Ark. Code Ann. § 20-78-106 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 78 / Subchapter 1 / Section 20-78-106
Availability of records from children's advocacy centers during investigation of suspected cases of child abuse or neglect
Status: in_force

(a) Reports, correspondence, memoranda, case histories, medical records, or other materials compiled or gathered by a children's advocacy center shall be confidential and shall not be released or otherwise made available except: (1) To the attorney representing the abused child in a custody or juvenile case with an order of appointment or an order recognizing entry of appearance; (2) For any audit or similar activity conducted with the administration of any plan or program by any governmental agency that is authorized by law to conduct the audit or activity; (3) To law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, or the Attorney General; (4) To any licensing or registering authority to the extent necessary to carry out its official responsibilities, but the information shall be maintained as confidential; (5) To a grand jury or court upon a finding that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a civil, criminal, or administrative issue before the court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section; (6) To the Department of Human Services; (7) To a court-appointed special advocate volunteer with a valid court order; (8) All records may be released to an attorney in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding or to a party in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding if the party is not represented by an attorney as permitted under criminal, civil, or administrative discovery rules upon a finding by the court that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a criminal, civil, or administrative issue before a court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section; (9) Medical records may be released to a person providing medical or psychiatric care or services to the abused child; and (10) For bona fide instructional purposes by Arkansas Children's Hospital, the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences, or a child advocacy center in the care, detection, treatment, and management of suspected child abuse and neglect. (b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(2) of this section, no person or agency to whom disclosure is made may disclose to any other person reports or other information obtained under this section. (2) Law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, the department, a court of competent jurisdiction, or the Attorney General may release reports or information obtained under this section. However, any report or information released under this subsection shall remain confidential. (c) (1) Nothing in this section shall deny or diminish the right of an attorney for a party or a party to a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to receive discovery as provided in this section in order for the attorney or party to: (A) Prepare for trial; (B) File appropriate pleadings; or (C) Present evidence in court. (2) (A) (i) The circuit court shall issue protective orders under the Arkansas Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Arkansas Rules of Civil Procedure, as applicable, to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (B) (i) The administrative hearing officer or administrative law judge shall issue protective orders to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (C) (i) The circuit court may enforce the orders with criminal or civil contempt or sanctions, as appropriate. (ii) The circuit court may modify or vacate a protective order for good cause. (iii) If a protective order was entered and has not been vacated, the remedy for a violation of the protective order is limited to criminal or civil contempt or sanctions by the circuit court in which the protective order was entered. (d) Except for purposes of enforcement concerning violations of a protective order under subsection (c) of this section, disclosure of information in violation of this section is a Class A misdemeanor. Amended by Act 2017, No. 264,§ 5, eff. 8/1/2017. Amended by Act 2015, No. 591,§ 2, eff. 7/22/2015. Amended by Act 2015, No. 591,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015. Amended by Act 2014, No. 294,§ 46, eff. 7/1/2014. Amended by Act 2013, No. 1174,§ 1, eff. 8/16/2013. Acts 2005, No. 1764, § 1; 2009, No. 1366, § 1; 2011, No. 1126, §§ 1, 2.

(a) Reports, correspondence, memoranda, case histories, medical records, or other materials compiled or gathered by a children's advocacy center shall be confidential and shall not be released or otherwise made available except: (1) To the attorney representing the abused child in a custody or juvenile case with an order of appointment or an order recognizing entry of appearance; (2) For any audit or similar activity conducted with the administration of any plan or program by any governmental agency that is authorized by law to conduct the audit or activity; (3) To law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, or the Attorney General; (4) To any licensing or registering authority to the extent necessary to carry out its official responsibilities, but the information shall be maintained as confidential; (5) To a grand jury or court upon a finding that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a civil, criminal, or administrative issue before the court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section; (6) To the Department of Human Services; (7) To a court-appointed special advocate volunteer with a valid court order; (8) All records may be released to an attorney in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding or to a party in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding if the party is not represented by an attorney as permitted under criminal, civil, or administrative discovery rules upon a finding by the court that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a criminal, civil, or administrative issue before a court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section; (9) Medical records may be released to a person providing medical or psychiatric care or services to the abused child; and (10) For bona fide instructional purposes by Arkansas Children's Hospital, the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences, or a child advocacy center in the care, detection, treatment, and management of suspected child abuse and neglect.

(1) To the attorney representing the abused child in a custody or juvenile case with an order of appointment or an order recognizing entry of appearance;

(2) For any audit or similar activity conducted with the administration of any plan or program by any governmental agency that is authorized by law to conduct the audit or activity;

(3) To law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, or the Attorney General;

(4) To any licensing or registering authority to the extent necessary to carry out its official responsibilities, but the information shall be maintained as confidential;

(5) To a grand jury or court upon a finding that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a civil, criminal, or administrative issue before the court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section;

(A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a civil, criminal, or administrative issue before the court or grand jury; and

(B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section;

(6) To the Department of Human Services;

(7) To a court-appointed special advocate volunteer with a valid court order;

(8) All records may be released to an attorney in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding or to a party in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding if the party is not represented by an attorney as permitted under criminal, civil, or administrative discovery rules upon a finding by the court that: (A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a criminal, civil, or administrative issue before a court or grand jury; and (B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section;

(A) Information in the record is necessary for the determination of a criminal, civil, or administrative issue before a court or grand jury; and

(B) The information cannot be obtained from a person or entity described in subdivision (b)(2) of this section;

(9) Medical records may be released to a person providing medical or psychiatric care or services to the abused child; and

(10) For bona fide instructional purposes by Arkansas Children's Hospital, the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences, or a child advocacy center in the care, detection, treatment, and management of suspected child abuse and neglect.

(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(2) of this section, no person or agency to whom disclosure is made may disclose to any other person reports or other information obtained under this section. (2) Law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, the department, a court of competent jurisdiction, or the Attorney General may release reports or information obtained under this section. However, any report or information released under this subsection shall remain confidential.

(1) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(2) of this section, no person or agency to whom disclosure is made may disclose to any other person reports or other information obtained under this section.

(2) Law enforcement agencies, a prosecuting attorney, the department, a court of competent jurisdiction, or the Attorney General may release reports or information obtained under this section. However, any report or information released under this subsection shall remain confidential.

(c) (1) Nothing in this section shall deny or diminish the right of an attorney for a party or a party to a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to receive discovery as provided in this section in order for the attorney or party to: (A) Prepare for trial; (B) File appropriate pleadings; or (C) Present evidence in court. (2) (A) (i) The circuit court shall issue protective orders under the Arkansas Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Arkansas Rules of Civil Procedure, as applicable, to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (B) (i) The administrative hearing officer or administrative law judge shall issue protective orders to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (C) (i) The circuit court may enforce the orders with criminal or civil contempt or sanctions, as appropriate. (ii) The circuit court may modify or vacate a protective order for good cause. (iii) If a protective order was entered and has not been vacated, the remedy for a violation of the protective order is limited to criminal or civil contempt or sanctions by the circuit court in which the protective order was entered.

(1) Nothing in this section shall deny or diminish the right of an attorney for a party or a party to a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to receive discovery as provided in this section in order for the attorney or party to: (A) Prepare for trial; (B) File appropriate pleadings; or (C) Present evidence in court.

(A) Prepare for trial;

(B) File appropriate pleadings; or

(C) Present evidence in court.

(2) (A) (i) The circuit court shall issue protective orders under the Arkansas Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Arkansas Rules of Civil Procedure, as applicable, to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (B) (i) The administrative hearing officer or administrative law judge shall issue protective orders to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim. (C) (i) The circuit court may enforce the orders with criminal or civil contempt or sanctions, as appropriate. (ii) The circuit court may modify or vacate a protective order for good cause. (iii) If a protective order was entered and has not been vacated, the remedy for a violation of the protective order is limited to criminal or civil contempt or sanctions by the circuit court in which the protective order was entered.

(A) (i) The circuit court shall issue protective orders under the Arkansas Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Arkansas Rules of Civil Procedure, as applicable, to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim.

(i) The circuit court shall issue protective orders under the Arkansas Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Arkansas Rules of Civil Procedure, as applicable, to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence.

(ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim.

(a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness;

(b) Photographs of a child witness;

(c) Name of a child victim; and

(d) Medical records of a child victim.

(B) (i) The administrative hearing officer or administrative law judge shall issue protective orders to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence. (ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim.

(i) The administrative hearing officer or administrative law judge shall issue protective orders to ensure that those items of evidence for which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy and that otherwise should be sealed are not distributed to persons or institutions that have no legitimate interest in the evidence.

(ii) There is a reasonable expectation of privacy in the following items: (a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness; (b) Photographs of a child witness; (c) Name of a child victim; and (d) Medical records of a child victim.

(a) Audio or videotapes of a child witness;

(b) Photographs of a child witness;

(c) Name of a child victim; and

(d) Medical records of a child victim.

(C) (i) The circuit court may enforce the orders with criminal or civil contempt or sanctions, as appropriate. (ii) The circuit court may modify or vacate a protective order for good cause. (iii) If a protective order was entered and has not been vacated, the remedy for a violation of the protective order is limited to criminal or civil contempt or sanctions by the circuit court in which the protective order was entered.

(i) The circuit court may enforce the orders with criminal or civil contempt or sanctions, as appropriate.

(ii) The circuit court may modify or vacate a protective order for good cause.

(iii) If a protective order was entered and has not been vacated, the remedy for a violation of the protective order is limited to criminal or civil contempt or sanctions by the circuit court in which the protective order was entered.

(d) Except for purposes of enforcement concerning violations of a protective order under subsection (c) of this section, disclosure of information in violation of this section is a Class A misdemeanor.

Amended by Act 2017, No. 264,§ 5, eff. 8/1/2017.

Amended by Act 2015, No. 591,§ 2, eff. 7/22/2015.

Amended by Act 2015, No. 591,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015.

Amended by Act 2014, No. 294,§ 46, eff. 7/1/2014.

Amended by Act 2013, No. 1174,§ 1, eff. 8/16/2013.

Acts 2005, No. 1764, § 1; 2009, No. 1366, § 1; 2011, No. 1126, §§ 1, 2.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-59-227 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 59 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-59-227
Unlawful acts - Unpasteurized products
Status: in_force

It shall be unlawful to make and offer for sale butter or frozen desserts unless all dairy products used in their manufacture are pasteurized except in the case of butter made by a dairy farmer who produces a majority of the milk or cream he or she uses. Acts 1941, No. 114, § 3; A.S.A 1947, § 82-914.

It shall be unlawful to make and offer for sale butter or frozen desserts unless all dairy products used in their manufacture are pasteurized except in the case of butter made by a dairy farmer who produces a majority of the milk or cream he or she uses.

Acts 1941, No. 114, § 3; A.S.A 1947, § 82-914.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-7-123 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 7 / Subchapter 1 / Section 20-7-123
Fees
Status: in_force

(a) All revenue derived from fees collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited as special revenues into the State Treasury, where they shall be credited to the Public Health Fund. (b) These fees are as follows: (1) All fees prescribed in the Vital Statistics Act, § 20-18-101 et seq., which are as follows: (A) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the State Registrar of Vital Records for the filing of a delayed certificate of birth; (B) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the filing of a delayed certificate of death or marriage; (C) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for issuing a new certificate of birth for a person who has been legitimated, or whose paternity has been determined, or whose name has been changed; (D) (i) A fee of one dollar ($1.00) collected by the clerks of the county courts upon the application of any person for marriage. (ii) This fee is in addition to any other fees; (E) (i) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(1)(E)(ii) of this section, a fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the amendment of any record. (ii) For a hospital that requests an amendment of a record, a fee of two dollars ($2.00); (F) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of any certificate or record other than a death certificate; (G) A fee of: (i) Four dollars ($4.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of a single copy of a death certificate; and (ii) One dollar ($1.00) collected for the making and certification of each additional copy of a death certificate; (H) (i) A fee of: (a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and (b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record. (ii) The fees set out in this subdivision (b)(1)(H) shall be paid before searching the record; and (I) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for establishing a new certificate of birth under § 20-18-406 ; (2) (A) A fee to be collected for the review of plans and specifications covering improvements that by law or rule are required to be reviewed by the State Board of Health or Department of Health, including without limitation plans and specifications covering waterworks, sewage works, swimming pools, hospitals and related facilities, food service and food processing establishments, and plumbing in public facilities. (B) The fee imposed under subdivision (b)(2)(A) of this section shall be one percent (1%) of the estimated cost, with a maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) and a minimum fee of fifty dollars ($50.00), calculated and paid on the basis of the engineering estimate of the total cost of the particular improvement, which estimate is to be submitted with the plans and specifications for review. (C) If the maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) is paid, no engineering estimate of the total cost need be submitted with the plans and specifications; and (3) A fee of fifty dollars ($50.00) to be collected by the board or the department for each cemetery inspection as required by law or rule. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1810, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1809, eff. 7/24/2019. Acts 1965, No. 469, § 10; 1983, No. 378, § 2; 1985, No. 351, §§ 1, 4; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 82-130, 82-130.1; Acts 1987, No. 399, §§ 1, 2; 1993, No. 350, § 6; 1993, No. 403, § 11; 1995, No. 270, § 14; 1995, No. 1254, § 29; 1995, No. 1256, § 20; 1995 (1st Ex. Sess.), No. 13, § 4; 2001, No. 957, §§ 1-4; 2003, No. 1723, § 14; 2007, No. 827, § 147; 2007, No. 1059, § 1.

(a) All revenue derived from fees collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited as special revenues into the State Treasury, where they shall be credited to the Public Health Fund.

(b) These fees are as follows: (1) All fees prescribed in the Vital Statistics Act, § 20-18-101 et seq., which are as follows: (A) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the State Registrar of Vital Records for the filing of a delayed certificate of birth; (B) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the filing of a delayed certificate of death or marriage; (C) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for issuing a new certificate of birth for a person who has been legitimated, or whose paternity has been determined, or whose name has been changed; (D) (i) A fee of one dollar ($1.00) collected by the clerks of the county courts upon the application of any person for marriage. (ii) This fee is in addition to any other fees; (E) (i) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(1)(E)(ii) of this section, a fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the amendment of any record. (ii) For a hospital that requests an amendment of a record, a fee of two dollars ($2.00); (F) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of any certificate or record other than a death certificate; (G) A fee of: (i) Four dollars ($4.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of a single copy of a death certificate; and (ii) One dollar ($1.00) collected for the making and certification of each additional copy of a death certificate; (H) (i) A fee of: (a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and (b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record. (ii) The fees set out in this subdivision (b)(1)(H) shall be paid before searching the record; and (I) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for establishing a new certificate of birth under § 20-18-406 ; (2) (A) A fee to be collected for the review of plans and specifications covering improvements that by law or rule are required to be reviewed by the State Board of Health or Department of Health, including without limitation plans and specifications covering waterworks, sewage works, swimming pools, hospitals and related facilities, food service and food processing establishments, and plumbing in public facilities. (B) The fee imposed under subdivision (b)(2)(A) of this section shall be one percent (1%) of the estimated cost, with a maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) and a minimum fee of fifty dollars ($50.00), calculated and paid on the basis of the engineering estimate of the total cost of the particular improvement, which estimate is to be submitted with the plans and specifications for review. (C) If the maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) is paid, no engineering estimate of the total cost need be submitted with the plans and specifications; and (3) A fee of fifty dollars ($50.00) to be collected by the board or the department for each cemetery inspection as required by law or rule.

