Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-265d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-265d
Sec. 20-265d. License or permit as a nail technician. Requirements. Exemptions. Disciplinary action.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after October 1, 2020, each person seeking an initial license as a nail technician shall apply to the department on a form prescribed by the department, accompanied by an application fee of one hundred dollars and evidence that the applicant (1) has completed a course of not less than one hundred hours of study and received a certificate of completion from a school approved under section 20-265g or section 20-262 or in a school outside of the state whose requirements are equivalent to a school approved under section 20-265g , or (2) (A) if the applicant is applying on or before January 1, 2025, (i) has practiced as a nail technician continuously in this state for a period of not less than two years prior to January 1, 2021, and is in compliance with the infection prevention and control plan guidelines prescribed by the department under section 19a-231 in the form of an attestation, or (ii) has received a certificate of completion from a school approved under section 20-265g or section 20-262 , or (B) has obtained a license as a nail technician trainee and a statement signed by the applicant's supervisor at the spa or salon where the licensed nail technician trainee is employed documenting completion of the minimum requirements specified in section 20-265e . If an applicant employed as a nail technician on or after September 30, 2020, does not have evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of continuous practice as a nail technician for not less than two years, such applicant may apply to the department for a nail technician trainee license, under section 20-265e , provided such person applies for an initial trainee license not later than January 1, 2021.

(c) The department may grant a license under this section to any person who is licensed at the time of application as a nail technician or entitled to perform similar services under a different designation in another state of the United States, the District of Columbia or a commonwealth or territory subject to the laws of the United States and who submits evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of (1) a current license in good standing to practice as a nail technician from such other state, district, commonwealth or territory, and (2) licensed practice in such state, district, commonwealth or territory for a period of at least two years immediately preceding the application. Pending approval of the application for a license, the commissioner may issue a temporary permit to such applicant upon receipt of a completed application, the application fee in accordance with subsection (b) of this section and a copy of the current license from such other state, district, commonwealth or territory. Such temporary permit shall be valid for a period not exceeding one hundred twenty calendar days and shall not be renewable.

(d) Any license issued under this section shall expire in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 and may be renewed every two years, for a fee of one hundred dollars. No person shall carry on the occupation of nail technician after the expiration of such person's license until such person has applied to the department for a renewal of such license.

(e) No person shall use the title “nail technician” or similar title unless the person holds a license or temporary permit issued under this section.

(f) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a physician; an advanced practice registered nurse rendering service in collaboration with a physician; a registered nurse executing the medical regimen under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist or advanced practice registered nurse; a physician assistant rendering service under the supervision, control and responsibility of a physician; a podiatrist or a student enrolled in a program at a school in the Technical Education and Career System established under section 10-95 .

(g) A person may practice temporarily as a nail technician in this state without a license or temporary permit if such person, at an event such as a professional course, seminar, workshop, trade show or product demonstration, (1) provides instruction on techniques related to being a nail technician, or (2) participates in the demonstration of the practice of being a nail technician or a product related to such practice as part of such event, provided such person (A) is licensed or certified in the state, territory or possession of the United States or foreign country where such person primarily practices as a nail technician if such licensure or certification is required by such state, territory, possession or foreign country; (B) practices as a nail technician under the direct supervision of a licensed nail technician; (C) does not receive compensation for practicing as a nail technician in this state, other than for providing instruction for such practice to persons in attendance at the course, seminar, workshop, trade show or other event; and (D) provides instruction or demonstrates techniques or services related to practicing as a nail technician only for persons enrolled in the course, seminar or workshop or attending the trade show or other event at which such person provides instruction, demonstrates a product or offers such services. Any person or organization that holds or produces a course, seminar, workshop, trade show or other event at which nail technicians without a license or temporary permit provide instruction, participate in a demonstration or offer services related to the practice of a nail technician shall ensure compliance with the provisions of this subsection.

(h) No license or temporary permit shall be issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint in any state or jurisdiction.

(i) The Commissioner of Public Health may deny an application of an individual or take any disciplinary action set forth in section 19a-17 against a nail technician for failure to conform to the accepted standards of the profession, including, but not limited to: (1) Conviction of a felony, provided any action taken is based upon (A) the nature of the conviction and its relationship to the license holder's ability to safely or competently practice as a nail technician, (B) information pertaining to the degree of rehabilitation of the license holder, and (C) the time elapsed since the conviction or release; (2) fraud or deceit in obtaining or seeking reinstatement of a license to practice as a nail technician; (3) fraud or deceit in the practice of a nail technician; (4) negligent, incompetent or wrongful conduct in professional activities; (5) physical, mental or emotional illness or disorder resulting in an inability to conform to the accepted standards of the profession; or (6) abuse or excessive use of drugs, including, alcohol, narcotics or chemicals. The commissioner may order a license holder to submit to a reasonable physical or mental examination if his or her physical or mental capacity to practice safely is the subject of an investigation. The commissioner may petition the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford to enforce such order or any action taken pursuant to section 19a-17 . The commissioner shall give notice and an opportunity to be heard on any contemplated action under section 19a-17 .

(j) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section.

(k) (1) Any individual who has been convicted of any criminal offense may request, at any time, that the commissioner determine whether such individual's criminal conviction disqualifies the individual from obtaining a license issued or conferred by the commissioner pursuant to this section based on (A) the nature of the conviction and its relationship to the individual's ability to safely or competently perform the duties or responsibilities associated with such license, (B) information pertaining to the degree of rehabilitation of the individual, and (C) the time elapsed since the conviction or release of the individual.

(2) An individual making such request shall include (A) details of the individual's criminal conviction, and (B) any payment required by the commissioner. The commissioner may charge a fee of not more than fifteen dollars for each request made under this subsection. The commissioner may waive such fee.

(3) Not later than thirty days after receiving a request under this subsection, the commissioner shall inform the individual making such request whether, based on the criminal record information submitted, such individual is disqualified from receiving or holding a license issued pursuant to this section.

(4) The commissioner is not bound by a determination made under this section, if, upon further investigation, the department determines that the individual's criminal conviction differs from the information presented in the determination request.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-280e — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 389 / Section 20-280e
Sec. 20-280e. Connecticut Certified Public Accountant's Certificate: Issuance, qualifications, requirements, prohibitions.
Status: in_force

(b) (1) Any individual who has been convicted of any criminal offense may request, at any time, that the Department of Consumer Protection determine whether such individual's criminal conviction disqualifies such individual from obtaining a certificate or license issued or conferred pursuant to this chapter based on (A) the nature of the conviction and its relationship to such individual's ability to safely or competently perform the duties or responsibilities associated with such certificate or license, (B) information pertaining to the degree of rehabilitation of such individual, and (C) the time elapsed since the conviction or release of such individual.

(2) An individual making a request under subdivision (1) of this subsection shall make such request on a form, and in a manner, prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, which form shall require the individual to (A) submit to state and national criminal history records checks conducted in accordance with section 29-17a , and (B) provide details of the individual's criminal conviction.

(3) Not later than thirty days after receiving a complete request under subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection, the department shall inform the individual making such request whether, based on the criminal record information submitted, such individual is disqualified from receiving or holding a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter.

(4) The department is not bound by a determination made under this section if, upon further investigation, the department determines that the individual's criminal conviction differs from the information presented in such individual's determination request made under this subsection.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-357m — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 394 / Section 20-357m
Sec. 20-357m. Telecommunications infrastructure layout technicians: Licensure, application, violations, regulations, exemptions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Telecommunications infrastructure” means structured cabling for voice and data telecommunications;

(2) “Telecommunications infrastructure layout technician” means an individual licensed by the Department of Consumer Protection pursuant to this section, to produce telecommunications infrastructure designs that comply with nationally recognized standards;

(3) “Telecommunications infrastructure layout” means the preparing and producing of telecommunications infrastructure design and working drawings to be used for the installation, alteration or modification of a telecommunications infrastructure in all buildings, except residential buildings;

(4) “Nationally recognized standards” means the National Electric Code (NFPA-70), the (ANSI/TIA/EIA 568-A) Commercial Building Telecommunications Cabling Standard, the (ANSI/EIA/TIA-569-A) Commercial Building Standard for Telecommunications Pathways and Spaces, the (ANSI/EIA/TIA-570) Residential and Light Commercial Telecommunications Wiring Standard and all other ANSI approved telecommunications infrastructure installation standards or the equivalent thereof, as determined by the Department of Consumer Protection.

(b) No individual shall use the title “telecommunications infrastructure layout technician” unless the individual has obtained a telecommunications infrastructure layout technician license from the Department of Consumer Protection issued pursuant to this section.

(c) Each applicant shall submit an application for a telecommunications infrastructure layout technician license on forms prescribed and furnished by the Department of Consumer Protection. The applications shall include the applicant's name, residential address, business address, business telephone number and such other information or photographs as the commissioner may require. The submitted application shall include a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred fifty dollars.

(d) The commissioner shall issue a telecommunications infrastructure layout technician license to any individual who: (1) Completes a college level program or other program of instruction approved by the Department of Consumer Protection that assures industry standards in telecommunications infrastructure design; (2) submits an application pursuant to subsection (c) of this section deemed acceptable by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection; and (3) at the time of application, has held for not less than five years and continues to hold a valid unlimited or limited electrical license issued under the Electrical Work Board or a public service technician certificate of registration issued pursuant to section 20-340b , or has other equivalent experience and training as required for an electrical license, as determined by the commissioner. A license issued pursuant to this subsection is nontransferable. The fee for a telecommunications infrastructure layout technician license is three hundred fifteen dollars. Such license shall be renewed biennially and the renewal fee is three hundred fifteen dollars.

(e) Each licensee shall obtain a seal in such manner as prescribed by the Department of Consumer Protection. The licensee shall sign and apply the seal to all documentation required by this subsection concerning work within the scope of the telecommunications infrastructure layout technician license. If such documentation is more than one page and bound together, the licensee may sign and apply the seal to one page, unless such documentation concerns filing plans for a building permit or appurtenant structures where the licensee shall sign and apply the seal to every page. No licensee shall sign or apply the seal to any documentation that such licensee did not supervise the preparation of.

(f) If, after notice and opportunity for hearing as provided in regulations adopted by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, the Department of Consumer Protection determines that: (1) Negligent or incompetent work within the scope of a license issued pursuant to this section is performed by a licensee; or (2) the licensee engages in conduct of a character likely to mislead, deceive or defraud the department or the public, the department may issue an appropriate order to such licensee providing for the immediate discontinuance of such negligent or incompetent work or conduct, and may order restitution or issue a civil penalty of up to one thousand dollars, or both.

(g) The Department of Consumer Protection may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this section and section 20-340b .

(h) Any person who is a professional engineer licensed in accordance with the provisions of chapter 391 shall be exempt from provisions of this section.

(i) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require any plans, designs, drawings or similar materials used by a public service technician, as defined in section 20-340b , in connection with telecommunications electrical work performed by such public service technician to be signed by a telecommunications infrastructure layout technician.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-71 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376 / Section 20-71
Sec. 20-71. Licensure without examination. Physical therapists and physical therapy assistants. Exceptions.
Status: in_force

(b) The department may issue a physical therapist assistant license without examination, on payment of a fee of one hundred fifty dollars, to an applicant who is a physical therapist assistant registered or licensed under the laws of any other state or territory of the United States, any province of Canada or any other country, if the requirements for registration or licensure of physical therapist assistants in such state, territory, province or country are deemed by the department to be equivalent to, or higher than those prescribed in this chapter.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 20-70 , prior to April 30, 2007, the commissioner may issue a physical therapist assistant license to any applicant who presents evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having completed twenty years of employment as a physical therapist assistant prior to October 1, 1989, on payment of a fee of one hundred fifty dollars.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 20-70 , the commissioner may issue a physical therapist assistant license to any applicant who presents evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having registered as a physical therapist assistant with the Department of Public Health on or before April 1, 2006, on payment of a fee of one hundred fifty dollars.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 20-70 , prior to July 1, 2015, the commissioner may issue a physical therapist assistant license to any applicant who presents evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having been eligible to register as a physical therapist assistant with the Department of Public Health on or before April 1, 2006, on payment of a fee of one hundred fifty dollars.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-455 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400b / Section 20-455
Sec. 20-455. Enforcement powers of commission or department. Hearing. Cease and desist orders. Fine. Restraining orders.
Status: in_force

(b) The Attorney General, at the request of the commission or department, is authorized to apply in the name of the state of Connecticut to the Superior Court for an order temporarily or permanently restraining and enjoining any person from violating any provision of sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-633j — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-633j
Sec. 20-633j. Authorization, refilling and dispensing of legend devices by licensed pharmacists. Notice to prescribing practitioner.
Status: in_force

(b) A pharmacist may authorize or refill a prescription for a legend device if such legend device is approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration for use in combination with a drug prescribed by a prescribing practitioner.

(c) A pharmacist who dispenses a legend device as described in subsection (b) of this section shall identify the prescribing practitioner who prescribed the drug that is associated with such legend device, and shall send written notice to such prescribing practitioner, not later than seventy-two hours after the pharmacist dispenses such legend device to the patient, disclosing that such pharmacist dispensed such legend device to such patient.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-312 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-312
Sec. 20-312. License required. Imposition of fine. Teams.
Status: in_force

(b) The practice of engaging in the real estate business, or the offer to engage in the real estate business in this state by real estate licensees, as a business entity is permitted, provided:

(1) A material part of the business entity's business includes engaging in the real estate business;

(2) The business entity's personnel who engage in the real estate business are licensed, or exempt from licensure, under this chapter;

(3) The business entity has been issued a real estate broker license as set forth in this section;

(4) The business entity has paid the license or renewal fee required for a real estate broker's license as set forth in section 20-314 ; and

(5) The business entity is a publicly traded corporation or, if the business entity is not a publicly traded corporation:

(A) The business entity is a stock corporation and one or more real estate brokers, who are either licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter, own or control fifty-one per cent or more of the total issued shares of the corporation;

(B) The business entity is a nonstock corporation and one or more real estate brokers, who are licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter, constitute at least fifty-one per cent of the members of the nonstock corporation;

(C) The business entity is a limited liability company and one or more real estate brokers, who are licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter, own or control at least fifty-one per cent of the interest in the limited liability company, as defined in section 34-243a ; or

(D) The business entity is a partnership or limited liability partnership and the partnership interest, as defined in section 34-301 , of one or more real estate brokers, who are licensed or exempt from licensure under this chapter, constitutes at least fifty-one per cent of the total partnership interest.

(c) A business entity desiring a real estate broker license shall file with the commission or the Commissioner of Consumer Protection an application on such forms and in such manner as prescribed by the department. Each such business entity shall file with the commission, in a form and manner prescribed by the department, the identity of, and contact information for, at least one designated broker. Such business entity shall notify the commission of any change in the identity of, or contact information for, such designated broker not later than thirty days after such change becomes effective.

(d) The Real Estate Commission may impose a fine of not more than five thousand dollars per violation on any person that engages in the real estate business, including, but not limited to, leasing or rental activity, without a license required by this section. Any such imposition of a fine by the commission shall be a proposed final decision and submitted to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection in accordance with the provisions of subsection (b) of section 21a-7 .

(e) Each team shall register, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, with the department. Each initial registration shall be valid for a period of one year and be subject to renewal for additional one-year periods. Each team shall pay to the department an initial registration fee of five hundred sixty-five dollars when the team files its initial registration, and a registration renewal fee of three hundred seventy-five dollars when the team files each registration renewal, pursuant to this subparagraph. Each team shall include in each registration form that the team files with the department pursuant to this subsection:

(1) Such team's team name, which shall:

(A) Include the full name of at least one licensed real estate broker or real estate salesperson who is part of such team or be immediately followed by “at/of” [full name of the team's supervising licensee] ;

(B) Not include the name of any individual who is not a licensed real estate broker or real estate salesperson; and

(C) With the exception of “team”, not include any abbreviation, term or phrase, including, but not limited to, “associates”, “company”, “corporation”, “group”, “LLC”, “real estate” or “realty”, that implies that such team is a business entity;

(2) The name of, and contact information for, such team's supervising licensee, who shall serve as such team's primary contact, ensure that such team complies with all applicable laws and regulations concerning team advertisements and ensure that such team timely files accurate registration forms and registration updates with the department pursuant to this subsection; and

(3) The name and contact information for each real estate broker or real estate salesperson who is part of such team.

(f) A team shall send notice to the department disclosing any change to the information contained in the team's registration form. The team shall send such notice to the department, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, not later than twelve days after the date of such change. A team may transfer the team's registration from one supervising licensee to another supervising licensee, without applying for a new team registration, if (1) all members of such team transfer to such other supervising licensee, and (2) both supervising licensees agree to such transfer.

(g) Each team shall comply with all advertising requirements and standards that apply to real estate brokers, and shall include the name of such team's supervising licensee at a prominent location in all of such team's advertisements.

See Sec. 42-103gg re license requirements for sales agents offering a time share interest.

Constitutional. 142 C. 699. Cited. 144 C. 647; 218 C. 396.

Cited. 5 CA 76; 36 CA 653.

