O.C.G.A. § 43-18-54 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 18 / Section 43-18-54
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-18-54
Status: in_force

(a) Refusal to grant an apprenticeship registration shall not be deemed to be a contested case under Chapter 13 of Title 50, the “Georgia Administrative Procedure Act.”

(a) Refusal to grant an apprenticeship registration shall not be deemed to be a contested case under Chapter 13 of Title 50, the “Georgia Administrative Procedure Act.”

(b) The board shall be authorized to suspend, revoke, limit, or refuse to renew a registration of apprenticeship, after notice and hearing pursuant to Chapter 13 of Title 50, the “Georgia Administrative Procedure Act,” upon a finding by a majority of the board of any of the following: (1) Engaging in any unprofessional, immoral, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice materially affects the fitness of the apprentice to practice in the funeral business, or is of a nature likely to jeopardize the interest of the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person or be directly related to the practice of funeral directing or embalming but shows that the apprentice has committed any act or omission which is indicative of bad moral character or untrustworthiness; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or failure to conform to, the minimal reasonable standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of funeral services; (2) Being on duty as an apprentice while under the influence of alcohol or illegal drugs; (3) Being unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to the public by reason of a physical or mental condition; (4) Being convicted of a felony or of any crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or any other state, territory, or country, or in the courts of the United States, regardless of whether first offender treatment without an adjudication of guilt was given or whether an adjudication of guilty or sentence was otherwise withheld or not entered on the charge. As used in this paragraph, the term “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilt or plea of guilty or probation relating to first time offenders; and “felony” shall include any offense which, if committed in this state, would be deemed a felony; (5) Disobeying proper orders or instructions of that apprentice's supervising embalmer, funeral director, or both; (6) Violating any provision of this article or rule or regulation of the board made pursuant to this article; or (7) Practicing fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a certificate of registration as an apprentice or knowingly making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in the practice of funeral service or on any document connected therewith while registered as an apprentice.

(b) The board shall be authorized to suspend, revoke, limit, or refuse to renew a registration of apprenticeship, after notice and hearing pursuant to Chapter 13 of Title 50, the “Georgia Administrative Procedure Act,” upon a finding by a majority of the board of any of the following:

(1) Engaging in any unprofessional, immoral, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice materially affects the fitness of the apprentice to practice in the funeral business, or is of a nature likely to jeopardize the interest of the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person or be directly related to the practice of funeral directing or embalming but shows that the apprentice has committed any act or omission which is indicative of bad moral character or untrustworthiness; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or failure to conform to, the minimal reasonable standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of funeral services;

(1) Engaging in any unprofessional, immoral, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice materially affects the fitness of the apprentice to practice in the funeral business, or is of a nature likely to jeopardize the interest of the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person or be directly related to the practice of funeral directing or embalming but shows that the apprentice has committed any act or omission which is indicative of bad moral character or untrustworthiness; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or failure to conform to, the minimal reasonable standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of funeral services;

(2) Being on duty as an apprentice while under the influence of alcohol or illegal drugs;

(2) Being on duty as an apprentice while under the influence of alcohol or illegal drugs;

(3) Being unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to the public by reason of a physical or mental condition;

(3) Being unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to the public by reason of a physical or mental condition;

(4) Being convicted of a felony or of any crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or any other state, territory, or country, or in the courts of the United States, regardless of whether first offender treatment without an adjudication of guilt was given or whether an adjudication of guilty or sentence was otherwise withheld or not entered on the charge. As used in this paragraph, the term “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilt or plea of guilty or probation relating to first time offenders; and “felony” shall include any offense which, if committed in this state, would be deemed a felony;

(4) Being convicted of a felony or of any crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or any other state, territory, or country, or in the courts of the United States, regardless of whether first offender treatment without an adjudication of guilt was given or whether an adjudication of guilty or sentence was otherwise withheld or not entered on the charge. As used in this paragraph, the term “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilt or plea of guilty or probation relating to first time offenders; and “felony” shall include any offense which, if committed in this state, would be deemed a felony;

(5) Disobeying proper orders or instructions of that apprentice's supervising embalmer, funeral director, or both;

(5) Disobeying proper orders or instructions of that apprentice's supervising embalmer, funeral director, or both;

(6) Violating any provision of this article or rule or regulation of the board made pursuant to this article; or

(6) Violating any provision of this article or rule or regulation of the board made pursuant to this article; or

(7) Practicing fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a certificate of registration as an apprentice or knowingly making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in the practice of funeral service or on any document connected therewith while registered as an apprentice.

(7) Practicing fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a certificate of registration as an apprentice or knowingly making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in the practice of funeral service or on any document connected therewith while registered as an apprentice.

(c) An apprentice who has failed to renew that person's registration or who has had that person's registration suspended or revoked may, within one year after such expiration, suspension, or revocation, make application for registration. An applicant for reregistration whose previous apprenticeship was revoked for failure to renew may be granted full credit for the time previously served prior to expiration. An applicant for reregistration whose previous apprenticeship was suspended or revoked upon any of the grounds set forth in subsection (b) of this Code section, however, may be granted credit for no more than 75 percent of the time previously served prior to the disciplinary action. In all other cases regarding applicants for reregistration, the board may, when the circumstances warrant, allow an apprentice credit under a reregistration for time actually served under a previous registration.

(c) An apprentice who has failed to renew that person's registration or who has had that person's registration suspended or revoked may, within one year after such expiration, suspension, or revocation, make application for registration. An applicant for reregistration whose previous apprenticeship was revoked for failure to renew may be granted full credit for the time previously served prior to expiration. An applicant for reregistration whose previous apprenticeship was suspended or revoked upon any of the grounds set forth in subsection (b) of this Code section, however, may be granted credit for no more than 75 percent of the time previously served prior to the disciplinary action. In all other cases regarding applicants for reregistration, the board may, when the circumstances warrant, allow an apprentice credit under a reregistration for time actually served under a previous registration.
O.C.G.A. § 43-24a-14 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 24A / Section 43-24a-14
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-24A-14
Status: in_force

(a) The licensee shall display the license certificate or a photocopy thereof in an appropriate and public manner at each location at which he or she practices.

(a) The licensee shall display the license certificate or a photocopy thereof in an appropriate and public manner at each location at which he or she practices.

(b) All licenses shall expire biennially unless renewed. All applications for renewal of a license shall be filed with the division director prior to the expiration date, accompanied by the biennial renewal fee prescribed by the board and certifying that all current requirements of continuing education as determined by the board have been fulfilled. The board shall provide for penalty fees for late registration. The failure to renew a license by the end of an established penalty period shall have the same effect as a revocation of said license, subject to reinstatement only after application and payment of the prescribed reinstatement fee within the time period established by the division director, provided that the applicant meets such requirements as the board may establish by rule.

(b) All licenses shall expire biennially unless renewed. All applications for renewal of a license shall be filed with the division director prior to the expiration date, accompanied by the biennial renewal fee prescribed by the board and certifying that all current requirements of continuing education as determined by the board have been fulfilled. The board shall provide for penalty fees for late registration. The failure to renew a license by the end of an established penalty period shall have the same effect as a revocation of said license, subject to reinstatement only after application and payment of the prescribed reinstatement fee within the time period established by the division director, provided that the applicant meets such requirements as the board may establish by rule.

(c) A licensee shall provide evidence of current liability insurance coverage as required in Code Section 43-24A-8 upon request by the board at any time during such licensee's term of licensure.

(c) A licensee shall provide evidence of current liability insurance coverage as required in Code Section 43-24A-8 upon request by the board at any time during such licensee's term of licensure.

(d) The licensee shall inform the board of any change of address within 30 days.

(d) The licensee shall inform the board of any change of address within 30 days.

(e) Each person licensed under this chapter is responsible for renewing his or her license before the expiration date.

(e) Each person licensed under this chapter is responsible for renewing his or her license before the expiration date.

(f) Under procedures and conditions established by the board, a licensee may request that his or her license be declared inactive. The licensee may apply for active status at any time and upon meeting the conditions set forth by the board shall be declared active.

(f) Under procedures and conditions established by the board, a licensee may request that his or her license be declared inactive. The licensee may apply for active status at any time and upon meeting the conditions set forth by the board shall be declared active.
O.C.G.A. § 43-5-5 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 5 / Section 43-5-5
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-5-5
Status: in_force

Each member of the board shall be reimbursed as provided for in subsection (f) of Code Section 43-1-2 .
O.C.G.A. § 43-46-7 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 46 / Section 43-46-7
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-46-7
Status: in_force

(a) Any person, firm, or corporation who violates this chapter shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.

(a) Any person, firm, or corporation who violates this chapter shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b) In addition to the criminal penalty provided in subsection (a) of this Code section, any violation of this chapter shall constitute an unfair or deceptive act under Part 2 of Article 15 of Chapter 1 of Title 10, the “Fair Business Practices Act of 1975.”

(b) In addition to the criminal penalty provided in subsection (a) of this Code section, any violation of this chapter shall constitute an unfair or deceptive act under Part 2 of Article 15 of Chapter 1 of Title 10, the “Fair Business Practices Act of 1975.”
O.C.G.A. § 43-44-1 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 44 / Section 43-44-1
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-44-1
Status: in_force

This article shall be known and may be cited as the “Georgia State Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Licensing Act.”
O.C.G.A. § 43-1-33 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 1 / Section 43-1-33
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-1-33
Status: in_force

(a) This Code section shall be known and may be cited as the “Consumer Information and Awareness Act.”

(a) This Code section shall be known and may be cited as the “Consumer Information and Awareness Act.”

(b) The General Assembly hereby finds and declares that: (1) There are numerous professional degrees that include the term “doctor,” such as Doctor of Medicine (M.D.); Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.); Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine; Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.); Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.); Doctor of Podiatric Medicine (D.P.M.); Doctor of Optometry (O.D.); Doctor of Chiropractic (D.C.); registered professional nurses or advanced practice registered nurses (nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse midwives, and certified nurse anesthetists) with doctorate degrees (D.N.P., D.N.S., Ph.D., or Ed.D.); audiologists with doctorate degrees (A.U.D.); speech-language pathologists with doctorate degrees (S.L.P.D. or Ph.D.); and other designations, which may be used by health care practitioners; and (2) Each health care professional receives education and training that qualifies them to provide general and specialized services respectively. This training is necessary to correctly detect, diagnose, prevent, and treat serious health conditions.

(b) The General Assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(1) There are numerous professional degrees that include the term “doctor,” such as Doctor of Medicine (M.D.); Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.); Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine; Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.); Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.); Doctor of Podiatric Medicine (D.P.M.); Doctor of Optometry (O.D.); Doctor of Chiropractic (D.C.); registered professional nurses or advanced practice registered nurses (nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse midwives, and certified nurse anesthetists) with doctorate degrees (D.N.P., D.N.S., Ph.D., or Ed.D.); audiologists with doctorate degrees (A.U.D.); speech-language pathologists with doctorate degrees (S.L.P.D. or Ph.D.); and other designations, which may be used by health care practitioners; and

(1) There are numerous professional degrees that include the term “doctor,” such as Doctor of Medicine (M.D.); Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.); Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine; Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.); Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.); Doctor of Podiatric Medicine (D.P.M.); Doctor of Optometry (O.D.); Doctor of Chiropractic (D.C.); registered professional nurses or advanced practice registered nurses (nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse midwives, and certified nurse anesthetists) with doctorate degrees (D.N.P., D.N.S., Ph.D., or Ed.D.); audiologists with doctorate degrees (A.U.D.); speech-language pathologists with doctorate degrees (S.L.P.D. or Ph.D.); and other designations, which may be used by health care practitioners; and

(2) Each health care professional receives education and training that qualifies them to provide general and specialized services respectively. This training is necessary to correctly detect, diagnose, prevent, and treat serious health conditions.

(2) Each health care professional receives education and training that qualifies them to provide general and specialized services respectively. This training is necessary to correctly detect, diagnose, prevent, and treat serious health conditions.

(c) As used in this Code section, the term: (1) “ Advertisement ” means any communication or statement, whether printed, electronic, verbal, or in any way disseminated to the general public or to other health care practitioners, that names a health care practitioner or the practice, profession, or institution in which the practitioner is employed, volunteers, or otherwise provides health care services. (2) “ Clinical setting ” means any location, whether physical or virtual, in which a person is evaluated, diagnosed, counseled, or treated for any disease, defect, or injury. (3) “ Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations ” includes, but is not limited to, the use of titles, terms, or other words that misstate, falsely describe, falsely hold out, falsely detail, or falsely imply the health care practitioner's: (A) Profession; (B) Skills; (C) Training; (D) Expertise; (E) Educational degree; (F) Board certification; (G) Licensure; (H) Work or services offered; or (I) Medical field, if such practitioner is not a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title. (4) “ Health care practice or facility ” means a hospital, physician practice setting, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home. (5) “ Health care practitioner ” means a: (A) Chiropractor licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 of this title; (B) Professional counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 10A of this title; (C) Dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 11 of this title; (D) Dietitian licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 11A of this title; (E) Advanced practice registered nurse, including nurse practitioner, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, registered professional nurse, and licensed practical nurse, licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 26 of this title; (F) Occupational therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 28 of this title; (G) Optometrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 30 of this title; (H) Physical therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 33 of this title; (I) Allopathic physician or osteopathic physician licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (J) Physician assistant licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (K) Acupuncturist licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (L) Podiatrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 35 of this title; (M) Psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 39 of this title; (N) Audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 44 of this title; (O) Pharmacist licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 of Title 26; (P) Ophthalmic technician; (Q) Medical assistant or certified nursing assistant; and (R) Respiratory care professional certified pursuant to Article 6 of Chapter 34 of this title. (6) “ Medical or medical specialty title ” means any title that originates from or is a derivation of specialty or subspecialty training or certification attained by a physician through completion of nationally accredited medical education culminating in a Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine degree; completion of a physician internship, residency, or fellowship training program; or any combination thereof.

(c) As used in this Code section, the term:

(1) “ Advertisement ” means any communication or statement, whether printed, electronic, verbal, or in any way disseminated to the general public or to other health care practitioners, that names a health care practitioner or the practice, profession, or institution in which the practitioner is employed, volunteers, or otherwise provides health care services.

(1) “ Advertisement ” means any communication or statement, whether printed, electronic, verbal, or in any way disseminated to the general public or to other health care practitioners, that names a health care practitioner or the practice, profession, or institution in which the practitioner is employed, volunteers, or otherwise provides health care services.

(2) “ Clinical setting ” means any location, whether physical or virtual, in which a person is evaluated, diagnosed, counseled, or treated for any disease, defect, or injury.

(2) “ Clinical setting ” means any location, whether physical or virtual, in which a person is evaluated, diagnosed, counseled, or treated for any disease, defect, or injury.

(3) “ Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations ” includes, but is not limited to, the use of titles, terms, or other words that misstate, falsely describe, falsely hold out, falsely detail, or falsely imply the health care practitioner's: (A) Profession; (B) Skills; (C) Training; (D) Expertise; (E) Educational degree; (F) Board certification; (G) Licensure; (H) Work or services offered; or (I) Medical field, if such practitioner is not a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(3) “ Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations ” includes, but is not limited to, the use of titles, terms, or other words that misstate, falsely describe, falsely hold out, falsely detail, or falsely imply the health care practitioner's:

(A) Profession;

(A) Profession;

(B) Skills;

(B) Skills;

(C) Training;

(C) Training;

(D) Expertise;

(D) Expertise;

(E) Educational degree;

(E) Educational degree;

(F) Board certification;

(F) Board certification;

(G) Licensure;

(G) Licensure;

(H) Work or services offered; or

(H) Work or services offered; or

(I) Medical field, if such practitioner is not a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(I) Medical field, if such practitioner is not a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(4) “ Health care practice or facility ” means a hospital, physician practice setting, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home.

