Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-3504 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 35 / Section 14-3504
§14–3504.
Status: in_force

(a) In this section:

(1) “Breach of the security of a system” means the unauthorized acquisition of computerized data that compromises the security, confidentiality, or integrity of the personal information maintained by a business; and

(2) “Breach of the security of a system” does not include the good faith acquisition of personal information by an employee or agent of a business for the purposes of the business, provided that the personal information is not used or subject to further unauthorized disclosure.

(b) (1) A business that owns, licenses, or maintains computerized data that includes personal information of an individual residing in the State, when it discovers or is notified that it incurred a breach of the security of a system, shall conduct in good faith a reasonable and prompt investigation to determine the likelihood that personal information of the individual has been or will be misused as a result of the breach.

(2) Subject to subsection (c)(4) of this section, unless the business reasonably determines that the breach of the security of the system does not create a likelihood that personal information has been or will be misused, the owner or licensee of the computerized data shall notify the individual of the breach.

(3) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, the notification required under paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be given as soon as reasonably practicable, but not later than 45 days after the business discovers or is notified of the breach of the security of a system.

(4) If after the investigation required under paragraph (1) of this subsection is concluded, the business determines that notification under paragraph (2) of this subsection is not required, the business shall maintain records that reflect its determination for 3 years after the determination is made.

(c) (1) A business that maintains computerized data that includes personal information of an individual residing in the State that the business does not own or license, when it discovers or is notified of a breach of the security of a system, shall notify, as soon as practicable, the owner or licensee of the personal information of the breach of the security of a system.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, the notification required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be given as soon as reasonably practicable, but not later than 10 days after the business discovers or is notified of the breach of the security of a system.

(3) A business that is required to notify an owner or licensee of personal information of a breach of the security of a system under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall share with the owner or licensee information relative to the breach.

(4) (i) If the business that incurred the breach of the security of a system is not the owner or licensee of the computerized data, the business may not charge the owner or licensee of the computerized data a fee for providing information that the owner or licensee needs to make a notification under subsection (b)(2) of this section.

(ii) The owner or licensee of the computerized data may not use information relative to the breach of the security of a system for purposes other than:

1. Providing notification of the breach;

2. Protecting or securing personal information; or

3. Providing notification to national information security organizations created for information–sharing and analysis of security threats, to alert and avert new or expanded breaches.

(d) (1) The notification required under subsections (b) and (c) of this section may be delayed:

(i) If a law enforcement agency determines that the notification will impede a criminal investigation or jeopardize homeland or national security; or

(ii) To determine the scope of the breach of the security of a system, identify the individuals affected, or restore the integrity of the system.

(2) If notification is delayed under paragraph (1)(i) of this subsection, notification shall be given as soon as reasonably practicable, but not later than:

(i) For a notification required under subsection (b) of this section:

1. 7 days after the law enforcement agency determines that it will not impede a criminal investigation and will not jeopardize homeland or national security if the original 45–day period has already elapsed; or

2. The end of the original 45–day period; or

(ii) For a notification required under subsection (c) of this section, 7 days after the law enforcement agency determines that it will not impede a criminal investigation and will not jeopardize homeland or national security.

(e) The notification required under subsection (b) of this section shall be given:

(1) By written notice sent to the most recent address of the individual in the records of the business;

(2) By electronic mail to the most recent electronic mail address of the individual in the records of the business, if:

(i) The individual has expressly consented to receive electronic notice; or

(ii) The business conducts its business primarily through Internet account transactions or the Internet;

(3) By telephonic notice, to the most recent telephone number of the individual in the records of the business; or

(4) By substitute notice if the business does not have sufficient contact information to give notice in accordance with item (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection.

(f) Substitute notice under subsection (e)(4) of this section shall consist of:

(1) Electronically mailing the notice to an individual entitled to notification under subsection (b) of this section, if the business has an electronic mail address for the individual to be notified;

(2) Conspicuous posting of the notice on the website of the business, if the business maintains a website; and

(3) Notification to major print or broadcast media in geographic areas where the individuals affected by the breach likely reside.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (i) of this section, the notification required under subsection (b) of this section shall include:

(1) To the extent possible, a description of the categories of information that were, or are reasonably believed to have been, acquired by an unauthorized person, including which of the elements of personal information were, or are reasonably believed to have been, acquired;

(2) Contact information for the business making the notification, including the business’ address, telephone number, and toll–free telephone number if one is maintained;

(3) The toll–free telephone numbers and addresses for the major consumer reporting agencies; and

(4) (i) The toll–free telephone numbers, addresses, and website addresses for:

1. The Federal Trade Commission; and

2. The Office of the Attorney General; and

(ii) A statement that an individual can obtain information from these sources about steps the individual can take to avoid identity theft.

(h) (1) Prior to giving the notification required under subsection (b) of this section and subject to subsection (d) of this section, a business shall provide notice of a breach of the security of a system to the Office of the Attorney General.

(2) The notice required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include, at a minimum:

(i) The number of affected individuals residing in the State;

(ii) A description of the breach of the security of a system, including when and how it occurred;

(iii) Any steps the business has taken or plans to take relating to the breach of the security of a system; and

(iv) The form of notice that will be sent to affected individuals and a sample notice.

(i) (1) In the case of a breach of the security of a system involving personal information that permits access to an individual’s e–mail account under § 14–3501(e)(1)(ii) of this subtitle and no other personal information under § 14–3501(e)(1)(i) of this subtitle, the business may comply with the notification requirement under subsection (b) of this section by providing the notification in electronic or other form that directs the individual whose personal information has been breached promptly to:

(i) Change the individual’s password and security question or answer, as applicable; or

(ii) Take other steps appropriate to protect the e–mail account with the business and all other online accounts for which the individual uses the same user name or e–mail and password or security question or answer.

(2) Subject to paragraph (3) of this subsection, the notification provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection may be given to the individual by any method described in this section.

(3) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph, the notification provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection may not be given to the individual by sending notification by e–mail to the e–mail account affected by the breach.

(ii) The notification provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection may be given by a clear and conspicuous notice delivered to the individual online while the individual is connected to the affected e–mail account from an Internet Protocol address or online location from which the business knows the individual customarily accesses the account.

(j) A waiver of any provision of this section is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable.

(k) Compliance with this section does not relieve a business from a duty to comply with any other requirements of federal law relating to the protection and privacy of personal information.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-845 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-845
§14–845.
Status: in_force

(a) A court in the State may not reopen a judgment rendered in a tax sale foreclosure proceeding except on the ground of lack of jurisdiction or fraud in the conduct of the proceedings to foreclose; however, no reopening of any judgment on the ground of constructive fraud in the conduct of the proceedings to foreclose shall be entertained by any court unless an application to reopen a judgment rendered is filed within 1 year from the date of the judgment.

(b) If the judgment of the court foreclosing all rights of redemption is set aside, the amount required to redeem is the amount required by this subtitle, and in addition, the reasonable value, at the date the judgment is set aside, of all improvements made on the property and all costs incurred with respect to development of the property by the purchaser and the purchaser’s successors in interest.

(c) With respect to abandoned property that is subject to § 14–817(c) of this subtitle:

(1) a defendant or any person described in § 14–836(b)(1) or (4)(i) of this subtitle may file an action to recover damages on the ground of inadequate notice within 3 years after the date of judgment foreclosing rights of redemption;

(2) damages in an action under item (1) of this subsection may not exceed the fair market value of that person’s interest in the property at the time of the sale; and

(3) a person may not file to reopen a judgment foreclosing rights of redemption based on inadequate notice.

(d) A court in the State may not reopen a judgment rendered in a foreclosure proceeding instituted by the Mayor and City Council of Baltimore City under former Article 81, §§ 117 through 121 of the Code unless an application to reopen the judgment is filed on or before June 30, 1987. After June 30, 1987, any judgment rendered under former Article 81, §§ 117 through 121 of the Code shall be deemed conclusively to have been ratified by all persons who might otherwise have grounds to object to the judgment.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4901 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 49 / Section 14-4901
§14–4901.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Closed–loop gift card” means a card, code, or device that is:

(1) Issued to a consumer on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes in a specified amount, regardless of whether that amount may be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment; and

(2) Redeemable on presentation by a consumer at a single merchant or a group of affiliated merchants.

(c) “Division” has the meaning stated in § 13–101 of this article.

(d) “Merchant” has the meaning stated in § 13–101 of this article.

(e) “Open–loop gift card” means a card, code, or device that is:

(1) Issued to a consumer on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes in a specified amount, regardless of whether that amount may be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment;

(2) Payment card network branded; and

(3) (i) Redeemable on presentation at multiple unaffiliated merchants for goods or services within the payment card network; or

(ii) Usable at an automated teller machine.

(f) “Third–party gift card reseller” means a merchant who, without authorization from or affiliation with the business entity issuing an open– or a closed–loop gift card, is engaged in the business of:

(1) Buying open– or closed–loop gift cards on behalf of consumers; or

(2) Reselling open– or closed–loop gift cards to consumers.
Md. Code, Education § 14-411 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-411
§14–411.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Fund” means the Higher Education Investment Fund established in § 15–106.6 of this article.

(3) “Grant” means the DeSousa–Brent Scholars Completion Grant.

(b) There is a DeSousa–Brent Scholars Completion Grant to St. Mary’s College of Maryland.

(c) The purpose of the Grant is to increase the retention and graduation rates of DeSousa–Brent scholars at St. Mary’s College of Maryland.

(d) For fiscal years 2014 through 2019, the Governor shall appropriate the following grant amounts from the Fund to St. Mary’s College of Maryland:

(1) $300,000 in fiscal year 2014;

(2) $550,000 in fiscal year 2015; and

(3) $800,000 in each of fiscal years 2016 through 2019.

(e) For fiscal years 2015 through 2020, except as provided in subsection (f) of this section, the prior fiscal year’s appropriation from the Fund made under this section may not be included in the calculation under § 14–405 of this subtitle.

(f) The fiscal year 2019 appropriation from the Fund shall be included in the calculation under § 14–405 of this subtitle for the fiscal year 2020 General Fund grant appropriation if:

(1) The first– to second–year retention rate for the fall 2015 cohort of the DeSousa–Brent scholars is at least 88%;

(2) The first– to third–year retention rate for the fall 2015 cohort of the DeSousa–Brent scholars is at least 79%; and

(3) The four–year graduation rate for the fall 2015 cohort of the DeSousa–Brent scholars is at least 70%.

(g) On or before December 1 of each year St. Mary’s College of Maryland shall report to the Governor and, in accordance with § 2–1257 of the State Government Article, the General Assembly the retention and graduation rates of DeSousa–Brent scholars.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-108 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-108
§14–108.
Status: in_force

(a) After a state of emergency is declared in another state and the Governor receives a written request for assistance from the executive authority of that state, the Governor may:

(1) authorize use in the other state of personnel, equipment, supplies, or materials of this State, or of a political subdivision with the consent of the executive officer or governing body of the political subdivision; and

(2) suspend the effect of any statute or rule or regulation of an agency of the State or, after consulting with the executive officer or governing body of a political subdivision, a rule or regulation of an agency of a political subdivision, if the Governor finds that the suspension is necessary to aid the other state with its emergency management functions.

(b) (1) The Governor shall authorize the use of resources or the suspension of the effect of any statute, rule, or regulation under subsection (a) of this section by executive order.

(2) An executive order issued under this section may not continue for longer than 30 days unless the Governor renews the executive order.

(3) Each executive order issued under this section shall indicate:

(i) the nature of the emergency in the other state; and

(ii) any circumstances that make suspension of a statute, rule, or regulation necessary to aid the other state with its emergency management functions.

(4) Each executive order shall be:

(i) disseminated promptly by means calculated to publicize its contents; and

(ii) filed promptly with:

1. the Department;

2. the State Archives; and

3. each agency of the State or a political subdivision that is authorized by the order to use resources in the other state or responsible for the enforcement of any provisions that are suspended by the executive order.
Md. Code, Education § 14-103 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-103
§14–103.
Status: in_force

(a) Each year the Board of Regents:

(1) Shall elect one of its nonstudent members as its chairman; and

(2) May elect any other officer it requires.

(b) The Board of Regents shall determine the time and place of its meetings and may adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings.

(c) (1) A majority of the voting members shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.

(2) No formal action may be taken by the Board of Regents without the approval of a majority of the voting members of the Board of Regents.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-1202 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1202
§14–1202.
Status: in_force

(a) The head of the Office of Resilience is the Chief Resilience Officer, who shall be appointed by and serve at the pleasure of the Secretary.

(b) The Chief Resilience Officer is in the executive service of the State Personnel Management System and is entitled to the salary provided in the State budget.

(c) The Chief Resilience Officer is responsible for coordinating State and local efforts to build resilience to risks identified in the Maryland Hazard Mitigation Plan.

(d) The duties of the Chief Resilience Officer include:

(1) coordinating State and local efforts to build resilience to risks identified in the Maryland Hazard Mitigation Plan;

(2) developing a State Resilience Strategy and assisting local agencies in their efforts to prepare and implement resilience strategies;

(3) coordinating across State and local agencies to prepare and implement resilience strategies;

(4) identifying, securing, and assisting in accessing federal, State, and private funding streams and technical assistance that can be used to support State and local resilience efforts;

(5) working with business leaders from industries vulnerable to the risks to identify best practices for preparing for and responding to risks; and

(6) ensuring that investments prioritize vulnerable communities and environmental justice.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-502 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-502
§14–502.
Status: in_force

(a) Maryland’s coastal area, which borders the Atlantic Ocean and the Chesapeake Bay, is rich in a variety of natural, commercial, recreational, industrial, and esthetic resources. These resources possess great immediate as well as potential value for the State and the nation as a whole. However, the coastal area and the fish, shellfish, and other living marine resources and wildlife contained therein are ecologically fragile. They constitute a unique, irreplaceable, natural, and esthetic resource of great economic value.

(b) Extraction of mineral resources and fossil fuels from the Baltimore Canyon Trough and elsewhere may create immediate, increasing, and competing demands upon the lands and waters of the State’s coastal area. The interests of the State and the nation require a method of resolving these competing demands which will give a high priority to the natural systems of the coastal zone and promote the public health, safety and welfare.

(c) Certain facilities associated with extraction and refining of mineral and fossil fuel resources may adversely affect the State’s interest if they are located in the coastal area without an adequate planning of their impact and without sufficient safeguards. The State, therefore, requires a system of assessing the economic, fiscal, social, cultural, and environmental impacts associated with the establishment of such facilities, as a lack of proper assessment may cause irreparable damage to the integrity of the coastal area if these facilities are established in the coastal area.

(d) Meeting the energy requirements of the State and nation and planning for the proper use or development of the coastal area is imperative. To that end the State is developing a coastal zone management plan, pursuant to the federal Coastal Zone Management Act of 1972, which will recommend permissible land and water uses within the coastal zone and which must provide for adequate consideration of the national interest in the siting of facilities necessary to meet requirements which are other than local in nature, and which must further provide for a method of assuring that local land and water use regulations within the coastal zone do not unreasonably restrict or exclude land and water uses of regional benefit. It is in the State’s interest that all parties including all units of State government, county government, the federal government, business, industry, and the public at large participate in planning the uses for Maryland’s coastal area. The completion of the plans will enable Maryland to properly use, develop, and protect the coastal area.

(e) Without adequate planning, the establishment of certain oil–related facilities in the coastal area may have an immediate impact on the environmental, economic, fiscal, social and cultural well–being of the people residing in the area where these facilities are established. Therefore, local concern should be reflected in making decisions as to location of these facilities and to that end, county governments should be actively involved in the planning for the coastal areas. If, however, the extent of oil–related facilities contemplated affects environmental, economic, social, and cultural factors beyond the borders of the particular subdivision involved, in addition to involving potential expenditure of State funds in excess of tax revenues derived from the facilities, then the State interest and the national interest become a factor in the consideration of where these oil–related facilities shall be located.

(f) The national public interest in assuring adequate facilities for the production of energy resources requires that the State and local governments promptly and expeditiously assess the impact of these facilities and determine, at the earliest practicable time, whether to grant necessary State and local authorizations.

(g) The foregoing subsections constitute the findings and intent of the General Assembly in enacting provisions for comprehensive State review prior to permitting the establishment of certain facilities within Maryland’s coastal area, and to that end this subtitle may be cited as the “Coastal Facilities Review Act”.
Md. Code, Criminal Procedure § 14-108 — MD Code / Article gcp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-108
§14–108.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, if the State Prosecutor finds that an alleged violation of the criminal law set forth in § 14–107 of this title has occurred, the State Prosecutor shall make a confidential report of the findings and any recommendations for prosecution to the Attorney General and the State’s Attorney for the county in which jurisdiction exists to prosecute the matter.

(2) A report of the findings and recommendations regarding allegations of offenses committed by a State’s Attorney need not be made to that State’s Attorney.

(b) (1) If the State Prosecutor finds that there has not been a violation of criminal law or the State Prosecutor does not recommend prosecution, the State Prosecutor shall report the findings to the person who requested the investigation.

(2) If the General Assembly requested the investigation, the report shall be made to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Delegates.

