Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-110.4 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-110.4
§14–110.
Status: in_force

§14–110.4.

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Fund” means the Resilient Maryland Revolving Loan Fund.

(3) “STORM Act” means the federal Safeguarding Tomorrow through Ongoing Risk Mitigation Act.

(b) There is a Resilient Maryland Revolving Loan Fund.

(c) The purpose of the Fund is to provide loans for resilience projects that address mitigation of all hazards, including natural disasters.

(d) (1) The Fund may be used:

(i) to provide low– or no–interest loans to local governments and nonprofit organizations for resilience projects; and

(ii) for the administration and management of the Fund.

(2) On application of a local governing body, loans from the Fund may be made directly to local governments, at least in part, to:

(i) meet federal matching requirements for federal resilience grant programs, including Building Resilient Infrastructures and Communities, Flood Mitigation Assistance, and U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Community Development Block Grant Mitigation; and

(ii) work with the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Flood Risk Management Program.

(3) (i) On application of a local governing body, the Department may loan funds to local governments for the purpose of local governments offering loan funds to private property owners to use for hazard mitigation projects for a building.

(ii) Hazard mitigation projects for private property owners may include wind retrofits, flood mitigation elevation, floodproofing, wildland fire retrofit mitigation, and earthquake retrofit mitigation.

(4) (i) Repayment of a loan provided under paragraph (3) of this subsection by a local government to a private property owner may be collected in the same manner as property taxes.

(ii) A property owner may sell a property after receiving a loan under paragraph (3) of this subsection if the property owner repays the loan or the new owner agrees in writing to assume the obligation for repayment of the loan.

(5) The loans provided under this subsection shall be for a fixed loan period.

(e) The Department shall administer the Fund.

(f) The Department shall prioritize making loans to projects it determines to have the greatest impact on eliminating hazards.

(g) (1) The Fund is a special, nonlapsing fund that shall be available in perpetuity for the purpose of providing loans in accordance with the provisions of this section.

(2) The Fund is not subject to § 7–302 of the State Finance and Procurement Article.

(3) The State Treasurer shall hold the Fund separately, and the Comptroller shall account for the Fund.

(h) The Fund consists of:

(1) money appropriated in the State budget to the Fund;

(2) investment and interest earnings of the Fund;

(3) repayments of principal and interest from loans made from the Fund;

(4) money received from the Federal Emergency Management Agency; and

(5) any other money from any other source accepted for the benefit of the Fund.

(i) Private funds received by the Fund for the purpose of hazard mitigation projects for a building shall be used only for hazard mitigation projects for a building.

(j) (1) The State Treasurer shall invest the money of the Fund in the same manner as other State money may be invested.

(2) Any interest earnings of the Fund shall be credited to the Fund.

(k) Money expended from the Fund is supplemental to and is not intended to take the place of funding that otherwise would be appropriated to local governments for resilience projects.

(l) (1) Subject to paragraph (2) of this subsection, the Department, taking into consideration requirements from the STORM Act, shall establish application procedures and eligibility criteria for loans from the Fund.

(2) The eligibility criteria shall require that a local government or a nonprofit organization demonstrate:

(i) need for a loan to address hazard mitigation; and

(ii) the ability to repay the loan, if required, at a later date.

(m) (1) Local governments that provide loans to private property owners may establish a graduated loan forgiveness program for private property owners.

(2) A graduated loan forgiveness program shall, at a minimum:

(i) provide full loan forgiveness for households with between 50% and 80% of the median income for the area in which the property to which the loan applies is located;

(ii) provide 50% loan forgiveness for households with 80% to 100% of the median income for the area in which the property to which the loan applies is located; and

(iii) provide additional loan forgiveness percentages for households with incomes not within 50% to 100% of the median income for the area in which the property to which the loan applies is located based on:

1. the number of private property owners with outstanding loans;

2. the availability of funding; and

3. any other facts the local government finds reasonable and necessary.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-1806 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 18 / Section 14-1806
§14–1806.
Status: in_force

A license shall expire on the next June 30 after its renewal.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-401.1 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-401.1
§14–401.
Status: in_force

§14–401.1.

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Nonresident firm” means a business entity that:

(i) has one office that:

1. is a principal office for the entity; and

2. is not located in the State; or

(ii) for an entity that has offices in multiple states, has not had a principal office located in the State for at least 6 months immediately before the date of a request for proposals.

(3) “Preference” includes:

(i) a percentage preference;

(ii) an employee residency requirement; or

(iii) any other provision that favors an offeror from one state to the disadvantage of an offeror from another state.

(4) (i) “Principal office” means a primary place of business that is staffed on a regular basis to provide the services that are requested by a unit in a request for proposals.

(ii) “Principal office” does not include a satellite office or an office that is minimally staffed and is not open on a regular basis to provide the services that are requested by a unit in a request for proposals.

(5) “Request for proposals” means a request for architectural services or engineering services that is issued in accordance with § 13–112 of this article.

(6) (i) “Resident firm” means a business entity that:

1. is licensed or otherwise authorized to provide architectural or engineering services in the State; and

2. A. for an entity that has one office, the office is located in the State; or

B. for an entity that has offices in multiple states, has had a principal office located in the State for at least 6 months immediately before the date of a request for proposals.

(ii) “Resident firm” includes a joint venture that:

1. was entered into before the date of the request for proposals for which the joint venture submits a proposal; and

2. includes one party that:

A. holds at least a 51% interest in the joint venture; and

B. meets the requirements under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph.

(b) Subject to subsection (d) of this section, a unit shall apply a preference to a proposal from a resident firm if:

(1) (i) a nonresident firm is:

1. a responsible offeror; and

2. determined to be the most qualified person to submit a proposal in accordance with § 13–112 of this article; and

(ii) the state in which the principal office of the nonresident firm is located has a preference that favors an offeror from that state to the disadvantage of an offeror from this State;

(2) a resident firm:

(i) is a responsible offeror; and

(ii) at the same time that it submits the proposal for which the preference would apply, certifies that it meets the requirements for a resident firm; and

(3) the preference:

(i) is the same as the preference referenced in item (1)(ii) of this subsection; and

(ii) does not conflict with a federal law or grant affecting the procurement contract.

(c) At the request of a unit, a nonresident firm shall provide the following documentation for the state in which the principal office of the nonresident firm is located:

(1) a copy of the current statute, resolution, policy, procedure, or executive order that establishes a preference that favors an offeror from that state to the disadvantage of an offeror from this State; or

(2) a certification that the other state does not have a preference that favors an offeror from that state to the disadvantage of an offeror from this State.

(d) (1) If a resident firm qualifies for a preference established under this section and for another preference established under this Division II, the unit:

(i) may not apply more than one preference to the proposal from the resident firm; and

(ii) shall apply the preference to the proposal from the resident firm that is most advantageous to the resident firm.

(2) If, when making a determination of qualification under § 13–112 of this article, a unit determines that a proposal from a resident firm and a proposal from a nonresident firm are equally qualified, the unit may apply a preference to the proposal from the resident firm.

(e) A unit may not apply a preference to a proposal submitted by a resident firm if the resident firm does not submit the certification required under subsection (b)(2)(ii) of this section at the same time that it submits the proposal.

(f) The Board shall:

(1) post and maintain a list of all states with a preference that favors an offeror from that state to the disadvantage of an offeror from this State; and

(2) adopt regulations to implement this section.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-813 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-813
§14–813.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) At any time after 30 days from the mailing of the statement and notice, the collector shall cause to be published, 4 times, once a week for 4 successive weeks in 1 or more newspapers that have a general circulation in the county in which the property is located, a notice that the property will, on the date and at the place named in the notice, be sold at public auction.

(2) In Dorchester County, Frederick County, Garrett County, Kent County, and Queen Anne’s County, the notice shall be published 3 times, once a week for 3 successive weeks.

(3) (i) In Baltimore City, the notice shall be:

1. published two times, once per week in alternate weeks; and

2. posted on the City’s website 4 weeks prior to the sale.

(ii) The required newspaper notice shall include a statement that notice shall be posted on the City’s website along with instructions on how the public can access the website.

(b) In Prince George’s County and Wicomico County, the cost of publishing the notice shall be the same as the prevailing rate for publishing other legal notices and advertisements.

(c) In Anne Arundel County, the notice shall be published in 2 newspapers published in the county.

(d) (1) The notice shall contain with substantial accuracy the following:

(i) a description of the property by giving the street number of the improvement and the frontage and depth of the lot, as the property appears on the collector’s tax roll;

(ii) the name of the person who last appears on the collector’s tax roll as the owner of the property;

(iii) the amount of all taxes due and unpaid on the property;

(iv) if the property is unimproved, or has no street number, the notice shall describe the property as it is described on the collector’s tax roll, and no unimproved property, or property having no street number, need be described by metes and bounds. If necessary to describe the property, the collector shall obtain a description and plat of the property from the county or municipal corporation surveyor, for which the sum of $7.50 shall be added to the total charges due on the property. If it is necessary to procure a description from the county or municipal corporation surveyor, the description shall be kept in the records of the collector’s office and the published notice of sale shall contain a statement to the effect that a detailed description of the property to be sold, as prepared by the county or municipal corporation surveyor, is on file at the collector’s office and may be examined by anyone interested in the description; and

(v) the assessment of the property as determined by last assessment.

(2) Failure of the collector to include any taxes in the published notice of sale does not affect the validity or collectibility of the taxes, except as required to be but have not been certified as provided in § 14–810 of this subtitle, or the validity of any sale made hereunder to enforce the payment of taxes, nor prevent nor stay proceedings under this subtitle nor affect the title of any purchaser.

(e) (1) The following expenses relating to the sale shall be allowed, all of which are liens on the property to be sold:

(i) the expense of publication of all notices;

(ii) the cost of the county or municipal corporation surveyor’s description and plat, if necessary;

(iii) except as provided in items (vi) and (vii) of this paragraph, a fee to the attorney representing the county treasurer for services, that does not exceed $15 for each property; except that in any county that has a paid full–time solicitor, counsel or attorney, the fee shall be collected and paid into the general funds of the county;

(iv) the auctioneer’s fee, as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection;

(v) in Baltimore County, a fee, that may be established by the County Executive and subject to review by the County Council for legal services, administrative costs, and mailing expenses relating to the sale for each property, not to exceed actual costs, to be collected and paid into the general fund of Baltimore County;

(vi) in Somerset County, Wicomico County and Worcester County a fee to the attorney representing the county treasurer or director of finance, that does not exceed $35 for each property, to be approved by the county treasurer or director of finance and by the governing body;

(vii) in Baltimore City:

1. a fee of $30 for each property to the attorney representing the director of finance, that is collected and paid into the General Fund of Baltimore City; and

2. a fee that does not exceed $10 for the mailing of statements and notices;

(viii) in Montgomery County, instead of the fee allowed under item (iii) of this paragraph, a fee that does not exceed $30 for each property for legal services relating to the sale, to be collected and paid into the general funds of the county; and

(ix) a reasonable fee that does not exceed $150 for examinations of title before the mailing of statements and notices.

(2) The auctioneer’s fee allowed in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be:

(i) except in Baltimore City, Caroline County, Carroll County, Cecil County, Dorchester County, Frederick County, Garrett County, Harford County, Howard County, Kent County, Prince George’s County, Queen Anne’s County, Somerset County, St. Mary’s County, Talbot County, Wicomico County, or Worcester County:

1. for any date when 1, 2, or 3 properties are sold, an amount not to exceed $10; and

2. for any date when 4 or more properties are sold, $3 for each property sold;

(ii) in Dorchester County, $7.50 for each property sold;

(iii) in Kent County, an amount not exceeding $7.50 for each property sold;

(iv) in Cecil County and Queen Anne’s County, $7.50 for each property sold;

(v) in Somerset County and Wicomico County, $8 for each property sold;

(vi) in Worcester County, the greater of $8 for each property sold or $300, to be allocated pro rata among each property sold;

(vii) in Baltimore City:

1. for any date when 1, 2, or 3 properties are sold, an amount not to exceed $10;

2. for any date when 4 or more properties are sold, $3 for each property sold; and

3. in an electronic sale, an amount not to exceed $10 for each property sold;

(viii) in Carroll County, the amount set by the Carroll County Commissioners;

(ix) in Caroline County, Garrett County, Harford County, Howard County, Prince George’s County, and Talbot County, $10 for each property sold;

(x) in Frederick County, the lowest responsive bid for each property sold; and

(xi) in St. Mary’s County, the actual cost charged by the auctioneer for each property sold.

(f) In Garrett County, instead of complying with (d)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, the notice shall contain a statement that gives the year or years for which the taxes are due and the amount of the taxes, to whom the property is assessed, the district where the property is located, the quantity of land offered for sale, the name or number of the tract or lot of land, if the property has a name or number, and is assessed by that name or number and if there is record evidence of the property in Garrett County, a reference to the record liber and folio where the deed or conveyance for the property is recorded, the name of the grantor and the date of the deed or conveyance, or any other description as is sufficient legally to identify the property, but in no case is a description by metes and bounds, courses and distances required. The collector in Garrett County may employ an attorney to examine the title to the land to be advertised or sold for taxes, under this subtitle, to provide the information required for the notice and prepare the notice for publication, for which services a sum that does not exceed $150 shall be added to the total charges due on the property.
Md. Code, Insurance § 14-610 — MD Code / Article gin / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-610
§14–610.
Status: in_force

(a) Whenever the Commissioner considers it advisable, the Commissioner may examine the affairs, transactions, accounts, records, and assets of a discount medical plan organization or discount drug plan organization.

(b) The examination shall be conducted in accordance with § 2–207 of this article.

(c) The expense of the examination shall be paid in accordance with § 2–208 of this article.

(d) The reports of the examination and investigation shall be issued in accordance with § 2–209 of this article.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-113 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-113
§14–113.
Status: in_force

(a) Any deed by a Maryland corporation, having an effective date before October 1, 2018, containing a certification by the person executing the deed on behalf of the corporation to the effect that the grant is not part of a transaction in which there is a sale, lease, exchange, or other transfer of all or substantially all of the property and assets of the corporation, shall be considered valid and effective whether or not there has been compliance with the procedures of Title 3, Subtitle 1 of the Corporations and Associations Article despite the fact the grant is in fact part of such a transaction.

(b) Any deed by a Maryland corporation, executed and recorded before January 1, 1979 is not invalid solely because of noncompliance with those procedures unless proceedings to set the deed aside were commenced on or before July 1, 1979.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-404 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-404
§14–404.
Status: in_force

§14–404. IN EFFECT

(a) Subject to the hearing provisions of § 14–405 of this subtitle, a disciplinary panel, on the affirmative vote of a majority of the quorum of the disciplinary panel, may reprimand any licensee, place any licensee on probation, or suspend or revoke a license if the licensee:

(1) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant or licensee or for another;

(2) Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;

(3) Is guilty of:

(i) Immoral conduct in the practice of medicine; or

(ii) Unprofessional conduct in the practice of medicine;

(4) Is:

(i) Professionally incompetent;

(ii) Physically incompetent; or

(iii) Mentally incompetent;

(5) Solicits or advertises in violation of § 14–503 of this title;

(6) Abandons a patient;

(7) Habitually is intoxicated;

(8) Is addicted to, or habitually abuses, any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article;

(9) Provides professional services:

(i) While under the influence of alcohol; or

(ii) While using any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance, as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article, or other drug that is in excess of therapeutic amounts or without valid medical indication;

(10) Promotes the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods to a patient so as to exploit the patient for financial gain;

(11) Willfully makes or files a false report or record in the practice of medicine;

(12) Willfully fails to file or record any medical report as required under law, willfully impedes or obstructs the filing or recording of the report, or induces another to fail to file or record the report;

(13) On proper request, and in accordance with the provisions of Title 4, Subtitle 3 of the Health – General Article, fails to provide details of a patient’s medical record to the patient, another physician, or hospital;

(14) Solicits professional patronage through an agent or other person or profits from the acts of a person who is represented as an agent of the physician;

(15) Pays or agrees to pay any sum to any person for bringing or referring a patient or accepts or agrees to accept any sum from any person for bringing or referring a patient;

(16) Agrees with a clinical or bioanalytical laboratory to make payments to the laboratory for a test or test series for a patient, unless the licensed physician discloses on the bill to the patient or third–party payor:

(i) The name of the laboratory;

(ii) The amount paid to the laboratory for the test or test series; and

(iii) The amount of procurement or processing charge of the licensed physician, if any, for each specimen taken;

(17) Makes a willful misrepresentation in treatment;

(18) Practices medicine with an unauthorized person or aids an unauthorized person in the practice of medicine;

(19) Establishes a pattern of excessive or medically unnecessary procedures or treatment;

(20) Offers, undertakes, or agrees to cure or treat disease by a secret method, treatment, or medicine;

(21) Is disciplined by a licensing or disciplinary authority or convicted or disciplined by a court of any state or country or disciplined by any branch of the uniformed services or the Veterans’ Administration for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under this section;

(22) Fails to meet appropriate standards as determined by appropriate peer review for the delivery of quality medical and surgical care performed in an outpatient surgical facility, office, hospital, or any other location in this State;

(23) Willfully submits false statements to collect fees for which services are not provided;

(24) Was subject to investigation or disciplinary action by a licensing or disciplinary authority or by a court of any state or country for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under this section and the licensee:

