C.R.S. § 6-1-503 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 5 / Section 6-1-503
6-1-503. Remedies
Status: in_force

6-1-503. Remedies. (1) If a new facilitative device does not conform to the applicable express warranty and the consumer reports the nonconformity to the manufacturer, the lessor, the selling dealer, or the alternative warranty service provider and makes the facilitative device available for repair within the warranty period, the nonconformity shall be repaired at no charge to the consumer. Any repairs performed pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be warranted for a period not less than the original warranty period.

(2) If the manufacturer authorizes the dealer or lessor to make the repair, the dealer or lessor shall make the repair and then be reimbursed by the manufacturer for the dealer's or lessor's cost for parts, labor, and repair if the nonconformity is a manufacturer's defect. A manufacturer shall respond to the dealer's or lessor's request for authorization to make a repair within three business days after such a request is made.

(3) If a nonconformity is not repaired after a reasonable attempt to repair, the manufacturer or dealer who originally supplied or modified the facilitative device, as required by this section, shall:

(a) If the facilitative device was purchased, take the following action at the direction of the consumer:

(I) Accept a return of the facilitative device, provide a replacement facilitative device of equal or greater value, and refund any collateral costs to the consumer, a holder of a perfected security interest in the facilitative device, or a third-party purchaser; or

(II) Accept a return of the facilitative device and refund to the consumer, holder of a perfected security interest in the facilitative device, or third-party purchaser not more than the full purchase price plus any finance charge, sales tax, shipping costs, and collateral costs paid;

(b) If the facilitative device was leased, take all of the following actions at the direction of the consumer:

(I) Accept a return of the facilitative device;

(II) (A) Refund to the lessor or any holder of a perfected security interest in the facilitative device the current value of the written lease.

(B) For purposes of this subparagraph (II), "current value of the written lease" means the sum of the total amount for which the consumer is obligated during the term of the lease remaining after the early termination date, the dealer's early termination costs, and the value of the facilitative device on the lease expiration date, if the lease sets forth that value, less the lessor's early termination savings.

(III) Refund to the consumer or third-party purchaser the amount paid under the lease plus any collateral costs.

(4) (a) In the event that a dispute arises as to liability under this part 5 between or among a manufacturer, dealer, lessor, or consumer and the consumer is covered by any third-party insurer, such third-party insurer shall not be relieved of any obligation to provide benefits covered under its plan or applicable law.

(b) In the event that a facilitative device is found to be defective, the third-party payor described in paragraph (a) of this subsection (4) shall have all rights of recovery, including the right to costs, that the consumer would have had under this part 5.
C.R.S. § 6-19-201 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 19 / Part 2 / Section 6-19-201
6-19-201. Scope of part 2
Status: in_force

6-19-201. Scope of part 2. This part 2 applies to covered transactions involving a nonprofit hospital and another nonprofit entity.
C.R.S. § 6-25-108 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 25 / Part 1 / Section 6-25-108
6-25-108. Landlord not responsible - when
Status: in_force

6-25-108. Landlord not responsible - when. The landlord or keeper of any hotel or public inn shall not be liable to any guest or patron of the hotel or public inn for the loss within his or her hotel or public inn of any article of wearing apparel or other necessary baggage belonging to any guest or patron, unless the same had been left within a room assigned to the guest or patron, or had been especially entrusted to the care or custody of the landlord or keeper of the hotel or public inn, or to an employee or servant thereof entrusted with the duty of receiving or caring for the article in the hotel or public inn.
C.R.S. § 6-23-104 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 23 / Section 6-23-104
6-23-104. Direct primary health-care providers - prohibitions
Status: in_force

6-23-104. Direct primary health-care providers - prohibitions. (1) A direct primary health-care provider may not discriminate in the selection of patients on the basis of age, citizenship status, color, disability, gender, gender identity, gender expression, genetic information, health status, national origin, race, religion, sex, sexual orientation, or any other protected class.

(2) Direct primary health-care providers are subject to section 25.5-4-301.

(3) This section does not prevent a direct primary health-care provider from providing primary care to patients who are not party to a direct primary care agreement.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1120 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 11 / Section 6-1-1120
6-1-1120. Language
Status: in_force

6-1-1120. Language. (1) Any contract, rental agreement, lease, option or right to repurchase, and any notice, conveyance, lien, encumbrance, consent, or other document or instrument signed by a home owner, shall be written in English; except that, if the equity purchaser has actual or constructive knowledge that the home owner's principal language is other than English, the home owner shall be provided with a notice, written in the home owner's principal language, substantially as follows:

This transaction involves important and complex legal consequences, including your right to cancel this transaction within three business days following the date you sign this contract. You should consult with an attorney or seek assistance from a housing counselor by calling the Colorado foreclosure hotline at _________________ [current, correct telephone number].

(2) If a notice in the home owner's principal language is required to be provided under subsection (1) of this section, the notice shall be given to the home owner as a separate document accompanying the written contract required by section 6-1-1111.
C.R.S. § 6-13-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 13 / Part 1 / Section 6-13-103
6-13-103. Payment of royalties - contract requirements
Status: in_force

6-13-103. Payment of royalties - contract requirements. (1) A copyright owner or performing rights society may enter into a contract requiring the payment of royalties by a proprietor only if, at least three business days before the execution of the contract, the following information is provided to the proprietor, in writing:

(a) A description of the rules and terms of royalties required to be paid under the contract;

(b) A schedule of the rates and a description of the terms of royalties required to be paid under agreements executed by the copyright owner or performing rights society;

(c) In the case of a performing rights society, information concerning how to obtain a current list of the copyright owners represented by that society and the works licensed under the contract. Such list shall be made available within fourteen days by electronic means. A proprietor shall not be charged an amount in excess of the actual cost incurred by the performing rights society for providing such list.

(d) Notice, in a form prescribed by the attorney general, that the proprietor is entitled to the information contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this subsection (1), and that the failure to provide such information shall make the performing rights society subject to the penalty provisions in section 6-13-104.

(2) Notwithstanding subsection (1) of this section, a proprietor may, in its sole discretion and without coercion or undue influence, execute a contract for the payment of royalties before the expiration of the three-business-day review period.

(3) A proprietor has the right to rescind a contract for the payment of royalties for three business days after execution of the contract.

(4) To be enforceable, a contract for the payment of royalties by a proprietor to a copyright owner or performing rights society must:

(a) Be in writing;

(b) Be signed by the parties;

(c) Include at least the following information:

(I) The proprietor's name and business address and the name and location of each place of business to which the contract applies;

(II) The name and address of the performing rights society authorized to act on behalf of a copyright owner;

(III) The duration of the contract, which shall not exceed one year, but which may be automatically extended for additional terms which do not exceed one year, unless otherwise mutually agreed upon;

(IV) The schedule of rates and terms of royalties to be collected under the contract, including any sliding scale or schedule for any increase or decrease of such rates for the duration of the contract;

(V) Notice of the three-business-day rescission period described in subsection (3) of this section.

(d) Not charge a proprietor royalties for public performances, at the establishment, of nondramatic musical works for which another entity has entered into a license with the performing rights society that covers the performances by the proprietor.

(5) A copyright owner, a performing rights society, or an agent, representative, or employee of a copyright owner or performing rights society shall not:

(a) Enter onto the premises of a proprietor's business for the purpose of discussing with the proprietor or the employees of the proprietor a contract for the payment of royalties or the use of copyrighted works without first identifying himself or herself to the proprietor or the employees of the proprietor and making known the purpose of the visit;

(b) Collect or attempt to collect a royalty payment or other fee pursuant to a contract that does not meet the requirements of this section;

(c) Engage in any coercive conduct or unfair or deceptive act or practice that is substantially disruptive of a proprietor's business;

(d) Use or attempt to use any unfair or deceptive act or practice in negotiating with a proprietor.

(6) Nothing in this article shall be construed to prohibit a performing rights society from conducting investigations to determine the existence of music use by a proprietor or informing a proprietor of the proprietor's obligations under the copyright laws of the United States (17 U.S.C. sec. 101 et seq.).
C.R.S. § 6-7.5-107 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-107
6-7.5-107. Protection against repeal of federal standards
Status: repealed

6-7.5-107. Protection against repeal of federal standards. (1) If any of the energy or water conservation standards issued or approved for publication by the office of the United States secretary of energy as of January 1, 2018, as set forth in 10 CFR 430-431 and promulgated pursuant to the "Energy Policy and Conservation Act", Pub.L. 94-163, are withdrawn, repealed, or otherwise voided, the minimum energy or water efficiency level permitted for products previously subject to federal energy or water conservation standards must be the previously applicable federal standards, and no such new product may be sold or offered for sale, lease, or rental in Colorado unless it meets or exceeds such standards.

(2) This section does not apply to a federal energy or water conservation standard set aside by a court upon the petition of a person that will be adversely affected by the standard, as provided in 42 U.S.C. sec. 6306 (b).
C.R.S. § 6-10-153 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-153
6-10-153. Property under jurisdiction of court
Status: in_force

6-10-153. Property under jurisdiction of court. In all assignments for the benefit of creditors made in this state, the district court in and for the county in which such deed of assignment is recorded as now provided by law has full power and complete jurisdiction over all the property, real, personal, and mixed, conveyed by such assignment from the date of the making of the same. The court may make any order in reference to any part or all of the property embraced in the estate and the disposition thereof by the assignee which to the court seems just and equitable, and all such orders shall be legal and binding upon the assignor, the assignee, and creditors of the estate whether or not any notice is given of the application therefor or the order so made; except that the court may in its discretion require notice of such an application so made to be given in reference to any matter that may come before it for hearing, and in such case it shall direct, by an order, the form and manner of giving such notice so required by it.
C.R.S. § 6-10-139 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-139
6-10-139. Jury drawn as in civil cases
Status: repealed

6-10-139. Jury drawn as in civil cases. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-19-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 19 / Part 1 / Section 6-19-101
6-19-101. Legislative declaration
Status: in_force

6-19-101. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that all licensed and certified hospitals provide a service to the public by making health-care services available to the communities they serve.

(2) Furthermore, for purposes of the attorney general's authority over the transfer of nonprofit hospital assets, all nonprofit hospitals shall be deemed to hold all of their assets in trust, and those assets shall be deemed to be dedicated to the specific charitable purposes set forth in the articles of incorporation or other organic documents of the nonprofit entities that hold them in trust. The public is the beneficiary of this trust. Nonprofit hospitals have a substantial and beneficial effect on the provision of health care to the people of Colorado, providing as part of their charitable purposes uncompensated care to the uninsured or underinsured and including, but not limited to, providing moneys and support for health-related research and education or other community benefits. The general assembly also finds that transfers of the assets of nonprofit hospitals to the for-profit sector may directly affect the character and extent of the charitable use of those assets or the proceeds from the assets. The public also has an interest in knowing that the transfer of the assets of a nonprofit hospital, or the proceeds from the assets, preserves, to the extent practicable, their charitable purpose. The general assembly believes it is in the best interest of the public to ensure that the public interest is fully protected whenever the assets of a hospital are transferred to a for-profit entity except in the ordinary course of business.

(3) The general assembly further finds and declares that all transfers of hospital assets or control have the potential to impact the communities they serve. This article is intended to protect the public interest, to assure that nonprofit assets of hospitals are preserved to serve the charitable purposes to which they were dedicated, and to provide the public notice of all transfers of assets of hospitals that constitute covered transitions as defined in this article and shall be construed with these purposes in mind.

(4) The general assembly further finds and declares that the addition of the factors to be considered in relation to the term "material change" in section 6-19-203 (1) is intended to clarify the provisions of this article.
C.R.S. § 6-1-721 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-721
6-1-721. Like-kind exchanges by exchange facilitators - deceptive trade practice - defini
Status: in_force

6-1-721. Like-kind exchanges by exchange facilitators - deceptive trade practice - definitions. (1) Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby:

(a) Finds that, absent enactment of this section, Colorado has no requirements for the protection of taxpayers who engage persons or entities that facilitate like-kind exchanges pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031; and

(b) Determines that, to protect taxpayers who engage exchange facilitators, exchange facilitators should meet certain requirements and follow certain procedures.

(2) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Affiliated with" means that a person directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the other specified person.

(b) "Colorado property" means real property located in Colorado; except that replacement property need not be located in Colorado.

(c) (I) "Exchange facilitator" means a person that holds a taxpayer's exchange funds and that:

(A) For a fee, facilitates an exchange of like-kind Colorado property by entering into an agreement with a taxpayer by which the exchange facilitator acquires from the taxpayer the contractual rights to sell the taxpayer's relinquished Colorado property and transfer a replacement property to the taxpayer as an exchange facilitator, as is defined in 26 CFR 1.1031(k)-1 (g)(4), or enters into an agreement with a taxpayer to take title to Colorado property as an exchange accommodation titleholder, as that term is defined in federal internal revenue service revenue procedure 2000-37, or enters into an agreement with a taxpayer to act as a qualified trustee or qualified escrow holder, as those terms are defined in 26 CFR 1.1031(k)-1 (g)(3), except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (c); or

(B) Maintains an office in this state for the purpose of soliciting business as an exchange facilitator regarding Colorado property.

(II) "Exchange facilitator" does not include:

(A) The taxpayer or disqualified person, as defined under 26 CFR 1.1031(k)-1 (k), seeking to qualify for the nonrecognition provisions of 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031;

(B) A bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, building and loan association, or credit union; a bank or savings association holding company organized under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, a territory or protectorate of the United States, or the United States, subject to regulation and supervision by a federal banking agency; an operating subsidiary of such entities; or an employee or exclusive agent of any of such entities, including, without limitation, a subsidiary that is owned or controlled by such entities;

(C) A person who advertises for and teaches seminars or classes for, or gives presentations to, attorneys, accountants, real estate professionals, tax professionals, or other professionals, where the primary purpose is to teach the professionals about tax-deferred exchanges or train them to act as exchange facilitators;

(D) An exchange facilitator, as defined in 26 CFR 1.1031(k)-1 (g)(4), whose sole business in this state as an exchange facilitator consists of holding exchange funds from the disposition of relinquished property located outside this state; or

(E) An entity that is wholly owned by an exchange facilitator or is wholly owned by the owner of an exchange facilitator and is used by that exchange facilitator to facilitate exchanges or to take title to Colorado property as an exchange accommodation titleholder, as defined in federal internal revenue service revenue procedure 2000-37.

(III) For purposes of this paragraph (c), "fee" means compensation of any nature, direct or indirect, monetary or in-kind, that is received by a person or a related person as defined in 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031 (f)(3) for any services relating to or incidental to the exchange of like-kind property under 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031.

(d) "Like-kind exchange" means a section 1031 exchange that is subject to 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031.

(e) "Publicly traded company" means a corporation whose securities are publicly traded on a stock exchange that is regulated by the United States securities and exchange commission. The term "publicly traded company" also includes all subsidiaries of such publicly traded company.

(f) "Section 1031 exchange" means an exchange conducted pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 1031 that allows investors to defer the tax on capital gains.

(g) "Taxpayer exchange funds" or "exchange funds" means money a taxpayer entrusts to an exchange facilitator.

(3) Deceptive trade practices. A person engages in a deceptive trade practice when a person acts as an exchange facilitator and:

(a) (I) Except as specified in subparagraph (III) of this paragraph (a), fails to notify all current clients of any change in control of the exchange facilitator within two business days after the effective date of the change by:

(A) Facsimile, e-mail transmission, or first-class mail; and

(B) Posting such notice on the exchange facilitator's website for a period ending not sooner than ninety days after the change in control.

(II) The notice required in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a) shall specify the name, address, and other contact information of the transferees.

(III) If the exchange facilitator is a publicly traded company and remains a publicly traded company after a change in control, the exchange facilitator need not notify its client of the change in control.

(IV) For purposes of this paragraph (a), "change in control" means any transfer within twelve months of more than fifty percent of the assets or ownership interests, directly or indirectly, of the exchange facilitator.

(b) (I) Fails to maintain adequate financial assurance and errors and omissions insurance or deposits. An exchange facilitator may maintain bonds, insurance policies, deposits, or irrevocable letters of credit in excess of the amounts required by this subparagraph (I). An exchange facilitator shall at all times:

(A) Maintain a fidelity bond or bonds executed by an insurer authorized to do business in this state in the amount of at least one million dollars and maintain a policy of errors and omissions insurance, in an amount of at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars, executed by an insurer authorized to do business in this state;

(B) Deposit an amount of cash or irrevocable letters of credit in an amount of at least the sum of the amounts specified in sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (I) in an interest-bearing deposit account or in a money market account with a financial institution of the exchange facilitator's choice, with the interest earned on such account accruing to the exchange facilitator; or

(C) Deposit all exchange funds in a qualified escrow or qualified trust as those terms are defined under 26 CFR 1.1031(k)-1 (g)(3) with a financial institution and provide that any withdrawals from such qualified escrow or qualified trust require the taxpayer's and the exchange facilitator's written authorization.