(1) All fees prescribed in the Vital Statistics Act, § 20-18-101 et seq., which are as follows: (A) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the State Registrar of Vital Records for the filing of a delayed certificate of birth; (B) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the filing of a delayed certificate of death or marriage; (C) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for issuing a new certificate of birth for a person who has been legitimated, or whose paternity has been determined, or whose name has been changed; (D) (i) A fee of one dollar ($1.00) collected by the clerks of the county courts upon the application of any person for marriage. (ii) This fee is in addition to any other fees; (E) (i) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(1)(E)(ii) of this section, a fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the amendment of any record. (ii) For a hospital that requests an amendment of a record, a fee of two dollars ($2.00); (F) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of any certificate or record other than a death certificate; (G) A fee of: (i) Four dollars ($4.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of a single copy of a death certificate; and (ii) One dollar ($1.00) collected for the making and certification of each additional copy of a death certificate; (H) (i) A fee of: (a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and (b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record. (ii) The fees set out in this subdivision (b)(1)(H) shall be paid before searching the record; and (I) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for establishing a new certificate of birth under § 20-18-406 ;

(A) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the State Registrar of Vital Records for the filing of a delayed certificate of birth;

(B) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the filing of a delayed certificate of death or marriage;

(C) A fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for issuing a new certificate of birth for a person who has been legitimated, or whose paternity has been determined, or whose name has been changed;

(D) (i) A fee of one dollar ($1.00) collected by the clerks of the county courts upon the application of any person for marriage. (ii) This fee is in addition to any other fees;

(i) A fee of one dollar ($1.00) collected by the clerks of the county courts upon the application of any person for marriage.

(ii) This fee is in addition to any other fees;

(E) (i) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(1)(E)(ii) of this section, a fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the amendment of any record. (ii) For a hospital that requests an amendment of a record, a fee of two dollars ($2.00);

(i) Except as provided in subdivision (b)(1)(E)(ii) of this section, a fee of fifteen dollars ($15.00) collected by the state registrar for the amendment of any record.

(ii) For a hospital that requests an amendment of a record, a fee of two dollars ($2.00);

(F) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of any certificate or record other than a death certificate;

(G) A fee of: (i) Four dollars ($4.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of a single copy of a death certificate; and (ii) One dollar ($1.00) collected for the making and certification of each additional copy of a death certificate;

(i) Four dollars ($4.00) collected by the state registrar for the making and certification of a single copy of a death certificate; and

(ii) One dollar ($1.00) collected for the making and certification of each additional copy of a death certificate;

(H) (i) A fee of: (a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and (b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record. (ii) The fees set out in this subdivision (b)(1)(H) shall be paid before searching the record; and

(i) A fee of: (a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and (b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record.

(a) Five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for an examination and search of the files for any birth, marriage, divorce, or putative father record; and

(b) Four dollars ($4.00) for an examination and search of the files for a death record.

(ii) The fees set out in this subdivision (b)(1)(H) shall be paid before searching the record; and

(I) A fee of five dollars ($5.00) collected by the state registrar for establishing a new certificate of birth under § 20-18-406 ;

(2) (A) A fee to be collected for the review of plans and specifications covering improvements that by law or rule are required to be reviewed by the State Board of Health or Department of Health, including without limitation plans and specifications covering waterworks, sewage works, swimming pools, hospitals and related facilities, food service and food processing establishments, and plumbing in public facilities. (B) The fee imposed under subdivision (b)(2)(A) of this section shall be one percent (1%) of the estimated cost, with a maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) and a minimum fee of fifty dollars ($50.00), calculated and paid on the basis of the engineering estimate of the total cost of the particular improvement, which estimate is to be submitted with the plans and specifications for review. (C) If the maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) is paid, no engineering estimate of the total cost need be submitted with the plans and specifications; and

(A) A fee to be collected for the review of plans and specifications covering improvements that by law or rule are required to be reviewed by the State Board of Health or Department of Health, including without limitation plans and specifications covering waterworks, sewage works, swimming pools, hospitals and related facilities, food service and food processing establishments, and plumbing in public facilities.

(B) The fee imposed under subdivision (b)(2)(A) of this section shall be one percent (1%) of the estimated cost, with a maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) and a minimum fee of fifty dollars ($50.00), calculated and paid on the basis of the engineering estimate of the total cost of the particular improvement, which estimate is to be submitted with the plans and specifications for review.

(C) If the maximum fee of five hundred dollars ($500) is paid, no engineering estimate of the total cost need be submitted with the plans and specifications; and

(3) A fee of fifty dollars ($50.00) to be collected by the board or the department for each cemetery inspection as required by law or rule.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1810, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1809, eff. 7/24/2019.

Acts 1965, No. 469, § 10; 1983, No. 378, § 2; 1985, No. 351, §§ 1, 4; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 82-130, 82-130.1; Acts 1987, No. 399, §§ 1, 2; 1993, No. 350, § 6; 1993, No. 403, § 11; 1995, No. 270, § 14; 1995, No. 1254, § 29; 1995, No. 1256, § 20; 1995 (1st Ex. Sess.), No. 13, § 4; 2001, No. 957, §§ 1-4; 2003, No. 1723, § 14; 2007, No. 827, § 147; 2007, No. 1059, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-16-1408 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 16 / Subchapter 14 / Section 20-16-1408
Civil remedies
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A woman upon whom an abortion has been performed in violation of this subchapter or the father of the unborn child who was the subject of an abortion in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who purposely, knowingly, or recklessly performed or induced the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages. (2) A woman upon whom an abortion has been attempted in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who attempted purposely, knowingly, or recklessly to perform or induce the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages. (b) (1) A cause of action for injunctive relief against a person who has purposely, knowingly, or recklessly violated this subchapter may be maintained by: (A) The woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (B) A person who is the spouse, parent, sibling, or guardian of or a current or former licensed healthcare provider of the woman upon whom an abortion has been performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (C) A prosecuting attorney with appropriate jurisdiction; or (D) The Attorney General. (2) The injunction shall prevent the abortion provider from performing or inducing and from attempting to perform or induce further abortions in violation of this subchapter. (c) If judgment is rendered in favor of the plaintiff in an action described in this section, the court shall also render judgment for a reasonable attorney's fee in favor of the plaintiff against the defendant. (d) If judgment is rendered in favor of the defendant and the court finds that the plaintiff's suit was frivolous and brought in bad faith, the court shall render judgment for a reasonable attorney's fee in favor of the defendant against the plaintiff. (e) Damages or attorney's fee shall not be assessed against the woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced except under subsection (d) of this section. Added by Act 2013, No. 171,§ 1, eff. 2/28/2013.

(a) (1) A woman upon whom an abortion has been performed in violation of this subchapter or the father of the unborn child who was the subject of an abortion in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who purposely, knowingly, or recklessly performed or induced the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages. (2) A woman upon whom an abortion has been attempted in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who attempted purposely, knowingly, or recklessly to perform or induce the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages.

(1) A woman upon whom an abortion has been performed in violation of this subchapter or the father of the unborn child who was the subject of an abortion in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who purposely, knowingly, or recklessly performed or induced the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages.

(2) A woman upon whom an abortion has been attempted in violation of this subchapter may bring an action against the person who attempted purposely, knowingly, or recklessly to perform or induce the abortion in violation of this subchapter for actual and punitive damages.

(b) (1) A cause of action for injunctive relief against a person who has purposely, knowingly, or recklessly violated this subchapter may be maintained by: (A) The woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (B) A person who is the spouse, parent, sibling, or guardian of or a current or former licensed healthcare provider of the woman upon whom an abortion has been performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (C) A prosecuting attorney with appropriate jurisdiction; or (D) The Attorney General. (2) The injunction shall prevent the abortion provider from performing or inducing and from attempting to perform or induce further abortions in violation of this subchapter.

(1) A cause of action for injunctive relief against a person who has purposely, knowingly, or recklessly violated this subchapter may be maintained by: (A) The woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (B) A person who is the spouse, parent, sibling, or guardian of or a current or former licensed healthcare provider of the woman upon whom an abortion has been performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter; (C) A prosecuting attorney with appropriate jurisdiction; or (D) The Attorney General.

(A) The woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter;

(B) A person who is the spouse, parent, sibling, or guardian of or a current or former licensed healthcare provider of the woman upon whom an abortion has been performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of this subchapter;

(C) A prosecuting attorney with appropriate jurisdiction; or

(D) The Attorney General.

(2) The injunction shall prevent the abortion provider from performing or inducing and from attempting to perform or induce further abortions in violation of this subchapter.

(c) If judgment is rendered in favor of the plaintiff in an action described in this section, the court shall also render judgment for a reasonable attorney's fee in favor of the plaintiff against the defendant.

(d) If judgment is rendered in favor of the defendant and the court finds that the plaintiff's suit was frivolous and brought in bad faith, the court shall render judgment for a reasonable attorney's fee in favor of the defendant against the plaintiff.

(e) Damages or attorney's fee shall not be assessed against the woman upon whom an abortion was performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced except under subsection (d) of this section.

Added by Act 2013, No. 171,§ 1, eff. 2/28/2013.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-10-1010 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 10 / Subchapter 10 / Section 20-10-1010
End-of-life treatment of long-term care residents
Status: in_force

(a) For residents suffering from a terminal condition as defined in § 20-17-201 , facilities may withhold nutrition or hydration, or both, only pursuant to: (1) The directive or with the consent of the resident; (2) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ; or (3) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another under § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or (4) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed]. (b) For residents who are permanently unconscious as defined in § 20-17-201 , facilities may withhold nutrition or hydration, or both, only pursuant to: (1) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ; (2) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another pursuant to § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or (3) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed]. (c) (1) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the wishes of a resident who requests nutrition or hydration, or both, shall be honored. (2) Unless the use of artificial means is specifically requested, a patient's request for nutrition or hydration, or both, shall not be honored by use of artificial means if doing so would require the insertion of any apparatus into the patient's body. (d) The attending physician or other healthcare provider may not substitute his or her judgment relating to nutrition or hydration and make a decision that is contrary to the known wishes of the resident. Acts 2003, No. 1322, § 7.

(a) For residents suffering from a terminal condition as defined in § 20-17-201 , facilities may withhold nutrition or hydration, or both, only pursuant to: (1) The directive or with the consent of the resident; (2) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ; or (3) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another under § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or (4) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed].

(1) The directive or with the consent of the resident;

(2) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ; or

(3) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another under § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or

(A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and

(B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or

(4) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed].

(b) For residents who are permanently unconscious as defined in § 20-17-201 , facilities may withhold nutrition or hydration, or both, only pursuant to: (1) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ; (2) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another pursuant to § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or (3) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed].

(1) A validly executed declaration as defined in § 20-17-201 ;

(2) The instructions of a person authorized to execute a written request for another pursuant to § 20-17-214 if: (A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and (B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or

(A) The resident did not execute a declaration; and

(B) In the opinion of the attending physician, the resident is no longer able to make healthcare decisions for himself or herself; or

(3) The directions of an attorney-in-fact appointed under a validly executed durable power of attorney for health care as defined in § 20-13-104 [repealed].

(c) (1) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the wishes of a resident who requests nutrition or hydration, or both, shall be honored. (2) Unless the use of artificial means is specifically requested, a patient's request for nutrition or hydration, or both, shall not be honored by use of artificial means if doing so would require the insertion of any apparatus into the patient's body.

(1) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b) of this section, the wishes of a resident who requests nutrition or hydration, or both, shall be honored.

(2) Unless the use of artificial means is specifically requested, a patient's request for nutrition or hydration, or both, shall not be honored by use of artificial means if doing so would require the insertion of any apparatus into the patient's body.

(d) The attending physician or other healthcare provider may not substitute his or her judgment relating to nutrition or hydration and make a decision that is contrary to the known wishes of the resident.

Acts 2003, No. 1322, § 7.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-45-301 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 45 / Subchapter 3 / Section 20-45-301
Findings and intent
Status: in_force

(a) The General Assembly finds that: (1) Five hundred sixteen (516) Arkansans died by suicide in 2013, making suicide the leading cause of injury death in Arkansas, and suicide is an urgent and serious public health and welfare problem in the state; (2) Arkansas needs a comprehensive and coordinated approach to prevent suicide across all age and demographic groups in all areas of the state and to ensure that suicide prevention becomes a shared priority for all citizens; (3) Statewide coordination of suicide prevention efforts is necessary to ensure high levels of collaborative leadership, effectiveness, and continuous improvement; (4) An effective, evidence-based strategy is necessary to increase knowledge about and access to suicide prevention, intervention, and postintervention resources for all Arkansans; (5) Intentional leadership, survivor input, and capacity-building, policy development, and alignment of services for high-risk sectors are needed; (6) A seamless system of support and follow-up coordination for suicide attempt survivors and situationally high-risk individuals is needed; (7) The rate of suicide in Arkansas is presently outpacing the nation and increasing year to year; and (8) The absence of a suicide prevention program authority in Arkansas is a major threat to public health and welfare. (b) It is the intent of the General Assembly that the Injury Prevention Section of the Injury Prevention and Control Branch of the Department of Health be designated the program authority to receive and solicit funding as appropriate to provide adequate funding in support of an effective and staffed statewide suicide prevention program. Added by Act 2015, No. 1067,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015.

(a) The General Assembly finds that: (1) Five hundred sixteen (516) Arkansans died by suicide in 2013, making suicide the leading cause of injury death in Arkansas, and suicide is an urgent and serious public health and welfare problem in the state; (2) Arkansas needs a comprehensive and coordinated approach to prevent suicide across all age and demographic groups in all areas of the state and to ensure that suicide prevention becomes a shared priority for all citizens; (3) Statewide coordination of suicide prevention efforts is necessary to ensure high levels of collaborative leadership, effectiveness, and continuous improvement; (4) An effective, evidence-based strategy is necessary to increase knowledge about and access to suicide prevention, intervention, and postintervention resources for all Arkansans; (5) Intentional leadership, survivor input, and capacity-building, policy development, and alignment of services for high-risk sectors are needed; (6) A seamless system of support and follow-up coordination for suicide attempt survivors and situationally high-risk individuals is needed; (7) The rate of suicide in Arkansas is presently outpacing the nation and increasing year to year; and (8) The absence of a suicide prevention program authority in Arkansas is a major threat to public health and welfare.

(1) Five hundred sixteen (516) Arkansans died by suicide in 2013, making suicide the leading cause of injury death in Arkansas, and suicide is an urgent and serious public health and welfare problem in the state;

(2) Arkansas needs a comprehensive and coordinated approach to prevent suicide across all age and demographic groups in all areas of the state and to ensure that suicide prevention becomes a shared priority for all citizens;

(3) Statewide coordination of suicide prevention efforts is necessary to ensure high levels of collaborative leadership, effectiveness, and continuous improvement;

(4) An effective, evidence-based strategy is necessary to increase knowledge about and access to suicide prevention, intervention, and postintervention resources for all Arkansans;

(5) Intentional leadership, survivor input, and capacity-building, policy development, and alignment of services for high-risk sectors are needed;

(6) A seamless system of support and follow-up coordination for suicide attempt survivors and situationally high-risk individuals is needed;

(7) The rate of suicide in Arkansas is presently outpacing the nation and increasing year to year; and

(8) The absence of a suicide prevention program authority in Arkansas is a major threat to public health and welfare.

(b) It is the intent of the General Assembly that the Injury Prevention Section of the Injury Prevention and Control Branch of the Department of Health be designated the program authority to receive and solicit funding as appropriate to provide adequate funding in support of an effective and staffed statewide suicide prevention program.

Added by Act 2015, No. 1067,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-7-504 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 7 / Subchapter 5 / Section 20-7-504
Department of Health - Guidelines
Status: in_force

The Department of Health shall develop guidelines for businesses in the appropriate types and use of sanitation wipes for shopping cart handles. Acts 2007, No. 48, § 1.

