D.C. Code § 7-581 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5A / § 7-581
§ 7-581. Interstate Physical Therapy Compact.
Status: in_force

The Mayor is authorized to enter into and execute on behalf of the District the Interstate Physical Therapy Licensure Compact with any state or states legally joining therein, in the form substantially as follows:
Sec. 2. PREAMBLE
  (a) To establish the Interstate Physical Therapy Licensure Compact to facilitate interstate practice of physical therapy with the goal of improving public access to physical therapy services. The practice of physical therapy occurs in the state where the patient and client is located at the time of the patient and client encounter. The Compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure.
  (b) This Compact is designed to achieve the following objectives:
    (1) Increase public access to physical therapy services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses;
    (2) Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety;
    (3) Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multi-state physical therapy practice;
    (4) Support spouses of relocating military members;
    (5) Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative, and disciplinary information between member states; and
    (6) Allow a remote state to hold a provider of services with a compact privilege in that state accountable to that state's practice standards.
Sec. 3. Definitions. (a) For the purposes of [this compact], the term:
    (1) "Active-duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. §§ 1209 and 1211.
    (2) "Adverse action" means disciplinary action taken by a physical therapy licensing board based upon misconduct, unacceptable performance, or a combination of both.
    (3) "Alternative program" means a non-disciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process approved by a physical therapy licensing board, including substance abuse issues.
    (4) "Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as a physical therapist or work as a physical therapist assistant in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of physical therapy occurs in the member state where the patient and client is located at the time of the patient and client encounter.
    (5) "Continuing competence" means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
    (6) "Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege, and adverse action.
    (7) "Encumbered license" means a license that a physical therapy licensing board has limited in any way.
    (8) "Executive Board" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission.
    (9) "Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.
    (10) "Investigative information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a physical therapy licensing board pursuant to an investigation.
    (11) "Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of physical therapy in a state.
    (12) "Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as a physical therapist or to work as a physical therapist assistant.
    (13) "Member state" means a state that has enacted the Compact.
    (14) "Party state" means any member state in which a licensee holds a current license or compact privilege or is applying for a license or compact privilege
    (15) "Physical therapist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice physical therapy.
    (16) "Physical therapist assistant" means an individual who is licensed or certified by a state and who assists the physical therapist in selected components of physical therapy.
    (17) "Physical therapy," "physical therapy practice," or "the practice of physical therapy" mean the care and services provided by or under the direction and supervision of a licensed physical therapist.
    (18) "Physical Therapy Compact Commission" or "Commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the Compact.
    (19) "Physical therapy licensing board" or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants.
    (20) "Remote state" means a member state other than the home state, where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.
    (21) "Rule" means a regulation, principle, or directive promulgated by the Commission that has the force of law.
    (22) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of physical therapy, including the District of Columbia.
Sec. 4. Participation in the Compact. (a) To participate in the Compact, a state must:
    (1) Participate fully in the Commission's data system, including using the Commission's unique identifier, as defined in rules;
    (2) Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees;
    (3) Notify the Commission, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;
    (4) Fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and use the results in making licensure decisions in accordance with subsection (b) of this section;
    (5) Comply with the rules of the Commission;
    (6) Utilize a recognized national examination as a requirement for licensure pursuant to the rules of the Commission; and
    (7) Have continuing competence requirements as a condition for license renewal.
  (b) Upon adoption of [this compact], the member state shall have the authority to obtain biometric-based information from each physical therapy licensure applicant and submit this information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a criminal background check in accordance with 28 U.S.C. §534 and §217 of the National Criminal History Access and Child Protection Act, approved October 9, 1998 (112 Stat. 1876; 34 U.S.C. § 40316).
  (c) A member state shall grant the compact privilege to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the Compact and rules.
  (d) Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.
Sec. 5. Compact privilege. (a) To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the Compact, the licensee shall:
    (1) Hold a license in the home state;
    (2) Have no encumbrance on any state license;
    (3) Be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with subsections (d), (g), and (h) of this section;
    (4) Have not had any adverse action against any license or compact privilege within the previous 2 years;
    (5) Notify the Commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state;
    (6) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege;
    (7) Meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege; and
    (8) Report to the Commission adverse action taken by any non-member state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken.
  (b) The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of subsection (a) of this section to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.
  (c) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.
  (d) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee is not eligible for a compact privilege in any state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.
  (e) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until:
    (1) The state license is no longer encumbered; and
    (2) Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.
  (f) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of subsection (a) of this section to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.
  (g) If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed, the individual shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until:
    (1) The specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended;
    (2) All fines have been paid; and
    (3) Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.
  (h) Once the requirements of subsection (g) of this section have been met, the license must meet the requirement in subsection (a) of this section to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.
Section 6. Active-duty military personnel or their spouses. (a) A licensee who is active-duty military or is the spouse of an individual who is active-duty military may designate one of the following as the home state:
    (1) Home of record;
    (2) Permanent Change of Station ("PCS"); or
    (3) State of current residence if it is different than the PCS state or home of record.
Sec. 7. Adverse actions. (a) A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against a license issued by the home state.
  (b) A home state may take adverse action based on the investigative information of a remote state so long as the home state follows its own procedures for imposing adverse action.
  (c) Nothing in [this compact] shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the member state's laws. Member states must require licensees who enter any alternative programs in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice in any other member state during the term of the alternative program without prior authorization from such other member state.
  (d) Any member state may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and rules authorizing the practice of physical therapy in any other member state in which a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant holds a license or compact privilege.
  (e) A remote state shall have the authority to:
    (1) Take adverse actions as set forth in section 5(d) against a licensee's compact privilege in the state;
    (2) Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a physical therapy licensing board in a party state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another party state, shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
    (3) If otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee.
  (f) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective physical therapy practice act or other applicable state law, a member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.
  (g) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact.
Sec. 8. Establishment of the Physical Therapy Compact Commission. (a) (1) The Compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Physical Therapy Compact Commission, which shall function as a joint agency of the member states.
    (2) The Commission shall be an instrumentality of the Compact states.
    (3) Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.
    (4) Nothing in [this compact] shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
  (b) Each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected
  by that member state's licensing board.
  (c) The delegate shall be a current member of the licensing board and who is a physical therapist, physical therapist assistant, public member, or the board administrator.
  (d) Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by
  the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.
  (e) The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the Commission.
  (f) (1) Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to rulemaking and the creation of bylaws, pursuant to subsection (g)(2) of this section, and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission.
    (2) A delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws established pursuant to subsection (g)(2) of this section. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.
    (3) The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws established pursuant to subsection (g)(2) of this section.
  (g) The Commission shall have the following powers and duties, to;
    (1) Establish the fiscal year of the Commission;
    (2) Establish bylaws;
    (3) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
    (4) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of the Compact and the bylaws;
    (5) Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact; which rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;
    (6) Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission; provided, that the standing of any state physical therapy licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
    (7) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
    (8) Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including employees of a member state;
    (9) Hire employees, elect, or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, and grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
    (10) Accept all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
    (11) Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to
    own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal, or mixed; provided, that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;
    (12) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise
    dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
    (13) Establish a budget and make expenditures;
    (14) Borrow money;
    (15) Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in [this compact] or the bylaws;
    (16) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
    (17) Establish and elect an Executive Board; and
    (18) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of physical therapy licensure and practice.
Sec. 9. The Executive Board. (a) The Executive Board shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact.
  (b) (1) The Executive Board shall be composed of 9 members, including:
      (A) Seven voting members who are elected by the Commission from the current membership of the Commission;
      (B) One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized national physical therapy professional association; and
      (C) One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization of the physical therapy licensing boards.
    (2) The ex-officio members will be selected by their respective organizations.
  (c) The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in the Commission's bylaws.
  (d) The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.
  (e) The Executive Board shall have the following duties and responsibilities, to:
    (1) Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact, fees paid by Compact member states, such as annual dues, and any Commission Compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;
    (2) Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
    (3) Prepare and recommend the budget;
    (4) Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission;
    (5) Monitor Compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission;
    (6) Establish additional committees as necessary; and
    (7) Perform other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
Sec. 10. Meetings of the Commission. (a) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in section 14.
  (b) The Commission or the Executive Board or other committees of the Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the Commission or Executive Board or other committees of the Commission must discuss:
    (1) Non-compliance of a member state with its obligation under the Compact;
    (2) The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practice and procedures;
    (3) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
    (4) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
    (5) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
    (6) Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
    (7) Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
    (8) Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
    (9) Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; or
    (10) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.
  (c) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.
  (d) The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in the minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
Sec. 11. Financing of the Commission. (a) The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
  (b) The Commission may accept from all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
  (c) The Commission may levy on, and collect an annual assessment from, each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.
  (d) The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.
  (e) The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.
Sec. 12. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification. (a) The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this subsection shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
  (b) The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged, act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of  Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
  (c) The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
Sec. 13. Data system. (a) The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, and utilization
  of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action, and
  investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states.
  (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a member state
  shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the rules of the Commission, including:
    (1) Identifying information;
    (2) Licensure data;
    (3) Adverse actions against a license or compact privilege;
    (4) Non-confidential information related to alternative program participation;
    (5) Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason for such denial; and
    (6) Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the rules of the Commission.
  (c) Investigative information pertaining to a licensee in any member state will only be available to other party states.
  (d) The Commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to licensee in any member state will be available to any other member state.
  (e) Member states contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state.
  (f) Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system.
Sec. 14. Rulemaking. (a) The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.
  (b) If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact within 4 years of the date of adoption of the rule, then such rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state.
  (c) Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.
  (d) Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least 30 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:
    (1) On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform; and
    (2) On the website of each member state physical therapy licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.
  (e) The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:
    (1) The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;
    (2) The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;
    (3) A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and
    (4) The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing or submit written comments.
  (f) Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.
  (g) The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:
    (1) At least 25 persons;
    (2) A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or
    (3) An association having at least 25 members.
  (h) (1) If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the hearing is held via electronic means, the Commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing.
    (2) All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing no fewer than 5 business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.
    (3) Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.
    (4) All hearings will be recorded. A copy of the recording will be made available on request.
    (5) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section.
  (i) Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.
  (j) If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.
  (k) The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.
  (l) Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing; provided, that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than 90 days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately to:
    (1) Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;
    (2) Prevent a loss of Commission or member state funds;
    (3) Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or
    (4) Protect public health and safety.
  (m) The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of 30 days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.
Sec. 15. Oversight, dispute resolution, and enforcement. (a) The executive, legislative, and judicial branches of state government in each member state shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of this Compact and the rules promulgated hereunder shall have standing as statutory law.
  (b) All courts shall take judicial notice of the Compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a member state pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact, which may affect the powers, responsibilities, or actions of the Commission.
  (c) The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the Commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or rules promulgated pursuant to the Compact.
  (d) If the Commission determines that a member state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated rules, the Commission shall:
    (1) Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other member states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default, and any other action to be taken by the Commission; and
    (2) Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.
  (e) If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the member states, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.
  (f) Termination of membership in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the Mayor, the Council, and each of the member states.
  (g) A state that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.
  (h) The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting state.
  (i) The defaulting state may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
  (j) Upon request by a member state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among member states and between member and non-member states.
  (k) The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.
  (l) The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact.
  (m) By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
  (n) The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.
Sec. 16. Date of implementation of the Interstate Commission for Physical Therapy Practice and associated rules, withdrawal, and amendment. (a) The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is
  enacted into law in the 10th member state. The provisions, which become effective at that time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the
  promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers
  necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact.
  (b) Any state that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state.
  (c) Any member state may withdraw from the Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.
  (d) A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until 6 months after enactment of the repealing statute.
  (e) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's physical therapy licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.
  (f) Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any physical therapy licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.
  (g) This Compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.
Sec. 17. Construction and severability. (a) This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this Compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any party state, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining party states and in full force and effect as to the party state affected as to all severable matters.
D.C. Code § 7-2507.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2507.02
§ 7-2507.02. Responsibilities regarding storage of firearms.
Status: in_force

(a) It shall be the policy of the District of Columbia that each registrant should keep any firearm in his or her possession unloaded and either disassembled or secured by a trigger lock, gun safe, locked box, or other secure device.
(b) No person shall store or keep any firearm on any premises under his control if he knows or reasonably should know that a minor is likely to gain access to the firearm without the permission of the parent or guardian of the minor unless such person:
  (1) Keeps the firearm in a securely locked box, secured container, or in a location which a reasonable person would believe to be secure; or
  (2) Carries the firearm on his person or within such close proximity that he can readily retrieve and use it as if he carried it on his person.
(c) (1) A person who violates subsection (b) of this section is guilty of criminally negligent storage of a firearm and, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, shall be fined not more than $1,000, imprisoned not more than 180 days, or both.
  (2) A person who violates subsection (b) of this section and the minor causes injury or death to himself or another shall be fined not more than $5,000, imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.
  (3) The provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection shall not apply if the minor obtains the firearm as a result of an unlawful entry or burglary to any premises by any person.
(c-1) The provisions of § 7-2507.06 shall not apply to this section.
(d) For the purposes of this section, the term “minor” shall mean a person under the age of 18 years.
D.C. Code § 7-2502.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2502.03
§ 7-2502.03. Qualifications for registration; information required for registration.
Status: in_force