(i) Surrendered the license issued by the state or country to the state or country; or

(ii) Allowed the license issued by the state or country to expire or lapse;

(25) Willfully fails to report suspected child abuse in violation of § 5–704 of the Family Law Article;

(26) Fails to educate a patient being treated for breast cancer of alternative methods of treatment as required by § 20–113 of the Health – General Article;

(27) Sells, prescribes, gives away, or administers drugs for illegal or illegitimate medical purposes;

(28) Fails to comply with the provisions of § 12–102 of this article;

(29) Refuses, withholds from, denies, or discriminates against an individual with regard to the provision of professional services for which the licensee is licensed and qualified to render because the individual is HIV positive;

(30) Except as to an association that has remained in continuous existence since July 1, 1963:

(i) Associates with a pharmacist as a partner or co–owner of a pharmacy for the purpose of operating a pharmacy;

(ii) Employs a pharmacist for the purpose of operating a pharmacy; or

(iii) Contracts with a pharmacist for the purpose of operating a pharmacy;

(31) Except in an emergency life–threatening situation where it is not feasible or practicable, fails to comply with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s guidelines on universal precautions;

(32) Fails to display the notice required under § 14–415 of this subtitle;

(33) Fails to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(34) Is convicted of insurance fraud as defined in § 27–801 of the Insurance Article;

(35) Is in breach of a service obligation resulting from the applicant’s or licensee’s receipt of State or federal funding for the licensee’s medical education;

(36) Willfully makes a false representation when seeking or making application for licensure or any other application related to the practice of medicine;

(37) Intimidates or influences, or attempts to intimidate or influence, for the purpose of causing any person to withhold or change testimony in hearings or proceedings before the Board or a disciplinary panel or those otherwise delegated to the Office of Administrative Hearings;

(38) Willfully hinders, prevents, or otherwise delays any person from making information available to the Board or a disciplinary panel in furtherance of any investigation of the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(39) Intentionally misrepresents credentials for the purpose of testifying or rendering an expert opinion in hearings or proceedings before the Board or a disciplinary panel or those otherwise delegated to the Office of Administrative Hearings;

(40) Fails to keep adequate medical records as determined by appropriate peer review;

(41) Performs a cosmetic surgical procedure in an office or a facility that is not:

(i) Accredited by:

1. The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgical Facilities;

2. The Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care; or

3. The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations; or

(ii) Certified to participate in the Medicare program, as enacted by Title XVIII of the Social Security Act;

(42) Fails to complete a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title;

(43) Except for the licensure process described under Subtitle 3A of this title, violates any provision of this title, any rule or regulation adopted by the Board, or any State or federal law pertaining to the practice of medicine;

(44) Fails to meet the qualifications for licensure under Subtitle 3 of this title;

(45) Fails to comply with § 1–223 of this article;

(46) Fails to comply with the requirements of the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program under Title 21, Subtitle 2A of the Health – General Article; or

(47) Willfully makes a misrepresentation to a disciplinary panel.

(b) (1) On the filing of certified docket entries with the Board by the Office of the Attorney General, a disciplinary panel shall order the suspension of a license if the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not any appeal or other proceeding is pending to have the conviction or plea set aside.

(2) After completion of the appellate process if the conviction has not been reversed or the plea has not been set aside with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, a disciplinary panel shall order the revocation of a license on the certification by the Office of the Attorney General.

(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a disciplinary panel may not reprimand, place on probation, or suspend or revoke a license of a licensee for providing a patient with a written statement, medical records, or testimony that, in the licensee’s professional opinion, the patient is likely to receive therapeutic or palliative relief from cannabis.

(2) Nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to release a licensee from the duty to exercise a professional standard of care when evaluating a patient’s medical condition.

(d) (1) If, after a hearing under § 14–405 of this subtitle, a disciplinary panel finds that there are grounds under subsection (a) of this section to suspend or revoke a license, to reprimand a licensee, or to place a licensee on probation, the disciplinary panel may impose a fine subject to the Board’s regulations in addition to suspending or revoking the license, reprimanding the licensee, or placing the licensee on probation.

(2) The Board shall pay any fines collected under this section into the General Fund of the State.

(e) In addition to any sanction authorized under this section, a disciplinary panel may require a licensee to comply with specified terms and conditions determined by the disciplinary panel.

§14–404. // EFFECTIVE JUNE 30, 2030 PER CHAPTER 313 OF 2022 //

(a) Subject to the hearing provisions of § 14–405 of this subtitle, a disciplinary panel, on the affirmative vote of a majority of the quorum of the disciplinary panel, may reprimand any licensee, place any licensee on probation, or suspend or revoke a license if the licensee:

(1) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant or licensee or for another;

(2) Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;

(3) Is guilty of:

(i) Immoral conduct in the practice of medicine; or

(ii) Unprofessional conduct in the practice of medicine;

(4) Is:

(i) Professionally incompetent;

(ii) Physically incompetent; or

(iii) Mentally incompetent;

(5) Solicits or advertises in violation of § 14–503 of this title;

(6) Abandons a patient;

(7) Habitually is intoxicated;

(8) Is addicted to, or habitually abuses, any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article;

(9) Provides professional services:

(i) While under the influence of alcohol; or

(ii) While using any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance, as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article, or other drug that is in excess of therapeutic amounts or without valid medical indication;

(10) Promotes the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods to a patient so as to exploit the patient for financial gain;

(11) Willfully makes or files a false report or record in the practice of medicine;

(12) Willfully fails to file or record any medical report as required under law, willfully impedes or obstructs the filing or recording of the report, or induces another to fail to file or record the report;

(13) On proper request, and in accordance with the provisions of Title 4, Subtitle 3 of the Health – General Article, fails to provide details of a patient’s medical record to the patient, another physician, or hospital;

(14) Solicits professional patronage through an agent or other person or profits from the acts of a person who is represented as an agent of the physician;

(15) Pays or agrees to pay any sum to any person for bringing or referring a patient or accepts or agrees to accept any sum from any person for bringing or referring a patient;

(16) Agrees with a clinical or bioanalytical laboratory to make payments to the laboratory for a test or test series for a patient, unless the licensed physician discloses on the bill to the patient or third–party payor:

(i) The name of the laboratory;

(ii) The amount paid to the laboratory for the test or test series; and

(iii) The amount of procurement or processing charge of the licensed physician, if any, for each specimen taken;

(17) Makes a willful misrepresentation in treatment;

(18) Practices medicine with an unauthorized person or aids an unauthorized person in the practice of medicine;

(19) Establishes a pattern of excessive or medically unnecessary procedures or treatment;

(20) Offers, undertakes, or agrees to cure or treat disease by a secret method, treatment, or medicine;

(21) Is disciplined by a licensing or disciplinary authority or convicted or disciplined by a court of any state or country or disciplined by any branch of the uniformed services or the Veterans’ Administration for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under this section;

(22) Fails to meet appropriate standards as determined by appropriate peer review for the delivery of quality medical and surgical care performed in an outpatient surgical facility, office, hospital, or any other location in this State;

(23) Willfully submits false statements to collect fees for which services are not provided;

(24) Was subject to investigation or disciplinary action by a licensing or disciplinary authority or by a court of any state or country for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under this section and the licensee:

(i) Surrendered the license issued by the state or country to the state or country; or

(ii) Allowed the license issued by the state or country to expire or lapse;

(25) Willfully fails to report suspected child abuse in violation of § 5–704 of the Family Law Article;

(26) Fails to educate a patient being treated for breast cancer of alternative methods of treatment as required by § 20–113 of the Health – General Article;

(27) Sells, prescribes, gives away, or administers drugs for illegal or illegitimate medical purposes;

(28) Fails to comply with the provisions of § 12–102 of this article;

(29) Refuses, withholds from, denies, or discriminates against an individual with regard to the provision of professional services for which the licensee is licensed and qualified to render because the individual is HIV positive;

(30) Except as to an association that has remained in continuous existence since July 1, 1963:

(i) Associates with a pharmacist as a partner or co–owner of a pharmacy for the purpose of operating a pharmacy;

(ii) Employs a pharmacist for the purpose of operating a pharmacy; or

(iii) Contracts with a pharmacist for the purpose of operating a pharmacy;

(31) Except in an emergency life–threatening situation where it is not feasible or practicable, fails to comply with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s guidelines on universal precautions;

(32) Fails to display the notice required under § 14–415 of this subtitle;

(33) Fails to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(34) Is convicted of insurance fraud as defined in § 27–801 of the Insurance Article;

(35) Is in breach of a service obligation resulting from the applicant’s or licensee’s receipt of State or federal funding for the licensee’s medical education;

(36) Willfully makes a false representation when seeking or making application for licensure or any other application related to the practice of medicine;

(37) Intimidates or influences, or attempts to intimidate or influence, for the purpose of causing any person to withhold or change testimony in hearings or proceedings before the Board or a disciplinary panel or those otherwise delegated to the Office of Administrative Hearings;

(38) Willfully hinders, prevents, or otherwise delays any person from making information available to the Board or a disciplinary panel in furtherance of any investigation of the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(39) Intentionally misrepresents credentials for the purpose of testifying or rendering an expert opinion in hearings or proceedings before the Board or a disciplinary panel or those otherwise delegated to the Office of Administrative Hearings;

(40) Fails to keep adequate medical records as determined by appropriate peer review;

(41) Performs a cosmetic surgical procedure in an office or a facility that is not:

(i) Accredited by:

1. The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgical Facilities;

2. The Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care; or

3. The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations; or

(ii) Certified to participate in the Medicare program, as enacted by Title XVIII of the Social Security Act;

(42) Fails to submit to a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title;

(43) Fails to comply with § 1–223 of this article;

(44) Violates any provision of this title, any rule or regulation adopted by the Board, or any State or federal law pertaining to the practice of medicine;

(45) Fails to comply with the requirements of the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program under Title 21, Subtitle 2A of the Health – General Article; or

(46) Willfully makes a misrepresentation to a disciplinary panel.

(b) (1) On the filing of certified docket entries with the Board by the Office of the Attorney General, a disciplinary panel shall order the suspension of a license if the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not any appeal or other proceeding is pending to have the conviction or plea set aside.

(2) After completion of the appellate process if the conviction has not been reversed or the plea has not been set aside with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, a disciplinary panel shall order the revocation of a license on the certification by the Office of the Attorney General.

(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a disciplinary panel may not reprimand, place on probation, or suspend or revoke a license of a licensee for providing a patient with a written statement, medical records, or testimony that, in the licensee’s professional opinion, the patient is likely to receive therapeutic or palliative relief from cannabis.

(2) Nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to release a licensee from the duty to exercise a professional standard of care when evaluating a patient’s medical condition.

(d) (1) If, after a hearing under § 14–405 of this subtitle, a disciplinary panel finds that there are grounds under subsection (a) of this section to suspend or revoke a license, to reprimand a licensee, or to place a licensee on probation, the disciplinary panel may impose a fine subject to the Board’s regulations in addition to suspending or revoking the license, reprimanding the licensee, or placing the licensee on probation.

(2) The Board shall pay any fines collected under this section into the General Fund of the State.

(e) In addition to any sanction authorized under this section, a disciplinary panel may require a licensee to comply with specified terms and conditions determined by the disciplinary panel.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1401 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 14 / Section 14-1401
§14–1401.
Status: reserved

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) (1) “Adjustment program” means a program or policy:

(i) That expands or extends a warranty beyond its stated limit; or

(ii) Under which a manufacturer undertakes or offers to pay or reimburse a consumer, whether directly or indirectly, for all or a part of the cost of repairing a condition that may substantially affect the durability, reliability, or performance of a motor vehicle.

(2) “Adjustment program” does not include:

(i) Service provided under a safety or emissions related recall campaign; or

(ii) Adjustments made by a manufacturer on a case–by–case basis.

(c) “Consumer” means:

(1) The purchaser, other than for purposes of resale, of a new motor vehicle;

(2) A lessee of a motor vehicle;

(3) A person to whom a new motor vehicle is transferred during the duration of the warranty applicable to the motor vehicle; or

(4) A person who is entitled under the terms of the warranty to enforce its obligations.

(d) “Dealer” means a person who sells or leases motor vehicles under a retail agreement with a manufacturer or distributor, or an agent of a manufacturer or distributor.

(e) “Lessee” means a consumer who leases a motor vehicle under a written lease that provides that the lessee is responsible for repairs to the motor vehicle.

(f) “Manufacturer” means a person who:

(1) Manufactures or assembles new motor vehicles for sale or distribution; or

(2) Is engaged in the business of importing new motor vehicles for sale or distribution to dealers or through distributors or factory branches.

(g) “Motor vehicle” means a vehicle that:

(1) Is used for the private transportation of individuals and their personal belongings; and

(2) Has a maximum capacity of 10 individuals, including the driver.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-906 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 9 / Section 14-906
§14–906.
Status: in_force

(a) There is a special event festival beer, wine, and liquor permit.

(b) The Board may issue the permit to a license holder of a Class B or Class D license.

(c) Before the Board issues the permit, the applicant shall:

(1) demonstrate a reasonable expectation of attracting at least 250 customers to the special event; and

(2) commit to provide any additional security personnel required to be at the event for traffic, parking, and patrol purposes.

(d) Subject to the discretion of the Board, the permit authorizes the holder to operate additional bars or service counters for the sale and service of alcoholic beverages that are allowed under the holder’s license:

(1) inside or outside the licensed premises; and

(2) for at least 1 day and not more than 3 consecutive days.

(e) The permit fee is $100.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1304 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 13 / Section 14-1304
§14–1304.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A person may not offer any merchandise for sale in any manner or by any means if the offer includes the voluntary and unsolicited sending of merchandise not actually ordered or requested by the recipient orally or in writing.

(2) If a person receives any merchandise offered for sale in violation of this subsection, it is an unconditional gift to him for all purposes. He may use or dispose of the merchandise in any manner without any obligation on his part to the sender.

(b) (1) If a member of an organization making retail sales of merchandise to its members notifies the organization by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, of his termination of membership, any unordered merchandise sent to the member after 30 days following execution of the return receipt by the organization is an unconditional gift to him for all purposes. He may use or dispose of the merchandise in any manner without any obligation on his part to the organization.

(2) This subsection does not relieve a person from liability for damages to which he might otherwise be subject if his termination of membership breaches any agreement with the organization. However, he may not be subject to any damages with respect to the merchandise considered under this subsection to be an unconditional gift to him.

(c) After the receipt of any merchandise considered to be an unconditional gift under this section, if the sender continues to send any bill, statement of account, or request for payment with respect to the merchandise, the recipient may bring an action to enjoin the sender’s conduct. In that action, the court may award reasonable attorney’s fees and costs to the prevailing party.
Md. Code, Insurance § 14-115 — MD Code / Article gin / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-115
§14–115.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Board” means the board of directors of a nonprofit health service plan.

(3) “Immediate family member” means a spouse, child, child’s spouse, parent, spouse’s parent, sibling, or sibling’s spouse.

(b) This section applies to a nonprofit health service plan that is:

(1) issued a certificate of authority in the State; and

(2) organized under the laws of the State.

(c) (1) The business and affairs of a nonprofit health service plan shall be managed under the direction of a board of directors.

(2) (i) The board and its individual members are fiduciaries and shall act:

1. in good faith;

2. in a manner that is reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the corporation and its controlled affiliates or subsidiaries that offer health benefit plans;

3. in a manner that is reasonably believed to be in furtherance of the mission of the corporation as a nonprofit health service plan as required under § 14-102(c) of this subtitle; and

4. with the care that an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would use under similar circumstances.

(ii) The board and its individual members may not use board membership for personal or financial enrichment to the detriment of the nonprofit health service plan or the mission of the nonprofit health service plan.

(3) The principal functions of the board shall include:

(i) ensuring that the corporation effectively carries out the nonprofit mission established under § 14-102(c) of this subtitle;

(ii) selecting corporate management and evaluating its performance;

(iii) ensuring to the extent practicable that human resources and other resources are sufficient to meet corporate objectives;

(iv) subject to the provisions of subsection (d) of this section, nominating and selecting suitable candidates for the board;

(v) establishing a system of governance at the board level, including an annual evaluation of board performance; and

(vi) before considering any bid or offer to acquire the nonprofit health service plan and to convert to a for-profit entity under Title 6.5 of the State Government Article, ensuring that adequate consideration is given to an independent valuation of the nonprofit health service plan.

(4) Each member of the board shall demonstrate a commitment to the mission of the nonprofit health service plan as required by § 14-102(c) of this subtitle.

(5) An officer or employee of a nonprofit health service plan or any of its affiliates or subsidiaries may not be appointed or elected to the board.

(6) A nonprofit health service plan is subject to the provisions of § 2-419 of the Corporations and Associations Article.

(d) (1) This subsection applies to a corporation that is:

(i) issued a certificate of authority as a nonprofit health service plan; and

(ii) the sole member of a corporation issued a certificate of authority as a nonprofit health service plan.