The Department of Health shall develop guidelines for businesses in the appropriate types and use of sanitation wipes for shopping cart handles.

Acts 2007, No. 48, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-15-907 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 15 / Subchapter 9 / Section 20-15-907
Title
Status: in_force

This section and §§ 20-15-908 and 20-15-909 shall be known and may be cited as the "Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Medications Act of 2001". Acts 2001, No. 235, § 1.

This section and §§ 20-15-908 and 20-15-909 shall be known and may be cited as the "Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Medications Act of 2001".

Acts 2001, No. 235, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-76-215 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 76 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-76-215
Program integrity in Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Status: in_force

(a) Except when prohibited by federal law, the Department of Human Services shall adopt the following procedures to verify eligibility for participation in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program or for receipt of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program benefits: (1) All conditions of eligibility for assistance shall be verified before authorization of assistance and during a recertification of a recipient's eligibility; and (2) (A) Except when prohibited by federal law, it is a condition of eligibility for assistance that an applicant or recipient consents to the disclosure of information about the age, residence, citizenship, employment, application for employment, income, and resources of the applicant or recipient that are in the possession of a third party. (B) The consent of the applicant or recipient is effective to empower any third party to release information requested by the Department of Human Services. (b) (1) (A) The Department of Human Services shall enter into a data matching agreement with the Office of the Arkansas Lottery, Arkansas Racing Commission, and all other commissions and agencies with relevant information to identify individuals with lottery or gambling winnings. (B) Data received under a data matching agreement described in subdivision (b)(1)(A) of this section shall be treated as verified upon receipt. (2) (A) On at least a monthly basis, the Department of Human Services shall review the information described in subdivision (b)(1) of this section and deny or revoke assistance for the entire household upon verification of any substantial winnings exceeding the resource limits for that household or the threshold set under 7 C.F.R. § 272.17 , as existing on January 1, 2021. (B) If the Department of Human Services discovers, including through a database match, that a household fails to disclose substantial winnings that would result in being ineligible for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, the household shall be referred to the Office of Appeals and Hearings of the Department of Human Services to determine whether an intentional program violation has occurred through a due process hearing. (c) The Department of Human Services shall review information: (1) From the Department of Health concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances, including without limitation death certificates, that may affect eligibility, on at least a monthly basis; (2) From the Division of Workforce Services, the Department of Finance and Administration, the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the Office of Child Support Enforcement of the Revenue Division of the Department of Finance and Administration, and the National Directory of New Hires concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages, on at least a quarterly basis; (3) From the Division of Workforce Services concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages; (4) Concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation potential changes in residency as identified by out-of-state electronic benefit transfer transactions, on at least a monthly basis; and (5) From the Department of Corrections and the Division of Correction concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility. (d) On at least an annual basis, the Department of Human Services shall make available to the public on its website data, including without limitation information regarding noncompliance and fraud investigations in assistance for the following aggregate and nonconfidential and nonpersonally identifying information: (1) The number of assistance cases investigated for intentional program violations or fraud; (2) The total number of assistance cases referred for prosecution; (3) Improper payments and expenditures; (4) Monies recovered; (5) Aggregate data concerning improper payments and ineligible recipients as a percentage of those investigated and reviewed; and (6) Aggregate amount of funds expended by electronic benefits transfer card transactions in each state outside of Arkansas. (e) If the Department of Human Services receives information concerning an individual or household enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, the Department of Human Services shall review the individual's or household's case. (f) The Department of Human Services may execute a memorandum of understanding with any other state department, agency, or division for information required to be shared between agencies under this section. (g) (1) Notwithstanding other provisions of law, a household receiving assistance shall be subject to change reporting and report changes in circumstances, established by 7 C.F.R. § 273.12(a)(1) , as it existed on January 1, 2021, within ten (10) days of the date the change becomes known to the household unless the household is designated as a simplified reporting household. (2) (A) A household that is designated as a simplified reporting household shall be assigned a certification period of six (6) months or less. (B) The Department of Human Services shall begin phasing in the reduction in certification periods for simplified reporting households no later than September 1, 2022. Added by Act 2021, No. 780,§ 2, eff. 7/28/2021.

(a) Except when prohibited by federal law, the Department of Human Services shall adopt the following procedures to verify eligibility for participation in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program or for receipt of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program benefits: (1) All conditions of eligibility for assistance shall be verified before authorization of assistance and during a recertification of a recipient's eligibility; and (2) (A) Except when prohibited by federal law, it is a condition of eligibility for assistance that an applicant or recipient consents to the disclosure of information about the age, residence, citizenship, employment, application for employment, income, and resources of the applicant or recipient that are in the possession of a third party. (B) The consent of the applicant or recipient is effective to empower any third party to release information requested by the Department of Human Services.

(1) All conditions of eligibility for assistance shall be verified before authorization of assistance and during a recertification of a recipient's eligibility; and

(2) (A) Except when prohibited by federal law, it is a condition of eligibility for assistance that an applicant or recipient consents to the disclosure of information about the age, residence, citizenship, employment, application for employment, income, and resources of the applicant or recipient that are in the possession of a third party. (B) The consent of the applicant or recipient is effective to empower any third party to release information requested by the Department of Human Services.

(A) Except when prohibited by federal law, it is a condition of eligibility for assistance that an applicant or recipient consents to the disclosure of information about the age, residence, citizenship, employment, application for employment, income, and resources of the applicant or recipient that are in the possession of a third party.

(B) The consent of the applicant or recipient is effective to empower any third party to release information requested by the Department of Human Services.

(b) (1) (A) The Department of Human Services shall enter into a data matching agreement with the Office of the Arkansas Lottery, Arkansas Racing Commission, and all other commissions and agencies with relevant information to identify individuals with lottery or gambling winnings. (B) Data received under a data matching agreement described in subdivision (b)(1)(A) of this section shall be treated as verified upon receipt. (2) (A) On at least a monthly basis, the Department of Human Services shall review the information described in subdivision (b)(1) of this section and deny or revoke assistance for the entire household upon verification of any substantial winnings exceeding the resource limits for that household or the threshold set under 7 C.F.R. § 272.17 , as existing on January 1, 2021. (B) If the Department of Human Services discovers, including through a database match, that a household fails to disclose substantial winnings that would result in being ineligible for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, the household shall be referred to the Office of Appeals and Hearings of the Department of Human Services to determine whether an intentional program violation has occurred through a due process hearing.

(1) (A) The Department of Human Services shall enter into a data matching agreement with the Office of the Arkansas Lottery, Arkansas Racing Commission, and all other commissions and agencies with relevant information to identify individuals with lottery or gambling winnings. (B) Data received under a data matching agreement described in subdivision (b)(1)(A) of this section shall be treated as verified upon receipt.

(A) The Department of Human Services shall enter into a data matching agreement with the Office of the Arkansas Lottery, Arkansas Racing Commission, and all other commissions and agencies with relevant information to identify individuals with lottery or gambling winnings.

(B) Data received under a data matching agreement described in subdivision (b)(1)(A) of this section shall be treated as verified upon receipt.

(2) (A) On at least a monthly basis, the Department of Human Services shall review the information described in subdivision (b)(1) of this section and deny or revoke assistance for the entire household upon verification of any substantial winnings exceeding the resource limits for that household or the threshold set under 7 C.F.R. § 272.17 , as existing on January 1, 2021. (B) If the Department of Human Services discovers, including through a database match, that a household fails to disclose substantial winnings that would result in being ineligible for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, the household shall be referred to the Office of Appeals and Hearings of the Department of Human Services to determine whether an intentional program violation has occurred through a due process hearing.

(A) On at least a monthly basis, the Department of Human Services shall review the information described in subdivision (b)(1) of this section and deny or revoke assistance for the entire household upon verification of any substantial winnings exceeding the resource limits for that household or the threshold set under 7 C.F.R. § 272.17 , as existing on January 1, 2021.

(B) If the Department of Human Services discovers, including through a database match, that a household fails to disclose substantial winnings that would result in being ineligible for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, the household shall be referred to the Office of Appeals and Hearings of the Department of Human Services to determine whether an intentional program violation has occurred through a due process hearing.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall review information: (1) From the Department of Health concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances, including without limitation death certificates, that may affect eligibility, on at least a monthly basis; (2) From the Division of Workforce Services, the Department of Finance and Administration, the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the Office of Child Support Enforcement of the Revenue Division of the Department of Finance and Administration, and the National Directory of New Hires concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages, on at least a quarterly basis; (3) From the Division of Workforce Services concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages; (4) Concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation potential changes in residency as identified by out-of-state electronic benefit transfer transactions, on at least a monthly basis; and (5) From the Department of Corrections and the Division of Correction concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility.

(1) From the Department of Health concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances, including without limitation death certificates, that may affect eligibility, on at least a monthly basis;

(2) From the Division of Workforce Services, the Department of Finance and Administration, the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the Office of Child Support Enforcement of the Revenue Division of the Department of Finance and Administration, and the National Directory of New Hires concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages, on at least a quarterly basis;

(3) From the Division of Workforce Services concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation a change in employment or wages;

(4) Concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, including without limitation potential changes in residency as identified by out-of-state electronic benefit transfer transactions, on at least a monthly basis; and

(5) From the Department of Corrections and the Division of Correction concerning individuals enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility.

(d) On at least an annual basis, the Department of Human Services shall make available to the public on its website data, including without limitation information regarding noncompliance and fraud investigations in assistance for the following aggregate and nonconfidential and nonpersonally identifying information: (1) The number of assistance cases investigated for intentional program violations or fraud; (2) The total number of assistance cases referred for prosecution; (3) Improper payments and expenditures; (4) Monies recovered; (5) Aggregate data concerning improper payments and ineligible recipients as a percentage of those investigated and reviewed; and (6) Aggregate amount of funds expended by electronic benefits transfer card transactions in each state outside of Arkansas.

(1) The number of assistance cases investigated for intentional program violations or fraud;

(2) The total number of assistance cases referred for prosecution;

(3) Improper payments and expenditures;

(4) Monies recovered;

(5) Aggregate data concerning improper payments and ineligible recipients as a percentage of those investigated and reviewed; and

(6) Aggregate amount of funds expended by electronic benefits transfer card transactions in each state outside of Arkansas.

(e) If the Department of Human Services receives information concerning an individual or household enrolled in assistance that indicates a change in circumstances that may affect eligibility, the Department of Human Services shall review the individual's or household's case.

(f) The Department of Human Services may execute a memorandum of understanding with any other state department, agency, or division for information required to be shared between agencies under this section.

(g) (1) Notwithstanding other provisions of law, a household receiving assistance shall be subject to change reporting and report changes in circumstances, established by 7 C.F.R. § 273.12(a)(1) , as it existed on January 1, 2021, within ten (10) days of the date the change becomes known to the household unless the household is designated as a simplified reporting household. (2) (A) A household that is designated as a simplified reporting household shall be assigned a certification period of six (6) months or less. (B) The Department of Human Services shall begin phasing in the reduction in certification periods for simplified reporting households no later than September 1, 2022.

(1) Notwithstanding other provisions of law, a household receiving assistance shall be subject to change reporting and report changes in circumstances, established by 7 C.F.R. § 273.12(a)(1) , as it existed on January 1, 2021, within ten (10) days of the date the change becomes known to the household unless the household is designated as a simplified reporting household.

(2) (A) A household that is designated as a simplified reporting household shall be assigned a certification period of six (6) months or less. (B) The Department of Human Services shall begin phasing in the reduction in certification periods for simplified reporting households no later than September 1, 2022.

(A) A household that is designated as a simplified reporting household shall be assigned a certification period of six (6) months or less.

(B) The Department of Human Services shall begin phasing in the reduction in certification periods for simplified reporting households no later than September 1, 2022.

Added by Act 2021, No. 780,§ 2, eff. 7/28/2021.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-13-803 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 13 / Subchapter 8 / Section 20-13-803
[Repealed]
Status: repealed

Repealed by Act 2019, No. 389,§ 26, eff. 7/24/2019. Acts 1993, No. 559, § 3; 2009, No. 393, § 1.

Repealed by Act 2019, No. 389,§ 26, eff. 7/24/2019.

Acts 1993, No. 559, § 3; 2009, No. 393, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-7-303 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 7 / Subchapter 3 / Section 20-7-303
Collection and dissemination of health data
Status: in_force

(a) With the approval of the State Board of Health, the Secretary of the Department of Health shall compile and disseminate health data collected by the Department of Health. (b) (1) In consultation with advisory groups appointed by the secretary with representation from hospitals, outpatient surgery centers, health profession licensing boards, and other state agencies, the department should: (A) Identify the most practical methods to collect, transmit, and share required health data as described in § 20-7-304 ; (B) Utilize, wherever practical, existing administrative databases and modalities of data collection to provide the required data; (C) Develop standards of accuracy, timeliness, economy, and efficiency for the provision of the data; and (D) Ensure confidentiality of data by enforcing appropriate rules. (2) To maximize limited resources and to prevent duplication of effort, the department may consider, when appropriate, contracting with private entities for the collection of data as set forth in this section subject to this subchapter. (c) (1) All state agencies, including health profession licensing, certification, or registration boards and commissions, which collect, maintain, or distribute health data, including data relating to the Arkansas Medicaid Program, shall make available to the department such data as are necessary for the department to carry out its responsibilities under this subchapter or such rules as may be adopted as provided in § 20-7-305 . (2) If health data are already reported to another organization or governmental agency in the same manner, form, and content or in a manner, form, and content acceptable to the department, the secretary may obtain a copy of the data from the organization or agency, and no duplicate report need be submitted by the organization. (3) All hospitals and outpatient surgery centers licensed by the state shall submit information in a form and manner as prescribed by rules by the State Board of Health pursuant to § 20-7-305 . However, if the same information is being collected by another state agency, the department shall obtain the data from the other state agency. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1820, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1819, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1818, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4939, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4938, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1995, No. 670, § 2.

(a) With the approval of the State Board of Health, the Secretary of the Department of Health shall compile and disseminate health data collected by the Department of Health.

(b) (1) In consultation with advisory groups appointed by the secretary with representation from hospitals, outpatient surgery centers, health profession licensing boards, and other state agencies, the department should: (A) Identify the most practical methods to collect, transmit, and share required health data as described in § 20-7-304 ; (B) Utilize, wherever practical, existing administrative databases and modalities of data collection to provide the required data; (C) Develop standards of accuracy, timeliness, economy, and efficiency for the provision of the data; and (D) Ensure confidentiality of data by enforcing appropriate rules. (2) To maximize limited resources and to prevent duplication of effort, the department may consider, when appropriate, contracting with private entities for the collection of data as set forth in this section subject to this subchapter.

(1) In consultation with advisory groups appointed by the secretary with representation from hospitals, outpatient surgery centers, health profession licensing boards, and other state agencies, the department should: (A) Identify the most practical methods to collect, transmit, and share required health data as described in § 20-7-304 ; (B) Utilize, wherever practical, existing administrative databases and modalities of data collection to provide the required data; (C) Develop standards of accuracy, timeliness, economy, and efficiency for the provision of the data; and (D) Ensure confidentiality of data by enforcing appropriate rules.

(A) Identify the most practical methods to collect, transmit, and share required health data as described in § 20-7-304 ;

(B) Utilize, wherever practical, existing administrative databases and modalities of data collection to provide the required data;

(C) Develop standards of accuracy, timeliness, economy, and efficiency for the provision of the data; and

(D) Ensure confidentiality of data by enforcing appropriate rules.

