C.R.S. § 6-7.5-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-103
6-7.5-103. Low-efficiency plumbing fixtures
Status: repealed

6-7.5-103. Low-efficiency plumbing fixtures. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-24-106 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 24 / Section 6-24-106
6-24-106. Endowment care fund
Status: in_force

6-24-106. Endowment care fund. (1) A cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery shall establish an irrevocable endowment care fund for each endowment care cemetery owned, maintained, or operated by it in a state bank or trust company authorized to act as fiduciary and under the supervision of the banking board or in a national banking association authorized to act as fiduciary or in a state or federally chartered savings and loan association authorized to act as a fiduciary. The endowment care fund shall be invested in investments lawful for trustees, which shall not include investments in nor mortgages on property owned or contracted for by the cemetery authority or any owned or affiliated company.

(2) (a) A cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery shall make deposits in the endowment care fund or, if it operates more than one endowment care fund, in the appropriate endowment care fund, in accordance with one of the following plans:

(I) Plan A:

It shall deposit in the fund not more than thirty days after any sale is completed at least fifteen percent of the sales price of any grave space and at least ten percent of the sales price of any crypt or niche, and in case any sale has not been completed within sixty months after date of first payment, it shall deposit in the fund, not later than one month after the sixtieth month, at least fifteen percent of the sales price of any grave space and at least ten percent of the sales price of any crypt or niche. A sale is completed at the time the final payment is made and no balance remains due to the cemetery authority, whether or not a deed has been issued. If a contract of sale is rewritten, the date of the first payment under the original contract of sale shall be the date of first payment under the rewritten contract of sale.

(II) Plan B:

It shall deposit, not later than thirty days after the end of the fiscal year in which the payments are received, fifteen percent of all payments received on account of the sale of any grave space and at least ten percent of all payments received on account of the sale of a niche or crypt. This deposit requirement applies to all uncompleted sales contracts that carry an endowment care provision.

(III) Plan C: (applicable only to sale of niches or crypts in a mausoleum)

It shall deposit in its endowment care fund for the mausoleum, not later than thirteen months after the end of its fiscal year in which any sale is completed, at least ten percent of the sale price of any niche or crypt, and in case any sale has not been completed within twenty-four months after date of first payment, it shall deposit in the fund, not later than one month after the end of its fiscal year in which the last day of the twenty-four month period occurs, at least ten percent of the sales price of any niche or crypt. A sale is completed at the time the final payment is made and no balance remains due to the cemetery authority, whether or not a deed has been issued. If a contract of sale is rewritten, the date of first payment under the original contract of sale shall be the date of first payment under the rewritten contract of sale.

(b) As to any endowment care cemetery in operation on July 1, 1965, this subsection (2) shall only apply to all sales contracts entered into on or after the date.

(3) (a) The cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery, before commencing operation, on or after July 1, 1965, shall have on deposit in the endowment care fund a sum in accordance with the following scale:

For 10,000 or less population $10,000

For more than 10,000 but less than 20,000 population $15,000

For 20,000 but less than 25,000 population $20,000

For 25,000 or more population $25,000

(b) "Population" means the people residing within a twenty-mile radius of the location of the endowment care cemetery, the population figure to be taken from the latest federal decennial census.

(c) The cemetery authority for the endowment care cemetery shall thereafter make deposits in accordance with subsection (2) of this section. When the deposits have reached twice the amount stated in the above table, the cemetery authority may withdraw the sum of the initial deposit in amounts equal to the amounts deposited thereafter until the initial deposit has been withdrawn.

(4) A cemetery authority of a nonendowment care cemetery which converts to operation as an endowment care cemetery on or after July 1, 1965, shall deposit in its endowment care fund the sum of ten thousand dollars before making any further sale of any grave space or niche or crypt. The cemetery authority for the cemetery shall thereafter make deposits in accordance with subsection (2) of this section until total deposits into the endowment care fund have reached twenty thousand dollars. It may thereafter withdraw from the initial ten thousand dollar deposit amounts equal to the amounts of deposits thereafter made until the entire ten thousand dollar initial deposit has been withdrawn and replaced by deposits in accordance with subsection (2) of this section.

(5) The cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery that constructs foundations for the setting of markers or memorials and receives payment for the care of the markers or memorials as part of the cost of foundation construction, setting charges, or itemized endowment requirements shall deposit all of the care payments in their irrevocable endowment care fund not later than one month after the end of its fiscal year in which the payments are received.

(6) The cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery shall keep in its principal office a copy of the report referred to in section 6-24-107, which shall be available to any grave space, niche, or crypt owner or his or her duly authorized representative for inspection and study.

(7) (a) The endowment care fund, for all purposes, shall constitute a nonprofit irrevocable trust fund. The fiduciary shall not distribute principal from an endowment care fund; except that principal may be distributed from the fund to the extent that a unitrust election is in effect under subsection (8)(a)(II) of this section.

(b) Endowment care is a provision for the benefit and protection of the public by preserving and keeping cemeteries from becoming unkempt and places of reproach and desolation in the communities in which they are situated. The income from the fund is for the benefit of the public for the purposes provided for in the trust agreement.

(8) (a) The cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery may choose the distribution as income of either of the following from the endowment care fund:

(I) All net income, including net realized capital gains; or

(II) An amount set and administered in accordance with part 3 of article 1.2 of title 15 for unitrust elections.

(b) (I) A cemetery authority may request that the fiduciary convert an endowment care fund to a unitrust. To take effect during a specific calendar year, the request must be made by delivering written instructions to the fund's fiduciary by November 2 of the year before the trust is converted. Once the fiduciary and the cemetery authority agree on the terms and conditions of conversion, the distribution method, and the distribution rate, these terms remain in effect until the fiduciary and the cemetery authority agree to a change.

(II) Disbursements from the trust shall be made on a monthly, quarterly, semi-annual, or annual basis, as agreed upon by the cemetery authority and the fiduciary. If the fiduciary and cemetery authority are in agreement, the fiduciary need not obtain any court approval or notify a court to set or change the timing of disbursements.

(III) The fiduciary is subject to part 3 of article 1.2 of title 15 when administering an endowment care fund for which the unitrust election has been made; except that, in the event of a conflict between this section and part 3 of article 1.2 of title 15, this section controls.

(c) If the fiduciary does not receive written instructions from the cemetery authority informing the fiduciary of the method of income distribution chosen, then the fiduciary shall calculate and disburse the earned net income under subsection (8)(a)(I) of this section on a monthly basis.
C.R.S. § 6-27-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 27 / Part 1 / Section 6-27-101
6-27-101. Short title
Status: in_force

6-27-101. Short title. The short title of this part 1 is the "Jessi Redfield Ghawi's Act For Gun Violence Victims' Access to Justice and Firearms Industry Accountability".
C.R.S. § 6-1-722 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-722
6-1-722. Gift certificates - validity - exemptions - definitions
Status: in_force

6-1-722. Gift certificates - validity - exemptions - definitions. (1) (a) As used in this section, "gift card" means a prefunded tangible or electronic record of a specific monetary value evidencing an issuer's agreement to provide goods, services, credit, money, or anything of value. A "gift card" includes, but is not limited to, a tangible card; electronic card; stored-value card; or certificate or similar instrument, card, or tangible record, all of which contain a microprocessor chip, magnetic chip, or other means for the storage of information and for which the value is decremented upon each use. A "gift card" does not include a prefunded tangible or electronic record issued by, or on behalf of, any government agency; a gift certificate that is issued only on paper; a prepaid telecommunications or technology card; a card or certificate issued to a consumer pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional program for which no money or other item of monetary value was exchanged; or a card that is donated or sold below face value at a volume discount to an employer or charitable organization for fundraising purposes.

(b) This section shall not apply to gift cards that are usable with multiple sellers of goods or services. This exception shall not apply to a gift card usable only with affiliated sellers of goods or services.

(2) On and after August 11, 2010, the issuer shall redeem the remaining value of a gift card for cash if the amount remaining is five dollars or less on request of the holder.

(3) It is unlawful for any person or entity to sell to a purchaser a gift card that contains a service fee, a dormancy fee, an inactivity fee, a maintenance fee, or any other type of fee.

(4) A violation of this section shall be deemed a deceptive trade practice as provided in section 6-1-105 (1)(ccc).
C.R.S. § 6-6.5-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 6.5 / Section 6-6.5-101
6-6.5-101. Disclosure to purchaser - penalty
Status: in_force

6-6.5-101. Disclosure to purchaser - penalty. (1) At least fourteen days prior to closing the sale of any new residence for human habitation, every developer or builder or their representatives shall provide the purchaser with a copy of a summary report of the analysis and the site recommendations. For sites in which significant potential for expansive soils is recognized, the builder or his representative shall supply each buyer with a copy of a publication detailing the problems associated with such soils, the building methods to address these problems during construction, and suggestions for care and maintenance to address such problems.

(2) In addition to any other liability or penalty, any builder or developer failing to provide the report or publication required by subsection (1) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars payable to the purchaser.

(3) The requirements of this section shall not apply to any individual constructing a residential structure for his own residence.
C.R.S. § 6-10-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-101
6-10-101. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-10-101. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Person" means individuals, partnerships, associations, and corporations.

(2) "Property" means all goods, chattels and effects, real, personal and mixed property, money, rights and credits, and choses in action except property which is by law not subject to levy and sale under execution.
C.R.S. § 6-1-207 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 2 / Section 6-1-207
6-1-207. Adaptive equipment in rental motor vehicles - requirements - failure to comply -
Status: in_force

6-1-207. Adaptive equipment in rental motor vehicles - requirements - failure to comply - legislative declaration - definitions. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(I) The federal "Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990", 42 U.S.C. sec. 12182 (a), states that "[n]o individual shall be discriminated against on the basis of disability in the full and equal enjoyment of the goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations of any place of public accommodation";

(II) For the purposes of 42 U.S.C. sec. 12182 (a), discrimination includes "a failure to make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures, when such modifications are necessary to afford such goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations to individuals with disabilities", unless the accommodation would work a fundamental alteration of those services and facilities;

(III) The United States department of justice has found at least one rental car agency to be a public accommodation under the federal "Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990", 42 U.S.C. sec. 12182 (a);

(IV) Certain adaptive equipment can be necessary for persons with a disability to drive an automobile; and

(V) The provision of such adaptative equipment is reasonable and not a fundamental alteration of the services provided by a rental car agency.

(b) Therefore, it is the intent of the general assembly in enacting this section to prevent discrimination against persons with a disability by requiring that such persons have the ability to make online reservations for automobiles with adaptive equipment with rental car agencies that rent at least some motor vehicles with a gross weight of less than four thousand pounds.

(2) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Adaptive equipment" means hand controls, left foot accelerators, spinner knobs, and pedal extenders.

(b) "Lessee" means any person or organization obtaining, or attempting to obtain, the use of a rental motor vehicle from a lessor under the terms of a rental agreement.

(c) "Lessor" means any person or organization in the business of providing rental motor vehicles of which some have a gross weight of less than four thousand pounds to the public, excluding a person or organization that is in the business of operating an online platform to connect third-party vehicle owners with third-party vehicle drivers to enable peer-to-peer car sharing, as defined in section 6-1-1202 (2), within Colorado.

(d) "Person with a disability" means a person who is considered to have a disability, as that term is defined in 42 U.S.C. sec. 12102.

(e) "Remote location" means a location of the lessor's business that is more than a two hour drive from the Denver International Airport.

(f) "Small business" means a lessor that owns no more than fifty motor vehicles.

(3) Lessors shall provide an option for lessees to request the installation of adaptive equipment while making rental motor vehicle reservations on the lessor's website and during in-person reservations.

(4) Lessors shall conspicuously incorporate into any reservation or reservation confirmation that includes a request for adaptive equipment:

(a) A list of the adaptive equipment requested by the lessee;

(b) Acknowledgment by the lessor that it will provide the adaptive equipment requested by the lessee; and

(c) The date and time that the lessor will provide the lessee with a rental motor vehicle with adaptive equipment installed and ready for use.

(5) (a) A lessor must fulfill a reservation made by a lessee for the provision of a motor vehicle with adaptive equipment within forty-eight hours of the lessor receiving the reservation, unless the lessee requests that the lessor provide the motor vehicle at the lessor's business location at the Denver International Airport or at a remote location of the lessor's business.

(b) A lessor must fulfill a reservation made by a lessee for the provision of a motor vehicle with adaptive equipment at the lessor's business location at the Denver International Airport within eight working hours after the lessor receives the reservation and an employee trained in the installation of adaptive equipment is on duty at the lessor's business location at the Denver International Airport.

(c) A lessor must fulfill a reservation by a lessee for the provision of a motor vehicle with adaptive equipment at a remote location of the lessor's business within seventy-two hours of the lessor receiving the reservation.

(d) The requirements of this subsection (5) do not apply in the case of an occurrence of an event beyond the lessor's reasonable control, including severe weather, acts of God, or acts of terrorism.

(6) A lessee who is subject to a violation of this section by a small business occurring on or afer July 1, 2026, or by a lessor that is not a small business occurring on or after July 1, 2025, may bring a civil suit in a court of competent jurisdiction and is entitled to any of the following remedies:

(a) A statutory fine of two thousand five hundred dollars, payable to each plaintiff for each violation;

(b) The recovery of actual monetary damages;

(c) An award of attorney fees and costs to a lessee who prevails under this subsection (6);

(d) A court order requiring compliance with the applicable provisions of this section; and

(e) Any other equitable relief deemed appropriate by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(7) Nothing in this section limits the rights of persons with a disability provided under state or federal law related to discrimination.
C.R.S. § 6-16-104.3 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-104.3
6-16-104.3. Professional fundraising consultants - annual registration - fees
Status: in_force

6-16-104.3. Professional fundraising consultants - annual registration - fees. (1) No person shall act as a professional fundraising consultant without first complying with the requirements of this section.

(2) Every contract between a professional fundraising consultant and a charitable organization or sponsor shall be in writing and signed by an authorized official of the charitable organization. The professional fundraising consultant shall provide a copy of the contract to the charitable organization prior to the performance of any material services under the contract and shall make a copy of the contract available to the secretary of state upon request. The contract shall contain all of the following provisions:

(a) A statement of the charitable purpose for which the solicitation campaign is being conducted;

(b) A statement of the respective obligations of the professional fundraising consultant and the charitable organization;

(c) Whether the professional fundraising consultant will at any time have custody or control of contributions;

(d) A clear statement of the fees that will be paid to the professional fundraising consultant or, if the fees are to be calculated based on a percentage of contributions or other formula, a clear statement of the percentage or other formula; and

(e) The effective and termination dates of the contract.

(3) A professional fundraising consultant who at any time has or will have custody or control of contributions from a solicitation conducted on behalf of a charitable organization in this state shall also comply with the registration requirements of this section before performing any material services with respect to such solicitation.

(4) Applications for registration or renewal of registration must be submitted on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503, and must include the following information:

(a) The address and telephone number of the principal place of business of the applicant and the address and telephone number of any office located in this state if the principal place of business is located outside the state;

(a.5) The form of the applicant's business and, if the applicant is not an individual, the place and date when the applicant was incorporated or otherwise legally established;

(b) The name, address, and telephone number of the person that has custody of the applicant's financial records;

(c) If the applicant is not an individual, the names and addresses of the owners, officers, and executive personnel of the applicant;

(d) Whether the applicant or any of its owners, officers, directors, trustees, or employees have, within the immediately preceding five years, been convicted of, found guilty of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, been adjudicated a juvenile violator of, or been incarcerated for any felony involving fraud, theft, larceny, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of property or any crime arising from the conduct of a solicitation for a charitable organization or sponsor, under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States, and if so, the name of such person, the nature of the offense, the date of the offense, the court having jurisdiction in the case, the date of conviction or other disposition, and the disposition of the offense;

(e) Whether the applicant or any of its owners, officers, directors, trustees, or employees have been enjoined from violating any law relating to a charitable solicitation or from engaging in charitable solicitation and, if so, the name of such person, the date of the injunction, and the court issuing the injunction;

(f) Whether the applicant is registered with or otherwise authorized by any other state to act as a professional fundraising consultant; and

(g) Whether the applicant has had such registration or authority denied, suspended, revoked, or enjoined by any court or other governmental authority in this state or another state.

(5) The application for registration or for renewal shall be accompanied by the fee established pursuant to subsection (12) of this section. A professional fundraising consultant that is a partnership, corporation, or limited liability company may register for and pay a single fee on behalf of all its partners, members, officers, directors, agents, and employees. In such case, the names and street addresses of all the partners, members, officers, directors, employees, and agents of the fundraising consultant and all other persons with whom the fundraising consultant has contracted to work under its direction shall be listed in the application or furnished to the secretary of state within five days after the date of employment or contractual arrangement.

(6) Each registration is valid for a period of one year and may be renewed, on or before the anniversary date, for an additional one-year period upon application to the secretary of state and payment of the registration fee. Any material changes to the information contained in the application for registration shall be reported in writing to the secretary of state within thirty days.

(7) The secretary of state shall examine each registration to determine whether the applicable requirements of this section are satisfied. The secretary of state shall notify the applicant within ten days after receipt of its application of any deficiencies therein, otherwise the application shall be deemed approved as filed. The secretary of state shall issue each approved applicant a registration number.

(8) If a professional fundraising consultant will have custody of any contribution received during a solicitation campaign, each such contribution shall be deposited within two business days after its receipt in an account at a bank or other federally insured financial institution. The account shall be in the name of the charitable organization with whom the professional fundraising consultant has contracted, and the charitable organization shall have sole control over all withdrawals from the account.

(9) Within ninety days after a solicitation campaign has been concluded, and on the anniversary of the commencement of a solicitation campaign lasting more than one year, the professional fundraising consultant shall provide to the charitable organization a financial report of the campaign, including gross proceeds and an itemization of all expenses or disbursements for any purpose. The report shall be signed by the professional fundraising consultant or, if the professional fundraising consultant is not an individual, by an authorized officer or agent of the professional fundraising consultant, who shall certify that the financial report is true and complete to the best of the person's knowledge. The professional fundraising consultant shall provide a copy of the report to the secretary of state upon request.

