Divyanshu67/squad_v2 huggingface dataset:
Hard_rock

In the United States, macabre-rock pioneer Alice Cooper achieved mainstream success with the top ten album School's Out (1972). In the following year blues rockers ZZ Top released their classic album Tres Hombres and Aerosmith produced their eponymous début, as did Southern rockers Lynyrd Skynyrd and proto-punk outfit New York Dolls, demonstrating the diverse directions being pursued in the genre. Montrose, including the instrumental talent of Ronnie Montrose and vocals of Sammy Hagar and arguably the first all American hard rock band to challenge the British dominance of the genre, released their first album in 1973. Kiss built on the theatrics of Alice Cooper and the look of the New York Dolls to produce a unique band persona, achieving their commercial breakthrough with the double live album Alive! in 1975 and helping to take hard rock into the stadium rock era. In the mid-1970s Aerosmith achieved their commercial and artistic breakthrough with Toys in the Attic (1975), which reached number 11 in the American album chart, and Rocks (1976), which peaked at number three. Blue Öyster Cult, formed in the late 60s, picked up on some of the elements introduced by Black Sabbath with their breakthrough live gold album On Your Feet or on Your Knees (1975), followed by their first platinum album, Agents of Fortune (1976), containing the hit single "(Don't Fear) The Reaper", which reached number 12 on the Billboard charts. Journey released their eponymous debut in 1975 and the next year Boston released their highly successful début album. In the same year, hard rock bands featuring women saw commercial success as Heart released Dreamboat Annie and The Runaways débuted with their self-titled album. While Heart had a more folk-oriented hard rock sound, the Runaways leaned more towards a mix of punk-influenced music and hard rock. The Amboy Dukes, having emerged from the Detroit garage rock scene and most famous for their Top 20 psychedelic hit "Journey to the Center of the Mind" (1968), were dissolved by their guitarist Ted Nugent, who embarked on a solo career that resulted in four successive multi-platinum albums between Ted Nugent (1975) and his best selling Double Live Gonzo (1978).

Question: Who recorded the album School's Out?
Answer: Alice Cooper

Question: Tres Hombres is the name of an album by what band?
Answer: ZZ Top

Question: Who was the lead singer of Montrose?
Answer: Sammy Hagar

Question: Kiss' double live album Alive! came out in what year?
Answer: 1975

Question: Who had a hit single with "(Don't Fear) The Reaper"?
Answer: Blue Öyster Cult

Question: What British born singer achieved success with the album School's Out?

Question: Who was the first British rock band to Challenge the American dominance of the hard rock genre?

Question: What band did Alice Cooper mimic?

Question: What year was Toys in the Attic by Blue Oyster Cult produced?

Question: How high on the billboard charts did the song (Don't Fear) The Reaper by Journey reach?
Hard_rock

Established bands made something of a comeback in the mid-1980s. After an 8-year separation, Deep Purple returned with the classic Machine Head line-up to produce Perfect Strangers (1984), which reached number five in the UK, hit the top five in five other countries, and was a platinum-seller in the US. After somewhat slower sales of its fourth album, Fair Warning, Van Halen rebounded with the Top 3 album Diver Down in 1982, then reached their commercial pinnacle with 1984. It reached number two on the Billboard album chart and provided the track "Jump", which reached number one on the singles chart and remained there for several weeks. Heart, after floundering during the first half of the decade, made a comeback with their eponymous ninth studio album which hit number one and contained four Top 10 singles including their first number one hit. The new medium of video channels was used with considerable success by bands formed in previous decades. Among the first were ZZ Top, who mixed hard blues rock with new wave music to produce a series of highly successful singles, beginning with "Gimme All Your Lovin'" (1983), which helped their albums Eliminator (1983) and Afterburner (1985) achieve diamond and multi-platinum status respectively. Others found renewed success in the singles charts with power ballads, including REO Speedwagon with "Keep on Loving You" (1980) and "Can't Fight This Feeling" (1984), Journey with "Don't Stop Believin'" (1981) and "Open Arms" (1982), Foreigner's "I Want to Know What Love Is", Scorpions' "Still Loving You" (both from 1984), Heart’s "What About Love" (1985) and "These Dreams" (1986), and Boston's "Amanda" (1986).

