Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-265b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 387 / Section 20-265b
Sec. 20-265b. License or permit as an esthetician. Requirements. Exemptions. Disciplinary action.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after January 1, 2020, each person seeking an initial license as an esthetician shall apply to the department on a form prescribed by the department, accompanied by an application fee of one hundred dollars and evidence that the applicant (1) has completed a course of not less than six hundred hours of study and received a certification of completion from a school approved under section 20-265g or section 20-262 or in a school outside of the state whose requirements are equivalent to a school approved under section 20-265g , or (2) (A) if applying before January 1, 2025, (i) has practiced esthetics continuously in this state for a period of not less than two years prior to July 1, 2020, or (ii) completed a course of study and received a certificate of completion from a school approved under section 20-265g and section 262, and (B) is in compliance with the infection prevention and control plan guidelines prescribed by the department under section 19a-231 in the form of an attestation.

(c) The department may grant a license under this section to any person who is licensed at the time of application as an esthetician or entitled to perform similar services under a different designation in another state of the United States, the District of Columbia or a commonwealth or territory subject to the laws of the United States and who submits evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of (1) a current license in good standing to practice as an esthetician from such other state, district, commonwealth or territory, and (2) licensed practice in such state, district, commonwealth or territory for a period of at least two years immediately preceding the application. Pending approval of the application for a license, the commissioner may issue a temporary permit to such applicant upon receipt of a completed application, the application fee in accordance with subsection (b) of this section and a copy of the current license from such other state, district, commonwealth or territory. Such temporary permit shall be valid for a period not exceeding one hundred twenty calendar days and shall not be renewable.

(d) Any license issued under this section shall expire in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 and may be renewed every two years, for a fee of one hundred dollars. No person shall carry on the occupation of esthetician after the expiration of such person's license until such person has applied to the department for a renewal of such license.

(e) No person shall use the title “esthetician” or similar title unless the person holds a license or temporary permit issued under this section.

(f) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a physician; an advanced practice registered nurse rendering service in collaboration with a physician; a registered nurse executing the medical regimen under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist or advanced practice registered nurse; a physician assistant rendering service under the supervision, control and responsibility of a physician or a student enrolled in a program at a school in the Technical Education and Career System established under section 10-95 .

(g) A person may practice temporarily as an esthetician in this state without a license or temporary permit if such person, at an event such as a professional course, seminar, workshop, trade show, or product demonstration, (1) provides instruction on techniques related to being an esthetician, or (2) participates in the demonstration of the practice of being an esthetician or a product related to such practice as part of such event, provided such person (A) is licensed or certified in the state, territory or possession of the United States or foreign country where such person primarily practices as an esthetician if such licensure or certification is required by such state, territory, possession or foreign country; (B) practices as an esthetician under the direct supervision of a licensed esthetician; (C) does not receive compensation for practicing as an esthetician in this state, other than for providing instruction for such practice to persons in attendance at the course, seminar, workshop, trade show or other event; and (D) provides instruction or demonstrates techniques or services related to practicing as an esthetician only for persons enrolled in the course, seminar or workshop or attending the trade show or other event at which such person provides instruction, demonstrates a product or offers such services. Any person or organization that holds or produces a course, seminar, workshop, trade show or other event at which estheticians without a license or temporary permit provide instruction, participate in a demonstration or offer services related to the practice of an esthetician shall ensure compliance with the provisions of this subsection.

(h) No license or temporary permit shall be issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint in any state or jurisdiction.

(i) The Commissioner of Public Health may deny an application of an individual or take any disciplinary action set forth in section 19a-17 against an esthetician for failure to conform to the accepted standards of the profession, including, but not limited to: (1) Conviction of a felony, provided any action taken is based upon (A) the nature of the conviction and its relationship to the license holder's ability to safely or competently practice as an esthetician, (B) information pertaining to the degree of rehabilitation of the license holder, and (C) the time elapsed since the conviction or release; (2) fraud or deceit in obtaining or seeking reinstatement of a license to practice as an esthetician; (3) fraud or deceit in the practice of an esthetician; (4) negligent, incompetent or wrongful conduct in professional activities; (5) physical, mental or emotional illness or disorder resulting in an inability to conform to the accepted standards of the profession; or (6) abuse or excessive use of drugs, including, alcohol, narcotics or chemicals. The commissioner may order a license holder to submit to a reasonable physical or mental examination if his or her physical or mental capacity to practice safely is the subject of an investigation. The commissioner may petition the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford to enforce such order or any action taken pursuant to section 19a-17 . The commissioner shall give notice and an opportunity to be heard on any contemplated action under section 19a-17 .

(j) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section.

(k) (1) Any individual who has been convicted of any criminal offense may request, at any time, that the commissioner determine whether such individual's criminal conviction disqualifies the individual from obtaining a certificate issued or conferred by the commissioner pursuant to this section based on (A) the nature of the conviction and its relationship to the individual's ability to safely or competently perform the duties or responsibilities associated with such license, (B) information pertaining to the degree of rehabilitation of the individual, and (C) the time elapsed since the conviction or release of the individual.

(2) An individual making such request shall include (A) details of the individual's criminal conviction, and (B) any payment required by the commissioner. The commissioner may charge a fee of not more than fifteen dollars for each request made under this subsection. The commissioner may waive such fee.

(3) Not later than thirty days after receiving a request under this subsection, the commissioner shall inform the individual making such request whether, based on the criminal record information submitted, such individual is disqualified from receiving or holding a certificate issued pursuant to this section.

(4) The commissioner is not bound by a determination made under this section, if, upon further investigation, the commissioner determines that the individual's criminal conviction differs from the information presented in the determination request.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-74s — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376b / Section 20-74s
Sec. 20-74s. Licensure and certification of alcohol and drug counselors.
Status: in_force

(1) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health;

(2) “Licensed alcohol and drug counselor” means a person licensed under the provisions of this section;

(3) “Certified alcohol and drug counselor” means a person certified under the provisions of this section;

(4) “Practice of alcohol and drug counseling” means (A) the clinical evaluation by a licensed alcohol and drug counselor of substance use disorders and co-occurring disorders, including screening, assessment and diagnosis, treatment planning, counseling, therapy, trauma-informed care and psychoeducation with individuals, families and groups in the areas of substance use disorders and co-occurring disorders, and may include, as appropriate, (i) conducting a substance use disorder screening or psychosocial history evaluation of an individual to document the individual's use of drugs prescribed for pain, other prescribed drugs, illegal drugs and alcohol to determine the individual's risk for substance abuse, (ii) developing a preliminary diagnosis for the individual based on such screening or evaluation, (iii) determining the individual's risk for abuse of drugs prescribed for pain, other prescribed drugs, illegal drugs and alcohol, (iv) developing a treatment plan and referral options for the individual to ensure the individual's recovery support needs are met, and (v) developing and submitting an opioid use consultation report to an individual's primary care provider to be reviewed by the primary care provider and included in the individual's medical record, or (B) the professional application by a certified alcohol and drug counselor of methods that assist an individual or group to develop an understanding of alcohol and drug dependency problems, define goals and plan action reflecting the individual's or group's interest, abilities and needs as affected by alcohol and drug dependency problems;

(5) “Private practice of alcohol and drug counseling” means the independent practice of alcohol and drug counseling by a licensed or certified alcohol and drug counselor who is self-employed on a full-time or part-time basis and who is responsible for that independent practice;

(6) “Self-help group” means a voluntary group of persons who offer peer support to each other in recovering from an addiction;

(7) “Supervision” means the regular on-site observation, by a licensed alcohol and drug counselor or other licensed behavioral health professional whose scope of practice includes the screening, assessment, diagnosis and treatment of substance use disorders and co-occurring disorders, of the functions and activities of an alcohol and drug counselor in the performance of his or her duties and responsibilities to include a review of the records, reports, treatment plans or recommendations with respect to an individual or group;

(8) “Substance use disorder” means the recurrent use of alcohol or drugs that leads to clinically and functionally significant impairment, including, but not limited to, health problems, disability and failure to meet major responsibilities at work, school or home; and

(9) “Co-occurring disorder” means the presence of a concurrent psychiatric or medical disorder in combination with a substance use disorder.

(b) Eligibility for licensure and certification. Except as provided in subsections (s) to (x), inclusive, of this section, no person shall engage in the practice of alcohol and drug counseling unless licensed as a licensed alcohol and drug counselor pursuant to subsection (d) of this section or certified as a certified alcohol and drug counselor pursuant to subsection (e) of this section.

(c) Private practice restricted. Except as provided in subsections (s) to (x), inclusive, of this section, no person shall engage in the private practice of alcohol and drug counseling unless (1) licensed as a licensed alcohol and drug counselor pursuant to subsection (d) of this section, or (2) certified as a certified alcohol and drug counselor pursuant to subsection (e) of this section and practicing under the supervision of a licensed alcohol and drug counselor.

(d) Licensure eligibility requirements. To be eligible for licensure as a licensed alcohol and drug counselor, an applicant shall (1) have attained a master's degree from an accredited institution of higher education in social work, marriage and family therapy, counseling, psychology or a related field approved by the commissioner that included a minimum of eighteen graduate semester hours in counseling or counseling-related subjects, except applicants holding certified clinical supervisor status by the Connecticut Certification Board, Inc. as of October 1, 1998, may substitute such certification in lieu of the master's degree requirement, and (2) have completed the certification eligibility requirements described in subsection (e) of this section.

(e) Certification eligibility requirements. To be eligible for certification by the Department of Public Health as a certified alcohol and drug counselor, an applicant shall have (1) completed three hundred hours of supervised practical training in alcohol and drug counseling that the commissioner deems acceptable; (2) completed three years of supervised paid work experience or unpaid internship that the commissioner deems acceptable that entailed working directly with alcohol and drug clients, except that a master's degree may be substituted for one year of such experience; (3) completed three hundred sixty hours of commissioner-approved education, at least two hundred forty hours of which relates to the knowledge and skill base associated with the practice of alcohol and drug counseling; and (4) successfully completed a department prescribed examination.

(f) Alternative certification eligibility requirements prior to October 1, 1998. For individuals applying for certification as an alcohol and drug counselor by the Department of Public Health prior to October 1, 1998, current certification by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services may be substituted for the certification requirements of subsection (e) of this section.

(g) Application for licensure. Fee. The commissioner shall grant a license as an alcohol and drug counselor to any applicant who furnishes satisfactory evidence that such applicant has met the requirements of subsection (d) or (o) of this section. The commissioner shall develop and provide application forms. The application fee shall be one hundred ninety dollars.

(h) Renewal of license. Fee. A license as an alcohol and drug counselor shall be renewed in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred ninety-five dollars.

(i) Application for certification. Fee. The commissioner shall grant certification as a certified alcohol and drug counselor to any applicant who furnishes satisfactory evidence that such applicant has met the requirements of subsection (e) or (o) of this section. The commissioner shall develop and provide application forms. The application fee shall be one hundred ninety dollars.

(j) Renewal of certification. Fee. A certificate as an alcohol and drug counselor may be renewed in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred ninety-five dollars.

(k) Commissioner may contract out credential information. The commissioner may contract with a qualified private organization for services that include (1) providing verification that applicants for licensure or certification have met the education, training and work experience requirements under this section; and (2) any other services that the commissioner may deem necessary.

(l) Grandfathering of licensed alcohol and drug counselors based on master's degree and former substance abuse certification; license renewal. Fee. Any person who has attained a master's level degree and is certified by the Connecticut Certification Board as a substance abuse counselor on or before July 1, 2000, shall be deemed a licensed alcohol and drug counselor. Any person so deemed shall renew such person's license pursuant to section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred ninety-five dollars.

(m) Grandfathering of certified alcohol and drug counselors based on former substance abuse certification without master's degree; certification renewal. Fee. Any person who has not attained a master's level degree and is certified by the Connecticut Certification Board as a substance abuse counselor on or before July 1, 2000, shall be deemed a certified alcohol and drug counselor. Any person so deemed shall renew such person's certification pursuant to section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred ninety-five dollars.

(n) Grandfathering of certified alcohol and drug counselors based on work experience and examination; certification renewal. Fee. Any person who is not certified by the Connecticut Certification Board as a substance abuse counselor on or before July 1, 2000, who (1) documents to the department that such person has a minimum of five years full-time or eight years part-time paid work experience, under supervision, as an alcohol and drug counselor, and (2) successfully passes a commissioner-approved examination no later than July 1, 2000, shall be deemed a certified alcohol and drug counselor. Any person so deemed shall renew such person's certification pursuant to section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred ninety-five dollars.

(o) Licensure and certification and endorsement. The commissioner may license or certify without examination any applicant who, at the time of application, is licensed or certified by a governmental agency or private organization located in another state, territory or jurisdiction whose standards, in the opinion of the commissioner, are substantially similar to, or higher than, those of this state.

(p) Title protection. No person shall assume, represent himself as, or use the title or designation “alcoholism counselor”, “alcohol counselor”, “alcohol and drug counselor”, “alcoholism and drug counselor”, “licensed clinical alcohol and drug counselor”, “licensed alcohol and drug counselor”, “licensed associate alcohol and drug counselor”, “certified alcohol and drug counselor”, “chemical dependency counselor”, “chemical dependency supervisor” or any of the abbreviations for such titles, unless licensed or certified under subsections (g) to (n), inclusive, of this section and unless the title or designation corresponds to the license or certification held.