(10) No person may act as a professional fundraising consultant and no professional fundraising consultant required to be registered under this section shall knowingly employ any person as an officer, trustee, director, or employee if such person, within the immediately preceding five years, has been convicted of, found guilty of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, been adjudicated a juvenile violator of, or been incarcerated for any felony involving fraud, theft, larceny, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of property or any crime arising from the conduct of a solicitation for a charitable organization or sponsor, under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States, or has been enjoined within the immediately preceding five years under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States from engaging in deceptive conduct relating to charitable solicitations.

(11) Information filed pursuant to this section, except for residential addresses and telephone numbers of individuals and account numbers at banks or other financial institutions, is a public record for purposes of the public records law, part 2 of article 72 of title 24, C.R.S.

(12) Filing fees for the annual registration of a professional fundraising consultant and for amendments thereto shall be established by the secretary of state in an amount that reflects the costs of the secretary of state in administering the provisions of this article. All such fees collected shall be deposited in the department of state cash fund created in section 24-21-104 (3)(b), C.R.S.
C.R.S. § 6-1-401 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 4 / Section 6-1-401
6-1-401. Legislative intent
Status: in_force

6-1-401. Legislative intent. (1) It is the intent of the general assembly to encourage and promote independent living and self-sufficiency for persons with disabilities and to reduce their need to rely on publicly funded supports. Of an estimated forty-nine million Americans with disabilities, approximately seventy percent of them are unemployed or underemployed. Having safe, reliable assistive technology represents a most essential need given the many barriers to independent living and self-sufficiency people with disabilities face.

(2) The goal of meeting this essential need can be furthered by assuring that assistive technology provided to persons with disabilities is of quality and is covered by adequate warranties to maintain their assistive technology in proper working condition, to assure availability of appropriate loaner replacement assistive technology while their own is being repaired, and to encourage manufacturers and dealers to cooperatively pool assistive technology resources for loaner purposes to assure availability without an undue burden.

(3) The general assembly finds and declares it is in the state's best interest to adopt this part 4.
C.R.S. § 6-1-731.5 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-731.5
6-1-731.5. Online dating services - deceptive trade practice - safety policy required - rep
Status: in_force

6-1-731.5. Online dating services - deceptive trade practice - safety policy required - report - rules - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Member" and "member in this state" have the same meaning set forth in section 6-1-731.

(b) "Misconduct that threatens public or personal safety" means an act, threatened act, or attempted act of homicide, unlawful sexual behavior, assault, kidnapping, stalking, harassment, involuntary intoxication, robbery, theft, or any other conduct that threatens public or another person's safety.

(c) "Online dating service" has the same meaning set forth in section 6-1-731.

(d) "Online dating service contract" has the same meaning set forth in section 6-1-731.

(e) "Remedial action" means suspending the member's profile from the service, barring the member from the service, or providing actual notice that the service received a report of prohibited content and conduct to other members who have had contact on the service with the member who was the subject of the reports.

(f) "Safety policy" means an online dating service's safety policy required in subsection (2) of this section.

(2) An online dating service shall adopt a safety policy that complies with this subsection (2). An online dating service that has a member located in this state on August 7, 2024, shall make the safety policy effective on or before January 1, 2025. An online dating service that registers its first member in this state after August 7, 2024, shall make the safety policy effective one year after it registers its first member in this state. The safety policy must include the following:

(a) A description of prohibited content and conduct used by the online dating service, which must include misconduct that threatens public or personal safety.

(b) A statement of whether and under what circumstances the online dating service conducts a criminal background screening of members and whether the online dating service excludes as a member a person who is found to have a criminal conviction and, if so, which types of criminal convictions result in exclusion.

(c) A description of whether and when the online dating service verifies a member's identity or that the member is at least eighteen years of age.

(d) A description of whether and when the online dating service suspends a member's profile from the service as a result of reports of prohibited content and conduct committed by the member received by the online dating service and the circumstances under which the online dating service bars a member from the online dating service as a result of received reports.

(e) A description of whether the online dating service permits a member who was suspended or barred as a result of reports of prohibited content and conduct committed by the member to appeal the adverse action and, if the online dating service permits an appeal, the appeal process.

(f) A description of whether and when the online dating service, after receiving a report of prohibited content and conduct committed by a member, provides actual notice that it received the report to other members who have had contact with the member who was the subject of the report and, if so, the types of content and conduct that result in providing a notice and the process for providing the notice.

(g) Clear guidelines for reporting to the online dating service prohibited content and conduct committed by a member against another member. The guidelines must warn members not to submit false reports or report for malicious, biased, or other illegitimate reasons.

(h) A notice that engaging in sexual conduct with another person without the other person's consent violates the safety policy, is against the law, and may result in criminal or civil liability.

(i) Information about resources available for members in Colorado who experience sexual assault, domestic violence, and other crimes; and

(j) A list of safety measures taken by the platform that are reasonably designed to promote safer online and in-person dating experiences for members.

(3) An online dating service shall post a clear and conspicuous link to the service's safety policy on the main page of its website and on the settings, or a similar screen, of its mobile application, if applicable, and include a link to the safety policy in a dating service contract described in section 6-1-731. The text of each link must explicitly inform a Colorado member that the link navigates the member to the online dating service's safety policy.

(4) (a) An online dating service shall submit the URL for its safety policy posted on its website to the attorney general's office within fifteen days after enacting the safety policy. If an online dating service updates the URL for its safety policy, it shall submit the updated URL to the attorney general's office within seven days after updating the URL.

(b) On or before January 31, 2026, and on or before January 31 of each year thereafter, an online dating service shall submit an annual report to the attorney general's office concerning member safety and the online dating service's compliance with this section. The report must include the information required by the rules promulgated pursuant to this section.

(c) The report required pursuant to subsection (4)(b) of this section is only required to include information about a member located in, or reports made by a member located in, Colorado, if that information is available. If that information is not available, the report must include information from the entire United States.

(4.5) The attorney general shall promulgate rules to carry out this section. The rules may include the process for an online dating service to submit to the attorney general's office the URL for its safety policy.

(5) The attorney general's office shall post on a public page of its website a link to each safety policy and each annual report filed with the office pursuant to subsection (4) of this section by each online dating service.

(6) Prior to commencing an enforcement action pursuant to this article 1 against an online dating service that registers its first member in this state after August 7, 2024, for the service's first violation of this section, the attorney general or a district attorney must issue a notice of violation to the online dating service if the attorney general or district attorney determines that it is possible for the online dating service to cure the violation. If the online dating service fails to cure the violation within thirty days of receiving the notice of violation, the attorney general or district attorney may bring an enforcement action pursuant to this article 1.

(7) (a) Nothing in this section alters the scope of the federal "Communications Decency Act of 1996", 47 U.S.C. sec. 230.

(b) Nothing in this section limits any rights or remedies of an injured party that are available under Colorado law nor removes any remedies available to an injured person prior to August 7, 2024.

(c) An online dating service is not liable to a barred or suspended member for taking, in good faith, remedial action in accordance with its membership agreement against a member for violating the service's safety policy.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 11 / Section 6-1-1103
6-1-1103. Definitions
Status: repealed

6-1-1103. Definitions. As used in this part 11, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Associate" means a partner, subsidiary, affiliate, agent, or any other person working in association with a foreclosure consultant or an equity purchaser. "Associate" does not include a person who is excluded from the definition of an "equity purchaser" or a "foreclosure consultant".

(2) "Equity purchaser" means a person, other than a person who acquires a property for the purpose of using such property as his or her personal residence, who acquires title to a residence in foreclosure; except that the term does not include a person who acquires such title:

(a) (Deleted by amendment, L. 2010, (HB 10-1133), ch. 350, p. 1615, § 1, effective January 1, 2011.)

(b) By a deed in lieu of foreclosure to the holder of an evidence of debt, or an associate of the holder of an evidence of debt, of a consensual lien or encumbrance of record if such consensual lien or encumbrance is recorded in the real property records of the clerk and recorder of the county where the residence in foreclosure is located prior to the recording of the notice of election and demand for sale required under section 38-38-101, C.R.S.;

(c) By a deed from the public trustee or a county sheriff as a result of a foreclosure sale conducted pursuant to article 38 of title 38, C.R.S.;

(d) At a sale of property authorized by statute;

(e) By order or judgment of any court;

(f) From the person's spouse, relative, or relative of a spouse, by the half or whole blood or by adoption, or from a guardian, conservator, or personal representative of a person identified in this paragraph (f);

(g) While performing services as a part of a person's normal business activities under any law of this state or the United States that regulates banks, trust companies, savings and loan associations, credit unions, insurance companies, title insurers, insurance producers, or escrow companies authorized to conduct business in the state, an affiliate or subsidiary of such person, or an employee or agent acting on behalf of such person; or

(h) As a result of a short sale transaction in which a short sale addendum form, as promulgated by the Colorado real estate commission, is part of the contract used to acquire a residence in foreclosure and such transaction complies with section 6-1-1121.

(3) "Evidence of debt" means a writing that evidences a promise to pay or a right to the payment of a monetary obligation, such as a promissory note, bond, negotiable instrument, a loan, credit, or similar agreement, or a monetary judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(4) (a) "Foreclosure consultant" means a person who does not, directly or through an associate, take or acquire any interest in or title to a homeowner's property and who, in the course of such person's business, vocation, or occupation, makes a solicitation, representation, or offer to a home owner to perform, in exchange for compensation from the home owner or from the proceeds of any loan or advance of funds, a service that the person represents will do any of the following:

(I) Stop or postpone a foreclosure sale;

(II) Obtain a forbearance from a beneficiary under a deed of trust, mortgage, or other lien;

(III) Assist the home owner in exercising a right to cure a default as provided in article 38 of title 38, C.R.S.;

(IV) Obtain an extension of the period within which the home owner may cure a default as provided in article 38 of title 38, C.R.S.;

(V) Obtain a waiver of an acceleration clause contained in an evidence of debt secured by a deed of trust, mortgage, or other lien on a residence in foreclosure or contained in such deed of trust, mortgage, or other lien;

(VI) Assist the home owner to obtain a loan or advance of funds;

(VII) Avoid or reduce the impairment of the home owner's credit resulting from the recording of a notice of election and demand for sale, commencement of a judicial foreclosure action, or due to any foreclosure sale or the granting of a deed in lieu of foreclosure or resulting from any late payment or other failure to pay or perform under the evidence of debt, the deed of trust, or other lien securing such evidence of debt;

(VIII) In any way delay, hinder, or prevent the foreclosure upon the home owner's residence; or

(IX) Repealed.

(b) The term "foreclosure consultant" does not include:

(I) A person licensed to practice law in this state, while performing any activity related to the person's attorney-client relationship with a home owner or any activity related to the person's attorney-client relationship with the beneficiary, mortgagee, grantee, or holder of any lien being enforced by way of foreclosure;

(II) A holder or servicer of an evidence of debt or the attorney for the holder or servicer of an evidence of debt secured by a deed of trust or other lien on any residence in foreclosure while the person performs services in connection with the evidence of debt, lien, deed of trust, or other lien securing such debt;

(III) A person doing business under any law of this state or the United States, which law regulates banks, trust companies, savings and loan associations, credit unions, insurance companies, title insurers, insurance producers, or escrow companies authorized to conduct business in the state, while the person performs services as part of the person's normal business activities, an affiliate or subsidiary of any of the foregoing, or an employee or agent acting on behalf of any of the foregoing;

(IV) A person originating or closing a loan in a person's normal course of business if, as to that loan:

(A) The loan is subject to the requirements of the federal "Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974", as amended, 12 U.S.C. secs. 2601 to 2617; or

(B) With respect to any second mortgage or home equity line of credit, the loan is subordinate to and closed simultaneously with a qualified first mortgage loan under sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (IV) or is initially payable on the face of the note or contract to an entity included in subparagraph (III) of this paragraph (b);

(V) A judgment creditor of the home owner, if the judgment is recorded in the real property records of the clerk and recorder of the county where the residence in foreclosure is located and the legal action giving rise to the judgment was commenced before the notice of election and demand for sale required under section 38-38-101, C.R.S.;

(VI) A title insurance company or title insurance agent authorized to conduct business in this state, while performing title insurance and settlement services;

(VII) A person licensed as a real estate broker under article 10 of title 12 while the person engages in any activity for which the person is licensed; or

(VIII) A nonprofit organization that solely offers counseling or advice to home owners in foreclosure or loan default, unless the organization is an associate of the foreclosure consultant.

(5) "Foreclosure consulting contract" means any agreement between a foreclosure consultant and a home owner.

(6) "Holder of evidence of debt" means the person in actual possession of or otherwise entitled to enforce an evidence of debt; except that "holder of evidence of debt" does not include a person acting as a nominee solely for the purpose of holding the evidence of debt or deed of trust as an electronic registry without any authority to enforce the evidence of debt or deed of trust. The following persons are presumed to be the holder of evidence of debt:

(a) The person who is the obligee of and who is in possession of an original evidence of debt;

(b) The person in possession of an original evidence of debt together with the proper indorsement or assignment thereof to such person in accordance with section 38-38-101 (6), C.R.S.;

(c) The person in possession of a negotiable instrument evidencing a debt, which has been duly negotiated to such person or to bearer or indorsed in blank; or

(d) The person in possession of an evidence of debt with authority, which may be granted by the original evidence of debt or deed of trust, to enforce the evidence of debt as agent, nominee, or trustee or in a similar capacity for the obligee of the evidence of debt.

(7) "Home owner" means the owner of a dwelling who occupies it as his or her principal place of residence, including a vendee under a contract for deed to real property, as that term is defined in section 38-35-126 (1)(b), C.R.S.

(8) (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (8), "residence in foreclosure" means a residence or dwelling, as defined in sections 5-1-201 and 5-1-301, C.R.S., that is occupied as the home owner's principal place of residence and that is encumbered by a residential mortgage loan that is at least thirty days delinquent or in default.

(b) With respect to subpart 3 of this part 11, "residence in foreclosure" means a residence or dwelling, as defined in sections 5-1-201 and 5-1-301, C.R.S., that is occupied as the home owner's principal place of residence, is encumbered by a residential mortgage loan, and against which a foreclosure action has been commenced or as to which an equity purchaser otherwise has actual or constructive knowledge that the loan is at least thirty days delinquent or in default.

(9) "Short sale" or "short sale transaction" means a transaction in which the residence in foreclosure is sold when:

(a) A holder of evidence of debt agrees to release its lien for an amount that is less than the outstanding amount due and owing under such evidence of debt; and

(b) The lien described in paragraph (a) of this subsection (9) is recorded in the real property records of the county where the residence in foreclosure is located.
C.R.S. § 6-7.5-108 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-108
6-7.5-108. Utility programs during transition period
Status: in_force

6-7.5-108. Utility programs during transition period. (1) Should one or more products described in this article 7.5 be subject to withdrawal, repeal, or other actions that declare a federal standard invalid as described in section 6-7.5-107, the public utilities commission shall permit a three-year phaseout for a utility operating energy efficiency programs that create incentives for or otherwise encourage the use of high-efficiency versions of the affected products. This phaseout shall commence on or after the date specified in section 6-7.5-105; shall apply only to energy savings that will be mandated under this article 7.5; shall occur in equal reductions for each transition year; and must permit an orderly adjustment of the appliance or lighting market to ensure that residents and businesses in Colorado are not negatively affected by changes in product selection, business practices, and energy efficiency program opportunities related to the affected appliances or lighting products.

(2) For products listed in this article 7.5 that are not subject to withdrawal or repeal, the public utilities commission shall allow at least a one-year transition for utility-sponsored energy efficiency programs starting on or after the date specified in section 6-7.5-105.
C.R.S. § 6-1-703.5 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-703.5
6-1-703.5. Time share resale transfer agreements - deceptive trade practices
Status: in_force

6-1-703.5. Time share resale transfer agreements - deceptive trade practices. (1) A time share resale entity engages in a deceptive trade practice when the entity fails to include in a time share resale transfer agreement the following information:

(a) The name, telephone number, and physical address of the time share resale entity and the name and address of any agent or third-party service provider who will perform any of the time share resale services for that time share resale entity;

(b) A description of the applicable resale time share legally sufficient for recording or other legal transfer;

(c) A description of the method or documentation by which the transfer of the resale time share will be completed, including whether:

(I) The owner of the resale time share will retain any interest in the resale time share following the transfer; and

(II) The owner of the resale time share must grant a power of attorney or otherwise delegate any authority necessary to complete the transfer of the resale time share and the scope of the authority delegated by the owner of the resale time share;

(d) If the owner of the resale time share will retain any interest in the resale time share, a description of the interests retained by the owner of the resale time share;

(e) A listing of any fees, costs, or other consideration that the owner of the resale time share must pay or reimburse for performance of the time share resale service;

(f) A statement that neither the time share resale entity nor any affiliate or agent of the entity shall collect from the owner of the resale time share any fees, costs, or other consideration until the time share resale entity:

(I) Provides the owner of the resale time share a copy of the recordable deed or other equivalent written evidence clearly demonstrating that the resale time share has been transferred to a subsequent transferee in accordance with the time share resale transfer agreement and applicable law; and

(II) Satisfies all other requirements of this section;

(g) The date by which all acts sufficient to transfer the resale time share in accordance with the time share resale transfer agreement are estimated to be completed. The time share resale entity shall use commercially reasonable good faith efforts to complete the transfer of the subject time share within the estimated period. Commercially reasonable good faith efforts include making a request to the association of time share owners pursuant to section 38-33.3-316 (8), C.R.S., for a written statement detailing unpaid assessments levied against the time share.

(h) A statement as to whether any person, including the owner of the resale time share, may occupy, rent, exchange, or otherwise exercise any form of use of the resale time share during the term of the time share resale transfer agreement;

(i) The name of any person, other than the owner of the resale time share, who will receive any rents, profits, or other consideration or thing of value, if any, generated from the transfer of the applicable resale time share or the use of the applicable resale time share during the term of the time share resale transfer agreement;

(j) The following statement clearly and conspicuously and in substantially the following form:

We [name of time share resale entity] will use commercially reasonable good faith efforts to transfer ownership of your resale time share to another person within the period we estimate for completing the transfer. Until the transfer of ownership is complete, you, the resale time share owner, will continue to be responsible for the payment of all costs and fees associated with your resale time share, including, as applicable, regular assessments, special assessments, and real and personal property taxes.