Cited. 26 CS 195; 38 CS 509.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-212 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-212
Sec. 20-212. Embalming, care and disposal of bodies restricted.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 53-331 prohibiting use of arsenic in embalming.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-65f — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 375a / Section 20-65f
Sec. 20-65f. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Athletic training” means (A) the application, with the consent and under the direction of a health care provider, of care for an athletic injury, including the application or provision of (i) principles, methods and procedures of clinical evaluation, prevention, management, emergency care, treatment, disposition and rehabilitation of athletic injuries, (ii) appropriate preventative and supportive devices, (iii) physical agents, including, but not limited to, heat, cold, light, electric stimulation, manual therapy techniques, aquatic therapy, sound and therapeutic exercise, and (iv) any other physical agent prescribed by a health care provider, (B) the recognition of potential illness and referrals to a health care provider for diagnosis and treatment, (C) the organization and administration of athletic training programs, (D) education and counseling to physically active individuals, coaches, medical personnel and the community in the area of the prevention and care of athletic injuries, and (E) the provision of wellness care services developed for physically active individuals who are free of any underlying pathologies that are beyond the scope of practice of a person who practices athletic training;

(2) “Athletic injury” means any injury sustained as a result of participation in an exercise, a sport, a game, a recreational activity or any other activity that requires a level of strength, flexibility or agility that is comparable to the level of strength, flexibility or agility required for an exercise, a sport, a game or a recreational activity;

(3) “Illness” means any disease, disorder, sickness or affliction that arises from or is a manifestation of a physically active individual's participation in an exercise, a sport, a game, a recreational activity or other activity, or any other condition, that may require immediate intervention by an athletic trainer, acting with the consent and under the direction of a health care provider, during, prior to or following the physically active individual's participation in such exercise, a sport, a game, a recreational activity or other activity, including, but not limited to, the emergent and acute manifestations of exertion related illness, including an affliction of the physically active individual's cardiorespiratory, thermoregulation, musculoskeletal, neurovascular or endocrine system. “Illness” does not include any disease, disorder, sickness or affliction of a physically active individual the treatment of which is beyond the scope of practice, education or training of an athletic trainer;

(4) “Wellness care” means care related to risk management and injury prevention, including biomechanics, conditioning, flexibility, nutrition, strength training and fitness;

(5) “Physically active individual” means any person who is (A) (i) a member of any professional, amateur, school, collegiate or other sports organization, (ii) a regular participant in a sports activity, or (iii) a participant in an exercise, recreational or employment activity that requires strength, agility, flexibility, range of motion, speed or stamina that is comparable to the strength, agility, flexibility, range of motion, speed or stamina required of a regular participant in a sports activity, and (B) deemed healthy by a health care provider;

(6) “With the consent and under the direction of a health care provider” means athletic training provided (A) under a written prescription issued by a health care provider that specifies the plan of care or treatment of a musculoskeletal injury or illness, or (B) with regard to a physically active individual's participation with a professional, amateur, school collegiate or other sports organization, under a standing order issued by a health care provider;

(7) “Standing orders” means written protocols, recommendations or guidelines for treatment and care of a physically active individual who is a member of a professional, amateur, school, collegiate or other sports organization, or of a physically active individual who requires treatment, first aid or care in an emergency situation, that (A) are furnished and signed by a health care provider, (B) are followed by an athletic trainer while performing athletic training with the consent and under the direction of a health care provider, (C) are annually reviewed and renewed by the health care provider and athletic trainer to ensure quality care of a physically active individual, (D) require the availability of ongoing communication between the health care provider and the athletic trainer, and (E) include (i) a plan for emergency situations, (ii) appropriate treatments for specific injuries or illnesses, (iii) instructions for the treatment and management of concussions, (iv) a list of conditions necessitating the immediate referral of a physically active individual to a health care provider under section 20-65h , and (v) a list of conditions that are beyond the scope of practice, education or training of the athletic trainer;

(8) “Health care provider” means any person licensed to practice medicine or surgery under chapter 370, chiropractic under chapter 372, podiatry under chapter 375, naturopathy under chapter 373 or nursing under section 20-94a ; and

(9) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-457 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400b / Section 20-457
Sec. 20-457. Required and prohibited acts re certificate of registration. Penalties for violations. Expiration and renewal of certificate.
Status: in_force

(b) No person shall: (1) Present or attempt to present, as his or her own, the certificate of another, (2) knowingly give false evidence of a material nature to the commission or department for the purpose of procuring a certificate, (3) represent himself or herself falsely as, or impersonate, a registered community association manager, (4) use or attempt to use a certificate which has expired or which has been suspended or revoked, (5) offer to provide association management services without having a current certificate of registration under sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive, or (6) represent in any manner that his or her registration constitutes an endorsement of the quality of his or her services or of his or her competency by the commission or department. In addition to any other remedy provided for in sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive, any person who violates any provision of this subsection shall, after an administrative hearing, be fined not more than one thousand dollars, or shall be imprisoned for not more than one year or be both fined and imprisoned. A violation of any of the provisions of sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive, shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive trade practice under subsection (a) of section 42-110b .

(c) Certificates issued to community association managers shall not be transferable or assignable.

(d) All certificates issued to community association managers under the provisions of sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive, shall expire annually on the thirty-first day of January. A holder of a certificate of registration who seeks to renew his or her certificate shall, when filing an application for renewal of the certificate, submit documentation to the department which establishes that he or she has passed any examination and completed any educational coursework, as the case may be, required for certification under this chapter. The fee for renewal of a certificate shall be two hundred dollars.

(e) Failure to receive a notice of expiration or a renewal application shall not exempt a community association manager from the obligation to renew.

(f) All certificates issued to community association manager trainees under the provisions of sections 20-450 to 20-462 , inclusive, shall expire six months from the date of issuance and shall not be renewable.

Cited. 231 C. 707.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-132a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 380 / Section 20-132a
Sec. 20-132a. Definitions. Renewal of licenses. Continuing education. Exceptions.
Status: in_force

(b) Licenses issued under this chapter shall be renewed annually in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 .

(c) (1) Except as provided in this section, a licensee who is actively engaged in the practice of optometry shall earn a minimum of twenty hours of continuing education each registration period. The subject matter for continuing education shall reflect the professional needs of the licensee in order to meet the health care needs of the public, and shall include (A) not less than six hours in any of the following areas: Pathology, detection of diabetes and ocular treatment; and (B) not less than six hours in treatment as it applies to the use of ocular agents-T.

(2) Coursework shall be provided in the following manner: (A) Not less than ten hours shall be earned through direct, live instruction that the licensee physically attends; (B) not more than ten hours shall be earned through synchronous online education with opportunities for live interaction; (C) not more than five hours shall be earned through asynchronous online education, distance learning or home study; and (D) not more than six hours shall be in practice management. For the purposes of this subdivision, “synchronous online education” means live online classes that are conducted in real time and “asynchronous online education” means a program where the instructor, learner and other participants are not engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-time interaction between participants and instructors and the educational content is created and made available for later consumption.

(3) Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not limited to, courses offered or approved by the Council on Optometric Practitioner Education of the Association of Regulatory Boards of Optometry, the American Optometric Association or state or local optometry associations and societies that are affiliated with the American Optometric Association, a hospital or other health care institution, a school or college of optometry or other institution of higher education accredited or recognized by the Council on Optometric Practitioner Education or the American Optometric Association, a state or local health department, or a national, state or local medical association.

(d) Each licensee applying for license renewal pursuant to section 19a-88 , except a licensee applying for a license renewal for the first time, shall sign a statement attesting that he or she has satisfied the continuing education requirements described in subsection (c) of this section on a form prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Each licensee shall retain records of attendance or certificates of completion that demonstrate compliance with the continuing education requirements described in subsection (c) of this section for not less than three years following the date on which the continuing education was completed or the license was renewed. Each licensee shall submit such records to the department for inspection not later than forty-five days after a request by the department for such records. A licensee who fails to comply with the provisions of this subsection may be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to section 20-133 .

(e) In individual cases involving medical disability or illness, the Commissioner of Public Health may grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements or an extension of time within which to fulfill the requirements of this section to any licensee, provided the licensee submits to the department an application for waiver or extension of time on a form prescribed by the commissioner, along with a certification by a licensed physician, a licensed physician assistant or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse of the disability or illness and such other documentation as may be required by the commissioner. The commissioner may grant a waiver or extension for a period not to exceed one registration period, except that the commissioner may grant additional waivers or extensions if the medical disability or illness upon which a waiver or extension is granted continues beyond the period of the waiver or extension and the licensee applies for an additional waiver or extension.

(f) A licensee who is not actively engaged in the practice of optometry, in any form, during a registration period shall be exempt from the continuing education requirements, provided the licensee submits a notarized application for exemption on a form prescribed by the commissioner before the end of the registration period. A licensee who is exempt under the provisions of this subsection may not engage in the practice of optometry until the licensee has met the continuing education requirements of this section.

(g) A licensee whose license has become void pursuant to section 19a-88 and who applies to the department for reinstatement of such license shall submit evidence of successful completion of twenty contact hours of continuing education within the one-year period immediately preceding the application for reinstatement.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-42 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 373 / Section 20-42
Sec. 20-42. Penalties.
Status: in_force

Complaint of a single treatment, standing alone, was not a violation of statute. 130 C. 546. Cited. 141 C. 288.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-58a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 375 / Section 20-58a
Sec. 20-58a. Professional liability insurance required, when. Amount of insurance. Reporting requirements.
Status: in_force

(b) Each insurance company which issues professional liability insurance, as defined in subdivisions (1), (6), (7), (8) and (9) of subsection (b) of section 38a-393 , shall on and after January 1, 1995, render to the Commissioner of Public Health a true record of the names and addresses, according to classification, of cancellations of and refusals to renew professional liability insurance policies and the reasons for such cancellation or refusal to renew said policies for the year ending on the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-325a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-325a
Sec. 20-325a. Actions to recover commissions arising out of real estate transactions. Real estate broker's lien for real property. Claim for lien. Provisions re commercial real estate transactions.
Status: reserved

(b) No person, licensed under the provisions of this chapter, shall commence or bring any action with respect to any acts done or services rendered after October 1, 1995, as set forth in subsection (a), unless the acts or services were rendered pursuant to a contract or authorization from the person for whom the acts were done or services rendered. To satisfy the requirements of this subsection any contract or authorization shall: (1) Be in writing, (2) contain the names and addresses of the real estate broker performing the services and the name of the person or persons for whom the acts were done or services rendered, (3) show the date on which such contract was entered into or such authorization given, (4) contain the conditions of such contract or authorization, (5) be signed by the real estate broker or the real estate broker's authorized agent, (6) if such contract or authorization pertains to any real property, include the following statement: “THE REAL ESTATE BROKER MAY BE ENTITLED TO CERTAIN LIEN RIGHTS PURSUANT TO SECTION 20-325a OF THE CONNECTICUT GENERAL STATUTES”, and (7) be signed by the person or persons for whom the acts were done or services rendered or by an agent authorized to act on behalf of such person or persons, pursuant to a written document executed in the manner provided for conveyances in section 47-5 , except, if the acts to be done or services rendered involve a listing contract for the sale of land containing any building or structure occupied or intended to be occupied by no more than four families, the listing contract shall be signed by the owner of the real estate or by an agent authorized to act on behalf of such owner pursuant to a written document executed in the manner provided for conveyances in section 47-5 .

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, no person licensed under the provisions of this chapter shall commence or bring any action with respect to any acts done or services rendered after October 1, 2000, in a commercial real estate transaction, unless the acts or services were rendered pursuant to (1) a contract or authorization meeting the requirements of subsection (b) of this section, or (2) a memorandum, letter or other writing stating for whom the licensee will act or has acted, signed by the party for whom the licensee will act or has acted in the commercial real estate transaction, the duration of the authorization and the amount of any compensation payable to the licensee, provided (A) the licensee provides written notice to the party, substantially similar to the following: “THE REAL ESTATE BROKER MAY BE ENTITLED TO CERTAIN LIEN RIGHTS PURSUANT TO SECTION 20-325a OF THE CONNECTICUT GENERAL STATUTES”, and (B) the notice is provided at or before the execution of the contract, authorization, memorandum, letter or other writing, and may be made part of the contract, authorization, memorandum, letter or other writing.

(d) Nothing in subsection (a) of this section, subdivisions (2) to (7), inclusive, of subsection (b) of this section or subsection (c) of this section shall prevent any licensee from recovering any commission, compensation or other payment with respect to any acts done or services rendered, if it would be inequitable to deny such recovery and the licensee (1) has substantially complied with subdivisions (2) to (7), inclusive, of subsection (b) of this section or (2) with respect to a commercial real estate transaction, has substantially complied with subdivisions (2) to (6), inclusive, of subsection (b) of this section or subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of this section.

(e) A licensed real estate broker who has performed acts or rendered services relating to real property upon terms provided for in a written contract or agreement between the broker and the owner or buyer for whom such acts were done or services rendered shall have a lien upon such real property. The lien shall be in the amount of the compensation agreed upon by the broker and the owner or buyer for whom such acts were performed or services rendered.

(f) Except as provided in subsections (g), (h) and (i) of this section, the lien provided for in this section shall not attach until the broker is entitled to compensation, without any contingencies, other than closing or transfer of title, under the terms set forth in the written listing or buyer representation contract and the broker has recorded the claim for lien prior to the actual conveyance or lease of such real property with the town clerk of the town where such property is located.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this section, when a broker is entitled to compensation in installments, a portion of which is due only after the conveyance or lease of the real property, any claim for lien for those payments due after the conveyance or lease may be recorded at any time subsequent to the conveyance or lease of the real property and prior to the date on which the payment is due but shall only be effective as a claim for lien against the real property to the extent moneys are still owed to the transferor or lessor by the transferee or lessee. A single claim for lien recorded prior to conveyance or lease of the real property claiming all moneys due under an installment payment agreement shall not be valid or enforceable as it pertains to payments due after the conveyance or lease. The lien shall attach as of the recording of the claim for lien.

(h) In the case of a lease for real property where the broker's compensation will not be paid in installments, the claim for lien must be recorded no later than thirty days after the tenant takes possession of the leased premises unless written notice of the intended signing of the lease is delivered to the broker entitled to claim a lien by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or by personal service, at least ten days prior to the date of the intended signing of the lease for the real property in which case the claim for lien must be recorded before the date indicated for the signing of the lease in the notice delivered to the broker. The lien shall attach as of the recording of the claim for lien.

(i) If a broker's written contract for payment is with a prospective buyer, then the lien shall attach only after the prospective buyer accepts the conveyance or lease of the real property and the claim for lien is recorded by the broker with the town clerk of the town in which the property is located. Any claim for lien shall be filed by the broker no later than thirty days after the conveyance or the tenant takes possession of the real property.

(j) The broker shall serve a copy of the claim for lien on the owner of the real property. Service shall be made by mailing a copy of the claim for lien by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or by personal service upon the owner by any indifferent person, state marshal or other proper officer, by leaving with such owner or at the owner's usual place of abode a true and attested copy thereof. A copy of the claim for lien may be served at the same time as the notice required by subsection (r) of this section. The broker's lien shall be void and unenforceable if recording does not occur within the time period and in the manner required by this section.

(k) (1) A broker may bring suit to enforce a claim for lien in the superior court in the judicial district where the real property is located by filing a complaint and sworn affidavit that the claim for lien has been recorded in accordance with this section.

(2) A person claiming a lien shall, unless the claim is based upon an option to purchase the real property, within one year after recording the claim for lien, commence foreclosure by filing a complaint. Failure to commence foreclosure within one year after recording the lien shall extinguish the lien. No subsequent claim for lien may be given for the same claim nor may that claim be asserted in any proceedings under this section.

(3) A person claiming a lien based upon an option to purchase real property shall, within six months after the conveyance or lease of the real property under the exercise of the option to purchase, commence foreclosure by filing a complaint and a sworn affidavit that the claim for lien has been recorded in accordance with this section. Failure to commence foreclosure within six months after the conveyance or lease shall extinguish the claim for lien. No subsequent claim for lien may be given for the same claim nor may that claim be asserted in any proceedings under this section.

(4) The plaintiff shall issue summons and provide service as in actions to foreclose a mortgage. When any defendant resides out of the state or is temporarily located out of the state, or on inquiry cannot be found, or is concealed within this state so that process cannot be served on that defendant, the plaintiff shall cause a notice to be given to that defendant, or cause a copy of the complaint to be served upon that defendant, in the manner and upon the same conditions as in actions to foreclose a mortgage. Except as otherwise provided in this section, all liens claimed under this section shall be foreclosed in the manner in which mortgage foreclosures are conducted.

(l) The claim for lien shall state the name of the claimant, the name of the owner, a description of the real property upon which the lien is being claimed, the amount for which the lien is claimed, and the real estate license number of the broker. The claim for lien shall contain a sworn statement by the signatory that the information contained in the notice is true and accurate to the knowledge of the signatory. The claim for lien shall be signed by the broker or the real estate broker's authorized agent.

(m) Whenever a claim for lien has been recorded with the town clerk and a condition occurs that would preclude the broker from receiving compensation under the terms of the broker's written contract or agreement, the broker shall provide within thirty days of demand to the owner of record a written release or satisfaction of the lien.