(4) “ Health care practice or facility ” means a hospital, physician practice setting, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home.

(5) “ Health care practitioner ” means a: (A) Chiropractor licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 of this title; (B) Professional counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 10A of this title; (C) Dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 11 of this title; (D) Dietitian licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 11A of this title; (E) Advanced practice registered nurse, including nurse practitioner, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, registered professional nurse, and licensed practical nurse, licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 26 of this title; (F) Occupational therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 28 of this title; (G) Optometrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 30 of this title; (H) Physical therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 33 of this title; (I) Allopathic physician or osteopathic physician licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (J) Physician assistant licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (K) Acupuncturist licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title; (L) Podiatrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 35 of this title; (M) Psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 39 of this title; (N) Audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 44 of this title; (O) Pharmacist licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 of Title 26; (P) Ophthalmic technician; (Q) Medical assistant or certified nursing assistant; and (R) Respiratory care professional certified pursuant to Article 6 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(5) “ Health care practitioner ” means a:

(A) Chiropractor licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 of this title;

(A) Chiropractor licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 of this title;

(B) Professional counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 10A of this title;

(B) Professional counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 10A of this title;

(C) Dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 11 of this title;

(C) Dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 11 of this title;

(D) Dietitian licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 11A of this title;

(D) Dietitian licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 11A of this title;

(E) Advanced practice registered nurse, including nurse practitioner, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, registered professional nurse, and licensed practical nurse, licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 26 of this title;

(E) Advanced practice registered nurse, including nurse practitioner, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, registered professional nurse, and licensed practical nurse, licensed or registered pursuant to Chapter 26 of this title;

(F) Occupational therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 28 of this title;

(F) Occupational therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 28 of this title;

(G) Optometrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 30 of this title;

(G) Optometrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 30 of this title;

(H) Physical therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 33 of this title;

(H) Physical therapist licensed pursuant to Chapter 33 of this title;

(I) Allopathic physician or osteopathic physician licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(I) Allopathic physician or osteopathic physician licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(J) Physician assistant licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(J) Physician assistant licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(K) Acupuncturist licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(K) Acupuncturist licensed pursuant to Chapter 34 of this title;

(L) Podiatrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 35 of this title;

(L) Podiatrist licensed pursuant to Chapter 35 of this title;

(M) Psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 39 of this title;

(M) Psychologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 39 of this title;

(N) Audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 44 of this title;

(N) Audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed pursuant to Chapter 44 of this title;

(O) Pharmacist licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 of Title 26;

(O) Pharmacist licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 of Title 26;

(P) Ophthalmic technician;

(P) Ophthalmic technician;

(Q) Medical assistant or certified nursing assistant; and

(Q) Medical assistant or certified nursing assistant; and

(R) Respiratory care professional certified pursuant to Article 6 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(R) Respiratory care professional certified pursuant to Article 6 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(6) “ Medical or medical specialty title ” means any title that originates from or is a derivation of specialty or subspecialty training or certification attained by a physician through completion of nationally accredited medical education culminating in a Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine degree; completion of a physician internship, residency, or fellowship training program; or any combination thereof.

(6) “ Medical or medical specialty title ” means any title that originates from or is a derivation of specialty or subspecialty training or certification attained by a physician through completion of nationally accredited medical education culminating in a Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine degree; completion of a physician internship, residency, or fellowship training program; or any combination thereof.

(d)(1) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall include the practitioner's name and disclose only the type of license under which the health care practitioner is authorized to provide services. (2) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall not: (A) Include deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or (B) Include or reference medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title. (3) This subsection shall not be construed to require a health care practice or facility in which multiple health care practitioners are employed to list in an advertisement the name of every health care practitioner so employed by such practice or facility.

(d)(1) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall include the practitioner's name and disclose only the type of license under which the health care practitioner is authorized to provide services.

(d)(1) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall include the practitioner's name and disclose only the type of license under which the health care practitioner is authorized to provide services.

(2) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall not: (A) Include deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or (B) Include or reference medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(2) An advertisement by a health care practitioner shall not:

(A) Include deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or

(A) Include deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or

(B) Include or reference medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(B) Include or reference medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(3) This subsection shall not be construed to require a health care practice or facility in which multiple health care practitioners are employed to list in an advertisement the name of every health care practitioner so employed by such practice or facility.

(3) This subsection shall not be construed to require a health care practice or facility in which multiple health care practitioners are employed to list in an advertisement the name of every health care practitioner so employed by such practice or facility.

(d.1)(1) An advanced practice registered nurse shall verbally identify himself or herself as an advanced practice registered nurse during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. An advanced practice registered nurse who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title ‘doctor' while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician. (2) A physician assistant shall verbally identify himself or herself as a physician assistant during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. A physician assistant who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title “doctor” while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician. (3) No health care practitioner shall identify or refer to himself or herself in a clinical setting with: (A) Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or (B) Any medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(d.1)(1) An advanced practice registered nurse shall verbally identify himself or herself as an advanced practice registered nurse during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. An advanced practice registered nurse who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title ‘doctor' while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician.

(d.1)(1) An advanced practice registered nurse shall verbally identify himself or herself as an advanced practice registered nurse during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. An advanced practice registered nurse who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title ‘doctor' while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician.

(2) A physician assistant shall verbally identify himself or herself as a physician assistant during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. A physician assistant who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title “doctor” while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician.

(2) A physician assistant shall verbally identify himself or herself as a physician assistant during each patient interaction in a clinical setting. A physician assistant who holds a doctorate degree and identifies himself or herself with the title “doctor” while in a clinical setting shall clearly state that he or she is not a medical doctor or physician.

(3) No health care practitioner shall identify or refer to himself or herself in a clinical setting with: (A) Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or (B) Any medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(3) No health care practitioner shall identify or refer to himself or herself in a clinical setting with:

(A) Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or

(A) Deceptive or misleading terms or false representations; or

(B) Any medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(B) Any medical or medical specialty titles, unless such health care practitioner is a physician licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 34 of this title.

(e)(1) A health care practitioner providing services in this state in a health care practice or facility shall conspicuously post and affirmatively communicate the practitioner's specific licensure to all current and prospective patients as follows: (A)(i) The health care practitioner shall wear an identifier during all patient encounters that shall include: (I) The health care practitioner's name; and (II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds. (ii) The identifier shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent. A lab coat or similar distinguishing clothing or uniform indicating the practitioner's specific licensure may be considered an identifier if such clothing or uniform meets the requirements of division (i) of this subparagraph. (iii) An identifier shall not be required in an operating room or other setting where surgical or other invasive procedures are performed or in any other setting where maintaining a sterile environment is medically necessary. (iv) An identifier shall not be required in any mental health setting where it would impede the psychotherapeutic relationship. (v) If a safety or health risk to the health care practitioner or a patient would be created as a result of the practitioner wearing such identifier in a specified practice setting, an identifier shall not be required or may be modified by omitting or concealing the last name of the practitioner in accordance with the requirements of the health care practice or facility; and (B) A health care practitioner in a health care practice or facility other than a hospital shall display in the reception area of such practice or facility a notice that clearly identifies the type of health care practitioners employed in such practice or facility and the right of a patient to inquire as to the type of license of the health care practitioner treating such patient. The notice shall be of sufficient size so as to be visible and apparent to all current and prospective patients. (2) A health care practitioner who practices in more than one office shall place the identifier information conspicuously on such practitioner's website if he or she maintains a website. (3) A health care practitioner who practices in a nonpatient care setting and who does not have any direct patient care interactions shall not be subject to the provisions of this subsection. (4) A health care practice or facility which requires, as of the effective date of this Code section, its health care practitioners to wear an identification badge shall not be required to replace such badges to conform to the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection. (5) Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (6) of this subsection, this subsection shall only apply to health care practices and facilities where more than one type of health care practitioner interacts with patients in exam settings. This subsection shall not apply to health care practices or facilities in which only one type of health care practitioner practices. (6) This subsection shall only apply to a dentist if such dentist is practicing in a hospital. This subsection shall only apply to a chiropractor or optometrist if such chiropractor or optometrist is practicing in a hospital, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home.

(e)(1) A health care practitioner providing services in this state in a health care practice or facility shall conspicuously post and affirmatively communicate the practitioner's specific licensure to all current and prospective patients as follows: (A)(i) The health care practitioner shall wear an identifier during all patient encounters that shall include: (I) The health care practitioner's name; and (II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds. (ii) The identifier shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent. A lab coat or similar distinguishing clothing or uniform indicating the practitioner's specific licensure may be considered an identifier if such clothing or uniform meets the requirements of division (i) of this subparagraph. (iii) An identifier shall not be required in an operating room or other setting where surgical or other invasive procedures are performed or in any other setting where maintaining a sterile environment is medically necessary. (iv) An identifier shall not be required in any mental health setting where it would impede the psychotherapeutic relationship. (v) If a safety or health risk to the health care practitioner or a patient would be created as a result of the practitioner wearing such identifier in a specified practice setting, an identifier shall not be required or may be modified by omitting or concealing the last name of the practitioner in accordance with the requirements of the health care practice or facility; and (B) A health care practitioner in a health care practice or facility other than a hospital shall display in the reception area of such practice or facility a notice that clearly identifies the type of health care practitioners employed in such practice or facility and the right of a patient to inquire as to the type of license of the health care practitioner treating such patient. The notice shall be of sufficient size so as to be visible and apparent to all current and prospective patients.

(e)(1) A health care practitioner providing services in this state in a health care practice or facility shall conspicuously post and affirmatively communicate the practitioner's specific licensure to all current and prospective patients as follows:

(A)(i) The health care practitioner shall wear an identifier during all patient encounters that shall include: (I) The health care practitioner's name; and (II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds. (ii) The identifier shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent. A lab coat or similar distinguishing clothing or uniform indicating the practitioner's specific licensure may be considered an identifier if such clothing or uniform meets the requirements of division (i) of this subparagraph. (iii) An identifier shall not be required in an operating room or other setting where surgical or other invasive procedures are performed or in any other setting where maintaining a sterile environment is medically necessary. (iv) An identifier shall not be required in any mental health setting where it would impede the psychotherapeutic relationship. (v) If a safety or health risk to the health care practitioner or a patient would be created as a result of the practitioner wearing such identifier in a specified practice setting, an identifier shall not be required or may be modified by omitting or concealing the last name of the practitioner in accordance with the requirements of the health care practice or facility; and

(A)(i) The health care practitioner shall wear an identifier during all patient encounters that shall include: (I) The health care practitioner's name; and (II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds.

(A)(i) The health care practitioner shall wear an identifier during all patient encounters that shall include:

(I) The health care practitioner's name; and

(I) The health care practitioner's name; and

(II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds.

(II) The type of license or educational degree the health care practitioner holds.

(ii) The identifier shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent. A lab coat or similar distinguishing clothing or uniform indicating the practitioner's specific licensure may be considered an identifier if such clothing or uniform meets the requirements of division (i) of this subparagraph.

(ii) The identifier shall be of sufficient size and be worn in a conspicuous manner so as to be visible and apparent. A lab coat or similar distinguishing clothing or uniform indicating the practitioner's specific licensure may be considered an identifier if such clothing or uniform meets the requirements of division (i) of this subparagraph.

(iii) An identifier shall not be required in an operating room or other setting where surgical or other invasive procedures are performed or in any other setting where maintaining a sterile environment is medically necessary.

(iii) An identifier shall not be required in an operating room or other setting where surgical or other invasive procedures are performed or in any other setting where maintaining a sterile environment is medically necessary.

(iv) An identifier shall not be required in any mental health setting where it would impede the psychotherapeutic relationship.

(iv) An identifier shall not be required in any mental health setting where it would impede the psychotherapeutic relationship.

(v) If a safety or health risk to the health care practitioner or a patient would be created as a result of the practitioner wearing such identifier in a specified practice setting, an identifier shall not be required or may be modified by omitting or concealing the last name of the practitioner in accordance with the requirements of the health care practice or facility; and

(v) If a safety or health risk to the health care practitioner or a patient would be created as a result of the practitioner wearing such identifier in a specified practice setting, an identifier shall not be required or may be modified by omitting or concealing the last name of the practitioner in accordance with the requirements of the health care practice or facility; and

(B) A health care practitioner in a health care practice or facility other than a hospital shall display in the reception area of such practice or facility a notice that clearly identifies the type of health care practitioners employed in such practice or facility and the right of a patient to inquire as to the type of license of the health care practitioner treating such patient. The notice shall be of sufficient size so as to be visible and apparent to all current and prospective patients.

(B) A health care practitioner in a health care practice or facility other than a hospital shall display in the reception area of such practice or facility a notice that clearly identifies the type of health care practitioners employed in such practice or facility and the right of a patient to inquire as to the type of license of the health care practitioner treating such patient. The notice shall be of sufficient size so as to be visible and apparent to all current and prospective patients.

(2) A health care practitioner who practices in more than one office shall place the identifier information conspicuously on such practitioner's website if he or she maintains a website.

(2) A health care practitioner who practices in more than one office shall place the identifier information conspicuously on such practitioner's website if he or she maintains a website.

(3) A health care practitioner who practices in a nonpatient care setting and who does not have any direct patient care interactions shall not be subject to the provisions of this subsection.

(3) A health care practitioner who practices in a nonpatient care setting and who does not have any direct patient care interactions shall not be subject to the provisions of this subsection.

(4) A health care practice or facility which requires, as of the effective date of this Code section, its health care practitioners to wear an identification badge shall not be required to replace such badges to conform to the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(4) A health care practice or facility which requires, as of the effective date of this Code section, its health care practitioners to wear an identification badge shall not be required to replace such badges to conform to the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(5) Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (6) of this subsection, this subsection shall only apply to health care practices and facilities where more than one type of health care practitioner interacts with patients in exam settings. This subsection shall not apply to health care practices or facilities in which only one type of health care practitioner practices.

(5) Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (6) of this subsection, this subsection shall only apply to health care practices and facilities where more than one type of health care practitioner interacts with patients in exam settings. This subsection shall not apply to health care practices or facilities in which only one type of health care practitioner practices.

(6) This subsection shall only apply to a dentist if such dentist is practicing in a hospital. This subsection shall only apply to a chiropractor or optometrist if such chiropractor or optometrist is practicing in a hospital, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home.

(6) This subsection shall only apply to a dentist if such dentist is practicing in a hospital. This subsection shall only apply to a chiropractor or optometrist if such chiropractor or optometrist is practicing in a hospital, nursing home, assisted living community, or personal care home.

(f) A health care practitioner who intentionally violates any provision of this Code section may be subject to disciplinary action by the health care practitioner's professional licensing board. Notwithstanding the imposition of any sanction, the health care practitioner's professional licensing board may seek an injunction or other legal means as appropriate against such health care practitioner violating this Code section.

(f) A health care practitioner who intentionally violates any provision of this Code section may be subject to disciplinary action by the health care practitioner's professional licensing board. Notwithstanding the imposition of any sanction, the health care practitioner's professional licensing board may seek an injunction or other legal means as appropriate against such health care practitioner violating this Code section.

(g) A violation of this Code section shall not constitute a private cause of action.

(g) A violation of this Code section shall not constitute a private cause of action.

(h) Nothing in this Code section shall be construed to prevent a health care practitioner from using any title or abbreviation which is statutorily authorized for such practitioner pursuant to his or her respective licensing statutes.