(II) A person claiming to have sustained damage by reason of the failure of an exchange facilitator to comply with this section may file a claim to recover damages from the bond or deposit described in this paragraph (b).

(c) Fails to act as a custodian for all exchange funds, including money, Colorado property, other consideration, or instruments received by the exchange facilitator from or on behalf of the taxpayer, except funds received as the exchange facilitator's compensation. As used in this paragraph (c), "custodian" means a person who has the same responsibilities as a fiduciary under Colorado law to protect and preserve assets and shall not mean a person who has the same responsibilities as a fiduciary under Colorado law to increase assets or to accomplish other fiduciary duties. Exchange funds are not subject to execution or attachment on any claim against an exchange facilitator. An exchange facilitator shall not knowingly keep or cause to be kept any money in a financial institution under any name designating the money as belonging to a taxpayer unless the money equitably belongs to the taxpayer and was actually entrusted to the exchange facilitator by the taxpayer. Taxpayer exchange funds in excess of two hundred fifty thousand dollars shall be invested or deposited in such manner as to require both the taxpayer's and the exchange facilitator's commercially reasonable means of authorization for withdrawal, including: The taxpayer's delivery to the exchange facilitator of the taxpayer's authorization to disburse exchange funds, and the exchange facilitator's delivery to the depository of the exchange facilitator's authorization to disburse exchange funds; or delivery to the depository of both the taxpayer's and the exchange facilitator's authorizations to disburse exchange funds. An exchange facilitator shall provide the taxpayer with written notification of the manner in which the exchange funds will be invested or deposited, shall invest or deposit exchange funds for the benefit of the taxpayer in investments that meet a standard of care that an ordinarily prudent investor would use when dealing with the property of another, and shall satisfy investment goals of liquidity and preservation of principal. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a prudent investor standard of care shall be deemed to have been violated if:

(I) A taxpayer's exchange funds are commingled by the exchange facilitator with the operating accounts of the exchange facilitator or with the exchange funds of another taxpayer; except that an exchange facilitator may aggregate exchange funds. For purposes of this subparagraph (I):

(A) "Aggregate" means to combine exchange funds of multiple taxpayers for investment purposes to achieve common investment goals and efficiencies. Exchange funds that have been aggregated into common investments shall be readily identifiable by the financial institution or other regulated investment custodian holding the funds as to each taxpayer for whom they are held through an accounting or subaccounting system.

(B) "Commingle" means to mix together exchange funds of taxpayers with other funds belonging to or under the control of the exchange facilitator in such a manner that a taxpayer's exchange funds cannot be distinguished from other funds belonging to or under the control of the exchange facilitator.

(II) Exchange funds are loaned or otherwise transferred to any person or entity affiliated with the exchange facilitator; except that this subparagraph (II) shall not apply to a transfer or loan made to a financial institution that is the parent of or affiliated with the exchange facilitator or from an exchange facilitator to an exchange accommodation titleholder, as defined in federal internal revenue service revenue procedure 2000-37, as required under the section 1031 exchange contract; or

(III) Exchange funds are invested in a manner that does not provide sufficient liquidity to meet the exchange facilitator's contractual obligations to the taxpayer and does not preserve the principal of the exchange funds. The deposit of funds in a financial institution exempted from this section pursuant to sub-subparagraph (B) of subparagraph (II) of paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of this section shall be deemed to be sufficiently liquid to meet the requirements of this subparagraph (III).

(d) Commits any of the following:

(I) Knowingly makes any material misrepresentation concerning an exchange facilitator's transaction that is intended to mislead another;

(II) Pursues a continued or flagrant course of misrepresentation or makes false statements through advertising or otherwise;

(III) Fails, within a reasonable time, to account for any money or property belonging to others that may be in the possession or under the control of the exchange facilitator;

(IV) Engages in any conduct constituting fraudulent or dishonest dealing;

(V) Is convicted of, or, in the case of an entity, one or more of its owners, officers, directors, or employees who has access to exchange funds is convicted of, any crime involving fraud, misrepresentation, deceit, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, robbery, or other theft of property; except that commission of such crime by an officer, director, or employee of an exchange facilitator shall not be considered a violation of this subparagraph (V) if the employment or appointment of the officer, director, or employee has been terminated and no clients of the exchange facilitator were harmed or full restitution has been made to all harmed clients;

(VI) Wilfully fails to fulfill an exchange facilitator's contractual duties to the taxpayer to deliver property or funds to the taxpayer unless such failure is due to circumstances beyond the control of the exchange facilitator;

(VII) Materially violates this section or aids, abets, or knowingly permits any person to violate this section;

(VIII) Commits an act that does not meet generally accepted standards of practice for ordinarily prudent investors or fails to perform an act necessary to meet generally accepted standards of practice for ordinarily prudent investors;

(IX) Fails to keep appropriate business and transaction records, falsifies such records, or knowingly and wilfully makes incorrect entries of an essential nature on such records; except that an exchange facilitator may dispose of records after a reasonable time pursuant to the exchange facilitator's document retention and document destruction policy;

(X) Is disciplined in any way by a national certifying agency or by a regulatory agency of another jurisdiction for conduct that relates to the person's employment as an exchange facilitator; or

(XI) Is convicted of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere to a felony or any crime defined in title 18, C.R.S., that relates to the person's employment as an exchange facilitator. A certified copy of the judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction of the conviction or plea shall be prima facie evidence of the conviction or plea.
C.R.S. § 6-1-203 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 2 / Section 6-1-203
6-1-203. Collision damage waiver form - requirements - failure to comply
Status: in_force

6-1-203. Collision damage waiver form - requirements - failure to comply. (1) Any collision damage waiver form shall conform to the following requirements:

(a) It shall be understandable and written in simple and readable plain language;

(b) The terms of such collision damage waiver, including, but not limited to, any conditions or exclusions applicable to the collision damage waiver, shall be prominently displayed;

(c) All restrictions, conditions, or provisions in, or endorsed on, the collision damage waiver shall be printed in type at least as large as brevier or ten-point type;

(d) The collision damage waiver shall include a statement of the total charge for the anticipated rental period or the anticipated total daily charge; and

(e) The agreement containing the collision damage waiver shall display the following notice on the face of the agreement, set apart and in bold-faced type, and in type at least as large as ten-point type:

NOTICE: THIS CONTRACT OFFERS, FOR AN ADDITIONAL CHARGE, A COLLISION DAMAGE WAIVER TO COVER YOUR RESPONSIBILITY FOR DAMAGE TO THE VEHICLE. YOU ARE ADVISED NOT TO SIGN THIS WAIVER IF YOU HAVE RENTAL VEHICLE COLLISION COVERAGE PROVIDED BY CERTAIN GOLD OR PLATINUM CREDIT CARDS OR COLLISION INSURANCE ON YOUR OWN VEHICLE. BEFORE DECIDING WHETHER TO PURCHASE THE COLLISION DAMAGE WAIVER, YOU MAY WISH TO DETERMINE WHETHER YOUR OWN VEHICLE INSURANCE AFFORDS YOU COVERAGE FOR DAMAGE TO THE RENTAL VEHICLE AND THE AMOUNT OF THE DEDUCTIBLE UNDER YOUR OWN INSURANCE COVERAGE. THE PURCHASE OF THIS COLLISION DAMAGE WAIVER IS NOT MANDATORY AND MAY BE WAIVED.

(2) The failure by a lessor to comply with any provision of this section is a deceptive trade practice under the provisions of this article.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1703 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 17 / Section 6-1-1703
6-1-1703. Deployer duty to avoid algorithmic discrimination - risk management policy and p
Status: in_force

6-1-1703. Deployer duty to avoid algorithmic discrimination - risk management policy and program. (1) On and after February 1, 2026, a deployer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system shall use reasonable care to protect consumers from any known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination. In any enforcement action brought on or after February 1, 2026, by the attorney general pursuant to section 6-1-1706, there is a rebuttable presumption that a deployer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system used reasonable care as required under this section if the deployer complied with this section and any additional requirements or obligations as set forth in rules promulgated by the attorney general pursuant to section 6-1-1707.

(2) (a) On and after February 1, 2026, and except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a deployer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system shall implement a risk management policy and program to govern the deployer's deployment of the high-risk artificial intelligence system. The risk management policy and program must specify and incorporate the principles, processes, and personnel that the deployer uses to identify, document, and mitigate known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination. The risk management policy and program must be an iterative process planned, implemented, and regularly and systematically reviewed and updated over the life cycle of a high-risk artificial intelligence system, requiring regular, systematic review and updates. A risk management policy and program implemented and maintained pursuant to this subsection (2) must be reasonable considering:

(I) (A) The guidance and standards set forth in the latest version of the "Artificial Intelligence Risk Management Framework" published by the national institute of standards and technology in the United States department of commerce, standard ISO/IEC 42001 of the International Organization for Standardization, or another nationally or internationally recognized risk management framework for artificial intelligence systems, if the standards are substantially equivalent to or more stringent than the requirements of this part 17; or

(B) Any risk management framework for artificial intelligence systems that the attorney general, in the attorney general's discretion, may designate;

(II) The size and complexity of the deployer;

(III) The nature and scope of the high-risk artificial intelligence systems deployed by the deployer, including the intended uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence systems; and

(IV) The sensitivity and volume of data processed in connection with the high-risk artificial intelligence systems deployed by the deployer.

(b) A risk management policy and program implemented pursuant to subsection (2)(a) of this section may cover multiple high-risk artificial intelligence systems deployed by the deployer.

(3) (a) Except as provided in subsections (3)(d), (3)(e), and (6) of this section:

(I) A deployer, or a third party contracted by the deployer, that deploys a high-risk artificial intelligence system on or after February 1, 2026, shall complete an impact assessment for the high-risk artificial intelligence system; and

(II) On and after February 1, 2026, a deployer, or a third party contracted by the deployer, shall complete an impact assessment for a deployed high-risk artificial intelligence system at least annually and within ninety days after any intentional and substantial modification to the high-risk artificial intelligence system is made available.

(b) An impact assessment completed pursuant to this subsection (3) must include, at a minimum, and to the extent reasonably known by or available to the deployer:

(I) A statement by the deployer disclosing the purpose, intended use cases, and deployment context of, and benefits afforded by, the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(II) An analysis of whether the deployment of the high-risk artificial intelligence system poses any known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination and, if so, the nature of the algorithmic discrimination and the steps that have been taken to mitigate the risks;

(III) A description of the categories of data the high-risk artificial intelligence system processes as inputs and the outputs the high-risk artificial intelligence system produces;

(IV) If the deployer used data to customize the high-risk artificial intelligence system, an overview of the categories of data the deployer used to customize the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(V) Any metrics used to evaluate the performance and known limitations of the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(VI) A description of any transparency measures taken concerning the high-risk artificial intelligence system, including any measures taken to disclose to a consumer that the high-risk artificial intelligence system is in use when the high-risk artificial intelligence system is in use; and

(VII) A description of the post-deployment monitoring and user safeguards provided concerning the high-risk artificial intelligence system, including the oversight, use, and learning process established by the deployer to address issues arising from the deployment of the high-risk artificial intelligence system.

(c) In addition to the information required under subsection (3)(b) of this section, an impact assessment completed pursuant to this subsection (3) following an intentional and substantial modification to a high-risk artificial intelligence system on or after February 1, 2026, must include a statement disclosing the extent to which the high-risk artificial intelligence system was used in a manner that was consistent with, or varied from, the developer's intended uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system.

(d) A single impact assessment may address a comparable set of high-risk artificial intelligence systems deployed by a deployer.

(e) If a deployer, or a third party contracted by the deployer, completes an impact assessment for the purpose of complying with another applicable law or regulation, the impact assessment satisfies the requirements established in this subsection (3) if the impact assessment is reasonably similar in scope and effect to the impact assessment that would otherwise be completed pursuant to this subsection (3).

(f) A deployer shall maintain the most recently completed impact assessment for a high-risk artificial intelligence system as required under this subsection (3), all records concerning each impact assessment, and all prior impact assessments, if any, for at least three years following the final deployment of the high-risk artificial intelligence system.

(g) On or before February 1, 2026, and at least annually thereafter, a deployer, or a third party contracted by the deployer, must review the deployment of each high-risk artificial intelligence system deployed by the deployer to ensure that the high-risk artificial intelligence system is not causing algorithmic discrimination.

(4) (a) On and after February 1, 2026, and no later than the time that a deployer deploys a high-risk artificial intelligence system to make, or be a substantial factor in making, a consequential decision concerning a consumer, the deployer shall:

(I) Notify the consumer that the deployer has deployed a high-risk artificial intelligence system to make, or be a substantial factor in making, a consequential decision before the decision is made;

(II) Provide to the consumer a statement disclosing the purpose of the high-risk artificial intelligence system and the nature of the consequential decision; the contact information for the deployer; a description, in plain language, of the high-risk artificial intelligence system; and instructions on how to access the statement required by subsection (5)(a) of this section; and

(III) Provide to the consumer information, if applicable, regarding the consumer's right to opt out of the processing of personal data concerning the consumer for purposes of profiling in furtherance of decisions that produce legal or similarly significant effects concerning the consumer under section 6-1-1306 (1)(a)(I)(C).

(b) On and after February 1, 2026, a deployer that has deployed a high-risk artificial intelligence system to make, or be a substantial factor in making, a consequential decision concerning a consumer shall, if the consequential decision is adverse to the consumer, provide to the consumer:

(I) A statement disclosing the principal reason or reasons for the consequential decision, including:

(A) The degree to which, and manner in which, the high-risk artificial intelligence system contributed to the consequential decision;

(B) The type of data that was processed by the high-risk artificial intelligence system in making the consequential decision; and

(C) The source or sources of the data described in subsection (4)(b)(I)(B) of this section;

(II) An opportunity to correct any incorrect personal data that the high-risk artificial intelligence system processed in making, or as a substantial factor in making, the consequential decision; and

(III) An opportunity to appeal an adverse consequential decision concerning the consumer arising from the deployment of a high-risk artificial intelligence system, which appeal must, if technically feasible, allow for human review unless providing the opportunity for appeal is not in the best interest of the consumer, including in instances in which any delay might pose a risk to the life or safety of such consumer.

(c) (I) Except as provided in subsection (4)(c)(II) of this section, a deployer shall provide the notice, statement, contact information, and description required by subsections (4)(a) and (4)(b) of this section:

(A) Directly to the consumer;

(B) In plain language;

(C) In all languages in which the deployer, in the ordinary course of the deployer's business, provides contracts, disclaimers, sale announcements, and other information to consumers; and

(D) In a format that is accessible to consumers with disabilities.

(II) If the deployer is unable to provide the notice, statement, contact information, and description required by subsections (4)(a) and (4)(b) of this section directly to the consumer, the deployer shall make the notice, statement, contact information, and description available in a manner that is reasonably calculated to ensure that the consumer receives the notice, statement, contact information, and description.

(5) (a) On and after February 1, 2026, and except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a deployer shall make available, in a manner that is clear and readily available on the deployer's website, a statement summarizing:

(I) The types of high-risk artificial intelligence systems that are currently deployed by the deployer;

(II) How the deployer manages known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination that may arise from the deployment of each high-risk artificial intelligence system described pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(I) of this section; and

(III) In detail, the nature, source, and extent of the information collected and used by the deployer.

(b) A deployer shall periodically update the statement described in subsection (5)(a) of this section.

(6) Subsections (2), (3), and (5) of this section do not apply to a deployer if, at the time the deployer deploys a high-risk artificial intelligence system and at all times while the high-risk artificial intelligence system is deployed:

(a) The deployer:

(I) Employs fewer than fifty full-time equivalent employees; and

(II) Does not use the deployer's own data to train the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(b) The high-risk artificial intelligence system:

(I) Is used for the intended uses that are disclosed to the deployer as required by section 6-1-1702 (2)(a); and

(II) Continues learning based on data derived from sources other than the deployer's own data; and

(c) The deployer makes available to consumers any impact assessment that:

(I) The developer of the high-risk artificial intelligence system has completed and provided to the deployer; and

(II) Includes information that is substantially similar to the information in the impact assessment required under subsection (3)(b) of this section.

(7) If a deployer deploys a high-risk artificial intelligence system on or after February 1, 2026, and subsequently discovers that the high-risk artificial intelligence system has caused algorithmic discrimination, the deployer, without unreasonable delay, but no later than ninety days after the date of the discovery, shall send to the attorney general, in a form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, a notice disclosing the discovery.