(2) The board shall be composed of at least 11 members and no more than 23 members, including:

(i) one nonvoting member, who is not a member of the Maryland General Assembly, appointed by and serving at the pleasure of the President of the Senate of Maryland;

(ii) one nonvoting member, who is not a member of the Maryland General Assembly, appointed by and serving at the pleasure of the Speaker of the House of Delegates; and

(iii) no more than 21 voting members selected by the board, in accordance with the bylaws of the corporation, including three consumer members, who are covered by the nonprofit health service plan or its affiliates at the time of their initial election to the board and who satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (13), (14), and (15) of this subsection.

(3) No more than five members of the board may be:

(i) licensed health care professionals;

(ii) hospital administrators; or

(iii) employees of health care professionals or hospitals.

(4) To the extent possible, the board shall seek to include individuals with a diverse range of experience relevant to the mission of the corporation as a nonprofit health service plan as required under § 14–102 of this subtitle, including experience in data, consumer experience, government programs, population health, geriatrics, diversity, equity and inclusion, audit, human resources, benefit consulting, executive level, actuarial, accounting, information technology, finance, law, large and small businesses, nonprofit businesses, and organized labor.

(5) Except for nonvoting members under paragraph (2)(i) and (ii) of this subsection, the board shall be self–perpetuating.

(6) The board shall have the following standing committees whose duties shall include:

(i) an audit committee responsible for ensuring financial accountability;

(ii) a finance committee responsible for reviewing and making recommendations on the annual budget and for developing and recommending long–range financial objectives;

(iii) a compensation committee responsible for developing proposed compensation guidelines in accordance with § 14–139(d) of this subtitle;

(iv) a nominating committee responsible for identifying, evaluating, and recommending to the board individuals qualified to become board members, including individuals who represent a corporation for which the nonprofit health service plan is the sole member;

(v) a service and quality oversight committee responsible for ensuring that policies and processes are in effect to assess and improve the quality of health insurance products provided to subscribers and certificate holders;

(vi) a mission oversight committee responsible for ensuring that the officers of the corporation act in accordance with the mission of the nonprofit health service plan;

(vii) a strategic planning committee responsible for examining long–range planning objectives, assessing strategies that may be used to implement the planning objectives, and analyzing the nonprofit health service plan’s role in the insurance marketplace; and

(viii) any other committee that the board determines is necessary to carry out its duties.

(7) Each standing committee shall have representation from:

(i) the voting members under paragraph (2) of this subsection; and

(ii) each corporation for which the nonprofit health service plan is the sole member.

(8) The compensation committee and the nominating committee shall each include either the appointee of the President of the Senate or the appointee of the Speaker of the House of Delegates.

(9) Each board member shall serve on at least one standing committee.

(10) The chairman of the board shall select a chairman for each board committee.

(11) (i) The board shall approve in advance any action by the nonprofit health service plan, a corporation for which the plan is the sole member, or any affiliate or subsidiary of the nonprofit health service plan to:

1. materially modify options available in benefit plans marketed in the State;

2. materially modify Maryland provider networks or Maryland provider reimbursement levels;

3. materially modify underwriting guidelines for products marketed in the State;

4. materially modify rates or rating plans that are required to be approved by the Commissioner;

5. add a product to or withdraw a product from the Maryland market, withdraw from a line or type of business in the State, or withdraw from a geographic region in the State;

6. materially modify marketing goals and objectives in the State; or

7. materially impact the availability or affordability of health care in the State.

(ii) The Commissioner shall adopt regulations that define “material” for purposes of subparagraph (i) of this paragraph.

(iii) A decision by the board to convert to a for–profit entity under Title 6.5 of the State Government Article may be rejected by any three members of the board.

(iv) The board may delegate approval for the actions listed in subparagraph (i) of this paragraph to a standing committee of the board.

(12) The board shall take and retain complete minutes of all board and committee meetings.

(13) The three consumer members shall be either subscribers or certificate holders of the nonprofit health service plan or its affiliates at the time of their initial election to the board.

(14) Each consumer member of the board:

(i) shall be a member of the general public;

(ii) may not be considered an agent or employee of the State for any purpose; and

(iii) is entitled to the same rights, powers, and privileges as the other members of the board.

(15) A consumer member of the board may not:

(i) be a licensee of or otherwise be subject to regulation by the Commissioner;

(ii) be employed by or have a financial interest in:

1. a nonprofit health service plan or its affiliates or subsidiaries; or

2. a person regulated under this article or the Health – General Article; or

(iii) within 3 years before appointment, have been employed by, had a financial interest in, or have received compensation from:

1. a nonprofit health service plan or its affiliates or subsidiaries; or

2. a person regulated under this article or the Health – General Article.

(e) (1) This subsection does not apply to a board that has fewer than three authorized members.

(2) The term of a member is 3 years.

(3) The terms of the members of a board shall be staggered over a 3–year period as required by the terms provided for members of the board in the bylaws filed and approved by the Commissioner on or after June 1, 2003.

(4) At the end of a term, a member continues to serve until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(5) A member who is appointed after a term has begun serves only for the rest of the term and until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(6) A member may not serve for more than:

(i) three full terms; or

(ii) a total of more than 9 years.

(7) A person may not be a member of the board if the person:

(i) has defaulted on the payment of a monetary obligation to the nonprofit health service plan;

(ii) has been convicted of a criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust or a felony;

(iii) habitually has neglected to pay debts; or

(iv) has been prohibited under any federal securities law from acting as a director or officer of any corporation.

(8) A member shall meet any other qualifications set forth in the bylaws of the nonprofit health service plan.

(9) A member may not be an immediate family member of another board member or an officer or employee of the nonprofit health service plan.

(10) The board shall elect a chairman from among its members.

(11) (i) The composition of the board shall represent the racial and gender diversity of the State.

(ii) The board shall include representation from each geographic region of the State.

(f) The board shall notify the Commissioner of any member who attends less than 65% of the meetings of the board during a period of 12 consecutive months.

(g) (1) Board members may receive the following compensation:

(i) reimbursement for ordinary and necessary expenses; and

(ii) an amount of base compensation and compensation for attendance at meetings in accordance with § 14–139 of this subtitle.

(2) A board member may not receive more than the amount specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection for serving on more than one board of a corporation subject to this section.

(3) (i) This paragraph applies to a corporation that is:

1. issued a certificate of authority as a nonprofit health service plan; and

2. the sole member of a corporation issued a certificate of authority as a nonprofit health service plan.

(ii) On or before June 30 of each calendar year, a corporation subject to this paragraph shall report to the Commissioner on:

1. the total amount of base compensation, compensation for attendance at meetings, and reimbursement for ordinary and necessary expenses paid to each board member in the preceding calendar year; and

2. the proposed annual compensation, together with necessary supporting documentation, to be paid to board members for the next calendar year.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1317 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 13 / Section 14-1317
§14–1317.
Status: in_force

(a) A person may not purchase or fraudulently receive from any person engaged in transporting coal, iron, lumber, merchandise, or property consigned to another:

(1) Without the consent of the owner of the property; and

(2) With knowledge that the property is consigned.

(b) (1) A person who violates subsection (a) of this section is liable to the owner of the property in a civil action for damages equal to double the value of the property.

(2) An action brought under this section may be brought in the name of either the consignor or consignee of the property.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-1702 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 17 / Section 14-1702
§14–1702.
Status: in_force

An applicant for a transfer of a license is subject to a State and national criminal history records check under § 4–107 of this article.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-2802 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 28 / Section 14-2802
§14–2802.
Status: in_force

This subtitle does not authorize the identification of products as made by blind individuals if the direct labor performed by blind individuals in connection with the products consists solely of the packaging or packing of the products, and not the manufacture and assembly of the products.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-407 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-407
§14–407.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Locally grown food” means food grown at a certified local farm defined in § 14–701 of this title.

(3) “Percentage price preference” means the percent by which a responsive bid from a responsible bidder whose product is a locally grown food may exceed the lowest responsive bid submitted by a responsible bidder whose product is not a locally grown food.

(b) (1) The Board shall adopt regulations that require State schools and facilities to establish a percentage price preference, not to exceed 10%, for the purchase of locally grown food.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Board shall adopt regulations authorizing State schools and facilities to conduct an individual procurement that is limited to responses from certified local farms as defined in § 14–701 of this title.

(c) A percentage price preference under this section may not be used in conjunction with any other percentage price preference established under this title.

(d) Each State school and facility shall review the procurement specifications currently used and, to the extent practicable, require the use of a percentage price preference in their purchase of locally grown food.

(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, this section is broadly applicable to all procurements by State schools and facilities if the locally grown food is consistent with the requirements of the bid specification.

(2) Only to the extent necessary to prevent the denial of federal money or eliminate the inconsistency with federal law, this section does not apply to a procurement by a State school or facility if it is determined that compliance with this section would:

(i) cause denial of federal money; or

(ii) be inconsistent with the requirements of federal law.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-416 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-416
§14–416.
Status: in_force

(a) Each court shall report to the Board each conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere by a physician for any crime involving moral turpitude.

(b) The court shall submit the report within 10 days after the conviction or entry of the plea.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-507 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-507
§14–507.
Status: in_force

(a) Further action may not be taken by the Secretary under this subtitle without completion of the statement required under § 14-506 of this subtitle, and its being made available to the public, and until the county government, where the proposed facility is to be located has certified to the Department that all necessary local approval has been or is reasonably expected to be extended for commencement of construction.

(b) Not more than 60 days after the statement is completed, the Department shall hold at least one public hearing in the county in which the facility or any part of it is situated to solicit the views of the public about the permit application. Prior to the public hearing the Department shall make the statement available to the public. In addition, any comments on the statement prepared by the Department or any other State department, any proposed permits to be issued by any State agency to the applicant, any conditions proposed by the Department prior to granting a permit, and any other pertinent information shall be made available to the public prior to the hearing.

(c) The Department shall give notice of the public hearing by furnishing the same to the appropriate State and local government units as well as publishing notice in a newspaper of statewide circulation and in a newspaper published in or having general circulation in each affected county.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-509 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-509
§14–509.
Status: in_force

(a) In any assessment for tax purposes of property subject to an affordable housing land trust agreement, the property shall be assessed based on its market value subject to any restrictions in the affordable housing land trust agreement.

(b) The assessment shall note that the sale was not an arms–length transfer on the property tax record.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1212.1 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1212.1
§14–1212.
Status: in_force

§14–1212.1.

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Account review” includes activities related to account maintenance, account monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(3) “Security freeze” means a restriction placed on a consumer’s consumer report at the request of the consumer that prohibits a consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer’s consumer report or any information derived from the consumer’s consumer report without the express authorization of the consumer.

(b) (1) This section does not apply to the use of a consumer’s consumer report by:

(i) A person, or a subsidiary, affiliate, agent, or assignee of the person, with which the consumer has, or prior to assignment had, an account, contract, or debtor–creditor relationship, for the purpose of account review or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or debt;

(ii) A person that was given access to the consumer’s consumer report under subsection (e) of this section for the purpose of facilitating an extension of credit to the consumer or another permissible use;

(iii) A person acting in accordance with a court order, warrant, or subpoena;

(iv) A unit of State or local government that administers a program for establishing and enforcing child support obligations;

(v) The Maryland Department of Health in connection with a fraud investigation conducted by the Department;

(vi) The State Department of Assessments and Taxation, the Comptroller, or any other State or local taxing authority in connection with:

1. An investigation conducted by the Department, Comptroller, or taxing authority;

2. The collection of delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders by the Department, Comptroller, or taxing authority; or

3. The performance of any other duty provided for by law;

(vii) A person for the purpose of prescreening, as defined by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act;

(viii) A person administering a credit file monitoring subscription service to which the consumer has subscribed;

(ix) A person providing a consumer with a copy of the consumer’s consumer report on request of the consumer; or

(x) To the extent not prohibited by other State law, a person only for the purpose of setting or adjusting an insurance rate, adjusting an insurance claim, or underwriting an insurance risk.

(2) This section does not apply to:

(i) A check services or fraud prevention services company that issues:

1. Reports on incidents of fraud; or

2. Authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar payment methods;

(ii) A deposit account information service company that issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, automated teller machine abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution; or

(iii) A consumer reporting agency database or file that consists entirely of consumer information concerning, and used solely for:

1. Criminal record information;

2. Personal loss history information;

3. Fraud prevention or detection;

4. Employment screening; or

5. Tenant screening.

(c) (1) A consumer may elect to place a security freeze on the consumer’s consumer report by:

(i) Written request sent by certified mail;

(ii) Subject to paragraph (6) of this subsection, telephone, by providing certain personal information that the consumer reporting agency may require to verify the identity of the consumer; or

(iii) An electronic request transmitted through a secure connection made available by the consumer reporting agency on the website of the consumer reporting agency.

(2) A consumer reporting agency shall require a consumer to provide proper identifying information when requesting a security freeze.

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (5) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer’s consumer report within 3 business days after receiving a request under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(4) Within 5 business days after placing a security freeze on a consumer’s consumer report, the consumer reporting agency shall:

(i) Send a written confirmation of the security freeze to the consumer;

(ii) Provide the consumer with a unique personal identification number or password to be used by the consumer when authorizing the release of the consumer’s consumer report to a specific person or for a specific period of time; and

(iii) Provide the consumer with a written statement of the procedures for requesting the consumer reporting agency to remove or temporarily lift a security freeze.

(5) (i) Subject to subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph, a consumer reporting agency is not required to place a security freeze on a consumer report if the consumer reporting agency:

1. Acts only as a reseller of credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of another consumer reporting agency or multiple consumer reporting agencies; and

2. Does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new consumer reports are produced.

(ii) A consumer reporting agency that acts as a reseller of credit information shall honor a security freeze placed on a consumer report by another consumer reporting agency.

(6) (i) If a consumer requests placement of a security freeze by telephone under paragraph (1)(ii) of this subsection, the consumer reporting agency may require the consumer to confirm the request in writing on a form that the consumer reporting agency provides to the consumer with the materials sent in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection.

(ii) If the consumer fails to return written confirmation that the consumer reporting agency requires under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the consumer reporting agency may remove the security freeze in accordance with subsection (g)(2) of this section.

(7) (i) A consumer reporting agency shall develop procedures involving the use of secure connections to receive and process, in an expedited manner, an electronic request from a consumer to place a security freeze on the consumer’s consumer report.

(ii) A consumer reporting agency may develop additional secure electronic methods to comply with paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(d) (1) While a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency may not release a consumer’s consumer report or any information derived from a consumer’s consumer report without the express prior authorization of the consumer.

(2) A consumer reporting agency may advise a person that a security freeze is in effect with respect to a consumer’s consumer report.

(3) A consumer reporting agency may not state or imply to any person that a security freeze on a consumer’s consumer report reflects a negative credit score, credit history, or credit rating.

(e) (1) If a consumer wants to temporarily lift a security freeze to allow the consumer’s consumer report to be accessed by a specific person or for a specific period of time while a security freeze is in place, the consumer shall:

(i) Contact the consumer reporting agency by:

1. Mail in the manner prescribed by the consumer reporting agency;

2. Telephone in the manner prescribed by the consumer reporting agency; or

3. An electronic request transmitted through a secure connection made available by the consumer reporting agency on the website of the consumer reporting agency;

(ii) Request that the security freeze be temporarily lifted; and

(iii) Provide the following to the consumer reporting agency:

1. Proper identifying information;

2. The unique personal identification number or password provided to the consumer under subsection (c)(4)(ii) of this section; and

3. The proper information regarding the person that is to receive the consumer report or the time period during which the consumer report is to be available to users of the consumer report.

(2) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph, a consumer reporting agency shall comply with a request made under paragraph (1) of this subsection within 3 business days after receiving the request.

(ii) 1. A consumer reporting agency shall comply with a request made under paragraph (1) of this subsection within 15 minutes after the consumer’s request is received by the consumer reporting agency if the request is made by telephone or by electronic request transmitted through a secure connection made available by the consumer reporting agency on the website of the consumer reporting agency.

2. A consumer reporting agency that is unable to temporarily lift a security freeze under subsubparagraph 1 of this subparagraph shall lift the security freeze as soon as it is reasonably capable of doing so.

(3) A consumer reporting agency shall develop procedures involving the use of secure connections to receive and process, in an expedited manner, an electronic request from a consumer to temporarily lift or remove a security freeze on the consumer’s consumer report.

(f) If, in connection with an application for credit or for any other use, a person requests access to a consumer’s consumer report while a security freeze is in place and the consumer does not authorize access to the consumer report, the person may treat the application as incomplete.

(g) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency may remove or temporarily lift a security freeze placed on a consumer’s consumer report only on request of the consumer made under subsection (e) or (h) of this section.

(2) (i) A consumer reporting agency may remove a security freeze placed on a consumer’s consumer report if:

1. Placement of the security freeze was based on a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer; or

2. The consumer:

A. Made the request to place the security freeze by telephone under subsection (c)(1)(ii) of this section; and

B. Failed to confirm the request in writing if required in accordance with subsection (c)(6) of this section.

(ii) If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a security freeze under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing of its intent at least 5 business days before removing the security freeze.

(h) (1) Subject to subsection (g)(2) of this section, a security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer requests that the security freeze be removed.

