics and anticaries materials. [PL 2023, c. 354, §10 (AMD).] B. To the extent permitted in a written practice agreement, a dental therapist may provide the care and services identified in section 18371, subsection 3 and section 18374 under the general supervision of the supervising dentist. [PL 2021, c. 223, §13 (AMD).] [PL 2023, c. 354, §10 (AMD).]

2. Supervision responsibilities. A dental therapist may be delegated a dentist's responsibility to supervise up to 2 dental hygienists and 3 unlicensed persons in any one practice setting through a written practice agreement pursuant to subsection 3 . [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).]

3. Practice requirements. A dental therapist must comply with the following practice limitations. A. [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (RP).] B. A dental therapist may practice under the general supervision of a dentist through a written practice agreement signed by both parties. A written practice agreement is a signed document that outlines the functions that the dental therapist is authorized to perform, which may not exceed the scopes of practice specified in subsections 1 and 2 . A dental therapist may practice only under the standing order of the supervising dentist, may provide only care that follows written protocols and may provide only services that the dental therapist is authorized to provide by the written practice agreement. [PL 2023, c. 354, §11 (AMD).] C. A written practice agreement between a supervising dentist and a dental therapist must include the following elements: (1) The services and procedures and the practice settings for those services and procedures that the dental therapist may provide, together with any limitations on those services and procedures; (2) Any age-specific and procedure-specific practice protocols, including case selection criteria, assessment guidelines and imaging frequency; (3) Procedures to be used with patients treated by the dental therapist for obtaining informed consent and for creating and maintaining dental records; (4) A plan for review of patient records by the supervising dentist and the dental therapist; (5) A plan for managing medical emergencies in each practice setting in which the dental therapist provides care; (6) A quality assurance plan for monitoring care, including patient care review, referral follow-up and a quality assurance chart review; (7) Protocols for administering and dispensing medications, including the specific circumstances under which medications may be administered and dispensed; (8) Criteria for providing care to patients with specific medical conditions or complex medical histories, including requirements for consultation prior to initiating care; and (9) Specific written protocols, including a plan for providing clinical resources and referrals, governing situations in which the patient requires treatment that exceeds the scope of practice or capabilities of the dental therapist. [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).] D. Revisions to a written practice agreement must be documented in a new written practice agreement signed by the supervising dentist and the dental therapist. [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).] E. A dental therapist shall file a copy of a written practice agreement with the board, keep a copy for the dental therapist's own records and make a copy available to patients of the dental therapist upon request. [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).] F. A dental therapist shall refer patients in accordance with a written practice agreement to another qualified dental or health care professional to receive needed services that exceed the scope of practice of the dental therapist. [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).] G. A dental therapist who provides services or procedures beyond those authorized in a written agreement engages in unprofessional conduct and is subject to discipline pursuant to section 18325 . [PL 2019, c. 388, §10 (AMD).] [PL 2023, c. 354, §11 (AMD).]

4. Dental coverage and reimbursement. Notwithstanding Title 24‑A, section 2752 , any service performed by a dentist, dental assistant or dental hygienist licensed in this State that is reimbursed by private insurance, a dental service corporation, the MaineCare program under Title 22 or the Children's Health Insurance Program under Title 22, section 3174‑T must also be covered and reimbursed when performed by a dental therapist authorized to practice under this chapter. [PL 2023, c. 597, §19 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 18376 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 143 / Section 18376
32 §18376. Public health dental hygienist
Status: in_force

1. Scope of practice. A public health dental hygienist may perform the following procedures in a public health setting: A. Prescribe, dispense or administer fluoride, silver diamine fluoride, antimicrobial solutions for mouth rinsing, topical anesthetics, other nonsystemic antimicrobial agents, desensitizing agents and resorbable antimicrobial agents; [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (AMD).] B. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] C. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] D. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] E. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] F. Apply sealants; [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).] G. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] H. [PL 2017, c. 388, §22 (RP).] I. Expose and process radiographs; [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (AMD).] J. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] K. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] L. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] M. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] N. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] O. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] P. Perform all procedures necessary for a complete prophylaxis, including but not limited to scaling and root planing and periodontal maintenance; [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (AMD).] Q. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] R. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] S. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] T. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] U. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] V. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] W. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] X. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] Y. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] Z. Place temporary restorations in compliance with the protocol adopted by board rule; [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).] AA. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] BB. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] CC. Smooth and polish restorations; [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (AMD).] DD. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] EE. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] FF. Obtain impressions for and deliver athletic mouth guards and custom fluoride trays; and [PL 2017, c. 388, §23 (AMD).] GG. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (RP).] HH. Perform dental hygiene assessment, dental hygiene diagnosis and dental hygiene treatment planning and implementation in the identification, prevention and management of oral disease. [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 354, §9 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 14042 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 124-A / Section 14042
32 §14042. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

1. Appraisal. "Appraisal" has the same meaning as in section 14002, subsection 1 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

2. Appraisal assignment. "Appraisal assignment" means an agreement between an appraiser and an appraisal management company to provide an appraisal service. "Appraisal assignment" does not include an appraisal review or quality control examination. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

3. Appraisal management company. "Appraisal management company" means a person that: A. Provides appraisal management services to creditors or secondary mortgage market participants with appraisers who are part of an appraiser panel that includes more than 15 appraisers who are independent contractors; [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] B. Provides appraisal management services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] C. Within a calendar year or a 12-month period established by board rule, oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 certified or licensed appraisers in one state or 25 or more certified or licensed appraisers in more than one state. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] "Appraisal management company" does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

4. Appraisal management service. "Appraisal management service" means one or more of the following: A. Recruiting, selecting and retaining appraisers; [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] B. Contracting with appraisers to perform appraisal assignments; [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] C. Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided and paying appraisers for services performed; and [PL 2023, c. 543, §3 (AMD).] D. Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] [PL 2023, c. 543, §3 (AMD).]

5. Appraisal review. "Appraisal review" means the act or process of developing and communicating an opinion about the quality of the work performed by an appraiser as part of an appraisal assignment, which may take into account the appraiser's data collection, analysis, opinions, conclusions, estimate of value or compliance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice. "Appraisal review" does not include a quality control examination. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

6. Appraisal service. "Appraisal service" means an act or process of completing an appraisal assignment. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

7. Appraiser. "Appraiser" means a person licensed under chapter 124 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

8. Appraiser panel. "Appraiser panel" means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an appraisal management company to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the appraisal management company. "Appraiser panel" includes appraisers accepted by an appraisal management company for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by an appraisal management company to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

9. Board. "Board" means the Board of Real Estate Appraisers under section 14011 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

10. Client. "Client" means a person that contracts with or otherwise enters into an agreement with an appraisal management company for the performance of appraisal management services. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

11. Consumer credit. "Consumer credit" means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family or household purposes. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

12. Controlling person. "Controlling person" means: A. An owner, officer or director of an appraisal management company; [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] B. An individual employed, appointed or authorized by an appraisal management company who has authority to enter into a contractual relationship with other persons for the performance of appraisal management services and has authority to enter into agreements with appraisers for the performance of appraisal services; or [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] C. An individual who is authorized to, directly or indirectly, direct or cause the direction of the management or policies of an appraisal management company. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

13. Covered transaction. "Covered transaction" means a consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

14. Creditor. "Creditor" means a person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than 4 installments, not including a down payment, and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract or by agreement when there is no note or contract. For the purpose of this subsection, a person regularly extends consumer credit if the person: A. Extended credit, other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 Code of Federal Regulations, Section 1026.32 more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year; or [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] B. In any 12-month period, originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 Code of Federal Regulations, Section 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

15. Dwelling. "Dwelling" means a residential structure that contains one to 4 units, whether or not the structure is attached to real property. "Dwelling" includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home and trailer, if it is used as a residence. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

16. Federal appraisal subcommittee. "Federal appraisal subcommittee" means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council under 12 United States Code, Chapter 34. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

17. Federal financial institutions regulatory agency. "Federal financial institutions regulatory agency" means the federal Office of the Inspector General, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Federal Housing Finance Agency or Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; or the National Credit Union Administration. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

18. Federally regulated appraisal management company. "Federally regulated appraisal management company" means an appraisal management company that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 United States Code, Section 1813 and regulated by the federal Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. [PL 2023, c. 543, §4 (AMD).]

19. Federally related transaction. "Federally related transaction" has the same meaning as in section 14002, subsection 9 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

20. Federally related transaction regulations. "Federally related transaction regulations" means regulations established by a federal financial institutions regulatory agency pursuant to Title XI, Sections 1112, 1113 and 1114 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, 12 United States Code, Sections 3341 to 3343. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

21. Person. "Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, sole proprietorship or any other entity. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

22. Principal dwelling. "Principal dwelling" means a consumer's principal dwelling. "Principal dwelling" includes a dwelling a consumer buys or builds that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within one year or upon the completion of construction. "Principal dwelling" does not include a vacation or other second home. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

23. Quality control examination. "Quality control examination" means an examination of an appraisal report for completeness, including for grammatical, mathematical and typographical errors. "Quality control examination" does not include an appraisal review. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

24. Secondary mortgage market participant. "Secondary mortgage market participant" means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. "Secondary mortgage market participant" includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security only if that investor is also a guarantor, issuer, underwriter or issuer of the mortgage-backed security. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

25. Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice. "Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice" has the same meaning as in section 14002, subsection 15 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]
32 M.R.S. § 16503 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 135 / Section 16503
32 §16503. Evidentiary burden
Status: in_force

1. Civil. In a civil action or administrative proceeding under this chapter, a person claiming an exemption, exception, preemption or exclusion has the burden to prove the applicability of the exemption, exception, preemption or exclusion. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

2. Criminal. In a criminal proceeding under this chapter, a person claiming an exemption, exception, preemption or exclusion has the burden to prove by a preponderance of the evidence any such affirmative defense. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 1734 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 26-A / Section 1734
32 §1734. Exemptions
Status: in_force

All packages and packaging components are subject to the provisions of section 1733 unless: [PL 1989, c. 849, §1 (NEW).]

1. Manufactured prior to April 1, 1992. The package or packaging component has a code indicating a date of manufacture prior to April 1, 1992; [PL 2019, c. 277, §4 (AMD).]

2. Health and safety requirements; feasibility; post-consumer materials. The manufacturer, supplier or distributor petitions the department for an exemption for a particular package or packaging component and the department grants an exemption for one or more of the following reasons. A. The package or packaging component contains lead, cadmium, mercury or hexavalent chromium added in the manufacturing, forming, printing or distribution process in order to comply with health or safety requirements of state or federal law. [PL 1989, c. 849, §1 (NEW).] B. There is no feasible alternative to the use of lead, cadmium, mercury or hexavalent chromium in the package or packaging component. For the purposes of this section, "no feasible alternative" means a use in which the regulated substance is essential to the protection, safe handling or function of the package's contents. [PL 1989, c. 849, §1 (NEW).] C. The addition of post-consumer materials causes the package or packaging component to exceed the maximum concentration levels set forth in section 1733, subsection 3 . [PL 1989, c. 849, §1 (NEW).] For packages or packaging components exempted under paragraph A or B , a 2-year exemption may be granted and that exemption may be renewed for an additional 2 years. An exemption granted under paragraph C is valid for 6 years; or [PL 2019, c. 277, §4 (AMD).]

3. Alcoholic beverages bottled prior to April 1, 1992. The package or packaging component contains an alcoholic beverage bottled prior to April 1, 1992. [PL 2019, c. 277, §4 (AMD).]

4. Packaging and packaging components; reused. [PL 1995, c. 184, §5 (NEW); MRSA T. 32 §1734, sub-§4 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 19203 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 151 / Section 19203
32 §19203. Powers and duties of commissioner
Status: in_force

1. Liaison. The commissioner shall act as a liaison between the board and the Governor. [PL 2023, c. 580, §8 (NEW).]

2. Limitation. The commissioner may not exercise or interfere with the exercise of discretionary, regulatory or licensing authority granted by statute to the board. [PL 2023, c. 580, §8 (NEW).]

3. Accessibility to public; provide information. The commissioner may require the board to be accessible to the public for complaints and questions during regular business hours and to provide any information that the commissioner requires to ensure that the board is operating administratively within the requirements of this chapter. [PL 2023, c. 580, §8 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 7383 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 86 / Section 7383
32 §7383. Nonresident applicant for license
Status: in_force

1. Consent to action. In addition to meeting all other requirements for a license, an applicant for the issuance or renewal of a polygraph examiner license who is not a resident of this State must file with the commissioner an irrevocable consent to have: A. An action against the applicant filed in a court in a county or municipality of the state in which: (1) The plaintiff resides; or (2) A part of the transaction out of which the alleged cause of action arose occurred; and [PL 2013, c. 316, §3 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 316, §5 (AFF).] B. Process in the action under paragraph A served on the applicant by leaving 2 copies of the process with the commissioner. Service of process in the manner described under this paragraph is binding for all purposes. [PL 2013, c. 316, §3 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 316, §5 (AFF).] [PL 2013, c. 316, §3 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 316, §5 (AFF).]

2. Copy to applicant. The commissioner shall immediately send by registered or certified mail a copy of the process under subsection 1, paragraph B to the applicant at the address shown on department records. [PL 2013, c. 316, §3 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 316, §5 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 3844 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 56 / Section 3844
32 §3844. Compact privilege to practice telepsychology - Article 4
Status: in_force

1. Privilege to practice telepsychology in receiving states. Compact states shall recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a compact state in conformance with section 3843 , to practice telepsychology in receiving states in which the psychologist is not licensed under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology as provided in the compact. [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).]

2. Conditions to exercise authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology. To exercise the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms and provisions of this compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a compact state must: A. Hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was, at the time the degree was awarded: (1) Regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the United States Department of Education to grant graduate degrees or authorized by provincial statute or royal charter to grant doctoral degrees; or (2) A foreign college or university determined to satisfy subparagraph (1) by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] B. Hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria: (1) The program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. The program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists; (2) The program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution; (3) There must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines; (4) The program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study; (5) There must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities; (6) The designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty; (7) The program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree; (8) The program must include supervised practicum, internship or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology; (9) The curriculum must encompass a minimum of 3 academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degrees and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for master's degrees; and (10) The program includes an acceptable residency as defined by the rules; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] C. Possess a current, full and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a home state that is a compact state; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] D. Have no history of adverse actions that violate the rules; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] E. Have no criminal history record reported on an identity history summary that violates the rules; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] F. Possess a current, active e-passport; [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] G. Provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice, conformity with standards of practice, competence in telepsychology technology, criminal background and knowledge and adherence to legal requirements in the home and receiving states and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the commission; and [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] H. Meet other criteria as defined by the rules. [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).]

3. Home state authority. The home state maintains authority over the license of any psychologist practicing in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology. [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).]