(8) Nothing in subsections (2) to (5) and (7) of this section requires a deployer to disclose a trade secret or information protected from disclosure by state or federal law. To the extent that a deployer withholds information pursuant to this subsection (8) or section 6-1-1705 (5), the deployer shall notify the consumer and provide a basis for the withholding.

(9) On and after February 1, 2026, the attorney general may require that a deployer, or a third party contracted by the deployer, disclose to the attorney general, no later than ninety days after the request and in a form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, the risk management policy implemented pursuant to subsection (2) of this section, the impact assessment completed pursuant to subsection (3) of this section, or the records maintained pursuant to subsection (3)(f) of this section. The attorney general may evaluate the risk management policy, impact assessment, or records to ensure compliance with this part 17, and the risk management policy, impact assessment, and records are not subject to disclosure under the "Colorado Open Records Act", part 2 of article 72 of title 24. In a disclosure pursuant to this subsection (9), a deployer may designate the statement or documentation as including proprietary information or a trade secret. To the extent that any information contained in the risk management policy, impact assessment, or records includes information subject to attorney-client privilege or work-product protection, the disclosure does not constitute a waiver of the privilege or protection.
C.R.S. § 6-1-905 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 9 / Section 6-1-905
6-1-905. Establishment and operation of a Colorado no-call list
Status: repealed

6-1-905. Establishment and operation of a Colorado no-call list. (1) The Colorado no-call list program is hereby created for the purpose of establishing a database to use when verifying residential subscribers and wireless telephone service subscribers in this state who have given notice, in accordance with rules promulgated under paragraph (b) of subsection (3) of this section, of such subscribers' objection to receiving telephone solicitations. The program shall be administered by the public utilities commission.

(2) Not later than January 1, 2002, the public utilities commission shall contract with a designated agent, which shall maintain the website and database containing the Colorado no-call list. If no more than one entity bids on the contract, the public utilities commission may award, at its discretion, such contract.

(3) (a) Not later than July 1, 2002, the designated agent, using the designated state internet website, shall develop and maintain the Colorado no-call list database with information provided by residential subscribers and, as soon as practicable after March 25, 2003, shall include information provided by wireless telephone service subscribers.

(b) The public utilities commission shall establish, by rule, guidelines for the designated agent for the development and maintenance of the Colorado no-call list so that the no-call list can easily be accessed by persons or entities desiring to make telephone solicitations, and by state and local law enforcement agencies. As soon as practicable after March 25, 2003, the public utilities commission shall promulgate rules that:

(I) Specify that there shall be no cost for a residential subscriber or wireless telephone service subscriber to provide notification to the designated agent that such subscriber objects to receiving telephone solicitations;

(II) Specify that there shall be an annual registration fee of not more than five hundred dollars for persons or entities that wish to make telephone solicitations or otherwise access the database of telephone numbers and zip codes contained in the Colorado no-call list database. The public utilities commission shall determine such fee on a sliding scale so that persons or entities with fewer than five employees shall pay no fee. In addition, there shall be no fee charged to conforming list brokers or nonprofit corporations, as defined in section 7-121-401 (26), C.R.S. The maximum fee shall be charged only to persons or entities with more than one thousand employees. Moneys collected from such fees shall cover the direct and indirect costs related to the creation and operation of the Colorado no-call list. Moneys from such fees shall be collected by and paid directly to the designated agent. The public utilities commission shall have the authority to annually adjust the fees below the stated maximum based on revenue history of the fees received by the designated agent. The designated agent shall provide means for online registration and credit card payment of fees charged pursuant to this subparagraph (II). Each such person or entity shall provide a current business name, business address, e-mail address if available, and telephone number when initially registering for the no-call list. This information shall be updated when changes occur.

(III) Specify that the method by which each residential subscriber and wireless telephone service subscriber may give notice to the designated agent of his or her objection to receiving such solicitations, or may revoke such notice, shall be exclusively by entering the area code, phone number, and zip code of the subscriber directly into the database via the designated state internet website or by using a touch-tone phone to enter the area code, phone number, and zip code of the subscriber via a designated statewide, toll-free telephone number maintained by the designated agent as a part of the Colorado no-call list;

(IV) Specify that the date of every notice received in accordance with subparagraph (III) of this paragraph (b) be recorded and included as part of the information in the no-call list;

(V) Require the designated agent to provide updated information about the Colorado no-call list program on the designated state website, subject to supervision by the public utilities commission;

(VI) Prohibit the designated agent or any person or entity collecting information to be transmitted to the designated agent from making any use or distribution of subscriber information contained in the no-call list except as expressly authorized under this part 9;

(VII) Specify the methods by which additions, deletions, changes, and modifications shall be made to the Colorado no-call list database and how updates of the database shall be made available to persons or entities desiring such updates. Such methods shall include provisions to remove from the Colorado no-call list, on at least an annual basis, any telephone number that has been disconnected or reassigned.

(VIII) Require the designated agent to maintain an automated, online complaint system for residential subscribers and wireless telephone service subscribers to report suspected violations over the internet website. The automated, online complaint system shall have the capability to collect, sort, and report suspected violations to the appropriate state enforcement agency electronically for enforcement purposes.

(IX) Specify that the no-call list shall be available on line at the Colorado no-call list website to a person or entity desiring to make telephone solicitations if the person or entity has registered in accordance with the provisions of subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b). The list shall be available in a text or other compatible format, at the discretion of the public utilities commission, but shall allow telephone solicitors to select and sort by specific zip codes and telephone area codes. Telephone solicitors and conforming list brokers shall not receive additional compensation for distributing the Colorado no-call list, but are encouraged to freely distribute the Colorado no-call list at no cost.

(X) Specify such other matters relating to the database as the public utilities commission deems necessary or desirable.

(c) If the federal government establishes one or more official databases of residential or wireless telephone service subscribers who object to receiving telephone solicitations, the designated agent is authorized to provide appropriate data from the official Colorado no-call list exclusively for inclusion in an official, national do-not-call database. To the extent allowed by federal law, the designated agent shall ensure that the Colorado no-call list includes that portion of an official national do-not-call database that relates to Colorado.

(4) The state shall not be liable to any person for gathering, managing, or using information in the Colorado no-call list database pursuant to this part 9 and for enforcing the provisions of this part 9.

(5) The designated agent shall not be liable to any person for performing its duties under this part 9 unless, and only to the extent that, the designated agent commits a willful and wanton act or omission.

(6) As soon as practicable after March 25, 2003, the designated agent shall update the database, on an ongoing basis, with information provided by residential subscribers, wireless telephone service subscribers, and local exchange providers.

(7) No person shall place the telephone number of another person on the Colorado no-call list without the authorization of the person to whom the number is assigned.

(8) Repealed.
C.R.S. § 6-10-134 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-134
6-10-134. Application of assignor for discharge
Status: repealed

6-10-134. Application of assignor for discharge. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-10-121 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-121
6-10-121. Additional security - when
Status: in_force

6-10-121. Additional security - when. The assignee, from time to time, shall file with the clerk of the court an inventory and valuation of any additional property which may come into his hands after the first inventory; and the judge, or, in his absence, the clerk, may thereupon require the assignee to give additional security.
C.R.S. § 6-23-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 23 / Section 6-23-101
6-23-101. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-23-101. Definitions. As used in this section:

(1) "Direct primary care agreement" means a written agreement that:

(a) Is between a patient, his or her legal representative, a government entity, or a patient's employer and a direct primary health-care provider;

(b) Discloses and describes to the patient and to the person paying the direct primary care fee the primary care services to be provided in exchange for payment of a periodic fee;

(c) Specifies the periodic fee required and any additional fees that may be charged;

(d) May allow the periodic fee and any additional fees to be paid by a third party;

(e) Prohibits the provider from submitting a fee-for-service claim for payment to a health insurance issuer for primary care services covered under the agreement and states that some services may be a covered benefit or covered service under the patient's health benefit plan as defined in section 10-16-102, at no cost to the patient;

(f) Conspicuously and prominently discloses to all parties subject to the agreement that it is not health insurance and does not meet any individual health benefit plan mandate that may be required by federal law and the patient is not entitled to health insurance protections for consumers under title 10; and

(g) Allows either party to terminate the agreement, in writing and with notice, as specified in the agreement and subject to refund terms and conditions in the agreement.

(2) "Direct primary health-care provider" means an individual or legal entity that is licensed under article 240 of title 12 or part 1 of article 255 of title 12 to provide primary care services in this state and who enters into a direct primary care agreement. "Direct primary health-care provider" includes an individual primary care provider or other legal entity, alone or with others professionally associated with the individual or other legal entity.

(3) "Primary care service" includes the screening, assessment, diagnosis, and treatment for the purpose of promotion of health or the detection and management of disease or injury within the competency and training of the primary care provider.
C.R.S. § 6-10-115 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-115
6-10-115. Distribution of unclaimed dividends
Status: in_force

6-10-115. Distribution of unclaimed dividends. Dividends remaining unclaimed for one year or longer after the final dividend has been declared by any assignee shall be distributed, under direction of the court, to the creditors whose claims have not been paid in full as provided in this article. If more than enough funds are on hand to pay these creditors in full, the balance shall be paid to the assignor.
C.R.S. § 6-7.5-109 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-109
6-7.5-109. Testing, certification, labeling, and enforcement - rules - verifications of com
Status: in_force

6-7.5-109. Testing, certification, labeling, and enforcement - rules - verifications of compliance - publication of material incorporated by reference. (1) Unless a product appears in the state appliance standards database maintained by the Northeast Energy Efficiency Partnerships, or a successor organization, or in a public database of compliant products maintained by other states or federal agencies with equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards, manufacturers of products covered by this article 7.5 shall demonstrate that the products comply with this article 7.5 by doing any one or more of the following:

(a) Submitting test sample results to the executive director, using test methods and procedures adopted pursuant to this article 7.5;

(b) Affixing a mark, label, or tag to the product and packaging at the time of sale or installation that demonstrates compliance with other state or federal agencies that have equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards; or

(c) Submitting such other proof as the executive director may deem appropriate to show that the product complies with equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards adopted by other states or federal agencies.

(2) The executive director may adopt rules as necessary to ensure the proper implementation and enforcement of this article 7.5.

(3) On or before January 1, 2026, the executive director shall collect and make publicly available in written and electronic form the federal rules and other rules and standards referred to in this article 7.5. The executive director shall update the publicly available rules and standards as they may be updated or added in accordance with section 6-7.5-106.

(4) The executive director shall:

(a) Verify major retailers' and distributors' compliance with the provisions of this article 7.5 through online spot-checks, coordination with other states that have similar standards, or both;

(b) Conduct such verifications at least once before January 1, 2027, and again at least once before January 1, 2032;

(c) Deliver a report on the method and findings of the verifications to the energy and environment committee of the house of representatives and to the transportation and energy committee of the senate, or to any successor committees, and post the report to the department of public health and environment's website within one month after its completion; and

(d) Deliver any findings of violations to the attorney general.

(5) On or before January 1, 2026, the executive director shall establish a process whereby individuals may anonymously report potential violations of this article 7.5 on the department of public health and environment's public website. The executive director shall investigate any reported potential violation and shall report any confirmed violations to the attorney general.
C.R.S. § 6-2-114 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 2 / Section 6-2-114
6-2-114. Advertising goods not available
Status: in_force

6-2-114. Advertising goods not available. It is unlawful for any person, firm, or corporation engaged in business within the state of Colorado to advertise goods, wares, or merchandise which they are not prepared and able to supply to the consuming public in pursuance of such advertisement.
C.R.S. § 6-1-411 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 4 / Section 6-1-411
6-1-411. Defect notification
Status: in_force

6-1-411. Defect notification. (1) A manufacturer shall be responsible for providing written notification to an owner, user, purchaser, dealer, lessor, or consumer of any known or discovered inherent defect in a wheelchair that affects the safety, usability, or reliability of that wheelchair. The manufacturer shall send such notification by first-class mail to the last-known address of the owner, user, purchaser, dealer, lessor, or consumer within fourteen days after learning of such a defect.

(2) A manufacturer shall be responsible for the costs of providing the notification required in subsection (1) of this section and for all costs associated with correcting any defect described in subsection (1) of this section.

(3) The provisions of this section shall apply without time limitations.
C.R.S. § 6-10-112 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-112
6-10-112. Judgment - fee of assignee
Status: in_force

6-10-112. Judgment - fee of assignee. If no exception is made to a claim filed or if the claim has been favorably adjudicated, the court shall enter judgment in favor of the creditor and against the assignor for the amount claimed and found due, and order the assignee to make from time to time fair and equal dividends among the creditors, of the assets in his hands, in proportion to their respective claims, and as soon as may be, to render a full account of said trust to the court. The court may allow such compensation or commissions, following as nearly as possible the compensation allowed executors for like services, as may be just and right.
C.R.S. § 6-2-111 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 2 / Section 6-2-111
6-2-111. Unlawful acts - remedy - license - rules
Status: in_force

6-2-111. Unlawful acts - remedy - license - rules. (1) Any person, firm, private corporation, municipal corporation, public corporation, or trade association may maintain an action to enjoin a continuance of any act in violation of sections 6-2-103 to 6-2-108 or section 6-2-110 and, if injured thereby, for the recovery of damages. If, in such action, the court finds that the defendant is violating or has violated any of the provisions of sections 6-2-103 to 6-2-108 or section 6-2-110, it shall enjoin the defendant from a continuance of the violations. It shall not be necessary that actual damages to the plaintiff be alleged or proved. In addition to such injunctive relief, the plaintiff in said action shall be entitled to recover from the defendant three times the amount of the actual damages, if any, sustained.

(2) Without prejudice to the rights of any person, firm, private corporation, municipal corporation, public corporation, or trade association to bring an action, the attorney general of the state of Colorado, as an incident to and power of his or her office, has like powers to those provided in subsection (1) of this section, and it is his or her duty, upon showing by any person, firm, private corporation, municipal corporation, public corporation, or trade association that there is reason to believe that any person subject to the terms of this article is violating any term of sections 6-2-103 to 6-2-108 or section 6-2-110, to prosecute actions for violation of any provisions of this article, and to seek injunctions or restraining orders to enjoin the continuance thereof by any defendant.

(3) If any person, firm, private corporation, municipal corporation, public corporation, or trade association, in writing and under oath, submits to the attorney general a statement setting forth facts sufficient to constitute a prima facie case of violation of any of the provisions of sections 6-2-103 to 6-2-108 or any other provisions of this article, it is mandatory upon the attorney general to seek injunctive relief or restraining orders to enjoin the continuance of such violation by any person, firm, private corporation, or other organization so charged; and to this end, and for this purpose, the attorney general has the power to appear in his or her official capacity in any court in the state of Colorado, having jurisdiction in the premises, to seek relief.

(4) It is the duty of any district attorney in and for each of the judicial districts of the state of Colorado, when requested in writing by the attorney general, to advise and consult with the attorney general concerning the institution and prosecution of such actions, and to act for the attorney general in prosecution of any such action; but the attorney general has the power in his or her discretion to choose, select, appoint, and recompense from funds provided for the purposes of enforcement of the provisions of this article any attorney-at-law admitted to practice in the state of Colorado as a special prosecutor who has full and complete power to act for the attorney general.

(5) The attorney general, for the purposes of carrying out the terms and provisions of this article, has the power to promulgate rules and regulations for the enforcement of this article, not inconsistent with its terms, and to publish the same.

(6) The attorney general may appoint such personnel as may reasonably be required to carry out the functions prescribed for his or her office.
C.R.S. § 6-22-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 22 / Section 6-22-101
6-22-101. Legislative declaration
Status: in_force

6-22-101. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly hereby declares that the purpose of enacting this article is to protect Colorado consumers by:

(a) Requiring roofing contractors offering to perform roofing work on residential property in this state to sign a written contract with property owners detailing the scope and cost of the roofing work and contact information for the roofing contractor;

(b) Requiring roofing contractors to permit property owners to rescind a contract for the performance of roofing work and obtain a refund of any deposit paid to the roofing contractor; and

(c) Prohibiting roofing contractors from paying, waiving, rebating, or promising to pay, waive, or rebate all or part of any insurance deductible applicable to an insurance claim made to the property owner's property and casualty insurer for payment for roofing work on the residential property covered by a property and casualty insurance policy.
C.R.S. § 6-1-901 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 9 / Section 6-1-901
6-1-901. Short title
Status: in_force

6-1-901. Short title. This part 9 shall be known and may be cited as the "Colorado No-Call List Act".
C.R.S. § 6-16-104 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-104
6-16-104. Charitable organizations - initial registration - annual filing - fees
Status: in_force

6-16-104. Charitable organizations - initial registration - annual filing - fees. (1) Every charitable organization, except those exempted under subsection (6) of this section, that intends to solicit contributions in this state by any means or to have contributions solicited in this state on its behalf by any other person or entity or that participates in a charitable sales promotion shall, prior to engaging in any of these activities, file a registration statement with the secretary of state upon a form prescribed by the secretary of state. Each chapter, branch, or affiliate of a charitable organization that is required to file a registration statement under this section either shall file a separate registration statement or shall report the necessary information to its parent charitable organization, which then shall file a consolidated registration statement.