(q) Regulations. The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to implement provisions of this section.

(r) Disciplinary action: Grounds and penalties. The commissioner may suspend, revoke or refuse to issue a license in circumstances that have endangered or are likely to endanger the health, welfare or safety of the public.

(s) Exceptions to licensure and certification. Religion. Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the activities and services of a rabbi, priest, minister, Christian Science practitioner or clergyman of any religious denomination or sect, when engaging in activities that are within the scope of the performance of the person's regular or specialized ministerial duties and for which no separate charge is made, or when these activities are performed, with or without charge, for or under the auspices or sponsorship, individually or in conjunction with others, of an established and legally cognizable church, denomination or sect, and when the person rendering services remains accountable to the established authority thereof.

(t) Exception to licensure and certification. Other health care providers. Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the activities and services of a person licensed in this state to practice medicine and surgery, psychology, marital and family therapy, clinical social work, professional counseling, advanced practice registered nursing or registered nursing, when such person is acting within the scope of the person's license and doing work of a nature consistent with that person's license, provided the person does not hold himself or herself out to the public as possessing a license or certification issued pursuant to this section.

(u) Exceptions to licensure and certification. Students. Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the activities and services of a student intern or trainee in alcohol and drug counseling who is pursuing a course of study in an accredited institution of higher education or training course, provided these activities are performed under supervision and constitute a part of an accredited course of study, and provided further the person is designated as an intern or trainee or other such title indicating the training status appropriate to his level of training.

(v) Exception to licensure and certification. State-employed rehabilitation counselors. Nothing in this section shall apply to individuals who are on October 1, 2010, employed by a state agency as a rehabilitation counselor who is acting in the capacity of an alcohol and drug counselor.

(w) Exception to licensure and certification. Supervised employees and self-help groups. Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the activities and services of paid alcohol and drug counselors who are working under supervision or uncompensated alcohol and drug abuse self-help groups, including, but not limited to, Alcoholics Anonymous and Narcotics Anonymous.

(x) Applicability to employees of Department of Correction. The provisions of this section shall apply to employees of the Department of Correction, other than trainees or student interns covered under subsection (u) of this section and persons completing supervised paid work experience in order to satisfy mandated clinical supervision requirements for certification under subsection (e) of this section, as follows: (1) Any person hired by the Department of Correction on or after October 1, 2002, for a position as a substance abuse counselor or supervisor of substance abuse counselors shall be a licensed or certified alcohol and drug counselor; (2) any person employed by the Department of Correction prior to October 1, 2002, as a substance abuse counselor or supervisor of substance abuse counselors shall become licensed or certified as an alcohol and drug counselor by October 1, 2007; and (3) any person employed by the Department of Correction on or after October 1, 2007, as a substance abuse counselor or supervisor of substance abuse counselors shall be a licensed or certified alcohol and drug counselor.

(y) Issuance of initial license. No initial license to engage in the practice of alcohol and drug counseling shall be issued unless the applicant meets the requirements of this section to practice alcohol and drug counseling. The foregoing provision shall not apply to alcohol and drug counselors licensed in this state on or after June 15, 2012, and prior to July 12, 2013.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-195n — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 383b / Section 20-195n
Sec. 20-195n. Licensure requirements. License by endorsement.
Status: in_force

(b) An applicant for licensure as a master social worker shall: (1) (A) Hold a master's degree from a social work program (i) accredited by the Council on Social Work Education, or (ii) that is in candidate status for accreditation by said council and offered by an institution of higher education in the state during or after the spring semester of 2024, and prior to the spring semester of 2028, or (B) if educated outside the United States or its territories, have completed an educational program deemed equivalent by the council; and (2) pass the masters level examination of the Association of Social Work Boards or any other examination prescribed by the commissioner.

(c) An applicant for licensure as a clinical social worker shall: (1) Hold a doctorate or master's degree from a social work program accredited by the Council on Social Work Education or, if educated outside the United States or its territories, have completed an educational program deemed equivalent by the council; (2) have three thousand hours post-master's social work experience which shall include not less than one hundred hours of work under professional supervision by a licensed clinical or certified independent social worker, provided on and after October 1, 2011, such hours completed in this state shall be as a licensed master social worker; and (3) pass the clinical level examination of the Association of Social Work Boards or any other examination prescribed by the commissioner. On and after October 1, 1995, any person certified as an independent social worker prior to October 1, 1995, shall be deemed licensed as a clinical social worker pursuant to this section, except a person certified as an independent social worker on and after October 1, 1990, shall not be deemed licensed as a clinical social worker pursuant to this chapter unless such person has satisfied the requirements of subdivision (3) of this subsection.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, the commissioner may grant a license by endorsement to an applicant who presents evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the applicant (1) is licensed or certified as a master social worker or clinical social worker in good standing in another state or jurisdiction whose requirements for practicing in such capacity are substantially similar to or higher than those of this state, and (2) has successfully completed the master level examination of the Association of Social Work Boards, or its successor organization, or any other examination prescribed by the commissioner. No license shall be issued under this subsection to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (c) of this section, the commissioner may grant a license by endorsement to an applicant who presents evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the applicant (1) is licensed or certified as a clinical social worker in good standing in another state or jurisdiction whose requirements for practicing in such capacity are substantially similar to or greater than those of this state, and (2) has successfully completed the clinical level examination of the Association of Social Work Boards, or its successor organization, or any other examination prescribed by the commissioner. No license shall be issued under this subsection to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint.

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, an applicant who is licensed or certified as a clinical social worker or its equivalent in another state, territory or commonwealth of the United States may substitute three years of licensed or certified work experience in the practice of clinical social work in lieu of the requirements of subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of this section, provided the commissioner finds that such experience is equal to or greater than the requirements of this state.

(g) The commissioner shall notify each applicant who is approved to take an examination required under subsection (b), (c), (d) or (e) of this section that such applicant may be eligible for testing accommodations pursuant to the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 USC 12101 et seq., as amended from time to time, or other accommodations, as determined by the Association of Social Work Boards, or its successor organization, which may include the use of a dictionary while taking such examination and additional time within which to take such examination.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-598a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-598a
Sec. 20-598a. Registration and certification of pharmacy technicians.
Status: in_force

(b) The department shall register as a pharmacy technician any person who presents evidence satisfactory to the department that such person is qualified to perform, under the supervision of a pharmacist, routine functions in the dispensing of drugs that do not require the use of professional judgment. The qualifications for registration as a pharmacy technician under this section shall be in accordance with (1) the standards of an institutional pharmacy, a care-giving institution or a correctional or juvenile training institution, in the case of employment in any such pharmacy or institution, or (2) the standards established by regulation adopted by the commissioner in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, in the case of employment in a pharmacy.

(c) The department shall certify as a pharmacy technician any person who meets the requirements for registration as a pharmacy technician, pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, and who holds a certification from the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board or any other equivalent pharmacy technician certification program approved by the department.

(d) The fee required by section 20-601 shall accompany an application for registration under this section. A registration as a pharmacy technician shall be valid for one year and may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required by section 20-601 .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-195hh — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 383c / Section 20-195hh
Sec. 20-195hh. Counseling Compact.
Status: in_force

COUNSELING COMPACT

SECTION 1. PURPOSE

The purpose of the compact is to facilitate interstate practice of licensed professional counselors with the goal of improving public access to professional counseling services. The practice of professional counseling occurs in the state where the client is located at the time of the counseling services. The compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure. The compact is designed to achieve the following objectives:

(1) Increase public access to professional counseling services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses;

(2) Enhance the states' ability to protect public health and safety;

(3) Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multistate practice for licensed professional counselors;

(4) Support spouses of relocating active duty military personnel;

(5) Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative and disciplinary information among member states;

(6) Allow for the use of telehealth technology to facilitate increased access to professional counseling services;

(7) Support the uniformity of professional counseling licensure requirements throughout the member states to promote public safety and public health benefits;

(8) Invest all member states with the authority to hold a licensed professional counselor accountable for meeting all state practice laws in the state in which the client is located at the time care is rendered through the mutual recognition of member state licenses;

(9) Eliminate the necessity for licenses in multiple states; and

(10) Provide opportunities for interstate practice by licensed professional counselors who meet uniform licensure requirements.

SECTION 2. DEFINITIONS

As used in the compact, except as otherwise provided, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) “Active duty military” means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including, but not limited to, members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 USC 1209 and 10 USC 1211.

(2) “Adverse action” means any administrative, civil, equitable or criminal action permitted by a state's laws that is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against a licensed professional counselor, including actions against an individual's license or privilege to practice such as revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, limitation on the licensee's practice or any other encumbrance on licensure affecting a licensed professional counselor's authorization to practice, including issuance of a cease and desist action.

(3) “Alternative program” means a nondisciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process approved by a professional counseling licensing board to address impaired practitioners.

(4) “Continuing competence or education” means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.

(5) “Counseling Compact Commission” or “commission” means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the compact.

(6) “Current significant investigative information” means:

(A) Investigative information that a licensing board, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity for the licensed professional counselor to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction; or

(B) Investigative information that indicates that the licensed professional counselor represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the licensed professional counselor has been notified and had an opportunity to respond.

(7) “Data system” means a repository of information about licensees, including, but not limited to, continuing education, examination, licensure, investigative, privilege to practice and adverse action information.

(8) “Encumbered license” means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of licensed professional counseling by the licensee and such adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank.

(9) “Encumbrance” means a revocation or suspension of, or any limitation on, the full and unrestricted practice of licensed professional counseling by a licensing board.

(10) “Executive committee” means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the commission.

(11) “Home state” means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.

(12) “Impaired practitioner” means an individual who has a condition that may impair the individual's ability to practice as a licensed professional counselor without some type of intervention and may include, but is not limited to, alcohol and drug dependence, mental health impairment and neurological or physical impairments.

(13) “Investigative information” means information, records and documents received or generated by a professional counseling licensing board pursuant to an investigation.

(14) “Jurisprudence requirement” means any assessment required by a member state of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of professional counseling in a state.

(15) “Licensed professional counselor” means a counselor licensed by a member state, regardless of the title used by the member state, to independently assess, diagnose and treat behavioral health conditions.

(16) “Licensee” means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as a licensed professional counselor.

(17) “Licensing board” means the agency of a member state, or the equivalent, that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of licensed professional counselors.

(18) “Member state” means a state that has enacted the compact.

(19) “Privilege to practice” means a legal authorization equivalent to a license that permits the practice of professional counseling in a remote state.

(20) “Professional counseling” means the assessment, diagnosis and treatment of behavioral health conditions by a licensed professional counselor.

(21) “Remote state” means a member state, other than the home state, where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the privilege to practice.

(22) “Rule” means a regulation promulgated by the commission that has the force of law.

(23) “Single state license” means a licensed professional counselor license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a privilege to practice in any other member state.

(24) “State” means any state, commonwealth, district or territory of the United States that regulates the practice of professional counseling.

(25) “Telehealth” means the application of telecommunication technology to deliver professional counseling services remotely to assess, diagnose and treat behavioral health conditions.

(26) “Unencumbered license” means a license that authorizes a licensed professional counselor to engage in the full and unrestricted practice of professional counseling.

SECTION 3. STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT

(a) To participate in the compact, a state shall currently:

(1) License and regulate licensed professional counselors;

(2) Require licensees to pass a nationally recognized exam approved by the commission;

(3) Require licensees to have a sixty semester-hour or ninety quarter-hour master's degree in counseling or sixty semester hours or ninety quarter-hours of graduate course work, including the following topic areas:

(A) Professional counseling orientation and ethical practice;

(B) Social and cultural diversity;

(C) Human growth and development;

(D) Career development;

(E) Counseling and helping relationships;

(F) Group counseling and group work;

(G) Diagnosis and treatment;

(H) Assessment and testing;

(I) Research and program evaluation; and

(J) Other areas as determined by the commission;

(4) Require licensees to complete a supervised postgraduate professional experience as defined by the commission; and

(5) Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees.

(b) A member state shall:

(1) Participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules;

(2) Notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;

(3) Implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for an initial privilege to practice, including the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining the state's criminal records, provided (A) a member state shall fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search and shall use the results in making licensure decisions; and (B) communication between a member state, the commission and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under the Departments of State, Justice, and Commerce, the Judiciary, and Related Agencies Appropriation Act, 1973, P.L. 92-544;

(4) Comply with the rules of the commission;

(5) Require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable state laws;

(6) Grant the privilege to practice to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the compact and rules; and

(7) Provide for the attendance of the state's commissioner to the Counseling Compact Commission meetings.

(c) A member state may charge a fee for granting the privilege to practice under the compact.

(d) An individual not residing in a member state may apply for a member state's single state license to practice professional counseling as provided under the laws of each member state.

(e) The single state license to practice professional counseling granted to an individual not residing in a member state shall not be recognized as granting a privilege to practice in any other member state.

(f) Nothing in the compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single state license to practice professional counseling.

(g) A license issued to a licensed professional counselor by a home state to a resident of such home state shall be recognized by each member state as authorizing a licensed professional counselor to practice professional counseling, under a privilege to practice, in each member state.