(3) On request of the person who was the subject of the investigation, the report shall be made available to the public as soon as possible.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-621 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-621
§14–621.
Status: in_force

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subtitle, a judgment in an action under this subtitle is not binding or conclusive on:

(1) The State, unless individually joined as a party to the action and State law authorizes the judgment to be binding or conclusive as to its interests; or

(2) The United States, unless the United States is individually joined as a party to the action and federal law authorizes the judgment to be binding or conclusive as to its interests.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-101 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-101
§14–101.
Status: in_force

(a) In this title the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Affiliate” means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, a permit holder.

(c) “Board” means the State Board for Professional Engineers.

(d) “Council” means the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying.

(e) “Design coordination” means the review and coordination of services provided by individuals licensed or certified under Titles 3, 8, 9, 14, and 15 of this article.

(f) “License” means, unless the context requires otherwise, a license issued by the Board to practice engineering.

(g) “License fee” means, as applicable, the fee paid in connection with the issuance and renewal of a license and the issuance of a reciprocal license.

(h) “Managing agent” means a professional engineer designated as the managing agent by a permit holder under § 14–403 of this title.

(i) “Permit” means, unless the context requires otherwise, a permit issued by the Board to allow a corporation, partnership, or limited liability company to operate a business through which one or more professional engineers may practice engineering.

(j) (1) “Practice engineering” means to provide any service or creative work the performance of which requires education, training, and experience in the application of:

(i) special knowledge of the mathematical, physical, and engineering sciences; and

(ii) the principles and methods of engineering analysis and design.

(2) In regard to a building or other structure, machine, equipment, process, works, system, project, or public or private utility, “practice engineering” includes:

(i) consultation;

(ii) design;

(iii) evaluation;

(iv) inspection of construction to ensure compliance with specifications and drawings;

(v) investigation;

(vi) planning; and

(vii) design coordination.

(3) “Practice engineering” does not include the exclusive and sole performance of nontechnical management activities.

(k) “Professional engineer” means, unless the context requires otherwise, an engineer who is licensed by the Board to practice engineering.

(l) (1) “Responsible charge” means direct control and personal supervision of engineering that requires initiative, professional skill, and independent judgment.

(2) “Responsible charge” includes responsible engineering teaching.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-707 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-707
§14–707.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Department shall develop and maintain a directory of all certified local farms and certified Chesapeake invasive species providers.

(2) The directory shall be accessible to the public on the Department’s website.

(b) The Department shall include the following information for each certified local farm and certified Chesapeake invasive species provider included in the directory:

(1) all contract information available to the Department for the certified local farm or certified Chesapeake invasive species provider;

(2) the certification number of the certified local farm or certified Chesapeake invasive species provider; and

(3) any other information the Department considers necessary or appropriate to encourage participation in the procurement process by local farms and Chesapeake invasive species providers.

(c) The Department shall:

(1) update the directory at least once a year; and

(2) identify as recently certified in the directory each local farm and Chesapeake invasive species provider that has obtained certification during the calendar year.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-504 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-504
§14–504.
Status: in_force

(a) To carry out the requirements of this subtitle, the Administration:

(1) may collect energy–related data in order to inform evaluations and decisions regarding energy by the Administration, State and federal agencies, and, subject to the requirements of subsection (c) of this section, the public;

(2) may maintain up–to–date reports on the supply, demand, and price of various energy resources, including:

(i) State fuel security products;

(ii) wholesale electricity, including electricity generated from:

1. nuclear generation;

2. solar photovoltaic technology; and

3. wind, including offshore wind;

(iii) coal;

(iv) natural gas; and

(v) petroleum; and

(3) shall coordinate with the Department of Emergency Management to develop an information distribution plan to disseminate energy–related information to the general public and relevant State and federal agencies.

(b) (1) The Administration shall coordinate with the Department of Information Technology to ensure that data collected under subsection (a)(1) of this section is transmitted and held securely.

(2) (i) Data disseminated to the public under subsection (a)(3) of this section may not create a competitive advantage for or disadvantage to the person who supplied the energy–related data.

(ii) The Administration shall maintain the confidentiality of all data that may create a competitive advantage or disadvantage that is unknown to competitors.

(iii) If the data collected under this subtitle is stolen, breached, compromised, or otherwise released in a manner other than that authorized under subsection (a)(3) of this section, the Administration shall inform all parties that provided the data within 72 hours after learning of the release.

(c) In maintaining the reports described in subsection (a)(2) of this section, the Administration shall use data available from existing State and federal sources to the extent practicable.

(d) In order to carry out the provisions of this section, the Administration may require a prime supplier, supplier, or wholesale purchaser–reseller to provide necessary information in a form determined by the Administration.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-407 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-407
§14–407.
Status: in_force

(a) It is the policy of the State to encourage:

(1) A guarantor voluntarily to establish procedures whereby a guaranty dispute is fairly and expeditiously settled through informal dispute settlement procedures; and

(2) A provider voluntarily to establish procedures whereby a service contract dispute is fairly and expeditiously settled through informal dispute settlement procedures.

(b) A guarantor or provider who establishes informal dispute settlement procedures may elect to settle guaranty disputes or service contract disputes, as the case may be, in cooperation with any private agency or the Consumer Protection Division of the Attorney General’s office.

(c) The guarantor or provider is liable to the person guaranteed for any wrongful breach of a guaranty or wrongful breach of a service contract, as the case may be, and is under a duty to:

(1) Perform as required under this subtitle; and

(2) Compensate the person guaranteed for all reasonable incidental expenses incurred as a result of the breach.

(d) (1) If the guarantor or provider breaches any duties under this subtitle, the person guaranteed may file an action in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) (i) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, if the person guaranteed prevails in an action filed under this subsection, the court shall include in the amount of the judgment a sum equal to the aggregate amount of costs and expenses which have been reasonably incurred by the person guaranteed for or in connection with the action filed.

(ii) These costs and expenses shall include attorney’s fees based on actual time expended, unless the court finds that an award of attorney’s fees would be inappropriate.

(3) The person guaranteed is not entitled to costs and expenses, if:

(i) The guarantor or provider affords the person guaranteed a reasonable opportunity to settle informally in accordance with subsection (a) of this section; and

(ii) The person guaranteed fails to so settle.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-822 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-822
§14–822.
Status: in_force

The purchaser may record the certificate of sale and any assignment of the certificate of sale among the land records of the county in which the property is located, but failure to record does not affect the right to institute foreclosure proceedings as provided in this subtitle.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5D-11.5 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5D / Section 14-5D-11.5
§14–5D–11.
Status: in_force

§14–5D–11.5.

(a) (1) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (d) of this section, each employer of a licensed athletic trainer shall submit to the Board a report if:

(i) The employer:

1. Reduced, suspended, revoked, restricted, denied, conditioned, or did not renew the licensed athletic trainer’s clinical privileges, employment, or other ability to practice or treat patients;

2. Involuntarily terminated or restricted the licensed athletic trainer’s employment or staff membership; or

3. Asked the licensed athletic trainer to voluntarily resign because of the licensed athletic trainer’s conduct or while the licensed athletic trainer is being investigated; and

(ii) The action described under item (i) of this paragraph was taken:

1. For reasons that might be grounds for disciplinary action under § 14–5D–14 of this subtitle;

2. Because the licensed athletic trainer may have engaged in an act that may constitute unprofessional conduct;

3. Because the licensed athletic trainer may be unable to practice athletic training with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental condition or professional incompetence; or

4. Because the licensed athletic trainer may have harmed or placed one or more patients or the public at unreasonable risk of harm by engaging in an act that creates an immediate or continuing danger.

(2) A report required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include:

(i) The action taken by the employer;

(ii) A detailed explanation of the reasons for the action, including references to specific patient medical records, if any, that informed the employer’s action; and

(iii) The steps taken by the employer to investigate the conduct of the licensee.

(3) (i) The Board may request from the employer additional information regarding an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that was taken by the employer.

(ii) If an employer receives a request made under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the employer shall promptly provide the additional information.

(b) If an employer knows that the conduct of a licensed athletic trainer requires that the employer submit a report under subsection (a)(1) of this section because the licensed athletic trainer is impaired by alcohol or another substance, the employer is not required to report the licensed athletic trainer to the Board if:

(1) The employer knows that the licensed athletic trainer is:

(i) In a substance use disorder treatment program that is accredited by The Joint Commission or is certified by the Department; or

(ii) Under the care of a health care practitioner who is competent and capable of dealing with substance use disorders;

(2) The employer is able to verify that the licensed athletic trainer remains in the treatment program until successful discharge; and

(3) The action or condition of the licensed athletic trainer has not caused injury to any person while the licensed athletic trainer is practicing as a licensed athletic trainer.

(c) If the employer knows that the licensed athletic trainer is noncompliant with the substance use disorder treatment program, the employer of the licensed athletic trainer shall report the licensed athletic trainer’s noncompliance to the Board.

(d) (1) The Board may extend the reporting under this section for good cause shown.

(2) A person is not required under this section to make any report that would be in violation of any federal or State law, rule, or regulation concerning the confidentiality of substance use disorder patient records.

(e) The Board may enforce this section by subpoena.

(f) Any person shall have the immunity from liability described under § 5–715(d) of the Courts Article for giving any of the information required by this section.

(g) An employer required to make a report to the Board under this section shall submit the report within 10 days after the action requiring the report.

(h) A report made under this section is privileged, not subject to inspection under the Public Information Act, and not subject to subpoena or discovery in any civil action other than a proceeding arising out of a hearing and decision of the Board or a disciplinary panel under this title.

(i) (1) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 for knowingly failing to report under this section.

(2) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per incident for a report made by an employer in bad faith.

(3) The Board shall remit any penalty collected under this subsection into the General Fund of the State.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-204 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-204
§14–204.
Status: in_force

(a) A majority of the members then serving on the Board is a quorum.

(b) The Board shall meet:

(1) At the times and places that it determines; and

(2) As requested by the Secretary.

(c) Each member of the Board is entitled to:

(1) Compensation in accordance with the State budget; and

(2) Reimbursement for expenses under the Standard State Travel Regulations, as provided in the State budget.

(d) (1) (i) The Secretary may employ a staff for the Board in accordance with the State budget.

(ii) The Secretary may designate one of the staff as an executive director.

(2) The Secretary may set the compensation of an employee of the Board in a position that:

(i) Is unique to the Board;

(ii) Requires specific skills or experience to perform the duties of the position; and

(iii) Does not require the employee to perform functions that are comparable to functions performed in other units of the Executive Branch of State government.

(3) The Secretary of Budget and Management, in consultation with the Secretary, shall determine the positions for which the Secretary may set compensation under paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(e) To provide adequate assistance in the investigation, development, and prosecution of cases referred to the Board, the Board shall be assigned a sufficient number of:

(1) Assistant Attorneys General by the Attorney General; and

(2) Investigators and hearing officers by the Secretary.
Md. Code, Education § 14-102 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-102
§14–102.
Status: reserved

(a) The government of the University is vested in the Board of Regents.

(b) The Board of Regents consists of 15 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.

(c) (1) One member of the Board of Regents shall be a student in good academic standing at the University who:

(i) Is at least 18 years old; and

(ii) Has the qualifications required to be student body president.

(2) The student member serves for a term of 1 year and until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(3) The student may be a resident of a state other than Maryland, but the residency status of the student may not be considered in determining the number of resident or nonresident regents as provided for in subsection (d)(2) of this section.

(d) (1) (i) Except for the student member, each member serves for a term of 5 years and until a successor is appointed and qualifies. The terms are staggered as required by the terms of the members serving on December 31, 2012.

(ii) 1. Except as provided in subsubparagraph 2 of this subparagraph, a member may not serve more than two consecutive terms of 5 years.

2. A member whose term is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2019, may serve up to three consecutive terms of 5 years.

(2) Except for the student member, no more than three members of the Board of Regents who are not alumni of Morgan State University may be residents of other states.

(3) A member appointed to fill a vacancy in an unexpired term serves only for the remainder of that term and until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(e) Each member of the Board of Regents:

(1) Serves without compensation; and

(2) Is entitled to reimbursement for expenses in accordance with the Standard State Travel Regulations.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-131 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-131
§14–131.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following terms have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Community association” means:

(i) A condominium council of unit owners organized under Title 11, Subtitle 1 of this article;

(ii) A homeowners association organized under Title 11B of this article; or

(iii) A cooperative housing corporation organized under Title 5, Subtitle 6B of the Corporations and Associations Article.

(3) “Community association management” means to manage the common property and services of a community association with the authority of the community association in its business, legal, financial, or other transactions with association members and nonmembers for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, including:

(i) Collecting monthly assessments;

(ii) Preparing budgets, financial statements, or other financial reports;

(iii) Negotiating contracts or otherwise coordinating or arranging for services or the purchase of property or goods for or on behalf of a community association;

(iv) Executing the resolutions and decisions of a community association and assisting the governing body of a community association and association members in complying with laws, contracts, covenants, rules, and bylaws;

(v) Managing the operation and maintenance of community–owned properties, including community centers, pools, golf courses, and parking areas; and

(vi) Arranging, conducting, or coordinating meetings of a community association or the governing body of an association.

(4) “Office” means the Prince George’s County Office of Community Relations.

(5) “Owner” means:

(i) A member of a cooperative housing corporation;

(ii) A unit owner of a condominium; or

(iii) A lot owner of a homeowners association.

(6) “Registry” means the Community Association Registry.

(b) This section applies only in Prince George’s County.

(c) On or after January 1, 2011, the Office shall establish a Registry.

(d) (1) Any entity, including a sole proprietorship, that provides community association management services for community associations located in the county shall register with the Registry and renew its registration by January 31 of each year.

(2) Each community association located in the county shall register with the Registry and renew its registration by January 31 each year.

(e) (1) The Office shall:

(i) Provide the registration form; and

(ii) Collect a fee from each entity that registers under this section.

(2) (i) The County Executive shall establish the annual fee charged, which shall be in an amount sufficient to fund the cost to establish and administer the administrative hearing process by the Office.

(ii) The fee may include:

1. A per–unit charge to community associations to renew registration;

2. Fees for services relating to the administrative hearing process that seek to recover the actual cost of the services; and

3. A per–unit charge to developers when the documents for the community association are recorded.

(iii) Fees collected in accordance with this section shall be used to cover the cost of the administrative hearing process provided through the county for disputes between a community association and an owner, including costs for any technical assistance provided by the Office and the Commission on Common Ownership Communities in Prince George’s County.

(f) The registration form shall include:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the entity providing community association management services if applicable;

(2) The names, titles, and business telephone numbers of the principal officers of the entity;

(3) The designated contact person of the entity, including name, address, title, telephone number, and electronic mail address;

(4) The length of time the entity has been in existence and the length of time the entity has provided community association management services; and

(5) A listing of all community associations in the county as of December 31 of the previous year for which the entity provided community association management services.

(g) In addition to the annual registration fee established under this section, the governing body of Prince George’s County may establish the following reasonable fees in amounts sufficient to cover costs identified in subsection (e)(2)(iii) of this section:

(1) Fees for services relating to the administrative hearing process that seek to recover the actual cost of the services; and

(2) A per–unit charge to developers when documents are recorded.

(h) The governing body of a community association shall be responsible for compliance with this section.

(i) The Office may make any information received under this section available to the public, subject to the provisions of the Maryland Public Information Act.

(j) A person who fails to register or who makes a false statement on a registration form may not file a dispute under the administrative hearings process provided through the county until the person registers as required by this section.

(k) A person who commits a willful violation of this section or who causes a person to commit a willful violation of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5G-27 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5G / Section 14-5G-27
§14–5G–27.
Status: in_force

(a) A person who violates § 14–5G–23, § 14–5G–24, or § 14–5G–25 of this subtitle is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or both.

(b) A person who violates § 14–5G–23, § 14–5G–24, or § 14–5G–25 of this subtitle is subject to a civil fine of not more than $5,000 to be levied by a disciplinary panel.

(c) The Board shall pay any penalty collected under this section into the Board of Physicians Fund.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-2003 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 20 / Section 14-2003
§14–2003.
Status: in_force

(a) A holder of a Class A beer and light wine license may sell beer and light wine on Monday through Sunday from 6 a.m. to 2 a.m. the following day.

(b) A holder of a Class B beer and light wine license may sell beer and light wine on Monday through Sunday from 6 a.m. to 2 a.m. the following day.

(c) A holder of a Class C beer and light wine license may sell beer and light wine on Monday through Sunday from 6 a.m. to 2 a.m. the following day.

(d) A holder of a Class D beer and light wine license may sell beer and light wine on Monday through Sunday from 6 a.m. to 2 a.m. the following day.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-13 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-13
§14–5A–13.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The term of a license issued by the Board may not exceed 3 years.

(2) A license expires on a date set by the Board, unless the license is renewed for an additional term as provided in this section.

(b) At least 1 month before the license expires, the Board shall send to the licensee a renewal notice that states:

(1) The date on which the current license expires;

(2) The date by which the renewal application must be received by the Board for the renewal to be issued and mailed before the license expires; and

(3) The amount of the renewal fee.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle, before a license expires, the licensee periodically may renew it for an additional term, if the licensee:

(1) Is of good moral character;

(2) Pays to the Board a renewal fee set by the Board;

(3) Submits to the Board:

(i) A renewal application on the form that the Board requires; and

(ii) Satisfactory evidence of compliance with any continuing education or competency requirements and other requirements set under this section for license renewal; and

(4) Meets any additional renewal requirements established by the Board.