(2) If a consumer wants to remove a security freeze from the consumer’s consumer report, the consumer shall:

(i) Contact the consumer reporting agency by:

1. Mail in the manner prescribed by the consumer reporting agency;

2. Telephone in the manner prescribed by the consumer reporting agency; or

3. An electronic request transmitted through a secure connection made available by the consumer reporting agency on the website of the consumer reporting agency;

(ii) Request that the security freeze be removed; and

(iii) Provide the following to the consumer reporting agency:

1. Proper identifying information; and

2. The unique personal identification number or password provided by the consumer reporting agency under subsection (c)(4)(ii) of this section.

(3) A consumer reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days after receiving a request for removal.

(4) A consumer reporting agency shall develop procedures involving the use of secure connections to receive and process, in an expedited manner, an electronic request from a consumer to remove a security freeze on the consumer’s consumer report.

(i) A consumer may not be charged for any service relating to a security freeze.

(j) At any time that a consumer is entitled to receive a summary of rights under § 609 of the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act or § 14–1206 of this subtitle, the following notice shall be included:

“NOTICE

You have a right, under § 14–1212.1 of the Commercial Law Article of the Annotated Code of Maryland, to place a security freeze on your credit report. The security freeze will prohibit a consumer reporting agency from releasing your credit report or any information derived from your credit report without your express authorization. The purpose of a security freeze is to prevent credit, loans, and services from being approved in your name without your consent. A consumer reporting agency may not charge you a fee for any service relating to a security freeze, including for any placement, temporary lift, or removal of a security freeze.

You may elect to have a consumer reporting agency place a security freeze on your credit report by written request sent by certified mail or by electronic mail or the Internet if the consumer reporting agency provides a secure electronic connection. The consumer reporting agency must place a security freeze on your credit report within 3 business days after your request is received. Within 5 business days after a security freeze is placed on your credit report, you will be provided with a unique personal identification number or password to use if you want to remove the security freeze or temporarily lift the security freeze to release your credit report to a specific person or for a specific period of time. You also will receive information on the procedures for removing or temporarily lifting a security freeze.

If you want to temporarily lift the security freeze on your credit report, you must contact the consumer reporting agency and provide all of the following:

(1) The unique personal identification number or password provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(2) The proper identifying information to verify your identity; and

(3) The proper information regarding the person who is to receive the credit report or the period of time for which the credit report is to be available to users of the credit report.

A consumer reporting agency must comply with a request to temporarily lift a security freeze on a credit report within 3 business days after the request is received, or within 15 minutes for certain requests. A consumer reporting agency must comply with a request to remove a security freeze on a credit report within 3 business days after the request is received.

If you are actively seeking credit, you should be aware that the procedures involved in lifting a security freeze may slow your own applications for credit. You should plan ahead and lift a security freeze, either completely if you are seeking credit from a number of sources, or just for a specific creditor if you are applying only to that creditor, a few days before actually applying for new credit.

A security freeze does not apply if you have an existing account relationship and a copy of your credit report is requested by your existing creditor or its agents or affiliates for certain types of account review, collection, fraud control, or similar activities.”

(k) If a consumer reporting agency violates a security freeze by releasing a consumer’s consumer report subject to a security freeze or any information derived from a consumer’s consumer report subject to a security freeze without authorization, the consumer reporting agency, within 5 business days after discovering or being notified of the release, shall notify the consumer in writing of:

(1) The specific information released; and

(2) The name and address of, or other available contact information for, the recipient of the consumer report or the information released.

(l) The exclusive remedy for a violation of subsection (e)(2)(ii) of this section shall be a complaint filed with the Commissioner under § 14–1225 of this subtitle.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-305 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-305
§14–305.
Status: in_force

§14–305. IN EFFECT

// EFFECTIVE UNTIL JULY 1, 2026 PER CHAPTERS 620 AND 621 OF 2025 //

(a) (1) Within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year, each unit shall report to the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs and the certification agency.

(2) A report under this subsection shall for the preceding fiscal year:

(i) state the total number and value of procurement contracts between the unit and certified minority business enterprises, by specific category of minority business enterprise and by industry type, including whether the minority business enterprise participated as a prime contractor or as a subcontractor;

(ii) indicate the percentage that those procurement contracts represent, by specific category of minority business enterprise and by industry type, of the total number and value of procurement contracts;

(iii) state the total number and the names of certified minority business enterprises that participated as prime contractors or as subcontractors on procurement contracts awarded by a unit;

(iv) for each minority business included in the report under item (iii) of this paragraph, list all procurement contracts awarded by a unit to the minority business enterprise, including a description of the contract and industry type;

(v) provide the results of each compliance assessment conducted by the unit under § 14–303(b)(15) of this subtitle, including for each contract completed during the fiscal year:

1. the names of each prime contractor and each subcontractor that participated in the contract;

2. the type of good or service provided by the contract;

3. the minority business enterprise participation goal for the contract;

4. whether a waiver was granted for the minority business enterprise participation goal;

5. the total dollar value of payments made to each prime contractor and by each prime contractor to each subcontractor during the contract term;

6. whether each subcontractor is a certified minority business enterprise; and

7. if applicable, a description of factors that may have contributed to failure to achieve the minority business enterprise participation goal for the contract, including documented nonperformance or unavailability of a minority business enterprise; and

(vi) contain other such information as required by the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs and the certification agency and approved by the Board.

(3) As to procurement contracts for architectural services and engineering services reported under paragraph (2) of this subsection, the report shall identify by separate category of minority business enterprise procurements for:

(i) architectural services; and

(ii) engineering services.

(4) A report under this subsection shall be in a form prescribed by the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs and the certification agency and approved by the Board.

(5) Except for real property title insurance services, the Special Secretary for the Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs may waive the requirement for a unit to report minority business participation by industry type under paragraph (2) of this subsection if the spending threshold for the industry type is too low for the unit to provide sufficient data.

(b) (1) On or before December 31 of each year, the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs shall submit to the Board of Public Works and, subject to § 2–1257 of the State Government Article, to the Legislative Policy Committee and the Joint Committee on Fair Practices and State Personnel Oversight a report summarizing the information the Office receives under subsection (a) of this section.

(2) If applicable, the report submitted under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include minority business enterprise participation data for each unit by industry type.

(3) This report may be prepared in conjunction with the annual report required under § 9–4120 of the State Government Article.

(4) (i) Beginning with the report submitted under paragraph (1) of this subsection on December 31, 2023, and each year thereafter, the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs shall include in the report an attestation that all units required to report under subsection (a) of this section are represented in the report.

(ii) To ensure accuracy of the attestation made under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, on or before December 31, 2023, and every 3 years thereafter, the Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs shall conduct an audit of the Executive Branch of State government to determine what entities are included in the definition of “unit” under § 11–101 of this article.

(c) (1) In this subsection, “mitigating factors” includes documented nonperformance or unavailability of a minority business enterprise designated for a contract.

(2) The Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs and the Office of State Procurement in the Department of General Services, in consultation with the Office of the Attorney General and the Board of Public Works, shall adopt by regulation criteria used to determine that a prime contractor has persistently failed to meet contract goals in the absence of mitigating factors.

(3) The criteria adopted under paragraph (2) of this subsection shall include the results of the compliance assessments made under subsection (a)(2)(v) of this section.

(4) The Governor’s Office of Small, Minority, and Women Business Affairs shall refer prime contractors identified under the criteria adopted under paragraph (2) of this subsection to the Office of the Attorney General for debarment under § 16–203(d)(4) of this article.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5E-08 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5E / Section 14-5E-08
§14–5E–08.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle, on or after October 1, 2013, an individual shall be licensed by the Board before the individual may practice perfusion in this State.

(b) This section does not apply to:

(1) A student enrolled in an education program under § 14–5E–09(c)(2) of this subtitle while practicing perfusion in that program; or

(2) A perfusionist employed in the service of the federal government while practicing within the scope of the employment.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-611 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-611
§14–611.
Status: in_force

The court on its own motion or on motion of any party may issue any appropriate order to require:

(1) Joinder of any additional parties that are necessary or proper; and

(2) The plaintiff to procure a title report supported by an affidavit by the person making the search that a complete search of the public records has been performed in accordance with generally accepted standards of title examination for the appropriate period as determined by the court, but not less than 60 years, and designate a place where the title report shall be kept for inspection, use, and copying by the parties.
Md. Code, Election Law § 14-110 — MD Code / Article gel / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-110
§14–110.
Status: in_force

(a) The State Board may impose a civil penalty in accordance with this section for the following violations:

(1) failure to report current information on beneficial ownership as required under § 14–103.1 of this title;

(2) failure to report all applicable contributions made as required under § 14–104 of this title; and

(3) failure to maintain detailed and accurate records and reports as required in § 14–105 of this title.

(b) A civil penalty imposed under this section for a violation specified in subsection (a) of this section is in addition to any other sanction provided by law.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this title, the amount of a civil penalty imposed under this section may not exceed the maximum amount provided under § 13–331 of this article for late filing of campaign finance reports.

(d) A civil penalty is payable to the State Board by the person charged in a citation within 20 calendar days after service of the citation.

(e) The State Board may issue a citation to any person the State Board believes is committing or has committed a violation specified in subsection (a) of this section.

(f) The citation shall be served on the defendant in accordance with the Maryland Rules.

(g) The citation shall contain:

(1) the certification by the State Board attesting to the truth of the matter set forth in the citation;

(2) the name and address of the person charged;

(3) the nature, time, and place of the violation;

(4) the manner in which the violation occurred;

(5) the amount of the penalty assessed;

(6) the manner, time, and location to pay the penalty;

(7) a statement that the person receiving the citation has a right to trial in the District Court; and

(8) the effect of failing to pay the assessed fine or of failing to demand a trial within the prescribed time.

(h) (1) A person charged in a citation may elect to stand trial for the violation by notifying the State Board in writing of the person’s intent to stand trial.

(2) The written notice shall be given at least 5 days before the date of payment as set forth in the citation.

(i) (1) On receipt of the written notice of intent to stand trial, the State Board shall forward to the State Prosecutor a copy of the citation and the written notice.

(2) The State Prosecutor shall forward to the District Court having venue a copy of the citation and the written notice.

(3) On receipt of the citation and the written notice:

(i) the State Prosecutor shall assume responsibility for prosecuting the violation; and

(ii) the District Court shall schedule the case for trial, notify the defendant of the trial date, and summon the defendant to appear.

(j) (1) If a person charged in a citation fails to pay the penalty by the date of payment set forth in the citation and fails to deliver to the State Board the written notice of intent to stand trial, the person is liable for the assessed penalty.

(2) The State Prosecutor, on behalf of the State Board, may double the penalty to an amount not to exceed $2,000 and request adjudication of the case through the District Court by filing a demand for judgment on affidavit.

(k) The defendant’s failure to respond to the summons of the District Court shall result in the entry of judgment against the defendant in favor of the State Board in the amount set forth in the citation if a proper demand for judgment on affidavit has been made.

(l) If a person is found by the District Court to have committed a violation:

(1) (i) the District Court shall order the person to pay the penalty set forth in the citation and may double the amount of the penalty to an amount not to exceed $2,000;

(ii) the penalty imposed shall constitute a judgment in favor of the State Board; and

(iii) if the penalty remains unpaid for 30 days following the date of its entry, the judgment shall be enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as other civil judgments for money unless the court has suspended or deferred payment of the penalty as provided in item (2) of this subsection;

(2) the District Court may suspend or defer the payment of any penalty under conditions that the court sets;

(3) the defendant shall be liable for the costs of the proceedings in the District Court; and

(4) the District Court may order the person to abate the violation.

(m) If a defendant fails to pay any penalty or cost imposed by the District Court without good cause, the District Court may punish the failure as contempt of court.

(n) Adjudication of a violation under this section:

(1) is not a criminal conviction; and

(2) does not impose any of the civil disabilities that arise from a criminal conviction.

(o) In a District Court proceeding relating to a violation under this section:

(1) the State Prosecutor has the burden to prove that the defendant has committed the violation by clear and convincing evidence;

(2) the District Court shall apply the evidentiary standards as provided by law or rule for the trial of civil causes;

(3) the District Court shall ensure that the defendant has received a copy of the charges against the defendant and that the defendant understands those charges;

(4) the defendant may cross–examine all witnesses who appear against the defendant, produce evidence or witnesses in the defendant’s own behalf, or testify in the defendant’s own behalf;

(5) the defendant shall be entitled to be represented by counsel of the defendant’s own selection and at the defendant’s own expense;

(6) the defendant may enter a plea of guilty or not guilty of the violation as charged; and

(7) the verdict of the District Court shall be guilty of a violation or not guilty of a violation, or the District Court may, before rendering judgment, place the defendant on probation.

(p) The State Board shall consider the following in determining the amount of a penalty under this section:

(1) the severity of the violation for which the penalty is to be assessed;

(2) the good faith of the violator; and

(3) any history of prior violations.

(q) Penalties collected under this section shall be distributed to the Fair Campaign Financing Fund established under § 15–103 of this article.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1009 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 10 / Section 14-1009
§14–1009.
Status: in_force

A violation of any provision of this subtitle is an unfair or deceptive practice within the meaning of Title 13 of this article and is subject to the enforcement and penalty provisions contained in Title 13 of this article.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-817 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-817
§14–817.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) (i) The sale shall be held on the day and at the place stated in the notice by advertising.

(ii) The sale shall be held in the county in which the land to be sold is located.

(iii) If the sale cannot be completed on that day, the collector shall continue the sale as determined by the collector and announced to the bidders at the sale until all property included in the sale is sold.

(2) All sales shall be at public auction to the person who makes the highest good faith accepted bid, in fee or leasehold, as the case may be.

(3) (i) The collector shall retain any common law or other authority normally granted to an auctioneer conducting a public auction and may refuse to accept bids that are not made in good faith.

(ii) The collector may delegate this authority to an auctioneer.

(4) The conduct of the sale shall be according to terms set by the collector, and published with a reasonable degree of specificity in the public notice of the tax sale, to ensure the orderly functioning of the public auction and the integrity of the tax sale process, including requirements that potential bidders:

(i) establish their eligibility for bidding by presenting evidence of the legal existence of the bidding entity that is satisfactory to the collector;

(ii) limit their representation at a tax sale to no more than a single agent per bidding entity; and

(iii) refrain from any act, agreement, consent, or conspiracy to suppress, predetermine, rig, or fix the bidding at the sale.

(5) (i) If determined by the collector to be in the best public interest and included in the required public notice of the sale, the collector may solicit and accept bids from the highest bidder for any group of properties to be sold at the tax sale.

(ii) 1. Upon the request of any individual or group, the collector may remove any individual property or properties from a group of properties to be sold at the tax sale.

2. Upon the request of the property owner at least 15 days before the date of the tax sale, the collector shall remove any individual property or properties from a group of properties to be sold at the tax sale.

(iii) The collector shall provide notice to the potential bidders of any alterations to a group of properties at the time the bidders become known.

(iv) The collector may conduct the sale of a group of properties under this paragraph by a sealed bid process.

(v) Except in Montgomery County, the collector shall establish a high–bid premium under subsection (b)(2) of this section for all properties to be sold:

1. in groups; or

2. by sealed bid process.

(b) (1) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, property may not be sold for a sum less than the total amount of all taxes on the property that are certified to the collector under § 14–810 of this subtitle, together with interest and penalties on the taxes and the expenses incurred in making the sale, and the lien for the taxes, interest, penalties, and expenses passes to the purchaser.

(2) (i) The collector may establish a high–bid premium to be applied to all properties to be sold at the tax sale.

(ii) Except as provided in subparagraphs (iii) and (iv) of this paragraph, the high–bid premium shall be 20% of the amount by which the highest bid exceeds 40% of the property’s full cash value.

(iii) Except as provided in subparagraph (iv) of this paragraph, in Baltimore City and Prince George’s County, the high–bid premium shall be 20% of the amount by which the highest bid exceeds the greater of:

1. the lien amount; or

2. 40% of the property’s full cash value.

(iv) For property assessed under agricultural use assessment, the high–bid premium shall be 20% of the amount by which the highest bid exceeds the appropriate value determined by the collector.

(v) In addition to the amounts payable under paragraph (1) of this subsection, the highest bidder shall pay a high–bid premium if the collector:

1. determines that a high–bid premium shall be used for the tax sale; and

2. indicates in the public notice of the sale that the high–bid premium will be applied.

(vi) The collector shall refund the high–bid premium, without interest, to:

1. the holder of the tax sale certificate on redemption of the property for which the high–bid premium was paid; or

2. the plaintiff in an action to foreclose the right of redemption on delivery of a tax sale deed for the property for which the high–bid premium was paid.

(vii) The high–bid premium is not refundable after the time required under § 14–833 of this subtitle for an action to foreclose the right of redemption if there has been no redemption and if an action to foreclose the right of redemption has not been filed within that time.

(c) (1) Abandoned property consisting of either a vacant lot or improved property cited as vacant and unfit for habitation on a housing or building violation notice may be sold for a sum less than the total amount of:

(i) all taxes on the property that are certified to the collector under § 14–810 of this subtitle;

(ii) interest and penalties on the taxes; and

(iii) expenses incurred in making the sale.

(2) The collector shall establish a minimum bid for abandoned property sold under this subsection.

(3) The person responsible for the taxes prior to the sale shall remain liable to the collector for the difference between the amount received in the tax sale under this section and the taxes, interest, penalties, and expenses remaining after the sale.

(4) The balance remaining after the tax sale shall be included in the amount necessary to redeem the property under § 14–828 of this subtitle.