(2) The registration statement must be signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503 by an officer of the charitable organization, which may include its chief fiscal officer, and must contain the following information:

(a) The name of the charitable organization, the purpose for which it is organized, and the name or names under which it intends to solicit contributions;

(b) The address and telephone number of the principal place of business of the charitable organization and the address and telephone number of any offices in this state, or, if the charitable organization does not maintain an office in this state, the name, address, and telephone number of the person that has custody of its financial records;

(c) The names of the officers, directors, trustees, and executive personnel of the charitable organization;

(d) The last day of the fiscal year of the charitable organization;

(e) The place and date when the charitable organization was legally established, the form of its organization, and its tax-exempt status;

(f) A financial report for the most recent fiscal year, upon a form prescribed by the secretary of state, or, in the discretion of the secretary of state, a copy of the charitable organization's federal form 990, with all schedules except schedules of donors, for the most recent fiscal year. If, at the time of the initial registration, the charitable organization does not have the required financial report or form 990 for the most recent fiscal year, the charitable organization shall submit a financial report or form 990 for the most recent fiscal year in which such information is available. An organization that was first legally established within the past year and thus does not have financial information or a form 990 for its most recent fiscal year shall provide to the secretary of state a financial report based on good faith estimates for its current fiscal year on a form prescribed by the secretary of state. Any organization that files a good faith estimate for its first fiscal year shall amend its initial registration statement to report actual financial information on or before the earlier of the fifteenth day of the eighth month after the close of the organization's first fiscal year or the date authorized for filing a form 990 with the internal revenue service.

(g) The names and addresses of any paid solicitors, professional fundraising consultants, and commercial coventurers who are acting or have agreed to act on behalf of the charitable organization. If the paid solicitor, professional fundraising consultant, or commercial coventurer is a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other legal entity, the charitable organization shall list only the name and address of the legal entity.

(3) The secretary of state may promulgate rules concerning the acceptance of a uniform multistate registration statement, such as a unified registration statement, in lieu of the registration statement described in subsection (2) of this section. As soon as practicable, the secretary of state shall take steps to cooperate in a joint state and federal electronic filing project involving state charity offices and the internal revenue service to enable and promote electronic filing of uniform multistate registration statements and federal annual information returns.

(4) (a) A charitable organization's registration is valid until the day on which the financial report required in subsection (2)(f) or (5) of this section is due and may be renewed upon application to the secretary of state and payment of the registration fee and any assessed fines.

(b) A charitable organization that withdraws its registration or allows its registration to expire must, on or before the date of withdrawal or expiration, file a final financial report, in a form prescribed by the secretary of state, that includes information through the last date on which the organization solicited contributions in Colorado.

(c) A charitable organization shall report any changes of name, address, principals, corporate forms, tax status, and any other changes that materially affect the identity or business of the charitable organization to the secretary of state within thirty days after the change.

(5) (a) Every charitable organization required to register under this section shall annually file with the secretary of state a financial report for the most recent fiscal year on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, or, in the discretion of the secretary of state, a copy of the charitable organization's federal form 990, with all schedules except schedules of donors, for the most recent fiscal year. The financial report must be filed on or before the earlier of the fifteenth day of the eighth calendar month after the close of each fiscal year in which the charitable organization solicited in this state or the date authorized for filing a form 990 with the internal revenue service. A charitable organization that is unable to file a copy of its form 990 return or the secretary of state's financial form by the prescribed deadline may request an extension of the filing deadline from the secretary of state. The secretary of state, upon receipt of an application to extend the filing deadline, may grant a three-month extension of time to file the financial report. All requests for extension of time must:

(I) Be in a form prescribed by the secretary of state;

(II) Include a statement describing in detail the reasons causing the delay in filing the financial report;

(III) Include an affirmation that the charitable organization has filed with the internal revenue service an application for a corresponding extension of time to file the organization's form 990; and

(IV) Be signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503.

(b) Upon request, the charitable organization shall provide the secretary of state with a copy of its application for extension of time to file with the internal revenue service in order to verify the date authorized for filing its form 990 with the internal revenue service.

(6) The following are not required to file a registration statement:

(a) Persons that are exempt from filing a federal annual information return pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 6033 (a)(3)(A)(i), (a)(3)(A)(iii), or (a)(3)(C)(i) or pursuant to 26 CFR 1.6033-2 (g)(1)(i) to (g)(1)(iv) or (g)(1)(vii);

(b) Political parties, candidates for federal or state office, and political action committees required to file financial information with federal or state elections commissions;

(c) Charitable organizations that do not intend to and do not actually raise or receive gross revenue, excluding grants from governmental entities or from organizations exempt from federal taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the federal "Internal Revenue Code of 1986", as amended, in excess of twenty-five thousand dollars during a fiscal year or do not receive contributions from more than ten persons during a fiscal year. The exemption authorized in this paragraph (c) shall not apply to a charitable organization that has contracted with a paid solicitor to solicit contributions in this state for the organization.

(d) Persons exclusively making appeals for funds on behalf of a specific individual named in the solicitation, but only if all of the proceeds of the solicitation are given to or expended for the direct benefit of the specified individual.

(7) Filing fees for the annual registration of a charitable organization and for amendments thereto shall be established by the secretary of state in an amount that reflects the costs of the secretary of state in administering the provisions of this article. All such fees collected shall be deposited in the department of state cash fund created in section 24-21-104 (3)(b), C.R.S.

(8) The secretary of state shall examine each registration to determine whether the applicable requirements of this section are satisfied. The secretary of state shall notify the charitable organization within ten days after receipt of its application of any deficiencies therein, otherwise the registration shall be deemed approved as filed. The secretary of state shall issue each approved applicant a registration number.

(9) A charitable organization that is required to register under this article 16 shall not:

(a) Prior to registration or renewal of an expired registration, solicit contributions in this state by any means, have contributions solicited in this state on its behalf by any other person or entity, or participate in a charitable sales promotion; or

(b) Aid, abet, or otherwise permit any paid solicitor to solicit contributions on its behalf in this state unless the paid solicitor soliciting contributions has complied with the requirements of this article.

(10) All information filed pursuant to this section, except for residential addresses and telephone numbers of individuals, account numbers at banks or other financial institutions, and schedules of contributors listed on the federal form 990 or its equivalent, is a public record for purposes of the public records law, part 2 of article 72 of title 24, C.R.S.
C.R.S. § 6-20-102 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 20 / Part 1 / Section 6-20-102
6-20-102. Limits on facility fees - rules - definitions
Status: in_force

6-20-102. Limits on facility fees - rules - definitions. (1) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Affiliated with" means:

(I) Employed by a hospital or health system; or

(II) Under a professional services agreement, faculty agreement, or management agreement with a hospital or health system that permits the hospital or health system to bill on behalf of the affiliated entity.

(b) "Campus" means:

(I) A hospital's main buildings;

(II) The physical area immediately adjacent to a hospital's main buildings and structures owned by the hospital that are not strictly contiguous to the main buildings but are located within two hundred fifty yards of the main buildings; or

(III) Any other area that the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services in the United States department of health and human services has determined, on an individual-case basis, to be part of a hospital's campus.

(c) "Critical access hospital" means a hospital that is federally certified or undergoing federal certification as a critical access hospital pursuant to 42 CFR 485, subpart F.

(d) "Facility fee" means any fee a hospital or health system charges or bills for outpatient hospital services that is:

(I) Intended to compensate the hospital or health system for its operational expenses; and

(II) Separate and distinct from a professional fee charged or billed by a health-care provider for professional medical services.

(e) "Freestanding emergency department" means a health facility as defined in and required to be licensed under section 25-1.5-114.

(f) "Health-care provider" means any person, including a health facility, that is licensed or otherwise authorized in this state to furnish a health-care service.

(g) "Health-care service" has the meaning set forth in section 10-16-102 (33).

(h) "Health facility" means a facility licensed or certified pursuant to section 25-1.5-103 or established pursuant to part 5 of article 21 of title 23 or article 29 of title 25.

(i) "Health system" has the meaning set forth in section 10-16-1303 (9).

(j) "Hospital" means a hospital currently licensed or certified by the department of public health and environment pursuant to the department's authority under section 25-1.5-103 (1)(a) or established pursuant to part 5 of article 21 of title 23 or article 29 of title 25.

(k) "Medicare" means the "Health Insurance for the Aged Act", Title XVIII of the federal "Social Security Act", as amended by the social security amendments of 1965, and as later amended.

(l) "Off-campus location" has the meaning set forth in section 25-3-118.

(m) "Owned by" means owned by a hospital or health system when billed under the hospital's tax identification number.

(n) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(n) is effective until July 1, 2025.] "Payer type" means commercial insurers; medicare; the medical assistance program established pursuant to articles 4 to 6 of title 25.5; individuals who self-pay; a financial assistance plan; or the "Colorado Indigent Care Program", established in part 1 of article 3 of title 25.5.

(n) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(n) is effective July 1, 2025.] "Payer type" means commercial insurers, medicare, the medical assistance program established pursuant to articles 4 to 6 of title 25.5, individuals who self-pay, or a financial assistance plan.

(o) "Sole community hospital" has the meaning set forth in 42 CFR 412.92.

(2) Limitations on charges. (a) On and after July 1, 2024, a health-care provider or health system shall not charge, bill, or collect a facility fee directly from a patient that is not covered by a patient's insurance for preventive health-care services, as described in section 10-16-104 (18), that are provided in an outpatient setting.

(b) This subsection (2) does not prohibit a health-care provider from charging a facility fee for:

(I) Health-care services provided in an inpatient setting;

(II) Health-care services provided at a health facility that includes a licensed hospital emergency department; or

(III) Emergency services provided at a licensed freestanding emergency department.

(c) Nothing in this subsection (2) prohibits a health-care provider or health system from charging, billing, or collecting a facility fee from a patient's insurer pursuant to an agreement between the health-care provider or health system and the carrier or as required by law.

(3) Transparency. (a) On and after July 1, 2024, a health-care provider affiliated with or owned by a hospital or health system that charges a facility fee shall:

(I) (A) Provide notice in plain language to patients that a facility fee may be charged, indicate in the notice the amount of the facility fee, and require the health-care provider to provide the notice to a patient at the time an appointment is scheduled and again at the time the health-care services are rendered; and

(B) Post a sign, in English and Spanish and that is plainly visible and located in the area within the health facility where an individual seeking care registers or checks in, that states that the patient may be charged a facility fee in addition to the cost of the health-care service. The sign must also include a location within the health facility where a patient may inquire about facility fees and an online location where information about facility fees may be found.

(II) Provide to a patient a standardized bill that:

(A) Includes itemized charges for each health-care service;

(B) Specifically identifies any facility fee;

(C) Identifies specific charges that have been billed to insurance or other payer types for health-care services; and

(D) Includes contact information for filing an appeal with the health-care provider to contest charges.

(b) The health-care provider shall provide the required notice and standardized bill in a clear manner and, to the extent practicable, in the patient's preferred language.

(c) (I) A health facility that is newly affiliated with or owned by a hospital or health system on or after July 1, 2024, shall provide written notice to each patient receiving services within the twelve-month period immediately preceding the affiliation or change of ownership that the health facility is part of a hospital or health system. The notice must include:

(A) The name, business address, and phone number of the hospital or health system that is the purchaser of the health facility or with whom the health facility is affiliated;

(B) A statement that the health facility bills, or is likely to bill, patients a facility fee that may be in addition to and separate from any professional fee billed by a health-care provider at the health facility; and

(C) A statement that, prior to seeking services at the health facility, a patient covered by a health insurance policy or health benefit plan should contact the patient's health insurer for additional information regarding the health facility's facility fees, including the patient's potential financial liability, if any, for the facility fees.

(II) A hospital, health system, or health facility shall not collect a facility fee for health-care services provided by a health-care provider affiliated with or owned by a hospital or health system that is subject to any provisions of this section from the date of the transaction until at least thirty days after the written notice required pursuant to subsection (3)(c)(I) of this section is mailed to the patient.

(4) Subsection (2) of this section does not apply to a critical access hospital, a sole community hospital in a rural or frontier area, or a community clinic affiliated with a sole community hospital in a rural or frontier area.

(5) Subsection (2) of this section does not apply to a hospital established pursuant to article 29 of title 25.
C.R.S. § 6-1-719 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-719
6-1-719. Truth in music advertising
Status: in_force

6-1-719. Truth in music advertising. (1) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Performing group" means a vocal or instrumental group seeking to use the name of a recording group.

(b) "Recording group" means a vocal or instrumental group, at least one of whose members has previously released a commercial sound recording under that group's name and in which at least one of the members has a legal right by virtue of use or operation under the group name without having abandoned the name or affiliation with the group.

(c) "Sound recording" means a work that results from the fixation, on or in a recording medium or other material object, of a series of musical, spoken, or other sounds regardless of the nature of the medium or object, such as a disk, tape, or other phono record, in which the sounds are recorded.

(2) Production. (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2), it is unlawful for any person to advertise or conduct a live musical performance or production in this state through the use of a false, deceptive, or misleading affiliation, connection, or association between a performing group and a recording group.

(b) Paragraph (a) of this subsection (2) does not apply if:

(I) The performing group is the authorized registrant and owner of a federal service mark for that group registered in the United States patent and trademark office;

(II) At least one member of the performing group was a member of the recording group and has a legal right by virtue of use or operation under the group name without having abandoned the name or affiliation with the group;

(III) The live musical performance or production is identified in all advertising and promotion as a salute or tribute;

(IV) The advertising does not relate to a live musical performance or production taking place in this state; or

(V) The performance or production is expressly authorized by the recording group.

(3) Restraining prohibited acts. In addition to the actions and remedies specified in part 1 of this article that may apply:

(a) Injunction. Whenever the attorney general or a district attorney has reason to believe that a person is advertising, conducting, or about to advertise or conduct a live musical performance or production in violation of this section and that proceedings would be in the public interest, the attorney general or district attorney may bring an action in the name of the state against the person to restrain that practice by temporary or permanent injunction.

(b) Payment of costs and restitution. Whenever a court issues a permanent injunction to restrain and prevent violations of this section as authorized in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), the court may, in its discretion, direct that the defendant restore to any person in interest any moneys or property, real or personal, that may have been acquired by means of a violation of this section, under terms and conditions to be established by the court.

(c) Penalty. A person who violates this section is liable to the state for a civil penalty of not less than five thousand dollars nor more than fifteen thousand dollars per violation, which civil penalty shall be in addition to any other relief that may be granted under this subsection (3) but which shall not be cumulative with the penalty specified in section 6-1-112. Each performance or production that violates this section constitutes a separate violation.
C.R.S. § 6-10-125 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-125
6-10-125. Creditors may appoint an attorney
Status: in_force

6-10-125. Creditors may appoint an attorney. The majority in number and value of the creditors may appoint, in writing, an attorney-at-law to represent the estate before the court. The attorney, if appointed, shall examine all reports and inventories and books of the assignee and inquire fully as to the conduct of the assignee in the discharge of his trust. He may appear for the assignee in all suits in behalf of the assignee in securing, preserving, or defending the estate, but shall appear in behalf of the creditors in all suits, examinations, or inquiries as to the accounts or the conduct of the assignee concerning the estate. The court may allow such compensation to the attorney as may be just and reasonable.
C.R.S. § 6-2-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 2 / Section 6-2-101
6-2-101. Short title
Status: in_force

6-2-101. Short title. This article shall be known and may be cited as the "Unfair Practices Act".
C.R.S. § 6-1-206 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 2 / Section 6-1-206
6-1-206. Additional mandatory charges - required disclosures - definitions
Status: in_force

6-1-206. Additional mandatory charges - required disclosures - definitions. (1) If a motor vehicle rental company imposes additional mandatory charges, the rental company shall:

(a) Provide a good-faith estimate of the total charges for the entire rental, including all additional mandatory charges, whenever a quote is provided to a potential customer. The good-faith estimate may exclude mileage charges and charges for optional items that cannot be determined prior to completing a rental reservation based on the information provided by the potential customer.