(k) A statement that the time share resale entity will notify the following persons or entities, in writing, when ownership of the resale time share is transferred, as applicable:

(I) The association of time share owners or other persons responsible for managing or operating the plan or arrangement by which the rights or interests associated with the applicable time share resale are utilized; and

(II) The exchange company operating any exchange program that the resale time share was part of at the time the transfer was completed.

(2) In making the disclosures required under this section, the time share resale entity may rely upon information provided in writing by the owner of the applicable resale time share or the developer, association of time share owners, or other person responsible for managing or operating the plan or arrangement by which the rights or interests associated with the applicable resale time share are utilized.

(3) A time share resale entity shall not transfer or offer to assist in transferring a resale time share, or receive consideration in connection with the transfer of a resale time share, if the time share resale entity knows that the transferee does not have the ability or the intent to fulfill the obligations of ownership of the resale time share, including the obligation to pay all assessments and taxes incurred in connection with ownership of the resale time share. If a time share resale entity transfers or offers to transfer, or receives compensation in connection with the transfer of, a resale time share to a person who has a demonstrated pattern of nonpayment of assessments or taxes or the demonstrated inability to meet payment obligations, the actions of the time share resale entity are prima facie evidence of a violation of this subsection (3).

(4) A time share resale entity shall supervise, manage, and control all aspects of the time share resale transfer agreement and the offering of the resale time share by any affiliate, agent, contractor, or employee of that time share resale entity. A violation of this section is a violation by the time share resale entity and by the person actually committing the conduct that constitutes the violation.

(5) If a time share resale entity engages in an act that is prohibited by this section, either directly or as a means to avoid or circumvent the purpose of this section, a person injured by the act may bring a private civil action pursuant to section 6-1-113.
C.R.S. § 6-2-110 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 2 / Section 6-2-110
6-2-110. When provisions not applicable
Status: in_force

6-2-110. When provisions not applicable. (1) The provisions of sections 6-2-105 to 6-2-107 shall not apply to any sale made:

(a) In closing out in good faith the owner's stock or any part thereof for the purpose of discontinuing his trade in any such stock or commodity, and in the case of the sale of seasonal goods or the bona fide sale of perishable goods to prevent loss to the vendor by spoilage or depreciation, if notice is given to the public thereof;

(b) When the goods are damaged or deteriorated in quality and notice is given to the public thereof;

(c) By an officer acting under the orders of any court;

(d) In an endeavor made in good faith to meet the prices of a competitor selling the same product or service in the same locality or trade area.

(2) Any person, firm, or corporation who performs work upon, renovates, alters, or improves any personal property belonging to another person, firm, or corporation shall be construed to be a vendor within the meaning of this article.
C.R.S. § 6-16-104.6 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-104.6
6-16-104.6. Paid solicitors - annual registration - filing of contracts - fees
Status: in_force

6-16-104.6. Paid solicitors - annual registration - filing of contracts - fees. (1) (a) No person shall act as a paid solicitor without first complying with the requirements of this section.

(b) Every paid solicitor shall register in accordance with subsection (3) of this section before soliciting contributions in this state.

(2) Every contract between a paid solicitor and a charitable organization or sponsor for each solicitation campaign shall be in writing and shall be signed by an authorized official of the charitable organization or sponsor, who shall be a member of the organization's governing body, and by the paid solicitor if the paid solicitor is an individual or by the authorized contracting officer for the paid solicitor if the paid solicitor is not an individual. The paid solicitor shall provide a copy of the contract to the charitable organization prior to the performance of any material services under the contract and shall make a copy of the contract available to the secretary of state upon request. The contract shall contain all of the following provisions:

(a) A statement of the charitable purpose for which the solicitation campaign is being conducted;

(b) A statement of the respective obligations of the paid solicitor and the charitable organization;

(c) A statement of the specified minimum percentage, if any, of the gross receipts from contributions that will be remitted to the charitable organization, or, if the solicitation involves the sale of goods, services, or tickets to a fundraising event, the specified minimum percentage, if any, of the purchase price that will be remitted to the charitable organization. Any stated percentage shall exclude any amount payable by the charitable organization as fundraising costs.

(d) A statement of the specified percentage, if any, of gross revenue that constitutes the paid solicitor's compensation. If the paid solicitor's compensation is not contingent upon the number of contributions or the amount received, the paid solicitor's compensation shall be expressed as a reasonable estimate of the percentage of gross revenue, and the contract shall clearly disclose the assumptions upon which such estimate is based. The stated assumptions shall be based upon all the relevant facts known to the paid solicitor regarding the solicitation to be conducted.

(e) The effective and termination dates of the contract.

(3) Applications for registration or renewal of registration must be submitted on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503, and must include the following information:

(a) The address and telephone number of the principal place of business of the applicant and the address and telephone number of any office located in this state if the principal place of business is located outside the state;

(b) The form of the applicant's business and, if the applicant is not an individual, the place and date when the applicant was incorporated or otherwise legally established;

(c) The name, address, and telephone number of the person that has custody of the applicant's financial records;

(d) If the applicant is not an individual, the names and addresses of the owners, officers, and executive personnel of the applicant;

(e) The names of all persons in charge of any solicitation activity conducted in this state by the applicant or on the applicant's behalf;

(f) Whether the applicant, any person with a controlling interest in the applicant, or any of the applicant's owners, officers, directors, trustees, employees, or agents has, within the immediately preceding five years, been convicted of, found guilty of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, been adjudicated a juvenile violator of, or been incarcerated for any felony involving fraud, theft, larceny, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of property or any crime arising from the conduct of a solicitation for a charitable organization or sponsor, under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States, and if so, the name of such person, the nature of the offense, the date of the offense, the court having jurisdiction in the case, the date of conviction or other disposition, and the disposition of the offense;

(g) Whether the applicant or any of its owners, officers, directors, trustees, or employees have been enjoined from violating any law relating to a charitable solicitation and, if so, the name of such person, the date of the injunction, and the court issuing the injunction;

(h) Whether the applicant is registered with or otherwise authorized by any other state to act as a paid solicitor;

(i) Whether the applicant has had such registration or authority denied, suspended, revoked, or enjoined by any court or other governmental authority in this state or another state; and

(j) Whether the applicant or any officer, director, or employee of the applicant serves on the board of directors of a charitable organization, directs the operations of a charitable organization, or otherwise has a financial interest in a charitable organization for which the applicant solicits contributions. If this relationship exists between the applicant and the charitable organization, the application must include a statement that the relationship meets the standards set forth in section 7-128-501 (3), C.R.S., regarding conflict of interest transactions.

(3.5) (a) Before any paid solicitor is registered, the applicant shall procure and file with the secretary of state evidence of a savings account, deposit, or certificate of deposit meeting the requirements of section 11-35-101, C.R.S., or a good and sufficient bond in the amount of fifteen thousand dollars issued by a corporate surety duly licensed to do business within the state, approved as to form by the attorney general of the state, and conditioned that the applicant shall perform in good faith as a paid solicitor without fraud or fraudulent representation and without the violation of any provision of this article.

(b) No corporate surety is required to make any payment to any person claiming a bond issued under this subsection (3.5) until a final determination of fraud or fraudulent representation has been made by the secretary of state or by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) All bonds required under this section must be renewed annually at the same time as the bondholder's license is renewed. Renewal of the bond may be done through a continuation certificate issued by the surety.

(4) The application for registration or for renewal shall be accompanied by the fee established pursuant to subsection (12) of this section. A paid solicitor that is a partnership, corporation, or limited liability company may register for and pay a single fee on behalf of all its partners, members, officers, directors, agents, and employees. In such case, the names and street addresses of all the partners, members, officers, directors, employees, and agents of the paid solicitor and all other persons with whom the paid solicitor has contracted to work under its direction shall be listed in the application or furnished to the secretary of state within five days after the date of employment or contractual arrangement.

(5) Each registration is valid for a period of one year and may be renewed, on or before the anniversary date, for an additional one-year period upon application to the secretary of state and payment of the registration fee and any assessed fines. Any material changes to the information contained in the application for registration must be reported in writing to the secretary of state within thirty days.

(6) The secretary of state shall examine each registration to determine whether the applicable requirements of this section are satisfied. The secretary of state shall notify the applicant within ten days after receipt of its application of any deficiencies therein, otherwise the application shall be deemed approved as filed. The secretary of state shall issue each approved applicant a registration number.

(7) No later than fifteen days before the commencement of a solicitation campaign, the paid solicitor shall file with the secretary of state a completed solicitation notice, on forms prescribed by the secretary of state, containing the following information:

(a) A summary of the governing contract, as specified in subsection (2) of this section;

(b) The full legal name and address of the paid solicitor who will be conducting the solicitation campaign and the full legal name and address of each person responsible for directing and supervising the conduct of the campaign;

(c) A statement, in accordance with section 6-16-111 (1)(f) and (1)(g), of the nature of the intended solicitation campaign, including the means of communication to be used in the campaign, the projected commencement and conclusion dates of the campaign, and a description of any event the campaign will lead up to;

(d) A full and fair statement, in accordance with section 6-16-111 (1)(f) and (1)(g), of the charitable purpose for which the solicitation campaign is being carried out;

(e) Each location and telephone number, if applicable, from which the solicitation is to be conducted;

(f) A statement as to whether the paid solicitor will at any time have custody of contributions;

(g) The account number and location of each bank account where receipts from the campaign are to be deposited;

(h) The address where records and accounting concerning the solicitation campaign are being kept; and

(i) A certification statement, signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503 by an officer of the charitable organization on the behalf of whom the solicitation campaign is to occur, stating that the solicitation notice and accompanying material are true and complete to the best of his or her knowledge.

(8) If a paid solicitor will have custody of any monetary contribution received during a solicitation campaign, each such contribution must be deposited within two business days after its receipt in an account at a bank or other federally insured financial institution. The account must be in the name of the charitable organization with whom the paid solicitor has contracted, and the charitable organization must have sole control over all withdrawals from the account.

(9) Within ninety days after a solicitation campaign has been concluded, and on the anniversary of the commencement of a solicitation campaign lasting more than one year, the paid solicitor shall provide to the charitable organization and file with the secretary of state a financial report of the campaign, including gross proceeds and an itemization of all expenses or disbursements for any purpose. The report must be on a form prescribed by the secretary of state and must be signed and affirmed under penalty of perjury as defined in section 18-8-503 by the paid solicitor, or, if the paid solicitor is not an individual, by an authorized official of the paid solicitor, and by an authorized official of the charitable organization. The persons signing the report shall certify that the financial report is true and complete to the best of their knowledge.

(10) No person may act as a paid solicitor and no paid solicitor required to be registered under this section shall knowingly employ any person as an officer, trustee, director, or employee if such person, within the immediately preceding five years, has been convicted of, found guilty of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, been adjudicated a juvenile violator of, or been incarcerated for any felony involving fraud, theft, larceny, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation of property or any crime arising from the conduct of a solicitation for a charitable organization or sponsor, under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States, or has been enjoined within the immediately preceding five years under the laws of this or any other state or of the United States from engaging in deceptive conduct relating to charitable solicitations.

(11) Information filed pursuant to this section, except for residential addresses and telephone numbers of individuals and account numbers at banks or other financial institutions, is a public record for purposes of the public records law, part 2 of article 72 of title 24, C.R.S.

(12) Filing fees for the annual registration of a paid solicitor, amendments thereto, solicitation notices, and financial reports shall be established by the secretary of state in amounts that reflects the costs of the secretary of state in administering the provisions of this article. All such fees collected shall be deposited in the department of state cash fund created in section 24-21-104 (3)(b), C.R.S.
C.R.S. § 6-1-114 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-114
6-1-114. Criminal penalties
Status: in_force

6-1-114. Criminal penalties. Any person who promotes a pyramid promotional scheme in this state commits a class 1 misdemeanor, as defined in section 18-1.3-501. Any person who violates article 230 of title 12 or section 6-1-701 or 6-1-717 commits a class 2 misdemeanor.
C.R.S. § 6-25-106 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 25 / Part 1 / Section 6-25-106
6-25-106. Safe for valuables - notice
Status: in_force

6-25-106. Safe for valuables - notice. Every landlord or keeper of a hotel or public inn in this state who provides in the office of his or her hotel, inn, or other convenient place a safe, vault, or other suitable receptacle, for the secure custody of money, jewelry, ornaments, or other valuable articles other than necessary baggage belonging to the guests or patrons of the hotel or public inn, and who keeps posted in a public and conspicuous place in the office, public room, and public parlors of the hotel or public inn, and upon the inside entrance door of every public sleeping room in the hotel or public inn a notice printed in English stating the fact, shall not be liable for the loss of any money, jewelry, ornaments, or other valuable articles, other than necessary baggage, sustained by the guest or patron by theft or otherwise, unless the guest or patron delivers the money, jewelry, ornaments, or other valuable articles, other than necessary baggage, to the landlord or keeper of the hotel or public inn, or person in charge of the office of the hotel or public inn, for deposit in the safe, vault, or other receptacle. The liability shall not be greater than the amount at the time of deposit declared by the guest or patron to be the value of the article deposited.
C.R.S. § 6-27-202 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 27 / Part 2 / Section 6-27-202
6-27-202. Payment card network - merchant category code
Status: in_force

6-27-202. Payment card network - merchant category code. On and after September 1, 2024, a payment card network shall make the merchant category code for firearms available for merchant acquirers that provide payment services for firearms merchants.
C.R.S. § 6-10-119 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-119
6-10-119. Powers of assignee
Status: in_force

6-10-119. Powers of assignee. The assignee has all the rights, power, and authority of the assignor necessary to fully execute such trust, to demand and sue for any property belonging to such estate, and to execute valid receipts; and, by deed duly acknowledged by him, in his own name as assignee, may convey any of the estate, real and personal, subject to approval as stated in section 6-10-116. Where the assignee has been appointed by the court in place of an assignee removed, it shall be his duty to compel by suit, or the peremptory order of the court, the delivery of the trust estate and the property, or the value thereof, that has been wasted or misapplied by the previous assignee.
C.R.S. § 6-6-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 6 / Section 6-6-101
6-6-101. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-6-101. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Unsolicited goods" means contractual obligations or other tangible or intangible property or services delivered to a person who has not ordered, solicited, or agreed to purchase them, but shall not include tangible or intangible goods or services which are misdirected, misdelivered, or offered in good faith in substitution for goods solicited by the recipient.
C.R.S. § 6-24-102 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 24 / Section 6-24-102
6-24-102. Organization as endowment care cemetery - when
Status: in_force

6-24-102. Organization as endowment care cemetery - when. Any person who, after July 1, 1965, establishes or acquires a cemetery within twenty miles from the exterior boundary of any city with a population of five thousand or more, according to the latest federal decennial census, shall be organized as an endowment care cemetery.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1108 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 11 / Section 6-1-1108
6-1-1108. Criminal penalties
Status: in_force

6-1-1108. Criminal penalties. A person who violates section 6-1-1107 is guilty of a misdemeanor, as defined in section 18-1.3-504, C.R.S., and shall be subject to imprisonment in county jail for up to one year, a fine of up to twenty-five thousand dollars, or both.
C.R.S. § 6-1-110 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-110
6-1-110. Restraining orders - injunctions - assurances of discontinuance
Status: in_force

6-1-110. Restraining orders - injunctions - assurances of discontinuance. (1) Whenever the attorney general or a district attorney has cause to believe that a person has engaged in or is engaging in any deceptive trade practice listed in section 6-1-105 or part 7 or 13 of this article 1, the attorney general or district attorney may apply for and obtain, in an action in the appropriate district court of this state, a temporary restraining order or injunction, or both, pursuant to the Colorado rules of civil procedure, prohibiting the person from continuing the practices, or engaging therein, or doing any act in furtherance thereof. The court may make such orders or judgments as may be necessary to prevent the use or employment by the person of any such deceptive trade practice or that may be necessary to completely compensate or restore to the original position of any person injured by means of any such practice or to prevent any unjust enrichment by any person through the use or employment of any deceptive trade practice.

(2) Where the attorney general or a district attorney has authority to institute a civil action or other proceeding pursuant to the provisions of this article 1, the attorney general or district attorney may accept, in lieu thereof or as a part thereof, an assurance of discontinuance of any deceptive trade practice listed in section 6-1-105 or part 7 or 13 of this article 1. The assurance may include a stipulation for the voluntary payment by the alleged violator of the costs of investigation and any action or proceeding by the attorney general or a district attorney and any amount necessary to restore to any person any money or property that may have been acquired by the alleged violator by means of any such deceptive trade practice. Any such assurance of discontinuance accepted by the attorney general or a district attorney and any such stipulation filed with the court as a part of any such action or proceeding is a matter of public record unless the attorney general or the district attorney determines, at the discretion of the attorney general or district attorney, that it will be confidential to the parties to the action or proceeding and to the court and its employees. Upon the filing of a civil action by the attorney general or a district attorney alleging that a confidential assurance of discontinuance or stipulation accepted pursuant to this subsection (2) has been violated, the assurance of discontinuance or stipulation becomes a public record and open to inspection by any person. Proof by a preponderance of the evidence of a violation of any such assurance or stipulation constitutes prima facie evidence of a deceptive trade practice for the purposes of any civil action or proceeding brought thereafter by the attorney general or a district attorney, whether a new action or a subsequent motion or petition in any pending action or proceeding.

(3) When the attorney general or a district attorney shows by a preponderance of evidence that a mortgage broker, mortgage originator, mortgage lender, mortgage loan applicant, real estate broker, real estate agent, real estate appraiser, or closing agent, other than a person who provides closing or settlement services subject to regulation by the division of insurance, has continued to participate in the origination of mortgage loans in violation of section 38-40-105, C.R.S., after having been previously enjoined from practices in violation of such section, the attorney general or district attorney may, in addition to any other remedies, apply for and obtain, in the court that has previously issued an injunction, a further injunction against continuing to participate in the business of originating mortgage loans for up to five years.

