25 M.R.S. § 1320 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1320
25 §1320. Military judge (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1320)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1320)
25 M.R.S. § 2921 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 352 / Section 2921
25 §2921. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 1987, c. 840, §3 (NEW).]

1. Automatic location identification. "Automatic location identification" means a 9-1-1 service capability that enables the automatic display of information defining the geographical location of the telephone used to place a 9-1-1 call. [PL 2025, c. 167, §5 (AMD).]

2. Automatic number identification. "Automatic number identification" means a 9-1-1 service capability that enables the automatic display of the 7-digit number used to place a 9-1-1 call. [PL 2025, c. 167, §6 (AMD).]

2-A. Bureau. "Bureau" means the Emergency Services Communication Bureau within the Public Utilities Commission, which is responsible for the statewide implementation and management of 9-1-1. [PL 2025, c. 167, §7 (AMD).]

2-B. Cellular or wireless telecommunications service. "Cellular or wireless telecommunications service" means commercial mobile service as defined in 47 United States Code, Section 332(d), regardless of when payment is required for that service. [PL 2025, c. 167, §8 (AMD).]

3. Commissioner. "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Safety. [PL 1987, c. 840, §3 (NEW).]

4. Department. "Department" means the Department of Public Safety. [PL 1987, c. 840, §3 (NEW).]

4-A. Dispatch center. "Dispatch center" means an emergency communications center that receives 9-1-1 calls from a public safety answering point rather than receiving the calls directly. [PL 2023, c. 609, §1 (NEW).]

4-B. Emergency communications center. "Emergency communications center" has the same meaning as in Title 17‑A, section 509, subsection 1 . [PL 2023, c. 609, §2 (NEW).]

5. Emergency services. "Emergency services" includes fire, police, ambulance, rescue services and other services of an emergency nature identified by the commissioner. [PL 1987, c. 840, §3 (NEW).]

5-A. 9-1-1 access-only service. "9-1-1 access-only service" means the provision of 9-1-1 access to a residential telephone customer's premises when telephone service to the premises has been otherwise suspended or disconnected. [PL 2025, c. 167, §9 (AMD).]

6. 9-1-1 services. "9-1-1 services" or "9-1-1" means the delivery of 9‑1‑1 calls to the proper public safety answering points with the automatic location identification and automatic number identification of an entity requesting emergency services. "9-1-1 services" or "9-1-1" includes Internet protocol enabled services. [PL 2025, c. 167, §10 (RPR).]

6-A. Private safety agency. "Private safety agency" means a private entity that provides fire, emergency medical or security services. [PL 1993, c. 566, §2 (NEW).]

6-B. Public safety agency. "Public safety agency" means a state, county or municipal government entity that provides or has the authority to provide fire, emergency medical or police services. [PL 1993, c. 566, §2 (NEW).]

6-C. Internet protocol enabled services. "Internet protocol enabled services" means services and applications using Internet protocol, including, but not limited to, voice over Internet protocol and other services and applications provided through wireline, cable, wireless and satellite facilities and any other facility that is capable of connecting users to public safety answering points. [PL 2013, c. 119, §2 (NEW).]

6-D. Originating service provider. "Originating service provider" means an entity that provides service to an end user that may be used to originate voice or nonvoice 9-1-1 calls for assistance and that connects to the 9-1-1 system for the purposes of delivering 9‑1‑1 services, including, but not limited to, the delivery of wireline, wireless and voice over Internet protocol services, to a public safety answering point. [PL 2025, c. 167, §11 (NEW).]

7. Public safety answering point. "Public safety answering point" means the physical or virtual entity where 9-1-1 calls are received that is responsible for directly dispatching emergency services or, through transfer routing or relay routing, passing 9-1-1 calls to public or private safety agencies. [PL 2025, c. 167, §12 (AMD).]

7-A. Relay routing. "Relay routing" means the method of responding to a 9-1-1 call whereby a public safety answering point notes pertinent information and relays it by telephone to the appropriate public or private safety agency that dispatches the needed service. [PL 1993, c. 566, §4 (NEW).]

8. Selective routing. "Selective routing" means the method employed to direct 9-1-1 calls to the appropriate public safety answering point based on the geographical location from which the call originated. [PL 1987, c. 840, §3 (NEW).]

9. Transfer routing. "Transfer routing" means the method of responding to a 9-1-1 call whereby a public safety answering point transfers the call, including the automatic location and number information, to the appropriate public or private safety agency that dispatches the needed service. [PL 1993, c. 566, §4 (NEW).]

10. Local exchange carrier. "Local exchange carrier" means any person that is engaged in: A. Service within a telephone exchange, or within a connected system of telephone exchanges within the same exchange area operated to furnish to subscribers intercommunicating service of the character ordinarily furnished by a single exchange, that is covered by the exchange service charge; [PL 2001, c. 53, §1 (NEW).] B. Service comparable to that described in paragraph A provided through a system or combination of switches or transmission equipment or other facilities by which a subscriber can originate and terminate a telecommunications service; or [PL 2001, c. 53, §1 (NEW).] C. The offering of access to telephone exchange services or facilities for the purpose of the origination or termination of telephone toll services. [PL 2001, c. 53, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 53, §1 (NEW).]

11. Public switched telephone network. "Public switched telephone network" means the network of equipment, lines and controls assembled to establish communication paths between calling and called parties in North America. [PL 2001, c. 53, §1 (NEW).]

12. Interconnected voice over Internet protocol service. "Interconnected voice over Internet protocol service" means a service that enables real-time, 2-way voice communications; requires a broadband connection from the user's location; and permits users generally to receive calls that originate on the public switched telephone network and to terminate calls to the public switched telephone network. [PL 2007, c. 68, §2 (NEW).]

13. Prepaid wireless telecommunications service. "Prepaid wireless telecommunications service" means a cellular or wireless telecommunications service that allows a caller to dial 9-1-1 to access the 9-1-1 system, which service must be paid for in advance and is sold in predetermined units or dollars that declines with use in a known amount. [PL 2025, c. 167, §13 (AMD).]

13-A. Prepaid wireless telecommunications service consumer. "Prepaid wireless telecommunications service consumer" or "prepaid wireless consumer" means a person who purchases prepaid wireless telecommunications service in a retail transaction. [PL 2009, c. 400, §2 (NEW); PL 2009, c. 400, §15 (AFF).]

14. Prepaid wireless telecommunications service provider. "Prepaid wireless telecommunications service provider" means a person that provides prepaid wireless telecommunications service pursuant to a license issued by the Federal Communications Commission. [PL 2009, c. 400, §3 (AMD); PL 2009, c. 400, §15 (AFF).]

15. Retail transaction. "Retail transaction" means the purchase of prepaid wireless telecommunications service from a seller for any purpose other than resale. [PL 2009, c. 400, §4 (NEW); PL 2009, c. 400, §15 (AFF).]

16. Seller. "Seller" means a person who sells prepaid wireless telecommunications service to another person. [PL 2009, c. 400, §5 (NEW); PL 2009, c. 400, §15 (AFF).]

17. 9-1-1 call. "9-1-1 call" means any use of 9-1-1 services initiated by any means or medium, including, but not limited to, voice calls and text messaging. [PL 2025, c. 167, §14 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1544 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 193 / Section 1544
25 §1544. Uniform crime reporting
Status: in_force

It is the duty of all state, county, tribal and municipal law enforcement agencies, including those employees of the University of Maine System appointed to act as law enforcement officers, to submit to the State Bureau of Identification uniform crime reports, to include such information as is necessary to establish a Criminal Justice Information System and to enable the commanding officer to comply with section 1541, subsection 3 . It is the duty of the bureau to prescribe the form, general content, time and manner of submission of such uniform crime reports. The bureau shall correlate the reports submitted to it and shall compile and submit to the Governor and Legislature annual reports based on such reports. The bureau shall furnish copies of such annual reports to all state, county, tribal and municipal law enforcement agencies. [PL 2019, c. 621, Pt. E, §4 (AMD).]

The bureau shall establish a category for abuse by adults of family or household members, a category for cruelty to animals, a category for crimes that manifest evidence of prejudice based on race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, gender identity or ethnicity and a category for unintentional and intentional firearm discharges that are supplementary to its other reported information. The bureau shall prescribe the information to be submitted in the same manner as for all other categories of the uniform crime reports. [PL 2021, c. 366, §30 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 369, §2 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1710 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 199 / Section 1710
25 §1710. Renunciation
Status: in_force

This compact binds each party state until renounced by the party state. Any renunciation of this compact by a party state must: [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

1. How effected. Be effected in the same manner by which the party state ratified this compact; and [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

2. Notice. Become effective 180 days after written notice of renunciation is provided by the party state to each other party state and to the Federal Government. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1670 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 198 / Section 1670
25 §1670. Disposition of records and information -- Article V
Status: in_force

The bureau established and operated pursuant to Article IV, subsection 1 , of this compact is designated and recognized as the instrument for the performance of a central criminal intelligence service to the state police departments of the party states. The files, records, data and other information of the bureau and, when made pursuant to the bylaws of the conference, any copies thereof shall be available only to duly designated officers and employees of the state police departments of the party states acting within the scope of their official duty. In the possession of the aforesaid officers and employees, such records, data and other information shall be subject to use and disposition in the same manner and pursuant to the same laws, rules and regulations applicable to similar records, data and information of the officer's or employee's agency and the provision of this compact. [PL 1965, c. 435 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2432 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 317 / Section 2432
25 §2432. Removal or repair of defective stoves, boilers and the like
Status: in_force

On complaint of any citizen that a stove, stovepipe, oven, furnace, boiler or appurtenance is defective, out of repair or so placed in any building as to endanger it or any other building, the Commissioner of Public Safety or municipal officers of any town of not more than 2,000 inhabitants, if satisfied that such complaint is well founded, shall give written notice to the owner or occupant of such building, and if the owner or occupant unnecessarily neglects for 3 days to remove or repair the same effectually, the owner or occupant forfeits not less than $10 nor more than $100. [PL 1991, c. 198, §2 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1542-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 193 / Section 1542-A
25 §1542-A. Appointment
Status: in_force

1. Duty to take fingerprints. The law enforcement agency designated in subsection 3 shall take the fingerprints of any person: A. Charged with the commission of a criminal offense except a violation of Title 12 or 29‑A that is a Class D or E crime other than an alcohol-related or drug-related offense, as defined in section 1541, subsection 4‑A, paragraph A ; [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §3 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] B. Arrested as a fugitive from justice or taken into custody for a juvenile crime pursuant to a uniform interstate compact on juveniles; [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §4 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] C. Named on a search warrant which directs that such person's fingerprints be taken; [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] D. Named in a Maine Rules of Unified Criminal Procedure 16A order that directs that such person's fingerprints be taken; [PL 2015, c. 431, §45 (AMD).] E. Who dies under circumstances of death constituting a medical examiner case under Title 22, section 3025 , if sought pursuant to Title 22, section 3028, subsection 3 or at the request of the Chief Medical Examiner or the Attorney General; [PL 1999, c. 790, Pt. A, §30 (RPR).] F. Whose fingerprints have been ordered by a court; [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §6 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] G. Who is a teacher or educational personnel applicant subject to Title 20‑A, section 6103 ; [PL 2001, c. 52, §4 (AMD).] H. Charged with the commission of a juvenile crime; [PL 2013, c. 546, §1 (AMD).] I. Who is a prospective adoptive parent not the biological parent as required under Title 18‑C, section 9‑304, subsection 1 ; [PL 2017, c. 402, Pt. C, §77 (AMD); PL 2019, c. 417, Pt. B, §14 (AFF).] J. Who is an affected person, as defined in Title 36, section 194‑D, subsection 1, paragraph A , and whose fingerprints have been required by the State Tax Assessor pursuant to Title 36, section 194‑D ; [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §1 (AMD).] K. [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §2 (RP).] L. [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §3 (RP).] M. Who has applied for a guide license under Title 12, section 12853 ; [PL 2017, c. 457, §11 (RPR).] N. Who is licensed under Title 32, chapter 48 and has applied for an expedited license under Title 32, section 18506 ; [PL 2017, c. 457, §12 (AMD).] O. Who is required to submit to a criminal history record check pursuant to Title 28‑B, section 204 . [PL 2017, c. 409, Pt. B, §11 (NEW).] P. Who is licensed under Title 32, chapter 36 and has applied for an expedited license under Title 32, section 18506 ; [PL 2019, c. 399, §2 (RPR); PL 2019, c. 402, §2 (RPR).] Revisor's Note: (Paragraph P as enacted by PL 2017, c. 452, §25 is REALLOCATED TO TITLE 25, SECTION 1542-A, SUBSECTION 1, PARAGRAPH S) Q. Who is an applicant for licensure with the State Board of Nursing as required under Title 32, section 2111, subsection 1 ; [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §5 (AMD); PL 2019, c. 399, §3 (AMD); PL 2019, c. 402, §3 (AMD); PL 2019, c. 416, §3 (AMD).] R. Who is required to have a criminal background check under Title 22, section 8302‑A or 8302‑B . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §30 (RPR).] S. (REALLOCATED FROM T. 25, §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶P) Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 22, section 2425‑A, subsection 3‑A . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §31 (RPR).] T. Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 22, section 8110 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §32 (RPR).] U. Who is an affected person, as defined in Title 26, section 1085, subsection 1, paragraph A , whose fingerprints have been required by the department pursuant to Title 26, section 1085 . [PL 2019, c. 644, §1 (NEW).] Revisor's Note: (Paragraph U as enacted by PL 2019, c. 616, Pt. S, §2 is REALLOCATED TO TITLE 25, SECTION 1542-A, SUBSECTION 1, PARAGRAPH X) V. Who is employed or may be offered employment by the Office of the State Auditor as required under Title 5, section 247 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §34 (NEW).] Revisor's Note: (Paragraph V as enacted by PL 2021, c. 400, §2 is REALLOCATED TO TITLE 25, SECTION 1542-A, SUBSECTION 1, PARAGRAPH Y) W. Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 19‑A, section 2111 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §35 (NEW).] X. (REALLOCATED FROM T. 25, §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶U) Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 5, section 1986 . [PL 2019, c. 616, Pt. S, §2 (NEW); PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §33 (RAL).] Y. (REALLOCATED FROM T. 25, §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶V) Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 22, section 5307 . [PL 2021, c. 400, §2 (NEW); RR 2021, c. 1, Pt. A, §24 (RAL).] Z. Who is required to have a criminal history record check under Title 8, section 1204 . [PL 2021, c. 681, Pt. J, §8 (NEW).] AA. Who is an applicant for licensure as a psychologist with the State Board of Examiners of Psychologists as required under Title 32, section 3833‑B . [PL 2023, c. 506, §1 (NEW).] BB. Who is an applicant for licensure as a physical therapist or a physical therapist assistant with the Board of Examiners in Physical Therapy as required under Title 32, section 3114‑D . [PL 2023, c. 506, §2 (NEW).] CC. Who is an applicant for licensure as an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant with the Board of Occupational Therapy Practice, or who is a licensed occupational therapist or a licensed occupational therapy assistant seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 2279‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §1 (NEW).] DD. Who is an applicant for licensure as a physician associate with the Board of Osteopathic Licensure, or who is a licensed physician associate seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 2594‑G . [PL 2025, c. 366, §2 (NEW); PL 2025, c. 316, §3 (REV).] EE. Who is an applicant for licensure as a physician associate with the Board of Licensure in Medicine, or who is a licensed physician associate seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 3270‑H . [PL 2025, c. 366, §3 (NEW); PL 2025, c. 316, §3 (REV).] FF. Who is an applicant for a multistate license with the State Board of Social Worker Licensure, as required under Title 32, section 7052‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §4 (NEW).] GG. Who is an applicant for licensure as a clinical professional counselor or a marriage and family therapist with the Board of Counseling Professionals Licensure, or who is a licensed clinical professional counselor or licensed marriage and family therapist seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 13858‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §5 (NEW).] HH. Who is an applicant for licensure as an audiologist or a speech-language pathologist with the Board of Speech, Audiology and Hearing, or who is a licensed audiologist or licensed speech-language pathologist seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 17301‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §6 (NEW).] II. Who is an applicant for licensure as a dentist or a dental hygienist with the Board of Dental Practice, or who is a licensed dentist or licensed dental hygienist seeking a compact privilege, as required under Title 32, section 18341‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §7 (NEW).] [PL 2025, c. 366, §§1-7 (AMD); PL 2025, c. 316, §3 (REV).]

2. Palm prints, footprints and photographs. Whenever fingerprints are to be taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph A , B or G , palm prints, footprints and photographs may also be taken. Whenever palm prints, footprints or photographs are ordered to be obtained pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph C , D or F or are sought pursuant to paragraph E , the palm prints, footprints or photographs must be taken. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §9 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).]