(b) Disclose in the rental contract provided to the renter the total charges for the entire rental, including all additional mandatory charges. Total charges for the entire rental do not include any charges that cannot be determined at the time the rental commences.

(2) As used in this section:

(a) "Additional mandatory charge" means any separately stated charges that a motor vehicle rental company requires a renter to pay that specifically relate to the operation of a rental vehicle. "Additional mandatory charge" includes, but is not limited to, a customer facility charge, airport concession recovery fee, road safety program fee, vehicle license recovery fee, or any government imposed taxes or fees.

(b) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning set forth in section 44-20-102.

(c) "Motor vehicle rental company" has the meaning set forth in section 10-1-102.

(d) "Quote" means an estimated cost of rental provided by a motor vehicle rental company to a potential customer based on information provided by the customer, including potential dates of rental, location, or class of vehicle.

(e) "Vehicle license recovery fee" means a charge to recover costs incurred by a motor vehicle rental company to license, title, register, plate, or inspect a rental vehicle.
C.R.S. § 6-1-107 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-107
6-1-107. Powers of attorney general and district attorneys
Status: in_force

6-1-107. Powers of attorney general and district attorneys. (1) When the attorney general or a district attorney has reasonable cause to believe that any person, whether in this state or elsewhere, has engaged in or is engaging in any deceptive trade practice listed in section 6-1-105 or part 7 or 13 of this article 1, the attorney general or district attorney may:

(a) Request such person to file a statement or report in writing under oath or otherwise, on forms prescribed by him, as to all facts and circumstances concerning the sale or advertisement of property by such person and any other data and information he deems necessary;

(b) Examine under oath any person in connection with the sale or advertisement of any property;

(c) Examine any property or sample thereof, record, book, document, account, or paper he deems necessary;

(d) Make true copies, at the expense of the attorney general or district attorney, of any record, book, document, account, or paper examined pursuant to paragraph (c) of this subsection (1), which copies may be offered into evidence in lieu of the originals thereof in actions brought pursuant to sections 6-1-109 and 6-1-110; and

(e) Pursuant to any order of any district court, impound any sample of property which is material to such deceptive trade practice and retain the same in his possession until completion of all proceedings undertaken under this article. An order shall not be issued pursuant to this paragraph (e) without full opportunity given to the accused to be heard and unless the attorney general or district attorney has proven by clear and convincing evidence that the business activities of the person to whom an order is directed will not be impaired thereby.

(2) Nothing in subsection (1) of this section shall be construed to allow a district attorney to enforce the provisions of this article beyond the territorial limits of his judicial district, unless the alleged deceptive trade practice or any portion of a transaction involving an alleged deceptive trade practice occurred in said district attorney's judicial district, or unless the principal place of business of any defendant is located in said district attorney's district, or unless any defendant resides in said district attorney's judicial district.
C.R.S. § 6-10-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-103
6-10-103. Inventory - list of creditors
Status: in_force

6-10-103. Inventory - list of creditors. The assignor shall render to such assignee within four days from the date of said assignment an inventory under oath, of his property, to the best of his knowledge, with the estimated value thereof, and also a list of his creditors, giving their names, residence and post-office address, if known, and the amount of their respective demands. Such inventory shall not be conclusive of the amount of the assignor's estate nor shall the omission of any property from such inventory defeat the assignment or conveyance of the same.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1121 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 11 / Section 6-1-1121
6-1-1121. Short sales - subsequent purchaser - definition
Status: in_force

6-1-1121. Short sales - subsequent purchaser - definition. (1) With respect to any short sale transaction in which an equity purchaser intends to resell the residence in foreclosure to a subsequent purchaser, the equity purchaser shall:

(a) Provide full disclosure to the home owner and to the holders of the evidence of debt on the residence in foreclosure, or such holders' representatives, of the terms of the agreement between the equity purchaser and any subsequent purchaser, including but not limited to the purchase price to be paid by the subsequent purchaser for the residence in foreclosure, which disclosure shall be made within one business day of identifying any such subsequent purchaser and in no event later than closing on the short sale transaction;

(b) Provide full disclosure to any subsequent purchaser and to any subsequent purchaser's lender, or such lender's representative, at the time of contract with the equity purchaser, of the terms of the agreement between the equity purchaser and the home owner, including but not limited to the purchase price paid by the equity purchaser for the residence in foreclosure;

(c) Comply with all applicable rules adopted by the Colorado real estate commission with regard to short sales; and

(d) Comply with section 38-35-125, C.R.S.

(2) As used in this section, a "subsequent purchaser" means any person who enters into a contract with an equity purchaser prior to the disbursement of the short sale transaction to acquire the residence in foreclosure and who acquires the residence in foreclosure within fourteen days after the disbursement of the short sale transaction.
C.R.S. § 6-1-205 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 2 / Section 6-1-205
6-1-205. Information to be disclosed in advertisements for rental agreements for rental m
Status: in_force

6-1-205. Information to be disclosed in advertisements for rental agreements for rental motor vehicles. In any advertisement to the public for a rental agreement for a rental motor vehicle that includes a rental rate, the lessor shall prominently disclose on the face of any such advertisement the daily charge of any collision damage waiver offered, a statement informing a prospective lessee that he or she should review his or her own automobile insurance coverage to determine if such coverage applies to the use of a rental motor vehicle, and a statement that a prospective lessee may also wish to determine whether his or her credit card or travel and entertainment card provides collision damage coverage for use of a rental motor vehicle or other such privilege of membership.
C.R.S. § 6-18-302 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 18 / Part 3 / Section 6-18-302
6-18-302. Creation of provider networks - requirements
Status: in_force

6-18-302. Creation of provider networks - requirements. (1) (a) Providers are hereby authorized to conduct business collaboratively as provider networks. Such networks are entities existing on or before July 1, 1994, that meet the definition of a provider network or may be created as any lawful entity under title 7, C.R.S., or as otherwise allowed by law. Provider networks existing on or before July 1, 1994, and provider networks created on and after July 1, 1994, conducting business pursuant to this part 3, in addition to the matters otherwise required, shall be subject to this article.

(b) (I) Except as provided in subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b), if a provider network or individual provider organized on or after July 1, 1994, or organized prior to said date, proposes or is engaged in the transaction of insurance business, as defined in section 10-3-903, C.R.S., or the activities of a health maintenance organization as defined in section 10-16-102 (35), C.R.S., such provider network or individual provider must hold a certificate of authority from the commissioner of insurance to do business as an insurance company under title 10, C.R.S., or to establish a health maintenance organization under section 10-16-402, C.R.S.

(II) The fact that a provider network or individual provider has a capitated contract or other agreement with a carrier, pursuant to which the provider network or individual provider shares some of the risk of providing services to groups or individuals covered under a health-care coverage plan issued by a carrier, shall not, in and of itself, be grounds for a determination by the commissioner of insurance that the provider network or individual provider is engaged in the transaction of insurance business.

(III) The commissioner of insurance, in consultation with providers and other appropriate persons, shall evaluate the need for specific legislation or rules for the licensure of provider networks and individual providers and, if determined appropriate, shall make recommendations thereon to the general assembly and governor and shall adopt such rules that are specific to licensed provider networks and licensed individual providers as provided in section 10-1-108 (13), C.R.S. A licensed provider network or licensed individual provider shall be subject to applicable provisions of title 10, C.R.S., except as otherwise provided in statute or rule adopted pursuant to section 10-1-108 (13), C.R.S.

(IV) Every licensed provider network that conducts insurance business in the state of Colorado shall:

(A) Obtain from the commissioner of insurance, before the start of business, a certificate of authority authorizing the provider network to conduct business in the state of Colorado;

(B) Maintain its principal and home office in the state of Colorado, maintain such books and records in this state, and maintain principal banking relationships with a bank chartered by the state of Colorado or a member bank of the federal reserve system;

(C) Hold at least one board of directors' meeting each year in the state of Colorado;

(D) Include in the provider network's management and administrative agreements, for essential insurance services, a provision that allows the commissioner reasonable access to examine such books and records; and

(E) For purposes of this paragraph (b), substantially perform in the state of Colorado the essential functions of the licensed provider network's principal and home office, including, but not limited to, the provision and administration of health-care services, the issuance of health-care plans, the maintenance of health-care provider relations, and the provision of consumer information and services.

(2) If applicable, a network organized on and after July 1, 1994, is organized when the articles of organization are filed by the secretary of state or, if a delayed effective date is specified in the articles as filed with the secretary of state and a certificate of withdrawal is not filed, on such delayed effective date. The existence of the network begins upon organization.

(3) If applicable, each provider network shall file a report pursuant to section 7-136-107, C.R.S., and pay a fee to the secretary of state which shall be determined and collected pursuant to section 24-21-104 (3), C.R.S., in lieu of all franchise or corporation license taxes.

(4) A provider network or individual provider may request that specified information submitted to the division of insurance be kept confidential because it is a trade secret as defined in section 7-74-102 (4), C.R.S. The division shall honor such request unless the commissioner determines that the information is already public knowledge or that its confidentiality would be contrary to the public interest or the provider subsequently authorized the commissioner to release such information.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1601 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 16 / Section 6-1-1601
6-1-1601. Social media platform - youth users - definition
Status: in_force

6-1-1601. Social media platform - youth users - definition. (1) On or after January 1, 2026, a social media platform must establish a function that either:

(a) Meets the criteria in subsection (2) of this section and be informed by the standards established in subsection (5) of this section; or

(b) Displays a pop-up or full screen notification to a user who attests to being under the age of eighteen when the user:

(I) Has spent one cumulative hour on the social media platform during a twenty-four-hour period; or

(II) Is on a social media platform between the hours of 10 p.m. and 6 a.m.

(2) The function established pursuant to subsection (1) of this section must provide users who are under the age of eighteen with information about their engagement in social media that helps the user understand the impact of social media on the developing brain and the mental and physical health of youth users. The information must be supported by data from peer-reviewed scholarly articles or the sources included in the mental health and technology resource bank established in section 22-2-127.8 (1).

(3) If the social media platform establishes the function described in subsection (1)(b) of this section, the function must repeat at least every thirty minutes after the initial notification.

(4) (a) As used in this section, "social media platform" means an internet-based service, website, or application that:

(I) Has more than one hundred thousand active users in Colorado;

(II) Permits a person to become a registered user, establish an account, or create a public or semipublic profile for the purpose of allowing users to create, share, and view user-generated content through the account or profile;

(III) Enables one or more users to create or post content that can be viewed by other users of the medium; and

(IV) Includes a substantial function to allow users to interact socially with each other within the service or application. A service or application that provides electronic mail or direct messaging services does not meet the criterion described in this subsection (4) on the basis of that function alone.

(b) "Social media platform" does not include an internet-based service or application in which the predominant or exclusive function is:

(I) Providing electronic mail;

(II) Facilitating commercial transactions, if the interaction with other users or account holders is generally limited to:

(A) The ability to upload a post and comment on reviews or the ability to display lists or collections of goods for sale or wish lists; and

(B) The primary function of the platform is focused on online shopping or e-commerce rather than interactions between users or account holders;

(III) Facilitating teleconferencing and video conferencing features that are limited to certain participants in the teleconference or video conference and are not posted publicly or for broad distribution to other users;

(IV) Facilitating crowd-sourced content for reference guides such as encyclopedias and dictionaries;

(V) Providing cloud-based electronic services, including cloud-based services that allow collaborative editing by invited users;

(VI) Consisting primarily of news, sports, entertainment, or other content that is preselected by the provider and not user generated and any chat, comment, or interactive functionality that is provided incidental to, directly related to, or dependent upon provision of the content;

(VII) Interactive gaming, virtual gaming, or an online service that allows the creation and uploading of content for the purpose of interactive or virtual gaming;

(VIII) Providing information concerning businesses, products, or travel information, including user reviews or rankings of businesses or products;

(IX) Facilitating communication within a business or an enterprise among employees or affiliates of the business or enterprise, so long as access to the service or application is restricted to employees or affiliates of the business or enterprise;

(X) Selling enterprise software to businesses, governments, or nonprofit organizations;

(XI) Providing a streaming service that streams only licensed media in a continuous flow from the service, website, or application to the end user and does not require a user or account holder to obtain a license for the media by agreement with a social media platform's terms of service;

(XII) Providing an online service, website, or application that is used by or under the direction of an educational entity, including a learning management system, a student engagement program, or a subject- or skill-specific program, for which the majority of the content is created or posted by the provider of the online service, website, or application and the ability to chat, comment, or interact with other users is directly related to the provider's content;

(XIII) Providing or obtaining technical support for a platform, product, or service;

(XIV) Providing career development opportunities, including professional networking, job skills, learning certifications, and job posting and application services;

(XV) Focused on facilitating academic or scholarly research; or

(XVI) Reporting or disseminating news information for a mass medium, as defined in section 13-90-119.

(5) The chief information officer in the office of information technology, in consultation with the director of the center for health and environmental data division of the Colorado department of public health and environment and the temporary stakeholder group established in section 22-2-127.8, shall establish standards for a user tool or function that meets the requirements of subsection (1) of this section for a social media platform. The standards must:

(a) Recommend intervals for notification frequency that are similar to those in subsection (3) of this section;

(b) Provide sample messaging for the content of the notification;

(c) Be informed by data and research on the efficacy of notifications; and

(d) Recommend the age range of users who would most benefit from notifications.
C.R.S. § 6-2-104 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 2 / Section 6-2-104
6-2-104. Personal responsibility
Status: in_force

6-2-104. Personal responsibility. (1) Any person who, either as director, officer, or agent of any firm or corporation or as agent of any person violating the provisions of this article, assists or aids, directly or indirectly, in such violation shall be responsible equally with the person, firm, or corporation for which he acts.

(2) In the prosecution of any person as officer, director, or agent, it shall be sufficient to allege and prove the unlawful intent of the person, firm, or corporation for which he acts.
C.R.S. § 6-10-140 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-140
6-10-140. Verdict recorded - costs
Status: repealed

6-10-140. Verdict recorded - costs. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-18-301 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 18 / Part 3 / Section 6-18-301
6-18-301. Legislative declaration
Status: in_force

6-18-301. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that the rapidly changing health-care market provides unique opportunities for health-care providers to organize themselves into new forms of collaborative systems to deliver high quality health care at competitive market prices to cooperatives and other purchasers. This part 3 is enacted to encourage such collaborative arrangements and to further market-based competition among health-care providers.

(2) The general assembly further recognizes that in order to achieve the most effective use of resources and medical technology to respond to changing market conditions, providers who would otherwise be competitors with each other will need to horizontally integrate in order to develop collaborative arrangements to guarantee an adequate number of providers to service the market and to vertically integrate in order to guarantee that those who receive services will have a continuum of care as appropriate to their care needs.

(3) The general assembly also recognizes that to effect such new forms of collaborative systems and integration of providers to service the market will require an analysis of existing methods of providing services, contracting, collaborating, and networking among providers and the extent and type of regulatory oversight of licensed provider networks or licensed individual providers which is appropriate to protect the public.
C.R.S. § 6-10-150 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-150
6-10-150. Property not affected
Status: repealed

6-10-150. Property not affected. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-24-104 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 24 / Section 6-24-104
6-24-104. Acquisition of land
Status: in_force

6-24-104. Acquisition of land. Any cemetery authority may acquire suitable and sufficient land for a cemetery in a manner provided by articles 1 to 7 of title 38.
C.R.S. § 6-1-732 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-732
6-1-732. Automatic renewal contracts - unlawful acts - required disclosures - right to ca
Status: in_force

6-1-732. Automatic renewal contracts - unlawful acts - required disclosures - right to cancel - trial period offers - exemptions - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Automatic renewal contract" means a plan or arrangement in which a paid subscription or purchasing agreement is automatically renewed at the end of a definite term for a subsequent term or on a continuous or recurring basis.

(b) "Automatic renewal offer terms" means the following clear and conspicuous disclosures:

(I) That an automatic renewal contract will automatically renew or extend after the initial period for a set term not to exceed one year unless the consumer gives express written consent for a longer renewal term;

(II) A description of the cancellation policy that applies to the offer;

(III) Any recurring charges that will be charged to the consumer's credit card, debit card, or payment account with a third party as part of an automatic renewal contract;

(IV) The length of an automatic renewal term; and

(V) The minimum purchase obligation, if any.

(c) (I) "Clear and conspicuous" or "clearly and conspicuously" means in larger type than the surrounding text; in contrasting type, font, or color to the surrounding text of the same size; or set off from the surrounding text of the same size by symbols or other marks in a manner that clearly calls attention to the language.

(II) In the case of an audio disclosure, "clear and conspicuous" or "clearly and conspicuously" means in a volume and cadence sufficient to be readily audible and understandable.

