Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-491 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-491
Sec. 19a-491. (Formerly Sec. 19-577). License and certificate required. Application. Assessment of civil penalties or a consent order. Fees. Minimum service quality standards. Regulations. Professional liability insurance. Prohibition. Maintenance of medical records.
Status: in_force

(b) If any person acting individually or jointly with any other person owns real property or any improvements thereon, upon or within which an institution, as defined in subsections (c) and (o) of section 19a-490 , is established, conducted, operated or maintained and is not the licensee of the institution, such person shall submit a copy of the lease agreement to the department at the time of any change of ownership and with each license renewal application. The lease agreement shall, at a minimum, identify the person or entity responsible for the maintenance and repair of all buildings and structures within which such an institution is established, conducted or operated. If a violation is found as a result of an inspection or investigation, the commissioner may require the owner to sign a consent order providing assurances that repairs or improvements necessary for compliance with the provisions of the regulations of Connecticut state agencies shall be completed within a specified period of time or may assess a civil penalty of not more than one thousand dollars for each day that such owner is in violation of the regulations of Connecticut state agencies or a consent order. A consent order may include a provision for the establishment of a temporary manager of such real property who has the authority to complete any repairs or improvements required by such order. Upon request of the Commissioner of Public Health, the Attorney General may petition the Superior Court for such equitable and injunctive relief as such court deems appropriate to ensure compliance with the provisions of a consent order. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any property or improvements owned by a person licensed in accordance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this section to establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution on or within such property or improvements.

(c) The Commissioner of Public Health shall charge the following fees for the biennial licensing and inspection of the following institutions: (1) Chronic and convalescent nursing homes, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (2) chronic and convalescent nursing homes, per bed, five dollars; (3) rest homes with nursing supervision, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (4) rest homes with nursing supervision, per bed, five dollars; (5) outpatient dialysis units and outpatient surgical facilities, six hundred twenty-five dollars; (6) mental health residential facilities, per site, three hundred seventy-five dollars; (7) mental health residential facilities, per bed, five dollars; (8) hospitals, per site, nine hundred forty dollars; (9) hospitals, per bed, seven dollars and fifty cents; (10) nonstate agency educational institutions, per infirmary, one hundred fifty dollars; (11) nonstate agency educational institutions, per infirmary bed, twenty-five dollars; (12) home health care agencies, except certified home health care agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per agency, three hundred dollars; (13) home health care agencies, hospice agencies or home health aide agencies, except certified home health care agencies, hospice agencies or home health aide agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per satellite patient service office, one hundred dollars; (14) assisted living services agencies, except such agencies participating in the congregate housing facility pilot program described in section 8-119n , per site, five hundred dollars; (15) short-term hospitals special hospice, per site, nine hundred forty dollars; (16) short-term hospitals special hospice, per bed, seven dollars and fifty cents; (17) hospice inpatient facility, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (18) hospice inpatient facility, per bed, five dollars; and (19) birth centers, per site, nine hundred forty dollars and, per bed, seven dollars and fifty cents.

(d) Notwithstanding any regulation, the commissioner shall charge the following fees for the triennial licensing and inspection of the following institutions: (1) Residential care homes, per site, five hundred sixty-five dollars; (2) residential care homes, per bed, four dollars and fifty cents; (3) home health care agencies that are certified as a provider of services by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under the Medicare or Medicaid program, three hundred dollars; and (4) certified home health care agencies or hospice agencies, as described in section 19a-493 , per satellite patient service office, one hundred dollars.

(e) The commissioner shall charge one thousand dollars for the licensing and inspection of outpatient clinics that provide either medical or mental health service, urgent care services and well-child clinical services, except those operated by a municipal health department, health district or licensed nonprofit nursing or community health agency. Such licensing and inspection shall be performed every three years, except those outpatient clinics that have obtained accreditation from a national accrediting organization within the immediately preceding twelve-month period may be inspected by the commissioner once every four years, provided the outpatient clinic has not committed any violation that the commissioner determines would pose an immediate threat to the health, safety or welfare of the patients of the outpatient clinic. The provisions of this subsection shall not be construed to limit the commissioner's authority to inspect any applicant for licensure or renewal of licensure as an outpatient clinic, suspend or revoke any license granted to an outpatient clinic pursuant to this section or take any other legal action against an outpatient clinic that is authorized by any provision of the general statutes.

(f) Any institution that is planning a project for construction or building alteration shall provide the plan for such project to the Department of Public Health for review. Any such project shall comply with nationally established facility guidelines for health care construction, as approved by the commissioner, that are in place at the time the institution provides the plan to the department. The commissioner shall post a reference to such guidelines, including the effective date of such guidelines, on the Department of Public Health's Internet web site. No institution shall be required to include matters outside the scope and applicability of such guidelines in the institution's plan.

(g) The commissioner shall charge a fee of five hundred sixty-five dollars for the technical assistance provided for the design, review and development of an institution's construction, renovation, building alteration, sale or change in ownership when the cost of the project is one million dollars or less and shall charge a fee of one-quarter of one per cent of the total construction cost when the cost of the project is more than one million dollars. Such fee shall include all department reviews and on-site inspections. For purposes of this subsection, “institution” does not include a facility owned by the state.

(h) The commissioner may require as a condition of the licensure of a home health care agency, hospice agency and home health aide agency that each agency meet minimum service quality standards. In the event the commissioner requires such agencies to meet minimum service quality standards as a condition of their licensure, the commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to define such minimum service quality standards, which shall (1) allow for training of home health aides by adult continuing education, (2) require a registered nurse to visit and assess each patient receiving home health aide services as often as necessary based on the patient's condition, but not less than once every sixty days, and (3) require the assessment prescribed by subdivision (2) of this subsection to be completed while the home health aide is providing services in the patient's home.

(i) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain a home health care agency, hospice agency or home health aide agency without maintaining professional liability insurance or other indemnity against liability for professional malpractice. The amount of insurance which such person shall maintain as insurance or indemnity against claims for injury or death for professional malpractice shall be not less than one million dollars for one person, per occurrence, with an aggregate of not less than three million dollars.

(j) On and after June 15, 2012, until June 30, 2017, the commissioner shall not issue or renew a license under this chapter for any hospital certified to participate in the Medicare program as a long-term care hospital under Section 1886(d)(1)(B)(iv) of the Social Security Act (42 USC 1395ww) unless such hospital was so certified under said federal act on January 1, 2012.

(k) (1) A chronic disease hospital shall (A) maintain its medical records on-site in an accessible manner or be able to retrieve such records from an off-site location not later than the end of the next business day after receiving a request for such records, (B) keep a patient's medical records on-site for a minimum of ten years after the date of such patient's discharge, except the hospital may destroy the patient's original medical records prior to the expiration of the ten-year period if a copy of such medical records is preserved by a process that is consistent with current hospital standards, or (C) complete a patient's medical records not more than thirty days after the date of such patient's discharge, except in unusual circumstances that shall be specified in the hospital's rules and regulations for its medical staff. Each chronic disease hospital shall provide the Department of Public Health with a list of the process it uses for preserving a copy of medical records in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this subdivision.

(2) A children's hospital shall (A) maintain its medical records on-site in an accessible manner or be able to retrieve such records from an off-site location not later than the end of the next business day after receiving a request for such records, and (B) keep a patient's medical records on-site for a minimum of ten years after the date of such patient's discharge, except the hospital may destroy the patient's original medical records prior to the expiration of the ten-year period if a copy of such medical records is preserved by a process that is consistent with current hospital standards. Each children's hospital shall provide the Department of Public Health a list of the process it uses for preserving a copy of medical records in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this subdivision.

(3) The Department of Public Health may adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to implement the provisions of this subsection.

See Sec. 29-315 re automatic fire extinguishing systems in licensed chronic and convalescent nursing homes or rest homes with nursing supervision.

Cited. 206 C. 316; 219 C. 657.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-7f — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-7f
Sec. 19a-7f. Child immunization standard of care and programs. Provision of vaccines by department. Vaccine policy and reporting.
Status: in_force

(b) (1) Commencing October 1, 2011, one group health care provider located in Bridgeport and one group health care provider located in New Haven, as identified by the Commissioner of Public Health, and any health care provider located in Hartford who administers vaccines to children under the federal Vaccines For Children immunization program that is operated by the Department of Public Health under authority of 42 USC 1396s may select under said federal program, and the department shall provide, any vaccine licensed by the federal Food and Drug Administration, including any combination vaccine and dosage form, that is (A) recommended by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, and (B) made available to the department by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(2) Not later than June 1, 2012, the Commissioner of Public Health shall provide an evaluation of the vaccine program established in subdivision (1) of this subsection to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public health. Such evaluation shall include, but not be limited to, an assessment of the program's impact on child immunization rates, an assessment of any health or safety risks posed by the program, and recommendations regarding future expansion of the program.

(3) (A) Provided the evaluation submitted pursuant to subdivision (2) of this subsection does not indicate a significant reduction in child immunization rates or an increased risk to the health and safety of children, commencing October 1, 2012, (i) any health care provider who administers vaccines to children under the federal Vaccines For Children immunization program that is operated by the Department of Public Health under authority of 42 USC 1396s may select, and the department shall provide, any vaccine licensed by the federal Food and Drug Administration, including any combination vaccine and dosage form, that is (I) recommended by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, and (II) made available to the department by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and (ii) any health care provider who administers vaccines to children may select, and the department shall provide, subject to inclusion in such program due to available appropriations, any vaccine licensed by the federal Food and Drug Administration, including any combination vaccine and dosage form, that is (I) recommended by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, (II) made available to the department by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and (III) equivalent, as determined by the commissioner, to the cost for vaccine series completion of comparable available licensed vaccines.

(B) Commencing January 1, 2013, (i) any health care provider who administers vaccines to children under the federal Vaccines For Children immunization program that is operated by the Department of Public Health under authority of 42 USC 1396s shall utilize, and the department shall provide, any vaccine licensed by the federal Food and Drug Administration, including any combination vaccine and dosage form, that is (I) recommended by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, and (II) made available to the department by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and (ii) any health care provider who administers vaccines to children shall utilize, and the department shall provide, subject to inclusion in such program due to available appropriations, any vaccine licensed by the federal Food and Drug Administration, including any combination vaccine and dosage form, that is (I) recommended by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, (II) made available to the department by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and (III) equivalent, as determined by the commissioner, to the cost for vaccine series completion of comparable available licensed vaccines.

(C) For purposes of subparagraphs (A)(ii) and (B)(ii) of this subdivision, “comparable” means a vaccine (i) protects a recipient against the same infection or infections, (ii) has similar safety and efficacy profiles, (iii) requires the same number of doses, and (iv) is recommended for similar populations by the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(D) On and after July 1, 2022, any health care provider that administers vaccines to children under the immunization program described in subparagraph (B) of this subdivision shall order such vaccines using the immunization information system in a form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Health.

(4) (A) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply in the event of a public health emergency, as defined in section 19a-131 , or an attack, major disaster, emergency or disaster emergency, as those terms are defined in section 28-1 .

(B) Nothing in this subsection shall require a health care provider to procure a vaccine from the Department of Public Health when such provider is directed by said department to procure such vaccine from another source, including, but not limited to, during a declared national or state vaccine shortage.

(C) Nothing in this subsection shall require a health care

provider to utilize or administer a vaccine provided by said department if, based upon such provider's medical judgment, (i) administration of such vaccine is not medically appropriate, or (ii) the administration of another vaccine that said department is not authorized to supply under subdivision (3) of this subsection is more medically appropriate.

(5) No health care provider shall seek or receive remuneration for or sell any vaccine serum provided by said department under this section. Nothing in this section shall prohibit a health care provider from charging or billing for administering a vaccine.

(6) Not later than January 1, 2014, said department shall submit a report to the General Assembly, in accordance with section 11-4a , evaluating the effectiveness of implementing expanded vaccine choice and universal health care provider participation.

(c) Not later than October 1, 2012, the Department of Public Health shall (1) post on its Internet web site its most current policy regarding vaccine wastage. Such policy shall include a statement of the factors said department used to determine such policy and shall be updated as necessary to reflect the most current policy in effect, and (2) make a form available to health care providers for the purpose of reporting to said department instances when a health care provider does not receive a full order of a requested vaccine. Not later than January 1, 2013, and biannually thereafter, said department shall, within available resources, track, record and investigate all such reported instances and shall post aggregate findings of such instances and the reasons for such findings on said department's Internet web site.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-582 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368x / Section 19a-582
Sec. 19a-582. General consent required for HIV-related testing. Counseling requirements. Exceptions.
Status: in_force

(b) A person ordering the performance of an HIV-related test shall not be held liable for ordering a test without specific informed consent if a good faith effort is made to convey the instruction required pursuant to subsection (a) of this section.

(c) At the time of communicating the test result to the subject of the test, a person ordering the performance of an HIV-related test shall provide the subject of the test or the person authorized to consent to health care for the subject with counseling or referrals for counseling, as needed: (1) To inform such person of available medical treatments and medical services; (2) regarding local or community-based HIV/AIDS support services agencies; (3) to work towards the goal of involving a minor's parents or legal guardian in the decision to seek and in the ongoing provision of medical treatment; and (4) regarding the need of the test subject to notify his partners and, as appropriate, provide assistance or referrals for assistance in notifying partners; except that if the subject of the test is a minor who was tested without the consent of his parents or guardian, such counseling shall be provided to such minor at the time of communicating such test result to such minor. A health care provider or health facility shall not withhold test results from the protected individual.

(d) The provisions of this section shall not apply to the performance of an HIV-related test:

(1) By licensed medical personnel when the subject is unable to grant or withhold consent and no other person is available who is authorized to consent to health care for the individual and the test results are needed for diagnostic purposes to provide appropriate urgent care, except that in such cases the counseling, referrals and notification of test results described in subsection (c) of this section shall be provided as soon as practical;

(2) By a health care provider or health facility in relation to the procuring, processing, distributing or use of a human body or a human body part, including organs, tissues, eyes, bones, arteries, blood, semen, or other body fluids, for use in medical research or therapy, or for transplantation to individuals, provided if the test results are communicated to the subject, the counseling, referrals and notification of test results described in subsection (c) of this section shall be provided;

(3) For the purpose of research if the testing is performed in a manner by which the identity of the test subject is not known and is unable to be retrieved by the researcher;

(4) On a deceased person when such test is conducted to determine the cause or circumstances of death or for epidemiological purposes;

(5) In cases where a health care provider or other person, including volunteer emergency medical services, fire and public safety personnel, in the course of his or her occupational duties has had a significant exposure, provided the following criteria are met: (A) The worker is able to document significant exposure during performance of his or her occupation, (B) the worker completes an incident report within forty-eight hours of exposure identifying the parties to the exposure, witnesses, time, place and nature of the event, (C) the worker submits to a baseline HIV test within seventy-two hours of the exposure and is negative on that test, (D) the patient's or person's physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse or, if the patient or person does not have a personal physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse or if the patient's or person's physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse is unavailable, another physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse or health care provider has approached the patient or person and sought voluntary consent and the patient or person has refused to consent to testing, except in an exposure where the patient or person is deceased, (E) an exposure evaluation group determines that the criteria specified in subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D) and (F) of this subdivision are met and that the worker has a significant exposure to the blood of a patient or person and the patient or person, or the patient's or person's legal guardian, refuses to grant informed consent for an HIV test. If the patient or person is under the care or custody of the health facility, correctional facility or other institution and a sample of the patient's blood is available, said blood shall be tested. If no sample of blood is available, and the patient is under the care or custody of a health facility, correctional facility or other institution, the patient shall have a blood sample drawn at the health facility, correctional facility or other institution and tested. No member of the exposure evaluation group who determines that a worker has sustained a significant exposure and authorized the HIV testing of a patient or other person, nor the health facility, correctional facility or other institution, nor any person in a health facility or other institution who relies in good faith on the group's determination and performs that test shall have any liability as a result of his or her action carried out pursuant to this section, unless such person acted in bad faith. If the patient or person is not under the care or custody of a health facility, correctional facility or other institution and a physician, a physician assistant or an advanced practice registered nurse not directly involved in the exposure certifies in writing that the criteria specified in subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D) and (F) of this subdivision are met and that a significant exposure has occurred, the worker may seek a court order for testing pursuant to subdivision (8) of this subsection, (F) the worker would be able to take meaningful immediate action, if results are known that could not otherwise be taken, as defined in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-589 , (G) the fact that an HIV test was given as a result of an accidental exposure and the results of that test shall not appear in a patient's or person's medical record unless such test result is relevant to the medical care the person is receiving at that time in a health facility or correctional facility or other institution, (H) the counseling described in subsection (c) of this section shall be provided but the patient or person may choose not to be informed about the result of the test, and (I) the cost of the HIV test shall be borne by the employer of the potentially exposed worker;

(6) In facilities operated by the Department of Correction if the facility physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse determines that testing is needed for diagnostic purposes, to determine the need for treatment or medical care specific to an HIV-related illness, including prophylactic treatment of HIV infection to prevent further progression of disease, provided no reasonable alternative exists that will achieve the same goal;

(7) In facilities operated by the Department of Correction if the facility physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse and chief administrator of the facility determine that the behavior of the inmate poses a significant risk of transmission to another inmate or has resulted in a significant exposure of another inmate of the facility and no reasonable alternative exists that will achieve the same goal. No involuntary testing shall take place pursuant to this subdivision and subdivision (6) of this subsection until reasonable effort has been made to secure informed consent. When testing without consent takes place pursuant to this subdivision and subdivision (6) of this subsection, the counseling referrals and notification of test results described in subsection (c) of this section shall, nonetheless, be provide;

(8) Under a court order that is issued in compliance with the following provisions: (A) No court of this state shall issue such order unless the court finds a clear and imminent danger to the public health or the health of a person and that the person has demonstrated a compelling need for the HIV-related test result that cannot be accommodated by other means. In assessing compelling need, the court shall weigh the need for a test result against the privacy interests of the test subject and the public interest that may be disserved by involuntary testing, (B) pleadings pertaining to the request for an involuntary test shall substitute a pseudonym for the true name of the subject to be tested. The disclosure to the parties of the subject's true name shall be communicated confidentially, in documents not filed with the court, (C) before granting any such order, the court shall provide the individual on whom a test result is being sought with notice and a reasonable opportunity to participate in the proceeding if he or she is not already a party, (D) court proceedings as to involuntary testing shall be conducted in camera unless the subject of the test agrees to a hearing in open court or unless the court determines that a public hearing is necessary to the public interest and the proper administration of justice;

(9) When the test is conducted by any life or health insurer or health care center for purposes of assessing a person's fitness for insurance coverage offered by such insurer or health care center; or

(10) When the test is subsequent to a prior confirmed test and the subsequent test is part of a series of repeated testing for the purposes of medical monitoring and treatment, provided (A) the patient has previously given general consent that includes HIV-related tests, (B) the patient, after consultation with the health care provider, has declined reiteration of the general consent, counseling and education requirements of this section, and (C) a notation to that effect has been entered into the patient's medical record.