3. Duty to take fingerprints. The duty to take fingerprints is imposed as follows. A. The law enforcement agency having primary responsibility for the criminal investigation and prosecution shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph A . If the offender is subjected to a custodial arrest, fingerprints must be taken prior to that person's being released from custody. If the offender is summonsed to appear or, relative to a Class D or Class E crime, released at the scene by a law enforcement officer who has taken the personal recognizance of any such person for the person's appearance, fingerprints must be taken within 5 days at a time and place specified by the responsible agency. The offender shall appear at the specified time and place and shall submit to the process. To the extent possible, the fingerprinting must occur prior to arraignment. At the time of arraignment, the state court or tribal court shall inquire as to whether fingerprints have been taken or as to whether arrangements have been made for fingerprinting. If this has not occurred, the state court or tribal court shall instruct both the responsible law enforcement agency and the person charged as to their respective obligations in this regard. [PL 2019, c. 621, Pt. E, §3 (AMD).] B. The law enforcement agency that arrests a fugitive from justice or takes a person into custody for a juvenile crime pursuant to a uniform interstate compact on juveniles shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of that person. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §10 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] C. The law enforcement agency having primary responsibility for the criminal investigation and prosecution shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph D . [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] D. The law enforcement agency or individual identified in the warrant or order shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph C or F . [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] E. The law enforcement agency of which the request is made shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph E . [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] F. The Maine State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph G , at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses specified under Title 20‑A, section 6103, subsection 3‑A . [PL 2005, c. 457, Pt. CC, §5 (AMD).] G. The law enforcement agency that has primary responsibility for the investigation and prosecution of the juvenile offense shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph H . If the juvenile is arrested, fingerprints must be taken prior to that person's being released from custody. If a juvenile court proceeding is commenced against a person without a juvenile arrest having been made, fingerprints must be taken within 5 days of the filing of the petition at a time and place specified by the responsible agency after consulting with the juvenile community corrections officer. The juvenile shall appear at the specified time and place and shall submit to the process. [PL 2001, c. 667, Pt. A, §44 (AMD).] H. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph I , at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses specified under Title 18‑C, section 9‑304, subsection 1, paragraph B , subparagraph (3). [PL 2017, c. 402, Pt. C, §78 (AMD); PL 2019, c. 417, Pt. B, §14 (AFF).] I. Trained personnel of the Department of Public Safety, Gambling Control Board shall take fingerprints of a person seeking licensure under Title 8, chapter 31 . [PL 2005, c. 663, §14 (NEW).] J. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph J , at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by the Department of Administrative and Financial Services, Bureau of Revenue Services as specified under Title 36, section 194‑D, subsection 3 . [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §6 (AMD).] K. [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §7 (RP).] L. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph M at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by that person as required by Title 12, section 12853, subsection 4‑A, paragraph B . [PL 2017, c. 457, §14 (RPR).] M. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph N at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by that person as required by Title 32, section 3275‑A . [PL 2017, c. 253, §3 (NEW).] N. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph O at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by that person as provided under Title 28‑B, section 204 . [PL 2017, c. 409, Pt. B, §12 (NEW).] O. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph P at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by that person as required by Title 32, section 2571‑A . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §36 (RPR).] P. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph Q at the request of that person and upon payment by the person of the fee established in Title 32, section 2111, subsection 1 . [PL 2017, c. 457, §15 (NEW).] Q. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph R at the request of that person or the Department of Health and Human Services under Title 22, section 8302‑A or 8302‑B . [PL 2017, c. 457, §15 (NEW).] R. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph S at the request of that person or the Department of Administrative and Financial Services under Title 22, section 2425‑A, subsection 3‑A . [PL 2019, c. 343, Pt. G, §9 (NEW); PL 2019, c. 399, §6 (NEW); PL 2019, c. 402, §6 (NEW); PL 2019, c. 416, §6 (NEW).] S. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph T at the request of that person or the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title 22, section 8110 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §37 (RPR).] T. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph U at the request of that person and upon payment of the expenses by the Department of Labor, Bureau of Unemployment Compensation as specified under Title 26, section 1085, subsection 3 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §38 (RPR).] U. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph V at the request of that person or the Office of the State Auditor and upon payment by the Office of the State Auditor of the fee established in Title 5, section 247, subsection 3 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §39 (NEW).] Revisor's Note: (Paragraph U as enacted by PL 2021, c. 400, §3 is REALLOCATED TO TITLE 25, SECTION 1542-A, SUBSECTION 3, PARAGRAPH X) V. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph W at the request of that person or the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title 19‑A, section 2111 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §40 (NEW).] W. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph X at the request of that person or the Department of Administrative and Financial Services, Office of Information Technology and upon payment of the fee as provided under Title 5, section 1986 . [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §41 (NEW).] X. (REALLOCATED FROM T. 25, §1542-A, sub-§3, ¶U) The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph Y at the request of that person or the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title 22, section 5307 . [PL 2021, c. 676, Pt. A, §43 (AMD).] Y. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph Z at the request of that person or the director of the Gambling Control Unit within the Department of Public Safety and upon payment of the fee established by the director of the Gambling Control Unit pursuant to Title 8, section 1204, subsection 3 . [PL 2021, c. 681, Pt. J, §9 (NEW).] Z. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph AA at the request of that person or the State Board of Examiners of Psychologists and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 3833‑B . [PL 2023, c. 506, §3 (NEW).] AA. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph BB at the request of that person or the Board of Examiners in Physical Therapy and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 3114‑D . [PL 2023, c. 506, §4 (NEW).] BB. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph CC at the request of that person or the Board of Occupational Therapy Practice and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 2279‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §8 (NEW).] CC. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph DD at the request of that person or the Board of Osteopathic Licensure and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 2594‑G . [PL 2025, c. 366, §9 (NEW).] DD. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph EE at the request of that person or the Board of Licensure in Medicine and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 3270‑H . [PL 2025, c. 366, §10 (NEW).] EE. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph FF at the request of that person or the State Board of Social Worker Licensure and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 7052‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §11 (NEW).] FF. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph GG at the request of that person or the Board of Counseling Professionals Licensure and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 13858‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §12 (NEW).] GG. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph HH at the request of that person or the Board of Speech, Audiology and Hearing and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 17301‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §13 (NEW).] HH. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person named in subsection 1, paragraph II at the request of that person or the Board of Dental Practice and upon payment of the fee by that person as required by Title 32, section 18341‑A . [PL 2025, c. 366, §14 (NEW).] [PL 2025, c. 366, §§8-14 (AMD).]

4. Duty to submit to State Bureau of Identification. It is the duty of the law enforcement agency taking the fingerprints as required by subsection 3, paragraphs A , B and G to transmit immediately to the State Bureau of Identification the criminal fingerprint record. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph C , D , E or F or pursuant to subsection 5 may not be submitted to the State Bureau of Identification unless an express request is made by the commanding officer of the State Bureau of Identification. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph G must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Department of Education. The bureau may not use the fingerprints for any purpose other than that provided for under Title 20‑A, section 6103 . The bureau shall retain the fingerprints, except as provided under Title 20‑A, section 6103, subsection 9 . Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph I and subsection 3, paragraph I must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the court and the Department of Public Safety, Gambling Control Board, respectively. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph J or S must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Department of Administrative and Financial Services. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph P must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Board of Osteopathic Licensure, established in Title 32, chapter 36 . Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph N must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Board of Licensure in Medicine, established in Title 32, chapter 48 . Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph Q must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the State Board of Nursing, established in Title 32, chapter 31 . Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph O must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks under Title 28‑B, section 204 . Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph R , T or W must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Department of Health and Human Services. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph V must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Office of the State Auditor. [PL 2021, c. 293, Pt. A, §42 (RPR).]

4-A. Duty to submit fingerprints to State Bureau of Identification; affected persons under Title 26, section 1085. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph U must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Department of Labor. [PL 2019, c. 644, §3 (NEW).]

5. Right to take fingerprints. A law enforcement officer designated in subsection 7 may take the fingerprints of any person: A. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §13 (RP); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] B. Charged with the commission of a criminal offense found in Title 12 or 29‑A that is a Class D or E crime but is not an alcohol-related or drug-related offense as defined in section 1541, subsection 4‑A, paragraph A ; [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §14 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] C. Who is in a state correctional facility or county institution or facility in execution of a sentence for a crime or in execution of an order involving an institutional disposition for a juvenile crime; or [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] D. Who voluntarily submits to fingerprinting for any law enforcement purpose. [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).] [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §§13, 14 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).]

6. Palm prints, footprints and photographs. Whenever fingerprints are taken pursuant to subsection 5, paragraph B or C , palm prints, footprints and photographs may also be taken. In addition, palm prints, footprints or photographs may also be taken for any law enforcement purpose when a person voluntarily submits to them. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §15 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).]

7. Upon whom the right to take fingerprints is given. Any law enforcement officer may take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of any person named in subsection 5 . Any corrections officer or the person in charge of a state correctional facility or county institution or facility may take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of any person named in subsection 5, paragraph C or D . [PL 1987, c. 512, §3 (NEW).]

8. Fingerprint record forms. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraphs A , B as to a person arrested as a fugitive from justice and D and subsection 5, paragraphs B , C and D must be taken on a form furnished by the State Bureau of Identification, such form to be known as the Criminal Fingerprint Record. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraphs E , F and G must be taken on a form furnished by the bureau, such form to be known as the Noncriminal Fingerprint Record. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraphs B as to a person taken into custody for a juvenile crime pursuant to a uniform interstate compact on juveniles and H must be taken on a form furnished by the State Bureau of Identification, such form to be known as the Juvenile Crime Fingerprint Record. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph C or F must be taken upon the form appropriate for that purpose. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §16 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).]
25 M.R.S. § 2803-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2803-A
25 §2803-A. Powers and duties of the board of trustees
Status: in_force

The board has the following powers and duties: [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

1. Training and certification of all law enforcement officers in State. In accordance with this chapter, to establish training and certification standards for all law enforcement officers, set requirements for board-approved courses, prescribe curriculum and certify both graduates of board-approved courses and persons for whom the board has waived the training requirements of this chapter. Certification must be based on the officer's demonstration of having acquired specific knowledge and skills directly related to job performance; [PL 2005, c. 331, §8 (AMD).]

2. Admission standards. In accordance with the requirements of this chapter, to establish standards for admission to the board-approved courses, including academic and physical admission standards that apply uniformly to all candidates applying for admission to the academy; [PL 2005, c. 331, §9 (AMD).]

3. Certification of criminal justice executives. To certify and set standards for certification of criminal justice executives. As used in this subsection, "criminal justice executives" means police chiefs, sheriffs and the persons directly below the police chiefs or sheriffs in line of command; [PL 2005, c. 331, §10 (AMD).]

4. Training and certification of sheriffs. [PL 2005, c. 331, §11 (RP).]

5. Training and certification of adult corrections officers in State. In accordance with this chapter, to establish training and certification standards for all adult corrections officers, set requirements for board-approved courses, prescribe curriculum and certify graduates of board-approved courses and persons for whom the board has waived the training requirements of this chapter. Certification must be based on the officer's demonstration of having acquired specific knowledge and skills directly related to job performance as a corrections officer who is responsible for the custody or direct supervision of persons confined in a county or regional jail or state adult correctional facility. A corrections officer who is certified and an employee of a county or regional jail or state adult correctional facility on the date the board establishes a separate basic training course and certification standards for juvenile corrections officers pursuant to subsection 5‑B must be certified as an adult corrections officer pursuant to this subsection; [PL 2023, c. 341, §4 (AMD).]

5-A. Training of corrections employees with law enforcement powers. To establish certification standards and a preservice and in-service training program for employees of the Department of Corrections authorized to exercise law enforcement powers as described in Title 34‑A, section 3011 . This program must include: A. Preservice law enforcement training under section 2804‑B ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §9 (NEW).] B. In-service law enforcement training that is specifically approved by the board as prescribed in section 2804‑E . [PL 2013, c. 147, §9 (NEW).] Except for investigative officers, these employees of the Department of Corrections are exempt from section 2804‑C , but completion of the basic training under section 2804‑C exempts a person from the preservice training requirements under paragraph A ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §9 (NEW).]

5-B. Training and certification of juvenile corrections officers in State. In accordance with this chapter, to establish training and certification standards for all juvenile corrections officers, set requirements for board-approved courses, prescribe curriculum and certify graduates of board-approved courses and persons for whom the board has waived the training requirements of this chapter. Certification must be based on the officer's demonstration of having acquired specific knowledge and skills directly related to job performance as a corrections officer who is responsible for the custody or direct supervision of persons confined in a state juvenile correctional facility. A corrections officer who is certified and an employee of a state juvenile correctional facility on the date the board establishes a separate basic training course and certification standards for juvenile corrections officers pursuant to this subsection must be certified as a juvenile corrections officer pursuant to this subsection; [PL 2023, c. 341, §5 (NEW).]

5-C. Training and certification of probation and parole officers. To establish training and certification standards for probation and parole officers, set requirements for board-approved courses, prescribe curricula and certify graduates of board-approved courses. Certification must be based on the officer's demonstration of having acquired specific knowledge and skills directly related to job performance; [PL 2023, c. 525, §4 (NEW); PL 2023, c. 525, §8 (AFF).]

6. Training and certification of State Police enlisted personnel. [PL 1993, c. 744, §4 (RP).]

7. Training of harbor masters. To establish suitable training programs for harbor masters authorized to make arrests under Title 38, chapter 1, subchapter I , relevant to their duties as harbor masters; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

8. Training and certification in court procedures. To establish certification standards and a program to certify law enforcement officers as being familiar with current court procedures. This program shall include: A. Sufficient instruction in the basic training courses approved by the board under this chapter to satisfy certification standards upon successful completion of the course; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).] B. A method by which law enforcement officers whose basic training course did not contain the instruction required by paragraph A may satisfy the certification standards; and [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).] C. A requirement that in-service training programs required under section 2804‑E include instruction on current court procedures; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).] [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

8-A. Training of police officers of the Bureau of Capitol Police. To establish certification standards and a training program for police officers appointed by the Commissioner of Public Safety pursuant to section 2908 . This program must include: A. The preservice law enforcement training under section 2804‑B ; [PL 2005, c. 331, §12 (AMD).] B. An additional 120-hour field training program developed and approved by the board that is specific to the duties of a Capitol Police officer; and [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §1 (AMD).] C. In-service law enforcement training that is specifically approved by the board as prescribed in section 2804‑E . [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §2 (NEW).] Capitol Police officers are exempt from section 2804‑C ; [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §1 (AMD).]

8-B. Training of judicial marshals. To establish certification standards and a preservice and in-service training program for judicial marshals. This program must include: A. Preservice law enforcement training under section 2804‑B ; [PL 2003, c. 400, §5 (NEW).] B. An additional basic judicial marshal training program developed and approved by the board that is specific to the duties of a judicial marshal; and [PL 2013, c. 147, §10 (AMD).] C. In-service law enforcement training that is specifically approved by the board as prescribed in section 2804‑E . [PL 2003, c. 400, §5 (NEW).] Judicial marshals are exempt from section 2804‑C , but completion of basic training under section 2804‑C exempts a person from the preservice training requirement under paragraph A ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §10 (AMD).]

8-C. Training of transport officers. To establish certification standards and a training program for transport officers. This program must include: A. The preservice law enforcement training under section 2804‑B ; and [PL 2013, c. 147, §11 (NEW).] B. In-service law enforcement training that is specifically approved by the board as prescribed in section 2804‑E ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §11 (NEW).] [PL 2013, c. 147, §11 (AMD).]

8-D. Training of forest rangers. To establish certification standards and a training program for the state supervisor of the forest protection unit of the Bureau of Forestry within the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry and forest rangers appointed under Title 12, section 8901 . This program must include: A. Preservice law enforcement training under section 2804‑B ; [PL 2017, c. 456, §3 (NEW).] B. An additional basic forest ranger training program developed by the state supervisor of the forest protection unit of the Bureau of Forestry within the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry and approved by the board that is specific to the duties of a forest ranger; [PL 2017, c. 456, §3 (NEW).] C. In-service law enforcement training that is specifically approved by the board as prescribed in section 2804‑E ; and [PL 2017, c. 456, §3 (NEW).] D. A firearms training program equivalent to a firearms training program of a full-time law enforcement officer trained at the Maine Criminal Justice Academy that is developed and approved by the board. [PL 2017, c. 456, §3 (NEW).] A forest ranger hired on or after July 1, 2019 shall complete basic training under section 2804‑C . Forest ranger pilots regardless of hire date and forest rangers hired prior to July 1, 2019 are exempt from basic training under section 2804‑C , but completion of basic training under section 2804‑C exempts a person from the preservice training requirement under paragraph A ; [PL 2019, c. 593, §1 (AMD).]

9. Other training programs. To establish additional training programs considered to be beneficial to law enforcement officers, corrections officers and other criminal justice personnel; [PL 2013, c. 147, §12 (AMD).]

10. Establish fees. To establish, with the approval of the commissioner, reasonable fees for attendance to defray at least part of the operation costs of the academy; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

11. Formulate a budget. [PL 2005, c. 331, §14 (RP).]

12. Accept funds and grants. With the approval of the commissioner, to accept such federal funds or grants as may be available to carry out the purposes of the academy; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

13. Acquire facilities. With the approval of the commissioner, to lease, rent or acquire adequate facilities to conduct the academy's training programs; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

14. Certification of instructors. To certify and set standards for certification of law enforcement and criminal justice instructors to be used in all academy preservice, basic and in-service training programs as required by the board of trustees and over which the board has statutory control; [PL 1989, c. 521, §§4, 17 (NEW).]

15. Revocation or suspension of certification. To take disciplinary action concerning any certificate issued by the board, including but not limited to suspension or revocation; [PL 2013, c. 147, §13 (AMD).]

15-A. Standards of conduct. To adopt rules establishing standards of conduct for an applicant for a certificate and a certificate holder the violation of which subject that person to disciplinary action pursuant to section 2806‑A, subsection 5, paragraph M ; [PL 2021, c. 255, §1 (NEW).]

16. Provide assistance and materials. To provide to state, municipal and county corrections officers and state, municipal and county law enforcement officers any assistance or instructional materials the board considers necessary to fulfill the purposes of this chapter and Title 30‑A, sections 381 and 2671 ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §14 (AMD).]

17. Acceptance of gifts. To accept, as recommended by the Director of the Maine Criminal Justice Academy, money, goods and services, gifts, bequests and endowments donated to the Maine Criminal Justice Academy to support any activities carried out by the Maine Criminal Justice Academy pursuant to this chapter. Any money donated to the academy and any proceeds from the sale of property bequeathed to the board pursuant to this section must be deposited in the academy's Other Special Revenue Funds account; [PL 2013, c. 147, §15 (NEW).]

18. Rules. To adopt rules as the board determines necessary and proper to carry out this chapter. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A ; and [PL 2013, c. 147, §15 (NEW).]