4. Scope of practice in receiving state. A psychologist practicing in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology is subject to the receiving state's scope of practice. A receiving state may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in the receiving state and may take any other necessary actions under the receiving state's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the receiving state's citizens. If a receiving state takes action, the receiving state shall promptly notify the home state and the commission. [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).]

5. Revocation of authority. If a psychologist's license in any home state or another compact state or any authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in any receiving state is restricted, suspended or otherwise limited, the e-passport must be revoked and the psychologist is not eligible to practice telepsychology in a compact state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology. [PL 2021, c. 331, §1 (NEW).]

Revisor's Note: §3844. Professional responsibility (As enacted by PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §11 is REALLOCATED TO TILE 32, SECTION 3850-H)
32 M.R.S. § 11208 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 111-A / Section 11208
32 §11208. Securities laws unaffected
Status: in_force

Nothing in this chapter impairs, derogates or otherwise affects the authority or powers of the administrator under the Maine Uniform Securities Act or the application of any provision to that Act to any person or transaction subject to that Act. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. C, §18 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 17304 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 137 / Section 17304
32 §17304. Scope of practice; audiologists
Status: in_force

Audiologists identify, assess, manage and interpret test results related to disorders of human hearing, balance and other neural systems, including the dispensing of hearing aids. Audiologists also supervise programs and services related to human communication and its disorders; counsel families, individuals and caregivers; and provide consultation, make referrals and develop preventative programs. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

The provisions of this section pertaining to the scope of practice for audiologists neither limit nor infringe upon licensure laws of other regulated professions in this State. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 2285 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 32 / Section 2285
32 §2285. Fees
Status: in_force

The director may establish by rule fees for purposes authorized under this chapter in amounts that are reasonable and necessary for their respective purposes, except that the fee for any one purpose may not exceed $120. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2019, c. 287, §16 (AMD).]

1. Amount. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. L, §10 (RP).]

2. Disposal of fees. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. L, §10 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 6199 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80-B / Section 6199
32 §6199. Enforcement
Status: in_force

This section applies to any violation of this chapter in connection with the actions of a foreclosure purchaser. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

1. Enforcement. In addition to other actions allowed pursuant to this section, the administrator may undertake any authorized actions pursuant to Title 9‑A, Article 6 to ensure compliance with this chapter. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

2. Private action. A private cause of action may be brought by a foreclosed homeowner on the basis of a violation of this chapter. A foreclosed homeowner may be awarded actual and consequential damages and costs, including reasonable attorney's fees, and may be granted injunctive, declaratory and other equitable relief the court determines appropriate in an action to enforce compliance with this chapter. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

3. Remedies cumulative. The remedies provided in this section are cumulative and do not restrict any remedy that is otherwise available. The provisions of this chapter are not exclusive and are in addition to any other requirements, rights, remedies and penalties provided by state or federal law. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

4. Improvident transfer. The remedies provided under Title 33, chapter 20 apply to any violation of this chapter in connection with actions of a foreclosure purchaser. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

5. Stay of eviction action. The automatic stay of an eviction action is governed by this subsection. A. A court hearing an eviction action against a foreclosed homeowner must issue an automatic stay without imposition of a bond if a defendant makes a prima facie showing that the defendant: (1) Has commenced an action concerning a foreclosure reconveyance; asserts a defense under that action that the property that is the subject of the eviction action is also the subject of a foreclosure reconveyance in violation of this chapter; or asserts a claim or affirmative defense of fraud, false pretense, false promise, misrepresentation, misleading statement or deceptive practice in connection with a foreclosure reconveyance; (2) Owned the residence in foreclosure; (3) Conveyed title to the residence in foreclosure to a 3rd party upon a promise that the defendant would be allowed to occupy the residence or other real property in which the foreclosure purchaser or a person acting in participation with the foreclosure purchaser has an interest and that the residence or other real property would be the subject of a foreclosure reconveyance; and (4) Since the conveyance, has continuously occupied the residence in foreclosure or other real property in which the foreclosure purchaser or a person acting in participation with the foreclosure purchaser has an interest. For purposes of this subparagraph, notarized affidavits are acceptable means of proof to meet the defendant's burden. Upon good cause shown, a defendant may request and the court may grant up to an additional 2 weeks to produce evidence required to make the prima facie showing. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).] B. The automatic stay expires upon the later of: (1) The failure of the foreclosed homeowner to commence an action in a court of competent jurisdiction in connection with a foreclosure reconveyance within 90 days after the issuance of the stay; and (2) The issuance of an order lifting the stay by a court hearing claims related to the foreclosure reconveyance. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]

6. Unfair trade practice. The Attorney General may bring an action under Title 5, chapter 10 for any violation of this chapter. [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14043 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 124-A / Section 14043
32 §14043. License required
Status: in_force

1. License. A person shall obtain a license from the board before: A. Directly or indirectly engaging or attempting to engage in business as an appraisal management company; [PL 2019, c. 501, §14 (AMD).] B. Directly or indirectly performing or attempting to perform appraisal management services; or [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] C. Advertising or holding the person out as engaging in or conducting business as an appraisal management company. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] [PL 2019, c. 501, §14 (AMD).]

2. Application. An applicant for licensure as an appraisal management company shall submit to the board an application on forms prescribed by the board and pay a fee established by the board. The board shall review and approve or deny an application for an initial license or an application for renewal of a license. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

3. Consent to service of process. An applicant for licensure as an appraisal management company shall complete an irrevocable consent to service of process as prescribed by the board. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

4. Information required. An appraisal management company licensed or applying to be licensed shall provide to the board all information that the board is required to submit to the federal appraisal subcommittee pursuant to regulations or guidance promulgated by the federal appraisal subcommittee. [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]

5. Federally regulated appraisal management companies. Notwithstanding subsection 1 , a federally regulated appraisal management company is not required to obtain a license from the board. A federally regulated appraisal management company shall: A. Notify the board of its intent to operate in the State; and [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] B. Provide to the board information required to be submitted by the board to the federal appraisal subcommittee pursuant to regulations and policies of the federal appraisal subcommittee regarding the determination of a national registry fee under section 14045, subsection 2 . [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).] [PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. D, §1 (REEN).]
32 M.R.S. § 18444 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 143 / Section 18444
32 §18444. Consistent effect and conflict with other state laws
Status: in_force

1. Enforcement. Nothing in this subchapter prevents or inhibits the enforcement of any law of a participating state that is not inconsistent with the compact. [PL 2023, c. 664, §1 (NEW).]

2. Conflict. Any laws, rules or other legal requirements in a participating state in conflict with the compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict. [PL 2023, c. 664, §1 (NEW).]

3. Binding agreements. All permissible agreements between the commission and the participating states are binding in accordance with the terms of the agreement. [PL 2023, c. 664, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 15208-A — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 133 / Section 15208-A
32 §15208-A. Registration of elevator contractors
Status: in_force

Any person, firm, partnership, association, corporation or company engaged in the installation, sale, service, maintenance or inspection of elevators in this State shall register with the director. The registration must be submitted on a form provided by the director and must include the names and addresses of all licensed private inspectors, licensed mechanics and all helpers employed by the elevator contractor. An elevator contractor shall notify the director of any change in the information required under this section within 30 days of the change. The required fee for registration must be set by the director under section 15225‑A . [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. D, §13 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 12515 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 113-B / Section 12515
32 §12515. Reapplication
Status: in_force

Any applicant who is denied a license as an acupuncturist may apply again for licensing after a period of not less than 6 months from the date of the last denial. [PL 1995, c. 671, §13 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 564 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 9 / Section 564
32 §564. Rulemaking
Status: in_force

The board may establish rules to implement this subchapter. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2019, c. 187, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 6171 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80-A / Section 6171
32 §6171. Short title
Status: in_force

This chapter may be known and cited as the "Debt Management Services Act." [PL 2007, c. 36, §1 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 6097 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 79-A / Section 6097
32 §6097. Notice and information requirements for change of key individuals
Status: in_force

Notice and information requirements for a change of key individuals is governed by this section. [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]

1. Licensee adding or replacing key individual. A licensee adding or replacing a key individual shall: A. Provide notice in a manner prescribed by the administrator within 15 days of the effective date of the key individual's appointment; and [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).] B. Provide information as required by section 6090 within 45 days of the effective date of the key individual's appointment. [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]

2. Notice of disapproval. Within 90 days of the date on which the notice provided pursuant to subsection 1 is determined to be complete, the administrator may issue a notice of disapproval of a key individual if the competence, experience, character or integrity of the individual indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the public or the customers of the licensee to permit the individual to be a key individual of the licensee. [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]

3. Basis of disapproval. A notice of disapproval must contain a statement of the basis for disapproval and be sent to the licensee and the disapproved individual. An applicant whose application is denied by the administrator under this section may request a hearing on the issue in accordance with Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 4 . [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]

4. Approval. If the notice provided pursuant to subsection 1 is not disapproved within 90 days of the date on which the notice is determined to be complete, the key individual is deemed approved. [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]

5. Multistate licensing process. If a multistate licensing process includes a key individual notice review and disapproval process pursuant to this section and the licensee avails itself or is otherwise subject to the multistate licensing process: A. The administrator may accept the determination of another state if the investigating state has sufficient staffing, expertise and minimum standards for the purposes of this section; or [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).] B. If the State is a lead investigative state, the administrator may investigate the applicant pursuant to subsection 2 and the time frames established by agreement through the multistate licensing process. [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 662, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 15104-B — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 131 / Section 15104-B
32 §15104-B. Appeals; variances
Status: in_force

A person aggrieved by an order or act of the chief inspector or a deputy inspector under this chapter may, within 15 days after notice of the order or act, appeal from the order or act to the director, who shall hold a hearing pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 4 . After the hearing, the director shall issue an appropriate order either approving or disapproving the order or act. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §12 (AMD).]

A person who is or will be aggrieved by the application of any law, code or rule relating to the installation or alteration of boilers and pressure vessels may file a petition for a variance, whether compliance with that provision is required at the time of filing or at the time that provision becomes effective. The filing fee for a petition for a variance must be set by the director under section 15104‑C . The chief inspector may grant a variance if, owing to conditions especially affecting the particular boiler or pressure vessel involved, the enforcement of any law, code or rule relating to boilers or pressure vessels would do manifest injustice or cause substantial hardship, financial or otherwise, to the petitioner or would be unreasonable under the circumstances as long as desirable relief may be granted without substantial detriment to the public good and without nullifying or substantially derogating from the intent or purpose of that law, code or rule. In granting a variance under this section, the chief inspector may impose limitations both of time and of use, and a continuation of the use permitted may be conditioned upon compliance with rules made and amended from time to time. A copy of the decision must be sent to all interested parties. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §12 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 6174 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80-A / Section 6174
32 §6174. Bond required
Status: in_force

Each application must be accompanied by evidence of a surety bond in a form approved by the administrator in the aggregate amount of $50,000 to run to the administrator for use by the administrator and any person or persons who may have a cause of action against a debt management service provider. The terms of the bond must run concurrently with the period of time during which the registration is in effect. [PL 1999, c. 560, §3 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 16531 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 135 / Section 16531
32 §16531. Refund of excess award
Status: in_force

A claimant shall refund to the administrator any amount of restitution received that when combined with the restitution assistance under this subchapter exceeds the restitution award in the final order. [PL 2021, c. 576, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14249 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 126 / Section 14249
32 §14249. Complaints
Status: in_force

The director may investigate complaints involving a school including any allegation of noncompliance with or violation of this subchapter and applicable rules. The director shall promptly notify the Finance Authority of Maine of any complaints involving student financial assistance. After a hearing in conformance with Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 4 , the director may amend or modify any license and may suspend or refuse to renew a license as provided in Title 5, section 10004 . [PL 2009, c. 369, Pt. B, §41 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 18392 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 143 / Section 18392
32 §18392. Removable dental prosthesis; owner identification
Status: in_force

1. Identification required. Every complete upper and lower denture and removable dental prosthesis fabricated by a dentist or denturist, or fabricated pursuant to the dentist's or denturist's work order or under the dentist's or denturist's direction or supervision, must be marked with the name and social security number of the patient for whom the prosthesis is intended. The markings must be made during fabrication and must be permanent, legible and cosmetically acceptable. The exact location of the markings and the methods used to apply or implant the markings must be determined by the dentist or dental laboratory fabricating the prosthesis. If, in the professional judgment of the dentist or dental laboratory, this identification is not practical, identification must be provided as follows: A. The social security number of the patient may be omitted if the name of the patient is shown; [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).] B. The initials of the patient may be shown alone, if use of the name of the patient is impracticable; or [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).] C. The identification marks may be omitted in their entirety if none of the forms of identification specified in paragraphs A and B are practicable or clinically safe. [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).] [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).]

2. Applicability. A removable dental prosthesis in existence prior to September 23, 1983 that was not marked in accordance with subsection 1 at the time of its fabrication must be marked in accordance with subsection 1 at the time of a subsequent rebasing. [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).]

3. Violation. Failure of a dentist or denturist to comply with this section constitutes grounds for discipline pursuant to section 18325 , as long as the dentist or denturist is charged with the violation within 2 years of initial insertion of the dental prosthetic device. [PL 2015, c. 429, §21 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 6151 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80 / Section 6151
32 §6151. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this subchapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

1. Administrator. "Administrator" means the Superintendent of Consumer Credit Protection within the Department of Professional and Financial Regulation. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 273, Pt. B, §6 (REV); PL 2007, c. 695, Pt. A, §47 (AFF).]