(2) To maximize limited resources and to prevent duplication of effort, the department may consider, when appropriate, contracting with private entities for the collection of data as set forth in this section subject to this subchapter.

(c) (1) All state agencies, including health profession licensing, certification, or registration boards and commissions, which collect, maintain, or distribute health data, including data relating to the Arkansas Medicaid Program, shall make available to the department such data as are necessary for the department to carry out its responsibilities under this subchapter or such rules as may be adopted as provided in § 20-7-305 . (2) If health data are already reported to another organization or governmental agency in the same manner, form, and content or in a manner, form, and content acceptable to the department, the secretary may obtain a copy of the data from the organization or agency, and no duplicate report need be submitted by the organization. (3) All hospitals and outpatient surgery centers licensed by the state shall submit information in a form and manner as prescribed by rules by the State Board of Health pursuant to § 20-7-305 . However, if the same information is being collected by another state agency, the department shall obtain the data from the other state agency.

(1) All state agencies, including health profession licensing, certification, or registration boards and commissions, which collect, maintain, or distribute health data, including data relating to the Arkansas Medicaid Program, shall make available to the department such data as are necessary for the department to carry out its responsibilities under this subchapter or such rules as may be adopted as provided in § 20-7-305 .

(2) If health data are already reported to another organization or governmental agency in the same manner, form, and content or in a manner, form, and content acceptable to the department, the secretary may obtain a copy of the data from the organization or agency, and no duplicate report need be submitted by the organization.

(3) All hospitals and outpatient surgery centers licensed by the state shall submit information in a form and manner as prescribed by rules by the State Board of Health pursuant to § 20-7-305 . However, if the same information is being collected by another state agency, the department shall obtain the data from the other state agency.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1820, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1819, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1818, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4939, eff. 7/1/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4938, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1995, No. 670, § 2.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-46-105 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 46 / Subchapter 1 / Section 20-46-105
Report concerning emotionally disturbed youth
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Department of Human Services shall report monthly to the House Committee on Aging, Children and Youth, Legislative and Military Affairs and the Senate Interim Committee on Children and Youth or appropriate subcommittees thereof the number of children placed in residential and inpatient treatment programs, including sexual offender treatment, when Medicaid is the payment source. (2) The monthly report shall include the following information: (A) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (B) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (C) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (D) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (E) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for in-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (F) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for out-of-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (G) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (H) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are within fifty (50) miles of an Arkansas border; and (I) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are more than fifty (50) miles from an Arkansas border. (b) The report under this section shall include the number of placements for the previous month and the cumulative total number of placements for each fiscal year as of the date of the latest monthly report. (c) The Legislative Council may request at any time that such additional information as it deems necessary be provided by the department. (d) The deputy director of the appropriate division of the department as determined by the Secretary of the Department of Human Services shall certify by his or her signature that the information contained in these reports is correct to the best of his or her knowledge. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5191, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by Act 2013, No. 1132,§ 28, eff. 8/16/2013. Acts 1985, No. 779, § 21; 1997, No. 179, § 31; 2003, No. 278, § 1; 2005, No. 1958, § 1.

(a) (1) The Department of Human Services shall report monthly to the House Committee on Aging, Children and Youth, Legislative and Military Affairs and the Senate Interim Committee on Children and Youth or appropriate subcommittees thereof the number of children placed in residential and inpatient treatment programs, including sexual offender treatment, when Medicaid is the payment source. (2) The monthly report shall include the following information: (A) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (B) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (C) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (D) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (E) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for in-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (F) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for out-of-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (G) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (H) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are within fifty (50) miles of an Arkansas border; and (I) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are more than fifty (50) miles from an Arkansas border.

(1) The Department of Human Services shall report monthly to the House Committee on Aging, Children and Youth, Legislative and Military Affairs and the Senate Interim Committee on Children and Youth or appropriate subcommittees thereof the number of children placed in residential and inpatient treatment programs, including sexual offender treatment, when Medicaid is the payment source.

(2) The monthly report shall include the following information: (A) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (B) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (C) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (D) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (E) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for in-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (F) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for out-of-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified; (G) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month; (H) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are within fifty (50) miles of an Arkansas border; and (I) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are more than fifty (50) miles from an Arkansas border.

(A) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month;

(B) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential programs and the total number of males and the total number of females placed in inpatient acute psychiatric programs, excluding sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month;

(C) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in in-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month;

(D) The total number of males and the total number of females placed in out-of-state residential and inpatient sexual offender treatment programs that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month;

(E) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for in-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified;

(F) The total amount of money paid by Medicaid for the previous month for out-of-state residential and inpatient psychiatric programs with sexual offender treatment programs, residential and acute separately identified;

(G) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month;

(H) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are within fifty (50) miles of an Arkansas border; and

(I) The total number of juveniles in residential and inpatient programs, including sexual offender treatment programs, that were paid for by Medicaid during the previous month, who are more than fifty (50) miles from an Arkansas border.

(b) The report under this section shall include the number of placements for the previous month and the cumulative total number of placements for each fiscal year as of the date of the latest monthly report.

(c) The Legislative Council may request at any time that such additional information as it deems necessary be provided by the department.

(d) The deputy director of the appropriate division of the department as determined by the Secretary of the Department of Human Services shall certify by his or her signature that the information contained in these reports is correct to the best of his or her knowledge.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5191, eff. 7/1/2019.

Amended by Act 2013, No. 1132,§ 28, eff. 8/16/2013.

Acts 1985, No. 779, § 21; 1997, No. 179, § 31; 2003, No. 278, § 1; 2005, No. 1958, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-77-116 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 77 / Subchapter 1 / Section 20-77-116
[Repealed]
Status: repealed

Repealed by Act 2013, No. 279,§ 1, eff. 8/16/2013. Acts 1999, No. 1595, § 1.

Repealed by Act 2013, No. 279,§ 1, eff. 8/16/2013.

Acts 1999, No. 1595, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-46-303 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 46 / Subchapter 3 / Section 20-46-303
Standards generally
Status: in_force

In approving or rejecting community mental health clinics for the purpose of mental health services, the Secretary of the Department of Human Services shall consider the following factors: (1) Adequacy of mental health services provided by the clinic, including mental health outpatient diagnostic and treatment services; (2) Rehabilitative services for patients suffering from mental or emotional disorders; (3) Collaborative and cooperative services with public health and other state, county, city, and private groups for programs of prevention and treatment of mental illness and other psychiatric, psychological, and social disabilities; (4) Consultative services to schools, to courts, and to health and welfare agencies, both public and private; (5) Informational and educational services to the general public and to lay and professional groups; and (6) Study and training activities in the field of mental health. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5194, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1971, No. 433, ch. 2, § 3; A.S.A. 1947, § 59-303.

In approving or rejecting community mental health clinics for the purpose of mental health services, the Secretary of the Department of Human Services shall consider the following factors:

(1) Adequacy of mental health services provided by the clinic, including mental health outpatient diagnostic and treatment services;

(2) Rehabilitative services for patients suffering from mental or emotional disorders;

(3) Collaborative and cooperative services with public health and other state, county, city, and private groups for programs of prevention and treatment of mental illness and other psychiatric, psychological, and social disabilities;

(4) Consultative services to schools, to courts, and to health and welfare agencies, both public and private;

(5) Informational and educational services to the general public and to lay and professional groups; and

(6) Study and training activities in the field of mental health.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5194, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1971, No. 433, ch. 2, § 3; A.S.A. 1947, § 59-303.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-76-434 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 76 / Subchapter 4 / Section 20-76-434
Maintenance of list of recipients
Status: in_force

(a) In order to ensure that the needy citizens of the State of Arkansas are receiving all benefits to which they may be entitled, the Department of Human Services shall maintain a list of all recipients of state assistance reflecting each recipient's income, Social Security number, and the programs in which the recipient is participating. (b) The information required for the list shall be obtained from the recipient's records and such other sources necessary to ensure accuracy and completeness. (c) The recipient shall be provided a release form to sign in order to obtain the required information. Failure to sign the release form shall result in termination of the recipient from the program of assistance until a review can be made of the eligibility of the recipient by the department from public records. Acts 1981, No. 934, §§ 30, 31; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 83-124.1, 83-124.2; Acts 1997, No. 208, § 23; 1997, No. 1058, § 23.

(a) In order to ensure that the needy citizens of the State of Arkansas are receiving all benefits to which they may be entitled, the Department of Human Services shall maintain a list of all recipients of state assistance reflecting each recipient's income, Social Security number, and the programs in which the recipient is participating.

(b) The information required for the list shall be obtained from the recipient's records and such other sources necessary to ensure accuracy and completeness.

(c) The recipient shall be provided a release form to sign in order to obtain the required information. Failure to sign the release form shall result in termination of the recipient from the program of assistance until a review can be made of the eligibility of the recipient by the department from public records.

Acts 1981, No. 934, §§ 30, 31; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 83-124.1, 83-124.2; Acts 1997, No. 208, § 23; 1997, No. 1058, § 23.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-76-401 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 76 / Subchapter 4 / Section 20-76-401
Eligibility generally - Transitional Employment Assistance Program
Status: in_force

(a) (1) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program is created. (2) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program shall be administered by the Department of Human Services. (b) Eligibility for transitional employment assistance is limited to applicants for or recipients of assistance who: (1) Are income and resource eligible; and (2) Sign and comply with a personal responsibility agreement. (c) The department shall promulgate rules to determine resource eligibility and benefit levels for participating families. The rules shall be subject to review and recommendation by the Arkansas Workforce Development Board and shall include, but not be limited to, the following categories of income and resource disregards: (1) To reward work, earned income from sources other than transitional employment assistance; (2) A certain percentage of a family's gross monthly income; (3) The family's homestead; (4) An operable motor vehicle per family; (5) Household and personal goods; (6) Income-producing property; (7) Moneys deposited into an approved individual development account or approved escrow account for business or career development; (8) Any other property or resource specified in the transitional employment assistance implementation plan which is determined to be cost efficient to exclude or which must be excluded due to federal or state law; and (9) Any investment earmarked for retirement or education, such as a retirement plan authorized by section 401(k) or section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as it existed on January 1, 2007. (d) Any person who makes an application for assistance shall have the burden of proving eligibility for the assistance. Amended by Act 2023, No. 832,§ 9, eff. 7/1/2023. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 2243, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 512, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1939, No. 280, § 18; 1951, No. 229, § 1; 1953, No. 177, § 1; 1959, No. 301, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 83-123 -- 83-123.2; Acts 1997, No. 1058, § 8; 1999, No. 1567, § 11; 2003, No. 1473, § 43; 2005, No. 1705, § 11; 2007, No. 514, § 10.

(a) (1) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program is created. (2) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program shall be administered by the Department of Human Services.

(1) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program is created.

(2) The Transitional Employment Assistance Program shall be administered by the Department of Human Services.

(b) Eligibility for transitional employment assistance is limited to applicants for or recipients of assistance who: (1) Are income and resource eligible; and (2) Sign and comply with a personal responsibility agreement.

(1) Are income and resource eligible; and

(2) Sign and comply with a personal responsibility agreement.

(c) The department shall promulgate rules to determine resource eligibility and benefit levels for participating families. The rules shall be subject to review and recommendation by the Arkansas Workforce Development Board and shall include, but not be limited to, the following categories of income and resource disregards: (1) To reward work, earned income from sources other than transitional employment assistance; (2) A certain percentage of a family's gross monthly income; (3) The family's homestead; (4) An operable motor vehicle per family; (5) Household and personal goods; (6) Income-producing property; (7) Moneys deposited into an approved individual development account or approved escrow account for business or career development; (8) Any other property or resource specified in the transitional employment assistance implementation plan which is determined to be cost efficient to exclude or which must be excluded due to federal or state law; and (9) Any investment earmarked for retirement or education, such as a retirement plan authorized by section 401(k) or section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as it existed on January 1, 2007.

(1) To reward work, earned income from sources other than transitional employment assistance;

(2) A certain percentage of a family's gross monthly income;

(3) The family's homestead;

(4) An operable motor vehicle per family;

(5) Household and personal goods;

(6) Income-producing property;

(7) Moneys deposited into an approved individual development account or approved escrow account for business or career development;

(8) Any other property or resource specified in the transitional employment assistance implementation plan which is determined to be cost efficient to exclude or which must be excluded due to federal or state law; and

(9) Any investment earmarked for retirement or education, such as a retirement plan authorized by section 401(k) or section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as it existed on January 1, 2007.

(d) Any person who makes an application for assistance shall have the burden of proving eligibility for the assistance.

Amended by Act 2023, No. 832,§ 9, eff. 7/1/2023.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 2243, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 512, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1939, No. 280, § 18; 1951, No. 229, § 1; 1953, No. 177, § 1; 1959, No. 301, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 83-123 -- 83-123.2; Acts 1997, No. 1058, § 8; 1999, No. 1567, § 11; 2003, No. 1473, § 43; 2005, No. 1705, § 11; 2007, No. 514, § 10.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-15-102 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 15 / Subchapter 1 / Section 20-15-102
Depression screening for birth mothers at time of birth
Status: in_force

(a) A physician or healthcare provider who is attending a birth in this state or a licensed healthcare provider who is attending or providing medical treatment to a birth mother in this state shall facilitate with a healthcare provider to screen the birth mother for depression within the first six (6) weeks of birth. (b) (1) If the birth mother declines to be screened for depression within the first six (6) weeks of having given birth, the physician or healthcare provider shall record in the patient's medical records that the birth mother was not screened for depression based upon the refusal of the patient. (2) The record of a patient refusal relieves the physician and the healthcare provider of liability under this subsection. (c) Records, reports, data, or other information collected or maintained under this section that identify or could be used to identify an individual patient, healthcare provider, or institution are confidential and are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act of 1967, § 25-19-101 et seq. Added by Act 2023, No. 316,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023.

(a) A physician or healthcare provider who is attending a birth in this state or a licensed healthcare provider who is attending or providing medical treatment to a birth mother in this state shall facilitate with a healthcare provider to screen the birth mother for depression within the first six (6) weeks of birth.

(b) (1) If the birth mother declines to be screened for depression within the first six (6) weeks of having given birth, the physician or healthcare provider shall record in the patient's medical records that the birth mother was not screened for depression based upon the refusal of the patient. (2) The record of a patient refusal relieves the physician and the healthcare provider of liability under this subsection.

(1) If the birth mother declines to be screened for depression within the first six (6) weeks of having given birth, the physician or healthcare provider shall record in the patient's medical records that the birth mother was not screened for depression based upon the refusal of the patient.

(2) The record of a patient refusal relieves the physician and the healthcare provider of liability under this subsection.

(c) Records, reports, data, or other information collected or maintained under this section that identify or could be used to identify an individual patient, healthcare provider, or institution are confidential and are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act of 1967, § 25-19-101 et seq.