19. Issuance of subpoenas. To conduct investigations and issue subpoenas to assist with investigations or as otherwise considered necessary for the fulfillment of its responsibilities and to hold hearings and issue subpoenas for witnesses, records and documents in the name of the board in accordance with the terms of Title 5, section 9060 , except that the subpoena authority applies to any stage or type of an investigation and is not limited to an adjudicatory hearing. [PL 2013, c. 147, §15 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2403 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 315 / Section 2403
25 §2403. Thermal Imaging Camera Program
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Safety or the commissioner's designee. [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).] B. "Fund" means the Thermal Imaging Camera Fund established in this section. [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).]

2. Program established. The commissioner shall oversee the Thermal Imaging Camera Program to negotiate one or more bulk purchases of thermal imaging cameras on behalf of local fire-fighting units and, to the extent funds are available, to provide loans for the purchase of such cameras by local fire-fighting units. The commissioner shall determine how many thermal imaging cameras local fire-fighting units wish to purchase under the program and shall negotiate a bulk purchase price of those cameras, provided that the units are able to pay for the cameras or have qualified for a loan pursuant to subsection 4 . [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).]

3. Fund established. The Thermal Imaging Camera Fund is established from which the loans authorized under subsection 4 may be made. The fund, which is a nonlapsing fund, receives money from appropriations made by the Legislature and from any other public or private source including repayment of loans. Money deposited in the fund and any interest earnings on that money remain in the fund to be used for loans pursuant to this section. [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).]

4. Loans and purchases authorized. To the extent money is available in the fund, the commissioner may make interest-free loans to local fire-fighting units, or the appropriate units of government with jurisdiction over the fire-fighting units, to assist in the purchase of the thermal imaging cameras for which the commissioner negotiates a price pursuant to subsection 2 . The commissioner may recover administrative costs associated with administering the loans through a processing fee equitably imposed on local fire-fighting units, or the units of government with jurisdiction over the fire-fighting units, which receive loans under this section. The commissioner shall also arrange for the direct purchase of a thermal imaging camera by a local fire-fighting unit if no loan is sought or available. The commissioner by rule shall establish procedures for determining which local fire-fighting units qualify to receive loans in the event the fund is insufficient to provide loans to all fire-fighting units that seek loans. Rules adopted to implement this section are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II‑A . [PL 2001, c. 439, Pt. BBBBB, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2476 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 318 / Section 2476
25 §2476. Fees; permits; required inspections
Status: in_force

1. Fees. All fees received by the Department of Public Safety under this subchapter must be used for carrying out the purposes of this subchapter. Any balance of these fees does not lapse but must be carried forward as a continuing account to be expended for the same purposes in the following fiscal years. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

2. Permit. A permit is valid for 3 years from the date of issue. The fee for a permit is $30. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

3. Inspection of storage magazines and vehicles used to transport explosives. All storage magazines and vehicles used to transport explosives in intrastate commerce must be inspected prior to issuance of a permit. The fee for an inspection of a storage magazine is $78. The fee for the inspection of a vehicle used to transport explosives is $83 except that the fee for the inspection of a vehicle used to transport fireworks explosives is $98. Reinspection of storage magazines and vehicles used to transport explosives must be conducted upon renewal of a permit. [PL 2001, c. 437, §5 (AMD); PL 2001, c. 437, §8 (AFF).]
25 M.R.S. § 2923-C — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 352 / Section 2923-C
25 §2923-C. Cost reporting
Status: in_force

1. Reporting requirements. Annually, on a date prescribed by the Public Utilities Commission by rule, a public safety answering point and dispatch center shall each provide the bureau with a report of the costs incurred by the public safety answering point or dispatch center for the provision of 9-1-1 services. [PL 2025, c. 167, §17 (AMD).]

2. Rules. The Public Utilities Commission shall adopt rules to implement this section. The rules must establish requirements for the report provided by a public safety answering point and dispatch center pursuant to subsection 1 , including, at a minimum: A. The manner by which the report must be submitted to the bureau; [PL 2023, c. 609, §3 (NEW).] B. The specific cost components for the provision of 9-1-1 services to be included in the report; and [PL 2025, c. 167, §17 (AMD).] C. The date by which the report must be submitted. [PL 2023, c. 609, §3 (NEW).] Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2025, c. 167, §17 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2017 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252-A / Section 2017
25 §2017. Limitation of liability of holder of firearm hold agreement
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Firearm" has the same meaning as in Title 17‑A, section 2, subsection 12‑A . [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).] B. "Firearm hold agreement" means a written agreement between a firearm owner and another person in which the person at the owner's request takes physical possession of a lawfully possessed firearm of the owner and holds the firearm for an agreed period of time. [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).] C. "Gun shop" has the same meaning as in section 2015, subsection 1, paragraph D . [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).]

2. Holding firearms for 3rd parties. A gun shop may take possession of a firearm from a person for safekeeping under the following conditions: A. The gun shop enters into a firearm hold agreement with the owner of the firearm; and [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).] B. The gun shop contacts the owner of the firearm every 6 months after taking possession of the firearm until the firearm is returned to the owner of the firearm. [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).]

3. Immunity from liability. An action may not be taken against a gun shop that entered into a firearm hold agreement for returning the firearm to the owner of the firearm at the termination of the firearm hold agreement. The immunity provided in this subsection does not apply to otherwise unlawful conduct of the gun shop returning the firearm to the owner of the firearm under this section. An action may not be brought against a person for refusing to enter into a firearm hold agreement with any person. [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).]

4. Rules. The Department of Public Safety shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this section. Rules adopted under this subsection are routine technical rules under Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2025, c. 357, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2481 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 318 / Section 2481
25 §2481. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this subchapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

1. Aboveground flammable liquid storage facility. "Aboveground flammable liquid storage facility" means any aboveground storage tank or tanks containing flammable liquids, together with associated piping, transfer and dispensing facilities. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

2. Commissioner. "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Safety or the commissioner's designee. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

3. Department. "Department" means the Department of Public Safety. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

4. Flammable liquid. "Flammable liquid" means either a combustible liquid having a flash point at or above 100° Fahrenheit or any volatile liquid having a flash point below 100° Fahrenheit. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

5. Permit. "Permit" means the nontransferable permission granted by the commissioner for a person to install, construct or otherwise establish an aboveground flammable liquid storage facility or a retail motor fuel facility dispensing flammable liquids to the public. [PL 2007, c. 182, §1 (AMD).]

6. Person. "Person" means any individual, combination of individuals, partnership, corporation or any other legal entity and any nonfederal governmental entity. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1333 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1333
25 §1333. Reconsideration (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1333)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1333)
25 M.R.S. § 1339 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1339
25 §1339. Restoration of rights (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1339)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1339)
25 M.R.S. § 1574 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 194 / Section 1574
25 §1574. Biological sample required for DNA analysis upon conviction or adjudication
Status: in_force

1. Conviction subsequent to effective date. A person convicted, on or after January 1, 1996 and before October 1, 2001, of a crime listed in subsection 4 or a person convicted on or after October 1, 2001, of a crime listed in subsection 5 shall submit to having a DNA sample taken and at the time of sentencing the court shall enter an order directing that the DNA sample be taken. If the convicted person's sentence includes a straight term of imprisonment or a split term of imprisonment, the DNA sample may be taken at any time following the commencement of the straight term or initial unsuspended portion of the term of imprisonment. If the convicted person's sentence includes a period of probation but no immediate imprisonment, the DNA sample may be taken at any time following commencement of the probation period as directed by the probation officer. If the convicted person's sentence includes a period of probation, the court may attach the duty to submit to having a DNA sample taken as a condition of probation. [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (AMD).]

2. Conviction prior to effective date. A person convicted and incarcerated prior to January 1, 1996, as a result of a conviction for a crime listed in subsection 4 , must have a DNA sample taken before release from the corrections system. [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (AMD).]

3. Juvenile offenders. [PL 2001, c. 325, §3 (RP).]

3-A. Juveniles. A juvenile adjudicated on or after October 1, 2003 of a juvenile crime that, if committed by an adult, would constitute an offense listed in subsection 6 is subject to the requirements of this section. [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).]

4. Applicable offenses for persons convicted after January 1, 1996 and before October 1, 2001. This section applies to a person convicted after January 1, 1996 and before October 1, 2001 of one or more of the following offenses or an attempt of one or more of the following offenses: A. Murder or criminal homicide in the first or 2nd degree; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (AMD).] B. Felony murder; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] C. Manslaughter; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] D. Aggravated assault; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] D-1. Elevated aggravated assault; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (NEW).] E. Gross sexual assault, including that formerly denominated as gross sexual misconduct; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (AMD).] E-1. Rape; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (NEW).] F. Sexual abuse of a minor; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] G. Unlawful sexual contact; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] G-1. Visual sexual aggression against a child; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (NEW).] G-2. Sexual misconduct with a child under 14 years of age; [PL 1997, c. 608, §3 (NEW).] H. Kidnapping; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] I. Criminal restraint; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] J. Burglary; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] K. Robbery; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] L. Arson; [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] M. Aggravated criminal mischief; or [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] N. Any lesser included offense of any crime identified in paragraphs A to M if the greater offense is initially charged. "Lesser included offense" has the same meaning as in Title 17‑A, section 13‑A . [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).] [RR 2003, c. 1, §23 (COR).]

5. Applicable offenses for persons convicted on or after October 1, 2001. Except as provided in paragraph G‑1 , this section applies to a person convicted on or after October 1, 2001 of one or more of the following offenses or an attempt of one or more of the following offenses: A. Murder; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] B. A Class A, B or C crime; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] C. Sexual abuse of a minor; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] D. Unlawful sexual contact; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] E. Visual sexual aggression against a child; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] F. Sexual contact with a child under 14 years of age; [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] G. Solicitation of a child by a computer to commit a prohibited act; [PL 2011, c. 597, §5 (AMD).] G-1. Solicitation of a child to commit a prohibited act on or after October 1, 2012; or [PL 2011, c. 597, §5 (NEW).] H. Any lesser included offense of any crime identified in paragraphs A to G if the greater offense is initially charged. "Lesser included offense" has the same meaning as in Title 17‑A, section 13‑A . [PL 2001, c. 325, §5 (NEW).] [PL 2011, c. 597, §5 (AMD).]

6. Applicable offenses for juveniles adjudicated on or after October 1, 2003. This section applies to a juvenile adjudicated on or after October 1, 2003 of committing a juvenile crime that, if committed by an adult, would constitute one or more of the following offenses or an attempt of one or more of the following offenses: A. Murder; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] B. Felony murder; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] C. Manslaughter; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] D. Aggravated assault; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] E. Elevated aggravated assault; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] F. Gross sexual assault; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] G. Unlawful sexual contact; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] H. Kidnapping; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] I. Criminal restraint; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] J. Burglary; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] K. Robbery; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] L. Arson; [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] M. Aggravated criminal mischief; or [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] N. Causing a catastrophe. [PL 2003, c. 393, §3 (NEW).] [RR 2003, c. 1, §24 (COR).]
25 M.R.S. § 2452 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 317 / Section 2452
25 §2452. Life safety and property protection
Status: in_force

The Commissioner of Public Safety shall adopt and may amend rules governing the safety to life from fire in or around all buildings or other structures, recreational vehicles as defined in National Fire Protection Association standard 1192 and mass outdoor gatherings, as defined in Title 22, section 1601, subsection 2 , within the commissioner's jurisdiction. Automatic sprinkler systems may not be required in existing noncommercial places of assembly. Noncommercial places of assembly include those facilities used for such purposes as deliberation, worship, entertainment, amusement or awaiting transportation that have a capacity of 100 to 300 persons. Automatic sprinkler systems may not be required in existing commercial places of assembly that are open for no more than 50 days per calendar year. "Commercial places of assembly" includes bars with live entertainment, dance halls, nightclubs, assembly halls with large open areas in which patrons stand or sit, commonly referred to as "festival seating," and restaurants. Rules adopted pursuant to this section are routine technical rules, except that rules pertaining to fire sprinklers are major substantive rules, both of which are defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2025, c. 245, §1 (AMD).]

1. Effective date. [PL 2007, c. 632, §2 (RP).]

2. Rights declared. Any person aggrieved by a rule or by an act of the commissioner in enforcing the rule may have that person's rights declared by bringing an action for declaratory judgment under Title 14, chapter 707 , naming the commissioner as defendant. [PL 1997, c. 728, §25 (AMD).]

3. Violation. A person who violates a rule issued by the commissioner under this section commits a Class E crime. Violation of this section is a strict liability crime as defined in Title 17‑A, section 34, subsection 4‑A . [PL 2025, c. 245, §2 (AMD).]

4. Exception. Notwithstanding chapter 314 and Title 10, chapter 1103 , a recovery residence must be treated as a residence for a family if the recovery residence meets the following requirements: A. The recovery residence must be certified based on criteria developed by a nationally recognized organization that supports persons recovering from substance use disorder; [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).] B. The recovery residence must have no more than 2 residents per bedroom; [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).] C. The recovery residence must have at least one full bathroom for every 6 residents; [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).] D. The recovery residence must meet the requirements of all adopted building codes and sections 2464 and 2468 applicable to a one‑family or 2‑family residence with regard to smoke detectors, carbon monoxide detectors and fire extinguishers; and [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).] E. If the recovery residence is located in a multiunit apartment building, the recovery residence must meet all state and local code requirements for the type of building in which the recovery residence is located. [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).] For the purposes of this subsection, "recovery residence" means a shared living residence for persons recovering from substance use disorder that is focused on peer support, provides to its residents an environment free of alcohol and illegal drugs and assists its residents by connecting the residents to support services or resources in the community that are available to persons recovering from substance use disorder. [PL 2019, c. 358, §1 (NEW).]

Existing buildings licensed pursuant to Title 22, Subtitle 6 having more than 6 boarders, with the exception of board and care facilities and children's homes, must comply with any rules for residential board and care occupancies required by the Commissioner of Public Safety, except that such existing facilities of not more than 2 stories in height are not required to be fire resistive, protected or unprotected noncombustible, protected wood frame or heavy timber construction. Such existing facilities must be protected by a complete approved automatic sprinkler system and meet all other requirements of residential board and care occupancies as required by the Commissioner of Public Safety. [PL 2007, c. 82, §3 (AMD).]

Existing boarding care facilities licensed pursuant to Title 22, Subtitle 6 must comply with the applicable fire safety requirements of the Life Safety Code adopted by the Commissioner of Public Safety pursuant to Title 22, section 7856 . [PL 2003, c. 535, §3 (AMD).]

Existing children's homes licensed pursuant to Title 22, Subtitle 6 must comply with the applicable fire safety requirements of the Life Safety Code of the National Fire Protection Association adopted by the Commissioner of Public Safety pursuant to Title 22, section 8103 . [PL 2003, c. 535, §3 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2801 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2801
25 §2801. Maine Criminal Justice Academy; purpose
Status: in_force

1. Purpose of academy. The purpose of the Maine Criminal Justice Academy is to provide a central training facility for criminal justice personnel. The academy shall promote the highest levels of professional law enforcement performance and facilitate coordination and cooperation between various criminal justice agencies. [PL 2013, c. 147, §4 (NEW).]

2. Purpose of board of trustees. The purpose of the Maine Criminal Justice Academy Board of Trustees is to protect the public health and welfare. The board carries out this purpose by ensuring that the public is served by competent and honest criminal justice practitioners and by establishing minimum standards of proficiency in the regulated professions by examining, licensing, regulating and disciplining practitioners of those regulated professions, as are identified in this chapter. Other goals or objectives may not supersede this purpose. [PL 2013, c. 147, §4 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1704 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 199 / Section 1704
25 §1704. Responsibilities of compact parties
Status: in_force

1. Director of the FBI. The Director of the FBI shall: A. Appoint an FBI compact officer who shall: (1) Administer this compact within the United States Department of Justice for federal agencies and other agencies and organizations that submit search requests to the FBI pursuant to section 1706, subsection 3 ; (2) Ensure that compact provisions and rules, procedures and standards prescribed by the council under section 1707 are complied with by the United States Department of Justice and the federal agencies and other agencies and organizations referred to in subparagraph (1) ; and (3) Regulate the use of criminal history records received by means of the III system from party states when those criminal history records are supplied by the FBI directly to other federal agencies; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] B. Provide to federal agencies and to state criminal history record repositories criminal history records maintained in its database for the noncriminal justice purposes described in section 1705 , including: (1) Information from nonparty states; and (2) Information from party states that is available from the FBI through the III system but is not available from the party state through the III system; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] C. Provide a telecommunications network and maintain centralized facilities for the exchange of criminal history records for both criminal justice purposes and the noncriminal justice purposes described in section 1705 and ensure that the exchange of the criminal history records for criminal justice purposes has priority over exchange for noncriminal justice purposes; and [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] D. Modify or enter into user agreements with nonparty state criminal history record repositories to require them to establish criminal history record request procedures conforming to those prescribed in section 1706 . [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

2. Party state. Each party state shall: A. Appoint a compact officer who shall: (1) Administer this compact within that state; (2) Ensure that compact provisions and rules, procedures and standards established by the council under section 1707 are complied with in the state; and (3) Regulate the in-state use of criminal history records received by means of the III system from the FBI or from other party states; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] B. Establish and maintain a criminal history record repository that must provide: (1) Information and criminal history records for the national indices; and (2) The state's III system-indexed criminal history records for noncriminal justice purposes described in section 1705 ; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] C. Participate in the national fingerprint file; and [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] D. Provide and maintain telecommunications links and related equipment necessary to support the criminal justice services set forth in this compact. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

3. Compliance with III system requirements. In carrying out their responsibilities under this compact, the FBI and each party state shall comply with III system rules, procedures and standards duly established by the council concerning criminal history record dissemination and use, response times, data quality, system security, accuracy, privacy protection and other aspects of III system operation. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

4. Noncriminal justice users. Use of the III system for noncriminal justice purposes authorized in this compact must be managed so as not to diminish the level of services provided in support of criminal justice purposes. Administration of compact provisions may not reduce the level of service available to authorized noncriminal justice users on the effective date of this compact. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1350 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1350
25 §1350. Mutiny (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1350)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1350)
25 M.R.S. § 2358 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 313 / Section 2358
25 §2358. Failure to comply with order of building official
Status: in_force

If the owner of any building neglects or refuses for more than 30 days to comply with any direction of the building official concerning the repairs on any building as provided in section 2354 , the owner must be penalized in accordance with Title 30‑A, section 4452 . [PL 2009, c. 261, Pt. B, §8 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2808 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2808
25 §2808. Sharing of training costs
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Governmental entity" means the State or any city, town, plantation or county or tribal government. [PL 2023, c. 242, §1 (AMD).] B. "Training" means the basic training provided to a full-time law enforcement officer by the Maine Criminal Justice Academy, as described in section 2804‑C , or by the Indian police academy at the federal law enforcement training center. [PL 2023, c. 242, §1 (AMD).] C. "Training costs" means a fixed dollar amount determined by the board. In making the determination, the board shall include the following costs: (1) The full cost of the salary, including fringe benefits, paid to the officer while in training; (2) The full cost of the tuition charged by the Maine Criminal Justice Academy or the Indian police academy at the federal law enforcement training center; (3) The full cost of uniforms for training and graduation provided to the officer in training; and (4) The full cost of the salary, inclusive of overtime, paid to officers to provide police protection that would otherwise have been lost during the absence of the officer in training. The board shall review the determination of training costs annually, make any necessary adjustments and provide that determination to all law enforcement agencies in the State. [PL 2023, c. 242, §1 (AMD).] [PL 2023, c. 242, §1 (AMD).]