Question: What was the title of Deep Purple's 1980s reunion album?
Answer: Perfect Strangers

Question: What album was Van Halen's commercial high point?
Answer: 1984

Question: In what year did ZZ Top release Eliminator?
Answer: 1983

Question: What band recorded "Keep On Loving You"?
Answer: REO Speedwagon

Question: The hit single "Amanda" was recorded by what band?
Answer: Boston

Question: How many years was Deep Purple performing before producing Perfect Strangers?

Question: What Deep Purple album reached number five on the US music charts?

Question: What Van Halen album from 1982 had somewhat slower sales?

Question: Which Heart album contained 10 number one hits?

Question: What was ZZ Tops successful single produced in 1980?
Hard_rock

In the new commercial climate glam metal bands like Europe, Ratt, White Lion and Cinderella broke up, Whitesnake went on hiatus in 1991, and while many of these bands would re-unite again in the late 1990s or early 2000s, they never reached the commercial success they saw in the 1980s or early 1990s. Other bands such as Mötley Crüe and Poison saw personnel changes which impacted those bands' commercial viability during the decade. In 1995 Van Halen released Balance, a multi-platinum seller that would be the band's last with Sammy Hagar on vocals. In 1996 David Lee Roth returned briefly and his replacement, former Extreme singer Gary Cherone, was fired soon after the release of the commercially unsuccessful 1998 album Van Halen III and Van Halen would not tour or record again until 2004. Guns N' Roses' original lineup was whittled away throughout the decade. Drummer Steven Adler was fired in 1990, guitarist Izzy Stradlin left in late 1991 after recording Use Your Illusion I and II with the band. Tensions between the other band members and lead singer Axl Rose continued after the release of the 1993 covers album The Spaghetti Incident? Guitarist Slash left in 1996, followed by bassist Duff McKagan in 1997. Axl Rose, the only original member, worked with a constantly changing lineup in recording an album that would take over fifteen years to complete.

Question: What was Van Halen's last album with Sammy Hagar?
Answer: Balance

Question: Who was the Guns N Roses drummer who was fired by the band?
Answer: Steven Adler

Question: What former member of Extreme briefly served as the lead singer for Van Halen?
Answer: Gary Cherone

Question: Who was the only original member left in Guns N Roses?
Answer: Axl Rose

Question: Slash left Guns N Roses in what year?
Answer: 1996

Question: Which band found their commercial success much greater after they re-united?

Question: What album by Van Halen released in 1995 did not include Sammy Hagar on vocals?

Question: Who replaced was the replacement for David Lee Roth after he was fired?

Question: What 2004 Van Halen album caused Van Halen to go on tour?

Question: What did the release of Axl Rose's The Spaghetti Incident cause among the band?
Hard_rock

In the late 1960s, the term heavy metal was used interchangeably with hard rock, but gradually began to be used to describe music played with even more volume and intensity. While hard rock maintained a bluesy rock and roll identity, including some swing in the back beat and riffs that tended to outline chord progressions in their hooks, heavy metal's riffs often functioned as stand-alone melodies and had no swing in them. Heavy metal took on "darker" characteristics after Black Sabbath's breakthrough at the beginning of the 1970s. In the 1980s it developed a number of subgenres, often termed extreme metal, some of which were influenced by hardcore punk, and which further differentiated the two styles. Despite this differentiation, hard rock and heavy metal have existed side by side, with bands frequently standing on the boundary of, or crossing between, the genres.

Question: By the late 60s, what term was synonymous with hard rock?
Answer: heavy metal

Question: What heavy metal group introduced darker themes to the music?
Answer: Black Sabbath

Question: What genre was an influence on extreme metal in the 1980s?
Answer: hardcore punk

Question: Hard rock is differentiated from heavy metal by containing more of an influence of what genre?
Answer: bluesy

Question: In heavy metal, riffs typically form what element of a song?
Answer: stand-alone melodies

Question: Which term was never used interchangeably with hard rock?