(4) In addition to any other remedy available under this section, when the attorney general or district attorney has cause to believe that a person has engaged in or is engaging in a deceptive trade practice described in section 6-1-720, the attorney general or district attorney may apply for and obtain, in an action in the appropriate district court of this state, an order forfeiting any tickets obtained, or the proceeds from the resale of any such tickets, in violation of section 6-1-720.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1205 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 12 / Section 6-1-1205
6-1-1205. Liability - exclusions for personal automobile liability insurance policy - inde
Status: in_force

6-1-1205. Liability - exclusions for personal automobile liability insurance policy - indemnification. (1) An authorized insurer may exclude coverage and the duty to defend or indemnify for any claim under a shared car owner's personal automobile liability insurance policy. This part 12 does not invalidate or limit an exclusion contained in an automobile liability insurance policy, including any insurance policy that excludes coverage for motor vehicles made available for rent, sharing, hire, or business use.

(2) An automobile insurer of the shared car owner that defends or indemnifies a shared car claim has the right to contribution against the insurer of the car sharing program if the claim is:

(a) Made against the shared car owner or the shared car driver for damages occurring during the sharing period; and

(b) Excluded under the terms of the shared car owner's insurance policy.
C.R.S. § 6-10-113 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-113
6-10-113. Application of unclaimed dividends
Status: in_force

6-10-113. Application of unclaimed dividends. The dividends of any unsettled assignment which remain unclaimed for such time as specified in this article after the final dividend has been decided, upon the application of one or more creditors of such assignor, shall be paid by the assignee under direction of the court to the known creditors of the assignor after giving notice to the creditors that a final distribution of all unclaimed dividends is to be made.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1305 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 13 / Section 6-1-1305
6-1-1305. Responsibility according to role
Status: in_force

6-1-1305. Responsibility according to role. (1) Controllers and processors shall meet their respective obligations established under this part 13.

(2) Processors shall adhere to the instructions of the controller and assist the controller to meet its obligations under this part 13. Taking into account the nature of processing and the information available to the processor, the processor shall assist the controller by:

(a) Taking appropriate technical and organizational measures, insofar as this is possible, for the fulfillment of the controller's obligation to respond to consumer requests to exercise their rights pursuant to section 6-1-1306;

(b) Helping to meet the controller's obligations in relation to the security of processing the personal data and in relation to the notification of a breach of the security of the system pursuant to section 6-1-716; and

(c) Providing information to the controller necessary to enable the controller to conduct and document any data protection assessments required by section 6-1-1309. The controller and processor are each responsible for only the measures allocated to them.

(3) Notwithstanding the instructions of the controller, a processor shall:

(a) Ensure that each person processing the personal data is subject to a duty of confidentiality with respect to the data; and

(b) Engage a subcontractor only after providing the controller with an opportunity to object and pursuant to a written contract in accordance with subsection (5) of this section that requires the subcontractor to meet the obligations of the processor with respect to the personal data.

(4) Taking into account the context of processing, the controller and the processor shall implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk and establish a clear allocation of the responsibilities between them to implement the measures.

(5) Processing by a processor must be governed by a contract between the controller and the processor that is binding on both parties and that sets out:

(a) The processing instructions to which the processor is bound, including the nature and purpose of the processing;

(b) The type of personal data subject to the processing, and the duration of the processing;

(c) The requirements imposed by this subsection (5) and subsections (3) and (4) of this section; and

(d) The following requirements:

(I) At the choice of the controller, the processor shall delete or return all personal data to the controller as requested at the end of the provision of services, unless retention of the personal data is required by law;

(II) (A) The processor shall make available to the controller all information necessary to demonstrate compliance with the obligations in this part 13; and

(B) The processor shall allow for, and contribute to, reasonable audits and inspections by the controller or the controller's designated auditor. Alternatively, the processor may, with the controller's consent, arrange for a qualified and independent auditor to conduct, at least annually and at the processor's expense, an audit of the processor's policies and technical and organizational measures in support of the obligations under this part 13 using an appropriate and accepted control standard or framework and audit procedure for the audits as applicable. The processor shall provide a report of the audit to the controller upon request.

(6) In no event may a contract relieve a controller or a processor from the liabilities imposed on them by virtue of its role in the processing relationship as defined by this part 13.

(7) Determining whether a person is acting as a controller or processor with respect to a specific processing of data is a fact-based determination that depends upon the context in which personal data are to be processed. A person that is not limited in its processing of personal data pursuant to a controller's instructions, or that fails to adhere to the instructions, is a controller and not a processor with respect to a specific processing of data. A processor that continues to adhere to a controller's instructions with respect to a specific processing of personal data remains a processor. If a processor begins, alone or jointly with others, determining the purposes and means of the processing of personal data, it is a controller with respect to the processing.

(8) (a) A controller or processor that discloses personal data to another controller or processor in compliance with this part 13 does not violate this part 13 if the recipient processes the personal data in violation of this part 13, and, at the time of disclosing the personal data, the disclosing controller or processor did not have actual knowledge that the recipient intended to commit a violation.

(b) A controller or processor receiving personal data from a controller or processor in compliance with this part 13 as specified in subsection (8)(a) of this section does not violate this part 13 if the controller or processor from which it receives the personal data fails to comply with applicable obligations under this part 13.
C.R.S. § 6-24-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 24 / Section 6-24-103
6-24-103. Nonendowment section in endowment care cemetery
Status: in_force

6-24-103. Nonendowment section in endowment care cemetery. Any cemetery authority of an endowment care cemetery that has a nonendowed section that is used only as single graves for indigents may continue to donate the graves for the burial of indigents. Nothing in this article shall be construed to prevent a cemetery authority of an endowed care cemetery from donating a grave space for the burial of an indigent person without placing money in the endowment care fund for the space.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1502 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 15 / Section 6-1-1502
6-1-1502. Definitions - repeal
Status: repealed

6-1-1502. Definitions - repeal. As used in this part 15, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) (a) "Agricultural equipment" means equipment that is primarily designed for use in a farm or ranch operation.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(b) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Agricultural equipment" includes:

(I) A tractor, trailer, combine, sprayer, tillage implement, baler, and other equipment used to plant, cultivate, or harvest agricultural products or to ranch; and

(II) Attachments to and repair parts for equipment described in subsection (1)(b)(I) of this section.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(b) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Agricultural equipment" includes:

(I) A tractor, trailer, combine, sprayer, tillage implement, baler, and other equipment used to plant, cultivate, or harvest agricultural products or to ranch;

(II) Attachments to and repair parts for equipment described in subsection (1)(b)(I) of this section; and

(III) A nonroad compression-ignition engine. As used in this subsection (1)(b)(III):

(A) "Compression-ignition" has the meaning set forth in 40 CFR 1039.801; and

(B) "Engine" has the meaning set forth in 40 CFR 1068.30.

(c) "Agricultural equipment" does not include:

(I) A self-propelled vehicle designed primarily for the transportation of individuals or property on a street or highway;

(II) A powersports vehicle as defined in section 44-20-402 (11);

(III) Any aircraft used in an agricultural aircraft operation, as defined in 14 CFR 137.3; or

(IV) Any equipment designed and used primarily for irrigation purposes.

(1.1) [Editor's note: Subsection (1.1) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Agricultural equipment dealer" means any person, partnership, corporation, association, or other form of business enterprise that is primarily engaged in the retail sale of agricultural equipment.

(1.3) (a) "Authorized repair provider" means a person that is unaffiliated with a manufacturer other than through an arrangement with the manufacturer, whether for a definite or an indefinite period, in which the manufacturer, for the purpose of offering to provide services to an equipment owner regarding the owner's equipment or a part, grants the person:

(I) A license to use a trade name, service mark, or other proprietary identifier; or

(II) Authorization under any other arrangement to act on behalf of the manufacturer.

(b) "Authorized repair provider" includes a manufacturer that offers to provide services to an owner of the manufacturer's equipment regarding the owner's equipment or a part if the manufacturer does not have an arrangement with an unaffiliated person, as described in subsection (1.3)(a) of this section.

(1.5) "Data" means, with the consent of an owner, transmitted or compiled information arising from the operation of an owner's agricultural equipment or its parts.

(1.7) [Editor's note: Subsection (1.7) is effective January 1, 2026.] (a) "Digital electronic equipment" or "digital equipment" means a hardware product:

(I) Manufactured for the first time and first sold or used in Colorado on or after July 1, 2021; and

(II) That depends, in whole or in part, on digital electronics embedded in or attached to the product in order for the product to function as intended.

(b) "Digital electronic equipment" or "digital equipment" does not include agricultural equipment and powered wheelchairs.

(2) "Documentation" means a manual; diagram, including a schematic diagram; reporting output; service code description; security code or password; or similar type of guidance or information, whether in an electronic or tangible format, that a manufacturer provides to an authorized repair provider to assist the authorized repair provider with services performed on the manufacturer's equipment or a part.

(3) "Embedded software":

(a) Means programmable instructions provided on firmware delivered with an electronic component of equipment or with any part for the purpose of restoring or improving operation of the equipment or part; and

(b) Includes all relevant patches and fixes that the manufacturer makes to equipment or to any part for the purpose of restoring or improving the equipment or part.

(3.2) (a) "Embedded software for agricultural equipment" means any programmable instructions provided on firmware delivered with or loaded to the agricultural equipment, with respect to agricultural equipment operation.

(b) "Embedded software for agricultural equipment" includes all relevant patches and fixes that the manufacturer makes, including, but not limited to, items described as "basic internal operating system", "internal operating system", "machine code", "assembly code", "root code", and "microcode".

(4) "Equipment" means:

(a) A powered wheelchair; or

(b) Agricultural equipment.

(c) This subsection (4) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.

(4.3) (a) "Equipment dealer" means any person, partnership, corporation, association, or other form of business enterprise that is primarily engaged in the retail sale of agricultural equipment.

(b) This subsection (4.3) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.

(5) [Editor's note: The introductory portion of subsection (5) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Fair and reasonable terms and costs", as applied to agricultural equipment and powered wheelchairs, means the following:

(5) (a) (I) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(a)(I) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Fair and reasonable terms and costs", with respect to obtaining documentation, parts, embedded software, firmware, or tools from a manufacturer to provide services, means terms that are equivalent to the most favorable terms that the manufacturer offers to an authorized repair provider and costs that are no greater than the manufacturer's suggested retail price.

(a) (I) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(a)(I) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to obtaining documentation, parts, embedded software, firmware, or tools from a manufacturer to provide services, terms that are equivalent to the most favorable terms that the manufacturer offers to an authorized repair provider and costs that are no greater than the manufacturer's suggested retail price.

(II) Except as provided in subsection (5)(d) of this section, costs considered under subsection (5)(a)(I) of this section are calculated using net costs incurred, accounting for any discounts, rebates, or incentives offered.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(b) is effective until January 1, 2026.] With respect to documentation, "fair and reasonable terms and costs" means that the manufacturer provides the documentation, including any relevant updates to the documentation, at no charge; except that the manufacturer may charge a fee for a printed copy of the documentation if the amount of the fee covers only the manufacturer's actual cost to prepare and send the printed copy of the documentation.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (5)(b) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to documentation, the manufacturer provides the documentation, including any relevant updates to the documentation, at no charge; except that the manufacturer may charge a fee for a printed copy of the documentation if the amount of the fee covers only the manufacturer's actual cost to prepare and send the printed copy of the documentation.

(c) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(c) is effective until January 1, 2026.] With respect to tools that are software programs, "fair and reasonable terms and costs" means that the manufacturer provides the tools that are software programs:

(c) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(c) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to tools that are software programs, the manufacturer provides the tools that are software programs:

(I) At no charge and without requiring authorization or internet access or otherwise imposing impediments to access or use;

(II) In the course of effectuating the diagnosis, maintenance, or repair and enabling the full functionality of the equipment or part; and

(III) In a manner that does not impair the efficient and cost-effective performance of the equipment or part.

(d) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(d) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Fair and reasonable terms and costs", with respect to parts for agricultural equipment, means that, notwithstanding subsection (5)(a)(I) of this section, parts shall be sold to an owner or an independent repair provider under equitable terms for access to or receipt of any part pertaining to agricultural equipment and in a manner that:

(d) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(d) is effective January 1, 2026.] With respect to parts for agricultural equipment and notwithstanding subsection (5)(a)(I) of this section, parts shall be sold to an owner or an independent repair provider under equitable terms for access to or receipt of any part pertaining to agricultural equipment and in a manner that:

(I) Is fair to both parties in light of any agreed-upon conditions, the promised quality, and the timeliness of the delivery; or

(II) Does not discourage or disincentivize repairs to be made by an owner or an independent repair provider.

(e) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(e) is effective until January 1, 2026.] Terms considered under this subsection (5) are fair if the terms do not impose on an owner or independent repair provider any:

(e) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion of subsection (5)(e) is effective January 1, 2026.] Terms are fair if the terms do not impose on an owner or independent repair provider any:

(I) Substantial obligation to use, or any restriction on the use of, a part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tool, including a condition that the owner or independent repair provider become an authorized repair provider of the manufacturer; or

(II) Requirement that a part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tool be registered or paired with or approved by the manufacturer or an authorized repair provider before the part, embedded software, embedded software for agricultural equipment, firmware, or tool is operational.

(5.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (5.5) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Fair and reasonable terms and costs for digital electronic equipment" means:

(a) (I) With respect to obtaining documentation, embedded software, firmware, or tools from a manufacturer to provide services, costs and terms that are equivalent to the most favorable costs and terms that the manufacturer offers to an authorized repair provider and costs that are no greater than the manufacturer's suggested retail price, including terms that are equivalent to the methods and timeliness of delivery of the embedded software, firmware, or tools to an authorized repair provider.

(II) Costs considered under subsection (5.5)(a)(I) of this section are calculated using net costs incurred, accounting for any discounts, rebates, convenient and timely means of delivery, means of enabling fully restored and updated functionality, rights of use, or other incentives or preferences offered.

(b) With respect to tools, the manufacturer provides a tool in a manner that does not impair access to, the use of, or the efficient and cost-effective performance of the tool for the purpose of diagnosing, maintaining, or repairing the digital equipment to its full functionality. If an owner or independent repair provider requests a tool in physical form, the manufacturer may include a charge for the reasonable, actual cost of preparing and sending the tool to the owner or independent repair provider.

(c) With respect to tools that are software programs, the manufacturer provides the tools that are software programs:

(I) At no charge;

(II) In the course of effectuating the diagnosis, maintenance, or repair and enabling the full functionality of the digital equipment or part; and

(III) In a manner that does not impair the efficient and cost-effective performance of the digital equipment or part;

(d) With respect to parts, costs that are fair to both parties and terms under which a manufacturer offers the part to an authorized repair provider.

(6) "Firmware" means a software program or set of instructions programmed on equipment or a part to allow the equipment or part to function or communicate with itself or with other computer hardware.

(7) (a) "Independent repair provider", except as otherwise provided in subsection (7)(b) of this section, means a person in the state that is:

(I) Neither a manufacturer's authorized repair provider nor affiliated with a manufacturer's authorized repair provider; and

(II) Engaged in offering or providing services.

(b) "Independent repair provider" includes:

(I) An authorized repair provider if the authorized repair provider is offering or providing services for a manufacturer other than a manufacturer with which the authorized repair provider has an arrangement described in subsection (1) of this section; and

(II) A manufacturer with respect to offering or providing services for another manufacturer's equipment or part.

(7.2) [Editor's note: Subsection (7.2) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment" means an entity engaged in the business of manufacturing or supplying components used to manufacture, maintain, or repair a motor vehicle.

(7.3) [Editor's note: Subsection (7.3) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Medical device" has the same meaning as "device" as set forth in section 201 of the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act", 21 U.S.C. sec. 321 (h), as amended.

(7.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (7.5) is effective January 1, 2026.] (a) "Motor vehicle" means a vehicle that is:

(I) Designed to transport individuals or property on a street or highway; and

(II) Certified by a motor vehicle manufacturer under:

(A) All applicable federal safety and emission standards; and

(B) All requirements for the distribution and sale of motor vehicles in the United States.

(b) "Motor vehicle" does not include a recreational vehicle, as defined in section 44-20-102 (23), or a motor home, as defined in section 42-1-102 (57), equipped for habitation.

(7.7) [Editor's note: Subsection (7.7) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Motor vehicle dealer" has the meaning set forth in section 44-20-102 (18).

(7.8) [Editor's note: Subsection (7.8) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Motor vehicle manufacturer" means an entity engaged in the business of manufacturing or assembling new motor vehicles.

(8) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (8) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Original equipment manufacturer" or "manufacturer" means a person doing business in the state and engaged in the business of selling, leasing, or otherwise supplying new equipment or parts manufactured by or on behalf of itself to any individual, business, or other entity.

(8) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (8) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Original equipment manufacturer" or "manufacturer" means a person doing business in the state and engaged in the business of selling, leasing, or otherwise supplying new digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchairs or parts manufactured by or on behalf of itself to any individual, business, or other entity.

(9) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (9) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Owner" means a person that owns equipment or an agent of the owner.

(9) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (9) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Owner" means a person that owns digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or a powered wheelchair or an agent of the owner.

(10) "Part" means a new or used replacement part for equipment that a manufacturer offers for sale or otherwise makes available for the purpose of providing services.

(10.3) [Editor's note: Subsection (10.3) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Parts pairing" means a manufacturer's practice of using software to identify component parts through a unique identifier.

(11) "Powered wheelchair" means a motorized wheeled device designed for use by a person with a physical disability.

(12) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (12) is effective until January 1, 2026.] "Services" means diagnostic, maintenance, or repair services performed on equipment or a part.

(12) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (12) is effective January 1, 2026.] "Services" means diagnostic, maintenance, or repair services performed on digital electronic equipment, agricultural equipment, or powered wheelchairs or a part.

(13) "Tools" means any software program, hardware implement, or other apparatus used for diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of equipment or parts, including software or other mechanism that provides, programs, or pairs a new part; calibrates functionality; or performs any other function required to return the equipment or part to fully functional condition.

(14) "Trade secret" has the meaning set forth in section 7-74-102 (4).