2. Cash-dispensing machine. "Cash-dispensing machine" means an electronic device that, operating in conjunction with a processor and network, allows a customer to debit an account in exchange for dispensing cash and that may allow a customer to effectuate account transfers subject to the limitations of section 6152 . It does not include a satellite facility operated by a financial institution or service corporation, a point-of-sale terminal or a consumer-owned and consumer-operated personal computer terminal. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

3. Establish. "Establish" means to own, lease or otherwise legally control. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

4. Financial institution. "Financial institution" means any financial institution as defined in Title 9‑B, section 131, subsection 17 ; any credit union as defined in Title 9‑B, section 131, subsection 12 ; or any bank, commercial bank, savings bank, trust company, building and loan association, savings and loan association, savings association, cooperative bank, credit union or similar banking or credit union organization chartered by any other state or by the Federal Government. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

5. Network. "Network" means a person who engages primarily in the establishment and maintenance of a computer-operated system for transmitting items and messages between financial institutions, processors and cash-dispensing machines or similar electronic devices. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

6. Operator. "Operator" means the person who owns, leases or otherwise legally controls a cash-dispensing machine and is responsible for registering the cash-dispensing machine. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

7. Person. "Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation or other business association recognized under state law. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

8. Processor. "Processor" means a person who electronically acquires financial data emanating from a cash-dispensing machine and relays that data to a network. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

9. Satellite facility. "Satellite facility" means a satellite facility as defined in Title 9‑B, section 131, subsection 35 . [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

10. Service corporation. "Service corporation" means a service corporation, as defined in Title 9‑B, section 131, subsection 37 , owned by one or more financial institutions. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]

11. Servicing agent. "Servicing agent" means a person who contracts with an operator to provide customer relations, financial recordkeeping or similar services in regard to a cash-dispensing machine. [PL 1999, c. 229, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 17503 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 137 / Section 17503
32 §17503. State participation in the compact
Status: in_force

To participate in the compact, a member state shall meet the requirements of this section. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

1. Recognition of compact privilege. A member state shall recognize a license issued to an audiologist or speech-language pathologist by a home state to a resident in that state as authorizing an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to practice audiology or speech-language pathology, under a privilege to practice, in each member state. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

2. Home state license. A member state shall require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable state laws. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

3. Audiologist requirements. A member state must require that to be granted a compact privilege, an audiologist must: A. Meet one of the following educational requirements: (1) On or before December 31, 2007, have graduated with a master's degree or doctorate in audiology, or equivalent degree, regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; (2) On or after January 1, 2008, have graduated with a doctorate in audiology, or equivalent degree, regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; or (3) Have graduated from an audiology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States: (a) For which the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country; (b) For which the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program; and (c) For which the audiologist has completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an accredited educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the commission; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] B. Have successfully passed a national examination approved by the commission; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] C. Hold an active, unencumbered license; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] D. Have not been convicted or found guilty, and have not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of audiology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; and [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] E. Have a valid social security number or National Practitioner Identification number. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

4. Speech-language pathologist requirements. A member state must require that to be granted a compact privilege, a speech-language pathologist must: A. Meet one of the following educational requirements: (1) Have graduated with a master's degree from a speech-language pathology program that is accredited by an organization recognized by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the board; or (2) Have graduated from a speech-language pathology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States: (a) For which the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country; and (b) For which the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] B. Have completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the commission; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] C. Have completed a supervised postgraduate professional experience as required by the commission; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] D. Have successfully passed a national examination approved by the commission; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] E. Hold an active, unencumbered license; [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] F. Have not been convicted or found guilty, and have not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of speech-language pathology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; and [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] G. Have a valid social security number or National Practitioner Identification number. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

5. Consideration of criminal history records. A member state must implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for initial privilege to practice. These procedures must include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records. A. A member state must fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and using the results in making licensure decisions. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] B. Communication between a member state and the commission and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the compact may not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under the federal Departments of State, Justice, and Commerce, the Judiciary, and Related Agencies Appropriation Act, 1973, Title II, Public Law 92-544 (1972). [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

6. Other state information. Upon application for a privilege to practice, the licensing board in the issuing remote state shall ascertain, through the data system, whether the applicant has ever held, or is the holder of, a license issued by any other state, whether there are any encumbrances on any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant and whether any adverse action has been taken against any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

7. Privilege to practice. The privilege to practice is derived from the home state license. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

8. Compliance with practice laws; client location. An audiologist or speech-language pathologist practicing in a member state must comply with the state practice laws of the state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology must include all audiology and speech-language pathology practice as defined by the state practice laws of the member state in which the client is located. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology in a member state under a privilege to practice subjects an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to the jurisdiction of the licensing board, the courts and the laws of the member state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

9. Nonresidents. An individual not residing in a member state is able to apply for a member state's single-state license as provided under the laws of that member state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals may not be recognized as granting the compact privilege in any other member state. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

10. No effect on single-state license authority. Nothing in this compact affects the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]

11. Fee. A member state may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege. [PL 2023, c. 310, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 3300-AA — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 48 / Section 3300-AA
32 §3300-AA. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this subchapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]

1. Asynchronous encounter. "Asynchronous encounter" means an interaction between a patient and a person licensed under this chapter through a system that has the ability to store digital information, including, but not limited to, still images, video files, audio files, text files and other relevant data, and to transmit such information without requiring the simultaneous presence of the patient and the person licensed under this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]

2. Store and forward transfer. "Store and forward transfer" means the transmission of a patient's records through a secure electronic system to a person licensed under this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]

3. Synchronous encounter. "Synchronous encounter" means a real-time interaction conducted with an interactive audio or video connection between a patient and a person licensed under this chapter or between a person licensed under this chapter and another health care provider. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]

4. Telehealth services. "Telehealth services" means health care services delivered through the use of information technology and includes synchronous encounters, asynchronous encounters, store and forward transfers and telemonitoring. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]

5. Telemonitoring. "Telemonitoring" means the use of information technology to remotely monitor a patient's health status via electronic means, allowing the person licensed under this chapter to track the patient's health data over time. Telemonitoring may be synchronous or asynchronous. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §9 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 6136 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80 / Section 6136
32 §6136. Registration term; renewal
Status: in_force

1. Effective registrations. Registration pursuant to this subchapter remains effective through the remainder of the calendar year of its date of issuance, unless sooner surrendered, suspended or revoked. [PL 1997, c. 155, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

2. Annual renewal. Registrations must be renewed annually, in such form as the administrator may prescribe. [PL 1997, c. 155, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14363 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 127-A / Section 14363
32 §14363. Telehealth services
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Asynchronous encounter" means an interaction between an individual and a person licensed under this chapter through a system that has the ability to store digital information, including, but not limited to, still images, video files, audio files, text files and other relevant data, and to transmit such information without requiring the simultaneous presence of the individual and the person licensed under this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).] B. "Store and forward transfer" means the transmission of individual's records through a secure electronic system to a person licensed under this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).] C. "Synchronous encounter" means a real-time interaction conducted with an interactive audio or video connection between an individual and a person licensed under this chapter or between a person licensed under this chapter and another health care provider. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).] D. "Telehealth services" means health care services delivered through the use of information technology and includes synchronous encounters, asynchronous encounters, store and forward transfers and telemonitoring. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).] E. "Telemonitoring" means the use of information technology to remotely monitor an individual's health status via electronic means, allowing the person licensed under this chapter to track the individual's health data over time. Telemonitoring may be synchronous or asynchronous. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).]

2. Telehealth services permitted. A person licensed under this chapter may provide telehealth services as long as the licensee acts within the scope of practice of the licensee's license, in accordance with any requirements and restrictions imposed by this section and in accordance with standards of practice. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).]

3. Confidentiality. When providing telehealth services, a person licensed under this chapter shall comply with all state and federal confidentiality and privacy laws. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).]

4. Professional responsibility. All laws and rules governing professional responsibility, unprofessional conduct and generally accepted standards of practice that apply to a person licensed under this chapter also apply to that licensee while providing telehealth services. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).]

5. Rulemaking. The commissioner shall adopt rules governing telehealth services by persons licensed under this chapter. These rules shall establish standards of practice and appropriate restrictions for the various types and forms of telehealth services. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as defined by Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §21 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 62 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 2 / Section 62
32 §62. Definitions
Status: in_force

1. Administrator. "Administrator" means an individual who is charged with and has responsibility for the general administration of a facility other than a hospital whether or not such individual has an ownership interest in such home and whether or not that individual's functions and duties are shared with one or more other individuals. [PL 1991, c. 341, §2 (AMD).]

1-A. Administrator-in-training. "Administrator-in-training" means an individual who meets the qualifications set forth in rules by the board, is engaged in a training program defined in rules and approved by the board and is under the supervision of a preceptor also approved by the board. [PL 1995, c. 502, Pt. H, §19 (NEW).]

2. Board. "Board" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing Board. [PL 1985, c. 233, §4 (AMD).]

2-A. Commissioner. "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Professional and Financial Regulation. [PL 1987, c. 769, Pt. A, §118 (AMD).]

2-B. Department. "Department" means the Department of Professional and Financial Regulation. [PL 1987, c. 769, Pt. A, §118 (AMD).]

3. Medical care facility other than hospitals. "Medical care facility other than hospitals" means any facility providing therein, in addition to lodging and board, medical care or nursing supervision to sick, invalid, infirm, disabled or convalescent persons. [PL 1985, c. 233, §4 (AMD).]

4. Preceptor. "Preceptor" means an individual who is licensed by the board and who meets qualifications set forth in rules by the board to supervise the program of one or more administrators-in-training. [PL 1995, c. 502, Pt. H, §20 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 4181 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 62 / Section 4181
32 §4181. Penalty
Status: in_force

It is unlawful for any person, firm or corporation, either municipal or private, to operate a wastewater treatment plant unless the competency of the operator or operator in responsible charge is certified to by the department under this chapter. It is unlawful for any person to perform the duties of an operator or operator in responsible charge without being duly certified under this chapter. The department may further grant a waiver for a period not exceeding one year for the operation of a wastewater treatment plant serving not more than 500 services in the event the wastewater treatment plant can demonstrate, to the department's satisfaction, that the certification requirements cannot be met. [PL 2021, c. 173, §17 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 1407 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 21 / Section 1407
32 §1407. Disclosure of funeral establishment ownership; rental caskets
Status: in_force

1. Ownership information. A funeral establishment shall disclose the name and address of each person holding an ownership interest in the funeral establishment on each contract or agreement for provision of funeral services or supplies and on any document required by federal law. [PL 1999, c. 282, §1 (NEW).]

2. Rental caskets. A funeral establishment shall disclose on its general price list and casket price list either that the funeral establishment offers rental caskets and the cost of rental or that the funeral establishment does not offer rental caskets. [PL 1999, c. 282, §1 (NEW).]

3. Federal Trade Commission regulations. The disclosures required under this section supplement the disclosures required by the Federal Trade Commission pursuant to its regulations governing the funeral industry. [PL 1999, c. 282, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 12612 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 113-B / Section 12612
32 §12612. Telehealth services permitted
Status: in_force

A person licensed under this chapter may provide telehealth services as long as the licensee acts within the scope of practice of the licensee's license, in accordance with any requirements and restrictions imposed by this subchapter and in accordance with standards of practice. [PL 2021, c. 291, Pt. B, §18 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 15109 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 131 / Section 15109
32 §15109. Stationary steam engineers and boiler operators
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Capacity" means the potential output of a steam boiler designated in pounds per hour of steam flow or its equivalent based on heating surface in the applicable chapter of the code. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] B. [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. H, §1 (RP).] C. "Have charge of" means the general supervisory control over the operation and maintenance of a plant and other stationary steam engineers or other personnel engaged in the operation of the plant. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] D. "Operate" means to control by observation and manipulation of mechanical or automatic and remote controls equipment in connection with a plant, but does not include persons who "have charge of" the plant. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] E. "Plant" means heating plant, power plant or process plant. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] F. "#/HR" means pounds of steam per hour output or equivalent. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] G. "Psi" means pounds per square inch. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] H. "Supervise" means to have supervisory control over the operation and maintenance of a plant, other stationary steam engineers or other personnel engaged in the operation or maintenance of a plant, but does not mean "have charge of" as defined in paragraph C . [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. H, §1 (AMD).]

2. Licenses. [PL 2003, c. 597, §1 (RP).]

2-A. Licenses. In order to safeguard life, health and property, the director shall provide for the mandatory licensing of stationary steam engineers and boiler operators. This subsection does not apply to: A. Persons operating boilers exempt under section 15102 ; [PL 2003, c. 597, §2 (NEW).] B. Persons employed by entities under the jurisdiction of the Public Utilities Commission or the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or its successor or other organization approved by the director; or [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §18 (AMD).] C. Persons operating steam heating boilers, hot water heating boilers and hot water supply boilers located in schoolhouses or owned by municipalities. [PL 2003, c. 597, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §18 (AMD).]

3. Issuance of license. The director shall issue a license to an applicant in the grade requested, upon payment of the application fee and license fee as set under section 15104‑C , if the applicant has satisfactorily met the examination and other requirements of this section. A. A license expires on the date set by the commissioner pursuant to Title 10, section 8003, subsection 4 for the licensing period for which the license is issued. A license may be renewed upon receipt of the application for renewal and payment of the renewal fee as set in section 15104‑C . A license may be renewed up to 90 days after the date of its expiration upon payment of a late fee in addition to the renewal fee as set under section 15104‑C . Any person who submits an application for renewal more than 90 days after the license expiration date shall pay an additional late fee as set under section 15104‑C and is subject to all requirements governing new applicants under this chapter, except that the director, after giving due consideration to the protection of the public, may waive examination or other requirements. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the director shall waive examination if a renewal application is made within 90 days after separation from the United States Armed Forces, under conditions other than dishonorable, by a person who has failed to renew that person's license because that person was on active duty in the Armed Forces; except that the waiver of examination may not be granted if the person served more than 4 years in the Armed Forces, except if that person is required by some mandatory provision to serve a longer period and that person submits satisfactory evidence of this mandatory provision to the director. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §19 (AMD).] B. [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. H, §2 (RP).] C. The director shall determine the eligibility for licensure of any applicant who holds a current stationary steam engineering license issued by the proper authority of any state, territory or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia or Canada that has requirements equal to those of this State and recognizes the license issued by this State without further examination. The director shall certify as eligible for a license any applicant who holds a current Canadian marine or United States Coast Guard marine engineer's license and who has worked as a boiler engineer or operator 3 of the last 5 years prior to application. The applicant bears the burden of proving those matters necessary for a license based on reciprocity. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §19 (AMD).] [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. H, §2 (AMD).]

4. Denial or revocation of license. [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. W, §13 (RP).]

5. Examination committee. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. MM, §9 (RP).]

5-A. Examination committee; duties. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. MM, §10 (RP).]

6. Examinations. [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. W, §16 (RP).]

6-A. Examinations. Applicants for licensure shall present to the director a written application for examination accompanied by the required fee as set under section 15104‑C . Examinations must be in whole or in part in writing and of a thorough and practical character commensurate with the responsibilities of the prospective license holder. The passing grade on any examination may not be less than 70%. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §20 (AMD).]

