O.C.G.A. § 16-13-25 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 13 / Section 16-13-25
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-13-25
Status: reserved

The controlled substances listed in this Code section are included in Schedule I:

(1) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, pursuant to this article, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Acetylmethadol; (B) Allylprodine; (C) Reserved; (D) Alphameprodine; (E) Alphamethadol; (F) Benzethidine; (G) Betacetylmethadol; (H) Betameprodine; (I) Betamethadol; (J) Betaprodine; (K) Brorphine; (L) Dextromoramide; (M) Dextromorphan; (N) Diampromide; (O) Diethylthiambutene; (P) Dimenoxadol; (Q) Dimetheptanol; (R) Dimethylthiambutene; (S) Dioxaphetyl butyrate; (T) Dipipanone; (U) Ethylmethylthiambutene; (V) Reserved; (W) Etoxeridene; (X) Furethidine; (Y) Hydroxypethidine; (Z) Ketobemidone; (AA) Levomoramide; (BB) Levophenacylmorphan; (CC) Morpheridine; (DD) Noracymethadol; (EE) Norlevorphanol; (FF) Normethadone; (GG) Norpipanone; (HH) Phenadoxone; (II) Phenampromide; (JJ) Phenomorphan; (KK) Phenoperidine; (LL) Piritramide; (MM) Proheptazine; (NN) Properidine; (OO) Propiram; (PP) Racemoramide; (QQ) Trimeperidine; (RR) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide (AH-7921); (SS) 3,4-dichloro-N-(2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl)-N-methylbenzamide (U-47700); (TT) Methyl-AP-237; (UU) Tianeptine;

(1) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, pursuant to this article, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) Acetylmethadol;

(A) Acetylmethadol;

(B) Allylprodine;

(B) Allylprodine;

(C) Reserved;

(C) Reserved;

(D) Alphameprodine;

(D) Alphameprodine;

(E) Alphamethadol;

(E) Alphamethadol;

(F) Benzethidine;

(F) Benzethidine;

(G) Betacetylmethadol;

(G) Betacetylmethadol;

(H) Betameprodine;

(H) Betameprodine;

(I) Betamethadol;

(I) Betamethadol;

(J) Betaprodine;

(J) Betaprodine;

(K) Brorphine;

(K) Brorphine;

(L) Dextromoramide;

(L) Dextromoramide;

(M) Dextromorphan;

(M) Dextromorphan;

(N) Diampromide;

(N) Diampromide;

(O) Diethylthiambutene;

(O) Diethylthiambutene;

(P) Dimenoxadol;

(P) Dimenoxadol;

(Q) Dimetheptanol;

(Q) Dimetheptanol;

(R) Dimethylthiambutene;

(R) Dimethylthiambutene;

(S) Dioxaphetyl butyrate;

(S) Dioxaphetyl butyrate;

(T) Dipipanone;

(T) Dipipanone;

(U) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(U) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(V) Reserved;

(V) Reserved;

(W) Etoxeridene;

(W) Etoxeridene;

(X) Furethidine;

(X) Furethidine;

(Y) Hydroxypethidine;

(Y) Hydroxypethidine;

(Z) Ketobemidone;

(Z) Ketobemidone;

(AA) Levomoramide;

(AA) Levomoramide;

(BB) Levophenacylmorphan;

(BB) Levophenacylmorphan;

(CC) Morpheridine;

(CC) Morpheridine;

(DD) Noracymethadol;

(DD) Noracymethadol;

(EE) Norlevorphanol;

(EE) Norlevorphanol;

(FF) Normethadone;

(FF) Normethadone;

(GG) Norpipanone;

(GG) Norpipanone;

(HH) Phenadoxone;

(HH) Phenadoxone;

(II) Phenampromide;

(II) Phenampromide;

(JJ) Phenomorphan;

(JJ) Phenomorphan;

(KK) Phenoperidine;

(KK) Phenoperidine;

(LL) Piritramide;

(LL) Piritramide;

(MM) Proheptazine;

(MM) Proheptazine;

(NN) Properidine;

(NN) Properidine;

(OO) Propiram;

(OO) Propiram;

(PP) Racemoramide;

(PP) Racemoramide;

(QQ) Trimeperidine;

(QQ) Trimeperidine;

(RR) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide (AH-7921);

(RR) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide (AH-7921);

(SS) 3,4-dichloro-N-(2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl)-N-methylbenzamide (U-47700);

(SS) 3,4-dichloro-N-(2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl)-N-methylbenzamide (U-47700);

(TT) Methyl-AP-237;

(TT) Methyl-AP-237;

(UU) Tianeptine;

(UU) Tianeptine;

(2) Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Acetorphine; (B) Acetyldihydrocodeine; (C) Benzylmorphine; (D) Codeine methylbromide; (E) Codeine-N-Oxide; (F) Cyprenorphine; (G) Desomorphine; (H) Dihydromorphine; (I) Etorphine; (J) Heroin; (K) Hydromorphinol; (L) Methyldesorphine; (M) Methyldihydromorphine; (N) Morphine methylbromide; (O) Morphine methylsulfonate; (P) Morphine-N-Oxide; (Q) Myrophine; (R) Nicocodeine; (S) Nicomorphine; (T) Normorphine; (U) Pholcodine; (V) Thebacon;

(2) Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) Acetorphine;

(A) Acetorphine;

(B) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(B) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(C) Benzylmorphine;

(C) Benzylmorphine;

(D) Codeine methylbromide;

(D) Codeine methylbromide;

(E) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(E) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(F) Cyprenorphine;

(F) Cyprenorphine;

(G) Desomorphine;

(G) Desomorphine;

(H) Dihydromorphine;

(H) Dihydromorphine;

(I) Etorphine;

(I) Etorphine;

(J) Heroin;

(J) Heroin;

(K) Hydromorphinol;

(K) Hydromorphinol;

(L) Methyldesorphine;

(L) Methyldesorphine;

(M) Methyldihydromorphine;

(M) Methyldihydromorphine;

(N) Morphine methylbromide;

(N) Morphine methylbromide;

(O) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(O) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(P) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(P) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(Q) Myrophine;

(Q) Myrophine;

(R) Nicocodeine;

(R) Nicocodeine;

(S) Nicomorphine;

(S) Nicomorphine;

(T) Normorphine;

(T) Normorphine;

(U) Pholcodine;

(U) Pholcodine;

(V) Thebacon;

(V) Thebacon;

(3) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, their salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometrics), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) 3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine; (B) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine; (C) 3, 4, 5-trimethoxyamphetamine; (D) Bufotenine; (E) Diethyltryptamine; (F) Dimethyltryptamine; (G) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (H) Ibogaine; (I) Lysergic acid diethylamide; (J) Mescaline; (K) Peyote; (L) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (M) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate; (N) Psilocybin; (O) Psilocyn (Psilocin); (P) Tetrahydrocannabinol, tetrahydrocannabinolic acid, or a combination of tetrahydrocannabinol and tetrahydrocannabinolic acid which does not contain plant material exhibiting the external morphological features of the plant of the genus Cannabis, but not including such substance when found in hemp or hemp products as such terms are defined in Code Section 2-23-3 . Tetrahydrocannabinols do not include products approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; (Q) 2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (R) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (S) 4-methoxyamphetamine; (T) Cyanoethylamphetamine; (U) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine; (V) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine; (W) Phencyclidine; (X) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile; (Y) 1-phenyl-2-propanone (phenylacetone); (Z) 3, 4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA); (AA) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine; (BB) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine; (CC) Reserved; (DD) N-ethyl-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine; (EE) Reserved; (FF) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-Ethylamphetamine; (GG) Cathinone; (HH) Reserved; (II) PEPAP (1-(2-phenethyl)-4 phenyl-4-acetoxypiperide); (JJ) Reserved; (KK) Para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA); (LL) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex; (MM) Reserved; (NN) Reserved; (OO) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-Ethylamphetamine; (PP) 4-Methylaminorex; (QQ) N-Hydroxy-3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine; (RR) Reserved; (SS) Chlorophenylpiperazine (CPP); (TT) N, N-Dimethylamphetamine; (UU) 1-(1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexy)pyrrolidine; (VV) 4-Bromo-2,5-Dimethoxyphenethylamine (DMPE); (WW) Alpha-Ethyltryptamine; (XX) Methcathinone; (YY) Aminorex; (ZZ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (AAA) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine; (BBB) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV); (CCC) 4-Methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone); (DDD) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone (Methylone); (EEE) 4-Methoxymethcathinone; (FFF) Fluoromethcathinone; (GGG) Fluorophenylpiperazine (FPP); (HHH) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I); (III) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C); (JJJ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25I-NBOMe); (KKK) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25C-NBOMe); (LLL) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25B-NBOMe); (MMM) N,N-Diallyl-5-Methoxytryptamine (5-MeO-DALT); (NNN) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E); (OOO) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25N-NBOMe); (PPP) 4-acetoxy-N-ethyl-N-methyltryptamine (4-AcO-MET); (QQQ) 4-nitro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-N); (RRR) 5-methoxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MIPT); (SSS) Methoxetamine; (TTT) N-acetyl-3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone; (UUU) 3-(1,3-benzenodioxol-5-yl)-N,2-dimethylpropan-1-amine (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine methyl homolog); (VVV) (2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (APDB); (WWW) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25D-NBOMe); (XXX) 2-chloro-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine; (YYY) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (4-HO-MET); (ZZZ) 2-bromo-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine; (AAAA) 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25H-NBOMe); (BBBB) Methoxyphencyclidine (MeO-PCP); (CCCC) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (4-OH-MiPT); (DDDD) N,α-dimethyl-5-benzofuranethanamine (5-MAPB); (EEEE) 1-(1-benzofuran-6-yl)propan-2-amine (6-APB); (FFFF) 1-(1-benzofuran-5-yl)- N -ethylpropan-2-amine (5-EAPB); (GGGG) Fluorophenmetrazine; (HHHH) 5-methoxy-N,N-Dibutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DBT); (IIII) 5-methoxy-N,N-Diisobutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIBT); (JJJJ) N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine; (KKKK) 1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol (Zipeprol);

(3) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, their salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometrics), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) 3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(A) 3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(B) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(B) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(C) 3, 4, 5-trimethoxyamphetamine;

(C) 3, 4, 5-trimethoxyamphetamine;

(D) Bufotenine;

(D) Bufotenine;

(E) Diethyltryptamine;

(E) Diethyltryptamine;

(F) Dimethyltryptamine;

(F) Dimethyltryptamine;

(G) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(G) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(H) Ibogaine;

(H) Ibogaine;

(I) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(I) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(J) Mescaline;

(J) Mescaline;

(K) Peyote;

(K) Peyote;

(L) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(L) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(M) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(M) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(N) Psilocybin;

(N) Psilocybin;

(O) Psilocyn (Psilocin);

(O) Psilocyn (Psilocin);

(P) Tetrahydrocannabinol, tetrahydrocannabinolic acid, or a combination of tetrahydrocannabinol and tetrahydrocannabinolic acid which does not contain plant material exhibiting the external morphological features of the plant of the genus Cannabis, but not including such substance when found in hemp or hemp products as such terms are defined in Code Section 2-23-3 . Tetrahydrocannabinols do not include products approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;

(P) Tetrahydrocannabinol, tetrahydrocannabinolic acid, or a combination of tetrahydrocannabinol and tetrahydrocannabinolic acid which does not contain plant material exhibiting the external morphological features of the plant of the genus Cannabis, but not including such substance when found in hemp or hemp products as such terms are defined in Code Section 2-23-3 . Tetrahydrocannabinols do not include products approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;

(Q) 2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(Q) 2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(R) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(R) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(S) 4-methoxyamphetamine;

(S) 4-methoxyamphetamine;

(T) Cyanoethylamphetamine;

(T) Cyanoethylamphetamine;

(U) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine;

(U) (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine;

(V) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine;

(V) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine;

(W) Phencyclidine;

(W) Phencyclidine;

(X) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile;

(X) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile;

(Y) 1-phenyl-2-propanone (phenylacetone);

(Y) 1-phenyl-2-propanone (phenylacetone);

(Z) 3, 4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(Z) 3, 4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(AA) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;

(AA) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;

(BB) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine;

(BB) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine;

(CC) Reserved;

(CC) Reserved;

(DD) N-ethyl-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(DD) N-ethyl-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(EE) Reserved;

(EE) Reserved;

(FF) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-Ethylamphetamine;

(FF) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-Ethylamphetamine;

(GG) Cathinone;

(GG) Cathinone;

(HH) Reserved;

(HH) Reserved;

(II) PEPAP (1-(2-phenethyl)-4 phenyl-4-acetoxypiperide);

(II) PEPAP (1-(2-phenethyl)-4 phenyl-4-acetoxypiperide);

(JJ) Reserved;

(JJ) Reserved;

(KK) Para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA);

(KK) Para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA);

(LL) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex;

(LL) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex;

(MM) Reserved;

(MM) Reserved;

(NN) Reserved;

(NN) Reserved;

(OO) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-Ethylamphetamine;

(OO) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-Ethylamphetamine;

(PP) 4-Methylaminorex;

(PP) 4-Methylaminorex;

(QQ) N-Hydroxy-3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(QQ) N-Hydroxy-3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(RR) Reserved;

(RR) Reserved;

(SS) Chlorophenylpiperazine (CPP);

(SS) Chlorophenylpiperazine (CPP);

(TT) N, N-Dimethylamphetamine;

(TT) N, N-Dimethylamphetamine;

(UU) 1-(1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexy)pyrrolidine;

(UU) 1-(1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexy)pyrrolidine;

(VV) 4-Bromo-2,5-Dimethoxyphenethylamine (DMPE);

(VV) 4-Bromo-2,5-Dimethoxyphenethylamine (DMPE);

(WW) Alpha-Ethyltryptamine;

(WW) Alpha-Ethyltryptamine;

(XX) Methcathinone;

(XX) Methcathinone;

(YY) Aminorex;

(YY) Aminorex;

(ZZ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(ZZ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(AAA) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(AAA) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(BBB) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);

(BBB) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);

(CCC) 4-Methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone);

(CCC) 4-Methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone);

(DDD) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone (Methylone);

(DDD) 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone (Methylone);

(EEE) 4-Methoxymethcathinone;

(EEE) 4-Methoxymethcathinone;

(FFF) Fluoromethcathinone;

(FFF) Fluoromethcathinone;

(GGG) Fluorophenylpiperazine (FPP);

(GGG) Fluorophenylpiperazine (FPP);

(HHH) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);

(HHH) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);

(III) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);

(III) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);

(JJJ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25I-NBOMe);

(JJJ) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25I-NBOMe);

(KKK) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25C-NBOMe);

(KKK) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25C-NBOMe);

(LLL) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25B-NBOMe);

(LLL) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25B-NBOMe);

(MMM) N,N-Diallyl-5-Methoxytryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);

(MMM) N,N-Diallyl-5-Methoxytryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);

(NNN) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E);

(NNN) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E);

(OOO) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25N-NBOMe);

(OOO) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25N-NBOMe);

(PPP) 4-acetoxy-N-ethyl-N-methyltryptamine (4-AcO-MET);

(PPP) 4-acetoxy-N-ethyl-N-methyltryptamine (4-AcO-MET);

(QQQ) 4-nitro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-N);

(QQQ) 4-nitro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-N);

(RRR) 5-methoxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MIPT);