(h) Nothing in this Code section shall be construed to prevent a health care practitioner from using any title or abbreviation which is statutorily authorized for such practitioner pursuant to his or her respective licensing statutes.
O.C.G.A. § 43-23-1 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 23 / Section 43-23-1
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-23-1
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter the term:

(1) “Board” means the Georgia Board of Landscape Architects.

(1) “Board” means the Georgia Board of Landscape Architects.

(2) “Landscape architect” means a person who is licensed pursuant to this chapter to practice or teach landscape architecture.

(2) “Landscape architect” means a person who is licensed pursuant to this chapter to practice or teach landscape architecture.

(3) “Landscape architecture” means the performance of professional services, including, but not limited to, consultation, investigation, planning, design, preparation of drawings and specifications, and responsible supervision, all in connection with the preservation or determination of proper land uses, natural land features, esthetics, planting plans, the shaping of land to produce the best functional and esthetic effect, and grading plans with determination of drainage. This term shall also include the consideration of environmental problems involving land areas, as such problems relate to the public health, safety, and welfare.

(3) “Landscape architecture” means the performance of professional services, including, but not limited to, consultation, investigation, planning, design, preparation of drawings and specifications, and responsible supervision, all in connection with the preservation or determination of proper land uses, natural land features, esthetics, planting plans, the shaping of land to produce the best functional and esthetic effect, and grading plans with determination of drainage. This term shall also include the consideration of environmental problems involving land areas, as such problems relate to the public health, safety, and welfare.
O.C.G.A. § 43-11-75 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 11 / Section 43-11-75
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-11-75
Status: in_force

This article shall not apply to licensed dentists, nor shall this article apply to physicians licensed in this state in extracting teeth or performing surgical operations and in charging therefor or to accredited schools of dentistry.
O.C.G.A. § 43-10-10 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 10 / Section 43-10-10
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-10-10
Status: in_force

(a) The holder of any certificate of registration issued under Code Section 43-10-9 shall display the same in a conspicuous place in his or her beauty shop, beauty salon, or barber shop. Certificates of registration issued under Code Section 43-10-9 shall be renewable for a period of up to four years as approved by the division director. The holder shall pay to the division director a renewal fee in such amount as shall be set by the board by regulation. Upon failure to renew such certificate of registration, it shall stand automatically revoked. The holder shall be disqualified from practicing any occupation under this chapter until all fees to date of application for reinstatement shall be paid, an application for reinstatement shall be submitted along with a reinstatement fee in such amount as shall be set by the board by regulation, and documentation shall be submitted of completion of all required continuing education hours since the date the registration was automatically revoked. If the board is satisfied that the applicant for reinstatement meets all the qualifications set forth in this Code section and Code Section 43-10-9 , the applicant shall be issued a new certificate of registration.

(a) The holder of any certificate of registration issued under Code Section 43-10-9 shall display the same in a conspicuous place in his or her beauty shop, beauty salon, or barber shop. Certificates of registration issued under Code Section 43-10-9 shall be renewable for a period of up to four years as approved by the division director. The holder shall pay to the division director a renewal fee in such amount as shall be set by the board by regulation. Upon failure to renew such certificate of registration, it shall stand automatically revoked. The holder shall be disqualified from practicing any occupation under this chapter until all fees to date of application for reinstatement shall be paid, an application for reinstatement shall be submitted along with a reinstatement fee in such amount as shall be set by the board by regulation, and documentation shall be submitted of completion of all required continuing education hours since the date the registration was automatically revoked. If the board is satisfied that the applicant for reinstatement meets all the qualifications set forth in this Code section and Code Section 43-10-9 , the applicant shall be issued a new certificate of registration.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Code section, at the time of renewal of any cosmetologist, master cosmetologist, hair designer, esthetician, nail technician, master barber, or barber II certificate of registration, the holder of such certificate shall maintain proof, in a form approved by the board, of completion of five hours of continuing education biennially to be determined by the board. A licensee shall provide proof of completion of continuing education if audited by the board. A holder who is renewing a certificate of registration for the first time shall not be required to meet the continuing education requirement until the time of the second renewal. Further, the requirement for continuing education for a master barber and barber II will become effective beginning January 1, 2018.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Code section, at the time of renewal of any cosmetologist, master cosmetologist, hair designer, esthetician, nail technician, master barber, or barber II certificate of registration, the holder of such certificate shall maintain proof, in a form approved by the board, of completion of five hours of continuing education biennially to be determined by the board. A licensee shall provide proof of completion of continuing education if audited by the board. A holder who is renewing a certificate of registration for the first time shall not be required to meet the continuing education requirement until the time of the second renewal. Further, the requirement for continuing education for a master barber and barber II will become effective beginning January 1, 2018.

(c) The board may require by rules or regulations that either three or four hours of continuing education shall be satisfied by a health and safety course or a review course of the board rules or regulations and applicable laws using a curriculum developed by the board or by a board approved provider. Such curriculum or course may be revised by the board or by a board approved provider as necessary to incorporate new developments. The board shall make the curriculum or course available to board approved providers of continuing education. The board may charge a fee to providers for registration as a board approved provider.

(c) The board may require by rules or regulations that either three or four hours of continuing education shall be satisfied by a health and safety course or a review course of the board rules or regulations and applicable laws using a curriculum developed by the board or by a board approved provider. Such curriculum or course may be revised by the board or by a board approved provider as necessary to incorporate new developments. The board shall make the curriculum or course available to board approved providers of continuing education. The board may charge a fee to providers for registration as a board approved provider.

(d) The board may require by rules and regulations that the remaining one to two hours of continuing education may be satisfied by: (1) Attendance at an industry or trade show registered with the board; or (2) A course or courses of study registered with the board in one or more of the following subjects: health and safety, industry trends, computer skills, business management, or the holder's area of practice.

(d) The board may require by rules and regulations that the remaining one to two hours of continuing education may be satisfied by:

(1) Attendance at an industry or trade show registered with the board; or

(1) Attendance at an industry or trade show registered with the board; or

(2) A course or courses of study registered with the board in one or more of the following subjects: health and safety, industry trends, computer skills, business management, or the holder's area of practice.

(2) A course or courses of study registered with the board in one or more of the following subjects: health and safety, industry trends, computer skills, business management, or the holder's area of practice.

(e) To request registration of an industry or trade show for continuing education credit, a person or entity shall submit to the board the date and location of the industry or trade show. To request registration of a course of study for continuing education credit, the person or entity offering the course of study shall submit to the board an outline of the subject matter, a list of the persons teaching the course with a summary of their qualifications, the number of hours for each course, and the date and location where the course of study will be presented or has been presented, if applicable. Any certificate holder may request board approval of an unregistered industry or trade show or an unregistered course of study. A person or entity conducting an industry or trade show or a course of study shall provide written proof of attendance at the industry or trade show or completion of a course of study to all participants.

(e) To request registration of an industry or trade show for continuing education credit, a person or entity shall submit to the board the date and location of the industry or trade show. To request registration of a course of study for continuing education credit, the person or entity offering the course of study shall submit to the board an outline of the subject matter, a list of the persons teaching the course with a summary of their qualifications, the number of hours for each course, and the date and location where the course of study will be presented or has been presented, if applicable. Any certificate holder may request board approval of an unregistered industry or trade show or an unregistered course of study. A person or entity conducting an industry or trade show or a course of study shall provide written proof of attendance at the industry or trade show or completion of a course of study to all participants.

(f) The board shall register and allow credit as continuing education for courses conducted via the Internet or other electronic means or home study courses.

(f) The board shall register and allow credit as continuing education for courses conducted via the Internet or other electronic means or home study courses.

(g) Courses in cosmetology, hair design, nail technology, esthetics, computers, business, or health and safety issues offered by schools under the jurisdiction of the Board of Regents of the University System of Georgia, the Technical College System of Georgia, the Department of Education, or any accredited postsecondary institution shall satisfy the continuing education requirement without a request to the board for approval or registration.

(g) Courses in cosmetology, hair design, nail technology, esthetics, computers, business, or health and safety issues offered by schools under the jurisdiction of the Board of Regents of the University System of Georgia, the Technical College System of Georgia, the Department of Education, or any accredited postsecondary institution shall satisfy the continuing education requirement without a request to the board for approval or registration.

(h) In no event shall the testing of knowledge or skills be required as proof of the successful completion of a continuing education course.

(h) In no event shall the testing of knowledge or skills be required as proof of the successful completion of a continuing education course.

(i) The continuing education requirement shall not apply to certificate holders who: (1) Have held a certificate for 25 or more years; or (2) Demonstrate a hardship based on a disability, age, illness, or such other circumstance as the board may identify by rule and determine on a case-by-case basis. Certificate holders who claim an exemption from the continuing education requirement on the basis of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall provide a sworn statement setting out the facts supporting such exemption.

(i) The continuing education requirement shall not apply to certificate holders who:

(1) Have held a certificate for 25 or more years; or

(1) Have held a certificate for 25 or more years; or

(2) Demonstrate a hardship based on a disability, age, illness, or such other circumstance as the board may identify by rule and determine on a case-by-case basis.

(2) Demonstrate a hardship based on a disability, age, illness, or such other circumstance as the board may identify by rule and determine on a case-by-case basis.

Certificate holders who claim an exemption from the continuing education requirement on the basis of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall provide a sworn statement setting out the facts supporting such exemption.
O.C.G.A. § 43-51-2 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 51 / Section 43-51-2
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-51-2
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, the term:

(1) “Board” means the State Board of Examiners for Certification of Water and Wastewater Treatment Plant Operators and Laboratory Analysts.

(1) “Board” means the State Board of Examiners for Certification of Water and Wastewater Treatment Plant Operators and Laboratory Analysts.

(2) “Certificate” means a document issued by the board stating that the operator or laboratory analyst has met the requirements for the specified operator classification of the certification program.

(2) “Certificate” means a document issued by the board stating that the operator or laboratory analyst has met the requirements for the specified operator classification of the certification program.

(3) “Director” means the director of the Division of Environmental Protection of the Department of Natural Resources.

(3) “Director” means the director of the Division of Environmental Protection of the Department of Natural Resources.

(4) “Division” means the Division of Environmental Protection of the Department of Natural Resources.

(4) “Division” means the Division of Environmental Protection of the Department of Natural Resources.

(5) “Laboratory analyst” means any person who tests water or wastewater samples in conjunction with the operation of public water supply systems or wastewater treatment plants.

(5) “Laboratory analyst” means any person who tests water or wastewater samples in conjunction with the operation of public water supply systems or wastewater treatment plants.

(6) “Operator” means any person who performs operational duties and water treatment plant and wastewater treatment plant laboratory testing for reporting purposes for operator classifications I and II, as defined by the board, at wastewater treatment plants, wastewater collection systems, water distribution systems, or public water supply systems.

(6) “Operator” means any person who performs operational duties and water treatment plant and wastewater treatment plant laboratory testing for reporting purposes for operator classifications I and II, as defined by the board, at wastewater treatment plants, wastewater collection systems, water distribution systems, or public water supply systems.

(7) “Person” means any individual, corporation, company, association, partnership, county, municipality, state agency, federal agency, or other entity.

(7) “Person” means any individual, corporation, company, association, partnership, county, municipality, state agency, federal agency, or other entity.

(8) “Public water supply system” means the system of pipes, structures, and facilities through which water is obtained and treated to be offered to the public for household use or for any other public consumption.

(8) “Public water supply system” means the system of pipes, structures, and facilities through which water is obtained and treated to be offered to the public for household use or for any other public consumption.

(9) “Wastewater collection system” means the system of sanitary sewers, pipes, manholes, pumps, and other such apparatus used to convey sewage to wastewater treatment plants.

(9) “Wastewater collection system” means the system of sanitary sewers, pipes, manholes, pumps, and other such apparatus used to convey sewage to wastewater treatment plants.

(10) “Wastewater treatment plant” means the facilities provided for the treatment and disposal of wastewater, including industrial process wastewater.

(10) “Wastewater treatment plant” means the facilities provided for the treatment and disposal of wastewater, including industrial process wastewater.

(11) “Water distribution system” means the system of pipes, pumps, valves, and other such apparatus used to distribute water to the public.

(11) “Water distribution system” means the system of pipes, pumps, valves, and other such apparatus used to distribute water to the public.

(12) “Water treatment plant” means that portion of the water supply system which in some way alters the physical, chemical, or bacteriological quality of the water.

(12) “Water treatment plant” means that portion of the water supply system which in some way alters the physical, chemical, or bacteriological quality of the water.
O.C.G.A. § 43-33-18 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 33 / Section 43-33-18
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-33-18
Status: in_force

(a) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist licensed under this article upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has: (1) Identified himself or herself as a doctor without also clearly informing the public of his or her professional credential as a physical therapist; (2) Performed physical therapy care and services without examination and evaluation of patients or clients in order to determine a physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention, which, in the case of patients who have self-referred, means the physical therapist has: (A) Failed to refer the patient to an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if at any time the physical therapist has reason to believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require treatment beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist or, regardless of the patient's condition, if after 21 days or eight visits from the initiation of a physical therapy plan of intervention, the physical therapist has not received a referral from the patient's provider who is licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43. The day and visit limitations contained in this subparagraph shall not apply: (i) In the case of services provided for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes, in which case the physical therapist shall refer a client seen for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes to an appropriate individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if the client exhibits or develops signs and symptoms beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist; (ii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous nine months with a neuromuscular or developmental condition when the evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms associated with that previously diagnosed condition; or (iii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous 90 days with a chronic musculoskeletal condition and noted by a current relevant document from an appropriate licensed health care provider; (B) Ordered radiology, performed surgery, ordered laboratory or body fluid testing, diagnosed disease, or practiced medicine; (C) Failed to provide each self-referred patient with a written disclosure that a physical therapy diagnosis is not a medical diagnosis by a physician or based on radiological imaging and that such services might not be covered by the patient's health plan or insurer; (D) Not satisfied the additional requirements for seeing a patient who has self-referred, which shall include: (i) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent degree from an accredited institution plus two years of clinical practice experience; (ii) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent and: (I) Post graduate certification; (II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or (III) Residency or fellowship training; or (iii) Five years of clinical practice experience; or (E) Performed dry needling treatment interventions without consulting an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43; or (3) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of physical therapy practice, regardless of whether actual injury to a patient occurs, or failed to provide the expected minimal standard of patient or client management, which shall include that: (A) A physical therapist is fully responsible for managing all aspects of the physical therapy care of each patient. A physical therapist shall provide: (i) The initial evaluation, determination of physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention and documentation of the initial evaluation; (ii) Periodic reevaluation and documentation of findings for each patient; and (iii) The documented episode of care for each patient, including the patient's response to the plan of intervention at the time of completion of the episode of care; (B) A physical therapist shall assure the qualifications of all physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides under his or her direction and supervision; (C) For each patient on each date of service, a physical therapist shall provide all of the intervention that requires the education, skills, knowledge, and abilities of a physical therapist; (D) A physical therapist shall determine the use of physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides to ensure the delivery of care that is safe, effective, and efficient. A physical therapist may use physical therapy aides for designated routine tasks. A physical therapy aide shall work under the supervision of a physical therapist; (E) A physical therapist shall communicate the overall plan of care with the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative; (F) A physical therapist's responsibility shall include accurate documentation and billing of the services provided; (G) A physical therapist shall adhere to the recognized standards for professional conduct and code of ethics of the physical therapy profession as established by rule; and (H) A physical therapist shall ensure that he or she has liability coverage either independently or provided by the entity by which he or she is employed.