SECTION 4. PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE

(a) To exercise the privilege to practice under the terms and provisions of the compact, a licensee shall:

(1) Hold a license in the home state;

(2) Have a valid Social Security number or National Practitioner Identifier;

(3) Be eligible for a privilege to practice in any member state in accordance with subsections (d), (g) and (h) of this section of the compact;

(4) Have not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years;

(5) Notify the commission that the licensee is seeking the privilege to practice within a remote state;

(6) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the privilege to practice;

(7) Meet any continuing competence or education requirements established by the home state;

(8) Meet any jurisprudence requirements established by each remote state in which the licensee is seeking a privilege to practice; and

(9) Report to the commission any adverse action, encumbrance or restriction on license taken by any non-member state not later than thirty days after the date on which the action is taken.

(b) The privilege to practice shall be valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee shall comply with the requirements of subsection (a) of this section of the compact to maintain the privilege to practice in the remote state.

(c) A licensee providing professional counseling in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations of the remote state.

(d) A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state shall be subject to the remote state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and such state's laws, remove a licensee's privilege to practice in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines or take any other necessary action to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee may be ineligible for a privilege to practice in any member state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.

(e) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the privilege to practice in any remote state until the following occur:

(1) The home state license is no longer encumbered; and

(2) The licensee has not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years.

(f) After an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee shall meet the requirements of subsection (a) of this section of the compact to obtain a privilege to practice in any remote state.

(g) If a licensee's privilege to practice in any remote state is removed, the individual may lose the privilege to practice in all other remote states until the following occur:

(1) The specific period of time for which the privilege to practice was removed has ended;

(2) All fines have been paid; and

(3) The licensee has not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years.

(h) When the requirements of subsection (g) of this section of the compact have been met, the licensee shall meet the requirements in subsection (a) of this section of the compact to obtain a privilege to practice in a remote state.

SECTION 5. OBTAINING A NEW HOME STATE LICENSE BASED ON A PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE

(a) A licensed professional counselor may hold a home state license that allows for a privilege to practice in other member states in only one member state at a time.

(b) If a licensed professional counselor changes the primary state of residence by moving between two member states:

(1) The licensed professional counselor shall file an application for obtaining a new home state license based on a privilege to practice, pay all applicable fees and notify the current and new home state in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission.

(2) Upon receipt of an application to obtain a new home state license by virtue of a privilege to practice, the new home state shall verify that the licensed professional counselor meets the pertinent criteria outlined in section 4 of the compact via the data system, without need for primary source verification, except:

(A) A Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint based criminal background check if not previously performed or updated pursuant to applicable rules adopted by the commission in accordance with the Departments of State, Justice, and Commerce, the Judiciary, and Related Agencies Appropriation Act, 1973, P.L. 92-544;

(B) Any other criminal background check as required by the new home state; and

(C) Completion of any requisite jurisprudence requirements of the new home state.

(3) The former home state shall convert the former home state license into a privilege to practice once the new home state has activated the new home state license in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission.

(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of the compact, if the licensed professional counselor cannot meet the criteria in section 4 of the compact, the new home state may apply its requirements for issuing a new single state license.

(5) The licensed professional counselor shall pay all applicable fees to the new home state in order to be issued a new home state license.

(c) If a licensed professional counselor changes the primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a non-member state, or from a non-member state to a member state, the state criteria shall apply for issuance of a single state license in the new state.

(d) Nothing in the compact shall interfere with a licensee's ability to hold a single state license in multiple states. For the purposes of the compact, a licensee shall have only one home state license.

(e) Nothing in the compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single state license.

SECTION 6. ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES

Active duty military personnel, or the spouse of an active duty military personnel, shall designate a home state where such personnel or such spouse has a current license in good standing. Such personnel or such spouse may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, such personnel or such spouse shall only change such personnel's or such spouse's home state through application for licensure in the new state, or through the process described in section 5 of the compact.

SECTION 7. COMPACT PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE TELEHEALTH

(a) A member state shall recognize the right of a licensed professional counselor, licensed by a home state in accordance with section 3 of the compact and under rules promulgated by the commission, to practice professional counseling in any member state via telehealth under a privilege to practice as provided in the compact and rules promulgated by the commission.

(b) A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations of the remote state.

SECTION 8. ADVERSE ACTIONS

(a) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to:

(1) Take adverse action against a licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice within such member state;

(2) Issue a subpoena for a hearing or an investigation that requires the attendance and testimony of a witness and the production of evidence. A subpoena issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of a witness or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter member state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it;

(3) The authority issuing a subpoena under subdivision (2) of this subsection shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage and other fees required by the service laws of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located; and

(4) Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a licensed professional counselor's license issued by the home state.

(b) For the purpose of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.

(c) The home state shall complete any pending investigation of a licensed professional counselor who changes primary state of residence during the course of the investigation. The home state shall also have the authority to take appropriate action and shall promptly report the conclusion of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse action.

(d) A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected licensed professional counselor the costs of investigations and dispositions of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against such licensed professional counselor.

(e) A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.

(f) (1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective professional counseling practice act or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with another member state in a joint investigation of a licensee.

(2) A member state shall share any investigative, litigation or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.

(g) If adverse action is taken by the home state against the license of a licensed professional counselor, the licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license.

(h) A home state disciplinary order that imposes adverse action against the license of a licensed professional counselor shall include a statement that the licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order.

(i) If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state of any adverse action by a remote state.

(j) Nothing in the compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.

SECTION 9. ESTABLISHMENT OF COUNSELING COMPACT COMMISSION

(a) The member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Counseling Compact Commission:

(1) The commission is an instrumentality of the compact states.

(2) Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

(3) Nothing in the compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

(b) Membership, Voting and Meetings:

(1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that member state's licensing board.

(2) The delegate shall be either:

(A) A current member of the licensing board at the time of appointment, who is a licensed professional counselor or public member; or

(B) An administrator of the licensing board.

(3) Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.

(4) The member state licensing board shall fill any vacancy occurring on the commission not later than sixty days after the vacancy occurs.

(5) Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission.

(6) A delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

(7) The commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.

(8) The commission shall by rule establish a term of office for delegates and may by rule establish term limits.

(c) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) Establish the fiscal year of the commission;

(2) Establish bylaws;

(3) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;

(4) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of the compact and the bylaws;

(5) Promulgate rules that shall be binding to the extent and in the manner provided for in the compact;

(6) Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided the standing of any state licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

(7) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

(8) Borrow, accept or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state;

(9) Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel and other related personnel matters;

(10) Accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services, and to receive, utilize and dispose of the same provided the commission at all times shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;

(11) Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal or mixed, provided the Commission avoids, at all times, any appearance of impropriety;

(12) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal or mixed;

(13) Establish a budget and make expenditures;

(14) Borrow money;

(15) Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, consumer representatives and such other interested persons as may be designated in the compact and the bylaws;

(16) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;

(17) Establish and elect an executive committee; and

(18) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of the compact consistent with the state regulation of professional counseling licensure and practice.

(d) The executive committee:

(1) The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of the compact.

(2) The executive committee shall be composed of up to eleven members, including the following:

(A) Seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission; and

(B) Up to four ex-officio, nonvoting members from different recognized national professional counselor organizations, who shall be selected by their respective organizations.

(3) The commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in bylaws.

(4) The executive committee shall meet at least annually.

(5) The executive committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:

(A) Recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to the compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states, such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the privilege to practice;

(B) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;

(C) Prepare and recommend the budget;

(D) Maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;

(E) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;

(F) Establish additional committees as necessary; and

(G) Other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.

(e) Meetings of the commission:

(1) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in section 11 of the compact.

(2) The commission or the executive committee or other committees of the commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting, provided the commission or executive committee or other committees of the commission discuss:

(A) Noncompliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;

(B) The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

(C) Current, threatened or reasonably anticipated litigation;

(D) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease or sale of goods, services or real estate;

(E) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

(F) Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

(G) Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(H) Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;

(I) Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or

(J) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.

(3) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.

(4) The commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

(f) Financing of the commission:

(1) The commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization and ongoing activities.

(2) The commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services.

(3) The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.

(4) The commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same. The commission shall not pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.

(5) The commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.

(g) Qualified immunity, defense and indemnification:

(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury or liability caused by the intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct of that person.

(2) The commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of the commission's employment, duties or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of the commission's employment, duties or responsibilities, provided (A) nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit such person from retaining his or her own counsel, and (B) the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from such person's intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct.

(3) The commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from the intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct of such person.

SECTION 10. DATA SYSTEM

(a) The commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, operation and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action and investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of state law, a member state shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom the compact is applicable as required by the rules of the commission, including:

(1) Identifying information;

(2) Licensure data;

(3) Any adverse action against a license or privilege to practice;

(4) Nonconfidential information related to alternative program participation;

(5) Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason for such denial;

(6) Current significant investigative information; and

(7) Other information that may facilitate the administration of the compact, as determined by the rules of the commission.

(c) Investigative information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall only be available to other member states.

(d) The commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall be available to any other member state.

(e) A member state contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state.

(f) Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system.

SECTION 11. RULEMAKING

(a) The commission shall promulgate reasonable rules to effectively and efficiently achieve the purpose of the compact. Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the event the commission exercises its rulemaking authority in a manner that is beyond the scope of the purpose of the compact, or the powers granted hereunder, then such an action by the Commission shall be invalid and have no force or effect.

(b) The commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section of the compact and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.

(c) If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the compact not later than four years after the date of adoption of the rule, such rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state.

(d) Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the commission.

(e) Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule by the commission, and not less than thirty days prior to the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the commission shall file a notice of proposed rulemaking:

(1) On the Internet web site of the commission or other publicly accessible platform; and

(2) On the Internet web site of each member state professional counseling licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

(f) The notice of proposed rulemaking shall include:

(1) The proposed time, date and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;

(2) The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

(3) A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

(4) The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.

(g) Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

(h) The commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:

(1) At least twenty-five persons;

(2) A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or

(3) An association having at least twenty-five members.

(i) If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the commission shall publish the place, time and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the hearing is held via electronic means, the commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing.

(1) All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not less than five business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.

(2) Each hearing shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.

(3) Each hearing shall be recorded. A copy of the recording shall be made available on request.

(4) Nothing in this section of the compact shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the commission at hearings required by this section of the compact.

(j) Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

(k) If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.

(l) The commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

(m) Upon determination that an emergency exists, the commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing, provided the usual rulemaking procedures described in the compact shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible and in no event later than ninety days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this subsection, “emergency rule” means a rule that shall be adopted immediately in order to:

(1) Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety or welfare;

(2) Prevent a loss of commission or member state funds;

(3) Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or

(4) Protect public health and safety.

(n) The commission or an authorized committee of the commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the Internet web site of the commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision shall take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the commission.

SECTION 12. OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND ENFORCEMENT

(a) Oversight:

(1) The executive, legislative and judicial branches of state government in each member state shall enforce the compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of the compact and the rules promulgated under the compact shall have standing as statutory law.

(2) All courts shall take judicial notice of the compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a member state pertaining to the subject matter of the compact which may affect the powers, responsibilities or actions of the commission.

(3) The commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the commission, the compact or promulgated rules.

(b) Default, technical assistance and termination:

(1) If the commission determines that a member state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under the compact or the promulgated rules, the commission shall:

(A) Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other member states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default and any other action to be taken by the commission; and

(B) Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

(c) If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the member states, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by the compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

(d) Termination of membership in the compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting state's legislature and each of the member states.

(e) A state that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.

(f) The commission shall not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the commission and the defaulting state.

(g) The defaulting state may appeal the action of the commission by petitioning the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

(h) Dispute Resolution:

(1) Upon request by a member state, the commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the compact that arise among member states and between member and non-member states.

(2) The commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.

(i) Enforcement:

(1) The commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of the compact.

(2) By majority vote, the commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

(3) The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the commission. The commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

SECTION 13. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION OF THE COUNSELING COMPACT COMMISSION AND ASSOCIATED RULES, WITHDRAWAL AND AMENDMENT

(a) The compact shall come into effect on the date on which the compact statute is enacted into law in the tenth member state. The provisions, which become effective at that time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the compact.

(b) Any state that joins the compact subsequent to the commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the compact becomes law in such state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the compact becomes law in such state.

(c) Any member state may withdraw from the compact by enacting a statute repealing the compact.

(1) A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six months after enactment of the repealing statute.

(2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's professional counseling licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of the compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

(d) Nothing in the compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any professional counseling licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with the provisions of the compact.

(e) The compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to the compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.

SECTION 14. CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY

The compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of the compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of the compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any member state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of the compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If the compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any member state, the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters.

SECTION 15. BINDING EFFECT OF COMPACT AND OTHER LAWS

(a) A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations, including scope of practice, of the remote state.

(b) Nothing in the compact shall prevent the enforcement of any other law of a member state that is not inconsistent with the compact.

(c) Any laws in a member state in conflict with the compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict.

(d) Any lawful actions of the commission, including all rules and bylaws properly promulgated by the commission, are binding upon the member states.

(e) All permissible agreements between the commission and the member states are binding in accordance with their terms.