(RRR) 5-methoxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MIPT);

(SSS) Methoxetamine;

(SSS) Methoxetamine;

(TTT) N-acetyl-3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone;

(TTT) N-acetyl-3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone;

(UUU) 3-(1,3-benzenodioxol-5-yl)-N,2-dimethylpropan-1-amine (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine methyl homolog);

(UUU) 3-(1,3-benzenodioxol-5-yl)-N,2-dimethylpropan-1-amine (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine methyl homolog);

(VVV) (2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (APDB);

(VVV) (2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (APDB);

(WWW) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25D-NBOMe);

(WWW) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (25D-NBOMe);

(XXX) 2-chloro-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(XXX) 2-chloro-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(YYY) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (4-HO-MET);

(YYY) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (4-HO-MET);

(ZZZ) 2-bromo-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(ZZZ) 2-bromo-4,5-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(AAAA) 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25H-NBOMe);

(AAAA) 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25H-NBOMe);

(BBBB) Methoxyphencyclidine (MeO-PCP);

(BBBB) Methoxyphencyclidine (MeO-PCP);

(CCCC) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (4-OH-MiPT);

(CCCC) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (4-OH-MiPT);

(DDDD) N,α-dimethyl-5-benzofuranethanamine (5-MAPB);

(DDDD) N,α-dimethyl-5-benzofuranethanamine (5-MAPB);

(EEEE) 1-(1-benzofuran-6-yl)propan-2-amine (6-APB);

(EEEE) 1-(1-benzofuran-6-yl)propan-2-amine (6-APB);

(FFFF) 1-(1-benzofuran-5-yl)- N -ethylpropan-2-amine (5-EAPB);

(FFFF) 1-(1-benzofuran-5-yl)- N -ethylpropan-2-amine (5-EAPB);

(GGGG) Fluorophenmetrazine;

(GGGG) Fluorophenmetrazine;

(HHHH) 5-methoxy-N,N-Dibutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DBT);

(HHHH) 5-methoxy-N,N-Dibutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DBT);

(IIII) 5-methoxy-N,N-Diisobutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIBT);

(IIII) 5-methoxy-N,N-Diisobutyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIBT);

(JJJJ) N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(JJJJ) N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine;

(KKKK) 1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol (Zipeprol);

(KKKK) 1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol (Zipeprol);

(4) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Amineptine; (B) Fenethylline; (C) Mesocarb; (D) Methiopropamine; (E) Para-methoxyphenylpiperazine (MeOPP);

(4) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) Amineptine;

(A) Amineptine;

(B) Fenethylline;

(B) Fenethylline;

(C) Mesocarb;

(C) Mesocarb;

(D) Methiopropamine;

(D) Methiopropamine;

(E) Para-methoxyphenylpiperazine (MeOPP);

(E) Para-methoxyphenylpiperazine (MeOPP);

(5) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometrics), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these substances, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (gamma hydroxy butyrate); provided, however, that this does not include any amount naturally and normally occurring in the human body; and (B) Sodium oxybate, when the FDA approved form of this drug is not: (i) In a container labeled in compliance with subsection (a) or (b) of Code Section 26-3-8 ; and (ii) In the possession of: (I) A registrant permitted to dispense the drug; (II) Any person other than to whom the drug was prescribed; or (III) Any person who attempts to or does unlawfully possess, sell, distribute, or give this drug to any other person;

(5) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometrics), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these substances, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (gamma hydroxy butyrate); provided, however, that this does not include any amount naturally and normally occurring in the human body; and

(A) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (gamma hydroxy butyrate); provided, however, that this does not include any amount naturally and normally occurring in the human body; and

(B) Sodium oxybate, when the FDA approved form of this drug is not: (i) In a container labeled in compliance with subsection (a) or (b) of Code Section 26-3-8 ; and (ii) In the possession of: (I) A registrant permitted to dispense the drug; (II) Any person other than to whom the drug was prescribed; or (III) Any person who attempts to or does unlawfully possess, sell, distribute, or give this drug to any other person;

(B) Sodium oxybate, when the FDA approved form of this drug is not:

(i) In a container labeled in compliance with subsection (a) or (b) of Code Section 26-3-8 ; and

(i) In a container labeled in compliance with subsection (a) or (b) of Code Section 26-3-8 ; and

(ii) In the possession of: (I) A registrant permitted to dispense the drug; (II) Any person other than to whom the drug was prescribed; or (III) Any person who attempts to or does unlawfully possess, sell, distribute, or give this drug to any other person;

(ii) In the possession of:

(I) A registrant permitted to dispense the drug;

(I) A registrant permitted to dispense the drug;

(II) Any person other than to whom the drug was prescribed; or

(II) Any person other than to whom the drug was prescribed; or

(III) Any person who attempts to or does unlawfully possess, sell, distribute, or give this drug to any other person;

(III) Any person who attempts to or does unlawfully possess, sell, distribute, or give this drug to any other person;

(6) Notwithstanding the fact that Schedule I substances have no currently accepted medical use, the General Assembly recognizes certain of these substances which are currently accepted for certain limited medical uses in treatment in the United States but have a high potential for abuse. Accordingly, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of methaqualone, including its salts, isomers, optical isomers, salts of their isomers, and salts of these optical isomers, is included in Schedule I;

(6) Notwithstanding the fact that Schedule I substances have no currently accepted medical use, the General Assembly recognizes certain of these substances which are currently accepted for certain limited medical uses in treatment in the United States but have a high potential for abuse. Accordingly, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of methaqualone, including its salts, isomers, optical isomers, salts of their isomers, and salts of these optical isomers, is included in Schedule I;

(7) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (2C-T-7);

(7) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (2C-T-7);

(8) 1-(3-Trifluoromethylphenyl) Piperazine (TFMPP);

(8) 1-(3-Trifluoromethylphenyl) Piperazine (TFMPP);

(9) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(9) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(10) 5-Methoxy-N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIPT);

(10) 5-Methoxy-N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIPT);

(11) Alpha-Methyltryptamine (AMT);

(11) Alpha-Methyltryptamine (AMT);

(12) Any of the following compounds, derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues is possible within the specific chemical designation: (A) Naphthoylindoles; (B) Naphthylmethylindoles; (C) Naphthoylpyrroles; (D) Naphthylideneindenes; (E) Phenylacetylindoles; (F) Cyclohexylphenols; (G) Benzoylindoles; (H) Tricyclic benzopyrans; (I) Adamantoylindoles; (J) Indazole amides; (K) [2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2); (L) Any compound, unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (i) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substitutions, whether or not further substituted in the ring system; (ii) By substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl, alkoxy, or cyclic substitution; (iii) By substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure; (M) Indole carboxamides; (N) Indole carboxylates; (O) [1,1'-biphenyl]-3-yl-carbamic acid, cyclohexyl ester (URB602); (P) Indazole carboxylates; (Q) [3-(3-carbamoylphenyl)phenyl] N-cyclohexylcarbamate (URB597); (R) 6-methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-1-benzoxazin-4-one (URB754); (S) Indole tetramethylcyclopropanecarbonyls; (T) Napthoylbenzimidazoles; (U) 1-naphthalenyl[4-(pentylox)-1-naphthalenyl]-methanone (CB-13); (V) Naphthoylindazoles; (W) Azaindole carboxamide;

(12) Any of the following compounds, derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(A) Naphthoylindoles;

(A) Naphthoylindoles;

(B) Naphthylmethylindoles;

(B) Naphthylmethylindoles;

(C) Naphthoylpyrroles;

(C) Naphthoylpyrroles;

(D) Naphthylideneindenes;

(D) Naphthylideneindenes;

(E) Phenylacetylindoles;

(E) Phenylacetylindoles;

(F) Cyclohexylphenols;

(F) Cyclohexylphenols;

(G) Benzoylindoles;

(G) Benzoylindoles;

(H) Tricyclic benzopyrans;

(H) Tricyclic benzopyrans;

(I) Adamantoylindoles;

(I) Adamantoylindoles;

(J) Indazole amides;

(J) Indazole amides;

(K) [2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);

(K) [2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);

(L) Any compound, unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (i) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substitutions, whether or not further substituted in the ring system; (ii) By substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl, alkoxy, or cyclic substitution; (iii) By substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;

(L) Any compound, unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:

(i) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substitutions, whether or not further substituted in the ring system;

(i) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substitutions, whether or not further substituted in the ring system;

(ii) By substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl, alkoxy, or cyclic substitution;

(ii) By substitution at the 3-position with an alkyl, alkoxy, or cyclic substitution;

(iii) By substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;

(iii) By substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;

(M) Indole carboxamides;

(M) Indole carboxamides;

(N) Indole carboxylates;

(N) Indole carboxylates;

(O) [1,1'-biphenyl]-3-yl-carbamic acid, cyclohexyl ester (URB602);

(O) [1,1'-biphenyl]-3-yl-carbamic acid, cyclohexyl ester (URB602);

(P) Indazole carboxylates;

(P) Indazole carboxylates;

(Q) [3-(3-carbamoylphenyl)phenyl] N-cyclohexylcarbamate (URB597);

(Q) [3-(3-carbamoylphenyl)phenyl] N-cyclohexylcarbamate (URB597);

(R) 6-methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-1-benzoxazin-4-one (URB754);

(R) 6-methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-1-benzoxazin-4-one (URB754);

(S) Indole tetramethylcyclopropanecarbonyls;

(S) Indole tetramethylcyclopropanecarbonyls;

(T) Napthoylbenzimidazoles;

(T) Napthoylbenzimidazoles;

(U) 1-naphthalenyl[4-(pentylox)-1-naphthalenyl]-methanone (CB-13);

(U) 1-naphthalenyl[4-(pentylox)-1-naphthalenyl]-methanone (CB-13);

(V) Naphthoylindazoles;

(V) Naphthoylindazoles;

(W) Azaindole carboxamide;

(W) Azaindole carboxamide;

(13) The fentanyl analog structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from fentanyl, and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways: (A) Substitution anywhere on the phenethyl group with: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Hydroxyl group; (iii) Halide group; (B) Replacement of the phenethyl group with: (i) Thienyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (ii) Oxotetrazol ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (iii) Alkyl group; (iv) Thienyl methyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (v) Benzyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vi) Furanyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vii) Phenyl alkyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (viii) Pyridinyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (ix) Diazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Nitro group; (x) Thiazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (xi) Benzoxazolinone ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (C) Substitution anywhere on the piperidine ring with: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Allyl group; (iii) Phenyl group; (iv) Ester group; (v) Ether group; (vi) Pyridine group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vii) Thiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (viii) Oxadiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Ether group; (D) Substitution anywhere on the propanamide group with: (i) Cyclic alkyl group; (ii) Acyclic alkyl group: (iii) Methoxy group; (E) Replacement of the propanamide group with: (i) Acryloyl amino group; (ii) Acetamide group, which itself can be further substituted with: (I) Cyclic alkyl group; (II) Tetrahydrofuran group; (iii) Methoxy acetamide group; (iv) Furanyl amide group; (v) Amine; (F) Substitution anywhere on the phenyl ring with: (i) Halide group; (ii) Methoxy group; (iii) Alkyl group; (G) Replacement of the phenyl ring with the pyrazine ring;

(13) The fentanyl analog structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from fentanyl, and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways:

(A) Substitution anywhere on the phenethyl group with: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Hydroxyl group; (iii) Halide group;

(A) Substitution anywhere on the phenethyl group with:

(i) Alkyl group;

(i) Alkyl group;

(ii) Hydroxyl group;

(ii) Hydroxyl group;

(iii) Halide group;

(iii) Halide group;

(B) Replacement of the phenethyl group with: (i) Thienyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (ii) Oxotetrazol ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (iii) Alkyl group; (iv) Thienyl methyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (v) Benzyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vi) Furanyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vii) Phenyl alkyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (viii) Pyridinyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (ix) Diazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Nitro group; (x) Thiazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (xi) Benzoxazolinone ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(B) Replacement of the phenethyl group with:

(i) Thienyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(i) Thienyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(ii) Oxotetrazol ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(ii) Oxotetrazol ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(iii) Alkyl group;

(iii) Alkyl group;

(iv) Thienyl methyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(iv) Thienyl methyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(v) Benzyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(v) Benzyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(vi) Furanyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(vi) Furanyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(vii) Phenyl alkyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(vii) Phenyl alkyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(viii) Pyridinyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(viii) Pyridinyl ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(ix) Diazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Nitro group;

(ix) Diazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(IV) Nitro group;

(IV) Nitro group;

(x) Thiazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(x) Thiazole ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(xi) Benzoxazolinone ethyl group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(xi) Benzoxazolinone ethyl group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(C) Substitution anywhere on the piperidine ring with: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Allyl group; (iii) Phenyl group; (iv) Ester group; (v) Ether group; (vi) Pyridine group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (vii) Thiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (viii) Oxadiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Ether group;

(C) Substitution anywhere on the piperidine ring with:

(i) Alkyl group;

(i) Alkyl group;

(ii) Allyl group;

(ii) Allyl group;

(iii) Phenyl group;

(iii) Phenyl group;

(iv) Ester group;

(iv) Ester group;

(v) Ether group;

(v) Ether group;

(vi) Pyridine group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(vi) Pyridine group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(vii) Thiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group;

(vii) Thiazole group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(viii) Oxadiazole group, which can be further substituted with: (I) Alkyl group; (II) Hydroxyl group; (III) Halide group; (IV) Ether group;

(viii) Oxadiazole group, which can be further substituted with:

(I) Alkyl group;

(I) Alkyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(II) Hydroxyl group;

(III) Halide group;

(III) Halide group;

(IV) Ether group;

(IV) Ether group;

(D) Substitution anywhere on the propanamide group with: (i) Cyclic alkyl group; (ii) Acyclic alkyl group: (iii) Methoxy group;

(D) Substitution anywhere on the propanamide group with:

(i) Cyclic alkyl group;

(i) Cyclic alkyl group;

(ii) Acyclic alkyl group:

(ii) Acyclic alkyl group:

(iii) Methoxy group;

(iii) Methoxy group;

(E) Replacement of the propanamide group with: (i) Acryloyl amino group; (ii) Acetamide group, which itself can be further substituted with: (I) Cyclic alkyl group; (II) Tetrahydrofuran group; (iii) Methoxy acetamide group; (iv) Furanyl amide group; (v) Amine;

(E) Replacement of the propanamide group with:

(i) Acryloyl amino group;

(i) Acryloyl amino group;

(ii) Acetamide group, which itself can be further substituted with: (I) Cyclic alkyl group; (II) Tetrahydrofuran group;

(ii) Acetamide group, which itself can be further substituted with:

(I) Cyclic alkyl group;

(I) Cyclic alkyl group;

(II) Tetrahydrofuran group;

(II) Tetrahydrofuran group;

(iii) Methoxy acetamide group;

(iii) Methoxy acetamide group;

(iv) Furanyl amide group;

(iv) Furanyl amide group;

(v) Amine;

(v) Amine;

(F) Substitution anywhere on the phenyl ring with: (i) Halide group; (ii) Methoxy group; (iii) Alkyl group;

(F) Substitution anywhere on the phenyl ring with:

(i) Halide group;

(i) Halide group;

(ii) Methoxy group;

(ii) Methoxy group;

(iii) Alkyl group;

(iii) Alkyl group;

(G) Replacement of the phenyl ring with the pyrazine ring;