(n) Upon written demand of the owner or the owner's authorized agent, served on the broker claiming the lien requiring suit to be commenced to enforce the lien, a suit shall be commenced within forty-five days thereafter or the claim for lien shall be extinguished. Service of any such written demand shall be by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or by personal service upon the broker by any indifferent person, state marshal or other proper officer, by leaving with such broker or at the broker's usual place of abode a true and attested copy thereof.

(o) Whenever a claim for lien has been recorded with the town clerk and is paid, or where there is failure to foreclose to enforce the lien within the time provided by this section, the broker shall acknowledge satisfaction or release the claim for lien, in writing, on written demand of the owner within thirty days after payment or expiration of the time in which to commence foreclosure on the lien.

(p) Except as otherwise provided in this section, whenever a claim for lien has been recorded with the town clerk that would prevent the closing of a conveyance or lease, an escrow account shall be established from the proceeds of the conveyance or lease in the amount of the compensation agreed upon by the parties. Upon the establishment of the escrow account the broker shall immediately release the claim for lien. The establishment of an escrow account, as provided for in this section, shall not be the sole cause for the owner to refuse to complete the conveyance or lease. The moneys shall be held in escrow by the attorney for the lessor in the case of a lease for real property, and by the attorney for the owner in the case of the actual conveyance or lease of such real property, until the parties' rights to the escrowed moneys have been determined by the written contract or agreement of the parties, a determination by the Superior Court, or some other process which may be agreed to by the parties. When there are sufficient funds in the amount of the claimed lien, there shall be a release of the claim for lien which would allow completion of the conveyance or lease on such terms as are acceptable to the parties involved in the conveyance or lease. If the proceeds from the conveyance or lease are insufficient to release all liens claimed against the real property, including the broker's claim for lien, then the parties are not required to establish the escrow account under this section.

(q) The provisions of subsections (a) and (b) of this section shall not apply to any (1) person excepted from the provisions of this chapter by section 20-329 with respect to any acts performed by the person which are included in such exception; or (2) real estate broker or real estate salesperson who has provided services to the federal government, any political subdivision thereof, or any corporation, institution or quasi-governmental agency chartered by the federal government.

(r) No broker is entitled to claim any lien under this section unless (1) after the broker is entitled to compensation, without contingencies other than closing or transfer of title, under the terms set forth in the written contract and not later than three days prior to the later of the date of the conveyance or lease as set forth in the real estate sales contract or lease or the actual date of the conveyance or the date when the tenant takes possession, the broker gives written notice of the claim for lien to the owner of the real property and to the prospective buyer or tenant that the broker is entitled to compensation under the terms set forth in the written contract and intends to claim a lien on the real property, or (2) the broker is unable to give written notice pursuant to subdivision (1) of this subsection because the identity of the prospective buyer or tenant cannot be ascertained by the broker after due diligence and reasonable effort. The notice shall be served upon the owner and upon the prospective buyer or tenant by any indifferent person, state marshal or other proper officer, by leaving with such owner and prospective buyer or at their usual places of abode a true and attested copy thereof. When there are two or more owners, or two or more prospective buyers, the notice shall be served on each owner and on each prospective buyer unless the identity of the prospective buyer cannot be ascertained by the broker after due diligence and reasonable effort.

See Sec. 20-325e re hearings re commercial real property claims for liens, foreclosures and judicial intervention.

See Sec. 20-325k re commissions on commercial real estate lease transactions.

Section pertains only to listing contracts and not to the sales contract. 186 C. 82. Plaintiff's cause of action arose out of his employment contract with defendant and was not an action seeking to recover a commission from a real estate transaction. 190 C. 808. Cited. 191 C. 276; 203 C. 475; 213 C. 612; 218 C. 512; 232 C. 645; 236 C. 746. Although plaintiff, a corporate broker licensee, was not duly licensed as a real estate broker because its president was not licensed as a real estate broker, trial court improperly granted summary judgment on the ground that plaintiff's license was automatically void, which alone was insufficient to deprive plaintiff of its right to recover a commission; trial court failed to consider language and legislative history of former Subsec. (c), which permits licensee who is not duly licensed to recover if, in light of all facts and circumstances of the case, it would be inequitable to deny the right to recover commission that was otherwise earned. 273 C. 766. Section eliminates a separate equitable recovery under common law theory of unjust enrichment; substantial compliance requirement in Subsec. (d) is sole avenue to recovery that legislature chose to provide in circumstances wherein strict construction of section would lead to unfair results of unjust enrichment. 287 C. 706.

Cited. 6 CA 720; 7 CA 709; 9 CA 293. Agreement between brokers is not subject to requirements of statute. 11 CA 557. Cited. 13 CA 527; 17 CA 294; 24 CA 250; 25 CA 51; 28 CA 563; 31 CA 682; 35 CA 31; 36 CA 653. Requirements of statute mandatory except where equitable estoppel applies and real estate broker believed the contract was validly extended. 50 CA 640. Trial court's determination that plaintiff had not established the statutorily required inequity in denying recovery of commission was not clearly erroneous or an abuse of discretion. 69 CA 220. Electronic mail correspondence that identified obligation to compensate realtor for services and contained names of both real estate broker and person for whom services were rendered and that was signed by such person complied with requirements of section. 133 CA 445. Listing agreements in which parties are bound to a time period that can be calculated only by reference to an uncertain future event is of an indefinite duration and does not comply with provisions of section and is contrary to public policy and custom in the commercial real estate industry. 205 CA 299.

Section acts as a restriction on the conduct of an occupation which, were it not for statute, would be allowed, and must be strictly construed. 35 CS 220. Cited. 38 CS 509; 41 CS 225.

Subsec. (a):

Cited. 215 C. 316; 218 C. 396. Although section sets forth a necessary condition for filing action to recover a commission, namely, that person filing action be licensed under chapter's provisions, compliance with that condition is not, in and of itself, sufficient to permit recovery. 266 C. 572.

Cited. 3 CA 675; 5 CA 76.

Subsec. (b):

Cited. 178 C. 381; 184 C. 228; 185 C. 463; 186 C. 74. Requirements of section apply to listing contract, not sales contract. Id., 237. Cited. 189 C. 52. Requirements of statute concerning actions to recover real estate commissions are not applicable to action by real estate salesman seeking a share of commissions from his employer. 190 C. 808. Cited. 197 C. 264; 213 C. 612. “Owner” as used in Subsec. refers to owner of the property interest that is the subject of the listing agreement. 232 C. 645. Requirement that the agent signatory to a listing agreement be authorized by written document to act on behalf of the owner applies where owner may act individually or through an agent and chooses to act through an agent. 258 C. 121.

Cited. 7 CA 120; 8 CA 371; 9 CA 87. Subdiv. (4): Location and price of units not necessary in order to state “conditioning of such contract or authorization” in this instance where owner reserved right to determine price and specific unit. Id., 293. Cited. 23 CA 688. Listing agreement was unenforceable because it was not in strict compliance with statute and did not reflect any authorization for general partners to sign as agents authorized to act on behalf of the owner; statute, as amended by P.A. 94-240 which permits recovery of commissions in cases of substantial compliance with statute, applies prospectively only because there is no clear and unequivocal language in act or legislative history that supports an inference in favor of retrospective application. 56 CA 815. Where listing agreement was mistakenly filled in but was nevertheless signed by the authorized agent of the broker, held that agreement complied with section. 75 CA 546. Subdiv. (7): Although decedent had not signed the listing agreement, by application of exception set forth in Subsec. (d), plaintiff was not precluded from recovering real estate commission. 124 CA 752. Legislature did not intend to require the lien notice set forth in Subdiv. (6) to be capitalized in contract. 162 CA 840.

Separate documents, rather than a single contract, may collectively meet statutory requirements of Subsec. 35 CS 24. Cited. Id., 220. Action by broker to recover commission prohibited due to failure to comply with requirement that addresses of all parties be contained in contract. Id., 617. Merely obtaining a binding executory contract is insufficient to entitle broker to a commission where the commission was expressly made dependent upon the actual sale of the property; broker was not entitled to a commission where the listing agreement made the commission conditional upon the actual consummation of the sales transaction and the sale never took place. 36 CS 532. Cited. 37 CS 703; 38 CS 703. Legislature in enacting statute made no distinction between straight real estate sales and those integrated with commercial transactions. 39 CS 95.

Subsec. (c):

Subdiv. (2): Brokerage agreement that expired ten years from date of first sale or lease of unit satisfied statutory requirement that duration of agreement be specified despite lack of firm expiration date. 346 C. 391.

Subsec. (d):

Substantial compliance allowance under Subsec. contemplates written agreements only. 287 C. 706.

On basis of Subsec., it would be inequitable to deny plaintiff recovery on basis of mistaken name of the partnership in an exclusive agreement with respect to commercial real property. 88 CA 445.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-338d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-338d
Sec. 20-338d. Requirements for contract to perform work on private residence. Amendments. Cancellation. Distribution of copies.
Status: in_force

(b) No written contract to perform work on a private residence by a contractor licensed pursuant to this chapter or any person who owns or controls a business engaged to provide the work or services licensed under the provisions of this chapter by persons licensed for such work, shall be valid or enforceable against an owner unless such contract: (1) Is signed by the owner and the contractor or business; (2) contains the entire agreement between the owner and the contractor or business; (3) contains the date of the transaction; (4) contains the name and address of the contractor and the contractor's license number or, in the case of a business, the name of the business owner, partner or limited liability member and the phone number and address of the business, partnership or limited liability company; (5) contains the name and license number of any licensees performing the work, provided the name and the license number of a licensee may be amended in writing during the term of the contract; (6) contains a notice disclosing the owner's cancellation rights in accordance with the provisions of chapter 740 and subject to the exception set forth in subsection (c) of this section; and (7) contains a starting date and completion date.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 740, no owner shall cancel a written contract that is subject to the provisions of subsection (b) of this section if: (1) Such contract was executed for the purpose of making emergency or immediate repairs that were necessary to protect persons, personal property or real property; and (2) prior to executing such contract, the owner provided to the contractor or business owner a written statement, dated and signed by the owner, describing the situation requiring such emergency or immediate repairs and expressly acknowledging that the owner waives the right to cancel such contract in accordance with the provisions of chapter 740.

(d) Each contractor or business owner that enters into a written contract that is subject to the provisions of subsection (b) of this section shall deliver and provide to each owner who is a party to such contract, free of charge, a copy of such contract at the time such contract is executed. If such contract is amended, such contractor or business owner shall provide to each owner who is a party to such contract, free of charge, a copy of such amendment at the time such contract is amended.

(e) Each change in the terms and conditions of a written contract that is subject to the provisions of subsection (b) of this section shall be in writing and shall be signed by the owner and contractor or business, except that the commissioner may, by regulations adopted pursuant to chapter 54, dispense with the necessity for complying with such requirement.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-65k — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 375a / Section 20-65k
Sec. 20-65k. License to practice athletic training. Temporary permit. Fees.
Status: in_force

(b) A license to practice athletic training may be renewed in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 , provided (1) any licensee applying for license renewal shall maintain certification as an athletic trainer by the Board of Certification, Inc., or its successor organization, and (2) if such licensee practices athletic training in a workplace that is unrelated to a professional, amateur, school, collegiate or other sports organization or a health care facility, such licensee shall provide evidence of having completed (A) the ten-hour Outreach Training Program offered by the United States Occupational Health and Safety Administration for the construction industry or general industry, and (B) not less than forty-five hours of direct supervision by a person licensed to practice athletic training under this section or a licensed health care provider or, in the alternative, a three-credit, college-level course in the prevention, treatment and care of injuries in a workplace setting offered as part of a nationally accredited program of higher learning, as defined in section 10a-34 . The fee for such renewal shall be two hundred five dollars.

(c) The department may, upon receipt of an application for athletic training licensure, accompanied by the licensure application fee of one hundred ninety dollars, issue a temporary permit to a person who has met the requirements of subsection (a) of section 20-65j , except that the applicant has not yet sat for or received the results of the athletic training certification examination administered by the Board of Certification, Inc., or its successor organization. Such temporary permit shall authorize the permittee to practice athletic training under the supervision of a person licensed pursuant to subsection (a) of this section. Such practice shall be limited to those settings where the licensed supervisor is physically present on the premises and is immediately available to render assistance and supervision, as needed, to the permittee. Such temporary permit shall be valid for a period not to exceed one hundred twenty calendar days after the date of completion of the required course of study in athletic training and shall not be renewable. Such permit shall become void and shall not be reissued in the event that the permittee fails to pass the athletic training certification examination. No permit shall be issued to any person who has previously failed the athletic training certification examination or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint or pending professional disciplinary action. Violation of the restrictions on practice set forth in this section may constitute a basis for denial of licensure as an athletic trainer.

(d) For registration periods beginning on and after October 1, 2017, a licensee who provides direct patient care services and who is applying for license renewal shall maintain professional liability insurance, or other indemnity against liability for professional malpractice, unless such insurance or other indemnity is provided by the licensee's employer. The amount of insurance that each such licensee shall carry as insurance or indemnity against claims for injury or death for professional malpractice shall not be less than five hundred thousand dollars for one person, per occurrence, with an aggregate of not less than one million five hundred thousand dollars.

(e) For registration periods beginning on and after October 1, 2017, a licensee who practices athletic training in a workplace shall, upon request of his or her employer, make available for review on a quarterly basis, all of such licensee's records of athletic training with a physically active individual.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-265h — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-265h
Sec. 20-265h. Requirements for management of spas or salons.
Status: in_force

(b) Any such spa or salon shall be in compliance with the provisions of title 34 if applicable, and any applicable state law concerning the maintenance of payroll records, the classification of employees and the provision of workers' compensation coverage.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-224 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-224
Sec. 20-224. Employment of assistants and registered apprentices. Apprentice registration.
Status: in_force

(b) Registered apprentice embalmers and registered apprentice funeral directors shall register as apprentices with the Department of Public Health, in the manner prescribed by the commissioner in regulations adopted pursuant to section 20-211 , for purposes of completing practical training and experience pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-206g — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 384a / Section 20-206g
Sec. 20-206g. Advertising by massage therapists. Requirements and prohibitions. Exemption.
Status: in_force

(b) No person, firm, partnership or corporation shall advertise any of the services included in the definition of massage therapy in any manner using the term or title “massage”, “shiatsu”, “acupressure”, “Thai massage”, “Thai yoga massage” or “Thai yoga”, except as provided in subsection (e) of this section, unless such services are performed by a massage therapist.

(c) Each person who holds a license as a massage therapist shall include his or her license number in any advertisement for such person's massage therapy services that appears in a newspaper, telephone directory or other advertising medium.

(d) It shall be a violation of this section for any person who does not hold a current license as a massage therapist to advertise massage therapy services by using the term “massage”, “massage therapist”, “licensed massage therapist”, “massage practitioner”, “massagist”, “masseur” or “masseuse”, “shiatsu”, “acupressure”, “Thai massage”, “Thai yoga massage” or “Thai yoga”, except as provided in subsection (e) of this section.

(e) A person who does not hold a current license as a massage therapist but who is registered as a yoga teacher with the Yoga Alliance Registry and has completed two hundred hours of training in Thai yoga may advertise “Thai yoga” services.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-341y — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393b / Section 20-341y
Sec. 20-341y. Display of certificate of registration. Prohibited acts. Unfair trade practice. Duration of certificate. Renewal fees. Fines.
Status: in_force

(b) No mechanical contractor shall: (1) Present or attempt to present, as its own, the certificate of another, (2) knowingly give false evidence of a material nature to the commissioner for the purpose of procuring a certificate, (3) use or attempt to use a certificate which has expired or which has been suspended or revoked, (4) offer to perform or perform any heating, piping and cooling work or any plumbing and piping work without having first obtained a certificate of registration under sections 20-341s to 20-341bb , inclusive, or (5) represent in any manner that its registration constitutes an endorsement of the quality of its workmanship or of its competency by the commissioner. A violation of any of the provisions of sections 20-341s to 20-341bb , inclusive, shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive trade practice under subsection (a) of section 42-110b .

(c) Certificates issued to mechanical contractors shall be valid for one year and shall not be transferable or assignable.

(d) The fee for renewal of a certificate shall be one hundred ten dollars.

(e) A mechanical contractor who does not obtain a certificate of registration as required by section 20-341t and who wilfully engages its employees in plumbing and piping work or in heating, piping and cooling work or who wilfully supplies for employment an employee who does not hold a valid license to perform such work shall be fined one thousand dollars for the first offense and two thousand five hundred dollars for each subsequent offense.

See Sec. 21a-4(c) re fines for late certificate renewals.