(a) No registration certificate shall be issued to any person (and in the case of a person between the ages of 18 and 21, to the person and the person's signatory parent or guardian) or organization unless the Chief determines that such person (or the president or chief executive in the case of an organization):
  (1) Is 21 years of age or older; provided, that the Chief may issue to an applicant between the ages of 18 and 21 years old, and who is otherwise qualified, a registration certificate if the application is accompanied by a notarized statement of the applicant’s parent or guardian:
    (A) That the applicant has the permission of the applicant's parent or guardian to own and use the firearm to be registered; and
    (B) The parent or guardian assumes civil liability for all damages resulting from the actions of such applicant in the use of the firearm to be registered; provided further, that such registration certificate shall expire on such person’s 21st birthday;
  (2) Has not been convicted of a weapons offense (but not an infraction or misdemeanor violation under § 7-2502.08 , § 7-2507.02 , § 7-2507.06 , or § 7-2508.07 ) or a felony in this or any other jurisdiction (including a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year);
  (3) Is not under indictment for a crime of violence or a weapons offense;
  (4) Has not been convicted within 5 years prior to the application of any:
    (A) Violation in any jurisdiction of any law restricting the use, possession, or sale of any narcotic or dangerous drug;
    (B) A violation of D.C. Official Code § 22-404 , regarding assaults and threats, or D.C. Official Code § 22-407 , regarding threats to do bodily harm, or a violation of any similar provision of the law of another jurisdiction;
    (C) Two or more violations of D.C. Official Code § 50-2201.05(b) , or, in this or any other jurisdiction, any law restricting driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs;
    (D) Intrafamily offense punishable as a misdemeanor, including any similar provision in the law of another jurisdiction;
    (E) Misdemeanor violation pursuant to § 7-2507.02 or § 7-2507.06 ;
    (F) Violation of § 22-3133 ; or
    (G) Violation of an extreme risk protection order pursuant to § 7-2510.11 ;
  (5) Within the 5-year period immediately preceding the application, has not been acquitted of any criminal charge by reason of insanity or has not been adjudicated a chronic alcoholic by any court; provided, that this paragraph shall not apply if such person shall present to the Chief, with the application, a medical certification indicating that the applicant has recovered from such insanity or alcoholic condition and is capable of safe and responsible possession of a firearm;
  (6) (A) Within the 5-year period immediately preceding the application, has not been:
      (1) Voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility;
      (2) Involuntarily committed to a mental health facility by the Superior Court of the District of Columbia, another court of competent jurisdiction, the Commission on Mental Health, or a similar commission in another jurisdiction;
      (3) Determined by the Superior Court of the District of Columbia or another court of competent jurisdiction to be an incapacitated individual, as that term is defined in § 21-2011(11) ;
      (4) Adjudicated as a mental defective, as that term is defined in 27 C.F.R. § 478.11; or
      (5) Committed to a mental institution, as that term is defined in 27 C.F.R. § 478.11;
    (B) Subparagraph (A) of this paragraph shall not apply if:
      (i) For applicants disqualified as a result of a voluntary admission, commitment, incapacity determination, or adjudication that occurred in the District, the Superior Court of the District of Columbia has granted the applicant relief pursuant to subsection (f) of this section, unless the applicant, since the court granted the applicant relief pursuant to subsection (f) of this section, is again disqualified under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph; and
      (ii) For applicants disqualified as a result of a voluntary admission, commitment, incapacity determination, or adjudication that occurred in another jurisdiction, the court or commission of competent jurisdiction has granted the applicant relief, unless the applicant, since the court or commission granted the applicant relief, is again disqualified under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.
  (6A) Within the 5 years immediately preceding the application, has not had a history of violent behavior.
  (7) Does not appear to suffer from a physical defect which would tend to indicate that the applicant would not be able to possess and use a firearm safely and responsibly;
  (8) Has not been adjudicated negligent in a firearm mishap causing death or serious injury to another human being;
  (9) Is not otherwise ineligible to possess a firearm under § 22-4503 ;
  (10) Has not failed to demonstrate satisfactorily, in accordance with a test prescribed by the Chief, a knowledge of the laws of the District of Columbia pertaining to firearms and, in particular, the requirements of this unit, the responsibilities regarding storage, and the requirements for transport; provided, that once this determination is made with respect to a given applicant for a particular firearm, it need not be made again for the same applicant with respect to a subsequent application for a firearm or for the renewal of a registration certificate pursuant to § 7-2502.07a ;
  (11) Is not blind, as defined in D.C. Official Code § 7-1009(1) ;
  (12) (A) Has not been the respondent in an intrafamily proceeding in which a civil protection order was issued against the applicant pursuant to § 16-1005 ; provided, that an applicant who has been the subject of such an order shall be eligible for registration if the applicant has submitted to the Chief a certified court record establishing that the order has expired or has been rescinded for a period of 5 years or more; or
    (B) Has not been the respondent in a proceeding in which a foreign protection order, as that term is defined in § 16-1041 , was issued against the applicant; provided, that an applicant who has been the subject of such an order shall be eligible for registration if the applicant has submitted to the Chief a certified court record establishing that the order has expired or has been rescinded for a period of 5 years;
  (13) (A) Has completed a firearms training and safety class provided free of charge by the Chief; or
    (B) Has submitted evidence of any of the following:
      (i) That the applicant has received firearms training in the United States military;
      (ii) A license from another state for which firearms training is required, where the training, as determined by the Chief, is equal to or greater than that provided under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph; or
      (iii) That the applicant has otherwise completed a firearms training or safety course conducted by a firearms instructor that, as determined by the Chief, is equal to or greater than that conducted under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph;
  (14) Has not been prohibited from possessing or registering a firearm pursuant to § 7-2502.08 ; and
  (15) Is not the subject of an ex parte extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to § 7-2510.04 or a final extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to § 7-2510.03 or renewed pursuant to § 7-2510.06 .
(b) Every person applying for a registration certificate shall provide on a form prescribed by the Chief:
  (1) The full name or any other name by which the applicant is known;
  (2) The present address and each home address where the applicant has resided during the 5-year period immediately preceding the application;
  (3) The present business or occupation of the applicant and the address and phone number of the employer;
  (4) The date and place of birth of the applicant;
  (5) The sex of the applicant;
  (6) Whether (and if so, the reasons) the District, the United States or the government of any state or subdivision of any state has denied or revoked the applicant’s license, registration certificate, or permit pertaining to any firearm;
  (7) A description of the applicant’s role in any mishap involving a firearm, including the date, place, time, circumstances, and the names of the persons injured or killed;
  (8) Repealed.
  (9) The caliber, make, model, manufacturer’s identification number, serial number, and any other identifying marks on the firearm;
  (10) For a firearm that is not self-manufactured pursuant to § 7-2502.02 , the name and address of the person or organization from whom the firearm was obtained, and in the case of a dealer, his dealer’s license number;
  (11) Where the firearm will generally be kept;
  (12) Whether the applicant has applied for other registration certificates issued and outstanding;
  (13) Such other information as the Chief determines is necessary to carry out the provisions of this unit.
(c) Every organization applying for a registration certificate shall:
  (1) With respect to the president or chief executive of such organization, comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of this section; and
  (2) Provide such other information as the Chief determines is necessary to carry out the provisions of this unit.
(d) Repealed.
(e) The Chief shall register no more than one pistol per registrant during any 30-day period; provided, that the Chief may permit a person first becoming a District resident to register more than one pistol if those pistols were lawfully owned in another jurisdiction for a period of 6 months prior to the date of the application.
(f) (1) A person disqualified under subsection (a)(6)(A) of this section, 18 U.S.C. § 922(d)(4), or 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(4) as a result of a commitment or adjudication that occurred in the District, may petition the Superior Court for the District of Columbia for relief from disqualification.
  (2) A petition filed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection shall:
    (A) Be in writing;
    (B) State the reason the petitioner was disqualified;
    (C) State facts in support of the petitioner's claim that the petitioner should no longer be disqualified;
    (D) Include a statement, on a form approved by the court, signed by a licensed physician, psychiatrist, or qualified psychologist within the 30-day period immediately preceding the filing of the petition for relief, stating:
      (i) The symptoms or behaviors for which the petitioner has been disqualified;
      (ii) The length of time that the petitioner has no longer experienced those symptoms or behaviors;
      (iii) The length of time that the petitioner has been compliant with any applicable treatment plans related to the reason the petitioner was disqualified; and
      (iv) That, in the physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist's opinion, the petitioner would not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety if allowed to register a firearm;
    (E) Be accompanied by any appropriate exhibits, affidavits, or supporting documents, including records of any guardianship, conservatorship, or commitment proceeding related to the petitioner's disqualification;
    (F) Include 2 statements from individuals who are not related to the petitioner by blood, adoption, guardianship, marriage, domestic partnership, having a child in common, cohabitating, or maintaining a romantic, dating, or sexual relationship and have known the petitioner for at least 3 years. The individuals' statements shall:
      (i) Be on a form approved by the court, and signed by the individual within the 30-day period immediately preceding the filing of the petition for relief;
      (ii) Describe the petitioner's reputation and character; and
      (iii) State that, in the individual's opinion, the petitioner would not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety if allowed to register a firearm; and
    (G) Be served upon the Office of the Attorney General.
  (3) (A) (i) Upon receipt of a petition filed under paragraph (1) of this subsection, and for good cause shown, the court shall issue such orders as may be necessary to obtain any mental health records and other information relevant for the purposes of the petition. The order shall require the disclosure of records to the Office of the Attorney General so that the Office of the Attorney General can conduct a search of the petitioner's mental health records and report its findings to the court as required by subparagraph (B) of this paragraph.
      (ii) The court shall order the Office of the Attorney General to file a response to the petition. Within 60 days after the court's order for a response, the Office of the Attorney General shall file a response indicating whether the Office of the Attorney General supports or opposes the petition.
      (iii) The court may, for good cause shown, extend in 30-day increments the date by which the Office of Attorney General must file its response under sub-subparagraph (ii) of this subparagraph.
    (B) The Office of Attorney General shall:
      (i) Conduct a reasonable search of all available records of the petitioner's mental health;
      (ii) Perform a national criminal history and firearms eligibility background check on the petitioner; and
      (iii) Include its findings under this subparagraph in its response to the court.
    (C) The Metropolitan Police Department shall, upon request, provide to the Office of Attorney General any records related to the petitioner it has in its possession or could obtain after conducting a reasonable search.
  (4) (A) The court shall hold a hearing on a petition filed under paragraph (1) of this subsection within 60 days after the date on which the Office of Attorney General files its response.
    (B) In determining whether to grant a petition filed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the court shall consider all relevant evidence, including:
      (i) The reason the petitioner was disqualified;
      (ii) The petitioner's mental health and criminal history records; and
      (iii) Evidence of the petitioner's reputation.
  (5) The court shall grant a petition filed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection if the petitioner establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that:
    (A) The petitioner would not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety; and
    (B) Granting the relief would not be contrary to the public interest.
  (6) If the court grants a petition for relief pursuant to paragraph (5) of this subsection, the court shall issue an order that:
    (A) States the petitioner is no longer disqualified under subsection (a)(6)(A) of this section;
    (B) Orders the Clerk of the Court to submit a copy of the order to the Metropolitan Police Department, the Office of the Attorney General, and any other relevant law enforcement, pretrial, corrections, or community supervision agency; and
    (C) Requires that the petitioner's record be updated in the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and any other system used to determine firearm registration eligibility to reflect that the petitioner is no longer disqualified.
  (7) If the court denies a petition for relief, the court shall state the reasons for its denial in writing.
  (8) An order granting or denying a petition filed under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be a final order for the purposes of appeal.
D.C. Code § 7-1305.07 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 13 / § 7-1305.07
§ 7-1305.07. Essential surgery in medical emergency.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-2381.05 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 23D / § 7-2381.05
§ 7-2381.05. Storing and maintaining epinephrine.
Status: in_force

(a) An authorized entity may acquire and maintain epinephrine auto-injectors obtained in accordance with § 7-2381.02 . Once acquired, the epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained:
  (1) In a location readily accessible in an emergency situation;
  (2) In accordance with the manufacturer's instructions for storage; and
  (3) In accordance with any additional requirements that may be established by the Department.
(b) An authorized entity shall designate employees or agents who have completed the training described in § 7-2381.04 to be responsible for the storage and maintenance of epinephrine auto-injectors acquired by the authorized entity.
D.C. Code § 7-2902 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 29 / § 7-2902
§ 7-2902. Qualifications; membership; terms of office.
Status: in_force

(a) The Commission shall consist of 11 members as follows:
  (1) There shall be 3 ex-officio voting members as follows:
    (A) The Mayor of the District of Columbia (“Mayor”);
    (B) The Chairman of the Council of the District of Columbia (“Council”); and
    (C) The Chairman of the Council’s Committee on Human Services.
  (2) There shall be 5 members appointed by the Mayor and 3 members appointed by the Council by resolution.
    (A) Appointed members of the Commission shall be persons with proven expertise in health care delivery, finance, insurance, public health, integrated health care delivery systems, or strategic planning.
    (B) Appointed members of the Commission shall be residents of the District.
(b) A vacancy on the Commission shall be filled in the same manner that the original appointment was made.
(c) The Commission shall select a chair from among its ex-officio members.
(d) Six members of the Commission shall constitute a quorum.
(e) The term of members shall end 180 days after October 20, 1999.
D.C. Code § 7-2039 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 20 / § 7-2039
§ 7-2039. Denial of a license.
Status: in_force

The Mayor may, subject to the right to a hearing, deny an initial or renewal license to an applicant who fails to establish that the applicant meets the requirements for licensure established by this subchapter and rules issued pursuant to this subchapter.
D.C. Code § 7-1651.01 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 16A / § 7-1651.01
§ 7-1651.01. Definitions.
Status: in_force

For the purposes of this chapter, the term:
(1) “CDC” means the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
(2) “HPV” means the human papillomavirus.
D.C. Code § 7-3201 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 32 / § 7-3201
§ 7-3201. Definitions.
Status: in_force

For the purposes of this subchapter , the term:
(a) (1) "DBH" means the Department of Behavioral Health.
  (2) "DHCF" means the Department of Health Care Finance.
  (3) "DISB" means the Department of Insurance, Securities, and Banking.
  (4) "DOC" means the Department of Corrections.
  (5) "DOH" means the Department of Health.
  (6) "Health care provider" means a physician, advance practice registered nurse, clinic, hospital, DBH-certified provider organizations, or neighborhood health center, licensed by the District.
  (7) "Health insurer" means any person that provides one or more health benefit plans or insurance in the District, including an insurer, a hospital and medical services corporation, a fraternal benefit society, a health maintenance organization, a multiple employer welfare arrangement, or any other person providing a plan of health insurance subject to the authority of the Commissioner of DISB.
  (8) "Hospital" means a facility that provides 24-hour inpatient care, including diagnostic, therapeutic, and other health-related services, for a variety of physical or mental conditions, and may, in addition, provide outpatient services, particularly emergency care.
  (9) "In-network health care provider" means the health care providers or health care facilities that have contracted with a health insurer to provide services to plan members for negotiated rates.
  (9A) Repealed.
  (9B) Repealed.
  (9C) Repealed.
  (10) "Opioid use disorder" means a pattern of opioid use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, as manifested by symptoms identified in the most recent publication of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.
  (11) "Opioid use disorder treatment medication" means all medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of opioid use disorders.
  (12) "Prescriber" means a person who is licensed, registered, or otherwise authorized by the District to prescribe and administer prescription drugs in the course of a professional practice.
  (13) "Telehealth" means the delivery of healthcare services through interactive audio, video, or other electronic media used for the purpose of diagnosis, consultation, or treatment; provided, that services delivered through audio-only telephones, electronic mail messages, or facsimile transmissions are not included.
D.C. Code § 7-734 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7A / § 7-734
§ 7-734. Public Health Laboratory fees.
Status: in_force