(d) (1) In addition to any other qualifications and requirements established by the Board, the Board may establish continuing education or competency requirements as a condition to the renewal of licenses under this section.

(2) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $100 per continuing education credit in lieu of a sanction under § 14–5A–17 of this subtitle, for a first offense, for the failure of a licensee to obtain the continuing education credits required by the Board.

(e) (1) The Board shall renew the license of each licensee who meets the requirements of this section.

(2) A license may not be renewed for a term longer than 2 years.

(f) The Board shall reinstate the license of a respiratory care practitioner who has failed to renew the license for any reason if the respiratory care practitioner:

(1) Meets the renewal requirements of this section;

(2) Submits to the Board:

(i) A reinstatement application on the form that the Board requires; and

(ii) Satisfactory evidence of compliance with any continuing education or competency requirements; and

(3) Meets any additional requirements established by the Board for reinstatement.

(g) (1) Beginning October 1, 2016, the Board shall require a criminal history records check in accordance with § 14–308.1 of this title for:

(i) Renewal applicants as determined by regulations adopted by the Board; and

(ii) Each former licensee who files for reinstatement under subsection (f) of this section.

(2) On receipt of the criminal history record information of a licensee forwarded to the Board in accordance with § 14–308.1 of this title, in determining whether disciplinary action should be taken, based on the criminal history record information, against a licensee who renewed or reinstated a license, the Board shall consider:

(i) The age at which the crime was committed;

(ii) The nature of the crime;

(iii) The circumstances surrounding the crime;

(iv) The length of time that has passed since the crime;

(v) Subsequent work history;

(vi) Employment and character references; and

(vii) Other evidence that demonstrates whether the licensee poses a threat to the public health or safety.

(3) The Board may renew or reinstate a license only if the licensee or applicant attests that the licensee or applicant has submitted to a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1106 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 11 / Section 14-1106
§14–1106.
Status: in_force

(a) The buyer is in default under a layaway agreement whenever 15 days has lapsed from the scheduled date on which the buyer failed to make a required payment.

(b) If the buyer defaults under subsection (a) of this section, the seller may immediately cancel the layaway agreement and recover from the buyer liquidated damages under subsection (c) of this section or § 14–1107 of this subtitle, as applicable.

(c) If the buyer defaults under a layaway agreement 8 or more calendar days after the date of its execution, the seller may retain as liquidated damages an amount not to exceed 10 percent of the layaway price or the total amount paid by the buyer to the date of default, whichever is less.

(d) Unless otherwise provided in the layaway agreement, subsection (c) of this section does not apply if the buyer defaults under a special order transaction.

(e) Except as provided in § 14–1104(c) of this subtitle, at any time before delivery or tender of delivery, and before default by the buyer, the layaway agreement may be canceled by the buyer. However, the seller may retain from the refund due the buyer liquidated damages in an amount which is the lesser of 10 percent of the layaway price or the total amount paid by the buyer to the date of cancellation.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-201 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-201
§14–201.
Status: in_force

There is a State Board of Physicians in the Department.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-833 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-833
§14–833.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection and subsections (a–1), (e), (f), and (g) of this section, at any time after 6 months from the date of sale a holder of any certificate of sale may file a complaint to foreclose all rights of redemption of the property to which the certificate relates.

(2) Except as provided in subsections (a–1), (e), (f), and (g) of this section, at any time after 9 months from the date of sale of owner–occupied residential property, a holder of any certificate of sale may file a complaint to foreclose all rights of redemption of the property to which the certificate relates.

(a–1) (1) The holder of a certificate of sale may not file a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption until at least 2 months after sending the first notice and at least 30 days after sending the second notice required under this subsection to:

(i) the person who last appears as owner of the property on the collector’s tax roll; and

(ii) 1. the current mortgagee of the property, assignee of a mortgagee of record, or servicer of the current mortgage; or

2. the current holder of a beneficial interest in a deed of trust recorded against the property.

(2) The holder of a certificate of sale is not required to provide the notices under this subsection if subsection (e), (f), or (g) of this section applies to the property.

(3) The notices required under this subsection shall include at least the following:

(i) a statement of the fact of the issuance of a certificate of sale;

(ii) a copy of the certificate of sale, if the holder of the certificate of sale received the certificate of sale before the notice was sent under this paragraph;

(iii) a statement that the owner, a mortgage holder, or any other person that has an estate or interest in the property may redeem the property at any time until the right of redemption has been finally foreclosed under the provisions of this subtitle;

(iv) a statement that the holder of the certificate of sale may file an action to foreclose the right of redemption at any time after 2 months from the date of the first notice;

(v) a statement that if the property is redeemed before an action to foreclose the right of redemption is filed, the amount that shall be paid to redeem the property is:

1. the total lien amount on the property at the time of sale, with interest;

2. any taxes, interest, and penalties paid by the holder of the certificate of sale;

3. for property that is not owner–occupied residential property, any delinquent taxes, interest, and penalties accruing after the date of the tax sale; and

4. the following expenses incurred by the holder of the certificate of sale:

A. costs for recording the certificate of sale;

B. a title search fee, not to exceed $250;

C. the postage and certified mailing costs actually incurred for the notices; and

D. reasonable attorney’s fees, not to exceed $500;

(vi) a statement that if the property is redeemed after an action to foreclose the right of redemption has been filed, the amount that shall be paid to redeem the property is the sum of:

1. the total lien amount on the property at the time of sale, with interest;

2. any taxes, interest, and penalties paid by the holder of the certificate of sale;

3. for property that is not owner–occupied residential property, any delinquent taxes, interest, and penalties accruing after the date of the tax sale; and

4. attorney’s fees and expenses to which the holder of the certificate of sale may be entitled under § 14–843(a)(4) and (5) of this subtitle;

(vii) the provisions of § 14–843(a) of this subtitle, reproduced as they appear in the Code;

(viii) a statement that, in Baltimore City only, the holder of the certificate of sale is entitled to taxes, interest, and penalties paid in accordance with § 14–843(c) of this subtitle and interest at the rate of redemption under § 14–820 of this subtitle from the date of payment to the date of redemption; and

(ix) the name, address, e–mail address, and telephone number of:

1. the holder of the certificate of sale, or the holder’s agent or attorney; and

2. the collector who made the sale.

(4) (i) 1. Except as provided in subsubparagraph 2 of this subparagraph, the first of the two notices required under this subsection may not be sent until 4 months after the date of sale.

2. For owner–occupied residential property, the first of the two notices required under this subsection may not be sent until 7 months after the date of sale.

(ii) The second of the two notices required under this section shall be sent:

1. to the persons listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection; and

2. no earlier than 1 week after the first notice required under this subsection is sent.

(5) (i) If a certificate of sale is assigned after the first notice required under this subsection is sent and before an action to foreclose the right of redemption is filed, the assignee:

1. at any time after the assignment, shall send one additional notice under this subsection reflecting the new holder of the certificate; and

2. may not file a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption until at least 2 months after the additional notice has been sent.

(ii) 1. This subparagraph does not apply in Baltimore City.

2. For owner–occupied residential property sold under this subtitle, before the filing of a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption, the current payoff amount to redeem the property may be requested by the:

A. owner of the property;

B. current mortgagee of the property, assignee of a mortgagee of record, or servicer of the current mortgage; or

C. current holder of a beneficial interest in a deed of trust recorded against the property.

3. A request made under subsubparagraph 2 of this subparagraph shall be made to the holder of the certificate of sale by phone, e–mail, or other contact method provided by the holder to the collector.

4. The payoff amount to redeem the property provided by the holder of the certificate of sale in accordance with subsubparagraph 2 of this subparagraph shall:

A. include only those expenses incurred before the holder of the certificate of sale received the request for the payoff amount; and

B. be deemed valid for a period of 30 days from the date the holder of the certificate of sale provides the payoff amount to the person who requested the payoff amount.

(iii) 1. In Baltimore City, for owner–occupied residential property, prior to the filing of a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption, an owner of property sold under this subtitle may send a request for the current payoff amount to redeem the property.

2. A request made under subsubparagraph 1 of this subparagraph shall be sent to the holder of the certificate of sale by first–class certified mail, postage prepaid, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service.

3. Within 10 days of delivery of a notice sent under subsubparagraph 1 of this subparagraph, the holder of a certificate of sale shall send the owner of the property, by first–class certified mail, postage prepaid, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service, the current payoff amount to redeem the property, as of the date the request was made.

4. Except as provided in subsubparagraph 6 of this subparagraph, a holder of a certificate of sale who receives a request for a current payoff amount to redeem property under this subparagraph may not file a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption until the later of:

A. 20 days after the request under subsubparagraph 1 of this subparagraph is received by the holder of the certificate of sale;

B. 10 days after the holder of the certificate of sale sends the owner of the property the current payoff amount to redeem the property; or

C. the date on which a holder of the certificate of sale may file a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption under paragraphs (1) and (4) of this subsection.

5. The payoff amount to redeem the property provided by the holder of the certificate of sale in accordance with subsubparagraph 3 of this subparagraph shall be deemed valid for a period of 30 days from the date the holder of the certificate of sale sends the owner of the property the payoff amount.

6. If the owner of property sends more than 2 requests under subsubparagraph 1 of this subparagraph, the restrictions on filing a complaint to foreclose the right of redemption may not apply to a third or subsequent request.

(6) (i) The first of the two notices required under this subsection shall be sent:

1. by first–class certified mail, postage prepaid, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service; and

2. in an envelope prominently marked on the outside with the following phrase “Notice of Delinquent Property Tax”.

(ii) The second of the two notices required under this subsection shall be sent:

1. by first–class certified mail, postage prepaid, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service; and

2. in an envelope prominently marked on the outside with the following phrase “Notice of Delinquent Property Tax”.

(7) The notice required under this subsection shall be sent to each person at the person’s last address known to the holder of the certificate of sale, as obtained from:

(i) the last deed or mortgage relating to the property recorded among the land records in the county in which the property is located;

(ii) the tax rolls of the collector who made the sale, as to the property described in the certificate of sale; and

(iii) with respect to the address of the resident agent and the principal office of the current mortgagee of record, the Department of Assessments and Taxation.

(8) In a proceeding to foreclose the right of redemption, if the holder of a certificate of sale, the holder’s agent, or the attorney of the holder of a certificate of sale, files an affidavit, before the court enters a final judgment foreclosing the right of redemption, attesting to the fact that the affiant has complied with the notice provisions of this subsection and provides evidence that the second of the two notices required under this subsection was sent by certified mail as required under paragraph (6)(ii) of this subsection, then:

(i) the notice provisions of this subsection shall be deemed satisfied; and

(ii) the failure of the owner, mortgagee, or beneficiary of a deed of trust to receive the required notice does not invalidate the proceeding to foreclose the right of redemption or the final judgment of the court.

(b) The right to redeem shall continue until finally barred by decree of the circuit court in which the foreclosure proceeding is filed.

(c) (1) The certificate is void unless a proceeding to foreclose the right of redemption is filed within 2 years of the date of the certificate of sale.

(2) A certificate for abandoned property sold under § 14–817(c) of this subtitle with a minimum bid less than the lien amount reverts to the Mayor and City Council of Baltimore City or the governing body of the county or, if the property is located in a municipal corporation, the governing body of the municipal corporation and is void as to the private purchaser at tax sale unless:

(i) a proceeding to foreclose the right of redemption is filed within 3 months of the date of the certificate of sale; and

(ii) unless the holder is granted an extension by the court due to a showing of extraordinary circumstances beyond the certificate holder’s control, the holder secures a decree from the circuit court in which the foreclosure proceeding was filed within 18 months from the date of the filing of the foreclosure proceeding.

(3) In Prince George’s County, a certificate for property sold at a limited auction is void if the purchaser was not an eligible participant under § 14–817(d)(3) of this subtitle.

(d) (1) If a certificate is void under subsection (c) of this section, then any right, title, and interest of the holder of the certificate of sale, in the property sold shall cease and all money received by the collector on account of the sale shall be deemed forfeited, and shall be applied by the collector on the taxes in arrears on the property.

(2) If a certificate for abandoned property reverts to the Mayor and City Council of Baltimore City or the governing body of a county or, if the property is located in a municipal corporation, the governing body of the municipal corporation under this section, the Mayor and City Council or the governing body may:

(i) file a foreclosure proceeding in its own name; or

(ii) 1. resell the certificate; and

2. apply all money received on account of the sale to any outstanding balance remaining after the sale on the tax debt owed by the previous owner of the abandoned property.

(e) If any building or structure is sold and purchased under this subtitle, and the appropriate government agency certifies that the particular building or structure involved requires, or within 6 months shall require, substantial repairs to comply with the applicable building code:

(1) the holder of any certificate of sale may at any time after 60 days from the date of sale file a complaint to foreclose all rights of redemption of the property to which the certificate relates; and

(2) the certificate of the appropriate government agency shall be a part of the complaint to foreclose the rights of redemption.

(f) The holder of a certificate of sale for abandoned property sold under § 14–817(c) of this subtitle with a minimum bid less than the lien amount may file a complaint to foreclose all rights of redemption in the property at any time after the date of sale.

(g) When the governing body of a county or municipal corporation becomes the holder of a certificate of sale purchased in accordance with § 14–824 of this subtitle, the governing body of the county or municipal corporation may file a complaint, at any time after the date of sale, to foreclose all rights of redemption in abandoned property consisting of:

(1) a vacant lot; or

(2) improved property cited as vacant and unfit for habitation on a housing or building violation notice.

(h) The holder of a certificate of sale for abandoned property consisting of either a vacant lot or improved property cited as vacant and unfit for habitation on a housing or building violation notice in Prince George’s County that is sold under § 14–817(d) of this subtitle may file a complaint to foreclose all rights of redemption in the property at any time after the date of sale.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-114 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-114
§14–114.
Status: in_force

If a party evicted by a writ of possession reenters on the property without the consent of the purchaser, he is guilty of a misdemeanor. On conviction, he is subject to a fine not exceeding $100, or imprisonment not exceeding 60 days, or both.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-25 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-25
§14–5A–25.
Status: in_force

Subject to the evaluation and reestablishment provisions of the Maryland Program Evaluation Act and subject to the termination of this title under § 14–702 of this title, this subtitle and all rules and regulations adopted under this subtitle shall terminate and be of no effect after July 1, 2030.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-120 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-120
§14–120.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Commercial property” does not include residential rental property.

(3) “Community association” means:

(i) A nonprofit association, corporation, or other organization that is:

1. Comprised of residents of a community within which a nuisance is located;

2. Operated exclusively for the promotion of social welfare and general neighborhood improvement and enhancement; and

3. Exempt from taxation under § 501(c)(3) or (4) of the Internal Revenue Code; or

(ii) A nonprofit association, corporation, or other organization that is:

1. Comprised of residents of a contiguous community that is defined by specific geographic boundaries, within which a nuisance is located; and

2. Operated for the promotion of the welfare, improvement and enhancement of that community.

(4) “Controlled dangerous substance” means a substance listed in Schedule I or Schedule II under § 5–402 or § 5–403 of the Criminal Law Article.

(5) “Nuisance” means a property that is used:

(i) 1. By persons who assemble for the specific purpose of illegally administering a controlled dangerous substance;

2. For the illegal manufacture, or distribution of:

A. A controlled dangerous substance; or

B. Controlled paraphernalia, as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article; or

3. For the illegal storage or concealment of a controlled dangerous substance in sufficient quantity to reasonably indicate under all the circumstances an intent to manufacture, distribute, or dispense:

A. A controlled dangerous substance; or

B. Controlled paraphernalia, as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article; or

(ii) For prostitution.

(6) (i) “Operator” means a person that exercises control over property.

(ii) “Operator” includes a property manager or any other person that is authorized to evict a tenant.

(7) “Owner” includes an owner–occupant.

(8) “Owner–occupant” includes an owner of commercial property that conducts business in any part of the property.

(9) “Property” includes a mobile home.

(10) “Prostitution” has the meaning stated in § 11–301 of the Criminal Law Article.

(11) (i) “Tenant” means the lessee or a person occupying property, whether or not a party to a lease.

(ii) “Tenant” includes a lessee or a person occupying a mobile home, whether or not a party to a lease.

(iii) “Tenant” does not include:

1. The owner of the property; or

2. A mobile home owner who leases or rents a site for residential use and resides in a mobile home park.

(b) An action under § 4–401 of the Courts Article to abate a nuisance may be brought by:

(1) The State’s Attorney of the county in which the nuisance is located;

(2) The county attorney or solicitor of the county in which the nuisance is located;

(3) A community association within whose boundaries the nuisance is located; or

(4) A municipal corporation within whose boundaries the nuisance is located.

(c) An action under § 4–401 of the Courts Article to abate a nuisance may be brought against:

(1) A tenant of the property where the nuisance is located;

(2) An owner of the property where the nuisance is located; or

(3) An operator of the property where the nuisance is located.

(d) (1) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph, an action may not be brought under this section concerning a commercial property until 30 days after the tenant, if any, and owner of record receive notice from a person entitled to bring an action under this section that a nuisance exists.

(ii) In Baltimore City, an action may not be brought under this section concerning a commercial property until 15 days after the tenant, if any, and owner of record receive notice from a person entitled to bring an action under this section that a nuisance exists.