(f) In the event any provision of the compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any member state, the provision shall be ineffective to the extent of the conflict with the constitutional provision in question in such member state.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-599 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-599
Sec. 20-599. (Formerly Sec. 20-174a). Continuing education: Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Accredited continuing professional education” means any education of pharmacists which is designed to maintain professional competence in the practice of pharmacy and which is provided by an organization, institution or agency approved by the commission. Such education may include, but is not limited to, courses concerning: (A) The social, economic, behavioral, legal, administrative and managerial aspects of health care; (B) the properties and actions of drugs and dosage forms; (C) the etiology, characteristics, therapeutics and prevention of the disease states; (D) the pharmaceutical monitoring and management of patients; and (E) other areas of information unique to specialized types of professional pharmacy practice;

(2) “Certificate of continuing education units” means a document issued to a pharmacist by an organization, institution or agency approved by the commission which offers accredited continuing professional education, which (A) certifies that the pharmacist has satisfactorily completed a specified number of continuing education units, and (B) bears the name of such organization, institution or agency, the title of the program, the dates during which the program was conducted, the number of continuing education units satisfactorily completed and the signature of the director of such organization, institution or agency or the director's authorized agent;

(3) “Continuing education unit” means ten contact hours of participation in accredited continuing professional education;

(4) “Contact hours” means fifty to sixty minutes of participation in accredited continuing professional education;

(5) “Retired pharmacist” means a pharmacist who is at least sixty-two years of age and no longer actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy; and

(6) “Inactive license” means a license that is issued, in the same manner and for the same fee as specified in this chapter for a license to practice pharmacy, to a retired pharmacist which license does not authorize the retired pharmacist to practice pharmacy and on which the word “inactive” is printed or stamped.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-205b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 384 / Section 20-205b
Sec. 20-205b. Euthanization of cat or dog by licensed veterinarian. Exceptions. Penalty. Defense.
Status: in_force

(b) Any person who violates the provisions of this section shall be fined not more than one thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than one year, or both.

(c) It shall be a defense to prosecution under this section that such person euthanized such cat or dog with a life-threatening injury or condition in order to prevent such cat's or dog's further suffering.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-523 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400g / Section 20-523
Sec. 20-523. Engaging in business without certification or provisional license. Misrepresentation. Hearing. Fines and civil penalties.
Status: in_force

(b) No person who is not certified or provisionally licensed, as the case may be, by the commission as a real estate appraiser shall represent himself or herself as being so certified or provisionally licensed or use in connection with such person's name or place of business the term “real estate appraiser”, “real estate appraisal”, “certified appraiser”, “certified appraisal”, “residential appraiser”, “residential appraisal”, “provisional appraiser” or “provisional appraisal” or any words, letters, abbreviations or insignia indicating or implying that such person is a certified or provisionally licensed, as the case may be, real estate appraiser in this state. Any person who violates the provisions of this subsection shall be fined not more than one thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than six months, or both.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-529 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400g / Section 20-529
Sec. 20-529. Registration of appraisal management companies. Fees.
Status: in_force

(b) Each appraisal management company, other than a federally regulated appraisal management company, shall apply to the Commissioner of Consumer Protection, in writing, on a form provided by the commissioner. The application shall include (1) the company's name, business address and telephone number; (2) if such company is domiciled in another state, the name, address and telephone number of the company's agent for service of process in this state, and the Uniform Consent to Service of Process form to be completed by the company; (3) the name, address and telephone number of any person or business entity owning an equity interest, or the equivalent, of the company; (4) a certification by the company that no person or business entity named in subdivision (3) of this subsection has had an appraiser license or certificate denied, refused to be renewed, suspended or revoked in any state; (5) the name, address and telephone number of a controlling person of the company who will serve as the main contact for communications between the commissioner and the appraisal management company; (6) the name, address and telephone number of a compliance manager of the company; and (7) any other information the commissioner may require. Each such application shall be accompanied by a fee of one thousand dollars.

(c) Before issuing or renewing a certificate of registration, the commissioner may:

(1) Certify that each appraisal management company applying for a certificate of registration has procedures in place to (A) verify that a person being added to the appraiser panel of the company holds a certificate in good standing in accordance with section 20-509 , (B) maintain detailed records of each appraisal request or order it receives and of the appraiser who performs such appraisal, and (C) review on a periodic basis the work of all appraisers performing appraisals for the company, to ensure that such appraisals are being conducted in accordance with the USPAP;

(2) Determine to the commissioner's satisfaction that each person owning an interest in an appraisal management company is of good moral character and such person has submitted to a background investigation, as deemed necessary by the commissioner;

(3) Determine to the commissioner's satisfaction that the controlling person (A) has never had an appraiser license or certificate denied, refused to be renewed, suspended or revoked in any state, (B) is of good moral character, and (C) has submitted to a background investigation, as deemed necessary by the commissioner; and

(4) Determine to the commissioner's satisfaction that each appraisal management company compensates appraisers in compliance with the federal Truth-in-Lending Act, 15 USC Section 1639e(i), as amended from time to time.

(d) The commissioner shall issue a registration number to each appraisal management company registered in this state and shall publish annually a list of appraisal management companies that are registered with the Department of Consumer Protection.

(e) All certificates of registration issued under the provisions of this section shall expire biennially. The fee for renewal of a certificate of registration shall be one thousand dollars.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-616 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-616
Sec. 20-616. (Formerly Sec. 20-184d). Prescription refills and transfers. Thirty-day supply of diabetes drugs and devices. Notice to prescribing practitioner. Payment. Referral to federally-qualified health center.
Status: in_force

(1) “Diabetes device” means a device, including, but not limited to, a blood glucose test strip, glucometer, continuous glucometer, lancet, lancing device or insulin syringe, that is (A) a legend device or nonlegend device, and (B) used to cure, diagnose, mitigate, prevent or treat diabetes or low blood sugar;

(2) “Diabetic ketoacidosis device” means a device that is (A) a legend or nonlegend device, and (B) used to screen for or prevent diabetic ketoacidosis;

(3) “Glucagon drug” means a drug that contains glucagon and is (A) a legend drug or nonlegend drug, (B) prescribed for self-administration on an outpatient basis, and (C) approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration to treat low blood sugar;

(4) “Insulin drug” means a drug, including, but not limited to, an insulin pen, that contains insulin and is (A) a legend drug or nonlegend drug, (B) prescribed for self-administration on an outpatient basis, and (C) approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration to treat diabetes; and

(5) “Usual customary charge to the public” means a charge for a particular prescription not covered by Medicaid, excluding charges made to third-party payors and special discounts offered to individuals, including, but not limited to, senior citizens.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) or (d) of this section, a prescription may be refilled only upon the written, oral or electronically-transmitted order of a prescribing practitioner.

(c) A pharmacist may exercise his professional judgment in refilling a prescription that is not for a controlled drug, as defined in section 21a-240 , without the authorization of the prescribing practitioner, provided (1) the pharmacist is unable to contact such practitioner after reasonable effort, (2) failure to refill the prescription might result in an interruption of a therapeutic regimen or create patient suffering, and (3) the pharmacist informs the patient or representative of the patient at the time of dispensing that the refill is being provided without such authorization and informs the practitioner at the earliest reasonable time that authorization of the practitioner is required for future refills. Prescriptions may be refilled once pursuant to this subsection for a quantity of drug not to exceed a seventy-two hour supply.

(d) (1) (A) Notwithstanding subsection (c) of this section, a pharmacist may immediately prescribe and dispense to a patient not more than a thirty-day supply of a diabetic ketoacidosis device, insulin drug or glucagon drug, and any diabetes devices that are necessary to administer such supply of such insulin drug or glucagon drug, if:

(i) The patient informs the pharmacist that the patient has less than a seven-day supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device;

(ii) The pharmacist determines, in the pharmacist's professional judgment, that the patient will likely suffer significant physical harm within seven days if the patient does not obtain an additional supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device before the expiration of said seven days;

(iii) The pharmacist reviews the electronic prescription drug monitoring program established pursuant to section 21a-254 and determines that no pharmacist prescribed and dispensed a supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device to the patient pursuant to this subsection during the twelve-month period immediately preceding, unless:

(I) The pharmacist determines, by contacting the pharmacy that filled the most recent prescription for such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device, by examining another prescription database or reviewing the most recent prescription for such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device or a prescription label containing the most recent prescription information for such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device, that no pharmacist dispensed a supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device to the patient pursuant to this subsection during said twelve-month period; or

(II) The electronic prescription drug monitoring program established pursuant to section 21a-254 is unavailable; and

(iv) Not later than seventy-two hours after the pharmacist dispenses such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device the pharmacist, or the pharmacist's representative, provides notice to the practitioner who, other than the pharmacist, most recently prescribed such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device to the patient.

(B) A pharmacist shall immediately prescribe and dispense to a patient not more than a thirty-day supply of a diabetic ketoacidosis device, insulin drug or glucagon drug, and any diabetes devices that are necessary to administer such supply of the insulin drug or glucagon drug, if the criteria established in subparagraphs (A)(i) to (A)(iv), inclusive, of this subdivision have been satisfied and the patient pays, or has health insurance coverage, for such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device.

(2) No pharmacist who prescribes and dispenses a supply of a diabetic ketoacidosis device, insulin drug or glucagon drug, and any diabetes devices that are necessary to administer such supply of the insulin drug or glucagon drug, pursuant to subdivision (1) of this subsection shall require the patient to tender payment to the pharmacist for such supply in an amount that exceeds:

(A) The amount of the coinsurance, copayment, deductible or other out-of-pocket expense that the patient's health insurance coverage imposes for such supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device; or

(B) The usual customary charge to the public for such supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetes ketoacidosis device if the patient does not have health insurance coverage for such supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device.

(3) Nothing in subdivision (1) or (2) of this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a pharmacist from requiring a patient to submit to the pharmacist, before the pharmacist prescribes or dispenses a supply of a diabetic ketoacidosis device, insulin drug or glucagon drug, and any diabetes devices necessary to administer such insulin drug or glucagon drug, pursuant to said subdivisions, proof of health insurance coverage for the patient, personal identification for the patient, contact information for a health care provider providing treatment to the patient, information concerning previous prescriptions issued to the patient for the insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device, a sworn statement by the patient stating that the patient is unable to timely obtain the insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device that the patient is seeking pursuant to this subsection without suffering significant physical harm, and any amount required by the pharmacist under subdivision (2) of this subsection.

(4) Each pharmacist shall refer a patient who requests a supply of an insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device pursuant to this subsection to a federally-qualified health center if:

(A) The pharmacist determines that the patient does not have health insurance coverage for such supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device; or

(B) The patient informs the pharmacist that the patient is concerned that the net cost to the patient for such supply of such insulin drug, glucagon drug, diabetes devices or diabetic ketoacidosis device is unaffordable.

(e) Any prescription that is not for a controlled drug, as defined in section 21a-240 , may be transferred orally or electronically between pharmacies, provided:

(1) The prescribing practitioner has authorized the original prescription to be refilled in accordance with subsection (b) of this section;

(2) The pharmacist transferring the prescription shall cancel the original prescription in such pharmacist's records and shall indicate in such records the name of the pharmacy to which the prescription is transferred and the date of the transfer, provided, such cancellation shall not be required in the case of any transfer between pharmacies which electronically access the same prescription records and utilize the same computer or other electronic prescription transfer system; and

(3) The pharmacist receiving the prescription shall indicate in such pharmacist's records, in addition to any other information required by law, (A) the fact that the prescription has been transferred and the names of the transferring pharmacy and pharmacist, (B) the date of issuance and the prescription number of the original prescription, (C) the date the original prescription was first dispensed, (D) the number of refills authorized by the original prescription and the complete refill record for the prescription as of the date of the transfer, and (E) the number of valid refills remaining as of the date of the transfer.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-74t — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376b / Section 20-74t
Sec. 20-74t. Continuing education requirements.
Status: in_force

(b) Each licensee or certificate holder shall obtain a certificate of completion from the provider of continuing education activities for all continuing education hours successfully completed. Each licensee or certificate holder shall maintain such written documentation for a minimum of three years following the license or certificate renewal date for which the activity satisfies continuing education requirements. Certificates of completion shall be submitted by the licensee or certificate holder to the Department of Public Health upon the department's request. A licensee or certificate holder who fails to comply with the continuing education requirements shall be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to subsection (r) of section 20-74s or section 19a-17 .

(c) The continuing education requirements shall be waived for licensees and certificate holders applying for licensure or certification renewal for the first time. The department may, for a licensee or certificate holder who has a medical disability or illness, grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements for a specific period of time or may grant the licensee or certificate holder an extension of time in which to fulfill the requirements.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-631a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-631a
Sec. 20-631a. Collaborative drug management agreements between pharmacists employed by community pharmacies and one or more physicians or advanced practice registered nurses. Pilot program.
Status: in_force

(b) A collaborative drug therapy management agreement may authorize a pharmacist to implement, modify or discontinue a drug therapy that has been prescribed for a patient, order associated laboratory tests and administer drugs, all in accordance with a patient-specific written protocol. Each protocol developed, pursuant to the collaborative drug therapy management agreement, shall contain detailed direction concerning the actions that the pharmacist may perform for that patient. The protocol shall include, but need not be limited to, (1) the specific drug or drugs to be managed by the pharmacist, (2) the terms and conditions under which drug therapy may be implemented, modified or discontinued, (3) the conditions and events upon which the pharmacist is required to notify the physician or advanced practice registered nurse, and (4) the laboratory tests that may be ordered. All activities performed by the pharmacist in conjunction with the protocol shall be documented in the patient's medical record. The pharmacist shall report to the physician or advanced practice registered nurse through oral, written or electronic manner regarding the implementation, administration, modification or discontinuation of a drug therapy that has been prescribed for a patient not later than twenty-four hours after such implementation, administration, modification or discontinuation. The collaborative drug therapy management agreement and protocols shall be available for inspection by the Departments of Public Health and Consumer Protection. A copy of the protocol shall be filed in the patient's medical record.