The Mayor is authorized to establish a schedule of fees for forms and for performing laboratory analysis of biological and environmental samples obtained from humans, animals, or various environmental media for the purpose of identifying environmental contaminants and performing epidemiological surveillance, including for cases of lead poisoning, tuberculosis, rabies, and sexually transmitted diseases. The schedule of fees may account for the provision of bulk services and may distinguish between services provided to individuals and organizations. The schedule of fees may be developed on a sliding scale based on a person’s or organization’s ability to pay for laboratory analysis, or may be waived in cases of extreme need.
D.C. Code § 7-2271.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 22 / § 7-2271.04
§ 7-2271.04. Confidentiality of proceedings.
Status: in_force

(a) Commission proceedings shall be closed to the public and shall not be subject to § 1-207.42 when the Committee is discussing specific public and private vulnerability assessments or where the information discussed would:
  (1) Reveal a trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information; or
  (2) Be detrimental to public safety.
(b) (1) Persons other than Commission members who attend any Commission meeting which, pursuant to this section, is not open to the public, shall not disclose what occurred at the meeting to anyone who was not in attendance, except insofar as disclosure is necessary for that person to comply with a request for information from the Commission.
  (2) Commission members who attend meetings not open to the public shall not disclose what occurred with anyone who was not in attendance (except other Commission members), except insofar as disclosure is necessary to carry out the duties of the Commission.
  (3) Any party who discloses information pursuant to this subsection shall take all reasonable steps to ensure that the information disclosed, and the person to whom the information is disclosed, are as limited as possible.
(c) Members of the Commission, persons attending a Commission meeting, and persons who present information to the Commission may not be required to disclose, in any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding, information presented at or opinions formed as a result of a Commission meeting.
D.C. Code § 7-1131.15 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 11B / § 7-1131.15
§ 7-1131.15. Approval of Medicaid State Plan Amendment.
Status: in_force

(a) The Department shall have authority to request the Medical Assistance Administration to seek the approval of the federal Health Care Financing Administration for the amendment to the District of Columbia Medicaid State Plan to add Medicaid rehabilitation services, which was submitted to the Health Care Financing Administration on September 30, 2000.
(b) The Department shall have the authority to request that the Medical Assistance Administration (“MAA”) seek the approval of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for an amendment to the Medicaid State Plan that will provide for a per diem reimbursement for inpatient psychiatric treatment for cases where the authorized length of stay exceeds 7 days and the Diagnostic Related Group reimbursement does not exceed the per diem reimbursement schedule for Medicaid-eligible involuntary, emergency psychiatric admissions. The MAA shall submit the amendment to the Medicaid State Plan to the Council for approval by resolution within 30 days of receipt of approval of the amendment from the federal government.
D.C. Code § 7-2831 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 28 / § 7-2831
§ 7-2831. Private Security Camera System Incentive Program.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) There is established a Private Security Camera System Incentive Program ("Program"), to be administered by the Mayor, to encourage the purchase and installation of the following:
    (A) A security camera system on the exterior of a building owned or leased by an individual, business, nonprofit, religious institution, or an entity as that term is defined in § 29-101.02(10) ;
    (B) A security camera system on the interior of a building owned or leased by a business that has less than $2.5 million federal gross receipts or sales; and
    (C) Glass break sensors installed on the interior of a building owned or leased by a business that has less than $2.5 million federal gross receipts or sales.
  (2) A security camera system purchased and installed pursuant to paragraph (1)(A) or (B) of this subsection shall be registered with the Metropolitan Police Department.
(b) To be eligible for the rebate provided for in this section, a property owner or lessee shall:
  (1) Purchase and install:
    (A) After September 22, 2015, a security camera system on the exterior of the building;
    (B) After October 1, 2025, a security camera system installed on the interior of a building owned or leased by a business that has less than $2.5 million federal gross receipts or sales; or
    (C) After October 1, 2025, glass break sensors installed on the interior of the building owned or leased by a business that has less than $2.5 million federal gross receipts or sales;
  (2) For security camera systems installed on the exterior or interior of a building, register the security camera system with the Metropolitan Police Department;
  (3) Submit a rebate claim in accordance with Program rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (f) of this section; and
  (4) Meet all additional requirements and criteria provided for in Program rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (f) of this section.
(c) (1) Upon approval of a rebate claim submitted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, the Program shall provide a rebate; provided, that the amount of the rebate shall not be more than the purchase price of the security camera system or glass break sensors.
  (2) Rebates shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.
  (3) Repealed.
(d) To be eligible for the voucher provided for in this section, a property owner or tenant of a residence shall:
  (1) Provide proof of receipt of public assistance under Chapter 2 of Title 4 or receipt of benefits under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program;
  (2) Submit an application to the Mayor for the installation of a system; and
  (3) Meet all additional requirements and criteria provided for in Program rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (f) of this section.
(e) (1) Upon approval of a voucher application submitted pursuant to subsection (d) of this section, the Program shall provide vouchers as follows:
    (A) Vouchers shall not exceed the amount for a rebate claim under subsection (c)(1)(A) of this section.
    (B) Vouchers shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.
    (C) Repealed.
  (2) Tenants of properties owned by the District of Columbia Housing Authority shall not be eligible for a voucher under this section.
(f) The Mayor, pursuant to subchapter I of Chapter 5 of Title 2 , shall issue rules to implement the provisions of this section, including:
  (1) Requirements for proof of purchase and verification of the security camera system or glass break sensors;
  (2) Procedures for registering a security camera system with the Metropolitan Police Department, including a certification by the recipient providing that the recipient shall not use the system to intentionally record specific individuals conducting lawful activity;
  (3) Identification of priority areas for Program eligibility; provided, that the priority areas include at least one area in each ward identified by crime levels and other public safety indicators in the corresponding police service area;
  (4) Requirements and procedures for participating in the voucher option under subsection (d) of this section; and
  (5) The maximum amount of rebate that is available under this section.
(g) Any rebate or voucher issued under this section shall not be considered income for purposes of District of Columbia income tax.
(h) From Janaury 15, 2016 to the issuance of the final rebate or voucher under this Program, the Mayor shall provide an annual report to the Council by January 15 of each year and a monthly update on the website of the District government agency that administers the Program that includes the following information:
  (1) The total number of rebates and vouchers issued;
  (2) The total number of private security cameras and glass break sensors paid for by the Program;
  (3) The number of rebates and vouchers issued in each police service area;
  (4) The number of rebates issued pursuant to subsection (c)(1)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, respectively;
  (5) The number of rebates and vouchers issued in each priority area identified pursuant to subsection (f)(3) of this section;
  (6) The number of times the Metropolitan Police Department requested footage from a Program recipient, and whether the request was granted or denied by the Program recipient;
  (7) The number of times that footage from a private security camera contributed to a successful arrest by the Metropolitan Police Department, including a breakdown by offense; and
  (8) An analysis of the Program’s implementation and plans for future expansion, if any.
(i) For the purposes of this section, the term "security camera system" means one or more indoor or outdoor surveillance cameras with functioning digital video recording capability.
(j) The Office of Victim Services and Justice Grants shall include performance measures and targets for the private security camera program in its annual performance plans, as well as data on actual performance in its annual performance plans.
D.C. Code § 7-2903 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 29 / § 7-2903
§ 7-2903. Compensation.
Status: in_force

Members of the Commission shall not receive compensation or reimbursement for actual expenses incurred in the performance of official duties.
D.C. Code § 7-2507.01 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2507.01
§ 7-2507.01. Security mortgages, deposits, or pawns with firearms, destructive devices, or ammunition prohibited; loan or rental of firearms, destructive devices, or ammunition prohibited.
Status: in_force

(a) No firearm, destructive device, or ammunition shall be security for, or be taken or received by way of any mortgage, deposit, pledge, or pawn.
(b) No person may loan, borrow, give, or rent to or from another person, any firearm, destructive device, or ammunition.
D.C. Code § 7-503.13 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5 / § 7-503.13
§ 7-503.13. Home health aides.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1521.10 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 15 / § 7-1521.10
§ 7-1521.10. Certificate requirement.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-2021.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 20 / § 7-2021.03
§ 7-2021.03. Access to quality child care grant-making authority.
Status: in_force

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, the Office of the State Superintendent of Education shall award funds from the Access to Quality Child Care Fund available pursuant to § 7-2021.02(c)(1) , on a competitive basis, as grants to:
  (1) Organizations that provide child care services to infants and toddlers to open child development facilities;
  (2) Existing child development facilities to expand available space to serve infants and toddlers; or
  (3) Organizations that provide child care services to carry out other activities necessary to expand access to child care and improve the quality of child care services provided in the District consistent with the findings of the evaluation and studies conducted pursuant to § 7-2021.02(c)(4) .
(b) (1) The OSSE may award a grant or contract to a single nonprofit organization that does not provide child care services to infants and toddlers; provided, that:
    (A) The grantee or contractor has a proven track record of success in grant-making related to child development facilities;
    (B) The grantee or contractor agrees to use 90% of OSSE's award to award subgrants to organizations that provide child care services, for the purposes of expanding child care services in accordance with the terms of this section;
    (C) The grantee or contractor agrees to undergo an annual audit and submit quarterly reports to OSSE on its financial health and its use of the OSSE award; and
    (D) The grantee or contractor has a proven track record in providing financing and investment approaches and technical assistance in child development facility financing and development.
  (2) A grant or contract awarded pursuant to this subsection shall be awarded for a term of at least 2 years, subject to the availability of funding.
  (3) (A) The grantee or contractor shall award subgrants for terms of at least 2 years, subject to the availability of funding.
    (B) All subgrants of District funds shall be awarded on a competitive basis.
    (C) Subgrants shall be awarded for the following purposes:
      (i) Improving the supply of child care services for infants and toddlers, which may include establishing new, renovating existing, or expanding child development facilities serving infants and toddlers; or
      (ii) Carrying out other activities necessary to expand access to child care and improving the quality of child care services provided in the District consistent with the findings of the evaluation and studies conducted pursuant to § 7-2021.02(c)(4) .
(c) At least 50% of amounts awarded under this section shall be used to improve the supply of child care services for infants and toddlers eligible for subsidized child care.
(d) The OSSE may not award a grant or contract under this section in excess of $1 million during a 12-month period, either singularly or cumulatively, unless the grant is first submitted to the Council for approval, in accordance with § 1-204.51(b) , or by act.
D.C. Code § 7-1121 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 11A / § 7-1121
§ 7-1121. Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact.
Status: in_force