2. Reimbursement for training costs. [PL 2005, c. 331, §31 (RP).]

3. Reimbursement for training costs. Whenever a full-time law enforcement officer, trained at the Maine Criminal Justice Academy or the Indian police academy at the federal law enforcement training center at the expense of a particular governmental entity, is subsequently hired by another governmental entity as a full-time law enforcement officer within 5 years of graduation from the academy, the governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity according to the following formula, unless a mutual agreement is reached. A. If the officer is hired by the other governmental entity during the first year after graduation, that governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity the full cost of the training costs. [PL 1989, c. 521, §13 (NEW).] B. If the officer is hired by the other governmental entity during the 2nd year after graduation, that governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity 80% of the training costs. [PL 1989, c. 521, §13 (NEW).] C. If the officer is hired by the other governmental entity during the 3rd year after graduation, that governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity 60% of the training costs. [PL 1989, c. 521, §13 (NEW).] D. If the officer is hired by the other governmental entity during the 4th year after graduation, that governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity 40% of the training costs. [PL 1989, c. 521, §13 (NEW).] E. If the officer is hired by the other governmental entity during the 5th year after graduation, that governmental entity shall reimburse the first governmental entity 20% of the training costs. [PL 1989, c. 521, §13 (NEW).] F. If the officer graduated more than 5 years before subsequently being hired by the other governmental entity, that governmental entity is not obligated to reimburse the first governmental entity. [PL 2005, c. 331, §32 (AMD).] If the officer is subsequently hired by additional governmental entities within 5 years of graduation from the academy, each of those governmental entities is liable to the governmental employer immediately preceding it for the training costs paid by that governmental entity under this subsection. The extent of financial liability must be determined according to the formula established by this subsection. The board shall, as necessary, incorporate the Indian police academy at the federal law enforcement training center into its basic law enforcement training program reimbursement rates. [PL 2023, c. 242, §1 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1347 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1347
25 §1347. Striking officer (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1347)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1347)
25 M.R.S. § 1504 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 191 / Section 1504
25 §1504. Salaries and compensations; oath; not to receive fees
Status: in_force

The Governor shall determine the salary of the chief and deputy chief. The compensation of the other members of the State Police shall be determined under the Civil Service Law. [PL 1985, c. 785, Pt. B, §109 (AMD).]

Before entering upon the duties of their office they shall be sworn.

No inspector or member of the State Police shall receive any fee as a complainant or witness, in any civil violation or criminal proceeding, or for making an arrest, except that whenever members of the State Police are required by any court or prosecuting official to be in attendance in any proceeding as a complainant or a witness at times other than regular working hours, such members shall receive compensation on an hourly basis equal to their current hourly wage. Such compensation shall be made to the members from the salary account of the State Police with reimbursement to the State Police from the General Fund for appearances before the District Court and from the respective county treasurer for appearances before the Superior Court. Whenever any fines or penalties are imposed by any court other than the District Court in any proceeding in which a member of the State Police is a complainant or a witness, said court may tax costs for such complainant or witness in the usual manner. [PL 1975, c. 770, §109 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2245 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 261 / Section 2245
25 §2245. Emergency extreme risk protection orders
Status: in_force

1. Petition. In filing a petition under this chapter, a petitioner may request that the court issue an emergency extreme risk protection order. An emergency extreme risk protection order may be issued ex parte, without prior notice to the respondent. A. A petitioner seeking an emergency ex parte order shall indicate in the petition and affidavit or affidavits that emergency relief is requested because the respondent poses an immediate and significant danger of causing physical injury to the respondent or to another person by purchasing, possessing or receiving a dangerous weapon or by having or attempting to have custody or control of a dangerous weapon. An affidavit must include specific facts supporting the statement that the respondent poses an immediate and significant danger. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] B. A significant danger of causing physical injury to another person may be shown by establishing that: (1) The respondent has inflicted or attempted to inflict physical injury on another person; (2) By the respondent's threats or actions, the respondent has placed another person in reasonable fear of physical injury; or (3) By the respondent's actions or inactions, the respondent has presented a danger to another person in the respondent's care. The court may consider any additional information the court finds to be reliable, including a statement by the respondent, or relevant information from family or household members concerning the respondent, and any other facts that the court finds to be relevant. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] C. A significant danger of causing physical injury to the respondent may be shown by establishing that the respondent has threatened or attempted suicide or has threatened or attempted serious bodily injury. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] D. The court may issue an emergency extreme risk protection order if the petition and affidavit or affidavits present good cause that the respondent poses an immediate and significant danger of causing physical injury to the respondent or to another person by purchasing, possessing or receiving a dangerous weapon or by having or attempting to have custody or control of a dangerous weapon. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] E. The court shall decide whether to grant or deny the petition and issue the order on the basis of the contents of the petition and the affidavit or affidavits provided. If the petition is granted, the court shall immediately sign the original order, enter on its face the exact date and time it is issued and transmit a copy to the petitioner by reliable electronic means, such as e-mail. Upon issuance of an order, a copy must be served on the respondent pursuant to section 2247 . [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] F. The court may issue an emergency extreme risk protection order by reliable electronic means pursuant to this subsection if requested by the petitioner. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).]

2. Order. An order issued pursuant to this section may prohibit for a period of up to 14 days the respondent from purchasing, possessing or receiving a dangerous weapon or having or attempting to have custody or control of a dangerous weapon. This section does not limit the court's discretion to continue the final hearing and extend the order upon the court's own motion or upon the motion of either party. A. The order must be in writing and include the following: (1) A statement of the grounds for the issuance of the order; (2) The name and address of the court where any filings must be made, the names of the parties, the date of the petition, the date and time of the order and the date and time the order expires; (3) The date and time of the hearing under subsection 3, paragraph A when the respondent may appear to contest the order before the court. The opportunity to contest the order must be scheduled as soon as reasonably possible, but may not be more than 14 days after the date of the issuance of the order unless extended upon the court's own motion or upon the motion of either party; (4) A description of the requirements for relinquishment and return of dangerous weapons under section 2250 ; and (5) A statement in substantially the following form: "To the subject of this emergency extreme risk protection order: This order is in effect until the date and time stated above. If you have not done so already, you are required to surrender all dangerous weapons in your possession, control or custody as directed in this order. While this order is in effect, you are not allowed to purchase, possess or receive a dangerous weapon; attempt to purchase, possess or receive a dangerous weapon; or have or attempt to have custody or control of a dangerous weapon. A hearing will be held on the date and time noted above to determine if an extreme risk protection order should be issued. Failure to appear at that hearing may result in the court making an order against you that is valid for up to one year. You may request an extension of the hearing date. You may seek the advice of an attorney regarding any matter connected with this order. An attorney may be appointed at the discretion of the court to represent you if you cannot afford one." [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] B. An order issued pursuant to this section must include the following statement: "VIOLATION OF THIS ORDER IS A CRIME SUBJECT TO A TERM OF IMPRISONMENT OR A FINE, OR BOTH, AS PROVIDED BY THE MAINE REVISED STATUTES, TITLE 15, SECTION 393 , AND MAY ALSO RESULT IN SANCTIONS FOR CONTEMPT PURSUANT TO THE MAINE RULES OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, RULE 66." [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] If a court denies a petition filed pursuant to this subsection, the court shall state the reason for the denial, which may include either written findings of fact or oral findings of fact on the record. [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).]

3. Duration. The duration of an emergency extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this section is as follows. A. Unless the petition is voluntarily dismissed pursuant to paragraph B , the court shall hold a hearing within 14 days after the issuance of an emergency extreme risk protection order to determine if an extreme risk protection order should be issued. If not voluntarily dismissed, the emergency extreme risk protection order expires when the court grants or denies a petition for an extreme risk protection order in accordance with section 2244, subsection 3 . [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] B. The petitioner may voluntarily dismiss a petition filed pursuant to this section at any time prior to the hearing required under paragraph A if the petitioner determines the respondent no longer poses an immediate and significant danger of causing physical injury to the respondent or to another person by purchasing, possessing or receiving a dangerous weapon or by having or attempting to have custody or control of a dangerous weapon. If the petitioner voluntarily dismisses the petition pursuant to this paragraph, the court shall vacate the emergency extreme risk protection order and direct a law enforcement agency in possession of a dangerous weapon belonging to the respondent to return it to the respondent consistent with section 2250 . [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).] [IB 2025, c. 1, §6 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 4201 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 11 / Chapter 501 / Section 4201
25 §4201. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 2009, c. 289, §1 (NEW).]

1. Critical incident. "Critical incident" means a work-related incident that causes or has the potential to cause an employee or member of a public safety agency or an organization involved in emergency care or response, a corrections officer as defined in section 2801‑A, subsection 2 or an employee of a county jail or a detention or correctional facility operated by the Department of Corrections to experience emotional or physical stress. "Critical incident" includes, but is not limited to, use-of-force encounters that may result in the death of or serious injury to another person or an officer, member or employee, fatal motor vehicle accidents, child abuse investigations, emergency care or response operations and death investigations. [PL 2019, c. 89, §1 (AMD).]

1-A. Critical incident stress management peer support. "Critical incident stress management peer support" means services provided to an employee or member of a public safety agency or an organization involved in emergency care or response, a corrections officer as defined in section 2801‑A, subsection 2 or an employee of a county jail or a detention or correctional facility operated by the Department of Corrections when that person has been involved in a critical incident that can reasonably have a devastating, long‑lasting effect on that person. "Critical incident stress management peer support" includes assisting the employee, member or officer to appropriately process the trauma and stress and connecting that person to appropriate resources. [PL 2019, c. 89, §2 (NEW).]

1-B. Critical incident stress management peer support person. "Critical incident stress management peer support person" means a person who provides critical incident stress management peer support and is trained in accordance with national best practices and standards established by rule by the Commissioner of Public Safety. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2019, c. 89, §2 (NEW).]

2. Critical incident stress management team. "Critical incident stress management team" means: A. A team of critical incident stress management peer support persons designated by the chief or director of a public safety agency or of an organization involved in emergency care or response, the sheriff of a county jail or the head of a detention or correctional facility, or that person's designee; or [PL 2019, c. 89, §3 (NEW).] B. A volunteer team coordinator by a nonprofit entity that is trained, in accordance with national best practices and standards established by rule by the Commissioner of Public Safety, to assist and provide critical incident stress management peer support. [PL 2019, c. 89, §3 (NEW).] A critical incident stress management team shall have an established relationship with a licensed mental health clinician who is available for consultation with members of the critical incident stress management team as the members determine to be necessary and for at least one meeting annually with the team. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2019, c. 89, §3 (RPR).]

3. Criminal justice agency. [PL 2019, c. 89, §4 (RP).]

4. Public safety agency. "Public safety agency" has the same meaning as in section 2921, subsection 6‑B . [PL 2019, c. 89, §5 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2473 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 318 / Section 2473
25 §2473. Permits; requirements
Status: in_force

A person may not possess, use, store or transport explosives without a permit. The commissioner shall issue a permit to an applicant who: [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

1. Application. Completes an application form furnished by the commissioner; [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

2. Financial responsibility. Includes proof in the application that the applicant maintains financial responsibility in the form of liability insurance or a surety bond as follows: A. To obtain a permit with endorsements to possess, use or store explosives, a person must maintain financial responsibility in the form of liability insurance in an amount not less than $500,000; and [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).] B. To obtain a permit with an endorsement for intrastate transportation of explosives, a person must comply with the requirements in rules adopted pursuant to section 2103‑A or 2110 , as applicable; [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).] [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

3. Examination. Passes a written examination administered by the Department of Public Safety; [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

4. Citizenship. Is a citizen or resident alien of the United States; and [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

5. Character. Demonstrates good moral character and has not been convicted of a crime punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment equal to or exceeding one year. The determination of good moral character must be made in writing by the commissioner, based upon evidence recorded by a governmental entity. The commissioner shall consider matters recorded within the previous 5 years, including, but not limited to, the following: A. Records of incidents of abuse of family or household members by the applicant provided pursuant to Title 19‑A, section 4114, subsection 1 ; [PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §55 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §65 (AFF).] B. Records provided by the Department of Health and Human Services regarding the failure of the applicant to meet child or family support obligations; [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 689, Pt. B, §6 (REV).] C. Records of 3 or more convictions of the applicant for Class D or E crimes; [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).] D. Records of 3 or more civil violations by the applicant; and [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).] E. Records that the applicant has engaged in recklessness or negligence that endangered the safety of others. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §55 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §65 (AFF).]
25 M.R.S. § 2923-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 352 / Section 2923-A
25 §2923-A. Requirements of municipalities, plantations, counties or unorganized territories
Status: in_force

Each municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory that does not have a public safety answering point shall contract with an entity that does have a public safety answering point, which may be the department, for receiving 9-1-1 calls and, as appropriate, directly dispatching emergency services or, through transfer routing or relay routing, passing 9-1-1 calls to public or private safety agencies that dispatch emergency services. If a municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory without a public safety answering point does not enter into such an agreement, the department shall serve as the public safety answering point for that municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory and the municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory shall pay the department for the provision of those services. Fees received by the department pursuant to this section must be deposited in the Consolidated Emergency Communications Fund established in section 1534 . If a fee assessed to a municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory for services provided pursuant to an agreement under this section or by the department is based in whole or in part on population, the population of the municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory may not include persons held at a correctional facility, as defined in Title 34‑A, section 1001, subsection 6 , within the municipality, plantation, county or unorganized territory. [PL 2025, c. 167, §15 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 3714 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 9 / Chapter 403 / Section 3714
25 §3714. Penalty
Status: in_force

Any person found to be in violation of this subchapter is guilty of a Class E crime. [PL 1985, c. 56, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1326 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1326
25 §1326. Witnesses (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1326)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1326)
25 M.R.S. § 2392 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 315 / Section 2392
25 §2392. Inspection by State Fire Marshal; removal of dangerous matter; appeal; exits
Status: in_force

The State Fire Marshal or public safety inspectors, upon the complaint of a person or whenever they determine it necessary, may inspect all buildings and premises within their jurisdiction. The State Fire Marshal or a public safety inspector may forbid the use of a building or other structure that does not conform to the laws, ordinances and rules adopted by the Commissioner of Public Safety or enforceable by the commissioner, pursuant to section 2396 , and that creates a danger to other property or to the public. The State Fire Marshal or a public safety inspector shall serve an order in writing upon the owner and the occupant, if any, to repair or remove the building or structure or part of the building or structure and to vacate the building or structure within a reasonable time to be stated in the order. The owner or occupant may within 24 hours appeal the order to the Commissioner of Public Safety, who shall, within 30 days after notice to the owner or occupant and a hearing, review the order and file a decision. The commissioner's decision is final and must be complied with within such time as may be fixed in the order or decision of the commissioner. [PL 1997, c. 728, §16 (AMD).]

An owner or occupant who neglects to comply with the order is guilty of a Class E crime, except that a fine of not less than $100 must be imposed for each conviction. [PL 1997, c. 728, §16 (AMD).]

Every hospital, sanatorium, convalescent home, nursing home, rest home or other institution for the hospitalization or nursing care of human beings must between sundown and sunrise maintain lighted exitways and all main exit doors must be hung to swing outward. [PL 1997, c. 728, §16 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 3701 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 9 / Chapter 403 / Section 3701
25 §3701. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following words shall have the following meanings. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).]

1. Law enforcement agency. "Law enforcement agency" means any state, county, municipality or other political unit within the territory belonging to the State or any department, agency or subdivision of any of the foregoing, or any corporation or other association carrying out the functions of government that employs law enforcement officers. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).]

2. Law enforcement association. "Law enforcement association" means a corporation, partnership, unincorporated association or any other legal entity, including a benevolent association, whose members are primarily law enforcement officers. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).]

3. Law enforcement officer. "Law enforcement officer" means any person who by virtue of public employment is vested by law with a duty to make arrests for crimes, whether that duty extends to all crimes or is limited to specific crimes. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).]

4. Property. "Property" means any money, service, gift or anything of value, including a promise. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).]