Cited. 231 C. 707.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-112a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 379 / Section 20-112a
Sec. 20-112a. Dental assistants and expanded function dental assistants.
Status: in_force

(1) “Direct supervision” means a licensed dentist has authorized certain procedures to be performed on a patient by a dental assistant or an expanded function dental assistant with such dentist remaining on-site in the dental office or treatment facility while such procedures are being performed by the dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant and that, prior to the patient's departure from the dental office, such dentist reviews and approves the treatment performed by the dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant;

(2) “Indirect supervision” means a licensed dentist is in the dental office or treatment facility, has personally diagnosed the condition, planned the treatment, authorized the procedures to be performed and remains in the dental office or treatment facility while the procedures are being performed by the dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant and evaluates the performance of the dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant;

(3) “Dental assistant” means a person who: (A) Has (i) completed on-the-job training in dental assisting under direct supervision, (ii) successfully completed a dental assistant education program accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation, or (iii) successfully completed a dental assistant education program that is accredited or recognized by any national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education; and (B) meets any requirements established by the Commissioner of Public Health in regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (f) of this section;

(4) “Expanded function dental assistant” means a dental assistant who has passed the Dental Assisting National Board's certified dental assistant or certified orthodontic assistant examination and then successfully completed: (A) An expanded function dental assistant program at an institution of higher education that is accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association that includes (i) educational courses relating to didactic and laboratory preclinical objectives for skills used by an expanded function dental assistant and that requires demonstration of such skills prior to advancing to clinical practice, (ii) not less than four hours of education in the area of ethics and professional standards for dental professionals, and (iii) a comprehensive clinical examination administered by the institution of higher education at the conclusion of such program; and (B) a comprehensive written examination concerning certified preventive functions and certified restorative functions administered by the Dental Assisting National Board; and

(5) “Fluoride varnish treatment” means the application of a highly concentrated form of fluoride to the surface of the teeth.

(b) Each expanded function dental assistant shall: (1) Maintain dental assistant or orthodontic assistant certification from the Dental Assisting National Board; (2) conspicuously display his or her dental assistant or orthodontic assistant certificate at his or her place of employment or place where he or she provides expanded function dental assistant services; (3) maintain professional liability insurance or other indemnity against liability for professional malpractice in an amount not less than five hundred thousand dollars for one person, per occurrence, with an aggregate liability of not less than one million five hundred thousand dollars while employed as an expanded function dental assistant; (4) provide expanded function dental assistant services only under direct or indirect supervision; and (5) meet any requirements established by the Commissioner of Public Health in regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (f) of this section.

(c) (1) A licensed dentist may delegate to dental assistants such dental procedures as the dentist may deem advisable, including: (A) The taking of dental x-rays if the dental assistant can demonstrate successful completion of the dental radiation health and safety examination administered by the Dental Assisting National Board or a radiation health and safety competency assessment administered by a dental education program in the state that is accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation; (B) the taking of impressions of teeth for study models; and (C) the provision of fluoride varnish treatments. Such procedures shall be performed under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist and the dentist providing direct supervision shall assume responsibility for such procedures.

(2) A licensed dentist may delegate to an expanded function dental assistant such dental procedures as the dentist may deem advisable, including: (A) The placing, finishing and adjustment of temporary restorations and long-term individual fillings, capping materials and cement bases; (B) oral health education for patients; (C) dental sealants; (D) coronal polishing, provided the procedure is not represented or billed as prophylaxis; (E) administration of topical anesthetic under the direct supervision of the dentist prior to the administration of local anesthetic by a dentist or dental hygienist; and (F) taking alginate impressions of teeth, under the direct supervision of the dentist, for use in study models, orthodontic appliances, whitening trays, mouth guards or fabrication of temporary crowns. Such procedures shall be performed under either direct or indirect supervision, except as specifically provided in this subdivision, and the dentist providing such supervision shall assume responsibility for such procedures.

(3) (A) No licensed dentist may delegate dental procedures to a dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant unless the dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant provides records demonstrating successful completion of the Dental Assisting National Board's infection control examination or an infection control competency assessment administered by a dental education program in the state that is accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation, except as provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection, (B) a dental assistant may receive not more than fifteen months of on-the-job training by a licensed dentist for purposes of preparing the dental assistant for the infection control examination or infection control competency assessment, and (C) any licensed dentist who delegates dental procedures to a dental assistant shall retain and make such records available for inspection upon request of the Department of Public Health.

(4) On and after January 1, 2018, upon successful completion of the Dental Assisting National Board's infection control examination or an infection control competency assessment administered by a dental education program in the state that is accredited by the American Dental Association's Commission on Dental Accreditation, each dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant shall complete not less than one hour of training or education in infection control in a dental setting every two years, including, but not limited to, courses, including online courses, offered or approved by a dental school or another institution of higher education that is accredited or recognized by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, a regional accrediting organization, the American Dental Association or a state, district or local dental association or society affiliated with the American Dental Association or the American Dental Assistants Association.

(d) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, under no circumstances may a dental assistant or expanded function dental assistant engage in: (1) Diagnosis for dental procedures or dental treatment; (2) the cutting or removal of any hard or soft tissue or suturing; (3) the prescribing of drugs or medications that require the written or oral order of a licensed dentist or physician; (4) the administration of local, parenteral, inhalation or general anesthetic agents in connection with any dental operative procedure; (5) the taking of any final impression of the teeth or jaws or the relationship of the teeth or jaws for the purpose of fabricating any appliance or prosthesis; or (6) the practice of dental hygiene as defined in section 20-126 l .

(e) Each licensed dentist employing or otherwise engaging the services of an expanded function dental assistant shall: (1) Prior to hiring or otherwise engaging the services of the expanded function dental assistant, verify that the expanded function dental assistant meets the requirements described in subdivision (4) of subsection (a) and subdivisions (1) and (3) of subsection (b) of this section; (2) maintain documentation verifying that the expanded function dental assistant meets such requirements on the premises where the expanded function dental assistant provides services; (3) make such documentation available to the Department of Public Health upon request; and (4) provide direct or indirect supervision to not more than two expanded function dental assistants who are providing services at one time or, if the dentist's practice is limited to orthodontics, provide direct or indirect supervision to not more than four expanded function dental assistants who are providing services at one time.

(f) The Commissioner of Public Health, in consultation with the State Dental Commission, established pursuant to section 20-103a , may adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to implement the provisions of this section. Such regulations, if adopted, shall include, but need not be limited to, identification of the: (1) Specific types of procedures that may be performed by a dental assistant and an expanded function dental assistant, consistent with the provisions of this section; (2) appropriate number of didactic, preclinical and clinical hours or number of procedures to be evaluated for clinical competency for each skill employed by an expanded function dental assistant; and (3) the level of supervision, that may include direct or indirect supervision, that is required for each procedure to be performed by an expanded function dental assistant.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-601 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-601
Sec. 20-601. *(See end of section for amended version and effective date.) Fees.
Status: in_force

(1) The fee for issuance of a pharmacist license is two hundred dollars, payable at the date of application for the license.

(2) The fee for renewal of a pharmacist license is the professional services fee for class A, as defined in section 33-182 l . Before the commission or commissioner grants a license to an applicant who has not held a license authorized by the commission or commissioner within five years of the date of application, the applicant shall pay the fee required in subdivision (1) of this section.

(3) The fee for issuance of a pharmacy license is seven hundred fifty dollars.

(4) The fee for renewal of a pharmacy license is one hundred ninety dollars.

(5) The late fee for an application for renewal of a license to practice pharmacy, a pharmacy license or a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is the amount set forth in section 21a-4 .

(6) The fee for notice of a change in officers or directors of a business entity holding a pharmacy license is sixty dollars for each pharmacy license held. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars in addition to the fee for notice.

(7) The fee for filing notice of a change in name, ownership or management of a pharmacy is ninety dollars. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars in addition to the fee for notice.

(8) The fee for application for registration as a pharmacy intern is sixty dollars.

(9) The fee for application for a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is one hundred forty dollars.

(10) The fee for renewal of a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is one hundred dollars.

(11) The late fee for failing to notify the department of a change of ownership, name or location of the premises of a permit to sell nonlegend drugs within five days of the change is twenty dollars.

(12) The fee for issuance of a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is seven hundred fifty dollars.

(13) The fee for renewal of a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is one hundred ninety dollars.

(14) The fee for notice of a change in officers or directors of a business entity holding a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is sixty dollars for each pharmacy license held. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars, in addition to the fee for notice.

(15) The fee for filing notice of a change in name, ownership or management of a nonresident pharmacy is ninety dollars. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars, in addition to the fee for notice.

(16) The fee for application for registration as a pharmacy technician is one hundred dollars.

(17) The fee for renewal of a registration as a pharmacy technician is fifty dollars.

(18) The fee for application for designation as an advanced pharmacy technician is twenty-five dollars, which fee shall be in addition to the fee required in subdivision (16) of this section.

(19) The fee for renewal of a designation as an advanced pharmacy technician is twenty-five dollars, which fee shall be in addition to the fee required in subdivision (17) of this section.

(20) The fee for issuance of a temporary permit to practice pharmacy is two hundred dollars.

(21) The fee for application for registration, and renewal of a registration, as a clerk is twenty-five dollars.

*Note: On and after July 1, 2025, this section, as amended by section 8 of public act 24-73, is to read as follows:

“Sec. 20-601. Fees. The department shall collect the following nonrefundable fees:

(1) The fee for issuance of a pharmacist license is two hundred dollars, payable at the date of application for the license.

(2) The fee for renewal of a pharmacist license is one hundred five dollars. Before the commission or commissioner grants a license to an applicant who has not held a license authorized by the commission or commissioner within five years of the date of application, the applicant shall pay the fee required in subdivision (1) of this section. On or before the last day of January, April, July and October in each year, the commissioner shall transfer five dollars of each renewal fee collected pursuant to this subdivision to the pharmacy professional assistance program account established in section 20-638c.

(3) The fee for issuance of a pharmacy license is seven hundred fifty dollars.

(4) The fee for renewal of a pharmacy license is one hundred ninety dollars.

(5) The late fee for an application for renewal of a license to practice pharmacy, a pharmacy license or a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is the amount set forth in section 21a-4.

(6) The fee for notice of a change in officers or directors of a business entity holding a pharmacy license is sixty dollars for each pharmacy license held. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars in addition to the fee for notice.

(7) The fee for filing notice of a change in name, ownership or management of a pharmacy is ninety dollars. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars in addition to the fee for notice.

(8) The fee for application for registration as a pharmacy intern is sixty-five dollars. On or before the last day of January, April, July and October in each year, the commissioner shall transfer five dollars of each fee collected pursuant to this subdivision to the pharmacy professional assistance program account established in section 20-638c.

(9) The fee for application for a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is one hundred forty dollars.

(10) The fee for renewal of a permit to sell nonlegend drugs is one hundred dollars.

(11) The late fee for failing to notify the department of a change of ownership, name or location of the premises of a permit to sell nonlegend drugs within five days of the change is twenty dollars.

(12) The fee for issuance of a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is seven hundred fifty dollars.

(13) The fee for renewal of a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is one hundred ninety dollars.

(14) The fee for notice of a change in officers or directors of a business entity holding a nonresident pharmacy certificate of registration is sixty dollars for each pharmacy license held. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars, in addition to the fee for notice.

(15) The fee for filing notice of a change in name, ownership or management of a nonresident pharmacy is ninety dollars. A late fee for failing to give such notice within ten days of the change is fifty dollars, in addition to the fee for notice.

(16) The fee for application for registration as a pharmacy technician is one hundred dollars.

(17) The fee for renewal of a registration as a pharmacy technician is fifty dollars.

(18) The fee for application for designation as an advanced pharmacy technician is twenty-five dollars, which fee shall be in addition to the fee required in subdivision (16) of this section.

(19) The fee for renewal of a designation as an advanced pharmacy technician is twenty-five dollars, which fee shall be in addition to the fee required in subdivision (17) of this section.

(20) The fee for issuance of a temporary permit to practice pharmacy is two hundred dollars.

(21) The fee for application for registration, and renewal of a registration, as a clerk is twenty-five dollars.”
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-511 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400g / Section 20-511
Sec. 20-511. Minimum requirements for appraiser certification or provisional license. Fees. Renewal. Notice and hearing.
Status: in_force

(b) All certifications and provisional licenses issued under the provisions of sections 20-500 to 20-528 , inclusive, shall expire annually and be subject to renewal. The renewal fee for certifications and provisional licenses, to be paid to the commission, shall be: Two hundred eighty-five dollars in the case of certified appraisers and one hundred dollars in the case of provisional licensees.

(c) In order for the commission to comply with federal law and transmit a roster of real estate appraisers to the appropriate federal regulatory entity, certified real estate appraisers shall pay to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, in addition to application and recordation fees, an annual registry fee established by the appraisal subcommittees of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.

(d) Any certification or provisional license that expires pursuant to this section may be reinstated by the commission, if, not later than two years after the date of expiration, the former certification holder or provisional licensee pays to the commission all past due fees for each year or fraction thereof from the date of expiration of the previous certification or provisional license to the date of payment for reinstatement, except that any certified or provisionally licensed appraiser whose certification or provisional license expired after entering military service shall be reinstated without payment of any fee if an application for reinstatement is filed with the commission within two years after the date of expiration. Any such reinstated certification or provisional license shall expire annually. Any such reinstated certification or provisional license shall be subject to an annual renewal thereafter.

(e) Any person whose application has been filed as provided in this section and section 20-509 who is refused a certification or provisional license shall be given notice and afforded an opportunity for hearing as provided in the regulations adopted by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-341w — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393b / Section 20-341w
Sec. 20-341w. Refusal to issue or renew a certificate of registration. Notice and hearing.
Status: in_force

(b) If the applicant requests a hearing within such ten-day period, the commissioner shall give notice of the grounds for such refusal and shall conduct a hearing concerning such refusal in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 concerning contested cases.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-90 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 378 / Section 20-90
Sec. 20-90. Duties of board.
Status: in_force

(b) All schools of nursing in the state that prepare persons for examination under the provisions of this chapter, shall be (1) visited periodically by a representative of the Department of Public Health who shall be a registered nurse or a person experienced in the field of nursing education, and (2) approved by the Connecticut State Board of Examiners for Nursing pursuant to subdivisions (3) and (4) of subsection (a) of this section.

(c) The Department of Public Health shall post a list of all nursing programs and all programs for training licensed practical nurses that are approved by the Connecticut State Board of Examiners for Nursing and maintain the standard for the education of nurses and the training of licensed practical nurses as established by the Commissioner of Public Health on the department's Internet web site.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-404 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 398 / Section 20-404
Sec. 20-404. Disciplinary action; grounds.
Status: in_force

(1) The conviction of a crime in the course of professional activities. The record of conviction, or a certified copy thereof, certified by the clerk of the court or by the judge in whose court the conviction is had, shall be conclusive evidence of such conviction;

(2) Procuring of a license by fraud or deceit practiced upon the department;

(3) Unethical conduct, including: (A) The obtaining of any fee or the making of any sale by fraud or misrepresentation; (B) knowingly employing directly or indirectly any unlicensed person or any person whose license has been suspended to perform any work covered by this chapter; (C) engaging in fraud or material deception in the course of professional activities;

(4) Incompetence or negligence in fitting or selling hearing aids;

(5) Selling a hearing aid to a person under the age of eighteen without a prior ear examination by an otolaryngologist and an audiological examination performed or supervised by an audiologist;

(6) Fitting or selling a hearing aid to anyone who has a history of ear infection within the previous ninety days without requiring an examination by an otolaryngologist;

(7) Failure to comply with the examination procedures and tests prescribed in the regulations adopted under this chapter;

(8) Failure to properly supervise an individual holding a temporary permit under section 20-400 ;

(9) Failure to furnish to a person supplied a hearing aid a receipt containing the date of delivery of the hearing aid to such person, the licensee's signature, business address, license number, serial number of the hearing aid, the model name and model number of the hearing aid, the full terms of sale, including terms of a manufacturer's and licensee's warranties and trial period, provided in section 20-402a , and a statement of whether the hearing aid sold is new, used or reconditioned;

(10) Failure to retain for three years from the date of delivery of the hearing aid to the purchaser records containing the name and address of each purchaser of a hearing aid under a sale made by such hearing instrument specialist, a copy of such purchaser's audiogram and all information required on a receipt under subdivision (9) of this subsection;

(11) Violating any provision of this chapter or of the regulations promulgated thereunder;

(12) Violating any provision of the Food and Drug Administration regulations pertaining to hearing instrument specialists adopted under Title 21, professional and patent labeling and conditions for sale, or any provision of any regulation pertaining to hearing instrument specialists adopted by the Federal Trade Commission;

(13) Physical or mental illness, emotional disorder or loss of motor skill, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, of the license holder; or

(14) Abuse or excessive use of drugs, including alcohol, narcotics or chemicals.

(b) The commissioner may order a license holder to submit to a reasonable physical or mental examination if the license holder's physical or mental capacity to practice safely is the subject of an investigation. The commissioner may petition the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford to enforce such order or any action taken pursuant to section 19a-17 .

(c) The Attorney General shall represent the commissioner at all formal hearings held under this chapter.

(d) The department may reissue any license that has been revoked and may modify the suspension of any license that has been suspended.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-633c — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-633c
Sec. 20-633c. Prescribing of opioid antagonists by licensed pharmacists. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) A pharmacist may only prescribe an opioid antagonist pursuant to this section if the pharmacist has been trained and certified by a program approved by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(c) A pharmacist who prescribes an opioid antagonist in compliance with this section shall be deemed not to have violated any standard of care for a pharmacist.

(d) The provisions of this section shall apply only to a pharmacist certified in accordance with subsection (b) of this section. No pharmacist may delegate or direct any other person to prescribe an opioid antagonist or train any person in the administration of such opioid antagonist pursuant to the provisions of subsection (a) of this section.