(5) In a proceeding brought by the governing body of a county or municipal corporation to foreclose the right of redemption under this subtitle, the complaint may request a judgment for the county or municipal corporation in the amount of the balance.

(6) The balance remaining after the tax sale is no longer a lien on the property when:

(i) a judgment is entered foreclosing the owner’s right of redemption;

(ii) the deed is recorded; and

(iii) all liens accruing subsequent to the date of sale are paid in full.

(7) The governing body of a county or municipal corporation may institute a separate action to collect the balance at any time within 7 years after the tax sale if the plaintiff is a private purchaser.

(d) (1) This subsection applies only in Prince George’s County.

(2) In addition to the sale by public auction required under this section, the collector shall conduct a sale by limited auction prior to the public auction of abandoned property consisting of either a vacant lot or improved property cited as vacant and unfit for habitation on a housing or building violation notice.

(3) The sale by limited auction required under paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be open to bids only from an individual who is:

(i) employed in a public school located in Prince George’s County;

(ii) employed by the Prince George’s County Police Department;

(iii) employed by the Prince George’s County Fire Department;

(iv) employed by the Prince George’s County Office of the Sheriff;

(v) employed by the Prince George’s County Department of Corrections;

(vi) employed by the Prince George’s County government in a position not included under item (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this paragraph;

(vii) employed by a federal government agency located in Prince George’s County;

(viii) employed by a municipal government in Prince George’s County;

(ix) a veteran of any branch of the armed forces of the United States who has received an honorable discharge and is employed in Prince George’s County; or

(x) a resident of Prince George’s County.

(4) The collector shall include the date, time, and location of the limited auction required under this subsection in any notice of sale at public auction required under this subtitle.

(5) (i) The limited auction shall be subject to the same requirements for a public auction under this section.

(ii) The purchase of property at a limited auction shall be considered the same as a purchase at public auction under this section and shall be subject to the requirements of this subtitle in the same manner as a sale at public auction.

(iii) The collector shall establish a system to verify that individuals placing bids on property at the limited auction are eligible to do so under paragraph (3) of this subsection.

(iv) A certificate of sale for property purchased at a limited auction shall be void if the purchaser was not an eligible participant under paragraph (3) of this subsection.

(v) If a certificate of sale is void under subparagraph (iv) of this paragraph:

1. any right or interest of the holder of the certificate of sale is void and any payment received by the collector at the sale shall be forfeited and applied to any taxes in arrears on the property; and

2. the property shall be listed at the next limited or public auction held if the property is still eligible to be sold under this subtitle.

(6) Property offered for sale during a limited auction that is not sold shall be offered for sale at public auction in accordance with this section.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-302 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-302
§14–302.
Status: in_force

Subject to the rules, regulations, and orders of the Board, the following individuals may practice medicine without a license:

(1) A medical student or an individual in a postgraduate medical training program that is accredited by an accrediting organization recognized by the Board in regulations, while the individual is practicing medicine in the program and doing the assigned duties at any office of a licensed physician, hospital, clinic, or similar facility;

(2) A physician licensed by and residing in another jurisdiction, if the physician:

(i) Is engaged in consultation with a physician licensed in the State about a particular patient and does not direct patient care;

(ii) 1. Has an active, unrestricted license to practice medicine in the jurisdiction where the physician regularly engages in the practice of medicine;

2. Is employed by or has a written agreement with an athletic team or a sports team based outside the State;

3. Is designated as the team physician by the athletic or sports team to provide medical care to the team’s members, band members, cheerleading squad, mascot, coaches, and other staff who travel to a specified sporting event taking place in the State;

4. While in the State, provides medical care only to individuals listed in item 3 of this item;

5. Does not provide medical care in the State for more than 45 days in a calendar year; and

6. Does not engage in the practice of medicine at a hospital, related institution, or other health care facility, including an acute care facility, located within the State; or

(iii) Is engaged in clinical training or participates in training or teaching of a skill or procedure in a hospital if:

1. The skill or procedure:

A. Is advanced beyond those skills or procedures normally taught or exercised in the hospital and in standard medical education or training;

B. Could not be otherwise conveniently taught or demonstrated in standard medical education or training in that hospital; and

C. Is likely to benefit Maryland patients in this instance;

2. The demonstration of all skills or procedures by the physician does not exceed 14 days total in the calendar year;

3. A licensed physician who practices at a hospital in the State will be responsible for the medical care provided by that visiting physician to patients in the State;

4. The visiting physician has no history of any medical disciplinary action in any other state, territory, nation, or any branch of the uniformed services or the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, and has no significant detrimental malpractice history;

5. The physician is covered by malpractice insurance in the jurisdiction in which the physician practices; and

6. The hospital ensures that the patients will be protected by adequate malpractice insurance;

(3) A physician employed in the service of the federal government while practicing within the scope of the employment;

(4) A physician who resides in and is authorized to practice medicine by any state adjoining this State for the purpose of prescribing home health services to a patient who resides in this State, if the physician:

(i) Does not have an office or other regularly appointed place in this State to meet patients; and

(ii) Has performed an in–person physical examination of the patient within the jurisdictional boundaries of the adjoining state in which the prescribing physician is authorized to practice medicine; and

(5) An individual while under the supervision of a licensed physician who has specialty training in psychiatry, and whose specialty training in psychiatry has been approved by the Board, if the individual submits an application to the Board on or before October 1, 1993, and either:

(i) 1. Has a master’s degree from an accredited college or university; and

2. Has completed a graduate program accepted by the Board in a behavioral science that includes 1,000 hours of supervised clinical psychotherapy experience; or

(ii) 1. Has a baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university; and

2. Has 4,000 hours of supervised clinical experience that is approved by the Board.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1217 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1217
§14–1217.
Status: in_force

(a) Unless the Commissioner grants an exemption in accordance with subsection (b)(9) of this section and except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, with a new or renewal registration filed on or after June 1, 2019, a consumer reporting agency shall file a surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit with the Commissioner.

(b) (1) The bond shall run to the Commissioner, as obligee, for the benefit of:

(i) The State;

(ii) Any consumer who is injured by a violation of this subtitle committed by a consumer reporting agency; and

(iii) Any consumer who suffers actual damages as a result of the breach of the security of a system experienced by a consumer reporting agency.

(2) The bond shall be:

(i) In an amount not exceeding $1,000,000, as determined by the Commissioner by regulation;

(ii) Issued by a surety company that:

1. Is authorized to do business in the State; and

2. Holds a certificate of authority issued by the Maryland Insurance Commissioner; and

(iii) Conditioned that the consumer reporting agency shall comply with all State and federal laws and regulations governing consumer reporting agencies.

(3) The liability of the surety:

(i) Shall be continuous;

(ii) May not be aggregated or cumulative, whether or not the bond is renewed, continued, replaced, or modified;

(iii) May not be determined by adding together the penal sum of the bond, or any part of the penal sum of the bond, in existence at any two or more points in time;

(iv) Shall be considered to be one continuous obligation, regardless of increases or decreases in the penal sum of the bond;

(v) May not be affected by:

1. The insolvency or bankruptcy of the consumer reporting agency;

2. Any misrepresentation, breach of warranty, failure to pay a premium, or any other act or omission of the consumer reporting agency or an agent of the consumer reporting agency; or

3. The suspension of the consumer reporting agency’s registration;

(vi) May not require an administrative enforcement action by the Commissioner as a prerequisite to liability; and

(vii) Shall continue for 3 years after the later of the date on which:

1. The bond is canceled; or

2. The consumer reporting agency, for any reason, ceases to be registered.

(4) (i) A bond may be canceled by the surety or the consumer reporting agency by giving notice of cancellation to the Commissioner.

(ii) Notice under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph shall:

1. Be in writing; and

2. Be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested.

(iii) A cancellation of a bond under this paragraph is not effective until 90 days after receipt of a notice of cancellation by the Commissioner.

(5) A claim against the bond may be filed with the surety by:

(i) A claimant; or

(ii) The Commissioner for the benefit of a claimant or the State.

(6) If the amount of claims against a bond exceeds the amount of the bond, the surety:

(i) Shall pay the amount of the bond to the Commissioner for pro rata distribution to claimants; and

(ii) Is relieved of liability under the bond.

(7) If the penal amount of a bond is reduced by payment of a claim or judgment, the consumer reporting agency shall file a new or additional bond with the Commissioner.

(8) A penalty imposed against a consumer reporting agency under § 14–1226 of this subtitle may be collected and paid from the proceeds of a bond required under this section.

(9) In granting an exemption from the bonding requirement under subsection (a) of this section, the Commissioner shall consider the conditions the Commissioner establishes by regulation.

(10) In determining the amount of the bond under paragraph (2)(i) of this subsection, the Commissioner shall consider the factors the Commissioner establishes by regulation.

(c) (1) In lieu of the bonding requirement under subsection (a) of this section, a consumer reporting agency may file an irrevocable letter of credit from a financial institution insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation with the Commissioner.

(2) The irrevocable letter of credit shall be in an amount equal to the bond required under subsection (b) of this section.

(d) The Commissioner shall adopt regulations establishing:

(1) The conditions under which the Commissioner may grant to a consumer reporting agency an exemption from the bonding requirement under subsection (a) of this section; and

(2) The factors the Commissioner shall consider in determining the amount of the bond under subsection (b)(2)(i) of this section.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1212.3 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1212.3
§14–1212.
Status: in_force

§14–1212.3.

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Department” means the Department of Human Services.

(3) “Foster care” has the meaning stated in § 5–501(c) of the Family Law Article.

(4) “Local department” means:

(i) A local department of social services created or continued in a county of the State or in Baltimore City under § 3–201 of the Human Services Article; or

(ii) In Montgomery County, the Montgomery County Department of Health and Human Services.

(5) “Protected consumer” means an individual who:

(i) Is in the custody of a local department; and

(ii) Has been placed in a foster care setting.

(6) “Record” means a compilation of information that:

(i) Identifies a protected consumer;

(ii) Is created by a consumer reporting agency solely for the purpose of complying with this section; and

(iii) May not be created or used to consider the protected consumer’s creditworthiness, credit standing, credit capacity, character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living for any purpose listed in § 14–1201(e)(1) of this subtitle.

(7) (i) “Representative” means a person who provides to a consumer reporting agency sufficient proof of authority to act on behalf of a protected consumer.

(ii) “Representative” includes a local department.

(8) “Security freeze” means:

(i) If a consumer reporting agency does not have a file pertaining to a protected consumer, a restriction that:

1. Is placed on the protected consumer’s record in accordance with this section; and

2. Prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the protected consumer’s record except as provided in this section; or

(ii) If a consumer reporting agency has a file pertaining to the protected consumer, a restriction that:

1. Is placed on the protected consumer’s consumer report in accordance with this section; and

2. Prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the protected consumer’s consumer report or any information derived from the protected consumer’s consumer report except as provided in this section.

(9) (i) “Sufficient proof of identification” means information or documentation that identifies a protected consumer or a representative of a protected consumer.

(ii) “Sufficient proof of identification” includes:

1. A Social Security number or a copy of a Social Security card issued by the Social Security Administration;

2. A certified or official copy of a birth certificate issued by the entity authorized to issue the birth certificate;

3. A copy of a driver’s license, an identification card issued by the Motor Vehicle Administration, or any other government–issued identification; or

4. A copy of a bill, including a bill for telephone, sewer, septic tank, water, electric, oil, or natural gas services, that shows a name and home address.

(b) This section does not apply to the use of a protected consumer’s consumer report or record by:

(1) A person administering a credit file monitoring subscription service to which:

(i) The protected consumer has subscribed; or

(ii) The representative of the protected consumer has subscribed on behalf of the protected consumer;

(2) A person providing the protected consumer or the protected consumer’s representative a copy of the protected consumer’s consumer report on request of the protected consumer or the protected consumer’s representative; or

(3) An entity listed in § 14–1212.1(b)(2)(i) or (ii) or (c)(5) of this subtitle.

(c) (1) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze for a protected consumer if the consumer reporting agency receives a request from the Department for the placement of the security freeze as provided in subsection (j) of this section.

(2) The Department shall submit the request to the consumer reporting agency by electronic transmission to the electronic mail address or other point of contact in the manner specified by the consumer reporting agency.

(3) If a consumer reporting agency does not have a file pertaining to a protected consumer when the consumer reporting agency receives a request under subsection (j) of this section, the consumer reporting agency shall create a record for the protected consumer.

(4) If a consumer reporting agency has a file pertaining to a protected consumer, the local department shall act as the protected consumer’s representative to resolve any issues with the file.

(d) Within 30 days after receiving a request that meets the requirements of subsection (c) of this section, a consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze for the protected consumer.

(e) Unless a security freeze for a protected consumer is removed in accordance with subsection (g) or (k) of this section, a consumer reporting agency may not release the protected consumer’s consumer report, any information derived from the protected consumer’s consumer report, or any record created for the protected consumer.

(f) A security freeze for a protected consumer placed under subsection (d) of this section shall remain in effect until:

(1) The protected consumer or the Department requests the consumer reporting agency to remove the security freeze in accordance with subsection (g) of this section; or

(2) The security freeze is removed in accordance with subsection (k) of this section.

(g) If a protected consumer or the Department wishes to remove a security freeze for the protected consumer, the protected consumer or the Department shall:

(1) Submit a request for the removal of the security freeze to the consumer reporting agency at the address or other point of contact in the manner specified by the consumer reporting agency; and

(2) Provide to the consumer reporting agency:

(i) In the case of a request by the protected consumer:

1. Proof that the authority of the Department to act on behalf of the protected consumer is no longer valid; and

2. Sufficient proof of identification of the protected consumer; or

(ii) In the case of a request by the Department, sufficient proof of identification of the protected consumer.

(h) Within 30 days after receiving a request that meets the requirements of subsection (g) of this section, the consumer reporting agency shall remove the security freeze for the protected consumer.

(i) A consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee for any service performed under this section.

(j) (1) At least annually, the Department shall send to each consumer reporting agency by electronic transmission a list of children who are in the custody of a local department and have been placed in a foster care setting for the first time.

(2) The Department shall request a security freeze for each child on the list specified under paragraph (1) of this subsection on behalf of the protected consumer.

(3) The Department may enter into an agreement with a consumer reporting agency concerning the transmission of information between the Department and a consumer reporting agency to facilitate the implementation of this subsection.

(k) A consumer reporting agency may remove a security freeze for a protected consumer or delete a record of a protected consumer if the security freeze was placed or the record was created based on a material misrepresentation of fact by the protected consumer or the protected consumer’s representative.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the exclusive remedy for a violation of this section shall be a complaint filed with the Commissioner under § 14–1225 of this subtitle.

(m) (1) On the entry of an order for the adoption of a child who was in the custody of a local department under Title 5 of the Family Law Article, the Department shall provide notice to the adoptive parent of the provisions of § 14–1212.2 of this subtitle relating to the authority of the adoptive parent to request a security freeze by consumer reporting agencies.

(2) The Department shall notify a protected consumer who becomes an adult of the provisions of § 14–1212.2 of this subtitle, including providing contact information of organizations that may provide assistance to the protected consumer in removing a security freeze.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4804 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 48 / Section 14-4804
§14–4804.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Subject to paragraph (2) of this subsection, a covered entity that provides an online product reasonably likely to be accessed by children shall prepare a data protection impact assessment for the online product.

(2) On or before April 1, 2026, a covered entity shall prepare a data protection impact assessment for any online product that:

(i) Meets the criteria under paragraph (1) of this subsection;

(ii) Is offered to the public on or before April 1, 2026; and

(iii) Will continue to be offered to the public after July 1, 2026.

(3) For an online product that meets the criteria under paragraph (1) of this subsection and is initially offered to the public after April 1, 2026, a covered entity shall complete a data protection impact assessment.

(b) The data protection impact assessment shall:

(1) Identify the purpose of the online product;

(2) Identify how the online product uses children’s data;

(3) Determine whether the online product is designed in a manner consistent with the best interests of children reasonably likely to access the online product through consideration of:

(i) Whether the data management or processing practices of the online product could lead to children experiencing or being targeted by contacts that would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(ii) Whether the data management or processing practices of the online product could permit children to participate in or be subject to conduct that would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(iii) Whether the data management or processing practices of the online product are reasonably expected to allow children becoming party to or exploited by a contract through the online product that would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(iv) Whether the online product uses system design features to increase, sustain, or extend the use of the online product, including the automatic playing of media, rewards for time spent, and notifications that would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(v) Whether, how, and for what purpose the online product collects or processes personal data of children and whether those practices would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(vi) Whether and how data collected to understand the experimental impact of the product reveals data management or design practices that would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation;

(vii) Whether algorithms used by the online product would result in:

1. Reasonably foreseeable and material physical or financial harm to children;

2. Reasonably foreseeable and extreme psychological or emotional harm to children;

3. A highly offensive intrusion on children’s reasonable expectation of privacy; or

4. Discrimination against children based on race, color, religion, national origin, disability, gender identity, sex, or sexual orientation; and

(viii) Any other factor that may indicate that the online product is designed in a manner that is inconsistent with the best interests of children; and

(4) Include a description of steps that the covered entity has taken and will take to comply with the duty to act in a manner consistent with the best interests of children.