(2) The notice shall specify:

(i) The date and time of day the nuisance was first discovered; and

(ii) The location on the property where the nuisance is allegedly occurring.

(3) The notice shall be:

(i) Hand delivered to the tenant, if any, and the owner of record; or

(ii) Sent by certified mail to the tenant, if any, and the owner of record.

(e) (1) In addition to any service of process required by the Maryland Rules, the plaintiff shall cause to be posted in a conspicuous place on the property no later than 48 hours before the hearing the notice required under paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(2) The notice shall indicate:

(i) The nature of the proceedings;

(ii) The time and place of the hearing; and

(iii) The name and telephone number of the person to contact for additional information.

(f) A plaintiff is entitled to relief under this section whether or not an adequate remedy exists at law.

(g) (1) If, after a hearing, the court determines that a nuisance exists, the court may order any appropriate injunctive or other equitable relief.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and in addition to or as a component of any remedy ordered under paragraph (1) of this subsection, the court may order:

(i) A tenant who knew or should have known of the existence of the nuisance to vacate the property within 72 hours; or

(ii) An owner or operator of the property to submit for court approval a plan of correction to ensure, to the extent reasonably possible, that the property will not again be used for a nuisance if:

1. The owner or operator is a party to the action; and

2. The owner or operator knew or should have known of the existence of the nuisance.

(h) (1) (i) If a tenant fails to comply with an order under subsection (g) of this section and the owner or operator, and tenant, are parties to the action, the court, after a hearing, may order restitution of the possession of the property to the owner or operator.

(ii) If the court orders restitution of the possession of the property under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the court shall immediately issue its warrant to the sheriff or constable commanding execution of the warrant within 5 days after issuance of the warrant.

(2) (i) This paragraph does not apply to an action brought under this section alleging the use of a property for prostitution.

(ii) If an owner, including an owner–occupant, fails to comply with an order under subsection (g) of this section, after a hearing the court may, in addition to issuing a contempt order or an order for any other relief, order that:

1. The property be sold, at the owner’s expense, in accordance with the Maryland Rules governing judicial sales; or

2. The property be demolished if the property is unfit for habitation and the estimated cost of rehabilitation significantly exceeds the estimated market value of the property after rehabilitation.

(3) (i) This paragraph applies only to an action brought under this section alleging the use of a property for prostitution.

(ii) If an owner, including an owner–occupant, fails to comply with an order under subsection (g) of this section, after a hearing, the court may issue a contempt order.

(4) If an owner–occupant fails to comply with an order under subsection (g) of this section regarding a nuisance in the owner–occupied unit of the property, after a hearing the court may, in addition to issuing a contempt order or an order for any other relief, order that:

(i) The owner–occupied unit be vacated within 72 hours; and

(ii) The owner–occupied unit remain unoccupied for a period not to exceed 1 year or until the property is sold in an arm’s length transaction.

(i) Except as provided in subsection (g)(2) of this section, the court may order appropriate relief under subsection (g) of this section without proof that a defendant knew of the existence of the nuisance.

(j) In any action brought under this section:

(1) Evidence of the general reputation of the property is admissible to corroborate testimony based on personal knowledge or observation, or evidence seized during the execution of a search and seizure warrant, but shall not, in and of itself, be sufficient to establish the existence of a nuisance under this section; and

(2) Evidence that the nuisance had been discontinued at the time of the filing of the complaint or at the time of the hearing does not bar the imposition of appropriate relief by the court under subsection (g) of this section.

(k) (1) This subsection does not apply to an action against an owner, other than an owner–occupant, brought under this section alleging the use of a property for prostitution.

(2) The court may award court costs and reasonable attorney’s fees to a community association that is the prevailing plaintiff in an action brought under this section.

(l) An action under this section shall be heard within 14 days after service of process on the parties.

(m) This section does not abrogate any equitable or legal right or remedy under existing law to abate a nuisance.

(n) (1) An appeal from a judgment or order under this section shall be filed within 10 days after the date of the order or judgment.

(2) If either party files a request for oral argument, the court shall hear the oral argument within 7 days after the request is filed.

(3) (i) If the appellant files a request for oral argument, the request shall be filed at the time of the filing of the appeal.

(ii) If the appellee files a request for oral argument, the request shall be filed within 2 days of receiving notice of the appeal.

(o) Provisions of this article or public local laws applicable to actions between a landlord and tenant are not applicable to actions brought against a landlord or a tenant under this section.

(p) All proceedings under this section are equitable in nature.

(q) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, when necessary to accomplish the purposes of this section, a law enforcement officer, an attorney in a municipal or county attorney’s office, or an attorney in an office of the State’s Attorney may disclose the contents of an executed search warrant and papers filed in connection with the search warrant to:

(i) An officer or director of the community association in which the nuisance is located, or the attorney representing the community association;

(ii) An owner, tenant, or operator of the searched property or an agent of the owner, tenant, or operator of the searched property; or

(iii) An attorney in a municipal or county attorney’s office.

(2) An affidavit may not be disclosed under this subsection while under seal in accordance with § 1–203 of the Criminal Procedure Article.
Md. Code, Education § 14-107 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-107
§14–107.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Institution” means Morgan State University.

(3) “Senior citizen” means any resident of this State who is:

(i) 60 years of age or older;

(ii) Retired and whose chief income is derived from retirement benefits; and

(iii) Not employed full time.

(4) “Tuition” means the basic instructional charge for undergraduate courses and does not pertain to self–supporting programs or include fees, such as those for registration, application, or laboratory work.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, an institution shall admit a senior citizen to any scheduled course and waive the tuition involved:

(1) Only when regularly scheduled course space is available;

(2) For any credit or noncredit course; and

(3) For as many as 3 courses per term.

(c) An institution may not:

(1) Allow a senior citizen to enroll in a degree granting program, unless the senior citizen meets the admission standards of the institution; or

(2) Permit the full–time equivalent enrollment of senior citizens for whom tuition has been waived to exceed 2 percent of its undergraduate full–time equivalent enrollment.

(d) At the termination of each semester, the institution shall furnish to its governing board a statement of the number of senior citizens participating under the provisions of this section.

(e) This section does not prohibit an institution from offering senior citizens educational opportunities free of charge beyond these minimum requirements.
Md. Code, Health - General § 14-405 — MD Code / Article ghg / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-405
§14–405.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Council consists of 11 members.

(2) Of the 11 Council members:

(i) 1 shall be a representative of the Department;

(ii) 1 shall be a camping leader with professional experience, but who is not a youth camp owner or manager;

(iii) 1 shall be actively engaged in the ownership or management of a youth camp operating for profit;

(iv) 1 shall be actively engaged in the ownership or management of a nonprofit youth camp;

(v) 1 shall be actively engaged in the ownership or management of an American Camping Association accredited youth camp;

(vi) 1 shall be actively engaged in the ownership or management of a youth camp that is not accredited by the American Camping Association;

(vii) 1 shall be a member of the public;

(viii) 2 shall be selected from the local health departments from 2 counties; and

(ix) 2 shall be selected from nationwide organizations involved in camping such as scouting and 4-H.

(3) The Governor shall appoint the Council members with the advice of the Secretary and the advice and consent of the Senate.

(b) (1) The term of a member is 3 years.

(2) The terms of members are staggered as required by the terms provided for members of the Council on July 1, 1986.

(3) At the end of a term, a member continues to serve until a successor is appointed.

(4) A member who is appointed after a term has begun serves only for the rest of the term and until a successor is appointed.

(5) Members of the Council:

(i) Are eligible for reappointment; but

(ii) May not serve more than 2 full consecutive terms.

(c) The Governor may remove a member for incompetence or misconduct.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1329 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 13 / Section 14-1329
§14–1329.
Status: in_force

§14–1329. NOT IN EFFECT

** TAKES EFFECT JUNE 1, 2026 PER CHAPTERS 204 AND 205 OF 2025 **

(a) In this section, “automatic renewal” means any contract, plan, or agreement between a consumer and a seller in which a paid subscription or purchasing agreement is automatically renewed for a subsequent term.

(b) (1) Except as provided in subsection (e) of this section, a person may not make an automatic renewal offer to a consumer unless the person:

(i) Presents the consumer with the terms of the automatic renewal offer in a clear and conspicuous manner before the subscription or purchasing agreement is fulfilled and in visual proximity to, or in the case of an offer conveyed orally, at the same time as, the request for consent to the offer, including:

1. The price that will be charged after the initial term ends; or

2. The manner in which the subscription or purchasing agreement will change at the end of the initial term;

(ii) Presents the consumer with an easily accessible disclosure of the methods that the consumer may use to cancel the automatic renewal; and

(iii) Allows the consumer to terminate the offer in a manner that does not unreasonably delay, hinder, or obstruct the consumer’s ability to terminate the automatic renewal.

(2) If the offer also includes a free gift or trial, the offer shall include a clear and conspicuous explanation of the price that will be charged after the trial ends and the manner in which the subscription or purchasing agreement pricing will change at the end of the trial.

(3) (i) A person that makes an automatic renewal offer shall allow a consumer who accepts the offer to terminate the automatic renewal by providing the consumer a cost–effective, timely, and easy–to–use mechanism to:

1. Cancel the automatic renewal;

2. Avoid being charged or avoid being charged an increased amount; and

3. Immediately stop any recurring charges.

(ii) A mechanism under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph must:

1. Be at least as easy to use as the mechanism the consumer used to consent to the automatic renewal;

2. Be available through the same medium the consumer used to consent to the automatic renewal;

3. In the case of cancellation by electronic medium, be easy to find, not require interaction with a live or virtual representative unless the consumer interacted with a live or virtual representative to consent to the automatic renewal, and include:

A. A prominently placed direct link or button to initiate the cancellation process, which may be located either within a customer account or profile or within device or user settings; or

B. An immediately accessible termination e–mail formatted and provided by the business or person that made the automatic renewal offer that a consumer may send without additional information;

4. In the case of cancellation by telephone call, be promptly performed through calls received at a telephone number that is answered or records messages and that is made available during normal business hours; and

5. In the case of cancellation performed in person, be performed in a manner similar to the in–person method the consumer used to consent to the automatic renewal, which may include mail to a postal address if the person bills the consumer at the consumer’s postal address.

(iii) The alternative mechanisms described in subparagraph (ii)3 and 4 of this paragraph must also be made available for an in–person cancellation under subparagraph (ii)5 of this paragraph.

(iv) 1. If a consumer has an account with a business, the business may require the consumer to enter account information or otherwise authenticate the account online before online termination of the automatic renewal or continuous service.

2. If a consumer is unwilling or unable to enter account information or otherwise authenticate the consumer’s account online before online termination of the automatic renewal or continuous service, the consumer may not be precluded from authenticating the consumer’s account or terminating the automatic renewal or continuous service using another method that the business provides in a clear and conspicuous manner.

(c) (1) Except as provided in subsection (e) of this section, a person that makes an automatic renewal offer or an offer that includes a free gift or trial lasting more than 14 days shall, before the end of the automatic renewal or free trial, provide clear and conspicuous notice of the following:

(i) That the offer will automatically renew unless the consumer cancels;

(ii) The duration and any additional terms of the renewal period, including:

1. The price that will be charged after the renewal or the free trial ends; or

2. The manner in which the subscription or purchasing agreement will change at the end of the trial;

(iii) The various methods by which a consumer may cancel the automatic renewal or continuous service;

(iv) If the notice is sent electronically, a link that directs the consumer to the cancellation process or another reasonably accessible electronic method that directs the consumer to the cancellation process if no link exists; and

(v) Contact information for the business or person that made the automatic renewal offer.

(2) If an automatic renewal offer includes a free gift or trial lasting more than 14 days, the notice required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be provided not less than 3 days and not more than 21 days before the date when the automatic renewal is scheduled to take effect.

(3) If the consumer has accepted an automatic renewal offer with an initial term of at least 1 year, the notice required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be provided not less than 15 days and not more than 45 days before the date when the automatic renewal is scheduled to take effect.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (e) of this section, a person that makes an automatic renewal offer with an initial definite term of more than 1 month may not automatically charge the consumer’s credit card unless:

(1) Clear and conspicuous notice is provided to the consumer; and

(2) The consumer provides consent to the automatic charge of the consumer’s credit card.

(e) A person that complies with the requirements for contract renewal procedures established by the State or federal regulatory agency that is responsible for regulating the person or that is licensed under Title 18 of the Business Occupations and Professions Article shall be deemed to be in compliance with this section.

(f) This section does not apply to:

(1) Any business or person or any affiliate of a business or person with contract renewal practices subject to regulations, rules, procedures, or guidelines established by the Maryland Insurance Administration;

(2) Any entity or any affiliate of an entity regulated under the Maryland Service Contracts and Consumer Products Guaranty Act; or

(3) A service regulated by:

(i) The Maryland Public Service Commission;

(ii) The Federal Communications Commission; or

(iii) The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.

(g) A violation of this section is:

(1) An unfair, abusive, or deceptive trade practice within the meaning of Title 13 of this article; and

(2) Subject to the enforcement and penalty provisions contained in Title 13 of this article, except §§ 13–408 and 13–411 of this article.

(h) Nothing in this section may be construed to authorize a private right of action under this section or any other law.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-875 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-875
§14–875.
Status: reserved

(a) A county or municipal corporation may file a complaint for an in rem foreclosure action in accordance with this part.

(b) The county or municipal corporation may not file a complaint for an in rem foreclosure action unless:

(1) the tax on the real property has been delinquent for at least 6 months; and

(2) the right to appeal the notice of the property as vacant and unsafe or unfit has tolled.

(c) All taxes shall:

(1) be included in the foreclosure action; and

(2) cease to be a lien against the real property if a judgment is entered foreclosing the existing interests of all interested parties in the real property.

(d) The county or municipal corporation shall:

(1) file the complaint for an in rem foreclosure in the circuit court of the county where the real property is located; and

(2) within 5 days after filing the complaint, send notice and a copy of the complaint to each interested party by first–class mail and certified mail, postage prepaid, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark from the United States Postal Service.

(e) The complaint for an in rem foreclosure shall include:

(1) the identity of the county or municipal corporation on behalf of which the complaint is filed;

(2) the name and address of the county or municipal corporation;

(3) a description of the real property as it appears in the county land records;

(4) the tax identification number of the real property;

(5) a statement that the taxes are delinquent at the time of the filing;

(6) the amount of taxes that are delinquent as of the date of filing;

(7) the names and last known addresses of all interested parties in the real property and, if applicable, a statement that the address of a particular interested party in the real property is unknown;

(8) a statement that the real property is a vacant lot or improved property cited as vacant and unsafe or unfit for habitation or other authorized use on a housing or building violation notice;

(9) copies of any violation notice cited under paragraph (8) of this subsection;

(10) a request that the circuit court not schedule a hearing on the complaint until 30 days after the date that the complaint is filed; and

(11) a request that the circuit court enter a judgment that forecloses the existing interests of all interested parties in the real property and orders ownership of the real property to be transferred to the county or municipal corporation.

(f) A complaint for an in rem foreclosure may be amended to include all taxes that become delinquent after the commencement of the in rem foreclosure action.

(g) (1) Subject to paragraph (2) of this subsection, an interested party has the right to cure the delinquent taxes and liens on the real property by paying all past due fees, payments, and penalties at any time before the entry of the foreclosure judgment.

(2) The right to cure the delinquent taxes and liens on the real property extinguishes once the foreclosure judgment is entered.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-610 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-610
§14–610.
Status: in_force

(a) If a person required to be named as a defendant is dead and the plaintiff knows of a personal representative, the plaintiff shall join the personal representative as a defendant.

(b) (1) If a person required to be named as a defendant is dead, or is believed by the plaintiff to be dead, and the plaintiff knows of no personal representative, the plaintiff shall state those facts in an affidavit filed with the complaint.

(2) If the plaintiff states in an affidavit under paragraph (1) of this subsection that a person is dead, the plaintiff may join as defendants “the testate and intestate successors of __________ (naming the deceased person), deceased, and all persons claiming by, through, or under the decedent”.

