Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-415b — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420g / Section 21a-415b
Sec. 21a-415b. Notice of restriction of sale of electronic nicotine delivery systems and vapor products. Unannounced compliance checks by Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services. Hearing and imposition of penalties by Commissioner of Revenue Services. Suspension or revocation of license by Commissioner of Consumer Protection.
Status: in_force

(b) The Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or the commissioner's designee, shall conduct unannounced compliance checks on business entities holding a dealer registration by engaging persons between the ages of sixteen and twenty to enter the place of business of each such business entity to attempt to purchase an electronic nicotine delivery system or a vapor product. The commissioner shall conduct unannounced follow-up compliance checks of all noncompliant business entities and shall refer all noncompliant business entities to the Commissioner of Revenue Services.

(c) Upon receipt of a referral made pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, the Commissioner of Revenue Services may, following a hearing, impose a civil penalty and direct the Commissioner of Consumer Protection to suspend or revoke the dealer registration of the business entity that is the subject of such referral. The Commissioner of Revenue Services shall provide such business entity with written notice of the hearing, specifying the time and place of such hearing and requiring such business entity to show cause why such dealer registration should not be suspended or revoked. The written notice of the hearing shall be mailed or delivered to such business entity not less than ten days preceding the date of the hearing. Such notice may be served personally or by registered or certified mail.

(d) If the Commissioner of Revenue Services finds, after a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, that any person employed by any business entity issued a dealer registration under section 21a-415 has sold, given or delivered an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product to a person under twenty-one years of age, other than a person under twenty-one years of age who is delivering or accepting delivery in such person's capacity as an employee, said commissioner shall, for the first violation, require such employee to successfully complete an online prevention education program administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services not later than thirty days after said commissioner's finding. Said commissioner shall assess any employee who fails to complete such program a civil penalty of two hundred dollars. Said commissioner shall assess any employee a civil penalty of two hundred fifty dollars for a second or subsequent violation on or before twenty-four months after the date of the first violation.

(e) If the Commissioner of Revenue Services finds, after a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, that (1) any business entity issued a dealer registration under section 21a-415 has sold, given or delivered an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product to a person under twenty-one years of age, other than a person under twenty-one years of age who is delivering or accepting delivery in such person's capacity as an employee, or (2) such person's employee has sold, given or delivered an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product to a person under twenty-one years of age, the commissioner shall, for the first violation, require the authorized owner of such business entity to successfully complete an online prevention education program administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services not later than thirty days after said commissioner's finding. Said commissioner shall assess any business entity issued a dealer registration, whose authorized owner fails to complete such program, a civil penalty of three hundred dollars for the first violation. Said commissioner shall assess such business entity a civil penalty of seven hundred fifty dollars for a second violation on or before twenty-four months after the date of the first violation. For a third violation by such business entity on or before twenty-four months after the date of the first violation, said commissioner shall assess such business entity a civil penalty of one thousand dollars and notify the Commissioner of Consumer Protection that the dealer registration held by such business entity under this chapter shall be suspended for not less than thirty days. For a fourth violation on or before twenty-four months after the date of the first violation, the Commissioner of Revenue Services shall assess such business entity a civil penalty of one thousand dollars and notify the Commissioner of Consumer Protection that the dealer registration held by such business entity under said chapter shall be revoked. The Commissioner of Revenue Services shall order such business entity to conspicuously post a notice in a public place stating that electronic nicotine delivery systems and vapor products cannot be sold during the period of suspension or revocation and the reasons for such suspension or revocation. Any sale of an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product by such business entity during the period of such suspension or revocation shall be deemed an additional violation of this section.

(f) Upon receipt of notice of determination from the Commissioner of Revenue Services made under subsection (e) of this section, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall suspend or revoke the dealer registration of the business entity that is the subject of said determination. The Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall not be required to hold a hearing in connection with any notice of determination received from the Commissioner of Revenue Services under this section.

(g) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall not issue a new dealer registration to a former registrant whose dealer registration was revoked unless the commissioner is satisfied that such business entity that holds a dealer registration will comply with the provisions of this chapter and any regulations related thereto, and section 53-344b .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-415a — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420g / Section 21a-415a
Sec. 21a-415a. Electronic nicotine delivery system certificate of manufacturer registration. Renewal. Fees. Penalties.
Status: in_force

(b) (1) Any applicant for a manufacturer registration or renewal of a manufacturer registration shall apply to the Department of Consumer Protection upon forms to be furnished by the department, showing the name, address and electronic mail address of the applicant and the location of the place of business which is to be operated under such manufacturer registration. The department may require that an applicant submit documents sufficient to establish that state and local building, fire and zoning requirements will be met at the place of manufacture. The department may, in its discretion, conduct an investigation to determine whether a manufacturer registration shall be issued to an applicant.

(2) The commissioner shall issue a manufacturer registration to any such applicant not later than thirty days after the date of application unless the commissioner finds: (A) The applicant has wilfully made a materially false statement in such application or in any other application made to the commissioner; or (B) the applicant has neglected to pay any taxes due to this state.

(3) A manufacturer registration issued under this section shall be renewed annually and may be suspended or revoked at the discretion of the Department of Consumer Protection. Any person aggrieved by a denial of an application, refusal to renew a manufacturer registration or suspension or revocation of a manufacturer registration may appeal in the manner prescribed for permits under section 30-55 . A manufacturer registration shall not constitute property, nor shall it be subject to attachment and execution, nor shall it be alienable.

(4) The applicant shall pay to the department a nonrefundable application fee of seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be in addition to the annual fee prescribed in subsection (c) of this section. An application fee shall not be charged for an application to renew a manufacturer registration.

(c) The annual fee for a manufacturer registration shall be four hundred dollars, except that the annual fee shall be two hundred dollars for any person holding a manufacturer registration who also holds any additional manufacturer registrations or dealer registrations issued by the department under this chapter.

(d) The department may renew a manufacturer registration issued under this section that has expired for a period of six months or less if the applicant pays to the department any late fee imposed by the commissioner pursuant to subsection (c) of section 21a-4 , which late fee shall be in addition to the fees prescribed in this section for the certificate of manufacturer registration applied for. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any manufacturer registration which is the subject of administrative or court proceedings.

(e) (1) Any person in this state who knowingly manufactures an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product from a place of business that does not have a manufacturer registration as required under this section shall be fined not more than fifty dollars for each day of such violation, except that the commissioner may waive all or any part of such fine if it is proven to the commissioner's satisfaction that the failure to obtain or renew such manufacturer registration was due to reasonable cause.

(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, any person whose manufacturer registration for the place of business where electronic nicotine delivery systems or vapor products are manufactured has expired for a period of ninety calendar days or less and who manufactures in the state during such ninety-day period an electronic nicotine delivery system or vapor product shall have committed an infraction and shall be fined ninety dollars for each day such person is in violation of the provisions of this subdivision.

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection, no penalty shall be imposed under this subsection unless the commissioner sends written notice of any violation to the person who is subject to a penalty under subdivision (1) or (2) of this subsection and allows such person sixty days from the date such notice was sent to cease such violation and comply with the requirements of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-7 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-7
Sec. 21a-7. (Formerly Sec. 19-171f). Powers and duties of boards and commissions within Department of Consumer Protection.
Status: in_force

(1) Each board or commission shall exercise its statutory functions, including licensing, certification, registration, accreditation of schools and the rendering of findings, orders and adjudications. With the exception of the Liquor Control Commission, any exercise of such functions by such a board or commission that is adverse to a party shall be a proposed final decision and subject to approval, modification or rejection by the commissioner.

(2) Each board or commission may, in its discretion, issue (A) an appropriate order to any person found to be violating an applicable statute or regulation providing for the immediate discontinuance of the violation, (B) an order requiring the violator to make restitution for any damage caused by the violation, or (C) both. Each board or commission may, through the Attorney General, petition the superior court for the judicial district wherein the violation occurred, or wherein the person committing the violation resides or transacts business, for the enforcement of any order issued by it and for appropriate temporary relief or a restraining order and shall certify and file in the court a transcript of the entire record of the hearing or hearings, including all testimony upon which such order was made and the findings and orders made by the board or commission. The court may grant such relief by injunction or otherwise, including temporary relief, as it deems equitable and may make and enter a decree enforcing, modifying and enforcing as so modified, or setting aside, in whole or in part, any order of a board or commission.

(3) Each board or commission may conduct hearings on any matter within its statutory jurisdiction. Such hearings shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 54 and the regulations established pursuant to subsection (a) of section 21a-9 . In connection with any such hearing, the board or commission may administer oaths, issue subpoenas, compel testimony and order the production of books, records and documents. If any person refuses to appear, testify or produce any book, record or document when so ordered, a judge of the Superior Court may make such order as may be appropriate to aid in the enforcement of this section.

(4) Each board or commission may request the Commissioner of Consumer Protection to conduct an investigation and to make findings and recommendations regarding any matter within the statutory jurisdiction of the board or commission.

(5) Each board or commission may recommend rules and regulations for adoption by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection and may review and comment upon proposed rules and regulations prior to their adoption by said commissioner.

(6) Each board or commission shall meet at least once in each quarter of a calendar year and at such other times as the chairperson or the Commissioner of Consumer Protection deems necessary. A majority of the members shall constitute a quorum, except that for any examining board, forty per cent of the members shall constitute a quorum. Any member who fails to attend three consecutive meetings or who fails to attend fifty per cent of all meetings during any calendar year shall be deemed to have resigned from office. Members of boards or commissions shall not serve for more than two consecutive full terms which commence on or after July 1, 1982, except that if no successor has been appointed or approved, such member shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed or approved. Members shall not be compensated for their services but shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(7) In addition to any other action permitted under the general statutes, each board or commission may, upon a finding of any cause specified in subsection (c) of section 21a-9 : (A) Revoke, place conditions upon or suspend a license, registration or certificate; (B) issue a letter of reprimand to a practitioner and send a copy of such letter to a complainant or to a state or local official; (C) place a practitioner on probationary status and require the practitioner to (i) report regularly to the department, board or commission on the matter which is the basis for probation, (ii) limit the practitioner's practice to areas prescribed by the board or commission, or (iii) continue or renew the practitioner's education until the practitioner has attained a satisfactory level of competence in any area which is the basis for probation; or (D) impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per violation. Each board or commission may discontinue, suspend or rescind any action taken under this subsection.

(8) Each examining board within the Department of Consumer Protection or the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall conduct any hearing or other action required for an application submitted pursuant to section 20-333 and any completed renewal application submitted pursuant to section 20-335 not later than (A) thirty days after the date of submission for such application or completed renewal application, as applicable, or (B) a period of time deemed appropriate by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, but not to exceed sixty days after such date of submission.

(b) With the exception of the Liquor Control Commission, each board or commission within the Department of Consumer Protection under section 21a-6 that makes a proposed final decision that is adverse to a party as described in subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this section, shall submit such proposed final decision to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection. Not later than thirty calendar days after receipt of any such proposed final decision, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall notify such board or commission that the commissioner shall render the final decision concerning such matter. Not later than thirty days after receipt of any such proposed final decision, the commissioner shall approve, modify or reject the proposed final decision or remand the proposed final decision for further review or for the taking of additional evidence. The commissioner shall notify the board or commission in writing of the commissioner's decision and include in such notification the rationale for such decision. The decision of the commissioner shall be the final decision in accordance with section 4-180 for purposes of reconsideration in accordance with section 4-181a or appeal to the Superior Court in accordance with section 4-183 .

Cited. 204 C. 156; 209 C. 719.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-231 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420a / Section 21a-231
Sec. 21a-231. (Formerly Sec. 19-419). Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Bedding” means any mattress, pillow, cushion, quilt, bed pad, comforter, sleeping bag, upholstered spring bed, box spring, davenport, bedspring metal couch, metal bed, metal cradle, hammock pillow, upholstered furniture or other substantially similar article or part thereof used or intended to be used for sleeping, resting or reclining.

(2) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection or such commissioner's designee.

(3) “Department” means the Department of Consumer Protection.

(4) “Fee”, “permit fee” and “license fee” mean the respective fees paid at the time of application for the issuance or renewal of any permit or license.

(5) “Filling material” means any natural or synthetic fibers or filaments, down, feathers or other soft material which may be used in the manufacture of bedding.

(6) “Importer” means any person who imports bedding from outside the United States.

(7) “Manufacture”, “make”, or “made” refer to the assembly, construction or the importation of bedding or filling material for sale.

(8) “Manufacturer” means any person who makes or prepares for sale or imports bedding, in whole or in part, that contains filling material.

(9) “New” means any filling material or bedding which has not been previously used for any purpose.

(10) “Person” means an individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, association, receiver or agent.

(11) “Renovate” means addition of new filling material to bedding.

(12) “Renovator” means any person who adds new filling material to bedding for a fee.

(13) “Sale”, “sell”, or “sold” means offering or exposing for sale or exchange or lease or holding in possession with like intent.

(14) “Sanitized” or “method of sanitation” means the direct application of chemicals to kill pathogenic agents.

(15) “Sterilized” or “method of sterilization” refers to the mitigation of any infective and deleterious substances including germs, fungi and insects from bedding or filling material by a process approved by the commissioner.

(16) “Secondhand” means any filling material or bedding subject to prior use.

(17) “Secondhand dealer” means any person who sells any secondhand bedding.

(18) “Upholstered furniture” means any furniture that contains filling material and is used or intended to be used for sitting, resting or reclining.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-47p — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 409a / Section 21-47p
Sec. 21-47p. Identification required. Record keeping system. Exemptions.
Status: in_force

(b) Each such fine art secured lender shall maintain a computerized record keeping system deemed appropriate by the licensing authority, in which shall be entered in English, at the time the secured lender receives any article of fine art by way of pledge, deposit or purchase, a description of such article, the name, residence address, proof of identity as required in subsection (a) of this section and a general description of the person from whom, and the date and hour when such fine art was received and in which, if the fine art does not contain any identifiable numbers or markings, shall be included a digital photograph of each article. Each entry in the record keeping system shall be numbered consecutively. A tag shall be attached to the article in a visible and convenient place with a number written on such tag corresponding to the entry number in the record keeping system and shall remain attached to the article until the article is sold or otherwise disposed of, provided the licensing authority shall prescribe procedures authorizing the removal of such tags from articles, including those articles consisting of jewelry that are cleaned and repaired on the premises by the fine art secured lender, that will provide accountability for such articles. Such tag shall be visible in a digital photograph taken in accordance with this section. Detailed information regarding transactions involving sums taken or received for the purpose of participating in secured art transactions, whether through a collective fund or otherwise, shall be entered into and maintained in the system by the fine art secured lender. Such record keeping system and the place where such business is carried on and all articles of fine art therein may be examined at all times by any state police officer, municipal police officer, the licensing authority or any person designated by them. Any state police officer or municipal police officer who performs such an examination may require any employee on the premises to provide proof of the employee's identity. All records maintained pursuant to this section shall be retained by the fine art secured lender for not less than two years.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, the description of any fine art received by a fine art secured lender under this section shall include, but not be limited to, all distinguishing marks, names of any kind, including serial numbers, engravings, etchings, affiliation with any institution or organization, dates, initials, color, vintage or image represented. Any description of media of any kind shall also include the title and artist or any other identifying information contained on the cover or external surface of such media.

(d) The licensing authority may provide for an exemption from, or establish additional or different requirements than, the requirements of subsection (c) of this section upon consideration of the nature of the fine art, transaction or business, including, but not limited to, articles in bulk lots.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-83 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 417 / Section 21a-83
Sec. 21a-83. (Formerly Sec. 19-65b). Packaging or sale of paint not conforming to federal standards. Labeling requirements.
Status: in_force

CAUTION–CONTAINS LEAD OR OTHER COMPOUNDS HARMFUL IF SWALLOWED. Do not apply on any interior surfaces of a dwelling or of a place used for the care of children or on window sills, toys, cribs or other furniture which might be chewed by children. Wash thoroughly after handling and before eating or smoking. Close container after each use.

KEEP OUT OF REACH OF CHILDREN

Such warning statements shall be placed in a conspicuous place on the immediate container of such paint and shall be printed on gallon-size containers in letters of not less than ten-point type for the words–CAUTION–CONTAINS LEAD OR OTHER COMPOUNDS HARMFUL IF SWALLOWED and KEEP OUT OF REACH OF CHILDREN and not less than eight-point type for the remainder of the statement. Proportionately smaller type may be used on smaller containers. Such printing shall be legible and in a conspicuous color contrast with other printing appearing on the container. Stocks of paint which fail to conform to the standards herein established and which were manufactured prior to October 1, 1975, can be made to conform with the requirements of this section by the application of a separate warning label, which shall be affixed directly on the existing label. No person, firm or corporation shall package, distribute, offer for sale, sell or give away any paint not conforming with the standards herein established after one year from October 1, 1975, unless the warning is an integral part of the printed container label.

Cited. 31 CA 359.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-79 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 417 / Section 21a-79
Sec. 21a-79. (Formerly Sec. 19-210j). Universal product coding. Electronic shelf labeling. Electronic pricing. Marking of retail price. Electronic price higher than posted price for consumer commodity. Coupons. Exemptions. Regulations. Penalties.
Status: in_force

(1) “Alcoholic liquor” has the same meaning as provided in section 30-1 ;

(2) “Carbonated soft drink container” means an individual, separate sealed glass, metal or plastic bottle, can, carton or jar containing a carbonated liquid soft drink that is sold separately or in packages of not more than twenty-four individual containers;

(3) “Consumer commodity” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-73 , except that “consumer commodity” does not include alcoholic liquor or a carbonated soft drink container;

(4) “Electronic pricing system” means a system that utilizes, by means of a scanner, universal product coding bar codes in combination with a cash register to record and total a consumer's purchases;

(5) “Electronic shelf labeling system” means an electronic system that utilizes an electronic device which (A) is attached to a shelf, or at any other point of sale, immediately above or below an item, (B) clearly and conspicuously displays to consumers the price and unit price of a consumer commodity, and (C) reads the same data as an electronic cash register scanning system;

(6) “End cap display” means a location in a retail sales area that is at the immediate end of an aisle;

(7) “Unit of a consumer commodity” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-73 ; and

(8) “Universal product coding” means any system of coding that entails electronic pricing.