7. Scope of licenses. The scope of a boiler operator's license and 4 classes of engineering licenses is as set out in this subsection. A. [PL 2003, c. 597, §4 (RP).] B. The holder of a boiler operator's license may operate, supervise or have charge of a heating plant having a capacity of not more than 20,000 #/HR or operate or supervise a plant up to the capacity of the license of the engineer in charge of the plant in which the licensee is employed. The applicant for a boiler operator's license must have 6 months' operating experience prior to examination under a boiler operator's training permit. The director shall issue a permit for the purpose of gaining that experience upon receipt of the required fee as set under section 15104‑C . Such a permit must be limited to a specified plant and must be limited to one year. The director may extend the permit for a period not to exceed one year under unusual circumstances. The director may allow the owner of a small plant to sit for the boiler operator's examination without first obtaining a boiler operator's training permit. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §21 (AMD).] C. The holder of a 4th-class engineer's license may have charge of a plant of not more than 50,000 #/HR or operate or supervise a plant up to the capacity of the license of the engineer in charge of the plant in which the licensee is employed. An applicant for a 4th-class engineer's license must be a high school graduate or have equivalent education and at least one year of operating or supervising experience under a duly licensed engineer having charge of a plant. An applicant for a 4th-class engineer's license must have at least one year operating or supervising experience as a boiler operator. [PL 2003, c. 597, §6 (AMD).] D. The holder of a 3rd-class engineer's license may have charge of a plant of not more than 100,000 #/HR or operate or supervise a plant up to the capacity of the license of the engineer in charge of the plant in which the licensee is employed. An applicant for a 3rd-class engineer's license must have at least one year operating or supervising experience as a 4th-class engineer. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] E. The holder of a 2nd-class engineer's license may have charge of a plant of not more than 200,000 #/HR or operate or supervise a plant up to the capacity of the license of the engineer in charge of the plant in which the licensee is employed. An applicant for a 2nd-class engineer's license must have at least 2 years operating or supervising experience as a 3rd-class engineer. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] F. The holder of a first-class engineer's license may operate, supervise or have charge of a plant of unlimited steam capacity. An applicant for a first-class engineer's license must have at least 2 years operating or supervisory experience as a 2nd-class engineer. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).] G. One year of schooling in the field of boiler operation in a school approved by the director is equivalent to 6 months of operating experience. The director may conduct an accreditation review of the technical school. The technical school shall pay a fee for the accreditation review. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §22 (AMD).] H. In the event of a lack of qualified personnel in the plant in which the applicant is employed, the director may waive the operating experience requirements of the applicant for examination for the next higher grade of license. Any such license issued must be limited to that plant. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §23 (AMD).] I. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, the director may permit an applicant to take the examination for a license if, in the director's opinion, the experience or educational qualifications, or both, of the applicant are equivalent to the operating experience required by this subsection. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §23 (AMD).] [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §§21-23 (AMD).]

8. Rules. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §24 (RP).]

9. Fees. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. MM, §14 (RP).]

10. Committee expenses. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. MM, §15 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 3300 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 48 / Section 3300
32 §3300. Release of contact lens prescription
Status: in_force

After contact lenses have been adequately fitted and the patient released from immediate follow-up care by the physician, the patient may request a copy of the contact lens specifications from the physician. The physician shall provide a copy of the prescription, at no cost, which must contain the information necessary to properly duplicate the current prescription. The contact lens prescription must contain an expiration date not to exceed 24 months from the date of issue. The prescription may contain fitting guidelines and may also contain specific instructions for use by the patient. [PL 1997, c. 117, §7 (AMD).]

The prescribing physician is not liable for an injury to or a condition of a patient that results from negligence in packaging, manufacturing or dispensing lenses by anyone other than the prescribing physician. [PL 1993, c. 600, Pt. A, §227 (AMD).]

The dispensing party may dispense contact lenses only upon receipt of a written prescription, except that a physician may fill a prescription of an optometrist or another physician without a copy of the prescription. Mail order contact lens suppliers must be licensed by and register with the Board of Commissioners of the Profession of Pharmacy pursuant to section 13751, subsection 3‑A and are subject to discipline by that board for violations of that board's rules and the laws governing the board. An individual who fills a contact lens prescription shall maintain a file of that prescription for a period of 5 years. An individual, a corporation or any other entity, other than a mail order contact lens supplier, that improperly fills a contact lens prescription or fills an expired prescription commits a civil violation for which a forfeiture of not less than $250 nor more than $1,000 may be adjudged. [PL 1997, c. 117, §8 (AMD).]

An individual may file a complaint with the board seeking disciplinary action concerning violations of this section. The board shall investigate or cause to be investigated and shall resolve a complaint. The board shall conduct its actions in accordance with the Maine Administrative Procedure Act. [PL 1993, c. 600, Pt. A, §227 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 7367 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 86 / Section 7367
32 §7367. Examination considered complete
Status: in_force

A person to whom a polygraph examination is administered is considered to have taken the polygraph examination if the person participates to any extent in the formalities of the pre-test phase of the polygraph examination. [PL 2015, c. 316, §4 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 13774 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 117 / Section 13774
32 §13774. Denial of payment
Status: in_force

No program administrator may deny to any pharmacy payment for services which may have resulted from the fraudulent or illegal use of an identification card by any person, unless the pharmacy has been notified that the card has been canceled or discontinued and that the program administrator has been unsuccessful in attempting to regain possession of the card. [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 3115 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 45-A / Section 3115
32 §3115. Licensure
Status: in_force

The board shall license an applicant who meets the requirements of this chapter and pays the biennial licensure fee as set under section 3116‑A . Licensure as a physical therapist entitles the person to whom it is granted to engage in the practice of physical therapy anywhere in this State and to use the words "physical therapist" or letters "P.T." to indicate that the person is licensed in this State. Licensure as a physical therapist assistant entitles the person to whom it is granted to act as a physical therapist assistant and to use the words "physical therapist assistant" or letters "P.T.A." to indicate that the person is licensed in this State. [PL 2009, c. 112, Pt. A, §8 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 2283 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 32 / Section 2283
32 §2283. Renewal of license
Status: in_force

1. Renewal. A license renewal fee as set under section 2285 must be paid by the licensee. Licenses issued under this chapter are subject to renewal and expire on the stated expiration date as determined by the commissioner. Any license not renewed by the designated renewal date automatically expires. Licenses may be renewed up to 90 days after the date of expiration upon payment of a late fee in addition to the renewal fee as set under section 2285 . Any person who submits an application for renewal more than 90 days after the date of expiration is subject to all requirements governing new applicants under this chapter, except that the board, giving due consideration to the protection of the public, may waive examination if that renewal application is received, together with the late fee and renewal fee, within 2 years from the date of the expiration. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. L, §8 (RPR).]

2. Inactive status. [PL 1991, c. 509, §16 (RP).]

3. Continuing education. [PL 2019, c. 287, §14 (RP).]

4. Continuing education requirements for license renewal. As a condition of renewal of a license, the board shall prescribe by rule continuing education requirements as authorized under Title 10, section 8003, subsection 5‑A, paragraph D . [PL 2021, c. 278, §3 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14201 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 126 / Section 14201
32 §14201. Short title
Status: in_force

This chapter may be known and cited as the "Barbering and Cosmetology Licensure Act." [PL 1991, c. 397, §6 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 3817-A — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 56 / Section 3817-A
32 §3817-A. Services to minors with consent of a parent or guardian
Status: in_force

A person licensed under this chapter who practices clinical psychology and who renders services under this chapter to a minor with the consent of one of the minor's parents or the minor's guardian is under no obligation to obtain the consent of any other parent or guardian of the minor. Nothing in this section may be construed so as to prohibit the licensed person rendering the services from informing another parent or guardian of the services. [PL 2021, c. 302, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 16602 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 135 / Section 16602
32 §16602. Investigations and subpoenas
Status: in_force

1. Authority to investigate. The administrator may: A. Conduct public or private investigations within or outside of this State that the administrator considers necessary or appropriate to determine whether a person has violated, is violating or is about to violate this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter or to aid in the enforcement of this chapter or in the adoption of rules and forms under this chapter; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] B. Require or permit a person to testify, file a statement or produce a record, under oath or otherwise as the administrator determines, as to all the facts and circumstances concerning a matter to be investigated or about which an action or proceeding is to be instituted; and [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] C. Publish a record concerning an action, proceeding or investigation under, or a violation of, this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter if the administrator determines it is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

2. Administrator powers to investigate. For the purpose of an investigation under this chapter, the administrator or the administrator's designated officer may administer oaths and affirmations, subpoena witnesses, seek compulsion of attendance, take evidence, require the filing of statements and require the production of any records that the administrator considers relevant or material to the investigation. It is unlawful to fail to provide any statement or record if requested. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

3. Procedure and remedies for noncompliance. If a person does not appear or refuses to testify, file a statement or produce records or otherwise does not obey a subpoena as required by the administrator under this chapter, the administrator may request that the Attorney General apply to either the Superior Court located in Kennebec County or the Superior Court where service may be obtained on the person refusing to testify or produce or a court of another state to enforce compliance. The court may: A. Hold the person in contempt; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] B. Order the person to appear before the administrator; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] C. Order the person to testify about the matter under investigation or in question; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] D. Order the production of records; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] E. Grant injunctive relief, including restricting or prohibiting the offer or sale of securities or the providing of investment advice; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] F. Impose a civil fine not to exceed $10,000 per violation; and [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] G. Grant any other necessary or appropriate relief. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

4. Application for relief. This section does not preclude a person from applying to the Superior Court located in Kennebec County or a court of another state for relief from a request to appear, testify, file a statement, produce records or obey a subpoena. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

5. Assistance to securities regulator of another jurisdiction. At the request of the securities regulator of another state or a foreign jurisdiction, the administrator may provide assistance if the requesting regulator states that it is conducting an investigation to determine whether a person has violated, is violating or is about to violate a law or rule of the other state or foreign jurisdiction relating to securities matters that the requesting regulator administers or enforces. The administrator may provide the assistance by using the authority to investigate and the powers conferred by this section as the administrator determines is necessary or appropriate. The assistance may be provided without regard to whether the conduct described in the request would also constitute a violation of this chapter or other law of this State if occurring in this State. In deciding whether to provide the assistance, the administrator may consider whether the requesting regulator is permitted and has agreed to provide assistance reciprocally within its state or foreign jurisdiction to the administrator on securities matters when requested, whether compliance with the request would violate or prejudice the public policy of this State and the availability of resources and employees of the administrator to carry out the request for assistance. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 289 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 5-B / Section 289
32 §289. Rules
Status: in_force

The board may establish guidelines and rules by which this chapter is administered. Rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II‑A . Rules adopted by the board must be consistent with Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II . [PL 1999, c. 146, §5 (NEW).]

1. Adjudicatory hearings. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. G, §3 (RP).]

2. Investigations. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. G, §4 (RP).]

3. Standards of practice. The board may adopt rules governing the practice of auctioneering that establish standards of practice that serve to protect the public interest. [PL 1999, c. 146, §5 (NEW).]

4. License qualifications. The board may adopt rules relating to the qualifications of an applicant for any license authorized under this chapter that ensure that an applicant is sufficiently trustworthy and competent to practice auctioneering. [PL 1999, c. 146, §5 (NEW).]

5. Fees. [PL 2001, c. 323, §16 (RP).]

6. Other. The board may adopt any other rules that are necessary for the performance of its duties under this chapter. [PL 1999, c. 146, §5 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 1155-B — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 17 / Section 1155-B
32 §1155-B. Denial or refusal to renew license; disciplinary action
Status: in_force

1. Disciplinary sanctions. In addition to the grounds enumerated in Title 10, section 8003, subsection 5‑A, paragraph A , the board may deny a license, refuse to renew a license or impose the disciplinary sanctions authorized by Title 10, section 8003, subsection 5‑A for: A. Any gross negligence, incompetency or misconduct in the performance of the work of making electrical installations. Continued failure to conform with applicable regulations of the National Electrical Code, National Electrical Safety Code or of other safety codes that have been approved by the American National Standards Institute or its successor or other organization approved by the board is prima facie evidence of that gross negligence and incompetency; and [PL 2017, c. 198, §13 (AMD).] B. While in the business of making electrical installations, employ an unlicensed person to do that work, unless the unlicensed person is an apprentice electrician or electrician’s helper as set forth in this chapter. [PL 2011, c. 420, Pt. M, §4 (AMD); PL 2011, c. 420, Pt. M, §7 (AFF).] [PL 2017, c. 198, §13 (AMD).]

2. Reinstatement. The board, for reasons it considers sufficient, may reissue a license to any person whose license has been revoked, if 4 or more members of the board vote in favor of that reissuance. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. I, §10 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 12526 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 113-B / Section 12526
32 §12526. Fees, renewals and continuing education
Status: in_force

1. Fees. The Director of the Office of Professional and Occupational Regulation within the Department of Professional and Financial Regulation may establish by rule fees for purposes authorized under this subchapter in amounts that are reasonable and necessary for their respective purposes, except that the fee for any application may not exceed $200, the fee for initial and renewal licensure may not exceed $675 annually and the fee for initial and renewal specialty certification may not exceed $50 annually. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2003, c. 666, §9 (RPR); PL 2011, c. 286, Pt. B, §5 (REV).]

2. Renewal. A license to practice naturopathic medicine and a specialty certification must be renewed annually and be accompanied by the required renewal fee established in subsection 1 . [PL 2003, c. 666, §10 (AMD).]

3. Continuing education. When renewing a license, a naturopathic doctor must certify to successful completion of continuing education. The minimum continuing education requirement for license renewal is 25 hours annually, at least 7 hours of which must be in pharmacology. Naturopathic doctors who possess a certification in naturopathic acupuncture must complete an additional 15 hours of board-approved continuing education annually, specific to that specialty. The board may further define and implement these continuing education requirements through rulemaking. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. AA, §10 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 18224 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 141 / Section 18224
32 §18224. Professional land surveyor
Status: in_force

1. Scope of practice. A professional land surveyor license entitles the holder to perform land surveying services. [PL 2013, c. 180, §5 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 180, §6 (AFF).]

2. Professional qualifications. An applicant for a professional land surveyor license must: A. Be a land surveyor-in-training in this State or hold a license from another jurisdiction with qualifications similar to those required for a land surveyor-in-training under section 18223 , and have a specific record of 2 additional years of progressive combined office and field experience acceptable to the board; and [PL 2013, c. 180, §5 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 180, §6 (AFF).] B. Successfully pass an examination approved by the board. [PL 2013, c. 180, §5 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 180, §6 (AFF).] [PL 2013, c. 180, §5 (NEW); PL 2013, c. 180, §6 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 4666 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 69 / Section 4666
32 §4666. Seller's obligation
Status: in_force

1. Return upon avoidance. If the seller is given written notice of avoidance by the consumer pursuant to this subchapter and any merchandise that has been delivered is returned or made available for return to the seller, the seller must return to the consumer within 15 days of the effective date of the notice of avoidance the full amount of any payment or down payment made or consideration given under the contract or sale for the merchandise. [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. R, §8 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).]

2. Penalty. The following penalties apply to violations of this section. A. A person who violates this section commits a Class E crime, which is a strict liability crime as defined in Title 17‑A, section 34, subsection 4‑A . [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. R, §8 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).] B. A person who intentionally violates this section commits a Class D crime. [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. R, §8 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).] [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. R, §8 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 9901 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 104 / Section 9901
32 §9901. Declaration of purpose
Status: in_force

In order to recognize the professional qualifications of dietitians and dietetic technicians and to assure the availability to the public of information regarding those who hold themselves out to be dietitians and dietetic technicians, it is the purpose of this chapter to provide for the licensing of qualified dietitians and dietetic technicians. [PL 1987, c. 313, §1 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 15118 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 131 / Section 15118
32 §15118. Inspection charge
Status: in_force

The owner or user of each boiler or pressure vessel required by this chapter to be inspected by the chief inspector or a deputy inspector shall pay an inspection fee or fees as set under section 15104‑C . Not more than one inspection fee may be collected for the inspection of any one boiler or pressure vessel made in any one year, unless additional inspections are required by the owners or users of the boiler or pressure vessel or unless the boiler or pressure vessel has been inspected and an inspection certificate has been refused, withheld or withdrawn or unless an additional inspection is required because of the change of location of a stationary boiler or pressure vessel. [PL 2013, c. 70, Pt. C, §32 (AMD).]