(3) If the plaintiff states in an affidavit under paragraph (1) of this subsection that a person is believed to be dead, the plaintiff may join the person as a defendant, and may also join “the testate and intestate successors of __________ (naming the person), believed to be deceased, and all persons claiming by, through, or under the person believed to be deceased”.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5B-14 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5B / Section 14-5B-14
§14–5B–14.
Status: in_force

(a) Subject to the hearing provisions of § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel, on the affirmative vote of a majority of the quorum of the disciplinary panel, may deny a license to any applicant, reprimand any licensee, place any licensee on probation, or suspend or revoke a license, if the applicant or licensee:

(1) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant, licensed individual, or for another;

(2) Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;

(3) Is guilty of:

(i) Immoral conduct in the practice of radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance; or

(ii) Unprofessional conduct in the practice of radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance;

(4) Is:

(i) Professionally incompetent;

(ii) Physically incompetent; or

(iii) Mentally incompetent;

(5) Abandons a patient;

(6) Is habitually intoxicated;

(7) Is addicted to or habitually abuses any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article;

(8) Provides professional services while:

(i) Under the influence of alcohol; or

(ii) Using any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article or any other drug that is in excess of therapeutic amounts or without valid medical indication;

(9) Promotes the sale of services, drugs, devices, appliances, or goods to a patient so as to exploit the patient for financial gain;

(10) Willfully makes or files a false report or record in the practice of radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance;

(11) Willfully fails to file or record any report as required under law, willfully impedes or obstructs the filing or recording of a report, or induces another to fail to file or record a report;

(12) Breaches patient confidentiality;

(13) Pays or agrees to pay any sum or provide any form of remuneration or material benefit to any person for bringing or referring a patient or accepts or agrees to accept any sum or any form of remuneration or material benefit from an individual for bringing or referring a patient;

(14) Willfully makes a misrepresentation while practicing radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance;

(15) Willfully practices radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance with an unauthorized individual or aids an unauthorized individual in the practice of radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance;

(16) Offers, undertakes, or agrees to cure or treat disease by a secret method, treatment, or medicine;

(17) Is disciplined by a licensing or disciplinary authority or is convicted or disciplined by a court of any state or country or is disciplined by any branch of the uniformed services or the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under the Board’s disciplinary statutes;

(18) Fails to meet appropriate standards for the delivery of quality radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance care performed in any outpatient surgical facility, office, hospital or related institution, or any other location in this State;

(19) Willfully submits false statements to collect fees for which services are not provided;

(20) (i) Has been subject to investigation or disciplinary action by a licensing or disciplinary authority or by a court of any state or country for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under the Board’s disciplinary statutes; and

(ii) Has:

1. Surrendered the license issued by the state or country; or

2. Allowed the license issued by the state or country to expire or lapse;

(21) Willfully fails to report suspected child abuse in violation of § 5–704 of the Family Law Article;

(22) Sells, prescribes, gives away, or administers drugs for illegal or illegitimate medical purposes;

(23) Practices or attempts to practice beyond the authorized scope of practice;

(24) Refuses, withholds from, denies, or discriminates against an individual with regard to the provision of professional services for which the licensee is licensed and qualified to render because the individual is HIV positive;

(25) Practices or attempts to practice a radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance procedure or uses radiation therapy, radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiology assistance equipment if the applicant or licensee has not received education, internship, training, or experience in the performance of the procedure or the use of the equipment;

(26) Fails to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(27) Fails to practice under the supervision of a physician or violates a supervisory order of a supervising physician; or

(28) Fails to complete a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in the Administrative Procedure Act, before the Board or a disciplinary panel takes any action under subsection (a) of this section, it shall give the individual against whom the action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing before the Board or the disciplinary panel in accordance with the hearing requirements of § 14–405 of this title.

(c) (1) On the filing of certified docket entries with the Board by the Office of the Attorney General, a disciplinary panel shall order the suspension of a licensee if the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not any appeal or other proceeding is pending to have the conviction or plea set aside.

(2) After completion of the appellate process if the conviction has not been reversed or the plea has not been set aside with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, a disciplinary panel shall order the revocation of a license on the certification by the Office of the Attorney General.

(d) (1) If, after a hearing under § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel finds that there are grounds under subsection (a) of this section to suspend or revoke a license, to reprimand a licensee, or to place a licensee on probation, the disciplinary panel may impose a fine subject to the Board’s regulations in addition to suspending or revoking the license, reprimanding the licensee, or placing the licensee on probation.

(2) The Board shall pay any fines collected under this section into the General Fund of the State.

(e) In addition to any sanction authorized under this section, a disciplinary panel may require a licensee to comply with specified terms and conditions determined by the disciplinary panel.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-704 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-704
§14–704.
Status: in_force

In addition to any persons required to be named as defendants in an action under this subtitle, the plaintiff may name as defendants all persons unknown, claiming any legal or equitable right, title, estate, lien, or interest in the property described in the complaint adverse to the plaintiff’s title, or any cloud on the plaintiff’s title to the property.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-303 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-303
§14–303.
Status: in_force

(a) Subject to this section, the following individuals may practice engineering without a license:

(1) an employee or other subordinate of a professional engineer; and

(2) an employee of an individual who is not licensed but is otherwise authorized under this title to practice engineering without supervision.

(b) The authority to practice engineering under this section applies only while the employee or other subordinate works under the responsible charge of the licensee or other authorized individual.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-406 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-406
§14–406.
Status: in_force

(a) If a guarantor or provider violates any provision of this subtitle, the Attorney General may obtain a court order prohibiting the guarantor or provider from further violations.

(b) At least 7 days before the filing of an action for the order, the Attorney General shall give appropriate notice to the guarantor or provider stating generally the relief sought.

(c) The court may issue an order or render a judgment necessary to:

(1) Prevent violations of this subtitle; and

(2) Restore to the person damaged any money or property acquired by means of any practice in violation of any provision of this subtitle.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-702 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-702
§14–702.
Status: in_force

(1) Article I. Purpose and Authorities.

This compact is made and entered into by and between the participating member states which enact this compact, hereinafter called party states. For the purposes of this compact, the term “states” is taken to mean the several states, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, and all U.S. territorial possessions.

The purpose of this compact is to provide for mutual assistance between the states entering into this compact in managing any emergency or disaster that is duly declared by the Governor of the affected state(s), whether arising from natural disaster, technological hazard, man-made disaster, civil emergency aspects of resources shortages, community disorders, insurgency, or enemy attack.

This compact shall also provide for mutual cooperation in emergency-related exercises, testing, or other training activities using equipment and personnel simulating performance of any aspect of the giving and receiving of aid by party states or subdivisions of party states during emergencies, such actions occurring outside actual declared emergency periods. Mutual assistance in this compact may include the use of the states’ National Guard forces, either in accordance with the National Guard Mutual Assistance Compact or by mutual agreement between states.

(2) Article II. General Implementation.

Each party state entering into this compact recognizes that many emergencies transcend political jurisdictional boundaries and that intergovernmental coordination is essential in managing these and other emergencies under this compact. Each state further recognizes that there will be emergencies which require immediate access and present procedures to apply outside resources to make a prompt and effective response to such an emergency. This is because few, if any, individual states have all the resources they may need in all types of emergencies or the capability of delivering resources to areas where emergencies exist.

The prompt, full, and effective utilization of resources of the participating states, including any resources on hand or available from the federal government or any other source, that are essential to the safety, care, and welfare of the people in the event of any emergency or disaster declared by a party state, shall be the underlying principle on which all articles of this compact shall be understood.

On behalf of the Governor of each state participating in the compact, the legally designated state official who is assigned responsibility for emergency management will be responsible for formulation of the appropriate interstate mutual aid plans and procedures necessary to implement this compact.

(3) Article III. Party State Responsibilities.

(a) It shall be the responsibility of each party state to formulate procedural plans and programs for interstate cooperation in the performance of the responsibilities listed in this article. In formulating such plans, and in carrying them out, the party states, insofar as practical, shall:

(1) Review individual state hazards analyses and, to the extent reasonably possible, determine all those potential emergencies the party states might jointly suffer, whether due to natural disaster, technological hazard, man-made disaster, emergency aspects of resources shortages, civil disorders, insurgency, or enemy attack.

(2) Review party states’ individual emergency plans and develop a plan which will determine the mechanism for the interstate management and provision of assistance concerning any potential emergency.

(3) Develop interstate procedures to fill any identified gaps and to resolve any identified inconsistencies or overlaps in existing or developed plans.

(4) Assist in warning communities adjacent to or crossing the state boundaries.

(5) Protect and assure uninterrupted delivery of services, medicines, water, food, energy and fuel, search and rescue, and critical lifeline equipment, services, and resources, both human and material.

(6) Inventory and set procedures for the interstate loan and delivery of human and material resources, together with procedures for reimbursement or forgiveness.

(7) Provide, to the extent authorized by law, for temporary suspension of any statutes or ordinances that restrict the implementation of the above responsibilities.

(b) The authorized representative of a party state may request assistance of another party state by contacting the authorized representative of that state. The provisions of this compact shall apply only to requests for assistance made by and to authorized representatives. Requests may be verbal or in writing. If verbal, the request shall be confirmed in writing within 30 days of the verbal request. Requests shall provide the following information:

(1) A description of the emergency service function for which assistance is needed, including, but not limited to, fire services, law enforcement, emergency medical, transportation, communications, public works and engineering, building inspection, planning and information assistance, mass care, resource support, health and medical services, and search and rescue.

(2) The amount and type of personnel, equipment, materials and supplies needed, and a reasonable estimate of the length of time they will be needed.

(3) The specific place and time for staging of the assisting party’s response and a point of contact at that location.

(c) There shall be frequent consultation between state officials who have assigned emergency management responsibilities and other appropriate representatives of the party states with affected jurisdictions and the United States Government, with free exchange of information, plans, and resource records relating to emergency capabilities.

(4) Article IV. Limitations.

Any party state requested to render mutual aid or conduct exercises and training for mutual aid shall take such action as is necessary to provide and make available the resources covered by this compact in accordance with the terms hereof; provided that it is understood that the state rendering aid may withhold resources to the extent necessary to provide reasonable protection for such state.

Each party state shall afford to the emergency forces of any party state, while operating within its state limits under the terms and conditions of this compact, the same powers, except that of arrest unless specifically authorized by the receiving state, duties, rights, and privileges as are afforded forces of the state in which they are performing emergency services. Emergency forces will continue under the command and control of their regular leaders, but the organizational units will come under the operational control of the emergency services authorities of the state receiving assistance. These conditions may be activated, as needed, only subsequent to a declaration of a state of emergency or disaster by the governor of the party state that is to receive assistance or upon commencement of exercises or training for mutual aid and shall continue so long as the exercises or training for mutual aid are in progress, the state of emergency or disaster remains in effect, or loaned resources remain in the receiving state(s), whichever is longer.

(5) Article V. Licenses and Permits.

Whenever any person holds a license, certificate, or other permit issued by any state party to the compact evidencing the meeting of qualifications for professional, mechanical, or other skills, and when such assistance is requested by the receiving party state, such person shall be deemed licensed, certified, or permitted by the state requesting assistance to render aid involving such skill to meet a declared emergency or disaster, subject to such limitations and conditions as the Governor of the requesting state may prescribe by executive order or otherwise.

(6) Article VI. Liability.

Officers or employees of a party state rendering aid in another state pursuant to this compact shall be considered agents of the requesting state for tort liability and immunity purposes. No party state or its officers or employees rendering aid in another state pursuant to this compact shall be liable on account of any act or omission in good faith on the part of such forces while so engaged or on account of the maintenance or use of any equipment or supplies in connection therewith. Good faith in this article shall not include willful misconduct, gross negligence, or recklessness.

(7) Article VII. Supplementary Agreements.

Inasmuch as it is probable that the pattern and detail of the machinery for mutual aid among two or more states may differ from that among the states that are party hereto, this compact contains elements of a broad base common to all states, and nothing herein contained shall preclude any state from entering into supplementary agreements with another state or affect any other agreements already in force between states. Supplementary agreements may comprehend, but shall not be limited to, provisions for evacuation and reception of injured and other persons and the exchange of medical, fire, police, public utility, reconnaissance, welfare, transportation and communications personnel, and equipment and supplies.

(8) Article VIII. Compensation.

Each party state shall provide for the payment of compensation and death benefits to injured members of the emergency forces of that state and representatives of deceased members of such forces in case such members sustain injuries or are killed while rendering aid pursuant to this compact, in the same manner and on the same terms as if the injury or death were sustained within their own state.

(9) Article IX. Reimbursement.

Any party state rendering aid in another state pursuant to this compact shall be reimbursed by the party state receiving such aid for any loss or damage to or expense incurred in the operation of any equipment and the provision of any service in answering a request for aid and for the costs incurred in connection with such requests; provided, that any aiding party state may assume in whole or in part such loss, damage, expense, or other cost, or may loan such equipment or donate such services to the receiving party state without charge or cost; and provided further, that any two or more party states may enter into supplementary agreements establishing a different allocation of costs among those states. Article VIII expenses shall not be reimbursable under this article.

(10) Article X. Evacuation.

Plans for the orderly evacuation and interstate reception of portions of the civilian population as the result of any emergency or disaster of sufficient proportions to so warrant, shall be worked out and maintained between the party states and the emergency management/services directors of the various jurisdictions where any type of incident requiring evacuations might occur. Such plans shall be put into effect by request of the state from which evacuees come and shall include the manner of transporting such evacuees, the number of evacuees to be received in different areas, the manner in which food, clothing, housing, and medical care will be provided, the registration of evacuees, the providing of facilities for the notification of relatives or friends, and the forwarding of such evacuees to other areas or the bringing in of additional materials, supplies, and all other relevant factors. Such plans shall provide that the party state receiving evacuees and the party state from which the evacuees come shall mutually agree as to reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses incurred in receiving and caring for such evacuees, for expenditures for transportation, food, clothing, medicines and medical care, and like items. Such expenditures shall be reimbursed as agreed by the party state from which the evacuees come. After the termination of the emergency or disaster, the party state from which the evacuees come shall assume the responsibility for the ultimate support of repatriation of such evacuees.

(11) Article XI. Implementation.

(a) This compact shall become effective immediately upon its enactment into law by any two states. Thereafter, this compact shall become effective as to any other state upon its enactment by such state.

(b) Any party state may withdraw from this compact by enacting a statute repealing the same, but no such withdrawal shall take effect until 30 days after the Governor of the withdrawing state has given notice in writing of such withdrawal to the Governors of all other party states. Such action shall not relieve the withdrawing state from obligations assumed hereunder prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

(c) Duly authenticated copies of this compact and of such supplementary agreements as may be entered into shall, at the time of their approval, be deposited with each of the party states and with the Federal Emergency Management Agency and other appropriate agencies of the United States Government.

(12) Article XII. Validity.

This compact shall be construed to effectuate the purposes stated in Article I hereof. If any provision of this compact is declared unconstitutional, or the applicability thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the constitutionality of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to other persons and circumstances shall not be affected thereby.

(13) Article XIII. Additional Provisions.

Nothing in this compact shall authorize or permit the use of military force by the National Guard of a state at any place outside that state in any emergency for which the President is authorized by law to call into federal service the militia, or for any purpose for which the use of the Army or the Air Force would in the absence of express statutory authorization be prohibited under Section 1385 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-414 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-414
§14–414.
Status: in_force

The Board may reinstate the permit of a corporation, partnership, or limited liability company that has failed to renew the permit for any reason if the corporation, partnership, or limited liability company:

(1) otherwise is entitled to a permit; and

(2) pays to the Board a reinstatement fee set by the Board.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-503 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-503
§14–503.
Status: in_force

(a) In this section, “Department” means the State Department of Assessments and Taxation.

(b) Each affordable housing land trust shall register its creation with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department.

(c) An affordable housing land trust shall submit updates relating to its organization, tax status, address, officers, and any other information as required by the Department.

(d) (1) The Department shall maintain an online list of registered affordable housing land trusts in the State.

(2) The Department is not responsible for the completeness or accuracy of the contents of the online list or the accuracy of any registration.

(e) The Department shall adopt regulations to carry out and enforce the provisions of this section.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-804 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-804
§14–804.
Status: in_force

On or after November 1, 2023, at the execution of a lease, the landlord shall include with the lease a link to the fact sheet published on the Department of Agriculture’s website under § 14–803 of this subtitle if the landlord knows that a tenant possesses a pet.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-701 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-701
§14–701.
Status: in_force

(a) There is a Class A light wine license in the county.

(b) The license may be issued to a holder of a Class 4 limited winery license.

(c) (1) The license authorizes the license holder to sell at retail at the place described in the license light wine produced at the winery.

(2) Light wine shall be sold in a sealed package or container that may not be opened or its contents consumed on the licensed premises.

(d) The annual license fee is $50.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1602.1 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 16 / Section 14-1602.1
§14–1602.
Status: in_force

§14–1602.1.

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Member” means a person who has a membership in a video club.

(3) (i) “Membership” means an agreement between a video club and a member that enables the member to buy or rent a video or video equipment from the video club under circumstances specified in a membership contract.

(ii) “Membership” does not include sales by mail.

(4) (i) “Video” means a videotape or video disc copy of a motion picture film, television show, or recording of a live event.

(ii) “Video” includes a video movie as defined in § 14–1601(d) of this subtitle.

(5) “Video club” means a person, corporation, partnership, or any commercial entity that is in the business of selling at retail or renting videos or video equipment.

(6) “Video equipment” includes a videotape or video disc player or recorder.

(b) Any agreement or contract for membership in a video club that requires a member to leave a signed credit card authorization with the video club shall include provisions that:

(1) Specify the maximum amount and type of fees that the video club may charge to a member on the member’s signed credit card authorization without the member’s approval, as each fee is charged; and

(2) State the maximum length of time, which may be no longer than 6 months, that the video club may charge fees to a member under paragraph (1) of this subsection before the video club shall renew the member’s credit card authorization.
Md. Code, State Finance and Procurement § 14-606 — MD Code / Article gsf / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-606
§14–606.
Status: in_force

In addition to the penalties under § 14–605(b) of this subtitle, a person that willfully misrepresents a business as a veteran–owned small business enterprise for purposes of obtaining or retaining a contract or subcontract may be subject to:

(1) suspension or debarment under Title 16 of this article; or

(2) civil penalties under the Maryland False Claims Act under Title 8 of the General Provisions Article.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-1017 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 10 / Section 14-1017
§14–1017.
Status: in_force

An officer, former officer, employee, or former employee of the State, a county, or municipal corporation who discloses confidential information in violation of § 1-301 of this article is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 6 months or both.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-917 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 9 / Section 14-917
§14–917.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, interest shall be paid on a refund claim under § 14-907 or § 14-908 of this subtitle at the rate of 6% a year on the amount of the refund from the date that the tax was paid.