The Mayor is authorized to execute, on behalf of the District of Columbia, a Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact (PSYPACT) in the form substantially as follows:
ARTICLE I PURPOSE
  (a) Whereas, states license psychologists, in order to protect the public through verification of education, training, and experience and to ensure accountability for professional practice.
  (b) Whereas, this Compact is intended to regulate the day to day practice of telepsychology (that is, the provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies) by psychologists across state boundaries in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority.
  (c) Whereas, this Compact is intended to regulate the temporary in-person, face-to-face practice of psychology by psychologists across state boundaries for 30 days within a calendar year in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority.
  (d) Whereas, this Compact is intended to authorize state psychology regulatory authorities to afford legal recognition, in a manner consistent with the terms of the Compact, to psychologists licensed in another state.
  (e) Whereas, this Compact recognizes that states have a vested interest in protecting the public's health and safety through their licensing and regulation of psychologists and that such state regulation will best protect public health and safety.
  (f) Whereas, this Compact does not apply when a psychologist is licensed in both the home and receiving states.
  (g) Whereas, this Compact does not apply to permanent in-person, face-to-face practice, it does allow for authorization of temporary psychological practice.
  (h) Whereas, consistent with these principles, this Compact is designed to achieve the following purposes and objectives:
    (1) Increase public access to professional psychological services by allowing for telepsychological practice across state lines as well as temporary in-person, face-to-face services in a state in which the psychologist is not licensed to practice psychology;
    (2) Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety, especially client/patient safety;
    (3) Encourage the cooperation of compact states in the areas of psychology licensure and regulation;
    (4) Facilitate the exchange of information between compact states regarding psychologist licensure, adverse actions, and disciplinary history;
    (5) Promote compliance with the laws governing psychological practice in each compact state; and
    (6) Invest all compact states with the authority to hold licensed psychologists accountable through the mutual recognition of compact state licenses.
ARTICLE II DEFINITIONS
  (a) "Adverse action" means any action taken by a state psychology regulatory authority that finds a violation of a statute or regulation that is identified by the state psychology regulatory authority as discipline and is a matter of public record.
  (b) "Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards" or "ASPPB" means the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities responsible for the licensure and registration of psychologists throughout the United States and Canada.
  (c) "Authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology" means a licensed psychologist's authority to practice telepsychology, within the limits authorized under this Compact, in another compact state.
  (d) "Bylaws" means those bylaws established by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission pursuant to Article X for its governance, or for directing and controlling its actions and conduct.
  (e) "Client/Patient" means the recipient of psychological services, whether psychological services are delivered in the context of healthcare, corporate, supervision, or consulting services.
  (f) "Commissioner" means the voting representative appointed by each state psychology regulatory authority pursuant to Article X.
  (g) "Compact state" means a state, the District of Columbia, or United States territory that has enacted this compact legislation and which has not withdrawn pursuant to Article XIII, Section C or been terminated pursuant to Article XII, Section B.
  (h) "Coordinated licensure information system" or "Coordinated database" means an integrated process for collecting, storing, and sharing information on psychologists' licensure and enforcement activities related to psychology licensure laws, which is administered by the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities.
  (i) "Confidentiality" means the principle that data or information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized persons or processes.
  (j) "Day" means any part of a day in which psychological work is performed.
  (k) "Distant state" means the compact state where a psychologist is physically present (not through the use of telecommunications technologies), to provide temporary in-person, face-to-face psychological services.
  (l) "E.Passport" means a certificate issued by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards ("ASPPB") that promotes the standardization in the criteria of interjurisdictional telepsychology practice and facilitates the process for licensed psychologists to provide telepsychological services across state lines.
  (m) "Executive board" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission.
  (n) "Home state" means a compact state where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state and is practicing under the Authorization to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology, the home state is the compact state where the psychologist is physically present when the telepsychological services are delivered. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state and is practicing under the temporary authorization to practice, the home state is any compact state where the psychologist is licensed.
  (o) "Identity history summary" means a summary of information retained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or other designee with similar authority, in connection with arrests and, in some instances, federal employment, naturalization, or military service.
  (p) "In-person, face-to-face" means interactions in which the psychologist and the client/patient are in the same physical space and which does not include interactions that may occur through the use of telecommunication technologies.
  (q) "Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate" or "IPC" means a certificate issued by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards ("ASPPB") that grants temporary authority to practice based on notification to the state psychology regulatory authority of the intention to practice temporarily and verification of one's qualifications for such practice.
  (r) "License" means authorization by a state psychology regulatory authority to engage in the independent practice of psychology, which would be unlawful without the authorization.
  (s) "Non-compact state" means a state that is not at the time a compact state.
  (t) "Psychologist" means an individual licensed for the independent practice of psychology.
  (u) "Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission" or "Commission" means the national administration of which all compact states are members.
  (v) "Receiving state" means a compact state where the client/patient is physically located when the telepsychological services are delivered.
  (w) "Rule" means a written statement by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission promulgated pursuant to Article XI of the Compact that is of general applicability, implements, interprets, or prescribes a policy or provision of the Compact, or an organizational, procedural, or practice requirement of the Commission and has the force and effect of statutory law in a compact state, and includes the amendment, repeal, or suspension of an existing rule.
  (x) "Significant investigatory information" means:
    (1) Investigative information that a state psychology regulatory authority, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity to respond if required by state law, has reason to believe, if proven true, would indicate more than a violation of state statute or ethics code that would be considered more substantial than minor infraction; or
    (2) Investigative information that indicates that the psychologist represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the psychologist has been notified or had an opportunity to respond.
  (y) "State" means a state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, and the District of Columbia.
  (z) "State psychology regulatory authority" means the board, office, or other agency with the legislative mandate to license and regulate the practice of psychology.
  (aa) "Telepsychology" means the provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies.
  (bb) "Temporary authorization to practice" means a licensed psychologist's authority to conduct temporary in-person, face-to-face practice, within the limits authorized under this Compact, in another compact state.
  (cc) "Temporary in-person, face-to-face practice" means where a psychologist is physically present (not through the use of telecommunications technologies), in the distant state to provide for the practice of psychology for 30 days within a calendar year and based on notification to the distant state.
ARTICLE III HOME STATE LICENSURE
  (a) The home state shall be a compact state where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology.
  (b) A psychologist may hold one or more compact state licenses at a time. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state, the home state is the compact state where the psychologist is physically present when the services are delivered as authorized by the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms of this Compact.
  (c) Any compact state may require a psychologist not previously licensed in a compact state to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in the compact state under circumstances not authorized by the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms of this compact.
  (d) Any compact state may require a psychologist to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in a compact state under circumstances not authorized by temporary authorization to practice under the terms of this Compact.
  (e) A home state's license authorizes a psychologist to practice in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology only if the compact state:
    (1) Currently requires the psychologist to hold an active E.Passport;
    (2) Has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;
    (3) Notifies the Commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;
    (4) Requires an identity history summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or other designee with similar authority, no later than 10 years after activation of the Compact; and
    (5) Complies with the bylaws and rules of the Commission.
  (f) A home state's license grants temporary authorization to practice to a psychologist in a distant state only if the compact state:
    (1) Currently requires the psychologist to hold an active IPC;
    (2) Has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;
    (3) Notifies the Commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;
    (4) Requires an identity history summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or other designee with similar authority, no later than 10 years after activation of the Compact; and
    (5) Complies with the bylaws and rules of the Commission.
ARTICLE IV COMPACT COMPACT PRIVILEGE
  (a) Compact states shall recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a compact state in conformance with Article III, to practice telepsychology in other compact states (receiving states) in which the psychologist is not licensed, under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology as provided in the Compact.
  (b) To exercise the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms and provisions of this Compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a compact state must:
    (1) Hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was at the time the degree was awarded:
      (A) Regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, or authorized by provincial statute or royal charter to grant doctoral degrees; or
      (B) A foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to subparagraph (A) of this paragraph by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services ("NACES") or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service;
    (2) Hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:
      (A) The program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists.
      (B) The psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution.
      (C) There must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines.
      (D) The program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study.
      (E) There must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities.
      (F) The designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty.
      (G) The program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree.
      (H) The program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology.
      (I) The curriculum shall encompass a minimum of 3 academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degree and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for master's degree.
      (J) The program shall include an acceptable residency as defined by the rules of the Commission;
    (3) Possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a home state that is a compact state;
    (4) Have no history of adverse action that violates the rules of the Commission;
    (5) Have no criminal record history reported on an identity history summary that violates the rules of the Commission;
    (6) Possess a current, active E.Passport;
    (7) Provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice, conformity with standards of practice, competence in telepsychology technology, criminal background, and knowledge and adherence to legal requirements in the home and receiving states, and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the Commission; and
    (8) Meet other criteria as defined by the rules of the Commission.
  (c) The home state maintains authority over the license of any psychologist practicing into a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology.
  (d) A psychologist practicing into a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology will be subject to the receiving state's scope of practice. A receiving state may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in the receiving state and may take any other necessary actions under the receiving state's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the receiving state's citizens. If a receiving state takes action, the state shall promptly notify the home state and the Commission.
  (e) If a psychologist's license in any home state, another compact state, or any authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in any receiving state is restricted, suspended, or otherwise limited, the E.Passport shall be revoked and the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice telepsychology in a compact state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology.
ARTICLE V TEMPORARY AUTHORIZATION TO PRACTICE
  (a) Compact states shall also recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a compact state in conformance with Article III, to practice temporarily in other compact states (distant states) in which the psychologist is not licensed, as provided in the Compact.
  (b) To exercise the temporary authorization to practice under the terms and provisions of this Compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a compact state must:
    (1) Hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was at the time the degree was awarded:
      (A) Regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, or authorized by provincial statute or royal charter to grant doctoral degrees; or
      (B) A foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to subparagraph (A) of this paragraph by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES) or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service;
    (2) Hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:
      (A) The program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists.
      (B) The psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution.
      (C) There must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines.
      (D) The program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study.
      (E) There must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities.
      (F) The designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty.
      (G) The program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree.
      (H) The program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology.
      (I) The curriculum shall encompass a minimum of 3 academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degrees and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for master's degree.
      (J) The program shall include an acceptable residency as defined by the rules of the Commission;
    (3) Possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a home state that is a compact state;
    (4) No history of adverse action that violate the rules of the Commission;
    (5) No criminal record history that violates the rules of the Commission;
    (6) Possess a current, active IPC;
    (7) Provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice and work experience and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the Commission; and
    (8) Meet other criteria as defined by the rules of the Commission.
  (c) A psychologist practicing into a distant state under the temporary authorization to practice shall practice within the scope of practice authorized by the distant state.
  (d) A psychologist practicing into a distant state under the temporary authorization to practice will be subject to the distant state's authority and law. A distant state may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice in the distant state and may take any other necessary actions under the distant state's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the distant state's citizens. If a distant state takes action, the state shall promptly notify the home state and the Commission.
  (e) If a psychologist's license in any home state, another compact state, or any temporary authorization to practice in any distant state is restricted, suspended, or otherwise limited, the IPC shall be revoked and the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice in a compact state under the temporary authorization to practice.
ARTICLE VI CONDITIONS OF TELESYCHOLOGY PRACTICE IN A RECEIVING STATE
  (a) A psychologist may practice in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology only in the performance of the scope of practice for psychology as assigned by an appropriate state psychology regulatory authority, as defined in the rules of the Commission, under the following circumstances:
    (1) The psychologist initiates a client/patient contact in a home state via telecommunications technologies with a client/patient in a receiving state; and
    (2) Other conditions regarding telepsychology as determined by rules promulgated by the Commission.
ARTICLE VII ADVERSE ACTIONS
  (a) A home state shall have the power to impose adverse action against a psychologist's license issued by the home state. A distant state shall have the power to take adverse action on a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice within that distant state.
  (b) A receiving state may take adverse action on a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology within that receiving state. A home state may take adverse action against a psychologist based on an adverse action taken by a distant state regarding temporary in-person, face-to-face practice.
  (c) (1) If a home state takes adverse action against a psychologist's license, that psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology is terminated and the E.Passport is revoked. Furthermore, that psychologist's temporary authorization to practice is terminated and the IPC is revoked.
    (2) All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action shall be reported to the Commission in accordance with rules promulgated by the Commission. A compact state shall report adverse actions in accordance with the rules of the Commission.
    (3) In the event discipline is reported on a psychologist, the psychologist will not be eligible for telepsychology or temporary in-person, face-to-face practice in accordance with the rules of the Commission.
    (4) Other actions may be imposed as determined by rules promulgated by the Commission.
  (d) A home state's psychology regulatory authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a licensee that occurred in a receiving state as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the home state. In such cases, the home state's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's license.
  (e) A distant state's psychology regulatory authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a psychologist practicing under temporary authorization to practice that occurred in that distant state as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the Home state. In such cases, distant state's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice.
  (f) Nothing in this Compact shall override a compact state's decision that a psychologist's participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the compact state's law. Compact states must require psychologists who enter any alternative programs to not provide telepsychology services under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology or provide temporary psychological services under the temporary authorization to practice in any other compact state during the term of the alternative program.
  (g) No other judicial or administrative remedies shall be available to a psychologist in the event a compact state imposes an adverse action pursuant to subsection (c) of this article.
ARTICLE VII ADDITIONAL AUTHORITIES INVESTED IN A COMPACT STATE'S PSYCHOLOGY REGULATOR AUTHORITY
  (a) In addition to any other powers granted under state law, a compact state's psychology regulatory authority shall have the authority under this Compact to:
    (1) Issue subpoenas, for both hearings and investigations, which require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a compact state's psychology regulatory authority for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another compact state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to that court's practice and procedure in considering subpoenas issued in its own proceedings. The issuing state's psychology regulatory authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
    (2) Issue cease and desist or injunctive relief orders to revoke a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology and/or temporary authorization to practice.
    (3) During the course of any investigation, a psychologist may not change his or her home state licensure.  A home state psychology regulatory authority is authorized to complete any pending investigations of a psychologist and to take any actions appropriate under its law.  The home state psychology regulatory authority shall promptly report the conclusions of such investigations to the Commission. Once an investigation has been completed, and pending the outcome of said investigation, the psychologist may change his or her home state licensure. The Commission shall promptly notify the new Home state of any such decisions as provided in the rules of the Commission. All information provided to the Commission or distributed by compact states pursuant to the psychologist shall be confidential, filed under seal and used for investigatory or disciplinary matters. The Commission may create additional rules for mandated or discretionary sharing of information by compact states.
ARTICLE IX COORDINATED LICENSURE INFORMATION SYSTEM
  (a) The Commission shall provide for the development and maintenance of a coordinated licensure information system and reporting system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on all psychologists individuals to whom this Compact is applicable in all compact states as defined by rules of the Commission.
  (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a compact state shall submit a uniform data set to the coordinated licensure information system on all licensees as required by rules of the Commission, including:
    (1) Identifying information;
    (2) Licensure data;
    (3) Significant investigatory information;
    (4) Adverse actions against a psychologist's license;
    (5) An indicator that a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology or temporary authorization to practice is revoked;
    (6) Non-confidential information related to alternative program participation information;
    (7) Any denial of application for licensure, and the reasons for such denial; and
    (8) Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the rules of the Commission.
  (c) The coordinated licensure information system administrator shall promptly notify all compact states of any adverse action taken against, or significant investigative information on, any licensee in a compact state.
  (d) Compact states reporting information to the coordinated licensure information system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the compact state reporting the information.
  (e) Any information submitted to the coordinated licensure information system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the law of the compact state reporting the information shall be removed from the coordinated licensure information system.
ARTICLE X ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PSYCHOLOGY INTERJURISDICTIONAL COMPACT COMMISSION
  (a) The compact states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission:
    (1) The Commission is a body politic and an instrumentality of the Compact States.
    (2) Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.
    (3) Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
  (b) Membership, voting, and meetings:
    (1) The Commission shall consist of one voting representative appointed by each compact state who shall serve as that state's Commissioner. The state psychology regulatory authority shall appoint its delegate. This delegate shall be empowered to act on behalf of the compact state.  This delegate shall be limited to:
      (A) An Executive Director, Executive Secretary, or similar executive;
      (B) A current member of the state psychology regulatory authority of a compact state; or
      (C) A designee empowered with the appropriate delegate authority to act on behalf of the compact state.
    (2) Any Commissioner may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the Commissioner is appointed.  A vacancy occurring in the Commission shall be filled in accordance with the laws of the compact state in which the vacancy exists.
    (3) Each Commissioner shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. A Commissioner shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for Commissioners' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.
    (4) The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.
    (5) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Article XI.
    (6) The Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the Commission must discuss:
      (A) Non-compliance of a compact state with its obligations under the Compact;
      (B) The employment, compensation, discipline or other personnel matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
      (C) Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation against the Commission;
      (D) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
      (E) Accusation against any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
      (F) Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
      (G) Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
      (H) Disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
      (I) Disclosure of information related to any investigatory reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility for investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; or
      (J) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal and state statute.
    (7) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.  The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, of any person participating in the meeting, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in the minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
  (c) The Commission shall, by a majority vote of the Commissioners, prescribe bylaws and rules to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes and exercise the powers of the Compact, including:
    (1) Establishing the fiscal year of the Commission;
    (2) Providing reasonable standards and procedures for:
      (A) The establishment and meetings of other committees; and
      (B) Governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the Commission;
    (3) Providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Commission, ensuring reasonable advance notice of all meetings and providing an opportunity for attendance of such meetings by interested parties, with enumerated exceptions designed to protect the public's interest, the privacy of individuals of such proceedings, and proprietary information, including trade secrets. The Commission may meet in closed session only after a majority of the Commissioners vote to close a meeting to the public in whole or in part. As soon as practicable, the Commission must make public a copy of the vote to close the meeting revealing the vote of each Commissioner with no proxy votes allowed;
    (4) Establishing the titles, duties, and authority and reasonable procedures for the election of the officers of the Commission;
    (5) Providing reasonable standards and procedures for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the Commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other similar law of any compact state, the bylaws shall exclusively govern the personnel policies and programs of the Commission;
    (6) Promulgating a Code of Ethics to address permissible and prohibited activities of Commission members and employees;
    (7) Providing a mechanism for concluding the operations of the Commission and the equitable disposition of any surplus funds that may exist after the termination of the Compact after the payment or reserving of all of its debts and obligations;
    (8) The Commission shall publish its bylaws in a convenient form and file a copy thereof and a copy of any amendment thereto with the appropriate agency or officer in each of the compact states;
    (9) The Commission shall maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; and
    (10) The Commission shall meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the bylaws.
  (d) The Commission shall have the authority to:
    (1) Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rule shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all compact states;
    (2) Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission; provided, that the standing of any state psychology regulatory authority or other regulatory body responsible for psychology licensure to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
    (3) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
    (4) Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including employees of a compact state;
    (5) Hire employees, elect, or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
    (6) Accept all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and to receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided, that at all times the Commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
    (7) Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use, any property, real, personal, or mixed; provided, that at all times the Commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety;
    (8) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
    (9) Establish a budget and make expenditures;
    (10) Borrow money;
    (11) Appoint committees, including advisory committees comprised of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact or the bylaws;
    (12) Provide and receive information from, and to cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
    (13) Adopt and use an official seal; and
    (14) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of psychology licensure, temporary in-person, face-to-face practice and telepsychology practice.
  (e) (1) The elected officers shall serve as the Executive Board, which shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact.
    (2) The Executive Board shall be comprised of 6 members:
      (A) Five voting members who are elected from the current membership of the Commission by the Commission; and
      (B) One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities.
    (3) The ex-officio member must have served as staff or member on a state psychology regulatory authority and will be selected by its respective organization.
    (4) The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in the bylaws.
    (5) The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.
    (6) The Executive Board shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
      (A) Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees paid by compact states such as annual dues, and any other applicable fees;
      (B) Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
      (C) Prepare and recommend the budget;
      (D) Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission;
      (E) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission;
      (F) Establish additional committees as necessary; and
      (G) Other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
  (f) (1) The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
    (2) The Commission may accept from all appropriate revenue sources, donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
    (3) The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each compact state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources.  The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all compact states.
    (4) The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the compact states, except by and with the authority of the compact state.
    (5) The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws.  However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.
  (g) (1) The members, officers, Executive Director, employees, and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
    (2) The Commission shall defend any member, officer, Executive Director, employee, or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
    (3) The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, Executive Director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
ARTICLE XI RULEMAKING
  (a) The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this article and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.
  (b) If a majority of the legislatures of the compact states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact, then such rule shall have no further force and effect in any compact state.
  (c) Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.
  (d) Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least 60 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:
    (1) On the website of the Commission; and
    (2) On the website of each compact states' psychology regulatory authority or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.
  (e) The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:
    (1) The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;
    (2) The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;
    (3) A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and
    (4) The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing or submit written comments.
  (f) Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.
  (g) The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:
    (1) At least 25 persons who submit comments independently of each other;
    (2) A governmental subdivision or agency; or
    (3) A duly appointed person in an association having at least 25 members.
  (h) (1) If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing.
    (2) All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the Executive Director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not fewer than 5 business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.
    (3) Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.
    (4) No transcript of the hearing is required unless a written request for a transcript is made, in which case the person requesting the transcript shall bear the cost of producing the transcript.  A recording may be made in lieu of a transcript under the same terms and conditions as a transcript.  This subsection shall not preclude the Commission from making a transcript or recording of the hearing if it so chooses.
    (5) Nothing in this article shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule.  Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this article.
  (i) Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.
  (j) The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.
  (k) If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.
  (l) Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing; provided, that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this article shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than 90 days after the effective date of the rule.  For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately to:
    (1) Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;
    (2) Prevent a loss of Commission or compact state funds;
    (3) Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or
    (4) Protect public health and safety.
  (m) The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission.  The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of 30 days after posting.  The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the Chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.
ARTICLE XII OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND ENFORCEMENT
  (a) (1) The executive, legislative, and judicial branches of state government in each compact state shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of this Compact and the rules promulgated hereunder shall have standing as statutory law.
    (2) All courts shall take judicial notice of the Compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a Compact State pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact, which may affect the powers, responsibilities, or actions of the Commission.
    (3) The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the Commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or rules promulgated pursuant to this Compact.
  (b) (1) If the Commission determines that a compact state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated rules, the Commission shall:
      (A) Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other compact states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of remedying the default, and any other action to be taken by the Commission; and
      (B) Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.
    (2) If a state in default fails to remedy the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the compact states, and all rights, privileges, and benefits conferred by this Compact shall be terminated on the effective date of termination. A remedy of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.
    (3) Termination of membership in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be submitted by the Commission to the Mayor, the Council, and each of the compact states.
    (4) A Compact State that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.
    (5) The Commission shall not bear any costs incurred by the state that is found to be in default, or which has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting state.
    (6) The defaulting state may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Compact has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
  (c) (1) Upon request by a compact state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among compact states and between compact and non-compact states.
    (2) The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes that arise before the commission.
  (d) (1) The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact.
    (2) By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Compact has its principal offices against a compact state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.
    (3) The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.
ARTICLE XIII DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION OF THE PSYCHOLOGY INTERJURISDICTIONAL COMPACT COMMISSION AND ASSOCIATED RULES, WITHDRAWAL, AND AMENDMENTS
  (a) The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact is enacted into law by the 7th compact state.  The provisions that become effective at that time shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules.  Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact.
  (b) Any state that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state.  Any rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state.
  (c) Any compact state may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.
    (1) A compact state's withdrawal shall not take effect until 6 months after enactment of the repealing statute.
    (2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's psychology regulatory authority to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.
  (d) Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any psychology licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a compact state and a non-compact state that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.
  (e) This Compact may be amended by the compact states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any compact state until it is enacted into the law of all compact states.
ARTICLE XIV CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY
This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof.  If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any state member thereto, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining compact states.
D.C. Code § 7-2505.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2505.02
§ 7-2505.02. Permissible sales and transfers.
Status: in_force