(b) (1) (A) Any person that uses universal product coding to total a retail consumer's purchases shall mark, or cause to be marked, each consumer commodity that bears a universal product code with such consumer commodity's retail price.

(B) Any person that uses an electronic pricing system to total a retail consumer's purchases shall provide to such consumer an item-by-item digital display, plainly visible to such consumer as each universal product code is scanned, of the price of each carbonated soft drink container or consumer commodity, or both, which such consumer has selected for purchase before such person accepts payment from such consumer for such carbonated soft drink container or consumer commodity, or both. The provisions of this subparagraph shall not be construed to apply to any person that is operating in a retail sales area of not more than ten thousand square feet.

(2) The provisions of subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall not apply if (A) the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, by regulation, allows for the use of electronic shelf labeling systems, (B) the commissioner grants to a person approval to use an electronic shelf labeling system, (C) the person demonstrates, to the commissioner's satisfaction, that such electronic shelf labeling system is supported by an electronic pricing system that uses universal product coding to total a retail consumer's purchases, and (D) such person has received the commissioner's approval for such an electronic pricing system.

(3) The provisions of subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall not apply to a person if (A) the conditions established in subdivision (2) of this subsection have been satisfied, and (B) the person has received the Commissioner of Consumer Protection's permission to suspend implementation of the electronic pricing system for a period, not to exceed thirty days, to enable such person, or an agent acting on behalf of such person, to remodel, repair, reset or otherwise modify such electronic pricing system at the retail establishment.

(4) The provisions of subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall not apply to a person if (A) the person applies for, and the Commissioner of Consumer Protection approves, an exemption for such person, (B) such person demonstrates, to the commissioner's satisfaction, that such person has achieved price scanner accuracy of at least ninety-eight per cent, as determined by the latest version of the National Institute of Standards and Technology Handbook 130, “Examination Procedures for Price Verification”, as adopted by The National Conference on Weights and Measures, (C) such person pays an application fee, to be used to offset annual inspection costs, of three hundred fifteen dollars, if the premises consists of less than twenty thousand square feet of retail space, or six hundred twenty-five dollars, if the premises consists of at least twenty thousand square feet of retail space, (D) such person makes available a consumer price test scanner that is approved by the commissioner and located prominently in an easily accessible location for each twelve thousand square feet of retail floor space, or fraction thereof, and (E) price accuracy inspections resulting in less than ninety-eight per cent price scanner accuracy are reinspected, which reinspection shall be performed following receipt of payment of a two-hundred-fifty-dollar reinspection fee paid by such person.

(5) Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection, consumer commodities that are offered for sale and located on an end cap display within the retail sales area shall not be subject to the requirements established in this subsection, provided any information that would otherwise have been made available to a consumer pursuant to this section is clearly and conspicuously posted on or adjacent to such end cap.

(6) Consumer commodities that are advertised in a publicly circulated printed form as being offered for sale at a reduced retail price for a minimum seven-day period need not be individually marked at such reduced retail price, provided such consumer commodities are individually marked with their regular retail price and a conspicuous sign adjacent to such consumer commodities discloses (A) such reduced retail price and the unit price of such consumer commodities, and (B) a statement disclosing that the cashier will electronically price such consumer commodities at such reduced price.

(7) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this subdivision, if a consumer commodity is offered for sale and the consumer commodity's electronic price is higher than the posted price, then one item of such consumer commodity, up to a value of twenty dollars, shall be given to the consumer at no cost to the consumer. A conspicuous sign shall adequately disclose to the consumer that in the event the electronic price is higher than the posted retail price, one item of such consumer commodity shall be given to the consumer at no cost to the consumer.

(B) The provisions of subparagraph (A) of this subdivision shall not apply to a person in cases where the person (i) improperly fails to redeem a digital or paper coupon which, if properly redeemed, would reduce the price of a consumer commodity, or (ii) fails to remove a sign adjoining a consumer commodity and disclosing a time-limited reduced price for the consumer commodity after the time period specified for such reduced price has expired.

(8) If a consumer presents a digital or paper coupon which, if properly redeemed, would reduce the price of a consumer commodity and the person fails to properly redeem such coupon, such person shall provide to the consumer a refund in an amount that is equal to the value of such coupon. If a person offers a consumer commodity for sale at a reduced price for a specified time period, and a sign disclosing such reduced price remains adjacent to the consumer commodity following expiration of such time period, the person shall only require a consumer to pay the reduced price disclosed in such sign for such consumer commodity.

(c) (1) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, concerning the marking of prices, and use of universal product coding, on each unit of a consumer commodity.

(2) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, designating not more than twelve consumer commodities that need not be marked in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of this section and specifying the method of providing adequate disclosure to consumers to ensure that the electronic pricing of the designated consumer commodities is accurate. The commissioner may also establish, by regulation, methods to protect consumers against electronic pricing errors of such designated consumer commodities and to ensure that the electronic prices of such designated consumer commodities are accurate. Among the methods that the commissioner may consider are conditions similar to those set forth in subdivision (5) of subsection (b) of this section.

(d) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, after providing notice and conducting a hearing in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, may issue a warning citation to, or impose a civil penalty of not more than one hundred dollars for the first offense and not more than five hundred dollars for each subsequent offense on, any person that violates any provision of subsection (b) of this section, or any regulation adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of this section. Any person that violates any provision of subsection (b) of this section, or any regulation adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, shall be fined not more than two hundred dollars for the first offense and not more than one thousand dollars for each subsequent offense. Each violation with respect to all units of a particular consumer commodity on any single day shall be deemed a single offense.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-408l — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420f / Section 21a-408l
Sec. 21a-408l. Board of Physicians re palliative use of marijuana. Duties. Confidentiality of information. List of debilitating medical conditions.
Status: in_force

(b) A quorum of the Board of Physicians shall consist of four members.

(c) The Board of Physicians shall:

(1) Review and recommend to the Department of Consumer Protection for approval the debilitating medical conditions, medical treatments or diseases to be added to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana for qualifying patients eighteen years of age or older;

(2) Review and recommend to the Department of Consumer Protection for approval any illnesses that are severely debilitating, as defined in 21 CFR 312.81(b), to be added to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana for qualifying patients under eighteen years of age, taking into account, among other things, the effect of the palliative use of marijuana on the brain development of such patients, which recommendations shall be accepted or rejected by the commissioner in his or her discretion;

(3) Accept and review petitions to add medical conditions, medical treatments or diseases to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana;

(4) Convene as necessary to conduct public hearings and to evaluate petitions, which shall be maintained as confidential pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, for the purpose of adding medical conditions, medical treatments or diseases to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana;

(5) Review and recommend to the Department of Consumer Protection protocols for determining the amounts of marijuana that may be reasonably necessary to ensure uninterrupted availability for a period of one month for qualifying patients, including amounts for topical treatments; and

(6) Perform other duties related to the palliative use of marijuana upon the request of the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(d) The Board of Physicians may review the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana and make recommendations to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to general law and public health for the removal of a debilitating medical condition, medical treatment or disease from such list.

(e) Any individually identifiable health information contained in a petition received under this section shall be confidential and shall not be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as defined in section 1-200 .

(f) On and after October 1, 2021, conditions added pursuant to this section to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana shall be posted by the commissioner on the Department of Consumer Protection's Internet web site. Notwithstanding the requirements of sections 4-168 to 4-172 , inclusive, the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana shall be deemed approved and effective without further action as of the date such conditions are posted on the Department of Consumer Protection's Internet web site.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-421ccc — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420h / Section 21a-421ccc
Sec. 21a-421ccc. Possession of cannabis in dwelling unit or private property by person under twenty-one.
Status: in_force

(b) Any person who violates the provisions of subsection (a) of this section shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-227 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420 / Section 21a-227
Sec. 21a-227. Health club closings and transfers. Notices. Electronic monitoring of sales presentations.
Status: in_force

(b) No health club shall electronically monitor sales presentations between an employee of a health club and a prospective buyer unless the prospective buyer is notified that the sales presentation is being electronically monitored and the prospective buyer is given the option to require that the electronic monitor be shut off.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-252 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420b / Section 21a-252
Sec. 21a-252. (Formerly Sec. 19-460). Prescription and dispensing of controlled substances by certain practitioners. Surrender of unused substances by patients. Prescription, dispensing and administering of controlled substances to immediate family members or for personal use.
Status: in_force

(b) A dentist, in good faith and in the course of the dentist's professional practice only, may prescribe, administer or dispense controlled substances, or may cause the same to be administered by a nurse under the dentist's direction and supervision, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to dentistry.

(c) A podiatrist, in good faith and in the course of the podiatrist's professional practice only, may prescribe, administer and dispense controlled substances in schedules II, III, IV or V, or may cause the same to be administered by a nurse under the podiatrist's direction and supervision, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to podiatry.

(d) A veterinarian, in good faith in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice only, and not for use by a human being, may prescribe, administer and dispense controlled substances, and may cause them to be administered by an assistant or orderly under the veterinarian's direction and supervision, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to veterinary medicine.

(e) An advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to section 20-94a , in good faith and in the course of such nurse's professional practice only, may prescribe, dispense, and administer controlled substances in schedule II, III, IV or V, or may cause the same to be administered by a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse under the advanced practice registered nurse's direction and supervision, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to advanced nursing practice.

(f) A nurse-midwife licensed under chapter 377, in good faith and in the course of the nurse-midwife's professional practice only, may prescribe, dispense, and administer controlled substances in schedules II, III, IV and V, or may cause the same to be administered by a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse under the nurse-midwife's direction and supervision, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws.

(g) A physician assistant licensed pursuant to section 20-12b , in good faith and in the course of the physician assistant's professional practice only, may prescribe, dispense, and administer controlled substances in schedule II, III, IV or V, or may cause the same to be administered by a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse who is acting under a physician's direction, to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to physician assistant practice.

(h) An optometrist authorized to practice advanced optometrical care, in good faith and in the course of the optometrist's professional practice only and who is duly authorized by section 20-127 , may prescribe, administer or dispense controlled substances in schedule II, III, IV or V to the extent permitted by the federal Controlled Substances Act, the federal food and drug laws and state laws and regulations relating to optometry.

(i) Any person who has obtained directly from a physician, dentist, podiatrist, optometrist, veterinarian, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse or nurse-midwife any controlled substance for self-administration or administration to a patient during the absence of such physician, dentist, podiatrist, optometrist, veterinarian, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse or nurse-midwife shall return to such physician, dentist, podiatrist, optometrist, veterinarian, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse or nurse-midwife any unused portion of such controlled substance, when it is no longer required by the person or the patient, or may surrender such controlled substance to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection for proper disposition.

(j) (1) A prescribing practitioner, as defined in section 20-14c , shall not, except in an emergency, prescribe, dispense or administer controlled substances in schedules II to IV, inclusive, to his or her immediate family member. For purposes of this section, “immediate family member” means a spouse, parent, child, sibling, parent-in-law, son or daughter-in-law, brother or sister-in-law, step-parent, step-child, step-sibling or other relative residing in the same residence as the prescribing practitioner and shall not include an animal in the residence. In an emergency, a prescribing practitioner may prescribe, dispense or administer not more than a seventy-two-hour supply of such controlled substances to an immediate family member only when there is no other qualified prescribing practitioner available.

(2) A prescribing practitioner who prescribes, dispenses or administers any controlled substance to his or her immediate family member pursuant to subdivision (1) of this subsection shall perform an assessment for the care and treatment of the patient, medically evaluate the patient's need for such controlled substance and document such assessment and need in the normal course of his or her business. The prescribing practitioner shall document the emergency that gave rise to the prescription, dispensing or administering of such controlled substance to the immediate family member.

(k) A prescribing practitioner, as defined in section 20-14c , shall not, except in an emergency, prescribe, dispense or administer controlled substances in schedules II to IV, inclusive, for his or her own use. In an emergency, a prescribing practitioner may prescribe, dispense or administer not more than a seventy-two-hour emergency supply of such controlled substances for self-use only when there is no other qualified prescribing practitioner available.

See Sec. 17a-714a re legal protections for licensed health care professionals who prescribe opioid antagonists to drug users.

Cited. 7 CA 403; 17 CA 257.

Subsec. (a):

Cited. 204 C. 156; Id., 377; 240 C. 799.

Use of “and” does not require that physician do all three acts, i.e. prescribe, administer and dispense, re controlled substances to come within exception provided by Subsec. to avoid liability under Sec. 21a-277(b) or 21a-278(b). 82 CA 435.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-119 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 418 / Section 21a-119
Sec. 21a-119. (Formerly Sec. 19-238). Publicity.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner may also cause to be disseminated such information regarding food, drugs, devices or cosmetics as the commissioner deems necessary in the interest of public health and the protection of the consumer against fraud. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the commissioner and director from collecting, reporting and illustrating the results of their examinations and investigations under this chapter.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-92 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 418 / Section 21a-92
Sec. 21a-92. (Formerly Sec. 19-212). Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Advertisement” means all representations disseminated in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or which are likely to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of food, drugs, devices or cosmetics;

(2) (A) “Color additive” means a material that (i) is a dye, pigment or other substance made by a process of synthesis or similar artifice, or extracted, isolated or otherwise derived, with or without intermediate or final change of identity, from a vegetable, animal, mineral or other source, and (ii) when added or applied to a food, drug or cosmetic, or to the human body or any of its parts, is capable, alone or through reaction with other substance, of imparting color thereto, except that the term “color additive” does not include any material exempted by regulation under the federal act, or that the commissioner, by regulation, determines is used, or intended to be used, solely for a purpose or purposes other than coloring; (B) the term “color” includes black, white and intermediate grays, as well as all other colors; (C) nothing in subparagraph (A) of this subdivision shall be construed to apply to any pesticide chemical, soil or plant nutrient, or other agricultural chemical used, or intended to be used, solely because of its effect in aiding, retarding or otherwise affecting, directly or indirectly, the growth or other natural physiological processes of produce of the soil that thereby affects its color, whether before or after harvest;

(3) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection;

(4) “Contaminated with filth” applies to any food, drug, device or cosmetic not securely protected from dust or dirt, and as far as may be necessary, by all reasonable means, from all foreign or injurious contaminations;

(5) “Cosmetic” means (A) articles intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled or sprayed on, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human body or any of its parts for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness or altering the appearance, and (B) articles intended for use as a component of any such articles; except that such term shall not include soap;

(6) “Device”, except when used in subdivision (15) of this section and in subdivision (9) of section 21a-93 , subdivision (6) of subsection (a) of section 21a-102 , subsection (c) of section 21a-106 and subsection (c) of section 21a-112 , means instruments, apparatus and contrivances, including their components, parts and accessories, intended (A) for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or other animals, or (B) to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals;

(7) “Director” means the director of the agricultural experiment station;

(8) “Drug” means (A) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (B) articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or other animals; (C) articles, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or any other animal; and (D) articles intended for use as a component of any articles specified in this subdivision; but shall not include devices or their components, parts or accessories;

(9) “Federal act” means the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended, Title 21 USC 301 et seq.: 52 Stat. 1040 et seq.;

(10) “Food” means (A) articles used for food or drink for humans or other animals, (B) chewing gum, (C) infant formula, and (D) articles used for components of any such article;

(11) “Food additive” means any substance the intended use of which results or reasonably may be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food, including any substance intended for use in producing, manufacturing, packing, processing, preparing, treating, packaging, transporting or holding food; and including any source of radiation intended for any such use, if such substance is not generally recognized, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate its safety, as having been adequately shown through scientific procedures or, in the case of a substance used in food prior to January 1, 1958, through either scientific procedures or experience based on common use in food, to be safe under the conditions of its intended use; except that such term does not include (A) a pesticide chemical in or on a raw agricultural commodity; or (B) a pesticide chemical to the extent that it is intended for use or is used in the production, storage or transportation of any raw agricultural commodity; or (C) a color additive; or (D) any substance used in accordance with a sanction or approval granted prior to June 12, 1963, or the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 USC 451 et seq.) or the Meat Inspection Act of March 4, 1907, as amended;

(12) “Immediate container” shall not include package liners;

(13) “Infant formula” means a milk-based or soy-based powder, concentrated liquid or ready-to-feed substitute for human breast milk that is intended for infant consumption and is commercially available;

(14) “Intrastate commerce” means any and all commerce within the state of Connecticut and subject to its jurisdiction, and shall include the operation of any business or service establishment;

(15) “Label” means a display of written, printed or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any article, provided a requirement made by or under authority of this chapter that any information or other word or statement appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such information or other word or statement also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of such article, or is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper;

(16) “Labeling” means all labels and other written, printed or graphic matter (A) upon any article or any of its containers or wrappers, or (B) accompanying such article, provided, if an article is alleged to be misbranded because the labeling is misleading, or if an advertisement is alleged to be false because it is misleading, then, in determining whether the labeling or advertisement is misleading, there shall be taken into account, among other things, not only representations made or suggested by statement, word, design, device or sound, or any combination thereof, but also the extent to which the labeling or advertisement fails to reveal facts material in the light of such representations or material with respect to consequences which may result from the use of the article to which the labeling or advertisement relates under the conditions of use prescribed in the labeling or advertisement thereof or under such conditions of use as are customary or usual, and provided the representation of a drug, in its labeling or advertisement, as an antiseptic shall be considered to be a representation that it is a germicide, except in the case of a drug purporting to be, or represented as, an antiseptic for inhibitory use as a wet dressing, ointment or dusting powder or for such other use as involves prolonged contact with the body;

(17) “Natural food” means food (A) that has not been treated with preservatives, antibiotics, synthetic additives, artificial flavoring or artificial coloring; and (B) that has not been processed in a manner that makes such food significantly less nutritive; and (C) on and after the Commissioner of Consumer Protection recognizes the occurrence of the events described in subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of section 21a-92c , that has not been genetically engineered, as defined in section 21a-92b , provided this subparagraph shall apply only to food that is intended for human consumption. Processing of food by extracting, purifying, heating, fermenting, concentrating, dehydrating, cooling or freezing shall not, of itself, prevent the designation of such food as “natural food”;

(18) “New drug” means (A) any drug the composition of which is such that such drug is not generally recognized, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of drugs, as safe and effective for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended or suggested in its labeling, or (B) any drug the composition of which is such that such drug, as a result of investigation to determine its safety and effectiveness for use under such conditions, has become so recognized, but which has not, otherwise than in such investigations, been used to a material extent or for a material time under such conditions, except that the provisions of this subsection pertaining to “effectiveness” shall not apply to any drug that (i) was commercially sold or used in the United States on October 9, 1962, (ii) was not a new drug as defined by this subsection prior to the enactment of these provisions, and (iii) was not covered by an effective application under section 21a-110 or under Section 355 of the federal act, when such drug is intended solely for use under conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in labeling with respect to such drug on whichever of the above dates is applicable;

(19) “Official compendium” means the official United States Pharmacopoeia, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them;

(20) “Organically grown” means produced through organic farming methods, which involve a system of ecological soil management and mechanical or biological methods to control insects, weeds, pathogens and other pests and which rely on crop rotation, crop residues, composted animal manures, legumes, green manures, composted organic waste or mineral-bearing rocks;

(21) “Person” includes any individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association;

(22) “Pesticide chemical” means any substance that, alone, in chemical combination or in formulation with one or more other substances is an “economic poison” within the meaning of the federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act, 7 USC 135-135k, and that is used in the production, storage or transportation of raw agricultural commodities;

(23) “Raw agricultural commodity” means any food in its raw or natural state, including all fruits that are washed, colored or otherwise treated in their unpeeled natural form prior to marketing;

(24) The term “safe” has reference to the health of human or animal;

(25) “Sale” means any and every sale and includes (A) manufacture, processing, packing, canning, bottling or any other production, preparation or putting up; (B) exposure, offer or any other proffer; (C) holding, storing or any other possessing; (D) dispensing, giving, delivering, serving or any other supplying; and (E) applying, administering or any other using.