(a) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist licensed under this article upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has:

(1) Identified himself or herself as a doctor without also clearly informing the public of his or her professional credential as a physical therapist;

(1) Identified himself or herself as a doctor without also clearly informing the public of his or her professional credential as a physical therapist;

(2) Performed physical therapy care and services without examination and evaluation of patients or clients in order to determine a physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention, which, in the case of patients who have self-referred, means the physical therapist has: (A) Failed to refer the patient to an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if at any time the physical therapist has reason to believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require treatment beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist or, regardless of the patient's condition, if after 21 days or eight visits from the initiation of a physical therapy plan of intervention, the physical therapist has not received a referral from the patient's provider who is licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43. The day and visit limitations contained in this subparagraph shall not apply: (i) In the case of services provided for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes, in which case the physical therapist shall refer a client seen for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes to an appropriate individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if the client exhibits or develops signs and symptoms beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist; (ii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous nine months with a neuromuscular or developmental condition when the evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms associated with that previously diagnosed condition; or (iii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous 90 days with a chronic musculoskeletal condition and noted by a current relevant document from an appropriate licensed health care provider; (B) Ordered radiology, performed surgery, ordered laboratory or body fluid testing, diagnosed disease, or practiced medicine; (C) Failed to provide each self-referred patient with a written disclosure that a physical therapy diagnosis is not a medical diagnosis by a physician or based on radiological imaging and that such services might not be covered by the patient's health plan or insurer; (D) Not satisfied the additional requirements for seeing a patient who has self-referred, which shall include: (i) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent degree from an accredited institution plus two years of clinical practice experience; (ii) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent and: (I) Post graduate certification; (II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or (III) Residency or fellowship training; or (iii) Five years of clinical practice experience; or (E) Performed dry needling treatment interventions without consulting an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43; or

(2) Performed physical therapy care and services without examination and evaluation of patients or clients in order to determine a physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention, which, in the case of patients who have self-referred, means the physical therapist has:

(A) Failed to refer the patient to an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if at any time the physical therapist has reason to believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require treatment beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist or, regardless of the patient's condition, if after 21 days or eight visits from the initiation of a physical therapy plan of intervention, the physical therapist has not received a referral from the patient's provider who is licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43. The day and visit limitations contained in this subparagraph shall not apply: (i) In the case of services provided for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes, in which case the physical therapist shall refer a client seen for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes to an appropriate individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if the client exhibits or develops signs and symptoms beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist; (ii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous nine months with a neuromuscular or developmental condition when the evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms associated with that previously diagnosed condition; or (iii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous 90 days with a chronic musculoskeletal condition and noted by a current relevant document from an appropriate licensed health care provider;

(A) Failed to refer the patient to an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if at any time the physical therapist has reason to believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require treatment beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist or, regardless of the patient's condition, if after 21 days or eight visits from the initiation of a physical therapy plan of intervention, the physical therapist has not received a referral from the patient's provider who is licensed pursuant to Article 2 of Chapter 11 of Title 43 or Article 2 of Chapter 34 of Title 43. The day and visit limitations contained in this subparagraph shall not apply:

(i) In the case of services provided for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes, in which case the physical therapist shall refer a client seen for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes to an appropriate individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if the client exhibits or develops signs and symptoms beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist;

(i) In the case of services provided for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes, in which case the physical therapist shall refer a client seen for health promotion, wellness, fitness, or maintenance purposes to an appropriate individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43 if the client exhibits or develops signs and symptoms beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist;

(ii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous nine months with a neuromuscular or developmental condition when the evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms associated with that previously diagnosed condition; or

(ii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous nine months with a neuromuscular or developmental condition when the evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms associated with that previously diagnosed condition; or

(iii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous 90 days with a chronic musculoskeletal condition and noted by a current relevant document from an appropriate licensed health care provider;

(iii) In the case of a patient diagnosed within the previous 90 days with a chronic musculoskeletal condition and noted by a current relevant document from an appropriate licensed health care provider;

(B) Ordered radiology, performed surgery, ordered laboratory or body fluid testing, diagnosed disease, or practiced medicine;

(B) Ordered radiology, performed surgery, ordered laboratory or body fluid testing, diagnosed disease, or practiced medicine;

(C) Failed to provide each self-referred patient with a written disclosure that a physical therapy diagnosis is not a medical diagnosis by a physician or based on radiological imaging and that such services might not be covered by the patient's health plan or insurer;

(C) Failed to provide each self-referred patient with a written disclosure that a physical therapy diagnosis is not a medical diagnosis by a physician or based on radiological imaging and that such services might not be covered by the patient's health plan or insurer;

(D) Not satisfied the additional requirements for seeing a patient who has self-referred, which shall include: (i) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent degree from an accredited institution plus two years of clinical practice experience; (ii) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent and: (I) Post graduate certification; (II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or (III) Residency or fellowship training; or (iii) Five years of clinical practice experience; or

(D) Not satisfied the additional requirements for seeing a patient who has self-referred, which shall include:

(i) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent degree from an accredited institution plus two years of clinical practice experience;

(i) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent degree from an accredited institution plus two years of clinical practice experience;

(ii) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent and: (I) Post graduate certification; (II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or (III) Residency or fellowship training; or

(ii) A doctorate in physical therapy or equivalent and:

(I) Post graduate certification;

(I) Post graduate certification;

(II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or

(II) American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties Board Certification; or

(III) Residency or fellowship training; or

(III) Residency or fellowship training; or

(iii) Five years of clinical practice experience; or

(iii) Five years of clinical practice experience; or

(E) Performed dry needling treatment interventions without consulting an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43; or

(E) Performed dry needling treatment interventions without consulting an individual licensed pursuant to Article 2 or 4 of Chapter 34 of Title 43; or

(3) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of physical therapy practice, regardless of whether actual injury to a patient occurs, or failed to provide the expected minimal standard of patient or client management, which shall include that: (A) A physical therapist is fully responsible for managing all aspects of the physical therapy care of each patient. A physical therapist shall provide: (i) The initial evaluation, determination of physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention and documentation of the initial evaluation; (ii) Periodic reevaluation and documentation of findings for each patient; and (iii) The documented episode of care for each patient, including the patient's response to the plan of intervention at the time of completion of the episode of care; (B) A physical therapist shall assure the qualifications of all physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides under his or her direction and supervision; (C) For each patient on each date of service, a physical therapist shall provide all of the intervention that requires the education, skills, knowledge, and abilities of a physical therapist; (D) A physical therapist shall determine the use of physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides to ensure the delivery of care that is safe, effective, and efficient. A physical therapist may use physical therapy aides for designated routine tasks. A physical therapy aide shall work under the supervision of a physical therapist; (E) A physical therapist shall communicate the overall plan of care with the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative; (F) A physical therapist's responsibility shall include accurate documentation and billing of the services provided; (G) A physical therapist shall adhere to the recognized standards for professional conduct and code of ethics of the physical therapy profession as established by rule; and (H) A physical therapist shall ensure that he or she has liability coverage either independently or provided by the entity by which he or she is employed.

(3) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of physical therapy practice, regardless of whether actual injury to a patient occurs, or failed to provide the expected minimal standard of patient or client management, which shall include that:

(A) A physical therapist is fully responsible for managing all aspects of the physical therapy care of each patient. A physical therapist shall provide: (i) The initial evaluation, determination of physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention and documentation of the initial evaluation; (ii) Periodic reevaluation and documentation of findings for each patient; and (iii) The documented episode of care for each patient, including the patient's response to the plan of intervention at the time of completion of the episode of care;

(A) A physical therapist is fully responsible for managing all aspects of the physical therapy care of each patient. A physical therapist shall provide:

(i) The initial evaluation, determination of physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention and documentation of the initial evaluation;

(i) The initial evaluation, determination of physical therapy diagnosis, prognosis, and plan of intervention and documentation of the initial evaluation;

(ii) Periodic reevaluation and documentation of findings for each patient; and

(ii) Periodic reevaluation and documentation of findings for each patient; and

(iii) The documented episode of care for each patient, including the patient's response to the plan of intervention at the time of completion of the episode of care;

(iii) The documented episode of care for each patient, including the patient's response to the plan of intervention at the time of completion of the episode of care;

(B) A physical therapist shall assure the qualifications of all physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides under his or her direction and supervision;

(B) A physical therapist shall assure the qualifications of all physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides under his or her direction and supervision;

(C) For each patient on each date of service, a physical therapist shall provide all of the intervention that requires the education, skills, knowledge, and abilities of a physical therapist;

(C) For each patient on each date of service, a physical therapist shall provide all of the intervention that requires the education, skills, knowledge, and abilities of a physical therapist;

(D) A physical therapist shall determine the use of physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides to ensure the delivery of care that is safe, effective, and efficient. A physical therapist may use physical therapy aides for designated routine tasks. A physical therapy aide shall work under the supervision of a physical therapist;

(D) A physical therapist shall determine the use of physical therapist assistants and physical therapy aides to ensure the delivery of care that is safe, effective, and efficient. A physical therapist may use physical therapy aides for designated routine tasks. A physical therapy aide shall work under the supervision of a physical therapist;

(E) A physical therapist shall communicate the overall plan of care with the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative;

(E) A physical therapist shall communicate the overall plan of care with the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative;

(F) A physical therapist's responsibility shall include accurate documentation and billing of the services provided;

(F) A physical therapist's responsibility shall include accurate documentation and billing of the services provided;

(G) A physical therapist shall adhere to the recognized standards for professional conduct and code of ethics of the physical therapy profession as established by rule; and

(G) A physical therapist shall adhere to the recognized standards for professional conduct and code of ethics of the physical therapy profession as established by rule; and

(H) A physical therapist shall ensure that he or she has liability coverage either independently or provided by the entity by which he or she is employed.

(H) A physical therapist shall ensure that he or she has liability coverage either independently or provided by the entity by which he or she is employed.

(b) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist assistant licensed under this article upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has: (1) Worked outside the supervision of a physical therapist; (2) Failed to provide accurate documentation or billing of services provided; (3) Failed to adhere to the recognized standards of ethical conduct and code of ethics as established by rule; or (4) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of the physical therapist assistant's scope of work, regardless of whether actual injury to the patient occurs.

(b) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist assistant licensed under this article upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has:

(1) Worked outside the supervision of a physical therapist;

(1) Worked outside the supervision of a physical therapist;

(2) Failed to provide accurate documentation or billing of services provided;

(2) Failed to provide accurate documentation or billing of services provided;

(3) Failed to adhere to the recognized standards of ethical conduct and code of ethics as established by rule; or

(3) Failed to adhere to the recognized standards of ethical conduct and code of ethics as established by rule; or

(4) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of the physical therapist assistant's scope of work, regardless of whether actual injury to the patient occurs.

(4) Acted in a manner inconsistent with generally accepted standards of the physical therapist assistant's scope of work, regardless of whether actual injury to the patient occurs.

(c) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant licensed under this article or any antecedent law upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has: (1) Displayed an inability or has become unable to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness, use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material, or as a result of any mental or physical condition: (A) In enforcing this paragraph the board may, upon reasonable grounds, require a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination by an appropriate licensed health care provider designated by the board. The expense of such mental or physical examination shall be borne by the licensee or applicant. The results of such examination shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any claim of privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application for a license to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to submit to such mental or physical examination and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the results in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitutes a privileged communication. If a licensee or applicant fails to submit to such an examination when properly directed to do so by the board, unless such failure was due to circumstances beyond his or her control, the board may enter a final order upon proper notice, hearing, and proof of such refusal. Any licensee or applicant who is prohibited from practicing physical therapy under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that he or she can resume or begin the practice of physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety to patients; (B) For the purposes of this paragraph, the board may, upon reasonable grounds, obtain any and all records relating to the mental or physical condition of a licensee or applicant, including psychiatric records; and such records shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to the board's obtaining any such records and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of such records in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitute a privileged communication; and (C) If any licensee or applicant could, in the absence of this paragraph, invoke a privilege to prevent the disclosure of the results of the examination provided for in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or the records relating to the mental or physical condition of such licensee or applicant obtained pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, all such information shall be received by the board in camera and shall not be disclosed to the public, nor shall any part of the record containing such information be used against any licensee or applicant in any other type of proceeding; (2) Been convicted of a felony or crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or the United States or the conviction of an offense in another jurisdiction which if committed in this state would be deemed a felony. For the purpose of this Code section, a “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, a plea of guilty, or a plea of nolo contendere in a criminal proceeding regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon pursuant to the provisions of Code Sections 42-8-60 through 42-8-64 , relating to first offenders, or any comparable rule or statute; (3) Knowingly made misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations to a patient, consumer, or other person or entity in connection with the practice of physical therapy or in any document connected therewith; practiced fraud or deceit or intentionally made any false statement in obtaining or attempting to obtain a license to practice physical therapy or as a physical therapist assistant; or made a false or deceptive biennial registration with the board; (4) Practiced physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; knowingly aided, assisted, procured, or advised any person to practice physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; or knowingly performed any act which in any way aids, assists, procures, advises, or encourages any unlicensed person to practice physical therapy; (5) Engaged in any unprofessional, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or the failure to conform to, the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical therapy practice or the failure to comply with the code of ethics of the board; (6) Failed to report to the board any act or omission of a licensee or applicant or any other person which violates the provisions of this subsection; or (7) Divided fees or agreed to divide fees received for professional services with any person, firm, association, corporation, or other entity for bringing or referring a patient.