(c) In order to be selected for participation in the program, a pharmacist shall be responsible for demonstrating, in accordance with this subsection, the competence necessary for participation in each drug therapy management agreement into which such pharmacist may enter. The pharmacist's competency shall be determined by the Commission of Pharmacy using criteria based on the continuing education requirements of sections 20-599 and 20-600 .

(d) The Commissioner of Consumer Protection and the Commission of Pharmacy shall evaluate the pilot program established under this section and shall submit a report of the commissioner's findings and recommendations to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public health, human services and general law, not later than December 31, 2008, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a . Such report shall include an evaluation of the data collected with respect to improved medication management and cost savings, based on patient outcomes.

(e) Records or information collected or maintained pursuant to this section shall not be disclosed pursuant to subsection (a) of section 1-210 for a period of six months from the date such records or information were created or collected and shall not be subject to subpoena or discovery or introduced into evidence in any judicial or administrative proceeding except as otherwise specifically provided by law.

(f) For purposes of this section, “community pharmacy” means a pharmacy licensed under section 20-594 that stores and dispenses legend drugs, as defined by section 20-571 , and legend devices, as defined by said section 20-571 , and from which related pharmaceutical care services are provided, primarily to noninstitutionalized patients living in a community setting.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-7b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 369 / Section 20-7b
Sec. 20-7b. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(a) “Patient” means a natural person who has received health care services from a provider for treatment of a medical condition, or a person he designates in writing as his representative; and

(b) “Provider” means any person or organization that furnishes health care services and is licensed or certified to furnish such services pursuant to chapters 370 to 373, inclusive, 375 to 384a, inclusive, 388, 398 and 399 or is licensed or certified pursuant to chapter 368d.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-208 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-208
Sec. 20-208. Examining board.
Status: in_force

(b) Said board shall meet at least once during each calendar quarter and at such other times as the chairman deems necessary. Special meetings shall be held on the request of a majority of the board after notice in accordance with the provisions of section 1-225 . A majority of the members of the board shall constitute a quorum. Any member who fails to attend three consecutive meetings or who fails to attend fifty per cent of all meetings held during any calendar year shall be deemed to have resigned from office. Minutes of all meetings shall be recorded by the board. No member shall participate in the affairs of the board during the pendency of any disciplinary proceedings by the board against such member.

See Sec. 4-9a for definition of “public member”.

See Secs. 19a-8 to 19a-12, inclusive, re powers and duties of boards and commissions within Department of Public Health.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-617b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-617b
Sec. 20-617b. Compliance packaging. Requirements. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(2) (A) If a patient's prescribing practitioner modifies the patient's prescription or prescriptions by, among other things, issuing any new prescription or discontinuing or deprescribing any drug that was previously dispensed to the patient in compliance packaging, the pharmacy that first dispensed such previously dispensed drug in such compliance packaging may, at the request of such patient, representative or prescribing practitioner and if such pharmacy documents such modification in writing, (i) accept such compliance packaging from such patient or representative, (ii) receive and remove any drugs from such returned compliance packaging and redispense such drugs to such patient, and (iii) dispense any newly prescribed and compatible drugs in the redispensed compliance packaging.

(B) Any pharmacy that accepts any compliance packaging returned under this subdivision shall do so exclusively to (i) dispense to the patient any compatible drugs that are newly prescribed to such patient, and (ii) redispense to the patient any drugs contained in such returned compliance packaging in the same quantities that were contained in such returned compliance packaging when such pharmacy accepted such returned compliance packaging.

(C) Each pharmacy that redispenses any drug contained in any compliance packaging returned under this subdivision shall redispense such drug to the patient in (i) compliance packaging that exclusively contains drugs currently prescribed to such patient, or (ii) a separate container that is labeled in accordance with the provisions of section 20-617 and subparagraph (D) of this subdivision.

(D) If a pharmacy accepts any compliance packaging returned under this subdivision and such returned compliance packaging contains one or more drugs that have been deprescribed, discontinued or have otherwise been deemed to be inappropriate for inclusion in compliance packaging, as determined by the patient's prescribing practitioner or a pharmacist, the pharmacy shall redispense such drugs to the patient in one or more separate containers, each of which shall (i) include not more than one drug type or dosage, and (ii) bear a label that includes the patient's name, the original prescription serial number or serial numbers, the drug name or names, the dosage form or forms, the quantity or quantities redispensed and instructions for use or disposal, as applicable, which instructions shall disclose, at a minimum, (I) the procedures for any lawfully available means of destroying such drug or drugs at home, and (II) the nearest location where such drug or drugs may be deposited for destruction, including, but not limited to, the nearest retail location allowed to accept such drug or drugs under the regulations adopted pursuant to section 20-576a .

(E) No pharmacy, pharmacist, pharmacy intern or advanced pharmacy technician shall return to a pharmacy's general inventory or regular stock any returned drug that was previously contained in any compliance packaging returned under this subdivision, unless accepting such drug for return to the pharmacy's general inventory or regular stock is otherwise permitted or required by law.

(b) Compliance packaging shall:

(1) Exclusively contain (A) individual compartments that are tamper-evident, and (B) drugs that (i) are currently prescribed to a single patient pursuant to an order or prescription by the patient's prescribing practitioner, and (ii) dispensed or redispensed to a single patient by a pharmacist or an advanced pharmacy technician;

(2) Be labeled or relabeled by a pharmacist in accordance with the provisions of section 20-617 , except if the compliance packaging contains an opioid drug, as defined in section 20-14o , only one sticker or label shall be affixed to such compliance packaging pursuant to section 20-636 and not to each individual compartment contained in such compliance packaging;

(3) Be child-resistant unless the pharmacy provides to the patient, and the patient acknowledges and returns to the pharmacy, a waiver explaining that the drugs contained in the compliance packaging are not in a child-resistant container;

(4) Identify, on each individual compartment, the name and strength of the drug or drugs contained in such compartment;

(5) Not contain more than a ninety-day supply of any drug, as prescribed, except as otherwise provided in any applicable state or federal law; and

(6) Be compliant with all applicable provisions of the United States Pharmacopeia, as amended from time to time.

(c) (1) An individual compartment of compliance packaging may contain multiple prescribed drugs, provided:

(A) A pharmacist has determined that all drugs contained in such compartment are compatible drugs;

(B) All drugs contained in such compartment are subject to the same instructions concerning time of administration; and

(C) No drug contained in such compartment has instructions for use that permit such drug to be used on an as needed basis.

(2) No controlled substance shall be contained in any compliance packaging that contains any other drug, unless such other drug is a controlled substance of the same drug type prescribed at a different dose.

(d) A pharmacy that provides compliance packaging services shall:

(1) Maintain an area dedicated to the preparation of drugs that are to be dispensed or redispensed in compliance packaging, which area shall include all equipment necessary to:

(A) Ensure that all compliance packaging is accurately prepared; and

(B) Prevent any contamination of such drugs;

(2) Maintain standard operating procedures:

(A) For the use of compliance packaging and associated equipment, which procedures shall include, at a minimum, provisions concerning (i) inspections of compliance packaging integrity, (ii) cleaning, (iii) labeling, (iv) dispensing and redispensing, (v) proper hand hygiene, (vi) quarantine, and (vii) handling of dispensed drugs that are removed from compliance packaging and redispensed to patients in the manner set forth in subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section; and

(B) That specify which drugs (i) are not compatible drugs, (ii) are suitable to be dispensed or redispensed in compliance packaging, or (iii) require special consideration to be dispensed or redispensed in compliance packaging; and

(3) Maintain the following records:

(A) A record of all drugs that the pharmacy dispenses to a patient in compliance packaging, which record shall include at least the following for each such drug:

(i) The patient's name and address;

(ii) The identification number, if any, for the compliance packaging in which such pharmacy dispensed such drug, the date such compliance packaging was prepared, the initials of the individual who prepared such compliance packaging and the initials of the individual who performed a final verification for such compliance packaging;

(iii) The name, strength, lot number and national drug code number for such drug;

(iv) The serial number of the prescription for such drug; and

(v) A visual description of such drug;

(B) A record of all items of compliance packaging that the pharmacy accepts from a patient for return and redispensing to the patient in the manner set forth in subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, which record shall include at least the following for each such item of compliance packaging:

(i) The patient's name and address;

(ii) The identification number, if any, for such item of compliance packaging;

(iii) The date on which such pharmacy accepted such item of compliance packaging for return and redispensing in such manner;

(iv) The name of the pharmacist or pharmacy technician who documented the return of such item of compliance packaging; and

(v) The name, formulation and quantity of each drug contained in such item of compliance packaging when such pharmacy accepted such item of compliance packaging for return and redispensing in such manner, including a designation disclosing whether any such drug was deprescribed if the patient's prescribing practitioner has discontinued the prescription;

(C) A record of all items of compliance packaging in which the pharmacy redispenses any drug to a patient in the manner set forth in subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, which record shall include at least the following for each such item of compliance packaging:

(i) The patient's name and address;

(ii) The identification number, if any, for such item of compliance packaging;

(iii) The date such item of compliance packaging was prepared for redispensing in such manner;

(iv) The serial number of the prescription for each drug redispensed in such item of compliance packaging in such manner;

(v) The name, formulation and quantity of each drug redispensed in such item of compliance packaging in such manner;

(vi) The name or initials of the redispensing pharmacist;

(vii) The initials of the individual who prepared such item of compliance packaging for redispensing in such manner; and

(viii) The initials of the individual who performed a final verification for such item of compliance packaging for redispensing in such manner; and

(D) A record of all drugs that the pharmacy redispenses to a patient in any container, other than compliance packaging, in the manner set forth in subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, which record shall include at least the following for each such drug:

(i) The patient's name and address;

(ii) The date such drug was prepared for redispensing in such container in such manner;

(iii) The serial number of the prescription for such drug;

(iv) The name and formulation of such drug and the quantity of such drug that was redispensed in such container in such manner; and

(v) The name or initials of the redispensing pharmacist.

(e) Each pharmacy shall maintain all records that such pharmacy is required to maintain pursuant to this section for a period of at least three years. Not later than forty-eight hours after the department requests that a pharmacy disclose a copy of any record the pharmacy is required to maintain pursuant to this section, such pharmacy shall disclose such copy to the department in electronic form or, if such pharmacy is unable to disclose such copy in electronic form, in paper form.

(f) The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-73e — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376 / Section 20-73e
Sec. 20-73e. Physical Therapy Licensure Compact.
Status: in_force

PHYSICAL THERAPY LICENSURE COMPACT

SECTION 1. PURPOSE

The purpose of the compact is to facilitate interstate practice of physical therapy with the goal of improving public access to physical therapy services. The practice of physical therapy occurs in the state where the patient is located at the time of the patient encounter. The compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure.

The compact is designed to achieve the following objectives:

(1) Increase public access to physical therapy services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses;

(2) Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety;

(3) Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multi-state physical therapy practice;

(4) Support spouses of relocating military members;

(5) Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative and disciplinary information between member states; and

(6) Allow a remote state to hold a provider of services with a compact privilege in such state accountable to such state's practice standards.

SECTION 2. DEFINITIONS

As used in section 1, this section and sections 3 to 12, inclusive, of the compact, and except as otherwise provided:

(1) “Active duty military” means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 USC 1209 and 1211, as amended from time to time;

(2) “Adverse action” means disciplinary action taken by a physical therapy licensing board based upon misconduct, unacceptable performance or a combination of both;

(3) “Alternative program” means a nondisciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process approved by a physical therapy licensing board, including, but not limited to, substance abuse issues;

(4) “Compact privilege” means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as a physical therapist or work as a physical therapist assistant in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of physical therapy occurs in the member state where the patient or client is located at the time of the patient or client encounter;

(5) “Continuing competence” means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work;

(6) “Data system” means a repository of information about licensees, including examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege and adverse action;

(7) “Encumbered license” means a license that a physical therapy licensing board has limited in any way;

(8) “Executive board” means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them, by the commission;

(9) “Home state” means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence;

(10) “Investigative information” means information, records and documents received or generated by a physical therapy licensing board pursuant to an investigation;

(11) “Jurisprudence requirement” means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of physical therapy in a state;

(12) “Licensee” means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as a physical therapist or to work as a physical therapist assistant;

(13) “Member state” means a state that has enacted the compact;

(14) “Party state” means any member state in which a licensee holds a current license or compact privilege or is applying for a license or compact privilege;

(15) “Physical therapist” means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice physical therapy;

(16) “Physical therapist assistant” means an individual who is licensed or certified by a state and who assists the physical therapist in selected components of physical therapy;

(17) “Physical therapy”, “physical therapy practice” and “the practice of physical therapy” mean the care and services provided by or under the direction and supervision of a licensed physical therapist;

(18) “Physical Therapy Compact Commission” or “commission” means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the compact;

(19) “Physical therapy licensing board” or “licensing board” means the agency of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants;

(20) “Remote state” means a member state other than the home state, where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege;

(21) “Rule” means a regulation, principle or directive promulgated by the commission that has the force of law; and

(22) “State” means any state, commonwealth, district or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of physical therapy.