(e) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection may adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-691 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400p / Section 20-691
Sec. 20-691. Locksmiths. Definitions. Registration. Exemptions. Prohibitions. Regulations. Investigations and hearings. Revocation and suspension of registration. Civil penalty. Unfair or deceptive trade practice.
Status: in_force

(1) “Branch” means any business location of a locksmith, other than the principal place of business of such locksmith.

(2) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(3) “Department” means the Department of Consumer Protection.

(4) “Locksmith” means a person engaged in locksmithing.

(5) “Locksmithing” means the inspection, installation, recombination, rekeying, service or repair of locks or locking devices, but does not include: (A) The recombination or rekeying of locks or cylinders by an employee of a retail or wholesale establishment on an employer's property; (B) the installation or repair of locks by a person registered pursuant to chapter 393c or registered pursuant to chapter 400 incidental to the construction of a building; (C) the installation, maintenance, repair or service of a vending machine; (D) the duplication or selling of keys or selling of equipment used to duplicate keys at a retail establishment; or (E) work performed by a person at such person's own residence.

(6) “Registration” means a document or card issued by the Department of Consumer Protection to a locksmith which certifies that such locksmith has completed an application form, paid the required registration fee, has successfully passed the required criminal history records check, is not otherwise barred from becoming a locksmith and has been added to the registry of locksmiths, as established in subsection (b) of this section.

(b) (1) A person seeking registration as a locksmith shall apply to the commissioner on a form provided by the commissioner. The application shall include the applicant's name, residence address, business address, business telephone number, a question as to whether the applicant has been convicted of a felony in any state or jurisdiction, and such other information as the commissioner may require. The applicant shall submit to a request by the commissioner for a state and national criminal history records check conducted in accordance with the provisions of section 29-17a . No registration shall be issued unless the commissioner has received the results of such records check. In accordance with the provisions of section 46a-80 and after a hearing held pursuant to chapter 54, the commissioner may revoke, refuse to issue or refuse to renew a registration when an applicant's criminal history records check reveals the applicant has been convicted of a crime of dishonesty, fraud, theft, assault, other violent offense or a crime related to the performance of locksmithing.

(2) The application fee for registration as a locksmith and the biennial renewal fee for such registration shall be two hundred dollars.

(3) The department shall establish and maintain a registry of locksmiths. The registry shall contain the names and addresses of registered locksmiths and such other information as the commissioner may require. Such registry shall be updated at least annually by the department, be made available to the public upon request and be published on the department's Internet web site.

(4) No person shall engage in locksmithing, use the title locksmith or display or use any words, letters, figures, title, advertisement or other method to indicate said person is a locksmith unless such person has obtained a registration as provided in this section.

(5) The following persons shall be exempt from registration as a locksmith, but only if the person performing the service does not hold himself or herself out to the public as a locksmith: (A) Persons employed by a state, municipality or other political subdivision, or by any agency or department of the government of the United States, acting in their official capacity; (B) automobile service dealers who service, install, repair or rebuild automobile locks; (C) retail merchants selling locks or similar security accessories or installing, programming, repairing, maintaining, reprogramming, rebuilding or servicing electronic garage door devices; (D) members of the building trades who install or remove complete locks or locking devices in the course of residential or commercial new construction or remodeling; (E) employees of towing services or repossessors, or employees or representatives of automobile clubs, who open automotive locks in the normal course of their business. The provisions of this section shall not prohibit an employee of a towing service from opening motor vehicles to enable a vehicle to be moved without towing, provided the towing service does not hold itself out to the public, by directory advertisement, through a sign at the facilities of the towing service or by any other form of advertisement, as a locksmith; (F) students in a course of study in locksmith programs approved by the department; (G) warranty services by a lock manufacturer or its employees on the manufacturer's own products; (H) maintenance employees of a property owner or property management companies at multifamily residential buildings, who service, install, repair or open locks for tenants; (I) persons employed as security personnel at schools or institutions of higher education who open locks while acting in the course of their employment; and (J) persons who service, install or repair electronic locks, access control devices or other similar locking devices that connect to an electronic security system, provided such persons maintain an electrical contractor or journeyperson licensed to perform such work as required pursuant to chapter 393.

(c) (1) Each person engaging in locksmithing shall: (A) Exhibit such person's registration or a copy thereof at the person's place of business and any branch, in a location visible to the general public, (B) exhibit such person's registration upon request by any interested party, and (C) include such person's registration number in any advertisement.

(2) No person shall: (A) Present or attempt to present, as such person's own, the registration of another, (B) knowingly give false evidence of a material nature to the commissioner for the purpose of procuring a registration, (C) represent himself or herself falsely as, or impersonate, a registered locksmith, (D) knowingly use or attempt to use a registration which has expired or which has been suspended or revoked, (E) offer to undertake any locksmith service without having a current registration required under this chapter, (F) represent in any manner that such person's registration constitutes an endorsement of the quality of such person's workmanship or of such person's competency by the commissioner, (G) employ or allow any person to act as a salesman on such person's behalf unless such salesman is in the direct employ of such person, or (H) represent or advertise a location or branch as a place of business without obtaining the right to occupy such location.

(d) Registrations issued to locksmiths pursuant to this section shall not be transferable or assignable.

(e) All registrations issued under the provisions of this section shall expire biennially.

(f) Failure to receive a notice of registration expiration or a renewal application shall not exempt a locksmith from the obligation to renew his or her registration.

(g) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this section.

(h) The commissioner may conduct investigations and hold hearings on any matter subject to the provisions of this section. The commissioner may issue subpoenas, administer oaths, compel testimony and order the production of books, records and documents in connection with such investigations. If any person refuses to appear, to testify or to produce any book, record, paper or document when so ordered, upon application of the commissioner or the Attorney General, a judge of the Superior Court may make such order as may be appropriate to aid in the enforcement of this section. The Attorney General, at the request of the commissioner, is authorized to apply in the name of the state of Connecticut to the Superior Court for an order temporarily or permanently restraining and enjoining any person from violating any provision of this section.

(i) The commissioner may revoke, suspend, place conditions on, or refuse to renew a registration issued pursuant to this section for: (1) Conduct of a character likely to mislead, deceive or defraud the public or the commissioner; (2) engaging in any untruthful or misleading advertising; (3) unfair or deceptive business practices; (4) gross incompetence; or (5) violations of any of the provisions of this section or any regulation adopted pursuant to any of such provisions.

(j) The commissioner may, after notice and hearing in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, impose a civil penalty on any person who engages in or practices the work or occupation for which a registration is required by this section without having first obtained such a registration, or who wilfully employs or supplies for employment a person who does not have such a registration, or who wilfully and falsely pretends to qualify to engage in or practice such work or occupation, or who engages in or practices any of the work or occupations for which a registration is required by this section after the expiration of such person's registration, or who violates any of the provisions of this section or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto. Such penalty shall be in an amount not more than five hundred dollars for a first violation of this subsection, not more than seven hundred fifty dollars for a second violation of this subsection occurring not more than three years after a prior violation, and not more than one thousand five hundred dollars for a third or subsequent violation of this subsection occurring not more than three years after a prior violation. Any penalty collected pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited in the consumer protection enforcement account established in section 21a-8a .

(k) A violation of any of the provisions of this section shall be deemed an unfair or deceptive trade practice under subsection (a) of section 42-110b .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-500 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400g / Section 20-500
Sec. 20-500. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Appraisal” means the practice of developing, in conformance with the USPAP, an opinion of the value of real property.

(2) “Appraisal Foundation” means the not-for-profit corporation referred to in Section 1121 of Title XI of FIRREA.

(3) “Appraisal management company” means any person, association, corporation, limited liability company or partnership that performs appraisal management services, but does not include:

(A) An appraiser that enters into an oral or written agreement with another appraiser for the performance of an appraisal, which is signed by both appraisers upon completion;

(B) A department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services exclusively to such entity; or

(C) Any local, state or federal agency or department thereof.

(4) “Appraisal management services” means:

(A) The administration of an appraiser panel;

(B) The recruitment of certified appraisers to be part of an appraiser panel, including, but not limited to, the negotiation of fees to be paid to, and services to be provided by, the certified appraisers for their participation on the appraiser panel; or

(C) The receipt of an appraisal request or order, or an appraisal review request or order, and the delivery of such request or order to an appraiser panel.

(5) “Appraiser panel” means a network of appraisers who are certified in accordance with the requirements established by the commission by regulation, are independent contractors of an appraisal management company and have:

(A) Responded to an invitation, request or solicitation from an appraisal management company to perform appraisals (i) requested or ordered through the appraisal management company, or (ii) directly for the appraisal management company on a periodic basis as assigned by such appraisal management company; and

(B) Been selected and approved by the appraisal management company.

(6) “Bank” has the same meaning as provided in section 36a-2 .

(7) “Certified appraiser” means a person who has satisfied the minimum requirements for a category of certification established by the commission by regulation. Such minimum requirements shall be consistent with guidelines established by the Appraisal Qualification Board of the Appraisal Foundation. The categories of certification shall include one category denoted as “certified residential appraiser” and another denoted as “certified general appraiser”. The commission may modify such categories of certification.

(8) “Commission” means the Connecticut Real Estate Appraisal Commission appointed under the provisions of section 20-502 .

(9) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(10) “Compliance manager” means a person who holds an appraiser certification in at least one state and is responsible for overseeing the implementation of, and compliance with, procedures for an appraisal management company to:

(A) Verify that a person being added to the appraiser panel of the appraisal management company holds a license in good standing in accordance with section 20-509 ;

(B) Maintain detailed records of each appraisal request or order the appraisal management company receives and of the appraiser who performs such appraisal; and

(C) Review on a periodic basis the work of all appraisers performing appraisals for the appraisal management company to ensure that such appraisals are being conducted in accordance with the USPAP.

(11) “Controlling person” means a person who has not had an appraiser license, similar license or appraiser certificate denied, refused renewal, suspended or revoked in any state and:

(A) Is a director, officer or owner of an association, corporation, limited liability company or partnership offering or seeking to offer appraisal management services in this state;

(B) Is employed by an appraisal management company and has the authority to enter into agreements or contracts for the performance of appraisal management services or appraisals, or is appointed or authorized by such appraisal management company to enter into such agreements or contracts; or

(C) May exercise authority over, or direct the management or policies of, an appraisal management company.

(12) “Engaging in the real estate appraisal business” means the act or process of estimating the value of real estate for a fee or other valuable consideration.

(13) “Federally regulated appraisal management company” means an appraisal management company that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 USC 1813, as amended from time to time, and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(14) “Financial institution” means a bank, out-of-state bank or institutional lender, an affiliate or subsidiary of a bank, out-of-state bank or institutional lender or another lender licensed by the Department of Banking.

(15) “FIRREA” means the Financial Institutions, Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, P.L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, as amended from time to time.

(16) “Out-of-state bank” has the same meaning as provided in section 36a-2 .

(17) “Person” means an individual.

(18) “Provisional appraiser” means a person engaged in the business of estimating the value of real estate for a fee or other valuable consideration under the supervision of a certified real estate appraiser and who meets the minimum requirements, if any, established by the commission by regulation for provisional appraiser status.

(19) “Provisional license” means a license issued to a provisional appraiser.

(20) “Real estate appraiser” or “appraiser” means a person engaged in the business of estimating the value of real estate for a fee or other valuable consideration.

(21) “USPAP” means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation pursuant to Title XI of FIRREA.

Testifying in court re the value of real property does not constitute “engaging in the real estate appraisal business” for purposes of the statutory scheme. 320 C. 332.

Court did not improperly allow testimony of expert witness who was not a “real estate appraiser”, as defined in section, and testifying as to the value of property or diminution in value of property did not constitute “engaging in the real estate appraisal business” under section. 121 CA 105.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-456 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400b / Section 20-456
Sec. 20-456. Grounds for revocation, suspension or refusal to issue or renew certificate of registration. Conditions. Civil penalty.
Status: in_force

(b) The department or commission shall not revoke or suspend any certificate of registration except upon notice and hearing in accordance with chapter 54.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-398 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 398 / Section 20-398
Sec. 20-398. License required; qualifications; examination; fees.
Status: in_force

(b) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit a corporation, partnership, trust, association or other like organization maintaining an established business address from engaging in the business of selling or offering for sale hearing aids at retail, provided such organization employs only persons licensed, in accordance with the provisions of this chapter or as audiologists under sections 20-395a to 20-395g , inclusive, in the direct sale and fitting of such products.

(c) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit a hearing instrument specialist licensed under this chapter from making impressions for earmolds or a physician licensed in this state or an audiologist licensed under the provisions of sections 20-395a to 20-395g , inclusive, from making impressions for earmolds in the course of such person's clinical practice.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-340d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-340d
Sec. 20-340d. Swimming pool builder's license. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) On or after the adoption of regulations required pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, no person shall build a swimming pool unless such person holds a swimming pool builder's license issued by the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(c) Not later than July 1, 2012, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section, including establishing the amount and type of experience, training, continuing education and examination requirements for a person to obtain and renew a swimming pool builder's license.

(d) Any person who builds a swimming pool on residential property owned by such person shall be exempt from the provisions of this section.

(e) The holder of a swimming pool builder's license issued pursuant to this section shall comply with the provisions of chapter 400 regarding registration as a home improvement contractor.

(f) A person licensed as a swimming pool builder pursuant to this section shall not perform electrical work, plumbing and piping work or heating, piping and cooling work, as defined in section 20-330 , unless such person is licensed to perform such work pursuant to this chapter.

(g) On and after the adoption of regulations required pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, any person applying to the Department of Consumer Protection for a swimming pool builder's license shall be issued such license without examination upon demonstration by the applicant of experience and training equivalent to the experience and training required to qualify for examination for such license, if such applicant makes such application to the department not later than January 1, 2014.

(h) The initial fee for a swimming pool builder's license shall be one hundred fifty dollars and the renewal fee for such license shall be one hundred dollars. Licenses shall be valid for a period of one year from the date of issuance.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-620 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-620
Sec. 20-620. (Formerly Sec. 20-185g). Pharmacist's duties towards Medicaid recipients: To obtain, record and maintain pertinent patient information about the recipient; to undertake a review of the drugs previously dispensed to the recipient and to offer to discuss the drugs to be dispensed and to counsel the recipient on their correct usage. Exception.
Status: in_force

(b) Prior to or simultaneously with dispensing a drug to an individual eligible for benefits in accordance with sections 17b-260 to 17b-262 , inclusive, and 17b-264 to 17b-285 , inclusive, a pharmacist shall undertake a review of drugs dispensed to the individual by the pharmacy during the previous one hundred eighty days. The review shall include screening for potential drug therapy problems due to therapeutic duplication, a contraindication between a drug and a disease, the interaction of one drug with another, incorrect drug dosage or duration of drug treatment, the interaction of a drug and an allergy, clinical abuse or misuse and any other significant clinical issues relating to the appropriate use of drugs. Such review shall be based upon current standards and information consistent with that provided in the following resources: The American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information, the United States Pharmacopoeia Drug Information, the American Medical Association Drug Evaluations and the peer-reviewed medical literature.

(c) Prior to or simultaneously with dispensing drugs to individuals eligible for benefits in accordance with sections 17b-260 to 17b-262 , inclusive, and 17b-264 to 17b-285 , inclusive, a pharmacist shall, whenever practicable, offer in person to discuss the drugs to be dispensed and to counsel the client on their usage, except when the person obtaining the prescription is other than the person named on the prescription form or the pharmacist determines it is appropriate to make such offer in writing. Any such written offer shall include an offer to communicate with the client either in person at the pharmacy or by telephone.

(d) The discussion and counseling offered in accordance with subsection (c) of this section shall include information deemed significant by the pharmacist based upon the findings of the review conducted in accordance with subsection (b) of this section, including (1) the name and description of the drug; (2) dosage form, dosage, route of administration and duration of drug therapy; (3) special directions and precautions for preparation, administration and use by the patient; (4) common severe side or adverse effects or interactions and therapeutic contraindications or precautions which the pharmacist deems relevant; (5) techniques for self-monitoring drug therapy; (6) proper storage; (7) prescription refill information; and (8) action to be taken in the event of a missed dose or adverse reaction.

(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a pharmacist to provide counseling or gather information when an individual receiving benefits refuses such counseling or refuses or is unable to provide the information requested. The pharmacist shall document the provision of counseling, a refusal by or the inability of the patient to accept counseling or a refusal by the patient to give information. Records kept pursuant to this subsection shall be maintained for the same length of time as prescription records are maintained pursuant to section 20-615 .

(f) The provisions of subsections (c) and (d) of this section shall not apply to a drug dispensed to a patient of a nursing home that is in compliance with the requirements of 42 CFR 483.60.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-340b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-340b
Sec. 20-340b. Exemption from licensing for certain telecommunications companies' employees.
Status: in_force

(1) “Telecommunications electrical work” means work permitted to be performed by holders of a limited electrical contractor's license (T-1) as provided by regulation adopted under this chapter.

(2) “Public service technician” means an employee of a public service company or certified telecommunications provider, as defined in section 16-1 , or any affiliate of any such company or provider, who is engaged in telecommunications electrical work and who is not otherwise exempt from licensing pursuant to section 20-340 .