Annotations to former section 19-212:

Commissioner has no power to determine whether or not a drug is a “new drug”. 15 CS 11. Sale of food contaminated with filth may be enjoined by commissioner. 31 CS 242.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-12b — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-12b
Sec. 21a-12b. Reusable food and beverage containers containing bisphenol-A: Prohibition; enforcement.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after October 1, 2011, no person shall manufacture, sell, offer for sale or distribute in this state any reusable food or beverage container containing bisphenol-A.

(c) The provisions of this section may be enforced, within available appropriations, by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-9 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-9
Sec. 21a-9. (Formerly Sec. 19-171h). Uniform rules of procedure. Regulations re subjects within jurisdiction of boards and commissions within Department of Consumer Protection. Prohibited acts by practitioners. Rejection of decisions with anticompetitive effect. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(b) Any rules of procedure and regulations adopted pursuant to this section shall be adopted in accordance with chapter 54. No regulation shall be adopted pursuant to this section until the appropriate board or commission has had reasonable opportunity to review the proposed regulation and to offer comments thereon.

(c) Each such board or commission may act in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (7) of section 21a-7 , and the commissioner may act in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (4) of subsection (b) of section 21a-8 , in the case of a practitioner who: (1) Engages in fraud or material deception in order to obtain a license, registration or certificate issued by the board, commission or commissioner or to aid another in obtaining a license, registration or certificate issued by the board, commission or commissioner; (2) performs work beyond the scope of the license, registration or certificate issued by the board, commission or commissioner; (3) illegally uses or transfers a license, registration or certificate issued by the board, commission or commissioner; (4) performs incompetent or negligent work; (5) makes false, misleading or deceptive representations to the public; (6) has been subject to disciplinary action similar to that specified in subdivision (7) of section 21a-7 or subdivision (4) of subsection (b) of section 21a-8 by a duly authorized professional agency of the United States, any state within the United States, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory or a foreign jurisdiction; or (7) violates any provision of the general statutes or any regulation established thereunder, relating to the practitioner's profession or occupation.

(d) In order to ensure compliance with the provisions of the Sherman Act, 15 USC 1 et seq., as amended from time to time, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall reject any proposed final decision of a board or commission submitted for the commissioner's approval pursuant to section 21a-7 if the commissioner finds such decision will have an anticompetitive effect.

(e) As used in chapters 390, 391, 392, 393, 394, 396, 400g, 400j, 482 and 400 l :

(1) “Certificate” includes the whole or part of any Department of Consumer Protection permit which the department issues under authority of the general statutes and which (A) authorizes practice of the profession by certified persons but does not prohibit the practice of the profession by others, not certified, (B) prohibits a person from falsely representing that such person is certified to practice the profession unless the person holds a certificate issued by the department, and (C) requires as a condition of certification that a person submit specified credentials to the department which attest to qualifications to practice the profession.

(2) “License” includes the whole or part of any Department of Consumer Protection permit, approval, or similar form of permission which the department issues under authority of the general statutes and which requires (A) practice of the profession by licensed persons only, (B) demonstration of competence to practice by examination or other means and meeting of certain minimum standards, and (C) enforcement of standards by the department or regulatory board or commission.

(3) “Registration” includes the whole or part of any Department of Consumer Protection permit which the department issues under authority of the general statutes and which (A) requires persons to place their names on a list maintained by the department before they can engage in the practice of a specified profession or occupation, (B) does not require a person to demonstrate competence by examination or other means, and (C) may be revoked or suspended by the commissioner for cause.

Cited. 209 C. 719.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-420b — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420h / Section 21a-420b
Sec. 21a-420b. Enforcement of violations of federal law related to cannabis.
Status: in_force

(b) It is the public policy of this state that contracts related to the operation of a cannabis establishment business are enforceable.

(c) It is the public policy of this state that no contract entered into by a licensed cannabis establishment or its agents as authorized in accordance with a valid license, or by those who allow property to be used by a cannabis establishment, its employees, backers or its agents as authorized in accordance with a valid license, shall be unenforceable on the basis that cultivating, obtaining, manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, transporting, selling, possessing or using cannabis is prohibited by federal law.

(d) No law enforcement officer employed by an agency that receives state or local government funds shall expend state or local resources, including the officer's time, to effect any arrest or seizure of cannabis, or conduct any investigation, on the sole basis of activity the officer believes to constitute a violation of federal law if the officer has reason to believe that such activity is in compliance with this section and sections 21a-420a , 21a-420c to 21a-420i , inclusive, 21a-420 l to 21a-420n , inclusive, 21a-420p to 21a-420t , inclusive, 21a-420v to 21a-421c , inclusive, 21a-421f , 21a-421g , 21a-421j to 21a-421q , inclusive, 21a-421aa to 21a-421dd , inclusive, 21a-422k and 53-247a and sections 23, 60 and 63 to 65, inclusive, of public act 21-1 of the June special session* or chapter 420f.

(e) An officer may not expend state or local resources, including the officer's time, to provide any information or logistical support to any federal law enforcement authority or prosecuting entity related to activity the officer believes to constitute a violation of federal law if the officer has reason to believe that such activity is in compliance with the provisions of this section and sections 21a-420a , 21a-420c to 21a-420i , inclusive, 21a-420 l to 21a-420n , inclusive, 21a-420p to 21a-420t , inclusive, 21a-420v to 21a-421c , inclusive, 21-421f , 21a-421g , 21a-421j to 21a-421q , inclusive, 21a-421aa to 21a-421dd , inclusive, 21a-422k and 53-247a and sections 23, 60 and 63 to 65, inclusive, of public act 21-1 of the June special session* or chapter 420f.

*Note: Sections 23, 60 and 63 to 65, inclusive, of public act 21-1 of the June special session are special in nature and therefore have not been codified but remain in full force and effect according to their terms.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-11a — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 405 / Section 21-11a
Sec. 21-11a. Requirements for scrap metal processors, junk dealers and junk yard owners or operators. Notification. Prohibitions. Penalties.
Status: in_force

(b) The scrap metal processor shall maintain the documents, photographs and other records required under subsection (a) of this section in good condition and shall retain such records for a period of not less than two years. Such records shall be open for inspection by law enforcement officials upon request during normal business hours.

(c) A scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator shall immediately notify a municipal law enforcement authority in the municipality in which such scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard is located of the name, if known, and motor vehicle number plate, if available, of any person offering to sell a bronze statue, plaque, historical marker, cannon, cannon ball, bell, lamp, lighting fixture, lamp post, architectural artifact or similar item to such scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator.

(d) No scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may purchase or receive a stainless steel or aluminum alloy beer or other beverage keg container if such container is marked with an indicia of ownership of any person or entity other than the person or entity presenting such container for sale. For purposes of this subsection, “indicia of ownership” means words, symbols or a registered trademark printed, stamped, etched, attached or otherwise displayed on such container that identify the owner of such container.

(e) No scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may purchase or receive any property that such scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator suspects or has reasonable cause to believe is municipal property unless the person delivering such property presents at the time of delivery a letter on the letterhead of the municipality authorizing such purchase or receipt and signed by either (1) the chief executive officer of the municipality, or (2) the head of the municipal department responsible for maintaining such public property. The scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator shall send any moneys paid for such municipal property to the official designated in the letter of authorization.

(f) (1) (A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this subdivision, no scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may receive a catalytic converter of a motor vehicle that is not attached to such motor vehicle unless such processor, dealer, owner or operator, at the time of receipt:

(i) Records the place and date of the transaction, a description of the catalytic converter, including item type and identification number, if any, and the amount paid for the catalytic converter;

(ii) Records a description of the seller and the seller's name, residence address and motor vehicle operator's license or identity card number or, if the seller is a business, the name, address and telephone number of the business;

(iii) Records the number plate of the motor vehicle used to transport the catalytic converter to the licensee;

(iv) Obtains from the seller a statement (I) that the seller is the owner of such catalytic converter, or (II) identifying the name of the person from whom the seller obtained the catalytic converter, as shown on a signed transfer document; and

(v) Takes a clear photograph or video of the seller, the motor vehicle operator's license or identity card of the seller and the catalytic converter.

(B) No scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may receive a catalytic converter of a motor vehicle that is not attached to such motor vehicle from a motor vehicle recycler unless:

(i) Such catalytic converter has a stock number affixed to or written on such converter by such recycler, and

(ii) At the time of receipt, such processor, dealer, owner or operator (I) receives a written statement on such recycler's letterhead that includes the stock number of the catalytic converter and the vehicle identification number of the motor vehicle from which such catalytic converter was detached, provided a single written statement may be used for a transaction involving more than one catalytic converter, and (II) takes a clear photograph or video of the employee of such recycler who is transferring the catalytic converter and such employee's motor vehicle operator's license or identity card.

(C) No scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may receive a catalytic converter of a motor vehicle that is not attached to such motor vehicle from a motor vehicle repair shop unless:

(i) Such catalytic converter was removed from a motor vehicle that was serviced by such shop,

(ii) Such catalytic converter has a stock number affixed to or written on such converter by such shop, and

(iii) At the time of receipt, such processor, dealer, owner or operator (I) receives a written statement on such shop's letterhead that includes the stock number affixed to or written on such converter, information on the motor vehicle from which such catalytic converter was detached, including the vehicle identification number and registration number, if applicable, of the motor vehicle and a receipt for the services performed on such motor vehicle, provided a single written statement may be used for a transaction involving more than one catalytic converter, and (II) takes a clear photograph or video of the employee of such shop who is transferring the catalytic converter and such employee's motor vehicle operator's license or identity card.

(2) A person selling a catalytic converter pursuant to subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection may sell only one catalytic converter to a scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator per day.

(3) A scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may only pay a seller of a catalytic converter by check. If the seller is a motor vehicle recycler or motor vehicle repair shop, such check shall be payable to the motor vehicle recycler or motor vehicle repair shop. If the seller is not a motor vehicle recycler or motor vehicle repair shop, such processor, dealer, owner or operator shall either (A) send the check to the address provided by the seller in subparagraph (A)(ii) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, or (B) hold the check at such processor's, dealer's, owner's or operator's place of business for collection by the seller not earlier than the third business day after the date of the purchase of such catalytic converter by such processor, dealer, owner or operator.

(4) A scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator may only sell a catalytic converter that such processor, dealer, owner or operator received in compliance with the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, and may sell such catalytic converters without any limitation on the number that may be sold per day.

(5) Each scrap metal processor, junk dealer or junk yard owner or operator shall submit to the Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection, on a weekly basis or more frequently as determined by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection upon consideration of the volume and nature of the business, a sworn statement of such processor's, dealer's, owner's or operator's catalytic converter transactions, (A) describing the property received, (B) setting forth the nature and terms of each transaction, and (C) identifying the name and address of the motor vehicle recycler or motor vehicle repair shop from which the property was received, or identifying the name and residence address and providing a description of the person from whom the property was received. Such statement shall be in an electronic format prescribed by the commissioner. The commissioner may grant an exemption from the requirement of submitting such statement in electronic format for good cause shown. The commissioner shall include information submitted pursuant to this subsection in any database that stores information submitted pursuant to section 21-43 .

(6) The Commissioner of Motor Vehicles shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, concerning the creation and retention of documents and other records required by subdivision (1) of this subsection. Such documents and records shall be open for inspection by law enforcement officials upon request during normal business hours.

(g) A scrap metal processor who has purchased scrap metal that is subsequently determined to have been stolen and is returned to the owner of such metal shall have a civil cause of action against the person from whom such metal was purchased.

(h) A first violation of any provision of subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of this section shall be a class C misdemeanor. A second violation of any provision of said subsections shall be a class B misdemeanor and a third or subsequent violation of any provision of said subsections shall be a class A misdemeanor.

(i) For purposes of this section, “motor vehicle recycler” means a motor vehicle recycler licensed pursuant to section 14-67 l , and “motor vehicle repair shop” has the same meaning as provided in section 14-65e .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-8 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-8
Sec. 21a-8. (Formerly Sec. 19-171g). Department's and commissioner's powers and duties re boards and commissions.
Status: in_force

(1) The department shall control the allocation, disbursement and budgeting of funds appropriated to the department for the operation of each board or commission transferred to said department.

(2) The department shall employ and assign such personnel as the commissioner deems necessary for the performance of each board's or commission's functions.

(3) The department shall perform all management functions, including purchasing, bookkeeping, accounting, payroll, secretarial, clerical, record-keeping and routine housekeeping functions.

(4) The department shall conduct any necessary review, inspection or investigation regarding qualifications of applicants for licenses or certificates, possible violations of statutes or regulations, accreditation of schools, disciplinary matters and the establishment of regulatory policy, and make recommendations to the appropriate board or commission. In connection with any such investigation, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, or the commissioner's authorized agent, may administer oaths, issue subpoenas, compel testimony and order the production of books, records and documents. If any person refuses to appear, to testify or to produce any book, record or document when so ordered, a judge of the Superior Court may make such order as may be appropriate to aid in the enforcement of this section.

(5) The department shall administer any examinations necessary to ascertain the qualifications of applicants for licenses or certificates and shall issue licenses or certificates to qualified applicants. The department shall maintain rosters of licensees or registrants and update such rosters annually, and may provide copies of such rosters to the public for an appropriate fee.

(6) The department shall conduct any necessary investigation and follow-up in connection with complaints regarding persons subject to regulation or licensing by the board or commission.

(7) The department shall perform any other function necessary to the effective operation of the board or commission.

(8) The department shall receive complaints concerning the work and practices of persons licensed, registered or certified by such boards or commissions and shall receive complaints concerning unauthorized work and practice by persons not licensed, registered or certified by such boards or commissions. The department shall distribute quarterly a list of all complaints received within the previous quarter to the chairperson of the appropriate board or commission. The department shall screen all complaints and dismiss any in which the allegation, if substantiated, would not constitute a violation of any statute or regulation. The department shall distribute notice of all such dismissals monthly to the chairperson of the appropriate board or commission. The department shall investigate any complaint in which the allegation, if substantiated, would constitute a violation of a statute or regulation under its jurisdiction. In conducting the investigation, the commissioner may seek the assistance of a member of the appropriate board, an employee of any state agency with expertise in the area, or if no such member or employee is available, a person from outside state service licensed to perform the work involved in the complaint. Board or commission members involved in an investigation shall not participate in disciplinary proceedings resulting from such investigation. The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may dismiss a complaint following an investigation if the commissioner determines that such complaint lacks probable cause. The commissioner may bring a complaint before the appropriate board or commission for a formal hearing if the commissioner determines that there is probable cause to believe that the offense alleged in the complaint has been committed and that the practitioner named in the complaint was responsible. The commissioner, or the commissioner's authorized agent, shall have the power to issue subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses or the production of records, correspondence, documents or other evidence in connection with any hearing of a board or commission.

(9) The department may contract with a third party, if the commissioner deems it necessary, to administer licensing examinations and perform all attendant administrative functions in connection with such examination and to monitor continuing professional education requirements, and may require the payment of a fee to such third party.