Cited. 232 C. 242; 236 C. 845; 238 C. 692. Subsec. (b)(8): Legislature did not intend for the requirements of Subdiv. to apply for an order for testing under Sec. 54-102a(b). 339 C. 528.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-535a — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-535a
Sec. 19a-535a. Residential care homes. Transfer or discharge of patients. Appeal. Hearing. Reporting on involuntary transfers, discharges.
Status: in_force

(1) “Facility” means a residential care home, as defined in section 19a-490 ;

(2) “Emergency” means a situation in which a resident of a facility presents an imminent danger to the resident's own health or safety, the health or safety of another resident or the health or safety of an employee or the owner of the facility;

(3) “Department” means the Department of Public Health; and

(4) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's designee.

(b) A facility shall not transfer or discharge a resident from the facility unless (1) the transfer or discharge is necessary to meet the resident's welfare and the resident's welfare cannot be met in the facility, (2) the transfer or discharge is appropriate because the resident's health has improved sufficiently so the resident no longer needs the services provided by the facility, (3) the health or safety of individuals in the facility is endangered, (4) the resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate notice, to pay for a stay or a requested service at the facility, or (5) the facility ceases to operate. In the case of an involuntary transfer or discharge, the facility shall provide written notice to the resident and, if known, the resident's legally liable relative, guardian or conservator not less than thirty days prior to the proposed transfer or discharge date, except when the facility has requested an immediate transfer or discharge in accordance with subsection (e) of this section. Such notice shall include the reason for the transfer or discharge, the effective date of the transfer or discharge, the right of the resident to appeal a transfer or discharge by the facility pursuant to subsection (d) of this section and the resident's right to represent himself or herself or be represented by legal counsel. Such notice shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, as modified from time to time, and shall include the name, mailing address and telephone number of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman and be sent by facsimile or electronic communication to the Office of the Long-Term Care Ombudsman on the same day as the notice is given to the resident. If the facility knows the resident has, or the facility alleges that the resident has, a mental illness or an intellectual disability, the notice shall also include the name, mailing address and telephone number of the entity designated by the Governor in accordance with section 46a-10b to serve as the Connecticut protection and advocacy system. No resident shall be involuntarily transferred or discharged from a facility if such transfer or discharge presents imminent danger of death to the resident.

(c) The facility shall be responsible for assisting the resident in finding an alternative residence. A discharge plan, prepared by the facility, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, as modified from time to time, shall include the resident's individual needs and shall be submitted to the resident not later than seven days after the notice of transfer or discharge is issued to the resident. The facility shall submit the discharge plan to the commissioner at or before the hearing held pursuant to subsection (d) of this section.

(d) (1) A resident or the resident's legally liable relative, guardian or conservator who has been notified by a facility, pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, that the resident will be transferred or discharged from the facility may appeal such transfer or discharge to the Commissioner of Public Health by filing a request for a hearing with the commissioner not later than ten days after the receipt of such notice. Upon receipt of any such request, the commissioner shall hold a hearing to determine whether the transfer or discharge is being effected in accordance with this section. Such a hearing shall be held not later than seven business days after the receipt of such request. The commissioner shall issue a decision not later than twenty days after the closing of the hearing record. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 54.

(2) Any involuntary transfer or discharge that is appealed under this subsection shall be stayed pending a final determination by the commissioner.

(3) The commissioner shall send a copy of the decision regarding a transfer or discharge to the facility, the resident and the resident's legal guardian, conservator or other authorized representative, if known, or the resident's legally liable relative or other responsible party, and the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.

(e) (1) In the case of an emergency, the facility may request that the commissioner make a determination as to the need for an immediate transfer or discharge of a resident by submitting a sworn affidavit attesting to the basis for the emergency transfer or discharge. The facility shall provide a copy of the request for an immediate transfer or discharge and the notice described in subsection (b) of this section to the resident. After receipt of such request, the commissioner may issue an order for the immediate temporary transfer or discharge of the resident from the facility. The temporary order shall remain in place until a final decision is issued by the commissioner, unless earlier rescinded. The commissioner shall issue the determination as to the need for an immediate transfer or discharge of a resident not later than seven days after receipt of the request from the facility. A hearing shall be held not later than seven business days after the date on which a determination is issued pursuant to this section. The commissioner shall issue a decision not later than twenty days after the date on which the hearing record is closed. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54.

(2) The commissioner shall send a copy of the decision regarding an emergency transfer or discharge to the facility, the resident and the resident's legal guardian, conservator or other authorized representative, if known, or the resident's legally liable relative or other responsible party and the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.

(3) If the commissioner determines, based upon the request, that an emergency does not exist, the commissioner shall proceed with a hearing in accordance with the provisions of subsection (d) of this section.

(f) A facility or resident who is aggrieved by a final decision of the commissioner may appeal to the Superior Court in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. Pursuant to subsection (f) of section 4-183 , the filing of an appeal to the Superior Court shall not, of itself, stay enforcement of an agency decision. The Superior Court shall consider an appeal from a decision of the commissioner pursuant to this section as a privileged case in order to dispose of the case with the least possible delay.

(g) Not later than six months after May 23, 2022, a facility shall electronically report each involuntary transfer or discharge (1) in a manner prescribed by the State Ombudsman, appointed pursuant to section 17a-405 , and (2) on an Internet web site portal maintained by the State Ombudsman in accordance with patient privacy provisions of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, P.L. 104-191, as amended from time to time.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-507b — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-507b
Sec. 19a-507b. (Formerly Sec. 19a-80b). Establishment of community residence. Limitations. Petitions.
Status: in_force

(b) Any resident of a municipality in which a community residence is or will be located may, through the chief executive officer of the municipality, or the legislative body of such municipality may, petition the Commissioner of Public Health to deny an application for a license to operate a community residence on the grounds that the operation of such a community residence would be in violation of the limits established under subsection (a) of this section.

(c) An applicant for a license to operate a community residence shall mail a copy of the application made to the Department of Public Health to the governing body of the municipality in which the community residence is to be located, by certified mail, return receipt requested. All applications shall specify the number of community residences in the municipality, the address of each such residence and the number of residents in each and the address of the proposed community residence, and shall include population and occupancy statistics reflecting compliance with the limits established pursuant to subsection (a) of this section.

(d) The Commissioner of Public Health shall not issue a license for a community residence until the applicant has submitted proof that the mailing required by subsection (c) of this section has been made and until at least thirty days have elapsed since the receipt of such mailing by all required recipients.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-42 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-42
Sec. 19a-42. (Formerly Sec. 19-15a). Amendment of vital records.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner and the registrar of vital statistics shall maintain sufficient documentation, as prescribed by the commissioner, to support amendments and shall ensure the confidentiality of such documentation as required by law. The date of amendment and a summary description of the evidence submitted in support of the amendment shall be endorsed on or made part of the record and the original certificate shall be marked “Amended”, except for amendments concerning parentage, gender change or the legally changed name of a parent. When the registrar of the town in which the vital event occurred amends a certificate, such registrar shall, within ten days of making such amendment, forward an amended certificate to the commissioner and to any registrar having a copy of the certificate. When the commissioner amends a birth certificate, including changes concerning parentage, gender change or the legally changed name of a parent, the commissioner shall forward an amended certificate to the registrars of vital statistics affected and their records shall be amended accordingly.

(c) An amended certificate shall supersede the original certificate that has been changed and shall be marked “Amended”, except for amendments concerning parentage, gender change or the legally changed name of a parent. The original certificate in the case of amendments concerning parentage, gender change or the legally changed name of a parent shall be physically or electronically sealed and kept in a confidential file by the department and the registrar of any town in which the birth was recorded, and may be unsealed for issuance only as provided in section 7-53 with regard to an original birth certificate or upon a written order of a court of competent jurisdiction. The amended certificate shall become the official record.

(d) (1) Upon receipt of (A) an acknowledgment of parentage executed in accordance with the provisions of sections 46b-476 to 46b-487 , inclusive, by both parents of a child, or (B) a certified copy of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction establishing the parentage of a child, the commissioner shall include on or amend, as appropriate, such child's birth certificate to show such parentage if parentage is not already shown on such birth certificate and to change the name of the child under eighteen years of age if so indicated on the acknowledgment of parentage form or within the certified court order as part of the parentage action. If a person who is the subject of a voluntary acknowledgment of parentage, as described in this subdivision, is eighteen years of age or older, the commissioner shall obtain a notarized affidavit from such person affirming that such person agrees to the commissioner's amendment of such person's birth certificate as such amendment relates to the acknowledgment of parentage. The commissioner shall amend the birth certificate for an adult child to change the child's name only pursuant to a court order.

(2) If the birth certificate lists the information of a parent other than the parent who gave birth, the commissioner shall not remove or replace the parent's information unless presented with a certified court order that meets the requirements specified in section 7-50 , or upon the proper filing of a rescission, in accordance with the provisions of section 46b-570 . The commissioner shall thereafter amend such child's birth certificate to remove or change the name of the parent other than the person who gave birth and, if relevant, to change the name of the child, as requested at the time of the filing of a rescission, in accordance with the provisions of section 46b-570 . Birth certificates amended under this subsection shall not be marked “Amended”.

(e) When the parent or parents of a child request the amendment of the child's birth certificate to reflect a new name of the parent who gave birth because the name on the original certificate is fictitious, such parent or parents shall obtain an order of a court of competent jurisdiction declaring the person who gave birth to be the child's parent. Upon receipt of a certified copy of such order, the department shall amend the child's birth certificate to reflect the parent's true name.

(f) Upon receipt of a certified copy of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction changing the name of a person born in this state and upon request of such person or such person's parents, guardian, or legal representative, the commissioner or the registrar of vital statistics of the town in which the vital event occurred shall amend the birth certificate to show the new name by a method prescribed by the department.

(g) When an applicant submits the documentation required by the regulations to amend a vital record, the commissioner shall hold a hearing, in accordance with chapter 54, if the commissioner has reasonable cause to doubt the validity or adequacy of such documentation.

(h) When an amendment under this section involves the changing of existing language on a death certificate due to an error pertaining to the cause of death, the death certificate shall be amended in such a manner that the original language is still visible. A copy of the death certificate shall be made. The original death certificate shall be sealed and kept in a confidential file at the department and only the commissioner may order it unsealed. The copy shall be amended in such a manner that the language to be changed is no longer visible. The copy shall be a public document.

(i) The commissioner shall issue a new birth certificate to reflect a gender change upon receipt of the following documents submitted in the form and manner prescribed by the commissioner: (1) A written request from the applicant, signed under penalty of law, for a replacement birth certificate to reflect that the applicant's gender differs from the sex designated on the original birth certificate; (2) a notarized affidavit by a physician licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, a physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, or a psychologist licensed pursuant to chapter 383 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, stating that the applicant has undergone surgical, hormonal or other treatment clinically appropriate for the applicant for the purpose of gender transition; and (3) if an applicant is also requesting a change of name listed on the original birth certificate, proof of a legal name change. The new birth certificate shall reflect the new gender identity by way of a change in the sex designation on the original birth certificate and, if applicable, the legal name change.

(j) The commissioner shall issue a new birth certificate to reflect the legally changed name of a parent of a minor child who is the subject of such birth certificate upon receipt of the following documents, submitted in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner: (1) A written request from the parent, signed under penalty of law, for a replacement birth certificate to reflect that the parent's legal name differs from the name designated on the original birth certificate, and (2) a certified copy of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction changing such parent's name. The commissioner shall issue a new birth certificate to an adult child who is the subject of such birth certificate and wishes to change the name of a parent who has legally changed such parent's name upon presentation by such adult child to the commissioner of a certified copy of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction changing such parent's name.

(k) The commissioner shall issue a new marriage certificate to reflect a gender change upon receipt of the following documents, submitted in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner: (1) A written request from the applicant, signed under penalty of law, for a replacement marriage certificate to reflect that the applicant's gender differs from the sex designated on the original marriage certificate, along with an affirmation that the marriage is still legally intact; (2) a notarized statement from the spouse named on the marriage certificate to be amended, consenting to the amendment; (3) (A) a United States passport or amended birth certificate or court order reflecting the applicant's gender as of the date of the request, or (B) a notarized affidavit by a physician licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or holding a current license in good standing in another state, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 or holding a current license in good standing in another state or a psychologist licensed pursuant to chapter 383 or holding a current license in good standing in another state stating that the applicant has undergone surgical, hormonal or other treatment clinically appropriate for the applicant for the purpose of gender transition; and (4) if an applicant is also requesting a change of name listed on the original marriage certificate, proof of a legal name change. The new marriage certificate shall reflect the new gender identity by way of a change in the sex designation on the original marriage certificate and, if applicable, the legal name change.

See Sec. 7-36 for applicable definitions.

Commissioner may amend parental information contained on birth certificates only when there is an error or omission in such information. 253 C. 570. A birth certificate is a vital record that must accurately reflect the legal relationships between parents and children, it does not create those relationships. 299 C. 681.

Subsec. (d):

Subdiv. (1) clearly and unambiguously provides that commissioner may only include on or amend a child's birth certificate to show paternity if paternity is not already shown on the birth certificate. 304 C. 317.

Denial of plaintiff's application to amend his son's birth certificate after birth mother changed name to one different than that on acknowledgment of paternity form was proper because paternity was correctly listed on the certificate and there was no new information that needed to be added and section only permits a change of name on the basis of an acknowledgment of paternity form if paternity was not so indicated on the certificate. 122 CA 373.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-755a — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368ee / Section 19a-755a
Sec. 19a-755a. All-payer claims database program.
Status: in_force

(1) “All-payer claims database” means a database that receives and stores data from a reporting entity relating to medical insurance claims, dental insurance claims, pharmacy claims and other insurance claims information from enrollment and eligibility files.

(2) (A) “Reporting entity” means:

(i) An insurer, as described in section 38a-1 , licensed to do health insurance business in this state;

(ii) A health care center, as defined in section 38a-175 ;

(iii) An insurer or health care center that provides coverage under Part C or Part D of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, as amended from time to time, to residents of this state;

(iv) A third-party administrator, as defined in section 38a-720 ;

(v) A pharmacy benefits manager, as defined in section 38a-479aaa ;

(vi) A hospital service corporation, as defined in section 38a-199 ;

(vii) A nonprofit medical service corporation, as defined in section 38a-214 ;

(viii) A fraternal benefit society, as described in section 38a-595 , that transacts health insurance business in this state;

(ix) A dental plan organization, as defined in section 38a-577 ;

(x) A preferred provider network, as defined in section 38a-479aa ; and

(xi) Any other person that administers health care claims and payments pursuant to a contract or agreement or is required by statute to administer such claims and payments.