5. Solicit. "Solicit" means to request property. The word means and includes, but is not limited to, the following methods of securing property: A. Any verbal request, including, but not limited to, a request that is made in person, by telephone or through any advertising media; [PL 1981, c. 267, §1 (RPR).] B. Any written request, including, but not limited to, a request that is sent, delivered or distributed or any advertisement posted in a public place or appearing in a newspaper, television or other advertising media; and [PL 1981, c. 267, §1 (RPR).] C. The sale of, offer or attempt to sell, any advertising, advertisements, advertising space, book, card, tag, coupon, ticket, device, magazine, membership, subscription or other tangible item or thing of value. [PL 1977, c. 449 (NEW).] [PL 1981, c. 267, §1 (AMD).]

6. Solicitation agent. [PL 2001, c. 582, §1 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 560, §1 (AMD); MRSA T. 25 §3701, sub-§6 (RP).]

7. Solicitation agent. "Solicitation agent" means a person or entity that receives payment for or retains any portion of the proceeds from soliciting. "Solicitation agent" includes, but is not limited to, a person or entity that receives or retains reimbursement for expenses related to soliciting. [PL 2005, c. 397, Pt. C, §18 (NEW).]

8. Catastrophic illness. "Catastrophic illness" means an unforeseen, prolonged and extended illness, medical condition or injury that will likely cause death or permanent disability as determined by a licensed physician whose determination must be in writing. [PL 2007, c. 633, §1 (NEW).]

9. Designated public benefit corporation. "Designated public benefit corporation" means a "public benefit corporation," as described in Title 13‑B, section 1406, subsection 1 , that does not employ or have on its board of directors any certified law enforcement officer and that has entered into an agreement with a law enforcement agency or law enforcement association as provided in section 3702‑C . [PL 2007, c. 633, §2 (NEW).]

10. Immediate family member. "Immediate family member" means a law enforcement officer's spouse, domestic partner, child or legal dependent. [PL 2007, c. 633, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1702 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 199 / Section 1702
25 §1702. Purposes
Status: in_force

The purposes of this compact are to: [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

1. Legal framework. Provide a legal framework for the establishment of a cooperative federal-state system for the interstate and federal-state exchange of criminal history records for noncriminal justice uses; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

2. FBI. Require the FBI to permit use of the national indices by each party state and to provide, in a timely fashion, federal and state criminal history records to requesting states in accordance with the terms of this compact and with rules, procedures and standards established by the council pursuant to section 1707 ; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

3. Party states. Require party states to provide information and criminal history records for the national indices and to provide criminal history records, in a timely fashion, to criminal history record repositories of other states and the Federal Government for noncriminal justice purposes in accordance with the terms of this compact and with rules, procedures and standards established by the council pursuant to section 1707 ; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

4. Council. Provide for the establishment of a council to monitor III system operations and to prescribe system rules and procedures for the effective and proper operation of the III system for noncriminal justice purposes; and [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

5. III system standards. Require the FBI and each party state to adhere to III system standards concerning criminal history record dissemination and use, response times, system security, data quality and other duly established standards, including those that enhance the accuracy and privacy of such criminal history records. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1355 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1355
25 §1355. False testimony (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1355)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1355)
25 M.R.S. § 2413 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 316 / Section 2413
25 §2413. Evidence
Status: in_force

1. Confidentiality. Any authorized agency or insurance company which receives any information pursuant to this chapter shall hold it in confidence and not release the information, except to another authorized agency, until its release is required for a criminal or civil proceeding. [PL 1981, c. 404, §2 (NEW).]

2. Testimony. Personnel of any authorized agency may be required to testify by subpoena in any litigation in which the insurance company at interest is named as a party. [PL 1981, c. 404, §2 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2903 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 351 / Section 2903
25 §2903. Temporary enforcement powers
Status: in_force

The Commissioner of Public Safety, at the commissioner's discretion, is authorized to grant statewide power of enforcement of the criminal laws of the State to county and municipal law enforcement officers, as defined in section 2801‑A, subsection 5 , assigned to the Department of Public Safety for the duration of that assignment, according to procedures established for that purpose. That power may be granted only to county and municipal law enforcement officers who have completed a basic training course at the Maine Criminal Justice Academy or for whom the basic training course has been waived by the board of trustees of the academy because of equivalent training, as provided in section 2804‑C, subsection 1 or 5 . [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §11 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2804-I — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2804-I
25 §2804-I. Law enforcement training for harbor masters and municipal shellfish conservation wardens
Status: in_force

Harbor masters and municipal shellfish conservation wardens must successfully complete the preservice law enforcement training requirements in section 2804‑B and the in-service law enforcement training requirements in section 2804‑E in order to have the power to make arrests or to carry a firearm. Harbor masters and municipal shellfish conservation wardens are exempt from section 2804‑C . [PL 1999, c. 682, §5 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2352 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 313 / Section 2352
25 §2352. Right to enter buildings
Status: in_force

A building official in the performance of the building official's official duty may enter any building for the purpose of making the inspection required by chapters 313 to 321 . [PL 2009, c. 261, Pt. B, §3 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2806-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2806-A
25 §2806-A. Disciplinary sanctions
Status: in_force

1. Disciplinary proceedings and sanctions. The board or, as delegated, the complaint review committee, established pursuant to section 2805‑C , or staff, shall investigate a complaint on its own motion or upon receipt of a written complaint filed with the board regarding noncompliance with or violation of this chapter or of any rules adopted by the board. Investigation may include an informal conference before the complaint review committee to determine whether grounds exist for suspension, revocation or denial of a certificate or for taking other disciplinary action pursuant to this chapter. The board, the complaint review committee or staff may subpoena witnesses, records and documents in any investigation or hearing conducted. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

2. Notice. The board or, as delegated, the complaint review committee, established pursuant to section 2805‑C , or staff, shall notify the certificate holder of the content of a complaint filed against the certificate holder as soon as possible, but in no event later than 60 days after the board or staff receives the initial pertinent information. The certificate holder has the right to respond within 30 days in all cases except those involving an emergency denial, suspension or revocation, as described in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 5 . If the certificate holder's response to the complaint satisfies the board, the complaint review committee or staff that the complaint does not merit further investigation or action, the matter may be dismissed, with notice of the dismissal to the complainant, if any. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

3. Informal conference. If, in the opinion of the board, the complaint review committee, established pursuant to section 2805‑C , or staff, the factual basis of the complaint is or may be true and the complaint is of sufficient gravity to warrant further action, the board or staff may request an informal conference with the certificate holder. The complaint review committee or staff shall provide the certificate holder with adequate notice of the conference and of the issues to be discussed. The certificate holder may, without prejudice, refuse to participate in an informal conference if the certificate holder prefers to request an adjudicatory hearing. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

4. Further action. If the board or the complaint review committee, established pursuant to section 2805‑C , finds that the factual basis of the complaint is true and is of sufficient gravity to warrant further action, it may take any of the following actions. A. The board, the complaint review committee or staff may negotiate a consent agreement that resolves a complaint or investigation without further proceedings. Consent agreements may be entered into only with the consent of the certificate holder and the board. Any remedy, penalty or fine that is otherwise available by law, even if only in the jurisdiction of the Superior Court, may be achieved by consent agreement, including long-term suspension and permanent revocation of a certificate issued under this chapter. A consent agreement is not subject to review or appeal and may be modified only by a writing executed by all parties to the original consent agreement. A consent agreement is enforceable by an action in Superior Court. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] B. If a certificate holder offers to voluntarily surrender a certificate, the board, the complaint review committee or staff may negotiate stipulations necessary to ensure protection of the public health and safety and the rehabilitation or education of the certificate holder. These stipulations may be set forth only in a consent agreement entered into between the board and the certificate holder. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] C. Unless specifically otherwise indicated in this chapter, if the board concludes that modification, suspension, revocation or imposition of any other sanction authorized under this chapter is in order, the board shall so notify the certificate holder and inform the certificate holder of the right to request an adjudicatory hearing. If the certificate holder requests an adjudicatory hearing in a timely manner, the adjudicatory hearing must be held by the board, a subcommittee of 3 board members designated by the board chair or a hearing officer appointed by the board. The hearing must be in accordance with Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 4 . If a hearing officer conducts the hearing, the hearing officer, after conducting the hearing, shall file with the board all papers connected with the case and report recommended findings and sanctions to the board, which may approve or modify them. If the certificate holder wishes to appeal the final decision of the board, the certificate holder shall file a petition for review with the Superior Court within 30 days of receipt of the board's decision. Review under this paragraph must be conducted pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 7 . [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

5. Grounds for action. The board may take action against any applicant for a certificate or certificate holder pursuant to this chapter or any rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, including, but not limited to, a decision to impose a civil penalty or to refuse to issue a certificate or to modify, suspend or revoke a certificate for any of the following reasons: A. Failure to meet annual certification or recertification requirements. In enforcing this paragraph, the board shall, no later than March 31st of every year, review the certification of all law enforcement and corrections officers and decertify those individuals who do not meet certification or recertification requirements; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] B. Absent extenuating circumstances as determined by the board, working more than 1,040 hours in any one calendar year as a part-time law enforcement officer performing law enforcement duties and while possessing a part-time law enforcement certificate issued by the board pursuant to section 2803‑A ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] C. Conviction of murder or any crime or attempted crime classified in state law as a Class A, Class B, Class C or Class D crime or a violation of any provision of Title 17‑A, chapter 15 , 19 , 25 , 29 , 31 , 35 , 41 or 45 . Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may summarily and without hearing suspend or revoke any certificate as a result of any criminal conviction identified by this paragraph pursuant to Title 5, section 10004, subsection 1 ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] D. Juvenile adjudication of murder or any crime or attempted crime classified in state law as a Class A, Class B, Class C or Class D crime; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] E. Guilty plea pursuant to a deferred disposition of murder or any crime or attempted crime classified in state law as a Class A, Class B, Class C or Class D crime or a violation of any provision of Title 17‑A, chapter 15 , 19 , 25 , 29 , 31 , 35 , 41 or 45 ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] F. Engaging in conduct that is prohibited or penalized by state law as murder or a Class A, Class B, Class C or Class D crime or by any provision of Title 17‑A, chapter 15 , 19 , 25 , 29 , 31 , 35 , 41 or 45 ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] G. Conviction of or adjudication as a juvenile of a crime specified in paragraph D in another state or other jurisdiction, unless that crime is not punishable as a crime under the laws of that state or other jurisdiction in which it occurred. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may summarily and without hearing suspend or revoke any certificate as a result of any criminal conviction identified by this paragraph pursuant to Title 5, section 10004, subsection 1 ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] H. Engaging in conduct specified in paragraphs C and D in another state or other jurisdiction unless that conduct is not punishable as a crime under the laws of that state or other jurisdiction in which it occurred; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] I. Falsifying or misrepresenting material facts in obtaining or maintaining a certificate issued by the board pursuant to section 2803‑A ; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] J. Engaging in conduct that violates the standards established by the board and that when viewed in light of the nature and purpose of the person's conduct and circumstances known to the person, involves a gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a reasonable and prudent certificate holder would observe in the same or similar situation; [PL 2019, c. 438, §5 (AMD).] K. Engaging in a sexual act, as defined in Title 17‑A, section 251, subsection 1, paragraph C , or in sexual contact, as defined in Title 17‑A, section 251, subsection 1, paragraph D , with another person, not the person's spouse, if at the time of the sexual act or sexual contact: (1) The officer was engaged in an investigation or purported investigation involving an allegation of abuse, as defined in former Title 19, section 762, subsection 1, in Title 19‑A , former section 4002, subsection 1 and in Title 19‑A, section 4102, subsection 1 ; (2) The other person was the alleged victim of that abuse; (3) The parties did not have a preexisting and ongoing sexual relationship that included engaging in any sexual act or sexual contact; and (4) Less than 60 days had elapsed since the officer initially became involved in the investigation or purported investigation; [PL 2021, c. 255, §2 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §58 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §65 (AFF).] L. Engaging in sexual contact, as defined in Title 17‑A, section 251, subsection 1, paragraph D , with another person, not the person's spouse, if at the time of the sexual contact the applicant or certificate holder is acting in performance of official duties and the other person is under arrest, in custody or being interrogated or temporarily detained, including during a traffic stop or questioning pursuant to an investigation of a crime, except that it is not grounds for discipline that a certificate holder properly performs a search of a person for legitimate law enforcement purposes consistent with training standards approved by the board; and [PL 2021, c. 255, §3 (AMD).] M. Engaging in conduct that is a violation of the standards of conduct established by the board by rule pursuant to section 2803‑A, subsection 15‑A . [PL 2021, c. 255, §4 (NEW).] [PL 2021, c. 255, §§2-4 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §58 (AMD); PL 2021, c. 647, Pt. B, §65 (AFF).]

6. Discipline. The board may impose the following forms of discipline upon a certificate holder or applicant for a certificate: A. Denial of an application for a certificate, which may occur in conjunction with the imposition of other discipline; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] B. Issuance of warning, censure or reprimand. Each warning, censure or reprimand issued must be based upon violation of a single applicable law, rule or condition of certification or must be based upon a single instance of actionable conduct or activity; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] C. Suspension of a certificate for up to 3 years. Execution of all or any portion of a term of suspension may be stayed pending successful completion of conditions of probation, although the suspension remains part of the certificate holder's record; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] D. Revocation of a certificate; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] E. Imposition of civil penalties of up to $1,500 for each violation of applicable laws, rules or conditions of certification or for each instance of actionable conduct or activity; or [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] F. Imposition of conditions of probation. Probation may run for such time period as the board determines appropriate. Probation may include conditions such as: additional continuing education; medical, psychiatric or mental health consultations or evaluations; mandatory professional supervision of the applicant or certificate holder; restrictions; and other conditions as the board determines appropriate. Costs incurred in the performance of terms of probation are borne by the applicant or certificate holder. Failure to comply with the conditions of probation is a ground for disciplinary action against a certificate holder. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

7. Letter of guidance. The board may issue a letter of guidance or concern to a certificate holder. A letter of guidance or concern may be used to educate, reinforce knowledge regarding legal or professional obligations or express concern over action or inaction by the certificate holder that does not rise to the level of misconduct sufficient to merit disciplinary action. The issuance of a letter of guidance or concern is not a formal proceeding and does not constitute an adverse disciplinary action of any form. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, letters of guidance or concern are not confidential. The board may place letters of guidance or concern, together with any underlying complaint, report and investigation materials, in a certificate holder's file for a specified period of time, not to exceed 10 years. Any letters, complaints and materials placed on file may be accessed and considered by the board in any subsequent action commenced against the certificate holder within the specified time frame. Complaints, reports and investigation materials placed on file remain confidential to the extent required by this chapter. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

8. Injunction. The State may bring an action in Superior Court to enjoin a person from violating any provision of this chapter, regardless of whether civil or administrative proceedings have been or may be instituted. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

9. Recertification. A person whose certificate has been revoked under this chapter may apply to the board for reinstatement of certification if: A. The certificate was revoked for a cause other than engaging in conduct that is prohibited or penalized by state law as murder or as a Class A, Class B or Class C crime or for equivalent conduct in another state or other jurisdiction; [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] B. At least 3 years have elapsed since revocation of the certificate; and [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] C. A law enforcement or corrections agency has indicated a commitment to hire the individual if the individual is recertified. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).] The granting of recertification under this subsection is governed by Maine Criminal Justice Academy rules relating to certification. The individual is subject to all training requirements applicable to persons whose certification has lapsed. [PL 2013, c. 147, §39 (NEW).]

10. Confidentiality; access to documents; public records. All complaints, charges or accusations of misconduct, replies to those complaints, charges or accusations and any other information or materials that may result in suspension or revocation of a certificate that are considered by the board or the complaint review committee established pursuant to section 2805‑C are confidential. If a person subject to this chapter requests an adjudicatory hearing under the Maine Administrative Procedure Act, that hearing must be open to the public. The hearing officer who presides over the hearing shall issue a written decision that states the conduct or other facts on the basis of which action is being taken and the reason for that action. Once issued, the hearing officer's written decision is a public record under the Freedom of Access Act, regardless of whether it is appealed. Any action taken by the board pursuant to this section as a result of a complaint, charge or accusation must be supported by a statement of findings and must be issued as a written decision of the board. The written decision of the board and findings are public records under the Freedom of Access Act. [PL 2021, c. 255, §5 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2803-D — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2803-D
25 §2803-D. Certificate admissible
Status: in_force

Notwithstanding any other law or rule of evidence, a certificate issued by the custodian of the records of the board, when signed and sworn to by that custodian, or the custodian's designee, is admissible in a judicial or administrative proceeding as prima facie evidence of any fact stated in the certificate. [PL 2013, c. 147, §26 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2904 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 351 / Section 2904
25 §2904. Security at capitol area and other state-controlled locations
Status: in_force

1. Commissioner of Public Safety. Except as provided in subsection 2 , the Commissioner of Public Safety is authorized and empowered to adopt rules, including a schedule of parking violation fees, subject to the approval of the Governor, governing the security regarding use and occupancy of all parks, grounds, buildings and appurtenances maintained by the State at the capitol area or other state-controlled locations in Augusta. Prior to adoption of new or amended rules, the commissioner shall provide notice of rulemaking to the Legislative Council. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as described in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §12 (AMD).]