SECTION 3. STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT

(a) To participate in the compact, a state shall:

(1) Participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules;

(2) Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees;

(3) Notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and rules, of any adverse action or of the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;

(4) Fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and use the results in making licensure decisions in accordance with subsection (b) of this section;

(5) Comply with the rules of the commission;

(6) Utilize a recognized national examination as a requirement for licensure pursuant to the rules of the commission; and

(7) Have continuing competence requirements as a condition for license renewal.

(b) Upon adoption of the compact, the member state shall have the authority to obtain biometric-based information from each physical therapy licensure applicant and shall submit such information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a criminal background check in accordance with 28 USC 534 and 42 USC 14616, as amended from time to time.

(c) A member state shall grant the compact privilege to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the compact and rules.

(d) Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.

SECTION 4. COMPACT PRIVILEGE

(a) To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the compact, the licensee shall:

(1) Hold a license in the home state;

(2) Have no encumbrance on any state license;

(3) Be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with subsections (d), (g) and (h) of this section;

(4) Have not had any adverse action against any license or compact privilege within the previous two years;

(5) Notify the commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state or remote states;

(6) Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege;

(7) Meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state or states in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege; and

(8) Report to the commission adverse action taken by any nonmember state not later than thirty days after the date the adverse action is taken.

(b) The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home license. The licensee shall comply with the requirements of subsection (a) of this section of the compact to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.

(c) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.

(d) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state is subject to such state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and such state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines and take any other necessary action to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee is not eligible for a compact privilege in any state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.

(e) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:

(1) The home state license is no longer encumbered; and

(2) Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.

(f) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee shall meet the requirements of subsection (a) of this section of the compact to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.

(g) If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed, the individual shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:

(1) The specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended;

(2) All fines have been paid; and

(3) Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.

(h) Once the requirements of subsection (g) of this section of the compact have been met, the licensee shall meet the requirements set forth in subsection (a) of this section of the compact to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.

SECTION 5. ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES

A licensee who is active duty military or is the spouse of an individual who is active duty military may designate one of the following as the home state:

(1) Home of record;

(2) Permanent change of station (PCS); or

(3) State of current residence if such state is different from the PCS state or home of record.

SECTION 6. ADVERSE ACTIONS

(a) A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against a license issued by the home state.

(b) A home state may take adverse action based on the investigative information of a remote state, so long as the home state follows its own procedures for imposing adverse action.

(c) Nothing in the compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain nonpublic if required by the member state's laws. Member states shall require licensees who enter any alternative programs in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice in any other member state during the term of the alternative program without prior authorization from such other member state.

(d) Any member state may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and rules authorizing the practice of physical therapy in any other member state in which a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant holds a license or compact privilege.

(e) A remote state shall have the authority to:

(1) Take adverse actions as set forth in subsection (d) of section 4 of the compact against a licensee's compact privilege in the state;

(2) Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a physical therapy licensing board in a party state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another party state shall be enforced in such other party state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of such court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before such court. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and

(3) If otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against such licensee.

(f) Joint Investigations

(1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective physical therapy practice act or other applicable state law, a member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.

(2) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.

SECTION 7. ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PHYSICAL THERAPY COMPACT COMMISSION

(a) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Physical Therapy Compact Commission.

(1) The commission is an instrumentality of the compact states.

(2) Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent that it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

(3) Nothing in the compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

(b) Membership, Voting and Meetings

(1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by such member state's licensing board.

(2) The delegate shall be a current member of the licensing board who is a physical therapist, a physical therapist assistant, a public member or the board administrator.

(3) Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.

(4) The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the commission.

(5) Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission.

(6) A delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

(7) The commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.

(c) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:

(1) Establish the fiscal year of the commission;

(2) Establish bylaws;

(3) Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;

(4) Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of the compact and the bylaws;

(5) Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of the compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;

(6) Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided the standing of any state physical therapy licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

(7) Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

(8) Borrow, accept or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state;

(9) Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties and grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel and other related personnel matters;

(10) Accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services and receive, utilize and dispose of such money, equipment, supplies, materials and services, provided at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;

(11) Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise own, hold, improve or use any property, real, personal or mixed, provided at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;

(12) Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon or otherwise dispose of any real, personal or mixed property;

(13) Establish a budget and make expenditures;

(14) Borrow money;

(15) Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives and such other interested persons as may be designated in the compact and the bylaws;

(16) Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law-enforcement agencies;

(17) Establish and elect an executive board; and

(18) Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of the compact consistent with the state regulation of physical therapy licensure and practice.

(d) The Executive Board

The executive board shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of the compact.

(1) The executive board shall be composed of nine members as follows:

(A) Seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission;

(B) One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized national physical therapy professional association; and

(C) One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization of the physical therapy licensing boards.

(2) The ex-officio members shall be selected by their respective organizations.

(3) The commission may remove any member of the executive board as provided in bylaws.

(4) The executive board shall meet at least annually.

(5) The executive board shall have the following duties and responsibilities:

(A) Recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to the compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states, including annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;

(B) Ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;

(C) Prepare and recommend the budget;

(D) Maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;

(E) Monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;

(F) Establish additional committees as necessary; and

(G) Perform other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.

(e) Meetings of the Commission

(1) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions of section 9 of the compact.

(2) The commission or the executive board or other committees of the commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the commission or executive board or other committees of the commission shall discuss:

(A) Noncompliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;

(B) The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

(C) Current, threatened or reasonably anticipated litigation;

(D) Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease or sale of goods, services or real estate;

(E) Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

(F) Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

(G) Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(H) Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law-enforcement purposes;

(I) Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or

(J) Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.

(3) If a meeting or portion of a meeting is closed pursuant to this provision, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.

(4) The commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken and the reasons therefor, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

(f) Financing of the Commission

(1) The commission shall pay or provide for the payment of the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization and ongoing activities.

(2) The commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services.

(3) The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff, which shall be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.

(4) The commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet such obligations, or pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.

(5) The commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited annually by a certified or licensed public accountant and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.

(g) Qualified Immunity, Defense and Indemnification

(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury or liability caused by the intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct of such person.

(2) The commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided (A) nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit such person from retaining his or her own counsel, and (B) the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from such person's intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct.

(3) The commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against such person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not result from the intentional or wilful or wanton misconduct of such person.

SECTION 8. DATA SYSTEM

(a) The commission shall provide for the development, maintenance and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action and investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a member state shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom the compact is applicable as required by the rules of the commission, including:

(1) Identifying information;

(2) Licensure data;

(3) Adverse actions against a license or compact privilege;

(4) Nonconfidential information related to alternative program participation;

(5) Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason for such denial; and

(6) Other information that may facilitate the administration of the compact, as determined by the rules of the commission.

(c) Investigative information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall only be available to other party states.

(d) The commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall be available to any other member state.

(e) Member states contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state.

(f) Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system.

SECTION 9. RULEMAKING

(a) The commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.

(b) If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the compact not later than four years after the date of adoption of the rule, such rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state.

(c) Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the commission.

(d) Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the commission, and at least thirty days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the commission shall file a notice of proposed rulemaking:

(1) On the Internet web site of the commission or other publicly accessible platform; and

(2) On the Internet web site of each member state physical therapy licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

(e) The notice of proposed rulemaking shall include:

(1) The proposed time, date and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;

(2) The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

(3) A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

(4) The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.

(f) Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

(g) The commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:

(1) At least twenty-five persons;

(2) A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or

(3) An association having at least twenty-five members.

(h) If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the commission shall publish the place, time and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the hearing is held via electronic means, the commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing.

(1) All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not less than five business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.

(2) Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.

(3) All hearings shall be recorded. A copy of the recording shall be made available on request.

(4) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the commission at hearings required by this section.

(i) Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

(j) If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.

(k) The commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

(l) Upon determination that an emergency exists, the commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment or hearing, provided the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, but in no event later than ninety days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this subsection, an emergency rule shall be adopted immediately to:

(1) Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety or welfare;

(2) Prevent a loss of commission or member state funds;

(3) Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or

(4) Protect public health and safety.

(m) The commission or an authorized committee of the commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the Internet web site of the commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision shall take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the commission.

SECTION 10. OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND ENFORCEMENT

(a) Oversight

(1) The executive, legislative and judicial branches of state government in each member state shall enforce the compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of the compact and the rules promulgated under the compact shall have standing as statutory law.

(2) All courts shall take judicial notice of the compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a member state pertaining to the subject matter of the compact which may affect the powers, responsibilities or actions of the commission.

(3) The commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the commission, the compact or promulgated rules.

(b) Default, Technical Assistance and Termination

(1) If the commission determines that a member state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under the compact or the promulgated rules, the commission shall:

(A) Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other member states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default, and or any other action to be taken by the commission; and

(B) Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

(2) If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the member states, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by the compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default shall not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

(3) Termination of membership in the compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting state's legislature and each of the member states.

(4) A state that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.

(5) The commission shall not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the commission and the defaulting state.

(6) The defaulting state may appeal the action of the commission by petitioning the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

(c) Dispute Resolution

(1) Upon request by a member state, the commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the compact that arise among member states and between member and nonmember states.

(2) The commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.

(d) Enforcement

(1) The commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of the compact.

(2) By majority vote, the commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

(3) The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the commission. The commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

SECTION 11. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION OF THE INTERSTATE COMMISSION FOR PHYSICAL THERAPY PRACTICE AND ASSOCIATED RULES, WITHDRAWAL AND AMENDMENT

(a) The compact shall come into effect on the date on which the compact statute is enacted into law in the tenth member state. The provisions, which become effective at such time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the compact.

(b) Any state that joins the compact subsequent to the commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the compact becomes law in such state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the compact becomes law in such state.

(c) Any member state may withdraw from the compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.

(1) A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six months after enactment of the repealing statute.

(2) Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's physical therapy licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of the compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

(d) Nothing contained in the compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any physical therapy licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a nonmember state that does not conflict with the provisions of the compact.

(e) The compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to the compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.

SECTION 12. CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY

The compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of the compact shall be severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of the compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any party state or the Constitution of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of the compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If the compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any party state, the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining party states and in full force and effect as to the party state affected as to all severable matters.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-334d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-334d
Sec. 20-334d. Continuing professional education requirements for electricians and plumbers. Regulations. Exemptions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Accredited continuing professional education” means any education of an electrician or plumber that is (A) designed to maintain professional competence in the practice, pursuit and standards of electrical work or plumbing and piping work, (B) approved by the commissioner, and (C) provided (i) by an agency, institution or organization that has been approved by the commissioner, and (ii) in-person or through an online technology platform that includes real-time video with audio, requires participants to periodically confirm their active engagement during the educational training session and enables participants to interact with instructors in real time during the entire educational training session;

(2) “Certificate of continuing education” means a document that (A) an agency, institution or organization that has been approved by the commissioner and offers accredited continuing professional education issues to an electrician or plumber, (B) certifies that an electrician or plumber has satisfactorily completed a specified number of continuing education hours, and (C) bears the (i) name of such agency, institution or organization, (ii) title of the program, (iii) dates during which the program was conducted, (iv) number of continuing education hours satisfactorily completed, and (v) signature of the director of such agency, institution or organization or of such director's authorized agent; and

(3) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Consumer Protection.

(b) The commissioner, with the advice and assistance of the Electrical Work Board established pursuant to subsection (b) of section 20-331 , shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to: (1) Establish additional requirements for accredited continuing professional education for electricians licensed pursuant to sections 20-330 to 20-341 , inclusive; (2) establish qualifying criteria for accredited continuing professional education programs and establish qualifying criteria for acceptable certificates of continuing education; and (3) provide for the waiver of required accredited continuing professional education for electricians for good cause. Such regulations shall require not less than four hours per year of accredited continuing professional education for such electricians, except upon request of the Electrical Work Board, the commissioner may increase such hours to a maximum of seven hours.