(15) [Editor's note: Subsection (15) is effective January 1, 2026.] (a) "Video game console" means a computing device that is:

(I) Primarily used by consumers for playing video games; and

(II) Neither a general nor an all-purpose computer.

(b) "Video game console" includes:

(I) A console machine;

(II) A handheld console device; and

(III) The components and peripherals of a video game console.

(c) "Video game console" does not include a desktop computer, laptop computer, computer tablet, or cell phone.
C.R.S. § 6-10-117 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-117
6-10-117. Assignee appointed by court - when
Status: in_force

6-10-117. Assignee appointed by court - when. If the assignee named in the deed fails or neglects to file an inventory and valuation and give bond for the period of ten days after the making of any assignment, or if he dies before the closing of his trust, or is removed from the execution of the trust, the court upon the application of any person interested may appoint an assignee to execute such trust. Such appointee, when he has qualified as provided in this article, shall have all the rights, powers, and authority and be subject to the same restrictions and obligations as an original assignee.
C.R.S. § 6-1-730 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-730
6-1-730. Price gouging during declared disaster prohibited - deceptive trade practice - l
Status: in_force

6-1-730. Price gouging during declared disaster prohibited - deceptive trade practice - legislative declaration - definitions. (1) The general assembly hereby:

(a) Finds and determines that:

(I) Under ordinary conditions, the pricing of consumer goods and services generally is best left to the marketplace; except that, when a declared disaster results in abnormal disruptions of the market, the public interest requires that any unfair and unconscionable increase in the price of consumer goods or services be discouraged; and

(II) Protecting consumers from price gouging is a vital function of the state's interest in providing for the health, safety, and welfare of the public; and

(b) Declares that existing prohibitions on deceptive or unfair and unconscionable trade practices under this article 1 should be clarified to ensure that price gouging has been and remains a violation of this article 1.

(2) A person engages in an unfair and unconscionable act or practice when, during a disaster period and within the designated area, the person charges a price so excessive as to amount to price gouging in:

(a) The sale or offer for sale of:

(I) Building materials;

(II) Consumer food items;

(III) Emergency supplies;

(IV) Fuel;

(V) Medical supplies; or

(VI) Other necessities; or

(b) The provision of or offer to provide:

(I) Repair or reconstruction services;

(II) Transportation, freight, or storage services; or

(III) Services used in an emergency cleanup.

(3) A price shall not be considered unreasonably excessive if the seller can prove that, due to the events that gave rise to the disaster declaration, the price charged by the seller is directly attributable to additional costs imposed by the seller's supplier or suppliers or other direct costs of providing the good or service sold or offered for sale by the seller.

(4) This section is enforceable solely by, and at the discretion of, the attorney general or the district attorney with jurisdiction over the conduct at issue.

(5) As used in this section:

(a) "Building materials" means lumber, construction tools, windows, and other materials used in the repair or reconstruction of a structure or other property.

(b) "Consumer food item" means an article used or intended for use as food, beverage, confection, or condiment for human or animal consumption.

(c) "Designated area" means the specific geographic area identified in a disaster declaration.

(d) "Disaster" has the meaning set forth in section 24-33.5-703 (3).

(e) "Disaster declaration" means the declaration of:

(I) A national emergency by the president of the United States pursuant to the "National Emergencies Act", 50 U.S.C. sec. 1601 et seq., as amended; or

(II) A disaster emergency by the governor pursuant to section 24-33.5-704 (4).

(f) "Disaster period" means the date a disaster declaration begins and continuing for one hundred eighty days after the date that the final disaster declaration concerning the disaster expires.

(g) "Emergency supplies" includes water, ice, flashlights, radios, batteries, candles, blankets, soap, diapers, temporary shelters, tape, toilet paper, tissues, paper towels, and toiletries.

(h) (I) "Fuel" means any liquid or gas used to power a vehicle or power tool or used to heat and power a building.

(II) "Fuel" includes gasoline, diesel fuel, and methyl alcohol.

(i) "Medical device" has the same meaning as "device" as set forth in section 25-5-402 (8).

(j) "Medical supplies" includes prescription and nonprescription medication, medical devices, bandages, gauze, isopropyl alcohol, and antibacterial products.

(k) "Necessities" means goods and services that are necessary for human or animal survival during a disaster period.

(l) "Repair or reconstruction services" means services performed to repair or reconstruct any type of vehicle; residential, commercial, agricultural, or government-owned property; or any property owned by an educational institution, that is damaged as a result of a disaster.

(m) (I) "Transportation, freight, or storage services" means a service that is performed by a person that:

(A) Contracts to move, transport, or store property; or

(B) Rents equipment for the purpose of moving, transporting, or storing property.

(II) "Transportation, freight, or storage services" includes towing services.
C.R.S. § 6-1-703 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-703
6-1-703. Time shares and resale time shares - deceptive trade practices
Status: in_force

6-1-703. Time shares and resale time shares - deceptive trade practices. (1) A person engages in a deceptive trade practice when, in the course of the person's business, vocation, or occupation, the person engages in one or more of the following activities in connection with the advertisement or sale of a time share or the provision of a time share resale service:

(a) Misrepresents:

(I) The investment, resale, or rental value of any time share;

(II) The conditions under which a purchaser may exchange the right to use accommodations or facilities in one location for the right to use accommodations or facilities in another location; or

(III) The period of time during which the accommodations or facilities contracted for will be available to the purchaser;

(b) Fails to allow any purchaser a right to rescind the sale of a time share or a time share resale service within five calendar days after the sale;

(c) (I) Fails to provide conspicuous notice on the contract of the right of a purchaser of a time share or time share resale service to rescind the sale in writing either by electronic means, mail, or hand delivery.

(II) For purposes of this section, notice of rescission is given:

(A) If by mail, when postmarked;

(B) If by electronic mail or other electronic means, when sent; or

(C) If by hand delivery, when delivered to the seller's place of business.

(d) Fails to refund any down payment or deposit made pursuant to a time share contract or contract for time share resale service within seven days after the seller or time share resale entity receives the purchaser's written notice of rescission; except that, if the purchaser's check has not cleared at the time notice of rescission is received, the person has seven additional days after receipt of funds from the purchaser's cleared check to refund the down payment or deposit;

(e) With respect to the sale or solicitation of any time share resale service, makes false or misleading statements, including statements concerning:

(I) The existence of offers to buy or rent the resale time share;

(II) The likelihood of, or the time necessary to complete, any sale, rental, transfer, or invalidation;

(III) The value of the resale time share;

(IV) The current or future costs of owning the resale time share, including assessments, maintenance fees, or taxes;

(V) How amounts paid by the purchaser of the time share resale service will be utilized;

(VI) The method or source from which the name, address, telephone number, or other contact information of the owner of the resale time share was obtained;

(VII) The identity of the time share resale entity or that entity's affiliates; or

(VIII) The terms and conditions upon which the time share resale service is offered;

(f) Engages in any time share resale service without first obtaining a written contract to provide the service, which contract is signed by the purchaser of the time share resale service and complies with the requirements of this section. For purposes of paragraph (c) of this subsection (1), the required notice of rescission rights applicable to a contract for a time share resale service is conspicuous if printed in at least fourteen-point, bold-faced type immediately preceding the space in the contract provided for the purchaser's signature. In addition to any other remedy provided in this article, a time share resale service contract that does not satisfy the requirements of this section is voidable at the option of the purchaser for up to one year after the date the purchaser executes the contract.

(g) With respect to time share resale transfer agreements, fails to comply with any provision of, or otherwise makes false or misleading statements in connection with, any disclosure or other act required to be made or observed under section 6-1-703.5.

(2) The unlawful practices listed in this section are in addition to, and do not limit, the types of deceptive trade practices actionable under section 6-1-105.

(3) No person shall knowingly circumvent the requirements of this section or section 6-1-703.5.

(4) (a) A person who, as director, officer, or agent of a time share resale entity or as agent of a person who violates this article, assists or aids, directly or indirectly, in a violation of this article is responsible equally with the person for which the person acts.

(b) In the prosecution of a person as officer, director, or agent, it is sufficient to allege and prove the unlawful intent of the person or entity for which the person acts.
C.R.S. § 6-13-102 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 13 / Part 1 / Section 6-13-102
6-13-102. Scope of article
Status: in_force

6-13-102. Scope of article. (1) (a) This article 13 applies only to the following:

(I) A contract entered into between a performing rights society and a proprietor; and

(II) Investigations and negotiations related to a contract or prospective contract between a performing rights society and a proprietor.

(b) The rights, remedies, and prohibitions accorded by this article 13 are in addition to any other right, remedy, or prohibition accorded by common law, federal law, or the laws of this state and do not deny, abrogate, or impair any such common-law or statutory right, remedy, or prohibition.

(2) This article shall not apply to:

(a) A contract entered into between a performing rights society and a broadcaster licensed by the federal communications commission;

(b) Conduct described in sections 18-4-602, 18-4-603, and 18-4-604, C.R.S.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1702 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 17 / Section 6-1-1702
6-1-1702. Developer duty to avoid algorithmic discrimination - required documentation
Status: in_force

6-1-1702. Developer duty to avoid algorithmic discrimination - required documentation. (1) On and after February 1, 2026, a developer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system shall use reasonable care to protect consumers from any known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination arising from the intended and contracted uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system. In any enforcement action brought on or after February 1, 2026, by the attorney general pursuant to section 6-1-1706, there is a rebuttable presumption that a developer used reasonable care as required under this section if the developer complied with this section and any additional requirements or obligations as set forth in rules promulgated by the attorney general pursuant to section 6-1-1707.

(2) On and after February 1, 2026, and except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a developer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system shall make available to the deployer or other developer of the high-risk artificial intelligence system:

(a) A general statement describing the reasonably foreseeable uses and known harmful or inappropriate uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(b) Documentation disclosing:

(I) High-level summaries of the type of data used to train the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(II) Known or reasonably foreseeable limitations of the high-risk artificial intelligence system, including known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination arising from the intended uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(III) The purpose of the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(IV) The intended benefits and uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system; and

(V) All other information necessary to allow the deployer to comply with the requirements of section 6-1-1703;

(c) Documentation describing:

(I) How the high-risk artificial intelligence system was evaluated for performance and mitigation of algorithmic discrimination before the high-risk artificial intelligence system was offered, sold, leased, licensed, given, or otherwise made available to the deployer;

(II) The data governance measures used to cover the training datasets and the measures used to examine the suitability of data sources, possible biases, and appropriate mitigation;

(III) The intended outputs of the high-risk artificial intelligence system;

(IV) The measures the developer has taken to mitigate known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination that may arise from the reasonably foreseeable deployment of the high-risk artificial intelligence system; and

(V) How the high-risk artificial intelligence system should be used, not be used, and be monitored by an individual when the high-risk artificial intelligence system is used to make, or is a substantial factor in making, a consequential decision; and

(d) Any additional documentation that is reasonably necessary to assist the deployer in understanding the outputs and monitor the performance of the high-risk artificial intelligence system for risks of algorithmic discrimination.

(3) (a) Except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a developer that offers, sells, leases, licenses, gives, or otherwise makes available to a deployer or other developer a high-risk artificial intelligence system on or after February 1, 2026, shall make available to the deployer or other developer, to the extent feasible, the documentation and information, through artifacts such as model cards, dataset cards, or other impact assessments, necessary for a deployer, or for a third party contracted by a deployer, to complete an impact assessment pursuant to section 6-1-1703 (3).

(b) A developer that also serves as a deployer for a high-risk artificial intelligence system is not required to generate the documentation required by this section unless the high-risk artificial intelligence system is provided to an unaffiliated entity acting as a deployer.

(4) (a) On and after February 1, 2026, a developer shall make available, in a manner that is clear and readily available on the developer's website or in a public use case inventory, a statement summarizing:

(I) The types of high-risk artificial intelligence systems that the developer has developed or intentionally and substantially modified and currently makes available to a deployer or other developer; and

(II) How the developer manages known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination that may arise from the development or intentional and substantial modification of the types of high-risk artificial intelligence systems described in accordance with subsection (4)(a)(I) of this section.

(b) A developer shall update the statement described in subsection (4)(a) of this section:

(I) As necessary to ensure that the statement remains accurate; and

(II) No later than ninety days after the developer intentionally and substantially modifies any high-risk artificial intelligence system described in subsection (4)(a)(I) of this section.

(5) On and after February 1, 2026, a developer of a high-risk artificial intelligence system shall disclose to the attorney general, in a form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, and to all known deployers or other developers of the high-risk artificial intelligence system, any known or reasonably foreseeable risks of algorithmic discrimination arising from the intended uses of the high-risk artificial intelligence system without unreasonable delay but no later than ninety days after the date on which:

(a) The developer discovers through the developer's ongoing testing and analysis that the developer's high-risk artificial intelligence system has been deployed and has caused or is reasonably likely to have caused algorithmic discrimination; or

(b) The developer receives from a deployer a credible report that the high-risk artificial intelligence system has been deployed and has caused algorithmic discrimination.

(6) Nothing in subsections (2) to (5) of this section requires a developer to disclose a trade secret, information protected from disclosure by state or federal law, or information that would create a security risk to the developer.

(7) On and after February 1, 2026, the attorney general may require that a developer disclose to the attorney general, no later than ninety days after the request and in a form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, the statement or documentation described in subsection (2) of this section. The attorney general may evaluate such statement or documentation to ensure compliance with this part 17, and the statement or documentation is not subject to disclosure under the "Colorado Open Records Act", part 2 of article 72 of title 24. In a disclosure pursuant to this subsection (7), a developer may designate the statement or documentation as including proprietary information or a trade secret. To the extent that any information contained in the statement or documentation includes information subject to attorney-client privilege or work-product protection, the disclosure does not constitute a waiver of the privilege or protection.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1505 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 15 / Section 6-1-1505
6-1-1505. Federal legislation on right to repair agricultural equipment - repeal - notice
Status: repealed

6-1-1505. Federal legislation on right to repair agricultural equipment - repeal - notice to revisor. This part 15, as amended by House Bill 23-1011, enacted in 2023, will be repealed if the United States congress enacts federal legislation establishing a right to repair agricultural equipment. The attorney general shall notify the revisor of statutes in writing of the date on which the condition specified in this section has occurred by e-mailing the notice to revisorofstatutes.ga@coleg.gov. This part 15, as amended by House Bill 23-1011, enacted in 2023, is repealed, effective upon the date identified in the notice that the federal legislation was enacted or, if the notice does not specify that date, upon the date of the notice to the revisor of statutes.
C.R.S. § 6-7.5-101 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-101
6-7.5-101. Legislative declaration
Status: in_force

6-7.5-101. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly finds and determines that efficiency standards for certain products sold in Colorado:

(a) Assure consumers and businesses that such products meet minimum efficiency performance levels, thus reducing energy and water waste and saving consumers and businesses money on utility bills;

(b) Protect consumers and businesses against manufacturers who would otherwise sell, in Colorado, less efficient appliances that they cannot sell in states that have higher standards;

(c) Save energy and thus reduce pollution and other environmental impacts associated with the production, distribution, and use of electricity, natural gas, and other fuels;

(d) Improve electric system reliability and potentially reduce the need for new energy and water infrastructure based on the resulting energy and water savings;

(e) Apply to products available at a price equal to or less than noncompliant products, or available at a minimal cost premium;

(f) Have saved Coloradans billions of gallons of water since 2014, when WaterSense standards were enacted for plumbing fixtures, without sacrificing quality or product performance; and

(g) Contribute to the economy of this state by helping to better balance supply and demand for both energy and water, thus reducing the upward pressure on prices for electricity, natural gas, and water caused by increased demand. In addition, efficiency standards allow consumers and businesses to use the money they save on utility bills to purchase local goods and services.

(2) Therefore, the general assembly declares that the adoption of energy and water efficiency standards in accordance with this article 7.5 is a matter of state and local concern and serves the public interest of the people of Colorado.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1404 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 14 / Section 6-1-1404
6-1-1404. Preemption
Status: in_force

6-1-1404. Preemption. (1) A political subdivision shall not establish, mandate, or otherwise require online marketplaces to:

(a) Verify information from high-volume third-party sellers on a one-time or ongoing basis; or

(b) Disclose or require the disclosure of information to consumers.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1403 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 14 / Section 6-1-1403
6-1-1403. Enforcement
Status: in_force

6-1-1403. Enforcement. (1) (a) The attorney general and district attorneys have exclusive authority to enforce this part 14 by bringing an action in the name of the state or as parens patriae on behalf of persons residing in the state to enforce this part 14 as provided in part 1 of this article 1.

(b) Nothing in this part 14 shall be construed as providing the basis for, or subjecting a party to, a private right of action for violations of this part 14 or any other law.

(2) Unfair and deceptive acts or practices. A violation of this part 14 is an unfair or deceptive trade practice pursuant to section 6-1-105 (1)(ooo).
C.R.S. § 6-19-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 19 / Part 1 / Section 6-19-103
6-19-103. Procedures for covered transactions - notice - attorney general powers
Status: in_force

6-19-103. Procedures for covered transactions - notice - attorney general powers. (1) The parties to a covered transaction shall provide notice of such transaction to the attorney general no later than sixty days prior to the transaction closing or effective date of the transaction. The notice to the attorney general shall be in writing, shall include the information required in section 6-19-202, 6-19-302, or 6-19-402, as applicable, and shall contain a certification that public notice of the transaction will be given within seven days after the notification to the attorney general.