The fees for additional inspections required by the code must be paid by the boiler owner or contractor and those fees must include the wages and expenses of the inspector. [PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §14 (NEW); PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. H, §17 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 17305 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 137 / Section 17305
32 §17305. Hearing aid dealing and fitting practice standards
Status: in_force

For the purpose of this section, "dealer-licensee" means an individual licensed under this chapter as a hearing aid dealer and fitter or audiologist who engages in the practice of dealing in and fitting of hearing aids as defined under section 17101, subsection 10 . [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

1. Payment; trial period. The dealer-licensee may require the purchaser to pay the full purchase price for the hearing aid or aids at the time of delivery. A. On the date of delivery, a 30-day trial period begins. If within this trial period the purchaser notifies the dealer-licensee of the purchaser's wish to cancel the transaction, the dealer-licensee shall make a full refund of the purchase price, less the reasonable price of the ear mold or molds and lab fees, at the time the purchaser returns the hearing aid or aids. The dealer-licensee shall also return to the purchaser any hearing aids, devices, accessories and ear molds that the dealer-licensee has received from the purchaser. The dealer-licensee shall contact the purchaser and provide any service, fitting or repair that may be necessary for the beneficial and comfortable use of the hearing aid. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

2. Return for medical reasons. The purchaser may cancel the transaction by submitting to the dealer-licensee within 60 calendar days from the date of delivery of the hearing aid or aids a written opinion from a physician or audiologist stating that the hearing aid or aids are not advisable for the purchaser. Upon receipt of the statement and return by the purchaser of the hearing aid or aids, the dealer-licensee shall make a full refund of the purchase price, less the reasonable price of the ear mold or molds and lab fees. The dealer-licensee shall also return to the purchaser any hearing aids, devices, accessories and ear molds that the dealer-licensee has received from the purchaser. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

3. Violations. A provision of a contract that limits or conditions in any way the rights guaranteed to purchasers by this section is against public policy and void. A violation of the requirements of this section, in addition to being unethical conduct under section 17307 , constitutes a violation of the Maine Unfair Trade Practices Act. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

4. Dealer records. Each dealer-licensee shall keep records for at least 6 years on each person who purchases a hearing aid to include: A. Results of measurement of known hearing; [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] B. Medical clearance for a hearing aid when indicated under this section or purchaser's waiver of need for medical clearance; [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] C. A copy of the warranty; [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] D. Date and type of hearing aid sold to purchaser; [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] E. Date and type of replacement hearing aids; and [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] F. Type of ear mold and other pertinent information such as reports from speech and hearing centers. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

5. Calibration. Each audiometer used in the measurement of hearing when testing and fitting a hearing aid must meet calibration standards as defined in the board's rules. Dealer-licensees shall obtain an objective calibration check on permanently installed and portable audiometers at least once a year. If an objective calibration check shows an audiometer to deviate more than 10 decibels from the calibration standard, the audiometer must be recalibrated by either a calibration laboratory or the audiometer manufacturer before it may be used to test hearing. Date of the last calibration check or recalibration must be prominently displayed on the audiometer. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).]

6. Purchase agreement. A dealer-licensee who practices the fitting of and dealing in or sale of hearing aids shall deliver to each person supplied with a hearing aid a written notice prior to or at the time the hearing aid is purchased. The notice must include all of the provisions prescribed in this section. The board shall prepare a model notice containing all the requirements of this section and shall furnish copies upon request. A. The notice must include the dealer-licensee's signature, address of place of business and license number. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] B. The notice must include the mailing address of the board. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] C. The notice must include specifications as to the make and model of the hearing aid furnished, including: (1) The brand name or manufacturer's name and the model; (2) The serial number, notification of which must be given in writing later if not known at the time of the notice; and (3) The condition of the hearing aid, whether new, used or reconditioned. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] D. The notice must include the full terms of sale, including the following terms. (1) There must be a full and complete disclosure of the cost of financing the purchase of the hearing aid. (2) The notice must include the complete terms of service, including cost of service, what services are available, by whom and for how long the service is provided, including house or office calls, when applicable, and the terms of aftercare fitting. (3) If the initial price of the hearing aid furnished is reduced by trade-in allowance or discount, the notice must conspicuously include the initial price of the hearing aid before trade-in allowance or discount, the amount of the trade-in allowance or discount and the final price to the consumer. (4) The notice must include the provisions of the 30-day trial period and 60-day medical return period as set out under this section. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] E. The notice must include the date of the sale. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] F. The notice must include the terms of guarantee or warranty, including: (1) The characteristics or properties of the hearing aid or parts of the hearing aid covered by or excluded from the guarantee or warranty; (2) The duration of the guarantee or warranty; (3) The conditions, if any, that the purchaser must fulfill before the guarantor or warrantor must perform the guarantor's or warrantor's obligations; (4) The obligations of the guarantor or warrantor, including obligations as to repair or replacement of hearing aids and refunding of the purchase price or part of the purchase price; and (5) The identity and address of the guarantor or warrantor. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] G. When an individual practicing the fitting and sale of hearing aids furnishes to a purchaser a hearing aid of a different make, model or specification than requested, the notice must include a statement of this fact. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] H. The notice must conspicuously include the following: "An examination or representation made by a dealer-licensee in connection with the fitting and selling of a hearing aid or aids is not an examination, diagnosis or prescription by an individual licensed to practice medicine in this State and may not be regarded as medical opinion or advice." [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] I. The board may adopt rules to define further the requirements of this section in order to provide the purchaser with additional information to be contained in the notice provisions. Rules adopted pursuant to this paragraph are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] J. A provision of a contract that limits or conditions in any way the right guaranteed to purchasers by this section is deemed to be against public policy and void. A violation of the requirements of this section, in addition to being unethical conduct as defined by the regulations pursuant to section 17307 , constitutes a violation of the Maine Unfair Trade Practices Act. [PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §3 (NEW); PL 2007, c. 369, Pt. C, §5 (AFF).] K. Except as authorized in this paragraph, a dealer-licensee may not sell or furnish a hearing aid to a person 18 years of age or younger without a written statement, signed by a physician with specialized training in the field of otolaryngology, that the person has had an ear or hearing examination within 90 days of the purchase or furnishing of the hearing aid and that a hearing aid is recommended for the person. The board shall adopt rules for the requirements for reexamination. Rules adopted pursuant to this paragraph are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . The board shall by rule list and define certain medical conditions affecting hearing. If a dealer has notice of the existence of one or more of the conditions in the case of a prospective purchaser of a hearing aid, whether by the dealer-licensee’s observation of the prospective purchaser or by information furnished by the prospective purchaser, fitting of the hearing aid must be delayed until the purchaser has had an ear or hearing examination administered by a physician with specialized training in the field of otolaryngology or by an audiologist who, as a result of such an examination, recommends in writing a hearing aid for the prospective purchaser. Unless prohibited by federal law or regulation, a dealer-licensee may sell or furnish a replacement hearing aid of the same specifications as the original hearing aid to a prospective purchaser of any age without evidence that the prospective purchaser has had a recent ear or hearing examination if the prospective purchaser typically wears or is currently using a hearing aid; is seeking to replace a recently lost, stolen, broken or failing hearing aid; and is unable to attend a hearing examination because the prospective purchaser is too ill or infirm to do so safely. This chapter may not be construed to require an ear or hearing examination by a physician or audiologist of a person who objects to the examination on the grounds that the examination conflicts with the tenets and practices of a church or religious denomination of which the person is a member or adherent. [PL 2025, c. 166, §1 (AMD).] [PL 2025, c. 166, §1 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 13007 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 114 / Section 13007
32 §13007. Fees
Status: in_force

The Director of the Office of Professional and Occupational Regulation within the Department of Professional and Financial Regulation may establish by rule fees for purposes authorized under this chapter in amounts that are reasonable and necessary for their respective purposes, except that the fee for any one purpose may not exceed $100. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. BB, §3 (NEW); PL 2011, c. 286, Pt. B, §5 (REV).]
32 M.R.S. § 17303 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 137 / Section 17303
32 §17303. Licensure from another jurisdiction; licensure by endorsement
Status: in_force

1. License from another jurisdiction. The board may waive the examination and grant licensure to an applicant who presents proof of current licensure in another jurisdiction that maintains professional standards determined by the board to be substantially equivalent to those set forth in this chapter, if no cause exists for denial of a license under section 17307 . [PL 2021, c. 642, §52 (NEW).]

2. Licensure by endorsement. Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the board, in accordance with Title 10, section 8003‑H and any applicable rules adopted pursuant to that section, shall establish a process to issue a license by endorsement for each license authorized under this chapter that the board determines is appropriate for licensure by endorsement. An applicant may submit an application under the process established under this subsection or any other licensure process authorized in this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 642, §52 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14706 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 128 / Section 14706
32 §14706. Application
Status: in_force

Each application for a transient seller of consumer merchandise license required by section 14702 must include: [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. KK, §14 (AMD).]

1. Name and address. The name and local and permanent business address of the applicant; [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

2. Employees of applicant. Names of all employees of the applicant employed in this State; [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

3. Statement. A statement of all judgments secured or outstanding against the applicant arising out of sales to consumers during the 2 years immediately prior to making the application and of all suits of either a criminal or civil nature pending against the applicant that arise out of sales to consumers, at the time of making the application; [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

4. Statement of yearly gross revenues. A statement of anticipated yearly gross revenues from sales of consumer merchandise in this State; [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

5. Security deposits. The name and address of the person to whom security deposits made with the department pursuant to this subchapter are returned; and [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

6. Seller's certificate. The number of a valid registration certificate issued to the applicant by the State Tax Assessor pursuant to Title 36, chapter 211 or satisfactory evidence that the applicant is not required to be registered under that chapter. [PL 2011, c. 548, §9 (AMD).]

The applicant shall promptly notify the department of all changes or additions in the information required in this section upon a form prescribed by the department. [PL 2001, c. 324, §12 (NEW).]

Any false statement in an application, either original or supplementary, for a license subjects the applicant to the same penalty as if the applicant had no license. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. KK, §15 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 13725 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 117 / Section 13725
32 §13725. Insulin Safety Net Program (WHOLE SECTION TEXT EFFECTIVE UNTIL 1/01/27) (WHOLE SECTION TEXT REPEALED 1/01/27)
Status: repealed

(CONTAINS TEXT WITH VARYING EFFECTIVE DATES)

(WHOLE SECTION TEXT EFFECTIVE UNTIL 1/01/27)

(WHOLE SECTION TEXT REPEALED 1/01/27)

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Eligible individual" means an individual who has been determined to qualify for assistance under the program pursuant to subsection 3 or 4 . [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] B. "Insulin" has the same meaning as in section 13786‑D, subsection 1, paragraph A , except for an insulin product that has a wholesale acquisition cost of $8 or less per milliliter or applicable National Council for Prescription Drug Plan billing unit, for the entire assessment time period, adjusted annually based on the Consumer Price Index Annual Average, for All Urban Consumers, CPI-U: U.S. City Averages, All Items reported by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] C. "Manufacturer" means a manufacturer engaged in the manufacturing of insulin that is self-administered on an outpatient basis, except for a manufacturer with an annual gross revenue of $2,000,000 or less from insulin sales in this State. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] D. "Urgent need of insulin" means having readily available for use less than a 7-day supply of insulin and in need of insulin in order to avoid the likelihood of suffering significant health consequences. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

2. Insulin Safety Net Program established. The board shall establish the Insulin Safety Net Program, referred to in this section as "the program," in accordance with the requirements of this section. Under the program, by March 1, 2022, each manufacturer shall establish procedures to make insulin available in accordance with this section and as required under subsections 3 and 4 to pharmacies for dispensing to eligible individuals who are in urgent need of insulin or who need access to an affordable insulin supply. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

3. Urgent need safety net. A pharmacy shall dispense a 30-day supply of insulin, as permitted under section 13786‑D , to an eligible individual in urgent need of insulin in accordance with this subsection. A. To be eligible, an individual must demonstrate on an application form developed by the board that the individual: (1) Is a resident of this State; (2) Is not enrolled in MaineCare or any other health coverage or prescription drug coverage that limits the total amount of cost-sharing that the enrollee is required to pay for a 30-day supply of insulin, including copayments, deductibles or coinsurance, to $75 or less, regardless of the type or amount of insulin prescribed; (3) Has not received an urgent-need supply of insulin through the program within the previous 12 months; and (4) Has an urgent need of insulin. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] B. The board shall make the application form accessible through the board's publicly accessible website and make the form available to pharmacies and health care providers who prescribe or dispense insulin, hospital emergency departments, urgent care clinics and community health clinics. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] C. In addition to a completed, signed and dated application, an individual shall also present to a pharmacy a valid insulin prescription and identification indicating residency in the form of a valid Maine identification card, driver's license or permit. If the individual in urgent need of insulin is under the age of 18, the individual's parent or legal guardian shall provide the pharmacy with proof of residency. Upon receipt of the information required by this paragraph, the pharmacist shall dispense the prescribed insulin in an amount that will provide the individual a 30-day supply. If an individual does not have a valid prescription, a pharmacist may dispense an emergency refill of insulin pursuant to section 13786‑D . [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] D. The pharmacy shall notify the health care practitioner who issued the prescription order presented under paragraph C no later than 72 hours after the insulin is dispensed. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] E. The pharmacy may submit to the manufacturer of the dispensed insulin product or to the manufacturer's vendor a claim for payment for insulin dispensed under paragraph C that is in accordance with the standards developed by a national council for prescription drug programs for electronic claims processing, unless the manufacturer agrees to send to the pharmacy a replacement supply of the same insulin as dispensed in the amount dispensed. If the pharmacy submits an electronic claim to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's vendor, the manufacturer or vendor shall reimburse the pharmacy in an amount that covers the pharmacy's acquisition cost. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] F. The pharmacy may collect an insulin copayment from the eligible individual to cover the pharmacy's costs of processing and dispensing in an amount not to exceed $35 for the 30-day supply of insulin dispensed under paragraph C . [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] G. The pharmacy shall provide each eligible individual an information sheet provided by the board with contact information for the Health Insurance Consumer Assistance Program established in Title 24‑A, chapter 56‑A, subchapter 2‑A , including the program's publicly accessible website, toll-free telephone number and e-mail address, so that the individual may access additional information and assistance related to ongoing insulin coverage options, including assistance in: applying for MaineCare; applying for a qualified health plan offered through the federally facilitated marketplace, subject to open and special enrollment periods; accessing information on providers who participate in prescription drug discount programs, including providers who are authorized to participate in the federal program under section 340b of the federal Public Health Service Act, United States Code, Title 42, section 256b; and accessing insulin manufacturers' patient assistance programs and other assistance programs through nonprofit organizations. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] H. The pharmacy shall retain a copy of the application form submitted by the individual under paragraph A to the pharmacy for reporting and compliance purposes. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