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter, a public service technician may be issued a certificate of registration by the Department of Consumer Protection, in consultation with the Electrical Work Board, in lieu of any license which otherwise might be required under this chapter, which shall entitle the holder of such certificate to perform telecommunications electrical work only as provided in this section, provided the public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate which employs the public service technician certifies to the Department of Consumer Protection that the employee has obtained such training and experience deemed necessary by the public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate to perform telecommunications electrical work included in such employee's job functions.

(c) The content and duration of the training and experience programs provided by the public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate must be relevant to the duties of the employee and must be approved biennially by the Labor Department. In reviewing the programs and training provided by a public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate, the Labor Department shall consider the specialization of the employees of the company or provider, the employee's previous company or provider training, the service record of the company or provider, the experience of the company or provider in training employees to perform telecommunications electrical work, and the quality assurance measures used by the company or provider.

(d) An employee enrolled in the training programs of the public service company or certified telecommunications provider shall be issued a trainee's certificate by such company or provider, valid for the duration of the training program, and may perform telecommunications electrical work only under the supervision of an employee of the public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate who is a registered public service technician or holds a journeyman's license.

(e) A public service company or certified telecommunications provider employing a public service technician shall inform the Department of Consumer Protection upon the change in job description or termination of any registered public service technician previously certified to the department pursuant to subsection (b) of this section and upon the issuance or termination of a trainee's certificate provided to an employee pursuant to subsection (d) of this section.

(f) A registered public service technician or employee of a public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate issued a trainee's certificate by such company or provider may only perform such work on behalf of such public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate and only while in the direct employment of such public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate. Such registration or trainee's certificate will be immediately relinquished upon termination of employment from such public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate.

(g) A registered public service technician may not supervise any duly registered apprentice performing work under a permit issued pursuant to subdivision (4) of subsection (a) of section 20-334a .

(h) The public service technician's registration shall expire annually. The fee for registration as a public service technician shall be the same fee as that charged for a journeyman's license under section 20-335 .

(i) Registered public service technicians shall be subject to the same disciplinary actions as journeymen, including, but not limited to, actions authorized under sections 20-334 , 20-341 and 21a-9 .

(j) Supervisory personnel of a public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate authorized to employ registered public service technicians pursuant to this section may act as an agent of such company or provider for the purpose of taking out a permit pursuant to section 20-332-16(b) of the regulations of Connecticut state agencies.

(k) In lieu of displaying a contractor's license number pursuant to section 20-334 , each public service company, certified telecommunications provider or affiliate authorized pursuant to this section to employ registered public service technicians shall display its name, logo or other trademark which clearly identifies the company or provider on all commercial vehicles used in its business and in a conspicuous manner on all printed advertisements, bid proposals, contracts and invoices and on all stationery used in its business.

See Sec. 20-334a(i) re installation, service and repair of residential security systems.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-631 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-631
Sec. 20-631. Collaborative drug therapy care plans, management agreements and policies. Scope. Care-giving institutions, devices and qualified pharmacists. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(1) “Care-giving institution” has the same meaning as provided in section 20-571 ;

(2) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection;

(3) “Collaborative drug therapy care plan” means a written document memorializing the outcome of the process through which one or more qualified pharmacists and one or more prescribing practitioners discuss, review and agree on an approach to achieve a patient's desired health outcome;

(4) “Collaborative drug therapy management agreement” means an agreement between one or more qualified pharmacists and one or more prescribing practitioners to manage the drug therapy of, and devices prescribed to, individual patients, or a patient population, based on a written protocol or a collaborative drug therapy care plan;

(5) “Collaborative drug therapy management policy” means a written policy adopted by a care-giving institution under which one or more qualified pharmacists manage the drug therapy of, and devices prescribed to, individual patients, or a patient population, based on a written protocol or a collaborative drug therapy care plan;

(6) “Device” has the same meaning as provided in section 20-571 ;

(7) “Pharmacist” has the same meaning as provided in section 20-571 ;

(8) “Prescribing practitioner” has the same meaning as provided in section 20-571 ;

(9) “Provider-patient relationship” means a relationship between a prescribing practitioner and a patient in which (A) the patient has made a medical complaint, (B) the patient has provided such patient's medical history, (C) the patient has received a physical examination, and (D) there exists a logical connection between such medical complaint, medical history and physical examination and any drug or device prescribed for such patient; and

(10) “Qualified pharmacist” means a pharmacist who (A) is deemed competent under regulations adopted by the commissioner pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, and (B) has reviewed the latest edition of the “Pharmacists' Patient Care Process” published by the Joint Commission of Pharmacy Practitioners.

(b) Except as provided in section 20-631b , one or more qualified pharmacists may enter into a collaborative drug therapy management agreement or manage the drug therapy of, and devices prescribed to, individual patients, or a patient population, under a collaborative drug therapy management policy. In order to enter into a collaborative drug therapy management agreement or collaborative drug therapy care plan, or operate under a collaborative drug therapy management policy, a prescribing practitioner shall first establish a provider-patient relationship with the patient or patients who will receive collaborative drug therapy or devices. Each patient's collaborative drug therapy or device management shall be based on a diagnosis made by such patient's prescribing practitioner or a specific test set forth in a collaborative drug therapy management agreement or collaborative drug therapy management policy.

(c) A collaborative drug therapy management agreement or collaborative drug therapy management policy may authorize a qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists to initiate, modify, continue, discontinue or deprescribe a drug therapy, or initiate, continue or discontinue use of, or deprescribe, a device, that has been prescribed for a patient, order associated laboratory tests and administer drugs, all in accordance with a patient-specific or patient population-specific written protocol or collaborative drug therapy care plan, but shall not authorize a qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists to establish a port to administer parenteral drugs. A collaborative drug therapy management agreement or collaborative drug therapy management policy may specifically address issues that may arise during a medication reconciliation and concerns related to polypharmacy that enable an authorized qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists to initiate, modify, continue, discontinue or deprescribe drug therapy. In instances where drug therapy is discontinued or deprescribed, the qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists shall notify the prescribing practitioner of such discontinuance or deprescribing not later than twenty-four hours after such drug therapy is discontinued or deprescribed. Each written protocol or collaborative drug therapy care plan developed, pursuant to a collaborative drug therapy management agreement or collaborative drug therapy management policy, shall contain detailed direction concerning the actions that the qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists may perform for the patient or patient population. Such written protocol or collaborative drug therapy care plan shall include, but need not be limited to, (1) the specific drug or drugs, therapeutic class of drug or classes of drugs, or devices to be managed by the qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists, (2) the terms and conditions under which drug therapy may be initiated, modified, continued, discontinued or deprescribed, or use of a device may be initiated, continued or discontinued, or a device may be deprescribed, (3) the conditions and events upon which the qualified pharmacist is, or qualified pharmacists are, required to notify the prescribing practitioner, (4) the laboratory tests that may be ordered, and (5) a definition of the patient population included in such written protocol or collaborative drug therapy care plan. All activities performed by the qualified pharmacist or qualified pharmacists in conjunction with the protocol or collaborative drug therapy care plan shall be documented in the patient's medical record in accordance with the prescribing practitioner's policies or, in the case of a care-giving institution, all applicable care-giving institution policies. Each collaborative drug therapy management agreement, collaborative drug therapy management policy, written protocol and collaborative drug therapy care plan shall be available for inspection by the Department of Consumer Protection and the Department of Public Health. A copy of the protocol shall be filed in the patient's medical record.

(d) A pharmacist shall be responsible for demonstrating, in accordance with regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, the competence necessary for the pharmacist to participate in each collaborative drug therapy management agreement, collaborative drug therapy management policy and collaborative drug therapy care plan in which such pharmacist seeks to participate by, among other things, demonstrating that such pharmacist has reviewed the latest edition of the “Pharmacists' Patient Care Process” published by the Joint Commission of Pharmacy Practitioners.

(e) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, in consultation with the Commissioner of Public Health, shall (1) adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, concerning competency requirements for participation in a collaborative drug therapy management agreement, the minimum content of the collaborative drug therapy management agreement and such other matters said commissioners deem necessary to carry out the purpose of this section, and (2) on or after July 1, 2022, amend such regulations to include competency requirements for participation in a collaborative drug therapy management policy or collaborative drug therapy care plan and the minimum content of collaborative drug therapy management policies, collaborative drug therapy care plans and written protocols governing collaborative drug therapy and device management.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-222a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-222a
Sec. 20-222a. Renewal of licenses.
Status: in_force

(b) Each funeral home license issued pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall be renewed on an annual basis, except for cause, by the Department of Public Health upon payment to said department in the amount of one hundred ninety dollars for each funeral home license renewed. Fees for renewal of a funeral home license shall be given to the Department of Public Health on or before July first in each year and the renewal of the funeral home license shall begin on July first of each year and be valid for one calendar year. The department shall complete an inspection, not less than triennially, of each place of business that has been issued a funeral home license.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-265f — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-265f
Sec. 20-265f. Combination license as an esthetician, an eyelash technician or a nail technician.
Status: in_force

(b) Any combination license issued under this section shall expire in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 and may be renewed every two years, for a fee of one hundred dollars. No person shall carry on the occupation of esthetician, eyelash technician or nail technician, as applicable, after the expiration of such person's license.

(c) No license issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint in any state or jurisdiction.

(d) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-600 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-600
Sec. 20-600. (Formerly Sec. 20-174b). Continuing education: Requirements; renewal of licenses; regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a pharmacist who applies for the first year of a license to practice pharmacy.

(c) A pharmacist submitting an application for renewal of a license to practice pharmacy, whose license has lapsed and who has not held a license authorized by the commission and issued by the department for more than two years, shall submit a statement signed under the penalty of false statement that the pharmacist has satisfactorily completed the requirements of this section in each of the years in the two-year period prior to the year of the application for renewal.

(d) A pharmacist who applies for renewal of a license to practice pharmacy shall retain all certificates of approved continuing education units for a period of not less than three years after the date on which such license is renewed. A pharmacist shall, upon the request of the department, and to satisfy the results of a random audit, make such certificates available to the department for purposes of verification.

(e) Continuing education units earned in one calendar year shall not be carried forward into the next calendar year for the purpose of fulfilling the subsequent year's accredited continuing professional education requirement for license renewal.

(f) A pharmacist who was unable to comply with the requirements of this section for reasons such as illness, incapacity or other extenuating circumstances may apply for a waiver of the requirements of this section or for an extension of time to fulfill the requirements of this section. A pharmacist who requests such a waiver or extension of time shall submit the request, in writing, to the department with the license renewal application. The department shall forward such a request to the commission for its consideration. If the commission waives the requirements of this section, the commission shall authorize the department to renew the license of such a pharmacist. If the commission extends the time for compliance with the requirements of this section, the commission shall authorize the department to renew the license, subject to the pharmacist's complying with the requirements of this section within the extended time period. If the pharmacist fails to comply with such requirements within the extended time period, the commission shall revoke or suspend the license.

(g) The commission may authorize the department to waive the requirements of this section and renew the license of a retired pharmacist provided the license is designated as an inactive license. A retired pharmacist holding an inactive license shall be required to obtain thirty hours of continuing education, not less than ten hours of which shall be earned by attendance at a live presentation, and apply for and receive a license to practice pharmacy issued pursuant to sections 20-570 to 20-630 , inclusive, before the retired pharmacist reenters the active practice of pharmacy.

(h) The commissioner, with the advice and assistance of the commission, may adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-633h — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-633h
Sec. 20-633h. Unscheduled closings by licensed pharmacies. Plan. Disclosures. Prescription transfers. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) Each pharmacy shall maintain a plan to manage unscheduled closings. Such plan shall be reviewed and updated, if necessary, on an annual basis, and be provided to, and reviewed with, all pharmacy personnel on an annual basis. Such plan shall include:

(1) The name of the individual who is responsible for notifying the Commission of Pharmacy of an unscheduled closing;

(2) The name of the individual who is responsible for updating the hours of operation in the pharmacy's electronic record system to prevent acceptance of electronically transmitted prescriptions during an unscheduled closing;

(3) The name of the individual who is responsible for updating the pharmacy's telephone system during an unscheduled closing to (A) prevent the acceptance of orally transmitted prescriptions during the unscheduled closing, and (B) provide a message that alerts patients that such pharmacy will be closed and their prescriptions may be obtained from a nearby pharmacy;

(4) A list of all pharmacies that are located within a two-mile radius of the pharmacy that is experiencing an unscheduled closing, or the next closest pharmacy if there is no pharmacy within such two-mile radius; and

(5) The name of the individual who is responsible for posting, at the entrance to such pharmacy and at each entrance of the structure if such pharmacy is located within another structure, signage stating the duration of an unscheduled closing.

(c) If a pharmacy experiences an unscheduled closing, the pharmacist manager of the pharmacy or, if the pharmacy operates more than five pharmacy locations in this state, the pharmacy district manager shall:

(1) Modify such pharmacy's hours of operation in such pharmacy's electronic record system to prevent the acceptance of electronically transmitted prescriptions during the unscheduled closing;

(2) Adjust such pharmacy's telephone system to prevent the acceptance of orally transmitted prescriptions during the unscheduled closing;

(3) Provide a telephone system message alert to patients notifying patients that (A) such pharmacy is not open, and (B) patients may obtain medications from a nearby pharmacy;

(4) Post signage at the entrance to such pharmacy, and at each entrance of the structure if such pharmacy is located within another structure, (A) stating that such pharmacy is closed, (B) disclosing the duration of the unscheduled closing, and (C) providing (i) a list of all pharmacies that are located within a two-mile radius of such pharmacy, or (ii) the next closest pharmacy if there is no pharmacy within such two-mile radius; and

(5) Upon request by another pharmacy to transfer a prescription to such other pharmacy, transfer any prescription dispensed by the pharmacy experiencing the unscheduled closing and reverse any third-party payor claims associated with such prescription.

(d) Any pharmacy that verifies that another pharmacy is experiencing an unscheduled closing may, upon a patient's request, dispense a prescription that is dispensed and waiting at the pharmacy experiencing the unscheduled closing by using information obtained from the closed pharmacy, the electronic prescription drug monitoring program or another source that the pharmacist dispensing such prescription believes provides a reasonable assurance of accurate information necessary to dispense such prescription. In the event that a pharmacy dispenses a prescription during an unscheduled closing of another pharmacy:

(1) The pharmacy dispensing such prescription shall contact the pharmacy experiencing the unscheduled closing not later than twenty-four hours after such closed pharmacy reopens to transfer such prescription, in accordance with section 20-616 ;

(2) The pharmacy that experienced the unscheduled closing shall provide to the pharmacy that dispensed such prescription during such unscheduled closing all information necessary for the transfer of such prescription; and

(3) The pharmacy that experienced the unscheduled closing shall reverse any third-party payor claims associated with such transferred prescription not later than twenty-four hours after such pharmacy reopens.

(e) The Department of Consumer Protection shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall include, but need not be limited to, provisions for the placement of a secured container at a pharmacy that allows patients to, during the hours in which the pharmacy may be open or closed, obtain prescriptions that were dispensed by such pharmacy. Prior to the effective date of such regulations, the department may temporarily permit the use and placement of a secured container at a pharmacy, provided the pharmacy submits to the department, for the department's approval, written protocols prior to placing, providing access to or using the secured container and such pharmacy receives written approval from the department for such placement, access or use. To obtain temporary approval under this subsection, a secure container shall:

(1) Weigh more than seven hundred fifty pounds or be affixed to the physical structure of the building where the pharmacy is located, and be located immediately adjacent to the portion of such building where such pharmacy is located;

(2) Only permit access to authorized pharmacy personnel or individuals retrieving the prescriptions with a unique identification system;

(3) Be under video surveillance at all times;

(4) Be capable of maintaining a record of all products that are placed inside of the secure container, and the date and time each individual prescription is accessed; and

(5) Comply with any other protocol required by the department to ensure patient confidentiality, ensure public health and safety and prevent diversion.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-14r — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 370 / Section 20-14r
Sec. 20-14r. Voluntary nonopioid directive form. Establishment and publication. Immunity from liability.
Status: in_force

(1) “Opioid drug” has the same meaning as provided in 42 CFR 8.2, as amended from time to time;

(2) “Prescribing practitioner” has the same meaning as provided in section 20-14c ; and

(3) “Voluntary nonopioid directive form” means a form that is voluntarily filed by a patient with a prescribing practitioner that indicates such patient's request to not be issued a prescription or medication order for an opioid drug.

(b) The Department of Public Health, in consultation with the Departments of Consumer Protection and Mental Health and Addiction Services, shall establish a voluntary nonopioid directive form and publish such form on its Internet web site for public use. Any person who does not wish to be issued a prescription or medication order for an opioid drug may file such form with a prescribing practitioner. Upon receipt of a voluntary nonopioid directive form, a prescribing practitioner shall document such receipt in the patient's medical record.

(c) The voluntary nonopioid directive form established by the Department of Public Health shall allow a patient to appoint a duly authorized guardian or health care proxy to override a previously recorded voluntary nonopioid directive form. Such patient, duly authorized guardian or health care proxy may revoke the directive, orally or in writing, for any reason, at any time.

(d) An electronically transmitted prescription to a pharmacy shall be presumed to be valid for the purposes of this section and a pharmacist shall not be held in violation of this section for dispensing a controlled substance in contradiction to a voluntary nonopioid directive form.