Added by Act 2023, No. 316,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-56-216 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 56 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-56-216
Adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned food, drug, device, or cosmetic - Procedures
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Whenever an authorized agent of the State Board of Health finds or has probable cause to believe that any food, drug, device, or cosmetic is adulterated, so misbranded, or abandoned as to be dangerous or fraudulent within the meaning of this subchapter, he or she shall affix to the article a tag or other appropriate marking giving notice that the article is, or is suspected of being, adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned and has been detained or embargoed and warning all persons not to move, transfer from one (1) place to another, remove, or dispose of the article by sale or otherwise until written permission or order for movement, transfer, removal, or disposal is given by the agent or the court. (2) It shall be unlawful for any person to move, transfer, remove, or dispose of the detained or embargoed article by sale or otherwise without permission. (b) (1) When an article detained or embargoed under subsection (a) of this section has been found by an agent to be adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, the agent shall petition the judge of the circuit court in whose jurisdiction the article is detained or embargoed for a libel for condemnation of the article. (2) When the agent has found that an article so detained or embargoed is not adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then he or she shall remove the tag or other marking. (c) (1) If the court finds that a detained or embargoed article is adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then the article, after entry of the decree, shall be destroyed at the expense of the claimant when under the supervision of the agent of the board. All court costs and fees and storage and other proper expenses shall be taxed against the claimant of the article or his or her agent. (2) When the adulteration, misbranding, or abandoning can be corrected by proper labeling or processing of the article, the court, after entry of the decree and after costs, fees, and expenses have been paid and a good and sufficient bond, conditioned that the article shall be so labeled or processed, has been executed, may direct that the article be delivered to the claimant thereof for labeling or processing under the supervision of an agent of the board. (3) The expense of the supervision shall be paid by the claimant. (4) The bond shall be returned to the claimant of the article upon representation to the court by the board that the article is no longer in violation of this subchapter and that the expenses of the supervision have been paid. (d) Whenever the board or any of its authorized agents shall find in any room, building, vehicle of transportation, or other structure any meat, seafood, poultry, vegetable, fruit, or other perishable articles which are unsound or contain any filthy, decomposed, or putrid substance or which may be poisonous or deleterious to health or otherwise unsafe, those articles being declared to be a nuisance, the board or its authorized agent shall immediately condemn or destroy those articles or in any other manner render those articles unsalable as human food. Acts 1953, No. 415, § 6; 1957, No. 336, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-1106; Acts 1991, No. 924, § 3.

(a) (1) Whenever an authorized agent of the State Board of Health finds or has probable cause to believe that any food, drug, device, or cosmetic is adulterated, so misbranded, or abandoned as to be dangerous or fraudulent within the meaning of this subchapter, he or she shall affix to the article a tag or other appropriate marking giving notice that the article is, or is suspected of being, adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned and has been detained or embargoed and warning all persons not to move, transfer from one (1) place to another, remove, or dispose of the article by sale or otherwise until written permission or order for movement, transfer, removal, or disposal is given by the agent or the court. (2) It shall be unlawful for any person to move, transfer, remove, or dispose of the detained or embargoed article by sale or otherwise without permission.

(1) Whenever an authorized agent of the State Board of Health finds or has probable cause to believe that any food, drug, device, or cosmetic is adulterated, so misbranded, or abandoned as to be dangerous or fraudulent within the meaning of this subchapter, he or she shall affix to the article a tag or other appropriate marking giving notice that the article is, or is suspected of being, adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned and has been detained or embargoed and warning all persons not to move, transfer from one (1) place to another, remove, or dispose of the article by sale or otherwise until written permission or order for movement, transfer, removal, or disposal is given by the agent or the court.

(2) It shall be unlawful for any person to move, transfer, remove, or dispose of the detained or embargoed article by sale or otherwise without permission.

(b) (1) When an article detained or embargoed under subsection (a) of this section has been found by an agent to be adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, the agent shall petition the judge of the circuit court in whose jurisdiction the article is detained or embargoed for a libel for condemnation of the article. (2) When the agent has found that an article so detained or embargoed is not adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then he or she shall remove the tag or other marking.

(1) When an article detained or embargoed under subsection (a) of this section has been found by an agent to be adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, the agent shall petition the judge of the circuit court in whose jurisdiction the article is detained or embargoed for a libel for condemnation of the article.

(2) When the agent has found that an article so detained or embargoed is not adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then he or she shall remove the tag or other marking.

(c) (1) If the court finds that a detained or embargoed article is adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then the article, after entry of the decree, shall be destroyed at the expense of the claimant when under the supervision of the agent of the board. All court costs and fees and storage and other proper expenses shall be taxed against the claimant of the article or his or her agent. (2) When the adulteration, misbranding, or abandoning can be corrected by proper labeling or processing of the article, the court, after entry of the decree and after costs, fees, and expenses have been paid and a good and sufficient bond, conditioned that the article shall be so labeled or processed, has been executed, may direct that the article be delivered to the claimant thereof for labeling or processing under the supervision of an agent of the board. (3) The expense of the supervision shall be paid by the claimant. (4) The bond shall be returned to the claimant of the article upon representation to the court by the board that the article is no longer in violation of this subchapter and that the expenses of the supervision have been paid.

(1) If the court finds that a detained or embargoed article is adulterated, misbranded, or abandoned, then the article, after entry of the decree, shall be destroyed at the expense of the claimant when under the supervision of the agent of the board. All court costs and fees and storage and other proper expenses shall be taxed against the claimant of the article or his or her agent.

(2) When the adulteration, misbranding, or abandoning can be corrected by proper labeling or processing of the article, the court, after entry of the decree and after costs, fees, and expenses have been paid and a good and sufficient bond, conditioned that the article shall be so labeled or processed, has been executed, may direct that the article be delivered to the claimant thereof for labeling or processing under the supervision of an agent of the board.

(3) The expense of the supervision shall be paid by the claimant.

(4) The bond shall be returned to the claimant of the article upon representation to the court by the board that the article is no longer in violation of this subchapter and that the expenses of the supervision have been paid.

(d) Whenever the board or any of its authorized agents shall find in any room, building, vehicle of transportation, or other structure any meat, seafood, poultry, vegetable, fruit, or other perishable articles which are unsound or contain any filthy, decomposed, or putrid substance or which may be poisonous or deleterious to health or otherwise unsafe, those articles being declared to be a nuisance, the board or its authorized agent shall immediately condemn or destroy those articles or in any other manner render those articles unsalable as human food.

Acts 1953, No. 415, § 6; 1957, No. 336, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-1106; Acts 1991, No. 924, § 3.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-27-903 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 27 / Subchapter 9 / Section 20-27-903
Labeling required
Status: in_force

(a) (1) Each light of safety glazing material manufactured, distributed, imported, or sold for use in hazardous locations or installed in a hazardous location within this state shall be labeled as such by etching, sand blasting, firing of ceramic material, or pressure sensitive labels on the safety glazing material. (2) The label shall identify the labeler, whether manufacturer, fabricator, or installer, the thickness and type of safety glazing material, and the fact that the material meets the test requirements of American National Standards Institute Standard Z-97.1 - 1972. (3) The label shall be legible and visible after installation. (b) Safety glazing labeling shall not be used on other than safety glazing materials. Acts 1973, No. 117, § 2; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-733.

(a) (1) Each light of safety glazing material manufactured, distributed, imported, or sold for use in hazardous locations or installed in a hazardous location within this state shall be labeled as such by etching, sand blasting, firing of ceramic material, or pressure sensitive labels on the safety glazing material. (2) The label shall identify the labeler, whether manufacturer, fabricator, or installer, the thickness and type of safety glazing material, and the fact that the material meets the test requirements of American National Standards Institute Standard Z-97.1 - 1972. (3) The label shall be legible and visible after installation.

(1) Each light of safety glazing material manufactured, distributed, imported, or sold for use in hazardous locations or installed in a hazardous location within this state shall be labeled as such by etching, sand blasting, firing of ceramic material, or pressure sensitive labels on the safety glazing material.

(2) The label shall identify the labeler, whether manufacturer, fabricator, or installer, the thickness and type of safety glazing material, and the fact that the material meets the test requirements of American National Standards Institute Standard Z-97.1 - 1972.

(3) The label shall be legible and visible after installation.

(b) Safety glazing labeling shall not be used on other than safety glazing materials.

Acts 1973, No. 117, § 2; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-733.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-15-202 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 15 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-15-202
State cancer plan
Status: in_force

A task force consisting of public and private entities shall be established by the Secretary of the Department of Health to assist the Department of Health in developing a strategic plan for a coordinated, comprehensive, statewide network of cancer resources, services, and programs. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4997, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1989, No. 435, § 2.

A task force consisting of public and private entities shall be established by the Secretary of the Department of Health to assist the Department of Health in developing a strategic plan for a coordinated, comprehensive, statewide network of cancer resources, services, and programs.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 4997, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1989, No. 435, § 2.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-7-611 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 7 / Subchapter 6 / Section 20-7-611
Unlawful acts and penalties
Status: in_force

(a) (1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely fail to submit prescription monitoring information as required under this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of this section is a Class B misdemeanor. (b) (1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely submit fraudulent prescription information. (2) A violation of subdivision (b)(1) of this section is a Class D felony. (c) (1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription monitoring information to purposely disclose the information in violation of this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of this section is a Class C felony. (d) (1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription drug monitoring program information to use such information in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (d)(1) of this section is a Class C felony. (e) (1) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly obtain, use, or disclose or attempt to obtain, use, or disclose information by fraud or deceit from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program or from a person authorized to receive information from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program under this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (e)(1) of this section is a Class C felony. (f) In addition to the criminal penalties provided in this section, a dispenser or practitioner who uses or discloses confidential information received from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter may be subject to disciplinary action by the dispenser's or practitioner's licensing board. (g) In addition to the criminal penalties provided in this section, a law enforcement officer who uses or discloses confidential information received from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter may be subject to disciplinary action by the law enforcement officer's agency or department. (h) This subchapter does not limit a person whose privacy has been compromised unlawfully under this section from bringing a civil action to address the breach of privacy or to recover all damages to which the person may be entitled per violation, including attorney's fees and costs. (i) A practitioner who purposely fails to access the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program as required by § 20-7-604(d) is subject to disciplinary action by the licensing board of the practitioner. Amended by Act 2017, No. 820,§ 3, eff. 8/1/2017. Acts 2011, No. 304, § 1.

(a) (1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely fail to submit prescription monitoring information as required under this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of this section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely fail to submit prescription monitoring information as required under this subchapter.

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of this section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(b) (1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely submit fraudulent prescription information. (2) A violation of subdivision (b)(1) of this section is a Class D felony.

(1) It is unlawful for a dispenser to purposely submit fraudulent prescription information.

(2) A violation of subdivision (b)(1) of this section is a Class D felony.

(c) (1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription monitoring information to purposely disclose the information in violation of this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription monitoring information to purposely disclose the information in violation of this subchapter.

(2) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(d) (1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription drug monitoring program information to use such information in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (d)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(1) It is unlawful for a person authorized to receive prescription drug monitoring program information to use such information in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter.

(2) A violation of subdivision (d)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(e) (1) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly obtain, use, or disclose or attempt to obtain, use, or disclose information by fraud or deceit from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program or from a person authorized to receive information from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program under this subchapter. (2) A violation of subdivision (e)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(1) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly obtain, use, or disclose or attempt to obtain, use, or disclose information by fraud or deceit from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program or from a person authorized to receive information from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program under this subchapter.

(2) A violation of subdivision (e)(1) of this section is a Class C felony.

(f) In addition to the criminal penalties provided in this section, a dispenser or practitioner who uses or discloses confidential information received from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter may be subject to disciplinary action by the dispenser's or practitioner's licensing board.

(g) In addition to the criminal penalties provided in this section, a law enforcement officer who uses or discloses confidential information received from the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program in a manner or for a purpose in violation of this subchapter may be subject to disciplinary action by the law enforcement officer's agency or department.

(h) This subchapter does not limit a person whose privacy has been compromised unlawfully under this section from bringing a civil action to address the breach of privacy or to recover all damages to which the person may be entitled per violation, including attorney's fees and costs.

(i) A practitioner who purposely fails to access the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program as required by § 20-7-604(d) is subject to disciplinary action by the licensing board of the practitioner.

Amended by Act 2017, No. 820,§ 3, eff. 8/1/2017.

Acts 2011, No. 304, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-64-811 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 64 / Subchapter 8 / Section 20-64-811
Continued detention
Status: in_force

(a) If at any time the person who has voluntarily admitted himself or herself to a receiving facility or program makes a request to leave, the administrator or his or her designee may file or cause to be filed a petition for involuntary commitment. (b) If the administrator or his or her designee determines that the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and that release would place the person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm, the administrator or his or her designee shall file or cause to be filed a petition for involuntary commitment and shall append thereto a request for continued detention. (c) The request for continued detention shall be verified and shall: (1) State with particularity the facts personally known to the affiant which establish reasonable cause to believe the person is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm; (2) Identify the receiving facility or program in which the person is being detained; and (3) Contain a specific prayer that the person be involuntarily committed and that detention be continued. (d) (1) The person shall be considered to be held by detention pending judicial determination of the petition for involuntary commitment and continued detention. Any person detained pending judicial determination shall, within two (2) hours of his or her request to leave the receiving facility, be provided with a copy of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention. (2) The person shall be presented with an acknowledgment of receipt of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention. If the person refuses to sign the acknowledgment, this refusal shall be noted on the person's chart and shall be attested by two (2) eyewitnesses on a second document. An original of said attestation shall be furnished to the court. Either a signed acknowledgment or completed attestation shall be sufficient to prove personal service of the petition. (e) The petition shall be filed and presented to a circuit judge on or before 5:00 p.m. the next day, exclusive of weekends and holidays, after the person makes a request to leave the receiving facility or program. Thereupon, the judge shall review the petition and request for continued detention and determine whether there is reasonable cause to believe the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and whether release would place the person in immediate danger of death or serious bodily harm. (f) If the judge determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and that release would place the person in immediate danger of death or serious bodily harm, the judge shall order continued detention pending a hearing to be scheduled and conducted pursuant to § 20-64-821 . Acts 1989 (3rd Ex. Sess.), No. 10, § 4.

(a) If at any time the person who has voluntarily admitted himself or herself to a receiving facility or program makes a request to leave, the administrator or his or her designee may file or cause to be filed a petition for involuntary commitment.

(b) If the administrator or his or her designee determines that the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and that release would place the person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm, the administrator or his or her designee shall file or cause to be filed a petition for involuntary commitment and shall append thereto a request for continued detention.

(c) The request for continued detention shall be verified and shall: (1) State with particularity the facts personally known to the affiant which establish reasonable cause to believe the person is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm; (2) Identify the receiving facility or program in which the person is being detained; and (3) Contain a specific prayer that the person be involuntarily committed and that detention be continued.

(1) State with particularity the facts personally known to the affiant which establish reasonable cause to believe the person is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm;

(2) Identify the receiving facility or program in which the person is being detained; and

(3) Contain a specific prayer that the person be involuntarily committed and that detention be continued.

(d) (1) The person shall be considered to be held by detention pending judicial determination of the petition for involuntary commitment and continued detention. Any person detained pending judicial determination shall, within two (2) hours of his or her request to leave the receiving facility, be provided with a copy of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention. (2) The person shall be presented with an acknowledgment of receipt of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention. If the person refuses to sign the acknowledgment, this refusal shall be noted on the person's chart and shall be attested by two (2) eyewitnesses on a second document. An original of said attestation shall be furnished to the court. Either a signed acknowledgment or completed attestation shall be sufficient to prove personal service of the petition.

(1) The person shall be considered to be held by detention pending judicial determination of the petition for involuntary commitment and continued detention. Any person detained pending judicial determination shall, within two (2) hours of his or her request to leave the receiving facility, be provided with a copy of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention.

(2) The person shall be presented with an acknowledgment of receipt of the petition for involuntary commitment and request for continued detention. If the person refuses to sign the acknowledgment, this refusal shall be noted on the person's chart and shall be attested by two (2) eyewitnesses on a second document. An original of said attestation shall be furnished to the court. Either a signed acknowledgment or completed attestation shall be sufficient to prove personal service of the petition.