(G) Replacement of the phenyl ring with the pyrazine ring;

(14) The piperidinyl-sulfonamide structural class, including any of the following compounds, derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from piperidinyl-sulfonamide, and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways: (A) By substitution at the 1-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Phenyl alkyl group; (iii) Amino substituted phenyl alkyl group; (iv) Nitro substituted phenyl alkyl group; (v) Cycloalkyl group; (vi) Alkenyl substituent group; (B) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following: (i) Halide group; (ii) Alkyl group; (iii) Alkoxy substituent; (C) By substitution on the sulfonamide with any of the following: (i) Pyridyl group; (ii) Alkyl group; (iii) Phenyl group; (iv) Phenyl alkyl group; (v) Alkoxy substituted phenyl group; (vi) Halogen substituted phenyl group; (vii) Nitro substituted phenyl group; (viii) Amino substituted phenyl group; (ix) Alkanoylamino substituted phenyl group; (x) Amido substituted phenyl group;

(14) The piperidinyl-sulfonamide structural class, including any of the following compounds, derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, halogen analogues, or homologues is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from piperidinyl-sulfonamide, and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways:

(A) By substitution at the 1-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following: (i) Alkyl group; (ii) Phenyl alkyl group; (iii) Amino substituted phenyl alkyl group; (iv) Nitro substituted phenyl alkyl group; (v) Cycloalkyl group; (vi) Alkenyl substituent group;

(A) By substitution at the 1-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following:

(i) Alkyl group;

(i) Alkyl group;

(ii) Phenyl alkyl group;

(ii) Phenyl alkyl group;

(iii) Amino substituted phenyl alkyl group;

(iii) Amino substituted phenyl alkyl group;

(iv) Nitro substituted phenyl alkyl group;

(iv) Nitro substituted phenyl alkyl group;

(v) Cycloalkyl group;

(v) Cycloalkyl group;

(vi) Alkenyl substituent group;

(vi) Alkenyl substituent group;

(B) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following: (i) Halide group; (ii) Alkyl group; (iii) Alkoxy substituent;

(B) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the piperidinyl ring with any of the following:

(i) Halide group;

(i) Halide group;

(ii) Alkyl group;

(ii) Alkyl group;

(iii) Alkoxy substituent;

(iii) Alkoxy substituent;

(C) By substitution on the sulfonamide with any of the following: (i) Pyridyl group; (ii) Alkyl group; (iii) Phenyl group; (iv) Phenyl alkyl group; (v) Alkoxy substituted phenyl group; (vi) Halogen substituted phenyl group; (vii) Nitro substituted phenyl group; (viii) Amino substituted phenyl group; (ix) Alkanoylamino substituted phenyl group; (x) Amido substituted phenyl group;

(C) By substitution on the sulfonamide with any of the following:

(i) Pyridyl group;

(i) Pyridyl group;

(ii) Alkyl group;

(ii) Alkyl group;

(iii) Phenyl group;

(iii) Phenyl group;

(iv) Phenyl alkyl group;

(iv) Phenyl alkyl group;

(v) Alkoxy substituted phenyl group;

(v) Alkoxy substituted phenyl group;

(vi) Halogen substituted phenyl group;

(vi) Halogen substituted phenyl group;

(vii) Nitro substituted phenyl group;

(vii) Nitro substituted phenyl group;

(viii) Amino substituted phenyl group;

(viii) Amino substituted phenyl group;

(ix) Alkanoylamino substituted phenyl group;

(ix) Alkanoylamino substituted phenyl group;

(x) Amido substituted phenyl group;

(x) Amido substituted phenyl group;

(15) The 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)-piperazine (MT-45) structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)-piperazine (MT-45), and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways: (A) Replacement of the cyclohexyl group with any of the following: (i) Cycloheptyl group; (ii) Cyclooctyl group; (B) Substitution on the diphenyl groups with any of the following: (i) Hydroxyl group; (ii) Halide; (iii) Alkoxy group; (iv) Alkyl group; (v) Ester group; (vi) Phenyl ether group;

(15) The 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)-piperazine (MT-45) structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers, unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)-piperazine (MT-45), and whether or not further modified in any of the following ways:

(A) Replacement of the cyclohexyl group with any of the following: (i) Cycloheptyl group; (ii) Cyclooctyl group;

(A) Replacement of the cyclohexyl group with any of the following:

(i) Cycloheptyl group;

(i) Cycloheptyl group;

(ii) Cyclooctyl group;

(ii) Cyclooctyl group;

(B) Substitution on the diphenyl groups with any of the following: (i) Hydroxyl group; (ii) Halide; (iii) Alkoxy group; (iv) Alkyl group; (v) Ester group; (vi) Phenyl ether group;

(B) Substitution on the diphenyl groups with any of the following:

(i) Hydroxyl group;

(i) Hydroxyl group;

(ii) Halide;

(ii) Halide;

(iii) Alkoxy group;

(iii) Alkoxy group;

(iv) Alkyl group;

(iv) Alkyl group;

(v) Ester group;

(v) Ester group;

(vi) Phenyl ether group;

(vi) Phenyl ether group;

(16) The N-substituted benzimidazole structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from N-substituted benzimidazole by substitution at the 1-position with an ethylamine group and by substitution at the 2-position with a benzyl group, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways: (A) By monoalkyl or dialkyl substitution on the nitrogen of the 1-position ethylamine group, or by inclusion of the nitrogen in a cyclic structure; (B) By substitution on the benzylic carbon of the 2-position benzyl group by alkyl or carboxamide groups; (C) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the benzyl group, or both, with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups; (D) By replacement of the 2-position benzyl group with an ethylbenzyl, thiophenol, or methoxybenzene group, which may be further substituted with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups; and (E) By substitution at the 5-position or 6-position with a nitro group or primary amine.

(16) The N-substituted benzimidazole structural class, including any of the following derivatives, their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers unless specifically utilized as part of the manufacturing process by a commercial industry of a substance or material not intended for human ingestion or consumption, as a prescription administered under medical supervision, or for research at a recognized institution, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, or salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation or unless specifically excepted or listed in this or another schedule, structurally derived from N-substituted benzimidazole by substitution at the 1-position with an ethylamine group and by substitution at the 2-position with a benzyl group, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:

(A) By monoalkyl or dialkyl substitution on the nitrogen of the 1-position ethylamine group, or by inclusion of the nitrogen in a cyclic structure;

(A) By monoalkyl or dialkyl substitution on the nitrogen of the 1-position ethylamine group, or by inclusion of the nitrogen in a cyclic structure;

(B) By substitution on the benzylic carbon of the 2-position benzyl group by alkyl or carboxamide groups;

(B) By substitution on the benzylic carbon of the 2-position benzyl group by alkyl or carboxamide groups;

(C) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the benzyl group, or both, with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups;

(C) By substitution at the 3-position or 4-position of the benzyl group, or both, with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups;

(D) By replacement of the 2-position benzyl group with an ethylbenzyl, thiophenol, or methoxybenzene group, which may be further substituted with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups; and

(D) By replacement of the 2-position benzyl group with an ethylbenzyl, thiophenol, or methoxybenzene group, which may be further substituted with alkyl, hydroxyl, alkoxy, acetoxy, halide, or sulfide groups; and

(E) By substitution at the 5-position or 6-position with a nitro group or primary amine.

(E) By substitution at the 5-position or 6-position with a nitro group or primary amine.
O.C.G.A. § 16-5-46 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 5 / Section 16-5-46
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-5-46
Status: in_force

(a) As used in this Code section, the term: (1) “ Coercion ” means: (A) Causing or threatening to cause bodily harm to any individual, physically restraining or confining any individual, or threatening to physically restrain or confine any individual; (B) Exposing or threatening to expose any fact or information or disseminating or threatening to disseminate any fact or information that would tend to subject an individual to criminal or immigration proceedings, hatred, contempt, or ridicule; (C) Destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of any individual; (D) Providing a controlled substance to such individual for the purpose of compelling such individual to engage in labor or sexual servitude against his or her will; or (E) Causing or threatening to cause financial harm to any individual or using financial control over any individual. (2) “ Controlled substance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-13-21 . (3) “ Deception ” means: (A) Creating or confirming another's impression of an existing fact or past event which is false and which the accused knows or believes to be false; (B) Maintaining the status or condition of an individual arising from a pledge by such individual of his or her personal services as security for a debt, if the value of those services as reasonably assessed is not applied toward the liquidation of the debt or the length and nature of those services are not respectively limited and defined, or preventing an individual from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of such debt; or (C) Promising benefits or the performance of services which the accused does not intend to deliver or perform or knows will not be delivered or performed. Evidence of failure to deliver benefits or perform services standing alone shall not be sufficient to authorize a conviction under this Code section. (4) “ Developmental disability ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 37-1-1 . (5) “ Labor servitude ” means work or service of economic or financial value which is performed or provided by another individual and is induced or obtained by coercion or deception. (5.1) “Peace officer” shall have the same meaning as provided for in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (8) of Code Section 35-8-2 . (6) “ Performance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 . (7) “ Sexually explicit conduct ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 . (8) “ Sexual servitude ” means any sexually explicit conduct or performance involving sexually explicit conduct for which anything of value is directly or indirectly given, promised to, or received by any individual, which conduct is induced or obtained: (A) By coercion or deception; (B) From an individual who is under the age of 18 years; (C) From an individual whom the accused believes to be under the age of 18 years; (D) From an individual who has a developmental disability; or (E) From an individual whom the accused believes to have a developmental disability.

(a) As used in this Code section, the term:

(1) “ Coercion ” means: (A) Causing or threatening to cause bodily harm to any individual, physically restraining or confining any individual, or threatening to physically restrain or confine any individual; (B) Exposing or threatening to expose any fact or information or disseminating or threatening to disseminate any fact or information that would tend to subject an individual to criminal or immigration proceedings, hatred, contempt, or ridicule; (C) Destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of any individual; (D) Providing a controlled substance to such individual for the purpose of compelling such individual to engage in labor or sexual servitude against his or her will; or (E) Causing or threatening to cause financial harm to any individual or using financial control over any individual.

(1) “ Coercion ” means:

(A) Causing or threatening to cause bodily harm to any individual, physically restraining or confining any individual, or threatening to physically restrain or confine any individual;

(A) Causing or threatening to cause bodily harm to any individual, physically restraining or confining any individual, or threatening to physically restrain or confine any individual;

(B) Exposing or threatening to expose any fact or information or disseminating or threatening to disseminate any fact or information that would tend to subject an individual to criminal or immigration proceedings, hatred, contempt, or ridicule;

(B) Exposing or threatening to expose any fact or information or disseminating or threatening to disseminate any fact or information that would tend to subject an individual to criminal or immigration proceedings, hatred, contempt, or ridicule;

(C) Destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of any individual;

(C) Destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of any individual;

(D) Providing a controlled substance to such individual for the purpose of compelling such individual to engage in labor or sexual servitude against his or her will; or

(D) Providing a controlled substance to such individual for the purpose of compelling such individual to engage in labor or sexual servitude against his or her will; or

(E) Causing or threatening to cause financial harm to any individual or using financial control over any individual.

(E) Causing or threatening to cause financial harm to any individual or using financial control over any individual.

(2) “ Controlled substance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-13-21 .

(2) “ Controlled substance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-13-21 .

(3) “ Deception ” means: (A) Creating or confirming another's impression of an existing fact or past event which is false and which the accused knows or believes to be false; (B) Maintaining the status or condition of an individual arising from a pledge by such individual of his or her personal services as security for a debt, if the value of those services as reasonably assessed is not applied toward the liquidation of the debt or the length and nature of those services are not respectively limited and defined, or preventing an individual from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of such debt; or (C) Promising benefits or the performance of services which the accused does not intend to deliver or perform or knows will not be delivered or performed. Evidence of failure to deliver benefits or perform services standing alone shall not be sufficient to authorize a conviction under this Code section.

(3) “ Deception ” means:

(A) Creating or confirming another's impression of an existing fact or past event which is false and which the accused knows or believes to be false;

(A) Creating or confirming another's impression of an existing fact or past event which is false and which the accused knows or believes to be false;

(B) Maintaining the status or condition of an individual arising from a pledge by such individual of his or her personal services as security for a debt, if the value of those services as reasonably assessed is not applied toward the liquidation of the debt or the length and nature of those services are not respectively limited and defined, or preventing an individual from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of such debt; or

(B) Maintaining the status or condition of an individual arising from a pledge by such individual of his or her personal services as security for a debt, if the value of those services as reasonably assessed is not applied toward the liquidation of the debt or the length and nature of those services are not respectively limited and defined, or preventing an individual from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of such debt; or

(C) Promising benefits or the performance of services which the accused does not intend to deliver or perform or knows will not be delivered or performed. Evidence of failure to deliver benefits or perform services standing alone shall not be sufficient to authorize a conviction under this Code section.

(C) Promising benefits or the performance of services which the accused does not intend to deliver or perform or knows will not be delivered or performed. Evidence of failure to deliver benefits or perform services standing alone shall not be sufficient to authorize a conviction under this Code section.

(4) “ Developmental disability ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 37-1-1 .

(4) “ Developmental disability ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 37-1-1 .

(5) “ Labor servitude ” means work or service of economic or financial value which is performed or provided by another individual and is induced or obtained by coercion or deception.

(5) “ Labor servitude ” means work or service of economic or financial value which is performed or provided by another individual and is induced or obtained by coercion or deception.

(5.1) “Peace officer” shall have the same meaning as provided for in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (8) of Code Section 35-8-2 .

(5.1) “Peace officer” shall have the same meaning as provided for in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (8) of Code Section 35-8-2 .

(6) “ Performance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 .

(6) “ Performance ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 .

(7) “ Sexually explicit conduct ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 .

(7) “ Sexually explicit conduct ” shall have the same meaning as set forth in Code Section 16-12-100 .

(8) “ Sexual servitude ” means any sexually explicit conduct or performance involving sexually explicit conduct for which anything of value is directly or indirectly given, promised to, or received by any individual, which conduct is induced or obtained: (A) By coercion or deception; (B) From an individual who is under the age of 18 years; (C) From an individual whom the accused believes to be under the age of 18 years; (D) From an individual who has a developmental disability; or (E) From an individual whom the accused believes to have a developmental disability.

(8) “ Sexual servitude ” means any sexually explicit conduct or performance involving sexually explicit conduct for which anything of value is directly or indirectly given, promised to, or received by any individual, which conduct is induced or obtained:

(A) By coercion or deception;

(A) By coercion or deception;

(B) From an individual who is under the age of 18 years;

(B) From an individual who is under the age of 18 years;

(C) From an individual whom the accused believes to be under the age of 18 years;

(C) From an individual whom the accused believes to be under the age of 18 years;

(D) From an individual who has a developmental disability; or

(D) From an individual who has a developmental disability; or

(E) From an individual whom the accused believes to have a developmental disability.

(E) From an individual whom the accused believes to have a developmental disability.

(b) A person commits the offense of trafficking a person for labor servitude when that person knowingly subjects another person to or maintains another person in labor servitude or knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means another person for the purpose of labor servitude.

(b) A person commits the offense of trafficking a person for labor servitude when that person knowingly subjects another person to or maintains another person in labor servitude or knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means another person for the purpose of labor servitude.

(c) A person commits the offense of trafficking an individual for sexual servitude when that person knowingly: (1) Subjects an individual to or maintains an individual in sexual servitude; (2) Recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, solicits, patronizes, or obtains by any means an individual for the purpose of sexual servitude; or (3) Benefits financially or by receiving anything of value from the sexual servitude of another.