2. Officials of governmental units. The officials of the governmental units listed in paragraphs A to E are authorized and empowered to adopt rules governing the access, use and occupancy of buildings or parts of buildings and of other public property that are under their respective supervisions. Rules adopted by the Legislative Council may include provisions governing security at legislative offices. Prior to adopting any such rule, the official shall consult with the Commissioner of Public Safety; the commissioner must be given an opportunity to review the rule and to comment upon its content and enforcement. These rules become effective upon deposit of a copy with the Secretary of State, who shall forward a copy attested under the Great Seal of the State to the District Court for Southern Kennebec. These rules are suspended to the extent necessary at any time when the Commissioner of Public Safety determines that an emergency exists within the facilities to which they apply, except that the commissioner may not suspend the rules governing the legislative offices without the consent of the Legislative Council. The Commissioner of Public Safety shall enforce rules adopted pursuant to this subsection, consistent with available resources and funding. The governmental officials authorized and empowered by this subsection are: A. The Legislative Council, for all legislative offices, including the Law and Legislative Reference Library, as established by Title 3, section 162 ; [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §5 (AMD).] B. [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §5 (RP).] C. The State Librarian, for the State Library; [PL 1977, c. 138, §3 (NEW).] D. The Director of the State Museum, for the State Museum; and [PL 1977, c. 138, §3 (NEW).] E. The State Archivist, for the State Archives. [PL 1977, c. 138, §3 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §5 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2484 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 318 / Section 2484
25 §2484. Fees; permits
Status: in_force

1. Fees. All fees received by the department under this subchapter must be used for carrying out the purposes of this subchapter. Any balance of these fees does not lapse but must be carried forward as a continuing account to be expended for the same purposes in the following fiscal years. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]

2. Permit. The cost of a permit and an inspection of an aboveground flammable liquid storage facility is $15. [PL 1999, c. 652, §9 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2354 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 313 / Section 2354
25 §2354. Inspection of buildings being repaired
Status: in_force

Subject to Title 32, chapter 139 , the building official shall inspect all buildings while they are in process of being repaired and see that all reasonable safeguards are used against the catching and spreading of fire and that the chimneys and flues are made safe. The building official may give directions in writing to the owner as necessary concerning such repairs to render the building safe from the catching and spreading of fire. [PL 2009, c. 652, Pt. A, §36 (RPR).]
25 M.R.S. § 1338 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1338
25 §1338. New trial (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1338)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1338)
25 M.R.S. § 1511 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 191 / Section 1511
25 §1511. Annual report regarding resource coordination agreements and other services
Status: in_force

Beginning January 1, 2024 and annually thereafter, the Bureau of State Police shall report to the joint standing committees of the Legislature having jurisdiction over criminal justice matters, transportation matters and appropriations and financial affairs regarding resource coordination agreements between the Bureau of State Police and county sheriffs' departments, including where those agreements are in place, a summary of the agreements and any changes to those agreements in the prior calendar year. The Bureau of State Police shall also provide to those joint standing committees a summary of the services provided by the State Police throughout the State. A joint standing committee may report out a bill to the Legislature based on the reports submitted to the committee pursuant to this section. As used in this section, "resource coordination agreement" means the coordination of services by the Bureau of State Police and a county sheriff to provide law enforcement services in response to requests by the public in a manner that maximizes efficiency and reduces duplication of effort. [PL 2023, c. 443, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2157 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 257 / Section 2157
25 §2157. Sheltering or aiding missing child
Status: in_force

1. Duty to inform law enforcement officer. If a person knowingly shelters or aids in obtaining shelter for a missing child for more than 24 hours without the consent of the missing child's parent, guardian or legal custodian, the person shall inform a law enforcement officer as to the missing child's location and condition if the law enforcement officer contacts that person as part of the investigation of the missing child. [PL 2025, c. 63, §1 (NEW).]

2. Violation. A person who violates subsection 1 is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $250. [PL 2025, c. 63, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2955 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 353 / Section 2955
25 §2955. Maine Drug Enforcement Agency
Status: in_force

The commissioner shall establish and operate within the Maine Drug Enforcement Agency such regional investigative task forces as the commissioner determines are required for effective drug law enforcement throughout the State. [PL 2021, c. 36, §15 (AMD).]

The investigative component of each task force is comprised of law enforcement officers drawn from municipal, county and state law enforcement agencies, who, during the period in which they serve in the task force, must be placed on a temporary assignment by their employing law enforcement agencies and in the nonclassified positions within the agency as established. All agency investigative personnel may not be state employees, for the purposes of Title 26, chapter 9‑B . All agency investigative personnel shall act in accordance with rules, policies and procedures established by the commissioner. In determining the number, areas of responsibility and investigative complement of these task forces, the commissioner shall take into account geography, population and the need for service. [PL 2021, c. 36, §16 (AMD).]

1. Director. The agency is managed by a director who reports to the commissioner. The director must be an experienced law enforcement officer. The Chief of the State Police, the Maine Sheriffs' Association and the Maine Chiefs of Police Association may each nominate one candidate as director for submission to the commissioner, who may appoint one of the candidates with the approval of the Governor. If the commissioner or the Governor does not approve of the 3 candidates submitted, each of the nominating groups is requested to submit an additional nomination. The director serves at the pleasure of the commissioner. Eligibility for this appointment is not dependent upon the parent law enforcement agency, if any, of the person selected. If the person selected is currently an employee of any state, county or local law enforcement agency, the person must be placed on a temporary assignment by the person's employing agency. The director reports directly to the commissioner, notwithstanding any existing command structure of the person's employing agency. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the person retains and continues to accrue seniority and retirement rights and benefits within the person's employing agency for the time in which the person serves as director. [PL 2021, c. 36, §17 (AMD).]

2. Assistant director. The director of the agency is assisted by an assistant director. The assistant director must be an experienced law enforcement officer and may exercise any of the powers of the director as the director may delegate. The assistant director is appointed by and serves at the pleasure of the commissioner. Eligibility for the selection is not dependent upon the parent law enforcement agency, if any, of the person selected. The assistant director is compensated in a manner equivalent to that of a captain in the State Police, with respect to both regular and overtime compensation. If the person selected is currently an employee of any state, county or local law enforcement agency, the person must be placed on a temporary assignment by the person's employing agency. The assistant director reports directly to the director, notwithstanding any existing command structure of the person's employing agency. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the person retains and continues to accrue seniority and retirement rights and benefits within the person's employing agency for the time in which the person serves as assistant director. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

2-A. Regional commanders. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RP).]

3. Commanders. There may be no more than 3 commanders within the agency who may exercise any powers the director may delegate. Each commander must be an experienced law enforcement officer appointed by the director with the concurrence of the commissioner and serves at the pleasure of the director. The appointment of commanders is not dependent upon the parent law enforcement agency, if any, of the person selected. Commanders are compensated from the budget of the agency in a manner equivalent to that of a lieutenant in the State Police, with respect to both regular and overtime compensation. If the person selected is currently an employee of any state, county or local law enforcement agency, the person must be placed on a temporary assignment by the person's employing agency. A commander reports directly to the director or assistant director, notwithstanding any existing command structure of the person's employing agency. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the person retains and continues to accrue seniority and retirement rights and benefits within the person's employing agency for the time in which the person serves as commander. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

4. Task force investigative supervisors. Each task force is supervised by a task force investigative supervisor. Each supervisor must be an experienced law enforcement officer appointed by the director with the concurrence of the commissioner and serves at the pleasure of the director. The appointment of supervisors is not dependent upon the parent law enforcement agency, if any, of the person selected. Supervisors are compensated from the budget of the agency in a manner equivalent to that of a sergeant assigned to the State Police, with respect to both regular and overtime compensation. If the person selected is currently an employee of any state, county or local law enforcement agency, the person must be placed on a temporary assignment by the person's employing agency. A supervisor reports directly to the assistant director or a commander, notwithstanding any existing command structure of the person's employing agency. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the person retains and continues to accrue seniority and retirement rights and benefits within the person's employing agency for the time in which the person serves as supervisor. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

5. Task force investigative agents. The investigative complement of each task force is comprised of task force investigative agents. Agents may be selected from municipal, county and state law enforcement agencies within the State and other state agencies, as long as the prospective agent is certified pursuant to section 2803‑A, subsection 1 ; or may be other experienced law enforcement officers, as long as each is certified pursuant to section 2803‑A, subsection 1 . Agents are selected and appointed at the discretion of the director with the concurrence of the commissioner from among those persons nominated by the chief administrative officer of a prospective agent's employing agency and other experienced law enforcement officers who apply. Agents serve at the pleasure of the director. Agents receive compensation, paid from the budget of the agency, equivalent to that of a detective in the State Police, with respect to both regular and overtime compensation with the additional credit given to seniority based upon law enforcement experience. If the person selected as an agent is currently an employee of any municipal, county or state law enforcement agency, or any other state agency, the person must be placed on a temporary assignment by the person's employing agency. An agent reports directly to the task force supervisor, notwithstanding any existing command structure of the person's employing agency. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, the person retains and continues to accrue seniority and retirement rights and benefits within the person's employing agency for the time in which the person serves as an agent. Any person employed as a senior agent or special agent investigator within the State Police may be temporarily assigned to the agency. During that temporary assignment, the State Police retains the positions of senior agent and special agent investigator. A. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RP).] B. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RP).] C. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RP).] [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

6. Authority of agency officers. The director, assistant director, commanders, supervisors and agents are vested at the discretion of the commissioner with the following: A. The authority throughout the State to arrest pursuant to Title 17‑A, section 15 ; [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (NEW).] B. The same powers and duties throughout the several counties of the State as sheriffs have in their respective counties to serve criminal process, to investigate and prosecute violators of any law of this State and to arrest without warrant and detain persons found violating or attempting to violate any other penal law of the State until a warrant can be obtained. They have the same rights as sheriffs to require aid in executing the duties of their office; and [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (NEW).] C. The same powers and duties throughout the several counties of the State as sheriffs have in their respective counties to serve civil process in all matters relating to investigations or violations of Title 17‑A, chapter 45 or actions arising under or initiated pursuant to Title 15, chapter 517 . [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (NEW).] [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

7. Task force attorneys. The Attorney General, the United States Attorney for the District of Maine and the respective district attorneys may assign as many of their assistants and special assistants as they determine to be appropriate to each of the task forces or to the agency generally. The attorneys must be available to the agency officers for purposes of ongoing consultation and advice on the propriety and legal consequences of methods of investigation and are responsible for coordinating, with the commanders and supervisors, the prosecutorial and investigative priorities of the task forces. The Attorney General shall appoint one assistant attorney general as a full-time coordinator of drug prosecution matters. That assistant attorney general is responsible to coordinate the efforts of each of the attorneys assigned to the agency. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (RPR).]

8. Compensation; State Police personnel. Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, State Police officers, senior agents and special investigative agents who are temporarily assigned to the agency continue to be paid from the budget of the Bureau of State Police, except that any additional compensation arising from such a temporary assignment must be paid from the budget of the agency. [PL 1993, c. 680, Pt. B, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2351-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 313 / Section 2351-A
25 §2351-A. Building official; compensation; deputy
Status: in_force

In every town and city of more than 2,000 inhabitants, and in every town of 2,000 inhabitants or less, if such a town so votes at a town meeting, and in each village corporation, if such a corporation so votes at the annual meeting of the corporation, the municipal officers shall annually in the month of April appoint a building official and shall determine the building official's compensation. If a building official is appointed by a municipality that has adopted or is enforcing the Maine Uniform Building and Energy Code or a portion of the Maine Uniform Building and Energy Code pursuant to Title 10, section 9724 , that building official must be certified in building standards pursuant to Title 30‑A, section 4451, subsection 2‑A, paragraph E . Whenever the building official becomes incapacitated, the municipal officers may appoint or authorize the building official to appoint a deputy building official, who shall serve until removed by the municipal officers, but in no event beyond the term for which the building official was appointed. The deputy building official shall perform such duties as may be required of the deputy building official by the building official. The compensation of the deputy building official is determined by the municipal officers. [PL 2011, c. 582, §3 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1327 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1327
25 §1327. Prohibited punishment (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1327)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1327)
25 M.R.S. § 1502 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 191 / Section 1502
25 §1502. Powers and duties; cooperation of others
Status: in_force

The specific powers and duties of the State Police shall be to patrol the state highways and other important ways, especially outside the compact portion of cities and towns, for the purpose of enforcing the law, and all laws relating to motor-driven and horse-drawn vehicles and all rules and regulations in regard thereto, and of arresting all violators and prosecuting all offenders against the same. The State Police shall aid the Department of Transportation in the enforcement of its rules and orders and permit regulations. In addition to these duties and powers, the Chief and members of the State Police are vested with the same powers and duties throughout the several counties of the State as sheriffs have in their respective counties to serve criminal processes, to investigate and prosecute violators of any law of this State and to arrest the offenders thereof, and the same power and duty as sheriffs have to arrest without warrant and detain persons found violating or attempting to violate any other penal law of the State until a legal warrant can be obtained. As arresting officers, or aids, or witnesses in any criminal case, they shall be limited to the same fees as complainants under Title 15, section 1363 . Fees shall be taxed on a bill of costs and shall be paid promptly each month to the Treasurer of State and credited to the General Highway Fund. They shall have the same rights as sheriffs to require aid in executing the duties of their office. They may serve any subpoenas, notices and processes issued by the Secretary of State or the Department of Transportation under authority of law. They shall at all times be subject to the call of the Governor for emergency purposes at the Governor's discretion. [PL 1989, c. 757 (AMD).]

The State Police, sheriffs and deputy sheriffs, constables, city marshals, deputy marshals and police officers of cities and towns shall, so far as possible, cooperate in the detection of crime, the arrest and prosecution of criminals and the preservation of law and order throughout the State.

The State Police may provide patrol services to the Maine Turnpike. The Chief of the State Police may charge the Maine Turnpike Authority for these services. Revenues received are allocated for the purpose of funding the cost of patrolling the Maine Turnpike. [PL 1985, c. 403, Pt. A, §1 (NEW).]

Upon the request of a federal agency or other person, the State Police may provide assistance for public safety purposes only to the federal agency or other person. The Chief of the State Police may charge the various federal agencies or other persons for these services. Revenues received from these agencies and other persons must be allocated for the purpose of funding the cost of providing the services. The State Police shall report to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction over criminal justice matters no later than January 15th of each year concerning the assistance provided to federal agencies and other persons during the previous calendar year. The report must contain information about the types of services provided, the number of services and the fees charged by the Chief of the State Police. [PL 2001, c. 483, §1 (AMD).]

The Chief of the State Police may assign one or more state police officers to provide full-time or part-time police services to a municipality, or to no more than 3 adjoining municipalities, lacking an organized police department, if the municipality or municipalities pay the costs of training, compensation, including wages and fringe benefits, equipment and other expenses of the assigned state police officer or officers. The Chief of the State Police shall continue to exercise supervision and direction over a state police officer who is assigned to provide police services to a municipality or municipalities. The Chief of the State Police and the municipality or municipalities are authorized to enter into agreements and contracts for police services for a period not exceeding 3 years per agreement or contract. Revenues received from a municipality must be allocated for the purpose of funding the cost of providing the police services. [PL 2005, c. 53, §1 (AMD).]

Municipal and county jails shall at all times be available for detention of persons arrested by state or any other law enforcement officers. In those municipalities where full-time supervision of the jail is not provided by the municipality, full responsibility for the safekeeping and welfare of any person detained shall rest solely with the arresting officer. Expense of any municipality or any damage to the jail resulting from the use of its jail by any arresting officer shall be reimbursed to the municipality by the law enforcement agency for which the arresting officer is acting. [PL 1989, c. 757 (AMD).]

County commissioners of all the several counties are authorized to provide and pay for liability insurance protection for the keeper of the county jail.

The Bureau of State Police is authorized to establish 2 State Police Sergeant project positions to be temporarily assigned to the Maine Criminal Justice Academy for each training class at the academy. [PL 2005, c. 519, Pt. Q, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2006 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252 / Section 2006
25 §2006. Access to information and proceedings
Status: in_force

1. Application, refusals and collected information; proceedings. All applications for a permit to carry concealed handguns and documents made a part of the application, refusals and any information of record collected by the issuing authority during the process of ascertaining whether an applicant is of good moral character and meets the additional requirements of sections 2003 and 2005 are confidential. The applicant may waive this confidentiality by written notice to the issuing authority. All proceedings relating to the issuance, refusal, suspension or revocation of a permit to carry concealed handguns are not public proceedings under Title 1, chapter 13 , unless otherwise requested by the applicant. [PL 2025, c. 111, §1 (AMD).]

2. Permanent record of permit. The issuing authority shall make a permanent record of each permit to carry concealed handguns in a suitable book or file kept for that purpose. The record must include the information contained in the permit itself. The record is confidential except that the following information about each permit holder is not confidential: A. The municipality of residence; [PL 2013, c. 54, §1 (NEW).] B. The date the permit was issued; and [PL 2013, c. 54, §1 (NEW).] C. The date the permit expires. [PL 2013, c. 54, §1 (NEW).] This subsection does not limit disclosure of confidential information for criminal justice purposes or permitting purposes to law enforcement officers and issuing authorities. [PL 2025, c. 111, §1 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2004 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252 / Section 2004
25 §2004. Penalty
Status: in_force

1. False statements. A person who intentionally or knowingly makes a false statement in the written application for a permit to carry a concealed handgun or any documents made a part of the application commits a Class D crime. [PL 2011, c. 298, §8 (AMD).]

2. Carries or conceals dangerous weapon. A person who violates section 2001‑A commits a Class D crime. [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. N, §3 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).]

3. Failure to possess permit. A person who fails to comply with section 2003, subsection 11 commits a civil violation for which a fine of not more than $100 may be adjudged. [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. N, §3 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).]

4. Violation of confidentiality. A person who intentionally or knowingly violates the confidentiality provisions of section 2006 commits a Class E crime. [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. N, §3 (NEW); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).]

5. Failure to inform law enforcement. A person who fails to comply with section 2003‑A commits a civil violation for which a fine of not more than $100 may be adjudged. [PL 2015, c. 327, §5 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2804-A — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 341 / Section 2804-A
25 §2804-A. Director; appointment; powers and duties
Status: in_force

The Commissioner of Public Safety, with the advice and consent of the board of trustees, shall appoint a director, who is the administrator of the academy and the executive director of the board. Qualifications of the director must be established by the commissioner and the board jointly. The salary of the director must be established by the commissioner and the board jointly. The director may be dismissed for cause by the commissioner with the approval of the board. [PL 2013, c. 147, §27 (AMD).]

The director shall have the duty to plan, direct and supervise the day-to-day operation of the academy and shall be charged with the responsibility of carrying out the policy and procedures established by the board. [PL 1975, c. 579, §9 (NEW).]