Question: What did hard rock music change to keep it's identity?

Question: What riffs were combined to create swing?

Question: What band had a 1960s break through with an emphasis on darker themes?

Question: Which two genres have never considered to have very much in common?
Hard_rock

By the end of the decade a distinct genre of hard rock was emerging with bands like Led Zeppelin, who mixed the music of early rock bands with a more hard-edged form of blues rock and acid rock on their first two albums Led Zeppelin (1969) and Led Zeppelin II (1969), and Deep Purple, who began as a progressive rock group but achieved their commercial breakthrough with their fourth and distinctively heavier album, In Rock (1970). Also significant was Black Sabbath's Paranoid (1970), which combined guitar riffs with dissonance and more explicit references to the occult and elements of Gothic horror. All three of these bands have been seen as pivotal in the development of heavy metal, but where metal further accentuated the intensity of the music, with bands like Judas Priest following Sabbath's lead into territory that was often "darker and more menacing", hard rock tended to continue to remain the more exuberant, good-time music.

Question: Led Zeppelin's first two albums both came out in what year?
Answer: 1969

Question: What was the title of Deep Purple's hard rock 1970 album?
Answer: In Rock

Question: Black Sabbath's lyrics contained references to what cultural touchstones?
Answer: occult and elements of Gothic horror

Question: What is the title of Black Sabbath's 1970 album?
Answer: Paranoid

Question: What is one band directly influenced by Black Sabbath?
Answer: Judas Priest

Question: What acid rock album did Led Zeppelin record in 1970?

Question: What group moved from hard rock to progressive rock?

Question: Which group did not achieve a commercial breakthrough in 1970?

Question: Who's lyrics contained elements that warned against the occult?

Question: What year did Judas Priest produced the album Paranoid?
Hard_rock

With the rise of disco in the US and punk rock in the UK, hard rock's mainstream dominance was rivalled toward the later part of the decade. Disco appealed to a more diverse group of people and punk seemed to take over the rebellious role that hard rock once held. Early punk bands like The Ramones explicitly rebelled against the drum solos and extended guitar solos that characterised stadium rock, with almost all of their songs clocking in around two minutes with no guitar solos. However, new rock acts continued to emerge and record sales remained high into the 1980s. 1977 saw the début and rise to stardom of Foreigner, who went on to release several platinum albums through to the mid-1980s. Midwestern groups like Kansas, REO Speedwagon and Styx helped further cement heavy rock in the Midwest as a form of stadium rock. In 1978, Van Halen emerged from the Los Angeles music scene with a sound based around the skills of lead guitarist Eddie Van Halen. He popularised a guitar-playing technique of two-handed hammer-ons and pull-offs called tapping, showcased on the song "Eruption" from the album Van Halen, which was highly influential in re-establishing hard rock as a popular genre after the punk and disco explosion, while also redefining and elevating the role of electric guitar.

Question: What two genres made inroads on hard rock in the 1970s?
Answer: disco in the US and punk rock in the UK

Question: What punk band's songs rarely exceeded two minutes in length?
Answer: The Ramones

Question: What were three midwestern hard rock bands?
Answer: Kansas, REO Speedwagon and Styx

Question: What city was Van Halen originally from?
Answer: Los Angeles

Question: Which Van Halen instrumental showcased the guitar mastery of Eddie Van Halen?
Answer: "Eruption"

Question: What did hard rock replace as a mainstream genre?

Question: What did the punk band The Ramones embrace as part of their music?

Question: What San Francisco band utilized the skills of guitarist Eddie Van Halen?

Question: What album is the showcase song Van Halen from?