(c) The board shall have authority to refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant or to discipline a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant licensed under this article or any antecedent law upon a finding by the board that the licensee or applicant has:

(1) Displayed an inability or has become unable to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness, use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material, or as a result of any mental or physical condition: (A) In enforcing this paragraph the board may, upon reasonable grounds, require a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination by an appropriate licensed health care provider designated by the board. The expense of such mental or physical examination shall be borne by the licensee or applicant. The results of such examination shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any claim of privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application for a license to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to submit to such mental or physical examination and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the results in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitutes a privileged communication. If a licensee or applicant fails to submit to such an examination when properly directed to do so by the board, unless such failure was due to circumstances beyond his or her control, the board may enter a final order upon proper notice, hearing, and proof of such refusal. Any licensee or applicant who is prohibited from practicing physical therapy under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that he or she can resume or begin the practice of physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety to patients; (B) For the purposes of this paragraph, the board may, upon reasonable grounds, obtain any and all records relating to the mental or physical condition of a licensee or applicant, including psychiatric records; and such records shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to the board's obtaining any such records and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of such records in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitute a privileged communication; and (C) If any licensee or applicant could, in the absence of this paragraph, invoke a privilege to prevent the disclosure of the results of the examination provided for in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or the records relating to the mental or physical condition of such licensee or applicant obtained pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, all such information shall be received by the board in camera and shall not be disclosed to the public, nor shall any part of the record containing such information be used against any licensee or applicant in any other type of proceeding;

(1) Displayed an inability or has become unable to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness, use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material, or as a result of any mental or physical condition:

(A) In enforcing this paragraph the board may, upon reasonable grounds, require a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination by an appropriate licensed health care provider designated by the board. The expense of such mental or physical examination shall be borne by the licensee or applicant. The results of such examination shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any claim of privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application for a license to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to submit to such mental or physical examination and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the results in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitutes a privileged communication. If a licensee or applicant fails to submit to such an examination when properly directed to do so by the board, unless such failure was due to circumstances beyond his or her control, the board may enter a final order upon proper notice, hearing, and proof of such refusal. Any licensee or applicant who is prohibited from practicing physical therapy under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that he or she can resume or begin the practice of physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety to patients;

(A) In enforcing this paragraph the board may, upon reasonable grounds, require a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination by an appropriate licensed health care provider designated by the board. The expense of such mental or physical examination shall be borne by the licensee or applicant. The results of such examination shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any claim of privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application for a license to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to submit to such mental or physical examination and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the results in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitutes a privileged communication. If a licensee or applicant fails to submit to such an examination when properly directed to do so by the board, unless such failure was due to circumstances beyond his or her control, the board may enter a final order upon proper notice, hearing, and proof of such refusal. Any licensee or applicant who is prohibited from practicing physical therapy under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that he or she can resume or begin the practice of physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety to patients;

(B) For the purposes of this paragraph, the board may, upon reasonable grounds, obtain any and all records relating to the mental or physical condition of a licensee or applicant, including psychiatric records; and such records shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to the board's obtaining any such records and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of such records in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitute a privileged communication; and

(B) For the purposes of this paragraph, the board may, upon reasonable grounds, obtain any and all records relating to the mental or physical condition of a licensee or applicant, including psychiatric records; and such records shall be admissible in any hearing before the board, notwithstanding any privilege under a contrary rule of law or statute, including, but not limited to, Code Section 24-5-501 . Every person who shall accept the privilege of practicing physical therapy in this state or who shall file an application to practice physical therapy in this state shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to the board's obtaining any such records and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of such records in any hearing before the board upon the grounds that the same constitute a privileged communication; and

(C) If any licensee or applicant could, in the absence of this paragraph, invoke a privilege to prevent the disclosure of the results of the examination provided for in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or the records relating to the mental or physical condition of such licensee or applicant obtained pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, all such information shall be received by the board in camera and shall not be disclosed to the public, nor shall any part of the record containing such information be used against any licensee or applicant in any other type of proceeding;

(C) If any licensee or applicant could, in the absence of this paragraph, invoke a privilege to prevent the disclosure of the results of the examination provided for in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or the records relating to the mental or physical condition of such licensee or applicant obtained pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, all such information shall be received by the board in camera and shall not be disclosed to the public, nor shall any part of the record containing such information be used against any licensee or applicant in any other type of proceeding;

(2) Been convicted of a felony or crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or the United States or the conviction of an offense in another jurisdiction which if committed in this state would be deemed a felony. For the purpose of this Code section, a “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, a plea of guilty, or a plea of nolo contendere in a criminal proceeding regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon pursuant to the provisions of Code Sections 42-8-60 through 42-8-64 , relating to first offenders, or any comparable rule or statute;

(2) Been convicted of a felony or crime involving moral turpitude in the courts of this state or the United States or the conviction of an offense in another jurisdiction which if committed in this state would be deemed a felony. For the purpose of this Code section, a “conviction” shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, a plea of guilty, or a plea of nolo contendere in a criminal proceeding regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon pursuant to the provisions of Code Sections 42-8-60 through 42-8-64 , relating to first offenders, or any comparable rule or statute;

(3) Knowingly made misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations to a patient, consumer, or other person or entity in connection with the practice of physical therapy or in any document connected therewith; practiced fraud or deceit or intentionally made any false statement in obtaining or attempting to obtain a license to practice physical therapy or as a physical therapist assistant; or made a false or deceptive biennial registration with the board;

(3) Knowingly made misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations to a patient, consumer, or other person or entity in connection with the practice of physical therapy or in any document connected therewith; practiced fraud or deceit or intentionally made any false statement in obtaining or attempting to obtain a license to practice physical therapy or as a physical therapist assistant; or made a false or deceptive biennial registration with the board;

(4) Practiced physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; knowingly aided, assisted, procured, or advised any person to practice physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; or knowingly performed any act which in any way aids, assists, procures, advises, or encourages any unlicensed person to practice physical therapy;

(4) Practiced physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; knowingly aided, assisted, procured, or advised any person to practice physical therapy contrary to this Code section or to the rules and regulations of the board; or knowingly performed any act which in any way aids, assists, procures, advises, or encourages any unlicensed person to practice physical therapy;

(5) Engaged in any unprofessional, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or the failure to conform to, the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical therapy practice or the failure to comply with the code of ethics of the board;

(5) Engaged in any unprofessional, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, which conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person; unprofessional conduct shall also include any departure from, or the failure to conform to, the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical therapy practice or the failure to comply with the code of ethics of the board;

(6) Failed to report to the board any act or omission of a licensee or applicant or any other person which violates the provisions of this subsection; or

(6) Failed to report to the board any act or omission of a licensee or applicant or any other person which violates the provisions of this subsection; or

(7) Divided fees or agreed to divide fees received for professional services with any person, firm, association, corporation, or other entity for bringing or referring a patient.

(7) Divided fees or agreed to divide fees received for professional services with any person, firm, association, corporation, or other entity for bringing or referring a patient.

(d)(1) When the board finds that any person is unqualified to be granted a license or finds that any person should be disciplined pursuant to subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section, the board may take any one or more of the following actions: (A) Refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant; (B) Administer a public or private reprimand, but a private reprimand shall not be disclosed to any person except the licensee; (C) Suspend any license for a definite period; (D) Limit or restrict any license; (E) Revoke any license; (F) Condition the penalty or withhold formal disposition, upon the physical therapist's, physical therapist assistant's, or other person's submission to the care, counseling, or treatment of physicians or other professional persons, and the completion of such care, counseling, or treatment, as directed by the board; or (G) Impose a fine not to exceed $500.00 for each violation of law, rule, or regulation of the board. (2) In addition to or in conjunction with the actions enumerated pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the board may make a finding adverse to the licensee or applicant but withhold imposition of judgment and penalty, or it may impose the judgment and penalty but suspend enforcement thereof and place the licensee or applicant on probation, which may be vacated upon noncompliance with such reasonable terms as the board may impose.

(d)(1) When the board finds that any person is unqualified to be granted a license or finds that any person should be disciplined pursuant to subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section, the board may take any one or more of the following actions: (A) Refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant; (B) Administer a public or private reprimand, but a private reprimand shall not be disclosed to any person except the licensee; (C) Suspend any license for a definite period; (D) Limit or restrict any license; (E) Revoke any license; (F) Condition the penalty or withhold formal disposition, upon the physical therapist's, physical therapist assistant's, or other person's submission to the care, counseling, or treatment of physicians or other professional persons, and the completion of such care, counseling, or treatment, as directed by the board; or (G) Impose a fine not to exceed $500.00 for each violation of law, rule, or regulation of the board.

(d)(1) When the board finds that any person is unqualified to be granted a license or finds that any person should be disciplined pursuant to subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section, the board may take any one or more of the following actions:

(A) Refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant;

(A) Refuse to grant or restore a license to an applicant;

(B) Administer a public or private reprimand, but a private reprimand shall not be disclosed to any person except the licensee;

(B) Administer a public or private reprimand, but a private reprimand shall not be disclosed to any person except the licensee;

(C) Suspend any license for a definite period;

(C) Suspend any license for a definite period;

(D) Limit or restrict any license;

(D) Limit or restrict any license;

(E) Revoke any license;

(E) Revoke any license;

(F) Condition the penalty or withhold formal disposition, upon the physical therapist's, physical therapist assistant's, or other person's submission to the care, counseling, or treatment of physicians or other professional persons, and the completion of such care, counseling, or treatment, as directed by the board; or

(F) Condition the penalty or withhold formal disposition, upon the physical therapist's, physical therapist assistant's, or other person's submission to the care, counseling, or treatment of physicians or other professional persons, and the completion of such care, counseling, or treatment, as directed by the board; or

(G) Impose a fine not to exceed $500.00 for each violation of law, rule, or regulation of the board.

(G) Impose a fine not to exceed $500.00 for each violation of law, rule, or regulation of the board.

(2) In addition to or in conjunction with the actions enumerated pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the board may make a finding adverse to the licensee or applicant but withhold imposition of judgment and penalty, or it may impose the judgment and penalty but suspend enforcement thereof and place the licensee or applicant on probation, which may be vacated upon noncompliance with such reasonable terms as the board may impose.

(2) In addition to or in conjunction with the actions enumerated pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the board may make a finding adverse to the licensee or applicant but withhold imposition of judgment and penalty, or it may impose the judgment and penalty but suspend enforcement thereof and place the licensee or applicant on probation, which may be vacated upon noncompliance with such reasonable terms as the board may impose.

(e) In its discretion, the board may restore and reissue a license issued under this article or any antecedent law and, as a condition thereof, it may impose any disciplinary or corrective measure provided in this article.

(e) In its discretion, the board may restore and reissue a license issued under this article or any antecedent law and, as a condition thereof, it may impose any disciplinary or corrective measure provided in this article.

(f) A person, firm, corporation, association, authority, or other entity shall be immune from civil and criminal liability for reporting the acts or omissions of a licensee or applicant which violate the provisions of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section or any other provision of law relating to a licensee's or applicant's fitness to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant, if such report is made in good faith without fraud or malice. Any person who testifies without fraud or malice before the board in any proceeding involving a violation of the provisions of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section or any other law relating to a licensee's or applicant's fitness to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant shall be immune from civil and criminal liability for so testifying.

(f) A person, firm, corporation, association, authority, or other entity shall be immune from civil and criminal liability for reporting the acts or omissions of a licensee or applicant which violate the provisions of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section or any other provision of law relating to a licensee's or applicant's fitness to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant, if such report is made in good faith without fraud or malice. Any person who testifies without fraud or malice before the board in any proceeding involving a violation of the provisions of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Code section or any other law relating to a licensee's or applicant's fitness to practice as a physical therapist or as a physical therapist assistant shall be immune from civil and criminal liability for so testifying.

(g) The provisions of this Code section shall not prevent any other health care provider from administering techniques authorized within his or her scope of practice.

(g) The provisions of this Code section shall not prevent any other health care provider from administering techniques authorized within his or her scope of practice.
O.C.G.A. § 43-50-63 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 50 / Section 43-50-63
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-50-63
Status: in_force

(a) Any licensed veterinarian, animal clinic, or animal hospital using veterinary assistants shall post a notice to that effect in a prominent place.

(a) Any licensed veterinarian, animal clinic, or animal hospital using veterinary assistants shall post a notice to that effect in a prominent place.

(b) A veterinary assistant must clearly identify himself or herself as such in order to ensure that he or she is not mistaken by the public as a licensed veterinarian or licensed veterinary technician. This may be accomplished, for example, by the wearing of an appropriate name tag. Any time the veterinary assistant's name appears in a professional setting, his or her status must be shown as “veterinary assistant.”

(b) A veterinary assistant must clearly identify himself or herself as such in order to ensure that he or she is not mistaken by the public as a licensed veterinarian or licensed veterinary technician. This may be accomplished, for example, by the wearing of an appropriate name tag. Any time the veterinary assistant's name appears in a professional setting, his or her status must be shown as “veterinary assistant.”
O.C.G.A. § 43-50-3 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 50 / Section 43-50-3
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-50-3
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, the term:

(1) “ Accredited college or school of veterinary medicine ” means any veterinary college or school or division of a university or college that offers the degree of Doctor of Veterinary Medicine or its equivalent and that conforms to the standards required for accreditation by the American Veterinary Medical Association Council on Education or its successor organization.

(1) “ Accredited college or school of veterinary medicine ” means any veterinary college or school or division of a university or college that offers the degree of Doctor of Veterinary Medicine or its equivalent and that conforms to the standards required for accreditation by the American Veterinary Medical Association Council on Education or its successor organization.

(2) “ Accredited program in veterinary technology ” means any postsecondary educational program of two or more academic years that has fulfilled the essential criteria established by the Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities and approved by the American Veterinary Medical Association or its successor organization.

(2) “ Accredited program in veterinary technology ” means any postsecondary educational program of two or more academic years that has fulfilled the essential criteria established by the Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities and approved by the American Veterinary Medical Association or its successor organization.

(3) “ Animal ” means any animal other than human and includes fowl, birds, fish, and reptiles, wild or domestic, living or dead.

(3) “ Animal ” means any animal other than human and includes fowl, birds, fish, and reptiles, wild or domestic, living or dead.

(4) “ Animal patient ” means an animal or group of animals examined or treated by a licensed veterinarian.

(4) “ Animal patient ” means an animal or group of animals examined or treated by a licensed veterinarian.

(5) “ Animal shelter ” means a public or private humane society, animal shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, animal protection or control agency, rescue group, or other similar organization, that provides shelter and care for homeless animals.

(5) “ Animal shelter ” means a public or private humane society, animal shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, animal protection or control agency, rescue group, or other similar organization, that provides shelter and care for homeless animals.

(6) “ Approved program of continuing education ” means an educational program approved by the board or offered by an approved provider of continuing education.

(6) “ Approved program of continuing education ” means an educational program approved by the board or offered by an approved provider of continuing education.

(7) “ Approved provider of continuing education ” means any individual, university, or college, or other entity that has met the requirements of the board to provide educational courses that are designed to assure continued competence in the practice of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology.

(7) “ Approved provider of continuing education ” means any individual, university, or college, or other entity that has met the requirements of the board to provide educational courses that are designed to assure continued competence in the practice of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology.

(8) “ Board ” means the State Board of Veterinary Medicine.

(8) “ Board ” means the State Board of Veterinary Medicine.

(9) “ Client ” means a person who has engaged the service of a licensed veterinarian for the care of an animal within their scope of control as an owner or caretaker of such animal.

(9) “ Client ” means a person who has engaged the service of a licensed veterinarian for the care of an animal within their scope of control as an owner or caretaker of such animal.

(10) “Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies ” means a heterogeneous group of preventive, diagnostic, and therapeutic philosophies and practices that include, but are not limited to, veterinary acupuncture, acutherapy, and acupressure; veterinary homeopathy; veterinary manual or manipulative therapy; veterinary nutraceutical therapy; and veterinary phytotherapy.

(10) “Complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies ” means a heterogeneous group of preventive, diagnostic, and therapeutic philosophies and practices that include, but are not limited to, veterinary acupuncture, acutherapy, and acupressure; veterinary homeopathy; veterinary manual or manipulative therapy; veterinary nutraceutical therapy; and veterinary phytotherapy.

(11) “ Consultation ” means the act of a licensed veterinarian receiving advice in person, telephonically, electronically, or by any other method of communication from a veterinarian licensed in this or any other state or other person whose expertise, in the opinion of the licensed veterinarian, may benefit an animal patient.

(11) “ Consultation ” means the act of a licensed veterinarian receiving advice in person, telephonically, electronically, or by any other method of communication from a veterinarian licensed in this or any other state or other person whose expertise, in the opinion of the licensed veterinarian, may benefit an animal patient.

(12) “ Continuing education ” means training which is designed to assure continued competence in the practice of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology.

(12) “ Continuing education ” means training which is designed to assure continued competence in the practice of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology.

(13) “ Direct supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian located on the same premises where an animal is being treated, who is quickly and easily available.

(13) “ Direct supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian located on the same premises where an animal is being treated, who is quickly and easily available.

(14) “ ECFVG certificate or its substantial equivalent ” means a certificate issued by the American Veterinary Medical Association Educational Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates or its successor organization indicating the holder has demonstrated knowledge and skill equivalent to that possessed by a graduate of an accredited college of veterinary medicine.

(14) “ ECFVG certificate or its substantial equivalent ” means a certificate issued by the American Veterinary Medical Association Educational Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates or its successor organization indicating the holder has demonstrated knowledge and skill equivalent to that possessed by a graduate of an accredited college of veterinary medicine.