(B) “Reporting entity” does not include an employee welfare benefit plan, as defined in the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended from time to time, that is also a trust established pursuant to collective bargaining subject to the federal Labor Management Relations Act.

(3) “Medicaid data” means the Medicaid provider registry, health claims data and Medicaid recipient data maintained by the Department of Social Services.

(4) “CHIP data” means the provider registry, health claims data and recipient data maintained by the Department of Social Services to administer the Children's Health Insurance Program.

(b) (1) There is established an all-payer claims database program. The Office of Health Strategy shall: (A) Oversee the planning, implementation and administration of the all-payer claims database program for the purpose of collecting, assessing and reporting health care information relating to safety, quality, cost-effectiveness, access and efficiency for all levels of health care; (B) ensure that data received is securely collected, compiled and stored in accordance with state and federal law; (C) conduct audits of data submitted by reporting entities in order to verify its accuracy; and (D) in consultation with the Health Information Technology Advisory Council established under section 17b-59f , maintain written procedures for the administration of such all-payer claims database. Any such written procedures shall include (i) reporting requirements for reporting entities, and (ii) requirements for providing notice to a reporting entity regarding any alleged failure on the part of such reporting entity to comply with such reporting requirements.

(2) The Commissioner of Health Strategy shall seek funding from the federal government, other public sources and other private sources to cover costs associated with the planning, implementation and administration of the all-payer claims database program.

(3) (A) Upon the adoption of reporting requirements as set forth in subdivision (1) of this subsection, a reporting entity shall report health care information for inclusion in the all-payer claims database in a form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Health Strategy. The commissioner may, after notice and hearing, impose a civil penalty on any reporting entity that fails to report health care information as prescribed. Such civil penalty shall not exceed one thousand dollars per day for each day of violation and shall not be imposed as a cost for the purpose of rate determination or reimbursement by a third-party payer.

(B) The Commissioner of Health Strategy may provide the name of any reporting entity on which such penalty has been imposed to the Insurance Commissioner. After consultation with the Commissioner of Health Strategy, the Insurance Commissioner may request the Attorney General to bring an action in the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford to recover any penalty imposed pursuant to subparagraph (A) of this subdivision.

(4) The Commissioner of Social Services shall submit Medicaid and CHIP data to the Commissioner of Health Strategy for inclusion in the all-payer claims database only for purposes related to administration of the State Medicaid and CHIP Plans, in accordance with 42 CFR 431.301 to 42 CFR 431.306, inclusive.

(5) The Commissioner of Health Strategy shall: (A) Utilize data in the all-payer claims database to provide health care consumers in the state with information concerning the cost and quality of health care services for the purpose of allowing such consumers to make economically sound and medically appropriate health care decisions; and (B) make data in the all-payer claims database available to any state agency, insurer, employer, health care provider, consumer of health care services or researcher for the purpose of allowing such person or entity to review such data as it relates to health care utilization, costs or quality of health care services. If health information, as defined in 45 CFR 160.103, as amended from time to time, is permitted to be disclosed under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, P.L. 104-191, as amended from time to time, or regulations adopted thereunder, any disclosure thereof made pursuant to this subdivision shall have identifiers removed, as set forth in 45 CFR 164.514, as amended from time to time. Any disclosure made pursuant to this subdivision of information other than health information shall be made in a manner to protect the confidentiality of such other information as required by state and federal law. The Commissioner of Health Strategy may set a fee to be charged to each person or entity requesting access to data stored in the all-payer claims database.

(6) The Commissioner of Health Strategy may (A) in consultation with the All-Payer Claims Database Advisory Group set forth in section 17b-59f , enter into a contract with a person or entity to plan, implement or administer the all-payer claims database program, (B) enter into a contract or take any action that is necessary to obtain data that is the same data required to be submitted by reporting entities under Medicare Part A or Part B, (C) enter into a contract for the collection, management or analysis of data received from reporting entities, and (D) in accordance with subdivision (4) of this subsection, enter into a contract or take any action that is necessary to obtain Medicaid and CHIP data. Any such contract for the collection, management or analysis of such data shall expressly prohibit the disclosure of such data for purposes other than the purposes described in this subsection.

(c) Unless otherwise specified, nothing in this section and no action taken by the Commissioner of Health Strategy pursuant to this section or section 19a-755b shall be construed to preempt, supersede or affect the authority of the Insurance Commissioner to regulate the business of insurance in the state.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-289j — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368i / Section 19a-289j
Sec. 19a-289j. Persons who may receive an anatomical gift. Purpose of anatomical gift.
Status: in_force

(b) If an anatomical gift to an individual under subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section cannot be transplanted into the individual, the part passes in accordance with the provisions of subsection (g) of this section in the absence of an express, contrary indication by the person making the anatomical gift.

(c) If an anatomical gift of one or more specific parts or of all parts is made in a document of gift that does not name a person described in subsection (a) of this section but identifies the purpose for which an anatomical gift may be used, the following provisions shall apply: (1) If the part is an eye and the gift is for the purpose of transplantation or therapy, the gift passes to the appropriate eye bank; (2) if the part is tissue and the gift is for the purpose of transplantation or therapy, the gift passes to the appropriate tissue bank; (3) if the part is an organ and the gift is for the purpose of transplantation or therapy, the gift passes to the appropriate organ procurement organization as custodian of the organ; and (4) if the part is an organ, an eye or tissue and the gift is for the purpose of research or education, the gift passes to the appropriate procurement organization.

(d) For purposes of subsection (c) of this section, if there is more than one purpose of an anatomical gift set forth in the document of gift but such purposes are not set forth in any priority, the gift shall be used for transplantation or therapy, if suitable for those purposes, if the gift cannot be used for transplantation or therapy, the gift may be used for research or education.

(e) If an anatomical gift of one or more specific parts is made in a document of gift that does not name a person described in subsection (a) of this section and does not identify the purpose of the gift, the gift passes in accordance with the provisions of subsection (g) of this section and the parts shall be used for transplantation or therapy, if suitable, and if not suitable for those purposes, may be used for research or education.

(f) If a document of gift specifies only a general intent to make an anatomical gift by words such as “donor”, “organ donor” or “body donor”, or by a symbol or statement of similar import, the gift passes in accordance with the provisions of subsection (g) of this section and the parts shall be used for transplantation or therapy, if suitable, and if not suitable for those purposes, may be used for research or education.

(g) In accordance with subsections (b), (e) and (f) of this section, the following provisions shall apply: (1) If the part is an eye, the gift passes to the appropriate eye bank; (2) if the part is tissue, the gift passes to the appropriate tissue bank; and (3) if the part is an organ, the gift passes to the appropriate organ procurement organization as custodian of the organ.

(h) An anatomical gift of an organ for transplantation or therapy, other than an anatomical gift under subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, passes to the organ procurement organization as custodian of the organ.

(i) If an anatomical gift does not pass pursuant to the provisions of subsections (a) to (h), inclusive, of this section or the decedent's body or part is not used for transplantation, therapy, research or education, custody of the body or part passes to the person under obligation to dispose of the body or part.

(j) A person may not accept an anatomical gift if the person knows that the gift was not effectively made under section 19a-289d or 19a-289i , or if the person knows that the decedent made a refusal under section 19a-289f that was not revoked. For purposes of this subsection, if a person knows that an anatomical gift was made on a document of gift, the person is deemed to know of any amendment or revocation of the gift or any refusal to make an anatomical gift on the same document of gift.

(k) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, nothing in this section shall affect the allocation of organs for transplantation or therapy.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-7j — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-7j
Sec. 19a-7j. Vaccines and antibiotic purchase and childhood immunization registry. Health and welfare fee assessment. Appeal. Penalties. Overpayment.
Status: in_force

(b) (1) As used in this subsection, (A) “health insurance” means health insurance of the types specified in subdivisions (1), (2), (4), (11) and (12) of section 38a-469 , and (B) “exempt insurer” means a domestic insurer that administers self-insured health benefit plans and is exempt from third-party administrator licensure under subparagraph (C) of subdivision (11) of section 38a-720 and section 38a-720a .

(2) (A) Each domestic insurer or domestic health care center doing health insurance business in this state shall annually pay to the Insurance Commissioner, for deposit in the Insurance Fund established under section 38a-52a , a health and welfare fee assessed by the Insurance Commissioner pursuant to this section.

(B) Each third-party administrator licensed pursuant to section 38a-720a that provides administrative services for self-insured health benefit plans and each exempt insurer shall, on behalf of the self-insured health benefit plans for which such third-party administrator or exempt insurer provides administrative services, annually pay to the Insurance Commissioner, for deposit in the Insurance Fund established under section 38a-52a , a health and welfare fee assessed by the Insurance Commissioner pursuant to this section.

(3) Not later than September first, annually, each such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator and exempt insurer shall report to the Insurance Commissioner, on a form designated by said commissioner, the number of insured or enrolled lives in this state as of May first immediately preceding for which such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer is providing health insurance or administering a self-insured health benefit plan that provides coverage of the types specified in subdivisions (1), (2), (4), (11) and (12) of section 38a-469 . Such number shall not include lives enrolled in Medicare, any medical assistance program administered by the Department of Social Services, workers' compensation insurance or Medicare Part C plans.

(4) Not later than November first, annually, the Insurance Commissioner shall determine the fee to be assessed for the current fiscal year against each such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator and exempt insurer. Such fee shall be calculated by multiplying the number of lives reported to said commissioner pursuant to subdivision (3) of this subsection by a factor, determined annually by said commissioner as set forth in this subdivision, to fully fund the amount determined under subsection (a) of this section, adjusted for a health and welfare fee, by subtracting, if the amount appropriated was more than the amount expended or by adding, if the amount expended was more than the amount appropriated, the amount calculated under subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section. The Insurance Commissioner shall determine the factor by dividing the adjusted amount by the total number of lives reported to said commissioner pursuant to subdivision (3) of this subsection.

(5) (A) Not later than December first, annually, the Insurance Commissioner shall submit a statement to each such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator and exempt insurer that includes the proposed fee, identified on such statement as the “Health and Welfare fee”, for the insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer calculated in accordance with this subsection. Each such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator and exempt insurer shall pay such fee to the Insurance Commissioner not later than February first, annually.

(B) Any such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer aggrieved by an assessment levied under this subsection may appeal therefrom in the same manner as provided for appeals under section 38a-52 .

(6) Any insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer that fails to file the report required under subdivision (3) of this subsection shall pay a late filing fee of one hundred dollars per day for each day from the date such report was due. The Insurance Commissioner may require an insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer subject to this subsection to produce the records in its possession, and may require any other person to produce the records in such person's possession, that were used to prepare such report, for said commissioner's or said commissioner's designee's examination. If said commissioner determines there is other than a good faith discrepancy between the actual number of insured or enrolled lives that should have been reported under subdivision (3) of this subsection and the number actually reported, such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer shall pay a civil penalty of not more than fifteen thousand dollars for each report filed for which said commissioner determines there is such a discrepancy.

(7) (A) The Insurance Commissioner shall apply an overpayment of the health and welfare fee by an insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer for any fiscal year as a credit against the health and welfare fee due from such insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer for the succeeding fiscal year, subject to an adjustment under subdivision (4) of this subsection, if: (i) The amount of the overpayment exceeds five thousand dollars; and (ii) on or before June first of the calendar year of the overpayment, the insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer (I) notifies the commissioner of the amount of the overpayment, and (II) provides the commissioner with evidence sufficient to prove the amount of the overpayment.

(B) Not later than ninety days following receipt of notice and supporting evidence under subparagraph (A) of this subdivision, the commissioner shall (i) determine whether the insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer made an overpayment, and (ii) notify the insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer of such determination.

(C) Failure of an insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer to notify the commissioner of the amount of an overpayment within the time prescribed in subparagraph (A) of this subdivision constitutes a waiver of any demand of the insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer against the state on account of such overpayment.

(D) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit or limit the right of an insurer, health care center, third-party administrator or exempt insurer to appeal pursuant to subparagraph (B) of subdivision (5) of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-230 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368e / Section 19a-230
Sec. 19a-230. (Formerly Sec. 19-104). Penalty.
Status: in_force

Annotation to former section 19-104:

Violation of quarantine order within section. 86 C. 678.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-179e — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-179e
Sec. 19a-179e. Department of Public Health to compile list of training programs. Provision of lists.
Status: in_force

(b) Not later than July 1, 2020, and annually thereafter, the Department of Public Health shall make the list compiled pursuant to subsection (a) of this section available to members of commercial ambulance services, commercial rescue services, volunteer and municipal ambulance services, ambulance services and paramedic intercept services operated and maintained by any state agency and emergency medical services personnel, as defined in section 20-206jj .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-315b — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368j / Section 19a-315b
Sec. 19a-315b. Protection of grave markers.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 53a-218 re penalty for interference with cemetery or burial ground.

See Sec. 53a-219 re penalty for unlawful possession or sale of gravestones.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-694 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368bb / Section 19a-694
Sec. 19a-694. Managed residential communities. Operational requirements.
Status: in_force

(1) Provide a written residency agreement to each resident in accordance with section 19a-700 ;

(2) Provide residents or residents' representatives advance notice of ninety days of any increase to monthly or recurring fees and disclose in writing any nonrefundable charges;

(3) Provide residents prorated or full reimbursements of certain charges if the managed residential community determines it can no longer meet the resident's needs during the first forty-five days after occupancy by the resident of the managed residential community unit, including, but not limited to, prorated first month's rent, prorated community fee, full last month's rent and full security deposit;

(4) Afford residents the ability to access services provided by an assisted living services agency. Such services shall be provided in accordance with a service plan developed in accordance with section 19a-699 ;

(5) Upon the request of a resident, arrange, in conjunction with the assisted living services agency, for the provision of ancillary medical services on behalf of a resident, including physician and dental services, pharmacy services, restorative physical therapies, podiatry services, hospice care and home health agency services, provided the ancillary medical services are not administered by employees of the managed residential community, unless the resident chooses to receive such services;

(6) Provide a formally established security program for the protection and safety of residents that is designed to protect residents from intruders;

(7) Afford residents the rights and privileges guaranteed under title 47a;

(8) Comply with the provisions of subsection (c) of section 19-13-D105 of the regulations of Connecticut state agencies;

(9) Assist a resident who has a long-term care insurance policy with preparing and submitting claims for benefits to the insurer, provided such resident has executed a written authorization requesting and directing the insurer to (A) disclose information to the managed residential community relevant to such resident's eligibility for an insurance benefit or payment, and (B) provide a copy of the acceptance or declination of a claim for benefits to the managed residential community at the same time such acceptance or declination is made to such resident; and

(10) Encourage and assist in the establishment of a family council in managed residential communities offering assisted living services. Such family council shall not allow a family member or friend of a resident who is not a resident of a dementia special care unit to participate in the family council without the consent of such resident.

(b) The provisions of subdivisions (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of this section shall not apply to a managed residential community that is (1) an elderly housing complex receiving assistance and funding through the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's Assisted Living Conversion Program, or (2) a demonstration project for the provision of subsidized assisted living services pursuant to section 17b-347e .

(c) No managed residential community shall control or manage the financial affairs or personal property of any resident, except as provided for in subdivision (9) of subsection (a) of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-490q — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-490q
Sec. 19a-490q. Health care employer: Work place safety committee; risk assessment; workplace violence prevention and response plan; adjustment to patient care assignment. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(1) “Health care employer” means any institution, as defined in section 19a-490 , with fifty or more full or part-time employees. “Health care employer” includes a facility for the care or treatment of mentally ill persons or persons with substance abuse issues, a residential facility for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to section 17a-227 , and a community health center, as defined in section 19a-490a ; and

(2) “Health care employee” means any individual directly or indirectly employed by, or serving as a volunteer for, a health care employer, who (A) is involved in direct patient care, or (B) has direct contact with the patient or the patient's family when (i) collecting or processing information needed for patient forms and record documentation, or (ii) escorting or directing the patient or the patient's family on the premises of the health care employer.

(b) On or before October 1, 2011, each health care employer shall establish and convene an ongoing workplace safety committee to address issues related to the health and safety of health care employees. A health care employer's workplace safety committee shall be composed of representatives from the administration; physician, nursing and other direct patient care staff; security personnel; and any other staff deemed appropriate by the health care employer. Not less than fifty per cent of the committee membership shall be composed of nonmanagement employees. The committee shall select a chairperson from among its membership. The committee shall meet not less than quarterly and shall make available meeting minutes and other records from its proceedings to all employees.