(e) The petition shall be filed and presented to a circuit judge on or before 5:00 p.m. the next day, exclusive of weekends and holidays, after the person makes a request to leave the receiving facility or program. Thereupon, the judge shall review the petition and request for continued detention and determine whether there is reasonable cause to believe the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and whether release would place the person in immediate danger of death or serious bodily harm.

(f) If the judge determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that the person meets the criteria set forth in this subchapter for involuntary commitment and that release would place the person in immediate danger of death or serious bodily harm, the judge shall order continued detention pending a hearing to be scheduled and conducted pursuant to § 20-64-821 .

Acts 1989 (3rd Ex. Sess.), No. 10, § 4.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-13-202 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 13 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-13-202
Definitions
Status: in_force

As used in this subchapter: (1) "Air ambulance" means an aircraft, fixed or rotary wing, utilized for on-scene responses or transports deemed necessary by a physician and licensed by the Department of Health; (2) "Air ambulance services" means those services authorized and licensed by the department to provide care and air transportation of patients; (3) (A) "Ambulance" means a vehicle used for transporting any person by stretcher or gurney upon the streets or highways of Arkansas, excluding vehicles intended solely for personal use by immediate family members. (B) "Ambulance" does not include nonemergency transportation vehicles that may accommodate an individual in an upright position or Fowler's position while in a wheelchair without the aid of emergency medical services personnel; (4) "Ambulance services" means services authorized and licensed by the department to provide care and transportation of patients upon the streets and highways of Arkansas; (5) (A) "Care coordination" means the coordination of healthcare services in nonemergency situations or in situations that do not require immediate action by healthcare professional teams to assist a patient in the management of his or her health care and to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare sector. (B) "Care coordination" includes without limitation: (i) Developing potential treatment plans; (ii) Determining the optimal treatment for a patient before considering hospitalization; and (iii) Establishing alternative approaches and treatment for a patient; (6) "Emergency medical services" means: (A) The transportation and medical care provided the ill or injured before arrival at a medical facility by a licensed emergency medical services personnel or other healthcare provider; (B) Continuation of the initial emergency care within a medical facility subject to the approval of the medical staff and governing board of that facility; and (C) Integrated medical care in emergency and nonurgent settings with the oversight of a physician; (7) (A) "Emergency medical services personnel" means an individual licensed by the department at any level established by the rules adopted by the State Board of Health under this subchapter and authorized to perform those services set forth in the rules. (B) These shall include without limitation emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician, paramedic, emergency medical services instructor, or emergency medical services instructor trainer; (8) "Emergency medical services provider" means an entity or individual licensed to provide emergency medical services, including without limitation an ambulance service provider; (9) "Fowler's position" means a position in which an individual is in an inclined position with his or her head raised between thirty to ninety degrees (30-90°); (10) "Licensure" means official acknowledgment by the department that an individual has demonstrated competence to perform the emergency medical services required for licensure under the rules and standards adopted by the board upon recommendation by the Emergency Medical Services Advisory Council; (11) "Medical facility" means any hospital, medical clinic, physician's office, nursing home, or other healthcare facility; (12) "Police dog" means a dog owned or used by a law enforcement or correctional agency in the course of the law enforcement or correctional agency's work, including without limitation a search and rescue dog, service dog, accelerant detection dog, or other dog in use by a law enforcement agency; (13) (A) "Specific health condition" means a health condition that requires specialized healthcare treatment. (B) "Specific health condition" includes without limitation: (i) A health condition that is listed as rare by the National Institutes of Health; and (ii) A health condition that could be fatal for which a patient seeks specialized health care; and (14) "Wheelchair" means a chair fitted with wheels that is not height adjustable and that is used by individuals with walking limitations as a result of illness, injury, or disability. Amended by Act 2023, No. 258,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023. Amended by Act 2021, No. 827,§ 1, eff. 7/28/2021. Amended by Act 2021, No. 790,§ 2, eff. 7/28/2021. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1917, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2017, No. 1033,§ 2, eff. 8/1/2017. Amended by Act 2017, No. 1033,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017. Amended by Act 2015, No. 685,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015. Acts 1975, No. 435, § 2; 1981, No. 293, §§ 1, 2; 1985, No. 1001, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-3402; Acts 1987, No. 345, § 1; 1999, No. 60, § 1; 2009, No. 689, § 7.

As used in this subchapter:

(1) "Air ambulance" means an aircraft, fixed or rotary wing, utilized for on-scene responses or transports deemed necessary by a physician and licensed by the Department of Health;

(2) "Air ambulance services" means those services authorized and licensed by the department to provide care and air transportation of patients;

(3) (A) "Ambulance" means a vehicle used for transporting any person by stretcher or gurney upon the streets or highways of Arkansas, excluding vehicles intended solely for personal use by immediate family members. (B) "Ambulance" does not include nonemergency transportation vehicles that may accommodate an individual in an upright position or Fowler's position while in a wheelchair without the aid of emergency medical services personnel;

(A) "Ambulance" means a vehicle used for transporting any person by stretcher or gurney upon the streets or highways of Arkansas, excluding vehicles intended solely for personal use by immediate family members.

(B) "Ambulance" does not include nonemergency transportation vehicles that may accommodate an individual in an upright position or Fowler's position while in a wheelchair without the aid of emergency medical services personnel;

(4) "Ambulance services" means services authorized and licensed by the department to provide care and transportation of patients upon the streets and highways of Arkansas;

(5) (A) "Care coordination" means the coordination of healthcare services in nonemergency situations or in situations that do not require immediate action by healthcare professional teams to assist a patient in the management of his or her health care and to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare sector. (B) "Care coordination" includes without limitation: (i) Developing potential treatment plans; (ii) Determining the optimal treatment for a patient before considering hospitalization; and (iii) Establishing alternative approaches and treatment for a patient;

(A) "Care coordination" means the coordination of healthcare services in nonemergency situations or in situations that do not require immediate action by healthcare professional teams to assist a patient in the management of his or her health care and to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare sector.

(B) "Care coordination" includes without limitation: (i) Developing potential treatment plans; (ii) Determining the optimal treatment for a patient before considering hospitalization; and (iii) Establishing alternative approaches and treatment for a patient;

(i) Developing potential treatment plans;

(ii) Determining the optimal treatment for a patient before considering hospitalization; and

(iii) Establishing alternative approaches and treatment for a patient;

(6) "Emergency medical services" means: (A) The transportation and medical care provided the ill or injured before arrival at a medical facility by a licensed emergency medical services personnel or other healthcare provider; (B) Continuation of the initial emergency care within a medical facility subject to the approval of the medical staff and governing board of that facility; and (C) Integrated medical care in emergency and nonurgent settings with the oversight of a physician;

(A) The transportation and medical care provided the ill or injured before arrival at a medical facility by a licensed emergency medical services personnel or other healthcare provider;

(B) Continuation of the initial emergency care within a medical facility subject to the approval of the medical staff and governing board of that facility; and

(C) Integrated medical care in emergency and nonurgent settings with the oversight of a physician;

(7) (A) "Emergency medical services personnel" means an individual licensed by the department at any level established by the rules adopted by the State Board of Health under this subchapter and authorized to perform those services set forth in the rules. (B) These shall include without limitation emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician, paramedic, emergency medical services instructor, or emergency medical services instructor trainer;

(A) "Emergency medical services personnel" means an individual licensed by the department at any level established by the rules adopted by the State Board of Health under this subchapter and authorized to perform those services set forth in the rules.

(B) These shall include without limitation emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician, paramedic, emergency medical services instructor, or emergency medical services instructor trainer;

(8) "Emergency medical services provider" means an entity or individual licensed to provide emergency medical services, including without limitation an ambulance service provider;

(9) "Fowler's position" means a position in which an individual is in an inclined position with his or her head raised between thirty to ninety degrees (30-90°);

(10) "Licensure" means official acknowledgment by the department that an individual has demonstrated competence to perform the emergency medical services required for licensure under the rules and standards adopted by the board upon recommendation by the Emergency Medical Services Advisory Council;

(11) "Medical facility" means any hospital, medical clinic, physician's office, nursing home, or other healthcare facility;

(12) "Police dog" means a dog owned or used by a law enforcement or correctional agency in the course of the law enforcement or correctional agency's work, including without limitation a search and rescue dog, service dog, accelerant detection dog, or other dog in use by a law enforcement agency;

(13) (A) "Specific health condition" means a health condition that requires specialized healthcare treatment. (B) "Specific health condition" includes without limitation: (i) A health condition that is listed as rare by the National Institutes of Health; and (ii) A health condition that could be fatal for which a patient seeks specialized health care; and

(A) "Specific health condition" means a health condition that requires specialized healthcare treatment.

(B) "Specific health condition" includes without limitation: (i) A health condition that is listed as rare by the National Institutes of Health; and (ii) A health condition that could be fatal for which a patient seeks specialized health care; and

(i) A health condition that is listed as rare by the National Institutes of Health; and

(ii) A health condition that could be fatal for which a patient seeks specialized health care; and

(14) "Wheelchair" means a chair fitted with wheels that is not height adjustable and that is used by individuals with walking limitations as a result of illness, injury, or disability.

Amended by Act 2023, No. 258,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023.

Amended by Act 2021, No. 827,§ 1, eff. 7/28/2021.

Amended by Act 2021, No. 790,§ 2, eff. 7/28/2021.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 1917, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2017, No. 1033,§ 2, eff. 8/1/2017.

Amended by Act 2017, No. 1033,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017.

Amended by Act 2015, No. 685,§ 1, eff. 7/22/2015.

Acts 1975, No. 435, § 2; 1981, No. 293, §§ 1, 2; 1985, No. 1001, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-3402; Acts 1987, No. 345, § 1; 1999, No. 60, § 1; 2009, No. 689, § 7.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-14-1004 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 14 / Subchapter 10 / Section 20-14-1004
Violations - Civil Penalty
Status: in_force

(a) (1) A violation of the following shall be subject to a civil penalty: (A) Knowingly and fraudulently representing, selling, or offering for sale, or attempting to represent, sell, or offer for sale, an emotional support dog as being entitled to the rights and privileges accorded by law to a service animal; or (B) Violating the written notice requirements under § 20-14-1002 . (2) An action for civil penalties under this section may be brought by the: (A) Attorney General; (B) Prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; (C) County attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; or (D) City attorney of the city in which a violation of this subchapter occurs. (b) The following civil penalties shall apply for a violation of subsection (a) of this section: (1) Five hundred dollars ($500) for the first violation; (2) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for the second violation; and (3) Two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for the third and any subsequent violations. (c) This section shall not restrict or change existing federal law or state law related to a person's rights for reasonable accommodation and equal access to housing. Added by Act 2023, No. 268,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023.

(a) (1) A violation of the following shall be subject to a civil penalty: (A) Knowingly and fraudulently representing, selling, or offering for sale, or attempting to represent, sell, or offer for sale, an emotional support dog as being entitled to the rights and privileges accorded by law to a service animal; or (B) Violating the written notice requirements under § 20-14-1002 . (2) An action for civil penalties under this section may be brought by the: (A) Attorney General; (B) Prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; (C) County attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; or (D) City attorney of the city in which a violation of this subchapter occurs.

(1) A violation of the following shall be subject to a civil penalty: (A) Knowingly and fraudulently representing, selling, or offering for sale, or attempting to represent, sell, or offer for sale, an emotional support dog as being entitled to the rights and privileges accorded by law to a service animal; or (B) Violating the written notice requirements under § 20-14-1002 .

(A) Knowingly and fraudulently representing, selling, or offering for sale, or attempting to represent, sell, or offer for sale, an emotional support dog as being entitled to the rights and privileges accorded by law to a service animal; or

(B) Violating the written notice requirements under § 20-14-1002 .

(2) An action for civil penalties under this section may be brought by the: (A) Attorney General; (B) Prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; (C) County attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; or (D) City attorney of the city in which a violation of this subchapter occurs.

(A) Attorney General;

(B) Prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs;

(C) County attorney of the county in which a violation of this subchapter occurs; or

(D) City attorney of the city in which a violation of this subchapter occurs.

(b) The following civil penalties shall apply for a violation of subsection (a) of this section: (1) Five hundred dollars ($500) for the first violation; (2) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for the second violation; and (3) Two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for the third and any subsequent violations.

(1) Five hundred dollars ($500) for the first violation;

(2) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for the second violation; and

(3) Two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for the third and any subsequent violations.

(c) This section shall not restrict or change existing federal law or state law related to a person's rights for reasonable accommodation and equal access to housing.

Added by Act 2023, No. 268,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2023.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-6-310 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 6 / Subchapter 3 / Section 20-6-310
Criminal penalty
Status: in_force

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly: (1) Conceal, cancel, deface, obliterate, or damage a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form without the consent of the patient or the legal representative of the patient; (2) (A) Cause an individual to execute a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form by undue influence, fraud, or duress. (B) As used in this section, "undue influence" includes without limitation: (i) Charging a different rate or fee for insurance coverage or healthcare services based upon whether the individual consents to a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or has executed a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form; (ii) Requiring a healthcare provider to have an internal policy to offer a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form to any individual; (iii) Providing any financial incentive, payment, discount, or rating incentive for having an internal policy or procedure relating to the completion of a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form as applied to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility; or (iv) Imposing a rating or reimbursement penalty if a healthcare provider or healthcare facility fails to achieve a target for physician order for life-sustaining treatment form completions; or (3) Falsify or forge a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form of another person that results in a direct change of health care provided to the patient. (b) A person who violates this section is guilty of a Class D felony. (c) This section does not prevent payment to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility for consultation with or counseling of a patient concerning a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or for offering advance directive healthcare planning. Added by Act 2017, No. 504,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017.

(a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly: (1) Conceal, cancel, deface, obliterate, or damage a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form without the consent of the patient or the legal representative of the patient; (2) (A) Cause an individual to execute a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form by undue influence, fraud, or duress. (B) As used in this section, "undue influence" includes without limitation: (i) Charging a different rate or fee for insurance coverage or healthcare services based upon whether the individual consents to a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or has executed a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form; (ii) Requiring a healthcare provider to have an internal policy to offer a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form to any individual; (iii) Providing any financial incentive, payment, discount, or rating incentive for having an internal policy or procedure relating to the completion of a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form as applied to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility; or (iv) Imposing a rating or reimbursement penalty if a healthcare provider or healthcare facility fails to achieve a target for physician order for life-sustaining treatment form completions; or (3) Falsify or forge a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form of another person that results in a direct change of health care provided to the patient.

(1) Conceal, cancel, deface, obliterate, or damage a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form without the consent of the patient or the legal representative of the patient;

(2) (A) Cause an individual to execute a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form by undue influence, fraud, or duress. (B) As used in this section, "undue influence" includes without limitation: (i) Charging a different rate or fee for insurance coverage or healthcare services based upon whether the individual consents to a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or has executed a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form; (ii) Requiring a healthcare provider to have an internal policy to offer a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form to any individual; (iii) Providing any financial incentive, payment, discount, or rating incentive for having an internal policy or procedure relating to the completion of a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form as applied to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility; or (iv) Imposing a rating or reimbursement penalty if a healthcare provider or healthcare facility fails to achieve a target for physician order for life-sustaining treatment form completions; or

(A) Cause an individual to execute a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form by undue influence, fraud, or duress.