(d) "Consumer" means an individual who seeks or acquires, by purchase or lease, any goods, services, money, or credit for personal, family, or household purposes.

(e) "Trial period offer" means a solicitation offering a consumer a period of time in which to sample a product or service, which offer is used as an inducement for the consumer to make a purchase of the product or service or a similar product or service.

(2) It is unlawful for a person that offers an automatic renewal contract to a consumer in this state to:

(a) Fail to present the automatic renewal offer terms in a clear and conspicuous manner before the automatic renewal contract is executed. In the case of an offer that is conveyed by voice, the person must present the terms in temporal proximity to the request for the consumer's consent to the offer. If the offer includes a trial period offer, the offer must also include a clear and conspicuous explanation of the price that will be charged and any further purchase obligations that will be imposed on the consumer after the trial period ends.

(b) Utilize an online link that is presented as part of an offer of an automatic renewal contract, which online link directs a consumer to detailed information about the automatic renewal contract, unless the online link:

(I) Is available before a consumer elects to purchase any good or service subject to the automatic renewal contract;

(II) Appears directly adjacent to any online link used by the consumer to purchase any good or service subject to the automatic renewal contract; and

(III) Is labeled with, or is directly adjacent to, a clear and conspicuous disclosure that states that by purchasing the good or service, the consumer agrees to enroll in an automatic renewal contract;

(c) Fail to provide the consumer a written acknowledgment that includes the automatic renewal offer terms, the cancellation policy, and information regarding how to cancel in a manner that is capable of being retained by the consumer. If the offer of an automatic renewal contract includes a trial period offer, the person shall also disclose in the written acknowledgment how the consumer may cancel the automatic renewal contract, and the person shall allow the consumer to cancel the contract before the consumer is required to pay for the goods or services.

(d) Fail to provide a simple, cost-effective, timely, easy-to-use, and readily accessible mechanism for canceling an automatic renewal contract or trial period offer. A person is deemed to comply with this subsection (2)(d) if the person offers:

(I) A one-step online cancellation link that is:

(A) Located on the person's website or contained in an electronic device or service or an electronic communication to the consumer; and

(B) Available to the consumer immediately or after the consumer completes a reasonable authentication protocol used solely to confirm that the consumer is authorized to make changes to the account; or

(II) An in-person mechanism for canceling an automatic renewal contract or trial period offer, which mechanism:

(A) Is at a physical location where the consumer regularly utilizes any goods or services that are subject to the automatic renewal contract; and

(B) Satisfies the requirements of this subsection (2)(d).

(3) If a material change occurs in the terms of an automatic renewal contract that has been accepted by a consumer in this state, the person shall provide to the consumer, in a manner that may be retained by the consumer, a clear and conspicuous notice of the material change and information regarding cancellation of the automatic renewal contract, including information concerning the mechanism described in subsection (2)(d) of this section.

(4) (a) A person that sells a good or service to a consumer pursuant to an automatic renewal contract shall notify the consumer that the automatic renewal contract will automatically renew or continue unless the consumer cancels the automatic renewal contract. The notice must inform the consumer of the process for canceling the automatic renewal contract, and the process must provide clear and accurate information about the identity of the sender and be consistent with subsection (2)(d) of this section. The person shall provide the notice by:

(I) Physical mail;

(II) E-mail; or

(III) Another easily accessible form of communication, such as a text message or a mobile phone application, if the consumer specifically authorizes the person to provide notice in such form or if the consumer customarily uses such form to communicate with the person.

(b) A person that sells a good or service to a consumer pursuant to an automatic renewal contract shall send the notice described in subsection (4)(a) of this section at least twenty-five and no more than forty days before the first automatic renewal and at least twenty-five and no more than forty days before each automatic renewal thereafter; except that, if the initial automatic renewal or any subsequent automatic renewal is for a term of less than twelve months, the person shall send the notice:

(I) At least once in the period between twenty-five and forty days directly preceding the first automatic renewal that would extend the contract beyond a continuous twelve-month period; and

(II) At least once in the period between twenty-five and forty days directly preceding any subsequent automatic renewal that would extend the contract beyond any additional consecutive and continuous twelve-month period.

(5) Notwithstanding any provision of this section to the contrary, this section does not apply to:

(a) A service provided by a person pursuant to a franchise issued by a political subdivision of the state or a license, franchise, certificate, or other authorization issued by the public utilities commission created in section 40-2-101;

(b) A service provided by a person that is regulated by the federal communications commission, the federal energy regulatory commission, or the public utilities commission created in section 40-2-101;

(c) An entity regulated by the division of insurance;

(d) A bank or bank holding company that is licensed under state or federal law, or a subsidiary or affiliate of such a bank or bank holding company;

(e) A credit union or other financial institution that is licensed under state or federal law; or

(f) An air carrier as defined in and regulated under the "Federal Aviation Act of 1958", 49 U.S.C. sec. 40101 et seq., as amended, including the federal "Airline Deregulation Act of 1978", 49 U.S.C. sec. 41713, as amended.

(6) The attorney general and the district attorneys of the state have exclusive authority to enforce this section.
C.R.S. § 6-1-711 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-711
6-1-711. Restrictions on credit card receipts - legislative declaration - application - d
Status: in_force

6-1-711. Restrictions on credit card receipts - legislative declaration - application - definitions. (1) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that credit, particularly the use of credit cards, is an important tool for consumers in today's economy. Unscrupulous persons often fraudulently use the credit card accounts of others by stealing the credit card itself or obtaining the necessary information to fraudulently charge the purchase of goods and services to another person's credit card account. The general assembly, therefore, finds, determines, and declares that protection from unauthorized use of credit card accounts is necessary.

(2) No person that accepts credit cards for the transaction of business shall print more than the last five digits of the credit card account number or print the credit card expiration date, or both, on a credit card receipt.

(3) This section shall apply only to receipts that are electronically printed and shall not apply to transactions in which the sole means of recording the credit card number is by handwriting or by an imprint or copy of the credit card.

(4) For the purposes of this section, "credit card" means a card or device existing for the purpose of obtaining money, property, labor, or services on credit; those cards pursuant to which unpaid balances are payable upon demand; and any card or device used to withdraw moneys from a bank account.

(5) (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subsection (5), this section shall apply to any entity formed on and after April 25, 2002, that uses a cash register or any other machine or device that electronically imprints receipts on credit card transactions and is placed into service on or after April 25, 2002.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subsection (5), on and after January 1, 2004, this section shall apply to any cash register and any other machine or device that electronically imprints receipts on credit card transactions for entities that were formed on or before April 25, 2002.

(c) On and after January 1, 2005, this section shall apply to:

(I) Institutions of higher education; and

(II) Persons who employ no more than twenty-five employees or who have generated no more than five million dollars annually in revenues from the person's business activities.
C.R.S. § 6-16-110 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-110
6-16-110. Charitable sales promotions
Status: in_force

6-16-110. Charitable sales promotions. (1) The provisions of this article relating to commercial coventurers and charitable sales promotions shall apply only when a commercial coventurer reasonably expects that more than one-half of all proceeds of a solicitation campaign will be derived from transactions within the state of Colorado.

(2) A commercial coventurer shall disclose in each advertisement for a charitable sales promotion the dollar amount or percent per unit of goods or services purchased or used that will benefit the charitable organization or purpose. If the actual dollar amount or percentage cannot reasonably be determined prior to the final date of the charitable sales promotion, the commercial coventurer shall disclose an estimated dollar amount or percentage. Any such estimate shall be reasonable and shall be based upon all of the relevant facts known to the commercial coventurer regarding the charitable sales promotion.

(3) A commercial entity which purchases at wholesale a product which is created, manufactured, or produced by a charitable organization for resale to the general public as part of the commercial entity's general stock of merchandise shall be exempt from the provisions of this article relating to commercial coventurers and charitable sales promotions.
C.R.S. § 6-13-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 13 / Part 1 / Section 6-13-101
6-13-101. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-13-101. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Copyright owner" means the owner of a copyright of a nondramatic musical or similar work recognized and enforceable under the copyright laws of the United States (17 U.S.C. sec. 101 et seq.). "Copyright owner" and "similar work" shall not include the owner of a copyright in a motion picture or audiovisual work, or in part of a motion picture or audiovisual work.

(2) "Nondramatic" means the public performance of a recorded, broadcast, or live musical work; except that "nondramatic" shall not mean the performance of a dramatic work including a play.

(3) "Performing rights society" means an association or corporation that licenses the public performance of nondramatic musical works on behalf of copyright owners such as the American society of composers, authors and publishers (ASCAP), Broadcast Music, Inc. (BMI), and SESAC, Inc.

(4) "Proprietor" means the owner of a retail establishment, including, but not limited to, a restaurant, bar, sports facility, or other place of business where nondramatic musical or similar copyrighted works may be performed, broadcast, or otherwise transmitted for the enjoyment of members of the general public.

(5) "Royalty" or "royalties" means the fees payable to a copyright owner or performing rights society for the public performance of nondramatic musical or other similar work.
C.R.S. § 6-10-109 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-109
6-10-109. Priority of claims - notice
Status: in_force

6-10-109. Priority of claims - notice. The assignee shall forthwith give notice of such assignment by publication for four weeks in some newspaper in the county, if any, and if none, then in the nearest county thereto. The assignee shall also forthwith send a notice by mail to each creditor of whom he shall be informed, directed to his usual place of residence, stating the estimate of the aggregate value of all the property of the assignor, the estimate of the amount of his liabilities, and notifying each creditor to present his claim, under oath, to the assignee within three months from the mailing of such notice. It is the duty of each creditor to present his claim in the manner and within the time mentioned in the notice. Claims filed within the first three months shall have priority over those filed thereafter, unless a creditor can show, to the satisfaction of the court, that he never received the notice. Proof of notice by mail shall be made by affidavit by the assignee giving a list of creditors and the name of the post office where notice was sent within ten days after the mailing of the same. Proof of the notice by publication shall be made by affidavit of the printer or publisher within ten days after the last publication or no fees shall be allowed the assignee for such notice by mail or publication.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1402 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 14 / Section 6-1-1402
6-1-1402. Disclosure of information by online marketplaces to inform consumers
Status: in_force

6-1-1402. Disclosure of information by online marketplaces to inform consumers. (1) Collection required. An online marketplace shall require a high-volume third-party seller participating in the online marketplace to provide the online marketplace with the following information within ten days after qualifying as a high-volume third-party seller:

(a) Bank account number or, if the high-volume third-party seller does not have a bank account, the name of the payee for payments issued by the online marketplace to the high-volume third-party seller. The bank account or payee information may be provided by the seller either:

(I) To the online marketplace; or

(II) To a payment processor or other third party contracted by the online marketplace to maintain the information, if the online marketplace ensures that it can obtain such information on demand from the payment processor or other third party.

(b) Contact information, including:

(I) If the high-volume third-party seller is an individual, the individual's name; or

(II) If the high-volume third-party seller is not an individual, either:

(A) A copy of a valid government-issued photo identification document for an individual acting on behalf of the high-volume third-party seller that includes the individual's name; or

(B) A copy of a valid government-issued record or tax document that includes the business name and physical address of the high-volume third-party seller;

(c) A business tax identification number or, if the high-volume third-party seller does not have a business tax identification number, an individual taxpayer identification number; and

(d) A current working e-mail address and phone number for the high-volume third-party seller.

(2) Notification. An online marketplace shall:

(a) Periodically, but not less than annually, notify any high-volume third-party seller on the online marketplace's platform of the requirement to keep any information collected under subsection (1) of this section current;

(b) Require any high-volume third-party seller on such online marketplace's platform, not later than ten days after receiving the notice under subsection (2)(a) of this section, to electronically certify that:

(I) The high-volume third-party seller has provided any changes to such information to the online marketplace, if such changes have occurred; or

(II) There have been no changes to the high-volume third-party seller's information; and

(c) If a high-volume third-party seller does not provide the information or certification required under subsection (1) of this section, and after the online marketplace provides the seller with written or electronic notice and an opportunity to provide such information or certification not later than ten days after the issuance of such notice, suspend any future sales activity of the seller on the online marketplace until the seller provides the information or certification.

(3) Verification required. (a) The online marketplace shall:

(I) Verify the information collected under subsection (1) of this section not later than ten days after the collection; and

(II) Verify any change to such information not later than ten days after being notified of the change by a high-volume third-party seller in response to the notice required by subsection (2)(a) of this section.

(b) In the case of a high-volume third-party seller that provides a copy of a valid government-issued tax document, any information contained in such document shall be presumed to be verified as of the date of issuance of the document.

(c) Data collected solely to comply with the requirements of this section may not be used for any other purpose unless required by law.

(d) To protect data that has been collected in compliance with this section from unauthorized use, disclosure, access, destruction, or modification, an online marketplace shall implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and practices, including administrative, physical, and technical safeguards, appropriate to the nature of the data and the purposes for which the data will be used.

(4) Disclosure required. (a) An online marketplace shall require a high-volume third-party seller with an aggregate total of twenty thousand dollars or more in annual gross revenues on the online marketplace, and that uses the online marketplace's platform, to provide, and, except as provided in subsection (4)(b) of this section, disclose to consumers in a conspicuous manner in the order confirmation message or other document or communication made to a consumer after a purchase is finalized and in the consumer's account transaction history:

(I) The full name of the seller, which may include the seller's name or the seller's company name, or the name by which the seller or company operates on the online marketplace;

(II) The physical address of the seller;

(III) Contact information for the seller, to allow users of the online marketplace to engage in direct, unhindered communication with the high-volume third-party seller, including a current working phone number, a current working e-mail address, or other means of direct electronic messaging that the online marketplace may provide for the high-volume third-party seller; and

(IV) Whether the high-volume third-party seller used a different seller to supply the consumer product to the consumer upon purchase, and, upon the request of an authenticated purchaser, the information described in subsections (4)(a)(I) to (4)(a)(III) of this section relating to any such seller that supplied the consumer product to the purchaser, if the seller is different than the high-volume third-party seller listed on the product listing prior to purchase.

(b) (I) Subject to subsection (4)(b)(II) of this section, upon the request of a high-volume third-party seller, an online marketplace may allow for the seller to provide partial disclosure of the identity information required pursuant to subsection (4)(a) of this section in the following situations:

(A) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to the online marketplace that the seller does not have a business address and only has a residential street address, or has a combined business and residential address, the online marketplace may disclose only the country and, if applicable, the state in which the high-volume third-party seller resides and may inform consumers that there is no business address available for the high-volume third-party seller and that consumer inquiries should be submitted to the high-volume third-party seller by telephone, e-mail address, or other means of electronic messaging that the online marketplace provides the seller.

(B) If the high-volume third-party seller certifies to the online marketplace that the seller is a business that has a separate physical address for product returns, the online marketplace may disclose only the seller's physical address for product returns.

(C) If a high-volume third-party seller certifies to the online marketplace that the seller does not have a telephone number other than a personal telephone number, the online marketplace shall inform consumers that there is no telephone number available for the seller and that consumer inquiries should be submitted to the seller's e-mail address, or other means of electronic messaging that the online marketplace provides the seller.

(II) If an online marketplace becomes aware that a high-volume third-party seller has made a false representation to the online marketplace in order to justify the provision of a partial disclosure pursuant to subsection (4)(b)(I) of this section or that a high-volume third-party seller that has requested and received an allowance for a partial disclosure pursuant to subsection (4)(b)(I) of this section has not provided responsive answers within a reasonable time frame to consumer inquiries submitted to the seller by telephone, e-mail address, or other means of electronic messaging that the online marketplace provides the seller, the online marketplace shall, after providing the seller with written or electronic notice and an opportunity to respond not later than ten days after the issuance of the notice, suspend any future sales activity of the seller unless the seller consents to the disclosure of the identity information required under subsection (4)(b)(I)(A) of this section.

(5) Reporting mechanism. An online marketplace shall disclose to consumers, in a clear and conspicuous manner on the product listing of any high-volume third-party seller, a reporting mechanism that allows for electronic and telephonic reporting of suspicious marketplace activity to the online marketplace.