(c) (1) A data protection impact assessment prepared by a covered entity for the purpose of compliance with any other law complies with this section if the assessment meets the requirements of this section.

(2) A single data protection impact assessment may contain multiple similar processing operations that present similar risks only if each relevant online product is addressed.
Md. Code, Insurance § 14-405 — MD Code / Article gin / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-405
§14–405.
Status: in_force

(a) An applicant for a certificate of authority shall:

(1) file with the Commissioner an application, verified by an officer or authorized representative of the dental plan organization, on the form that the Commissioner provides; and

(2) pay to the Commissioner an application fee of $200.

(b) An application for a certificate of authority shall include:

(1) the basic organizational documents of the dental plan organization, including the articles of incorporation, articles of association, partnership agreement, trade name certificate, trust agreement, and shareholder agreement;

(2) all amendments to the organizational documents of the dental plan organization;

(3) the bylaws, rules and regulations, or similar documents that regulate the conduct or internal affairs of the dental plan organization;

(4) the names, addresses, and official positions of the individuals who are responsible for conducting the affairs of the dental plan organization, including:

(i) the members of the board of directors, board of trustees, executive committee, or other governing board or committee;

(ii) for a corporation, the principal officers; and

(iii) for a partnership or association, the partners or members;

(5) each contract made between a dentist and the dental plan organization;

(6) each contract made between a dentist and an individual listed in item (4) of this subsection, a consultant, or a business manager;

(7) a description of the dental plan organization and its dental plan or plans, facilities, and personnel;

(8) the form of evidence of coverage to be issued to enrollees;

(9) the form of each group contract that is issued to employers, unions, trustees, or others;

(10) a financial statement that details the assets, liabilities, and sources of financial support for the dental plan organization or, if the financial affairs are audited by an independent certified public accountant, a copy of the most recent regular certified financial statement, unless the Commissioner determines that additional or more recent financial information is required for the proper administration of this subtitle;

(11) the proposed method of marketing the dental plan, a financial plan with a 3-year projection of the initial operating results, and a statement of the sources of working capital and any other sources of funding;

(12) if a dental plan organization is not domiciled in the State, an executed power of attorney that appoints the Commissioner as attorney for service of process issued against the dental plan organization in the State;

(13) a description of the geographic area to be served by the dental plan organization; and

(14) any other information that the Commissioner requires.
Md. Code, Business Regulation § 14-128 — MD Code / Article gbr / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-128
§14–128.
Status: in_force

A person who violates this subtitle is guilty of a misdemeanor and, unless another criminal penalty is specifically provided elsewhere, on conviction, is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or both.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-304 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-304
§14–304.
Status: in_force

Any person who violates any provision of this subtitle is liable to the person affected by the violation for all damages proximately caused by the violation and for reasonable attorney fees incurred by the person damaged.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5G-20 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5G / Section 14-5G-20
§14–5G–20.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (d) of this section, each employer of a licensed genetic counselor shall submit to the Board a report if:

(i) The employer:

1. Reduced, suspended, revoked, restricted, denied, conditioned, or did not renew the licensed genetic counselor’s clinical privileges, employment, or other ability to practice or treat patients;

2. Involuntarily terminated or restricted the licensed genetic counselor’s employment or staff membership; or

3. Asked the licensed genetic counselor to voluntarily resign because of the licensed genetic counselor’s conduct or while the licensed genetic counselor is being investigated; and

(ii) The action described under item (i) of this paragraph was taken:

1. For reasons that might be grounds for disciplinary action under § 14–5G–18 of this subtitle;

2. Because the licensed genetic counselor may have engaged in an act that may constitute unprofessional conduct;

3. Because the licensed genetic counselor may be unable to practice genetic counseling with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental condition or professional incompetence; or

4. Because the licensed genetic counselor may have harmed or placed one or more patients or the public at unreasonable risk of harm by engaging in an act that creates an immediate or continuing danger.

(2) A report required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include:

(i) The action taken by the employer;

(ii) A detailed explanation of the reasons for the action, including references to specific patient medical records, if any, that informed the employer’s action; and

(iii) The steps taken by the employer to investigate the conduct of the licensed genetic counselor.

(3) (i) The Board may request from the employer additional information regarding an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that was taken by the employer.

(ii) If an employer receives a request made under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the employer shall promptly provide the additional information.

(b) If an employer knows that the conduct of a licensed genetic counselor requires that the employer submit a report because the licensed genetic counselor is impaired by alcohol or another substance, the employer is not required to report the licensed genetic counselor to the Board if:

(1) The employer knows that the licensed genetic counselor is:

(i) In a substance use disorder treatment program that is accredited by The Joint Commission or that is certified by the Department; or

(ii) Under the care of a health care practitioner who is competent and capable of dealing with substance use disorders; and

(2) (i) The employer is able to verify that the licensed genetic counselor remains in the treatment program until successful discharge; and

(ii) The action or condition of the licensed genetic counselor has not caused injury to any person while the genetic counselor is practicing as a licensed genetic counselor.

(c) If the employer knows that the licensed genetic counselor is noncompliant with the substance use disorder treatment program, the employer of the licensed genetic counselor shall report the licensed genetic counselor’s noncompliance to the Board.

(d) (1) The Board may extend the reporting under this section for good cause shown.

(2) A person is not required under this section to make any report that would be in violation of any federal or State law, rule, or regulation concerning the confidentiality of substance use disorder patient records.

(e) The Board may enforce this section by subpoena.

(f) Any person shall have the immunity from liability described under § 5–715(d) of the Courts Article for giving any of the information required by this section.

(g) An employer required to make a report to the Board under this section shall submit the report within 10 days after the action requiring the report.

(h) A report made under this section is privileged, not subject to inspection under the Public Information Act, and not subject to subpoena or discovery in any civil action other than a proceeding arising out of a hearing and decision of the Board or a disciplinary panel under this title.

(i) (1) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 for knowingly failing to report under this section.

(2) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per incident for a report made by an employer in bad faith.

(3) The Board shall remit any penalty collected under this subsection into the General Fund of the State.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5C-16 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5C / Section 14-5C-16
§14–5C–16.
Status: in_force

Unless a disciplinary panel agrees to accept the surrender of a license, a licensed polysomnographic technologist may not surrender the license nor may the license lapse by operation of law while the licensee is under investigation or while charges are pending against the licensee.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-115.1 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-115.1
§14–115.
Status: in_force

§14–115.1.

With regard to any property owned or acquired by any means by the Mayor and City Council of Baltimore that is subject to a ground rent, any bill, notice, or other document for legal or other action shall be sent to the Director, Baltimore City Department of Finance.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1226 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1226
§14–1226.
Status: in_force

(a) The Commissioner, in addition to taking any other action authorized by law, may:

(1) Hold a hearing on the complaint at a time and place in this State reasonably convenient to the parties involved;

(2) Subpoena and take depositions of witnesses;

(3) Conduct investigations that the Commissioner considers necessary;

(4) Administer oaths;

(5) Issue orders for compliance with this subtitle; and

(6) Issue cease and desist orders, if after a hearing the Commissioner finds a violation of this subtitle.

(b) (1) Instead of or in addition to any other action the Commissioner may take under this section or any other provision of law, the Commissioner may impose a civil penalty not exceeding:

(i) $1,000 for a first violation; and

(ii) $2,500 for each subsequent violation.

(2) In determining the amount of civil penalty to be imposed under this subsection, the Commissioner shall consider:

(i) The seriousness of the violation;

(ii) The good faith of the violator;

(iii) The violator’s history of previous violations;

(iv) The deleterious effect of the violation on the public and the credit granting industry;

(v) The assets and financial status of the violator; and

(vi) Any other factors relevant to the determination of the financial penalty.

(3) The Commissioner shall pay all fines and penalties collected by the Commissioner under this subsection into the General Fund of the State.

(c) If a person fails to comply with any lawful order of the Commissioner or if any witness fails to appear and testify to any matter regarding which the witness may be lawfully interrogated, on petition of the Commissioner setting forth the facts, the circuit court of any county shall:

(1) Compel obedience to the requirements of the subpoena or order;

(2) Compel the production of contracts, forms, files, and other evidence; and

(3) Order compliance with any lawful order issued by the Commissioner.

(d) If a person fails, refuses, or neglects to comply with the order of the court, the court may punish that person for contempt of court.

(e) The Administrative Procedure Act, including its provisions for judicial review of a final decision in a contested case, applies to proceedings before the Commissioner pursuant to this subtitle.

(f) (1) The Commissioner shall adopt regulations necessary to administer the provisions of this subtitle.

(2) The regulations shall include procedures for:

(i) Achieving accuracy in information collected and maintained in consumer files;

(ii) Developing a system to facilitate correction of information in a consumer file at each credit reporting agency on correction at one consumer reporting agency;

(iii) Periodically distributing to the public a current listing of the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of consumer reporting agencies that maintain information or provide consumer reports on residents of the State; and

(iv) Calculating the required bond amounts under this subtitle.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall pay to the Commissioner a per–day fee set by the Commissioner for each of the Commissioner’s employees engaged in any investigation of the consumer reporting agency conducted under this section that the Commissioner considers necessary.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-201 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-201
§14–201.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Disabled veteran” means a veteran who has been certified by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs as having a service–connected disability regardless of the disability rating.

(c) “Disabled veteran–owned small business” means a small business that is at least 51% owned and controlled by one or more individuals who are disabled veterans.

(d) “Small business” means a business that meets the qualifications established under § 14–203 of this subtitle.

(e) “Small business preference” means a purchase request for which bids are invited from a list of qualified bidders that includes small businesses.

(f) “Veteran” means a veteran as defined in 38 U.S.C. § 101(2) who is domiciled in Maryland.

(g) “Veteran–owned small business” means a small business that is at least 51% owned and controlled by one or more individuals who are veterans.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-802 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-802
§14–802.
Status: in_force

(a) This subtitle applies to a covered procurement made by a unit.

(b) A contractor awarded a covered procurement with an estimated total dollar value of $1,000,000 or more shall utilize an eligible internship program.

(c) A contractor awarded a covered procurement shall utilize a registered apprenticeship program.

(d) The Chief Procurement Officer, in consultation with the Secretary and, for contracts subject to Title 3.5 of this article, the Secretary of Information Technology:

(1) shall adopt regulations establishing the definition of “covered procurement”; and

(2) may adopt:

(i) regulations to improve the recruitment or skills of employees of vendors; or

(ii) other regulations necessary to carry out this subtitle, including waiver processes.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-17.1 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-17.1
§14–5A–17.
Status: in_force

§14–5A–17.1.

(a) (1) Any person aggrieved by a final decision of the Board or a disciplinary panel under this subtitle may take a direct judicial appeal.

(2) The appeal shall be made as provided for judicial review of final decisions in the Administrative Procedure Act.

(b) An order of the Board or a disciplinary panel may not be stayed pending review.

(c) The Board may appeal from any decision that reverses or modifies an order of the Board or a disciplinary panel.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-902 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 9 / Section 14-902
§14–902.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A person that represents to the public that any unpackaged food that is sold or served is kosher, kosher for Passover, or under rabbinical or other kosher supervision shall prominently and conspicuously display on the premises on which the food is sold or served a complete disclosure statement.

(2) The Division shall develop a form for disclosure statements and shall make the form available to any person upon request.

(3) The disclosure statement shall:

(i) Be understandable and written in simple and readable plain language;

(ii) Disclose to the public the basis for a representation that any unpackaged food sold or served is kosher, kosher for Passover, or under rabbinical or other supervision, including a specification of practices relating to the preparation, handling, and sale of the food; and

(iii) Contain any additional information or conform to any additional requirements that the Division considers reasonable and necessary to carry out the provisions of this subtitle.

(4) (i) A person that displays a disclosure statement in accordance with this section shall retain a copy of the statement for at least:

1. 3 years after the date of the initial display of the disclosure statement; or

2. 3 years after the date of any amendment to the disclosure, whichever is longer.

(ii) A person that displays a disclosure statement in accordance with this section shall provide a copy of the statement to the Division within 2 business days of the person’s receipt from the Division of a request for a copy of the disclosure statement.

(5) A person shall conform its practices with respect to the sale or serving of unpackaged food that is represented to the public as kosher, kosher for Passover, or under rabbinical or other kosher supervision.

(b) A person may not sell or offer for sale any unpackaged food represented to the public as kosher, whether for consumption in the person’s place of business or elsewhere, if, in the same place of business, the person also offers for sale any unpackaged food, not represented to the public as kosher, unless the person includes on each window sign and each display advertisement in block letters at least 4 inches high the words “kosher and nonkosher food sold here” or, as to the sale of meat alone, “kosher and nonkosher meat and poultry sold here”.

(c) A person may not display for sale any food represented to the public as kosher, whether for consumption in the person’s place of business or elsewhere, if, in the same show window or other location on or in the place of business, the person also displays any unpackaged food not represented to the public as kosher, unless the person displays over the kosher and nonkosher food signs that read, in block letters at least 4 inches high, “kosher food” and “nonkosher food”, respectively, or, as to the display of meat alone, “kosher meat” and “nonkosher meat”, or “kosher poultry” or “nonkosher poultry”, respectively.

(d) A person may not prepare or serve any food represented to the public as kosher, whether for consumption in the person’s place of business or elsewhere, if, in the same place of business, the person also prepares or serves food not represented to the public as kosher, unless the person includes on each sign and display advertisement in or about the person’s premises in block letters at least 4 inches high the words “kosher and nonkosher food prepared and sold here”.

(e) (1) In this subsection, “Hebrew” symbol means:

(i) Any Hebrew word or letter; or

(ii) Any symbol, emblem, sign, insignia, or other mark that simulates a Hebrew word or letter.

(2) In connection with any place of business that sells or offers for sale any food, a person may not display, whether in a window, door, or other location on or in the place of business, in any handbill or other printed matter distributed in or outside of the place of business, or otherwise in any advertisement, any Hebrew symbol, or any other representation to the public that the place of business is kosher, kosher for Passover, or under rabbinical or other kosher supervision, unless the person also displays in conjunction with the Hebrew symbol or such other representation, in English letters of at least the same size as the characters used in the Hebrew symbol, the words “we sell kosher meat and food only”, “we sell nonkosher meat and food only”, or “we sell both kosher and nonkosher meat and food”, as the appropriate representation may be.

(f) (1) In this subsection, “fresh” means unprocessed other than by salting or soaking.

(2) A person may not sell or offer for sale, as kosher, any fresh meat or poultry unless the words “soaked and salted” or “not soaked and salted”, as the appropriate case may be, is marked:

(i) On the package label; or

(ii) If the product is not packaged, on a sign prominently displayed in conjunction with the product.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-901 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 9 / Section 14-901
§14–901.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Record” means the act of adding any document or data that affects residential property to State or local government records.

(c) (1) “Residential property” means real property improved by a dwelling unit that is designed principally and is intended for human habitation.

(2) “Residential property” includes:

(i) A residential condominium unit; and

(ii) A unit in a cooperative project, as defined in § 5–6B–01 of the Corporations and Associations Article.

(d) (1) “Service agreement” means an agreement where a service provider agrees to provide an individual services for:

(i) The maintenance of residential property that the individual owns; or

(ii) The purchase or sale of residential property.

(2) “Service agreement” includes any memorandum, notice, agreement, or similar document that is used by a service provider to cause a service agreement to be recorded.

(e) (1) “Service provider” means a person that provides services to an individual through a service agreement for:

(i) The maintenance of residential property that the individual owns; or

(ii) The purchase or sale of residential property.

(2) “Service provider” includes any person acting as an agent or designee of a service provider.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-407 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-407
§14–407.
Status: in_force

(a) An order of suspension or revocation is effective, in accordance with its terms and conditions, as soon as a disciplinary panel files it under this title.

(b) The Board shall keep a copy of the order of suspension or revocation as a permanent record.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-110.3 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-110.3
§14–110.
Status: in_force

§14–110.3.

(a) In this section, “kidney dialysis center” has the meaning stated in § 19–3B–01 of the Health – General Article.

(b) A kidney dialysis center shall have an emergency plan.

(c) An emergency plan shall include policies and procedures that will be followed before, during, and after an emergency to address:

(1) the safe management of individuals who are receiving services at the kidney dialysis center when an emergency occurs;

(2) notification of patients, families, staff, and licensing authorities regarding actions that will be taken concerning the provision of dialysis services to the individuals served by the kidney dialysis center;

(3) staff coverage, organization, and assignment of responsibilities; and

(4) the continuity of operations, including procedures to secure access to essential goods, equipment, and dialysis services.

(d) (1) This subsection does not prohibit a kidney dialysis center from applying for and receiving reimbursement:

(i) under any applicable insurance policy; or

(ii) from any State or federal funds that may be available due to a declared State or federal emergency.

(2) A kidney dialysis center is solely responsible for any financial obligation arising from voluntary or mandatory activation of any aspect of the emergency plan developed by the kidney dialysis center under this section.