(2) Whenever the attorney general has reason to believe that a person has engaged in or is engaging in a covered transaction without complying with the provisions of this article, the attorney general may apply for and obtain, in an action in the appropriate district court of this state, a temporary restraining order or injunction, or both, pursuant to the Colorado rules of civil procedure prohibiting such person from continuing such noncompliance or engaging therein or doing any act in furtherance thereof. The court may make such further orders or judgments, at law or in equity, as may be necessary to remedy such noncompliance.
C.R.S. § 6-16-104.5 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-104.5
6-16-104.5. Additional reporting requirements
Status: repealed

6-16-104.5. Additional reporting requirements. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-22-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 22 / Section 6-22-103
6-22-103. Contracts for roofing services - writing required - required terms
Status: in_force

6-22-103. Contracts for roofing services - writing required - required terms. (1) Prior to engaging in any roofing work, a roofing contractor shall provide a written contract to the property owner, signed by both the roofing contractor or his or her designee and the property owner, stating at least the following terms:

(a) The scope of roofing services and materials to be provided;

(b) The approximate dates of service;

(c) The approximate costs of the services based on damages known at the time the contract is entered;

(d) The roofing contractor's contact information, including physical address, electronic mail address, telephone number, and any other contact information available for the roofing contractor;

(e) Identification of the roofing contractor's surety and liability coverage insurer and their contact information, if applicable;

(f) (I) The roofing contractor's policy regarding cancellation of the contract and refund of any deposit, including a rescission clause allowing the property owner to rescind the contract and obtain a full refund of any deposit within seventy-two hours after entering the contract; and

(II) A written statement that the property owner may rescind a roofing contract pursuant to section 6-22-104; and

(g) A written statement that if the property owner plans to use the proceeds of a property and casualty insurance policy issued pursuant to part 1 of article 4 of title 10, C.R.S., to pay for the roofing work, pursuant to section 6-22-105, the roofing contractor cannot pay, waive, rebate, or promise to pay, waive, or rebate all or part of any insurance deductible applicable to the insurance claim for payment for roofing work on the covered residential property.

(2) In addition to the contract terms required in subsection (1) of this section, a roofing contractor shall include, on the face of the contract, in bold-faced type, a statement indicating that the roofing contractor shall hold in trust any payment from the property owner until the roofing contractor has delivered roofing materials at the residential property site or has performed a majority of the roofing work on the residential property.
C.R.S. § 6-13-104 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 13 / Part 1 / Section 6-13-104
6-13-104. Violations - penalties
Status: in_force

6-13-104. Violations - penalties. (1) A proprietor may bring an action in a court of competent jurisdiction or assert a counterclaim against a copyright owner or performing rights society to enjoin a violation of this article and recover any damages sustained as a result of such violation.

(2) The prevailing party in any action brought under this article 13 shall be awarded reasonable attorney fees. If the prevailing party is a proprietor, the proprietor may also recover the reasonable costs of the action and treble damages, but in no event shall the proprietor be awarded less than two thousand dollars.

(3) A proprietor shall not bring a counterclaim against any party except the original complainant, and if such complainant is a performing rights society, a counterclaim shall not be brought against any copyright owner in his or her individual capacity.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1303 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 13 / Section 6-1-1303
6-1-1303. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-1-1303. Definitions. As used in this part 13, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1) is effective until October 1, 2025.] "Affiliate" means a legal entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another legal entity. As used in this subsection (1), "control" means:

(a) Ownership of, control of, or power to vote twenty-five percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of the entity, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;

(b) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners of the entity or of individuals exercising similar functions; or

(c) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the entity as determined by the applicable prudential regulator, as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. sec. 5481 (24), if any.

(1) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1) is effective October 1, 2025.] "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age or older.

(1.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (1.5) is effective October 1, 2025.] (a) "Affiliate" means a legal entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another legal entity.

(b) As used in subsection (1.5)(a) of this section, "control" means:

(I) Ownership of, control of, or power to vote twenty-five percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of the entity, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;

(II) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners of the entity or of individuals exercising similar functions; or

(III) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the entity as determined by the applicable prudential regulator, as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. sec. 5481 (24), if any.

(2) "Authenticate" means to use reasonable means to determine that a request to exercise any of the rights in section 6-1-1306 (1) is being made by or on behalf of the consumer who is entitled to exercise the rights.

(2.2) "Biological data" means data generated by the technological processing, measurement, or analysis of an individual's biological, genetic, biochemical, physiological, or neural properties, compositions, or activities or of an individual's body or bodily functions, which data is used or intended to be used, singly or in combination with other personal data, for identification purposes. "Biological data" includes neural data.

(2.4) [Editor's note: Subsection (2.4) is effective July 1, 2025.] (a) "Biometric data" means one or more biometric identifiers that are used or intended to be used, singly or in combination with each other or with other personal data, for identification purposes.

(b) "Biometric data" does not include the following unless the biometric data is used for identification purposes:

(I) A digital or physical photograph;

(II) An audio or voice recording; or

(III) Any data generated from a digital or physical photograph or an audio or video recording.

(2.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (2.5) is effective July 1, 2025.] "Biometric identifier" means data generated by the technological processing, measurement, or analysis of a consumer's biological, physical, or behavioral characteristics, which data can be processed for the purpose of uniquely identifying an individual. "Biometric identifier" includes:

(a) A fingerprint;

(b) A voiceprint;

(c) A scan or record of an eye retina or iris;

(d) A facial map, facial geometry, or facial template; or

(e) Other unique biological, physical, or behavioral patterns or characteristics.

(3) "Business associate" has the meaning established in 45 CFR 160.103.

(4) "Child" means an individual under thirteen years of age.

(5) "Consent" means a clear, affirmative act signifying a consumer's freely given, specific, informed, and unambiguous agreement, such as by a written statement, including by electronic means, or other clear, affirmative action by which the consumer signifies agreement to the processing of personal data. The following does not constitute consent:

(a) Acceptance of a general or broad terms of use or similar document that contains descriptions of personal data processing along with other, unrelated information;

(b) Hovering over, muting, pausing, or closing a given piece of content; and

(c) Agreement obtained through dark patterns.

(6) "Consumer":

(a) Means an individual who is a Colorado resident acting only in an individual or household context; and

(b) Does not include an individual acting in a commercial or employment context, as a job applicant, or as a beneficiary of someone acting in an employment context.

(7) "Controller" means a person that, alone or jointly with others, determines the purposes for and means of processing personal data.

(8) "Covered entity" has the meaning established in 45 CFR 160.103.

(9) "Dark pattern" means a user interface designed or manipulated with the substantial effect of subverting or impairing user autonomy, decision-making, or choice.

(10) "Decisions that produce legal or similarly significant effects concerning a consumer" means a decision that results in the provision or denial of financial or lending services, housing, insurance, education enrollment or opportunity, criminal justice, employment opportunities, health-care services, or access to essential goods or services.

(11) "De-identified data" means data that cannot reasonably be used to infer information about, or otherwise be linked to, an identified or identifiable individual, or a device linked to such an individual, if the controller that possesses the data:

(a) Takes reasonable measures to ensure that the data cannot be associated with an individual;

(b) Publicly commits to maintain and use the data only in a de-identified fashion and not attempt to re-identify the data; and

(c) Contractually obligates any recipients of the information to comply with the requirements of this subsection (11).

(12) "Health-care facility" means any entity that is licensed, certified, or otherwise authorized or permitted by law to administer medical treatment in this state.

(13) "Health-care information" means individually identifiable information relating to the past, present, or future health status of an individual.

(14) "Health-care provider" means a person licensed, certified, or registered in this state to practice medicine, pharmacy, chiropractic, nursing, physical therapy, podiatry, dentistry, optometry, occupational therapy, or other healing arts under title 12.

(14.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (14.5) is effective October 1, 2025.] "Heightened risk of harm to minors" means processing the personal data of minors in a manner that presents a reasonably foreseeable risk that could cause:

(a) Unfair or deceptive treatment of, or unlawful disparate impact on, minors;

(b) Financial, physical, or reputational injury to minors;

(c) Unauthorized disclosure of the personal data of minors as a result of a security breach, as defined in section 6-1-716 (1)(h); or

(d) Physical or other intrusion upon the solitude or seclusion, or the private affairs or concerns, of minors if the intrusion would be offensive to a reasonable person.

(15) "HIPAA" means the federal "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996", as amended, 42 U.S.C. secs. 1320d to 1320d-9.

(16) "Identified or identifiable individual" means an individual who can be readily identified, directly or indirectly, in particular by reference to an identifier such as a name, an identification number, specific geolocation data, or an online identifier.

(16.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (16.5) is effective October 1, 2025.] "Minor" means any consumer who is under eighteen years of age.

(16.7) "Neural data" means information that is generated by the measurement of the activity of an individual's central or peripheral nervous systems and that can be processed by or with the assistance of a device.

(16.8) [Editor's note: Subsection (16.8) is effective October 1, 2025.] "Online service, product, or feature":

(a) Means any service, product, or feature that is provided online; and

(b) Does not include:

(I) Telecommunications service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. sec. 153 (53), as amended;

(II) Broadband internet access service, as defined in 47 CFR 54.400 (l), as amended; or

(III) The delivery or use of a physical product.

(17) "Personal data":

(a) Means information that is linked or reasonably linkable to an identified or identifiable individual; and

(b) Does not include de-identified data or publicly available information. As used in this subsection (17)(b), "publicly available information" means information that is lawfully made available from federal, state, or local government records and information that a controller has a reasonable basis to believe the consumer has lawfully made available to the general public.

(17.5) [Editor's note: Subsection (17.5) is effective October 1, 2025.] "Precise geolocation data":

(a) Means information derived from technology, including global positioning system level latitude and longitude coordinates or other mechanisms, that directly identifies the specific location of an individual with precision and accuracy within a radius of one thousand seven hundred fifty feet; and

(b) Does not include:

(I) The content of communications regarding location; or

(II) Any data generated by or connected to advanced utility metering infrastructure systems or equipment for use by a utility.

(18) "Process" or "processing" means the collection, use, sale, storage, disclosure, analysis, deletion, or modification of personal data and includes the actions of a controller directing a processor to process personal data.

(19) "Processor" means a person that processes personal data on behalf of a controller.

(20) "Profiling" means any form of automated processing of personal data to evaluate, analyze, or predict personal aspects concerning an identified or identifiable individual's economic situation, health, personal preferences, interests, reliability, behavior, location, or movements.

(21) "Protected health information" has the meaning established in 45 CFR 160.103.

(22) "Pseudonymous data" means personal data that can no longer be attributed to a specific individual without the use of additional information if the additional information is kept separately and is subject to technical and organizational measures to ensure that the personal data are not attributed to a specific individual.

(23) (a) "Sale", "sell", or "sold" means the exchange of personal data for monetary or other valuable consideration by a controller to a third party.

(b) "Sale", "sell", or "sold" does not include the following:

(I) The disclosure of personal data to a processor that processes the personal data on behalf of a controller;

(II) The disclosure of personal data to a third party for purposes of providing a product or service requested by the consumer;

(III) The disclosure or transfer of personal data to an affiliate of the controller;

(IV) The disclosure or transfer to a third party of personal data as an asset that is part of a proposed or actual merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the third party assumes control of all or part of the controller's assets; or

(V) The disclosure of personal data:

(A) That a consumer directs the controller to disclose or intentionally discloses by using the controller to interact with a third party; or

(B) Intentionally made available by a consumer to the general public via a channel of mass media.

(24) "Sensitive data" means:

(a) Personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, religious beliefs, a mental or physical health condition or diagnosis, sex life or sexual orientation, or citizenship or citizenship status;

(b) Genetic or biometric data that may be processed for the purpose of uniquely identifying an individual;

(c) Personal data from a known child; or

(d) Biological data.

(25) "Targeted advertising":

(a) Means displaying to a consumer an advertisement that is selected based on personal data obtained or inferred over time from the consumer's activities across nonaffiliated websites, applications, or online services to predict consumer preferences or interests; and

(b) Does not include:

(I) Advertising to a consumer in response to the consumer's request for information or feedback;

(II) Advertisements based on activities within a controller's own websites or online applications;

(III) Advertisements based on the context of a consumer's current search query, visit to a website, or online application; or

(IV) Processing personal data solely for measuring or reporting advertising performance, reach, or frequency.

(26) "Third party" means a person, public authority, agency, or body other than a consumer, controller, processor, or affiliate of the processor or the controller.
C.R.S. § 6-1-731 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-731
6-1-731. Contracts for dating services and online dating services - right of cancellation
Status: reserved

6-1-731. Contracts for dating services and online dating services - right of cancellation - remedy for violations - required notice regarding fraud bans - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Banned member" means a member whose account or profile is the subject of a fraud ban.

(b) "Buyer" means an individual who purchases services from a dating service.

(c) (I) "Dating service" means any person that offers dating, matrimonial, or social referral services by any of the following means:

(A) An exchange of names, telephone numbers, addresses, and statistics;

(B) A photograph or video selection process;

(C) Personal introductions provided by the person at its place of business; or

(D) A social environment provided by the person intended primarily as an alternative to other singles' bars or club-type environments.

(II) "Dating service" includes an online dating service.

(d) (I) "Dating service contract" means a contract between a buyer and a dating service.

(II) "Dating service contract" includes an online dating service contract.

(e) "Dating service office" means the principal place of business of a dating service.

(f) "Disability" means a condition that precludes a buyer from physically using the services specified in a dating service contract during the term of disability, which condition is verified in writing by a physician designated and remunerated by the buyer.

(g) "Fraud ban" means the barring of a member from an online dating service because, in the judgment of the online dating service, the member poses a significant risk of attempting to obtain money from other members through fraudulent means, by using a false identity, or by attempting to defraud other members of the online dating service.

(h) "Member" means an individual who signs up or registers with an online dating service.

(i) "Member in this state" means a member who provides a billing address or zip code in this state when registering with an online dating service.

(j) "Online dating service" means any person engaged in the business of offering dating, matrimonial, or social referral services that are offered primarily online, such as by means of a website or a mobile application.

(k) "Online dating service contract" means a contract between a buyer and an online dating service.

(2) (a) In addition to any other right to revoke an offer, a buyer has the right to cancel a dating service contract until midnight of the third business day after the day on which the buyer signs the contract.

(b) (I) Except as described in subsection (2)(b)(II) of this section, cancellation of a dating services contract occurs when the buyer gives written notice of cancellation by mail, telegram, or delivery to the dating service at the address specified in the contract or offer.

(II) In the case of an online dating service contract, cancellation occurs when the buyer gives written notice of cancellation by e-mail to an e-mail address provided by the online dating service or through another simple, cost-effective, timely, and easy-to-use mechanism for cancellation provided by the online dating service. Additional electronic means of cancellation may be provided by the contract.

(c) Notice of cancellation, if given by mail, is effective when deposited in the mail properly addressed with postage prepaid. If notice of cancellation is given by e-mail, it is effective at the time the buyer sends the notice.

(d) Notice of cancellation given by the buyer need not take the particular form as provided in the contract and, however expressed, is effective if it indicates the intention of the buyer to not be bound by the dating service contract.

(e) All money paid pursuant to any dating service contract shall be refunded within ten days after receipt of the notice of cancellation.

(f) The buyer may notify the dating service of the buyer's intent to cancel the contract within the three-day period specified in this subsection (2) and stop the processing of a credit card voucher or check by telephone notification to the dating service. However, this does not negate the obligation of the buyer to cancel the contract by mail, e-mail or other electronic means, telegram, or delivery as required pursuant to this section.

(3) (a) A dating service contract must be set forth in writing, which, in the case of an online dating service contract, may be an electronic writing made available for viewing online. A copy of the contract shall be provided to the buyer at the time the buyer signs the contract; except that an online dating service shall not be required to provide a copy of the contract if:

(I) The contract is available through a direct online link that is provided in a clear and conspicuous manner on the website where the buyer provides consent to the contract; and

(II) Upon request by the buyer, the online dating service provides a retainable digital copy of the contract.

(b) (I) Each dating service contract must contain on its face, in close proximity to the space reserved for the signature of the buyer, a conspicuous statement in a larger size type than the surrounding text; in contrasting type, font, or color to the surrounding text of the same size; or set off from the surrounding text of the same size by symbols or other marks in a manner that clearly calls attention to the language, as follows:

YOU, THE BUYER, MAY CANCEL THIS CONTRACT, WITHOUT ANY PENALTY OR OBLIGATION, AT ANY TIME PRIOR TO MIDNIGHT OF THE THIRD BUSINESS DAY FOLLOWING THE DATE OF THIS CONTRACT, EXCLUDING SUNDAYS AND HOLIDAYS. NOTICE OF CANCELLATION NEED NOT TAKE A PARTICULAR FORM AND IS EFFECTIVE IF IT INDICATES YOUR DESIRE TO NOT BE BOUND BY THIS CONTRACT. TO CANCEL THIS CONTRACT, MAIL OR DELIVER A SIGNED AND DATED NOTICE OR SEND A TELEGRAM THAT STATES THAT YOU, THE BUYER, ARE CANCELING THIS CONTRACT, OR WORDS OF SIMILAR EFFECT. SEND THIS NOTICE TO:

_________________________ (Name of the dating service that sold you the contract)

_________________________ (Address of the dating service that sold you the contract)

(II) Notwithstanding subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section, an online dating service contract must include the following statement in a clear and conspicuous manner in a standalone first paragraph of the contract:

YOU, THE BUYER, MAY CANCEL THIS CONTRACT, WITHOUT ANY PENALTY OR OBLIGATION, AT ANY TIME PRIOR TO MIDNIGHT OF THE THIRD BUSINESS DAY FOLLOWING THE DATE OF THIS CONTRACT, EXCLUDING SUNDAYS AND HOLIDAYS. NOTICE OF CANCELLATION NEED NOT TAKE A PARTICULAR FORM AND IS EFFECTIVE IF IT INDICATES YOUR DESIRE TO NOT BE BOUND BY THIS CONTRACT. TO CANCEL THIS CONTRACT, SEND AN E-MAIL THAT STATES THAT YOU, THE BUYER, ARE CANCELING THIS CONTRACT, OR WORDS OF SIMILAR EFFECT. SEND THIS NOTICE TO: ____________ (E-mail address of the online dating service that sold the contract)

(c) (I) Each dating service contract must contain on the first page, in a type size no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, the name and address of the dating service to which the notice of cancellation is to be mailed or delivered and the date the buyer signed the contract.

(II) Notwithstanding subsection (3)(c)(I) of this section, in the case of an online dating service contract, said subsection (3)(c)(I) does not apply if the name of the online dating service and the e-mail address or other simple, cost-effective, timely, and easy-to-use mechanism that can be used for cancellation appears in the first paragraph of the contract in a type size no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document.

(d) (I) A dating service contract shall not require payments or financing by the buyer over a period exceeding two years after the date the contract is entered into, nor shall the term of any such contract be measured by the life of the buyer. However, the services to be rendered to the buyer under the contract may extend over a period beginning within six months and ending within three years after the date the contract is executed.