(b) Interest may not be paid on a refund claim based on a mistake or error that is attributable only to the claimant and not to the Department, a clerk of the court, or the Director of Finance in Prince George’s County.

(c) Interest shall be paid on a refund claim under § 14-906(a)(2) of this subtitle as provided by § 14-608 of this title.
Md. Code, State Personnel and Pensions § 14-204 — MD Code / Article gsp / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-204
§14–204.
Status: in_force

(a) The Governor shall include in the State budget sufficient money to pay all awards made against this State or an officer or unit of this State.

(b) On appropriation of money by the General Assembly, the Comptroller shall authorize payment of all outstanding awards in the order of the date on which each award was made.
Md. Code, Education § 14-402 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-402
§14–402.
Status: reserved

(a) The government of St. Mary’s College of Maryland is vested in the Board of Trustees of St. Mary’s College of Maryland.

(b) (1) The Board of Trustees consists of 26 members.

(2) Of the 26 members:

(i) 23 members shall be appointed by the Governor upon the recommendation of the Board of Trustees, with the advice and consent of the Senate;

(ii) 1 member shall be the Chairman of the Historic St. Mary’s City Commission, or the Chairman’s designee;

(iii) 1 member shall be the President of the St. Mary’s Alumni Association; and

(iv) 1 member shall be a student in good academic standing at the College.

(c) (1) Except for the Chairman of the Historic St. Mary’s City Commission, the President of the St. Mary’s College Alumni Association, and the student member, each member serves for a term of 6 years and until a successor is appointed and qualifies. These terms are staggered as required by the terms of the members serving on July 1, 1978.

(2) The Chairman of the Historic St. Mary’s City Commission serves on the Board of Trustees of St. Mary’s College of Maryland for as long as that individual serves as Chairman of the Commission.

(3) The President of the St. Mary’s College Alumni Association serves on the Board of Trustees of St. Mary’s College of Maryland for as long as that individual serves as President of the Association.

(4) The student member serves for a term of 1 year and until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(5) A member appointed to fill a vacancy in an unexpired term serves only for the remainder of that term and until a successor is appointed and qualifies.

(6) (i) A majority of the voting members shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.

(ii) No formal action may be taken by the Board without the approval of a majority of the voting members of the Board.

(d) Each member of the Board:

(1) Serves without compensation; and

(2) Is entitled to reimbursement for expenses in accordance with the Standard State Travel Regulations.
Md. Code, Business Regulation § 14-225 — MD Code / Article gbr / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-225
§14–225.
Status: in_force

A person may not publish an advertisement offering to sell a franchise subject to registration under this subtitle unless:

(1) the person submits a copy of the advertisement to the Commissioner for review at least 7 business days before the first publication of the advertisement unless the Commissioner by regulation or order allows a later submission; or

(2) the advertisement is exempted from review by regulation of the Commissioner.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-3A-02 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 3A / Section 14-3A-02
§14–3A–02.
Status: in_force

(a) If the Governor determines that a catastrophic health emergency exists, the Governor may issue a proclamation under this subtitle.

(b) The proclamation shall indicate:

(1) the nature of the catastrophic health emergency;

(2) the areas threatened or affected; and

(3) the conditions that:

(i) led to the catastrophic health emergency; or

(ii) made possible the termination of the emergency.

(c) (1) The Governor shall rescind a proclamation issued under this section whenever the Governor determines that the catastrophic health emergency no longer exists.

(2) Unless renewed, the proclamation expires 30 days after issuance.

(3) The Governor may renew the proclamation for successive periods, each not to exceed 30 days, if the Governor determines that a catastrophic health emergency continues to exist.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4808 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 48 / Section 14-4808
§14–4808.
Status: in_force

(a) A violation of this subtitle:

(1) Is an unfair, abusive, or deceptive trade practice; and

(2) Except for § 13–410 of this article, is subject to the enforcement provisions contained in Title 13 of this article.

(b) A covered entity that violates this subtitle is subject to a civil penalty not exceeding:

(1) $2,500 per affected child for each negligent violation; and

(2) $7,500 per affected child for each intentional violation.

(c) The Division shall pay all fines, penalties, and expenses collected by the Division under this subsection into the General Fund with the intent that fines, penalties, and expenses be used to fully offset any costs incurred by the Division in connection with this subtitle.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-701 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-701
§14–701.
Status: in_force

This title may be cited as the “Maryland Medical Practice Act”.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-213 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-213
§14–213.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) For nonpayment of an installment due under a contract for the purchase of real or personal property or a contract of lease or bailment with the option to purchase the property, a person or the person’s assignee may not exercise a right or option under the contract to rescind or terminate the contract or resume possession of the property if:

(i) the person or the person’s assignee received under the contract a deposit or installment of the purchase price of the property from another person or the assignee of that person who, after making the deposit or installment, became a person in emergency management service or person suffering injury or damage; and

(ii) the attempt to exercise the right or option under the contract occurred while the person who made the deposit or installment was a person in emergency management service or person suffering injury or damage.

(2) Paragraph (1) of this subsection does not apply if a court allows the person or the person’s assignee to exercise the right or option under the contract.

(3) This subsection does not prevent the parties to a contract or their assignees from mutually agreeing in an executed writing, after the making of the contract and during or after the period that a party to the contract is a person in emergency management service, to:

(i) modify, terminate, or cancel the contract; or

(ii) repossess or retain the property purchased or received by that party under the contract.

(b) (1) After a hearing on the action:

(i) the court may order the repayment of all or part of any prior installment or deposit as a condition of terminating the contract and resuming possession of the property;

(ii) 1. on its own initiative the court may stay the action; and

2. except as provided in § 14-215 of this subtitle, on motion by a person in emergency management service, person suffering injury or damage, or another person acting on behalf of that person, the court shall stay the action; or

(iii) the court may otherwise dispose of the case as it considers equitable to preserve the interests of the parties.

(2) The court need not stay the action if the court finds that the ability of the defendant to comply with the terms of the contract was not materially affected because the defendant was a person in emergency management service or person suffering injury or damage.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-314 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-314
§14–314.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this title, a license authorizes the licensee to practice medicine while the license is effective.

(b) A licensee may practice medicine using only the name in which the license is issued.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4204 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 42 / Section 14-4204
§14–4204.
Status: in_force

Failure of a mobile home retailer to comply with this subtitle does not affect the validity of an otherwise valid financing transaction.
Md. Code, Education § 14-409 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 4 / Section 14-409
§14–409.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In this section the following words have the meanings indicated.

(2) “Computer-based instructional technology” has the meaning stated in § 12-101 of this article.

(3) “Technology” has the meaning stated in § 12-101 of this article.

(b) By January 1, 2007, the Board of Trustees shall develop a nonvisual access clause for use in the procurement of computer-based instructional technology.

(c) The nonvisual access clause developed under subsection (b) of this section shall be consistent with the standards developed by the Department of Budget and Management in accordance with the provisions of § 3-412 of the State Finance and Procurement Article.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-17 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-17
§14–5A–17.
Status: in_force

(a) Subject to the hearing provisions of § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel, on the affirmative vote of a majority of a quorum of the disciplinary panel, may deny a license to any applicant, reprimand any licensee, place any licensee on probation, or suspend or revoke a license, if the applicant or licensee:

(1) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant, licensee, or for another;

(2) Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;

(3) Is guilty of:

(i) Immoral conduct in the practice of respiratory care; or

(ii) Unprofessional conduct in the practice of respiratory care;

(4) Is:

(i) Professionally incompetent;

(ii) Physically incompetent; or

(iii) Mentally incompetent;

(5) Abandons a patient;

(6) Is habitually intoxicated;

(7) Is addicted to or habitually abuses any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article;

(8) Provides professional services while:

(i) Under the influence of alcohol; or

(ii) Using any narcotic or controlled dangerous substance as defined in § 5–101 of the Criminal Law Article or any other drug that is in excess of therapeutic amounts or without valid medical indication;

(9) Promotes the sale of services, drugs, devices, appliances, or goods to a patient so as to exploit the patient for financial gain;

(10) Willfully makes or files a false report or record in the practice of respiratory care;

(11) Willfully fails to file or record any report as required under law, willfully impedes or obstructs the filing or recording of a report, or induces another to fail to file or record a report;

(12) Breaches patient confidentiality;

(13) Pays or agrees to pay any sum or provide any form of remuneration or material benefit to any person for bringing or referring a patient or accepts or agrees to accept any sum or any form of remuneration or material benefit from an individual for bringing or referring a patient;

(14) Willfully makes a misrepresentation while practicing respiratory care;

(15) Willfully practices respiratory care with an unauthorized individual or aids an unauthorized individual in the practice of respiratory care;

(16) Offers, undertakes, or agrees to cure or treat disease by a secret method, treatment, or medicine;

(17) Is disciplined by a licensing or disciplinary authority or is convicted or disciplined by a court of any state or country or is disciplined by any branch of the uniformed services or the Veterans’ Administration for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under the Board’s disciplinary statutes;

(18) Fails to meet appropriate standards for the delivery of respiratory care performed in any inpatient or outpatient facility, office, hospital or related institution, domiciliary care facility, patient’s home, or any other location in this State;

(19) Willfully submits false statements to collect fees for which services are not provided;

(20) (i) Has been subject to investigation or disciplinary action by a licensing or disciplinary authority or by a court of any state or country for an act that would be grounds for disciplinary action under the Board’s disciplinary statutes; and

(ii) Has:

1. Surrendered the license issued by the state or country; or

2. Allowed the license issued by the state or country to expire or lapse;

(21) Willfully fails to report suspected child abuse in violation of § 5–704 of the Family Law Article;

(22) Sells, prescribes, gives away, or administers drugs for illegal or illegitimate medical purposes;

(23) Practices or attempts to practice beyond the authorized scope of practice;

(24) Refuses, withholds from, denies, or discriminates against an individual with regard to the provision of professional services for which the licensee is licensed and qualified to render because the individual is HIV positive;

(25) Practices or attempts to practice a respiratory care procedure or uses or attempts to use respiratory care equipment if the applicant or licensee has not received education and training in the performance of the procedure or the use of the equipment;

(26) Fails to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by the Board or a disciplinary panel;

(27) Fails to practice under the supervision of a physician or violates a supervisory order of a supervising physician; or

(28) Fails to complete a criminal history records check under § 14–308.1 of this title.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in the Administrative Procedure Act, before the Board or a disciplinary panel takes any action under subsection (a) of this section, it shall give the individual against whom the action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing before the Board or the disciplinary panel in accordance with the hearing requirements of § 14–405 of this title.

(c) (1) On the filing of certified docket entries with the Board by the Office of the Attorney General, a disciplinary panel shall order the suspension of a license if the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not any appeal or other proceeding is pending to have the conviction or plea set aside.

(2) After completion of the appellate process if the conviction has not been reversed or the plea has not been set aside with respect to a crime involving moral turpitude, a disciplinary panel shall order the revocation of a license on the certification by the Office of the Attorney General.

(d) (1) If, after a hearing under § 14–405 of this title, a disciplinary panel finds that there are grounds under subsection (a) of this section to suspend or revoke a license, to reprimand a licensee, or to place a licensee on probation, the disciplinary panel may impose a fine subject to the Board’s regulations in addition to suspending or revoking the license, reprimanding the licensee, or placing the licensee on probation.

(2) The Board shall pay any fines collected under this section into the General Fund of the State.

(e) In addition to any sanction authorized under this section, a disciplinary panel may require a licensee to comply with specified terms and conditions determined by the disciplinary panel.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-111 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-111
§14–111.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, every holder of a permit to drill for gas or oil shall:

(1) Submit a completion report on forms to be supplied by the Department within 30 days after the drilling of a well has been completed;

(2) Submit cutting samples at the request of the Department;

(3) Notify the Department when a well is about to be abandoned;

(4) Comply with all the requirements of this subtitle, including the proper sealing and plugging of a gas or oil well and reclamation of the site;

(5) Provide financial assurance of at least $50,000 for each gas or oil well, including each well on a multiwell pad, but not less than the most recent closure cost estimate provided by the permit holder under § 14–105(a) of this subtitle;

(6) Obtain and keep in effect comprehensive general liability insurance coverage in an amount not less than $300,000 for each person and $500,000 for each occurrence or accident to pay damages for injury to persons or damage to property caused by sudden accidental occurrences arising from, or in support of, the activities authorized by a permit issued under § 14–104 of this subtitle, including the costs and expenses incurred in the investigation, defense, or settlement of claims;

(7) Obtain and keep in effect environmental pollution liability insurance in an amount not less than $1,000,000 per loss for bodily injury and property damage to persons and natural resource damage, including the costs of cleanup and remediation, caused by the sudden or nonsudden release of pollutants arising from, or in support of, the activities authorized by a permit issued under § 14–104 of this subtitle, including the costs and expenses incurred in the investigation, defense, or settlement of claims;

(8) In the event of an assignment or transfer of a permit, maintain the existing financial assurance required under this section until replacement financial assurance is approved by the Department; and

(9) Notify the Department of the location of the equipment required by regulation for the prevention and containment of gas leaks and oil spills.

(b) The environmental pollution liability insurance required under subsection (a)(7) of this section shall be maintained for 5 years after the Department determines that:

(1) The gas or oil well has been properly sealed and plugged; and

(2) The site has been reclaimed.

(c) The permit holder’s financial assurance required under subsections (a) and (b) of this section shall:

(1) Extend to the owner or owners of the surface and subsurface property; and

(2) Cover the acts and omissions of the permit holder’s contractors and subcontractors during their activities in connection with the drilling, operation, and closure of the well.

(d) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a holder of a permit to drill for gas or oil that has a well in existence on or before October 1, 2013, shall provide financial assurance by maintaining the same performance bond and liability insurance that is required for the holder’s most recent permit or permit renewal issued on or before October 1, 2013.

(2) If a gas or oil well is in existence on or before October 1, 2013, and is modified after October 1, 2013, by recompletion, stimulation, deepening, or adding lateral extensions, the holder of the permit for the gas or oil well shall comply with the requirements for financial assurance contained in subsections (a), (b), (c), and (e) of this section.

(e) The Department may adopt regulations to:

(1) Increase the minimum amounts of financial assurance required under subsection (a) of this section;

(2) Enable permit applicants to offer, and the Department to authorize, alternative means for demonstrating financial assurance, including:

(i) A performance bond;

(ii) A blanket bond;

(iii) Cash;

(iv) A certificate of deposit;

(v) A letter of credit;

(vi) Self–insurance;

(vii) A corporate guarantee; or

(viii) Any other surety the Department determines to be good and sufficient; and

(3) Establish alternative financial assurance requirements as appropriate for a new gas storage well and a gas storage well that is modified by recompletion, stimulation, deepening, or adding lateral extensions.

(f) The Department shall adopt regulations requiring each holder of a permit to drill for gas or oil to have equipment available for the prevention and containment of gas leaks and oil spills.

(g) A permit or the transfer of a permit may not become effective until the financial assurance requirements of this section have been satisfied.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5C-18 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5C / Section 14-5C-18
§14–5C–18.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (d) of this section, each employer of a licensed polysomnographic technologist shall submit to the Board a report if:

(i) The employer:

1. Reduced, suspended, revoked, restricted, denied, conditioned, or did not renew the licensed polysomnographic technologist’s clinical privileges, employment, or other ability to practice or treat patients;

2. Involuntarily terminated or restricted the licensed polysomnographic technologist’s employment or staff membership; or

3. Asked the licensed polysomnographic technologist to voluntarily resign because of the licensed polysomnographic technologist’s conduct or while the licensed polysomnographic technologist is being investigated; and

(ii) The action described under item (i) of this paragraph was taken:

1. For reasons that might be grounds for disciplinary action under § 14–5C–17 of this subtitle;

2. Because the licensed polysomnographic technologist may have engaged in an act that may constitute unprofessional conduct;

3. Because the licensed polysomnographic technologist may be unable to practice polysomnography with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental condition or professional incompetence; or

4. Because the licensed polysomnographic technologist may have harmed or placed one or more patients or the public at unreasonable risk of harm by engaging in an act that creates an immediate or continuing danger.

(2) Each report submitted under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include:

(i) The action taken by the employer;

(ii) A detailed explanation of the reasons for the action, including references to specific patient medical records, if any, that informed the employer’s action; and

(iii) The steps taken by the employer to investigate the conduct of the licensed polysomnographic technologist.

(3) (i) The Board may request from the employer additional information regarding an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that was taken by the employer.

(ii) If an employer receives a request made under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the employer shall promptly provide the additional information.