(c) The commissioner, with the advice and assistance of the Plumbing and Piping Work Board established pursuant to subsection (d) of section 20-331 , shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to: (1) Establish additional requirements for accredited continuing professional education for plumbers licensed pursuant to sections 20-330 to 20-341 , inclusive, which regulations shall require not more than a total of seven hours of accredited continuing professional education every two years, except in the event of significant changes to the building code, as approved by the International Code Council, that relate to plumbing, the commissioner, at such commissioner's discretion, may require more than a total of seven hours of accredited continuing professional education every two years; (2) establish qualifying criteria for accredited continuing professional education programs and establish qualifying criteria for acceptable certificates of continuing education; and (3) provide for the waiver of required accredited continuing professional education for plumbers for good cause.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (c) of this section, any person who has been issued a P-6, P-7, W-8 or W-9 license pursuant to section 20-334a and the regulations of Connecticut state agencies shall not be required to meet the continuing education requirements established pursuant to subsection (c) of this section.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (a) to (d), inclusive, of this section, all accredited continuing professional education offered under the provisions of this section shall: (1) Limit class size to (A) fifty attendees if such accredited continuing professional education is offered in-person, or (B) twenty-five attendees if such accredited continuing professional education is offered through an online technology platform; (2) not be offered or held at the place of business of a licensed plumbing contractor if such accredited continuing professional education is for plumbers and offered in-person; and (3) not be offered or held at the place of business of a licensed electrical contractor if such accredited continuing professional education is for electricians and offered in-person. A provider of an accredited continuing professional education course shall retain an audio-visual recording of such course for a period of not less than thirty days after completion of such course. Recordings shall be made available to the department upon the department's request for such recordings.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-320b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-320b
Sec. 20-320b. Prohibition against influencing real estate appraisals. Violation, penalty.
Status: in_force

(b) Violations of subsection (a) of this section shall be subject to the actions and penalties set forth in section 20-320 .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-281d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 389 / Section 20-281d
Sec. 20-281d. Issuance of initial license to persons and license renewal. Holders of certificates from other states. Continuing education requirements. Fees. Applicants' disclosure requirements. Online renewal.
Status: in_force

(b) Licenses shall be initially issued for one year and renewed annually. Applications for such licenses shall be made in such form, and in the case of applications for renewal, between such dates, as the board shall by regulation, adopted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, specify.

(c) An applicant for initial issuance of a license under this section shall show:

(1) That such applicant holds a valid certificate;

(2) If the applicant's certificate was issued more than four years prior to his or her application for issuance of an initial license under this section, that he or she has fulfilled the requirements of continuing professional education that would have been applicable under subsection (e) of this section if he or she had secured his or her initial license within four years of issuance of his or her certificate and was now applying under subsection (e) of this section for renewal of such license.

(d) The board shall issue a certificate to a holder of a certificate issued by another state upon a showing that:

(1) The applicant passed the examination required for issuance of his or her certificate with grades that would have been passing grades at the time in this state; and

(2) The applicant meets all current requirements in this state for issuance of a certificate at the time the application is made; or the applicant, at the time of the issuance of the applicant's certificate in the other state, met all such requirements then applicable in this state; or the applicant has had five years of experience in the practice of public accountancy no earlier than the ten years immediately preceding the applicant's application or meets equivalent requirements prescribed by the board by regulation.

(e) For renewal of a license under this section, an applicant shall show that he or she has completed forty hours of continuing professional education during each year from the date of issuance or last renewal. A renewal applicant who has a principal place of business outside of this state may show compliance with the provisions of this subsection by certifying in writing that he or she has completed the continuing professional education requirements in the state of the applicant's principal place of business during each year from the date of his or her license issuance or last renewal. The board may prescribe, by regulation adopted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, the content, duration and organization of continuing professional education courses which contribute to the general professional competence of the applicant.

(f) For renewal of a license under this section, the board shall charge the following fees for failure to earn continuing education credits by the June thirtieth deadline:

(1) Three hundred fifteen dollars for reporting on a renewal application a minimum of forty hours of continuing professional education, any of which was earned after June thirtieth and on or by September thirtieth;

(2) Six hundred twenty-five dollars for reporting on a renewal application a minimum of forty hours of continuing professional education any of which was earned after June thirtieth and on or by December thirty-first.

(g) The board shall charge a fee of one hundred fifty dollars for the initial issuance and the professional services fee for class I, as defined in section 33-182 l , for each annual renewal of such license.

(h) Applicants for initial issuance or renewal of licenses under this section shall in their applications list all states in which they have applied for or hold certificates or licenses, and each holder of or applicant for a license under this section shall notify the board in writing, within thirty days after its occurrence, of any issuance, denial, revocation or suspension of a certificate or license by another state.

(i) The board shall administer an online renewal system for licenses renewed pursuant to this section. Each applicant for renewal pursuant to this section shall use such online renewal system and shall pay the applicable renewal fee using a credit card or via electronic funds transfer from a bank or credit union account. A licensee may request a waiver of such renewal requirements due to extenuating circumstances and the board may allow such licensee to renew his or her license using a paper form.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-325l — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-325l
Sec. 20-325l. Cooperation with out-of-state brokers and salespersons regarding commercial real estate transactions in this state.
Status: in_force

(1) Works in cooperation with a licensed broker, whether in a cobrokerage, referral or other cooperative agreement or arrangement;

(2) Enters into a written agreement with a licensed broker that includes the terms of cooperation and any compensation to be paid by the licensed broker and a statement that the out-of-state broker and the out-of-state broker's agents will comply with the laws of this state;

(3) Provides the licensed broker a copy of the out-of-state broker's license or other proof of licensure from the states where the out-of-state broker maintains a license as a real estate broker;

(4) Deposits all escrow funds, security deposits, and other money received pursuant to the commercial real estate transaction to be held as provided in section 20-324k unless the agreement required in subdivision (2) of this subsection specifies otherwise;

(5) Complies with the laws of this state with respect to the transaction; and

(6) Is credentialled as a real estate broker in another state.

(b) An out-of-state salesperson may perform acts with respect to a commercial real estate transaction that require a license as a real estate salesperson under this chapter, provided the out-of-state salesperson complies with the laws of this state with respect to the transaction and:

(1) Works under the direct supervision of an out-of-state broker who meets the requirements set forth in subdivisions (1), (5) and (6) of subsection (a) of this section; and

(2) Provides the licensed broker who is working in cooperation with the out-of-state broker a copy of the out-of-state salesperson's license or other proof of licensure from the states where the out-of-state salesperson maintains a license as a real estate salesperson.

(c) Any out-of-state broker or out-of-state salesperson licensed in a state that has no distinction between a real estate broker license and a real estate salesperson license shall be subject to the requirements of subsection (a) of this section with regard to any commercial real estate transaction in this state.

(d) Each out-of-state broker or out-of-state salesperson that advertises for sale commercial real estate pursuant to this section shall include in any advertising material the name of the licensed broker with whom the out-of-state broker has a written agreement pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section. Nothing in this section shall permit an out-of-state broker or out-of-state salesperson to accompany a prospective buyer at the site of commercial real estate pursuant to a real estate transaction in this state.

(e) An out-of-state real estate licensee may receive compensation for referring to a real estate licensee in this state a prospective party to a real estate transaction in this state.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-325 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-325
Sec. 20-325. Engaging in real estate business without license.
Status: in_force

Cited. 34 CA 250; 36 CA 653.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-13d — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 370 / Section 20-13d
Sec. 20-13d. Complaints required and permitted. Department to be notified of termination or restriction of physician's privileges. Facilities to be notified of suspension, revocation or restriction of physician's license. Notice of disciplinary action taken in other state.
Status: in_force

(b) Any health care facility licensed under section 19a-493 which terminates or restricts the staff membership or privileges of any physician shall, not later than fifteen days after the effective date of such action, notify the department of such action.

(c) The department shall notify any health care facility licensed under section 19a-493 if the board suspends, revokes or otherwise restricts the license of any physician. The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with chapter 54 to implement a system of notification in accordance with the provisions of this subsection.

(d) A physician shall report to the department any disciplinary action similar to an action specified in subsection (a) of section 19a-17 taken against him by a duly authorized professional disciplinary agency of any other state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or a foreign jurisdiction, within thirty days of such action. Failure to so report may constitute a ground for disciplinary action under section 20-13c .

Cited. 207 C. 346.

Cited. 17 CA 532.

Cited. 40 CS 188.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-575 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-575
Sec. 20-575. Powers and responsibilities.
Status: in_force

(b) The commission may compel attendance of witnesses and the production of documents by subpoena and may administer oaths. If any person refuses or fails to appear, testify or produce any document when so ordered, a judge of the Superior Court may, upon application of the commission, make such order as may be appropriate to enforce this subsection.

(c) The commission may apply to the Superior Court for and the court may, upon hearing and for cause shown, grant a temporary or permanent injunction enjoining any person from violating any provision of sections 20-570 to 20-630 , inclusive, or any regulation adopted in accordance with chapter 54 by the commissioner, with the advice and assistance of the commission, pursuant to sections 20-570 to 20-630 , inclusive, irrespective of whether an adequate remedy at law exists. The commission also may apply to the Superior Court for, and the court shall have jurisdiction to grant, a temporary restraining order pending a hearing.

(d) An application to the Superior Court under subsection (b) or (c) of this section shall be brought by the Attorney General.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-222b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 385 / Section 20-222b
Sec. 20-222b. Disclosure of ownership information.
Status: in_force

(1) The name of every licensed funeral director, as defined in section 20-207 , who holds an ownership interest of ten per cent or more in the corporation, limited liability company, partnership, limited partnership or other business entity that operates such funeral service business; and

(2) The name of any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, limited partnership or other business entity that holds an ownership interest of ten per cent or more in such funeral service business.

(b) Each person, firm or corporation that carries on or engages in such funeral service business shall include, on any contract for the sale of funeral services or merchandise, the name, business address and business telephone number of any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, limited partnership or other business entity that holds an ownership interest of ten per cent or more in such funeral service business.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-582 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-582
Sec. 20-582. (Formerly Sec. 20-176). Appeals of decisions of Commission of Pharmacy.
Status: in_force

Annotation to former section 20-176:

Cited. 179 C. 415.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-329bb — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 392 / Section 20-329bb
Sec. 20-329bb. Exemptions.
Status: in_force

(b) Any real property securities dealer who is required to be licensed and to obtain a permit under the provisions of said sections shall be exempt from the provisions of sections 36a-380 to 36a-386 , inclusive, 36a-395 to 36a-399 , inclusive, 36a-535 to 36a-546 , inclusive, and 36b-2 to 36b-34 , inclusive.

(c) The provisions of said sections shall not apply to transactions involving a promissory note or notes, the payment of which is secured in whole or in part by a mortgage deed or deeds.

Cited. 3 CA 675.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-636 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-636
Sec. 20-636. Sign re storage and disposal of prescription drugs. Sticker or label on container or packaging.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after January 1, 2024, each pharmacy shall affix a fluorescent orange sticker or label to each container or packaging in which an opioid drug, as defined in section 20-14o , or controlled substance in schedule II, III, IV or V, is sold or dispensed, containing the following statement in black ink:

“DANGER TO CHILDREN

KEEP OUT OF REACH”.

(c) Not later than July 1, 2024, the Commissioner of Consumer Protection shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to provide guidance for pharmacies concerning the optimal size of and font size used on the stickers or labels required pursuant to subsection (b) of this section. Not later than September 1, 2023, the commissioner shall implement policies and procedures necessary to implement such guidance while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-206f — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 384a / Section 20-206f
Sec. 20-206f. Continuing education requirements.
Status: in_force

(b) No more than eighteen continuing education units shall be completed via the Internet or distance learning and no more than twelve continuing education units shall be obtained from providers that are not approved by the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork. For purposes of this section, “continuing education unit” means fifty to sixty minutes of participation in accredited continuing professional education.

(c) The Department of Public Health may require an applicant for license renewal to submit evidence of continuing education on forms that may be prescribed by the department. Each licensee shall maintain records, or certificates or other evidence of compliance with continuing education requirements for a period of six years. Failure on the part of the licensee to demonstrate that such continuing education requirements have been met shall be grounds for disciplinary action pursuant to section 20-206c .

(d) This section shall not apply to licensees who have been continuously licensed since February 1, 1994. The continuing education requirements shall be waived for licensees applying for licensure renewal for the first time. The department may, for a licensee who has a medical disability or illness, grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements for a specific period of time or may grant the licensee an extension of time in which to fulfill the requirements.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-340a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 393 / Section 20-340a
Sec. 20-340a. Telephone electrical workers.
Status: in_force

(b) The Department of Consumer Protection shall also furnish an appropriate license, as provided in said section 20-334a , to any person who (1) is an employee of any corporation which on January 1, 1984, was a corporate affiliate of a telephone company, as so defined, and which, on or before October 1, 1986, terminates such corporate affiliation, (2) has been exempt from the provisions of this chapter pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (2) of section 20-340 as a result of being employed by such a corporation at the time of such affiliation, (3) becomes subject to the provisions of this chapter as a result of the termination of such affiliation, and (4) applies for any such license in accordance with the provisions of this chapter not later than July 18, 1988, provided any such employee shall not be required to pass any examination in order to qualify for any such license.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-74ff — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376c / Section 20-74ff
Sec. 20-74ff. Continuing education: Definitions; contact hours; attestation; record-keeping; exemptions, waivers and extensions; reinstatement of void licenses.
Status: in_force

(1) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health;

(2) “Contact hour” means a minimum of fifty minutes of continuing education activity;

(3) “Department” means the Department of Public Health;

(4) “Licensee” means any person who receives a license from the department pursuant to this chapter; and

(5) “Registration period” means the one-year period for which a license renewed in accordance with section 19a-88 is current and valid.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, for registration periods beginning on and after October 1, 2008, a licensee applying for license renewal shall either maintain registration as a radiographer or radiation therapy technologist issued by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists, or its successor organization, or earn a minimum of twenty-four contact hours of continuing education within the preceding twenty-four-month period. Such continuing education shall (1) be in an area of the licensee's practice; and (2) reflect the professional needs of the licensee in order to meet the health care needs of the public. Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not limited to, courses, including on-line courses, offered or approved by the American College of Radiology, American Healthcare Radiology Administrators, American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine, American Society of Radiologic Technologists, Canadian Association of Medical Radiation Technologists, Radiological Society of North America, Society of Diagnostic Medical Sonography, Society of Nuclear Medicine Technologist Section, Society for Vascular Ultrasound, Section for Magnetic Resonance Technologists, a hospital or other health care institution, regionally accredited schools of higher education or a state or local health department.