(c) On or before October 1, 2011, and annually thereafter, each health care employer shall undertake a risk assessment of the factors that put any health care employee at risk for being a victim of workplace violence. Based on the findings of the risk assessment, on or before January 1, 2012, and on or before each January first thereafter, each health care employer, in collaboration with the workplace safety committee, shall develop and implement a written workplace violence prevention and response plan. A hospital, as defined in section 19a-490 , may utilize an existing committee established by such hospital to assist in the preparation of the plan, provided not less than fifty per cent of the membership of such existing committee are nonmanagement employees. In developing the plan, the health care employer may consider any guidance on workplace violence issued by any government agency, including the federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration, the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Department of Public Health and the Labor Department, and any hospital accrediting organizations.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (c) of this section, a health care employer may satisfy the requirements for the establishment of a written workplace violence prevention and response plan by utilizing existing policies, plans or procedures if, after undertaking the risk assessment, the health care employer, in consultation with the workplace safety committee, determines that such employer's existing policies, plans or procedures are sufficient.

(e) A health care employer shall, to the extent practicable, adjust patient care assignments so that no health care employee who requests an adjustment to his or her patient care assignment is required to treat or provide services to a patient who the employer knows to have intentionally physically abused or threatened the employee. When adjusting patient care assignments, a health care employer shall give due consideration to the employer's obligation to meet the needs of all patients. Patient behavior that is a direct manifestation of the patient's condition or disability, including physical abuse or threatening behavior, shall not be considered intentional physical abuse or threatening of an employee. In situations where a health care employer has determined that an adjustment to a health care employee's patient care assignment is not practicable, any health care employee who has been physically abused or threatened by a patient may request of the employer that a second health care employee be present when treating such patient.

(f) The Labor Commissioner may adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-112e — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-112e
Sec. 19a-112e. Provision of emergency treatment to a victim of sexual assault. Standard of care. Title protection for sexual assault forensic examiners.
Status: in_force

(1) “Emergency contraception” means one or more prescription drugs used separately or in combination administered to or self-administered by a patient to prevent pregnancy, within a medically recommended amount of time after sexual intercourse and provided for that purpose, in accordance with professional standards of practice, and determined to be safe by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(2) “Emergency treatment” means any medical examination or treatment provided in a licensed health care facility to a victim of sexual assault following an alleged sexual assault.

(3) “Medically and factually accurate and objective” means verified or supported by the weight of research conducted in compliance with accepted scientific methods and published in peer-reviewed journals, where applicable.

(4) “Victim of sexual assault” means any person who alleges or is alleged to have suffered an injury as a result of a sexual offense.

(5) “Sexual offense” means a violation of section 53a-70b of the general statutes, revision of 1958, revised to January 1, 2019, or subsection (a) of section 53a-70 or section 53a-70a , subsection (a) of section 53a-71 , section 53a-72a or 53a-72b , subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of section 53a-86 , subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of section 53a-87 or section 53a-90a , 53a-196a or 53a-196b .

(6) “Independent provider” means a physician licensed under chapter 370, a physician assistant licensed under chapter 370, an advanced practice registered nurse or registered nurse licensed under chapter 378, or a nurse-midwife licensed under chapter 377, all of whom are trained and certified pursuant to the certification process implemented by the Chief Court Administrator pursuant to subsection (c) of section 19a-112f to conduct a forensic exam in accordance with the state of Connecticut Technical Guidelines for Health Care Response to Victims of Sexual Assault, published by the Commission on the Standardization of the Collection of Evidence in Sexual Assault Investigations pursuant to section 19a-112a .

(7) “Sexual assault forensic examiner” means a physician or physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370, a registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 or nurse midwife licensed pursuant to chapter 377 who has successfully completed the certification process and met all continuing education and recertification requirements implemented by the Chief Court Administrator pursuant to subsection (c) of section 19a-112f .

(8) “Sexual assault nurse examiner” means a registered nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 who has provided care and treatment to a victim of sexual assault and collected evidence from said victim without successfully completing the training and certification process implemented by the Chief Court Administrator pursuant to subsection (c) of section 19a-112f .

(9) “Health care facility” means (A) a hospital licensed under chapter 368v that has an emergency department, including any free-standing emergency department, or (B) an infirmary operated by The University of Connecticut at Storrs.

(b) The standard of care for each health care facility that provides emergency treatment to a victim of sexual assault shall include promptly:

(1) Providing each victim of sexual assault with medically and factually accurate and objective information relating to emergency contraception;

(2) Informing such victim of sexual assault of the availability of emergency contraception, its use and efficacy; and

(3) Providing emergency contraception to such victim of sexual assault at the facility upon the request of such victim, except that a health care facility shall not be required to provide emergency contraception to a victim of sexual assault who has been determined to be pregnant through the administration of a pregnancy test approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(c) In order to comply with the standard of care requirements prescribed in subsection (b) of this section, a health care facility shall: (1) Ensure compliance at the facility with the standard of care requirements prescribed in said subsection (b), and (2) conduct at the facility a forensic exam of the sexual assault victim in accordance with the state of Connecticut Technical Guidelines for Health Care Response to Victims of Sexual Assault, published by the Commission on the Standardization of the Collection of Evidence in Sexual Assault Investigations pursuant to section 19a-112a . A health care facility may contract with one or more independent providers who has been certified as a sexual assault forensic examiner pursuant to the certification process implemented by the Chief Court Administrator pursuant to subsection (c) of section 19a-112f .

(d) No health care facility that provides emergency treatment to a victim of sexual assault shall determine such facility's protocol for complying with the standard of care requirements prescribed in subsection (b) of this section on any basis other than a pregnancy test approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(e) No person shall use the title “sexual assault forensic examiner” or “sexual assault nurse examiner”, or any variant of such titles, without successfully completing the certification requirements imposed by the Chief Court Administrator pursuant to subsection (c) of section 19a-112f .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-110 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-110
Sec. 19a-110. (Formerly Sec. 19-65e). Report of lead poisoning. Parental notification. Availability of information regarding lead poisoning.
Status: in_force

(1) “Abatement” means any set of measures designed to reduce or eliminate lead hazards, including, but not limited to, the encapsulation, replacement, removal, enclosure or covering of paint, plaster, soil or other material containing toxic levels of lead and all preparation, clean-up, disposal and reoccupancy clearance testing;

(2) “Epidemiological investigation” means an examination and evaluation by a lead inspector certified under chapter 400c to determine the cause of elevated blood levels, detect lead-based paint and report findings and (A) includes (i) an on-site inspection and, if applicable, an inspection of other dwellings or areas frequented by a person with elevated blood lead levels that may be the source of a lead hazard, and (ii) an evaluation of other potential sources of lead hazards, including, but not limited to, drinking water, soil, dust, pottery, gasoline, toys or occupational exposure, and (B) may include isotopic analysis of lead-containing items;

(3) “Lead screening” means a blood lead test from a finger-prick or venous blood draw;

(4) “On-site inspection” means an examination of a residential dwelling to identify lead hazards, including, but not limited to, an examination of the dwelling for deteriorating paint, lead dust, bare soil near the perimeter of the dwelling, household items that may present a potential lead risk, such as toys, cookware, food products and cosmetics, and an inquiry into the water system serving the dwelling;

(5) “Remediation” means the process of remedying a lead hazard condition, including, but not limited to, investigation, abatement and, if appropriate, ongoing management measures; and

(6) “Risk assessment” means the collection of information about a person's potential lead exposures and a determination of whether such person has an increased likelihood of an elevated blood lead level.

(b) Not later than forty-eight hours after receiving or completing a report of a person found to have a level of lead in the blood equal to or greater than three and one-half micrograms per deciliter of blood or any other abnormal body burden of lead, each institution licensed under sections 19a-490 to 19a-503 , inclusive, and each clinical laboratory licensed under section 19a-565 shall report to (1) the Commissioner of Public Health, and to the director of health of the town, city, borough or district in which the person resides: (A) The name, full residence address, date of birth, gender, race and ethnicity of each person found to have a level of lead in the blood equal to or greater than three and one-half micrograms per deciliter of blood or any other abnormal body burden of lead; (B) the name, address and telephone number of the health care provider who ordered the test; (C) the sample collection date, analysis date, type and blood lead analysis result; and (D) such other information as the commissioner may require, in a form and manner as prescribed by the commissioner, and (2) the health care provider who ordered the test, the results of the test. With respect to a child under three years of age, not later than twenty-four hours after the provider receives such results, the provider shall make reasonable efforts to notify the parent or guardian of the child of the blood lead analysis results. Any institution or laboratory making an accurate report in good faith shall not be liable for the act of disclosing such report to the Commissioner of Public Health or to the director of health. The commissioner shall determine the form and manner of transmission of data contained in such report.

(c) Each institution or laboratory that reports lead testing pursuant to this section shall, at least monthly, submit to the Commissioner of Public Health a comprehensive report that includes: (1) The name, full residence address, date of birth, gender, race and ethnicity of each person tested pursuant to subsection (b) of this section regardless of the level of lead in the blood; (2) the name, address and telephone number of the health care provider who ordered the test; (3) the sample collection date, analysis date, type and blood lead analysis result; (4) laboratory identifiers; and (5) such other information as the Commissioner of Public Health may require. Any institution or laboratory making an accurate report in good faith shall not be liable for the act of disclosing such report to the Commissioner of Public Health. The Commissioner of Public Health shall determine the form and manner of transmission of data contained in such report.

(d) Whenever an institutional laboratory or private clinical laboratory reporting blood lead tests pursuant to this section refers a blood lead sample to another laboratory for analysis, the laboratories may agree on which laboratory will report in compliance with subsections (b) and (c) of this section, but both laboratories shall be accountable to ensure that reports are made. The referring laboratory shall ensure that the requisition slip includes all of the information that is required in subsections (b) and (c) of this section and that this information is transmitted with the blood specimen to the laboratory performing the analysis.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-697 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368bb / Section 19a-697
Sec. 19a-697. Resident's bill of rights.
Status: in_force

(1) Live in a clean, safe and habitable private residential unit;

(2) Be treated with consideration, respect and due recognition of personal dignity, individuality and the need for privacy;

(3) Privacy within a private residential unit, subject to rules of the managed residential community reasonably designed to promote the health, safety and welfare of the resident;

(4) Retain and use one's own personal property within a private residential unit so as to maintain individuality and personal dignity provided the use of personal property does not infringe on the rights of other residents or threaten the health, safety and welfare of other residents;

(5) Treat his or her residential unit as his or her home and has no fewer rights than any other resident of the state, including, but not limited to, (A) associating and communicating privately with persons of the resident's choice, (B) purchasing and using technology of the resident's choice, including, but not limited to, technology that may facilitate virtual visitation with family and other persons, provided operation and use of such technology shall not violate any individual's right to privacy under state or federal law, and (C) engaging in other private communications, including receiving and sending unopened correspondence and telephone access;

(6) Freedom to participate in and benefit from community services and activities so as to achieve the highest possible level of independence, autonomy and interaction within the community;

(7) Directly engage or contract with licensed health care professionals and providers of one's choice to obtain necessary health care services in one's private residential unit, or such other space in the managed residential community as may be made available to residents for such purposes;

(8) Manage one's own financial affairs;

(9) Exercise civil and religious liberties;

(10) Present grievances and recommend changes in policies, procedures and services to the manager or staff of the managed residential community, government officials or any other person without restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination or reprisal from the managed residential community, including access to representatives of the department or the Office of the Long-Term Care Ombudsman;

(11) Upon request, obtain from the managed residential community the name of the service coordinator or any other persons responsible for resident care or the coordination of resident care;

(12) Confidential treatment of all records and communications to the extent required by state and federal law;

(13) Have all reasonable requests responded to promptly and adequately within the capacity of the managed residential community and with due consideration given to the rights of other residents;

(14) Be fully advised of the relationship that the managed residential community has with any assisted living services agency, health care facility or educational institution to the extent that such relationship relates to resident medical care or treatment and to receive an explanation about the relationship;

(15) Receive a copy of any rules or regulations of the managed residential community;

(16) Privacy when receiving medical treatment or other services within the capacity of the managed residential community;

(17) Refuse care and treatment and participate in the planning for the care and services the resident needs or receives, provided the refusal of care and treatment may preclude the resident from being able to continue to reside in the managed residential community; and

(18) All rights and privileges afforded to tenants under title 47a.

(b) A managed residential community shall post in a prominent place in the managed residential community the resident's bill of rights, including those rights set forth in subsection (a) of this section. The posting of the resident's bill of rights shall include contact information for the Department of Public Health and the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, including the names, addresses and telephone numbers of persons within such agencies who handle questions, comments or complaints concerning managed residential community.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-285a — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368i / Section 19a-285a
Sec. 19a-285a. Donation of blood by minors.
Status: in_force

(b) Any person who is sixteen years of age shall have the legal capacity, with written authorization of his or her parent or guardian, to donate blood or any component thereof and to consent to the withdrawal of blood from his or her body in conjunction with any voluntary blood donation program.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-42a — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-42a
Sec. 19a-42a. Record of acknowledgment, recission or adjudication of parentage to be maintained in parentage registry. Disclosure of information to IV-D agency. Access to copies of acknowledgments of parentage.
Status: in_force

(b) Except for the IV-D agency, as provided in subsection (a) of this section, the department shall restrict access to and issuance of certified copies of acknowledgments of parentage to the following parties: (1) Parents named on the acknowledgment of parentage; (2) the person whose birth is acknowledged, if such person is eighteen years of age or older; (3) a guardian of the person whose birth is acknowledged; (4) an authorized representative of the Department of Social Services; (5) an attorney representing such person or a parent named on the acknowledgment; or (6) agents of a state or federal agency, as approved by the department.

See Sec. 7-36 for applicable definitions.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-755b — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368ee / Section 19a-755b
Sec. 19a-755b. Consumer health information Internet web site.
Status: in_force

(1) “Allowed amount” means the maximum reimbursement dollar amount that an insured's health insurance policy allows for a specific procedure or service;

(2) “Consumer health information Internet web site” means an Internet web site developed and operated by the Office of Health Strategy to assist consumers in making informed decisions concerning their health care and informed choices among health care providers;

(3) “Episode of care” means all health care services related to the treatment of a condition or a service category for such treatment and, for acute conditions, includes health care services and treatment provided from the onset of the condition to its resolution or a service category for such treatment and, for chronic conditions, includes health care services and treatment provided over a given period of time or a service category for such treatment;

(4) “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Health Strategy;

(5) “Health care provider” means any individual, corporation, facility or institution licensed by this state to provide health care services;

(6) “Health carrier” means any insurer, health care center, hospital service corporation, medical service corporation, fraternal benefit society or other entity delivering, issuing for delivery, renewing, amending or continuing any individual or group health insurance policy in this state providing coverage of the type specified in subdivisions (1), (2), (4), (11) and (12) of section 38a-469 ;

(7) “Hospital” has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490 ;

(8) “Out-of-pocket costs” means costs that are not reimbursed by a health insurance policy and includes deductibles, coinsurance and copayments for covered services and other costs to the consumer associated with a procedure or service;

(9) “Outpatient surgical facility” has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-493b ; and

(10) “Public or private third party” means the state, the federal government, employers, a health carrier, third-party administrator, as defined in section 38a-720 , or managed care organization.

(b) (1) Within available resources, the consumer health information Internet web site shall: (A) Contain information comparing the quality, price and cost of health care services, including, to the extent practicable, (i) comparative price and cost information for the health care services and procedures reported pursuant to subsection (c) of this section categorized by payer or listed by health care provider, (ii) links to Internet web sites and consumer tools where consumers may obtain comparative cost and quality information, including The Joint Commission and Medicare hospital compare tool, (iii) definitions of common health insurance and medical terms so consumers may compare health coverage and understand the terms of their coverage, and (iv) factors consumers should consider when choosing an insurance product or provider group, including provider network, premium, cost sharing, covered services and tier information; (B) be designed to assist consumers and institutional purchasers in making informed decisions regarding their health care and informed choices among health care providers and, to the extent practicable, provide reference pricing for services paid by various health carriers to health care providers; (C) present information in language and a format that is understandable to the average consumer; and (D) be publicized to the general public. All information outlined in this section shall be posted on an Internet web site established, or to be established, by the Commissioner of Health Strategy in a manner and time frame as may be organizationally and financially reasonable in his or her sole discretion.

(2) Information collected, stored and published by the Office of Health Strategy pursuant to this section is subject to the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, P.L. 104-191, as amended from time to time.

(3) The Commissioner of Health Strategy may consider adding quality measures to the consumer health information Internet web site.