(b) Not later than January 15, 2015, and annually thereafter, the commissioner, in accordance with section 11-4a , shall report the following to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to consumer protection and occupational licensing: (1) The total number of complaints received by the department in the previous calendar year concerning the work and practice of persons licensed, registered or certified by the boards or commissions specified in subdivisions (1) and (3) of section 21a-6 , (2) the nature of each complaint, (3) the department's resolution of each complaint, including, if applicable, whether the complaint (A) was dismissed because the allegation, if substantiated, would not constitute a violation of any statute or regulation, (B) was investigated, (C) was dismissed, following an investigation, for lack of probable cause, (D) was resolved by a settlement, and whether a penalty was imposed pursuant to such settlement, or (E) was brought for formal hearing, and whether a violation was found and a penalty imposed.

(c) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall have the following powers and duties with regard to each board or commission within the Department of Consumer Protection under section 21a-6 :

(1) The commissioner shall, in consultation with each board or commission, exercise the functions of licensing, certification, registration, accreditation of schools and the rendering of findings, orders and adjudications.

(2) The commissioner may, in the commissioner's discretion, issue an appropriate order to any person found to be violating any statute or regulation within the jurisdiction of such board or commission providing for the immediate discontinuance of the violation or requiring the violator to make restitution for any damage caused by the violation, or both. The commissioner may, through the Attorney General, petition the superior court for the judicial district in which the violation occurred, or in which the person committing the violation resides or transacts business, for the enforcement of any order issued by the commissioner under this subdivision and for appropriate temporary relief or a restraining order. The commissioner shall certify and file in the court a transcript of the entire record of the hearing or hearings, including all testimony upon which such order was made and the findings and orders made by the commissioner. The court may grant such relief by injunction or otherwise, including temporary relief, as the court deems equitable and may make and enter a decree enforcing, modifying and enforcing as so modified, or setting aside, in whole or in part, any order of the commissioner issued under this subdivision.

(3) The commissioner may conduct hearings on any matter within the statutory jurisdiction of such board or commission. Such hearings shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 54 and the regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (a) of section 21a-9 . In connection with any such hearing, the commissioner may administer oaths, issue subpoenas, compel testimony and order the production of books, records and documents. If any person refuses to appear, testify or produce any book, record or document when so ordered, a judge of the Superior Court may make such order as may be appropriate to aid in the enforcement of this subdivision.

(4) In addition to any other action permitted under the general statutes, the commissioner may, upon a finding of any cause specified in subsection (c) of section 21a-9 : (A) Revoke, place conditions upon or suspend a license, registration or certificate; (B) issue a letter of reprimand to a practitioner and send a copy of such letter to a complainant or to a state or local official; (C) place a practitioner on probationary status and require the practitioner to (i) report regularly to the commissioner on the matter which is the basis for probation, (ii) limit the practitioner's practice to areas prescribed by the commissioner, or (iii) continue or renew the practitioner's education until the practitioner has attained a satisfactory level of competence in any area which is the basis for probation; or (D) impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per violation. The commissioner may discontinue, suspend or rescind any action taken under this subdivision. If a license, registration or certificate is voluntarily surrendered or is not renewed, the commissioner shall not be prohibited from suspending, revoking or imposing other penalties permitted by law on any such license, registration or certificate.

Cited. 204 C. 156; 224 C. 29.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-70 — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 412 / Section 21-70
Sec. 21-70. Disclosure statement. Rental agreements and renewals. Notice when home or lot located in common interest community. Adoption of rules and regulations. Documents filed with department. Notice of proposed land use change or sale. Purchase of mobile manufactured home park by association of unit homeowners.
Status: in_force

(b) No owner may offer a mobile manufactured home or a mobile manufactured home space or lot for rent without providing the prospective resident with a copy of an initial written rental agreement before the resident occupies such mobile manufactured home or lot. No owner may rent a mobile manufactured home or mobile manufactured home space or lot to a new resident until a written rental agreement has been signed by the resident and the owner. The initial rental agreement and all renewals offered to a resident by the owner shall be in writing. The term of each rental agreement and renewal shall not be less than one year unless the resident requests, in writing, a term for less than one year. If the owner fails to offer the resident a written renewal of a rental agreement, or if the owner offers a renewal but the resident fails or refuses to sign it, unless there is a disagreement as to the amount of the rent, the prior rental agreement shall be deemed to be extended for one year at the then prevailing park rental and the resident shall be bound by all terms of the prior rental agreement and any prevailing park rental adopted after the prior rental and all rules and regulations properly applicable to such prior rental agreement pursuant to subsection (d) of this section. If there is a disagreement as to the amount of the rent, unless the owner terminates the lease and brings an action of summary process, the prior rental agreement shall be deemed to be extended on a month-to-month basis at the last agreed-upon rent, and the resident shall be bound by all terms of the prior rental agreement and all rules and regulations properly applicable to such prior rental agreement pursuant to subsection (d) of this section. In such an event, the owner may bring an action of summary process pursuant to section 21-80 , or the resident may seek relief under section 47a-23c or sections 7-148b to 7-148f , inclusive, if applicable.

(c) Whenever a resident rents a mobile manufactured home or a mobile manufactured home space or lot in a mobile manufactured home park which is also a common interest community from a declarant, successor declarant or person acting on the declarant's or successor declarant's behalf, such declarant, successor declarant or person shall, prior to entering into a rental agreement, provide the resident with a written notice that the mobile manufactured home or the mobile manufactured home space or lot is located in a common interest community.

(d) An owner, from time to time, may adopt a rule or regulation, however described, concerning the resident's use and occupancy of the premises. Such rule or regulation shall be enforceable against the resident only if (1) the purpose of the rule or regulation is to promote the convenience, safety or welfare of the residents, preserve the owner's property from abusive use or make a fair distribution of services and facilities held out for the residents generally; (2) such rule or regulation is reasonably related to the purpose for which it is adopted; (3) such rule or regulation applies to all residents on the premises in a fair manner, provided reasonable exemptions may be made for good cause; (4) such rule or regulation is sufficiently explicit in its prohibition, direction or limitation of the resident's conduct to fairly inform him of what he shall or shall not do to comply, and (5) the resident has written notice of such rule or regulation at the time he enters into the rental agreement or when such rule or regulation is adopted. A rule or regulation having the effect of substantially modifying the terms of a rental agreement previously entered into by a resident shall not apply to such rental agreement without the written consent of the resident.

(e) Each owner shall file with the Department of Consumer Protection copies of the park's rental agreements, aesthetic standards to be complied with by the owner and resident in the event of the sale of the mobile manufactured home by the resident, and rules or regulations concerning the resident's use and occupancy of the premises. Any change in the documents required to be filed under this subsection, other than a change in rent, shall be filed with the Department of Consumer Protection. No rental agreements, aesthetic standards, or rules or regulations, and no changes in the terms or provisions of such documents, other than a change in rent, shall be effective until such documents or changes are filed with the Department of Consumer Protection.

(f) (1) Any person making an application to appear before any municipal, state or federal agency with respect to any matter changing the land use of a specific mobile manufactured home park shall give written notice of the application by first class mail addressed to the affected units of the park or by personal delivery to the units not later than seven days after its filing. The notice shall state the reasons for which the application was filed.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, any mobile manufactured home park owner who intends to discontinue the use of the land as a mobile manufactured home park or to sell land used as a mobile manufactured home park to any person who intends to discontinue its use as a mobile manufactured home park shall give written notice by first class mail addressed to each mobile manufactured home unit or by personal delivery to each unit upon such land if such transaction will entail the discontinuance of the use of the land for mobile manufactured home park purposes. If an owner of a mobile manufactured home has given the park owner written notice that the owner resides in a place other than the owner's unit, notice shall be sent by first class mail to the address so provided. The notice shall include a statement advising the recipient of the intended discontinuance of use or sale and, except as otherwise provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, shall be mailed or delivered at least one hundred twenty days prior to the discontinuance of the use of the land as a mobile manufactured home park. The notice may run concurrently with the notice required by subdivision (3) of subsection (a) of section 21-80 or subparagraph (E) of subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 21-80 . A copy of such notice from the park owner shall be sent to any association of residents of the mobile manufactured home park which has made a written request for such notice.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, within one hundred twenty days after the notice provided for in subdivision (2) of this subsection has been mailed, any association representing twenty-five per cent or more of the units in the park, including an association formed after the issuance of the notice, may notify the owner of the park that it is interested in purchasing the mobile manufactured home park. A copy of such notice may be filed on the land records of the town in which the mobile manufactured home park is located. If such notice is given, except as otherwise provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, the association shall have three hundred sixty-five days after the notice required in subdivision (2) of this subsection has been given to purchase the park through negotiation or the method set forth in subdivision (4) of this subsection. Upon the request of the association, the Department of Housing shall assist the association in developing financing for the purchase of the park.

(4) If the association and the park owner cannot agree upon a purchase price, the association shall have the right to purchase the property: (A) If the association matches the essential provisions of any existing bona fide offer to purchase the park made by another potential purchaser which offer by such other purchaser the owner is prepared to accept; or (B) if there is no such offer, at a purchase price to be established by an appraiser chosen by the association and the park owner. If the two parties cannot agree upon one appraiser, either party may notify the other, in writing, of such disagreement, and the association shall choose an appraiser, the park owner shall choose an appraiser, and the two appraisers shall choose a third appraiser, which three appraisers shall establish a value of the park. If the park owner refuses to select an appraiser within fifteen days of such notice, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall choose an appraiser for the park owner. The costs of all appraisers shall be paid equally by the association and the park owner. Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, if, within three hundred sixty-five days from the mailing of the notice required in subdivision (2) of this subsection, no agreement for such sale signed by the association and the park owner has been filed upon the land records, or if the association has not filed a certified statement to purchase the park at the appraised value which value shall also be certified on the land records by the appraiser or appraisers, the right provided in this subsection to purchase the park shall be void and any recorded notice filed pursuant to subdivision (3) of this subsection shall be void.

(5) In any case in which a mobile manufactured home park with two hundred or more units in which a majority of residents have been given written notice, prior to June 10, 1999, of the intended discontinuance of the use of the land as a mobile manufactured home park, regardless of whether one or more of such notices or the service of such notices is subsequently deemed invalid or ineffective, (A) any subsequent notice of such intended discontinuance that is given or required to be given after June 23, 1999, by the owner pursuant to this subsection, and (B) any notice given or action taken pursuant to this subsection after June 23, 1999, by any association representing twenty-five per cent or more of the units in the park shall be subject to the time limitations contained in this subsection that were in effect immediately prior to June 23, 1999.

Cited. 208 C. 620.

Cited. 30 CA 371.

Cited. 36 CS 515.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-190e — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 419d / Section 21a-190e
Sec. 21a-190e. Fund-raising counsel. Filing of contracts. Registration of fund-raising counsel. Fees. Bond. Accounting for funds received.
Status: in_force

(b) A fund-raising counsel who at any time has custody or control of contributions from a solicitation shall register with the department. Applications for registration or renewal of a registration as a fund-raising counsel shall be in a form prescribed by the commissioner and shall be accompanied by a fee in the amount of one hundred twenty dollars. Each fund-raising counsel shall certify that such application or report is true and correct to the best of the fund-raising counsel's knowledge. Each application shall contain such information as the department shall require. Each registration shall be valid for one year and may be renewed for additional one-year periods. An applicant for registration or for a renewal of registration as a fund-raising counsel shall, at the time of making such application, file with and have approved by the department a bond in a form prescribed by the commissioner, in which the applicant shall be the principal obligor in the sum of twenty thousand dollars, with one or more responsible sureties whose liability in the aggregate as such sureties shall be no less than such sum. The fund-raising counsel shall maintain the bond in effect as long as the registration is in effect. The bond shall run to the state and to any person who may have a cause of action against the principal obligor of the bond for any liabilities resulting from the obligor's conduct of any activities subject to sections 21a-190a to 21a-190 l , inclusive, or arising out of a violation of said sections or any regulation adopted pursuant to said sections. Any such fund-raising counsel shall account to the charitable organization with which he has contracted for all income received and expenses paid no later than ninety days after a solicitation campaign has been completed, and in the case of a solicitation campaign lasting more than one year, on the anniversary of the commencement of such campaign. Such accounting shall be in writing, shall be retained by the charitable organization for three years and shall be available to the department upon request.

See Sec. 21a-10(b) re staggered schedule for registration renewals.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-37 — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 408 / Section 21-37
Sec. 21-37. Town ordinances re vending, hawking or peddling. Permits and fees. Fees not required of certain veterans. Information concerning frozen dessert truck. Exceptions.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after July 15, 2021, any town that requires a person seeking to operate a frozen dessert truck within the limits of such municipality to obtain a permit pursuant to subsection (a) of this section shall include the link to the Internet web site published by the Commissioner of Motor Vehicles pursuant to section 14-283h on (1) the application for such permit, and (2) the Internet web site of the municipality. For the purposes of this subsection, “frozen dessert truck” has the same meaning as provided in section 14-283c .

(c) This section shall not apply to sales by farmers and gardeners of the produce of their farms, gardens and greenhouses, including fruit, vegetables and flowers, or to the sale, distribution and delivery of milk, teas, coffees, spices, groceries, meats and bakery goods, to sales on approval, to conditional sales of merchandise, or to the taking of orders for merchandise for future delivery when full payment is not required at the time of solicitation. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in any manner the Commissioner of Transportation's statutory authority concerning state highways. Nothing in this section shall be construed as empowering any municipality to prohibit, regulate, control or impose a fee on any person operating any business on any state highway or land abutting any state highway pursuant to a contract with the state.

Ordinance must be reasonably definite and fee reasonable. 67 C. 29. Power to license lawful business to be strictly construed; milk dealers. Id., 541. Licensing of fruit peddlers by city ordinance upheld. 80 C. 478. Cited. 203 C. 14.

Cited. 4 CA 261.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-51 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 417 / Section 21a-51
Sec. 21a-51. (Formerly Sec. 19-197). Application for license by manufacturer of frozen desserts and mixes.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after July 15, 2021, the commissioner shall include the link to the Internet web site published by the Commissioner of Motor Vehicles pursuant to section 14-283h on (1) the application for a license for a retail manufacturer to vend from a frozen dessert truck, as defined in section 14-283c , and (2) the Internet web site of the Department of Consumer Protection.

See Sec. 21a-10(b) re staggered schedule for license renewals.

Annotation to former section 19-197:

Cited. 178 C. 493.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-408a — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420f / Section 21a-408a
Sec. 21a-408a. Qualifying patient not subject to arrest, prosecution or certain other penalties. Requirements. Exceptions.
Status: in_force

(1) The qualifying patient's physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse has issued a written certification to the qualifying patient for the palliative use of marijuana after the physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse has prescribed, or determined it is not in the best interest of the patient to prescribe, prescription drugs to address the symptoms or effects for which the certification is being issued;

(2) The combined amount of marijuana possessed by the qualifying patient and the caregiver for palliative use does not exceed five ounces;

(3) The qualifying patient has not more than one caregiver at any time; and

(4) Any cannabis plants grown by the qualifying patient in his or home is in compliance with subsection (b) of section 21a-408d and any applicable regulations.

(b) The provisions of subsection (a) of this section do not apply to:

(1) Any palliative use of marijuana that endangers the health or well-being of a person other than the qualifying patient or the caregiver; or

(2) The ingestion of marijuana (A) in a motor bus or a school bus or in any other moving vehicle, (B) in the workplace, (C) on any school grounds or any public or private school, dormitory, college or university property, unless such college or university is participating in a research program and such use is pursuant to the terms of the research program, (D) in any public place, or (E) in the presence of a person under the age of eighteen, unless such person is a qualifying patient or research program subject. For the purposes of this subdivision, (i) “presence” means within the direct line of sight of the palliative use of marijuana or exposure to second-hand marijuana smoke, or both; (ii) “public place” means any area that is used or held out for use by the public whether owned or operated by public or private interests; (iii) “vehicle” means a vehicle, as defined in section 14-1 ; (iv) “motor bus” means a motor bus, as defined in section 14-1 ; and (v) “school bus” means a school bus, as defined in section 14-1 .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-420 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420h / Section 21a-420
Sec. 21a-420. Definitions.
Status: reserved

(1) “Responsible and Equitable Regulation of Adult-Use Cannabis Act” or “RERACA” means this section, sections 2-56j , 7-294kk , 7-294 ll , 12-330 ll to 12-330nn , inclusive, 14-227p , 21a-278b , 21a-278c , 21a-279c , 21a-279d , 21a-420a to 21a-420j , inclusive, 21a-420 l to 21a-421r , inclusive, 21a-421aa to 21a-421ff , inclusive, 21a-421aaa to 21a-421hhh , inclusive, 21a-422 to 21a-422c , inclusive, 21a-422e to 21a-422g , inclusive, 21a-422j to 21a-422s , inclusive, 22-61n , 23-4b , 47a-9a , 53-247a , 53a-213a , 53a-213b , 54-33p , 54-56q , 54-56r , 54-125k and 54-142u , sections 23, 60, 63 to 65, inclusive, 124, 144 and 165 of public act 21-1 of the June special session*, and the amendments in public act 21-1 of the June special session to sections 7-148 , 10-221 , 12-30a , 12-35b , 12-412 , 12-650 , 12-704d , 14-44k , 14-111e , 14-227a to 14-227c , inclusive, 14-227j , 15-140q , 15-140r , 18-100h , 19a-342 , 19a-342a , 21a-267 , 21a-277 , 21a-279 , 21a-279a , 21a-408 to 21a-408f , inclusive, 21a-408h to 21a-408p , inclusive, 21a-408r to 21a-408w , inclusive, 21a-420aa , 21a-421s , 30-89a , 31-40q , 32-39 , 46b-120 , 51-164n , 53-394 , 53a-39c , 54-1m , 54-33g , 54-41b , 54-56e , 54-56g , 54-56i , 54-56k , 54-56n , 54-63d , 54-66a and 54-142e , section 20 of public act 23-79*;