(II) Notwithstanding subsection (3)(d)(I) of this section, in the case of an online dating service contract, said subsection (3)(d)(I) does not apply if the length of the initial term is one year or less and the length of each subsequent term is one year or less.

(e) If a dating service contract does not comply with the requirements of this section, the buyer may cancel the contract at any time.

(4) (a) Each dating service contract must contain language providing that:

(I) If by reason of death or disability the buyer is unable to receive all services for which the buyer has contracted, the buyer and the buyer's estate may elect to be relieved of the obligation to make payments for services other than those received before death or the onset of disability, except as provided in subsection (4)(a)(III) of this section, so long as the buyer or the buyer's estate provides written verification of the disability to the dating service.

(II) If the buyer has prepaid any amount for services, so much of the amount prepaid that is allocable to services that the buyer has not received shall be promptly refunded to the buyer or the buyer's representative; and

(III) If the physician verifying the buyer's disability determines that the duration of the disability will be less than six months, the dating service may extend the term of the contract for a period of six months at no additional charge to the buyer in lieu of cancellation.

(b) (I) If a dating service provides services within a limited geographical area, and a buyer relocates the buyer's primary residence more than fifty miles from the dating service office and is unable to transfer the contract to a comparable facility, the buyer may elect to be relieved of the obligation to make payment for services other than those received prior to the relocation, and if the buyer has prepaid any amount for services, so much of the amount prepaid that is allocable to services that the buyer has not received shall be promptly refunded to the buyer. A buyer who elects to be relieved of further obligation pursuant to this subsection (4)(b)(I) may be charged a predetermined fee not to exceed one hundred dollars or, if more than half the life of the contract has expired, a predetermined fee not to exceed fifty dollars.

(II) Notwithstanding subsection (4)(b)(I) of this section, said subsection (4)(b)(I) does not apply to an online dating service that is generally available to users on a regional, national, or global basis.

(c) In addition to any other requirements, an online dating service shall also maintain:

(I) A reference or online link to dating safety awareness information that includes, at a minimum, a list or descriptions of safety measures reasonably intended to increase awareness of safe dating practices; and

(II) A means by which a member may report issues or concerns relating to the behavior of other members of the online dating service arising out of their use of the service.

(5) (a) Any dating service contract that does not comply with this section is void and unenforceable.

(b) Any dating service contract that is entered into by a buyer in response to willfully fraudulent or misleading information or advertisements of the dating service is void and unenforceable.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of any dating service contract, in any case in which a contract price is payable in installments and the buyer is relieved from making further payments or entitled to a refund under this section, the buyer is entitled to receive a refund or refund credit of that portion of the cash price that is allocable to the services not actually received by the buyer. The refund of any finance charge shall be computed according to the "sum of the balance method", also known as the "Rule of 78".

(d) Any waiver by a buyer of the rights afforded to the buyer by this section is void and unenforceable.

(6) (a) An online dating service shall provide notice to all of its members in this state who the online dating service knows have previously received and responded to an on-site message from a banned member. The notice must include all of the following:

(I) The username, identification number, or other profile identifier of the banned member;

(II) A statement that the banned member may have been using a false identity or may attempt to defraud other members;

(III) A statement that members should not send money or personal financial information to another member; and

(IV) An online link that provides information regarding ways to avoid online fraud or being defrauded by a member of an online dating service.

(b) The notification required by subsection (6)(a) of this section must be:

(I) Clear and conspicuous;

(II) Sent via e-mail, text message, or other appropriate means of communication consented to by the member; and

(III) Sent within twenty-four hours after the fraud ban is initiated against the banned member; except that notification may be sent within three days after the fraud ban is initiated if, in the judgment of the online dating service, circumstances require additional time.

(c) An online dating service whose agents and employees are acting in good faith is not liable to any person, other than this state or any agency, department, or political subdivision of this state, for damages resulting from:

(I) The means of communication used to notify a member;

(II) When notification is sent pursuant to this section; or

(III) Disclosing any of the following information:

(A) That a member has been banned;

(B) The username, identification number, or other profile identifier of the banned member; or

(C) The reason that the online dating service initiated the fraud ban of a banned member.

(d) This section does not create a private right of action or diminish or adversely affect the protections afforded in 47 U.S.C. sec. 230.
C.R.S. § 6-1-102 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 1 / Section 6-1-102
6-1-102. Definitions
Status: repealed

6-1-102. Definitions. As used in this article 1, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Advertisement" includes the attempt by publication, dissemination, solicitation, or circulation, visual, oral, or written, to induce directly or indirectly any person to enter into any obligation or to acquire any title or interest in any property.

(2) "Article" means a product as distinguished from a trademark, label, or distinctive dress in packaging.

(2.5) "Business day" means any calendar day except Sunday, New Year's day, the third Monday in January observed as the birthday of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., Washington-Lincoln day, Memorial day, Juneteenth, Independence day, Labor day, Frances Xavier Cabrini day, Veterans' day, Thanksgiving, and Christmas.

(2.7) "Buyers' club" means any person engaged in advertising or selling memberships that provide an exclusive right to members to purchase goods, food, services, or property at purported discount prices.

(3) "Certification mark" means a mark used in connection with the goods or services of a person other than the certifier to indicate geographic origin, material, mode of manufacture, quality, accuracy, or other characteristics of the goods or services or to indicate that the work or labor on the goods or services was performed by members of a union or other organization.

(4) "Collective mark" means a mark used by members of a cooperative, association, or other collective group or organization to identify goods or services and distinguish them from those of others, or to indicate membership in the collective group or organization.

(4.1) "Dance studio" means any person engaged in the advertisement or sale of dance studio services.

(4.2) "Dance studio services" means instruction, training, or assistance in dancing; the use of dance studio facilities; membership in any group, club, or association formed by a dance studio; and participation in dance competitions, dance showcases, trips, tours, parties, and other organized events and related travel arrangements.

(4.3) "Discount health plan" means a program evidenced by a membership agreement, contract, card, certificate, device, or mechanism, which offers health-care services, as defined in section 10-16-102 (33), C.R.S., or related products including, but not limited to, prescription drugs and medical equipment, at purported discounted rates from health-care providers advertised as participating in the program. A "discount health plan" does not include a program in which a participating provider has agreed, as a condition of his or her participation in the program, to negotiate the prices to be charged for his or her services directly with consumers in the program and the provider is not required to offer discounted prices for his or her services as part of the program.

(4.4) "Elderly person" means a person sixty years of age or older.

(4.5) "Food" means any raw, cooked, or processed edible substance, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or part for human consumption.

(4.6) "Health club" means an establishment which provides health club services or facilities which purport to improve or maintain the user's physical condition or appearance through exercise. The term may include, but shall not be limited to, a spa, exercise club, exercise gym, health studio, or playing courts. The term shall not apply to any of the following:

(a) Any establishment operated by a nonprofit organization or public or private school, college, or university;

(b) Any establishment operated by the federal government, the state of Colorado, or any of the state's political subdivisions;

(c) Any establishment which does not provide health club services or facilities as its primary purpose or business; or

(d) Health-care facilities licensed or certified by the department of public health and environment pursuant to its authority under section 25-1.5-103, C.R.S.

(4.7) "Health club facilities" means equipment, physical structures, and other tangible property utilized by a health club to conduct its business. The term may include, but shall not be limited to, saunas, whirlpool baths, gymnasiums, running tracks, playing courts, swimming pools, shower areas, and exercise equipment.

(4.8) "Health club services" means services, privileges, or rights offered for sale or provided by a health club.

(4.9) "Manufactured home" shall have the same meaning as set forth in section 42-1-102 (48.8).

(5) "Mark" means a word, name, symbol, device, or any combination thereof in any form or arrangement.

(5.5) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as set forth in section 44-20-102.

(6) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, unincorporated association, or two or more thereof having a joint or common interest, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(7) "Promoting a pyramid promotional scheme" means inducing one or more other persons to become participants, or attempting to so induce, or assisting another in promoting a pyramid promotional scheme by means of references or otherwise.

(8) "Property" means any real or personal property, or both real and personal property, intangible property, or services.

(9) "Pyramid promotional scheme" means any program utilizing a pyramid or chain process by which a participant in the program gives a valuable consideration in excess of fifty dollars for the opportunity or right to receive compensation or other things of value in return for inducing other persons to become participants for the purpose of gaining new participants in the program. Ordinary sales of goods or services to persons who are not purchasing in order to participate in such a scheme are not within this definition.

(9.5) "Resale time share" means a time share, including all or substantially all ownership, rights, or interests associated with the time share:

(a) That has been acquired previously for personal, family, or household use; and

(b) (I) That is owned by a Colorado resident; or

(II) The accommodations and other facilities of which are available for use through the time share and are primarily located in Colorado.

(10) "Sale" means any sale, offer for sale, or attempt to sell any product, good, or property for any consideration.

(11) "Service mark" means a mark used by a person to identify services and to distinguish them from the services of others.

(11.2) Repealed.

(11.5) "Time share" means a time share estate, as defined in section 38-33-110 (5), a time share use, as defined in section 12-10-501 (4), or any campground or recreational membership that does not constitute the transfer of an interest in real property.

(11.7) (a) "Time share resale entity" means any person who, either directly or indirectly, engages in a time share resale service.

(b) "Time share resale entity" does not include:

(I) The developer, association of time share owners, or other person responsible for managing or operating the plan or arrangement by which the rights or interests associated with a resale time share are utilized, but only to the extent the resale time share is part of an existing plan or arrangement managed by that developer, association, or person;

(II) Attorneys, title agents, title companies, or escrow companies providing closing, settlement, or other transaction services as long as the services are provided in the normal course of business in supporting a conveyance of title or in issuing title insurance products in a time share resale transaction. To the extent the attorney, title agent, title company, or escrow company is engaged in providing services or products that are outside the normal course of business in supporting a conveyance of title or in issuing title insurance products or has an affiliated business arrangement with a party to a time share resale transaction, this exemption does not apply.

(III) Real estate brokers operating within the scope of activities specified in section 12-10-201 (6) with respect to a time share resale transaction as long as the real estate broker does not collect a fee in advance. To the extent a real estate broker is engaged in activities outside the scope of activities specified in section 12-10-201 (6), collects an advance fee, or has an affiliated business arrangement with a party to a time share resale transaction, this exemption does not apply.

(11.8) "Time share resale service" means any of the following activities, engaged in directly or indirectly and for consideration, regardless of whether performed in person, by mail, by telephone, or by any other mode of internet or electronic communication, unless performed by a person or entity that, pursuant to paragraph (b) of subsection (11.7) of this section, is exempted:

(a) The sale, rental, listing, or advertising of, or an offer to sell, rent, list, or advertise, any resale time share;

(b) The purchase or offer to purchase any resale time share;

(c) The transfer or offer to assist in the transfer of any resale time share; or

(d) The invalidation or an offer to invalidate the purchase or ownership of any resale time share or the purchase of any time share resale service.

(11.9) (a) "Time share resale transfer agreement" means a contract between a time share resale entity and the owner of a resale time share in which the time share resale entity agrees to transfer, or offers to assist in the transfer, of all or substantially all of the rights or interests in a resale time share on behalf of the owner of the resale time share.

(b) (I) "Time share resale transfer agreement" does not include a contract to sell, rent, list, advertise, purchase, or transfer a resale time share if the owner of the resale time share:

(A) Upon entering the contract, reasonably expects to receive consideration in exchange for the resale time share; and

(B) Upon the actual sale, rental, or transfer of the time share, receives consideration.

(II) For purposes of this subsection (11.9), a transfer of the resale time share does not, by itself, constitute consideration.

(12) "Trademark" means a mark used by a person to identify goods and to distinguish them from the goods of others.

(13) "Trade name" means a word, name, symbol, device, or any combination thereof in any form or arrangement used by a person to identify his business, vocation, or occupation, and to distinguish it from the business, vocation, or occupation of others.

(13.5) "Unavoidable delay" means inclement weather and other events outside the control of the buyer or seller.

(14) "Used motor vehicle" shall have the same meaning as set forth in section 42-6-201 (8), C.R.S.
C.R.S. § 6-23-103 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 23 / Section 6-23-103
6-23-103. Direct primary health-care provider rights
Status: in_force

6-23-103. Direct primary health-care provider rights. (1) A direct primary health-care provider may:

(a) Decline to accept patients whose health needs exceed the primary care services offered by the direct primary health-care provider; and

(b) Terminate a direct primary care agreement if the termination allows for the transition of care to another health-care provider commensurate with the standards of professional responsibility within the state.
C.R.S. § 6-16-109 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 16 / Section 6-16-109
6-16-109. Records - accounts
Status: repealed

6-16-109. Records - accounts. (1) During each solicitation campaign, a paid solicitor shall create and maintain, for not less than two years after the completion of such campaign, the following records:

(a) Copies of all written confirmations or any standardized written confirmations provided pursuant to section 6-16-105;

(b) The name and residence address of each employee, agent, or other person involved in the solicitation as is on record at the time of such solicitation;

(c) The locations and account numbers of all bank or other financial institution accounts into which the paid solicitor has deposited receipts from the solicitation;

(d) Records indicating the quantity of donated tickets or sponsorships, as described in section 6-16-107, which were actually used or received by donees or beneficiaries;

(e) A complete record and accounting of the receipts and disbursements of funds derived from any solicitation campaign. Said record and accounting shall clearly identify any person or organization to whom or to which any part of such funds are transferred and shall describe with specificity the purpose for which any expenditure is made and the amount of each expenditure. Funds spent directly for any charitable purpose or transferred to any charitable organization as represented in the solicitations shall be clearly delineated as such.

(f) All written records relating to pitches, sales approaches, or disclosures used during any solicitation campaign and all instructions provided to paid solicitors concerning the content or solicitations;

(g) All contracts or agreements made with charitable organizations or other represented beneficiaries of solicitations; and

(h) For each contribution, records indicating the name and address of the contributor, the amount of the contribution if monetary, and the date of the contribution, together with the name of the individual paid solicitor who solicited the contribution.

(2) Any person involved in solicitations who claims an exemption from the definition of paid solicitor in section 6-16-103 (7) shall maintain records of ruling letters and other communications from the internal revenue service regarding tax-exempt status. Failure to produce such records on written demand of the district attorney pursuant to section 6-16-111 (1)(e) shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that the person does not have a ruling letter granting tax-exempt status pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 501 (c)(3).

(3) Repealed.
C.R.S. § 6-10-138 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-138
6-10-138. Jury trial - when
Status: repealed

6-10-138. Jury trial - when. (Repealed)
C.R.S. § 6-7.5-102 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 7.5 / Section 6-7.5-102
6-7.5-102. Definitions
Status: in_force

6-7.5-102. Definitions. As used in this article 7.5, unless the context otherwise requires and except as determined by rule pursuant to section 6-7.5-106 (1):

(1) "Air purifier" or "room air cleaner" means an electric, cord-connected, portable appliance that has the primary function of removing particulate matter from the air.

(2) "AHRI 1430" means the Air-conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute standard for demand flexible electric storage water heaters.

(3) "ANSI" means the American National Standards Institute or its successor organization.

(4) "ANSI/APSP/ICC-14" means the ANSI standard for portable electric spa energy efficiency.

(5) "ANSI C78.81" means the ANSI standard for "Electric Lamps - Double-Capped Fluorescent Lamps - Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics".

(6) "ANSI C78.901" means the ANSI standard for "Electric Lamps - Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps - Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics".

(7) "ANSI C79.1" means the ANSI standard for "Electric Lamps - Nomenclature for Glass Bulbs Intended for Use with Electric Lamps".

(8) "APSP" means the Association of Pool and Spa Professionals or its successor organization.

(9) "CCR" means the California code of regulations, as amended.

(10) "Check valve" means a component that is internal to a spray sprinkler body and prevents system drainage during periods of nonoperation.

(11) "Cold-temperature fluorescent lamp" means a fluorescent lamp that:

(a) Is not a compact fluorescent lamp;

(b) Is specifically designed to start at a temperature of twenty degrees below zero Fahrenheit when used with a ballast conforming to the requirements of ANSI C78.81 and ANSI C78.901; and

(c) Is expressly designated as a cold-temperature lamp both in markings on the lamp and in marketing materials such as catalogs, sales literature, and promotional material.

(12) "Commercial dishwasher" means a machine designed to clean and sanitize plates, pots, pans, glasses, cups, bowls, utensils, and trays by applying sprays of detergent solution, with or without blasting media granules, and a sanitizing rinse.

(13) "Commercial fryer" means an appliance, including a cooking vessel, in which:

(a) Oil is placed to such a depth that the food to be cooked is essentially supported by displacement of the cooking fluid rather than by the bottom of the vessel; and

(b) Heat is delivered to the cooking fluid by means of either:

(I) An immersed electric element or band-wrapped vessel; or

(II) Heat transfer from gas burners through either the walls of the vessel or tubes passing through the cooking fluid.

(14) "Commercial hot food holding cabinet" means a heated, fully enclosed compartment with one or more solid or transparent doors designed to maintain the temperature of hot food that has been cooked using a separate appliance. "Commercial hot food holding cabinet" does not include heated glass merchandising cabinets, drawer warmers, or cook and hold appliances.

(15) "Commercial oven" means a chamber designed for heating, roasting, or baking food by conduction, convection, radiation, or electromagnetic energy.

(16) "Commercial steam cooker" means a device with one or more food-steaming compartments in which thermal energy is transferred from the steam to the food by direct contact. "Commercial steam cooker" includes countertop models, wall-mounted models, and floor models mounted on a stand, pedestal, or cabinet-style base.

(17) "Compact fluorescent lamp" means a fluorescent lamp that includes:

(a) A tube that is curved or folded to fit the size of a traditional household light bulb; and

(b) A compact electronic ballast in the base of the lamp.

(18) "Compensation" means money or any other thing of value, regardless of form, received or to be received by a person for goods or services rendered.

(19) "Computer" and "computer monitor" have the meanings set forth in 20 CCR sec. 1602 (v).

(20) "CTA" means the Consumer Technology Association, or a successor organization.