(B) As used in this section, "undue influence" includes without limitation: (i) Charging a different rate or fee for insurance coverage or healthcare services based upon whether the individual consents to a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or has executed a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form; (ii) Requiring a healthcare provider to have an internal policy to offer a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form to any individual; (iii) Providing any financial incentive, payment, discount, or rating incentive for having an internal policy or procedure relating to the completion of a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form as applied to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility; or (iv) Imposing a rating or reimbursement penalty if a healthcare provider or healthcare facility fails to achieve a target for physician order for life-sustaining treatment form completions; or

(i) Charging a different rate or fee for insurance coverage or healthcare services based upon whether the individual consents to a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or has executed a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form;

(ii) Requiring a healthcare provider to have an internal policy to offer a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form to any individual;

(iii) Providing any financial incentive, payment, discount, or rating incentive for having an internal policy or procedure relating to the completion of a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form as applied to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility; or

(iv) Imposing a rating or reimbursement penalty if a healthcare provider or healthcare facility fails to achieve a target for physician order for life-sustaining treatment form completions; or

(3) Falsify or forge a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form of another person that results in a direct change of health care provided to the patient.

(b) A person who violates this section is guilty of a Class D felony.

(c) This section does not prevent payment to a healthcare provider or healthcare facility for consultation with or counseling of a patient concerning a physician order for life-sustaining treatment form or for offering advance directive healthcare planning.

Added by Act 2017, No. 504,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-28-104 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 28 / Section 20-28-104
Fees - Exceptions
Status: in_force

(a) The Department of Health may collect the following fees from each public water system for service, other than plan reviews, provided by the public water system supervision program: (1) (A) For a community public water system and a nontransient noncommunity water system, not more than forty cents (40¢) per service connection per month. (B) (i) The number of service connections for a community public water system not serving discrete service connections shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (ii) The number of service connections for a nontransient noncommunity water system shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (C) The minimum fee charged to a community public water system or a nontransient noncommunity water system is two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per year; and (2) For a noncommunity public water system, one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) per year. (b) The number of service connections or population served shall be taken from the department's public water system inventory at the time of billing. (c) (1) A new water system shall not be assessed a fee for services until water is supplied to the first connection. (2) Each state-owned noncommunity public water system is exempt from the fee provisions of this chapter. (d) The fees shall be established by the State Board of Health to assure implementation of this chapter. Amended by Act 2019, No. 788,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019. Acts 1987, No. 95, § 3; 1991, No. 1053, § 1; 1993, No. 903, § 1; 2007, No. 292, § 1; 2009, No. 952, § 7.

(a) The Department of Health may collect the following fees from each public water system for service, other than plan reviews, provided by the public water system supervision program: (1) (A) For a community public water system and a nontransient noncommunity water system, not more than forty cents (40¢) per service connection per month. (B) (i) The number of service connections for a community public water system not serving discrete service connections shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (ii) The number of service connections for a nontransient noncommunity water system shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (C) The minimum fee charged to a community public water system or a nontransient noncommunity water system is two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per year; and (2) For a noncommunity public water system, one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) per year.

(1) (A) For a community public water system and a nontransient noncommunity water system, not more than forty cents (40¢) per service connection per month. (B) (i) The number of service connections for a community public water system not serving discrete service connections shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (ii) The number of service connections for a nontransient noncommunity water system shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (C) The minimum fee charged to a community public water system or a nontransient noncommunity water system is two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per year; and

(A) For a community public water system and a nontransient noncommunity water system, not more than forty cents (40¢) per service connection per month.

(B) (i) The number of service connections for a community public water system not serving discrete service connections shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2). (ii) The number of service connections for a nontransient noncommunity water system shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2).

(i) The number of service connections for a community public water system not serving discrete service connections shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2).

(ii) The number of service connections for a nontransient noncommunity water system shall be calculated by dividing the population served by two and one-half (21/2).

(C) The minimum fee charged to a community public water system or a nontransient noncommunity water system is two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per year; and

(2) For a noncommunity public water system, one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) per year.

(b) The number of service connections or population served shall be taken from the department's public water system inventory at the time of billing.

(c) (1) A new water system shall not be assessed a fee for services until water is supplied to the first connection. (2) Each state-owned noncommunity public water system is exempt from the fee provisions of this chapter.

(1) A new water system shall not be assessed a fee for services until water is supplied to the first connection.

(2) Each state-owned noncommunity public water system is exempt from the fee provisions of this chapter.

(d) The fees shall be established by the State Board of Health to assure implementation of this chapter.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 788,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019.

Acts 1987, No. 95, § 3; 1991, No. 1053, § 1; 1993, No. 903, § 1; 2007, No. 292, § 1; 2009, No. 952, § 7.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-15-1903 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 15 / Subchapter 19 / Section 20-15-1903
Definition
Status: in_force

As used in this subchapter, "high risk" means: (1) An individual over forty-five (45) years of age or who faces a high risk for colorectal cancer because of: (A) The presence of one (1) or more polyps on a previous colonoscopy, barium enema, or flexible sigmoidoscopy; (B) Family history of colorectal cancer; (C) Genetic alterations of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer or familial adenomatous polyposis; (D) Personal history of colorectal cancer, ulcerative colitis, or Crohn's disease; or (E) The presence of any appropriate recognized gene markers for colorectal cancer or other predisposing factors; and (2) Any additional or expanded definition of "persons at high risk for colorectal cancer" as recognized by medical science and determined by the Secretary of the Department of Health in consultation with the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences. Amended by Act 2019, No. 655,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5007, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by Act 2017, No. 516,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017. Acts 2009, No. 1374, § 1.

As used in this subchapter, "high risk" means:

(1) An individual over forty-five (45) years of age or who faces a high risk for colorectal cancer because of: (A) The presence of one (1) or more polyps on a previous colonoscopy, barium enema, or flexible sigmoidoscopy; (B) Family history of colorectal cancer; (C) Genetic alterations of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer or familial adenomatous polyposis; (D) Personal history of colorectal cancer, ulcerative colitis, or Crohn's disease; or (E) The presence of any appropriate recognized gene markers for colorectal cancer or other predisposing factors; and

(A) The presence of one (1) or more polyps on a previous colonoscopy, barium enema, or flexible sigmoidoscopy;

(B) Family history of colorectal cancer;

(C) Genetic alterations of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer or familial adenomatous polyposis;

(D) Personal history of colorectal cancer, ulcerative colitis, or Crohn's disease; or

(E) The presence of any appropriate recognized gene markers for colorectal cancer or other predisposing factors; and

(2) Any additional or expanded definition of "persons at high risk for colorectal cancer" as recognized by medical science and determined by the Secretary of the Department of Health in consultation with the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 655,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5007, eff. 7/1/2019.

Amended by Act 2017, No. 516,§ 1, eff. 8/1/2017.

Acts 2009, No. 1374, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-31-104 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 31 / Section 20-31-104
Statewide standards - Enforcement of chapter
Status: in_force

(a) Beginning January 1, 1992, the Board of Electrical Examiners of the State of Arkansas is empowered to adopt rules to establish statewide standards for the construction, installation, and maintenance of electrical facilities and the performance of electrical work. (b) The board shall adopt the National Electrical Code, 1990 edition, of the National Fire Protection Association. (c) If there are updates and new editions to the National Electrical Code, the board, after notice and public hearing, shall adopt such changes and editions which it determines are necessary to ensure the public health and safety. (d) The statewide standards shall guarantee a uniform minimum standard for the construction, installation, and maintenance of electrical facilities and for the performance of electrical work in: (1) Any new public, business, or commercial buildings or structures constructed after July 15, 1991; (2) Any new educational institutions or buildings constructed after July 15, 1991; (3) Any new single-family or multifamily residence constructed after July 15, 1991; and (4) Any other type of new construction undertaken in the State of Arkansas not specifically exempted under this chapter. (e) The term "new" or "new construction" as used in this section shall apply to any new building or structure or any complete addition to or renovation of a building or structure where electrical conductors within are placed, added, or replaced in whole or part. It shall not apply to the repair or replacement of existing electrical conductors in existing buildings or structures or to minor repairs consisting of repairing or replacing outlets or minor working parts of electrical fixtures. (f) It shall be the duty of the Division of Labor to administer and enforce this chapter. Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 2133, eff. 7/24/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5503, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1991, No. 653, § 3.

(a) Beginning January 1, 1992, the Board of Electrical Examiners of the State of Arkansas is empowered to adopt rules to establish statewide standards for the construction, installation, and maintenance of electrical facilities and the performance of electrical work.

(b) The board shall adopt the National Electrical Code, 1990 edition, of the National Fire Protection Association.

(c) If there are updates and new editions to the National Electrical Code, the board, after notice and public hearing, shall adopt such changes and editions which it determines are necessary to ensure the public health and safety.

(d) The statewide standards shall guarantee a uniform minimum standard for the construction, installation, and maintenance of electrical facilities and for the performance of electrical work in: (1) Any new public, business, or commercial buildings or structures constructed after July 15, 1991; (2) Any new educational institutions or buildings constructed after July 15, 1991; (3) Any new single-family or multifamily residence constructed after July 15, 1991; and (4) Any other type of new construction undertaken in the State of Arkansas not specifically exempted under this chapter.

(1) Any new public, business, or commercial buildings or structures constructed after July 15, 1991;

(2) Any new educational institutions or buildings constructed after July 15, 1991;

(3) Any new single-family or multifamily residence constructed after July 15, 1991; and

(4) Any other type of new construction undertaken in the State of Arkansas not specifically exempted under this chapter.

(e) The term "new" or "new construction" as used in this section shall apply to any new building or structure or any complete addition to or renovation of a building or structure where electrical conductors within are placed, added, or replaced in whole or part. It shall not apply to the repair or replacement of existing electrical conductors in existing buildings or structures or to minor repairs consisting of repairing or replacing outlets or minor working parts of electrical fixtures.

(f) It shall be the duty of the Division of Labor to administer and enforce this chapter.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 315,§ 2133, eff. 7/24/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5503, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1991, No. 653, § 3.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-22-610 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 22 / Subchapter 6 / Section 20-22-610
License, permit, or certificate - Application - Fees
Status: in_force

(a) Applications for licenses, permits, and certificates provided for in this section shall be made under policies adopted by the Arkansas Fire Protection Licensing Board and shall be submitted on forms prescribed by the board. (b) (1) Each firm or person desiring to engage in or to continue to engage in the business of installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, selling, inspecting, installing, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, performing hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers or fire extinguisher cylinders, or planning, selling, installing, maintaining, inspecting, or servicing fire protection sprinkler systems in the State of Arkansas as a condition of engaging or continuing to engage in such a business shall obtain from the board a certificate of registration and appropriate individual licenses as prescribed in this subchapter. (2) Each firm engaged in the business of installing or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) For engaging in the business of inspecting, installing, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500); and (B) For engaging in the business of selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500). (3) Each employee of a registered firm who engages in installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, other than an apprentice, shall obtain an individual license and pay the following fees: (A) For a license to install, inspect, or service portable fire extinguishers, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and for each annual renewal thereof a fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00); and (B) For a license to sell, install, inspect, or service fixed fire protection systems, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00). (4) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, as a condition of engaging in such a business, shall obtain a Class A hydrostatic testing certificate for which the initial fee shall be no more than two hundred dollars ($200), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100). (5) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of pressure vessels used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, other than United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders, shall obtain a Class B hydrostatic testing certificate as a condition of engaging in such a business, for which the initial fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than fifty dollars ($50.00). (6) (A) An employee of a registered firm who has been issued an apprentice permit may service, inspect, and install fire protection sprinkler systems, portable fire extinguishers, and fixed fire protection systems under the direct supervision of a licensed employee subject to rules promulgated by the board. (B) Each application for an apprentice permit shall be: (i) Made by a registered firm; and (ii) Accompanied by a fee of no more than thirty dollars ($30.00). (C) A copy of the application may be used by the applicant as proof of a temporary permit until the official apprentice permit is issued or denied by the board. (D) A copy of the application or the apprentice permit is valid for one (1) year from the date of issue and is not renewable. (7) (A) Each employee of a registered firm desiring to take an examination in order to obtain a license as required in this subchapter shall apply to the board and pay an initial testing fee of no less than thirty dollars ($30.00) per examination nor more than one hundred dollars ($100) per examination. (B) Testing fees are to be paid each separate time an examination or series of examinations is taken. (8) Each firm engaged in a fire protection sprinkler business in the state shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) An initial application fee not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) for the certificate of registration; and (B) A fee not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for the issuance of either the initial certificate of registration or any annual renewal of the certificate of registration. (9) Each firm holding a certificate of registration for a fire protection sprinkler system business shall at all times employ at least one (1) responsible managing employee who must obtain a license issued by the board after successful completion of the requirements in this subchapter and under the rules of the board, including without limitation the passage of examinations, and by payment of fees established by rule of the board subject to the following limitations: (A) An examination fee not to exceed two hundred dollars ($200) per examination to be paid each time an examination is taken for any individual license issued by the board; and (B) A license fee not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) shall be paid for issuance of the initial license and each annual renewal thereof for any individual license issued by the board. (10) A fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) shall be paid for: (A) The duplication of: (i) A certificate of registration; (ii) An individual license; (iii) A Class A hydrostatic testing certificate; (iv) A Class B hydrostatic testing certificate; and (v) An apprentice permit; or (B) The issuance of a new document under subdivision (b)(10)(A) of this section if a change in the information on the document of this section requires the issuance of a new document. (11) A firm with more than one (1) physical location, including without limitation one (1) or more branch offices, shall pay a fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) for an additional certificate of registration for each additional location. Amended by Act 2013, No. 1505,§ 1, eff. 7/1/2013. Acts 1977, No. 743, §§ 5, 10; 1983, No. 782, § 5; 1985, No. 702, § 5; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 82-836, 82-841; Acts 1993, No. 1215, § 7; 1999, No. 1287, § 4; 2009, No. 422, § 10 [9]; 2011, No. 838, § 5.

(a) Applications for licenses, permits, and certificates provided for in this section shall be made under policies adopted by the Arkansas Fire Protection Licensing Board and shall be submitted on forms prescribed by the board.

(b) (1) Each firm or person desiring to engage in or to continue to engage in the business of installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, selling, inspecting, installing, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, performing hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers or fire extinguisher cylinders, or planning, selling, installing, maintaining, inspecting, or servicing fire protection sprinkler systems in the State of Arkansas as a condition of engaging or continuing to engage in such a business shall obtain from the board a certificate of registration and appropriate individual licenses as prescribed in this subchapter. (2) Each firm engaged in the business of installing or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) For engaging in the business of inspecting, installing, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500); and (B) For engaging in the business of selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500). (3) Each employee of a registered firm who engages in installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, other than an apprentice, shall obtain an individual license and pay the following fees: (A) For a license to install, inspect, or service portable fire extinguishers, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and for each annual renewal thereof a fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00); and (B) For a license to sell, install, inspect, or service fixed fire protection systems, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00). (4) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, as a condition of engaging in such a business, shall obtain a Class A hydrostatic testing certificate for which the initial fee shall be no more than two hundred dollars ($200), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100). (5) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of pressure vessels used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, other than United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders, shall obtain a Class B hydrostatic testing certificate as a condition of engaging in such a business, for which the initial fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than fifty dollars ($50.00). (6) (A) An employee of a registered firm who has been issued an apprentice permit may service, inspect, and install fire protection sprinkler systems, portable fire extinguishers, and fixed fire protection systems under the direct supervision of a licensed employee subject to rules promulgated by the board. (B) Each application for an apprentice permit shall be: (i) Made by a registered firm; and (ii) Accompanied by a fee of no more than thirty dollars ($30.00). (C) A copy of the application may be used by the applicant as proof of a temporary permit until the official apprentice permit is issued or denied by the board. (D) A copy of the application or the apprentice permit is valid for one (1) year from the date of issue and is not renewable. (7) (A) Each employee of a registered firm desiring to take an examination in order to obtain a license as required in this subchapter shall apply to the board and pay an initial testing fee of no less than thirty dollars ($30.00) per examination nor more than one hundred dollars ($100) per examination. (B) Testing fees are to be paid each separate time an examination or series of examinations is taken. (8) Each firm engaged in a fire protection sprinkler business in the state shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) An initial application fee not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) for the certificate of registration; and (B) A fee not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for the issuance of either the initial certificate of registration or any annual renewal of the certificate of registration. (9) Each firm holding a certificate of registration for a fire protection sprinkler system business shall at all times employ at least one (1) responsible managing employee who must obtain a license issued by the board after successful completion of the requirements in this subchapter and under the rules of the board, including without limitation the passage of examinations, and by payment of fees established by rule of the board subject to the following limitations: (A) An examination fee not to exceed two hundred dollars ($200) per examination to be paid each time an examination is taken for any individual license issued by the board; and (B) A license fee not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) shall be paid for issuance of the initial license and each annual renewal thereof for any individual license issued by the board. (10) A fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) shall be paid for: (A) The duplication of: (i) A certificate of registration; (ii) An individual license; (iii) A Class A hydrostatic testing certificate; (iv) A Class B hydrostatic testing certificate; and (v) An apprentice permit; or (B) The issuance of a new document under subdivision (b)(10)(A) of this section if a change in the information on the document of this section requires the issuance of a new document. (11) A firm with more than one (1) physical location, including without limitation one (1) or more branch offices, shall pay a fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) for an additional certificate of registration for each additional location.