(c) Not later than January 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Commissioner of Health Strategy shall, to the extent the information is available, make available to the public on the consumer health information Internet web site a list of: (1) The fifty most frequently occurring inpatient services or procedures in the state; (2) the fifty most frequently provided outpatient services or procedures in the state; (3) the twenty-five most frequent surgical services or procedures in the state; (4) the twenty-five most frequent imaging services or procedures in the state; and (5) the twenty-five most frequently used pharmaceutical products and medical devices in the state. Such lists may (A) be expanded to include additional admissions and procedures, (B) be based upon those services and procedures that are most commonly performed by volume or that represent the greatest percentage of related health care expenditures, or (C) be designed to include those services and procedures most likely to result in out-of-pocket costs to consumers or include bundled episodes of care.

(d) Not later than January 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, to the extent practicable, the Commissioner of Health Strategy shall issue a report, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, that includes the (1) billed and allowed amounts paid to health care providers in each health carrier's network for each service and procedure included pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, and (2) out-of-pocket costs for each such service and procedure.

(e) (1) On and after January 1, 2018, each hospital shall, at the time of scheduling a service or procedure for nonemergency care that is included in the report prepared by the Commissioner of Health Strategy pursuant to subsection (d) of this section, regardless of the location or setting where such services are delivered, notify the patient of the patient's right to make a request for cost and quality information. Upon the request of a patient for a diagnosis or procedure included in such report, the hospital shall, not later than three business days after scheduling such service or procedure, provide written notice, electronically or by mail, to the patient who is the subject of the service or procedure concerning: (A) If the patient is uninsured, the amount to be charged for the service or procedure if all charges are paid in full without a public or private third party paying any portion of the charges, including the amount of any facility fee, or, if the hospital is not able to provide a specific amount due to an inability to predict the specific treatment or diagnostic code, the estimated maximum allowed amount or charge for the service or procedure, including the amount of any facility fee; (B) the corresponding Medicare reimbursement amount or, if there is no corresponding Medicare reimbursement amount for such diagnosis or procedure, (i) the approximate amount Medicare would have paid the hospital for the services on the billing statement, or (ii) the percentage of the hospital's charges that Medicare would have paid the hospital for the services; (C) if the patient is insured, the allowed amount, the toll-free telephone number and the Internet web site address of the patient's health carrier where the patient can obtain information concerning charges and out-of-pocket costs; (D) The Joint Commission's composite accountability rating and the Medicare hospital compare star rating for the hospital, as applicable; and (E) the Internet web site addresses for The Joint Commission and the Medicare hospital compare tool where the patient may obtain information concerning the hospital.

(2) If the patient is insured and the hospital is out-of-network under the patient's health insurance policy, such written notice shall include a statement that the service or procedure will likely be deemed out-of-network and that any out-of-network applicable rates under such policy may apply.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-501 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-501
Sec. 19a-501. (Formerly Sec. 19-584). Appeal.
Status: in_force

Annotation to former section 19-584:

Department did not act illegally, arbitrarily or in abuse of its discretion in refusing a license to plaintiffs for more beds than it had nurses as required by regulations. 26 CS 452.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-207 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368e / Section 19a-207
Sec. 19a-207. (Formerly Sec. 19-80). Duties of local officials. Emergencies. Regulations.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 19a-36 re Public Health Code.

Annotation to former section 19-80:

Cited. 166 C. 337.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-639f — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368z / Section 19a-639f
Sec. 19a-639f. Certificate of need involving hospital ownership. Cost and market impact review.
Status: in_force

(b) Not later than twenty-one days after receipt of a properly filed certificate of need application involving the transfer of ownership of a hospital filed on or after December 1, 2015, as described in subsection (a) of this section, the unit shall initiate such cost and market impact review by sending the transacting parties a written notice that shall contain a description of the basis for the cost and market impact review as well as a request for information and documents. Not later than thirty days after receipt of such notice, the transacting parties shall submit to the unit a written response. Such response shall include, but need not be limited to, any information or documents requested by the unit concerning the transfer of ownership of the hospital. The unit shall have the powers with respect to the cost and market impact review as provided in section 19a-633 .

(c) The unit shall keep confidential all nonpublic information and documents obtained pursuant to this section and shall not disclose the information or documents to any person without the consent of the person that produced the information or documents, except in a preliminary report or final report issued in accordance with this section if the unit believes that such disclosure should be made in the public interest after taking into account any privacy, trade secret or anti-competitive considerations. Such information and documents shall not be deemed a public record, under section 1-210 , and shall be exempt from disclosure.

(d) The cost and market impact review conducted pursuant to this section shall examine factors relating to the businesses and relative market positions of the transacting parties as defined in subsection (d) of section 19a-639 and may include, but need not be limited to: (1) The transacting parties' size and market share within its primary service area, by major service category and within its dispersed service areas; (2) the transacting parties' prices for services, including the transacting parties' relative prices compared to other health care providers for the same services in the same market; (3) the transacting parties' health status adjusted total medical expense, including the transacting parties' health status adjusted total medical expense compared to that of similar health care providers; (4) the quality of the services provided by the transacting parties, including patient experience; (5) the transacting parties' cost and cost trends in comparison to total health care expenditures state wide; (6) the availability and accessibility of services similar to those provided by each transacting party, or proposed to be provided as a result of the transfer of ownership of a hospital within each transacting party's primary service areas and dispersed service areas; (7) the impact of the proposed transfer of ownership of the hospital on competing options for the delivery of health care services within each transacting party's primary service area and dispersed service area including the impact on existing service providers; (8) the methods used by the transacting parties to attract patient volume and to recruit or acquire health care professionals or facilities; (9) the role of each transacting party in serving at-risk, underserved and government payer patient populations, including those with behavioral, substance use disorder and mental health conditions, within each transacting party's primary service area and dispersed service area; (10) the role of each transacting party in providing low margin or negative margin services within each transacting party's primary service area and dispersed service area; (11) consumer concerns, including, but not limited to, complaints or other allegations that a transacting party has engaged in any unfair method of competition or any unfair or deceptive act or practice; and (12) any other factors that the unit determines to be in the public interest.

(e) Not later than ninety days after the unit determines that there is substantial compliance with any request for documents or information issued by the unit in accordance with this section, or a later date set by mutual agreement of the unit and the transacting parties, the unit shall make factual findings and issue a preliminary report on the cost and market impact review. Such preliminary report shall include, but shall not be limited to, an indication as to whether a transacting party meets the following criteria: (1) Currently has or, following the proposed transfer of operations of the hospital, is likely to have a dominant market share for the services the transacting party provides; and (2) (A) currently charges or, following the proposed transfer of operations of the hospital, is likely to charge prices for services that are materially higher than the median prices charged by all other health care providers for the same services in the same market, or (B) currently has or, following the proposed transfer of operations of a hospital, is likely to have a health status adjusted total medical expense that is materially higher than the median total medical expense for all other health care providers for the same service in the same market.

(f) The transacting parties that are the subject of the cost and market impact review may respond in writing to the findings in the preliminary report issued in accordance with subsection (e) of this section not later than thirty days after the issuance of the preliminary report. Not later than sixty days after the issuance of the preliminary report, the unit shall issue a final report of the cost and market impact review. The unit shall refer to the Attorney General any final report on any proposed transfer of ownership that meets the criteria described in subsection (e) of this section.

(g) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a transfer of ownership of a hospital, provided any such proposed transfer shall not be completed (1) less than thirty days after the unit has issued a final report on a cost and market impact review, if such review is required, or (2) while any action brought by the Attorney General pursuant to subsection (h) of this section is pending and before a final judgment on such action is issued by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(h) After the unit refers a final report on a transfer of ownership of a hospital to the Attorney General under subsection (f) of this section, the Attorney General may: (1) Conduct an investigation to determine whether the transacting parties engaged, or, as a result of completing the transfer of ownership of the hospital, are expected to engage in unfair methods of competition, anti-competitive behavior or other conduct in violation of chapter 624 or 735a or any other state or federal law; and (2) if appropriate, take action under chapter 624 or 735a or any other state law to protect consumers in the health care market. The unit's final report may be evidence in any such action.

(i) For the purposes of this section, the provisions of chapter 735a may be directly enforced by the Attorney General. Nothing in this section shall be construed to modify, impair or supersede the operation of any state antitrust law or otherwise limit the authority of the Attorney General to (1) take any action against a transacting party as authorized by any law, or (2) protect consumers in the health care market under any law. Notwithstanding subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of section 42-110c , the transacting parties shall be subject to chapter 735a.

(j) The unit shall retain an independent consultant with expertise on the economic analysis of the health care market and health care costs and prices to conduct each cost and market impact review, as described in this section. The unit shall submit bills for such services to the purchaser, as defined in subsection (d) of section 19a-639 . Such purchaser shall pay such bills not later than thirty days after receipt. Such bills shall not exceed two hundred thousand dollars per application. The provisions of chapter 57, sections 4-212 to 4-219 , inclusive, and section 4e-19 shall not apply to any agreement executed pursuant to this subsection.

(k) Any employee of the unit who directly oversees or assists in conducting a cost and market impact review shall not take part in factual deliberations or the issuance of a preliminary or final decision on the certificate of need application concerning the transfer of ownership of a hospital that is the subject of such cost and market impact review.

(l) The Commissioner of Health Strategy shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, concerning cost and market impact reviews and to administer the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall include definitions of the following terms: “Dispersed service area”, “health status adjusted total medical expense”, “major service category”, “relative prices”, “total health care spending” and “health care services”. The commissioner may implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures in regulation form, provided the commissioner publishes notice of intention to adopt the regulations on the office's Internet web site and the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after implementing such policies and procedures. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall be valid until the time such regulations are effective.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-181 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-181
Sec. 19a-181. (Formerly Sec. 19-73cc). Inspection and registration of ambulance, invalid coach and authorized emergency medical services vehicle. Suspension or revocation of registration certificate.
Status: in_force

(b) Each authorized emergency medical services vehicle used by an emergency medical service organization shall be inspected by the Department of Public Health to verify the authorized emergency medical services vehicle is in compliance with the minimum standards for vehicle design and equipment as prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Health. Such minimum standards shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Each ambulance shall meet or exceed the design criteria of the United States General Services Administration's federal specification for the star-of-life ambulance, as described in KKK-A-1822, as amended from time to time, with an exemption for the color scheme and decals of the ambulance;

(2) Each authorized emergency medical services vehicle shall be equipped with the equipment required for its specific vehicle classification as specified in the 2022 Connecticut EMS Minimum Equipment Checklist, as amended from time to time; and

(3) Each authorized emergency medical services vehicle shall comply with all state and federal safety, design and equipment requirements.

(c) Each inspector, upon determining that such authorized emergency medical services vehicle meets the standards of safety and equipment prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Health, shall affix a compliance certificate in the rear compartment of such vehicle, in such manner and form as said commissioner designates, and such sticker shall be so placed as to be readily visible to any person. The Commissioner of Public Health or the commissioner's designee may inspect any rescue vehicle used by an emergency medical service organization for compliance with the minimum equipment standards prescribed by said commissioner.

(d) Each authorized emergency medical services vehicle shall be registered with the Department of Motor Vehicles pursuant to chapter 246. The Department of Motor Vehicles shall not issue a certificate of registration for any such authorized emergency medical services vehicle unless the applicant for such certificate of registration presents to said department a compliance certificate from the Commissioner of Public Health certifying that such authorized emergency medical services vehicle has been inspected and has met the minimum safety and vehicle design equipment standards prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Health. Each vehicle registered with the Department of Motor Vehicles in accordance with this subsection shall be inspected by the Commissioner of Public Health or the commissioner's designee not less than once every two years on or before the anniversary date of the issuance of the certificate of registration.

(e) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend or revoke the certificate of registration of any vehicle inspected under the provisions of this section upon certification from the Commissioner of Public Health that such ambulance or rescue vehicle has failed to meet the minimum standards prescribed by said commissioner.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-532 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-532
Sec. 19a-532. (Formerly Sec. 19-614). Discrimination against complainants and others prohibited. Penalty.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 17a-870 et seq. re Office of Long-Term Care Ombudsman and residents' advocates.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-495 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-495
Sec. 19a-495. (Formerly Sec. 19-580). Regulations re licensed institutions. Implementation of policies and procedures re medications.
Status: in_force

(b) The Department of Public Health, with the advice of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, shall include in the regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (a) of this section, additional standards for community residences, as defined in section 19a-507a , which shall include, but not be limited to, standards for: (1) Safety, maintenance and administration; (2) protection of human rights; (3) staffing requirements; (4) administration of medication; (5) program goals and objectives; (6) services to be offered; and (7) population to be served.

(c) The commissioner may waive any provisions of the regulations affecting an institution or a clinical laboratory, licensed pursuant to section 19a-30 , if the commissioner determines that such waiver would not endanger the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident. The commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the waiver, that assure the health, safety and welfare of patients or residents, and may revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The commissioner shall not grant a waiver that would result in a violation of the Fire Safety Code or State Building Code. The commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, establishing procedures for an application for a waiver pursuant to this subsection.

(d) The Commissioner of Public Health, in consultation with the Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services, may implement policies and procedures, in compliance with federal law, permitting licensed health care providers with prescriptive authority to prescribe medications to treat persons dependent on opiates in freestanding substance abuse treatment facilities, licensed under section 19a-490 , while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures in regulation form, provided the commissioner prints notice of the intent to adopt regulations in the Connecticut Law Journal not later than thirty days after the date of implementation of such policies and procedures. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.

Annotation to former section 19-580:

Cited. 26 CS 452.

Annotation to present section:

Cited. 206 C. 316.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-423 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368r / Section 19a-423
Sec. 19a-423. (Formerly Sec. 19-542). Disciplinary actions. Due process and appeal procedures. No review of denial of initial license applications.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner, after a contested case hearing held in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, may take any of the following actions, singly or in combination, in any case in which the commissioner finds that there has been a substantial failure to comply with the requirements established under sections 19a-420 to 19a-428 , inclusive, the Public Health Code or regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-428 : (1) Revoke a license; (2) suspend a license; (3) impose a civil penalty of not more than one hundred dollars per violation for each day of occurrence; (4) place a licensee on probationary status and require such licensee to report regularly to the office on the matters that are the basis of the probation; (5) restrict the acquisition of other facilities for a period of time set by the commissioner; or (6) impose limitations on a license.

(c) The commissioner shall notify the licensee, in writing, of the commissioner's intention to suspend or revoke the license or to impose a licensure action. The licensee may, if aggrieved by such intended action, make application for a hearing, in writing, over the licensee's signature to the commissioner. The licensee shall state in the application in plain language the reasons why the licensee claims to be aggrieved. The application shall be delivered to the commissioner not later than thirty days after the licensee's receipt of notification of the intended action.

(d) The commissioner shall hold a hearing not later than sixty days after receipt of such application and shall, at least ten days prior to the date of such hearing, mail a notice, giving the time and place of the hearing, to the licensee. The hearing may be conducted by the commissioner or by a hearing officer appointed by the commissioner, in writing. The licensee and the commissioner or hearing officer may issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses. The licensee shall be entitled to be represented by counsel and a transcript of the hearing shall be made. If the hearing is conducted by a hearing officer, the hearing officer shall state the hearing officer's findings and make a recommendation to the commissioner on the issue of revocation or suspension or the intended licensure action.

(e) The commissioner, based upon the findings and recommendation of the hearing officer, or after a hearing conducted by the commissioner, shall render the commissioner's decision, in writing, suspending, revoking or continuing the license or regarding the intended licensure action. A copy of the decision shall be sent by certified mail to the licensee. The decision revoking or suspending the license or a decision imposing a licensure action shall become effective thirty days after it is mailed by registered or certified mail to the licensee. A licensee aggrieved by the decision of the commissioner may appeal in the same manner as provided in section 19a-85 .

(f) The provisions of subsections (c) to (e), inclusive, of this section shall not apply to the denial of an initial application for a license under section 19a-421 , provided the commissioner notifies the applicant of any such denial and the reasons for such denial by mailing written notice to the applicant at the applicant's address shown on the license application.

(g) If the office determines that the health, safety or welfare of a child or staff person at a youth camp requires imperative emergency action by the office to halt an activity being provided at the camp, the office may issue a cease and desist order limiting the license and requiring the immediate cessation of the activity. The office shall provide the licensee with an opportunity for a hearing regarding the issuance of a cease and desist order. Such hearing shall be held not later than ten business days after the date of issuance of the order. Upon receipt of such order, the licensee shall cease providing the activity and provide immediate notification to staff and the parents of all children attending the camp that such activity has ceased at the camp until such time as the cease and desist order is dissolved by the office.