(6) Compliance. If a high-volume third-party seller does not comply with the requirements to provide and disclose information under this section, the online marketplace shall, after providing the seller with written or electronic notice and an opportunity to provide or disclose such information not later than ten days after the issuance of such notice, suspend any future sales activity of such seller until the seller complies with the requirements.
C.R.S. § 6-1-709 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-709
6-1-709. Sales of manufactured and tiny homes - deceptive trade practices
Status: in_force

6-1-709. Sales of manufactured and tiny homes - deceptive trade practices. A person engages in a deceptive trade practice when, in the course of the person's business, vocation, or occupation, the person engages in conduct that constitutes an unlawful manufactured home sales practice or an unlawful tiny home sales practice, as either sales practice is described in section 24-32-3326.
C.R.S. § 6-27-204 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 27 / Part 2 / Section 6-27-204
6-27-204. Waivers void
Status: in_force

6-27-204. Waivers void. A contractual waiver of this part 2 is void because the waiver is contrary to public policy.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1503 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 15 / Section 6-1-1503
6-1-1503. Manufacturer obligations regarding services - exemptions
Status: in_force

6-1-1503. Manufacturer obligations regarding services - exemptions. (1) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1) is effective until January 1, 2026.] Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section:

(a) For the purpose of providing services for equipment in the state, an original equipment manufacturer shall, with fair and reasonable terms and costs, make available to an independent repair provider or owner of the manufacturer's equipment any documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data that are intended for use with the equipment or any part, including updates to documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data.

(b) With respect to equipment that contains an electronic security lock or other security- related function, a manufacturer shall, with fair and reasonable terms and costs, make available to independent repair providers and owners any documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data needed to reset the lock or function when disabled in the course of providing services. The manufacturer may make the documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data available to independent repair providers and owners through appropriate secure release systems.

(1) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1) is effective January 1, 2026.] Except as provided in subsections (2) and (5) of this section:

(a) (I) For the purpose of providing services for digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchairs in the state, an original equipment manufacturer shall, with fair and reasonable terms and costs, as applied to agricultural equipment or powered wheelchairs, or fair and reasonable terms and costs for digital electronic equipment, make available to an independent repair provider or owner of the manufacturer's digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchair any documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tools that are intended for use with the digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchair or any part, including updates to documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tools.

(II) A manufacturer shall make available to an independent repair provider or owner, on fair and reasonable terms, any documentation, embedded software, tool, part, or other device or implement that the manufacturer provides for effecting the services of maintenance, repair, or diagnosis on the manufacturer's digital electronic equipment.

(III) With respect to parts, a manufacturer complies with this subsection (1)(a) if a contractor makes the parts available to an independent repair provider or owner on behalf of the manufacturer.

(a.5) For the purpose of providing services for agricultural equipment in the state, a manufacturer shall, with fair and reasonable terms and costs and with owner authorization, make data available to an independent provider or owner, including updates to the data.

(b) (I) With respect to agricultural equipment or a powered wheelchair that contains an electronic security lock or other security- related function, a manufacturer shall, with fair and reasonable terms and costs, as applied to agricultural equipment or powered wheelchairs, make available to independent repair providers and owners any documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data needed to reset the lock or function when disabled in the course of providing services. The manufacturer may make the documentation, parts, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tools, or, with owner authorization, data available to independent repair providers and owners through appropriate secure release systems.

(II) The requirement set forth in subsection (1)(b)(I) of this section does not apply to digital electronic equipment.

(2) (a) Subsection (1) of this section does not apply to:

(I) A part that is no longer available to the original equipment manufacturer; and

(II) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(a)(II) is effective until January 1, 2026.] Conduct that would require the manufacturer to divulge a trade secret; except that a manufacturer shall not refuse to make available to an independent repair provider or owner any documentation, part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tool, or, with owner authorization, data necessary to provide services on grounds that the documentation, part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tool, or, with owner authorization, data itself is a trade secret.

(II) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(a)(II) is effective January 1, 2026.] Conduct that would require the original equipment manufacturer of digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchairs to divulge a trade secret; except that a manufacturer shall not refuse to make available to an independent repair provider or owner any documentation, part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tool, or, with owner authorization, data necessary to provide services on grounds that the documentation, part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, tool, or, with owner authorization, data itself is a trade secret.

(b) (I) A manufacturer may redact documentation to remove trade secrets from the documentation before providing access to the documentation if the usability of the redacted documentation for the purpose of providing services is not diminished.

(II) A manufacturer may withhold information regarding a component of, design of, functionality of, or process of developing a part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or a tool if the information is a trade secret and the usability of the part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tool for the purpose of providing services is not diminished.

(3) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (3) is effective until January 1, 2026.] Neither an original equipment manufacturer nor an equipment dealer is liable for faulty or otherwise improper repairs provided by independent repair providers or owners, including faulty or otherwise improper repairs that cause:

(3) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (3) is effective January 1, 2026.] Neither an original equipment manufacturer nor an agricultural equipment dealer is liable for faulty or otherwise improper repairs provided by independent repair providers or owners, including faulty or otherwise improper repairs that cause:

(a) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (3)(a) is effective until January 1, 2026.] Damage to powered wheelchairs or agricultural equipment that occurs during such repairs;

(a) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (3)(a) is effective January 1, 2026.] Damage to digital electronic equipment, powered wheelchairs, or agricultural equipment that occurs during such repairs;

(b) Any indirect, incidental, special, or consequential damages; or

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (3)(c) is effective until January 1, 2026.] An inability to use, or a reduced functionality of, a powered wheelchair or piece of agricultural equipment resulting from the faulty or otherwise improper repair.

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (3)(c) is effective January 1, 2026.] An inability to use, or a reduced functionality of, a piece of digital electronic equipment, powered wheelchair, or piece of agricultural equipment resulting from the faulty or otherwise improper repair.

(4) A manufacturer that provides data to an independent repair provider in compliance with this part 15 is neither responsible nor liable to the owner, the independent repair provider, or another party for any action that the independent repair provider or another party takes while using or relying on the data.

(5) [Editor's note: Subsection (5) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to digital electronic equipment, this part 15 does not apply to:

(a) A person acting in the person's official capacity as a motor vehicle manufacturer, manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment, or motor vehicle dealer;

(b) Any product or service of a person acting in the person's official capacity as a motor vehicle manufacturer, manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment, or motor vehicle dealer;

(c) A manufacturer or distributor of a medical device or any product or service that the manufacturer or distributor of a medical device offers; except that this part 15 applies to powered wheelchairs;

(d) Any digital electronic equipment product or software manufactured for use in a medical setting, including diagnostic, monitoring, or control digital equipment;

(e) Industrial, utility, construction, compact construction, mining, forestry, or road-building digital equipment;

(f) Electric vehicle charging infrastructure equipment;

(g) Outside-the-meter commercial or industrial electrical equipment, including power distribution equipment, and any tools, attachments, accessories, components, and replacement and repair parts of the electrical equipment;

(h) Portable generators, energy storage systems, fuel cell power systems, or power tools;

(i) Marine vessels, aviation, all-terrain sport vehicles, and recreational vehicles, including racing vehicles;

(j) Safety communications equipment, the intended use of which is for emergency response or prevention purposes by an emergency system organization, such as a police, fire, life safety, or medical and emergency rescue services agency;

(k) Equipment installed for the purpose of energy storage, renewable power generation, power management, or distribution;

(l) Set top boxes, modems, routers, or all-in-one devices delivering internet, video, and voice services that are distributed by a video, internet, or voice service provider if the service provider offers equivalent or better, readily available replacement equipment at no charge to the customer;

(m) Video game consoles; or

(n) Fire alarm systems, intrusion detection equipment that is provided with a security monitoring service, life safety systems, and physical access control equipment, including electronic keypads and similar building access control electronics.

(6) [Editor's note: Subsection (6) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to digital electronic equipment, nothing in this section:

(a) Requires a manufacturer to license any intellectual property, including obtaining a copyright or patent for any intellectual property, unless such licensing is necessary for providing services;

(b) Requires the distribution of a product's source code;

(c) Requires a manufacturer to make available special documentation, tools, or parts that would disable or override any privacy or anti-theft security measures for the owner's digital electronic equipment that the owner has set for the digital equipment;

(d) Requires a manufacturer to make available documentation or tools used exclusively for repairs that are completed by machines that operate on several pieces of digital electronic equipment simultaneously if the manufacturer makes available to owners and independent repair providers sufficient alternative documentation or tools for the diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment;

(e) Shall be construed to require any original equipment manufacturer or authorized repair provider to make available any parts, tools, or documentation required for the diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment in a manner that is inconsistent with or in violation of any federal laws, such as federal laws regarding gaming and entertainment consoles, related software, and components; or

(f) Requires a manufacturer to provide or make available a tool or documentation to an independent repair provider or owner if the manufacturer itself uses the tool or documentation only to perform, at no cost, diagnostic services virtually through use of a telephone, the internet, chat, e-mail, or other similar means of communication that do not involve the manufacturer physically handling the customer's digital electronic equipment, unless the manufacturer also makes the tool or documentation available to an individual or business that is unaffiliated with the manufacturer.

(7) [Editor's note: Subsection (7) is effective January 1, 2026.] (a) Except as provided in subsection (7)(b) of this section, for digital electronic equipment that is manufactured for the first time and sold or used in the state after January 1, 2026, a manufacturer shall not use parts pairing to:

(I) Prevent an independent repair provider or owner from installing or enabling, or inhibit an independent repair provider's or owner's ability to install or enable, the function of an otherwise functional replacement part or component of digital electronic equipment, including a replacement part or component that the manufacturer has not approved;

(II) Reduce the functionality or performance of digital electronic equipment; or

(III) Cause digital electronic equipment to display misleading alerts or warnings about unidentified parts, particularly if the alerts or warnings cannot immediately be dismissed by the owner.

(b) Nothing in this part 15 prohibits:

(I) The use of parts pairing to enable digital electronic equipment to record, catalog, and display information related to repairs done on that digital electronic equipment; or

(II) A manufacturer's use of parts pairing for standalone biometric components used for authentication purposes in digital electronic equipment, which components are not bundled in commonly replaced parts, such as a device's screen, keyboard, ports, or battery.

(8) [Editor's note: Subsection (8) is effective January 1, 2026.] Before providing services for digital electronic equipment, an independent repair provider shall provide the owner seeking services written notice, provided on site and in a conspicuous location at the independent repair provider's premises for providing services or provided in an e-mail to the owner, indicating:

(a) That the independent repair provider is not an authorized repair provider of the digital equipment's manufacturer; and

(b) Whether the independent repair provider, in providing services, uses any new or used replacement parts obtained from a supplier other than the manufacturer.

(9) [Editor's note: Subsection (9) is effective January 1, 2026.] An original equipment manufacturer is not responsible for the quality or functionality of parts provided by a third-party parts manufacturer.

(10) [Editor's note: Subsection (10) is effective January 1, 2026.] Nothing in this part 15 authorizes an owner or independent repair provider to alter digital electronic equipment in a manner that brings the equipment out of compliance with any applicable federal or state laws, including any applicable federal or state rules or regulations.
C.R.S. § 6-20-203 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 20 / Part 2 / Section 6-20-203
6-20-203. Limitations on collection actions - definition
Status: in_force

6-20-203. Limitations on collection actions - definition. (1) Beginning June 1, 2022, impermissible extraordinary collection actions may not be used by any medical creditor to collect debts owed for hospital services.

(2) Beginning June 1, 2022, no medical creditor collecting on a debt for hospital services shall engage in any permissible extraordinary collection actions until one hundred eighty-two days after the date the patient receives hospital services.

(3) (a) Beginning September 1, 2022, at least thirty days before taking any permissible extraordinary collection action, a medical creditor, as defined in section 6-20-201 (6)(a), collecting on a debt for hospital services shall notify the patient of potential collection actions and shall include with the notice a statement developed by the department of health care policy and financing that explains the availability of discounted care for qualified individuals and how to apply for such care.

(b) (I) A medical creditor, as defined in section 6-20-201 (6)(b), (6)(c), or (6)(d), collecting on a debt for hospital services shall include the following statement in the notices the medical creditor provides to the patient pursuant to section 5-16-109 (1) and 15 U.S.C. sec. 1692g (a): "Pursuant to Colorado law, discounts for hospital services are available for qualified individuals." The statement must include a link to the written explanation of the patient's rights that is posted to the department of health care policy and financing's website pursuant to section 25.5-3-505 (5)(a).

(II) A medical creditor, as defined section 6-20-201 (6)(b), (6)(c), or (6)(d), shall not take any permissible extraordinary collection actions until the later of thirty days from the date of sending the notice required pursuant to subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section or the completion of the validation requirements described in section 5-16-109 (2) and 15 U.S.C. sec. 1692g (b).

(4) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (4) is effective until July 1, 2025.] Beginning September 1, 2022, if a medical creditor collecting on a debt for hospital services bills or initiates collection activities and it is later determined that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 and is determined to be a qualified patient, as defined in section 25.5-3-501 (5), or it is determined that the patient's bill is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program or the Colorado indigent care program, the medical creditor shall:

(4) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (4) is effective July 1, 2025.] Beginning September 1, 2022, if a medical creditor collecting on a debt for hospital services bills or initiates collection activities and it is later determined that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 and is determined to be a qualified patient, as defined in section 25.5-3-501 (5), or it is determined that the patient's bill is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program, the medical creditor shall:

(a) Delete any negative reports to consumer reporting agencies;

(b) (I) Unless prohibited by law, if the court has entered a judgment on the medical debt:

(A) Request the court vacate the judgment in any collection lawsuit over the medical debt and enter into a payment plan with the patient that meets the requirements of section 25.5-3-503 (1)(b); or

(B) Request the court reduce the amount of the judgment, including any fees and costs related to the collection lawsuit, to the total amount the patient owes pursuant to the public health-care coverage program or discounted care policy that the patient qualifies for, enter into a payment plan with the patient that meets the requirements of section 25.5-3-503 (1)(b), and suspend all execution on the judgment while the patient is compliant with the terms of the payment plan; or

(C) File a satisfaction of judgment such that the remaining unpaid balance of the judgment, including any fees and costs related to the collection lawsuit, is equal to the total amount the patient owes under the public health-care coverage program or discounted care policy that the patient qualifies for, enter into a payment plan with the patient that meets the requirements of section 25.5-3-503 (1)(b), and suspend all execution on the judgment while the patient is compliant with the terms of the payment plan.

(II) For the purposes of subsections (4)(b)(I)(B) and (4)(b)(I)(C) of this section, the court shall refund to the parties any fees and costs paid to the court in connection with the litigation of the medical debt and the health-care provider shall indemnify the medical creditor for any fees awarded as part of the judgment in connection with the medical debt.

(c) As the term "medical creditor" is defined in section 6-20-201 (6)(a), refund any excess amount to the patient if the patient has paid any part of the medical debt or if any of the patient's money has been seized or levied in excess of the amount that the patient owes after application of required discounts;

(d) As the term "medical creditor" is defined in sections 6-20-201 (6)(b), (6)(c), and (6)(d), if the patient has paid any part of the medical debt or if any of the patient's money has been seized or levied in excess of the amount that the patient owes after application of required discounts, refund any excess amount to the patient to the extent the medical creditor has not already remitted such an amount to the health-care provider; and

(e) Remedy any other permissible extraordinary collection action.

(5) Beginning September 1, 2022, a medical creditor collecting on a debt for hospital services shall not sell a medical debt to another party unless, prior to the sale, the medical debt seller has entered into a legally binding written agreement with the medical debt buyer of the debt pursuant to which:

(a) The medical debt buyer agrees not to pursue impermissible extraordinary collection actions to obtain payment for the care;

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(b) is effective until July 1, 2025.] The debt is returnable to or recallable by the medical debt seller upon a determination that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-502 and is eligible for discounted care pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 or that the bill underlying the medical debt is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program or the Colorado indigent care program; and

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(b) is effective July 1, 2025.] The debt is returnable to or recallable by the medical debt seller upon a determination that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-502 and is eligible for discounted care pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 or that the bill underlying the medical debt is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program; and

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(c) is effective until July 1, 2025.] If it is determined that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-502 and is eligible for discounted care pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 or that the bill underlying the medical debt is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program or the Colorado indigent care program and the debt is not returned to or recalled by the medical debt seller, the medical debt buyer shall adhere to procedures that must be specified in the agreement that ensures the patient will not pay, and has no obligation to pay, the medical debt buyer and the medical creditor together more than the patient is personally responsible for paying.

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(c) is effective July 1, 2025.] If it is determined that the patient should have been screened pursuant to section 25.5-3-502 and is eligible for discounted care pursuant to section 25.5-3-503 or that the bill underlying the medical debt is eligible for reimbursement through a public health-care coverage program and the debt is not returned to or recalled by the medical debt seller, the medical debt buyer shall adhere to procedures that must be specified in the agreement that ensures the patient will not pay, and has no obligation to pay, the medical debt buyer and the medical creditor together more than the patient is personally responsible for paying.

(6) The medical debt seller shall indemnify the medical debt buyer for any amount paid for a debt that is returned to or recalled by the medical debt seller.