(c) A person commits the offense of trafficking an individual for sexual servitude when that person knowingly:

(1) Subjects an individual to or maintains an individual in sexual servitude;

(1) Subjects an individual to or maintains an individual in sexual servitude;

(2) Recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, solicits, patronizes, or obtains by any means an individual for the purpose of sexual servitude; or

(2) Recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, solicits, patronizes, or obtains by any means an individual for the purpose of sexual servitude; or

(3) Benefits financially or by receiving anything of value from the sexual servitude of another.

(3) Benefits financially or by receiving anything of value from the sexual servitude of another.

(d) The age of consent for sexual activity or the accused's lack of knowledge of the age or developmental disability of the individual being trafficked shall not constitute a defense in a prosecution for a violation of this Code section.

(d) The age of consent for sexual activity or the accused's lack of knowledge of the age or developmental disability of the individual being trafficked shall not constitute a defense in a prosecution for a violation of this Code section.

(e) The sexual history or history of commercial sexual activity of a person alleged to have been trafficked or such person's connection by blood or marriage to an accused in the case or to anyone involved in such person's trafficking shall be excluded from evidence if the court finds at a hearing outside the presence of the jury that the probative value of the evidence is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or misleading the jury.

(e) The sexual history or history of commercial sexual activity of a person alleged to have been trafficked or such person's connection by blood or marriage to an accused in the case or to anyone involved in such person's trafficking shall be excluded from evidence if the court finds at a hearing outside the presence of the jury that the probative value of the evidence is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or misleading the jury.

(f)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than ten nor more than 20 years and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00. (2) Any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude against an individual who is under 18 years of age or if the offense is committed against an individual who has a developmental disability, the person shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 25 nor more than 50 years or life imprisonment and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00. (3)(A) As used in this paragraph, the term “sexual felony” shall have the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (j) of Code Section 16-5-21 . (B) Any person having been previously convicted of a sexual felony who is convicted of the offense of trafficking of persons for sexual servitude shall be punished by imprisonment for life or a split sentence that is a term of imprisonment followed by probation for life. As a condition of probation, the court shall impose the requirement of electronic monitoring as set forth in paragraph (14) of subsection (a) of Code Section 42-8-35 .

(f)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than ten nor more than 20 years and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00.

(f)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than ten nor more than 20 years and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00.

(2) Any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude against an individual who is under 18 years of age or if the offense is committed against an individual who has a developmental disability, the person shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 25 nor more than 50 years or life imprisonment and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00.

(2) Any person who commits the offense of trafficking an individual for labor servitude or sexual servitude against an individual who is under 18 years of age or if the offense is committed against an individual who has a developmental disability, the person shall be guilty of a felony, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 25 nor more than 50 years or life imprisonment and a fine not to exceed $100,000.00.

(3)(A) As used in this paragraph, the term “sexual felony” shall have the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (j) of Code Section 16-5-21 . (B) Any person having been previously convicted of a sexual felony who is convicted of the offense of trafficking of persons for sexual servitude shall be punished by imprisonment for life or a split sentence that is a term of imprisonment followed by probation for life. As a condition of probation, the court shall impose the requirement of electronic monitoring as set forth in paragraph (14) of subsection (a) of Code Section 42-8-35 .

(3)(A) As used in this paragraph, the term “sexual felony” shall have the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (j) of Code Section 16-5-21 .

(3)(A) As used in this paragraph, the term “sexual felony” shall have the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (2) of subsection (j) of Code Section 16-5-21 .

(B) Any person having been previously convicted of a sexual felony who is convicted of the offense of trafficking of persons for sexual servitude shall be punished by imprisonment for life or a split sentence that is a term of imprisonment followed by probation for life. As a condition of probation, the court shall impose the requirement of electronic monitoring as set forth in paragraph (14) of subsection (a) of Code Section 42-8-35 .

(B) Any person having been previously convicted of a sexual felony who is convicted of the offense of trafficking of persons for sexual servitude shall be punished by imprisonment for life or a split sentence that is a term of imprisonment followed by probation for life. As a condition of probation, the court shall impose the requirement of electronic monitoring as set forth in paragraph (14) of subsection (a) of Code Section 42-8-35 .

(g)(1) As used in this subsection, the terms “ civil forfeiture proceedings ,” “ proceeds ,” and “ property ” shall have the same meanings as set forth in Code Section 9-16-2 . (2) Any property which is, directly or indirectly, used or intended for use in any manner to facilitate a violation of this Code section and any proceeds are declared to be contraband and no person shall have a property right in them. (3) Any property subject to forfeiture pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be forfeited in accordance with the procedures set forth in Chapter 16 of Title 9. (4) The Attorney General shall be specifically authorized to commence civil forfeiture proceedings under this Code section.

(g)(1) As used in this subsection, the terms “ civil forfeiture proceedings ,” “ proceeds ,” and “ property ” shall have the same meanings as set forth in Code Section 9-16-2 .

(g)(1) As used in this subsection, the terms “ civil forfeiture proceedings ,” “ proceeds ,” and “ property ” shall have the same meanings as set forth in Code Section 9-16-2 .

(2) Any property which is, directly or indirectly, used or intended for use in any manner to facilitate a violation of this Code section and any proceeds are declared to be contraband and no person shall have a property right in them.

(2) Any property which is, directly or indirectly, used or intended for use in any manner to facilitate a violation of this Code section and any proceeds are declared to be contraband and no person shall have a property right in them.

(3) Any property subject to forfeiture pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be forfeited in accordance with the procedures set forth in Chapter 16 of Title 9.

(3) Any property subject to forfeiture pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be forfeited in accordance with the procedures set forth in Chapter 16 of Title 9.

(4) The Attorney General shall be specifically authorized to commence civil forfeiture proceedings under this Code section.

(4) The Attorney General shall be specifically authorized to commence civil forfeiture proceedings under this Code section.

(h)(1) Prosecuting attorneys and the Attorney General shall have concurrent authority to prosecute any criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section and to perform any duty that necessarily appertains thereto. (2) For purposes of investigating offenses or criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section, the Attorney General shall have the authority to employ peace officers who shall be authorized to execute all powers of a peace officer.

(h)(1) Prosecuting attorneys and the Attorney General shall have concurrent authority to prosecute any criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section and to perform any duty that necessarily appertains thereto.

(h)(1) Prosecuting attorneys and the Attorney General shall have concurrent authority to prosecute any criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section and to perform any duty that necessarily appertains thereto.

(2) For purposes of investigating offenses or criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section, the Attorney General shall have the authority to employ peace officers who shall be authorized to execute all powers of a peace officer.

(2) For purposes of investigating offenses or criminal cases arising under the provisions of this Code section, the Attorney General shall have the authority to employ peace officers who shall be authorized to execute all powers of a peace officer.

(i) Each violation of this Code section shall constitute a separate offense and shall not merge with any other offense.

(i) Each violation of this Code section shall constitute a separate offense and shall not merge with any other offense.

(j) A corporation may be prosecuted under this Code section for an act or omission constituting a crime under this Code section only if an agent of the corporation performs the conduct which is an element of the crime while acting within the scope of his or her office or employment and on behalf of the corporation and the commission of the crime was either authorized, requested, commanded, performed, or within the scope of his or her employment on behalf of the corporation or constituted a pattern of illegal activity that an agent of the company knew or should have known was occurring.

(j) A corporation may be prosecuted under this Code section for an act or omission constituting a crime under this Code section only if an agent of the corporation performs the conduct which is an element of the crime while acting within the scope of his or her office or employment and on behalf of the corporation and the commission of the crime was either authorized, requested, commanded, performed, or within the scope of his or her employment on behalf of the corporation or constituted a pattern of illegal activity that an agent of the company knew or should have known was occurring.

(k) The sole fact that an undercover operative or law enforcement officer was involved in the detection and investigation of an offense under this Code section shall not constitute a defense to prosecution under this Code section; provided, however, that Code Section 16-3-25 may still provide an absolute defense.

(k) The sole fact that an undercover operative or law enforcement officer was involved in the detection and investigation of an offense under this Code section shall not constitute a defense to prosecution under this Code section; provided, however, that Code Section 16-3-25 may still provide an absolute defense.

(l) Any individual who knowingly uses a commercial motor vehicle while committing the offense of trafficking a person for labor or sexual servitude in violation of this Code section shall also be punished by the revocation of the defendant's commercial driver's license and disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life in accordance with Code Section 40-5-151 .

(l) Any individual who knowingly uses a commercial motor vehicle while committing the offense of trafficking a person for labor or sexual servitude in violation of this Code section shall also be punished by the revocation of the defendant's commercial driver's license and disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life in accordance with Code Section 40-5-151 .
O.C.G.A. § 16-10-93 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 10 / Section 16-10-93
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-10-93
Status: in_force

(a) A person who, with intent to deter a witness from testifying freely, fully, and truthfully to any matter pending in any court, in any administrative proceeding, or before a grand jury, communicates, directly or indirectly, to such witness any threat of injury or damage to the person, property, or employment of the witness or to the person, property, or employment of any relative or associate of the witness or who offers or delivers any benefit, reward, or consideration to such witness or to a relative or associate of the witness shall, upon conviction thereof, be punished by imprisonment for not less than one nor more than five years.

(a) A person who, with intent to deter a witness from testifying freely, fully, and truthfully to any matter pending in any court, in any administrative proceeding, or before a grand jury, communicates, directly or indirectly, to such witness any threat of injury or damage to the person, property, or employment of the witness or to the person, property, or employment of any relative or associate of the witness or who offers or delivers any benefit, reward, or consideration to such witness or to a relative or associate of the witness shall, upon conviction thereof, be punished by imprisonment for not less than one nor more than five years.

(b)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to use intimidation, physical force, or threats; to persuade another person by means of corruption or to attempt to do so; or to engage in misleading conduct toward another person with intent to: (A) Influence, delay, or prevent the testimony of any person in an official proceeding; (B) Cause or induce any person to: (i) Withhold testimony or a record, document, or other object from an official proceeding; (ii) Alter, destroy, mutilate, or conceal an object with intent to impair the object's integrity or availability for use in an official proceeding; (iii) Evade legal process summoning that person to appear as a witness or to produce a record, document, or other object in an official proceeding; or (iv) Be absent from an official proceeding to which such person has been summoned by legal process; or (C) Hinder, delay, or prevent the communication to a law enforcement officer, prosecuting attorney, or judge of this state of information relating to the commission or possible commission of a criminal offense or a violation of conditions of probation, parole, or release pending judicial proceedings. (2) Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than two nor more than ten years or by a fine of not less than $10,000.00 nor more than $20,000.00, or both. (3)(A) For the purposes of this Code section, the term “official proceeding” means any hearing or trial conducted by a court of this state or its political subdivisions, a grand jury, or an agency of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of government of this state or its political subdivisions or authorities. (B) An official proceeding need not be pending or about to be instituted at the time of any offense defined in this subsection. (C) The testimony, record, document, or other object which is prevented or impeded or attempted to be prevented or impeded in an official proceeding in violation of this Code section need not be admissible in evidence or free of a claim of privilege. (D) In a prosecution for an offense under this Code section, no state of mind need be proved with respect to the circumstance: (i) That the official proceeding before a judge, court, magistrate, grand jury, or government agency is before a judge or court of this state, a magistrate, a grand jury, or an agency of state or local government; or (ii) That the judge is a judge of this state or its political subdivisions or that the law enforcement officer is an officer or employee of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state or a person authorized to act for or on behalf of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state. (E) A prosecution under this Code section may be brought in the county in which the official proceeding, whether or not pending or about to be instituted, was intended to be affected or in the county in which the conduct constituting the alleged offense occurred.

(b)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to use intimidation, physical force, or threats; to persuade another person by means of corruption or to attempt to do so; or to engage in misleading conduct toward another person with intent to: (A) Influence, delay, or prevent the testimony of any person in an official proceeding; (B) Cause or induce any person to: (i) Withhold testimony or a record, document, or other object from an official proceeding; (ii) Alter, destroy, mutilate, or conceal an object with intent to impair the object's integrity or availability for use in an official proceeding; (iii) Evade legal process summoning that person to appear as a witness or to produce a record, document, or other object in an official proceeding; or (iv) Be absent from an official proceeding to which such person has been summoned by legal process; or (C) Hinder, delay, or prevent the communication to a law enforcement officer, prosecuting attorney, or judge of this state of information relating to the commission or possible commission of a criminal offense or a violation of conditions of probation, parole, or release pending judicial proceedings.

(b)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to use intimidation, physical force, or threats; to persuade another person by means of corruption or to attempt to do so; or to engage in misleading conduct toward another person with intent to:

(A) Influence, delay, or prevent the testimony of any person in an official proceeding;

(A) Influence, delay, or prevent the testimony of any person in an official proceeding;

(B) Cause or induce any person to: (i) Withhold testimony or a record, document, or other object from an official proceeding; (ii) Alter, destroy, mutilate, or conceal an object with intent to impair the object's integrity or availability for use in an official proceeding; (iii) Evade legal process summoning that person to appear as a witness or to produce a record, document, or other object in an official proceeding; or (iv) Be absent from an official proceeding to which such person has been summoned by legal process; or

(B) Cause or induce any person to:

(i) Withhold testimony or a record, document, or other object from an official proceeding;

(i) Withhold testimony or a record, document, or other object from an official proceeding;

(ii) Alter, destroy, mutilate, or conceal an object with intent to impair the object's integrity or availability for use in an official proceeding;

(ii) Alter, destroy, mutilate, or conceal an object with intent to impair the object's integrity or availability for use in an official proceeding;

(iii) Evade legal process summoning that person to appear as a witness or to produce a record, document, or other object in an official proceeding; or

(iii) Evade legal process summoning that person to appear as a witness or to produce a record, document, or other object in an official proceeding; or

(iv) Be absent from an official proceeding to which such person has been summoned by legal process; or

(iv) Be absent from an official proceeding to which such person has been summoned by legal process; or

(C) Hinder, delay, or prevent the communication to a law enforcement officer, prosecuting attorney, or judge of this state of information relating to the commission or possible commission of a criminal offense or a violation of conditions of probation, parole, or release pending judicial proceedings.

(C) Hinder, delay, or prevent the communication to a law enforcement officer, prosecuting attorney, or judge of this state of information relating to the commission or possible commission of a criminal offense or a violation of conditions of probation, parole, or release pending judicial proceedings.

(2) Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than two nor more than ten years or by a fine of not less than $10,000.00 nor more than $20,000.00, or both.

(2) Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than two nor more than ten years or by a fine of not less than $10,000.00 nor more than $20,000.00, or both.

(3)(A) For the purposes of this Code section, the term “official proceeding” means any hearing or trial conducted by a court of this state or its political subdivisions, a grand jury, or an agency of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of government of this state or its political subdivisions or authorities. (B) An official proceeding need not be pending or about to be instituted at the time of any offense defined in this subsection. (C) The testimony, record, document, or other object which is prevented or impeded or attempted to be prevented or impeded in an official proceeding in violation of this Code section need not be admissible in evidence or free of a claim of privilege. (D) In a prosecution for an offense under this Code section, no state of mind need be proved with respect to the circumstance: (i) That the official proceeding before a judge, court, magistrate, grand jury, or government agency is before a judge or court of this state, a magistrate, a grand jury, or an agency of state or local government; or (ii) That the judge is a judge of this state or its political subdivisions or that the law enforcement officer is an officer or employee of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state or a person authorized to act for or on behalf of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state. (E) A prosecution under this Code section may be brought in the county in which the official proceeding, whether or not pending or about to be instituted, was intended to be affected or in the county in which the conduct constituting the alleged offense occurred.