(1) Each firm or person desiring to engage in or to continue to engage in the business of installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, selling, inspecting, installing, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, performing hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers or fire extinguisher cylinders, or planning, selling, installing, maintaining, inspecting, or servicing fire protection sprinkler systems in the State of Arkansas as a condition of engaging or continuing to engage in such a business shall obtain from the board a certificate of registration and appropriate individual licenses as prescribed in this subchapter.

(2) Each firm engaged in the business of installing or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) For engaging in the business of inspecting, installing, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500); and (B) For engaging in the business of selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500).

(A) For engaging in the business of inspecting, installing, or servicing portable fire extinguishers, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500); and

(B) For engaging in the business of selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, the fee for the initial certificate of registration shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500), and the annual renewal fee shall be no more than five hundred dollars ($500).

(3) Each employee of a registered firm who engages in installing, inspecting, or servicing portable fire extinguishers or selling, installing, inspecting, or servicing fixed fire protection systems, other than an apprentice, shall obtain an individual license and pay the following fees: (A) For a license to install, inspect, or service portable fire extinguishers, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and for each annual renewal thereof a fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00); and (B) For a license to sell, install, inspect, or service fixed fire protection systems, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00).

(A) For a license to install, inspect, or service portable fire extinguishers, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and for each annual renewal thereof a fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00); and

(B) For a license to sell, install, inspect, or service fixed fire protection systems, an initial fee of no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee of no more than fifty dollars ($50.00).

(4) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, as a condition of engaging in such a business, shall obtain a Class A hydrostatic testing certificate for which the initial fee shall be no more than two hundred dollars ($200), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100).

(5) Each firm performing hydrostatic testing of pressure vessels used for or with portable fire extinguishers or for or with fixed fire protection systems, other than United States Department of Transportation-specification compressed gas cylinders, shall obtain a Class B hydrostatic testing certificate as a condition of engaging in such a business, for which the initial fee shall be no more than one hundred dollars ($100), and an annual renewal fee shall be no more than fifty dollars ($50.00).

(6) (A) An employee of a registered firm who has been issued an apprentice permit may service, inspect, and install fire protection sprinkler systems, portable fire extinguishers, and fixed fire protection systems under the direct supervision of a licensed employee subject to rules promulgated by the board. (B) Each application for an apprentice permit shall be: (i) Made by a registered firm; and (ii) Accompanied by a fee of no more than thirty dollars ($30.00). (C) A copy of the application may be used by the applicant as proof of a temporary permit until the official apprentice permit is issued or denied by the board. (D) A copy of the application or the apprentice permit is valid for one (1) year from the date of issue and is not renewable.

(A) An employee of a registered firm who has been issued an apprentice permit may service, inspect, and install fire protection sprinkler systems, portable fire extinguishers, and fixed fire protection systems under the direct supervision of a licensed employee subject to rules promulgated by the board.

(B) Each application for an apprentice permit shall be: (i) Made by a registered firm; and (ii) Accompanied by a fee of no more than thirty dollars ($30.00).

(i) Made by a registered firm; and

(ii) Accompanied by a fee of no more than thirty dollars ($30.00).

(C) A copy of the application may be used by the applicant as proof of a temporary permit until the official apprentice permit is issued or denied by the board.

(D) A copy of the application or the apprentice permit is valid for one (1) year from the date of issue and is not renewable.

(7) (A) Each employee of a registered firm desiring to take an examination in order to obtain a license as required in this subchapter shall apply to the board and pay an initial testing fee of no less than thirty dollars ($30.00) per examination nor more than one hundred dollars ($100) per examination. (B) Testing fees are to be paid each separate time an examination or series of examinations is taken.

(A) Each employee of a registered firm desiring to take an examination in order to obtain a license as required in this subchapter shall apply to the board and pay an initial testing fee of no less than thirty dollars ($30.00) per examination nor more than one hundred dollars ($100) per examination.

(B) Testing fees are to be paid each separate time an examination or series of examinations is taken.

(8) Each firm engaged in a fire protection sprinkler business in the state shall obtain a certificate of registration and shall pay the following fees: (A) An initial application fee not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) for the certificate of registration; and (B) A fee not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for the issuance of either the initial certificate of registration or any annual renewal of the certificate of registration.

(A) An initial application fee not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) for the certificate of registration; and

(B) A fee not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for the issuance of either the initial certificate of registration or any annual renewal of the certificate of registration.

(9) Each firm holding a certificate of registration for a fire protection sprinkler system business shall at all times employ at least one (1) responsible managing employee who must obtain a license issued by the board after successful completion of the requirements in this subchapter and under the rules of the board, including without limitation the passage of examinations, and by payment of fees established by rule of the board subject to the following limitations: (A) An examination fee not to exceed two hundred dollars ($200) per examination to be paid each time an examination is taken for any individual license issued by the board; and (B) A license fee not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) shall be paid for issuance of the initial license and each annual renewal thereof for any individual license issued by the board.

(A) An examination fee not to exceed two hundred dollars ($200) per examination to be paid each time an examination is taken for any individual license issued by the board; and

(B) A license fee not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) shall be paid for issuance of the initial license and each annual renewal thereof for any individual license issued by the board.

(10) A fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) shall be paid for: (A) The duplication of: (i) A certificate of registration; (ii) An individual license; (iii) A Class A hydrostatic testing certificate; (iv) A Class B hydrostatic testing certificate; and (v) An apprentice permit; or (B) The issuance of a new document under subdivision (b)(10)(A) of this section if a change in the information on the document of this section requires the issuance of a new document.

(A) The duplication of: (i) A certificate of registration; (ii) An individual license; (iii) A Class A hydrostatic testing certificate; (iv) A Class B hydrostatic testing certificate; and (v) An apprentice permit; or

(i) A certificate of registration;

(ii) An individual license;

(iii) A Class A hydrostatic testing certificate;

(iv) A Class B hydrostatic testing certificate; and

(v) An apprentice permit; or

(B) The issuance of a new document under subdivision (b)(10)(A) of this section if a change in the information on the document of this section requires the issuance of a new document.

(11) A firm with more than one (1) physical location, including without limitation one (1) or more branch offices, shall pay a fee not to exceed fifty dollars ($50.00) for an additional certificate of registration for each additional location.

Amended by Act 2013, No. 1505,§ 1, eff. 7/1/2013.

Acts 1977, No. 743, §§ 5, 10; 1983, No. 782, § 5; 1985, No. 702, § 5; A.S.A. 1947, §§ 82-836, 82-841; Acts 1993, No. 1215, § 7; 1999, No. 1287, § 4; 2009, No. 422, § 10 [9]; 2011, No. 838, § 5.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-12-602 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 12 / Subchapter 6 / Section 20-12-602
Eligibility
Status: in_force

(a) Board-eligible or board-certified family physicians and board-eligible or board-certified general pediatricians who join the full-time faculty at one (1) of the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences area health education center family practice residency program training sites or at the Department of Family and Preventive Medicine within the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences shall be eligible to receive financial assistance under this subchapter. (b) (1) The University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences may provide financial assistance to eligible individuals for the repayment of medical student loans or personal loans made to or on behalf of a medical student. (2) The amount of the financial assistance shall not exceed twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) per year for each year of service. (3) An individual shall not be eligible for assistance for more than four (4) years. (c) If the loan is from the Arkansas Rural Medical Practice Student Loan and Scholarship Program, the financial assistance shall be paid directly to the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences and credited to the repayment of the loan. Acts 1993, No. 1107, § 2.

(a) Board-eligible or board-certified family physicians and board-eligible or board-certified general pediatricians who join the full-time faculty at one (1) of the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences area health education center family practice residency program training sites or at the Department of Family and Preventive Medicine within the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences shall be eligible to receive financial assistance under this subchapter.

(b) (1) The University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences may provide financial assistance to eligible individuals for the repayment of medical student loans or personal loans made to or on behalf of a medical student. (2) The amount of the financial assistance shall not exceed twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) per year for each year of service. (3) An individual shall not be eligible for assistance for more than four (4) years.

(1) The University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences may provide financial assistance to eligible individuals for the repayment of medical student loans or personal loans made to or on behalf of a medical student.

(2) The amount of the financial assistance shall not exceed twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) per year for each year of service.

(3) An individual shall not be eligible for assistance for more than four (4) years.

(c) If the loan is from the Arkansas Rural Medical Practice Student Loan and Scholarship Program, the financial assistance shall be paid directly to the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences and credited to the repayment of the loan.

Acts 1993, No. 1107, § 2.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-59-211 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 59 / Subchapter 2 / Section 20-59-211
Milk tester license and fee
Status: in_force

(a) Every person receiving or buying milk or cream on the basis of its chemical or physical constituents shall be, or have in his or her employ, a licensed milk tester to make the official analysis, and no other person shall be allowed to make the tests in any creamery, cheese factory, milk depot, milk plant, ice cream factory, milk condensery, or similar plant where milk or cream is bought or received on a basis of its chemical or physical constituents. (b) Application to become a licensed milk tester shall be made to the Secretary of the Department of Health upon such forms as the secretary may prescribe. (c) All licenses shall expire on the next succeeding April 1, and the fee shall be ten dollars ($10.00). The required fee shall accompany the application. (d) If the applicant shall be found upon examination to be qualified and competent, the secretary shall issue to him or her a license. (e) Licensed testers are also qualified and permitted to act as samplers. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5060, eff. 7/1/2019. Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5059, eff. 7/1/2019. Acts 1941, No. 114, § 4; 1973, No. 98, § 2; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-915; Acts 1987, No. 534, § 1.

(a) Every person receiving or buying milk or cream on the basis of its chemical or physical constituents shall be, or have in his or her employ, a licensed milk tester to make the official analysis, and no other person shall be allowed to make the tests in any creamery, cheese factory, milk depot, milk plant, ice cream factory, milk condensery, or similar plant where milk or cream is bought or received on a basis of its chemical or physical constituents.

(b) Application to become a licensed milk tester shall be made to the Secretary of the Department of Health upon such forms as the secretary may prescribe.

(c) All licenses shall expire on the next succeeding April 1, and the fee shall be ten dollars ($10.00). The required fee shall accompany the application.

(d) If the applicant shall be found upon examination to be qualified and competent, the secretary shall issue to him or her a license.

(e) Licensed testers are also qualified and permitted to act as samplers.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5060, eff. 7/1/2019.

Amended by Act 2019, No. 910,§ 5059, eff. 7/1/2019.

Acts 1941, No. 114, § 4; 1973, No. 98, § 2; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-915; Acts 1987, No. 534, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-9-1004 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 9 / Subchapter 10 / Section 20-9-1004
Powers and duties
Status: in_force

The Acute Stroke Care Task Force shall: (1) Make recommendations to the State Board of Health consistent with the intent and purpose of this subchapter; (2) Pursue both public and private funding to further the intent of this subchapter; and (3) Develop standards and policy recommendations considering, but not limited to, the following: (A) Methods for raising public awareness of the prevalence and treatment considerations for strokes; (B) The professional development of emergency medical services professionals to identify victims of potential stroke; (C) The professional development of emergency room and hospital personnel to identify and treat victims of potential stroke; (D) Methods for encouraging the use of thrombolytics, clot-busting drugs, or other accepted or emerging treatments, when appropriate; (E) Methods for ensuring that a comprehensive range of stroke recovery services are available to Arkansans as they recover physical and mental functions affected by a stroke; (F) Methods for developing stroke treatment centers; and (G) Methods for developing a stroke registry for Arkansas. Acts 2005, No. 663, § 1.

The Acute Stroke Care Task Force shall:

(1) Make recommendations to the State Board of Health consistent with the intent and purpose of this subchapter;

(2) Pursue both public and private funding to further the intent of this subchapter; and

(3) Develop standards and policy recommendations considering, but not limited to, the following: (A) Methods for raising public awareness of the prevalence and treatment considerations for strokes; (B) The professional development of emergency medical services professionals to identify victims of potential stroke; (C) The professional development of emergency room and hospital personnel to identify and treat victims of potential stroke; (D) Methods for encouraging the use of thrombolytics, clot-busting drugs, or other accepted or emerging treatments, when appropriate; (E) Methods for ensuring that a comprehensive range of stroke recovery services are available to Arkansans as they recover physical and mental functions affected by a stroke; (F) Methods for developing stroke treatment centers; and (G) Methods for developing a stroke registry for Arkansas.

(A) Methods for raising public awareness of the prevalence and treatment considerations for strokes;

(B) The professional development of emergency medical services professionals to identify victims of potential stroke;

(C) The professional development of emergency room and hospital personnel to identify and treat victims of potential stroke;

(D) Methods for encouraging the use of thrombolytics, clot-busting drugs, or other accepted or emerging treatments, when appropriate;

(E) Methods for ensuring that a comprehensive range of stroke recovery services are available to Arkansans as they recover physical and mental functions affected by a stroke;

(F) Methods for developing stroke treatment centers; and

(G) Methods for developing a stroke registry for Arkansas.

Acts 2005, No. 663, § 1.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-13-301 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 13 / Subchapter 3 / Section 20-13-301
Legislative intent
Status: in_force

It is the intent of this subchapter to authorize the quorum court in any county to provide emergency medical services for residents of the county or any designated area of the county and to provide for levying service charges upon residents of the area to provide funds for the purchase of equipment, the maintenance and operation of equipment, and the payment for personal services necessary to provide the services. Acts 1979, No. 51, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-3410.

It is the intent of this subchapter to authorize the quorum court in any county to provide emergency medical services for residents of the county or any designated area of the county and to provide for levying service charges upon residents of the area to provide funds for the purchase of equipment, the maintenance and operation of equipment, and the payment for personal services necessary to provide the services.

Acts 1979, No. 51, § 1; A.S.A. 1947, § 82-3410.
Ark. Code Ann. § 20-15-1908 — AR Code / Title 20 / Chapter 15 / Subchapter 19 / Section 20-15-1908
[Repealed]
Status: repealed

Repealed by Act 2019, No. 655,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019. Acts 2009, No. 1374, § 1.

Repealed by Act 2019, No. 655,§ 1, eff. 7/24/2019.

Acts 2009, No. 1374, § 1.