4. Manufacturer's patient assistance. A manufacturer shall establish a patient assistance program to provide access to insulin to any eligible individual who meets the requirements of this subsection and who demonstrates a continued need for insulin. Each manufacturer's patient assistance program must meet the requirements of this subsection. A. Each manufacturer shall provide the Health Insurance Consumer Assistance Program established in Title 24‑A, chapter 56‑A, subchapter 2‑A information regarding the manufacturer's patient assistance program, including contact information for individuals to call for assistance in accessing the patient assistance program. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] B. To be eligible to participate in a manufacturer's patient assistance program, an individual must: (1) Be a Maine resident with a valid identification card that indicates Maine residency in the form of a Maine identification card or driver's license or permit. If the individual is under the age of 18, the individual's parent or legal guardian shall provide proof of residency; (2) Have a family income that is equal to or less than 400 percent of the federal poverty guidelines; and (3) Not be enrolled in MaineCare or eligible to receive health care coverage through a federally funded program or to receive prescription drug benefits through the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or not be enrolled in prescription drug coverage through an individual or group health plan that limits the total amount of cost-sharing that an enrollee is required to pay for a 30-day supply of insulin, including copayments, deductibles or coinsurance, to $75 or less, regardless of the type or amount of insulin needed. Notwithstanding the requirement in this paragraph, an individual who is enrolled in Medicare Part D is eligible for a manufacturer's patient assistance program if the individual has spent $1,000 on prescription drugs in the current calendar year and meets the eligibility requirements in subparagraphs (1) and (2). [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] C. An individual who is interested in participating in a manufacturer's patient assistance program may apply directly to the manufacturer or through the individual's health care practitioner, if the practitioner participates in the manufacturer's patient assistance program. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] D. Upon receipt of an application for the manufacturer's patient assistance program, the manufacturer shall process the application and determine eligibility. The manufacturer shall notify the applicant of the determination within 10 business days of receipt of the application. If necessary, the manufacturer may request additional information from the applicant. If additional information is needed, the manufacturer shall notify the applicant within 5 business days of receipt of the application as to what information is being requested. Within 3 business days of receipt of the requested information, the manufacturer shall determine eligibility and notify the applicant of the determination. If the individual has been determined to be not eligible, the manufacturer shall include the reasons for denying eligibility in the notification. The individual may seek an appeal of the determination in accordance with this section. If the individual is determined to be eligible, the manufacturer shall provide the individual with an eligibility statement or other indication that the individual has been determined eligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program. An individual's eligibility is valid for 12 months and is renewable upon a redetermination of eligibility. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] E. If the eligible individual has prescription drug coverage through an individual or group health plan, the manufacturer may determine that the individual's insulin needs are better addressed by providing financial assistance for copayments and other cost-sharing requirements of the individual's individual or group health plan. The manufacturer shall establish a copayment assistance program to provide such financial assistance. The manufacturer shall inform the individual and provide the individual with the necessary coupons to submit to a pharmacy. Under the manufacturer's copayment assistance program, an eligible individual may not be required to pay more than a copayment of $35 for a 30‑day supply of insulin. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] F. The eligible individual shall submit to a pharmacy the eligibility statement provided by the manufacturer under paragraph D . Upon receipt of an individual's eligibility status, the pharmacy shall dispense insulin in accordance with this paragraph. (1) The pharmacy shall submit an order containing the name of the insulin product and the daily dosage amount as contained in a valid prescription to the product's manufacturer. The pharmacy shall include with the order to the manufacturer the following information: the pharmacy's name and shipping address; office telephone number, fax number, e-mail address and contact name; and any specific days or times when deliveries are not accepted by the pharmacy. (2) Upon receipt of an order from a pharmacy and the information described in this paragraph, the manufacturer shall send to the pharmacy a 90-day supply of insulin as ordered, unless a lesser amount is requested in the order, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy. Except as authorized under paragraph E , the pharmacy shall provide the insulin to the individual at no charge to the individual. The pharmacy may not provide insulin received from the manufacturer to any individual other than the individual associated with the specific order. (3) The pharmacy may not seek reimbursement for the insulin received from the manufacturer or from any 3rd-party payor. The pharmacy may collect a copayment from the individual to cover the pharmacy's costs for processing and dispensing in an amount not to exceed $50 for each 90-day supply if the insulin is sent to the pharmacy. (4) The pharmacy may submit to a manufacturer a reorder for an individual if the individual's eligibility statement under paragraph D has not expired. Upon receipt of a reorder from a pharmacy, the manufacturer shall send to the pharmacy an additional 90-day supply of the product, unless a lesser amount is requested, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy if the individual's eligibility statement has not expired. (5) Notwithstanding subparagraph (2), a manufacturer may send the insulin as ordered directly to the individual if the manufacturer provides a mail order service option. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] G. If an individual disagrees with a manufacturer's determination of eligibility under this subsection, the individual may contact the board to request a review of eligibility. The review of eligibility must be conducted by the board administrator, in consultation with a board member. The individual requesting the review shall submit to the board, with the request, all documents submitted by the individual to the manufacturer. The board shall provide the reviewer or reviewers with the documents submitted by the individual. The review of eligibility must be completed within 10 business days of receipt of all the necessary documents from the individual. The review decision is final. If the review determines that the individual is eligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program, the manufacturer shall provide the individual with an eligibility statement in accordance with this subsection. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

5. Additional 30-day urgent-need insulin supply pending eligibility for other coverage or assistance. If an individual has applied for MaineCare coverage but has not been determined eligible or has been determined eligible but MaineCare coverage has not become effective or if the individual has been determined ineligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program by the manufacturer and the individual has requested a review pursuant to subsection 4, paragraph G but the reviewer has not rendered a decision, the individual is entitled to access insulin under the provisions of subsection 3 if the individual has an urgent need of insulin. To access insulin under this subsection, the individual must attest to the pharmacy that the individual meets the requirements of subsection 2 . [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

6. Dissemination of information about program. In consultation with the Health Insurance Consumer Assistance Program, established in Title 24‑A, chapter 56‑A, subchapter 2‑A , the board shall develop an information sheet to post on its publicly accessible website and provide a link to the information sheet on the website to be used by pharmacies, health care practitioners, hospital emergency departments, urgent care clinics and community health clinics. The information sheet must contain: a description of the urgent need insulin safety net, including how to apply for the benefits of the program; a description of each insulin manufacturer's patient assistance program, including contact information for accessing the assistance programs for each manufacturer; information on how to contact the Health Insurance Consumer Assistance Program, established in Title 24‑A, chapter 56‑A, subchapter 2‑A ; and information on how to contact the board if a manufacturer determines that an individual is not eligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

7. Enforcement; penalty for noncompliance. A person who violates this chapter is subject to enforcement action by the board through any board action authorized in accordance with section 13731 or any civil penalty or criminal or civil action authorized in section 13731 . [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

8. Confidential information. Any health information or records provided to the board under this section are confidential if the information or records identify or permit the identification of an individual who is seeking to access urgently needed insulin under subsection 3 or to participate in a manufacturer's patient assistance program under this section. A manufacturer shall maintain the confidentiality of any information received from any individual applying for the manufacturer's patient assistance program under this section and is prohibited from selling, sharing or disseminating data received under this section unless required to under this section or unless the individual has provided the manufacturer with a signed authorization. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

9. Reports. Beginning February 15, 2023 and annually thereafter, each manufacturer shall report to the board on the number of Maine residents who accessed and received insulin on an urgent-need basis in the preceding calendar year; the number of Maine residents participating in the manufacturer's patient assistance program in the preceding calendar year, including the number of Maine residents who the manufacturer determined were ineligible for its patient assistance program; and the total value of the insulin, determined by the wholesale acquisition cost of the insulin, provided by the manufacturer in the preceding calendar year. Beginning April 15, 2023 and annually thereafter, the board shall submit a report of the aggregate information reported by manufacturers pursuant to this subsection to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction over health coverage, insurance and financial services matters. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]

10. Repeal. This section is repealed January 1, 2027. [PL 2021, c. 303, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 18133 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 139 / Section 18133
32 §18133. Journeyman oil burner technician or solid fuel technician
Status: in_force

1. Scope of license. The permitted activities for a person licensed as a journeyman oil burner technician or journeyman solid fuel technician are as follows. A. A journeyman oil burner technician, under the indirect supervision of, or in the employ of, a master oil burner technician may install, clean, service, alter or repair oil burning equipment and must hold one or more of the following authorities: number one and number 2 oils up to 15 gallons per hour; number one and number 2 oils over 15 gallons per hour; number 4, number 5 and number 6 oils; number one to number 6 oils; and pellet-fired central heating appliances. The supervising or employing master oil burner technician must hold at least the same authority as the journeyman oil burner technician. [PL 2015, c. 169, §5 (NEW).] B. A journeyman solid fuel technician, under the indirect supervision of, or in the employ of, a master solid fuel technician, may install, clean, service, alter or repair solid fuel burning equipment. [PL 2015, c. 169, §5 (NEW).] [PL 2015, c. 169, §5 (AMD).]

2. Professional qualifications. Each applicant for a journeyman oil burner or solid fuel license must pass an examination approved by the board and must meet one of the following qualifications: A. One year of licensed practical experience as an apprentice oil burner technician or solid fuel technician; [PL 2015, c. 169, §5 (AMD).] B. Six months of licensed practical experience as an apprentice oil burner technician or solid fuel technician and completion of a board-approved oil burner or solid fuel technician course at a community college, career and technical education center or career and technical education region or a comparable institute in the State or another state consisting, at a minimum, of 160 hours of study, of which at least 75 hours are made up of laboratory work on oil burning equipment and related systems; or [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. I, §1 (AMD).] C. Successful completion of a minimum one-year accredited heating course at a community college in this State consisting at a minimum of 320 hours of study, of which at least 150 hours are made up of laboratory work on oil or solid fuel burning equipment and related systems. [PL 2015, c. 169, §5 (AMD).] An out-of-state applicant must present satisfactory evidence to the board of experience in installing, cleaning, servicing, altering and repairing oil and solid fuel burning equipment. [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. I, §1 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 11016 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 109-A / Section 11016
32 §11016. Furnishing certain deceptive forms
Status: in_force

1. Unlawful activity. It is unlawful to design, compile and furnish any form knowing that the form would be used to create the false belief in a consumer that a person other than the creditor of the consumer is participating in the collection of or in an attempt to collect a debt the consumer allegedly owed the creditor, when in fact that person is not so participating. [PL 1985, c. 702, §2 (NEW).]

2. Extent of liability. Any person who violates this section shall be liable to the same extent and in the same manner as a debt collector is liable under section 11054 for failure to comply with a provision of this Act. [PL 1985, c. 702, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 11201 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 111-A / Section 11201
32 §11201. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

1. Board of trade. "Board of trade" means any person or group of persons engaged in buying or selling any commodity or receiving any commodity for sale on consignment, whether that person or group of persons is characterized as a board of trade, exchange or other form of marketplace. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

1-A. Administrator. "Administrator" means the Securities Administrator. [PL 1989, c. 542, §68 (NEW).]

2. Commodity. "Commodity" means, except as otherwise specified by the administrator by rule or order, any agricultural, grain or livestock products or by-products, any metals or minerals, including a precious metal set forth in subsection 12 , any gem or gemstone, whether characterized as precious, semiprecious or otherwise, any fuel, whether liquid, gaseous or otherwise, any foreign currency and all other goods, articles, products or items of any kind provided that the term commodity shall not include: A. A numismatic coin whose fair market value is at least 15% higher than the value of the metal it contains; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] B. Real property or any timber, agricultural or livestock product grown or raised on real property and offered or sold by the owner or lessee of the real property; or [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] C. Any work of art offered or sold by art dealers at public auction or offered or sold through a private sale by the owner. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] [PL 1989, c. 542, §69 (AMD).]

3. Commodity contract. "Commodity contract" means any account, agreement or contract for the purchase or sale, primarily for speculation or investment purposes and not for use or consumption by the offeree or purchaser, of one or more commodities, whether for immediate or subsequent delivery or whether delivery is intended by the parties, and whether characterized as a cash contract, deferred shipment or deferred delivery contract, forward contract, futures contract, installment or margin contract, leverage contract or otherwise. Any commodity contract offered or sold shall, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, be presumed to be offered or sold for speculation or investment purposes. A commodity contract shall not include any contract or agreement which requires, and under which the purchaser receives, within 28 calendar days from the payment in good funds of any portion of the purchase price, physical delivery of the total amount of each commodity to be purchased under the contract or agreement. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

4. Commodity Exchange Act. "Commodity Exchange Act" means the Act of Congress known as the "Commodity Exchange Act," as amended to the effective date of this chapter, codified at the United States Code, Title 7, Section 1, et seq., and all subsequent amendments, additions or other revisions to that Act, unless the administrator, within 10 days following the effective date of the amendment, addition or revision, disallows its application to this chapter or to any provision of this chapter by rule, regulation or order. [PL 1989, c. 542, §69 (AMD).]

5. Commodity Futures Trading Commission. "Commodity Futures Trading Commission" means the independent regulatory agency established by Congress to administer the Commodity Exchange Act. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

6. Commodity Futures Trading Commission Rule. "Commodity Futures Trading Commission Rule" means any rule or order of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission in effect on the effective date of this chapter, and all subsequent amendments, additions or other revisions to any rule or order, unless the administrator, within 10 days following the effective date of any such amendment, addition or revision, disallows the application of any such amendment, addition or revision to this chapter or to any provision by rule or order. [PL 1989, c. 542, §69 (AMD).]

7. Commodity merchant. "Commodity merchant" means any of the following, as defined or described in the Commodity Exchange Act or by Commodity Futures Trading Commission Rule: A. Futures commission merchant; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] B. Commodity pool operator; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] C. Commodity trading advisor; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] D. Introducing broker; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] E. Leverage transaction merchant; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] F. An associated person of any of the persons set out in paragraphs A to E ; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] G. Floor broker; and [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] H. Any other person, other than a futures association, required to register with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

8. Commodity option. "Commodity option" means any account, agreement or contract giving a party to the account, agreement or contract the right, but not the obligation, to purchase or sell one or more commodities or one or more commodity contracts, or both, whether characterized as an option, privilege, indemnity, bid, offer, put, call, advance guaranty, decline guaranty or otherwise, but shall not include an option traded on a national securities exchange registered with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

9. Financial institution. "Financial institution" means a bank, savings institution or trust company organized under, or supervised pursuant to, the laws of the United States or of any state. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

10. Offer or offer to sell. "Offer" or "offer to sell" includes every offer to sell, offer to purchase or offer to enter into a commodity contract or commodity option. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

11. Person. "Person" means an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint-stock company, a trust where the interests of the beneficiaries are evidenced by a security, an unincorporated organization, a government or a political subdivision of a government, but does not include, a contract market designated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or any clearinghouse of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or a national securities exchange registered with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission, or any employee, officer or director of such contract market, clearinghouse or exchange acting solely in that capacity. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

12. Precious metal. "Precious metal" means the following in either coin, bullion or other form: A. Silver; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] B. Gold; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] C. Platinum; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] D. Palladium; [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] E. Copper; and [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).] F. Such other items as the administrator may specify by rule or order. [PL 1989, c. 542, §70 (AMD).] [PL 1989, c. 542, §70 (AMD).]