(3)(A) For the purposes of this Code section, the term “official proceeding” means any hearing or trial conducted by a court of this state or its political subdivisions, a grand jury, or an agency of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of government of this state or its political subdivisions or authorities.

(3)(A) For the purposes of this Code section, the term “official proceeding” means any hearing or trial conducted by a court of this state or its political subdivisions, a grand jury, or an agency of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of government of this state or its political subdivisions or authorities.

(B) An official proceeding need not be pending or about to be instituted at the time of any offense defined in this subsection.

(B) An official proceeding need not be pending or about to be instituted at the time of any offense defined in this subsection.

(C) The testimony, record, document, or other object which is prevented or impeded or attempted to be prevented or impeded in an official proceeding in violation of this Code section need not be admissible in evidence or free of a claim of privilege.

(C) The testimony, record, document, or other object which is prevented or impeded or attempted to be prevented or impeded in an official proceeding in violation of this Code section need not be admissible in evidence or free of a claim of privilege.

(D) In a prosecution for an offense under this Code section, no state of mind need be proved with respect to the circumstance: (i) That the official proceeding before a judge, court, magistrate, grand jury, or government agency is before a judge or court of this state, a magistrate, a grand jury, or an agency of state or local government; or (ii) That the judge is a judge of this state or its political subdivisions or that the law enforcement officer is an officer or employee of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state or a person authorized to act for or on behalf of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state.

(D) In a prosecution for an offense under this Code section, no state of mind need be proved with respect to the circumstance:

(i) That the official proceeding before a judge, court, magistrate, grand jury, or government agency is before a judge or court of this state, a magistrate, a grand jury, or an agency of state or local government; or

(i) That the official proceeding before a judge, court, magistrate, grand jury, or government agency is before a judge or court of this state, a magistrate, a grand jury, or an agency of state or local government; or

(ii) That the judge is a judge of this state or its political subdivisions or that the law enforcement officer is an officer or employee of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state or a person authorized to act for or on behalf of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state.

(ii) That the judge is a judge of this state or its political subdivisions or that the law enforcement officer is an officer or employee of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state or a person authorized to act for or on behalf of the State of Georgia or a political subdivision or authority of the state.

(E) A prosecution under this Code section may be brought in the county in which the official proceeding, whether or not pending or about to be instituted, was intended to be affected or in the county in which the conduct constituting the alleged offense occurred.

(E) A prosecution under this Code section may be brought in the county in which the official proceeding, whether or not pending or about to be instituted, was intended to be affected or in the county in which the conduct constituting the alleged offense occurred.

(c) Any crime committed in violation of subsection (a) or (b) of this Code section shall be considered a separate offense.

(c) Any crime committed in violation of subsection (a) or (b) of this Code section shall be considered a separate offense.
O.C.G.A. § 16-12-226 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 12 / Section 16-12-226
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-12-226
Status: in_force

The sale of low THC oil and products authorized by this article shall be subject to all applicable sales and use taxes.
O.C.G.A. § 16-7-43 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 7 / Section 16-7-43
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-7-43
Status: in_force

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person or persons to dump, deposit, throw, or leave or to cause or permit the dumping, depositing, placing, throwing, or leaving of litter on any public or private property in this state or any waters in this state, unless: (1) The area is designated by the state or by any of its agencies or political subdivisions for the disposal of litter and the person is authorized by the proper public authority to so use such area; (2) The litter is placed into a nondisposable litter receptacle or container designed for the temporary storage of litter and located in an area designated by the owner or tenant in lawful possession of the property; or (3) The person is the owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property or has first obtained consent of the owner or tenant in lawful possession or unless the act is done under the personal direction of the owner or tenant, all in a manner consistent with the public welfare.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person or persons to dump, deposit, throw, or leave or to cause or permit the dumping, depositing, placing, throwing, or leaving of litter on any public or private property in this state or any waters in this state, unless:

(1) The area is designated by the state or by any of its agencies or political subdivisions for the disposal of litter and the person is authorized by the proper public authority to so use such area;

(1) The area is designated by the state or by any of its agencies or political subdivisions for the disposal of litter and the person is authorized by the proper public authority to so use such area;

(2) The litter is placed into a nondisposable litter receptacle or container designed for the temporary storage of litter and located in an area designated by the owner or tenant in lawful possession of the property; or

(2) The litter is placed into a nondisposable litter receptacle or container designed for the temporary storage of litter and located in an area designated by the owner or tenant in lawful possession of the property; or

(3) The person is the owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property or has first obtained consent of the owner or tenant in lawful possession or unless the act is done under the personal direction of the owner or tenant, all in a manner consistent with the public welfare.

(3) The person is the owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property or has first obtained consent of the owner or tenant in lawful possession or unless the act is done under the personal direction of the owner or tenant, all in a manner consistent with the public welfare.

(b)(1) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. (2) In addition to the punishment provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection: (A) In the sound discretion of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public street or highway or public right of way for a distance not to exceed one mile any litter the person has deposited and any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone else prior to the date of execution of sentence; or (B) In the sound discretion of the judge of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public beach, public park, private right of way, or, with the prior permission of the legal owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property, any private property upon which it can be established by competent evidence that the person has deposited litter, any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone prior to the date of execution of sentence.

(b)(1) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b)(1) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.

(2) In addition to the punishment provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection: (A) In the sound discretion of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public street or highway or public right of way for a distance not to exceed one mile any litter the person has deposited and any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone else prior to the date of execution of sentence; or (B) In the sound discretion of the judge of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public beach, public park, private right of way, or, with the prior permission of the legal owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property, any private property upon which it can be established by competent evidence that the person has deposited litter, any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone prior to the date of execution of sentence.

(2) In addition to the punishment provided under paragraph (1) of this subsection:

(A) In the sound discretion of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public street or highway or public right of way for a distance not to exceed one mile any litter the person has deposited and any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone else prior to the date of execution of sentence; or

(A) In the sound discretion of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public street or highway or public right of way for a distance not to exceed one mile any litter the person has deposited and any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone else prior to the date of execution of sentence; or

(B) In the sound discretion of the judge of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public beach, public park, private right of way, or, with the prior permission of the legal owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property, any private property upon which it can be established by competent evidence that the person has deposited litter, any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone prior to the date of execution of sentence.

(B) In the sound discretion of the judge of the court, the person may be directed to pick up and remove from any public beach, public park, private right of way, or, with the prior permission of the legal owner or tenant in lawful possession of such property, any private property upon which it can be established by competent evidence that the person has deposited litter, any and all litter deposited thereon by anyone prior to the date of execution of sentence.

(c) The court may publish the names of persons convicted of violating subsection (a) of this Code section.

(c) The court may publish the names of persons convicted of violating subsection (a) of this Code section.

(d) Any county, municipality, consolidated government, or law enforcement agency thereof of this state which is empowered by Code Section 16-7-45 or other law to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances may, in its discretion, appoint any person who is a citizen of the United States, is of good moral character, and has not previously been convicted of a felony to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances within the county, municipality, or consolidated government in which the appointing agency exercises jurisdiction. Each person appointed pursuant to this Code section shall take and subscribe an oath of office as prescribed by the appointing authority. Any person appointed and sworn pursuant to this subsection shall be authorized to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances in the same manner as any employee or law enforcement officer of this state or any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state subject to the limitations provided in subsections (e) and (f) of this Code section.

(d) Any county, municipality, consolidated government, or law enforcement agency thereof of this state which is empowered by Code Section 16-7-45 or other law to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances may, in its discretion, appoint any person who is a citizen of the United States, is of good moral character, and has not previously been convicted of a felony to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances within the county, municipality, or consolidated government in which the appointing agency exercises jurisdiction. Each person appointed pursuant to this Code section shall take and subscribe an oath of office as prescribed by the appointing authority. Any person appointed and sworn pursuant to this subsection shall be authorized to enforce the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances in the same manner as any employee or law enforcement officer of this state or any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state subject to the limitations provided in subsections (e) and (f) of this Code section.

(e) No person appointed pursuant to subsection (d) of this Code section shall be deemed a peace officer under the laws of this state or: (1) Be deemed to be an employee of or receive any compensation from the state, county, municipality, consolidated government, or appointing law enforcement agency; (2) Be required to complete any training or be certified pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 8 of Title 35; (3) Have the power or duty to enforce any traffic or other criminal laws of the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government; (4) Have the power to possess and carry firearms and other weapons for the purpose of enforcing the littering laws; or (5) Be entitled to any indemnification from the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government for any injury or property damage sustained by such person as a result of attempting to enforce the littering laws of this state or any local government.

(e) No person appointed pursuant to subsection (d) of this Code section shall be deemed a peace officer under the laws of this state or:

(1) Be deemed to be an employee of or receive any compensation from the state, county, municipality, consolidated government, or appointing law enforcement agency;

(1) Be deemed to be an employee of or receive any compensation from the state, county, municipality, consolidated government, or appointing law enforcement agency;

(2) Be required to complete any training or be certified pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 8 of Title 35;

(2) Be required to complete any training or be certified pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 8 of Title 35;

(3) Have the power or duty to enforce any traffic or other criminal laws of the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government;

(3) Have the power or duty to enforce any traffic or other criminal laws of the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government;

(4) Have the power to possess and carry firearms and other weapons for the purpose of enforcing the littering laws; or

(4) Have the power to possess and carry firearms and other weapons for the purpose of enforcing the littering laws; or

(5) Be entitled to any indemnification from the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government for any injury or property damage sustained by such person as a result of attempting to enforce the littering laws of this state or any local government.

(5) Be entitled to any indemnification from the state, county, municipality, or consolidated government for any injury or property damage sustained by such person as a result of attempting to enforce the littering laws of this state or any local government.

(f) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, neither the state nor any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state or any department, agency, board, or officer of this state or any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state shall be liable or accountable for or on account of any act or omission of any person appointed pursuant to this Code section in connection with such person's enforcement of the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances.

(f) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, neither the state nor any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state or any department, agency, board, or officer of this state or any county, municipality, or consolidated government of this state shall be liable or accountable for or on account of any act or omission of any person appointed pursuant to this Code section in connection with such person's enforcement of the provisions of this Code section or local littering ordinances.

(g) It shall be unlawful for any person willfully to obstruct, resist, impede, or interfere with any person appointed pursuant to this Code section in connection with such person's enforcement of this Code section or local littering ordinances or to retaliate or discriminate in any manner against such person as a reprisal for any act or omission of such person. Any violation of this subsection shall be punishable as a misdemeanor.

(g) It shall be unlawful for any person willfully to obstruct, resist, impede, or interfere with any person appointed pursuant to this Code section in connection with such person's enforcement of this Code section or local littering ordinances or to retaliate or discriminate in any manner against such person as a reprisal for any act or omission of such person. Any violation of this subsection shall be punishable as a misdemeanor.
O.C.G.A. § 16-10-29 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 10 / Section 16-10-29
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-10-29
Status: in_force

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person to transmit in any manner a request for ambulance service to any person, firm, or corporation furnishing ambulance service, public or private, knowing at the time of making the request for ambulance service that there exists no reasonable need for such ambulance service.

(a) It shall be unlawful for any person to transmit in any manner a request for ambulance service to any person, firm, or corporation furnishing ambulance service, public or private, knowing at the time of making the request for ambulance service that there exists no reasonable need for such ambulance service.

(b) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
O.C.G.A. § 16-11-130 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 11 / Section 16-11-130
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-11-130
Status: in_force

(a) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect any of the following persons if such persons are employed in the offices listed below or when authorized by federal or state law, regulations, or order: (1) Peace officers, as such term is defined in paragraph (11) of Code Section 16-1-3 , and retired peace officers so long as they remain certified whether employed by the state or a political subdivision of the state or another state or a political subdivision of another state but only if such other state provides a similar privilege for the peace officers of this state; (2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of correctional institutions, jails, or other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense; (3) Persons in the military service of the state or of the United States; (4) Persons employed in fulfilling defense contracts with the government of the United States or agencies thereof when possession of the weapon or long gun is necessary for manufacture, transport, installation, and testing under the requirements of such contract; (5) District attorneys, investigators employed by and assigned to a district attorney's office, assistant district attorneys, attorneys or investigators employed by the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, and any retired district attorney, assistant district attorney, district attorney's investigator, or attorney or investigator retired from the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, if such employee is retired in good standing and is receiving benefits under Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county or municipal retirement system; (6) State court solicitors-general; investigators employed by and assigned to a state court solicitor-general's office; assistant state court solicitors-general; the corresponding personnel of any city court expressly continued in existence as a city court pursuant to Article VI, Section X, Paragraph I, subparagraph (5) of the Constitution ; and the corresponding personnel of any civil court expressly continued as a civil court pursuant to said provision of the Constitution; (7) Those employees of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the members of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles to carry a weapon or long gun; (8) The Attorney General and those members of his or her staff whom he or she specifically authorizes in writing to carry a weapon or long gun; (9) Community supervision officers employed by and under the authority of the Department of Community Supervision when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the commissioner of community supervision; (10) Public safety directors of municipal corporations; (11) Explosive ordnance disposal technicians, as such term is defined by Code Section 16-7-80 , and persons certified as provided in Code Section 35-8-25 to handle animals trained to detect explosives, while in the performance of their duties; (12) Federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal and city courts, and administrative law judges; (12.1) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are retired from their respective offices, provided that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license; (12.2) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are no longer serving in their respective office, provided that he or she served as such judge or Justice for more than 24 months; and provided, further, that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license; (13) United States Attorneys and Assistant United States Attorneys; (14) County medical examiners and coroners and their sworn officers employed by county government; (15) Clerks of the superior courts; and (16) Constables employed by a magistrate court of this state.