(e) For purposes of coordinating local emergency planning efforts, a kidney dialysis center shall provide access to the emergency plans developed under this section to local organizations for emergency management.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5D-14 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5D / Section 14-5D-14
§14–5D–14.
Status: in_force

(a) Subject to the hearing provisions of § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel, on the affirmative vote of a majority of a quorum of the disciplinary panel, may deny a license to any applicant, reprimand any licensee, place any licensee on probation, or suspend or revoke a license, if the applicant or licensee:

(1) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant, licensee, or for another;

(2) Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;

(3) Is guilty of:

(i) Immoral conduct in the practice of athletic training; or

(ii) Unprofessional conduct in the practice of athletic training;

(4) Is:

(i) Professionally incompetent;

(ii) Physically incompetent; or

(iii) Mentally incompetent;

(5) Abandons a patient;

(6) Habitually is intoxicated;

(7) Is addicted to, or habitually abuses, any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article;

(8) Provides professional services while:

(i) Under the influence of alcohol; or

(ii) Using any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article, or any other drug that is in excess of therapeutic amounts or without valid medical indication;

(9) Promotes the sale of services, drugs, devices, appliances, or goods to a patient so as to exploit the patient for financial gain;

(10) Willfully makes or files a false report or record in the practice of athletic training;

(11) Willfully fails to file or record any report as required under law, willfully impedes or obstructs the filing or recording of the report, or induces another to fail to file or record the report;

(12) Breaches patient confidentiality;

(13) Pays or agrees to pay any sum or provide any form of remuneration or material benefit to any individual for bringing or referring a patient or accepts or agrees to accept any sum or any form of remuneration or material benefit from an individual for bringing or referring a patient;

(14) Willfully makes a misrepresentation while practicing athletic training;

(15) Willfully practices athletic training with an unauthorized individual or aids an unauthorized individual in the practice of athletic trainer services;

(16) Offers, undertakes, or agrees to cure or treat disease by a secret method, treatment, or medicine;

(17) Is disciplined by a licensing, certifying, or disciplinary authority or is convicted or disciplined by a court of any state or country or is disciplined by any branch of the uniformed services or the Veterans Administration for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under this section;

(18) Fails to meet appropriate standards for the delivery of athletic training services;

(19) Willfully submits false statements to collect fees for which services have not been provided;

(20) (i) Has been subject to investigation or disciplinary action by a licensing or disciplinary authority or by a court of any state or country for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under the Board’s disciplinary statutes; and

(ii) Has:

1. Surrendered the license issued by the state or country; or

2. Allowed the license issued by the state or country to expire or lapse;

(21) Willfully fails to report suspected child abuse in violation of § 5–704 of the Family Law Article;

(22) Sells, prescribes, gives away, or administers drugs for illegal or illegitimate medical purposes;

(23) Practices or attempts to practice beyond the authorized scope of practice;

(24) Refuses, withholds from, denies, or discriminates against an individual with regard to the provision of professional services for which the licensee is licensed and qualified to render because the individual is HIV positive;

(25) Practices or attempts to practice an athletic training procedure or uses or attempts to use athletic training equipment if the applicant or licensee has not received education and training in the performance of the procedure or the use of the equipment;

(26) Fails to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(27) Fails to practice under the supervision of a physician or violates the approved evaluation and treatment protocol;

(28) Violates an order of the Board or a disciplinary panel, including any condition of probation;

(29) Fails to complete a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title; or

(30) Performs dry needling without the approval of the Board issued under § 14–5D–11.4 of this subtitle.

(b) (1) On the filing of certified docket entries with the Board by the Office of the Attorney General, a disciplinary panel shall order the suspension of a license if the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not any appeal or other proceeding is pending to have the conviction or plea set aside.

(2) After completion of the appellate process, if the conviction has not been reversed or the plea has not been set aside with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, a disciplinary panel shall order the revocation of a license on the certification by the Office of the Attorney General.

(c) (1) If, after a hearing under § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel finds that there are grounds under subsection (a) of this section to suspend or revoke a license, to reprimand a licensee, or to place a licensee on probation, the disciplinary panel may impose a fine subject to the Board’s regulations in addition to suspending or revoking the license, reprimanding the licensee, or placing the licensee on probation.

(2) The Board shall pay any fines collected under this section into the General Fund of the State.

(d) In addition to any sanction authorized under this section, a disciplinary panel may require a licensee to comply with specified terms and conditions determined by the disciplinary panel.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5D-09 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5D / Section 14-5D-09
§14–5D–09.
Status: in_force

(a) To apply for a license, an applicant shall:

(1) Complete a criminal history records check in accordance with § 14–308.1 of this title;

(2) Submit an application to the Board on the form that the Board requires; and

(3) Pay to the Board the application fee set by the Board.

(b) Subject to subsection (c) of this section, the Board shall issue the appropriate license to an applicant who meets the requirements of this subtitle for that license.

(c) (1) On receipt of the criminal history record information of an applicant for licensure forwarded to the Board in accordance with § 14–308.1 of this title, in determining whether to issue a license, the Board shall consider:

(i) The age at which the crime was committed;

(ii) The nature of the crime;

(iii) The circumstances surrounding the crime;

(iv) The length of time that has passed since the crime;

(v) Subsequent work history;

(vi) Employment and character references; and

(vii) Other evidence that demonstrates whether the applicant poses a threat to the public health or safety.

(2) The Board may not issue a license if the criminal history record information required under § 14–308.1 of this title has not been received.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-1001 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 10 / Section 14-1001
§14–1001.
Status: in_force

§14–1001. IN EFFECT

// EFFECTIVE UNTIL JUNE 30, 2030 PER CHAPTERS 736 AND 737 OF 2025 //

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Covered procurement” means a procurement that is valued at less than $80,000,000.

(c) “ESOP evaluation factor” means a preference for an ESOP offeror that a unit may include in the evaluation of proposals.

(d) “ESOP offeror” means a responsible offeror who utilizes an employee stock ownership plan approved under § 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(e) “Unit” means the Maryland Stadium Authority, a university, or the Baltimore City Community College.

(f) “University” means Morgan State University or St. Mary’s College of Maryland.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-404 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-404
§14–404.
Status: in_force

Article I

This agreement may become effective within any compacting state at any time as prescribed by that state, and shall become effective within those states ratifying it whenever any three of the states of Texas, Oklahoma, California, Kansas and New Mexico have ratified and Congress has given its consent. Any oil-producing state may become a party hereto as hereinafter provided.

Article II

The purpose of this compact is to conserve oil and gas by the prevention of physical waste thereof from any cause.

Article III

Each state bound hereby agrees that within a reasonable time it will enact laws, or if the laws have been enacted, then it agrees to continue the same in force, to accomplish within reasonable limits the prevention of:

(a) The operation of any oil well with an inefficient gas-oil ratio.

(b) The drowning with water of any stratum capable of producing oil or gas, or both oil and gas, in paying quantities.

(c) The avoidable escape into the open air or the wasteful burning of gas from a natural gas well.

(d) The creation of unnecessary fire hazards.

(e) The drilling, equipping, locating, spacing or operating of a well or wells so as to bring about physical waste of oil or gas or loss in the ultimate recovery thereof.

(f) The inefficient, excessive or improper use of the reservoir energy in producing any well.

The enumeration of the foregoing subjects shall not limit the scope of the authority of any state.

Article IV

Each state bound hereby agrees that it will, within a reasonable time, enact statutes, or if such statutes have been enacted then that [it] will continue the same in force, providing in effect that oil produced in violation of its valid oil and/or gas conservation statutes or any valid rule, order or regulation promulgated thereunder, shall be denied access to commerce; and providing for stringent penalties for the waste of either oil or gas.

Article V

It is not the purpose of this compact to authorize the states joining herein to limit the production of oil or gas for the purpose of stabilizing or fixing the price thereof, or create or perpetuate monopoly, or to promote regimentation, but is limited to the purpose of conserving oil and gas and preventing the avoidable waste thereof within reasonable limitations.

Article VI

Each state joining herein shall appoint one representative to a commission hereby constituted and designated as the Interstate Oil Compact Commission, the duty of which said commission shall be to make inquiry and ascertain from time to time such methods, practices, circumstances, and conditions as may be disclosed for bringing about conservation and the prevention of physical waste of oil and gas, and at such intervals as said commission deems beneficial it shall report its findings and recommendations to the several states for adoption or rejection.

The commission shall have power to recommend the coordination of the exercise of the police powers of the several states within their several jurisdictions to promote the maximum ultimate recovery from the petroleum reserves of said states, and to recommend measures for the maximum ultimate recovery of oil and gas. Said commission shall organize and adopt suitable rules and regulations for the conduct of its business.

No action shall be taken by the commission except: (1) by the affirmative votes of the majority of the whole number of the compacting states represented at any meeting, and (2) by a concurring vote of a majority in interest of the compacting states at said meeting, such interest to be determined as follows: such vote of each state shall be in the decimal proportion fixed by the ratio of its daily average production during the preceding calendar half-year to the daily average production of the compacting states during said period.

Article VII

No state by joining herein shall become financially obligated to any other state, nor shall the breach of the terms hereof by any state subject such state to financial responsibility to the other states joining herein.

Article VIII

This compact shall expire September 1, 1937. But any state joining herein may, upon sixty (60) days notice, withdraw herefrom.

The representatives of the signatory states have signed this agreement in a single original which shall be deposited in the archives of the Department of State of the United States, and a duly certified copy shall be forwarded to the governor of each of the signatory states.

This compact shall become effective when ratified and approved as provided in Article I. Any oil-producing state may become a party hereto by affixing its signature to a counterpart to be similarly deposited, certified, and ratified.

Done in the City of Dallas, Texas, this sixteenth day of February, 1935.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-116 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-116
§14–116.
Status: in_force

Any person adversely affected by any rule, regulation, determination, or order of the Department may within 15 days after its effective date apply to the Department in writing for a rehearing. The application shall be acted upon within 15 days after its filing. The rehearing, if granted, shall be held promptly.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-204 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-204
§14–204.
Status: in_force

(a) This subtitle shall be enforced in accordance with:

(1) the usual procedures of the court in which the proceedings are pending; or

(2) the rules adopted by the court in which the proceedings are pending.

(b) If this subtitle requires that a motion be filed in a court in which no proceeding is pending with respect to the matter, the motion may be filed in any court.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-403 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-403
§14–403.
Status: in_force

(a) To qualify for a permit, a corporation, partnership, or limited liability company shall meet the requirements of this section.

(b) (1) A corporation, partnership, or limited liability company shall designate a Maryland professional engineer in good standing to be the managing agent for the entity.

(2) The managing agent shall be:

(i) in a position to act on behalf of the corporation, partnership, or limited liability company in matters related to the practice of or the offering of the practice of engineering; and

(ii) an employee, an owner, a director, an officer, a member, or a partner, as applicable, of the entity seeking a permit.

(c) A licensee may not be designated as a managing agent for more than one corporation, partnership, or limited liability company that provides or offers to provide engineering services, except if the other entity is an affiliate of a permit holder.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-107 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-107
§14–107.
Status: in_force

The Pricing and Selection Committee for Preferred Providers shall:

(1) (i) maintain a current list of supplies and services that Blind Industries and Services of Maryland provides;

(ii) maintain a current list of supplies, services, and other sales that community service providers and individual with disability owned businesses provide; and

(iii) maintain a current list of supplies and services that Maryland Correctional Enterprises provides;

(2) periodically review and revise the lists of supplies, services, and other sales maintained in accordance with item (1) of this section; and

(3) send the lists, and any revised lists, to the Chief Procurement Officer who shall make the lists available to each person responsible for buying supplies, services, or other sales for the State or a State aided or controlled entity.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-2506 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 25 / Section 14-2506
§14–2506.
Status: in_force

Violation of this subtitle is:

(1) An unfair or deceptive trade practice; and

(2) Subject to the provisions of Title 13 of this article.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-3401 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 34 / Section 14-3401
§14–3401.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Interactive computer service provider” means an entity that provides a service that provides or enables computer access via the Internet by multiple users to a computer server or similar device used for the storage of images, information, or data.

(c) (1) “Person” includes an individual, corporation, business trust, statutory trust, estate, trust, partnership, association, two or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other commercial entity.

(2) “Person” does not include a unit of State or local government.

(d) “Publicly post or display” means to intentionally communicate or otherwise make available to the general public.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-885 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-885
§14–885.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) To be eligible for the Program a homeowner shall:

(i) reside in a dwelling that has an assessed value of $300,000 or less; and

(ii) have a combined income of $60,000 or less.

(2) The Department may establish, by regulation, additional eligibility criteria for enrollment in the Program.

(b) The Department shall establish, by regulation, a process to:

(1) give priority for enrollment in the Program to homeowners who are:

(i) at least 60 years old; or

(ii) currently receiving disability benefits from the federal Social Security Disability Insurance program or the federal Supplemental Security Income program; and

(2) ensure that homeowners are enrolled in the Program who reside in each county in the State.

(c) On or before June 30 each year, the Department shall determine the maximum number of homeowners who may be enrolled in the Program in the next succeeding fiscal year based on the amount of funding available for the Program in the Homeowner Protection Fund established under § 14–891 of this subtitle.

(d) The number of homeowners enrolled in the Program in a fiscal year may not exceed the maximum number determined by the Department under subsection (c) of this section.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-12B-06 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12B / Section 14-12B-06
§14–12B–06.
Status: in_force

(a) A health club services agreement may not contain an automatic renewal clause, unless the agreement provides for a renewal option for continued membership which must be accepted by the buyer.

(b) (1) A buyer described in § 14-12B-01(d)(1)(i) of this subtitle may cancel a health club services agreement within 3 business days after receipt of a copy of the agreement by notifying the health club in writing. Written notification shall be delivered in person or by certified mail, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service, and if mailed shall be postmarked by midnight of the third business day.

(2) If the buyer cancels within 3 business days, the health club facility shall refund any deposit, down payment, or payment on the agreement including any initiation, deposit, membership, or other fees.

(3) Each contract for health club services shall conspicuously disclose under the heading “Notice of Consumer Rights”:

(i) The seller’s health club registration number with the Division;

(ii) A description of whether the seller is bonded and the amount of the bond or, if not bonded, an explanation of the basis for the seller’s exemption from the bonding requirements;

(iii) The buyer’s right to cancel as defined in this section;

(iv) The buyer’s rights in the event of a disability or temporary closing under § 14-12B-04 of this subtitle; and

(v) For those persons who register in accordance with § 14-12B-02(b)(3)(iii) of this subtitle, a statement that the facility does not:

1. Charge an initiation fee or other fee that is not identified as a payment for specific future services;

2. Contractually obligate a buyer of health club services to pay in advance of the date the services are provided to the buyer; or

3. Collect from a buyer of health club services any payment in advance of the date the services are provided to the buyer.

(4) Each contract for the sale of health club services shall contain in a form acceptable to the Division:

(i) A clear and conspicuous itemized description of any fees and charges; and

(ii) If the facility is not in operation, the expected date of opening and a description of the specific services and facilities that will be available upon opening.

(c) A person who registers in accordance with § 14-12B-02(b)(3)(iii) of this subtitle shall post in a clear and conspicuous manner a sign in a prominent location in each health club facility that the person opens or operates that states that the facility does not:

(1) Charge an initiation fee or other fee that is not identified as a payment for specific future services;

(2) Contractually obligate a buyer of health club services to pay in advance of the date the services are provided to the buyer; or

(3) Collect from a buyer of health club services any payment in advance of the date the services are provided to the buyer.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5C-04 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5C / Section 14-5C-04
§14–5C–04.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Board shall set reasonable fees for the issuance of and renewal of licenses and other services it provides to polysomnographic technologists.

(2) The fees charged shall be set so as to produce funds to approximate the cost of maintaining the licensure program and the other services provided to polysomnographic technologists, including the cost of providing a rehabilitation program for polysomnographic technologists under § 14–401.1(g) of this title.

(b) (1) The Board shall pay all fees collected under the provisions of this subtitle to the Comptroller.

(2) The Comptroller shall distribute all fees to the Board.

(c) The fees shall be used to cover the actual documented direct and indirect costs of fulfilling the statutory and regulatory duties of the Board as provided by the provisions of this subtitle.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-2201 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 22 / Section 14-2201
§14–2201.
Status: in_force

Title 4, Subtitle 7 (“Expiration of Local Licenses”) of Division I of this article applies in the county without exception or variation.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-1016 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 10 / Section 14-1016
§14–1016.
Status: in_force

An officer or employee of the State, a county, or municipal corporation who willfully fails to perform a duty required under this article with the intent to prevent the payment or collection of a tax under this article is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 2 years or both.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-1801 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 18 / Section 14-1801
§14–1801.
Status: in_force

(a) The following sections of Title 4, Subtitle 4 (“Renewal of Local Licenses”) of Division I of this article apply in the county without exception or variation:

(1) § 4–402 (“Eligibility for renewal; process”);

(2) § 4–403 (“Renewal application”);

(3) § 4–407 (“Denial of renewal application”);

(4) § 4–408 (“Issuance of renewed licenses”);

(5) § 4–409 (“Multiple licenses”); and

(6) § 4–410 (“Chain store, supermarket, or discount house”).

(b) Section 4–404 (“Filing period for renewal application”) of Division I of this article does not apply in the county and is superseded by § 14–1802 of this subtitle.

(c) The following sections of Title 4, Subtitle 4 (“Renewal of Local Licenses”) of Division I of this article apply in the county:

(1) § 4–405 (“Contents of renewal application”), subject to § 14–1803 of this subtitle; and

(2) § 4–406 (“Protests”), subject to § 14–1804 of this subtitle.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5B-07 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5B / Section 14-5B-07
§14–5B–07.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A licensee may only practice under the supervision of a licensed physician.