(h) In addition to the authority provided to the commissioner in subsection (a) of this section, the commissioner may resolve any disciplinary action with respect to the voluntary surrender of a youth camp license.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-639c — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368z / Section 19a-639c
Sec. 19a-639c. Proposed relocation of a health care facility. Policies, procedures and regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) The Commissioner of Health Strategy may implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulation, provided the commissioner holds a public hearing prior to implementing the policies and procedures and posts notice of intent to adopt regulations on the office's Internet web site and the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-222 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368e / Section 19a-222
Sec. 19a-222. (Formerly Sec. 19-95). Vaccination.
Status: in_force

Annotations to former section 19-95:

Powers of health officer to prevent spread of smallpox. 42 C. 162. Health officers may adopt suitable measures of prevention, although no case of disease has appeared. 65 C. 189.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-180 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-180
Sec. 19a-180. (Formerly Sec. 19-73bb). Licensure and certification of ambulance service, paramedic intercept service or rescue service. Exception. Establishment of mobile integrated health care programs. Suspension or revocation of licensure or certification. Penalty. Duties of emergency medical service organization. Additional emergency vehicles. Change of address of principal or branch location or addition of branch location. Authorization as mobile integrated health care program for primary service area.
Status: in_force

(b) On or after January 1, 2020, within available appropriations, the commissioner may authorize an emergency medical services organization that furnishes evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that such organization has met the requirements of this section to establish a mobile integrated health care program under the provisions of such organization's current license or certification. Emergency medical services organizations requesting approval to establish such mobile integrated health care program shall use the forms prescribed by the commissioner and shall submit such application to the commissioner. No emergency medical services organization shall provide a mobile integrated health care program unless authorized by the commissioner to provide such program. The commissioner may implement policies and procedures to administer the mobile integrated health care programs established in accordance with this section. The commissioner shall post such policies and procedures to the department's Internet web site and the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of implementation.

(c) Any person or emergency medical service organization that does not maintain standards or violates regulations adopted under any section of this chapter applicable to such person or organization may have such person's or organization's license or certification suspended or revoked or may be subject to any other disciplinary action specified in section 19a-17 after notice by certified mail to such person or organization of the facts or conduct that warrant the intended action. Such person or emergency medical service organization shall have an opportunity to show compliance with all requirements for the retention of such certificate or license. In the conduct of any investigation by the commissioner of alleged violations of the standards or regulations adopted under the provisions of this chapter, the commissioner may issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production by any medical service organization or person of reports, records, tapes or other documents that concern the allegations under investigation. All records obtained by the commissioner in connection with any such investigation shall not be subject to the provisions of section 1-210 for a period of six months from the date of the petition or other event initiating such investigation, or until such time as the investigation is terminated pursuant to a withdrawal or other informal disposition or until a hearing is convened pursuant to chapter 54, whichever is earlier. A complaint, as defined in subdivision (6) of section 19a-13 , shall be subject to the provisions of section 1-210 from the time that it is served or mailed to the respondent. Records that are otherwise public records shall not be deemed confidential merely because they have been obtained in connection with an investigation under this chapter.

(d) Any person or emergency medical service organization aggrieved by an act or decision of the commissioner regarding certification or licensure may appeal in the manner provided by chapter 54.

(e) Any person who commits any of the following acts shall be guilty of a class C misdemeanor: (1) In any application to the commissioner or in any proceeding before or investigation made by the commissioner, knowingly making any false statement or representation, or, with knowledge of its falsity, filing or causing to be filed any false statement or representation in a required application or statement; (2) issuing, circulating or publishing or causing to be issued, circulated or published any form of advertisement or circular for the purpose of soliciting business which contains any statement that is false or misleading, or otherwise likely to deceive a reader thereof, with knowledge that it contains such false, misleading or deceptive statement; (3) giving or offering to give anything of value to any person for the purpose of promoting or securing ambulance, invalid coach, paramedic intercept vehicle or rescue service business or obtaining favors relating thereto; (4) administering or causing to be administered, while serving in the capacity of an employee of any licensed ambulance or rescue service, any alcoholic liquor to any patient in such employee's care, except under the supervision and direction of a licensed physician; (5) in any respect wilfully violating or failing to comply with any provision of this chapter or wilfully violating, failing, omitting or neglecting to obey or comply with any regulation, order, decision or license, or any part or provisions thereof; or (6) with one or more other persons, conspiring to violate any license or order issued by the commissioner or any provision of this chapter.

(f) No person shall place any advertisement or produce any printed matter that holds that person out to be an ambulance service or a mobile integrated health care program provider unless such person is licensed, certified or authorized pursuant to this section. Any such advertisement or printed matter shall include the license or certificate number issued by the commissioner.

(g) Each licensed or certified emergency medical service organization shall: (1) Ensure that its emergency medical personnel, whether such personnel are employees or contracted through an employment agency or personnel pool, are appropriately licensed or certified by the Department of Public Health to perform their job duties and that such licenses or certifications remain valid; (2) ensure that any employment agency or personnel pool, from which the emergency medical service organization obtains personnel meets the required general liability and professional liability insurance limits described in subsection (a) of this section and that all persons performing work or volunteering for the medical service organization are covered by such insurance; and (3) secure and maintain medical oversight, as defined in section 19a-175 , by a sponsor hospital, as defined in section 19a-175 .

(h) Each applicant whose request for new or expanded emergency medical services or the establishment of a mobile integrated health care program is approved shall, not later than six months after the date of such approval, acquire the necessary resources, equipment and other material necessary to comply with the terms of the approval and operate in the service area identified in the application. If the applicant fails to do so, the approval for new or expanded medical services or the establishment of a mobile integrated health care program shall be void and the commissioner shall rescind the approval.

(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, any emergency medical services organization that is licensed or certified and is a primary service area responder may apply to the commissioner to add one emergency vehicle to its existing fleet every three years, on a short form application prescribed by the commissioner. No such emergency medical services organization operated and maintained by a state agency may add more than one emergency vehicle to its existing fleet pursuant to this subsection regardless of the number of municipalities served by such volunteer, hospital-based or municipal ambulance service. Upon making such application, the applicant shall notify in writing all other primary service area responders in any municipality or abutting municipality in which the applicant proposes to add the additional emergency vehicle. Except in the case where a primary service area responder entitled to receive notification of such application objects, in writing, to the commissioner not later than fifteen calendar days after receiving such notice, the application shall be deemed approved thirty calendar days after filing. If any such primary service area responder files an objection with the commissioner within the fifteen-calendar-day time period and requests a hearing, the applicant shall be required to demonstrate need at a public hearing as required under subsection (a) of this section.

(j) The commissioner shall develop a short form application for primary service area responders seeking to add an emergency vehicle to their existing fleets pursuant to subsection (i) of this section. The application shall require an applicant to provide such information as the commissioner deems necessary, including, but not limited to, (1) the applicant's name and address, (2) the primary service area where the additional vehicle is proposed to be used, (3) an explanation as to why the additional vehicle is necessary and its proposed use, (4) proof of insurance, (5) a list of the emergency medical service organizations to whom notice was sent pursuant to subsection (i) of this section and proof of such notification, and (6) total call volume, response time and calls passed within the primary service area for the one-year period preceding the date of the application.

(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, any emergency medical services organization that is licensed or certified and a primary service area responder may apply to the commissioner, on a short form application prescribed by the commissioner, to change the address of a principal or branch location or to add a branch location within its primary service area. Upon making such application, the applicant shall notify in writing all other primary service area responders in any municipality or abutting municipality in which the applicant proposes to change principal or branch locations. Unless a primary service area responder entitled to receive notification of such application objects, in writing, to the commissioner and requests a hearing on such application not later than fifteen calendar days after receiving such notice, the application shall be deemed approved thirty calendar days after filing. If any such primary service area responder files an objection with the commissioner within the fifteen-calendar-day time period and requests a hearing, the applicant shall be required to demonstrate need to change the address of a principal or branch location within its primary service area at a public hearing as required under subsection (a) of this section.

(l) (1) The commissioner shall develop a short form application pursuant to subsection (k) of this section for primary service area responders seeking to (A) change the address of a principal location or the branch location, or (B) to add a branch location. (2) The application shall require an applicant to provide such information as the commissioner deems necessary, including, but not limited to, (A) the applicant's name and address, (B) the new address where the principal or branch is to be located, (C) an explanation as to why the principal or branch location is being moved, (D) an explanation as to the need for the addition of a branch location, and (E) a list of the emergency medical service organizations to whom notice was sent pursuant to subsection (k) of this section and proof of such notification.

(m) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, any ambulance service assigned as the primary service area responder for a primary service area on or before September 1, 2019, that notifies the Department of Public Health's Office of Emergency Medical Services, in writing, not later than October 1, 2019, of such assignment and attests to the ambulance service being in compliance with all statutes and regulations concerning the operation of such ambulance service shall be deemed authorized by the Commissioner of Public Health as the authorized mobile integrated health care program for the primary service area within which the ambulance service is the primary service area responder.

Cited. 242 C. 152.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-181d — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-181d
Sec. 19a-181d. Hearing re performance standards.
Status: in_force

(b) In conducting a hearing authorized by this section, the commissioner shall determine if the performance standards adopted in the municipality's local emergency medical services plan are reasonable based on the state-wide plan for the coordinated delivery of emergency medical services adopted pursuant to subdivision (1) of section 19a-177 , model local emergency medical services plans and the standards, contracts and written agreements in use by municipalities of similar population and characteristics.

(c) If, after a hearing authorized by this section, the commissioner determines that the performance standards adopted in the municipality's local emergency medical services plan are reasonable, the primary service area responder shall have thirty calendar days in which to agree to such performance standards. If the primary service area responder fails or refuses to agree to such performance standards, the commissioner may revoke the primary service area responder's primary service area assignment and require the chief administrative official of the municipality in which the primary service area is located to submit a plan acceptable to the commissioner for the alternative provision of primary service area responder responsibilities, or may issue an order for the alternative provision of emergency medical services, or both.

(d) If, after a hearing authorized by this section, the commissioner determines that the performance standards adopted in the municipality's local emergency medical services plan are unreasonable, the commissioner shall provide performance standards considered reasonable based on the state-wide plan for the coordinated delivery of emergency medical services adopted pursuant to subdivision (1) of section 19a-177 , model emergency medical services plans and the standards, contracts and written agreements in use by municipalities of similar population and characteristics. If the municipality refuses to agree to such performance standards, the primary service area responder shall meet the minimum performance standards provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179 .
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-179c — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-179c
Sec. 19a-179c. Interfacility critical care transport. Emergency interfacility transport.
Status: in_force

(b) A general hospital or children's general hospital licensed in accordance with section 19a-490 may utilize a ground or air ambulance service other than the primary service area responder for emergency interfacility transports of patients when (1) the primary service area responder is not authorized to the level of care required for the patient, (2) the primary service area responder does not have the equipment necessary to transport the patient safely, or (3) the transport takes the primary service area responder out of its service area for more than two hours and there is another ambulance service with the appropriate level of medical authorization and proper equipment available. The patient's attending physician shall determine when it is necessary to utilize the primary service area responder or other ambulance service for an expeditious and medically appropriate transport.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-243 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368f / Section 19a-243
Sec. 19a-243. (Formerly Sec. 19-108). District rules and regulations. Powers of district. Meetings. Expenses.
Status: in_force

(b) A district may, without limiting its authority under other provisions of law, borrow money for the purpose of carrying out or administering a district project, program or other function authorized under this chapter, or for the purpose of refinancing existing indebtedness, or temporarily in anticipation of receipt of current revenues, and provided the board shall hold a public hearing on any such proposed borrowing which is estimated by the board to increase the annual apportionment of district expenses made pursuant to subsection (c) of this section by more than seven per cent over levels currently established. The board shall give one week's notice of such hearing in a newspaper having a circulation in each constituent municipality of the district. The district may enter into note, loan or other agreements providing that such borrowings shall be payable from or secured by one or more of the following: (1) A pledge, lien, mortgage or other security interest in any or all of the income, proceeds, revenues and property, real or personal, of its projects, assets, programs or other functions, including the proceeds of payments, grants, loans, advances, guarantees or contributions from the federal government, the state of Connecticut, the constituent municipalities of the district or any other source; or (2) a pledge, lien, mortgage or other security interest in the property, real or personal, of projects to be financed by the borrowing. Such borrowings and obligations shall not constitute an indebtedness within the meaning of any debt limitation or restrictions on, and shall not be obligations of, the state of Connecticut or any municipality. No constituent municipality of a district shall be liable for any such borrowing or obligation of the district upon default. Neither members of the board nor any person executing on behalf of the district any note, mortgage, pledge, loan, security or other agreement in connection with the borrowing of money by a district shall be personally liable on the obligations thereunder or be subject to any personal liability or accountability by reason of the entrance into such agreements. Each pledge, agreement or assignment made for the benefit or security of any such borrowing entered into pursuant to this subsection shall be in effect until the principal and interest on such borrowing for the benefit of which the same were made have been fully paid, or until provision is made for the payment in the manner provided therein. Any pledge or assignment made in respect of such borrowing secured thereby shall be valid and binding from the time when the pledge or assignment is made; any income, proceeds, revenues or property so pledged or assigned and thereafter received by the district shall immediately be subject to the lien of such pledge, without any physical delivery thereof or further act; and the lien of any such pledge or assignment shall be valid and binding as against parties having claims of any kind in tort, contract or otherwise against the district irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof. Neither the resolution, trust indenture, agreement, assignment or other instrument by which a pledge is created need be recorded or filed, except for the recording of any mortgage or lien on real property or on any interest in real property.

(c) The board shall meet at least quarterly and at other times determined by the chairperson. At its September meeting it shall elect a chairperson and it shall furnish the necessary offices and equipment to enable it to carry out its duties. The board may elect an executive committee, consisting of the chairperson and two other members, and the director of health, who shall serve without a vote, and such executive committee shall have power to act when the board is not in session. The fiscal year of each district department of health shall be from July first to June thirtieth, and, by June thirtieth in each year, the board shall estimate the amount of money required to pay the costs and expenses of the district during the ensuing fiscal year, provided, if any municipality within the district has a fiscal year which begins on July first, such estimate shall be made by April thirtieth of each year. Such board shall hold a public hearing on its proposed budget, two weeks' notice of which shall be given in a newspaper having a circulation in each constituent municipality of such district. From time to time the board shall draw upon the treasurer of each town, city or borough within the district a proportionate share of the expenses of such district, from such funds as may have been appropriated by each, to pay the cost of operating the district, including debt service on borrowings of the district, such apportionment to be made equitable on a per capita basis as established by the last annual population estimate by the Department of Public Health for each participating town, city or borough.

See Sec. 7-425 et seq. for duties re retirement of employees.

See Sec. 12-146a re authority to revoke license or permit to do business for an enterprise which has failed to pay personal property taxes.

See Sec. 19a-245 re funds received from state and federal sources.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-571 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368w / Section 19a-571
Sec. 19a-571. Liability re removal of life support system of incapacitated patient. Consideration of wishes of patient.
Status: in_force

(b) A physician qualified to make a neurological diagnosis who is consulted by the attending physician or advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section shall not be liable for damages or subject to criminal prosecution for any determination made in accordance with the usual and customary standards of medical practice.

(c) In the case of an infant, as defined in 45 CFR 1340.15 (b), the physician, advanced practice registered nurse or licensed medical facility shall comply with the provisions of 45 CFR 1340.15 (b)(2) in addition to the provisions of subsection (a) of this section.

Cited. 209 C. 692.

Section removes any legal duty for the hospital to follow the wishes of a patient's relatives. 166 CA 432.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-754j — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368dd / Section 19a-754j
Sec. 19a-754j. Informational public hearings. Participation by significant contributors. Commissioner of Health Strategy's report.
Status: in_force

(A) The report most recently prepared by the commissioner pursuant to subsection (b) of section 19a-754h ;

(B) The expenditures of provider entities and payers, including, but not limited to, health care cost trends, primary care spending as a percentage of total medical expenses and the factors contributing to such costs and expenditures; and

(C) Any other matters that the commissioner, in the commissioner's discretion, deems relevant for the purposes of this section.

(2) The commissioner may require any payer or provider entity that, for the performance year, is found to be a significant contributor to health care cost growth in the state or has failed to meet the primary care spending target, to participate in such hearing. Each such payer or provider entity that is required to participate in such hearing shall provide testimony on issues identified by the commissioner and provide additional information on actions taken to reduce such payer's or entity's contribution to future state-wide health care costs and expenditures or to increase such payer's or provider entity's primary care spending as a percentage of total medical expenses.