(b) If an employer knows that the conduct of a licensed polysomnographic technologist requires that the employer submit a report under subsection (a)(1) of this section because the licensed polysomnographic technologist is impaired by alcohol or another substance, the employer is not required to report the technologist to the Board if:

(1) The employer knows that the licensed polysomnographic technologist is:

(i) In a substance use disorder treatment program that is accredited by The Joint Commission or is certified by the Department; or

(ii) Under the care of a health care practitioner who is competent and capable of dealing with substance use disorders; and

(2) (i) The employer is able to verify that the licensed polysomnographic technologist remains in the treatment program until successful discharge; and

(ii) The action or condition of the licensed polysomnographic technologist has not caused injury to any person while the licensed polysomnographic technologist is practicing as a licensed polysomnographic technologist.

(c) If the employer knows that the licensed polysomnographic technologist is noncompliant with the substance use disorder treatment program, the employer of the licensed polysomnographic technologist shall report the licensed polysomnographic technologist’s noncompliance to the Board.

(d) (1) The Board may extend the reporting under this section for good cause shown.

(2) A person is not required under this section to make any report that would be in violation of any federal or State law, rule, or regulation concerning the confidentiality of substance use disorder patient records.

(e) The Board may enforce this section by subpoena.

(f) Any person shall have the immunity from liability described under § 5–715(d) of the Courts Article for giving any of the information required by this section.

(g) An employer required to make a report to the Board under this section shall submit the report within 10 days after the action requiring the report.

(h) A report made under this section is privileged, not subject to inspection under the Public Information Act, and not subject to subpoena or discovery in any civil action other than a proceeding arising out of a hearing and decision of the Board or a disciplinary panel under this title.

(i) (1) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 for knowingly failing to report under this section.

(2) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per incident for a report made by an employer in bad faith.

(3) The Board shall remit any penalty collected under this subsection into the General Fund of the State.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1402 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 14 / Section 14-1402
§14–1402.
Status: in_force

(a) A manufacturer of motor vehicles sold in the State shall establish procedures under which each consumer in the State who owns or leases a motor vehicle to which an adjustment program of the manufacturer applies:

(1) Is notified of the adjustment program;

(2) On request, is provided with a copy of any service bulletin or any other document issued by the manufacturer pertaining to an adjustment program or to a condition that may substantially affect motor vehicle durability, reliability, or performance; and

(3) Within 90 days after the establishment of a new adjustment program, is sent written notice by first–class mail of the terms and conditions of the adjustment program.

(b) (1) A manufacturer of motor vehicles sold in the State shall ensure that the purchaser of a new motor vehicle receives, at the time of purchase, a written notice describing the rights and remedies provided under this section.

(2) The written notice shall be considered sufficient if stated in substantially the following form:

“Sometimes (insert manufacturer’s name) offers a special adjustment program to pay all or part of the cost of certain repairs beyond the terms of the warranty. Check with your dealer to determine whether any adjustment program is applicable to your motor vehicle.”

(c) A manufacturer shall provide to its dealers information about each adjustment program of the manufacturer in a format that facilitates the disclosure of the terms and conditions of the adjustment program to a consumer seeking repairs at the dealer’s repair facility.

(d) (1) A manufacturer that establishes an adjustment program shall implement procedures to ensure reimbursement of each consumer who:

(i) Is eligible under the adjustment program; and

(ii) Incurs expenses for the repair of a condition subject to the adjustment program before the consumer knows about the adjustment program.

(2) Reimbursement under this subsection shall be consistent with the terms and conditions of the particular adjustment program.

(3) (i) A consumer shall make a claim for reimbursement under this subsection in writing to the manufacturer within the later of:

1. 2 years after the date of the consumer’s payment for the repair of the condition; or

2. 1 year after the date the manufacturer sends the notice required under subsection (a)(3) of this section.

(ii) The manufacturer shall notify the consumer within 21 business days after receiving a claim for reimbursement whether the claim will be approved or denied.

(iii) If the claim is denied, the manufacturer shall state in writing the specific reasons for the denial.
Md. Code, Health - General § 14-303 — MD Code / Article ghg / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-303
§14–303.
Status: in_force

This subtitle does not affect a relative who cares for a medically handicapped adult or a neighbor or friend who cares for a medically handicapped adult by mutual choice and agreement.
Md. Code, Agriculture § 14-304 — MD Code / Article gag / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-304
§14–304.
Status: in_force

(a) There is a Hemp Farming Fund.

(b) The purpose of the Fund is to defray the costs of administering and enforcing the Program.

(c) The Department shall administer the Fund.

(d) (1) The Fund is a special, nonlapsing fund that is not subject to § 7–302 of the State Finance and Procurement Article.

(2) The State Treasurer shall hold the Fund separately, and the Comptroller shall account for the Fund.

(e) The Fund consists of:

(1) Revenue distributed to the Fund under § 14–306 of this subtitle;

(2) Money appropriated in the State budget to the Fund;

(3) Interest earnings of the Fund; and

(4) Any other money from any other source accepted for the benefit of the Fund.

(f) The Fund may be used only for the costs associated with administering and enforcing the Program.

(g) (1) The State Treasurer shall invest the money of the Fund in the same manner as other State money may be invested.

(2) Any interest earnings of the Fund shall be credited to the Fund.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-2505 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 25 / Section 14-2505
§14–2505.
Status: in_force

(a) If a seller violates any provision of this subtitle, the buyer may cancel the sale by notifying the seller, in any manner and by any means, of the buyer’s intention to cancel.

(b) If a seller fails to refund all payments in the time required, after the purchase complies with the requirements of the notice of cancellation a purchaser is entitled to payment of an additional 1 percent for each month or part of a month that the refund is not paid.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1210 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1210
§14–1210.
Status: in_force

A consumer reporting agency which furnishes a consumer report for employment purposes and which for that purpose compiles and reports items of information on consumers which are matters of public record and are likely to have an adverse effect upon a consumer’s ability to obtain employment shall:

(1) At the time public record information is reported to the user of the consumer report, notify the consumer of the fact that public record information is being reported by the consumer reporting agency, together with the name and address of the person to whom the information is being reported; or

(2) Maintain strict procedures designed to insure that whenever public record information which is likely to have an adverse effect on a consumer’s ability to obtain employment is reported it is complete and up to date. For purposes of this paragraph, items of public record relating to arrests, indictments, convictions, suits, tax liens, and outstanding judgments shall be considered up to date if the current public record status of the item at the time of the report is reported.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-1103 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 11 / Section 14-1103
§14–1103.
Status: in_force

(a) The Board may issue a nonrefillable container permit for draft beer to a holder of a Class A license, a Class B license, or a Class D license.

(b) An applicant for the permit shall complete the form that the Board provides.

(c) The hours of sale for the permit:

(1) begin at the same time as those for the underlying license; and

(2) end at midnight.

(d) The Board shall adopt regulations to carry out this section.

(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the annual permit fees are:

(i) $50 for an applicant whose license has an off–sale privilege; and

(ii) $500 for an applicant whose license does not have an off–sale privilege.

(2) An applicant who has a refillable container permit may not be charged a fee for a nonrefillable container permit.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-515 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-515
§14–515.
Status: in_force

Any party to a proceeding in the circuit court under § 14–513 of this subtitle may appeal a final decision of the circuit court to the Appellate Court of Maryland.
Md. Code, Tax - Property § 14-701 — MD Code / Article gtp / Title 14 / Subtitle 7 / Section 14-701
§14–701.
Status: in_force

A tax penalty is calculated on the total tax liability on property.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-320 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-320
§14–320.
Status: in_force

(a) Subject to any regulation that the Board adopts, it may reinstate a license that has been revoked.

(b) A license may be reinstated under this section only on:

(1) the affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the Board then serving; and

(2) payment to the Board of a reinstatement fee set by the Board.
Md. Code, Family Law § 14-301 — MD Code / Article gfl / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-301
§14–301.
Status: in_force

The provisions of this subtitle do not limit the responsibility of a law enforcement agency to enforce the laws of this State or preclude a law enforcement agency from reporting and investigating alleged criminal conduct.
Md. Code, Business Regulation § 14-119 — MD Code / Article gbr / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-119
§14–119.
Status: in_force

(a) The Commissioner may pass an order denying effectiveness to, or suspending or revoking the effectiveness of, any registration if the Commissioner finds that the order is in the public interest and that:

(1) (i) the registration as of its effective date, or as of any earlier date in the case of an order denying effectiveness, is incomplete in any material respect or contains any statement made that was, in light of the circumstances under which it was made, false or misleading with respect to any material fact;

(ii) an amendment as of its effective date is incomplete in any material respect or contains any statement made that was, in light of the circumstances under which it was made, false or misleading with respect to any material fact; or

(iii) a report is incomplete in any material respect or contains any statement made that was, in light of the circumstances under which it was made, false or misleading with respect to any material fact;

(2) any provision of this subtitle or any order or condition lawfully imposed under this subtitle has been violated, in connection with the business opportunity by:

(i) the person filing the registration;

(ii) a seller, any partner, officer, or director of the seller, or any person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions as the seller; or

(iii) a person that directly or indirectly controls or is controlled by the seller if the person filing the registration is directly or indirectly controlled by or acting for the seller;

(3) except as provided in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the business opportunity registered or sought to be registered is the subject of an order denying, suspending, or revoking a registration or a permanent or temporary injunction of any court of competent jurisdiction;

(4) the seller’s enterprise or method of business, or that of the business opportunity, includes or would include activities that are illegal where performed;

(5) the business opportunity or the offering of a business opportunity has worked or tended to work a fraud upon purchasers or would so operate;

(6) there has been a failure to file any documents or information required by § 14-113.1 of this subtitle; or

(7) the seller’s literature or advertising is misleading, incorrect, incomplete, or deceptive.

(b) (1) The Commissioner may enter a denial order if the Commissioner finds that the order is in the public interest and the seller has failed to pay the proper registration fee.

(2) The Commissioner shall vacate any such order when the deficiency has been corrected.

(c) The Commissioner may not:

(1) institute a proceeding against an effective registration under subsection (a)(3) of this section more than 1 year after the date of the order or injunction relied on; or

(2) pass an order under subsection (a)(3) of this section on the basis of an order or injunction entered under any other state act unless that order or injunction was based on facts which would currently constitute grounds for an order under this section.

(d) By order, the Commissioner summarily may postpone or suspend the effectiveness of the registration pending final determination of any proceeding under this section.

(e) Upon the entry of the order, the Commissioner shall promptly notify the seller:

(1) that the order has been entered;

(2) the basis for the order; and

(3) that within 15 days after the day on which the Commissioner receives a written request by the seller, the matter will be set down for a hearing.

(f) If the seller fails to request a hearing and the Commissioner fails to order a hearing, the order shall remain in effect until the Commissioner modifies or vacates the order.

(g) If the seller requests a hearing or the Commissioner orders a hearing, the Commissioner, after providing notice of an opportunity for hearing to the seller, may modify or vacate the order or extend it until final determination.

(h) The Commissioner may not enter an order described under subsection (b) of this section without first providing to the seller notice in accordance with subsection (e) of this section, an opportunity for hearing, and written findings of fact and conclusions of law.

(i) If the Commissioner finds that the conditions which prompted its entry have changed or that it is otherwise in the public interest, the Commissioner may vacate or modify an order passed under this section.
Md. Code, Environment § 14-105 — MD Code / Article gen / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-105
§14–105.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) An applicant for a permit to drill a well under § 14–104 of this subtitle shall submit an application in a manner satisfactory to the Department.

(2) The application for a permit to drill a well under § 14–104 of this subtitle and each application for a permit renewal shall include a closure cost estimate for the proper sealing and plugging of the gas or oil well and reclamation of the site.

(b) The Department shall establish and collect fees for:

(1) The issuance of a permit to drill a well under § 14–104 of this subtitle;

(2) The renewal of a permit to drill a well under § 14–104 of this subtitle; and

(3) The production of oil and gas wells installed after October 1, 2010.

(c) The fees imposed under subsection (b) of this section shall be set by the Department at the rate necessary to implement the purposes set forth in § 14–123 of this subtitle.

(d) In any fiscal year, if the fee schedule established by the Department generates revenue that exceeds the amount necessary to operate a regulatory program to oversee the drilling of oil and gas wells, the Department shall reduce the fees in the following fiscal year.

(e) The fees collected by the Department under this section shall be deposited in the Oil and Gas Fund established under § 14–122 of this subtitle.

(f) The Department shall provide public notice, public informational hearings, and judicial review in accordance with the provisions of § 5–204 of this article.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5G-24 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5G / Section 14-5G-24
§14–5G–24.
Status: in_force

(a) Unless authorized to practice genetic counseling under this subtitle, a person may not represent to the public by title, by description of services, methods, or procedures, or otherwise, that the person is authorized to practice genetic counseling in this State.

(b) Unless authorized to practice genetic counseling under this subtitle, a person may not use the titles “genetic counselor”, “licensed genetic counselor”, “certified genetic counselor”, “gene counselor”, “genetic consultant”, “genetic associate”, or any words, letters, or symbols with the intent to imply that the person practices genetic counseling or is a certified genetic counselor or licensed genetic counselor.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4702 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 47 / Section 14-4702
§14–4702.
Status: in_force

This subtitle applies to a person that conducts business in the State or provides products or services that are targeted to residents of the State, and that during the preceding calendar year did any of the following:

(1) Controlled or processed the personal data of at least 35,000 consumers, excluding personal data controlled or processed solely for the purpose of completing a payment transaction; or

(2) Controlled or processed the personal data of at least 10,000 consumers and derived more than 20% of its gross revenue from the sale of personal data.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4406 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 44 / Section 14-4406
§14–4406.
Status: in_force

(a) A violation of this section is an unfair, abusive, or deceptive trade practice within the meaning of Title 13 of this article and is subject to the enforcement and penalty provisions contained in Title 13 of this article.

(b) This section does not prevent an individual from pursuing any other remedy provided by law.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4501 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 45 / Section 14-4501
§14–4501.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Called party” means a person who is a regular user of a telephone number that receives a telephone solicitation.

(c) “Caller identification service” means a service that allows a telephone subscriber to have the telephone number and, where available, the name of the calling party transmitted simultaneously with the telephone call and displayed on a device connected to the subscriber’s telephone.

(d) “Prior express written consent” means a written agreement that:

(1) Bears the signature of the called party;

(2) Clearly authorizes the person making or allowing the placement of a telephone solicitation by telephone call, text message, or voicemail to deliver or cause to be delivered to the called party:

(i) A telephone solicitation using an automated system for the selection or dialing of telephone numbers;

(ii) The playing of a recorded or artificial voice message when a connection is completed to a number called; or

(iii) The transmission of a prerecorded voicemail; and

(3) Includes:

(i) The telephone number to which the signatory authorizes a telephone solicitation to be delivered; and

(ii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure informing the called party that:

1. By executing the agreement, the called party authorizes the person making or allowing the placement of a telephone solicitation to deliver or cause to be delivered a telephone solicitation to the called party using:

A. An automated system for the selection or dialing of telephone numbers; or

B. The playing of a recorded message when a connection is completed to a number called; and

2. The called party is not required to directly or indirectly:

A. Sign the written agreement; or

B. Agree to enter into the agreement as a condition of purchasing any property, goods, or services.

(e) “Signature” includes an electronic or digital signature to the extent that the form of signature is recognized as a valid signature under applicable federal law or State contract law.

(f) “Telephone solicitation” has the meaning stated in § 8–205 of the Public Utilities Article.
Md. Code, Transportation § 14-104 — MD Code / Article gtr / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-104
§14–104.
Status: in_force

(a) A person may not willfully damage or tamper with any vehicle without the consent of its owner.

(b) A person may not drop or throw stones or other objects at any vehicle or at occupants of a vehicle.

(c) A person may not, with intent to commit any malicious mischief, damage, injury, or crime, climb into or on any vehicle, whether it is in motion or at rest.

(d) A person may not, with intent to commit any malicious mischief, damage, injury, or crime, manipulate or attempt to manipulate any of the levers, starting mechanism, brakes, or other mechanism or device of any vehicle while the vehicle is at rest and unattended.

(e) A person convicted of a violation of this section is subject to imprisonment not exceeding 2 months or a fine not exceeding $500 or both.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5G-04 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5G / Section 14-5G-04
§14–5G–04.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Board shall set reasonable fees for the issuance and renewal of licenses and the other services the Board provides to genetic counselors.

(2) The fees charged shall be set so as to produce funds to approximate the cost of maintaining the licensure program and the other services provided to genetic counselors.

(b) (1) The Board shall pay all fees collected under the provisions of this subtitle to the Comptroller.

(2) The Comptroller shall distribute all fees to the Board.

(c) The fees shall be used to cover the actual documented direct and indirect costs of fulfilling the statutory and regulatory duties of the Board as provided by this subtitle.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4001 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 40 / Section 14-4001
§14–4001.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) (1) “Entertainment event” means:

(i) A performance;

(ii) A recreation;

(iii) An amusement;

(iv) A diversion;

(v) A spectacle;

(vi) A show; or

(vii) Any similar event.

(2) “Entertainment event” includes:

(i) A theatrical or musical performance;

(ii) A concert;

(iii) A film;

(iv) A game;

(v) A ride; and

(vi) A sporting event.

(c) (1) “Lower–level domain name” means the portion of text in a URL that is to the left of top–level domains such as .com, .net, or .org.

(2) “Lower–level domain name” includes:

(i) A second–level domain name;

(ii) A third–level domain name; and

(iii) Any other subdomain name.