(a) Any person or organization eligible to register a firearm may sell or otherwise transfer ammunition or any firearm, except those which are unregisterable under § 7-2502.02 , to a licensed dealer.
(b) Any licensed dealer may sell or otherwise transfer:
  (1) Ammunition, excluding one or more restricted pistol bullets, and any firearm or destructive device which is lawfully a part of such licensee’s inventory, to any nonresident person or business licensed under the acts of Congress and the jurisdiction where such person resides or conducts such business;
  (2) Ammunition, including one or more restricted pistol bullets, and any firearm or destructive device which is lawfully a part of such licensee’s inventory to:
    (A) Any other licensed dealer;
    (B) Any law enforcement officer or agent of the District or the United States of America when such officer or agent is on duty, and acting within the scope of his duties when acquiring such firearm, ammunition, or destructive device, if the officer or agent has in his possession a statement from the head of his agency stating that the item is to be used in such officer’s or agent’s official duties.
(c) Any licensed dealer may sell or otherwise transfer a firearm except those which are unregisterable under § 7-2502.02 , to any person or organization possessing a registration certificate for such firearm; provided, that if the Chief denies a registration certificate, he shall so advise the licensee who shall thereupon: (1) withhold delivery until such time as a registration certificate is issued, or, at the option of the purchaser; (2) declare the contract null and void, in which case consideration paid to the licensee shall be returned to the purchaser; provided further, that this subsection shall not apply to persons covered by subsection (b) of this section.
(d) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (e) of this section, no licensed dealer shall sell or otherwise transfer ammunition unless:
  (1) The sale or transfer is made in person; and
  (2) The purchaser exhibits, at the time of sale or other transfer, a valid registration certificate, or in the case of a nonresident, proof that the weapon is lawfully possessed in the jurisdiction where such person resides;
  (3) The ammunition to be sold or transferred is of the same caliber or gauge as the firearm described in the registration certificate, or other proof in the case of nonresident; and
  (4) The purchaser signs a receipt for the ammunition which (in addition to the other records required under this unit) shall be maintained by the licensed dealer for a period of 1 year from the date of sale.
(e) Any licensed dealer may sell ammunition to any person holding an ammunition collector’s certificate on September 24, 1976; provided, that the collector’s certificate shall be exhibited to the licensed dealer whenever the collector purchases ammunition for his collection; provided further, that the collector shall sign a receipt for the ammunition, which shall be treated in the same manner as that required under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this section.
D.C. Code § 7-231.16 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 2A / § 7-231.16
§ 7-231.16. Judicial proceedings to register a vital record.
Status: in_force

(a) Entitled individuals may submit an application to register an out-of-institution birth, delayed birth, or delayed death. If an application to register a record is denied, the applicant may file a complaint with the court for an order to register the record.  The court shall provide notice of the proceeding to the Registrar.  A petition filed under this section shall be governed by the Rules of the court.
(b) A petition for the registration of a live birth or the delayed registration of a live birth shall allege:
  (1) That the individual for whom a registration of live birth is sought was born in the District;
  (2) That no record of live birth of the individual can be found in the vital statistics system or the archives of the Vital Records Division;
  (3) That the petitioner has made diligent efforts to obtain documentary evidence as required by statute and regulations and as detailed by the Registrar;
  (4) That the Registrar has refused to register a report of live birth; and
  (5) Any other information needed to establish the facts of live birth.
(c) A petition for the registration of a death or the delayed registration of a death shall allege:
  (1) That the individual for whom a registration of death is sought died in the District;
  (2) That no record of death of the individual can be found in the vital statistics system or the archives of the Vital Records Division;
  (3) That the petitioner has made diligent efforts to obtain documentary evidence as required by statute and regulations and as detailed by the Registrar;
  (4) That the Registrar has refused to register the report of death; and
  (5) Any other information needed to establish a death.
(d) The petition for the registration of a live birth or a death shall be accompanied by a statement of the Registrar denying the application as well as all documentary evidence the petitioner used to support the application submitted to the Registrar.
(e) Before issuing findings, the court shall order the petitioner to undergo a criminal background check to be provided to the court at the petitioner's expense. The criminal background check shall be for the purpose of revealing any aliases, the petitioner's citizenship status, and criminal records related to identity theft or document fraud by the petitioner.
(f) If the court finds that a person was born in the District, the court shall issue an order to register the live birth. The court's order shall make findings as to the place and date of live birth, parentage, and other findings to substantiate the facts of live birth in the District. The order shall include the live birth data to be registered, a description of the evidence presented, the court's findings of fact, and the date of the court's action.
(g) If the court finds that an individual died in the District, the court shall issue an order to register the death. The court's order shall make findings as to the decedent's legal name, date of death, place of death, place of live birth, race, ethnicity, sex, Social Security number, marital status at time of death, address at time of death, parents' names prior to first marriage, name prior to marriage, and the information necessary to complete the medical certification, including cause and manner of death. If the death occurred from an injury, the order shall include information on how and when the injury occurred. The order shall also indicate whether any of the required information is unknown.
(h) The court shall forward a certified copy of the order to register the live birth or death to the Registrar no later than the 10th day following the month in which the order was entered. The certified copy of the order shall direct the Registrar to execute the registration.
D.C. Code § 7-2125 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 21A / § 7-2125
§ 7-2125. Compliance.
Status: in_force

The Department of Health shall determine compliance with the requirements of this chapter. The failure to comply with the requirements of this chapter may result in a civil fine to be determined by the Mayor.
D.C. Code § 7-702.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7 / § 7-702.03
§ 7-702.03. Long-Term Care Ombudsman — Training and experience.
Status: in_force

(a) The ombudsman shall have training and experience in the following areas:
  (1) Gerontology, long-term care, health care, or relevant social services program;
  (2) The legal system;
  (3) Dispute resolution techniques, including investigation, mediation, or negotiation; and
  (4) Long-term care advocacy.
(b) No person who has been employed by a long-term care facility or a corporation that directly or indirectly owned or operated a long-term care facility within the past 2 years shall be appointed or employed as the ombudsman.
(b-1) No person who has been directly involved in the licensing or certification of any long-term care facility shall be appointed or employed as the ombudsman.
(b-2) No person who has been employed by or participated in the management of a long-term care facility within the previous 12 months shall be appointed or employed as the ombudsman.
(c) Neither the ombudsman nor any member of his or her immediate family shall have any pecuniary interest in a long-term care facility.
D.C. Code § 7-1303.12a — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 13 / § 7-1303.12a
§ 7-1303.12a. Placement pending petition and commitment proceedings.
Status: in_force