(3) The commissioner may require that any other entity that is found to be a significant contributor to health care cost growth in this state during the performance year participate in such hearing. Any other entity that is required to participate in such hearing shall provide testimony on issues identified by the commissioner and provide additional information on actions taken to reduce such other entity's contribution to future state-wide health care costs. If such other entity is a drug manufacturer, and the commissioner requires that such drug manufacturer participate in such hearing with respect to a specific drug or class of drugs, such hearing may, to the extent possible, include representatives from at least one brand-name manufacturer, one generic manufacturer and one innovator company that is less than ten years old.

(4) Not later than October 15, 2023, and annually thereafter, the commissioner shall prepare and submit a report, in accordance with section 11-4a , to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to insurance and public health. Such report shall be based on the commissioner's analysis of the information submitted during the most recent informational public hearing conducted pursuant to this subsection and any other information that the commissioner, in the commissioner's discretion, deems relevant for the purposes of this section, and shall:

(A) Describe health care spending trends in this state, including, but not limited to, trends in primary care spending as a percentage of total medical expense, and the factors underlying such trends;

(B) Include the findings from the report prepared pursuant to subsection (b) of section 19a-754h ;

(C) Describe a plan for monitoring any unintended adverse consequences resulting from the adoption of cost growth benchmarks and primary care spending targets and the results of any findings from the implementation of such plan; and

(D) Disclose the commissioner's recommendations, if any, concerning strategies to increase the efficiency of the state's health care system, including, but not limited to, any recommended legislation concerning the state's health care system.

(b) (1) Not later than June 30, 2024, and annually thereafter, the commissioner shall hold an informational public hearing to compare the performance of payers and provider entities in the performance year to the quality benchmarks established for such year pursuant to section 19a-754g . Such hearing shall include an examination of:

(A) The report most recently prepared by the commissioner pursuant to subsection (e) of section 19a-754h ; and

(B) Any other matters that the commissioner, in the commissioner's discretion, deems relevant for the purposes of this section.

(2) The commissioner may require any payer or provider entity that failed to meet any health care quality benchmarks in this state during the performance year to participate in such hearing. Each such payer or provider entity that is required to participate in such hearing shall provide testimony on issues identified by the commissioner and provide additional information on actions taken to improve such payer's or provider entity's quality benchmark performance.

(3) Not later than October 15, 2024, and annually thereafter, the commissioner shall prepare and submit a report, in accordance with section 11-4a , to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to insurance and public health. Such report shall be based on the commissioner's analysis of the information submitted during the most recent informational public hearing conducted pursuant to this subsection and any other information that the commissioner, in the commissioner's discretion, deems relevant for the purposes of this section, and shall:

(A) Describe health care quality trends in this state and the factors underlying such trends;

(B) Include the findings from the report prepared pursuant to subsection (e) of section 19a-754h ; and

(C) Disclose the commissioner's recommendations, if any, concerning strategies to improve the quality of the state's health care system, including, but not limited to, any recommended legislation concerning the state's health care system.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-341 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368m / Section 19a-341
Sec. 19a-341. Agricultural or farming operation not deemed a nuisance; exceptions. Spring or well water collection operation not deemed a nuisance.
Status: in_force

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of any general statute or municipal ordinance or regulation pertaining to nuisances, no operation to collect spring water or well water, as defined in section 21a-150 , shall be deemed to constitute a nuisance, either public or private, due to alleged objectionable noise from equipment used in such operation provided the operation (1) conforms to generally accepted practices for the collection of spring water or well water, (2) has received all approvals or permits required by law, and (3) complies with the local zoning authority's time, place and manner restrictions on operations to collect spring water or well water.

(c) The provisions of this section shall not apply whenever a nuisance results from negligence or wilful or reckless misconduct in the operation of any such agricultural or farming operation, place, establishment or facility, or any of its appurtenances.

Elements of common law private nuisance claim discussed. 259 C. 345.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-17b — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-17b
Sec. 19a-17b. (Formerly Sec. 38-19a). Peer review: Definitions; immunity; discovery permissible re proceedings.
Status: in_force

(1) “Health care provider” means any person, corporation, limited liability company, facility or institution operated, owned or licensed by this state to provide health care or professional services, or an officer, employee or agent thereof acting in the course and scope of his employment.

(2) “Peer review” means the procedure for evaluation by health care professionals of the quality and efficiency of services ordered or performed by other health care professionals, including practice analysis, inpatient hospital and extended care facility utilization review, medical audit, ambulatory care review and claims review.

(3) “Professional society” includes medical, psychological, nursing, dental, naturopathic, osteopathic, optometric, pharmaceutical, chiropractic, podiatric, physical therapy and occupational therapy organizations as well as individual practice associations as defined in Section 300e-1(5) of the Public Health Service Act, 42 USC 300e-1(5), as amended, having as members at least a majority of the eligible licentiates in the area or health care facility or agency served by the particular society or, in the case of physical therapy organizations, at least twenty-five per cent of the eligible licentiates in the state.

(4) “Medical review committee” includes any committee of a state or local professional society or a committee of any health care institution established pursuant to written bylaws, and any utilization review committee established pursuant to Public Law 89-97, and a professional standards review organization or a state-wide professional standards review council, established pursuant to Public Law 92-603, engaging in peer review, to gather and review information relating to the care and treatment of patients for the purposes of (A) evaluating and improving the quality of health care rendered; (B) reducing morbidity or mortality; or (C) establishing and enforcing guidelines designed to keep within reasonable bounds the cost of health care. “Medical review committee” also means any hospital board or committee reviewing the professional qualifications or activities of its medical staff or applicants for admission thereto.

(b) There shall be no monetary liability on the part of, and no cause of action for damages shall arise against, any person who provides testimony, information, records, documents, reports, proceedings, minutes or conclusions to any hospital, hospital medical staff, professional society, medical or dental school, professional licensing board or medical review committee when such communication is intended to aid in the evaluation of the qualifications, fitness or character of a health care provider and does not represent as true any matter not reasonably believed to be true.

(c) There shall be no monetary liability on the part of, and no cause of action for damages shall arise against, any member of a medical review committee for any act or proceeding undertaken or performed within the scope of any such committee's functions provided that such member has taken action or made recommendations without malice and in the reasonable belief that the act or recommendation was warranted.

(d) The proceedings of a medical review committee conducting a peer review shall not be subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in any civil action for or against a health care provider arising out of the matters which are subject to evaluation and review by such committee, and no person who was in attendance at a meeting of such committee shall be permitted or required to testify in any such civil action as to the content of such proceedings; provided the provisions of this subsection shall not preclude (1) in any civil action, the use of any writing which was recorded independently of such proceedings; (2) in any civil action, the testimony of any person concerning the facts which formed the basis for the institution of such proceedings of which he had personal knowledge acquired independently of such proceedings; (3) in any health care provider proceedings concerning the termination or restriction of staff privileges, other than peer review, the use of data discussed or developed during peer review proceedings; or (4) in any civil action, disclosure of the fact that staff privileges were terminated or restricted, including the specific restriction imposed, if any.

Annotations to former section 38-19a:

Statute is designed not to disqualify a physician from testifying but to prevent him from disclosing confidential matters. 180 C. 314.

Department investigation not a “civil action” for purposes of privilege under statute. 40 CS 188.

Annotations to present section:

Cited. 242 C. 1. The privilege afforded by section applies to substantive exchanges that transpire during the course of a peer review meeting and confidentiality is provided for such exchanges but not for any knowledge gained by a committee member independent of that meeting. 251 C. 790. Section abrogates the common-law absolute immunity applicable to statements made to medical examining board of department in connection with proceedings of the board. 272 C. 776.

Where statutory immunity provided by Sec. 19a-20 and this section overlaps with common-law provision of absolute immunity to those who make statements in connection with quasi-judicial proceedings, statutes are in derogation of common law and must prevail over common-law grant of absolute immunity, and examination of the plain language and legislative history of statutes clearly and unambiguously demonstrated legislature's intent to provide only a qualified immunity to defendants. 77 CA 104.

Subsec. (d):

Provision which prohibits disclosure of proceedings of a medical review committee conducting peer review is not applicable to proceedings before Freedom of Information Commission and commission properly ordered disclosure of requested records; the term “discovery” is confined to discovery in a court action in a civil matter and use of the terms “discovery”, “introduction into evidence” and “civil action” signify that the legislature intended that the privilege apply within the context of a court action in a civil matter that does not include proceedings before commission. 293 C. 164.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-566 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-566
Sec. 19a-566. Birth centers. Licensure. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) Each birth center seeking initial licensure pursuant to the provisions of this section shall submit a complete application for accreditation to the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers before the date on which the birth center submits an application for initial licensure to the Commissioner of Public Health. The commissioner shall issue an initial license to a birth center if the commissioner determines that such birth center complies with the requirements established pursuant to the provisions of this section. Such initial license shall be valid for one year, except the commissioner may, in the commissioner's discretion, extend an initial licensure period for not more than one year while a birth center is completing accreditation. Each birth center shall be accredited by the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers on or before the date on which the birth center renews its license and maintain such accreditation thereafter. After the conclusion of the initial licensure period, each birth center license shall be renewable biennially (1) after an unscheduled inspection of the birth center is conducted by the Department of Public Health, (2) upon the filing of a report regarding the birth center's operations by the birth center, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, and approval of such report by the commissioner, and (3) if there is satisfactory evidence of continuing compliance with the provisions of this section, as determined by the commissioner. If a birth center is denied accreditation prior to the renewal of its license or loses its accreditation after renewal of its license, the birth center shall immediately notify the commissioner, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, and cease providing birth center services to patients until authorized by the commissioner to reinstate such services. Failure of a birth center to cease the provision of services and provide notice to the commissioner pursuant to the provisions of this subsection shall be grounds for summary suspension of the birth center's license and the imposition of disciplinary action in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-494 .

(c) (1) Each birth center shall have a written plan to obtain services for its patients from a hospital, licensed pursuant to this chapter, to provide services in the event of an emergency or other conditions that pose a risk to the health of a patient that require transfer of the patient to a hospital. Before issuing a license pursuant to this section, the commissioner shall review and approve the information submitted by the birth center to the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers, including, but not limited to, (A) information relating to the birth center's plan for ongoing risk assessment and adherence to patient eligibility criteria, as determined by the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers, during the delivery of birth center services to a patient, and (B) information relating to the birth center's policies and procedures for the prenatal, intrapartum or postpartum transfer of a patient in the event that such patient no longer meets such patient eligibility criteria.

(2) If a patient receiving birth center services no longer presents with a low-risk pregnancy, as defined in section 19a-490 , or otherwise fails to meet the patient eligibility criteria described in subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, the birth center providing such services shall ensure the patient's care is transferred to a licensed health care provider capable of providing the appropriate level of obstetrical care for the patient.

(d) Each hospital licensed pursuant to this chapter that maintains an emergency department, other than a children's hospital, shall work cooperatively with birth centers to coordinate the care of patients who may require services in the event of an emergency or other conditions that pose a risk to the health of a patient that require transfer of the patient to a hospital. Each children's hospital that maintains an emergency department shall work cooperatively with birth centers to coordinate the care of neonatal patients who may require services in the event of an emergency or other conditions that pose a risk to the health of a patient that require transfer of the patient to a children's hospital.

(e) The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section and section 19a-495 . The commissioner may implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published on the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted. The regulations and policies and procedures shall include, but need not be limited to, provisions regarding the administration of the facility, staffing requirements, infection control protocols, physical plant requirements, accommodation of the participation of support persons of the patient's choice, limitations on the provision of anesthesia and surgical procedures, operating procedures for determining risk status of patients at admission and during labor, reportable events, medical records, pharmaceutical services, laundry services, requirements for professional and medical liability insurance for the facility and health care providers and emergency planning.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-7h — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-7h
Sec. 19a-7h. Immunization information system. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(b) The Commissioner of Public Health or the commissioner's designee shall establish and maintain an immunization information system for the purpose of assuring vaccine recipient's access to their immunization records. The immunization information system shall include such information as is necessary to accurately identify a vaccine recipient and to assess such recipient's current immunization status.

(c) Each health care provider who has administered a vaccine to a person in the state shall report, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, information, which shall include, but need not be limited to, (1) the name and date of birth of the vaccine recipient, (2) the name and date of each vaccine dose given to the vaccine recipient, (3) any other information deemed necessary by the commissioner, and (4) when appropriate, contraindications or exemptions to administration of each vaccine dose. Each health care provider shall provide to a vaccine recipient, a vaccine recipient's court-appointed guardian or conservator, if applicable, or, in the case of a child who received a vaccine, such child's parent or guardian information regarding how such vaccine recipient or such child may decline enrollment in the immunization information system.

(d) Each health care provider intending to administer vaccines to any person may use the immunization information system to determine current information on the immunization status of such person for the purposes of determining whether such person requires immunizations, or to officially document immunization status to meet state child care, school or higher education immunization entry requirements pursuant to sections 10-204a , 10a-155 , 19a-79 and 19a-87b and regulations adopted thereunder.

(e) Each school nurse who is required to verify the immunization status for children enrolled in prekindergarten to grade twelve, inclusive, at a public or private school in any town, city or school district pursuant to section 10-204a shall be provided with sufficient information on the children who live in the school nurse's jurisdiction and who are listed on the immunization information system to enable determination of which children are overdue for scheduled immunizations and to enable provision of outreach to assist in getting each such child vaccinated.

(f) The commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, shall provide the director of health of any municipality or health district with sufficient information on the persons who live in such director's jurisdiction and who are listed on the immunization information system in order to address undervaccinated communities and improve health equity.

(g) The commissioner may use the information in the immunization information system for the purposes set forth in sections 19a-25 and 19a-215 and the regulations promulgated pursuant to said sections. The commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, may exchange information in the immunization information system with federal agencies providing health care services and other states' immunization information systems for the purposes described in this section.

(h) The commissioner shall provide to a vaccine recipient, a vaccine recipient's court-appointed guardian or conservator, if applicable, or, in the case of a child who received a vaccine, such child's parent or guardian access to any information that was provided by a health care provider to the Department of Public Health through the immunization information system regarding such person's vaccination status upon request by such recipient, guardian, conservator, parent or guardian.

(i) Except as specified in subsections (b) to (h), inclusive, of this section, all personal information including vaccination status and dates of vaccination of persons shall be confidential pursuant to section 19a-25 and shall not be further disclosed without the authorization of the vaccine recipient, the vaccine recipient's court-appointed guardian or conservator, if applicable, or, in the case of a child who received a vaccine, such child's parent or guardian.

(j) The immunization information system shall comply with the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's Immunization Information System Functional Standards, as amended from time to time.

(k) The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, regulations specifying (1) how information on vaccinations and, when appropriate, contraindications or exemptions to administration of each vaccine dose, is reported in a timely manner to the immunization information system, (2) how information on the immunization information system is made available to persons authorized to receive such information pursuant to subsections (b) to (h), inclusive, of this section, and (3) how a vaccine recipient, a vaccine recipient's court-appointed guardian or conservator, if applicable, or, in the case of a child who received a vaccine, such child's parent or guardian may decline enrollment in the immunization information system.

(l) The commissioner shall, in consultation with the Office of Health Strategy, adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to facilitate interoperability between the immunization information system and the State-wide Health Information Exchange established pursuant to section 17b-59d . The commissioner may implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, provided the department posts such policies and procedures on the eRegulations System prior to adopting them. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this section shall be valid until regulations are adopted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-29a — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-29a
Sec. 19a-29a. Environmental laboratories.
Status: in_force

(1) “Environmental laboratory” means any facility or other area, including, but not limited to, an outdoor area where testing occurs, used for microbiological, chemical, radiological or other analyte testing of drinking waters, ground waters, sea waters, rivers, streams and surface waters, recreational waters, fresh water sources, wastewaters, swimming pools, construction, renovation and demolition building materials, soil, solid waste, animal and plant tissues, sewage, sewage effluent, sewage sludge or any other matrix for the purpose of providing information on the sanitary quality or the amount of pollution or any substance prejudicial to health or the environment. “Environmental laboratory” does not include a publicly-owned treatment works, as defined in section 22a-521 , that performs only physical, residue, microbiological and biological oxygen demand tests for its own facility for which results are required by or submitted to the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection to comply with permits or authorizations issued pursuant to section 22a-6k , 22a-430 or 22a-430b , or a pollution abatement facility, as defined in either section 22a-423 or 22a-475 , that tests for pH, turbidity, conductivity, salinity and oxidation-reduction potential, and tests for residual chlorine for its own facility for which results are required by or submitted to the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection to comply with permits or authorizations issued pursuant to section 22a-6k , 22a-430 or 22a-430b ;

(2) “Analyte” means a microbiological, chemical, radiological or other component of a matrix being measured by an analytical test; and

(3) “Matrix” means the substance or medium in which an analyte is contained, that may include drinking water or wastewater.