(2) The failure of a licensed physician to properly supervise a licensee is unprofessional conduct in the practice of medicine under § 14–404(a)(3) of this title.

(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the practice of a radiation therapist, radiographer, nuclear medicine technologist, or radiologist assistant is limited to those procedures, operations, preparations, and practices listed in regulation.

(2) A radiologist assistant may not:

(i) Interpret images;

(ii) Make diagnoses; or

(iii) Prescribe medications or therapies.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-2602 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 26 / Section 14-2602
§14–2602.
Status: in_force

(a) A person making a door-to-door solicitation for any purpose shall comply with this subtitle.

(b) Violation of this subtitle shall be an unfair or deceptive trade practice.

(c) Any payment, pledge, or promise made as a result of a solicitation made in violation of this subtitle is voidable by the consumer.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-605 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-605
§14–605.
Status: in_force

If any clause, sentence, paragraph, or section of this subtitle shall, for any reason, be adjudged by any court of competent jurisdiction to be unconstitutional and invalid, such judgment shall not affect, impair or invalidate the remainder thereof, but shall be confined in its operation to the clause, sentence, paragraph, or section thereof so found unconstitutional and invalid.
Md. Code, Insurance § 14-139 — MD Code / Article gin / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-139
§14–139.
Status: in_force

(a) An officer, director, or employee of a corporation operating under this subtitle may not:

(1) willfully violate a provision of this article or a regulation adopted under this article;

(2) willfully misrepresent or conceal a material fact in a statement, report, record, or communication provided to the Commissioner;

(3) willfully misrepresent or conceal a material fact to the board of directors;

(4) misappropriate or fail to account properly for money that belongs to the corporation, an insurer, insurance producer, subscriber, or certificate holder;

(5) engage in fraudulent or dishonest practices in connection with the provision or administration of a health service plan;

(6) willfully fail to produce records or allow an examination under § 14-125 of this subtitle; or

(7) willfully fail to comply with a lawful order of the Commissioner.

(b) An officer, director, or trustee of a corporation operating under this subtitle may not receive any immediate or future remuneration as the result of an acquisition or proposed acquisition, as defined under § 6.5-101 of the State Government Article, except in the form of compensation paid for continued employment with the company or acquiring entity.

(c) A director, trustee, officer, executive, or employee of a corporation operating under this subtitle may only approve or receive from the assets of the corporation fair and reasonable compensation in the form of salary, bonuses, or perquisites for work actually performed for the benefit of the corporation.

(d) (1) The compensation committee of the board shall:

(i) identify nonprofit health service plans in the United States that are similar in size and scope to the nonprofit health service plan managed by the board; and

(ii) develop proposed guidelines, for approval by the board:

1. for compensation, including salary, bonuses, and perquisites, of all officers and executives that is reasonable in comparison to compensation for officers and executives of similar nonprofit health service plans; and

2. for compensation for board members that is reasonable in comparison to compensation for board members of similar nonprofit health service plans.

(2) The board shall review the proposed guidelines at least annually.

(3) The board shall:

(i) provide a copy of the approved guidelines:

1. to each officer and executive of the nonprofit health service plan;

2. to each candidate for an officer or executive position with the nonprofit health service plan;

3. to each board member of the nonprofit health service plan; and

4. on or before September 1, 2004, and annually thereafter, to the Commissioner; and

(ii) adhere to the approved guidelines in compensating the officers, executives, and board members of the nonprofit health service plan.

(4) On an annual basis, the Commissioner shall review:

(i) the compensation paid by the nonprofit health service plan to each officer and executive; and

(ii) the base compensation and compensation for attendance at meetings paid by the nonprofit health service plan to board members.

(5) If the Commissioner finds that the compensation exceeds the amount authorized under the approved guidelines, the Commissioner shall issue an order prohibiting payment of the excess amount.

(e) The approval or receipt of remuneration in violation of an order issued under subsection (d)(5) of this section is a violation of § 14-115(c) of this subtitle and shall be considered an unsound or unsafe business practice under § 14-116 of this subtitle.

(f) (1) Except for an employee under subsection (c) of this section, a person that violates subsection (a) or (c) of this section is subject to a civil penalty not exceeding $10,000 for each violation.

(2) Instead of or in addition to imposing a civil penalty, the Commissioner may require the violator to make restitution to any person that has suffered financial injury as a result of the violation.

(g) In determining the amount of financial penalty to be imposed, the Commissioner shall consider:

(1) the seriousness of the violation;

(2) the good faith of the violator;

(3) the violator’s history of previous violations;

(4) the deleterious effect of the violation on the public and the nonprofit health service industry; and

(5) the assets of the violator.

(h) (1) Before assessing a civil penalty or restitution, the Commissioner shall serve by certified mail, return receipt requested, on the person to be charged a notice that contains:

(i) the specifications of the charge; and

(ii) the time and place of a hearing to be held on the charges.

(2) The Commissioner shall hold a hearing on the charges at least 20 days after the date of mailing the notice.

(3) The Commissioner or designee of the Commissioner shall conduct a hearing on the charges in accordance with Title 2, Subtitle 2 of this article.

(4) Subject to Title 2, Subtitle 2 of this article, an appeal may be taken from a final order of the Commissioner to the Circuit Court for Baltimore City.

(i) In addition to any other penalty or remedy under this section, a person that is found to have gained financially from a violation of a provision of this article or a regulation adopted by the Commissioner shall forfeit the gain.

(j) This section does not prevent a person damaged by a director, officer, manager, employee, or agent of a corporation subject to this subtitle from bringing a separate action in a court of competent jurisdiction.
Md. Code, Estates and Trusts § 14-601 — MD Code / Article get / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-601
§14–601.
Status: in_force

(a) The definitions in § 14.5–103 of this article apply in this subtitle.

(b) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(c) (1) “Authorized fiduciary” means a trustee or other fiduciary, other than a settlor, who has discretion to distribute or direct a trustee to distribute all or part of the principal of the first trust to a beneficiary.

(2) “Authorized fiduciary” includes:

(i) A special fiduciary appointed under § 14–606 of this subtitle; and

(ii) A special needs fiduciary, as defined in § 14–610 of this subtitle.

(d) “Charitable interest” means an interest in a trust that:

(1) Is held by an identified charitable organization and makes the organization a qualified beneficiary;

(2) Benefits only charitable organizations and, if the interest were held by an identified charitable organization, would make the organization a qualified beneficiary; or

(3) Is held solely for charitable purposes and, if the interest were held by an identified charitable organization, would make the organization a qualified beneficiary.

(e) “Charitable organization” means:

(1) A person, other than an individual, organized and operated exclusively for charitable purposes; or

(2) A government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality that holds funds exclusively for charitable purposes.

(f) “Court” means the court in this State having jurisdiction in matters relating to trusts.

(g) (1) “Current beneficiary” means a beneficiary that, on the date the beneficiary’s qualification is determined, is a distributee or permissible distributee of trust income or principal.

(2) “Current beneficiary” includes a person who is a beneficiary solely because the person holds a presently exercisable general power of appointment.

(3) “Current beneficiary” does not include a person who is a beneficiary only because the person holds a power of appointment other than a presently exercisable general power of appointment.

(h) “Decanting power” means the power of an authorized fiduciary to distribute property of a first trust to one or more second trusts or to modify the terms of a first trust.

(i) “Expanded distributive discretion” means a discretionary power of distribution that is not limited to an ascertainable standard or a reasonably definite standard.

(j) “First trust” means a trust over which an authorized fiduciary may exercise decanting power.

(k) “First trust instrument” means the trust instrument of a first trust.

(l) “Powerholder” means a person in which a settlor creates a power of appointment.

(m) (1) “Presently exercisable power of appointment” means a power of appointment exercisable by the powerholder at the relevant time.

(2) “Presently exercisable power of appointment” includes a power of appointment exercisable only after the occurrence of a specified event, the satisfaction of an ascertainable standard, or the passage of a specified time only after:

(i) The occurrence of the specified event;

(ii) The satisfaction of the ascertainable standard; or

(iii) The passage of the specified time.

(3) “Presently exercisable power of appointment” does not include a power exercisable only at the powerholder’s death.

(n) “Reasonably definite standard” means a clearly measurable standard under which a holder of a power of distribution is legally accountable within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. § 674(b)(5)(A) and any applicable regulations.

(o) “Record” means information that is:

(1) Inscribed on a tangible medium; or

(2) (i) Stored in an electronic or other medium; and

(ii) Retrievable in perceivable form.

(p) “Second trust” means:

(1) A first trust which has been modified under this title; or

(2) A trust to which a distribution of property from a first trust has or may be made under this title.

(q) “Second trust instrument” means the trust instrument of a second trust.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-1102 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 11 / Section 14-1102
§14–1102.
Status: in_force

(a) There is a Maryland Food System Resiliency Council in the Office of Resilience in the Department.

(b) The Council consists of the following members:

(1) one member of the Senate of Maryland, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(2) one member of the House of Delegates, appointed by the Speaker of the House;

(3) the Secretary, or the Secretary’s designee;

(4) the Secretary of Human Services, or the Secretary’s designee;

(5) the Secretary of Agriculture, or the Secretary’s designee;

(6) the Secretary of Commerce, or the Secretary’s designee;

(7) the Executive Director of the Maryland Farm Bureau, or the Executive Director’s designee;

(8) the Executive Director of the Maryland Agricultural and Resource–Based Industry Development Corporation, or the Executive Director’s designee;

(9) the Dean of the University of Maryland College of Agriculture and Natural Resources, or the Dean’s designee; and

(10) the following members appointed by the Secretary:

(i) five representatives of five different food council organizations who are recommended by members of food council organizations;

(ii) one representative of the University of Maryland Extension;

(iii) one representative of the University of Maryland Eastern Shore Small Farm Program;

(iv) one representative of the Harry R. Hughes Center for Agro–Ecology;

(v) one representative of a public school system in the State who has experience in food security and local food procurement;

(vi) one representative of a statewide food security advocacy organization;

(vii) one farmer in the State;

(viii) one representative of the seafood industry;

(ix) one owner of a food business in the State;

(x) one expert in food system policy;

(xi) one expert on racial equity in the food system;

(xii) one expert on food system impacts on climate and the environment;

(xiii) one expert on food nutrition and public health; and

(xiv) any other individual that the Secretary deems appropriate.

(c) The Secretary shall:

(1) ensure that all five geographic areas of the State are represented by the appointed members of the Council; and

(2) appoint a successor in the event of a vacancy on the Council.

(d) (1) (i) The term of a member of the Council appointed by the Secretary is 3 years.

(ii) An appointed member may not serve for more than two consecutive 3–year terms.

(2) At the end of a term, a member continues to serve until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(3) A member who is appointed after a term has begun shall serve for the rest of the term or until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(e) A member of the Council:

(1) may not receive compensation as a member of the Council; but

(2) is entitled to reimbursement for expenses under the Standard State Travel Regulations, as provided in the State Budget.

(f) A majority of the members then serving on the Council is a quorum.

(g) (1) (i) The Secretary, or the Secretary’s designee, and one member who is elected in accordance with subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph shall cochair the Council.

(ii) At the first meeting of each year, the Council shall elect a cochair from among the Council members for a term of 1 year.

(2) The Secretary of Agriculture, or the Secretary’s designee, the Secretary of Human Services, or the Secretary’s designee, and the Dean of the University of Maryland College of Agriculture and Natural Resources, or the Dean’s designee shall co–vice chair the Council.

(h) (1) The Council may establish subcommittees to provide technical assistance to the Council.

(2) The Council may establish subcommittee topics and membership as the Council deems appropriate.

(i) The Department shall provide staff for the Council.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-705 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-705
§14–705.
Status: in_force

Any person who in any manner advertises a secondhand watch for sale shall state clearly in the advertisement that the watch is a secondhand watch.
Md. Code, Criminal Procedure § 14-105 — MD Code / Article gcp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-105
§14–105.
Status: in_force

(a) The Commission may reprimand or recommend to the Governor the removal of the State Prosecutor if, after a hearing, the Commission finds that the State Prosecutor is guilty of:

(1) misconduct in office;

(2) persistent failure to perform the duties of the office; or

(3) conduct prejudicial to the proper administration of justice.

(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the proceedings, testimony, and other evidence before the Commission are confidential and privileged.

(2) On taking final action, the Commission may make its order and the proceedings, testimony, and other evidence public.

(c) (1) On complaint or on its own initiative, the Commission may investigate allegations against the State Prosecutor that may warrant removal or reprimand.

(2) The Commission may:

(i) conduct hearings;

(ii) administer oaths and affirmations;

(iii) issue process to compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of evidence; and

(iv) require a person to testify and produce evidence by granting the person immunity from prosecution, penalty, or forfeiture.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1916 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 19 / Section 14-1916
§14–1916.
Status: in_force

This subtitle may be cited as the “Maryland Credit Services Businesses Act”.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1905 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 19 / Section 14-1905
§14–1905.
Status: in_force

(a) The information statement required under § 14-1904 of this subtitle shall include:

(1) An accurate statement of the consumer’s right to review any file on the consumer maintained by any consumer reporting agency, and the right of the consumer to receive a copy of a consumer report containing all information in that file as provided under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. § 1681g) and under § 14-1206 of this title;

(2) A statement that a copy of the consumer report containing all information in the consumer’s file will be furnished free of charge by the consumer reporting agency if requested by the consumer within 30 days of receiving a notice of a denial of credit as provided under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. § 1681j) and under § 14-1209 of this title;

(3) A statement that a nominal charge not to exceed $5 may be imposed on the consumer by the consumer reporting agency for a copy of the consumer report containing all the information in the consumer’s file, if the consumer has not been denied credit within 30 days from receipt of the consumer’s request;

(4) A complete and accurate statement of the consumer’s right to dispute the completeness or accuracy of any item on the consumer contained in any file that is maintained by any consumer reporting agency, as provided under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. § 1681i) and under § 14-1208 of this title;

(5) A complete and detailed description of the services to be performed by the credit services business for or on behalf of the consumer, and the total amount the consumer will have to pay for the services; and

(6) A statement that accurately reported information may not be permanently removed from the file of a consumer reporting agency.

(b) A credit services business required to obtain a license pursuant to § 14-1902 of this subtitle shall include in the information statement required under § 14-1904 of this subtitle:

(1) A statement of the consumer’s right to file a complaint pursuant to § 14-1911 of this subtitle;

(2) The address of the Commissioner where such complaints should be filed; and

(3) A statement that a bond exists and the consumer’s right to proceed against the bond under the circumstances and in the manner set forth in § 14-1910 of this subtitle.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5B-13 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5B / Section 14-5B-13
§14–5B–13.
Status: in_force

Unless a disciplinary panel agrees to accept the surrender of a license, a licensee may not surrender the license and the license may not lapse by operation of law while the licensee is under investigation or while charges are pending against the licensee.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-319 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-319
§14–319.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as otherwise provided in § 10-226 of the State Government Article, before the Board takes any final action under § 14-317 of this subtitle, it shall give the individual against whom the action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing before the Board.

(2) A hearing shall be set down within a reasonable time, not exceeding 6 months, after the Board brings charges against a licensee.

(b) The Board shall give notice and hold the hearing in accordance with Title 10, Subtitle 2 of the State Government Article.

(c) The Board may administer oaths in connection with any proceeding under this section.

(d) At least 30 days before the hearing, the hearing notice and a copy of the complaint shall be:

(1) served personally on the individual; or

(2) mailed to the last known address of the individual.

(e) The individual may be represented at the hearing by counsel.

(f) If, after due notice, the individual against whom the action is contemplated fails or refuses to appear, nevertheless the Board may hear and determine the matter.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4004 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 40 / Section 14-4004
§14–4004.
Status: in_force

A violation of this subtitle is:

(1) An unfair or deceptive trade practice within the meaning of Title 13 of this article; and

(2) Subject to the enforcement and penalty provisions contained in Title 13 of this article.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-12B-01 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12B / Section 14-12B-01
§14–12B–01.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) (1) “Business day” means Monday through Friday.

(2) “Business day” includes Saturday if:

(i) The seller of health club services is open to members on Saturday; and

(ii) The health club services contract specifically identifies Saturday as a business day for purposes of the cancellation provisions of this subtitle.

(3) “Business day” does not include legal holidays.

(c) “Division” means the Consumer Protection Division of the Office of the Attorney General.

(d) (1) “Health club services agreement” means an agreement under which:

(i) The buyer of a health club service purchases, or becomes obligated to purchase, health club services to be rendered over a period longer than 3 months;

(ii) The seller of a health club services agreement collects more than 3 months’ payment in advance; and

(iii) The service to be rendered under the agreement is for personal, family, or household use.

(2) “Health club services agreement” includes agreements for services rendered by a health spa, figure salon, weight reduction center, self defense school, or other physical culture service enterprises offering facilities for the preservation, maintenance, encouragement, or development of physical fitness or physical well–being.

(3) “Health club services agreement” does not include agreements for services rendered by:

(i) Any nonprofit public or private school, college, or university;

(ii) The State, or any of its political subdivisions; or

(iii) Any nonprofit religious, ethnic, community, or service organization.