(a) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect any of the following persons if such persons are employed in the offices listed below or when authorized by federal or state law, regulations, or order:

(1) Peace officers, as such term is defined in paragraph (11) of Code Section 16-1-3 , and retired peace officers so long as they remain certified whether employed by the state or a political subdivision of the state or another state or a political subdivision of another state but only if such other state provides a similar privilege for the peace officers of this state;

(1) Peace officers, as such term is defined in paragraph (11) of Code Section 16-1-3 , and retired peace officers so long as they remain certified whether employed by the state or a political subdivision of the state or another state or a political subdivision of another state but only if such other state provides a similar privilege for the peace officers of this state;

(2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of correctional institutions, jails, or other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;

(2) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of correctional institutions, jails, or other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;

(3) Persons in the military service of the state or of the United States;

(3) Persons in the military service of the state or of the United States;

(4) Persons employed in fulfilling defense contracts with the government of the United States or agencies thereof when possession of the weapon or long gun is necessary for manufacture, transport, installation, and testing under the requirements of such contract;

(4) Persons employed in fulfilling defense contracts with the government of the United States or agencies thereof when possession of the weapon or long gun is necessary for manufacture, transport, installation, and testing under the requirements of such contract;

(5) District attorneys, investigators employed by and assigned to a district attorney's office, assistant district attorneys, attorneys or investigators employed by the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, and any retired district attorney, assistant district attorney, district attorney's investigator, or attorney or investigator retired from the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, if such employee is retired in good standing and is receiving benefits under Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county or municipal retirement system;

(5) District attorneys, investigators employed by and assigned to a district attorney's office, assistant district attorneys, attorneys or investigators employed by the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, and any retired district attorney, assistant district attorney, district attorney's investigator, or attorney or investigator retired from the Prosecuting Attorneys' Council of the State of Georgia, if such employee is retired in good standing and is receiving benefits under Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county or municipal retirement system;

(6) State court solicitors-general; investigators employed by and assigned to a state court solicitor-general's office; assistant state court solicitors-general; the corresponding personnel of any city court expressly continued in existence as a city court pursuant to Article VI, Section X, Paragraph I, subparagraph (5) of the Constitution ; and the corresponding personnel of any civil court expressly continued as a civil court pursuant to said provision of the Constitution;

(6) State court solicitors-general; investigators employed by and assigned to a state court solicitor-general's office; assistant state court solicitors-general; the corresponding personnel of any city court expressly continued in existence as a city court pursuant to Article VI, Section X, Paragraph I, subparagraph (5) of the Constitution ; and the corresponding personnel of any civil court expressly continued as a civil court pursuant to said provision of the Constitution;

(7) Those employees of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the members of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles to carry a weapon or long gun;

(7) Those employees of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the members of the State Board of Pardons and Paroles to carry a weapon or long gun;

(8) The Attorney General and those members of his or her staff whom he or she specifically authorizes in writing to carry a weapon or long gun;

(8) The Attorney General and those members of his or her staff whom he or she specifically authorizes in writing to carry a weapon or long gun;

(9) Community supervision officers employed by and under the authority of the Department of Community Supervision when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the commissioner of community supervision;

(9) Community supervision officers employed by and under the authority of the Department of Community Supervision when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the commissioner of community supervision;

(10) Public safety directors of municipal corporations;

(10) Public safety directors of municipal corporations;

(11) Explosive ordnance disposal technicians, as such term is defined by Code Section 16-7-80 , and persons certified as provided in Code Section 35-8-25 to handle animals trained to detect explosives, while in the performance of their duties;

(11) Explosive ordnance disposal technicians, as such term is defined by Code Section 16-7-80 , and persons certified as provided in Code Section 35-8-25 to handle animals trained to detect explosives, while in the performance of their duties;

(12) Federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal and city courts, and administrative law judges;

(12) Federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal and city courts, and administrative law judges;

(12.1) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are retired from their respective offices, provided that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license;

(12.1) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are retired from their respective offices, provided that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license;

(12.2) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are no longer serving in their respective office, provided that he or she served as such judge or Justice for more than 24 months; and provided, further, that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license;

(12.2) Former federal judges, Justices of the Supreme Court, Judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of superior, state, probate, juvenile, and magistrate courts, full-time judges of municipal and city courts, permanent part-time judges of municipal courts, and administrative law judges who are no longer serving in their respective office, provided that he or she served as such judge or Justice for more than 24 months; and provided, further, that such judge or Justice would otherwise be qualified to be issued a weapons carry license;

(13) United States Attorneys and Assistant United States Attorneys;

(13) United States Attorneys and Assistant United States Attorneys;

(14) County medical examiners and coroners and their sworn officers employed by county government;

(14) County medical examiners and coroners and their sworn officers employed by county government;

(15) Clerks of the superior courts; and

(15) Clerks of the superior courts; and

(16) Constables employed by a magistrate court of this state.

(16) Constables employed by a magistrate court of this state.

(b) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect persons who at the time of their retirement from service with the Department of Community Supervision were community supervision officers, when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the commissioner of community supervision.

(b) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect persons who at the time of their retirement from service with the Department of Community Supervision were community supervision officers, when specifically designated and authorized in writing by the commissioner of community supervision.

(c)(1) As used in this subsection, the term “ courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held. (2) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect any: (A) Sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, or retired deputy sheriff if such retired sheriff or deputy sheriff is eligible to receive or is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47, the Sheriffs' Retirement Fund of Georgia provided under Chapter 16 of Title 47, or any other public retirement system established under the laws of this state for service as a law enforcement officer; (B) Member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation if such retired member or agent is receiving benefits under the Employees' Retirement System; (C) Full-time law enforcement chief executive engaging in the management of a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; or retired law enforcement chief executive who formerly managed a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired law enforcement chief executive is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; (D) Police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, or retired police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired police officer is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; or (E) Person who is a citizen of this state and: (i) Has retired with at least ten years of aggregate service as a law enforcement officer with powers of arrest under the laws of any state of the United States or of the United States; (ii) Separated from service in good standing, as determined by criteria established by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, from employment with his or her most recent law enforcement agency; and (iii) Possesses on his or her person an identification card for retired law enforcement officers as issued by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; provided, however, that such person meets the standards for the issuance of such card as provided for by the council, including, but not limited to, maintenance of qualification in firearms training. In addition, any such sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, retired deputy sheriff, member or retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, officer or retired officer of the Department of Natural Resources, active or retired law enforcement chief executive, person who is a retired law enforcement officer as provided for in paragraph (2) of this subsection, or other law enforcement officer referred to in this subsection shall be authorized to carry a handgun on or off duty anywhere within this state, including, but not limited to, in a courthouse except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, and Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to the carrying of such firearms.

(c)(1) As used in this subsection, the term “ courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held.

(c)(1) As used in this subsection, the term “ courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held.

(2) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect any: (A) Sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, or retired deputy sheriff if such retired sheriff or deputy sheriff is eligible to receive or is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47, the Sheriffs' Retirement Fund of Georgia provided under Chapter 16 of Title 47, or any other public retirement system established under the laws of this state for service as a law enforcement officer; (B) Member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation if such retired member or agent is receiving benefits under the Employees' Retirement System; (C) Full-time law enforcement chief executive engaging in the management of a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; or retired law enforcement chief executive who formerly managed a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired law enforcement chief executive is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; (D) Police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, or retired police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired police officer is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; or (E) Person who is a citizen of this state and: (i) Has retired with at least ten years of aggregate service as a law enforcement officer with powers of arrest under the laws of any state of the United States or of the United States; (ii) Separated from service in good standing, as determined by criteria established by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, from employment with his or her most recent law enforcement agency; and (iii) Possesses on his or her person an identification card for retired law enforcement officers as issued by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; provided, however, that such person meets the standards for the issuance of such card as provided for by the council, including, but not limited to, maintenance of qualification in firearms training. In addition, any such sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, retired deputy sheriff, member or retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, officer or retired officer of the Department of Natural Resources, active or retired law enforcement chief executive, person who is a retired law enforcement officer as provided for in paragraph (2) of this subsection, or other law enforcement officer referred to in this subsection shall be authorized to carry a handgun on or off duty anywhere within this state, including, but not limited to, in a courthouse except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, and Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to the carrying of such firearms.

(2) Except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to or affect any:

(A) Sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, or retired deputy sheriff if such retired sheriff or deputy sheriff is eligible to receive or is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47, the Sheriffs' Retirement Fund of Georgia provided under Chapter 16 of Title 47, or any other public retirement system established under the laws of this state for service as a law enforcement officer;

(A) Sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, or retired deputy sheriff if such retired sheriff or deputy sheriff is eligible to receive or is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47, the Sheriffs' Retirement Fund of Georgia provided under Chapter 16 of Title 47, or any other public retirement system established under the laws of this state for service as a law enforcement officer;

(B) Member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation if such retired member or agent is receiving benefits under the Employees' Retirement System;

(B) Member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation if such retired member or agent is receiving benefits under the Employees' Retirement System;

(C) Full-time law enforcement chief executive engaging in the management of a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; or retired law enforcement chief executive who formerly managed a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired law enforcement chief executive is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system;

(C) Full-time law enforcement chief executive engaging in the management of a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; or retired law enforcement chief executive who formerly managed a county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university law enforcement chief executive who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired law enforcement chief executive is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system;

(D) Police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, or retired police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired police officer is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; or

(D) Police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who is registered or certified by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, or retired police officer of any county, municipal, state, state authority, or federal law enforcement agency in the State of Georgia, including any college or university police officer who was registered or certified at the time of his or her retirement by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, if such retired police officer is receiving benefits under the Peace Officers' Annuity and Benefit Fund provided under Chapter 17 of Title 47 or is retired in good standing and receiving benefits from a county, municipal, State of Georgia, state authority, or federal retirement system; or

(E) Person who is a citizen of this state and: (i) Has retired with at least ten years of aggregate service as a law enforcement officer with powers of arrest under the laws of any state of the United States or of the United States; (ii) Separated from service in good standing, as determined by criteria established by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, from employment with his or her most recent law enforcement agency; and (iii) Possesses on his or her person an identification card for retired law enforcement officers as issued by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; provided, however, that such person meets the standards for the issuance of such card as provided for by the council, including, but not limited to, maintenance of qualification in firearms training. In addition, any such sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, retired deputy sheriff, member or retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, officer or retired officer of the Department of Natural Resources, active or retired law enforcement chief executive, person who is a retired law enforcement officer as provided for in paragraph (2) of this subsection, or other law enforcement officer referred to in this subsection shall be authorized to carry a handgun on or off duty anywhere within this state, including, but not limited to, in a courthouse except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, and Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to the carrying of such firearms.

(E) Person who is a citizen of this state and:

(i) Has retired with at least ten years of aggregate service as a law enforcement officer with powers of arrest under the laws of any state of the United States or of the United States;

(i) Has retired with at least ten years of aggregate service as a law enforcement officer with powers of arrest under the laws of any state of the United States or of the United States;

(ii) Separated from service in good standing, as determined by criteria established by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, from employment with his or her most recent law enforcement agency; and

(ii) Separated from service in good standing, as determined by criteria established by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council, from employment with his or her most recent law enforcement agency; and

(iii) Possesses on his or her person an identification card for retired law enforcement officers as issued by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; provided, however, that such person meets the standards for the issuance of such card as provided for by the council, including, but not limited to, maintenance of qualification in firearms training.

(iii) Possesses on his or her person an identification card for retired law enforcement officers as issued by the Georgia Peace Officer Standards and Training Council; provided, however, that such person meets the standards for the issuance of such card as provided for by the council, including, but not limited to, maintenance of qualification in firearms training.

In addition, any such sheriff, retired sheriff, deputy sheriff, retired deputy sheriff, member or retired member of the Georgia State Patrol, agent or retired agent of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation, officer or retired officer of the Department of Natural Resources, active or retired law enforcement chief executive, person who is a retired law enforcement officer as provided for in paragraph (2) of this subsection, or other law enforcement officer referred to in this subsection shall be authorized to carry a handgun on or off duty anywhere within this state, including, but not limited to, in a courthouse except to the extent provided for in subsection (c.1) of this Code section, and Code Sections 16-11-126 through 16-11-127.2 shall not apply to the carrying of such firearms.

(c.1)(1) As used in the subsection, the term: (A) “ Active ” means nonretired. (B) “ Courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held. (C) “ Law enforcement agency ” means sheriffs or any unit, organ, or department of this state, or a subdivision or municipality thereof, whose functions by law include the enforcement of criminal or traffic laws; the preservation of public order; the protection of life and property; the prevention, detection, or investigation of crime; or court security that is providing security for a courthouse. (D) “ Law enforcement personnel ” means sheriffs or deputy sheriffs or peace officers employed by a law enforcement agency. (2)(A) Pursuant to a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over a courthouse may provide for facilities or the means for the holding of weapons carried by persons enumerated under this Code section, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, provided that ingress to such courthouse is actively restricted or screened by law enforcement personnel and such facilities or means are located in the immediate proximity of the area which is restricted or screened by such law enforcement personnel. (B) If the requirements of this paragraph are met, the persons enumerated under this Code section shall, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, upon request of law enforcement personnel place his or her weapons in such holding with law enforcement personnel while such persons are within the restricted or screened area. Upon request of any person enumerated under this Code section, in preparation for his or her exit from the restricted or screened area, law enforcement personnel shall immediately provide for the return of the person's weapons which are in holding. (3) Notwithstanding a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , active law enforcement officers referred to in subsection (c) of this Code section shall be authorized to carry their service handguns and weapons in any courthouse if they are wearing the assigned uniform of their law enforcement office or have the official badge and identification credentials issued to them by their law enforcement office displayed and plainly visible on their person while in the performance of their official duties.

(c.1)(1) As used in the subsection, the term: (A) “ Active ” means nonretired. (B) “ Courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held. (C) “ Law enforcement agency ” means sheriffs or any unit, organ, or department of this state, or a subdivision or municipality thereof, whose functions by law include the enforcement of criminal or traffic laws; the preservation of public order; the protection of life and property; the prevention, detection, or investigation of crime; or court security that is providing security for a courthouse. (D) “ Law enforcement personnel ” means sheriffs or deputy sheriffs or peace officers employed by a law enforcement agency.

(c.1)(1) As used in the subsection, the term:

(A) “ Active ” means nonretired.

(A) “ Active ” means nonretired.

(B) “ Courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held.

(B) “ Courthouse ” means a building or annex occupied by judicial courts and containing rooms in which judicial proceedings are held.

(C) “ Law enforcement agency ” means sheriffs or any unit, organ, or department of this state, or a subdivision or municipality thereof, whose functions by law include the enforcement of criminal or traffic laws; the preservation of public order; the protection of life and property; the prevention, detection, or investigation of crime; or court security that is providing security for a courthouse.

(C) “ Law enforcement agency ” means sheriffs or any unit, organ, or department of this state, or a subdivision or municipality thereof, whose functions by law include the enforcement of criminal or traffic laws; the preservation of public order; the protection of life and property; the prevention, detection, or investigation of crime; or court security that is providing security for a courthouse.

(D) “ Law enforcement personnel ” means sheriffs or deputy sheriffs or peace officers employed by a law enforcement agency.

(D) “ Law enforcement personnel ” means sheriffs or deputy sheriffs or peace officers employed by a law enforcement agency.

(2)(A) Pursuant to a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over a courthouse may provide for facilities or the means for the holding of weapons carried by persons enumerated under this Code section, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, provided that ingress to such courthouse is actively restricted or screened by law enforcement personnel and such facilities or means are located in the immediate proximity of the area which is restricted or screened by such law enforcement personnel. (B) If the requirements of this paragraph are met, the persons enumerated under this Code section shall, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, upon request of law enforcement personnel place his or her weapons in such holding with law enforcement personnel while such persons are within the restricted or screened area. Upon request of any person enumerated under this Code section, in preparation for his or her exit from the restricted or screened area, law enforcement personnel shall immediately provide for the return of the person's weapons which are in holding.

(2)(A) Pursuant to a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over a courthouse may provide for facilities or the means for the holding of weapons carried by persons enumerated under this Code section, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, provided that ingress to such courthouse is actively restricted or screened by law enforcement personnel and such facilities or means are located in the immediate proximity of the area which is restricted or screened by such law enforcement personnel.

(2)(A) Pursuant to a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over a courthouse may provide for facilities or the means for the holding of weapons carried by persons enumerated under this Code section, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, provided that ingress to such courthouse is actively restricted or screened by law enforcement personnel and such facilities or means are located in the immediate proximity of the area which is restricted or screened by such law enforcement personnel.

(B) If the requirements of this paragraph are met, the persons enumerated under this Code section shall, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, upon request of law enforcement personnel place his or her weapons in such holding with law enforcement personnel while such persons are within the restricted or screened area. Upon request of any person enumerated under this Code section, in preparation for his or her exit from the restricted or screened area, law enforcement personnel shall immediately provide for the return of the person's weapons which are in holding.