13. Sale or sell. "Sale" or "sell" includes every sale, contract of sale, contract to sell or disposition, for value. [PL 1985, c. 643 (NEW).]

14. Superintendent. [PL 1989, c. 542, §71 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 18711 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 149 / Section 18711
32 §18711. Oversight; dispute resolution; enforcement (WHOLE SECTION TEXT EFFECTIVE 1/01/26)
Status: in_force

(CONTAINS TEXT WITH VARYING EFFECTIVE DATES)

(WHOLE SECTION TEXT EFFECTIVE 1/01/26)

1. Oversight. Oversight of the compact is governed by this subsection. A. The executive, legislative and judicial branches of state government in each member state shall enforce this compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of this compact and the rules promulgated hereunder have standing as statutory law. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] B. All courts shall take judicial notice of the compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a member state pertaining to the subject matter of this compact that may affect the powers, responsibilities or actions of the commission. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] C. The commission is entitled to receive service of process in any proceeding under paragraph B and has standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the commission renders a judgment or order void as to the commission, this compact or promulgated rules. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).]

2. Default; technical assistance; termination. Default, technical assistance and termination are governed by this subsection. A. If the commission determines that a member state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this compact or the promulgated rules, the commission shall: (1) Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other member states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default and any other action to be taken by the commission; and (2) Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] B. If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the member states, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by this compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] C. Termination of membership in the compact may be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate must be given by the commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting state's legislature and each of the member states. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] D. A state that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] E. The commission may not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the commission and the defaulting state. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] F. The defaulting state may appeal the action of the commission by petitioning the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices. The prevailing member must be awarded all costs of that litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).]

3. Dispute resolution. Dispute resolution is governed by this subsection. A. Upon request by a member state, the commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the compact that arise among member states and between member and nonmember states. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] B. The commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).]

4. Enforcement. Enforcement of the compact is governed by this subsection. A. The commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this compact. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] B. By majority vote, the commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member must be awarded all costs of that litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] C. The remedies under this subsection are not the exclusive remedies of the commission. The commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law. [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).] [PL 2023, c. 329, §1 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. DDD, §1 (AFF).]
32 M.R.S. § 8124 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 89 / Section 8124
32 §8124. Confidential information
Status: in_force

The home address and home telephone number of a professional investigator or investigative assistant obtained by the State under this chapter are confidential and may not be disclosed by the board except by written consent of the subject of the information, by court order, for criminal justice purposes or for permitting purposes by law enforcement agencies or permitting authorities. [PL 2015, c. 295, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 85 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 2-B / Section 85
32 §85. Emergency medical services persons
Status: in_force

1. Basic and advanced skills. With advice from and in consultation with the licensing board and Medical Direction and Practices Board, the board may provide, by rule, which skills, techniques and judgments constitute a basic emergency medical treatment. [PL 2025, c. 491, §5 (AMD).]

2. Advanced emergency medical treatment. With the advice and consultation noted in subsection 1 , the board may provide, by rule, which advanced skills, techniques and judgments may be supervised by a physician by means of standing orders, by voice radio and by other means. In every case, advanced emergency medical treatment must be given in accordance with protocols adopted by the Medical Direction and Practices Board. [PL 2023, c. 166, §2 (AMD).]

3. Minimum requirements for licensing. In setting rules for the licensure of emergency medical services persons, the board, in consultation with the licensing board, shall ensure that a person is not licensed to care for patients unless that person's qualifications are at least those specified in this subsection. Any person who meets these conditions is considered to have the credentials and skill demonstrations necessary for licensure to provide emergency medical treatment. A. The person must have completed successfully the training specified in rules adopted by the board pursuant to the Maine Administrative Procedure Act. [PL 1995, c. 161, §5 (AMD).] B. [PL 2007, c. 274, §12 (RP).] C. The person must have successfully completed a board-approved cognitive test for basic emergency medical treatment and a board-approved assessment of emergency medical treatment skills. [PL 2025, c. 491, §6 (AMD).] D. [PL 2001, c. 474, §1 (RP).] The licensing board shall obtain criminal history record information containing a record of public criminal history record information as defined in Title 16, section 703, subsection 9 for an applicant seeking licensure under this subsection. Information obtained pursuant to this subsection is confidential and may be used only to determine suitability for issuance of a license to provide emergency medical services. The results of criminal history record checks received by the licensing board are for official use only and may not be disseminated outside the licensing board. The applicant for licensure shall pay the expense of obtaining the information required by this subsection. [PL 2025, c. 491, §6 (AMD).]

4. Minimum requirements for relicensing. The board, in consultation with the licensing board, shall set by rule the license and relicensing requirements and the relicensing interval for emergency medical services persons. A person who is duly licensed in Maine as an emergency medical services person must be issued a renewal license if the following requirements are met: A. The person must have satisfactorily completed relicensure training as defined in the rules; and [PL 1991, c. 742, §3 (NEW).] B. The person must have satisfactorily demonstrated competence in the skills required for the license level. Skill competence may be satisfied by a combination of run report reviews and continuing education training programs conducted in accordance with the rules or by satisfactorily completing the board-approved cognitive test and a board-approved assessment of emergency medical treatment skills. [PL 2025, c. 491, §7 (AMD).] If the person is not duly licensed at the time of application, the person must demonstrate skill and knowledge as defined in the rules. To maintain a valid license, an emergency medical services person must meet the criteria set out in this section. If those criteria are not met, a person does not hold a valid license and must reapply for licensure. [PL 2025, c. 491, §7 (AMD).]

5. Ambulance attendants grandfathered. [PL 2011, c. 271, §10 (RP).]

6. Ambulance operator course. By January 1, 2007, a person whose job description includes operating an ambulance in an emergency mode or transporting a patient must possess within 6 months of being employed, certification of successful completion of a basic ambulance vehicle operator course, or a course that has been approved by the board as an equivalent, in order to operate an ambulance in an emergency mode or to transport a patient. This requirement applies to all paid and volunteer ambulance operators and transporters. This requirement is in addition to vehicle operator requirements of Title 29‑A or other law. A person whose job description includes operating an ambulance in an emergency mode or transporting a patient who successfully completes a basic ambulance vehicle operator course or a course that has been approved by the board as an equivalent may apply to the board for reimbursement for the cost of the course. [PL 2005, c. 664, Pt. O, §1 (AMD).]

7. Delegation. A person acting under delegated authority pursuant to chapter 36 or 48 may not use or be governed by a license issued pursuant to this chapter while acting under that delegated authority, and a person acting under a license issued pursuant to this chapter may not be governed by delegated authority or engage in any activities delegated pursuant to chapter 36 or 48 while acting under a license issued pursuant to this chapter. A. [PL 2025, c. 70, §1 (RP).] B. [PL 2025, c. 70, §1 (RP).] C. [PL 2025, c. 70, §1 (RP).] [PL 2025, c. 70, §1 (RPR).]

8. Naloxone hydrochloride or another opioid overdose-reversing medication. An emergency medical services person licensed under this chapter shall administer and dispense naloxone hydrochloride or another opioid overdose-reversing medication in compliance with protocols and training developed in accordance with this chapter. An opioid overdose-reversing medication referenced in this subsection must be approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration. [PL 2023, c. 646, Pt. A, §40 (RPR).]

9. Dogs. Notwithstanding section 4860 , an emergency medical services person licensed under this chapter may provide emergency medical treatment to a law enforcement dog, as defined in Title 14, section 164‑B, subsection 1, paragraph B , or to a search and rescue dog, as defined in Title 14, section 164‑B, subsection 1, paragraph D , in accordance with protocols adopted by the Medical Direction and Practices Board. [PL 2025, c. 390, Pt. A, §52 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 7086 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 83 / Section 7086
32 §7086. Issuance of multistate license
Status: in_force

1. Eligibility for multistate license. Upon receipt of an application for a multistate license, the home state licensing authority shall determine the applicant's eligibility for a multistate license in accordance with section 7085 . [PL 2023, c. 674, §1 (NEW).]

2. Issuance of multistate license. If an applicant for a multistate license is eligible pursuant to section 7085, the home state licensing authority shall issue a multistate license that authorizes the applicant or regulated social worker to practice in all member states under a multistate authorization to practice. [PL 2023, c. 674, §1 (NEW).]

3. Designation of category. Upon issuance of a multistate license, the home state licensing authority shall designate whether the regulated social worker holds a multistate license in the bachelor's, master's or clinical category of social work. [PL 2023, c. 674, §1 (NEW).]

4. Recognition of multistate license. A multistate license issued by a home state to a resident in that state must be recognized by all compact member states as authorizing social work practice under a multistate authorization to practice corresponding to each category of licensure regulated in each member state. [PL 2023, c. 674, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 220-B — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 3-A / Section 220-B
32 §220-B. Use of the title "interior designer"; qualifications; grandfathering
Status: in_force

1. Use of title. A person may not use the title "certified interior designer" unless licensed under this chapter. This chapter does not prohibit a person from providing interior design services or from using the title "interior designer." As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Certified interior designer" means an interior designer who has been licensed by the board in accordance with this chapter. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (AMD).] B. "Interior designer" means an individual who provides or offers to provide interior design services. [PL 1993, c. 389, §12 (NEW).] C. "Interior design services" means services that do not require the services of a licensed architect or engineer and that involve the preparation of working drawings, plans and specifications relative to building elements that are not necessary for the structural stability and mechanical and electrical integrity of the construction. [PL 1993, c. 389, §12 (NEW).] [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (AMD).]

2. Qualifications. The following are the qualifications for licensure as an interior designer. A. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, each applicant for licensure must provide to the board proof of passage of the examination administered by the National Council for Interior Design Qualification or its successor organization or an equivalent examination as specified by the board. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (AMD).] B. In addition to proof of passage of the examination, the applicant must provide substantial evidence to the board that the applicant: (1) Is a graduate of a 5-year interior design program from an accredited institution and has completed at least one year of diversified and appropriate interior design experience; (2) Is a graduate of a 4-year interior design program from an accredited institution and has completed at least 2 years of diversified and appropriate interior design experience; [PL 1993, c. 389, §12 (NEW).] [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (AMD).]

3. Accreditation. All interior design programs must be accredited by the Foundation of Interior Design Education Research, or its successor organization, or be determined by the board to be substantially equivalent to the accredited program. [PL 1993, c. 389, §12 (NEW).]

4. Grandfathering. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (RP).]

5. Repeal. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. F, §14 (RP).]
32 M.R.S. § 6220 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 81 / Section 6220
32 §6220. License from another jurisdiction; licensure by endorsement
Status: in_force

1. License from another jurisdiction. The board may waive the requirements of this chapter and grant a registration, certificate or license to any applicant who presents proof of authorization to practice by another jurisdiction of the United States or another country that maintains professional standards considered by the board to be substantially equivalent to or higher than those set forth in this chapter, as long as there is no cause for denial of a registration, certificate or license under section 6217‑B or Title 10, section 8003, subsection 5‑A, paragraph A . The applicant must pay the application and license fee as set under section 6215 . [PL 2021, c. 642, §28 (NEW).]

2. Licensure by endorsement. Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the board, in accordance with Title 10, section 8003‑H and any applicable rules adopted pursuant to that section, shall establish a process to issue a license by endorsement for each license authorized under this chapter that the board determines is appropriate for licensure by endorsement. An applicant may submit an application under the process established under this subsection or any other licensure process authorized in this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 642, §28 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 3501 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 49 / Section 3501
32 §3501. Issuance of licenses
Status: in_force

1. License required. [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. L, §6 (RP).]

1-A. Application; qualifications. The board shall issue a license to any person who files a sworn application, who passes an examination approved by the board and who meets the qualifications set forth in this section. [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. L, §6 (NEW).]

2. Journeyman or limited license. The board may issue a journeyman plumber or limited plumber license to persons who submit an application on a form prescribed by the board with the required fee as set under section 3501‑B and who provide satisfactory evidence of the following qualifications: A. A minimum of at least 2 years with 4,000 hours of work in the field of plumbing installations as a licensed trainee plumber under the supervision of a master plumber, or the equivalent thereof, and obtaining a passing grade as determined by the board on the journeyman's examination; or [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. L, §6 (AMD).] B. A minimum of 2,000 hours of work in the field of plumbing installations as a journeyman-in-training under the supervision of a licensed master plumber, as long as the work experience is obtained within 4 years of the date upon which the applicant was issued a journeyman-in-training license. A journeyman-in-training license must be issued upon sworn application to any person who has satisfactorily completed one academic year of instruction in plumbing at a board-approved technical college or community college or in a career and technical education program approved pursuant to Title 20‑A, section 8306‑B as a secondary student or in a registered Department of Labor apprenticeship program and who has obtained a passing grade, as determined by the board on the journeyman's examination. [PL 2017, c. 4, §1 (AMD).] [PL 2017, c. 4, §1 (AMD).]

2-A. Master plumber license. The board may issue a master plumber license to a person who submits an application on a form prescribed by the board with the required fee as set under section 3501‑B and who provides satisfactory evidence of the following qualifications: A. A minimum of at least one year with 2,000 hours of work in the field of plumbing installations as a journeyman plumber or a minimum of at least 4 years with 8,000 hours of work in the field of plumbing installations as a trainee plumber under the supervision of a master plumber, or the equivalent; and [PL 1987, c. 597, §11 (AMD).] B. Obtaining a passing grade, as determined by the board on the master's examination. [PL 1983, c. 468, §18 (NEW).] [PL 2003, c. 250, Pt. B, §1 (AMD).]

2-B. Journeyman-in-training. The board may issue a journeyman-in-training license to a person who provides satisfactory evidence of completion of a plumbing course consisting of one year or 2 semesters at a board-approved technical college or community college, in a registered Department of Labor apprenticeship program or in a career and technical education program approved pursuant to Title 20‑A, section 8306‑B as a secondary student and who submits the required fee set under section 3501‑B and evidence of having obtained a passing grade, as determined by the board, on the journeyman's examination. A journeyman-in-training license is valid for a single nonrenewable period of 4 years and may be issued only once to any individual. [PL 2017, c. 4, §2 (AMD).]

3. Trainee license. The board may issue a trainee plumber license without examination to any person who submits a written application on a form supplied by the board with the required fee set under section 3501‑B and who provides satisfactory evidence that the person is employed by a licensed master plumber or an entity that employs a licensed master plumber or plumbers and will assist the licensed master plumber or plumbers as a trainee plumber. [PL 2017, c. 210, Pt. D, §5 (AMD).]