(e) No prescribing practitioner acting with reasonable care shall be liable for damages in a civil action, subject to criminal prosecution or deemed to have violated the standard of care for such prescribing practitioner for refusing to issue a prescription or medication order for an opioid pursuant to a voluntary nonopioid directive form.

(f) No person acting in good faith as a duly authorized guardian or health care proxy shall be liable for damages in a civil action or subject to criminal prosecution for revoking or overriding a voluntary nonopioid directive form.

(g) A prescribing practitioner who wilfully fails to comply with a patient's voluntary nonopioid directive form may be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to section 19a-17 .

(h) No emergency department prescribing practitioner, acting either as the patient's practitioner or as the medical control officer for emergency medical services personnel, and acting with reasonable care shall be liable for damages in a civil action, subject to criminal prosecution or deemed to have violated the standard of care for a prescribing practitioner for issuing a prescription for or administering a controlled substance containing an opioid to a person who has a voluntary nonopioid directive form, when, in such prescribing practitioner's professional medical judgment, a controlled substance containing an opioid is necessary and such prescribing practitioner had no knowledge of the patient's voluntary nonopioid directive form at the time of issuance or administration.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-439 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400a / Section 20-439
Sec. 20-439. Asbestos training providers. Certification by department. Training programs. Approval. Fees. Periodic reviews.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 19a-332 for applicable definitions.

See Sec. 52-577a for statute of limitations on claims based on exposure to asbestos.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-123c — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 379 / Section 20-123c
Sec. 20-123c. Point-of-service test for HbA1c percentage.
Status: in_force

(1) “Point-of-service test” means diagnostic testing performed at the site where patients will receive care or treatment; and

(2) “HbA1c percentage” means the proportion of hemoglobin to which glucose is attached and measures the average circulating blood glucose level over the previous two to three-month period.

(b) A dentist licensed under this chapter may, during an office visit or prior to a procedure and with a patient's consent, administer an in-office point-of-service test to the patient to measure the patient's HbA1c percentage utilizing a finger-stick measurement tool if such patient is at an increased risk of diabetes and does not have a previous diagnosis of diabetes. A dentist who does not administer such test pursuant to this section shall not be deemed to have violated the standard of care for a dentist. The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to carry out the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-27 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 372 / Section 20-27
Sec. 20-27. License.
Status: in_force

(b) Examination. Qualifications. No person shall receive a license until he has passed an examination prescribed by the Department of Public Health, with the advice and consent of the Board of Chiropractic Examiners, except as hereinafter provided. Any person desiring to practice chiropractic shall make application to the department upon such form as the department adopts. Applications shall be in writing, signed by the applicant and shall contain a statement of the educational advantages of the applicant, his experience in matters pertaining to a knowledge of the care of the sick, the length of time applied and the school in which he studied chiropractic, any collateral branch of study and the length of time engaged in clinical practice and any diploma, certificate or degree which has been conferred upon such applicant. Each applicant shall present to the department satisfactory evidence that he graduated from an approved high school or possessed educational qualifications equivalent to those required for graduation from such school before beginning the study of chiropractic and that he graduated with the degree of doctor of chiropractic from an accredited college of chiropractic approved by said board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, as provided herein, that, if he graduated prior to July 1, 1932, he has been a resident student in such an approved chiropractic college or colleges during three graded courses of six months each, each of which courses shall have included not less than nine hundred class hours, that, if he graduated after July 1, 1932, he has been a resident student in such an approved chiropractic college or colleges during four graded courses of eight months each, totaling not less than three thousand six hundred hours, and that, if he graduated after July 1, 1955, he has been a resident student in such an approved chiropractic college or colleges during four graded courses of eight months each, totaling not less than four thousand hours. On and after July 1, 1960, each applicant shall present to said department satisfactory evidence that before beginning the study of chiropractic he has completed at least two academic years or sixty semester hours of study leading to a baccalaureate degree in a college or university approved by said board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health. Said department shall issue a license to each applicant who passes the examination and who has met all other requirements of this chapter and any regulations adopted hereunder. There shall be paid to the department by each applicant a fee of five hundred sixty-five dollars. The examination shall be administered by the Department of Public Health under the supervision of the board. Passing scores shall be established by the department with the consent of the board.

(c) Licensure without written examination. The Department of Public Health may grant a license without written examination to any currently practicing, competent licensee from any other state having licensure requirements substantially similar to, or higher than, those of this state, who (1) is a graduate of an accredited school of chiropractic approved by said board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, (2) presents evidence satisfactory to the department that he has completed a course of two academic years or sixty semester hours of study in a college or scientific school approved by the board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, and (3) successfully passes the practical examination provided for in subsection (a) of section 20-28 . In addition, the department may issue a license without written or practical examination to a chiropractor who holds a current valid license in good standing issued after examination by another state or territory that maintains licensing standards that, except for examination, are commensurate with this state's standards and who has worked continuously as a licensed chiropractor in an academic or clinical setting for a period of not less than five years immediately preceding the date of application for licensure without examination. There shall be paid to the department by each such applicant a fee of five hundred sixty-five dollars. No license shall be issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint. The department shall inform the board of the applications it receives for licenses under this section.

(d) Issuance of license. List of approved schools. Any person who has passed the prescribed examination shall receive from said department a license, which license shall include a statement that the person named therein is qualified to practice chiropractic. Any person practicing chiropractic in this state under a license granted by the Board of Chiropractic Examiners previous to July 1, 1927, shall, upon filing such license, together with the statement provided for, with the Department of Public Health, receive from said department a license. Said board shall file, annually, with the Department of Public Health, a list of accredited chiropractic colleges or institutions approved by said board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health.

See Sec. 19a-88 re annual renewal of licenses.

See Sec. 19a-89 re notification of change in office or residence address.

Cited. 211 C. 508; 220 C. 86.

Compared with Sec. 20-37. 14 CS 199. The court may refuse to compel commissioner to issue a certificate of registration if certificate issued by the board was falsely obtained. 19 CS 462.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-13 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 370 / Section 20-13
Sec. 20-13. Issuance of license.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 19a-88 re annual renewal of licenses.

Cited. 207 C. 346; 235 C. 128; 239 C. 574.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-319 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-319
Sec. 20-319. Disclosures re representation, agency relationships, confidentiality and fair housing. Regulations. Fee.
Status: in_force

(b) There are hereby established two-year renewal licenses to be issued by the department to real estate licensees. Each real estate licensee who files an application with the department seeking a two-year renewal license shall fulfill a continuing education requirement. Each applicant for a two-year renewal license shall, in addition to the other requirements imposed by the provisions of this chapter, submit to the commission or department proof that such applicant is in compliance with the continuing education requirements established in this section. Each real estate licensee shall pay a biennial eight-dollar continuing education processing fee to cover the administrative costs associated with reviewing and auditing continuing education submissions. The continuing education requirement for real estate licensees may be satisfied by successful completion of any of the following during the two-year period preceding a renewal: (1) A course or courses, approved by the commission or department, of continuing education in current real estate practices and licensing laws, including, but not limited to, practices and laws concerning common interest communities, consisting of not less than twelve hours of classroom study; or (2) a written examination prepared and administered by either the department, or by a national testing service approved by the department, which demonstrates a knowledge of current real estate practices and licensing laws; or (3) equivalent continuing educational experience or study as determined by regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (d) of this section. An applicant for examination under subdivision (2) of this subsection shall pay the required examination fee to the national testing service, if administered by such testing service, or to the department, if administered by the department.

(c) If the commission or department refuses to grant a two-year renewal license, the licensee or applicant, upon written notice received as provided for in this chapter, may have recourse to any of the remedies provided by sections 20-314 and 20-322 .

(d) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection, in consultation with the commission, shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to establish continuing education requirements. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to: (1) Specifications for meeting equivalent continuing educational experience or study; and (2) exceptions from continuous education requirements for reasons of health or instances of individual hardship.

(e) If a real estate licensee fails to satisfy the continuing education requirements established pursuant to this section for any two-year license period, the real estate licensee shall pay to the department a fee in the amount of:

(1) Three hundred fifteen dollars if such licensee reports to the department, in a form and manner prescribed by the department, that such real estate licensee failed to satisfy such continuing education requirements during such license period but completed such continuing education requirements not later than two months after such license period expired; or

(2) Six hundred twenty-five dollars if such licensee reports to the department, in a form and manner prescribed by the department, that such real estate licensee failed to satisfy such continuing education requirements during such license period but completed such continuing education requirements more than two months after such license period expired but not later than four months after such license period expired.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-28 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 372 / Section 20-28
Sec. 20-28. Examination. Scope of practice.
Status: in_force

(b) Any chiropractor who has complied with the provisions of this chapter may:

(1) Practice chiropractic as defined in section 20-24 , but shall not prescribe for or administer to any person any medicine or drug included in materia medica, except vitamins, or perform any surgery or practice obstetrics or osteopathy;

(2) Examine, analyze and diagnose the human living body and its diseases, and use for diagnostic purposes the x-ray or any other general method of examination for diagnosis and analysis taught in any school or college of chiropractic which has been recognized and approved by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners;

(3) Treat the human body by manual, mechanical, electrical or natural methods, including acupuncture, or by use of physical means, including light, heat, water or exercise in preparation for chiropractic adjustment or manipulation, and by the oral administration of foods, food concentrates, food extracts or vitamins;

(4) Administer first aid and, incidental to the care of the sick, advise and instruct patients in all matters pertaining to hygiene and sanitary measures as taught and approved by recognized chiropractic schools and colleges.

See Sec. 19a-565b re analysis of chiropractic specimens by licensed clinical laboratories.

Cited. 220 C. 86.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-341u — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393b / Section 20-341u
Sec. 20-341u. Application for certificate of registration. Fee.
Status: in_force

(b) Each application for a certificate of registration under this section shall be accompanied by a fee of one hundred ten dollars.

(c) All applicants for a certificate of registration under this section shall submit satisfactory proof establishing that the applicant:

(1) Has fulfilled all of its obligations to the state and is current on all tax payments to the state; and

(2) Employs only persons licensed or registered pursuant to chapter 393 and agrees that all work shall be performed in accordance with said chapter.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-223 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-223
Sec. 20-223. Embalmers may act as funeral directors.
Status: in_force

Not retrospective in operation. 129 C. 132. Former statute unconstitutional in part. Id., 134.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-195aa — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 383c / Section 20-195aa
Sec. 20-195aa. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Licensed professional counselor” or “professional counselor” means a person who has been licensed as a professional counselor pursuant to this chapter;

(2) “Licensed professional counselor associate” or “professional counselor associate” means a person who has been licensed as a professional counselor associate pursuant to this chapter;

(3) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health;

(4) “Department” means the Department of Public Health;

(5) “Professional counseling” means the application, by persons trained in counseling, of established principles of psycho-social development and behavioral science to the evaluation, assessment, analysis, diagnosis and treatment of emotional, behavioral or interpersonal dysfunction or difficulties that interfere with mental health and human development. “Professional counseling” includes, but is not limited to, individual, group, marriage and family counseling, functional assessments for persons adjusting to a disability, appraisal, crisis intervention and consultation with individuals or groups;

(6) “Under professional supervision” means the practice of professional counseling under the supervision of a licensed professional counselor, a physician licensed pursuant to chapter 370, who is certified in psychiatry by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378, who is certified as a psychiatric and mental health clinical nurse specialist or nurse practitioner by the American Nurses Credentialing Center, a psychologist licensed pursuant to chapter 383, a marital and family therapist licensed pursuant to chapter 383a or a licensed clinical social worker licensed pursuant to chapter 383b;

(7) “Direct professional supervision” means face-to-face consultation between one supervisor, who is a professional described in subdivision (6) of this section, and one person receiving supervision that consists of not less than a monthly review with a written evaluation and assessment by the supervisor of such person's practice of professional counseling; and

(8) “Related mental health field” means social work, marriage and family therapy or psychology.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-338 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-338
Sec. 20-338. License as contractor and journeyman. Valid throughout state.
Status: in_force

If plaintiff is properly licensed by state, defendant city must grant him a work permit to do plumbing within its limits. 26 CS 329.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-678 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400o / Section 20-678
Sec. 20-678. Prospective employees required to submit to comprehensive background check. Restrictions on offers of employment or contracts. Written statements re prior criminal convictions or disciplinary action. Federal form required. Maintenance and inspection of records.
Status: in_force

(b) Each homemaker-companion agency shall require that a prospective employee complete and sign a form which contains questions as to whether the prospective employee was convicted of a crime involving violence or dishonesty in a state court or federal court in any state; or was subject to any decision imposing disciplinary action by a licensing agency in any state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory or a foreign jurisdiction. Any prospective employee who makes a false written statement regarding such prior criminal convictions or disciplinary action shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

(c) Each homemaker-companion agency shall require any employee, after accepting an offer of employment or execution of a contract with such agency to perform services for such agency, to submit a completed and verified United States Citizenship and Immigration Services Form I-9 to the homemaker-companion agency.

(d) Each homemaker-companion agency shall maintain a paper or electronic copy of any materials obtained during the comprehensive background check and shall make such records available for inspection upon request of the Department of Consumer Protection. Each homemaker-companion agency shall notify, in writing, all individuals receiving services of the agency's comprehensive background check policy and cite to the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-327b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-327b
Sec. 20-327b. Residential condition reports. Exemptions. Templates.
Status: in_force

(b) The following shall be exempt from the provisions of this section: (1) Any transfer from one or more co-owners solely to one or more of the co-owners; (2) transfers made to the spouse, mother, father, brother, sister, child, grandparent or grandchild of the transferor where no consideration is paid; (3) transfers of newly-constructed residential real property for which an implied warranty is provided under chapter 827; (4) transfers made by executors, administrators, trustees or conservators; (5) transfers by the federal government, any political subdivision thereof or any corporation, institution or quasi-governmental agency chartered by the federal government; (6) transfers by this state; (7) except as provided in subsections (g) and (h) of this section, transfers by any political subdivision of this state; (8) transfers of property which was the subject of a contract or option entered into prior to January 1, 1996; and (9) except as provided in subsections (g) and (h) of this section, any transfer of property acquired by a judgment of strict foreclosure or by foreclosure by sale or by a deed in lieu of foreclosure.

(c) The provisions of this section shall apply only to transfers by sale, exchange or lease with option to buy, of residential real property consisting of not less than one nor more than four dwelling units which shall include cooperatives and condominiums, and shall apply to all transfers, with or without the assistance of a licensed real estate broker or salesperson, as defined in section 20-311 .

(d) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall, within available appropriations, prescribe the written residential condition reports required by this section and sections 20-327c to 20-327e , inclusive. The written residential condition reports shall be based upon templates that the commissioner shall prescribe. Such templates shall: Fit on pages being not more than eight and one-half inches in height and eleven inches in width, with type size no smaller than nine-point type, other than checkboxes or section headers, which may be in a smaller size; include the address of the subject property on each page; include page numbers on each page; include section headings in bold type and include space for the buyer and the seller's initials on each page, except the signature page. Each written residential condition report, other than the written residential condition report required pursuant to subsections (g) and (h) of this section, shall contain the following, in the order indicated:

(1) A section entitled “Instructions to Sellers”

You MUST answer ALL questions to the best of your knowledge.

Identify/Disclose any problems regarding the subject property.

YOUR REAL ESTATE LICENSEE CANNOT COMPLETE THIS FORM ON YOUR BEHALF.

UNK means Unknown, N/A means Not Applicable.

If you need additional space to complete any answer or explanation, attach additional page(s) to this form. Include subject property address, seller's name and the date.

(2) Pursuant to the Uniform Property Condition Disclosure Act, the seller is obligated to answer the following questions and to disclose herein any knowledge of any problem regarding the following:

(A) A subsection entitled “Subject Property”

(i) Name of seller(s)

(ii) Street address, municipality, zip code

(B) A subsection entitled “General Information”

(i) Indicate the YEAR the structure was built:

(ii) Indicate HOW LONG you have occupied the property: If not applicable, indicate with N/A.

(iii) Does anyone else claim to own any part of your property, including, but not limited to, any encroachment(s)? If YES, explain:

(iv) Does anyone other than you have or claim to have any right to use any part of your property, including, but not limited to, any easement or right-of-way? If YES, explain:

(v) Is the property in a flood hazard area or an inland wetlands area? If YES, explain:

(vi) Are you aware of the presence of a dam on the property that has been or is required to be registered with the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection? If YES, explain:

(vii) Do you have any reason to believe that the municipality in which the subject property is located may impose any assessment for purposes such as sewer installation, sewer improvements, water main installation, water main improvements, sidewalks or other improvements? If YES, explain:

(viii) Is the property located in a municipally designated village district, municipally designated historic district or listed on the National Register of Historic Places? If YES, explain:

(ix) Special Statement: Information concerning village districts and historic districts may be obtained from the municipality's village or historic district commission, if applicable.