(b) The Department of Public Health shall (1) adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to establish reasonable standards governing environmental laboratory operations and facilities, personnel qualifications, certification for testing, levels of acceptable proficiency in testing programs approved by the department, the collection, acceptance and suitability of samples for analysis and such other pertinent laboratory functions, including the establishment of advisory committees, as may be necessary to ensure environmental quality, public health and safety, and (2) establish one or more schedules of the amounts of civil penalties that may be imposed under this section. Each registered environmental laboratory shall comply with all standards for environmental laboratories established by the department and shall be subject to inspection by said department, including inspection of all records necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Commissioner of Public Health may revoke or otherwise limit the license of any environmental laboratory that fails to comply with the provisions of this section or regulations adopted under this section.

(c) The Commissioner of Public Health shall determine whether it is necessary for the protection of the public health or the environment for an environmental laboratory to be registered and to have certification to conduct a test for an analyte in a matrix. If the commissioner determines that it is necessary for the environmental laboratory to be registered, such environmental laboratory shall obtain from the commissioner a certification to conduct such tests for analytes. No person shall operate, manage or control an environmental laboratory that tests for analytes for the purpose of providing information on the sanitary quality or the amount of pollution of any substance prejudicial to health or the environment for which the commissioner has determined registration and certification is required without having first registered and obtained such certification.

(d) The commissioner shall, annually, publish a list setting forth all analytes and matrices for which a certification for testing is required.

(e) Each application for registration of an environmental laboratory and for certification for testing any analyte shall be made on forms provided by said department, shall be accompanied by a fee of one thousand two hundred fifty dollars and shall be executed by the owner or owners or by a responsible officer authorized to do so by the agency, firm or corporation owning the environmental laboratory. Upon receipt of any such application, the department shall make such inspections and investigations as are necessary and shall deny registration when operation of the environmental laboratory would be prejudicial to the health of the public. Registration shall not be in force until notice of its effective date and term has been sent to the applicant.

(f) Each registration or certification shall be issued for a period of not less than twenty-four or more than twenty-seven months from any deadline for applications established by the commissioner. Renewal applications shall be made (1) biennially within the twenty-fourth month of the current registration; (2) before any change in ownership is made; and (3) prior to any major expansion or alteration in, or changing of, quarters.

(g) This section shall not apply to any environmental laboratory that only provides laboratory services or information for the agency, person, firm or corporation which owns or operates such laboratory.

(h) If, upon review, investigation or inspection, the Commissioner of Public Health determines an environmental laboratory has violated any provision of this section or regulations adopted under this section, the commissioner may impose a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars per violation per day and issue such other orders as the commissioner determines necessary to protect the public health. Upon notice of imposition of the civil penalty, the commissioner shall provide the environmental laboratory with an opportunity for a hearing. Governmental immunity shall not be a defense against the imposition of any civil penalty imposed pursuant to this section. In determining the amount of the civil penalty to be imposed on an environmental laboratory, the commissioner shall consider the degree of the threat to public health or the environment, the amount necessary to achieve compliance, and the history of compliance of the environmental laboratory. Any order issued under this provision may be appealed in accordance with the provisions of section 4-183 .

(i) The failure of an environmental laboratory to pay a civil penalty imposed by the commissioner shall be grounds for revocation of the environmental laboratory's registration and certification for testing.

(j) The commissioner may order an unregistered environmental laboratory to cease operations.

(k) The commissioner may request the Attorney General to petition the Superior Court for an order to aid in enforcement of any provision of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-631 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368z / Section 19a-631
Sec. 19a-631. (Formerly Sec. 19a-148a). Assessments of hospitals for expenses of the unit.
Status: in_force

(b) Each hospital shall annually pay to the Commissioner of Health Strategy, for deposit in the General Fund, an amount equal to its share of the actual expenditures made by the unit during each fiscal year including the cost of fringe benefits for unit personnel as estimated by the Comptroller, the amount of expenses for central state services attributable to the unit for the fiscal year as estimated by the Comptroller, plus the expenditures made on behalf of the unit from the Capital Equipment Purchase Fund pursuant to section 4a-9 for such year. Payments shall be made by assessment of all hospitals of the costs calculated and collected in accordance with the provisions of this section and section 19a-632 . If for any reason a hospital ceases operation, any unpaid assessment for the operations of the unit shall be reapportioned among the remaining hospitals to be paid in addition to any other assessment.

Annotation to former section 19a-148a:

Cited. 235 C. 128.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-535e — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-535e
Sec. 19a-535e. Essential support persons. Definitions. Visitation rights at long-term care facilities.
Status: in_force

(b) A long-term care facility resident, or a resident representative, may designate a primary essential support person and a secondary essential support person who may visit the resident despite general visitation restrictions imposed on other visitors, provided the primary essential support person or secondary essential support person complies with any rules promulgated by the Commissioner of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-535f to protect the health, safety and well-being of long-term care facility residents.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-194 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-194
Sec. 19a-194. (Formerly Sec. 19-73pp). Motorcycle rescue vehicles.
Status: in_force

(b) The commissioner shall annually issue a list specifying the minimum equipment that a motorcycle must carry to operate as a rescue vehicle pursuant to this section. Such equipment shall include those items that would enable an emergency medical technician, paramedic or other individual similarly trained to render to a person requiring emergency medical assistance the maximum benefit possible from the operation of such motorcycle rescue vehicle.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-332c — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368l / Section 19a-332c
Sec. 19a-332c. Inspections. Orders issued by commissioner. Court order.
Status: in_force

(b) Whenever the commissioner or an authorized agent has reason to believe on the basis of inspections or tests that there is a violation of sections 19a-332 to 19a-332c , inclusive, or of section 19a-333 or of any regulations adopted thereunder or in the judgment of the commissioner or an authorized agent there is an endangerment of the public's health, the commissioner or an authorized agent may issue a written or printed cease activity order to any person responsible for the alleged violation or endangerment, and after receipt of such order no person shall act except in accordance with the provisions of the order.

(c) Whenever, in the judgment of the commissioner, or an authorized agent, any person has engaged in, is engaged in, or is about to engage in any acts or practices which constitute, or will constitute, a violation of any provision of sections 19a-332 to 19a-332c , inclusive, or of section 19a-333 , or any regulations adopted thereunder or order issued under sections 19a-332 to 19a-332c , inclusive, the commissioner may request the Attorney General to make application to the appropriate court for an order enjoining such acts or practices or for an order directing compliance with such provisions of sections 19a-332 to 19a-332c , inclusive, or of section 19a-333 , regulations or orders.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-105 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-105
Sec. 19a-105. (Formerly Sec. 19-62). Public toilets.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 19a-211 re duties of municipal health authorities with respect to toilets in public places.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-127n — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-127n
Sec. 19a-127n. Adverse events. Reporting requirements. Regulations. Confidentiality of reports. Retaliatory action prohibited.
Status: in_force

(2) The commissioner shall review the list of adverse events periodically, but not less than annually, to ascertain whether any additions, deletions or modifications to the list are necessary.

(b) On and after October 1, 2023, a hospital or birth center, as such terms are defined in section 19a-490 , or outpatient surgical facility, as defined in section 19a-493b , shall report adverse events to the Department of Public Health on a form prescribed by the commissioner as follows: (1) A written report and the status of any corrective steps shall be submitted not later than seven days after the date on which the adverse event occurred; and (2) a corrective action plan shall be filed not later than thirty days after the date on which the adverse event occurred. Emergent reports, as defined in the regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, shall be made to the department immediately. Failure to implement a corrective action plan may result in disciplinary action by the commissioner, pursuant to section 19a-494 .

(c) The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in accordance with chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall include, but shall not be limited to, a list of adverse events that are in addition to those contained in the National Quality Forum's List of Serious Reportable Events.

(d) On or before October first annually, the commissioner shall report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a , on adverse event reporting, to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public health. For annual reports submitted on or after July 1, 2011, the commissioner shall include hospital and outpatient surgical facility adverse event information for each facility identified (1) by the National Quality Forum's List of Serious Reportable Events category, and (2) in accordance with any list compiled by the commissioner and adopted as regulations pursuant to subsection (c) of this section. Such reports shall be prepared in a format that uses relevant contextual information. For purposes of this subsection “contextual information” includes, but is not limited to, (A) the relationship between the number of adverse events and a hospital's total number of patient days or an outpatient surgical facility's total number of surgical encounters expressed as a fraction in which the numerator is the aggregate number of adverse events reported by each hospital or outpatient surgical facility by category as specified in this subsection and the denominator is the total of the hospital's patient days or the outpatient surgical facility's total number of surgical encounters, and (B) information concerning the patient population served by the hospital or outpatient surgical facility, including such hospital's or outpatient surgical facility's payor or case mix. In addition, a hospital or outpatient surgical facility may provide informational comments relating to any adverse event reported to the commissioner pursuant to this section. On and after July 1, 2011, any report submitted by the commissioner pursuant to this subsection shall include any informational comments received concerning an adverse event that is included in the report.

(e) Information collected pursuant to this section shall not be disclosed pursuant to subsection (a) of section 1-210 at any time, and information collected pursuant to this section shall not be subject to subpoena or discovery or introduced into evidence in any judicial or administrative proceeding except as otherwise specifically provided by law. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit access to or disclosure of investigative files, including any adverse event report contained in such files, maintained by the department as otherwise provided in section 19a-499 .

(f) If the department determines that it will initiate an investigation of an adverse event that has been reported, such investigation may include review by one or more practitioners with clinical expertise of the type involved in the reported adverse event.

(g) No hospital or outpatient surgical facility shall discharge, refuse to hire, refuse to serve, retaliate in any manner or take any adverse action against any employee, applicant for employment or health care provider because such employee, applicant for employment or health care provider takes or has taken any action in furtherance of the enforcement of the provisions of this section.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-72b — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-72b
Sec. 19a-72b. State-wide registry on Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism. Oversight committee. Regulations.
Status: in_force

(1) “Health care provider” means any person or organization that furnishes health care services to persons with Parkinson's disease or Parkinsonism and is licensed or certified to furnish such services pursuant to chapters 370 and 378; and

(2) “Hospital” has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490 .

(b) Not later than April 1, 2026, the Department of Public Health, in collaboration with a public institution of higher education in the state, shall maintain and operate, within available appropriations, a state-wide registry of data on Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism.

(c) Each hospital and each health care provider shall make available to the registry such data concerning each patient with Parkinson's disease or Parkinsonism admitted to such hospital or treated by such health care provider for such patient's Parkinson's disease or Parkinsonism as the Commissioner of Public Health shall require by regulations adopted in accordance with chapter 54. Each hospital and health care provider shall provide each such patient with notice of, and the opportunity to opt out of, such disclosure.

(d) The data contained in such registry may be used by the department and authorized researchers as specified in such regulations, provided personally identifiable information in such registry concerning any such patient with Parkinson's disease or Parkinsonism shall be held confidential pursuant to section 19a-25 . The data contained in the registry shall not be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, as defined in section 1-200 . The commissioner may enter into a contract with a nonprofit association in this state concerned with the prevention and treatment of Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism to provide for the implementation and administration of the registry established pursuant to this section.

(e) Each hospital shall provide access to its records to the Department of Public Health, as the department deems necessary, to perform case finding or other quality improvement audits to ensure completeness of reporting and data accuracy consistent with the purposes of this section.

(f) The Department of Public Health may enter into a contract for the receipt, storage, holding or maintenance of the data or files under its control and management for the purpose of implementing the provisions of this section.

(g) The Department of Public Health may enter into reciprocal reporting agreements with the appropriate agencies of other states to exchange Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism care data.

(h) The Department of Public Health shall establish a Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism data oversight committee to (1) monitor the operations of the state-wide registry established pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, (2) provide advice regarding the oversight of such registry, (3) develop a plan to improve quality of Parkinson's disease and Parkinsonism care and address disparities in the provision of such care, and (4) develop short and long-term goals for improvement of such care.

(i) Said committee shall include, but need not be limited to, the following members, who shall be appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health not later than April 1, 2026: (1) A neurologist; (2) a movement disorder specialist; (3) a primary care provider; (4) a neuropsychiatrist who treats Parkinson's disease; (5) a patient living with Parkinson's disease; (6) a public health professional; (7) a population health researcher with experience in state-wide registries of health condition data; (8) a patient advocate; (9) a family caregiver of a person with Parkinson's disease; (10) a representative of a nonprofit organization related to Parkinson's disease; (11) a physical therapist with experience working with persons with Parkinson's disease; (12) an occupational therapist with experience working with persons with Parkinson's disease; (13) a speech therapist with experience working with persons with Parkinson's disease; (14) a social worker with experience providing services to persons with Parkinson's disease; (15) a geriatric specialist; and (16) a palliative care specialist. Each member shall serve a term of two years. The commissioner shall appoint, from among the members of the oversight committee, a chairperson who shall schedule the first meeting of the oversight committee on or before April 1, 2026. The Department of Public Health shall assist said committee in its work and provide any information or data that the committee deems necessary to fulfil its duties, unless the disclosure of such information or data is prohibited by state or federal law. Not later than January 1, 2027, and annually thereafter, the chairperson of the committee shall report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a , to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public health, regarding the work of the committee. Not later than January 1, 2027, and at least annually thereafter, such chairperson shall report to the Commissioner of Public Health regarding the work of the committee.

(j) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this section. The commissioner may implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published on the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-562 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368v / Section 19a-562
Sec. 19a-562. Dementia special care units or programs. Definitions. Disclosure requirements.
Status: in_force

(b) On and after January 1, 2007, each dementia special care unit or program shall provide written disclosure to any person who will be placed in such a unit or program or to that person's legal representative or other responsible party. Such disclosure shall be signed by the patient or responsible party and shall explain what additional care and treatment or specialized program will be provided in the dementia special care unit or program that is distinct from the care and treatment required by applicable licensing rules and regulations, including, but not limited to:

(1) Philosophy. A written statement of the overall philosophy and mission of the dementia special care unit or program that reflects the needs of residents with Alzheimer's disease, dementia or other similar disorders.

(2) Preadmission, admission and discharge. The process and criteria for placement within or transfer or discharge from the dementia special care unit or program.

(3) Assessment, care planning and implementation. The process used for assessing and establishing and implementing the plan of care, including the method by which the plan of care is modified in response to changes in condition.

(4) Staffing patterns and training ratios. The nature and extent of staff coverage, including staff to patient ratios and staff training and continuing education.

(5) Physical environment. The physical environment and design features appropriate to support the functioning of cognitively impaired adult residents.

(6) Residents' activities. The frequency and types of resident activities and the ratio of residents to recreation staff.

(7) Family role in care. The involvement of families and family support programs.

(8) Program costs. The cost of care and any additional fees.

(c) Each dementia special care unit or program shall develop a standard disclosure form for compliance with subsection (b) of this section and shall annually review and verify the accuracy of the information provided by dementia special care units or programs. Each dementia special care unit or program shall update any significant change to the information reported pursuant to subsection (b) of this section not later than thirty days after such change.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-6s — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368a / Section 19a-6s
Sec. 19a-6s. Provision of vaccines by clinical medical assistants under supervision.
Status: in_force

(b) A clinical medical assistant may administer a vaccine under the supervision, control and responsibility of a physician licensed pursuant to chapter 370, a physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 to any person in any setting other than a hospital setting. Prior to administering a vaccine, a clinical medical assistant shall complete not less than twenty-four hours of classroom training and not less than eight hours of training in a clinical setting regarding the administration of vaccines. Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit an employer of a physician, a physician assistant or an advanced practice registered nurse to require the physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse to oversee a clinical medical assistant in the administration of a vaccine without the consent of the physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c) On or before January first annually, the Commissioner of Public Health shall obtain from the American Association of Medical Assistants, the National Healthcareer Association, the National Center for Competency Testing, the American Medical Technologists and the American Medical Certification Association a listing of all state residents maintained on said organizations' registries of certified medical assistants. The commissioner shall make such listings available for public inspection.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-184 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368d / Section 19a-184
Sec. 19a-184. (Formerly Sec. 19-73ff). Functions of regional emergency medical services councils.
Status: in_force

(b) The presidents, or their designees, of said councils shall meet as a group, at least bimonthly, with the Office of Emergency Medical Services to discuss the planning, coordination and implementation of the state-wide emergency medical care service system.
Conn. Gen. Stat. § 19a-214 — Connecticut Code / Title 19a / Chapter 368e / Section 19a-214
Sec. 19a-214. (Formerly Sec. 19-88a). Procedure for suspension of delivery by fuel oil and bottled gas retailers to rental residences.
Status: in_force

See Sec. 16a-22 re regulation of wholesale fuel oil dealers.

See Sec. 16a-22a re regulation of heating fuel dealers.