(15) “ Extralabel use ” means the actual use or intended use of a drug in an animal in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved labeling. This includes, but is not limited to, use in species not listed in the labeling; use for indications, disease, or other conditions not listed in the labeling; use at dosage levels, frequencies, or routes of administration other than those stated in the labeling; and deviation from the labeled withdrawal time based on such different uses.

(15) “ Extralabel use ” means the actual use or intended use of a drug in an animal in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved labeling. This includes, but is not limited to, use in species not listed in the labeling; use for indications, disease, or other conditions not listed in the labeling; use at dosage levels, frequencies, or routes of administration other than those stated in the labeling; and deviation from the labeled withdrawal time based on such different uses.

(16) “ Food animal ” means any animal that is raised for the production of an edible product intended for consumption by humans or is itself intended for consumption. Such term shall include, but is not limited to, eggs, cattle, beef or dairy, swine, sheep, goats, poultry, nonornamental fish, and any other animal designated by the veterinarian as a food animal.

(16) “ Food animal ” means any animal that is raised for the production of an edible product intended for consumption by humans or is itself intended for consumption. Such term shall include, but is not limited to, eggs, cattle, beef or dairy, swine, sheep, goats, poultry, nonornamental fish, and any other animal designated by the veterinarian as a food animal.

(17) “ Immediate supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian located in the immediate area and within audible and visual range of the animal patient and the person treating the animal patient.

(17) “ Immediate supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian located in the immediate area and within audible and visual range of the animal patient and the person treating the animal patient.

(18) “ Indirect supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian not required to be on the premises but when such licensed veterinarian has given either written or oral instructions for the treatment of the animal patient and is readily available by telephone or other forms of immediate communication.

(18) “ Indirect supervision ” means oversight by a licensed veterinarian not required to be on the premises but when such licensed veterinarian has given either written or oral instructions for the treatment of the animal patient and is readily available by telephone or other forms of immediate communication.

(19) “ Informed consent ” means the veterinarian has presented treatment options, and made reasonable efforts to inform the client, verbally or in writing, of the diagnostic and treatment options, risk assessment, and prognosis, which are appropriate and probable for the case in the veterinarian's judgment following the standard of care, which the veterinarian agrees to provide and the client consents to have performed.

(19) “ Informed consent ” means the veterinarian has presented treatment options, and made reasonable efforts to inform the client, verbally or in writing, of the diagnostic and treatment options, risk assessment, and prognosis, which are appropriate and probable for the case in the veterinarian's judgment following the standard of care, which the veterinarian agrees to provide and the client consents to have performed.

(20) “ Licensed veterinarian ” means a person who is validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this state.

(20) “ Licensed veterinarian ” means a person who is validly and currently licensed to practice veterinary medicine in this state.

(21) “ Livestock ” means farm animals, animals that produce tangible personal property for sale, or animals that are processed, manufactured, or converted into articles of tangible personal property for sale or consumption. The term does not include living animals that are commonly regarded as domestic pets or companion animals.

(21) “ Livestock ” means farm animals, animals that produce tangible personal property for sale, or animals that are processed, manufactured, or converted into articles of tangible personal property for sale or consumption. The term does not include living animals that are commonly regarded as domestic pets or companion animals.

(22) “ Mobile veterinary clinic ” means a mobile unit in which veterinary services are provided to an animal that is treated inside the mobile unit. The term does not include the use of a motor vehicle by a veterinarian to travel to treat the client's animal or the use of a motor vehicle for animal ambulatory practice.

(22) “ Mobile veterinary clinic ” means a mobile unit in which veterinary services are provided to an animal that is treated inside the mobile unit. The term does not include the use of a motor vehicle by a veterinarian to travel to treat the client's animal or the use of a motor vehicle for animal ambulatory practice.

(23) “ PAVE certificate or its substantial equivalent ” means a certificate issued by the American Association of Veterinary State Boards or its successor organization indicating the holder has demonstrated knowledge and skill equivalent to that possessed by a graduate of an accredited college of veterinary medicine.

(23) “ PAVE certificate or its substantial equivalent ” means a certificate issued by the American Association of Veterinary State Boards or its successor organization indicating the holder has demonstrated knowledge and skill equivalent to that possessed by a graduate of an accredited college of veterinary medicine.

(24) “ Person ” means any individual, firm, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, cooperative, and corporation or any other group or combination acting in concert; and whether or not acting as a principal, trustee, fiduciary, receiver, or as any other kind of legal or personal representative, or as the successor in interest, assignee, agent, factor, servant, employee, member, director, officer, or any other representative of such person.

(24) “ Person ” means any individual, firm, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, cooperative, and corporation or any other group or combination acting in concert; and whether or not acting as a principal, trustee, fiduciary, receiver, or as any other kind of legal or personal representative, or as the successor in interest, assignee, agent, factor, servant, employee, member, director, officer, or any other representative of such person.

(25) “ Practice veterinary medicine ” or “ practice of veterinary medicine ” means: (A) To diagnose, treat, correct, change, relieve, or prevent animal disease, deformity, defect, injury, or other physical or mental conditions, including the prescribing, administration, or dispensing of any prescription drug, medicine, biologic, apparatus, application, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or diagnostic substance or technique on, for, or to any animal, including, but not limited to, the use of complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies, animal dentistry, manual or mechanical adjustment procedures, physical therapy, rehabilitation, surgery, diagnostic veterinary pathology, any manual, mechanical, biological, or chemical procedure used for pregnancy testing or for correcting sterility or infertility, or to render advice or recommendations with regard to any of the above; but not including such administration or dispensing pursuant to prescription or direction of a licensed veterinarian; (B)(i) To apply or use any instrument or device on any portion of an animal's tooth, gum, or any related tissue for the prevention, cure, or relief of any wound, fracture, injury, disease, or other condition of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue. (ii) To engage in preventive dental procedures on animals, including, but not limited to, the removal of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, or stains or the smoothing, filing, or polishing of tooth surfaces. (iii) Nothing in this subparagraph shall prohibit any person from utilizing cotton swabs, gauze, dental floss, dentifrice, toothbrushes, or similar items to clean an animal's teeth; (C) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to do any act described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph; (D) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters in a manner or under circumstances which induce the belief that the person using them is legally authorized or qualified to perform an act included in this paragraph. Such use shall be evidence of the intention to represent oneself as engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine; (E) To apply principles of environmental sanitation, food inspection, environmental pollution control, zoonotic disease control, and disaster medicine in the promotion and protection of public health as it specifically relates to animals. This subparagraph shall apply only to licensed veterinarians and not to other qualified persons; (F) To collect blood or other samples for the purpose of diagnosing diseases or related conditions. This subparagraph shall not apply to unlicensed professionals employed by or under contract with the United States Department of Agriculture or the Georgia Department of Agriculture who are engaged in their official duties; or (G) To administer a rabies vaccination to any animal that the state requires to be vaccinated.

(25) “ Practice veterinary medicine ” or “ practice of veterinary medicine ” means:

(A) To diagnose, treat, correct, change, relieve, or prevent animal disease, deformity, defect, injury, or other physical or mental conditions, including the prescribing, administration, or dispensing of any prescription drug, medicine, biologic, apparatus, application, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or diagnostic substance or technique on, for, or to any animal, including, but not limited to, the use of complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies, animal dentistry, manual or mechanical adjustment procedures, physical therapy, rehabilitation, surgery, diagnostic veterinary pathology, any manual, mechanical, biological, or chemical procedure used for pregnancy testing or for correcting sterility or infertility, or to render advice or recommendations with regard to any of the above; but not including such administration or dispensing pursuant to prescription or direction of a licensed veterinarian;

(A) To diagnose, treat, correct, change, relieve, or prevent animal disease, deformity, defect, injury, or other physical or mental conditions, including the prescribing, administration, or dispensing of any prescription drug, medicine, biologic, apparatus, application, anesthetic, or other therapeutic or diagnostic substance or technique on, for, or to any animal, including, but not limited to, the use of complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies, animal dentistry, manual or mechanical adjustment procedures, physical therapy, rehabilitation, surgery, diagnostic veterinary pathology, any manual, mechanical, biological, or chemical procedure used for pregnancy testing or for correcting sterility or infertility, or to render advice or recommendations with regard to any of the above; but not including such administration or dispensing pursuant to prescription or direction of a licensed veterinarian;

(B)(i) To apply or use any instrument or device on any portion of an animal's tooth, gum, or any related tissue for the prevention, cure, or relief of any wound, fracture, injury, disease, or other condition of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue. (ii) To engage in preventive dental procedures on animals, including, but not limited to, the removal of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, or stains or the smoothing, filing, or polishing of tooth surfaces. (iii) Nothing in this subparagraph shall prohibit any person from utilizing cotton swabs, gauze, dental floss, dentifrice, toothbrushes, or similar items to clean an animal's teeth;

(B)(i) To apply or use any instrument or device on any portion of an animal's tooth, gum, or any related tissue for the prevention, cure, or relief of any wound, fracture, injury, disease, or other condition of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue.

(B)(i) To apply or use any instrument or device on any portion of an animal's tooth, gum, or any related tissue for the prevention, cure, or relief of any wound, fracture, injury, disease, or other condition of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue.

(ii) To engage in preventive dental procedures on animals, including, but not limited to, the removal of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, or stains or the smoothing, filing, or polishing of tooth surfaces.

(ii) To engage in preventive dental procedures on animals, including, but not limited to, the removal of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, or stains or the smoothing, filing, or polishing of tooth surfaces.

(iii) Nothing in this subparagraph shall prohibit any person from utilizing cotton swabs, gauze, dental floss, dentifrice, toothbrushes, or similar items to clean an animal's teeth;

(iii) Nothing in this subparagraph shall prohibit any person from utilizing cotton swabs, gauze, dental floss, dentifrice, toothbrushes, or similar items to clean an animal's teeth;

(C) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to do any act described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph;

(C) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to do any act described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph;

(D) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters in a manner or under circumstances which induce the belief that the person using them is legally authorized or qualified to perform an act included in this paragraph. Such use shall be evidence of the intention to represent oneself as engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine;

(D) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters in a manner or under circumstances which induce the belief that the person using them is legally authorized or qualified to perform an act included in this paragraph. Such use shall be evidence of the intention to represent oneself as engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine;

(E) To apply principles of environmental sanitation, food inspection, environmental pollution control, zoonotic disease control, and disaster medicine in the promotion and protection of public health as it specifically relates to animals. This subparagraph shall apply only to licensed veterinarians and not to other qualified persons;

(E) To apply principles of environmental sanitation, food inspection, environmental pollution control, zoonotic disease control, and disaster medicine in the promotion and protection of public health as it specifically relates to animals. This subparagraph shall apply only to licensed veterinarians and not to other qualified persons;

(F) To collect blood or other samples for the purpose of diagnosing diseases or related conditions. This subparagraph shall not apply to unlicensed professionals employed by or under contract with the United States Department of Agriculture or the Georgia Department of Agriculture who are engaged in their official duties; or

(F) To collect blood or other samples for the purpose of diagnosing diseases or related conditions. This subparagraph shall not apply to unlicensed professionals employed by or under contract with the United States Department of Agriculture or the Georgia Department of Agriculture who are engaged in their official duties; or

(G) To administer a rabies vaccination to any animal that the state requires to be vaccinated.

(G) To administer a rabies vaccination to any animal that the state requires to be vaccinated.

(26) “ Practice veterinary technology ” or “ veterinary technology ” means: (A) To perform animal patient care or other services that require a technical understanding of veterinary medicine by a licensed veterinary technician on the basis of written or oral instruction of a licensed veterinarian, excluding diagnosing, prognosing, performing surgery, prescribing, or dispensing; (B) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to engage in any act described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph; or (C) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters, while engaged in the practice of licensed veterinary technology, in a manner or under circumstances that induce the belief that the person using them is qualified to engage in an act included in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(26) “ Practice veterinary technology ” or “ veterinary technology ” means:

(A) To perform animal patient care or other services that require a technical understanding of veterinary medicine by a licensed veterinary technician on the basis of written or oral instruction of a licensed veterinarian, excluding diagnosing, prognosing, performing surgery, prescribing, or dispensing;

(A) To perform animal patient care or other services that require a technical understanding of veterinary medicine by a licensed veterinary technician on the basis of written or oral instruction of a licensed veterinarian, excluding diagnosing, prognosing, performing surgery, prescribing, or dispensing;

(B) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to engage in any act described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph; or

(B) To represent, directly or indirectly, publicly or privately, an ability and willingness to engage in any act described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph; or

(C) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters, while engaged in the practice of licensed veterinary technology, in a manner or under circumstances that induce the belief that the person using them is qualified to engage in an act included in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(C) To use any title, words, abbreviation, or letters, while engaged in the practice of licensed veterinary technology, in a manner or under circumstances that induce the belief that the person using them is qualified to engage in an act included in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(27) “ Prescription drug ” includes any medicine, medication, or pharmaceutical or biological product whose manufacturer's label must, pursuant to federal or state law, have the following statement printed on its packaging: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”; or any over-the-counter product that is used in a manner different from the label directions and that by definition requires a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship for prescribing or dispensing.

(27) “ Prescription drug ” includes any medicine, medication, or pharmaceutical or biological product whose manufacturer's label must, pursuant to federal or state law, have the following statement printed on its packaging: “Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”; or any over-the-counter product that is used in a manner different from the label directions and that by definition requires a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship for prescribing or dispensing.

(28) “ Veterinarian ” means a person who has received a doctorate degree in veterinary medicine from a college or school of veterinary medicine.

(28) “ Veterinarian ” means a person who has received a doctorate degree in veterinary medicine from a college or school of veterinary medicine.

(29) “ Veterinarian-client-patient relationship ” means that: (A) The licensed veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the animal and the need for medical treatment, and the client has given informed consent for services provided by the licensed veterinarian; (B) There is sufficient knowledge of the animal by the licensed veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. This means that the licensed veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the animal by the virtue of examination of the animal or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept or by medically appropriate and timely visits by the licensed veterinarian to premises within an operation or production system where the animal or groups of animals are kept; (C) A licensed veterinarian is readily available for follow up care or consultation or has arranged for: (i) Veterinary emergency coverage; and (ii) Continuing care and treatment by another licensed veterinarian, including providing a copy of associated records during normal business hours; and (D) The licensed veterinarian develops and maintains appropriate medical records.

(29) “ Veterinarian-client-patient relationship ” means that:

(A) The licensed veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the animal and the need for medical treatment, and the client has given informed consent for services provided by the licensed veterinarian;

(A) The licensed veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the animal and the need for medical treatment, and the client has given informed consent for services provided by the licensed veterinarian;

(B) There is sufficient knowledge of the animal by the licensed veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. This means that the licensed veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the animal by the virtue of examination of the animal or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept or by medically appropriate and timely visits by the licensed veterinarian to premises within an operation or production system where the animal or groups of animals are kept;

(B) There is sufficient knowledge of the animal by the licensed veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. This means that the licensed veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with the keeping and care of the animal by the virtue of examination of the animal or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept or by medically appropriate and timely visits by the licensed veterinarian to premises within an operation or production system where the animal or groups of animals are kept;

(C) A licensed veterinarian is readily available for follow up care or consultation or has arranged for: (i) Veterinary emergency coverage; and (ii) Continuing care and treatment by another licensed veterinarian, including providing a copy of associated records during normal business hours; and

(C) A licensed veterinarian is readily available for follow up care or consultation or has arranged for:

(i) Veterinary emergency coverage; and

(i) Veterinary emergency coverage; and

(ii) Continuing care and treatment by another licensed veterinarian, including providing a copy of associated records during normal business hours; and

(ii) Continuing care and treatment by another licensed veterinarian, including providing a copy of associated records during normal business hours; and

(D) The licensed veterinarian develops and maintains appropriate medical records.