(2) “Backer” means any individual with a direct or indirect financial interest in a cannabis establishment. “Backer” does not include an individual with an investment interest in a cannabis establishment if (A) the interest held by such individual and such individual's spouse, parent or child, in the aggregate, does not exceed five per cent of the total ownership or interest rights in such cannabis establishment, and (B) such individual does not participate directly or indirectly in the control, management or operation of the cannabis establishment;

(3) “Cannabis” means marijuana, as defined in section 21a-240 ;

(4) “Cannabis establishment” means a producer, dispensary facility, cultivator, micro-cultivator, retailer, hybrid retailer, food and beverage manufacturer, product manufacturer, product packager, delivery service or transporter;

(5) “Cannabis flower” means the flower, including abnormal and immature flowers, of a plant of the genus cannabis that has been harvested, dried, cured, chopped or ground, and prior to any processing whereby the flower material is transformed into a cannabis product. “Cannabis flower” does not include (A) the leaves or stem of such plant, or (B) hemp, as defined in section 22-61 l ;

(6) “Cannabis testing laboratory” means a laboratory that (A) is located in this state, (B) is licensed by the department to analyze cannabis, and (C) meets the licensure requirements established in section 21a-408r and the regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (d) of section 21a-408r ;

(7) “Cannabis testing laboratory employee” means an individual who is (A) employed at a cannabis testing laboratory, and (B) registered pursuant to section 21a-408r and the regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (d) of section 21a-408r ;

(8) “Cannabis trim” means all parts, including abnormal or immature parts, of a plant of the genus cannabis, other than cannabis flower, that have been harvested, dried and cured, and prior to any processing, excluding chopping or grinding, whereby the plant material is transformed into a cannabis product. “Cannabis trim” does not include hemp, as defined in section 22-61 l ;

(9) “Cannabis product” means cannabis, intended for use or consumption, that is in the form of (A) a cannabis concentrate, or (B) a product that contains cannabis and at least one other cannabis or noncannabis ingredient or component, excluding cannabis flower;

(10) “Cannabis concentrate” means any form of concentration, including, but not limited to, extracts, oils, tinctures, shatter and waxes, that is extracted from cannabis;

(11) “Cannabis-type substances” have the same meaning as “marijuana”, as defined in section 21a-240 ;

(12) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection and includes any designee of the commissioner;

(13) “Consumer” means an individual who is twenty-one years of age or older;

(14) “Control” means the power to direct, or cause the direction of, the management and policies of a cannabis establishment, regardless of whether such power is possessed directly or indirectly;

(15) “Cultivation” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-408 ;

(16) “Cultivator” means a person that is licensed to engage in the cultivation, growing and propagation of the cannabis plant at an establishment with not less than fifteen thousand square feet of grow space;

(17) “Delivery service” means a person that is licensed to deliver cannabis from (A) micro-cultivators, retailers and hybrid retailers to consumers and research program subjects, and (B) hybrid retailers and dispensary facilities to qualifying patients, caregivers and research program subjects, as defined in section 21a-408 , or to hospices or other inpatient care facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health pursuant to chapter 368v that have a protocol for the handling and distribution of cannabis that has been approved by the department, or a combination thereof;

(18) “Department” means the Department of Consumer Protection;

(19) “Dispensary facility” means a place of business where cannabis may be dispensed, sold or distributed in accordance with chapter 420f and any regulations adopted pursuant to said chapter, to qualifying patients and caregivers, and to which the department has issued a dispensary facility license pursuant to chapter 420f and any regulations adopted pursuant to said chapter;

(20) “Disproportionately impacted area” means (A) for the period beginning July 1, 2021, and ending July 31, 2023, a United States census tract in the state that has, as determined by the Social Equity Council under subdivision (1) of subsection (i) of section 21a-420d , (i) a historical conviction rate for drug-related offenses greater than one-tenth, or (ii) an unemployment rate greater than ten per cent, and (B) on and after August 1, 2023, a United States census tract in this state that has been identified by the Social Equity Council pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection (i) of section 21a-420d ;

(21) “Disqualifying conviction” means a conviction within the last ten years which has not been the subject of an absolute pardon under the provisions of section 54-130a , or an equivalent pardon process under the laws of another state or the federal government, for an offense under (A) section 53a-276 , 53a-277 or 53a-278 , (B) section 53a-291 , 53a-292 or 53a-293 , (C) section 53a-215 , (D) section 53a-138 or 53a-139 , (E) section 53a-142a , (F) sections 53a-147 to 53a-162 , inclusive, (G) sections 53a-125c to 53a-125f , inclusive, (H) section 53a-129b , 53a-129c or 53a-129d , (I) subsection (b) of section 12-737 , (J) section 53a-48 or 53a-49 , if the offense which is attempted or is an object of the conspiracy is an offense under the statutes listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of this subdivision, or (K) the law of any other state or of the federal government, if the offense on which such conviction is based is defined by elements that substantially include the elements of an offense under the statutes listed in subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive, of this subdivision;

(22) “Dispensary technician” means an individual who has had an active pharmacy technician or dispensary technician registration in this state within the past five years, is affiliated with a dispensary facility or hybrid retailer and is registered with the department in accordance with chapter 420f and any regulations adopted pursuant to said chapter;

(23) “Edible cannabis product” means a cannabis product intended for humans to eat or drink;

(24) “Employee” means any person who is not a backer, but is a member of the board of a company with an ownership interest in a cannabis establishment, and any person employed by a cannabis establishment or who otherwise has access to such establishment or the vehicles used to transport cannabis, including, but not limited to, an independent contractor who has routine access to the premises of such establishment or to the cannabis handled by such establishment;

(25) “Equity” and “equitable” means efforts, regulations, policies, programs, standards, processes and any other functions of government or principles of law and governance intended to (A) identify and remedy past and present patterns of discrimination and disparities of race, ethnicity, gender and sexual orientation, (B) ensure that such patterns of discrimination and disparities, whether intentional or unintentional, are neither reinforced nor perpetuated, and (C) prevent the emergence and persistence of foreseeable future patterns of discrimination or disparities of race, ethnicity, gender and sexual orientation;

(26) “Equity joint venture” means a business entity that is controlled, and at least fifty per cent owned, by an individual or individuals, or such applicant is an individual, who meets the criteria of subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (51) of this section;

(27) “Extract” means the preparation, compounding, conversion or processing of cannabis, either directly or indirectly by extraction or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis to produce a cannabis concentrate;

(28) “Financial interest” means any right to, ownership, an investment or a compensation arrangement with another person, directly, through business, investment or family. “Financial interest” does not include ownership of investment securities in a publicly-held corporation that is traded on a national exchange or over-the-counter market, provided the investment securities held by such person and such person's spouse, parent or child, in the aggregate, do not exceed one-half of one per cent of the total number of shares issued by the corporation;

(29) “Food and beverage manufacturer” means a person that is licensed to own and operate a place of business that acquires cannabis and creates food and beverages;

(30) “Grow space” means the portion of a premises owned and controlled by a producer, cultivator or micro-cultivator that is utilized for the cultivation, growing or propagation of the cannabis plant, and contains cannabis plants in an active stage of growth, measured starting from the outermost wall of the room containing cannabis plants and continuing around the outside of the room. “Grow space” does not include space used to cure, process, store harvested cannabis or manufacture cannabis once the cannabis has been harvested;

(31) “Historical conviction count for drug-related offenses” means, for a given area, the number of convictions of residents of such area (A) for violations of sections 21a-267 , 21a-277 , 21a-278 , 21a-279 and 21a-279a , and (B) who were arrested for such violations between January 1, 1982, and December 31, 2020, inclusive, where such arrest was recorded in databases maintained by the Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection;

(32) “Historical conviction rate for drug-related offenses” means, for a given area, the historical conviction count for drug-related offenses divided by the population of such area, as determined by the five-year estimates of the most recent American Community Survey conducted by the United States Census Bureau;

(33) “Hybrid retailer” means a person that is licensed to purchase cannabis and sell cannabis and medical marijuana products;

(34) “Infused beverage” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-425 ;

(35) “Key employee” means an employee with the following management position or an equivalent title within a cannabis establishment: (A) President or chief officer, who is the top ranking individual at the cannabis establishment and is responsible for all staff and overall direction of business operations; (B) financial manager, who is the individual who reports to the president or chief officer and who is responsible for oversight of the financial operations of the cannabis establishment, which financial operations include one or more of the following: (i) Revenue and expense management; (ii) distributions; (iii) tax compliance; (iv) budget development; and (v) budget management and implementation; or (C) compliance manager, who is the individual who reports to the president or chief officer and who is generally responsible for ensuring the cannabis establishment complies with all laws, regulations and requirements related to the operation of the cannabis establishment;

(36) “Labor peace agreement” means an agreement between a cannabis establishment and a bona fide labor organization under section 21a-421d pursuant to which the owners and management of the cannabis establishment agree not to lock out employees and that prohibits the bona fide labor organization from engaging in picketing, work stoppages or boycotts against the cannabis establishment;

(37) “Manufacture” means to add or incorporate cannabis into other products or ingredients or create a cannabis product;

(38) “Medical marijuana product” means cannabis that may be exclusively sold to qualifying patients and caregivers by dispensary facilities and hybrid retailers and which are designated by the commissioner as reserved for sale to qualifying patients and caregivers and published on the department's Internet web site;

(39) “Micro-cultivator” means a person licensed to engage in the cultivation, growing and propagation of the cannabis plant at an establishment containing not less than two thousand square feet and not more than ten thousand square feet of grow space, prior to any expansion authorized by the commissioner;

(40) “Municipality” means any town, city or borough, consolidated town and city or consolidated town and borough;

(41) “Paraphernalia” means drug paraphernalia, as defined in section 21a-240 ;

(42) “Person” means an individual, partnership, limited liability company, society, association, joint stock company, corporation, estate, receiver, trustee, assignee, referee or any other legal entity and any other person acting in a fiduciary or representative capacity, whether appointed by a court or otherwise, and any combination thereof;

(43) “Producer” means a person that is licensed as a producer pursuant to section 21a-408i and any regulations adopted pursuant to said section;

(44) “Product manufacturer” means a person that is licensed to obtain cannabis, extract and manufacture products;

(45) “Product packager” means a person that is licensed to package and label cannabis;

(46) “Qualifying patient” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-408 ;

(47) “Research program” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-408 ;

(48) “Retailer” means a person, excluding a dispensary facility and hybrid retailer, that is licensed to purchase cannabis from producers, cultivators, micro-cultivators, product manufacturers and food and beverage manufacturers and to sell cannabis to consumers and research programs;

(49) “Sale” or “sell” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-240 ;

(50) “Social Equity Council” or “council” means the council established under section 21a-420d ;

(51) “Social equity applicant” means a person that has applied for a license for a cannabis establishment, where such applicant is controlled, and at least sixty-five per cent owned, by an individual or individuals, or such applicant is an individual, who:

(A) Had an average household income of less than three hundred per cent of the state median household income over the three tax years immediately preceding such individual's application; and

(B) (i) Was a resident of a disproportionately impacted area for not less than five of the ten years immediately preceding the date of such application; or

(ii) Was a resident of a disproportionately impacted area for not less than nine years prior to attaining the age of eighteen;

(52) “THC” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-240 ;

(53) “Third-party lottery operator” means a person, or a constituent unit of the state system of higher education, that conducts lotteries pursuant to section 21a-420g , identifies the cannabis establishment license applications for consideration without performing any review of the applications that are identified for consideration, and that has no direct or indirect oversight of or investment in a cannabis establishment or a cannabis establishment applicant;

(54) “Transfer” means to transfer, change, give or otherwise dispose of control over or interest in;

(55) “Transport” means to physically move from one place to another;

(56) “Transporter” means a person licensed to transport cannabis between cannabis establishments, cannabis testing laboratories and research programs; and

(57) “Unemployment rate” means, in a given area, the number of people sixteen years of age or older who are in the civilian labor force and unemployed divided by the number of people sixteen years of age or older who are in the civilian labor force.

*Note: Sections 23, 60, 63 to 65, inclusive, 124, 144 and 165 of public act 21-1 of the June special session and section 20 of public act 23-79 are special in nature and therefore have not been codified but remain in full force and effect according to their terms.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-277 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420b / Section 21a-277
Sec. 21a-277. (Formerly Sec. 19-480). Penalty for illegal manufacture, distribution, sale, prescription, dispensing.
Status: in_force

(2) Any person who violates subdivision (1) of this subsection (A) for a first offense, shall be imprisoned not more than fifteen years and may be fined not more than fifty thousand dollars, or be both fined and imprisoned, (B) for a second offense, shall be imprisoned not more than thirty years and may be fined not more than one hundred thousand dollars, or be both fined and imprisoned, and (C) for any subsequent offense, shall be imprisoned not more than thirty years and may be fined not more than two hundred fifty thousand dollars, or be both fined and imprisoned.

(b) (1) No person may manufacture, distribute, sell, prescribe, dispense, compound, transport with the intent to sell or dispense, possess with the intent to sell or dispense, offer, give or administer to another person, except as authorized in this chapter or chapter 420f, any controlled substance other than (A) a narcotic substance, or (B) a hallucinogenic substance, or (C) cannabis.

(2) Any person who violates subdivision (1) of this subsection (A) for a first offense, may be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than seven years, or be both fined and imprisoned, and (B) for any subsequent offense, may be fined not more than one hundred thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than fifteen years, or be both fined and imprisoned.

(3) For purposes of this subsection, “cannabis” has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-420 .

(c) No person may knowingly possess drug paraphernalia in a drug factory situation as defined by subdivision (20) of section 21a-240 for the unlawful mixing, compounding or otherwise preparing any controlled substance for purposes of violation of this chapter.

(d) As an alternative to the sentences specified in subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the court may sentence the person to the custody of the Commissioner of Correction for an indeterminate term not to exceed three years or the maximum term specified for the offense, whichever is less, and, at any time within such indeterminate term and without regard to any other provision of law regarding minimum term of confinement, the Commissioner of Correction may release the convicted person so sentenced subject to such conditions as the commissioner may impose including, but not limited to, supervision by suitable authority. At any time during such indeterminate term, the Commissioner of Correction may revoke any such conditional release in the commissioner's discretion for violation of the conditions imposed and return the convicted person to a correctional institution.

Annotations to former section 19-480:

When drug possession not a lesser included offense. 163 C. 62. Cited. Id., 105, 242; 186 C. 437; 202 C. 541; 204 C. 585.

Cited. 3 CA 339; 5 CA 207; 6 CA 546; 7 CA 477.

Section's intention was to prohibit the sale of marijuana. 31 CS 130. Classification of marijuana with dangerous psychoactive drugs, amphetamines and barbiturates is irrational, unreasonable and in violation of equal protection clauses of state and federal constitutions. 32 CS 324.

Subsec. (a):

Conclusions reached by trial court as to impartiality of jurors are tested by the findings; defendant must raise a contention of bias from the realm of speculation to the realm of fact “to rebut the finding”. 161 C. 526. Venireman who was former police officer properly not excused for cause. 164 C. 224. Cited. 165 C. 83; Id., 599; 166 C. 268; Id., 569; 168 C. 395; Id., 520; 169 C. 322; Id., 692; 170 C. 12; Id., 206; Id., 469; 171 C. 18; Id., 600; 172 C. 18; Id., 223; Id., 385; Id., 593; 173 C. 197; Id., 344; Id., 431; 174 C. 405; 176 C. 170; 177 C. 391; 178 C. 422; Id., 704; 179 C. 121; Id., 239; 182 C. 335; 187 C. 335; Id., 469; 192 C. 388; Id., 488; 194 C. 1; Id., 331; 195 C. 70; 197 C. 67; 199 C. 591; 200 C. 82; Id., 412; 201 C. 505.

Cited. 3 CA 400; 7 CA 354; Id., 403; 8 CA 63; judgment reversed, see 204 C. 585; Id., 248.

Cited. 29 CS 134; Id., 333; 30 CS 211. Narcotic substance includes cocaine. Id., 267.

Cited. 6 Conn. Cir. Ct. 574.

Subsec. (b):

Cited. 166 C. 126. Cross-examination of defendant on his knowledge of the drug he was charged with selling is proper when the matter was opened by questions on direct examination. 167 C. 379. Cited. 169 C. 416. Classification of marijuana, for penalty purposes, with substances generally considered more harmful is not so irrational and unreasonable as to violate equal protection clauses of U.S. and Connecticut Constitutions. 171 C. 600. Cited. 179 C. 522. Factual basis for defendant's guilty plea insufficient since it did not reveal either the element of possession or the element of intent to sell or dispense. 180 C. 702. Cited. 181 C. 562; 194 C. 18.

Evidence must show a relation between the amount of drugs and the prohibition of statute. 6 Conn. Cir. Ct. 565, 571.

Annotations to present section:

Cited. 206 C. 90; 211 C. 258; 212 C. 195; 220 C. 6; 224 C. 253; Id., 322; 225 C. 650; 227 C. 32; 229 C. 385; 233 C. 174; 235 C. 477; 238 C. 692.

Cited. 7 CA 660; 22 CA 567; 23 CA 571; 25 CA 21; Id., 318; 26 CA 779; 27 CA 596; 28 CA 34; Id., 126; 32 CA 724; 33 CA 432; 34 CA 166; Id., 595; 38 CA 815; 42 CA 640; 45 CA 282; 46 CA 321.

Subsec. (a):

Cited. 197 C. 644; 199 C. 354; 204 C. 156; 206 C. 81; 207 C. 35; 209 C. 1; Id., 98; Id., 423; 210 C. 480; 212 C. 485; 216 C. 185; Id., 402; 218 C. 239; 220 C. 38; 221 C. 595; 224 C. 347; Id., 593; Id., 627; 227 C. 456; 228 C. 59; Id., 281; 235 C. 405; Id., 539; 236 C. 216; 237 C. 81; 238 C. 380; 240 C. 799. Violation of Sec. 21a-279(a) is a lesser included offense in section since no element in possession charge is not included in charge of possession with intent to sell, where information alleges crimes committed on same date, at same location and with same narcotic. 288 C. 345. Defendant's conviction of possession of a narcotic substance with intent to sell under Subsec. must be vacated as a lesser included offense re his conviction of possession of a narcotic substance with intent to sell by a person who is not drug-dependent in violation of Sec. 21a-278(b); merger of convictions approach in 216 C. 699 overruled. 308 C. 242.