(21) "Decorative gas fireplace" means a vented fireplace, including a unit that is freestanding, recessed, or zero clearance, or a gas fireplace insert that is:

(a) Fueled by natural gas or propane;

(b) Marked or intended for decorative use only; and

(c) Not equipped with a thermostat or intended for use as a heater.

(22) "Electric storage water heater" means a consumer product that:

(a) Uses electricity to heat domestic potable water;

(b) Has a nameplate input rating of twelve kilowatts or less;

(c) Has a rated hot water storage capacity between forty and one hundred twenty gallons; and

(d) Delivers hot water at a maximum temperature of less than one hundred eighty degrees Fahrenheit.

(23) (a) "Electric vehicle supply equipment" means conductors, including ungrounded, grounded, and equipment-grounding conductors; electric vehicle connectors; attachment plugs; and all other fittings, devices, power outlets, or apparatuses installed specifically for the purpose of delivering energy from the wiring of a premises to an electric vehicle.

(b) "Electric vehicle supply equipment" does not include a conductor, connector, or fitting that is part of a vehicle.

(24) "Energy Star program" means the federal program authorized by 42 U.S.C. sec. 6294a, as amended.

(25) "Executive director" means the executive director of the department of public health and environment or the executive director's designee.

(26) "Faucet" means:

(a) A public or private lavatory faucet, residential kitchen faucet, or metering faucet; or

(b) A replacement aerator for a public or private lavatory faucet or residential kitchen faucet.

(27) "Flushometer-valve water closet" means a type of commercial toilet that uses a valve for flushing by operation of a handle that discharges a definite quantity of water under pressure directly into the fixture.

(28) "Gas fireplace" means a decorative gas fireplace or a heating gas fireplace.

(29) "Gas log set" means a fireplace product designed to be used and installed in a working masonry or factory-built wood-burning fireplace and vented through a chimney by natural drafting or power venting.

(30) "GPM" means gallons per minute.

(31) "Handheld showerhead" means a showerhead that is connected to a flexible hose and can be held or fixed in place for the purpose of spraying water on a bather.

(32) "Heating gas fireplace" means a vented fireplace, including a unit that is freestanding, recessed, or zero clearance or a fireplace insert, that is:

(a) Fueled by natural gas or propane; and

(b) Not a decorative gas fireplace.

(33) "High CRI fluorescent lamp" means a fluorescent lamp with a color rendering index of eighty-seven or greater that is not a compact fluorescent lamp.

(34) "ICC" means the International Code Council or its successor organization.

(35) "Impact-resistant fluorescent lamp" means a fluorescent lamp that:

(a) Is not a compact fluorescent lamp;

(b) Has a coating or equivalent technology that is compliant with NSF/ANSI 51 and is designed to contain the glass if the glass envelope of the lamp is broken; and

(c) Is designated and marketed for the intended application, with:

(I) The designation appearing on the lamp packaging; and

(II) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being impact-resistant, shatter-resistant, shatterproof, or shatter-protected.

(36) "Industrial air purifier" means an indoor air cleaning device that is:

(a) Manufactured, advertised, marketed, labeled, and used solely for industrial purposes;

(b) Marketed solely through industrial supply outlets or businesses; and

(c) Prominently labeled as "Solely for industrial use. Potential health hazard: emits ozone."

(37) "Inline residential ventilating fan" means a ventilating fan that is located within the structure of a building and requires ductwork on both the inlet and the outlet.

(38) "Irrigation controller" means a standalone controller, an add-on device, or a plug-in device that is used to operate an automatic irrigation system such as a lawn sprinkler or drip irrigation system designed and intended for nonagricultural purposes. "Irrigation controller" includes:

(a) A soil moisture-based irrigation controller that inhibits or allows an irrigation event based on a reading from a soil moisture sensor mechanism; and

(b) A weather-based irrigation controller that uses current weather data as a basis for scheduling irrigation.

(39) (a) "Lamp" means a device that emits light and is used to illuminate an indoor or outdoor space.

(b) "Lamp" does not include a heat lamp.

(40) "LED" means light-emitting diode.

(41) "Metering faucet" means a self-closing faucet that dispenses a specific volume of water for each actuation cycle and for which the volume or cycle duration may be fixed or adjustable.

(42) "NSF" means NSF International, formerly known as the National Sanitation Foundation.

(43) "NSF/ANSI 51" means the NSF/ANSI 51 standard for food equipment materials.

(44) "Plumbing fixture" means an exchangeable device that connects to a plumbing system to deliver water or drain water and waste.

(45) "Portable air conditioner" means a portable encased assembly, other than a packaged terminal air conditioner, ductless portable air conditioner, room air conditioner, or dehumidifier, that:

(a) Delivers cooled, conditioned air to an enclosed space;

(b) Is powered by single-phase electric current;

(c) Includes a source of refrigeration;

(d) May be a single-duct or dual-duct portable air conditioner; and

(e) May include additional means for air circulation and heating.

(46) "Portable electric spa" means a factory-built electric spa or hot tub that may include any combination of integral controls, water heating, and water circulating equipment.

(47) "Pressure regulator" means a device that maintains constant operating pressure immediately downstream from a spray sprinkler body, given higher pressure upstream of the device.

(48) "Private lavatory faucet" means a bathroom faucet that, as installed, is not in a location that is available to the public, including a lavatory faucet in a private residence.

(49) "Programmable thermostat" means a thermostat that:

(a) Controls a primary heating or cooling system on a daily schedule to maintain different temperatures during certain times of day and days of the week; and

(b) Has the capability to maintain zone temperatures between fifty-five degrees Fahrenheit and eighty-five degrees Fahrenheit.

(50) "PSI" means pounds per square inch.

(51) "Public lavatory faucet" means a fitting designed and marketed for installation in a nonresidential bathroom, which bathroom is exposed to walk-in traffic.

(52) "Replacement aerator" means an aerator sold as a replacement, separate from the faucet to which it is intended to be attached.

(53) "Residential building" means a structure that is used primarily for living and sleeping and that is zoned as residential or otherwise subject to residential building codes. For the purposes of residential windows, doors, and skylights, "residential building" means a building that is three stories or less in height.

(54) "Residential door" means a sliding or swinging entry system that is installed or designed for installation in a vertical wall separating conditioned and unconditioned space in a residential building.

(55) "Residential kitchen faucet" means a faucet in a kitchen of a residential building.

(56) "Residential skylight" means a window that is designed for sloped or horizontal application in the roof of a residential building, the primary purpose of which window is to provide daylight or ventilation. "Residential skylight" includes a tubular daylighting device.

(57) "Residential ventilating fan" means a ceiling-mounted, a wall-mounted, or an inline residential fan that is designed to be used in a bathroom or a utility room for the purpose of moving air from inside a residential building to the outdoors.

(58) (a) "Residential window" means an assembled unit that:

(I) Consists of a frame that holds one or more pieces of glass or other glazing material that admits light or air into an enclosure; and

(II) Is designed for installation at a slope of at least sixty degrees from horizontal in an external wall of a residential building.

(b) "Residential window" includes a transom window but does not include a residential skylight.

(59) "Showerhead" means a device through which water is discharged for a shower bath. "Showerhead" includes a handheld showerhead but does not include an emergency showerhead such as a showerhead used in a laboratory or industrial setting.

(60) "Showerhead tub spout diverter combination" means a control valve, tub spout diverter, and showerhead that are sold together as a matched set.

(61) "Smart thermostat" means a thermostat that:

(a) Is enabled for wireless connectivity;

(b) Allows the user to control home heating and cooling temperature settings from a computer or from a phone, a tablet, or another computer-enabled device; and

(c) Can automatically adjust heating and cooling temperature settings based on user preferences, daily schedules, weather conditions, occupancy, or optimal energy savings.

(62) "Spray sprinkler body" means the exterior case or shell of a sprinkler designed and intended for nonagricultural uses, which case or shell:

(a) Incorporates a means of connection to the piping system; and

(b) Is designed to convey water to a nozzle or orifice.

(63) "Tub spout diverter" means a device that is designed to divert the flow of water into a bathtub so the water discharges through a showerhead.

(64) "Tubular daylighting device" means a building component that receives daylight in a rooftop dome and transfers the daylight indoors through a highly reflective tube.

(65) "Urinal" means a plumbing fixture that receives liquid body waste and conveys the waste through a trap seal into a gravity drainage system.

(66) "Water closet" means a plumbing fixture that has a water-containing receptor that receives liquid and solid body waste through an exposed integral trap and conveys the waste into a drainage system. "Water closet" includes both tank-type and flushometer-valve water closets.

(67) "Water cooler" means a freestanding device that consumes energy to cool or heat, or both cool and heat, potable water. "Water cooler" includes:

(a) A cold-only unit that dispenses only cold water;

(b) A hot-and-cold unit that dispenses both hot and cold water and, in some models, also room temperature water;

(c) A cook-and-cold unit that dispenses both room temperature and cold water;

(d) A storage-type unit that instantaneously delivers water from a storage tank within the unit, including point-of-use, dry storage compartment, and bottled water coolers; and

(e) An on-demand unit that heats water as it is requested, typically within a few minutes.

(68) "WaterSense-listed plumbing fixture" means a plumbing fixture or plumbing fixture fitting that has been:

(a) Tested by an accredited third-party certifying body or laboratory in accordance with the federal environmental protection agency's WaterSense program or a successor program;

(b) Certified by the body or laboratory as meeting the performance and efficiency requirements of the WaterSense program; and

(c) Authorized by the WaterSense program to use its label.

(69) "WaterSense program" means the federal program authorized by 42 U.S.C. sec. 6294b.
C.R.S. § 6-10-111 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 10 / Section 6-10-111
6-10-111. Exceptions to claims - hearing
Status: in_force

6-10-111. Exceptions to claims - hearing. Any person interested may appear before a dividend is made and file with the clerk any exceptions to the claim or demand of any creditor. The clerk shall immediately cause notice thereof to be given to the creditor which shall be served and returned as in the case of a summons. Within the time allowed to answer in an action at law, the creditor shall file his reply. The court shall designate the time for the hearing, and shall at such time hear the allegations and proof offered and shall render a just judgment thereon.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1705 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 17 / Section 6-1-1705
6-1-1705. Compliance with other legal obligations - definitions
Status: in_force

6-1-1705. Compliance with other legal obligations - definitions. (1) Nothing in this part 17 restricts a developer's, a deployer's, or other person's ability to:

(a) Comply with federal, state, or municipal laws, ordinances, or regulations;

(b) Comply with a civil, criminal, or regulatory inquiry, investigation, subpoena, or summons by a federal, a state, a municipal, or other governmental authority;

(c) Cooperate with a law enforcement agency concerning conduct or activity that the developer, deployer, or other person reasonably and in good faith believes may violate federal, state, or municipal laws, ordinances, or regulations;

(d) Investigate, establish, exercise, prepare for, or defend legal claims;

(e) Take immediate steps to protect an interest that is essential for the life or physical safety of a consumer or another individual;

(f) By any means other than the use of facial recognition technology, prevent, detect, protect against, or respond to security incidents, identity theft, fraud, harassment, malicious or deceptive activities, or illegal activity; investigate, report, or prosecute the persons responsible for any such action; or preserve the integrity or security of systems;

(g) Engage in public or peer-reviewed scientific or statistical research in the public interest that adheres to all other applicable ethics and privacy laws and is conducted in accordance with 45 CFR 46, as amended, or relevant requirements established by the federal food and drug administration;

(h) Conduct research, testing, and development activities regarding an artificial intelligence system or model, other than testing conducted under real-world conditions, before the artificial intelligence system or model is placed on the market, deployed, or put into service, as applicable; or

(i) Assist another developer, deployer, or other person with any of the obligations imposed under this part 17.

(2) The obligations imposed on developers, deployers, or other persons under this part 17 do not restrict a developer's, a deployer's, or other person's ability to:

(a) Effectuate a product recall; or

(b) Identify and repair technical errors that impair existing or intended functionality.

(3) The obligations imposed on developers, deployers, or other persons under this part 17 do not apply where compliance with this part 17 by the developer, deployer, or other person would violate an evidentiary privilege under the laws of this state.

(4) Nothing in this part 17 imposes any obligation on a developer, a deployer, or other person that adversely affects the rights or freedoms of a person, including the rights of a person to freedom of speech or freedom of the press that are guaranteed in:

(a) The first amendment to the United States constitution; or

(b) Section 10 of article II of the state constitution.

(5) Nothing in this part 17 applies to a developer, a deployer, or other person:

(a) Insofar as the developer, deployer, or other person develops, deploys, puts into service, or intentionally and substantially modifies, as applicable, a high-risk artificial intelligence system:

(I) That has been approved, authorized, certified, cleared, developed, or granted by a federal agency, such as the federal food and drug administration or the federal aviation administration, acting within the scope of the federal agency's authority, or by a regulated entity subject to the supervision and regulation of the federal housing finance agency; or

(II) In compliance with standards established by a federal agency, including standards established by the federal office of the national coordinator for health information technology, or by a regulated entity subject to the supervision and regulation of the federal housing finance agency, if the standards are substantially equivalent or more stringent than the requirements of this part 17;

(b) Conducting research to support an application for approval or certification from a federal agency, including the federal aviation administration, the federal communications commission, or the federal food and drug administration or research to support an application otherwise subject to review by the federal agency;

(c) Performing work under, or in connection with, a contract with the United States department of commerce, the United States department of defense, or the national aeronautics and space administration, unless the developer, deployer, or other person is performing the work on a high-risk artificial intelligence system that is used to make, or is a substantial factor in making, a decision concerning employment or housing; or

(d) That is a covered entity within the meaning of the federal "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996", 42 U.S.C. secs. 1320d to 1320d-9, and the regulations promulgated under the federal act, as both may be amended from time to time, and is providing health-care recommendations that:

(I) Are generated by an artificial intelligence system;

(II) Require a health-care provider to take action to implement the recommendations; and

(III) Are not considered to be high risk.

(6) Nothing in this part 17 applies to any artificial intelligence system that is acquired by or for the federal government or any federal agency or department, including the United States department of commerce, the United States department of defense, or the national aeronautics and space administration, unless the artificial intelligence system is a high-risk artificial intelligence system that is used to make, or is a substantial factor in making, a decision concerning employment or housing.

(7) An insurer, as defined in section 10-1-102 (13), a fraternal benefit society, as described in section 10-14-102, or a developer of an artificial intelligence system used by an insurer is in full compliance with this part 17 if the insurer, the fraternal benefit society, or the developer is subject to the requirements of section 10-3-1104.9 and any rules adopted by the commissioner of insurance pursuant to section 10-3-1104.9.

(8) (a) A bank, out-of-state bank, credit union chartered by the state of Colorado, federal credit union, out-of-state credit union, or any affiliate or subsidiary thereof, is in full compliance with this part 17 if the bank, out-of-state bank, credit union chartered by the state of Colorado, federal credit union, out-of-state credit union, or affiliate or subsidiary is subject to examination by a state or federal prudential regulator under any published guidance or regulations that apply to the use of high-risk artificial intelligence systems and the guidance or regulations:

(I) Impose requirements that are substantially equivalent to or more stringent than the requirements imposed in this part 17; and

(II) At a minimum, require the bank, out-of-state bank, credit union chartered by the state of Colorado, federal credit union, out-of-state credit union, or affiliate or subsidiary to:

(A) Regularly audit the bank's, out-of-state bank's, credit union chartered by the state of Colorado's, federal credit union's, out-of-state credit union's, or affiliate's or subsidiary's use of high-risk artificial intelligence systems for compliance with state and federal anti-discrimination laws and regulations applicable to the bank, out-of-state bank, credit union chartered by the state of Colorado, federal credit union, out-of-state credit union, or affiliate or subsidiary; and

(B) Mitigate any algorithmic discrimination caused by the use of a high-risk artificial intelligence system or any risk of algorithmic discrimination that is reasonably foreseeable as a result of the use of a high-risk artificial intelligence system.

(b) As used in this subsection (8):

(I) "Affiliate" has the meaning set forth in section 11-101-401 (3.5).

(II) "Bank" has the meaning set forth in section 11-101-401 (5).

(III) "Credit union" has the meaning set forth in section 11-30-101 (1)(a).

(IV) "Out-of-state bank" has the meaning set forth in section 11-101-401 (50).

(9) If a developer, a deployer, or other person engages in an action pursuant to an exemption set forth in this section, the developer, deployer, or other person bears the burden of demonstrating that the action qualifies for the exemption.
C.R.S. § 6-1-717 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 7 / Section 6-1-717
6-1-717. Influencing a real estate appraisal - deceptive trade practice
Status: in_force

6-1-717. Influencing a real estate appraisal - deceptive trade practice. (1) A person engages in a deceptive trade practice when, in the course of such person's business, vocation, or occupation, the person:

(a) Knowingly submits a false or misleading appraisal in connection with a dwelling offered as security for repayment of a mortgage loan; or

(b) Directly or indirectly compensates, coerces, or intimidates an appraiser, or attempts, directly or indirectly, to compensate, coerce, or intimidate an appraiser, for the purpose of influencing the independent judgment of the appraiser with respect to the value of a dwelling offered as security for repayment of a mortgage loan.

(2) The prohibition referred to in subsection (1) of this section shall not be construed as prohibiting a person from requesting an appraiser to:

(a) Consider additional, appropriate property information;

(b) Provide further detail, substantiation, or explanation for the appraiser's value conclusion; or

(c) Correct errors in the appraisal report.
C.R.S. § 6-1-1215 — CO Code / Title 6 / Article 1 / Part 12 / Section 6-1-1215
6-1-1215. Shared car accessibility
Status: in_force

6-1-1215. Shared car accessibility. (1) Effective January 1, 2028, at the time a shared car is first made available through a car sharing program, the program must enable the shared car owner to indicate whether the shared car has been modified for accessibility for individuals with disabilities.

(2) If a shared car owner has indicated that the shared car has been modified for accessibility pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the shared car owner shall list what modifications have been made, including what adaptive equipment is available.

(3) A car sharing program that makes a reasonable effort to obtain accurate information from a shared car owner regarding any modification for accessibility is not liable for incorrect or false information provided by the shared car owner.