(B) If the requirements of this paragraph are met, the persons enumerated under this Code section shall, except as provided for in paragraph (3) of this subsection, upon request of law enforcement personnel place his or her weapons in such holding with law enforcement personnel while such persons are within the restricted or screened area. Upon request of any person enumerated under this Code section, in preparation for his or her exit from the restricted or screened area, law enforcement personnel shall immediately provide for the return of the person's weapons which are in holding.

(3) Notwithstanding a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , active law enforcement officers referred to in subsection (c) of this Code section shall be authorized to carry their service handguns and weapons in any courthouse if they are wearing the assigned uniform of their law enforcement office or have the official badge and identification credentials issued to them by their law enforcement office displayed and plainly visible on their person while in the performance of their official duties.

(3) Notwithstanding a security plan implemented by law enforcement personnel, including as provided for under a comprehensive plan as provided for in subsection (a) of Code Section 15-16-10 , active law enforcement officers referred to in subsection (c) of this Code section shall be authorized to carry their service handguns and weapons in any courthouse if they are wearing the assigned uniform of their law enforcement office or have the official badge and identification credentials issued to them by their law enforcement office displayed and plainly visible on their person while in the performance of their official duties.

(d) A prosecution based upon a violation of Code Section 16-11-126 or 16-11-127 need not negative any exemptions.

(d) A prosecution based upon a violation of Code Section 16-11-126 or 16-11-127 need not negative any exemptions.
O.C.G.A. § 16-11-132 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 11 / Section 16-11-132
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-11-132
Status: in_force

(a) For the purposes of this Code section, a handgun is considered loaded if there is a cartridge in the chamber or cylinder of the handgun.

(a) For the purposes of this Code section, a handgun is considered loaded if there is a cartridge in the chamber or cylinder of the handgun.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part and except as otherwise provided in this Code section, it shall be unlawful for any person under the age of 18 years to possess or have under such person's control a handgun. A person convicted of a first violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $1,000.00 or by imprisonment for not more than 12 months, or both. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a felony and shall be punished by a fine of $5,000.00 or by imprisonment for a period of three years, or both.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part and except as otherwise provided in this Code section, it shall be unlawful for any person under the age of 18 years to possess or have under such person's control a handgun. A person convicted of a first violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed $1,000.00 or by imprisonment for not more than 12 months, or both. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this subsection shall be guilty of a felony and shall be punished by a fine of $5,000.00 or by imprisonment for a period of three years, or both.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) of this Code section, the provisions of subsection (b) of this Code section shall not apply to: (1) Any person under the age of 18 years who is: (A) Attending a hunter education course or a firearms safety course; (B) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction where such range is located; (C) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group under 26 U.S.C. Section 501(c)(3) which uses firearms as a part of such performance; (D) Hunting or fishing pursuant to a valid license if such person has in his or her possession such a valid hunting or fishing license if required; is engaged in legal hunting or fishing; has permission of the owner of the land on which the activities are being conducted; and the handgun, whenever loaded, is carried only in an open and fully exposed manner; or (E) Traveling to or from any activity described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of this paragraph if the handgun in such person's possession is not loaded; (2) Any person under the age of 18 years who is on real property under the control of such person's parent, legal guardian, or grandparent and who has the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian to possess a handgun; or (3) Any person under the age of 18 years who is at such person's residence and who, with the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian, possesses a handgun for the purpose of exercising the rights authorized in Code Section 16-3-21 or 16-3-23 .

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) of this Code section, the provisions of subsection (b) of this Code section shall not apply to:

(1) Any person under the age of 18 years who is: (A) Attending a hunter education course or a firearms safety course; (B) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction where such range is located; (C) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group under 26 U.S.C. Section 501(c)(3) which uses firearms as a part of such performance; (D) Hunting or fishing pursuant to a valid license if such person has in his or her possession such a valid hunting or fishing license if required; is engaged in legal hunting or fishing; has permission of the owner of the land on which the activities are being conducted; and the handgun, whenever loaded, is carried only in an open and fully exposed manner; or (E) Traveling to or from any activity described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of this paragraph if the handgun in such person's possession is not loaded;

(1) Any person under the age of 18 years who is:

(A) Attending a hunter education course or a firearms safety course;

(A) Attending a hunter education course or a firearms safety course;

(B) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction where such range is located;

(B) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction where such range is located;

(C) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group under 26 U.S.C. Section 501(c)(3) which uses firearms as a part of such performance;

(C) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group under 26 U.S.C. Section 501(c)(3) which uses firearms as a part of such performance;

(D) Hunting or fishing pursuant to a valid license if such person has in his or her possession such a valid hunting or fishing license if required; is engaged in legal hunting or fishing; has permission of the owner of the land on which the activities are being conducted; and the handgun, whenever loaded, is carried only in an open and fully exposed manner; or

(D) Hunting or fishing pursuant to a valid license if such person has in his or her possession such a valid hunting or fishing license if required; is engaged in legal hunting or fishing; has permission of the owner of the land on which the activities are being conducted; and the handgun, whenever loaded, is carried only in an open and fully exposed manner; or

(E) Traveling to or from any activity described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of this paragraph if the handgun in such person's possession is not loaded;

(E) Traveling to or from any activity described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of this paragraph if the handgun in such person's possession is not loaded;

(2) Any person under the age of 18 years who is on real property under the control of such person's parent, legal guardian, or grandparent and who has the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian to possess a handgun; or

(2) Any person under the age of 18 years who is on real property under the control of such person's parent, legal guardian, or grandparent and who has the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian to possess a handgun; or

(3) Any person under the age of 18 years who is at such person's residence and who, with the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian, possesses a handgun for the purpose of exercising the rights authorized in Code Section 16-3-21 or 16-3-23 .

(3) Any person under the age of 18 years who is at such person's residence and who, with the permission of such person's parent or legal guardian, possesses a handgun for the purpose of exercising the rights authorized in Code Section 16-3-21 or 16-3-23 .

(d) Subsection (c) of this Code section shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 years who has been convicted of a forcible felony or forcible misdemeanor, as defined in Code Section 16-1-3 , or who has been adjudicated for committing a delinquent act under the provisions of Article 6 of Chapter 11 of Title 15 for an offense which would constitute a forcible felony or forcible misdemeanor, as defined in Code Section 16-1-3 , if such person were an adult.

(d) Subsection (c) of this Code section shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 years who has been convicted of a forcible felony or forcible misdemeanor, as defined in Code Section 16-1-3 , or who has been adjudicated for committing a delinquent act under the provisions of Article 6 of Chapter 11 of Title 15 for an offense which would constitute a forcible felony or forcible misdemeanor, as defined in Code Section 16-1-3 , if such person were an adult.
O.C.G.A. § 16-7-80 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 7 / Section 16-7-80
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-7-80
Status: in_force

As used in this article, the term:

(1) “ Bacteriological weapon ” or “ biological weapon ” means: (A) The following toxic chemicals: (i) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-phosphonofluoridates; e.g., Sarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate, Soman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate; (ii) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) N,N-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphoramidocyanidates; e.g., Tabun: O-Ethyl N,N-dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate; (iii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) S-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., VX: O-Ethyl S-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methyl phosphonothiolate; (B) Sulfur mustards: (i) 2-Chloroethylchloromethylsulfide; (ii) Mustard gas: Bis(2-chloroethyl)sulfide; (iii) Bis(2-chloroethylthio)methane; (iv) Sesquimustard: 1,2-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)ethane; (v) 1,3-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-propane; (vi) 1,4-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-butane; (vii) 1,5 Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-pentane; (viii) Bis(2-chloroethylthiomethyl)ether; (ix) O-Mustard: Bis(2-chloroethylthioethyl)ether; (C) Lewisites: (i) Lewisite 1: 2-Chlorovinyldichloroarsine; (ii) Lewisite 2: Bis(2-chlorovinyl)chloroarsine; (iii) Lewisite 3: Tris(2-chlorovinyl)arsine; (D) Nitrogen mustards: (i) HN1: Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylamine; (ii) HN2: Bis(2-chloroethyl)methylamine; (iii) HN3: Tris(2-chloroethyl)amine; (E) Saxitoxin; (F) Ricin; (G) Precursors: (i) Alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonyldifluorides; e.g., DF: Methylphosphonyldifluoride; (ii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) O-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonites and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., QL: O-Ethyl O-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite; (iii) Chlorosarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate; (iv) Chlorosoman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate; or (H) Any device which is designed in such a manner as to permit the intentional release into the population or environment of microbial or other biological agents or toxins or vectors whatever their origin or method of production in a manner not otherwise authorized by law.

(1) “ Bacteriological weapon ” or “ biological weapon ” means:

(A) The following toxic chemicals: (i) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-phosphonofluoridates; e.g., Sarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate, Soman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate; (ii) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) N,N-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphoramidocyanidates; e.g., Tabun: O-Ethyl N,N-dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate; (iii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) S-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., VX: O-Ethyl S-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methyl phosphonothiolate;

(A) The following toxic chemicals:

(i) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-phosphonofluoridates; e.g., Sarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate, Soman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate;

(i) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-phosphonofluoridates; e.g., Sarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate, Soman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate;

(ii) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) N,N-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphoramidocyanidates; e.g., Tabun: O-Ethyl N,N-dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate;

(ii) O-Alkyl (≤C10, including cycloalkyl) N,N-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphoramidocyanidates; e.g., Tabun: O-Ethyl N,N-dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate;

(iii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) S-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., VX: O-Ethyl S-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methyl phosphonothiolate;

(iii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) S-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., VX: O-Ethyl S-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methyl phosphonothiolate;

(B) Sulfur mustards: (i) 2-Chloroethylchloromethylsulfide; (ii) Mustard gas: Bis(2-chloroethyl)sulfide; (iii) Bis(2-chloroethylthio)methane; (iv) Sesquimustard: 1,2-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)ethane; (v) 1,3-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-propane; (vi) 1,4-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-butane; (vii) 1,5 Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-pentane; (viii) Bis(2-chloroethylthiomethyl)ether; (ix) O-Mustard: Bis(2-chloroethylthioethyl)ether;

(B) Sulfur mustards:

(i) 2-Chloroethylchloromethylsulfide;

(i) 2-Chloroethylchloromethylsulfide;

(ii) Mustard gas: Bis(2-chloroethyl)sulfide;

(ii) Mustard gas: Bis(2-chloroethyl)sulfide;

(iii) Bis(2-chloroethylthio)methane;

(iii) Bis(2-chloroethylthio)methane;

(iv) Sesquimustard: 1,2-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)ethane;

(iv) Sesquimustard: 1,2-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)ethane;

(v) 1,3-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-propane;

(v) 1,3-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-propane;

(vi) 1,4-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-butane;

(vi) 1,4-Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-butane;

(vii) 1,5 Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-pentane;

(vii) 1,5 Bis(2-chloroethylthio)-n-pentane;

(viii) Bis(2-chloroethylthiomethyl)ether;

(viii) Bis(2-chloroethylthiomethyl)ether;

(ix) O-Mustard: Bis(2-chloroethylthioethyl)ether;

(ix) O-Mustard: Bis(2-chloroethylthioethyl)ether;

(C) Lewisites: (i) Lewisite 1: 2-Chlorovinyldichloroarsine; (ii) Lewisite 2: Bis(2-chlorovinyl)chloroarsine; (iii) Lewisite 3: Tris(2-chlorovinyl)arsine;

(C) Lewisites:

(i) Lewisite 1: 2-Chlorovinyldichloroarsine;

(i) Lewisite 1: 2-Chlorovinyldichloroarsine;

(ii) Lewisite 2: Bis(2-chlorovinyl)chloroarsine;

(ii) Lewisite 2: Bis(2-chlorovinyl)chloroarsine;

(iii) Lewisite 3: Tris(2-chlorovinyl)arsine;

(iii) Lewisite 3: Tris(2-chlorovinyl)arsine;

(D) Nitrogen mustards: (i) HN1: Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylamine; (ii) HN2: Bis(2-chloroethyl)methylamine; (iii) HN3: Tris(2-chloroethyl)amine;

(D) Nitrogen mustards:

(i) HN1: Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylamine;

(i) HN1: Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylamine;

(ii) HN2: Bis(2-chloroethyl)methylamine;

(ii) HN2: Bis(2-chloroethyl)methylamine;

(iii) HN3: Tris(2-chloroethyl)amine;

(iii) HN3: Tris(2-chloroethyl)amine;

(E) Saxitoxin;

(E) Saxitoxin;

(F) Ricin;

(F) Ricin;

(G) Precursors: (i) Alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonyldifluorides; e.g., DF: Methylphosphonyldifluoride; (ii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) O-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonites and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., QL: O-Ethyl O-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite; (iii) Chlorosarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate; (iv) Chlorosoman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate; or

(G) Precursors:

(i) Alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonyldifluorides; e.g., DF: Methylphosphonyldifluoride;

(i) Alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonyldifluorides; e.g., DF: Methylphosphonyldifluoride;

(ii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) O-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonites and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., QL: O-Ethyl O-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite;

(ii) O-Alkyl (H or ≤C10, including cycloalkyl) O-2-dialkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr)-aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n-Pr or i-Pr) phosphonites and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts; e.g., QL: O-Ethyl O-2-diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite;

(iii) Chlorosarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate;

(iii) Chlorosarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate;

(iv) Chlorosoman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate; or

(iv) Chlorosoman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate; or

(H) Any device which is designed in such a manner as to permit the intentional release into the population or environment of microbial or other biological agents or toxins or vectors whatever their origin or method of production in a manner not otherwise authorized by law.

(H) Any device which is designed in such a manner as to permit the intentional release into the population or environment of microbial or other biological agents or toxins or vectors whatever their origin or method of production in a manner not otherwise authorized by law.

(1.1) “ Biological agent ” means any microorganism, including, but not limited to, bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae or protozoa, or infectious substance, or any naturally occurring, bioengineered or synthesized component of any such microorganism or infectious substance, capable of causing: (A) Death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism; (B) Deterioration of food, water, equipment, supplies, or material of any kind; or (C) Deleterious alteration of the environment.

(1.1) “ Biological agent ” means any microorganism, including, but not limited to, bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae or protozoa, or infectious substance, or any naturally occurring, bioengineered or synthesized component of any such microorganism or infectious substance, capable of causing:

(A) Death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism;

(A) Death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism;

(B) Deterioration of food, water, equipment, supplies, or material of any kind; or

(B) Deterioration of food, water, equipment, supplies, or material of any kind; or

(C) Deleterious alteration of the environment.

(C) Deleterious alteration of the environment.

(2) “Commissioner” means the Safety Fire Commissioner.

(2) “Commissioner” means the Safety Fire Commissioner.

(3) “Conviction” means an adjudication of guilt of or a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to the commission of an offense against the laws of this state, any other state or territory, the United States, or a foreign nation recognized by the United States. Such term includes any such conviction or plea notwithstanding the fact that sentence was imposed pursuant to Article 3 of Chapter 8 of Title 42. Such term also includes the adjudication or plea of a juvenile to the commission of an act which if committed by an adult would constitute a crime under the laws of this state.