Question: Who was highly influential in creating the popularity of punk and disco music?
Hard_rock

A few hard rock bands from the 1970s and 1980s managed to sustain highly successful recording careers. Bon Jovi were still able to achieve a commercial hit with "It's My Life" from their double platinum-certified album Crush (2000). and AC/DC released the platinum-certified Stiff Upper Lip (2000) Aerosmith released a number two platinum album, Just Push Play (2001), which saw the band foray further into pop with the Top 10 hit "Jaded", and a blues cover album, Honkin' on Bobo, which reached number five in 2004. Heart achieved their first Top 10 album since the early 90s with Red Velvet Car in 2010, becoming the first female-led hard rock band to earn Top 10 albums spanning five decades. There were reunions and subsequent tours from Van Halen (with Hagar in 2004 and then Roth in 2007), The Who (delayed in 2002 by the death of bassist John Entwistle until 2006) and Black Sabbath (with Osbourne 1997–2006 and Dio 2006–2010) and even a one off performance by Led Zeppelin (2007), renewing the interest in previous eras. Additionally, hard rock supergroups, such as Audioslave (with former members of Rage Against the Machine and Soundgarden) and Velvet Revolver (with former members of Guns N' Roses, punk band Wasted Youth and Stone Temple Pilots singer Scott Weiland), emerged and experienced some success. However, these bands were short-lived, ending in 2007 and 2008, respectively. The long awaited Guns N' Roses album Chinese Democracy was finally released in 2008, but only went platinum and failed to come close to the success of the band's late 1980s and early 1990s material. More successfully, AC/DC released the double platinum-certified Black Ice (2008). Bon Jovi continued to enjoy success, branching into country music with "Who Says You Can't Go Home", which reached number one on the Hot Country Singles chart in 2006, and the rock/country album Lost Highway, which reached number one in 2007. In 2009, Bon Jovi released another number one album, The Circle, which marked a return to their hard rock sound.

Question: What hard rock supergroup contained members of Soundgarden and Rage Against the Machine?
Answer: Audioslave

Question: What was the title of Bon Jovi's 2000 hit single?
Answer: "It's My Life"

Question: What band released an album called Stiff Upper Lip in 2000?
Answer: AC/DC

Question: Who was the lead singer of Stone Temple Pilots?
Answer: Scott Weiland

Question: What was Guns N Roses long delayed 2008 album called?
Answer: Chinese Democracy

Question: Which band beside Bon Jovi were two rock bands that had very little commercial success in the 1970s and 1980s?

Question: What year did Bon Jovi release their album Stiff Upper Lip?

Question: What top 10 album by Heart was released in the early 90s?

Question: What bassist for The Who died in 2006?

Question: What Guns N' Roses album that was released in 2008 was there most successful album to date?
Great_Plains

The term "Great Plains", for the region west of about the 96th or 98th meridian and east of the Rocky Mountains, was not generally used before the early 20th century. Nevin Fenneman's 1916 study, Physiographic Subdivision of the United States, brought the term Great Plains into more widespread usage. Before that the region was almost invariably called the High Plains, in contrast to the lower Prairie Plains of the Midwestern states. Today the term "High Plains" is used for a subregion of the Great Plains.

Question: what is the name of the region east of the Rocky Mountains?
Answer: "Great Plains

Question: who brought the term great plains into widespread usage?
Answer: Nevin Fenneman's

Question: what year was Nevin Fenneman's study?
Answer: 1916

Question: what was theregion called before "the great plans"? 
Answer: the High Plains

Question: What region lies east of the 96th or 98th meridian?

Question: Who came up with the term High Plains?

Question: What area of states lie in the Great Plains?

Question: In what century did people start calling what we call the Great Plains the High Plains?
Great_Plains

Much of the Great Plains became open range, or rangeland where cattle roamed free, hosting ranching operations where anyone was theoretically free to run cattle. In the spring and fall, ranchers held roundups where their cowboys branded new calves, treated animals and sorted the cattle for sale. Such ranching began in Texas and gradually moved northward. In 1866-95, cowboys herded 10 million cattle north to rail heads such as Dodge City, Kansas and Ogallala, Nebraska; from there, cattle were shipped eastward.