(7) Nothing in this section limits or affects a health-care provider's right to pursue against any party other than the patient the collection of personal injury, liability, uninsured, underinsured, medical payment rehabilitation, disability, homeowner's, business owner's, workers' compensation, fault-based insurance, subrogated claims, or other claims not against the patient.
C.R.S. § 6-1-908 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 9 / Section 6-1-908
6-1-908. Severability
Status: in_force

6-1-908. Severability. If any provision of this part 9 or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this part 9 which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this part 9 are declared to be severable.
C.R.S. § 6-24-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 24 / Section 6-24-101
6-24-101. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-24-101. Definitions. As used in this article 24, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Burial memorial" means any type of gravestone, tombstone, headstone, memorial, monument, or marker that commemorates the permanent disposition of the remains of a human body either below or above the surface of the ground.

(2) "Cemetery" means any place, including a mausoleum, in which there is provided space either below or above the surface of the ground for the interment of the remains of human bodies. "Cemetery" does not include a cemetery that is owned, operated, or maintained by a government or governmental agency, by a church or synagogue, by a labor organization, by a cooperative association as defined in section 7-55-101, by a corporation organized and operated exclusively for religious purposes, or by a fraternal society, order, or association operating under the lodge system and exempt from the payment of state income tax and that has as its main business something other than the ownership, operation, or maintenance of any business connected with the burial of the dead.

(3) "Cemetery authority" means any person who owns, maintains, or operates a cemetery.

(4) "Endowment care cemetery" means any cemetery, the authority of which does, or represents to the public that it does, collect funds for the purpose of caring for, maintaining, or embellishing the cemetery to preserve it from becoming unkempt or a place of reproach and desolation. It does not include a cemetery which is owned, operated, or maintained by a government or governmental agency, by a church, by a labor organization, by a cooperative association as defined in section 7-55-101, by a corporation organized and operated exclusively for religious purposes, or by a fraternal society, order, or association operating under the lodge system and exempt from the payment of state income tax and which has as its main purpose something other than the ownership, operation, or maintenance of any business connected with burial of the dead.

(5) "Grave space" means any space in the ground for the interment of the remains of a human body.

(6) "Inscription" means any words or symbols on a burial memorial.

(7) "Interment" means the permanent disposition of the remains of a deceased person by cremation, inurnment, entombment, or burial.

(8) "Niche" or "crypt" means a space in any structure above the ground for the interment of the remains of a human body.

(9) "Nonendowment care cemetery" means any cemetery other than an endowment care cemetery.

(10) "Person" means a person as defined by section 2-4-401 (8).
C.R.S. § 6-1-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-103
6-1-103. Attorney general and district attorneys concurrently responsible for enforcement
Status: in_force

6-1-103. Attorney general and district attorneys concurrently responsible for enforcement. The attorney general and the district attorneys of the several judicial districts of this state are concurrently responsible for the enforcement of this article 1. Until the Colorado supreme court adopts a venue provision relating to this article 1, actions instituted pursuant to this article 1 may be brought in the county where an alleged deceptive trade practice occurred or where any portion of a transaction involving an alleged deceptive trade practice occurred, or in the county where the principal place of business of any defendant is located, or in the county in which any defendant resides. An action under this article 1 brought by the attorney general or a district attorney does not require proof that a deceptive trade practice has a significant public impact.
C.R.S. § 6-1-402 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 4 / Section 6-1-402
6-1-402. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-1-402. Definitions. As used in this part 4, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Collateral costs" means expenses incurred by a consumer in connection with the repair of a nonconformity in a wheelchair, including the cost of an alternative wheelchair, if a loaner, as that term is defined in subsection (8) of this section, was not offered to the consumer, or other assistive device or service for mobility assistance. "Collateral costs" shall not include the cost of hiring a personal assistant.

(2) "Consumer" means:

(a) A purchaser of a wheelchair, if the wheelchair was purchased from a wheelchair dealer or manufacturer for purposes other than resale;

(b) A person to whom a wheelchair is transferred for purposes other than resale, if such transfer occurs before the expiration of the express warranty applicable to such wheelchair;

(c) A person who may enforce the express warranty applicable to a wheelchair; or

(d) A person who leases a wheelchair from a wheelchair lessor under a written lease.

(3) "Dealer" means a person or entity that is in the business of selling wheelchairs or any agents of that person or entity. "Dealer" includes an alternative warranty service provider.

(4) (a) "Early termination cost" means any expense or obligation that a wheelchair lessor incurs as a result of:

(I) Terminating a written lease before the termination date set forth in the lease; and

(II) Returning the wheelchair to the manufacturer.

(b) "Early termination cost" includes any prepayment penalty under a finance arrangement.

(5) "Early termination savings" means any expense or obligation that a wheelchair lessor avoids as a result of performing the acts described in paragraph (a) of subsection (4) of this section. "Early termination savings" includes any interest charge that the wheelchair lessor would have paid to finance the wheelchair or, if the wheelchair lessor did not finance the wheelchair, the difference between the total amount the lessee was obligated to pay over the period of the lease term remaining after the early termination date and the present value of that amount on the early termination date.

(6) "Express warranty" means an express warranty as set forth in sections 4-2-313 and 4-2.5-210, C.R.S. An express warranty shall cover every part of a new wheelchair except the tires and batteries.

(7) "Lessor" means a person or entity that leases a wheelchair to a consumer or that holds the lessor's rights under a written lease or any agents of that person or entity.

(8) "Loaner" means a wheelchair that is provided to the consumer for use free of charge that is not required to have the functional capabilities equal to or greater than those of the original wheelchair but that meets the following conditions:

(a) It is in good working order;

(b) It performs at a minimum the most essential functions of the original wheelchair in light of the disabilities of the user;

(c) It is usable by the consumer given the consumer's impairments; and

(d) Any difference between the loaner and the original wheelchair does not create a threat to safety.

(9) "Manufacturer" means a person or entity that manufactures or assembles wheelchairs and any agents of that person or entity, including an importer, a distributor, an authorized servicer, a factory branch, a distributor branch, and warrantors of the manufacturer's wheelchairs. "Manufacturer" does not include a dealer.

(10) "Modular assembly" means a device added to the wheelchair base to accommodate the special needs of the consumer, such as seating systems, tilt or recline systems, and specially adapted control modules.

(11) "Nonconformity" means a defect that substantially impairs the use, reliability, value, or safety of a wheelchair and that is covered by an express warranty applicable to such wheelchair or a component of such wheelchair. "Nonconformity" does not include a defect that is the result of abuse, neglect, or the unauthorized modification or alteration of a wheelchair by a consumer.

(12) "Reasonable attempt to repair" means that one of the following has occurred within the term of an express warranty applicable to a new wheelchair or within one year after first delivery of a wheelchair to a consumer, whichever occurs earlier:

(a) The same nonconformity is subject to repair at least three times by the manufacturer, lessor, or any of the manufacturer's authorized dealers; or

(b) Because of a nonconformity, the wheelchair cannot be used by the consumer for an aggregate of at least thirty days or ten consecutive business days.

(13) "Replacement wheelchair" means a wheelchair of comparable quality, size, and function.

(14) "Selling dealer" means the entity that originally sold the wheelchair to the consumer and was involved in the design, assembly, fitting, and education of the consumer on the use and maintenance of the wheelchair.

(15) "Specialty control module" means the technologically advanced electronic device of limited availability that contains the signal and output circuitry for a power wheelchair designed and assembled for use by a specific individual with severe limitations who is unable to use a standard control module.

(16) "Standard wheelchair" means a wheelchair that has seat width and depth dimensions of sixteen to eighteen inches.

(17) "Wheelchair" means any wheelchair, scooter, or modular assembly, including a demonstrator, that is motor driven or manually operated that a consumer purchases or accepts transfer of in this state for the purposes of mobility assistance.
C.R.S. § 6-1-404 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 4 / Section 6-1-404
6-1-404. Remedies
Status: in_force

6-1-404. Remedies. (1) If a new wheelchair does not conform to the applicable express warranty and the consumer reports the nonconformity to the manufacturer, the lessor, the selling dealer, or the alternative warranty service provider, and makes the wheelchair available for repair within the warranty period, the nonconformity shall be repaired at no charge to the consumer. Any repairs performed pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be warranted for a period not less than the original warranty period. When the wheelchair is not safely moveable and there is no reasonable way for the consumer to deliver the wheelchair to the manufacturer or dealer, the manufacturer or dealer shall be responsible for the return of the wheelchair, or the wheelchair may be repaired on site at the option of the dealer.

(2) If the manufacturer authorizes the dealer or lessor to make the repair, the dealer or lessor shall make the repair and then be reimbursed by the manufacturer for the dealer's or lessor's cost for parts, labor, and repair if the nonconformity is a manufacturer's defect. A manufacturer shall respond to the dealer's or lessor's request for authorization to make a repair by the end of the business day that immediately follows the day such a request is made.

(3) When a wheelchair covered by an express warranty is tendered by a consumer to the manufacturer, selling dealer, alternative warranty service provider, or lessor for the repair of a defect, malfunction, or nonconformity to which the warranty is applicable, the consumer shall receive a loaner if the out-of-service period exceeds one day and shall keep the loaner until the requirements of section 6-1-405 or 6-1-406 are fulfilled. If the required loaner is not a standard wheelchair, the manufacturer or dealer shall make a good faith effort to make available alternative equipment that is usable by the consumer. The cost of the loaner shall be borne by the entity responsible for the defect requiring the repair or replacement of the wheelchair as provided in this section. The consumer shall have the duty to care for the loaner properly and to protect against any damage to the chair.

(4) If a nonconformity is not repaired after a reasonable attempt to repair, the manufacturer or dealer who originally supplied or modified the wheelchair, as required by this section, shall:

(a) If the wheelchair was purchased, take the following action at the direction of the consumer:

(I) Accept a return of the wheelchair, provide a replacement wheelchair of equal or greater value, and refund any collateral costs to the consumer, a holder of a perfected security interest in the wheelchair, or a third-party purchaser; or

(II) Accept a return of the wheelchair and refund to the consumer, holder of a perfected security interest in the wheelchair, or third-party purchaser not more than the full purchase price plus any finance charge, sales tax, shipping costs, and collateral costs paid;

(b) If the wheelchair was leased, take all of the following actions at the direction of the consumer:

(I) Accept a return of the wheelchair;

(II) (A) Refund to the lessor and any holder of a perfected security interest in the wheelchair the current value of the written lease.

(B) For purposes of this subparagraph (II), "current value of the written lease" means the sum of the total amount for which the consumer is obligated during the term of the lease remaining after the early termination date, the dealer's early termination costs, and the value of the wheelchair on the lease expiration date, if the lease sets forth that value, less the lessor's early termination savings.

(III) Refund to the consumer or third-party purchaser the amount paid under the lease plus any collateral costs.

(5) (a) In the event that a dispute arises as to liability under this part 4 between or among a manufacturer, dealer, lessor, or consumer, and the consumer is covered by any third-party insurer, such third-party insurer shall not be relieved of any obligation to provide benefits covered under its plan or applicable law.

(b) In the event that a wheelchair is found to be defective, the third-party payor described in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5) shall have all rights of recovery, including the right to costs, that the consumer would have had under this part 4.
C.R.S. § 6-1-112 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-112
6-1-112. Civil penalties - definition
Status: in_force

6-1-112. Civil penalties - definition. (1) The attorney general or a district attorney may bring a civil action on behalf of the state to seek the imposition of civil penalties as follows:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, any person who violates or causes another to violate any provision of this article 1 shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of this state a civil penalty of not more than twenty thousand dollars for each such violation. For purposes of this subsection (1)(a), a violation of any provision shall constitute a separate violation with respect to each consumer or transaction involved.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, any person who violates or causes another to violate any court order or injunction issued pursuant to this article 1 shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of this state a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each such violation. For the purposes of this section, the court issuing the order or injunction shall retain jurisdiction, and the cause shall be continued. Upon violation, the attorney general or a district attorney may petition the court for the recovery of the civil penalty. Such civil penalty shall be in addition to any other penalty or remedy available for the enforcement of the provisions of this article 1 and any court order or injunction.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, any person who violates or causes another to violate any provision of this article 1, where such violation was committed against an elderly person, shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not more than fifty thousand dollars for each such violation. For purposes of this subsection (1)(c), a violation of any provision of this article 1 is a separate violation with respect to each elderly person involved.

(d) Any person who violates or causes another to violate the provisions of section 6-1-105 (1)(fff) by distributing, dispensing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling any product that is labeled as a "bath salt" or any other trademark if the product contains any amount of any cathinones, as defined in section 18-18-102 (3.5), C.R.S., shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not less than ten thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars for each such violation; except that the person shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not less than twenty-five thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars for each such violation if the person distributes, dispenses, displays for sale, offers for sale, attempts to sell, or sells the product to a minor under the age of eighteen and the person is at least eighteen years of age and at least two years older than the minor.

(e) Any person who violates or causes another to violate the provisions of section 6-1-105 (1)(ggg) by distributing, dispensing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling any product that contains any amount of any synthetic cannabinoid, as defined in section 18-18-102 (34.5), C.R.S., shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not less than ten thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars for each violation; except that the person shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not less than twenty-five thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars for each violation if the person distributes, dispenses, displays for sale, offers for sale, attempts to sell, or sells the product to a minor under the age of eighteen and the person is at least eighteen years of age and at least two years older than the minor.

(f) (I) Any person who violates section 6-16-111 (1)(a) to (1)(g) shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars for each violation, with a cap of three million dollars for a related series of violations. In determining a civil penalty under this subsection (1)(f), the court shall adjust the limitations cap for inflation based on the cumulative annual adjustment for inflation for each full year since August 10, 2016. The adjustments made under this subsection (1)(f)(I) are rounded upward or downward to the nearest ten-dollar increment. As used in this subsection (1)(f)(I), "inflation" means the annual percentage change in the United States department of labor's bureau of labor statistics consumer price index for Denver-Aurora-Lakewood for all items paid by all urban consumers, or its applicable predecessor or successor index.

(II) Any civil penalty recovered under this paragraph (f) is paid to the attorney general and held as custodial money. The attorney general shall petition the district court having jurisdiction over the underlying civil enforcement action for approval to grant the custodial money to a charity in accordance with the cy pres doctrine within two years after receipt by the attorney general.

(2) For accounting purposes, a fine or penalty received by the state under this article 1 is a damage award.

(3) The attorney general or district attorney shall transmit any civil penalty collected in accordance with this section for a violation described in section 6-1-105 (1)(dddd) to the state treasurer for deposit in the mobile home park water quality fund created in section 25-8-1006.
C.R.S. § 6-1-504 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 5 / Section 6-1-504
6-1-504. Remedies for consumers of purchased facilitative devices - conditions
Status: in_force

6-1-504. Remedies for consumers of purchased facilitative devices - conditions. (1) To receive a refund or a replacement facilitative device, the consumer of a purchased facilitative device shall first offer to transfer the facilitative device with the nonconformity to the manufacturer, selling dealer, or alternative warranty service provider.

(2) Within thirty business days after receipt of the offer described in subsection (1) of this section, the manufacturer or dealer shall provide the consumer with a refund or a replacement facilitative device.

(3) When a manufacturer or dealer provides a consumer with a refund or a replacement facilitative device, such consumer shall return the facilitative device with the nonconformity to the manufacturer or dealer with any endorsements necessary to transfer possession to the manufacturer or dealer.
C.R.S. § 6-1-904 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 9 / Section 6-1-904
6-1-904. Unlawful to make telephone solicitations to subscribers on the Colorado no-call
Status: repealed

6-1-904. Unlawful to make telephone solicitations to subscribers on the Colorado no-call list - requirements for telephone solicitations generally. (1) (a) No person or entity shall make or cause to be made any telephone solicitation to the telephone of any residential subscriber or wireless telephone service subscriber in this state who has added his or her telephone number and zip code to the Colorado no-call list in accordance with rules promulgated under section 6-1-905.

(b) Any person or entity that makes a telephone solicitation to the telephone of any residential subscriber or wireless telephone service subscriber in this state shall register in accordance with the provisions of section 6-1-905 (3)(b)(II).

(2) Repealed.

(3) No person or entity that makes a telephone solicitation to the telephone of a residential subscriber or a wireless telephone service subscriber in this state shall knowingly utilize any method to block or otherwise circumvent such subscriber's use of a caller identification service when that person or entity's service or equipment is capable of allowing the display of the number.

(4) Persons or entities desiring to make telephone solicitations shall update their copies of the Colorado no-call list, conforming consolidated no-call list, or a list obtained from a conforming list broker within thirty days after the beginning of every calendar quarter, on or after July 1, 2002, or upon the initial availability and accessibility of the Colorado no-call list, whichever is earlier.