The director shall employ, within the limits of funds available, with the approval of the board and the commissioner and subject to the Civil Service Law, such personnel as may be reasonably necessary to carry out the purposes of the academy. [PL 1985, c. 785, Pt. B, §112 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1307 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1307
25 §1307. Custody of persons (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1307)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1307)
25 M.R.S. § 1301 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1301
25 §1301. Name (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1301)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1301)
25 M.R.S. § 2439 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 317 / Section 2439
25 §2439. Common law remedy preserved
Status: in_force

The common law right to an action for damages done by fires is not taken away or diminished and it may be pursued notwithstanding the penalties set forth in chapters 313 to 321 . [PL 1979, c. 663, §153 (RPR).]
25 M.R.S. § 2011 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252-A / Section 2011
25 §2011. State preemption
Status: in_force

1. Preemption. The State intends to occupy and preempt the entire field of legislation concerning the regulation of firearms, components, ammunition and supplies. Except as provided in subsection 3 , any existing or future order, ordinance, rule or regulation in this field of any political subdivision of the State is void. [PL 1989, c. 359 (NEW).]

2. Regulation restricted. Except as provided in subsection 3 , no political subdivision of the State, including, but not limited to, municipalities, counties, townships and village corporations, may adopt any order, ordinance, rule or regulation concerning the sale, purchase, purchase delay, transfer, ownership, use, possession, bearing, transportation, licensing, permitting, registration, taxation or any other matter pertaining to firearms, components, ammunition or supplies. [PL 1989, c. 359 (NEW).]

3. Exception. This section does not prohibit an order, ordinance, rule or regulation of any political subdivision which, with the exception of appropriate civil penalty provisions, conforms exactly with any applicable provision of state law or which regulates the discharge of firearms within a jurisdiction. [PL 1989, c. 359 (NEW).]

4. Law enforcement agency. Nothing in this section limits the power of any law enforcement agency to regulate the type and use of firearms issued or authorized by that agency for use by its employees. For the purposes of this section "law enforcement agency" has the same meaning as set forth in section 3701 . [PL 1989, c. 502, Pt. D, §19 (NEW).]

5. Restrictions on firearms and ammunition prohibited during state of emergency. The provisions of this subsection apply to restrictions on firearms and ammunition during a state of emergency, as declared by the Governor pursuant to Title 37‑B, section 742, subsection 1 . A. During a state of emergency, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, a person acting on behalf or under the authority of the State or a political subdivision of the State may not: (1) Prohibit or restrict the otherwise lawful possession, use, carrying, transfer, transportation, storage or display of a firearm or ammunition. The provisions of this paragraph regarding the lawful transfer of a firearm or ammunition do not apply to the commercial sale of a firearm or ammunition if an authorized person has ordered an evacuation or general closure of businesses in the area of the business engaged in the sale of firearms or ammunition; (2) Seize or confiscate, or authorize the seizure or confiscation of, an otherwise lawfully possessed firearm or ammunition unless the person acting on behalf of or under the authority of the State is: (a) Acting in self-defense against an assault; (b) Defending another person from an assault; (c) Arresting a person in actual possession of a firearm or ammunition for a violation of law; or (d) Seizing or confiscating the firearm or ammunition as evidence of a crime; or (3) Require registration of a firearm or ammunition for which registration is not otherwise required by state law. [PL 2011, c. 626, §1 (NEW).] B. An individual aggrieved by a violation of this subsection may seek relief in an action at law or in equity for redress against any person who subjects that individual, or causes that individual to be subjected, to an action prohibited by this subsection. [PL 2011, c. 626, §1 (NEW).] C. In addition to any other remedy at law or in equity, an individual aggrieved by the seizure or confiscation of a firearm or ammunition in violation of this subsection may bring an action for the return of the firearm or ammunition in the Superior Court of the county in which that individual resides or in which the firearm or ammunition is located. [PL 2011, c. 626, §1 (NEW).] D. In an action or proceeding to enforce this subsection, the court shall award a prevailing plaintiff costs and reasonable attorney's fees. [PL 2011, c. 626, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2011, c. 626, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1541 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 193 / Section 1541
25 §1541. Commanding officer
Status: in_force

1. Appointment. The Chief of the State Police shall appoint a person who has knowledge of the various standard identification systems and Maine court procedure to be commanding officer of the State Bureau of Identification, heretofore established within the Bureau of State Police. [PL 1975, c. 763, §4 (NEW).]

2. Personnel. The Chief of the State Police may delegate members of the State Police to serve in the State Bureau of Identification upon request of the commanding officer. The commanding officer may hire civilian personnel, subject to the Civil Service Law and the approval of the Chief of the State Police, as the commanding officer considers necessary. [RR 2023, c. 1, Pt. C, §44 (COR).]

3. Cooperation with other bureaus. The commanding officer shall cooperate with similar bureaus in other states and with the national bureau in the Department of Justice in Washington, D. C. and he shall develop and carry on an interstate, national and international system of identification. A. Notwithstanding chapter 199 , the commanding officer shall ensure that the fingerprints and descriptive information of any person that have been submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of conducting a criminal history record check for noncriminal justice purposes through the interstate identification index system, as defined in section 1703, subsection 12 , are not retained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, are used solely for the purpose of providing a response to the record check and are not disseminated prior to destruction. The commanding officer shall immediately report any retention or dissemination by the Federal Bureau of Investigation of the fingerprints or descriptive information of any person to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction over criminal justice matters, and upon the receipt of such a report, that committee shall meet to consider renunciation, pursuant to section 1710 , of the State's participation in the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact, chapter 199 . [PL 2001, c. 372, §1 (NEW).] B. Notwithstanding chapter 199 , the fingerprints and descriptive information of any person that have been submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of conducting a criminal history record check for noncriminal justice purposes through the interstate identification index system, as defined in section 1703, subsection 12 , are not a criminal history record, as defined by section 1703, subsection 5 , or criminal history record information, as defined by Title 16, section 703, subsection 3 , and such submittal is not an activity related to criminal justice, as defined by section 1703, subsection 6 , or the administration of criminal justice, as defined by Title 16, section 703, subsection 1 . [PL 2013, c. 267, Pt. B, §21 (AMD).] C. The commanding officer shall report to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, National Instant Criminal Background Check System a court's finding, upon the commanding officer's receipt of an abstract from a court that a person has been: (1) Committed involuntarily to a hospital pursuant to an order of the District Court under Title 34‑B, section 3864 because the person was found to present a likelihood of serious harm, as defined under Title 34‑B, section 3801, subsection 4‑A, paragraphs A to D ; (2) Found not criminally responsible by reason of insanity with respect to a criminal charge; or (3) Found not competent to stand trial with respect to a criminal charge. The commanding officer may adopt rules to implement the requirements of this paragraph. Rules adopted pursuant to this paragraph are routine technical rules, as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2009, c. 651, §2 (AMD).] [PL 2013, c. 267, Pt. B, §21 (AMD).]

4. Rules and regulations. The commanding officer shall make and forward to all persons charged with any duty or responsibility under this section and sections 1542‑A , 1544 , 1547 and 1549 rules, regulations and forms for the taking, filing, preserving and distributing of fingerprints and other juvenile crime and criminal history record information as provided in this chapter. Before becoming effective, such rules, regulations and forms are to be approved by the Attorney General. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §1 (AMD); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).]

4-A. Responsibility for the collection and maintenance of criminal history record information and juvenile crime information. The commanding officer shall collect and maintain: A. Fingerprints and other criminal history record information pertinent to the identification of individuals who have been arrested as fugitives from justice or who have been arrested or charged with any criminal offense under the laws of this State except a violation of Title 12 or 29‑A that is a Class D or E crime other than an alcohol-related or drug-related offense. For purposes of this paragraph, an "alcohol-related or drug-related offense" is a Class D crime that involves hunting while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or with an excessive alcohol level or the operation or attempted operation of a motorcraft, all-terrain vehicle, snowmobile or motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or with an excessive alcohol level. The commanding officer may collect and maintain fingerprints and other criminal history record information that may be related to other criminal offenses or to the performance of the commanding officer's obligations under state laws and under agreements with agencies of the United States or any other jurisdiction; and [PL 2009, c. 447, §23 (AMD).] B. Fingerprints and other juvenile crime information pertinent to the identification of individuals who have been taken into custody for juvenile crimes under a uniform interstate compact on juveniles or who have been arrested or charged with juvenile crimes under the laws of this State. The commanding officer may collect and maintain fingerprints and other juvenile crime information that may be related to other juvenile crimes or to the performance of the commanding officer's obligations under state laws and under agreements with agencies of the United States or any other jurisdiction. [PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §2 (NEW); PL 1999, c. 260, Pt. B, §18 (AFF).] For purposes of this subsection, "laws of this State" includes Passamaquoddy tribal law as described in Title 30, section 6209‑A, subsections 1‑A and 2 and Penobscot tribal law as described in Title 30, section 6209‑B, subsections 1‑A and 2 . [PL 2019, c. 621, Pt. E, §2 (AMD).]

5. Apparatus and materials. The Chief of the State Police shall supply such bureau with the necessary apparatus and materials for collecting, filing, preserving and distributing criminal history record information. [PL 1975, c. 763, §4 (NEW).]

6. Establishment of fees. The State Bureau of Identification may charge a fee to individuals, nongovernmental organizations, governmental organizations that are engaged in licensing and governmental organizations that are not a governmental entity of the State, a county of the State or a municipality of the State for each criminal history record check requested for noncriminal justice purposes pursuant to Title 16, chapter 7 . The requestor shall provide a name and date of birth for each record being requested. A request made pursuant to 5 United States Code, Section 9101 must be accompanied by fingerprints. A governmental organization that is engaged in licensing may charge an applicant for the cost of the criminal history record check. The commissioner shall establish a schedule of fees that covers the cost of providing these services. One dollar of each fee generated under this subsection must be deposited to the Other Special Revenue Funds account within the Bureau of State Police to offset the cost of maintenance and replacement of both hardware and software associated with the criminal history record check system. The remaining revenues generated from these fees must be credited to the General Fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the full fee charged for fingerprint-supported criminal history record checks fees as collected pursuant to Title 20‑A, section 6103, subsection 3‑A must be deposited in the State Police program, Other Special Revenue Funds account for the purpose of funding the costs of the Department of Public Safety to administer the criminal history record check program. Notwithstanding any provision of law, all fees associated with any criminal history record check requirements established after July 1, 2015 must be deposited in a dedicated revenue account for the purposes of paying costs incurred by the Department of Public Safety, State Bureau of Identification to conduct such checks. [PL 2015, c. 267, Pt. SSS, §4 (AMD).]

7. Fees to obtain fingerprints for noncriminal justice background checks. Unless otherwise provided by law, an applicant shall pay a one-time processing fee of $25 to the Department of Public Safety to offset the expenses incurred by the department to obtain fingerprints to be used for conducting state and national criminal history record checks for noncriminal justice purposes when the State Bureau of Identification is required to retain the fingerprints. [PL 1999, c. 110, §3 (NEW).]

8. Carrying balance. Any unencumbered balance from funds appropriated from the General Fund to accomplish the purpose of Title 20‑A, section 6103 may not lapse but must be carried forward to be used for the same purpose. [PL 1999, c. 791, §6 (NEW).]

9. Compact council rules. The commanding officer shall cause a copy of any rule or procedure adopted by the compact council established under section 1707 that governs the use of the interstate identification index system, as defined in section 1703, subsection 12 , to be provided to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction over criminal justice matters. [PL 2001, c. 372, §2 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1705 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 199 / Section 1705
25 §1705. Authorized criminal history record disclosures
Status: in_force

1. Release by FBI to state criminal history record repositories. To the extent authorized by the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 United States Code, Section 552a, the FBI shall provide on request criminal history records, excluding sealed criminal history record information, to state criminal history record repositories for noncriminal justice purposes allowed by federal statute, federal executive order or a state statute that has been approved by the Attorney General to ensure that the state statute explicitly authorizes national indices checks. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

2. Release by FBI and state criminal history record repositories to other agencies. The FBI, to the extent authorized by the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 United States Code, Section 552a and state criminal history record repositories, shall provide criminal history records, excluding sealed criminal history record information, to criminal justice agencies and other governmental or nongovernmental agencies for noncriminal justice purposes allowed by federal statute, federal executive order or a state statute that has been approved by the Attorney General to ensure that the state statute explicitly authorizes national indices checks. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]

3. Use for official purposes. Any criminal history record obtained under this compact may be used only for the official purposes for which the criminal history record was requested. Each compact officer shall establish procedures, consistent with this compact and with rules, procedures and standards established by the council under section 1707 , that protect the accuracy and privacy of the criminal history records and: A. Ensure that criminal history records obtained under this compact are used only by authorized officials for authorized purposes; [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] B. Require that subsequent criminal history record checks are requested to obtain current information whenever a new need arises; and [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] C. Ensure that criminal history record entries that may not legally be used for a particular noncriminal justice purpose are deleted from the response and, if no information authorized for release remains, an appropriate "no record" response is communicated to the requesting official. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).] [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1321 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1321
25 §1321. Counsel (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1321)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1321)
25 M.R.S. § 2015 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252-A / Section 2015
25 §2015. Gun shop project
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Dangerous or deadly weapon" has the same meaning as "dangerous weapon" in Title 17‑A, section 2, subsection 9, paragraph C . [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] B. "Department" means the Department of Public Safety. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] C. "Firearm" has the same meaning as in Title 17‑A, section 2, subsection 12‑A . [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] D. "Gun shop" means a business located in the State that sells firearms, dangerous or deadly weapons or related components such as ammunition. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] E. "Gun shop project" means a project to develop, create and distribute suicide prevention educational materials. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).]

2. Administration of gun shop project. The department shall administer a gun shop project. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).]

3. Development and creation of educational materials; online training. In administering a gun shop project under this section, the department shall contract with a statewide organization with expertise in mental health for the development and creation of suicide prevention educational materials, including an online training course. A. Educational materials under this subsection must include but are not limited to information on: (1) Understanding and recognizing the various clinical signs, symptoms and indicators of suicide risk; and (2) Available suicide prevention resources. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] B. In developing and creating educational materials under this subsection, the contracted statewide organization must refer to the following: (1) Gun shop projects in other states; (2) Programs created or offered by organizations in the dangerous or deadly weapon industry; and (3) Other projects or organizations that the department determines appropriate. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] C. Educational materials under this subsection must be created as written materials, such as pamphlets, signs, posters, tip sheets or other media, and as an online training course for firearm dealers licensed as dealers under 18 United States Code, Section 923(a)(3) and gun shop customers. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).] [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).]

4. Distribution of gun shop project educational materials. The department shall ensure that the written educational materials and online training course created under subsection 3 are available on the department's publicly accessible website. [PL 2023, c. 643, Pt. HHHH, §1 (NEW).]

Revisor's Note: §2015. Waiting period after sale of firearm (As enacted by PL 2023, c. 678, §1 is REALLOCATED TO TITLE 25, SECTION 2016)
25 M.R.S. § 1534 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 192-B / Section 1534
25 §1534. Consolidated Emergency Communications Fund
Status: in_force

The Consolidated Emergency Communications Fund is created as an enterprise fund for the deposit of any payments made by municipal, county and state governmental entities. The fund may not lapse but must be carried forward to carry out the purposes of this chapter. [PL 2005, c. 683, Pt. D, §1 (AMD); PL 2005, c. 683, Pt. D, §3 (AFF).]
25 M.R.S. § 2468 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 317 / Section 2468
25 §2468. Carbon monoxide detectors
Status: in_force

1. Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. A. "Carbon monoxide detector" means a device with an assembly that incorporates a sensor control component and an alarm notification that detects elevations in carbon monoxide levels and sounds a warning alarm and is approved or listed for the purpose by a nationally recognized independent testing laboratory. [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).] A-1. "Educational facility" means a public or private postsecondary institution incorporated or chartered under the laws of this State or a child care facility as defined in Title 22, section 8301‑A, subsection 1‑A, paragraph B . [PL 2015, c. 375, §1 (NEW); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).] B. "Powered by the electrical service" means either plugged into an electrical outlet or hardwired. [PL 2009, c. 551, §6 (AMD).] [PL 2015, c. 375, §1 (AMD); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).]

2. Carbon monoxide detectors required. The owner shall install, or cause to be installed, by the manufacturer's requirements at least one approved carbon monoxide detector in each area within, or giving access to, bedrooms in: A. Each unit in any building of multifamily occupancy; a fraternity house, sorority house or dormitory that is affiliated with an educational facility; a children's home, emergency children's shelter, children's residential care facility, shelter for homeless children or specialized children's home as defined in Title 22, section 8101 ; or a hotel, motel, inn or bed and breakfast licensed as an eating establishment or a lodging place under Title 22, chapter 562 . The owner shall use a carbon monoxide detector that is powered by: (1) Both the electrical service in the building and a battery; (2) A nonreplaceable 10-year battery; or (3) A replaceable battery if the carbon monoxide detector uses a low-power radio frequency wireless communication signal, uses multiple sensors, has low-frequency audible notification capability or is connected to a control panel; [PL 2017, c. 322, §8 (AMD).] B. Any addition to or restoration of: (1) An existing single-family dwelling that adds at least one bedroom to the dwelling unit. The owner shall use a carbon monoxide detector that is powered both by the electrical service in the building and by a battery; and [PL 2015, c. 375, §2 (AMD); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).] C. Any conversion of a building to: (1) A single-family dwelling; or (1-A) A structure listed in paragraph A. The owner shall use a carbon monoxide detector that is powered both by the electrical service in the building and by a battery. [PL 2015, c. 375, §2 (AMD); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).] [PL 2017, c. 322, §8 (AMD).]