(a) In the case of a person found incompetent in a criminal case, the District shall have no more than 30 days from the date on which the finding is made that the person is incompetent and not likely to gain competence in the foreseeable future in which to file a petition pursuant to § 7-1303.04(b-1) . For extraordinary cause shown, the Court may extend the period of time within which the petition must be filed.
(b) Repealed.
(c) While awaiting the District’s decision pursuant to subsection (a) of this section and during the pendency of any resultant commitment proceedings, the Court may order the person placed with DDS for placement in a setting that DDS preliminarily determines can provide habilitation services consistent with the person’s needs and supervision or security sufficient to prevent the person from causing injury to others as a result of his or her intellectual disability.
(d) If the Court or DDS places the person in a setting that does not meet the definition of a facility contained in § 7-1301.03(13) , the hearing pursuant to § 7-1304.06a shall commence no later than 90 days from the date on which the finding is made that the person is incompetent and not likely to gain competence in the foreseeable future. If the hearing does not commence before the expiration of the 90-day time period, the Court shall place the person with the DDS for placement in a facility that does satisfy § 7-1301.03(13) and that DDS preliminarily determines can provide habilitation services consistent with the person’s needs and supervision or security sufficient to prevent the person from causing injury to others as a result of the person’s intellectual disability.
D.C. Code § 7-2504.09 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2504.09
§ 7-2504.09. Certain information obtained from or retained by dealers not to be used as evidence in criminal proceedings.
Status: in_force

No information obtained from or retained by a licensed dealer to comply with this unit shall be used as evidence against such licensed dealer in any criminal proceeding with respect to a violation of this unit occurring prior to or concurrently with the filing of such information; provided, that this section shall not apply to any violation of § 22-2402 , or of § 7-2507.04 .
D.C. Code § 7-2502.11 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2502.11
§ 7-2502.11. Information prohibited from use as evidence in criminal proceedings.
Status: in_force

No information obtained from a person under this subchapter or retained by a person in order to comply with any section of this subchapter, shall be used as evidence against such person in any criminal proceeding with respect to a violation of this unit, occurring prior to or concurrently with the filing of the information required by this subchapter; provided, that this section shall not apply to any violation of § 22-2402 , or § 7-2507.04 .
D.C. Code § 7-209 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 2 / § 7-209
§ 7-209. Adoption forms.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1141.06c — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 11C / § 7-1141.06c
§ 7-1141.06c. Development of online training materials.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Department shall, in collaboration with relevant stakeholders, including healthcare professionals, legal experts, and community-based organizations, develop a detailed online training module for healthcare professionals of varying disciplines and levels of expertise on the District's voluntary treatment, involuntary hospitalization, and civil commitment laws and procedures, which shall include information on:
    (A) Distinctions between voluntary treatment, involuntary hospitalization, and civil commitment;
    (B) Legal rights of individuals receiving mental health services;
    (C) Step-by-step procedures for initiating an involuntary hospitalization or civil commitment;
    (D) Criteria for determining when involuntary hospitalization or civil commitment is warranted;
    (E) Protocols for involving law enforcement in a mental health crisis; and
    (F) Cultural competency and sensitivity training in mental health interactions, including topics related to religion, race or ethnicity, language access, and understanding and respecting diverse cultural backgrounds during mental health assessments.
  (2) The Department shall coordinate with healthcare institutions to integrate the training module into continuing education or other training programs for relevant healthcare workers.
(b) (1) The Department shall develop a publicly available online resource to provide information for members of the public on voluntary and involuntary mental health treatment, which shall include information on:
    (A) Distinctions between voluntary treatment, involuntary hospitalization, and civil commitment;
    (B) Alternatives to involuntary hospitalization or civil commitment, including resources for voluntary treatment;
    (C) Legal rights of individuals receiving mental health services;
    (D) Step-by-step procedures for initiating an involuntary hospitalization or civil commitment;
    (E) Criteria for determining when involuntary hospitalization or civil commitment is warranted;
    (F) Protocols for involving law enforcement in a mental health crisis;
    (G) Information on crisis helplines and mental health resources that families can access in case of emergencies; and
    (H) Information on how family and friends can contribute to the ongoing care and recovery of an individual receiving mental health services.
  (2) The Department shall collaborate with mental health professionals, legal experts, community-based organizations, and individuals with lived experience in the development of the online resource.
  (3) The Department shall engage in semiannual public awareness campaigns to promote the availability of the online resource, including by engaging media outlets and online platforms, utilizing social media, partnering with educational institutions and healthcare organizations, educating emergency services personnel, collaborating with government agencies, and actively involving community groups, such as religious organizations, cultural associations, and neighborhood associations.
D.C. Code § 7-501.01 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5 / § 7-501.01
§ 7-501.01. Purpose.
Status: in_force

It is the intent of the Council of the District of Columbia that the District government shall insure a full range of health, education, employment, and social services shall be available to the aged in the District of Columbia, and the planning and operation of such programs will be undertaken as a partnership of older citizens, families, community leaders, private agencies, and the District of Columbia government.
D.C. Code § 7-1201.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 12 / § 7-1201.04
§ 7-1201.04. General rules governing disclosures.
Status: in_force

(a) Upon disclosure of any of the client’s mental health information pursuant to subchapter II, III, or IV of this chapter, a notation shall be entered and maintained with the client’s record of mental health information which includes:
  (1) The date of the disclosure;
  (2) The name of the recipient of the mental health information; and
  (3) A description of the contents of the disclosure.
(b) All disclosures of mental health information, except on an emergency basis as provided in § 7-1203.03 , shall be accompanied by a statement to the effect that: The unauthorized disclosure of mental health information violates the provisions of the District of Columbia Mental Health Information Act of 1978  (§§ 7-1201.01 to 7-1207.02 ). Disclosures may only be made pursuant to a valid authorization by the client or as provided in title III or IV of that Act. The Act provides for civil damages and criminal penalties for violations.
D.C. Code § 7-742.12 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7A / § 7-742.12
§ 7-742.12. Microenterprise Home Kitchen Businesses.
Status: in_force

(a) This section shall not:
  (1) Apply to a food establishment that is required to have a license under Department regulations; or
  (2) Exempt a microenterprise home kitchen business from any applicable District or federal tax laws.
(b) The Department shall develop a microenterprise home kitchen permit and develop standards and regulations relating to the requirements of this permit.
(c) A microenterprise home kitchen business shall register with the Department before beginning operation.
(d) The Department may perform a pre-operational inspection of the microenterprise home kitchen business before that business begins operation.
(e) (1) The Department may enter the premises of a microenterprise home kitchen business with a permit issued by the Department during the operating hours of the microenterprise home kitchen to conduct:
    (A) Scheduled pre-operational and compliance inspections with reasonable advance notice of the inspection; or
    (B) Unannounced inspections when the Department has a valid reason, which could include a consumer complaint, to suspect that a microenterprise home kitchen poses an imminent health hazard or is the source of an adulterated food or of an outbreak of illness caused by a contaminated food.
  (2) The Department shall document the reason for any inspection after an initial inspection, keep a copy of the documentation on file with the microenterprise home kitchen's permit, and provide a copy of that documentation to the operator.
(f) An operator may qualify for a microenterprise home kitchen permit; provided, that:
  (1) Food that is prepared at the microenterprise home kitchen is handled, stored, and prepared in compliance with Department regulations;
  (2) The kitchen facility used to prepare food for the microenterprise home kitchen meets the requirements established by the Department;
  (3) The operator provides written standard operating procedures to the Department that include:
    (A) Proposed procedures and methods for how all food will be stored, handled, and prepared;
    (B) Proposed procedures and methods of food preparation and handling;
    (C) Procedures, methods, and schedules for cleaning utensils and equipment;
    (D) Procedures and methods for the disposal of refuse; and
    (E) A plan for maintaining time or temperature control food at the appropriate temperatures for each time or temperature control food.
  (4) The operator operates only during the hours and only prepares the food items approved in the microenterprise home kitchen permit;
  (5) The operator provides notification to the consumer that, while a permit has been issued by the Department, the kitchen does not meet all of the requirements of a commercial retail food establishment; and
  (6) The operator successfully passes a nationally accredited Certified Food Protection Manager Course approved by the Department and obtains a District-issued Certified Food Protection Manager Certificate.
(g) An operator can apply to amend their permit by submitting a written proposal in a format determined in rules developed by the Department;
(h) The Department shall not require, as a condition of obtaining a microenterprise home kitchen permit, that an operator:
  (1) Rent or lease space at a commercial kitchen outside of their home;
  (2) Rent or purchase equipment, utensils, or display containers or equipment, other than what is required for safe storage, handling, and preparation of the food offered for sale;
  (3) Have additional hand-washing facilities in their home, except to require that a hand washing station supplied with warm water and soap be conveniently located in food preparation, food dispensing, and warewashing areas;
  (4) Have additional kitchen sinks, except to require that the kitchen sink has hot and cold water and is fully operational;
  (5) Limit the individuals permitted in food preparation areas, food storage areas, and washing areas, except during food preparation;
  (6) Limit the presence of animals in the home, except to require that all animals are kept outside of food preparation areas;
  (7) Use specific materials for food-contact and non-food contact surfaces; provided, that the food-contact surfaces are smooth, easily cleanable, and in good repair; or
  (8) Install significant equipment or make significant renovations to the home, beyond what would be required to ensure food and human safety in the food preparation areas.
(i) The Department has the authority to issue citations and summarily suspend or revoke a permit if an operator is not complying with any provisions set forth in this section.
(j) A person whose license or permit is revoked may, within 15 days after the notice of revocation by the Department, appeal the decision to the Office of Administrative Hearings.
D.C. Code § 7-2509.09 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2509.09
§ 7-2509.09. Freedom of information exception; report.
Status: in_force

(a) Any record regarding a person who has applied for, received, or had revoked a license shall not be made available as a public record under § 2-532 ; provided, that aggregate data, excluding any personal identifying information, may be used for the purposes of the public report in subsection (b) of this section.
(b) Every 2 years, the MPD shall make public a report that includes the following information:
  (1) The total number of valid licenses; and
  (2) For the most recent 2-year period:
    (A) The number of applications for a license received;
    (B) The number of licenses issued;
    (C) The number of licenses renewed, suspended, revoked, or denied;
    (D) The number of licensees convicted of a crime involving a pistol, classified by type of crime;
    (E) The number of pistols for which a license was issued that were reported lost or stolen; and
    (F) The number of pistols for which a license was issued that were found or recovered as stolen that were unreported by a licensee as lost or stolen.
D.C. Code § 7-2307 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 23 / § 7-2307
§ 7-2307. Violation of emergency executive order.
Status: in_force

An emergency executive order issued by the Mayor may provide for a fine of not more than $1,000 for each violation. The Corporation Counsel of the District of Columbia or any Assistant Corporation Counsel may bring an action in the name of the District of Columbia against anyone who has violated the provisions of an emergency executive order issued pursuant to this chapter.
D.C. Code § 7-858.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 8B-ii / § 7-858.04
§ 7-858.04. Discharge standards.
Status: in_force

(a) Each hospital, birthing facility, and nurse-midwife shall provide to each parent comprehensive newborn education and a discharge form approved by the Department with information regarding the newborn's hospital course of treatment, including screenings, procedures, and other tests.
(b) The Mayor shall develop and issue standards for post-partum education, including breastfeeding, family planning, safe sleep practices, tobacco exposure, vaccinations, car safety, basic newborn care, and the results and rationale for newborn screenings.
(c) The Mayor shall establish the content of newborn discharge forms through rulemaking.
D.C. Code § 7-875.06 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 8E / § 7-875.06
§ 7-875.06. Applicability.
Status: in_force

This chapter shall apply to all individual and group health benefit plans issued or renewed 120 days after the issuance of rules required under § 7-875.05 .
D.C. Code § 7-1561.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 15 / § 7-1561.02
§ 7-1561.02. Access to Registry information.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-2510.01 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2510.01
§ 7-2510.01. Definitions.
Status: in_force

For the purposes of this subchapter , the term:
(a) (1) "Extreme risk protection order" means an order issued, pursuant to this subchapter , by a judge of the Superior Court of the District of Columbia prohibiting a respondent from having possession or control of, purchasing, or receiving any firearm, ammunition, registration certificate, license to carry a concealed pistol, or dealer's license.
  (2) "Petitioner" means a person who petitions the Superior Court of the District of Columbia for an extreme risk protection order under this subchapter and is:
    (A) Related to the respondent by blood, adoption, guardianship, marriage, domestic partnership, having a child in common, cohabitating, or is someone with whom the Respondent is, was, or is seeking to be in a romantic, dating, or sexual relationship;
    (B) Any sworn member of a law enforcement agency operating in the District of Columbia; or
    (C) A mental health professional, as that term is defined in § 7-1201.01(11) .
  (3) "Respondent" means a person against whom an extreme risk protection order is sought.
D.C. Code § 7-743.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7A / § 7-743.02
§ 7-743.02. Advisory Committee on Acupuncture.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-2508.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2508.03
§ 7-2508.03. Registration period.
Status: in_force

A gun offender shall comply with the registration and verification provisions required by § 7-2508.02 for a period beginning when he or she is sentenced for a gun offense and continuing until 2 years after the expiration of any time being served on probation, parole, supervised release, or conditional release, or 2 years after the gun offender is unconditionally released from a correctional facility, prison, hospital, or other place of confinement, whichever is latest. The registration period is tolled for any time the gun offender fails to register or otherwise fails to comply with the requirements of this subchapter.
D.C. Code § 7-757.06 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7B-iii / § 7-757.06
§ 7-757.06. Applicability.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-231.17 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 2A / § 7-231.17
§ 7-231.17. Final disposition of dead body or fetus.
Status: in_force