(x) Is the property located in a special tax district? If YES, explain:

(xi) Is the property subject to any type of land use restrictions, other than those contained within the property's chain of title or that are necessary to comply with state laws or municipal zoning? If YES, explain:

(xii) Is the property located in a common interest community? If YES, is it subject to any community or association dues or fees? Please explain:

(xiii) Do you have any knowledge of prior or pending litigation, government agency or administrative actions, orders or liens on the property related to the release of any hazardous substance? If YES, explain:

(C) A subsection entitled “Leased Equipment”

Does the property include any Leased or Rented Equipment that would necessitate or obligate either of the following: The assignment or transfer of the lease or rental agreement(s) to the buyer or the replacement or substitution of the equipment by the buyer? If YES, indicate by checking ALL items that apply: PROPANE FUEL TANK; WATER HEATER; SECURITY ALARM SYSTEM; FIRE ALARM SYSTEM; SATELLITE DISH ANTENNA; WATER TREATMENT SYSTEM; SOLAR DEVICES; MAJOR APPLIANCES; OTHER

(D) A subsection entitled “Mechanical/Utility Systems”

(i) Heating system problems? If YES, explain. List Fuel Types.

(ii) Hot water heater Type: Age: Hot water problems? If YES, explain:

(iii) Is there an underground storage tank? If YES, give AGE of tank and LOCATION.

(iv) Are you aware of any problems with the underground storage tank? If YES, explain:

(v) During the time you have owned the property, has there ever been an underground storage tank located on the property? If YES, has it been removed? If YES, what was the date of removal and what was the name and address of the person or business who removed such underground storage tank? Provide any and all written documentation of such removal within your control or possession by attaching a copy of such documentation to this form.

(vi) Air conditioning problems? If YES, explain: Air conditioning Type: Central; Window; Other

(vii) Plumbing system problems? If YES, explain:

(viii) Electrical System problems? If YES, explain:

(ix) Electronic security system problems? If YES, explain:

(x) Are there carbon monoxide or smoke detectors located in a dwelling on the property? If YES, state the NUMBER of such detectors and whether there have been problems with such detectors;

(xi) Fire sprinkler system problems? If YES, explain:

(E) A subsection entitled “Water System”

(i) Domestic Water System Type: Public; Private Well; Other

(ii) If Public Water:

(I) Is there a separate expense/fee for water usage? If YES, is the expense/fee for water usage flat or metered? Give the AMOUNT and explain:

(II) Are there any UNPAID water charges? If YES, state the amount unpaid:

(iii) If Private Well:

Has the well water been tested for contaminants/volatile organic compounds? If YES, attach a copy of the report.

(iv) If Public Water or Private Well: Are you aware of any problems with the well, or with the water quality, quantity, recovery, or pressure? If YES, explain:

(F) A subsection entitled “Sewage Disposal System”

(i) Sewage Disposal System Type: Public; Septic; Cesspool; Other

(ii) If Public Sewer:

(I) Is there a separate charge made for sewer use? If YES, is it Flat or Metered?

(II) If it is a Flat amount, state amount and due dates:

(III) Are there any UNPAID sewer charges? If any unpaid sewer charges, state the amount:

(iii) If Private:

(I) Name of service company

(II) Date last pumped: AND frequency:

(III) For any sewage system, are there problems? If YES, explain:

(G) A subsection entitled “Asbestos/Lead”

(i) Are asbestos containing insulation or building materials present? If YES, location:

(ii) Is lead paint present? If YES, location:

(iii) Is lead plumbing present? If YES, location:

(H) A subsection entitled “Building/Structure/Improvements”

(i) Is the foundation made of concrete? If NO, explain:

(ii) Foundation/Slab problems or settling? If YES, explain:

(iii) Basement Water Seepage/Dampness? If YES, explain Amount, Frequency and Location:

(iv) Sump pump problems? If YES, explain:

(v) Do you have any knowledge of any testing or inspection done by a licensed professional related to a foundation on the property? If YES, disclose the testing or inspection method, the areas or locations that were tested or inspected, the results of such testing or inspection and attach a copy of the report concerning such testing or inspection.

(vi) Do you have any knowledge of any repairs related to a foundation on the property? If YES, describe such repairs, disclose the areas repaired and attach a copy of the report concerning such repairs.

(vii) Do you have any knowledge related to the presence of pyrrhotite in a foundation on the property? If YES, explain:

(viii) Roof type; Age?

(ix) Roof leaks? If YES, explain:

(x) Exterior siding problems? If YES, explain:

(xi) Chimney, Fireplace, Wood or Coal Stove problems? If YES, explain:

(xii) Patio/deck problems? If YES, explain:

(xiii) If constructed of Wood, is the Wood Treated or Untreated?

(xiv) Driveway problems? If YES, explain:

(xv) Water drainage problems? If YES, explain:

(xvi) Interior Floor, Wall and/or Ceiling problems? If YES, explain:

(xvii) Fire and/or Smoke damage? If YES, explain:

(xviii) Termite, Insect, Rodent or Pest Infestation problems? If YES, explain:

(xix) Rot or Water damage problems? If YES, explain:

(xx) Is house insulated? If YES, Type: Location:

(xxi) Has a test for Radon been performed? If YES, attach a copy of the report.

(xxii) Is there a Radon Control System in place? If YES, explain:

(xxiii) Has a Radon control system been in place in the previous 12 months? If YES, explain:

(I) The Seller should attach additional pages to further explain any item(s) above. Indicate here the number of additional pages attached:

(J) Questions contained in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of this subdivision shall contain checkboxes indicating “yes”, “no”, “not applicable” or “unknown”.

(3) The written residential condition report shall contain the following immediately below the questions contained in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of subdivision (2) of this subsection:

A certification by the seller in the following form:

SELLER'S CERTIFICATION

“To the extent of the seller's knowledge as a property owner, the seller acknowledges that the information contained above is true and accurate for those areas of the property listed. In the event a real estate broker or salesperson is utilized, the seller authorizes the brokers or salespersons to provide the above information to prospective buyers, selling agents or buyers' agents.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-250 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-250
Sec. 20-250. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Board” means the Connecticut Examining Board for Barbers, Hairdressers and Cosmeticians established under section 20-235a ;

(2) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health;

(3) “Department” means the Department of Public Health;

(4) “Hairdressing and cosmetology” means the art of dressing, arranging, curling, waving, weaving, cutting, singeing, bleaching and coloring the hair and treating the scalp of any person, and massaging, cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising or beautifying with the use of the hands, appliances, cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, lotions, creams, powders, oils or clays and doing similar work on the face, neck and arms for compensation, removing hair from the face or neck using manual or mechanical means, excluding esthetics, as defined in section 20-265a or any of the actions listed in this subdivision performed on the nails of the hands or feet, provided nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit an unlicensed person from performing shampooing or braiding hair;

(5) “Registered hairdresser and cosmetician” means any person who (A) has successfully completed the ninth grade, and (B) holds a license to practice as a registered hairdresser and cosmetician; and

(6) “Student” means any person who is engaged in learning or acquiring a knowledge of hairdressing and cosmetology at a school approved in accordance with the provisions of this chapter who has successfully completed ninth grade or its equivalent. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to schools conducted by the State Board of Education.

Cited. 113 C. 563.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-358 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 395 / Section 20-358
Sec. 20-358. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Environmental health” means the study, art and technique of applying scientific knowledge for the improvement of the environment of man for his health and welfare;

(2) “Environmental health specialist” means a person trained in environmental health who is qualified to carry out educational and investigational duties in the fields of environmental health such as investigation of air, water, sewage, foodstuffs, housing and refuse by observing, sampling, testing and reporting and who is licensed pursuant to section 20-361 ; and

(3) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-428 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400 / Section 20-428
Sec. 20-428. Exemptions.
Status: in_force

Cited. 224 C. 231; 240 C. 654.

Cited. 33 CA 294; 42 CA 124. Licensed professional exemption applied to professional engineer who drew up plans for home addition and supervised construction. 123 CA 10.

Subdiv. (4):

Cited. 40 CA 351. Licensed public adjusters are exempt from act pursuant to Subdiv. 58 CA 8. Licensed professional exemption applies to plumber's activities to restore site to its original condition which were ancillary to plumbing work for which he was licensed. 115 CA 457.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-528 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400g / Section 20-528
Sec. 20-528. Regulations. Effective date.
Status: in_force

(b) Sections 20-311 to 20-311b , inclusive, 20-311d , 20-311e , 20-312 , 20-312b to 20-314b , inclusive, 20-316 , 20-317 , 20-319 , 20-320 to 20-324 , inclusive, 20-325 , 20-326 , 20-327a to 20-329 , inclusive, and 20-500 to 20-526 , inclusive, shall take effect on the effective date of regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (a) of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-454 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400b / Section 20-454
Sec. 20-454. Hearing on denial of certificate. Subsequent application.
Status: in_force

(b) If the applicant requests a hearing within such ten days, the department shall give notice of the grounds for its refusal to issue or renew the certificate and shall conduct a hearing concerning such refusal in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 concerning contested cases.

(c) If the department or commission's refusal of a certificate is sustained after such hearing, an applicant may make a new application not less than one year after the date on which such refusal was sustained.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-97 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 378 / Section 20-97
Sec. 20-97. Licensure without examination. Temporary permit.
Status: in_force

(b) The Department of Public Health may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for licensure without examination or to an applicant previously licensed in Connecticut whose license has become void pursuant to section 19a-88 , upon receipt of a completed application form, accompanied by the appropriate fee for licensure without examination, a copy of a current license from another state of the United States, the District of Columbia or a commonwealth or territory subject to the laws of the United States and a notarized affidavit attesting that the license is valid and belongs to the person requesting notarization. Such temporary permit shall be valid for a period not to exceed one hundred twenty calendar days and shall not be renewable. No temporary permit shall be issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-258 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-258
Sec. 20-258. Inspection of shops. Requirement for operation of shop.
Status: in_force

The registration provided for pertains to the place of business itself. 113 C. 564.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-331 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-331
Sec. 20-331. Examining boards.
Status: in_force

(b) The Electrical Work Board shall consist of twelve members who shall be residents of this state, one of whom shall be a general contractor or an unlimited contractor licensed for such occupation under this chapter, two of whom shall be unlimited contractors licensed for such occupation under this chapter, neither of whom at the time of appointment shall be a member or an employee of a member of a trade union or a party or an employee of a party to a contract with a trade union, one of whom shall be an electronic technician licensed under chapter 394, four of whom shall be unlimited journeymen licensed for such occupation under this chapter, who at the time of appointment shall be members of a trade union and four of whom shall be public members.

(c) The Heating, Piping, Cooling and Sheet Metal Work Board shall consist of twelve members who shall be residents of this state and, except as otherwise provided in this subsection, (1) one of whom shall be a general contractor or an unlimited contractor licensed to perform heating, piping and cooling work under this chapter, (2) two of whom shall be unlimited contractors licensed to perform heating, piping and cooling work under this chapter, neither of whom at the time of appointment shall be a member or an employee of a member of a trade union or a party or an employee of a party to a contract with a trade union, (3) one of whom shall be a limited contractor licensed to perform sheet metal work under this chapter, provided such member's powers and duties on the board shall be limited to matters concerning sheet metal work, as defined in subdivision (13) of section 20-330 , (4) three of whom shall be unlimited journeymen licensed to perform heating, piping and cooling work under this chapter, who at the time of appointment shall be members of a trade union, (5) one of whom shall be a journeyman sheet metal worker, who at the time of appointment shall be a member of a trade union, provided such member's powers and duties shall be limited to matters concerning sheet metal work, as defined in subdivision (13) of section 20-330 , and (6) four of whom shall be public members. Each person who is a member of the board on October 1, 1999, shall continue to serve at the pleasure of the Governor. Only the members appointed pursuant to subdivisions (1), (3), (5) and (6) of this subsection may consider and act upon matters concerning sheet metal work, as defined in subdivision (13) of section 20-330 .

(d) The Plumbing and Piping Work Board shall consist of twelve members who shall be residents of this state, one of whom shall be a general contractor or an unlimited contractor licensed for such occupations under this chapter, two of whom shall be unlimited contractors licensed for such occupations under this chapter, neither of whom at the time of appointment shall be a member or an employee of a member of a trade union or a party or an employee of a party to a contract with a trade union, one of whom shall be a well drilling contractor licensed pursuant to section 25-129 , four of whom shall be unlimited journeymen licensed for such occupations under this chapter, who at the time of appointment shall be members of a trade union, and four of whom shall be public members.

(e) The Elevator Installation, Repair and Maintenance Board shall consist of eight members who shall be residents of this state, three of whom shall be unlimited contractors, two of whom shall be elevator craftsmen, licensed for such occupation under this chapter, and three of whom shall be public members, provided at least one of the unlimited contractors shall be a member of either the National Association of Elevator Contractors or the National Elevator Industries, Incorporated.

(f) The Fire Protection Sprinkler Systems Board shall consist of nine members who shall be residents of this state, two of whom shall be journeymen sprinkler fitters, two of whom shall be fire protection sprinkler contractors, three of whom shall be public members, one of whom shall be a representative of the State Fire Marshal and one of whom shall be a local fire marshal.

(g) The Automotive Glass Work and Flat Glass Work Board shall consist of eight members who shall be residents of this state, one of whom shall be a general contractor or an unlimited contractor licensed to perform automotive glass work under this chapter, one of whom shall be a general contractor or an unlimited contractor licensed to perform flat glass work under this chapter, one of whom shall be an unlimited contractor licensed to perform automotive glass work under this chapter, one of whom shall be an unlimited contractor licensed to perform flat glass work under this chapter, one of whom shall be an unlimited journeyman licensed to perform flat glass work under this chapter and three of whom shall be public members. The initial members appointed under this subsection need not be licensed to perform such work under this chapter before January 1, 2001, provided such initial members shall satisfy the applicable criteria set forth in subsection (e) of section 20-334a . On and after January 1, 2001, each member appointed under this subsection shall be licensed as provided in this subsection.

(h) The contractor and journeymen or elevator craftsmen members of each board established under this section shall be appointed by the Governor from a list of names submitted by employers' and employees' associations in the respective occupations. The Governor may fill any vacancy occurring in the membership of any such board, may remove any member for cause, after notice and hearing, and shall remove any licensed member whose license is not renewed or whose license has become void, revoked or suspended. Each member of such boards shall, before entering upon the duties of such member's office, take the oath provided by law for public officers. Members shall not be compensated for their services but shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

See Sec. 4-9a for definition of “public member”.

See Secs. 21a-6 to 21a-10, inclusive, re control, powers and duties of boards within Department of Consumer Protection.

Cited. 209 C. 719.

Cited. 22 CA 181.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-185aa — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 382d / Section 20-185aa
Sec. 20-185aa. Surgical technologists. Definitions. Requirements for employment by health care facility. Documentation.
Status: in_force

(1) “Health care facility” means an outpatient surgical facility, as defined in section 19a-493b , or a hospital, as defined in in section 19a-490 , but does not include a chronic disease hospital, as defined in section 19a-550 ;

(2) “Health care provider” means a person or an entity that is licensed, certified or registered by the Department of Public Health to provide health care services pursuant to this title;

(3) “Surgical technologist” means a person who performs surgical technology services who is not a health care provider;

(4) “Surgical technology services” means surgical patient care including, but not limited to, one or more of the following:

(A) Preparing an operating room and the sterile operating field for surgical procedures by ensuring that surgical equipment is functioning properly and safely and using sterile techniques to prepare surgical supplies, instruments and equipment;

(B) Intraoperative anticipation and response to the needs of a surgeon and other surgical team members by monitoring the sterile operating field in an operating room and providing the required instruments or supplies; and

(C) Performance of tasks at the sterile operating field, as directed, in an operating room setting, including: (i) Passing surgical supplies, instruments and equipment directly to a health care provider; (ii) sponging or suctioning an operative site; (iii) preparing and cutting suture material; (iv) transferring and irrigating with fluids; (v) transferring, but not administering, drugs within the sterile field; and (vi) handling surgical specimens.

(b) A health care facility shall not employ or otherwise retain any person to perform surgical technology services unless such person meets one or more of the following requirements:

(1) Successfully completed a nationally accredited surgical technology program and holds and maintains certification as a surgical technologist from a national certifying body that certifies surgical technologists recognized by the Department of Public Health;

(2) (A) Successfully completed an accredited surgical technologist program, (B) has not, as of the date of hire, obtained certification as a surgical technologist from a national certifying body that certifies surgical technologists recognized by the Department of Public Health, and (C) obtains such certification not later than eighteen months after completion of such program;

(3) Performed surgical technology services as a surgical technologist in a health care facility on or before October 1, 2023, provided the health care facility employing or retaining such person as a surgical technologist under this subsection obtains proof of such person's prior experience as a surgical technologist from such person and makes it available to the Department of Public Health upon request of the department;

(4) Successfully completed a training program for surgical technology in the armed forces of the United States, the National Guard or in the United States Public Health Services; or

(5) Has been designated by the health care facility as being competent to perform surgical technology services based on specialized training or specific experience, including, but not limited to, as a phlebotomist, nuclear medical technologist, ultrasound technologist or central service technician, provided the health care facility retains a list of such designations deemed by such facility to be competent to perform such services.

(c) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a person from performing surgical technology services if such person is acting within the scope of such person's license, certification, registration, permit or designation, or is a student or intern under the direct supervision of a health care provider.

(d) Any health care facility that employs or retains a surgical technologist shall submit to the Department of Public Health, upon request of the department, documentation demonstrating that the surgical technologist is in compliance with the requirements set forth in this section.