3. Carbon monoxide detectors for persons with disabilities. Upon the request of a deaf or hard-of-hearing occupant, the owner of a dwelling unit shall provide an approved carbon monoxide detector suitable to warn the occupant within the dwelling unit. If the owner does not provide a suitable carbon monoxide detector, the occupant may purchase, install and maintain a suitable carbon monoxide detector or arrange for proper installation and maintenance of a suitable carbon monoxide detector and may deduct the actual costs from the rent for the dwelling unit. An occupant may not be charged, evicted or penalized in any way for failure to pay the actual costs deducted from the rent for the dwelling unit. [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).]

4. New construction. A person who constructs any of the following shall install or cause to be installed at least one carbon monoxide detector in each area within, or giving access to, any bedroom in the new construction of: A. A single-family dwelling; [PL 2011, c. 553, §2 (NEW).] B. A hotel, motel, inn or bed and breakfast upon initial licensure of that new construction as an eating establishment or a lodging place under Title 22, chapter 562 on or after August 1, 2012; or [PL 2017, c. 322, §9 (AMD).] C. A fraternity house, sorority house or dormitory established on or after August 1, 2012 that is affiliated with a private or public school or private or public postsecondary institution incorporated or chartered under the laws of this State. [PL 2011, c. 553, §2 (NEW).] The carbon monoxide detector must be powered both by the electrical service in the building or dwelling and by battery. [PL 2017, c. 322, §9 (AMD).]

5. Rental units. In a unit occupied under the terms of a rental agreement or under a month-to-month tenancy: A. At the time of each occupancy, the landlord shall provide carbon monoxide detectors if carbon monoxide detectors are not already present. The carbon monoxide detectors must be in working condition. After notification, in writing, of any deficiencies by the tenant, the landlord shall repair or replace the carbon monoxide detectors. If the landlord did not know and had not been notified of the need to repair or replace a carbon monoxide detector, the landlord's failure to repair or replace the carbon monoxide detector may not be considered as evidence of negligence in a subsequent civil action arising from death, property loss or personal injury; and [PL 2009, c. 551, §9 (AMD).] B. The tenant shall keep the carbon monoxide detectors in working condition by keeping the carbon monoxide detectors connected to the electrical service in the building, by keeping charged batteries in carbon monoxide detectors backed up by batteries, by testing the carbon monoxide detectors periodically and by refraining from disabling the carbon monoxide detectors. [PL 2009, c. 551, §9 (AMD).] [PL 2009, c. 551, §9 (AMD).]

6. Transfer of dwelling. A person who, after October 31, 2009, acquires by sale or exchange a single-family dwelling or a multiapartment building shall install carbon monoxide detectors in the acquired dwelling within 30 days of acquisition or occupancy of the dwelling, whichever is later, if carbon monoxide detectors are not already present, and shall certify at the closing of the transaction that the purchaser will make the proper installation. This certification must be signed and dated by the purchaser. The carbon monoxide detectors must be installed in accordance with the manufacturer's requirements at the time of installation in each area within, or giving access to, bedrooms and must be powered both by the electrical service in the dwelling or building and by battery. A person may not have a claim for relief against a property owner, a property purchaser, an authorized agent of a property owner or purchaser, a person in possession of real property, a closing agent or a lender for any damages resulting from the operation, maintenance or effectiveness of a carbon monoxide detector. Violation of this subsection does not create a defect in title. [PL 2009, c. 551, §10 (AMD).]

7. Rules. The Commissioner of Public Safety or the commissioner's designee, in accordance with the Maine Administrative Procedure Act, shall adopt rules pertaining to carbon monoxide detectors. The rules adopted must include, but are not limited to, standards for approved carbon monoxide detectors and all requirements of use, maintenance and installation. Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A . [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).]

8. Penalties. A person who violates this section is guilty of a civil violation and is subject to a fine of not more than $500 for each violation. The court may waive any penalty or cost against any violator upon satisfactory proof that the violation was corrected within 10 days of the issuance of a complaint. [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).]

9. Liability. Nothing in this section gives rise to any action against an owner required to comply with subsection 2, paragraph A or subsection 5, paragraph A if the owner has conducted an inspection of the required carbon monoxide detectors immediately after installation and has reinspected the carbon monoxide detectors prior to occupancy by each new tenant, unless the owner has been given at least 24 hours' actual notice of a defect or failure of the carbon monoxide detector to operate properly and has failed to take action to correct the defect or failure. [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).]

10. Noninterference. A person may not knowingly interfere with or make inoperative any carbon monoxide detector required by this section, except that the owner or the agent of an owner of a building may temporarily disconnect a carbon monoxide detector in a dwelling unit or common area only for construction or rehabilitation activities when such activities are likely to activate the carbon monoxide detector or make it inactive. The carbon monoxide detector must be immediately reconnected at the cessation of construction or rehabilitation activities each day, regardless of the intent to return to construction or rehabilitation activities on succeeding days. [PL 2009, c. 162, §5 (NEW).]

11. Educational facilities. An educational facility shall install, or cause to be installed, by the manufacturer's requirements at least one approved carbon monoxide detector in each building of the educational facility that is used for educational purposes by at least 6 persons for at least 4 hours per day or more than 12 hours per week. The owner shall use a carbon monoxide detector that is powered by: A. Both the electrical service in the building and a battery; [PL 2015, c. 396, §2 (AMD).] B. A nonreplaceable 10-year battery; or [PL 2015, c. 396, §2 (AMD).] C. A replaceable battery if the carbon monoxide detector uses a low-power radio frequency wireless communication signal, uses multiple sensors, has low-frequency audible notification capability or is connected to a control panel. [PL 2015, c. 396, §2 (NEW).] [PL 2015, c. 396, §2 (AMD).]

12. Exemption. A dormitory or other building of an educational facility is exempt from the requirements of this section if the dormitory or other building meets the standards for the installation of carbon monoxide detection and warning equipment adopted by the National Fire Protection Association. [PL 2015, c. 375, §3 (NEW); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).]

13. Compliance schedule. A public or private postsecondary institution shall, for each dormitory or other building that is not exempt from the requirements of this section pursuant to subsection 12 , begin installation of carbon monoxide detectors as required by this section by August 1, 2016 and shall achieve full compliance by January 1, 2019. [PL 2015, c. 375, §3 (NEW); PL 2015, c. 375, §5 (AFF).]
25 M.R.S. § 2542 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 6 / Chapter 321 / Section 2542
25 §2542. Appointment
Status: in_force

A county fire marshal for Aroostook County, in this chapter referred to as "the marshal," is appointed by the county commissioners with the approval of the Aroostook County Fire Chief's Association and holds office for 2 years and until a successor has been appointed and qualified. The location of the marshal's office is designated by the county commissioners. The marshal shall keep a correct account of all the marshal's doings. The marshal is entitled to receive from the treasury of Aroostook County an amount not to exceed $10,000 annually, which must include both salary and actual expenses incurred by the marshal in the performance of the duties of office. The municipal officers of the towns in the county may authorize the marshal to perform the duties imposed by sections 2394, 2395 and 2397, and when authorized the marshal has all the powers conferred by those sections and shall perform all the duties prescribed in those sections. The marshal shall furnish the Commissioner of Public Safety with the information required by the commissioner and shall perform such inspections as the commissioner may direct. [RR 2023, c. 1, Pt. C, §58 (COR).]
25 M.R.S. § 1351 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 3 / Chapter 141 / Section 1351
25 §1351. Breaking arrest (REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1351)
Status: in_force

(REALLOCATED TO TITLE 37-A, SECTION 1351)
25 M.R.S. § 2053 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 255 / Section 2053
25 §2053. Safety glazing materials required
Status: in_force

It shall be unlawful within the State of Maine to knowingly sell, fabricate, assemble, glaze, install, consent or cause to be installed glazing materials other than safety glazing materials in, or for use in, any hazardous location. This section shall apply only to new construction contracted for, or to replacement of glass in place, after January 1, 1974. [PL 1973, c. 237 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1594 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 195 / Section 1594
25 §1594. Occupational disability
Status: in_force

Upon the filing with the Chief of the State Police of an application by a member of the State Police in service and upon the determination by the chief that the member has incurred permanent disability as a result of injuries received in the line of duty, the member may be retired on a disability retirement allowance equal to 1/2 of the pay per year that is paid to a member of the grade at which the member was employed at the time of the disability. A medical board of 3 physicians, designated by the Chief of the State Police, after a medical examination of the member of the State Police, shall first certify that the member is mentally or physically incapacitated for further performance of duty, that the incapacity is likely to be permanent and that the member should be retired. [RR 2023, c. 1, Pt. C, §45 (COR).]

This section shall apply only to persons who were members of the State Police on July 9, 1943.
25 M.R.S. § 2902 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 351 / Section 2902
25 §2902. Organization
Status: in_force

The Commissioner of Public Safety shall organize the Department of Public Safety into the Maine Criminal Justice Academy and the following bureaus: [PL 1975, c. 579, §12 (NEW).]

1. Bureau of State Police. The Bureau of State Police, which is under the direction of the Chief of the State Police; [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §4 (AMD).]

2. Office of State Fire Marshal. The Office of State Fire Marshal, which is under the direction of the State Fire Marshal; [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §4 (AMD).]

3. Bureau of Liquor Enforcement. [PL 2003, c. 451, Pt. T, §5 (RP).]

4. Maine Highway Safety Commission. [PL 1999, c. 668, §115 (RP).]

5. Vehicle Equipment Safety Commission. [PL 1987, c. 411, §3 (RP).]

6. Maine Drug Enforcement Agency. [PL 1993, c. 349, §56 (RP).]

6-A. Maine Drug Enforcement Agency. The Maine Drug Enforcement Agency, which is under the direction of the Director of the Maine Drug Enforcement Agency; [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §4 (AMD).]

7. Bureau of Highway Safety. The Bureau of Highway Safety, which is under the direction of the Director of the Bureau of Highway Safety. The bureau is responsible for the State's highway safety program. The bureau is authorized to develop and implement a process for obtaining information about highway safety programs administered by other state and local agencies and to provide and facilitate the provision of financial and technical assistance to other state agencies and political subdivisions for the purpose of developing and carrying out highway safety programs; [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §5 (AMD).]

8. Bureau of Capitol Police. The Bureau of Capitol Police, which is under the direction of the Chief of the Bureau of Capitol Police. Police officers of this bureau are those appointed by the Commissioner of Public Safety pursuant to section 2908 ; [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §6 (AMD).]

9. Bureau of Consolidated Emergency Communications. The Bureau of Consolidated Emergency Communications, which is under the direction of the Director of the Bureau of Consolidated Emergency Communications; [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §7 (NEW).]

10. Maine Emergency Medical Services. The Maine Emergency Medical Services, which is under the direction of the Director of Maine Emergency Medical Services; and [PL 2011, c. 633, §14 (AMD).]

11. Bureau of Building Codes and Standards. [PL 2011, c. 633, §15 (RP).]

12. Gambling Control Unit. The Gambling Control Unit. [PL 2009, c. 317, Pt. E, §10 (NEW).]

Unless specified otherwise by law, department personnel are appointed subject to the Civil Service Law. Persons holding major policy-influencing positions under Title 5, section 948 are appointed by and serve at the pleasure of the Commissioner of Public Safety, except as otherwise provided by law. [PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. KK, §4 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2005 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252 / Section 2005
25 §2005. Revocation; change of residence
Status: in_force

1. Revocation. The issuing authority shall revoke a permit on the basis of one or more of the following determinations: A. The application or any documents made part of the application contained a material misstatement; [PL 1985, c. 478, §2 (NEW).] B. The permit holder has been convicted of a violation of section 2001‑A ; [PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. N, §4 (AMD); PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. X, §2 (AFF).] C. The permit holder becomes ineligible to possess a permit under this chapter. Ineligibility is determined on the basis of the criteria contained in section 2003 ; [PL 1989, c. 917, §13 (AMD).] D. For conduct that occurred after a permit was issued, that the permit holder was convicted of operating a motor vehicle, snowmobile, ATV or watercraft while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or with an excessive alcohol level and, by a preponderance of the evidence, that at the time of the offense the permit holder was in possession of a loaded firearm; or [PL 2009, c. 447, §25 (AMD).] E. For conduct that occurred after a permit was issued, that the permit holder was convicted of any violation of Title 17‑A, chapter 45 . [PL 1989, c. 917, §13 (NEW).] [PL 2009, c. 447, §25 (AMD).]

2. Change of residence. Except as provided in paragraph A , change of legal residence from one municipality to another during the term of the permit renders the permit invalid starting 30 days after the change is made. An invalid permit is not considered revoked for the purposes of subsection 3 . A. If the permit holder changes the permit holder's legal residence from one municipality to another during the term of the permit, the permit remains valid if the permit holder provides the permit holder's new address to the issuing authority of the permit holder's new residence within 30 days of making that change. The issuing authority of the new residence shall immediately reissue the permit with the corrected address for a fee of not more than $2. [PL 2011, c. 298, §9 (AMD).] B. If the issuing authority of the permit holder's new residence so requests, the previous issuing authority shall provide a photocopy of the permit holder's application, documents made a part of the application and any information of record collected by that previous issuing authority. [PL 1989, c. 917, §14 (NEW).] [PL 2011, c. 298, §9 (AMD).]

3. Reapplication. If a permit has been revoked solely under subsection 1, paragraph D , the former permit holder may reapply upon successful completion of a substance use disorder treatment program approved by the Department of Health and Human Services as appropriate for the permit holder's problem or condition. Except as specified in this subsection, a person, otherwise eligible, who has had a permit revoked, is not eligible for reapplication until the expiration of 5 years from the date of revocation. [PL 2017, c. 407, Pt. A, §103 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 2002-B — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 5 / Chapter 252 / Section 2002-B
25 §2002-B. Assignment of authority; chief of police of adjacent municipality or county sheriff
Status: in_force

The municipal officers of a municipality may designate the chief of police of an adjacent municipality or the sheriff of the county in which the municipality is located as the issuing authority for that municipality if the chief or sheriff agrees to the designation. The designation must be made by written agreement with the chief or sheriff. The agreement must include provisions for termination of the agreement. During the term of an agreement, the chief or sheriff shall perform all the functions of the issuing authority, including suspension and revocation of permits. The chief or sheriff is entitled to receive any fees authorized for performing the functions of an issuing authority. The chief or sheriff continues to serve as the issuing authority until the chief or sheriff receives from the municipal officers written notice of cancellation or revocation of the designation. [PL 2021, c. 619, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1549 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 193 / Section 1549
25 §1549. Request for fingerprints; fee
Status: in_force

The State Police, the sheriffs and the chiefs of police in each of the cities and towns may take or cause to be taken and, upon payment of a $3 fee, may take or cause to be taken the fingerprints or palm prints, or fingerprints and palm prints, of any person who requests that the person's fingerprints or palm prints, or fingerprints and palm prints, be taken. [PL 2001, c. 552, §2 (AMD).]

Such fingerprints and palm prints must be taken on a form provided by the requesting person or, if the person does not provide a form, upon the Noncriminal Fingerprint Record. Fingerprints, palm prints or demographic information taken or collected pursuant to this section, or copies thereof, may not be retained by the taker. The fingerprints, palm prints or demographic information must be forwarded to the State Bureau of Identification if required by statute or if the requestor requests that the fingerprints, palm prints or demographic information be forwarded to the State Bureau of Identification for the purpose of obtaining a criminal history record check. [PL 2001, c. 552, §2 (AMD).]
25 M.R.S. § 1572 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 194 / Section 1572
25 §1572. Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

1. CODIS. "CODIS" means the Federal Bureau of Investigation's national DNA identification index system that allows for storage and exchange of DNA records submitted by state and local forensic DNA laboratories and is derived from the Combined DNA Index System. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

2. Crime lab. "Crime lab" means the Maine State Police Crime Laboratory located in Augusta. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

3. DNA. "DNA" means deoxyribonucleic acid. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

4. DNA analysis. "DNA analysis" means DNA typing tests that derive identification information specific to a person from that person's DNA. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

5. DNA record. "DNA record" means DNA identification information obtained from DNA analysis and stored in the state DNA data base or CODIS. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

6. DNA sample. "DNA sample" means a biological sample provided by a person convicted or a juvenile adjudicated of one of the offenses listed in this chapter or submitted to the crime lab for analysis pursuant to a criminal investigation. [PL 2003, c. 393, §1 (AMD).]

7. FBI. "FBI" means the Federal Bureau of Investigation of the United States Department of Justice. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

7-A. Juvenile. "Juvenile" means any person who has not attained 18 years of age. [PL 2003, c. 393, §2 (NEW).]

8. State DNA data base. "State DNA data base" means the DNA identification record system administered by the Chief of the State Police. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]

9. State DNA data bank. "State DNA data bank" means the repository of DNA samples maintained by the Chief of the State Police at the crime lab collected pursuant to this chapter. [PL 1995, c. 457, §1 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 1708 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 4 / Chapter 199 / Section 1708
25 §1708. Ratification of compact
Status: in_force

This compact takes effect upon being entered into by 2 or more states as between those states and the Federal Government. When additional states subsequently enter into this compact, it becomes effective among those states and the Federal Government and each party state that has previously ratified the compact. When ratified, this compact has the full force and effect of law within the ratifying jurisdictions. The form of ratification must be in accordance with the laws of the ratifying state. [PL 2001, c. 372, §3 (NEW).]
25 M.R.S. § 2905 — ME Code / Title 25 / Part 8 / Chapter 351 / Section 2905
25 §2905. Definitions
Status: in_force

The words "public way" or "public ways," when used in this chapter, or regulations issued thereunder, shall be held to mean all roads and driveways on lands maintained for the State Government at the capital area or other state controlled locations in Augusta. [PL 1977, c. 138, §3 (NEW).]

The words "parking area" or "parking areas," when used in this chapter, or regulations issued thereunder, shall be held to mean all lands maintained by the State at the capitol area or other state controlled locations in Augusta which may be designated as parking areas by the State Director of Public Improvements or by the superintendent of the Riverview Psychiatric Center, with the approval of the Commissioner of Public Safety. [PL 1987, c. 416, §2 (AMD); PL 2005, c. 236, §4 (REV).]