Question: what type of land is much of the great plans?
Answer: open range

Question: when did ranchers usually have a cattle round up?
Answer: spring and fall

Question: in a cattle round up, what did ranchers do to the new calves?
Answer: branded

Question: from 1866-95 about how many cattle did cowboys herd?
Answer: 10 million

Question: In what year were cattle first left free to roam the Great Plains?

Question: How many cowboys did it take to herd 10 million cattle north?

Question: How many people lived in Dodge City, Kansas in 1866?

Question: Where were the cattle shipped eastward to during the late 1800s?

Question: How many cattle went through Dodge City, Kansas between the years 1866-95?
Great_Plains

With the arrival of Francisco Vázquez de Coronado, a Spanish conquistador, the first recorded history of encounter between Europeans and Native Americans in the Great Plains occurred in Texas, Kansas and Nebraska from 1540-1542. In that same time period, Hernando de Soto crossed a west-northwest direction in what is now Oklahoma and Texas. Today this is known as the De Soto Trail. The Spanish thought the Great Plains were the location of the mythological Quivira and Cíbola, a place said to be rich in gold.

Question: who was the spanish conquistador who had encounters with europeans and native americans?
Answer: Francisco Vázquez de Coronado

Question: who crossed a section of oklahoma and texas?
Answer: Hernando de Soto

Question: what is the section of oklahoma and texas that  Hernando de Soto traveled?
Answer: the De Soto Trail

Question: who thought the great plains were the locations of Quivira and Cíbola?
Answer: The Spanish

Question: what did the spanish think the cities of Quivira and Cíbola were rich in?
Answer: gold

Question: In what state did Francisco Vazquez de Coronado first encounter Native Americans?

Question: In 1540 Europeans first encountered Native Americans in what state?

Question: In what year did the De Soto Trail gain its name?

Question: What nationality was Hernando de Soto?

Question: In what year did Texas become a state?
Great_Plains

The 100th meridian roughly corresponds with the line that divides the Great Plains into an area that receive 20 inches (510 millimetres) or more of rainfall per year and an area that receives less than 20 in (510 mm). In this context, the High Plains, as well as Southern Alberta, south-western Saskatchewan and Eastern Montana are mainly semi hot steppe land and are generally characterised by rangeland or marginal farmland. The region (especially the High Plains) is periodically subjected to extended periods of drought; high winds in the region may then generate devastating dust storms. The eastern Great Plains near the eastern boundary falls in the humid subtropical climate zone in the southern areas, and the northern and central areas fall in the humid continental climate.

Question: what is the name of the line that divides the great plains?
Answer: The 100th meridian

Question: about how much rainfall does the great plains get per year?
Answer: 20 inches

Question: what do high winds in the area sometimes cause?
Answer: dust storms

Question: what type of climate does the eastern great plains fall into?
Answer: humid subtropical climate

Question: What Canadian province lies north of the Great Plains?

Question: What would be a state that lies east of the Great Plains?

Question: What meridian comprises the northern edge of the Great Plains?

Question: What meridian comprises the southern edge of the Great Plains?

Question: How much rain does Northern Alberta get every year?
Great_Plains

After 1870, the new railroads across the Plains brought hunters who killed off almost all the bison for their hides. The railroads offered attractive packages of land and transportation to European farmers, who rushed to settle the land. They (and Americans as well) also took advantage of the homestead laws to obtain free farms. Land speculators and local boosters identified many potential towns, and those reached by the railroad had a chance, while the others became ghost towns. In Kansas, for example, nearly 5000 towns were mapped out, but by 1970 only 617 were actually operating. In the mid-20th century, closeness to an interstate exchange determined whether a town would flourish or struggle for business.

Question: after about what year did railroads bring hunters to the great plains?
Answer: 1870

Question: what animal did hunters kill off for their hides?
Answer: bison

Question: what farmers rushed in to settle the land with the help of the railroads?
Answer: European farmers

Question: what did the railroads offer the farmers that rushed in to settle the area?
Answer: packages of land and transportation

Question: In what year were the homestead laws passed?

Question: How many towns existed in Kansas in 1950?