(D) The licensed veterinarian develops and maintains appropriate medical records.

(30) “ Veterinary assistant ” means a person who has been delegated by a licensed veterinarian to engage in certain aspects of the practice of veterinary technology but is not licensed by the board for such purpose.

(30) “ Veterinary assistant ” means a person who has been delegated by a licensed veterinarian to engage in certain aspects of the practice of veterinary technology but is not licensed by the board for such purpose.

(31) “ Veterinary facility ” means any premises owned or operated by a veterinarian or his or her employer where the practice of veterinary medicine occurs, including but not limited to veterinary hospitals, clinics, or mobile clinics; provided, however, that such term does not include a client's private property where a licensed veterinarian treats the client's animals.

(31) “ Veterinary facility ” means any premises owned or operated by a veterinarian or his or her employer where the practice of veterinary medicine occurs, including but not limited to veterinary hospitals, clinics, or mobile clinics; provided, however, that such term does not include a client's private property where a licensed veterinarian treats the client's animals.

(32)(A) “ Veterinary feed directive ” means a written statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on animal feed. This written statement authorizes the client to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat such animals only in accordance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed by the United States Food and Drug Administration. (B) As used in this paragraph, the term: (i) “ Combination VFD ” means a combination new animal drug, as defined in Section 514.4(c)(1)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed under Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed under Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian, and at least one of the new animal drugs in the combination is a VFD drug. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive. (ii) “ VFD drug ” means a drug intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed pursuant to Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed pursuant to Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(32)(A) “ Veterinary feed directive ” means a written statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on animal feed. This written statement authorizes the client to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat such animals only in accordance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(32)(A) “ Veterinary feed directive ” means a written statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on animal feed. This written statement authorizes the client to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat such animals only in accordance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(B) As used in this paragraph, the term: (i) “ Combination VFD ” means a combination new animal drug, as defined in Section 514.4(c)(1)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed under Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed under Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian, and at least one of the new animal drugs in the combination is a VFD drug. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive. (ii) “ VFD drug ” means a drug intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed pursuant to Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed pursuant to Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(B) As used in this paragraph, the term:

(i) “ Combination VFD ” means a combination new animal drug, as defined in Section 514.4(c)(1)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed under Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed under Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian, and at least one of the new animal drugs in the combination is a VFD drug. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(i) “ Combination VFD ” means a combination new animal drug, as defined in Section 514.4(c)(1)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed under Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed under Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian, and at least one of the new animal drugs in the combination is a VFD drug. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(ii) “ VFD drug ” means a drug intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed pursuant to Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed pursuant to Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(ii) “ VFD drug ” means a drug intended for use in or on animal feed which is limited by an approved application filed pursuant to Section 512(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, a conditionally approved application filed pursuant to Section 571 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, or an index listing under Section 572 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful veterinary feed directive.

(33) “ Veterinary technician ” means a licensed person who engages in the practice of veterinary technology and on the basis of his or her qualifications is validly and currently licensed by the board for such purpose.

(33) “ Veterinary technician ” means a licensed person who engages in the practice of veterinary technology and on the basis of his or her qualifications is validly and currently licensed by the board for such purpose.

(34) “ Veterinary technology ” means the science and art of providing certain aspects of professional medical care and treatment for animals and the practice of veterinary medicine as may be delegated and supervised by a licensed veterinarian and performed by a person who is not a licensed veterinarian.

(34) “ Veterinary technology ” means the science and art of providing certain aspects of professional medical care and treatment for animals and the practice of veterinary medicine as may be delegated and supervised by a licensed veterinarian and performed by a person who is not a licensed veterinarian.
O.C.G.A. § 43-17-20 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 17 / Section 43-17-20
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-17-20
Status: in_force

For any action taken or any proceeding had under this chapter or under color of law, the Secretary of State shall be immune from liability and suit to the same extent that any judge of any court of general jurisdiction in this state would be immune.
O.C.G.A. § 43-3-14 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 3 / Section 43-3-14
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-3-14
Status: in_force

Application for certification by individuals who are not residents of this state shall constitute the appointment of the executive director as the agent for service of process in any action or proceeding against such applicant arising out of any transaction, activity, or operation connected with or incidental to the practice of public accountancy in this state by such nonresident holders of certified public accountant certificates.
O.C.G.A. § 43-19-14 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 19 / Section 43-19-14
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-19-14
Status: in_force

A person holding a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of geology, on the basis of comparable licensing requirements issued to him by a proper authority of a state, territory or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, and who, in the opinion of the board, otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter based on verified evidence may be registered, upon application, without further examination.
O.C.G.A. § 43-18-72 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 18 / Section 43-18-72
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-18-72
Status: in_force

(a)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person, firm, corporation, or association to operate a crematory without first obtaining a separate license for such purpose from the board in accordance with this article. The crematory must be at a specific address or location and must meet the following requirements and have the following minimum equipment, facilities, and personnel: (A) A room with seating for a minimum of 30 people in which funeral services may be conducted; (B) A display room containing an adequate supply of urns; (C) Rolling stock consisting of at least one operable motor hearse either owned or leased by said firm with current Georgia registration; (D) At least one operable cremation device; (E) At least one operable processing station for grinding of cremated remains; (F) At least one church truck; and (G) Not be located within 1,000 feet of a residential subdivision platted and recorded in the office of the clerk of the superior court of a county in which such residential subdivision is located. (2)(A) The provisions of subparagraphs (A), (B), and (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to crematories which provide cremation services only to other funeral establishments. (B) The provision of paragraph (G) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall only apply to the issuance or renewal of any license on or after July 1, 2009, for any stand-alone crematory that was not in operation as of July 1, 2009. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “ stand-alone crematory ” shall mean a crematory that is not located on or adjacent to a tract or parcel of land which contains a funeral establishment.

(a)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person, firm, corporation, or association to operate a crematory without first obtaining a separate license for such purpose from the board in accordance with this article. The crematory must be at a specific address or location and must meet the following requirements and have the following minimum equipment, facilities, and personnel:

(A) A room with seating for a minimum of 30 people in which funeral services may be conducted;

(A) A room with seating for a minimum of 30 people in which funeral services may be conducted;

(B) A display room containing an adequate supply of urns;

(B) A display room containing an adequate supply of urns;

(C) Rolling stock consisting of at least one operable motor hearse either owned or leased by said firm with current Georgia registration;

(C) Rolling stock consisting of at least one operable motor hearse either owned or leased by said firm with current Georgia registration;

(D) At least one operable cremation device;

(D) At least one operable cremation device;

(E) At least one operable processing station for grinding of cremated remains;

(E) At least one operable processing station for grinding of cremated remains;

(F) At least one church truck; and

(F) At least one church truck; and

(G) Not be located within 1,000 feet of a residential subdivision platted and recorded in the office of the clerk of the superior court of a county in which such residential subdivision is located.

(G) Not be located within 1,000 feet of a residential subdivision platted and recorded in the office of the clerk of the superior court of a county in which such residential subdivision is located.

(2)(A) The provisions of subparagraphs (A), (B), and (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to crematories which provide cremation services only to other funeral establishments. (B) The provision of paragraph (G) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall only apply to the issuance or renewal of any license on or after July 1, 2009, for any stand-alone crematory that was not in operation as of July 1, 2009. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “ stand-alone crematory ” shall mean a crematory that is not located on or adjacent to a tract or parcel of land which contains a funeral establishment.

(2)(A) The provisions of subparagraphs (A), (B), and (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to crematories which provide cremation services only to other funeral establishments.

(2)(A) The provisions of subparagraphs (A), (B), and (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to crematories which provide cremation services only to other funeral establishments.

(B) The provision of paragraph (G) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall only apply to the issuance or renewal of any license on or after July 1, 2009, for any stand-alone crematory that was not in operation as of July 1, 2009. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “ stand-alone crematory ” shall mean a crematory that is not located on or adjacent to a tract or parcel of land which contains a funeral establishment.

(B) The provision of paragraph (G) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall only apply to the issuance or renewal of any license on or after July 1, 2009, for any stand-alone crematory that was not in operation as of July 1, 2009. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “ stand-alone crematory ” shall mean a crematory that is not located on or adjacent to a tract or parcel of land which contains a funeral establishment.

(b) The board may adopt and enforce such rules and regulations as may be reasonable and necessary to provide for the sanitary disposal of dead human bodies and prevent the spread of disease and to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the people of this state. Such rules and regulations may include inspections of any retort by the manufacturer or other authorized crematory repair company once every five years to ensure proper operations.

(b) The board may adopt and enforce such rules and regulations as may be reasonable and necessary to provide for the sanitary disposal of dead human bodies and prevent the spread of disease and to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the people of this state. Such rules and regulations may include inspections of any retort by the manufacturer or other authorized crematory repair company once every five years to ensure proper operations.

(c) Application for licensure of a crematory shall be made upon a form approved by the board and shall be accompanied by an application fee. No license shall be issued unless the facility meets all the requirements set forth by the board.

(c) Application for licensure of a crematory shall be made upon a form approved by the board and shall be accompanied by an application fee. No license shall be issued unless the facility meets all the requirements set forth by the board.

(d) The board shall adopt rules requiring each crematory to submit periodic reports to the board in a standard form which include the names of persons cremated and the types of containers used.

(d) The board shall adopt rules requiring each crematory to submit periodic reports to the board in a standard form which include the names of persons cremated and the types of containers used.

(e) No more than one dead human body shall be placed in a cremation device at one time unless written permission has been received from the person possessing legal responsibility for the disposition of the dead human body.

(e) No more than one dead human body shall be placed in a cremation device at one time unless written permission has been received from the person possessing legal responsibility for the disposition of the dead human body.

(f) Nothing in this article shall require a funeral establishment for which a valid license to operate is in effect on May 9, 2002, to have a separate license for a crematory until on and after the renewal date of such license to operate a funeral establishment which first occurs after May 9, 2002, but such establishment must comply with all the minimum equipment and facilities requirements and all other statutes, rules, and regulations relating to crematories.

(f) Nothing in this article shall require a funeral establishment for which a valid license to operate is in effect on May 9, 2002, to have a separate license for a crematory until on and after the renewal date of such license to operate a funeral establishment which first occurs after May 9, 2002, but such establishment must comply with all the minimum equipment and facilities requirements and all other statutes, rules, and regulations relating to crematories.
O.C.G.A. § 43-3-17 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 3 / Section 43-3-17
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-3-17
Status: in_force

(a) In each renewal year, each firm licensed in this state pursuant to Code Section 43-3-16 which has issued an attest or compilation report within the 24 months preceding the date of expiration of the firm's license shall submit, with the application for renewal, evidence of satisfactory completion of a board approved peer review within the 36 months preceding the date of such firm's license expiration. Satisfactory completion shall mean that the firm has undergone the entire peer review process and that the report of the peer review indicates that the firm maintains acceptable standards of competence and integrity in the practice of public accountancy. Firms which have not issued an attest or compilation report within the 24 months preceding the date of the firm's license expiration shall submit written confirmation of such fact with the application for the firm's license renewal. The board may waive or modify the requirements of this subsection in cases of hardship or other such circumstances which the board deems appropriate. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the practice of an enrolled agent before the federal Internal Revenue Service or the Department of Revenue if the enrolled agent is not otherwise engaged in the practice of public accountancy in this state.

(a) In each renewal year, each firm licensed in this state pursuant to Code Section 43-3-16 which has issued an attest or compilation report within the 24 months preceding the date of expiration of the firm's license shall submit, with the application for renewal, evidence of satisfactory completion of a board approved peer review within the 36 months preceding the date of such firm's license expiration. Satisfactory completion shall mean that the firm has undergone the entire peer review process and that the report of the peer review indicates that the firm maintains acceptable standards of competence and integrity in the practice of public accountancy. Firms which have not issued an attest or compilation report within the 24 months preceding the date of the firm's license expiration shall submit written confirmation of such fact with the application for the firm's license renewal. The board may waive or modify the requirements of this subsection in cases of hardship or other such circumstances which the board deems appropriate. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the practice of an enrolled agent before the federal Internal Revenue Service or the Department of Revenue if the enrolled agent is not otherwise engaged in the practice of public accountancy in this state.

(b) No firm shall be licensed in this state which shall have failed to comply with the provisions of this Code section, applicable requirements of law, and rules or regulations promulgated by the board.

(b) No firm shall be licensed in this state which shall have failed to comply with the provisions of this Code section, applicable requirements of law, and rules or regulations promulgated by the board.

(c) This Code section shall be construed to apply only to firms required to be licensed under this chapter.

(c) This Code section shall be construed to apply only to firms required to be licensed under this chapter.
O.C.G.A. § 43-34-171 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 34 / Section 43-34-171
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-34-171
Status: in_force

As used in this article, the term:

(1) “ Advisory committee ” means the committee appointed pursuant to Code Section 43-34-180 .

(1) “ Advisory committee ” means the committee appointed pursuant to Code Section 43-34-180 .

(2) “ Board ” means the Georgia Composite Medical Board.

(2) “ Board ” means the Georgia Composite Medical Board.

(3) “ Extracorporeal circulation ” means the diversion of a patient's blood through a heart-lung machine or a similar device that assumes the function of the patient's heart, lungs, kidneys, liver, or other organ.

(3) “ Extracorporeal circulation ” means the diversion of a patient's blood through a heart-lung machine or a similar device that assumes the function of the patient's heart, lungs, kidneys, liver, or other organ.

(4) “ License ” means a license to practice as a licensed clinical perfusionist or provisional licensed clinical perfusionist.

(4) “ License ” means a license to practice as a licensed clinical perfusionist or provisional licensed clinical perfusionist.

(5) “ Licensed clinical perfusionist ” means a person licensed as such pursuant to this article.

(5) “ Licensed clinical perfusionist ” means a person licensed as such pursuant to this article.

(6) “ Perfusion ” means the functions necessary for the support, treatment, measurement, or supplementation of the cardiovascular, circulatory, or respiratory system or other organ, or a combination of such activities, and to ensure the safe management of physiologic functions by monitoring and analyzing the parameters of the systems under the order and supervision of a physician, including, but not limited to: (A) Extracorporeal support, including: (i) Cardiopulmonary bypass for adult, pediatric, and neonatal patients; (ii) Cardiopulmonary bypass for congenital and acquired cardiovascular disorders; (iii) Extracorporeal circulatory support for renal, neurological, hepatic, and vascular surgery; (iv) Extracorporeal resuscitation; and (v) Extracorporeal circulation for long-term support of failing respiratory or cardiac function, or both; (B) Associated extracorporeal support functions, including: (i) Myocardial protection; (ii) Hemofiltration and hemodialysis; (iii) Anticoagulation and hemostasis monitoring, analysis, and intervention; (iv) Thermal regulation, including hypothermia and hyperthermia; (v) Blood gas and blood chemistry monitoring, analysis, and intervention; (vi) Physiological monitoring, analysis, and intervention; and (vii) Administration of blood components, pharmaceuticals, chemotherapeutics, and anesthetic agents as directed by a licensed physician; (C) Heart failure therapy and support, including: (i) Ventricular assist device management; (ii) Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation; (iii) Temporary pacemaker management; (iv) External counterpulsation; (v) Transportation of patient on extracorporeal support; and (vi) Periodic flow augmentation therapy; (D) Blood management, including: (i) Autotransfusion; (ii) Platelet concentrate; and (iii) Nondifferentiated progenitor cell harvest; and (E) Other clinical functions, including: (i) Isolated limb and organ perfusion; (ii) Isolated limb and organ delivery of chemotherapeutics, progenitor cells, gene therapy vectors, and related matters; (iii) Organ preservation; (iv) Thermogenic lavage; (v) Electrophysiological analysis; and (vi) Intravascular membrane oxygenation. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent any licensed health care professional from performing any functions for which such health care professional is legally authorized to perform.