(c) Each licensee applying for license renewal pursuant to section 19a-88 shall sign a statement attesting that he or she has maintained registration as a radiographer or radiation therapy technologist issued by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists, or has satisfied the continuing education requirements of subsection (b) of this section on a form prescribed by the department. A licensee who fails to comply with the requirements of this section may be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to section 20-74cc or 19a-17 . Each licensee shall retain records of attendance or certificates of completion that demonstrate compliance with the continuing education requirements of subsection (b) of this section for a minimum of three years following the year in which the continuing education activities were completed and shall submit such records to the department for inspection not later than forty-five days after a request by the department for such records.

(d) A licensee applying for the first time for license renewal pursuant to section 19a-88 is exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section.

(e) A licensee who is not engaged in active professional practice in any form during a registration period shall be exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section, provided the licensee submits to the department, prior to the expiration of the registration period, a notarized application for exemption on a form prescribed by the department and such other documentation as may be required by the department. The application for exemption pursuant to this subsection shall contain a statement that the licensee may not engage in professional practice until the licensee has met the continuing education requirements of this section.

(f) In individual cases involving medical disability or illness, the commissioner may, in the commissioner's discretion, grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements or an extension of time within which to fulfill the continuing education requirements of this section to any licensee, provided the licensee submits to the department an application for waiver or extension of time on a form prescribed by the department, along with a certification by a licensed physician, a licensed physician assistant or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse of the disability or illness and such other documentation as may be required by the commissioner. The commissioner may grant a waiver or extension for a period not to exceed one registration period, except that the commissioner may grant additional waivers or extensions if the medical disability or illness upon which a waiver or extension is granted continues beyond the period of the waiver or extension and the licensee applies for an additional waiver or extension.

(g) Any licensee whose license has become void pursuant to section 19a-88 and who applies to the department for reinstatement of such license pursuant to section 19a-14 shall submit evidence documenting successful completion of twelve contact hours of continuing education within the one-year period immediately preceding application for reinstatement.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-349 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 394 / Section 20-349
Sec. 20-349. License required. Application.
Status: in_force

(b) No person shall offer by advertisement, telephone or in any other manner to install, service, maintain or repair receiving equipment unless such person has been licensed for such purpose in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.

(c) Any person desiring to be licensed under this chapter shall apply to the board in writing, on forms which the Department of Consumer Protection shall provide, stating: (1) Such person's name, residence address and business address; (2) a brief description of his qualifications, including the length and nature of his experience; (3) in the case of an apprentice, the name of his employer or supervisor; and (4) such other information as the department may require. Each application for a license as a service dealer shall be accompanied by a fee of two hundred dollars. Each application for a license as a licensed electronics technician, licensed antenna technician or licensed radio electronics technician shall be accompanied by a fee of eighty dollars. Each application for a permit as an apprentice shall be accompanied by a fee of forty dollars. If a service dealer as an individual is a licensed electronics technician or licensed radio electronics technician, only one license fee shall be charged in the amount of two hundred dollars. All such fees shall be paid to the department.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-206aa — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 384c / Section 20-206aa
Sec. 20-206aa. Definitions.
Status: in_force

(1) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health.

(2) “Department” means the Department of Public Health.

(3) “The practice of acupuncture” means the system of restoring and maintaining health by the classical and modern Oriental medicine principles and methods of assessment, treatment and prevention of diseases, disorders and dysfunctions of the body, injury, pain and other conditions. “The practice of acupuncture” includes:

(A) Assessment of body function, development of a comprehensive treatment plan and evaluation of treatment outcomes according to acupuncture and Oriental medicine theory;

(B) Modulation and restoration of normal function in and between the body's energetic and organ systems and biochemical, metabolic and circulation functions using stimulation of selected points by inserting needles, including, trigger point, subcutaneous and dry needling, and other methods consistent with accepted standards within the acupuncture and Oriental medicine profession;

(C) Promotion and maintenance of normal function in the body's energetic and organ systems and biochemical, metabolic and circulation functions by recommendation of Oriental dietary principles, including, use of herbal and other supplements, exercise and other self-treatment techniques according to Oriental medicine theory; and

(D) Other practices that are consistent with the recognized standards of the acupuncture and Oriental medicine profession and accepted by the National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine.

(4) “Recognized regional accrediting body” means one of the following regional accrediting bodies: New England Association of Schools and Colleges; Middle States Association of Colleges and Schools; North Central Association of Colleges and Schools; Northwest Association of Schools and Colleges; Southern Association of Colleges and Schools; and Western Association of Schools and Colleges.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-74oo — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 376c / Section 20-74oo
Sec. 20-74oo. Radiologist assistants: Qualifications for licensure; use of title; construction; license renewal.
Status: in_force

(b) Each person seeking licensure to practice as a radiologist assistant in this state shall make application on forms prescribed by the department, pay an application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and present to the department satisfactory evidence that such person: (1) Has graduated from a radiologist assistant education program recognized by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists; (2) has passed the radiologist assistant examination offered by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists; (3) holds and maintains a current license in good standing as a radiologic technologist in the state; (4) holds and maintains current certification in advanced cardiac life support; (5) holds and maintains current certification with the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists as a radiographer; and (6) holds and maintains current certification with the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists as a radiologist assistant.

(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the activities and services of a person who is enrolled in a radiologist assistant education program recognized by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists, provided such activities and services are incidental to the course of study.

(d) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any practicing physician or surgeon licensed under chapter 370.

(e) No license shall be issued under this section to any applicant against whom professional disciplinary action is pending or who is the subject of an unresolved complaint in this or any other state or territory.

(f) Licenses shall be renewed annually in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-88 for a fee of one hundred fifty dollars.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-28b — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 372 / Section 20-28b
Sec. 20-28b. Professional liability insurance required, when. Amount of insurance. Reporting requirements.
Status: in_force

(b) Each insurance company which issues professional liability insurance, as defined in subdivisions (1), (6), (7), (8) and (9) of subsection (b) of section 38a-393 , shall on and after January 1, 1995, render to the Commissioner of Public Health a true record of the names and addresses, according to classification, of cancellations of and refusals to renew professional liability insurance policies and the reasons for such cancellation or refusal to renew said policies for the year ending on the thirty-first day of December next preceding.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-491 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400f / Section 20-491
Sec. 20-491. Regulations: Home inspectors and home inspector interns.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner, with the advice and assistance of the board, shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to: (1) Establish the requirements for obtaining a permit as a home inspector intern; (2) establish application procedures for persons seeking a permit as a home inspector intern; (3) prescribe rules and standards concerning the supervision of home inspector interns by licensed home inspectors; and (4) adopt such reasonable regulations as the commissioner may deem necessary or desirable to carry out and enforce the provisions of sections 20-490 to 20-495a , inclusive. Such regulations shall require, as a condition of receiving a permit as a home inspector intern, that the applicant enroll in and complete a board-approved training program which may include a home study course.

(c) The commissioner shall establish rules concerning hearings on any matter under the provisions of sections 20-490 to 20-495a , inclusive.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-201a — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 384 / Section 20-201a
Sec. 20-201a. Continuing education: Definitions; contact hours; attestation; record-keeping; exemptions, waivers and extensions; reinstatement of void licenses.
Status: in_force

(1) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health;

(2) “Contact hour” means a minimum of fifty minutes of continuing education activity;

(3) “Department” means the Department of Public Health;

(4) “Licensee” means any person who receives a license from the department pursuant to this chapter; and

(5) “Registration period” means the one-year period for which a license renewed in accordance with section 19a-88 is current and valid.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, for registration periods beginning on and after July 1, 2011, a licensee applying for license renewal shall earn a minimum of twenty-four contact hours of continuing education within the preceding twenty-four-month period. Such continuing education shall (1) be in an area of the licensee's practice; and (2) reflect the professional needs of the licensee in order to meet the veterinary health care needs of the public. Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not limited to, courses, including on-line courses, offered or approved by national or state veterinary medical organizations, societies or associations, colleges or schools of veterinary medicine and other professional societies and organizations as appropriate to the educational needs of the licensee.

(c) Each licensee applying for license renewal pursuant to section 19a-88 shall sign a statement attesting that he or she has satisfied the continuing education requirements of subsection (b) of this section on a form prescribed by the department. Each licensee shall retain records of attendance or certificates of completion that demonstrate compliance with such continuing education requirements for a minimum of three years following the year in which the continuing education activities were completed and shall submit such records to the department for inspection not later than forty-five days after a request by the department for such records.

(d) A licensee applying for the first time for license renewal pursuant to section 19a-88 is exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section.

(e) A licensee who is not engaged in active professional practice in any form during a registration period shall be exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section, provided the licensee submits to the department, prior to the expiration of the registration period, a notarized application for exemption on a form prescribed by the department and such other documentation as may be required by the department. The application for exemption pursuant to this subsection shall contain a statement that the licensee may not engage in professional practice until the licensee has met the continuing education requirements of this section.

(f) In individual cases involving medical disability or illness, the commissioner may, in the commissioner's discretion, grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements or an extension of time within which to fulfill the continuing education requirements of this section to any licensee, provided the licensee submits to the department an application for waiver or extension of time on a form prescribed by the department, along with a certification by a licensed physician, a licensed physician assistant or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse of the disability or illness and such other documentation as may be required by the commissioner. The commissioner may grant a waiver or extension for a period not to exceed one registration period, except that the commissioner may grant additional waivers or extensions if the medical disability or illness upon which a waiver or extension is granted continues beyond the period of the waiver or extension and the licensee applies for an additional waiver or extension.

(g) Any licensee whose license has become void pursuant to section 19a-88 and who applies to the department for reinstatement of such license pursuant to section 19a-14 shall submit evidence documenting successful completion of twelve contact hours of continuing education within the one-year period immediately preceding application for reinstatement.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-574 — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 400j / Section 20-574
Sec. 20-574. (Formerly Sec. 20-164a). Supervision by Commissioner of Consumer Protection.
Status: in_force

Commissioner has the authority to review defendant pharmacy's billing records. 53 CA 129.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 20-195u — Connecticut Code / Title 20 / Chapter 383b / Section 20-195u
Sec. 20-195u. Continuing education requirements: Record-keeping; exemptions; waivers; reinstatement of void licenses.
Status: in_force

(b) Continuing education required pursuant to this section shall be related to the practice of social work and shall include not less than one contact hour of training or education each registration period on the topic of cultural competency and, on and after January 1, 2016, not less than two contact hours of training or education during the first renewal period in which continuing education is required and not less than once every six years thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions common to veterans and family members of veterans, including (1) determining whether a patient is a veteran or family member of a veteran, (2) screening for conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, depression and grief, and (3) suicide prevention training. Such continuing education shall consist of courses, workshops and conferences offered or approved by the Association of Social Work Boards, the National Association of Social Workers or a school or department of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work Education.

(c) Each licensee shall obtain a certificate of completion from a provider of the continuing education for all continuing education hours that are successfully completed and shall retain such certificate for a minimum of three years following the license renewal date for which the activity satisfies the continuing education requirement. Upon request by the department, the licensee shall submit such certificate to the department. A licensee who fails to comply with the continuing education requirements prescribed in this section may be subject to disciplinary action pursuant to section 20-195p .

(d) A person licensed pursuant to this chapter who holds a professional educator certificate that is endorsed for school social work and issued by the State Board of Education pursuant to sections 10-144o to 10-149 , inclusive, may satisfy the continuing education requirements contained in this section by successfully completing professional development activities pursuant to section 10-148a , provided the number of continuing education hours completed by such person is equal to the number of hours per registration period required by this section.

(e) A licensee applying for the first time for license renewal pursuant to section 20-195o shall be exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section. The department may, for a licensee who has a medical disability or illness, grant a waiver of the continuing education requirements or may grant such licensee an extension of time in which to fulfill the requirements, provided the licensee submits to the department an application for waiver or extension of time on a form prescribed by the department along with any documentation required by the department. The department may grant a waiver or extension not to exceed one registration period, except that the department may grant additional waivers or extensions if the initial reason for the waiver or extension continues beyond the period of the waiver or extension. A waiver of the continuing education requirement may be granted by the department to a licensee who is not engaged in social work during a given continuing education registration period, provided the licensee submits a waiver request prior to the expiration of the continuing education period, on a form prescribed by the department.

(f) Any licensee granted a waiver of the continuing education requirements pursuant to the provisions of subsection (e) of this section shall be required to complete seven hours of continuing education not later than six months from the date on which such licensee returned to active practice. In addition, such licensee shall comply with the certificate of completion requirements prescribed in subsection (c) of this section.

(g) Any licensee whose license has become void pursuant to the provisions of subsection (f) of section 19a-88 , who applies to the department for reinstatement of such license, shall submit with such application evidence documenting that such applicant has successfully completed seven hours of continuing education within the one-year period immediately preceding the date of application for reinstatement.