Cited. 7 CA 265; 8 CA 317; Id., 330; Id., 361; 9 CA 667; 10 CA 7; Id., 532; 11 CA 11; Id., 47; Id., 540; judgment reversed, see 209 C. 1; 12 CA 225; Id., 274; Id., 313; 13 CA 288; 14 CA 134; Id., 356; Id., 536; Id., 574; Id., 605; 15 CA 328; Id., 589; 16 CA 89; Id., 142; Id., 148; Id., 245; Id., 272; Id., 518; 17 CA 108; Id., 142; Id., 257; Id., 273; Id., 677; 18 CA 32; Id., 820; 19 CA 640; Id., 668; 20 CA 137; Id., 190; Id., 395; 21 CA 48; Id., 162; Id., 519; Id., 622; 22 CA 458; Id., 557; Id., 601; 23 CA 495; Id., 532; Id., 592; Id., 602; Id., 667; Id., 746; judgment reversed, see 221 C. 595; Id., 823; 24 CA 543; Id., 811; 25 CA 3; Id., 99; Id., 354; 26 CA 94; Id., 103; Id., 259; 27 CA 128; Id., 248; 28 CA 508; Id., 638; 29 CA 359; Id., 584; Id., 843; 30 CA 9; Id., 783; 31 CA 548; 33 CA 253; Id., 409; 34 CA 236; Id., 411; Id., 717; 35 CA 107; Id., 360; 36 CA 161; Id., 488; Id., 546; 37 CA 205; Id., 509; Id., 561; judgment reversed, see 236 C. 216; 38 CA 588; Id., 621; 39 CA 110; Id., 369; Id., 550; 40 CA 288; 41 CA 180; Id., 604; 43 CA 448; Id., 555; 45 CA 110; 46 CA 791. Time not an essential element of the crime but may become material if defendant raises an alibi defense. 49 CA 323. Conviction for both possession and sale of narcotics does not violate prohibition against double jeopardy. 53 CA 661. Section is a lesser included offense of Sec. 21a-278(b), and where two convictions arose out of same act or transaction and were substantially identical, multiple punishments were improper. 60 CA 534. Defendant's conviction for sale of narcotic substance vacated where there was no evidence presented to support finding that the substance transferred was crack cocaine. 64 CA 596. There was sufficient evidence to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that defendant knowingly entered into conspiracy to possess a narcotic substance with intent to sell; conviction of both possession of at least one-half gram of crack cocaine with intent to sell under Sec. 21a-278 and possession of powder cocaine with intent to sell under this section does not constitute double jeopardy. 75 CA 223. The quantity of drugs is not sole dispositive factor in determining whether defendant had intent to sell; intent is determined from the cumulative weight of circumstantial evidence and reasonable and logical inferences derived therefrom. 78 CA 659. Defendant was in constructive possession of cocaine when it was found in plain view on the floor of backseat of vehicle where defendant's feet had been when police officer first approached vehicle, and there was sufficient evidence of defendant's intent to sell narcotics where he had in his constructive possession 43 individually packaged bags of various forms of cocaine, he was arrested in an area known for drug activity, he did not have any drug paraphernalia on his person to indicate personal use of drugs, and cash in small denominations and a cellular telephone were present in the vehicle. 110 CA 778. There was insufficient evidence that it was defendant who had hidden narcotics and insufficient evidence to buttress an inference of dominion and control by defendant; evidence was insufficient to show that defendant had requisite intent to sell narcotics. 123 CA 690. Defendant's conviction of possession of a narcotic substance with intent to sell in violation of Subsec. must be merged with his conviction of possession of a narcotic substance with intent to sell by a person who is not drug-dependent in violation of Sec. 21a-278(b), and his sentence for possession of narcotics with intent to sell must be vacated. 126 CA 323; judgment reversed in part re merger of convictions, see 308 C. 242. Conviction of conspiracy to possess narcotics under Sec. 21a-279(a) and conspiracy to possess narcotics with intent to sell under Subsec. constitutes double jeopardy and court must vacate conviction for lesser included offense of conspiracy to possess narcotics. 137 CA 733; judgment reversed in part re requirement that court vacate conviction, see 316 C. 34.

Subsec. (b):

Cited. 205 C. 560; 230 C. 372; Id., 385; 236 C. 561; 239 C. 427.

Cited. 6 CA 505; 8 CA 158; 10 CA 7; 11 CA 251; Id., 632; 12 CA 274; 14 CA 388; 17 CA 257; 18 CA 406; 19 CA 195; 20 CA 386; 27 CA 171; 30 CA 340; Id., 550; Id., 783; 31 CA 278; judgment reversed, see 230 C. 385; Id., 443; 32 CA 267; 34 CA 411; 37 CA 156; Id., 801; 38 CA 29; 42 CA 17.

Subsec. (c):

Cited. 214 C. 692; 227 C. 456; 228 C. 281.

Cited. 8 CA 111; 10 CA 7; Id., 561; 20 CA 321; 21 CA 162; 22 CA 10; 33 CA 253.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-335 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420d / Section 21a-335
Sec. 21a-335. (Formerly Sec. 19-558). Definitions.
Status: in_force

(a) “Agency” means the Department of Consumer Protection;

(b) “Administrator” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection or his legally authorized representative or agent;

(c) “Person” includes an individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association, or his or its legal representative or agent;

(d) “Commerce” means any and all commerce within the state of Connecticut and subject to the jurisdiction thereof; and includes the operation of any business or service establishment;

(e) “Hazardous substance” means: (1) (A) Any substance or mixture of substances which (i) is toxic, (ii) is corrosive, (iii) is an irritant, (iv) is a strong sensitizer, (v) is flammable or combustible, or (vi) generates pressure through decomposition, heat or other means, if such substance or mixture of substances may cause substantial personal injury or substantial illness during or as a proximate result of any customary or reasonably foreseeable handling or use, including reasonably foreseeable ingestion by children; (B) any substances which the administrator by regulation finds meet the requirements of subdivision (1) (A) of this subsection pursuant to the provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of section 21a-336 ; (C) any substance classified as a hazardous substance pursuant to federal regulations adopted under the authority of the federal Hazardous Substances Act (15 USC 1261 et seq.); (D) any radioactive substance, if, with respect to such substance as used in a particular class of article or as packaged, the administrator determines by regulation that the substance is sufficiently hazardous to require labeling in accordance with this section and sections 21a-336 to 21a-346 , inclusive, in order to protect the public health; (E) any toy or other article intended for use by children which the administrator by regulation determines in accordance with subsection (a) or (b) of section 21a-336 presents an electrical, mechanical or thermal hazard; (2) “hazardous substance” shall not apply to economic poisons subject to the federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act or chapter 441 nor to foods, drugs and cosmetics subject to chapter 418, nor to substances intended for use as fuels when stored in containers and used in the heating, cooking or refrigeration system of a house, but such term shall apply to any article which is not itself an economic poison within the meaning of the federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act or said chapter 441 but which is a hazardous substance within the meaning of subdivision (1) of this subsection by reason of bearing or containing such an economic poison; (3) “hazardous substance” shall not include any source material, special nuclear material or by-product material as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued pursuant thereto by the Atomic Energy Commission;

(f) “Toxic” shall apply to any substance, other than a radioactive substance, which has the capacity to produce personal injury or illness to man through ingestion, inhalation or absorption through any body surface;

(g) (1) “Highly toxic” means any substance which falls within any of the following categories: (A) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of fifty milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally administered; or (B) produces death within fourteen days in half or more than half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmosphere concentration of two hundred parts per million by volume or less of gas or vapor or two milligrams per liter by volume or less of mist or dust, provided such concentration is likely to be encountered by man when the substance is used in any reasonably foreseeable manner; or (C) produces death within fourteen days in half or more than half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of two hundred milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when administered by continuous contact with the bare skin for twenty-four hours or less; (2) if the administrator finds that available data on human experience with any substance indicate results different from those obtained on animals in the above-named dosages or concentrations, the human data shall take precedence;

(h) “Corrosive” means any substance which in contact with living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical action; but shall not refer to action on inanimate surfaces;

(i) “Irritant” means any substance not corrosive within the meaning of subsection (h) which on immediate, prolonged or repeated contact with normal living tissue will induce a local inflammatory reaction;

(j) “Strong sensitizer” means a substance which will cause on normal living tissue, through an allergic or photodynamic process, a hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication of the same substances and which is designated as such by the administrator. Before designating any substance as a strong sensitizer, the administrator, upon consideration of the frequency of occurrence and severity of the reaction, shall find that the substance has a significant potential for causing hypersensitivity;

(k) “Extremely flammable” shall apply to any substance which has a flash point at or below twenty degrees Fahrenheit as determined by the Tagliabue Open Cup Tester, “flammable” shall apply to any substance which has a flash point of above twenty degrees to and including eighty degrees Fahrenheit, as determined by the Tagliabue Open Cup Tester and “combustible” shall apply to any substance which has a flash point above eighty degrees to and including one hundred and fifty degrees Fahrenheit, as determined by the Tagliabue Open Cup Tester, except that the flammability or combustibility of solids and of the contents of self-pressurized containers shall be determined by methods found by the administrator to be generally applicable to such materials or containers, respectively, and established by regulations issued by him, which regulations shall also define the terms “flammable” and “combustible” and “extremely flammable” in accord with such methods;

(l) “Radioactive substance” means a substance which emits ionizing radiation;

(m) “Label” means a display of written, printed or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any substance or, in the case of an article which is unpackaged or is not packaged in an immediate container intended or suitable for delivery to the ultimate consumer, a display of such matter directly upon the article involved or upon a tag or other suitable material affixed thereto, and a requirement made by or under authority of this section and sections 21a-336 to 21a-346 , inclusive, that any word, statement or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement or other information also appears (1) on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, unless it is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper, and (2) on all accompanying literature where there are directions for use, written or otherwise;

(n) “Immediate container” does not include package liners;

(o) “Misbranded hazardous substance” means a hazardous substance, including a toy, or other article intended for use by children, which is a hazardous substance, or which bears or contains a hazardous substance in such manner as to be susceptible of access by a child to whom such toy or other article is entrusted, intended, or packaged in a form suitable, for use in the household or by children, which substance, except as otherwise provided by or pursuant to section 21a-336 , fails to bear a label (1) which states conspicuously (A) the name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, distributor or seller; (B) the common or usual name or the chemical name, if there is no common or usual name, of the hazardous substance or of each component which contributes substantially to its hazard, unless the administrator by regulation permits or requires the use of a recognized generic name; (C) the signal word “danger” on substances which are extremely flammable, corrosive or highly toxic; (D) the signal word “warning” or “caution” on all other hazardous substances; (E) an affirmative statement of the principal hazard or hazards, such as “Flammable”, “Combustible”, “Vapor Harmful”, “Causes Burns”, “Absorbed Through Skin” or similar wording descriptive of the hazard; (F) precautionary measures describing the action to be followed or avoided, except when modified by regulation of the administrator pursuant to section 21a-336 ; (G) instruction, when necessary or appropriate, for first-aid treatment; (H) the word “poison” for any hazardous substance which is defined as “highly toxic” by subsection (g); (I) instructions for handling and storage of packages which require special care in handling or storage; and (J) the statement (i) “Keep out of the reach of children” or its practical equivalent or, (ii) if the article is intended for use by children and is not a banned hazardous substance, adequate directions for the protection of children from the hazard, and (2) on which any statements required under subdivision (1) of this subsection are located prominently and are in the English language in conspicuous and legible type in contrast by typography, layout or color with other printed matter on the label;

(p) “Banned hazardous substance” means (A) any toy, or other article intended for use by children, which is a hazardous substance, or which bears or contains a hazardous substance in such manner as to be susceptible of access by a child to whom such toy or other article is entrusted; (B) (i) for the period commencing July 1, 2009, and ending June 30, 2011, any children's product with greater than three hundred parts per million total lead content by weight for any part of the product; and (ii) on and after July 1, 2011, any children's product with greater than one hundred parts per million total lead content by weight for any part of the product, or such stricter standard established in regulation adopted pursuant to section 21a-342 ; (C) on and after July 1, 2009, any children's product with lead-containing paint greater than ninety parts per million total lead content; (D) on and after July 1, 2009, any children's product with lead-containing paint greater than .009 milligrams of lead per centimeter squared; (E) any hazardous substance intended, or packaged in a form suitable, for use in a household, classified, pursuant to section 21a-336 or pursuant to federal regulations adopted under authority of the federal Hazardous Substances Act (15 USC 1261 et seq.), as a “banned hazardous substance” that, notwithstanding such cautionary labeling as is or may be required under this section and sections 21a-336 to 21a-346 , inclusive, for that substance, the degree or nature of the hazard involved in the presence or use of such substance in households is such that the objective of the protection of the public health and safety can be adequately served only by keeping such substance, when so intended or packaged, out of the channels of commerce; provided the administrator, by regulations adopted in accordance with chapter 54, shall exempt from subparagraph (A) of this subdivision articles, such as chemical sets, which by reason of their functional purpose require the inclusion of the hazardous substance involved or necessarily present in electrical, mechanical or thermal hazard and which bear labeling giving adequate directions and warnings for safe use and are intended for use by children who have attained sufficient maturity, and may reasonably be expected, to read and heed such directions and warnings; (F) any new wood-burning stove, coal-burning stove, solid fuel add-on units or combination of such stoves and units, which is offered for sale or installed in any building, dwelling or structure in this state on or after July 1, 1985, and which has not been tested in accordance with Underwriters Laboratories Standard Number 1482; (G) any new unvented fuel-burning room heater offered for sale or use in any building, dwelling or structure in this state on or after July 1, 1985, which has not been tested in accordance with Underwriters Laboratories Standard Number 647 for unvented kerosene heaters and American National Standards Institute Standard Number Z21.11.2 for unvented gas heaters;

(q) An article may be determined to present an electrical hazard if, in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, its design or manufacture may cause personal injury or illness by electric shock;

(r) An article may be determined to present a mechanical hazard if, in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, its design or manufacture presents an unreasonable risk of personal injury or illness (1) from fracture, fragmentation or disassembly of the article, (2) from propulsion of the article, or any part or accessory thereof, (3) from points or other protrusions, surfaces, edges, openings or closures, (4) from moving parts, (5) from lack or insufficiency of controls to reduce or stop motion, (6) as a result of self-adhering characteristics of the article, (7) because the article, or any part or accessory thereof, may be aspirated or ingested, (8) because of instability, or (9) because of any other aspect of the article's design or manufacture;

(s) An article may be determined to present a thermal hazard if, in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, its design or manufacture presents an unreasonable risk of personal injury or illness because of heat as from heated parts, substances or surfaces;

(t) “Drying oil” means linseed oil, tung oil, perilla oil or other oils which are found to contain a substantial proportion of fatty acids with three double molecular bonds;

(u) “Drying oil product” means a wood treatment or wood finish product containing a drying oil;

(v) “Children's product” means a consumer product designed or intended primarily for children under age twelve, including, but not limited to, clothing, accessories, jewelry, decorative object, candy, food, dietary supplements or other edible or chewable items, toys, furniture or other articles used by or intended to be used by children;

(w) “Consumer product” means any article used primarily for personal, family or household purposes;

(x) “Paint and other similar surface-coating materials” means a fluid, semi-fluid or other material, with or without a suspension of finely divided coloring matter, which changes to a solid film when a thin layer is applied to a metal, wood, stone, paper, leather, cloth, plastic or other surface. The term does not include printing inks or those materials that actually become a part of the substrate, such as the pigment in a plastic article or those materials that are actually bonded to the substrate, such as by electroplating or ceramic glazing;

(y) “Lead-containing paint” means paint or other similar surface coating materials containing any detectable amount of lead or lead compounds.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-154 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 419b / Section 21a-154
Sec. 21a-154. (Formerly Sec. 19-286). Manufacture and sale of bread.
Status: in_force

(b) Any person who, by himself or his agent or servant, violates any provision of this section or of any regulation adopted under section 21a-156 with respect thereto shall, upon the first conviction, be fined not more than two hundred dollars and, upon a subsequent conviction, be fined not more than five hundred dollars or imprisoned not more than six months, or both.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-83e — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 412 / Section 21-83e
Sec. 21-83e. Violation of provisions of chapter. Declaratory ruling. Unfair trade practice.
Status: in_force

(b) A violation of any of the provisions of this chapter shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive trade practice under chapter 735a.

Mobile home owners' association required to request declaratory ruling prior to seeking judicial relief. 310 C. 797.