(6) “ Perfusion ” means the functions necessary for the support, treatment, measurement, or supplementation of the cardiovascular, circulatory, or respiratory system or other organ, or a combination of such activities, and to ensure the safe management of physiologic functions by monitoring and analyzing the parameters of the systems under the order and supervision of a physician, including, but not limited to:

(A) Extracorporeal support, including: (i) Cardiopulmonary bypass for adult, pediatric, and neonatal patients; (ii) Cardiopulmonary bypass for congenital and acquired cardiovascular disorders; (iii) Extracorporeal circulatory support for renal, neurological, hepatic, and vascular surgery; (iv) Extracorporeal resuscitation; and (v) Extracorporeal circulation for long-term support of failing respiratory or cardiac function, or both;

(A) Extracorporeal support, including:

(i) Cardiopulmonary bypass for adult, pediatric, and neonatal patients;

(i) Cardiopulmonary bypass for adult, pediatric, and neonatal patients;

(ii) Cardiopulmonary bypass for congenital and acquired cardiovascular disorders;

(ii) Cardiopulmonary bypass for congenital and acquired cardiovascular disorders;

(iii) Extracorporeal circulatory support for renal, neurological, hepatic, and vascular surgery;

(iii) Extracorporeal circulatory support for renal, neurological, hepatic, and vascular surgery;

(iv) Extracorporeal resuscitation; and

(iv) Extracorporeal resuscitation; and

(v) Extracorporeal circulation for long-term support of failing respiratory or cardiac function, or both;

(v) Extracorporeal circulation for long-term support of failing respiratory or cardiac function, or both;

(B) Associated extracorporeal support functions, including: (i) Myocardial protection; (ii) Hemofiltration and hemodialysis; (iii) Anticoagulation and hemostasis monitoring, analysis, and intervention; (iv) Thermal regulation, including hypothermia and hyperthermia; (v) Blood gas and blood chemistry monitoring, analysis, and intervention; (vi) Physiological monitoring, analysis, and intervention; and (vii) Administration of blood components, pharmaceuticals, chemotherapeutics, and anesthetic agents as directed by a licensed physician;

(B) Associated extracorporeal support functions, including:

(i) Myocardial protection;

(i) Myocardial protection;

(ii) Hemofiltration and hemodialysis;

(ii) Hemofiltration and hemodialysis;

(iii) Anticoagulation and hemostasis monitoring, analysis, and intervention;

(iii) Anticoagulation and hemostasis monitoring, analysis, and intervention;

(iv) Thermal regulation, including hypothermia and hyperthermia;

(iv) Thermal regulation, including hypothermia and hyperthermia;

(v) Blood gas and blood chemistry monitoring, analysis, and intervention;

(v) Blood gas and blood chemistry monitoring, analysis, and intervention;

(vi) Physiological monitoring, analysis, and intervention; and

(vi) Physiological monitoring, analysis, and intervention; and

(vii) Administration of blood components, pharmaceuticals, chemotherapeutics, and anesthetic agents as directed by a licensed physician;

(vii) Administration of blood components, pharmaceuticals, chemotherapeutics, and anesthetic agents as directed by a licensed physician;

(C) Heart failure therapy and support, including: (i) Ventricular assist device management; (ii) Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation; (iii) Temporary pacemaker management; (iv) External counterpulsation; (v) Transportation of patient on extracorporeal support; and (vi) Periodic flow augmentation therapy;

(C) Heart failure therapy and support, including:

(i) Ventricular assist device management;

(i) Ventricular assist device management;

(ii) Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation;

(ii) Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation;

(iii) Temporary pacemaker management;

(iii) Temporary pacemaker management;

(iv) External counterpulsation;

(iv) External counterpulsation;

(v) Transportation of patient on extracorporeal support; and

(v) Transportation of patient on extracorporeal support; and

(vi) Periodic flow augmentation therapy;

(vi) Periodic flow augmentation therapy;

(D) Blood management, including: (i) Autotransfusion; (ii) Platelet concentrate; and (iii) Nondifferentiated progenitor cell harvest; and

(D) Blood management, including:

(i) Autotransfusion;

(i) Autotransfusion;

(ii) Platelet concentrate; and

(ii) Platelet concentrate; and

(iii) Nondifferentiated progenitor cell harvest; and

(iii) Nondifferentiated progenitor cell harvest; and

(E) Other clinical functions, including: (i) Isolated limb and organ perfusion; (ii) Isolated limb and organ delivery of chemotherapeutics, progenitor cells, gene therapy vectors, and related matters; (iii) Organ preservation; (iv) Thermogenic lavage; (v) Electrophysiological analysis; and (vi) Intravascular membrane oxygenation. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent any licensed health care professional from performing any functions for which such health care professional is legally authorized to perform.

(E) Other clinical functions, including:

(i) Isolated limb and organ perfusion;

(i) Isolated limb and organ perfusion;

(ii) Isolated limb and organ delivery of chemotherapeutics, progenitor cells, gene therapy vectors, and related matters;

(ii) Isolated limb and organ delivery of chemotherapeutics, progenitor cells, gene therapy vectors, and related matters;

(iii) Organ preservation;

(iii) Organ preservation;

(iv) Thermogenic lavage;

(iv) Thermogenic lavage;

(v) Electrophysiological analysis; and

(v) Electrophysiological analysis; and

(vi) Intravascular membrane oxygenation.

(vi) Intravascular membrane oxygenation.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent any licensed health care professional from performing any functions for which such health care professional is legally authorized to perform.

(7) “ Perfusion protocols ” means perfusion related policies and protocols developed or approved by a licensed health care facility or a physician through collaboration with administrators, licensed clinical perfusionists, and other health care professionals.

(7) “ Perfusion protocols ” means perfusion related policies and protocols developed or approved by a licensed health care facility or a physician through collaboration with administrators, licensed clinical perfusionists, and other health care professionals.

(8) “ Physician ” means a person licensed to practice medicine under Article 2 of this chapter.

(8) “ Physician ” means a person licensed to practice medicine under Article 2 of this chapter.

(9) “ Provisional licensed clinical perfusionist ” means a person provisionally licensed pursuant to this article.

(9) “ Provisional licensed clinical perfusionist ” means a person provisionally licensed pursuant to this article.
O.C.G.A. § 43-43a-3 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 43A / Section 43-43a-3
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-43A-3
Status: in_force

(a) Each ski area operator shall maintain a sign system with information for the instruction of passengers and skiers. Signs must be in English and visible in conditions of ordinary visibility and, where applicable, lighted for nighttime passengers. Without limitation, the signs shall be posted: (1) At or near the loading point of each passenger tramway, regardless of the type, advising all persons that if they are not familiar with the operation of the device, they must ask the operator of the device for assistance and instructions and that they must understand such instructions before they attempt to use the passenger tramway; and (2) At or near the boarding area of each lift, setting forth the warning regarding inherent dangers and risks and duties as provided in this chapter.

(a) Each ski area operator shall maintain a sign system with information for the instruction of passengers and skiers. Signs must be in English and visible in conditions of ordinary visibility and, where applicable, lighted for nighttime passengers. Without limitation, the signs shall be posted:

(1) At or near the loading point of each passenger tramway, regardless of the type, advising all persons that if they are not familiar with the operation of the device, they must ask the operator of the device for assistance and instructions and that they must understand such instructions before they attempt to use the passenger tramway; and

(1) At or near the loading point of each passenger tramway, regardless of the type, advising all persons that if they are not familiar with the operation of the device, they must ask the operator of the device for assistance and instructions and that they must understand such instructions before they attempt to use the passenger tramway; and

(2) At or near the boarding area of each lift, setting forth the warning regarding inherent dangers and risks and duties as provided in this chapter.

(2) At or near the boarding area of each lift, setting forth the warning regarding inherent dangers and risks and duties as provided in this chapter.

(b) The ski area operator, before opening a passenger tramway to the public each day, shall inspect the passenger tramway for the presence and visibility of all required signs.

(b) The ski area operator, before opening a passenger tramway to the public each day, shall inspect the passenger tramway for the presence and visibility of all required signs.

(c) The ski area operator shall post a sign visible to skiers who are proceeding to the uphill loading point of each base area lift which shall depict and explain the following signs and symbols that a skier may encounter at the ski area: (1) A green circle and the word “easier” designating the ski area's least difficult trails and slopes; (2) A blue square and the words “more difficult” designating the ski area's trails and slopes that have a degree of difficulty that lies between the least difficult and most difficult trails and slopes; (3) A black diamond and the words “most difficult” designating the ski area's most difficult trails and slopes; (4) Two black diamonds and the words “most difficult” designating a slope or trail which meets the description of “most difficult” but which is particularly challenging; and (5) Crossed poles or other images clearly indicating that a trail or slope is closed and may not be used by skiers.

(c) The ski area operator shall post a sign visible to skiers who are proceeding to the uphill loading point of each base area lift which shall depict and explain the following signs and symbols that a skier may encounter at the ski area:

(1) A green circle and the word “easier” designating the ski area's least difficult trails and slopes;

(1) A green circle and the word “easier” designating the ski area's least difficult trails and slopes;

(2) A blue square and the words “more difficult” designating the ski area's trails and slopes that have a degree of difficulty that lies between the least difficult and most difficult trails and slopes;

(2) A blue square and the words “more difficult” designating the ski area's trails and slopes that have a degree of difficulty that lies between the least difficult and most difficult trails and slopes;

(3) A black diamond and the words “most difficult” designating the ski area's most difficult trails and slopes;

(3) A black diamond and the words “most difficult” designating the ski area's most difficult trails and slopes;

(4) Two black diamonds and the words “most difficult” designating a slope or trail which meets the description of “most difficult” but which is particularly challenging; and

(4) Two black diamonds and the words “most difficult” designating a slope or trail which meets the description of “most difficult” but which is particularly challenging; and

(5) Crossed poles or other images clearly indicating that a trail or slope is closed and may not be used by skiers.

(5) Crossed poles or other images clearly indicating that a trail or slope is closed and may not be used by skiers.

(d) If applicable, a warning sign shall be placed at or near the loading point of a passenger tramway indicating that it provides access to only “most difficult” or “more difficult” slopes or trails.

(d) If applicable, a warning sign shall be placed at or near the loading point of a passenger tramway indicating that it provides access to only “most difficult” or “more difficult” slopes or trails.

(e) The ski area operator shall place a sign at or near the beginning of each trail or slope indicating the relative degree of difficulty of that particular trail or slope.

(e) The ski area operator shall place a sign at or near the beginning of each trail or slope indicating the relative degree of difficulty of that particular trail or slope.
O.C.G.A. § 43-44-6 — GA Code / Title 43 / Chapter 44 / Section 43-44-6
Georgia Code Title 43. Professions and Businesses § 43-44-6
Status: in_force

(a) The board shall: (1) Have the responsibility and duty of administering and enforcing this article and shall assist the division director in carrying out this article; (2) Have the power to establish and to revise the requirements for obtaining licensure or the renewal of licensure; (3) Make all rules, not inconsistent with this article, that are reasonably necessary for the conduct of its duties and proceedings; (4) Adopt rules and regulations relating to professional conduct commensurate with the policy of this article, including, but not limited to, regulations which establish ethical standards of practice and for other purposes. Following their adoption, such rules and regulations consistent with this article shall govern and control the professional conduct of every person who holds a license to practice under this article; (5) Conduct hearings and keep records and minutes as are necessary to the orderly dispatch of its functions; (6) Adopt a common seal; (7) Register and otherwise regulate qualified speech-language pathology aides and audiology assistants. The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any student, intern, or trainee performing speech-language pathology or audiology services while completing the supervised clinical experience; (8) Issue provisional licenses to speech-language pathologists during the paid clinical experience; (9) Issue, renew, and reinstate licenses; (10) Deny, suspend, revoke, or otherwise sanction licenses; (11) Accept results of qualifying examinations, administer examinations, or contract with qualified testing services to conduct or supervise examinations; (12) Establish fees; (13) Establish requirements for continuing professional education of persons subject to this article by appropriate regulation; (14) Conduct national background checks by the submission of fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation through the Georgia Crime Information Center; provided, however, that reports from such background check records shall not be shared with entities outside of this state; and (15) Administer the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact contained in Article 2 of this chapter.

(a) The board shall:

(1) Have the responsibility and duty of administering and enforcing this article and shall assist the division director in carrying out this article;

(1) Have the responsibility and duty of administering and enforcing this article and shall assist the division director in carrying out this article;

(2) Have the power to establish and to revise the requirements for obtaining licensure or the renewal of licensure;

(2) Have the power to establish and to revise the requirements for obtaining licensure or the renewal of licensure;

(3) Make all rules, not inconsistent with this article, that are reasonably necessary for the conduct of its duties and proceedings;

(3) Make all rules, not inconsistent with this article, that are reasonably necessary for the conduct of its duties and proceedings;

(4) Adopt rules and regulations relating to professional conduct commensurate with the policy of this article, including, but not limited to, regulations which establish ethical standards of practice and for other purposes. Following their adoption, such rules and regulations consistent with this article shall govern and control the professional conduct of every person who holds a license to practice under this article;

(4) Adopt rules and regulations relating to professional conduct commensurate with the policy of this article, including, but not limited to, regulations which establish ethical standards of practice and for other purposes. Following their adoption, such rules and regulations consistent with this article shall govern and control the professional conduct of every person who holds a license to practice under this article;

(5) Conduct hearings and keep records and minutes as are necessary to the orderly dispatch of its functions;

(5) Conduct hearings and keep records and minutes as are necessary to the orderly dispatch of its functions;

(6) Adopt a common seal;

(6) Adopt a common seal;

(7) Register and otherwise regulate qualified speech-language pathology aides and audiology assistants. The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any student, intern, or trainee performing speech-language pathology or audiology services while completing the supervised clinical experience;

(7) Register and otherwise regulate qualified speech-language pathology aides and audiology assistants. The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any student, intern, or trainee performing speech-language pathology or audiology services while completing the supervised clinical experience;

(8) Issue provisional licenses to speech-language pathologists during the paid clinical experience;

(8) Issue provisional licenses to speech-language pathologists during the paid clinical experience;

(9) Issue, renew, and reinstate licenses;

(9) Issue, renew, and reinstate licenses;

(10) Deny, suspend, revoke, or otherwise sanction licenses;

(10) Deny, suspend, revoke, or otherwise sanction licenses;

(11) Accept results of qualifying examinations, administer examinations, or contract with qualified testing services to conduct or supervise examinations;

(11) Accept results of qualifying examinations, administer examinations, or contract with qualified testing services to conduct or supervise examinations;

(12) Establish fees;

(12) Establish fees;

(13) Establish requirements for continuing professional education of persons subject to this article by appropriate regulation;

(13) Establish requirements for continuing professional education of persons subject to this article by appropriate regulation;

(14) Conduct national background checks by the submission of fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation through the Georgia Crime Information Center; provided, however, that reports from such background check records shall not be shared with entities outside of this state; and

(14) Conduct national background checks by the submission of fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation through the Georgia Crime Information Center; provided, however, that reports from such background check records shall not be shared with entities outside of this state; and

(15) Administer the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact contained in Article 2 of this chapter.

(15) Administer the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact contained in Article 2 of this chapter.

(b) The division director shall be guided by the recommendations of the board in all matters relating to this article.

(b) The division director shall be guided by the recommendations of the board in all matters relating to this article.