4. License displayed. All persons licensed by the board must receive a license that must be publicly displayed at the principal place of business of the plumber, if any, and a pocket card license that must be carried on the person and displayed at any time upon request. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. O, §7 (AMD).]

5. Examinations. [PL 1999, c. 386, Pt. L, §6 (RP).]

6. Installation, repair or replacement of well pumps. A person licensed under this subchapter who performs the installation, repair or replacement of a pump in a well, as defined in section 4700‑E, subsection 8 , shall install, repair or replace that pump in compliance with the code of performance adopted by the Maine Water Well Commission pursuant to section 4700‑H, subsection 5 . Any person, company, firm, partnership or corporation who installs, alters, repairs or replaces a pump system without being licensed as provided in this chapter or in violation of the code of performance, except for an apprentice pump installer as set forth in this chapter, or any person, firm, partnership or corporation who procures a license as provided in this chapter wrongfully or by fraud commits a civil violation punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000. This subsection does not prevent a person from making pump system installations, alterations, repairs or replacements in a single-family residence occupied by that person or to be occupied by that person as a bona fide personal abode, providing the installation, alteration, repair or replacement conforms to the standards set forth in this chapter and any rules adopted by the Maine Water Well Commission or the department. This subsection does not prevent a person from removing and replacing an existing pump for the purpose of well inspection or to test pumping if the pump and electrical system are not being modified. [PL 2001, c. 209, Pt. A, §4 (AMD).]
32 M.R.S. § 455 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 9 / Section 455
32 §455. Review committee immunity
Status: in_force

Any member of a peer review committee of a state association composed of chiropractors licensed under this chapter, any staff member of such an association assisting a peer review committee and any witness or consultant appearing before or presenting information to the peer review committee is immune from civil liability for, without malice, undertaking or failing to undertake any act within the scope of the function of the committee. [PL 1987, c. 646, §7 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 63-B — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 2 / Section 63-B
32 §63-B. Board powers and duties
Status: in_force

The board has the powers and duties set forth in this section. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

1. Board to administer and enforce. The board shall administer and enforce this chapter and shall evaluate the qualifications of and approve the examination to be taken by applicants for licensure under this chapter. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

2. Rules. The board may, in accordance with the Maine Administrative Procedure Act, Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2 , adopt rules commensurate with the authority vested in it by this chapter, including, but not limited to, standards for courses of study for administrators, requirements for the training, experience and qualifications for the licensure of administrators and administrators-in-training, continuing educational requirements, standards and procedures for examination for the licensure of administrators, standards and procedures for the issuance, revocation and suspension of licenses of administrators and for the investigation of written charges and complaints filed with the board. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

3. Temporary licenses. The board may by rule determine conditions and procedures by which it may issue temporary licenses. Temporary licenses may be issued for periods of up to one year. The total length of multiple temporary licenses may not extend beyond one year. [RR 1993, c. 2, §32 (COR).]

4. Examinations. Written examinations for licensure must be held one or more times each year, at such times and places as the board may determine. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

5. Application and license fees. Fees for applications and initial licenses for nursing home administrators and administrators-in-training may be established as provided in section 67 . [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

6. Hearings. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. E, §2 (RP).]

7. Contracts. [PL 1995, c. 397, §20 (RP).]

8. Exception. This chapter or the rules under this chapter may not be construed to require an applicant for a license as a nursing home administrator who is certified by a recognized church or religious denomination that teaches reliance on spiritual means alone for healing as having been approved to administer institutions certified by that church or denomination for the care and treatment of the sick in accordance with its teachings to demonstrate proficiency in medical techniques or to meet medical educational qualifications or medical standards not in accord with the remedial care and treatment provided in those institutions. An individual licensed under this exception may act as an administrator only in those institutions described in this subsection. [PL 1993, c. 600, Pt. A, §31 (AMD).]

9. Licensure by endorsement. Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary, the board, in accordance with Title 10, section 8003‑H and any applicable rules adopted pursuant to that section, shall establish a process to issue a license by endorsement for each license authorized under this chapter that the board determines is appropriate for licensure by endorsement. An applicant may submit an application under the process established under this subsection or any other licensure process authorized in this chapter. [PL 2021, c. 642, §5 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 18531 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 145-A / Section 18531
32 §18531. Purpose
Status: in_force

In order to strengthen access to medical services, and in recognition of the advances in the delivery of medical services, the participating states of the Physician Assistants Licensure Compact, referred to in this chapter as "the compact," have allied in common purpose to develop a comprehensive process that complements the existing authority of state licensing boards to license and discipline physician assistants and seeks to enhance the portability of a license to practice as a physician assistant while safeguarding the safety of patients. This compact allows medical services to be provided by physician assistants, via the mutual recognition of the licensee's qualifying license by other participating states. This compact also adopts the prevailing standard for physician assistant licensure and affirms that the practice and delivery of medical services by a physician assistant occurs where the patient is located at the time of the patient encounter and therefore requires the physician assistant to be under the jurisdiction of the state licensing board where the patient is located. State licensing boards that participate in this compact retain the jurisdiction to impose adverse action against a compact privilege in that state issued to a physician assistant through the procedures of this compact. The compact will alleviate burdens for military families by allowing active duty military personnel and their spouses to obtain a compact privilege based on having an unrestricted license in good standing from a participating state. [PL 2023, c. 670, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 6200 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 80-B / Section 6200
32 §6200. Rulemaking
Status: in_force

The administrator may adopt rules as necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter. Rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2007, c. 596, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 14246 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 126 / Section 14246
32 §14246. License application form; fee; bond
Status: in_force

1. Application requirements; licensing; bonding and revocation of license. The application for a license required by this subchapter must be accompanied by an application fee as set under section 14238 and a surety bond. For applicants that participate in state or federal financial aid programs, except the Federal Direct Student Loan Program under the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 United States Code, Section 1087a et seq., the bond must be in favor of the Finance Authority of Maine. For all other applicants, the bond must be in favor of the director. The amount of the bond for a new applicant is $20,000. For renewal applicants, the amount of the bond must be equal to the greater of 10% of the applicant's gross receipts from tuition in the 12 months prior to the application for renewal or $20,000. A. A license is valid for a period of 12 months from the date of issuance or as otherwise determined by the commissioner. [PL 2007, c. 402, Pt. HH, §28 (AMD).] B. The bond must be continuous and must provide indemnification to any student suffering loss as a result of any fraud, misrepresentation, violation of this subchapter or rules adopted under this subchapter or breach of contract. The bond must provide for written notification by the surety to the director in the event of cancellation. Cancellation of the bond by the surety, or payment under the bond by the surety to the director or the Finance Authority of Maine, results in the revocation of the license. The bond must also specifically provide that proceeds are available to pay tuition refunds to students or to student loan lenders on behalf of students eligible for those refunds pursuant to the policies of the school or state or federal law, rule or regulation. [PL 2009, c. 369, Pt. B, §37 (AMD).] C. If one or more students notify the director or the Finance Authority of Maine of a claim the student has against the school for fraud, misrepresentation, breach of contract or refund due, or that the school has violated the provisions of this subchapter or applicable rules, or if any such event is discovered by the director or the Finance Authority of Maine from other sources and the holder of the bond has reason to believe the claim is valid, the holder may make a claim against the bond on behalf of the student or students affected, or on behalf of the director. The director and the Finance Authority of Maine have the concurrent right at any time to review the school's operations and all its records to determine if the school is in compliance with this subchapter and rules adopted under this subchapter, or to determine if any claim of a student against the school is valid. [PL 2009, c. 369, Pt. B, §37 (AMD).] [PL 2009, c. 369, Pt. B, §37 (AMD).]

2. License fee; renewal fee; renewal requirements. A fee as set under section 14238 is charged for the initial license and for the annual renewal of a license. Each submission for a license renewal must include the school's most recent financial audit conducted by a certified public accountant unaffiliated with the school. When a school does not participate in federal or state financial aid programs, internally prepared financial statements signed by the applicant are acceptable. Every renewal application must include a bond in the required amount. The director shall provide copies of the audit or financial statements and, in cases in which the bond is not in favor of the director, the original bond to the Finance Authority of Maine and may provide financial information regarding the school to other state agencies with an interest in the operation of the school. When a school applies for renewal of a license the school must certify that: A. The school has included information in all school brochures and handbooks provided to students, and has posted information in a location in the school frequented by students advising students of their rights to receive refunds and where to direct any complaints the students have concerning their education; and [PL 1997, c. 771, §11 (NEW).] B. The school is in compliance with all applicable federal and state laws and regulations. [PL 1997, c. 771, §11 (NEW).] [PL 2009, c. 369, Pt. B, §38 (AMD).]

3. Definitions. As used in this section, the term "bond" means a bond, letter of credit or cash equivalent, acceptable to the holder, in its discretion. [PL 1997, c. 771, §11 (NEW).]

4. Exemption. A career and technical education center pursuant to Title 20‑A, chapter 313 that does not assess or collect tuition for a course of study offered is exempt from the surety bond or financial audit filing requirement under this section. [PL 2019, c. 373, §44 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 16608 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 135 / Section 16608
32 §16608. Uniformity and cooperation with other agencies
Status: in_force

1. Objective of uniformity and cooperation. The administrator may, in the administrator's discretion, cooperate, coordinate, consult and, subject to section 16607 , share records and information with the securities regulator of another state, Canada, a Canadian province or territory, a foreign jurisdiction, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the United States Department of Justice, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, the Federal Trade Commission, the Securities Investor Protection Corporation, a self-regulatory organization, a national or international organization of securities regulators, a federal or state banking or insurance regulator or a governmental regulatory or law enforcement agency to, among other objectives, effectuate greater uniformity in securities matters among the Federal Government, self-regulatory organizations, states and foreign governments. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

2. Policies to consider. In cooperating, coordinating, consulting and sharing records and information under this section and in acting by rule, order or waiver under this chapter, the administrator may, in the administrator's discretion, take into consideration in carrying out the public interest the following general policies: A. Maximizing effectiveness of regulation for the protection of investors; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] B. Maximizing uniformity in federal and state regulatory standards; and [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] C. Minimizing burdens on the business of capital formation without adversely affecting essentials of investor protection. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]

3. Subjects for cooperation. The cooperation, coordination, consultation and sharing of records and information authorized by this section includes: A. Establishing or employing one or more designees as a central depository for licensing, registration and notice filings under this chapter and for records required or allowed to be maintained under this chapter; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] B. Developing and maintaining uniform forms; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] C. Conducting a joint examination or investigation; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] D. Holding a joint administrative hearing; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] E. Instituting and prosecuting a joint civil or administrative proceeding; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] F. Sharing and exchanging personnel; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] G. Coordinating registrations under section 16301 and licensing under sections 16401 to 16404 and exemptions under section 16203 ; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] H. Sharing and exchanging records, subject to section 16607 ; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] I. Formulating rules, statements of policy, guidelines, forms and interpretative opinions and releases; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] J. Formulating common systems and procedures; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] K. Notifying the public of proposed rules, forms, statements of policy and guidelines; [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] L. Attending conferences and other meetings among securities regulators, which may include representatives of governmental and private sector organizations involved in capital formation, considered necessary or appropriate to promote or achieve uniformity; and [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] M. Developing and maintaining a uniform exemption from registration for small issuers and taking other steps to reduce the burden of raising investment capital by small businesses. [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 2577 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 36 / Section 2577
32 §2577. Joint program interns
Status: in_force

An applicant who is enrolled in a program of medical and graduate medical training conducted jointly by a college or university having the power to grant a D.O. degree and accredited by the American Osteopathic Association and a graduate medical education program approved by the American Osteopathic Association may receive a temporary educational certificate from the board to act as a hospital intern as part of that graduate medical education program as long as the applicant is concurrently enrolled in the final year of medical training and initial year of graduate medical education. The board may not issue a certificate pursuant to this section for a period longer than that required to obtain the D.O. degree. The period during which the certificate is in force may not be considered as satisfaction of the requirement for postgraduate medical education under section 2571 . [PL 1995, c. 337, §1 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 18107 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 139 / Section 18107
32 §18107. Installations to conform to standards
Status: in_force

1. Board standards and rules. Installation of oil, solid fuel, propane and natural gas burning equipment and chimneys may not be made in this State unless the installation complies with all the standards and rules adopted by the board. These standards and rules may not prohibit: A. The continued use of an existing connection of a solid fuel burning appliance to a chimney flue to which another appliance burning oil or solid fuel is connected for any chimney existing and in use prior to February 2, 1998 as long as: (1) Sufficient draft is available for each appliance; (2) The chimney is lined and structurally intact; and (3) A carbon monoxide detector is installed in the building near a bedroom; or [PL 2011, c. 225, §2 (NEW).] B. The connection of a solid fuel burning appliance to a chimney flue to which another appliance burning oil or solid fuel is connected for any chimney existing and in use on or after February 2, 1998 as long as: (1) Sufficient draft is available for each appliance; (2) The chimney is lined and structurally intact; (3) A carbon monoxide detector is installed in the building near a bedroom; (4) The solid fuel burning appliance has been listed by Underwriters Laboratories or by an independent, nationally recognized testing laboratory or other testing laboratory approved by the board; and (5) The solid fuel burning appliance is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's installation specifications. [PL 2011, c. 225, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2011, c. 225, §2 (NEW).]

2. Technician responsibility for ascertaining total conformance to the standards and rules. Whenever oil, solid fuel, propane and natural gas burning equipment, accessory equipment or its installation are separately contracted, the master oil and solid fuel burning technician or the propane and natural gas technician in charge of the installation is responsible for ascertaining total conformance to the standards and rules adopted by the board. [PL 2011, c. 225, §2 (NEW).]

3. Proof of license. Whenever a state fuel inspector authorized under section 18110 finds a person installing or assisting in an oil, propane, natural gas or solid fuel burning appliance installation, that person shall, on request of the state fuel inspector, provide evidence of being properly licensed when required by this chapter and, if unable to provide the evidence, shall furnish the state fuel inspector with that person's full name and address and, if applicable, the full name and address of the master oil and solid fuel burning technician or the propane and natural gas technician in charge. [PL 2011, c. 225, §2 (NEW).]
32 M.R.S. § 13713 — ME Code / Title 32 / Chapter 117 / Section 13713
32 §13713. Qualifications
Status: in_force

1. Public members. The public members of the board must be residents of this State who are at least 21 years of age and shall not be, nor ever have been, members of the profession of pharmacy, the spouse of a member of the profession of pharmacy, a person who has ever had any material financial interest in providing pharmacy services or a person who has engaged in any activity directly related to the practice of pharmacy. [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).]

2. Licensed pharmacists. The licensed pharmacist members of the board shall, at the time of their appointment: A. Be residents of this State; [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).] B. Be licensed and in good standing to engage in the practice of pharmacy in this State; [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).] C. Be engaged in the practice of pharmacy in this State; and [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).] D. Have 5 years of experience in the practice of pharmacy in this State after licensure. [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).] [PL 1987, c. 710, §5 (NEW).]