The words “may request” re declaratory ruling does not permit a resident to bypass statutory scheme for administrative review, and resident who brought action directly to Superior Court failed to exhaust administrative remedies. 131 CA 567; judgment affirmed, see 310 C. 797.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-79a — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 417 / Section 21a-79a
Sec. 21a-79a. Program for test audit of alternative electronic retail pricing systems.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner may designate a private auditing organization to conduct any such test audit and shall charge the cost of such test audit to the selected retailer or retailers. No such test audit shall be conducted for a period exceeding twelve months. During the test audit, such store shall be exempt from the provisions of subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 21a-79 and any applicable regulations adopted under said section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21-80 — Connecticut Code / Title 21 / Chapter 412 / Section 21-80
Sec. 21-80. Grounds for summary process action or termination of rental agreement. Procedure. Rent increases. Stay of execution. Sale of abandoned homes.
Status: in_force

(1) A conviction of the resident of a violation of a federal or state law or local ordinance which the court finds to be detrimental to the health, safety and welfare of other residents in the park but no notice to quit possession shall be required;

(2) The continued violation of any reasonable rule established by the owner, provided a copy of such rule has been delivered by the owner to the resident prior to entering into a rental agreement and a copy of such rule has been posted in a conspicuous place in the park and, provided further the resident receives written notice of the specific rule or rules being violated at least thirty days before the time specified in the notice for the resident to quit possession of the mobile manufactured home or occupancy of the space or lot; or

(3) A change in use of the land on which such mobile manufactured home is located, provided all the residents affected are given written notice (A) at least three hundred sixty-five days before the time specified in the notice for the resident to quit possession of the mobile manufactured home or occupancy of the lot if such notice is given before June 23, 1999, or (B) at least five hundred forty-five days before the time specified in the notice for the resident to quit possession of the mobile manufactured home or occupancy of the lot if such notice is given on or after June 23, 1999, regardless of whether any other notice under this section or section 21-70 has been given before June 23, 1999; provided nothing in subsection (f) of section 21-70 , section 21-70a , this subsection, subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of this section or section 21-80b shall be construed to invalidate the effectiveness of or require the reissuance of any valid notice given before June 23, 1999.

(b) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 47a-23 , an owner may terminate a rental agreement or maintain a summary process action against a resident who owns a mobile manufactured home only for one or more of the following reasons:

(A) Nonpayment of rent, utility charges or reasonable incidental services charges;

(B) Material noncompliance by the resident with any statute or regulation materially affecting the health and safety of other residents or materially affecting the physical condition of the park;

(C) Material noncompliance by the resident with the rental agreement or with rules or regulations adopted under section 21-70 ;

(D) Failure by the resident to agree to a proposed rent increase, provided the owner has complied with all provisions of subdivision (5) of this subsection; or

(E) A change in the use of the land on which such mobile manufactured home is located, provided all of the affected residents receive written notice (i) at least three hundred sixty-five days before the time specified in the notice for the resident to quit possession of the mobile manufactured home or occupancy of the lot if such notice is given before June 23, 1999, or (ii) at least five hundred forty-five days before the time specified in the notice for the resident to quit possession of the mobile manufactured home or occupancy of the lot if such notice is given on or after June 23, 1999, regardless of whether any other notice under this section or section 21-70 has been given before June 23, 1999; provided nothing in subsection (f) of section 21-70 , section 21-70a , subsection (a) of this section, this subdivision and section 21-80b shall be construed to invalidate the effectiveness of or require the reissuance of any valid notice given before June 23, 1999.

(2) An owner may not maintain a summary process action under subparagraph (B), (C) or (D) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, except a summary process action based upon conduct which constitutes a serious nuisance or a violation of subdivision (9) of subsection (b) of section 21-82 , prior to delivering a written notice to the resident specifying the acts or omissions constituting the breach and that the rental agreement shall terminate upon a date not less than thirty days after receipt of the notice. If such breach can be remedied by repair by the resident or payment of damages by the resident to the owner and such breach is not so remedied within twenty-one days, the rental agreement shall terminate except that (A) if the breach is remediable by repairs or the payment of damages and the resident adequately remedies the breach within said twenty-one-day period, the rental agreement shall not terminate, or (B) if substantially the same act or omission for which notice was given recurs within six months, the owner may terminate the rental agreement in accordance with the provisions of sections 47a-23 to 47a-23b , inclusive. For the purposes of this subdivision, “serious nuisance” means (i) inflicting bodily harm upon another resident or the owner or threatening to inflict such harm with the present ability to effect the harm and under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that such threat will be carried out, (ii) substantial and wilful destruction of part of the premises, (iii) conduct which presents an immediate and serious danger to the safety of other residents or the owner, or (iv) using the premises for prostitution or the illegal sale of drugs. If the owner elects to evict based upon an allegation, pursuant to subdivision (8) of subsection (b) of section 21-82 , that the resident failed to require other persons on the premises with the resident's consent to conduct themselves in a manner that will not constitute a serious nuisance, and the resident claims to have had no knowledge of such conduct, then, if the owner establishes that the premises have been used for the illegal sale of drugs, the burden shall be on the resident to show that the resident had no knowledge of the creation of the serious nuisance.

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 47a-23 , termination of any tenancy in a mobile manufactured home park shall be effective only if made in the following manner:

(A) By the resident giving at least thirty days' notice to the owner;

(B) By the owner giving the resident at least sixty days' written notice, which shall state the reason or reasons for such termination, except that, when termination is based upon subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, the owner need give the resident only thirty days' written notice, which notice shall state the total arrearage due provided, the owner shall not maintain or proceed with a summary process action against a resident who tenders the total arrearage due to the owner within such thirty days and who has not so tendered an arrearage under this subparagraph during the preceding twelve months.

(4) Except as otherwise specified, proceedings under this section shall be as prescribed by chapter 832.

(5) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit an owner from increasing the rent at the termination of the rental agreement if (A) the owner delivers a written notice of the proposed rent increase to the resident at least thirty days before the start of a new rental agreement; (B) the proposed rent is consistent with rents for comparable lots in the same park; and (C) the rent is not increased in order to defeat the purpose of this subsection.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of sections 47a-35 and 47a-36 , if judgment is entered in a summary process action against a mobile manufactured home owner and resident based upon subparagraph (D) of subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of this section, execution shall not issue until six months from the date of such judgment. The court shall condition such stay of execution upon a requirement that the mobile manufactured home owner and resident make payments to the plaintiff in the summary process action in such installments as the court may direct for the use and occupancy of the premises during the period of such stay at the rate for which such mobile manufactured home owner and resident was most recently liable as rent or in such other sum as is reasonable.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of sections 47a-35 and 47a-36 , if judgment is entered in a summary process action against a resident who owns the mobile manufactured home, the resident may, prior to the expiration of the automatic stay of execution provided in section 47a-35 or 47a-36 , as applicable, move for permission to exercise in good faith the resident's right to sell the mobile manufactured home in place in the mobile manufactured home park, subject to the provisions of section 21-79 , and the court may stay execution upon such judgment pending sale of the home. Such stay may be ordered for a period or periods in an aggregate not to exceed twelve months from the date of the judgment in the summary process action, except that any such stay or stays extending beyond six months from the date of the judgment in the summary process action shall be reviewed every two months to determine that the resident is making a good faith effort to sell the home. The court shall condition such stay of execution upon a requirement that the resident make payments to the plaintiff in the summary process action in such installments as the court may direct for the use and occupancy of the premises during the period of such stay at the rate for which such resident was most recently liable as rent or in such other amount as is reasonable and may, in addition, impose other reasonable terms and conditions on the stay. If there is a rental arrearage at the time of the entry of the order, the court shall order that it be paid out of the proceeds of the sale, except that the court, upon finding that the resident has the present ability to pay the arrearage, may require that all or part of such arrearage be paid as a condition of the stay.

(e) (1) If (A) a judgment for possession has been entered against the resident and all occupants of a mobile manufactured home pursuant to chapter 832 and this section; (B) no rent or other payment has been received for the use and occupancy of the lot upon which the mobile manufactured home is situated for at least four months; (C) at least sixty days have passed since the expiration of the last stay of execution pursuant to chapter 832 and this section; and (D) notwithstanding the provisions of section 47a-42 , the mobile manufactured home remains upon the lot, the owner of the mobile manufactured home park may initiate a petition to the Superior Court pursuant to this section. Such petition may be brought as a supplemental proceeding in the summary process action, in which case no additional entry fee shall be required.

(2) The petition shall allege the acts specified in subdivision (1) of this subsection and, in addition, shall allege supporting facts which demonstrate that the owner of the mobile manufactured home has failed or refused to make reasonable efforts to remove the home from the lot or to sell the home in place or that, in spite of reasonable efforts to locate the owner of the mobile manufactured home or such owner's representative, the owner of the mobile manufactured home park has been unable to locate such owner. Reasonable efforts to locate the owner of the mobile manufactured home shall include, but not be limited to, reasonable inquiry of relatives or associates of the owner of the home, if known to the owner of the park, and of other residents of the park.

(3) A copy of the petition and the notice of the hearing on the petition shall be given to the owner of the mobile manufactured home, the municipality and all lienholders who have recorded a lien against the mobile manufactured home or of whom the owner of the mobile manufactured home park has actual knowledge. Notice to the municipality and to lienholders shall be by certified mail. Notice to the owner of the mobile manufactured home shall be designed to maximize the likelihood that the owner will receive actual notice of the petition, without regard to whether the owner appeared in the summary process action. Such notice to the owner of the mobile manufactured home shall be conspicuously posted at the entrance to the mobile manufactured home and also sent by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, to the owner of the mobile manufactured home and to the attorney, if any, who appeared for such owner in the summary process action. Notice to the owner of the mobile manufactured home shall be sent to such owner at the owner's last-known address and also to such owner in care of any other person reasonably believed to know the location of the owner. The court may require supplemental notice if it finds that additional notice is likely to result in actual notice to the owner of the mobile manufactured home.

(4) At the hearing on the petition, the court shall determine whether all the requirements of subdivisions (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection have been satisfied and, if they have, shall also determine whether the home has been abandoned. If such requirements have been satisfied and such home has been abandoned, the court shall order the owner of the mobile manufactured home park to conduct a public sale of the home. Nothing in this section shall preclude the court from deferring the entry of an order requiring sale and from issuing other appropriate orders, if the court finds that, within a reasonable period of time, the owner of the mobile manufactured home will remove the home from the lot or dispose of the home by sale or will make other appropriate arrangements with the park owner. The order directing sale shall require notice which includes a conspicuous statement that the sale will extinguish all previous ownership and lien rights. Notice shall be given by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, to all persons entitled to notice of the petition. Notice shall also be posted conspicuously at the entrance of the home and shall be advertised at least three times in the real estate section of a daily paper with general circulation in the area where the park is situated. Any person, including a lienholder or the owner of the mobile manufactured home park, may bid at the sale. The proceeds of such sale shall be applied first to the costs of the sale and then to the payment of lienholders in the order of the priority of their liens. If proceeds remain thereafter they shall be paid over to the owner of the mobile manufactured home. Upon conclusion of the sale, the park owner shall file an affidavit with the court setting forth the nature of its compliance with the court's order of sale. The court, upon finding compliance with its order, shall issue a conveyance of title and release of liens, if any, to the purchaser for filing in the land records, which shall constitute good title to the home, and no execution shall issue on the original summary process action.

Cited. 208 C. 620; 209 C. 243; Id., 724; 215 C. 701; 217 C. 313.

Cited. 7 CA 639; 19 CA 564; 21 CA 40. Defendant resident who owned stock in plaintiff corporation was not an owner of the mobile manufactured home park and was subject to summary process proceedings pursuant to plain meaning of this section and Sec. 21-64. 161 CA 668.

Subsec. (e):

Subdiv. (4) clearly and unambiguously indicates that the legislature intended to provide the successful bidder at a public sale conducted pursuant to that statute with clear and good title to the abandoned mobile home, free from any and all encumbrances, including municipal tax liens. 293 C. 1.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-1b — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-1b
Sec. 21a-1b. Commissioner and Department of Consumer Protection substituted for former executive director and division.
Status: in_force

(b) Wherever the term “executive director of the Division of Special Revenue” is used in the general statutes or in any special or public act of 2011, the term “Commissioner of Consumer Protection” shall be substituted in lieu thereof. Wherever the term “Division of Special Revenue” is used in the general statutes or any public or special act of 2011, the term “Department of Consumer Protection” shall be substituted in lieu thereof.

(c) The Legislative Commissioners' Office shall, in codifying the provisions of this section, make such technical, grammatical and punctuation changes as are necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-322 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420c / Section 21a-322
Sec. 21a-322. (Formerly Sec. 19-504q). Grounds for disciplinary action. Civil penalty. Records and inspection.
Status: in_force

(b) If a practitioner dispenses, administers or prescribes any controlled substance to a patient, the practitioner shall make available to the Department of Consumer Protection, for inspection by the department, records of medical evaluations associated with dispensing, administering or prescribing such controlled substance. Such records shall be confidential and not be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as defined in section 1-200 . The department may inspect such records solely for the purpose of investigating any violation or suspected violation, or enforcing any provision, of this chapter or any regulation promulgated under this chapter. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require disclosure of any substance abuse treatment record that is protected from disclosure under 42 USC 290dd-2, as amended from time to time, or other applicable federal law.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-420g — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420h / Section 21a-420g
Sec. 21a-420g. Review of applications by Social Equity Council. Maximum number of applications. Lotteries. Rankings to be confidential. Disqualification. Provisional license. Final license.
Status: reserved

(b) Except as provided in sections 21a-420o and 21a-420aa , prior to the first date that the department begins accepting applications for a license type, the department shall determine the maximum number of applications that shall be considered for such license type and post such information on its Internet web site. Fifty per cent of the maximum number of applications that shall be considered for each license type (1) shall be selected through a social equity lottery for such license type, and (2) shall be reserved by the department for social equity applicants. If, upon the close of the application period for a license type, the department receives more applications than the maximum number to be considered in total or to be reserved for social equity applicants as set forth in this subsection, a third-party lottery operator shall conduct a lottery to identify applications for review by the department and the Social Equity Council.

(c) (1) The third-party lottery operator shall:

(A) Not be provided any application received after the close of the application period;

(B) Give equal weight to every complete application submitted during the application period; and

(C) Conduct multiple, separate geographic lotteries if required by the department.

(2) For purposes of the lottery, the third-party lottery operator shall:

(A) Conduct an independent social equity lottery and general lottery for each license type that results in each application being randomly ranked starting with one and continuing sequentially; and

(B) Rank all applications in each lottery numerically according to the order in which they were drawn, including those that exceed the number to be considered, and identify for the department all applications to be considered.

(d) (1) Prior to submitting an application, an applicant that is a business entity shall register such business entity with the Secretary of the State to do business in this state, and include with such application an attestation that such applicant has so registered.

(2) No applicant shall apply more than once in any application period to the social equity lottery round, if applicable, or the general lottery round. The department shall review the list of all lottery applicants in the social equity lottery round and the general lottery round, independently for each such round, to determine whether any applicant has submitted more than one application under the same applicant name. Except as provided in subdivision (3) of this subsection, if the department determines that any applicant has submitted more than one application in the social equity lottery round or the general lottery round, all applications submitted in such round by such applicant shall be disqualified and the department shall remove all such applications from the pool of eligible applications the department provides to the third-party lottery operator for selection in such round.

(3) If a social equity application is entered into the general lottery round pursuant to subdivision (4) of subsection (e) of this section, thereby resulting in two entries by the same social equity applicant in the general lottery round, such entries shall not result in disqualification under subdivision (2) of this subsection. Such social equity applicant shall not be eligible to receive more than one license from any round of the general lottery. If such social equity applicant is selected twice for consideration in any general lottery round, the department shall disqualify the second such selection and request that the third-party lottery operator identify the next-ranked application in the applicable lottery.

(4) No disqualification under this subsection shall result in any refund of lottery fees.

(5) For the purpose of this subsection: (A) “Application period” means the established period of time within which the department may accept applications for a specific license type for the social equity or general lottery; and (B) “round” means each time a lottery is run to determine the ranking of applicants after the conclusion of an application period, either for the social equity lottery or the general lottery.

(e) (1) Upon receipt of an application for social equity consideration or, in the case where a social equity lottery is conducted, after such lottery applicants are selected, the department shall provide to the Social Equity Council the documentation received by the department during the application process that is required under subsection (a) of this section. No identifying information beyond what is necessary to establish social equity status shall be provided to the Social Equity Council. The Social Equity Council shall review the social equity applications to be considered as identified by the third-party lottery operator to determine whether the applicant meets the criteria for a social equity applicant. If the Social Equity Council determines that an applicant does not qualify as a social equity applicant, the application shall not be reviewed further for purposes of receiving a license designated for social equity applicants. The application shall be entered into the general lottery for the applicable license type and may be reviewed further if selected through such lottery, provided the applicant pays the additional amount necessary to pay the full fee for entry into such lottery within five business days of being notified by the Social Equity Council that such applicant does not qualify as a social equity applicant. Not later than thirty days after the Social Equity Council notifies an applicant of the Social Equity Council's determination that the applicant does not meet the criteria for a social equity applicant, the applicant may appeal from such determination to the Superior Court in accordance with section 4-183 .

(2) Upon determination by the Social Equity Council that an application selected through the lottery process does not qualify for consideration as a social equity applicant, the department shall request that the third-party lottery operator identify the next-ranked application in the social equity lottery. This process may continue until the Social Equity Council has identified for further consideration the number of applications set forth on the department's web site pursuant to subsection (b) of this section or until there are no remaining social equity applications to be considered.

(3) For each license type, the Social Equity Council shall identify for the department the social equity applications that qualify as social equity applicants and that should be reviewed by the department for purposes of awarding a provisional license.

(4) Any application entered into, but not selected through, the social equity lottery shall not be reviewed as a social equity application, but shall be entered into the general lottery for the applicable license type.

(5) After receiving the list of selected social equity applications reviewed and approved by the Social Equity Council, the department shall notify the third-party lottery operator, which shall then conduct the independent general lottery for all remaining applicants for each license type, rank all general lottery applications numerically including those that exceed the number to be considered, and identify for the department all of the selected applications to be reviewed. The number of applications to be reviewed by the department shall consist of the applications ranked numerically one through the maximum number necessary to ensure that fifty per cent of the applications for each license type identified through the lottery process are selected from the social equity lottery and approved by the Social Equity Council.

(6) The numerical rankings created by the third-party lottery operator shall be confidential and shall not be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as defined in section 1-200 .