(a) The funeral director who first assumes custody of a dead body shall obtain the following before disposing of the body:
  (1) An authorization for final disposition of the body from the individual with rights to control the final disposition pursuant to § 3-413 ;
  (2) A permit from the Registrar authorizing final disposition;
  (3) A filed death certificate on security paper; and
  (4) If final disposition is to be by cremation, resomation, or burial at sea, additional authorization from the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner in a format to be prescribed by the Registrar.
(b) Before final disposition of a dead fetus, regardless of the duration of pregnancy, the funeral director, the individual in charge of the institution, or other individual responsible for final disposition of the fetus, shall obtain authorization from the individual with rights to control the final disposition pursuant to § 3-413 .
(c) A dead body may be removed from the place of death for the purpose of preparation for final disposition under the following conditions:
  (1) Upon the consent of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner;
  (2) In the case of an expected death at a decedent's place of residence, at the time of death upon the consent of a treating physician or a registered nurse working in general collaboration with the treating physician who signs the pronouncement of death section of the report of death; or
  (3) In the case of an unexpected death at a decedent's place of residence, at the time of death upon the consent of the individual signing the pronouncement of death section on the report of death.
(d) An authorization for final disposition of a dead body or fetus brought into the District, issued by another state and accompanying the dead body or fetus, shall constitute sufficient authority for final disposition in the District.
(e) An individual in charge of a place for interment or other disposition of dead bodies shall neither inter nor allow interment or other disposition of a dead body or fetus unless it is accompanied by an authorization for final disposition.
(f) Each individual in charge of a place of final disposition shall include the date and place of disposition in the permit for final disposition and shall sign and return the permit to the funeral director in a manner prescribed by the Registrar within 10 days after the date of disposition. When there is no individual in charge of the place of final disposition, the funeral director shall complete the authorization.
(g) Authorization for disinterment and re-interment shall be required before human remains are disinterred. The authorization shall be issued by the Registrar to a licensed funeral director and shall include a sworn statement under penalty of perjury stating the grounds for disinterment in a format prescribed by the Registrar. If disinterment is deemed to be a public health threat, the Director of the Department shall be notified prior to the authorization.
(h) A funeral director or his or her designee shall obtain a letter of non-contagious disease certified by the Registrar when transporting a body outside of the United States.
D.C. Code § 7-143 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 1 / § 7-143
§ 7-143. Immediate treatment of minor with venereal disease.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1803.06 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 18 / § 7-1803.06
§ 7-1803.06. Penalties and other remedies.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) In addition to, or in lieu of, any other civil or criminal remedy provided by law, upon a determination that any person has violated § 7-1803.03(c) or any regulation adopted pursuant to this part, the Mayor may revoke or suspend the license of the Wholesaler in the manner provided by § 47-2404(f) .
  (2) Each stamp affixed and each sale or offer to sell cigarettes in violation of § 7-1803.03(c) shall constitute a separate violation. Pursuant to Chapter 18 of Title 2 , the Mayor may also impose a civil fine in an amount not to exceed the greater of 500% of the retail value of the cigarettes or $5,000 for any violation of § 7-1803.03(c) or any regulations adopted pursuant to this part.
(b) Any cigarettes that have been sold, offered for sale, or possessed for sale, in the District, or imported for personal consumption in the District, in violation of § 7-1803.03(c) shall be deemed contraband under § 47-2405(b) and the cigarettes shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in § 47-2409 ; provided, that all such cigarettes so seized and forfeited shall be destroyed and not resold.
(c) The Corporation Counsel, on behalf of the District, may seek an injunction to restrain a threatened or actual violation of § 7-1803.03(c) , § 7-1803.05(a) , or § 7-1803.05(d) by a Wholesaler and compel the Wholesaler to comply with the subsections.
(d) (1) It shall be unlawful for a person to:
    (A) Sell or distribute cigarettes, or
    (B) Acquire, hold, own, possess, transport, import, or cause to be imported cigarettes that the person knows or should know are intended for distribution or sale in the District in violation of § 7-1803.03(c) .
  (2) A violation of this subsection shall, upon conviction, be punishable by a fine of not more than $5,000 or imprisonment of not more than 1 year, or both. Prosecutions for violations of this subsection shall be brought in Superior Court of the District of Columbia in the name of the District by the Corporation Counsel.
D.C. Code § 7-661.07 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 6B / § 7-661.07
§ 7-661.07. Reporting requirements.
Status: in_force

(a) Beginning one year after February 18, 2017, and on an annual basis thereafter, the Department shall review the records maintained under § 7-661.06 for the purpose of gathering data and ensuring compliance with this chapter .
(b) The Department shall generate and make available to the public an annual statistical report of information collected pursuant to subsection (a) of this section. The report shall include:
  (1) The number of qualified patients for whom a prescription for a covered medication was written;
  (2) The number of known qualified patients who died each year for whom a prescription for a covered medication was written, and the cause of death of those patients;
  (3) The number of known deaths in the District from using a covered medication;
  (4) The number of physicians who wrote prescriptions for a covered medication; and
  (5) Of the qualified patients who died due to using a covered medication, demographic percentages organized by the following characteristics:
    (A) Age at death;
    (B) Education level, if known;
    (C) Race;
    (D) Sex;
    (E) Type of insurance, including whether or not they had insurance, if known; and
    (F) Terminal disease.
D.C. Code § 7-2802 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 28 / § 7-2802
§ 7-2802. Definitions.
Status: in_force

As used in this chapter, the term:
(1) “Alarm agent” means any employee of an alarm dealer whose duties include the installation, inspection, maintenance, service, or repair of alarm systems.
(2) “Central alarm station” means a facility operated by an alarm dealer for the purpose of receiving alarm signals from a subscriber and relaying information concerning such signals to the Metropolitan Police Department or the District of Columbia Fire Department for response to the scene.
(3) “Chief of Police” means the Chief of Police of the Metropolitan Police Department.
(4) “Day” means calendar day, unless otherwise defined.
(5) “District” means the District of Columbia government.
(6) “False alarm” means any alarm signal communicated to the Metropolitan Police Department or the District of Columbia Fire Department that is not in response to an actual or threatened fire, an actual or attempted burglary, a holdup, an assault, or an unlawful entry requiring an immediate police or fire department response. The term “false alarm” shall include a negligently or accidentally activated signal; a signal that is the result of faulty, malfunctioning, or improperly installed or maintained equipment; and a signal that is purposely activated to summon the Metropolitan Police Department or the District of Columbia Fire Department in non-emergency situations. The term “false alarm” shall not include a signal willfully activated by an alarm user upon a good faith belief that an actual or threatened fire, an actual or attempted burglary, a holdup, an assault, or an unlawful entry is about to occur or a signal activated by unusually severe weather conditions or other causes, that is identified and determined by the Mayor to be beyond the control of the user or of the alarm dealer.
(6a) “Fire Chief” means the Chief of the District of Columbia Fire Department.
(6b) “Fire Department” means the District of Columbia Fire Department.
(7) “Mayor” means the Mayor of the District of Columbia or the Mayor’s designated agent.
(8) “Metropolitan Police Department” means the Metropolitan Police Department of the District of Columbia.
(9) “Notice” means written notice, served personally upon the addressee or a representative designated by him or by law to receive service of papers, or mailed by United States mail, postage prepaid, addressed to the person to be notified at his last known address. Service of such notice shall be effective upon completion of personal service, or upon placing the same in the custody of the United States Postal Service for delivery. Proof of service may be by written acknowledgment of the party served or his or her representative, by return receipt if served by registered or certified mail, or by certificate of the person making the service personally or by mail. The term “notice” shall not have the above meaning when used in the term “notice of violation”.
(10) “Person” means any individual, firm, partnership, association, company, corporation, or organization of any kind.
(11) “Scene” means the premises upon which a security alarm is located.
(12) “Alarm dealer” means any person engaged in the business of selling, leasing, renting, installing, inspecting, maintaining, servicing, or repairing alarm systems or components thereof, or receiving alarm signals from a subscriber and relaying information concerning such signals to the Metropolitan Police Department or District of Columbia Fire Department for response to the scene.
(13) “Alarm system” means any device or system that transmits a signal visibly, audibly, electronically, mechanically, or by combination of these methods to indicate an actual or threatened fire, an actual or attempted burglary, a holdup, an assault, or an unlawful entry at a premises, requiring an immediate response to the scene by the Metropolitan Police Department or the District of Columbia Fire Department. The term “alarm system” shall include a service activated automatically, such as a burglary or fire alarm, and a device activated manually, such as a holdup alarm, but shall not include telephonic lines maintained and operated by public utilities under the regulation of the Public Service Commission over which the signal might be transmitted.
(14) “Subscriber” means any user who employs the services of a central alarm station.
(15) “User” means any person owning and operating an alarm system, regardless of whether the alarm system was purchased or obtained within the boundaries of the District of Columbia.
D.C. Code § 7-203 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 2 / § 7-203
§ 7-203. Appointment and duties of Registrar.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1206.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 12 / § 7-1206.03
§ 7-1206.03. Notice Requirement — Clients in group sessions.
Status: in_force

Mental health professionals shall provide clients in a group session with a written statement of the prohibition against the unauthorized disclosure of mental health information and the penalties provided in this chapter for unauthorized disclosure.
D.C. Code § 7-757.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7B-iii / § 7-757.03
§ 7-757.03. Members of the Health Literacy Council.
Status: in_force

The Health Literacy Council shall be composed of 15 members, as follows:
(a) (1) One member shall be appointed by the Chairperson of the Council committee with oversight over the Department of Health;
  (2) One member shall be the President of the University of the District of Columbia, or the President's designee;
  (3) One member shall be the President of the Community College of the District of Columbia, or the President's designee;
  (4) One member shall be the Executive Director of the Health Benefit Exchange Authority, or the Executive Director's designee;
  (5) One member shall be the Director of the Department of Behavioral Health, or the Director's designee;
  (6) One member shall be the Director of the Department of Health Care Finance, or the Director's designee;
  (7) One member shall be the Director of the Department of Health, or the Director's designee; and
  (8) Eight members shall be appointed by the Mayor, as follows:
    (A) One member shall represent the Workforce Investment Council;
    (B) Four members shall be District residents with extensive knowledge of health resources and services, health education, and the field of health literacy programs;
    (C) One member shall represent the Youth Advisory Council;
    (D) One faculty member from a District of Columbia university who is a District resident with specific experience in issues of equity in health care systems; and
    (E) One member with experience in primary care who is employed by a clinic or an association representing clinics.
D.C. Code § 7-1831.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 18 / § 7-1831.02
§ 7-1831.02. Sale of rights under Master Settlement Agreement.
Status: in_force

(a) For the purpose of financing the costs of the National Capital Medical Center, healthcare related issues, or other capital projects, and the repayment of outstanding indebtedness issued for certain capital projects and other undertakings of the District, the District may sell to the Corporation all of the District’s right, title, and interest in and to the Master Settlement Agreement, including all the moneys, and any interest thereon, payable to or received by the District thereunder (except for the first payment of $16.05 million which has already been received by the District), in exchange for: (1) a cash payment in the amount of the net sales proceeds of the Bonds (other than the Residual Bond); (2) the Residual Bond; and (3) the agreement of the Corporation to repay certain indebtedness of the District.
(b) Subject to the authorization and restrictions of this subchapter, the terms and conditions of the Purchase Agreement or the Residual Bond Purchase Agreement shall be determined by the Mayor, which determination shall be conclusively evidenced by his execution of the Purchase Agreement or the Residual Bond Purchase Agreement. The Mayor may execute and deliver any administrative or other documents or agreements which are necessary or desirable relating to the sale of the District’s right, title, and interest in and to the Master Settlement Agreement or in connection with the issuance of the Bonds. Proceeds from the sale of the Bonds and other moneys received by the Corporation pursuant to the Purchase Agreement or the Residual Bond Purchase Agreement will be used to repay certain outstanding indebtedness of the District, to finance or refinance the National Capital Medical Center, healthcare related issues, or other capital projects or undertakings of the District, as well as to pay costs of issuance of the Bonds, to establish and fund reserve funds, and to pay other expenses and fees related to the issuance of the Bonds.
(c) For the purpose of financing the costs of the National Capital Medical Center, healthcare related issues, or other capital projects, and repayment of outstanding indebtedness issued for certain capital projects and other undertakings of the District, the Fund may sell to the Corporation all of the Fund’s right, title, and interest in and to the Residual Bond, including all the moneys, and any interest thereon, payable to or received by the Fund thereunder, in exchange for:
  (1) A cash payment in the amount of the net sales proceeds of Bonds secured by the Residual Bond; and
  (2) The Remainder Certificate, if any.
D.C. Code § 7-2206 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 22 / § 7-2206
§ 7-2206. Limitation of liability.
Status: in_force

Neither the District of Columbia nor any volunteer agency in the service of said District nor, except in cases of willful misconduct or gross negligence, any officer, agent, or employee of the District of Columbia or volunteer agency, or any regularly appointed volunteer worker, engaged in civil defense activities, while complying with or attempting to comply with any provision of this chapter or of any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to this chapter, shall be liable to any person, whether or not such person is engaged in civil defense, for death, injury, or property damage resulting therefrom. The provisions of this section shall not affect the right of any person to receive benefits to which he would otherwise be entitled under any workmen’s compensation law, or under any pension, retirement, or disability law, nor the right of any such person to receive any benefits or compensation under any other act of Congress.
D.C. Code § 7-2361.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 23C / § 7-2361.04
§ 7-2361.04. Volunteer health practitioner registration systems.
Status: in_force

(a) To qualify as a volunteer health practitioner registration system, a registration system must:
  (1) Accept applications for the registration of volunteer health practitioners before or during an emergency;
  (2) Include information about the licensure and good standing of health practitioners that is accessible by authorized persons;
  (3) Be capable of confirming the accuracy of information concerning whether a health practitioner is licensed and in good standing before health services or veterinary services are provided under this chapter; and
  (4) Meet one of the following conditions:
    (A) Be an emergency system for advance registration of volunteer health-care practitioners established by a state and funded through the Health Resources Services Administration under section 319I of the Public Health Service Act, approved June 12, 2002 (116 Stat. 608; 42 U.S.C. § 247d-7 b);
    (B) Be a local unit consisting of trained and equipped emergency response, public health, and medical personnel formed pursuant to section 2801 of the Public Health Service Act, approved June 12, 2002 (116. Stat. 596; 42 U.S.C. 300hh);
    (C) Be operated by a:
      (i) Disaster relief organization;
      (ii) Licensing board;
      (iii) National or regional association of licensing boards or health practitioners;
      (iv) Health facility that provides comprehensive inpatient and outpatient health-care services, including a tertiary care and teaching hospital; or
      (v) Governmental entity; or
    (D) Be designated by the Mayor as a registration system for purposes of this chapter.
(b) While an emergency declaration is in effect, the Mayor, the Mayor’s designee, or a host entity may confirm whether volunteer health practitioners utilized in the District are registered with a registration system that complies with subsection (a) of this section. Confirmation is limited to obtaining the identities of the practitioners from the system and determining whether the system indicates that the practitioners are licensed and in good standing.
(c) Upon request of the Mayor, the Mayor’s designee, or a host entity pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, or a similarly authorized person in another state, the entity operating a registration system located in the District shall notify the authorized person of the identities of volunteer health practitioners and whether the practitioners are licensed and in good standing.
(d) A host entity is not required to use the services of a volunteer health practitioner even if the practitioner is registered with a registration system that indicates that the practitioner is licensed and in good standing.
D.C. Code § 7-1671.12a — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 16B / § 7-1671.12a
§ 7-1671.12a. Cease and desist orders.
Status: in_force