(d) “Ticket” means a ticket for admission to an entertainment event.

(e) “Ticket website” means a website:

(1) Advertising the sale or resale of tickets;

(2) Offering the sale or resale of tickets; or

(3) Facilitating a secondary ticket exchange or electronic marketplace that enables consumers to sell, purchase, and resell tickets to an entertainment event in the State.

(f) “URL” means the Uniform Resource Locator for a website.

(g) “Venue” means a theater, a stadium, a field, a hall, a convention center, a fairground, or any other facility where an entertainment event takes place.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-316 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-316
§14–316.
Status: in_force

(a) The Board may issue a retired status license to an individual who:

(1) is currently licensed in Maryland as a professional engineer;

(2) has been licensed as a professional engineer for at least 25 years, of which at least 5 years were in Maryland;

(3) is not the subject of a pending disciplinary action related to the practice of engineering in this or any other state;

(4) submits to the Board an application on the form approved by the Board; and

(5) pays to the Board a fee as set by the Board.

(b) (1) The holder of a retired status license issued under this section may not engage in the practice of professional engineering.

(2) The holder of a retired status license shall be permitted to use the designation of “Professional Engineer, Retired”.

(c) The Board may reactivate the license of the holder of a retired status license if that individual:

(1) submits to the Board an application for reactivation on the form approved by the Board;

(2) meets all applicable continuing competency requirements determined by the Board;

(3) is not the subject of a pending disciplinary action related to the practice of engineering in this or any other state; and

(4) pays to the Board a reactivation fee as set by the Board.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5D-04 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5D / Section 14-5D-04
§14–5D–04.
Status: in_force

There is an Athletic Trainer Advisory Committee within the Board.
Md. Code, Alcoholic Beverages and Cannabis § 14-2501 — MD Code / Article gab / Title 14 / Subtitle 25 / Section 14-2501
§14–2501.
Status: in_force

(a) In this section, “bottle club” is explicitly defined as and limited to an establishment that is:

(1) a restaurant that accommodates the public and is equipped with a dining room with facilities for preparing and serving regular meals; or

(2) a nightclub that offers to the public music, dancing, or other nighttime entertainment.

(b) An establishment that is a bottle club not licensed by the Board, at a location under the control or possession of the establishment, may not:

(1) serve or keep alcoholic beverages; or

(2) allow alcoholic beverages to be consumed.

(c) A volunteer fire department, rescue squad, or emergency medical services organization may conduct not more than four events each year to which an individual may bring alcoholic beverages to be consumed on a location under the control or possession of the volunteer fire department, rescue squad, or emergency medical services organization.

(d) A person who violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to imprisonment not exceeding 2 years or a fine not exceeding $10,000 or both.
Md. Code, Business Regulation § 14-228 — MD Code / Article gbr / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-228
§14–228.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle, a person may not offer to sell, through advertisement or otherwise, or sell a franchise in the State unless the offer of the franchise has been registered under this subtitle.

(b) A person who willfully sells a franchise knowingly violating this section is guilty of a felony and, on conviction, is subject for each violation to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years or both.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5E-18 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5E / Section 14-5E-18
§14–5E–18.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (d) of this section, each employer of a licensed perfusionist shall submit to the Board a report if:

(i) The employer:

1. Reduced, suspended, revoked, restricted, denied, conditioned, or did not renew the licensed perfusionist’s clinical privileges, employment, or other ability to practice or treat patients;

2. Involuntarily terminated or restricted the licensee’s employment or staff membership; or

3. Asked the licensee to voluntarily resign because of the licensed perfusionist’s conduct or while the licensee is being investigated; and

(ii) The action described under item (i) of this paragraph was taken:

1. For reasons that might be grounds for disciplinary action under § 14–5E–16 of this subtitle;

2. Because the licensed perfusionist may have engaged in an act that may constitute unprofessional conduct;

3. Because the licensed perfusionist may be unable to practice perfusion with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental condition or professional incompetence; or

4. Because the licensed perfusionist may have harmed or placed one or more patients or the public at unreasonable risk of harm by engaging in an act that creates an immediate or continuing danger.

(2) A report required under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall include:

(i) The action taken by the employer;

(ii) A detailed explanation of the reasons for the action, including references to specific patient medical records, if any, that informed the employer’s action; and

(iii) The steps taken by the employer to investigate the conduct of the licensed perfusionist.

(3) (i) The Board may request from the employer additional information regarding an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that was taken by the employer.

(ii) If an employer receives a request made under subparagraph (i) of this paragraph, the employer shall promptly provide the additional information.

(b) If an employer knows that the conduct of a licensed perfusionist requires that the employer submit a report under subsection (a)(1) of this section because the licensed perfusionist is impaired by alcohol or another substance, the employer is not required to report the licensed perfusionist to the Board if:

(1) The employer knows that the licensed perfusionist is:

(i) In a substance use disorder treatment program that is accredited by The Joint Commission, or is certified by the Department; or

(ii) Under the care of a health care practitioner who is competent and capable of dealing with substance use disorders; and

(2) (i) The employer is able to verify that the licensed perfusionist remains in the treatment program until successful discharge; and

(ii) The action or condition of the licensed perfusionist has not caused injury to any person while the perfusionist is practicing as a licensed perfusionist.

(c) If the employer knows that the licensed perfusionist is noncompliant with the substance use disorder program, the employer of the licensed perfusionist shall report the licensed perfusionist’s noncompliance to the Board.

(d) (1) The Board may extend the reporting under this section for good cause shown.

(2) A person is not required under this section to make any report that would be in violation of any federal or State law, rule, or regulation concerning the confidentiality of substance use disorder patient records.

(e) The Board may enforce this section by subpoena.

(f) Any person shall have the immunity from liability described under § 5–715(d) of the Courts Article for giving any of the information required by this section.

(g) An employer required to make a report to the Board under this section shall submit the report within 10 days after the action requiring the report.

(h) A report made under this section is privileged, not subject to inspection under the Public Information Act, and not subject to subpoena or discovery in any civil action other than a proceeding arising out of a hearing and decision of the Board or a disciplinary panel under this title.

(i) (1) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 for knowingly failing to report under this section.

(2) A disciplinary panel may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per incident for a report made by an employer in bad faith.

(3) The Board shall remit any penalty collected under this subsection into the General Fund of the State.
Md. Code, Real Property § 14-806 — MD Code / Article grp / Title 14 / Subtitle 8 / Section 14-806
§14–806.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Subject to paragraph (2) of this subsection, when possession of real property is delivered to a landlord or complainant following an action under § 8–401, § 8–402, or § 8–402.1 of this article or § 14–132 of this title, the sheriff, constable, or other official shall:

(i) Immediately inspect the premises for any pet; and

(ii) Provide to the tenant or person who was holding possession of the real property any pet on the premises belonging to the tenant or person who was holding possession of the real property.

(2) If the tenant or person who was holding possession of real property is not present at the time the real property is delivered to a landlord or complainant, the sheriff, constable, or other official shall:

(i) Contact an animal shelter or animal rescue organization to take custody of the pet;

(ii) Provide the tenant or person who was holding possession of the real property with the name and contact information of the animal shelter or animal rescue organization where the pet is taken; and

(iii) Provide the animal shelter or animal rescue organization with the name and contact information, including the telephone number if available, of the tenant or person who was holding possession of the real property from which the pet was taken.

(b) A person may not remove a pet from real property delivered to a landlord or complainant following an action under § 8–401, § 8–402, or § 8–402.1 of this article or § 14–132 of this title and leave the pet on public property or a public right–of–way.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-505 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5 / Section 14-505
§14–505.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A licensed physician or registered nurse who is primarily responsible for the treatment of an individual for a burn injury described in paragraph (2) of this subsection shall as soon as practicable notify the county fire chief or administrator, or designee, or, if neither office exists, the State Fire Marshal or designee. If treatment occurs at a hospital, the treating physician or designee shall be responsible for giving the notice required by this section.

(2) The provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection apply to a burn injury:

(i) Causing 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 5 percent or more of the patient’s body;

(ii) To the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal edema caused by inhaling super-heated air;

(iii) Which causes death; or

(iv) Which is likely to cause death.

(3) The provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection do not apply to a sunburn.

(b) Notice under this section shall include:

(1) The name and address of the patient, if known;

(2) A description of the burn injury;

(3) The reported cause of the burn injury, if given;

(4) The patient’s prognosis; and

(5) Any other fact concerning the burn injury which might assist in detecting arson.

(c) If an investigation is conducted after notification is given under subsection (a) of this section, the investigating agency shall report its findings on an incident reporting system report and send it to the State Fire Marshal’s office for retention.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-608 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-608
§14–608.
Status: in_force

(a) Any person who violates any provision of this subtitle, and each of his managers, managing agents, directors, or officers who directly participates in a violation or consents to a violation, is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $500 or imprisonment not exceeding three months or both.

(b) It is a defense to any prosecution brought under this subtitle that the item concerning which the prosecution is brought was manufactured before July 1, 1912.
Md. Code, Criminal Law § 14-103 — MD Code / Article gcr / Title 14 / Subtitle 1 / Section 14-103
§14–103.
Status: in_force

Any claim to dispensation from punishment by benefit of clergy is abolished.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4709 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 47 / Section 14-4709
§14–4709.
Status: in_force

(a) If a third party uses or shares a consumer’s information in a manner inconsistent with promises made to the consumer at the time of collection of the information, the third party shall provide an affected consumer with notice of the new or changed practice before implementing the new or changed practice.

(b) The notice provided under subsection (a) of this section shall be provided in a manner and at a time reasonably calculated to allow a consumer to exercise the rights provided under this subtitle.
Md. Code, Business Occupations and Professions § 14-313 — MD Code / Article gbo / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-313
§14–313.
Status: in_force

While a license is in effect, it authorizes the licensee to practice engineering.
Md. Code, Education § 14-308 — MD Code / Article ged / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-308
§14–308.
Status: in_force

A decision may not be made at any step of the grievance procedure that conflicts with or modifies a policy approved by the Board of Regents of the University or with any applicable statute or with any administrative regulation issued under appropriate statutory authority or that otherwise delimits the lawfully delegated authority of University officials unless prior approval has been obtained from the responsible official.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-2301 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 23 / Section 14-2301
§14–2301.
Status: in_force

(a) In this subtitle the following words have the meanings indicated.

(b) “Aftermarket crash parts” means crash parts:

(1) Manufactured by a person other than the original manufacturer of the motor vehicle to be repaired; and

(2) For which the original manufacturer of the motor vehicle has not authorized the use of its name or trademark by the manufacturer of the crash parts.

(c) “Body shop” means any person that removes, replaces, reconditions, or repairs sheet metal or fiberglass motor vehicle crash parts.

(d) “Crash parts” means exterior or interior sheet metal or fiberglass panels and parts which form the superstructure or body of a motor vehicle including but not limited to fenders, bumpers, quarter panels, door panels, hoods, grills, firewalls, permanent roofs, wheelwells, and front and rear lamp display panels.

(e) “Genuine crash parts” means crash parts:

(1) Manufactured by or for the original manufacturer of the motor vehicle to be repaired; and

(2) Which are authorized to carry the name or trademark of the original manufacturer of the motor vehicle.

(f) (1) “Motor vehicle” means a passenger car as defined under § 11–144.2 of the Transportation Article.

(2) “Motor vehicle” does not include a motor home, as defined by the Motor Vehicle Administration.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-4103 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 41 / Section 14-4103
§14–4103.
Status: in_force

Whenever the Office and the Commissioner consider it appropriate, the Office and the Commissioner shall use their authority under § 1042 of the Dodd–Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 to bring civil actions or other appropriate proceedings authorized under the Act.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-12 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-12
§14–5A–12.
Status: in_force

A respiratory care practitioner license authorizes the licensee to practice respiratory care while the license is effective.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-604 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 6 / Section 14-604
§14–604.
Status: in_force

(a) A person may not sell, manufacture for sale, or possess with intent to sell any item of merchandise made in whole or in part of silver or a silver alloy, which has stamped on it, on a tag attached to it, or on a package in which it is contained, any mark or word, other than the word “sterling” or “coin”, which indicates or is designed or intended to indicate that the silver or silver alloy in the item is greater than its actual degree of fineness, unless the actual fineness of the silver or silver alloy is not less than the fineness indicated by the mark or word by more than 0.004 parts.

(b) For purposes of this section, in any assay or test undertaken to ascertain the fineness of the silver or silver alloy in an item, the part of the silver or silver alloy used may not contain or have attached to it any solder or alloy of inferior fineness used to braze or unite the parts of the item.

(c) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the actual fineness of all silver, silver alloy, and solder or alloy of inferior fineness used to braze or unite the parts of the item shall be assayed as one piece and may not be less than the fineness indicated by the mark by more than 0.010 parts.
Md. Code, Economic Development § 14-302 — MD Code / Article gec / Title 14 / Subtitle 3 / Section 14-302
§14–302.
Status: in_force

(a) The Department and the Department of Transportation, including the Maryland Aviation Administration, shall:

(1) monitor the Federal Aviation Administration for any proposed regulations or rulemaking that relate to the regulation of the operation of small commercial unmanned aircraft systems;

(2) determine the impact of any proposed regulations or rulemaking on the State; and

(3) determine whether it is in the public interest for the State to consider statewide legislation relating to the regulation of the operation of unmanned aircraft systems.

(b) In determining the findings under subsection (a) of this section, the Department and the Department of Transportation, including the Maryland Aviation Administration, shall consult with:

(1) the University of Maryland, in its role as a member of the Mid–Atlantic Aviation Partnership;

(2) county and municipal governments; and

(3) other interested parties that the Department or the Department of Transportation, including the Maryland Aviation Administration, determine appropriate.

(c) If the Department and the Department of Transportation, including the Maryland Aviation Administration, determine that any proposed regulations or rulemaking that relate to the regulation of the operation of small commercial unmanned aircraft have been or are likely to be adopted by the Federal Aviation Administration, as soon as practicably possible, the Department and the Department of Transportation, including the Maryland Aviation Administration, shall report any findings and recommendations to the Governor and, in accordance with § 2–1257 of the State Government Article, the General Assembly.
Md. Code, Public Safety § 14-202 — MD Code / Article gps / Title 14 / Subtitle 2 / Section 14-202
§14–202.
Status: in_force

(a) The purposes of this subtitle are:

(1) to provide for, strengthen, and expedite national defense when emergency conditions threaten the peace and security of the United States and the State; and

(2) to enable the State to fulfill more successfully the requirements of national defense.

(b) To achieve these purposes, this subtitle temporarily suspends:

(1) enforcement of civil liabilities against persons in emergency management service to enable them to devote their entire energy to the emergency management needs of the State and the United States;

(2) enforcement of civil liabilities against persons suffering injury or damage to enable them to devote their entire energy to the cure or improvement of the injuries or damage suffered; and

(3) legal proceedings and transactions that may prejudice the civil rights of persons in emergency management service or persons suffering injury or damage during the emergency period to which this subtitle is applicable.
Md. Code, Commercial Law § 14-1204 — MD Code / Article gcl / Title 14 / Subtitle 12 / Section 14-1204
§14–1204.
Status: in_force

(a) A person may not procure or cause to be prepared an investigative consumer report on any consumer unless:

(1) It is clearly and accurately disclosed to the consumer that an investigative consumer report including information as to his character, general reputation, personal characteristics, and mode of living, whichever are applicable, may be made, and the disclosure:

(i) Is made in a writing mailed, or otherwise delivered, to the consumer, not later than three days after the date on which the report was first requested; and

(ii) Includes a statement informing the consumer of his right to request the additional disclosures provided for under subsection (b) of this section; or

(2) The report is to be used for employment purposes for which the consumer has not specifically applied.

(b) Any person who procures or causes to be prepared an investigative consumer report on any consumer shall make, upon written request made by the consumer within a reasonable period of time after the receipt by him of the disclosure required by subsection (a)(1) of this section, a complete and accurate disclosure of the nature and scope of the investigation requested. This disclosure shall be made in a writing mailed, or otherwise delivered, to the consumer not later than five days after the date on which the request for the disclosure was received from the consumer or the report was first requested, whichever is the later.

(c) No person may be held liable for any violation of subsection (a) or (b) of this section if he shows by a preponderance of the evidence that at the time of the violation he maintained reasonable procedures to assure compliance with subsection (a) or (b) of this section.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5A-07 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5A / Section 14-5A-07
§14–5A–07.
Status: in_force

In addition to the powers set forth elsewhere in this subtitle, the Committee:

(1) Shall:

(i) Develop and recommend to the Board:

1. Regulations to carry out this subtitle; and

2. Any statutory changes that affect the profession; and

(ii) Keep a record of its meetings; and

(2) May:

(i) Provide recommendations regarding the practice of respiratory care; and

(ii) Advise the Board on any other matters related to respiratory care practitioners.
Md. Code, Health Occupations § 14-5D-18 — MD Code / Article gho / Title 14 / Subtitle 5D / Section 14-5D-18
§14–5D–18.
Status: in_force

(a) A person who violates § 14–5D–17 of this subtitle is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or both.

(b) A person who violates § 14–5D–17 of this subtitle is subject to a civil fine of not more than $5,000 to be levied by a disciplinary panel.

(c) The Board shall pay any penalty collected under this section into the Board of Physicians Fund.