(f) The department shall review each application to be considered, as identified by the third-party lottery operator or Social Equity Council, as applicable, to confirm such application is complete and to determine whether any application: (1) Includes a backer with a disqualifying conviction; (2) exceeds the cap set forth in section 21a-420i ; or (3) has a backer who individually or in connection with a cannabis business in another state or country has an administrative finding or judicial decision that may substantively compromise the integrity of the cannabis program, as determined by the department, or that precludes its participation in this state's cannabis program.

(g) No additional backers may be added to a cannabis establishment application between the time of lottery entry, or any initial application for a license, and when a final license is awarded to the cannabis establishment, except, if a backer of an applicant or provisional licensee dies, the applicant or provisional licensee may apply to the commissioner to replace the deceased backer, provided if such applicant is a social equity applicant, the Social Equity Council shall review ownership to ensure such replacement would not cause the applicant to no longer qualify as a social equity applicant. A backer may be removed from a cannabis establishment application selected through the general lottery at any time upon notice to the department.

(h) If an applicant is disqualified on the basis of any of the criteria set forth in subsection (f) of this section, the entire application shall be denied, and such denial shall be a final decision of the department unless the applicant removes from such application all backers that would cause such denial not later than thirty days after the department sends notice to the applicant disclosing such denial. Any change to a social equity applicant shall be reviewed and approved by the Social Equity Council before such change is reviewed by the department. Not later than thirty days after the department sends notice to the applicant disclosing such denial, the applicant may appeal such denial to the Superior Court.

(i) For each application denied pursuant to subsection (f) of this section, the department may, within its discretion, request that the third-party lottery operator identify the next-ranked application in the applicable lottery. If the applicant that was denied was a social equity applicant, the next ranked social equity applicant shall first be reviewed by the Social Equity Council to confirm that the applicant qualifies as a social equity applicant prior to being further reviewed by the department. This process may continue until the department has identified for further consideration the number of applications equivalent to the maximum number set forth on its Internet web site pursuant to subsection (b) of this section. If the number of applications remaining is less than the maximum number posted on the department's Internet web site, the department shall award fewer licenses. To the extent the denials result in less than fifty per cent of applicants being social equity applicants, the department shall continue to review and issue provisional and final licenses for the remaining applications, but shall reopen the application period only for social equity applicants.

(j) All applicants selected in the lottery and not denied shall be provided a provisional license application, which shall be submitted in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner. Lottery applicants shall have sixty days from the date they receive their provisional application to complete the application. The right to apply for a provisional license is nontransferable. Upon receiving a provisional application from an applicant, the department shall review the application for completeness and to confirm that all information provided is acceptable and in compliance with this section and any regulations adopted under this section. If a provisional application does not meet the standards set forth in this section, the applicant shall not be provided a provisional license. A provisional license issued by the department to an applicant on or before June 30, 2023, other than a provisional license issued pursuant to section 21a-420o , shall expire twenty-four months after the date on which the department issued such provisional license and shall not be renewed. A provisional license issued by the department to an applicant on or after July 1, 2023, other than a provisional license issued pursuant to section 21a-420o , shall expire after fourteen months and shall not be renewed. Upon granting a provisional license, the department shall notify the applicant of the project labor agreement requirements of section 21a-421e . A provisional licensee may apply for a final license of the license type for which the licensee applied during the initial application period. A provisional license shall be nontransferable. If the provisional application does not meet the standards set forth in this section or is not completed within sixty days, the applicant shall not receive a provisional license. The decision of the department not to award a provisional license shall be final and may be appealed in accordance with section 4-183 . Nothing in this section shall prevent a provisional applicant from submitting an application for a future lottery.

(k) Final license applications shall be submitted on a form and in a manner approved by the commissioner and shall include, but not be limited to, the information set forth in this section, as well as evidence of the following:

(1) A contract with an entity providing an approved electronic tracking system as set forth in section 21a-421n ;

(2) A right to occupy the location at which the cannabis establishment operation will be located;

(3) Any necessary local zoning approval for the cannabis establishment operation;

(4) A labor peace agreement complying with section 21a-421d has been entered into between the cannabis establishment and a bona fide labor organization, as defined in section 21a-421d ;

(5) A certification by the applicant that a project labor agreement complying with section 21a-421e will be entered into by the cannabis establishment prior to construction of any facility to be used in the operation of a cannabis establishment;

(6) A social equity plan approved by the Social Equity Council;

(7) A workforce development plan approved by the Social Equity Council;

(8) Written policies for preventing diversion and misuse of cannabis and sales to underage persons; and

(9) All other security requirements set forth by the department based on the specific license type.

(l) At any point prior to the expiration of the provisional license, the department may award a provisional licensee a final license for the license type for which the licensee applied. Prior to receiving final license approval, a provisional licensee shall not possess, distribute, manufacture, sell or transfer cannabis. The department may conduct site inspections prior to issuing a final license.

(m) At any time after receiving a final license, a cannabis establishment may begin operations, provided all other requirements for opening a business in compliance with the laws of this state are complete and all employees have been registered and all key employees and backers have been licensed, with the department.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-6 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 416 / Section 21a-6
Sec. 21a-6. (Formerly Sec. 19-171e). Boards and commissions within Department of Consumer Protection.
Status: repealed

(1) The Architectural Licensing Board established under chapter 390;

(2) Repealed by P.A. 93-151, S. 3, 4;

(3) The examining boards for electrical work; plumbing and piping work; heating, piping, cooling and sheet metal work; elevator installation, repair and maintenance work; fire protection sprinkler systems work and automotive glass work and flat glass work, established under chapter 393;

(4) Repealed by P.A. 99-73, S. 10*;

(5) The Commission of Pharmacy established under chapter 400j;

(6) The State Board of Landscape Architects established under chapter 396;

(7) Deleted by P.A. 98-229;

(8) The State Board of Examiners for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors established under chapter 391;

(9) Repealed by P.A. 80-484, S. 175, 176;

(10) The Connecticut Real Estate Commission established under chapter 392;

(11) The Connecticut Real Estate Appraisal Commission established under chapter 400g;

(12) The State Board of Examiners of Shorthand Reporters established under chapter 400 l ;

(13) The Liquor Control Commission established under chapter 545;

(14) Repealed by P.A. 06-187 , S. 99;

(15) The Home Inspection Licensing Board established under section 20-490a ; and

(16) The State Board of Accountancy established under section 20-280 .

*Note: P.A. 99-73, S. 10, repealed section 20-343, effective October 1, 1999, without affecting this section.

Cited. 12 CA 251; 41 CA 827.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-150 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 419a / Section 21a-150
Sec. 21a-150. Bottled water: Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Approved laboratory” means a laboratory registered by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-29a or certified by the United States Environmental Protection Agency to analyze drinking water;

(2) “Approved source” means the source of any bottled water, including, but not limited to, a spring, artesian well, drilled well or public water supply, that, for a source located in the state, has been inspected and approved by the Department of Public Health, or for a source located out of state, has been inspected and approved by the government entities having jurisdiction to regulate the use of such out-of-state source;

(3) “Artesian well water” means bottled natural water obtained from a well tapping an aquifer in which the level of the water is above the bottom of the confining bed of the aquifer and in which the hydraulic pressure of the water in the aquifer is greater than the atmospheric pressure;

(4) “Bottled water”, or any term of similar import, means water obtained from an approved source that is packaged for sale or distribution. “Bottled water” shall not include any soda or seltzer that is packaged for sale or distribution;

(5) “Bottler” means any person, firm or corporation engaging in the business of bottling or distributing water for sale or distribution;

(6) “Distilled water” means purified water that has been produced by a process of distillation;

(7) “Drinking water” means bottled water that has been distilled, fluoridated or purified or that has been disinfected by a process of ozonation and filtration or any substantially similar disinfection process;

(8) “Fluoridated water” means bottled water that contains fluoride ions in an amount not less than eight-tenths of one milligram per liter and not more than one and two-tenths milligrams per liter or such alternative concentration limit as the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, with the advice and assistance of the Commissioner of Public Health, may determine by regulations adopted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 and that otherwise complies with the provisions of Subsections (b), (c) and (d) of 21 CFR 165.110;

(9) “Mineral water” means natural water that contains not less than five hundred parts per million total dissolved solids;

(10) “Natural water” means bottled spring water, artesian well water or well water, that has been obtained from any approved source other than a public water supply and that has not been modified by blending with water from any other source or by the addition or deletion of any mineral other than any addition or deletion that may occur as a result of ozonation, filtration or any other substantially similar disinfection process;

(11) “Principal display panel” means the portion of a label on any container or package that is most likely to be displayed, presented or examined under normal and customary conditions of display and purchase of bottled water;

(12) “Public water supply” means any individual, partnership, association, corporation, municipality or other entity, or the lessee thereof, that owns, maintains, operates, manages, controls or employs any pond, lake, reservoir, well, stream or distributing plant or system for the purpose of supplying water by service connections or pipe distribution systems to two or more hotels, motels, boardinghouses, apartments, stores, office buildings, institutions, mechanical or manufacturing establishments or other places of business or industry to which water is supplied by a water company or to twenty-five or more persons on a regular basis;

(13) “Purified water” means bottled water that is produced by distillation, deionization, reverse osmosis or any other suitable process and that meets standards established for purified water in the twentieth edition of the United States Pharmacopoeia;

(14) “Spring water” means natural water obtained from an underground formation from which water flows naturally to the surface of the earth; and

(15) “Well water” means natural water obtained from a hole bored, drilled or otherwise constructed in the ground, that taps the water of an aquifer.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-408w — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420f / Section 21a-408w
Sec. 21a-408w. Mandatory testing of marijuana samples. Method. Repetition and remediation.
Status: in_force

(b) (1) A cannabis testing laboratory shall test each marijuana sample submitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this section (A) for microbiological contaminants, mycotoxins, heavy metals and pesticide chemical residue, and (B) for purposes of conducting an active ingredient analysis, if applicable.

(2) Microbiological contaminant testing conducted pursuant to subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall include, but not be limited to, microbiological contaminant testing for Aspergillus species as set forth by the Department of Consumer Protection and posted on the department's Internet web site.

(c) When conducting microbiological testing as set forth in subsection (b) of this section, the marijuana sample shall be tested by using (1) a molecular method that (A) includes quantitative polymerase chain reaction, (B) is certified for identifying microbiological DNA, and (C) is approved by (i) the Association of Official Analytical Collaboration International, or (ii) a comparable national or international standards organization designated by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, or (2) an alternative testing method approved by the Department of Consumer Protection and posted on the department's Internet web site.

(d) If a marijuana sample does not pass the testing set forth in subsection (b) of this section, the cannabis establishment that submitted such failing marijuana sample to the cannabis testing laboratory shall:

(1) Repeat testing as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section on the marijuana batch from which such marijuana sample was taken, in a form and manner approved by the Department of Consumer Protection. If all repeated testing yields satisfactory results, the marijuana batch from which the marijuana samples were taken shall be released for sale;

(2) If such cannabis establishment submits to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection a remediation plan that is sufficient to ensure public health and safety, and the commissioner approves such remediation plan, remediate the marijuana batch from which such marijuana sample was taken and repeat all testing as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section on such remediated marijuana batch, in a form and manner approved by the Department of Consumer Protection. If all repeated testing yields satisfactory results, the marijuana batch from which the marijuana samples were taken shall be released for sale; or

(3) If such cannabis establishment does not comply with subdivision (1) or (2) of this subsection, or if any subsequent laboratory testing does not yield satisfactory results for the testing set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section, dispose of the entire marijuana batch from which the marijuana sample was taken in accordance with procedures established by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, as published on the Department of Consumer Protection's Internet web site.

(e) For purposes of the testing set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the quantity and number of marijuana samples taken shall be sufficient to ensure representative sampling of the corresponding marijuana batch size.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-150a — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 419a / Section 21a-150a
Sec. 21a-150a. Bottled water: Approval of in-state and out-of-state sources; compliance with federal quality standards.
Status: in_force

(2) A bottler selling or distributing bottled water obtained from a source located in the state shall obtain approval for the use of such source from the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall inspect each bottled water source located in the state and, if such source meets quality and safety requirements, issue an approval for such source. An approval issued by the Department of Public Health pursuant to this subsection shall expire three years from the date of issue.

(3) A bottler selling or distributing bottled water obtained from a source located out of state shall submit to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection a copy of a current license or approval for the use of such source from each government entity having jurisdiction to regulate the use of the source (A) when applying or reapplying for a license issued pursuant to section 21a-136 , (B) upon substantial modification of the source or source treatment, or (C) upon the addition of a new source.

(b) No bottled water shall be sold or distributed which does not comply with the quality standards set forth in 21 CFR 165.110 and 21 USC 342.

(c) A bottler shall be subject to the provisions of sections 21a-135 to 21a-145 , inclusive.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-408m — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420f / Section 21a-408m
Sec. 21a-408m. Regulations re palliative use of marijuana. Policies and procedures.
Status: in_force

(b) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall adopt or amend regulations, as applicable, in accordance with chapter 54, to implement the provisions of sections 21a-408 to 21a-408g , inclusive, and section 21a-408 l . Notwithstanding the requirements of sections 4-168 to 4-172 , inclusive, in order to effectuate the purposes of sections 21a-408 to 21a-408g , inclusive, and section 21a-408 l , and protect public health and safety, prior to adopting or amending such regulations the commissioner shall adopt policies and procedures to implement the provisions of sections 21a-408 to 21a-408g , inclusive, and section 21a-408 that shall have the force and effect of law. The commissioner shall post all policies and procedures on the department's Internet web site, and submit such policies and procedures to the Secretary of the State for posting on the eRegulations System, at least fifteen days prior to the effective date of any policy or procedure. Any such policy or procedure shall no longer be effective upon the earlier of either adoption of such policies or procedures as a final regulation pursuant to section 4-172 or forty-eight months from October 1, 2021, if such policies or procedures have not been submitted to the legislative regulation review committee for consideration under section 4-170 . Such policies and procedures and regulations shall include, but not be limited to, how the department shall:

(1) Accept applications for the issuance and renewal of registration certificates for qualifying patients and caregivers;

(2) Establish criteria for adding medical conditions, medical treatments or diseases to the list of debilitating medical conditions that qualify for the palliative use of marijuana;

(3) Establish a petition process under which members of the public may submit petitions, regarding the addition of medical conditions, medical treatments or diseases to the list of debilitating medical conditions;

(4) Establish requirements for the growing of cannabis plants by a qualifying patient in his or her primary residence as authorized under section 21a-408d , including requirements for securing such plants to prevent access by any individual other than the patient or the patient's caregiver, the location of such plants and any other requirements necessary to protect public health or safety;

(5) Develop a distribution system for marijuana for palliative use that provides for:

(A) Marijuana production facilities within this state that are housed on secured grounds and operated by producers;

(B) The transfer of marijuana between dispensary facilities; and

(C) Distribution of marijuana for palliative use to qualifying patients or their caregivers by dispensary facilities, hybrid retailers and delivery services, as such terms are defined in section 21a-420 ; and

(6) Ensure an adequate supply and variety of marijuana to dispensary facilities and hybrid retailers to ensure uninterrupted availability for qualifying patients, based on historical marijuana purchase patterns by qualifying patients.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-347 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420d / Section 21a-347
Sec. 21a-347. Certificate of disposition: Requirements, penalty.
Status: in_force

(b) Upon notification or receipt of information that a children's product has been recalled, a retailer or wholesaler shall inspect its premises and immediately dispose of all such products in possession of such retailer or wholesaler. Upon notification or receipt of information that a children's product has been subject to voluntary corrective action, a retailer or wholesaler shall inspect its premises and immediately return to the manufacturer or distributor all such products in possession of such retailer or wholesaler. Retailers and wholesalers shall complete the certificate of disposition form developed pursuant to subsection (a) of this section no later than seven calendar days after the date of notification or receipt of information of a recall or voluntary corrective action. Signed and dated certificate of disposition forms shall be maintained by the retailer or wholesaler and shall be subject to inspection by the administrator or the administrator's designated agent for a period of not less than three years.

(c) A retailer or wholesaler who violates subsection (b) of this section shall be subject to the penalties of section 21a-338 .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-98 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 418 / Section 21a-98
Sec. 21a-98. (Formerly Sec. 19-218). Report of minor violations not required.
Status: in_force

Annotation to former section 19-218:

Cited. 179 C. 471.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 21a-409 — Connecticut Code / Title 21a / Chapter 420f / Section 21a-409
Sec. 21a-409. Manufacture, marketing, cultivation and storage of hemp and hemp products.
Status: in_force

(b) Hemp or manufacturer hemp products purchased by producers from third parties shall be tracked as a separate batch throughout the manufacturing process in order to document the disposition of such hemp or manufacturer hemp products. Hemp or manufacturer hemp products obtained, manufactured, marketed, cultivated or stored by a producer shall be deemed marijuana and shall comply with the requirements for marijuana contained in the applicable provisions of the general statutes and any regulations adopted pursuant to such provisions. Producers shall retain a copy of the certificate of analysis for purchased hemp or manufacturer hemp products and invoice and transport documents that evidence the quantity purchased and date received.

(c) (1) No hemp or producer hemp products shall be sold or distributed within a dispensary facility that is licensed pursuant to this chapter.

(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (1) of this subsection, manufacturer hemp products may be sold within a dispensary facility that is licensed pursuant to this chapter, provided such manufacturer hemp products are:

(A) Stored separately from marijuana;

(B) Separated, by a physical separation, from marijuana in any display area;

(C) Displayed with signage approved by the department;

(D) Tested by a laboratory that meets the standards for accreditation and testing, and sampling methods, set forth for an independent testing laboratory in section 22-61m , which laboratory may be located outside of this state;

(E) Clearly labeled to distinguish the product as (i) a manufacturer hemp product, (ii) subject to different testing standards than cannabis or marijuana, and (iii) not cannabis or marijuana; and

(F) Sold in accordance with this chapter, chapter 424 and any regulations adopted pursuant to said chapters.