(a) If the ABC Board, after investigation but before a hearing, has cause to believe that a person is violating a provision of this chapter and the violation has caused or may cause, immediate and irreparable harm to the public, the ABC Board may issue an order requiring the alleged violator to cease and desist immediately from the violation.  The order shall be served by certified mail or hand-delivered to the licensee or unlicensed establishment.
(b) (1) The alleged violator may, within 15 days after the service of the order, submit a written request to the ABC Board to hold a hearing on the alleged violation.
  (2) Upon receipt of a timely request, the ABC Board shall conduct a hearing in accordance with the procedures set forth in Chapter 5 of Title 2 , and issue a decision within 90 days after the hearing.
(c) (1) The alleged violator may, within 10 days after the service of an order, submit a written request to the ABC Board for an expedited hearing on the alleged violation.
  (2) Upon receipt of a timely request for an expedited hearing, the ABC Board shall conduct a hearing within 10 days after the date of receiving the request and shall deliver to the alleged violator at their last known address a written notice of the hearing by any means guaranteed to be received at least 5 days before the hearing date.
  (3) The ABC Board shall issue a decision within 30 days after an expedited hearing.
(d) If a request for a hearing is not timely made under subsection (b) or (c) of this section, the order of the ABC Board shall be final.
(e) If, after a hearing, the ABC Board determines that the alleged violator is not in violation of this chapter , the ABC Board shall revoke the order.
(f) If a person fails to comply with a lawful order of the ABC Board under this section, the ABC Board may petition the Superior Court of the District of Columbia for an order compelling compliance or take any other action authorized by this chapter .
D.C. Code § 7-503.12 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5 / § 7-503.12
§ 7-503.12. Housing resources and program referrals.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1204.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 12 / § 7-1204.03
§ 7-1204.03. Court actions.
Status: in_force

(a) Mental health information may be disclosed in a civil or administrative proceeding in which the client or the client representative or, in the case of a deceased client, any party claiming or defending through or a beneficiary of the client, initiates his mental or emotional condition or any aspect thereof as an element of the claim or defense.
(b) (1) In addition to mental health information that is disclosed when a defendant’s competence or mental health is at issue or when otherwise authorized by law, in a criminal proceeding, the court may order the disclosure, or redisclosure, of a defendant or offender’s mental health information when and only to the extent necessary to monitor the defendant or offender’s compliance with a condition of pretrial release, probation, parole, supervised release, or diversion agreement that the defendant or offender obtain or comply with mental health treatment ordered by a court or the U.S. Parole Commission.
  (2) Any disclosure or redisclosure of mental health information ordered under this subsection shall be limited to the minimum necessary to monitor the individual’s compliance and the court’s order shall specify the information that may be disclosed or redisclosed.
(c) Mental health information shall be disclosed to the Office of the Attorney General for the District of Columbia in response to a court order issued pursuant to § 7-2502.03(f)(3)(A)(i) or § 7-2510.03(d)(2)
D.C. Code § 7-751.10 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7B / § 7-751.10
§ 7-751.10. Compensation during service.
Status: in_force

Each participant is responsible for negotiating his or her own compensation package directly with the service obligation site.
D.C. Code § 7-2509.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 25 / § 7-2509.03
§ 7-2509.03. Expiration and renewal of licenses.
Status: in_force

(a) A license shall expire no later than 2 years after the date of issuance unless revoked by the Chief or renewed pursuant to this subchapter.
(b) (1) A license shall be eligible for renewal if:
    (A) The licensee continues to meet the requirements of § 22-4506 and § 7-2509.02 , except that:
      (i) With regard to § 7-2509.02(a)(4) , only 4 hours of such training shall be required for renewal; and
      (ii) With regard to § 7-2509.02(a)(5) , the licensee shall provide proof of 2 hours of range practice within the previous 12 months; and
    (B) The licensee follows any procedures the Chief may establish by rule.
  (2) Timely renewal shall be the responsibility of the licensee, pursuant to any procedures the Chief may establish by rule.
(c) Any person whose renewal application has been denied may, within 15 days after the date of the notice of denial, appeal to the Office of Administrative Hearings pursuant to § 7-2509.08 .
D.C. Code § 7-1671.06c — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 16B / § 7-1671.06c
§ 7-1671.06c. Safe-use treatment facility endorsement.
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The holder of a retailer license shall be eligible to apply to the ABC Board for a safe-use treatment facility endorsement. The holder of a safe-use treatment facility endorsement shall be permitted to:
    (A) Sell medical cannabis, medical cannabis products, and paraphernalia at the retailer to qualifying patients and caregivers to be administered on the premises by or to the qualifying patient at the time of purchase within designated consumption areas that are separated from the remainder of the premises by a secure door and have a separate ventilation system;
    (B) Allow a qualifying patient or the qualifying patient's caregiver to remove from the premises unused medical cannabis, medical cannabis products, or paraphernalia that has been purchased from the retailer in accordance with the requirements and limits set forth in this chapter ; provided, that the removed items are packaged in accordance with regulations issued pursuant to § 7-1671.13 ;
    (C) Offer or sell food that does not contain cannabis in the safe-use treatment facility; and
    (D) Offer recorded or background music in the designated consumption area.
  (2) The holder of an internet retailer license shall not be eligible for a safe use treatment facility endorsement.
(b) A retailer with a safe-use treatment facility endorsement shall:
  (1) Install security cameras that are operable and able to record for a minimum of 30 days;
  (2) Display conspicuous warning labels that are visible to the qualifying patient and the qualifying patient's caregiver concerning administering medical cannabis and medical cannabis products;
  (3) Destroy all unadministered medical cannabis left abandoned or unclaimed in the designated consumption area; and
  (4) Package and label all medical cannabis or medical cannabis products purchased to be administered on the premises of the safe-use treatment facility in accordance with regulations issued pursuant to § 7-1671.13 .
(c) A retailer's safe-use treatment facility area shall have the following characteristics:
  (1) The area where medical cannabis is to be administered on-site by qualifying patients shall be isolated from the other areas of the retailer, separated by walls and a secure door, and shall have access only from the retailer;
  (2) A smoke-free area for employees to monitor the designated consumption area, if combustible medical cannabis products are available to qualifying patients to consume in the designated consumption area; and
  (3) If combustible medical cannabis products are available to qualifying patients to consume in the designated consumption area, a ventilation system that directs air from the designated consumption area to the outside of the building through a pollution control unit or odor control unit that, at a minimum, eliminates all detectable odor, smoke, and by-products of combustion so as to prevent any and all public nuisances.
(d) A retailer with a safe-use treatment facility endorsement shall not:
  (1) Allow a person to consume alcohol, tobacco, or tobacco products in the safe-use treatment facility;
  (2) Allow any member of the public other than a qualifying patient or the qualifying patient's caregiver to enter the safe-use treatment facility;
  (3) Allow a person to bring into or administer in the safe-use treatment facility any medical cannabis or medical cannabis products that were not purchased at the retailer unless otherwise permitted by the ABC Board by rulemaking;
  (4) Sell, offer to sell, or provide medical cannabis, medical cannabis products, or paraphernalia in excess of the quantity limits set forth in this chapter or regulations issued pursuant to § 7-1671.13 ;
  (5) Encourage or permit an organized game or contest on the premises that involves consuming cannabis or cannabis products or the awarding of cannabis or cannabis products; or
  (6) Advertise or promote, in any way, either on or off the premises, a practice prohibited under this section.
(e) An applicant for a safe-use treatment facility endorsement shall:
  (1) Complete an application on a form the ABC Board prescribes by regulations issued pursuant to § 7-1671.13 ;
  (2) If combustible medical cannabis products will be available to qualifying patients to consume in the designated consumption area, include with the application a ventilation proposal, which shall include information to address:
    (A) The air change for the designated consumption space;
    (B) The air change for common areas inside the retailer;
    (C) The filter type and odor control measures for the designated consumption space;
    (D) The location of air intakes and exhaust outlets;
    (E) Whether the designated consumption space area shares space with employee work areas; and
    (F) Any other information considered necessary through rulemaking.
(f) The minimum initial application fee for the safe-use treatment facility endorsement shall be $1,000. The endorsement shall be valid for 3 years, with a minimum annual fee of $2,000.
D.C. Code § 7-733.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7A / § 7-733.02
§ 7-733.02. Board of Pharmacy Fund.
Status: in_force

(a) There is established as a special fund the Board of Pharmacy Fund ("Fund"), which shall be administered by the Department of Health in accordance with subsection (c) of this section.
(b) (1) All licensing fees, civil fines, and interest earned relating to the practice of pharmaceutical detailing shall be deposited in the Fund.
  (2) For the purposes of this subsection, the term "practice of pharmaceutical detailing" shall have the same meaning as provided in § 3-1201.02(10A) .
(c) Money in the Fund shall be used for the administration of the Board of Pharmacy.
(d) Any money remaining available in the Fund at the end of a fiscal year, as determined by the Chief Financial Officer in the fiscal year-end close, shall be transferred to the unassigned fund balance of the General Fund of the District of Columbia as part of the fiscal year-end close.
D.C. Code § 7-533.02 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5 / § 7-533.02
§ 7-533.02. Senior Dental Services Program.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1306.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 13 / § 7-1306.04
§ 7-1306.04. Authority of Board of Education unchanged.
Status: in_force

Nothing herein shall be construed to extend or diminish the authority or responsibility of the D.C. Board of Education vested pursuant to Title 38 of the District of Columbia Official Code and applicable federal laws and regulations.
D.C. Code § 7-504.08 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 5 / § 7-504.08
§ 7-504.08. Compensation; expenses.
Status: in_force

All members shall serve without compensation, but expenses incurred by the Commission as a whole, or by its individual members, when duly authorized, will become an obligation against appropriate District government and federal funds designated for that purpose.
D.C. Code § 7-1306.03 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 13 / § 7-1306.03
§ 7-1306.03. Appropriations.
Status: in_force

There is hereby authorized to be appropriated such District funds as may be necessary and available to implement the provisions of this chapter, including funds for the development, and the support, of community-based services for persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities.
D.C. Code § 7-154 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 1 / § 7-154
§ 7-154. Establishment of Public Health Coordination Advisory Committee.
Status: in_force

(a) There is established a Public Health Coordination Advisory Committee (“Committee”) which shall be responsible for advising the Director of the Department of Public Health, the Mayor and the Council on policy matters related to the effective and efficient coordination of the delivery of public health care services in the District of Columbia.
(b) The Committee shall include:
  (1) The Director of the Department of Public Health who shall serve as the chairperson;
  (2) The Director of the Department of Mental Health or a designee;
  (3) The Commissioner of Social Services or a designee;
  (4) The Executive Director of the District of Columbia General Hospital or a designee;
  (5) The Executive Director of the Department of Aging and Community Living or a designee;
  (6) The Director of the Department of Consumer and Regulatory Affairs or a designee;
  (7) The President of the Doctors Council of the District of Columbia, representing employees in Compensation Unit 19, or a designee; and
  (8) The following persons who shall be appointed by the Mayor:
    (A) 1 licensed physician and 1 licensed dentist employed by a District health care facility;
    (B) 2 licensed nurses employed by a District health care facility; and
    (C) 2 consumers of health care services in the District.
(c) The duties of the Committee shall include advising the Director of the Department of Public Health on the development, implementation and monitoring of a comprehensive plan to coordinate the delivery of District health care services provided by the public health clinics of the Department of Public Health and the District of Columbia General Hospital to provide a comprehensive continuum of efficient and quality health care services to District residents.
D.C. Code § 7-2164 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 21D / § 7-2164
§ 7-2164. Plaintiff's privacy.
Status: in_force

(a) In an action under this chapter :
  (1) The court may exclude or redact from all pleadings and documents filed in the action other identifying characteristics of the plaintiff;
  (2) A plaintiff to whom paragraph (1) of this section applies shall file with the court and serve on the defendant a confidential information form that includes the excluded or redacted plaintiff's name and other identifying characteristics; and
  (3) The court may make further orders as necessary to protect the identity and privacy of a plaintiff.
D.C. Code § 7-1306.03a — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 13 / § 7-1306.03a
§ 7-1306.03a. Rules for implementation.
Status: in_force

The Mayor, pursuant to subchapter I of Chapter 5 of Title 2 , shall issue rules to implement the provisions of this chapter.
D.C. Code § 7-758.01 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7B-iv / § 7-758.01
§ 7-758.01. Families First DC.
Status: in_force

(a) The Mayor may award grants to non-profit organizations to support the establishment and operation of Families First DC centers in District neighborhoods.
(b) In providing funding to support Families First DC success centers, priority shall be given to neighborhoods that have:
  (1) Disparities related to social determinants of health;
  (2) A need for community stabilization efforts; and
  (3) Disproportionate numbers of substantiated cases of child abuse and neglect.
(c) Grants issued under this section shall be administered pursuant to the requirements set forth in part B of subchapter XII-A of Chapter 3 of Title 1 .
(d) For the purposes of this section, the term "Families First DC" means a comprehensive neighborhood-based approach aimed at reducing social, economic, and health disparities among District residents and creating stronger, more resilient families, and supportive environments for children through focused access to District and private-sector services and resources based on neighborhood-specific needs and interests.
D.C. Code § 7-743.04 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 7A / § 7-743.04
§ 7-743.04. Advisory Committee on Naturopathic Medicine.
Status: repealed

Repealed.
D.C. Code § 7-1001 — DC Code / Title 7 / Chapter 10 / § 7-1001
§ 7-1001. Equal access to public places.
Status: in_force

Persons with physical or mental disabilities have the same right as the able-bodied to the full and free use of the streets, highways, sidewalks, walkways, public buildings, public facilities, and other public places in the District of Columbia.