(3) “Conviction” means an adjudication of guilt of or a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to the commission of an offense against the laws of this state, any other state or territory, the United States, or a foreign nation recognized by the United States. Such term includes any such conviction or plea notwithstanding the fact that sentence was imposed pursuant to Article 3 of Chapter 8 of Title 42. Such term also includes the adjudication or plea of a juvenile to the commission of an act which if committed by an adult would constitute a crime under the laws of this state.

(4) “Destructive device” means: (A) Any explosive, incendiary, or over-pressure device or poison gas which has been configured as a bomb; a grenade; a rocket with a propellant charge of more than four ounces; a missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than one-quarter ounce; a poison gas; a mine; a Molotov cocktail; or any other device which is substantially similar to such devices; (B) Any type of weapon by whatever name known which will or may be readily converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive or other propellant, through a barrel which has a bore diameter of more than one-half inch in diameter; provided, however, that such term shall not include a pistol, rifle, or shotgun suitable for sporting or personal safety purposes or ammunition; a device which is neither designed or redesigned for use as a weapon; a device which, although originally designed for use as a weapon, is redesigned for use as a signaling, pyrotechnic, line throwing, safety, or similar device; or surplus military ordnance sold, loaned, or given by authority of the appropriate official of the United States Department of Defense; (C) A weapon of mass destruction; (D) A bacteriological weapon or biological weapon; or (E) Any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device as otherwise defined in this paragraph.

(4) “Destructive device” means:

(A) Any explosive, incendiary, or over-pressure device or poison gas which has been configured as a bomb; a grenade; a rocket with a propellant charge of more than four ounces; a missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than one-quarter ounce; a poison gas; a mine; a Molotov cocktail; or any other device which is substantially similar to such devices;

(A) Any explosive, incendiary, or over-pressure device or poison gas which has been configured as a bomb; a grenade; a rocket with a propellant charge of more than four ounces; a missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than one-quarter ounce; a poison gas; a mine; a Molotov cocktail; or any other device which is substantially similar to such devices;

(B) Any type of weapon by whatever name known which will or may be readily converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive or other propellant, through a barrel which has a bore diameter of more than one-half inch in diameter; provided, however, that such term shall not include a pistol, rifle, or shotgun suitable for sporting or personal safety purposes or ammunition; a device which is neither designed or redesigned for use as a weapon; a device which, although originally designed for use as a weapon, is redesigned for use as a signaling, pyrotechnic, line throwing, safety, or similar device; or surplus military ordnance sold, loaned, or given by authority of the appropriate official of the United States Department of Defense;

(B) Any type of weapon by whatever name known which will or may be readily converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive or other propellant, through a barrel which has a bore diameter of more than one-half inch in diameter; provided, however, that such term shall not include a pistol, rifle, or shotgun suitable for sporting or personal safety purposes or ammunition; a device which is neither designed or redesigned for use as a weapon; a device which, although originally designed for use as a weapon, is redesigned for use as a signaling, pyrotechnic, line throwing, safety, or similar device; or surplus military ordnance sold, loaned, or given by authority of the appropriate official of the United States Department of Defense;

(C) A weapon of mass destruction;

(C) A weapon of mass destruction;

(D) A bacteriological weapon or biological weapon; or

(D) A bacteriological weapon or biological weapon; or

(E) Any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device as otherwise defined in this paragraph.

(E) Any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device as otherwise defined in this paragraph.

(5) “Detonator” means a device containing a detonating charge that is used to initiate detonation in an explosive, including but not limited to electric blasting caps, blasting caps for use with safety fuses, and detonating cord delay connectors.

(5) “Detonator” means a device containing a detonating charge that is used to initiate detonation in an explosive, including but not limited to electric blasting caps, blasting caps for use with safety fuses, and detonating cord delay connectors.

(6) “Director” means the director of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation.

(6) “Director” means the director of the Georgia Bureau of Investigation.

(7) “Distribute” means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer from one person to another.

(7) “Distribute” means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer from one person to another.

(8) “Explosive” means any chemical compound or other substance or mechanical system intended for the purpose of producing an explosion capable of causing injury to persons or damage to property or containing oxidizing and combustible units or other ingredients in such proportions or quantities that ignition, fire, friction, concussion, percussion, or detonator may produce an explosion capable of causing injury to persons or damage to property, including but not limited to the substances designated in Code Section 16-7-81 ; provided, however, that the term explosive shall not include common fireworks as defined by Code Section 25-10-1 , model rockets and model rocket engines designed, sold, and used for the purpose of propelling recoverable aero models, or toy pistol paper caps in which the explosive content does not average more than 0.25 grains of explosive mixture per paper cap for toy pistols, toy cannons, toy canes, toy guns, or other devices using such paper caps unless such devices are used as a component of a destructive device.

(8) “Explosive” means any chemical compound or other substance or mechanical system intended for the purpose of producing an explosion capable of causing injury to persons or damage to property or containing oxidizing and combustible units or other ingredients in such proportions or quantities that ignition, fire, friction, concussion, percussion, or detonator may produce an explosion capable of causing injury to persons or damage to property, including but not limited to the substances designated in Code Section 16-7-81 ; provided, however, that the term explosive shall not include common fireworks as defined by Code Section 25-10-1 , model rockets and model rocket engines designed, sold, and used for the purpose of propelling recoverable aero models, or toy pistol paper caps in which the explosive content does not average more than 0.25 grains of explosive mixture per paper cap for toy pistols, toy cannons, toy canes, toy guns, or other devices using such paper caps unless such devices are used as a component of a destructive device.

(9) “Explosive ordnance disposal technician” or “EOD technician” means: (A) A law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, or an employee of this state or its political subdivisions or an authority of the state or a political subdivision who is certified in accordance with Code Section 35-8-13 and members of the Georgia National Guard who are qualified as explosive ordnance disposal technicians under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of their official duties; and (B) An official or employee of the United States, including but not limited to a member of the armed forces of the United States, who is qualified as an explosive ordnance disposal technician under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of his or her official duties.

(9) “Explosive ordnance disposal technician” or “EOD technician” means:

(A) A law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, or an employee of this state or its political subdivisions or an authority of the state or a political subdivision who is certified in accordance with Code Section 35-8-13 and members of the Georgia National Guard who are qualified as explosive ordnance disposal technicians under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of their official duties; and

(A) A law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, or an employee of this state or its political subdivisions or an authority of the state or a political subdivision who is certified in accordance with Code Section 35-8-13 and members of the Georgia National Guard who are qualified as explosive ordnance disposal technicians under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of their official duties; and

(B) An official or employee of the United States, including but not limited to a member of the armed forces of the United States, who is qualified as an explosive ordnance disposal technician under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of his or her official duties.

(B) An official or employee of the United States, including but not limited to a member of the armed forces of the United States, who is qualified as an explosive ordnance disposal technician under the appropriate laws and regulations when acting in the performance of his or her official duties.

(10) “Felony” means any offense punishable by imprisonment for a term of one year or more, and includes conviction by a court-martial under the Uniform Code of Military Justice for an offense which would constitute a felony under the laws of the United States. A conviction of an offense under the laws of a foreign nation shall be considered a felony for the purposes of this article if the conduct giving rise to such conviction would have constituted a felony under the laws of this state or of the United States if committed within the jurisdiction of this state or the United States at the time of such conduct.

(10) “Felony” means any offense punishable by imprisonment for a term of one year or more, and includes conviction by a court-martial under the Uniform Code of Military Justice for an offense which would constitute a felony under the laws of the United States. A conviction of an offense under the laws of a foreign nation shall be considered a felony for the purposes of this article if the conduct giving rise to such conviction would have constituted a felony under the laws of this state or of the United States if committed within the jurisdiction of this state or the United States at the time of such conduct.

(11) “Hoax device” or “replica” means a device or article which has the appearance of a destructive device.

(11) “Hoax device” or “replica” means a device or article which has the appearance of a destructive device.

(12) “Incendiary” means a flammable liquid or compound with a flash point of 150 degrees Fahrenheit or less as determined by Tagliabue or equivalent closed-cup device, including but not limited to, gasoline, kerosene, fuel oil, or a derivative of such substances.

(12) “Incendiary” means a flammable liquid or compound with a flash point of 150 degrees Fahrenheit or less as determined by Tagliabue or equivalent closed-cup device, including but not limited to, gasoline, kerosene, fuel oil, or a derivative of such substances.

(13) “Over-pressure device” means a frangible container filled with an explosive gas or expanding gas which is designed or constructed so as to cause the container to break or fracture in a manner which is capable of causing death, bodily harm, or property damage.

(13) “Over-pressure device” means a frangible container filled with an explosive gas or expanding gas which is designed or constructed so as to cause the container to break or fracture in a manner which is capable of causing death, bodily harm, or property damage.

(14) “Poison gas” means any toxic chemical or its precursors that through its chemical action or properties on life processes causes death or permanent injury to human beings; provided, however, that such term shall not include: (A) Riot control agents, smoke, and obscuration materials or medical products which are manufactured, possessed, transported, or used in accordance with the laws of the United States and of this state; (B) Tear gas devices designed to be carried on or about the person which contain not more than one-half ounce of the chemical; (C) Pesticides, as provided in paragraph (12) of Code Section 16-7-93 .

(14) “Poison gas” means any toxic chemical or its precursors that through its chemical action or properties on life processes causes death or permanent injury to human beings; provided, however, that such term shall not include:

(A) Riot control agents, smoke, and obscuration materials or medical products which are manufactured, possessed, transported, or used in accordance with the laws of the United States and of this state;

(A) Riot control agents, smoke, and obscuration materials or medical products which are manufactured, possessed, transported, or used in accordance with the laws of the United States and of this state;

(B) Tear gas devices designed to be carried on or about the person which contain not more than one-half ounce of the chemical;

(B) Tear gas devices designed to be carried on or about the person which contain not more than one-half ounce of the chemical;

(C) Pesticides, as provided in paragraph (12) of Code Section 16-7-93 .

(C) Pesticides, as provided in paragraph (12) of Code Section 16-7-93 .

(15) “Property” means any real or personal property of any kind including money, choses in action, and other similar interests in property.

(15) “Property” means any real or personal property of any kind including money, choses in action, and other similar interests in property.

(16) “Public building” means any structure which is generally open to members of the public with or without the payment of an admission fee or membership dues including, but not limited to structures owned, operated, or leased by the state, the United States, any of the several states, or any foreign nation or any political subdivision or authority thereof; any religious organization; any medical facility; any college, school, or university; or any corporation, partnership, or association.

(16) “Public building” means any structure which is generally open to members of the public with or without the payment of an admission fee or membership dues including, but not limited to structures owned, operated, or leased by the state, the United States, any of the several states, or any foreign nation or any political subdivision or authority thereof; any religious organization; any medical facility; any college, school, or university; or any corporation, partnership, or association.

(16.1) “ Toxin ” means the toxic material or product of plants, animals, microorganisms, including, but not limited to, bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae or protozoa, or infectious substances, or a recombinant or synthesized molecule, whatever their origin and method of production, and includes: (A) Any poisonous substance or biological product that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology produced by a living organism; or (B) Any poisonous isomer or biological product, homologue, or derivative of such a substance.

(16.1) “ Toxin ” means the toxic material or product of plants, animals, microorganisms, including, but not limited to, bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae or protozoa, or infectious substances, or a recombinant or synthesized molecule, whatever their origin and method of production, and includes:

(A) Any poisonous substance or biological product that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology produced by a living organism; or

(A) Any poisonous substance or biological product that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology produced by a living organism; or

(B) Any poisonous isomer or biological product, homologue, or derivative of such a substance.

(B) Any poisonous isomer or biological product, homologue, or derivative of such a substance.

(16.2) “ Vector ” means a living organism, or molecule, including a recombinant or synthesized molecule, capable of carrying a biological agent or toxin to a host.

(16.2) “ Vector ” means a living organism, or molecule, including a recombinant or synthesized molecule, capable of carrying a biological agent or toxin to a host.

(17) “Weapon of mass destruction” means any device which is designed in such a way as to release radiation or radioactivity at a level which will result in internal or external bodily injury or death to any person.

(17) “Weapon of mass destruction” means any device which is designed in such a way as to release radiation or radioactivity at a level which will result in internal or external bodily injury or death to any person.
O.C.G.A. § 16-11-130-2 — GA Code / Title 16 / Chapter 11 / Section 16-11-130-2
Georgia Code Title 16. Crimes and Offenses § 16-11-130.2
Status: in_force

(a) No person shall enter the restricted access area of a commercial service airport, in or beyond the airport security screening checkpoint, knowingly possessing or knowingly having under his or her control a weapon or long gun. Such area shall not include an airport drive, general parking area, walkway, or shops and areas of the terminal that are outside the screening checkpoint and that are normally open to unscreened passengers or visitors to the airport. Any restricted access area shall be clearly indicated by prominent signs indicating that weapons are prohibited in such area.

(a) No person shall enter the restricted access area of a commercial service airport, in or beyond the airport security screening checkpoint, knowingly possessing or knowingly having under his or her control a weapon or long gun. Such area shall not include an airport drive, general parking area, walkway, or shops and areas of the terminal that are outside the screening checkpoint and that are normally open to unscreened passengers or visitors to the airport. Any restricted access area shall be clearly indicated by prominent signs indicating that weapons are prohibited in such area.

(a.1) As used in this Code section, the term: (1) “ Commercial service airport ” means an airport that receives scheduled passenger aircraft service from any major airline carrier. (2) “ Major airline carrier ” means an airline that has more than $1 billion in annual operating revenue during a fiscal year.

(a.1) As used in this Code section, the term:

(1) “ Commercial service airport ” means an airport that receives scheduled passenger aircraft service from any major airline carrier.

(1) “ Commercial service airport ” means an airport that receives scheduled passenger aircraft service from any major airline carrier.

(2) “ Major airline carrier ” means an airline that has more than $1 billion in annual operating revenue during a fiscal year.

(2) “ Major airline carrier ” means an airline that has more than $1 billion in annual operating revenue during a fiscal year.

(b) A person who is not a license holder and who violates this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. A license holder who violates this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor; provided, however, that a license holder who is notified at the screening checkpoint for the restricted access area that he or she is in possession of a weapon or long gun and who immediately leaves the restricted access area following such notification and completion of federally required transportation security screening procedures shall not be guilty of violating this Code section.

(b) A person who is not a license holder and who violates this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. A license holder who violates this Code section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor; provided, however, that a license holder who is notified at the screening checkpoint for the restricted access area that he or she is in possession of a weapon or long gun and who immediately leaves the restricted access area following such notification and completion of federally required transportation security screening procedures shall not be guilty of violating this Code section.

(c) Any person who violates this Code section with the intent to commit a separate felony offense shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by a fine of not less than $1,000.00 nor more than $15,000.00, imprisonment for not less than one nor more than ten years, or both.

(c) Any person who violates this Code section with the intent to commit a separate felony offense shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by a fine of not less than $1,000.00 nor more than $15,000.00, imprisonment for not less than one nor more than ten years, or both.

(d) Any ordinance, resolution, regulation, or policy of any county, municipality, or other political subdivision of this state which is in conflict with this Code section shall be null, void, and of no force and effect, and this Code section shall preempt any such ordinance, resolution, regulation, or policy.

(d) Any ordinance, resolution, regulation, or policy of any county, municipality, or other political subdivision of this state which is in conflict with this Code section shall be null, void, and of no force and effect, and this Code section shall preempt any such ordinance, resolution, regulation, or policy.