Question: How many free farms were doled out overall?

Question: How many cities existed in Kansas as of 2000?

Question: How many bison were killed for their hides?
Great_Plains

The rural Plains have lost a third of their population since 1920. Several hundred thousand square miles (several hundred thousand square kilometers) of the Great Plains have fewer than 6 inhabitants per square mile (2.3 inhabitants per square kilometer)—the density standard Frederick Jackson Turner used to declare the American frontier "closed" in 1893. Many have fewer than 2 inhabitants per square mile (0.77 inhabitants per square kilometer). There are more than 6,000 ghost towns in the state of Kansas alone, according to Kansas historian Daniel Fitzgerald. This problem is often exacerbated by the consolidation of farms and the difficulty of attracting modern industry to the region. In addition, the smaller school-age population has forced the consolidation of school districts and the closure of high schools in some communities. The continuing population loss has led some to suggest that the current use of the drier parts of the Great Plains is not sustainable, and there has been a proposal - the "Buffalo Commons" - to return approximately 139,000 square miles (360,000 km2) of these drier parts to native prairie land.

Question: how much of the population have the rural plains lost since 1920? 
Answer: a third

Question: who declated the American frontier "closed" in 1893?
Answer: Frederick Jackson Turner

Question: how many ghost towns are in the state of Kansas?
Answer: more than 6,000

Question: how much prarie land does the "Buffalo Commons" want to return?
Answer: 139,000 square miles

Question: How many people lives per square mile on the Great Plains in 1900?

Question: In what year was the Great Plains considered "open" to inhabitants and farm activity?

Question: What's the school-age population of Kansas?

Question: In what year was the "Buffalo Commons" proposal made?

Question: How many high schools remain in Kansas?
Great_Plains

Although the eastern image of farm life in the prairies emphasized the isolation of the lonely farmer and wife, plains residents created busy social lives for themselves. They often sponsored activities that combined work, food and entertainment such as barn raisings, corn huskings, quilting bees, Grange meetings, church activities and school functions. Women organized shared meals and potluck events, as well as extended visits between families. The Grange was a nationwide farmers' organization, they reserved high offices for women, and gave them a voice in public affairs.

Question: who usually organized shared meals and potluck events?
Answer: Women

Question: Who presided over church activities in the Great Plains?

Question: Who did barn raisings at farm on the Great Plains?

Question: Was it men or women that primarily engaged in corn huskings?

Question: Between men and women, who handled most school functions?
Great_Plains

From the 1950s on, many areas of the Great Plains have become productive crop-growing areas because of extensive irrigation on large landholdings. The United States is a major exporter of agricultural products. The southern portion of the Great Plains lies over the Ogallala Aquifer, a huge underground layer of water-bearing strata dating from the last ice age. Center pivot irrigation is used extensively in drier sections of the Great Plains, resulting in aquifer depletion at a rate that is greater than the ground's ability to recharge.

Question: around when did the great plains become productive for crop growing
Answer: 1950s

Question: what is the large underground layer of water in the great plains called?
Answer: Ogallala Aquifer

Question: what type of irrigation is used in the great plains?
Answer: Center pivot irrigation

Question: When was the last ice age?

Question: In what decade did center pivot irrigation get invented?

Question: In what decade did aquafier depletion begin to outpace the ground's ability to recharge?

Question: In what country was center pivot irrigation invented?
Great_Plains

The Great Plains is the broad expanse of flat land (a plain), much of it covered in prairie, steppe and grassland, that lies west of the Mississippi River tallgrass prairie states and east of the Rocky Mountains in the United States and Canada. This area covers parts, but not all, of the states of Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming, and the Canadian provinces of Alberta, Manitoba and Saskatchewan. The region is known for supporting extensive cattle ranching and dry farming.

Question: what is the great plains?
Answer: broad expanse of flat land

Question: where does the great plains lie?
Answer: west of the Mississippi River

Question: what is the region known for?
Answer: extensive cattle ranching

Question: What lies east of the Mississippi River tallgrass prairie states?

Question: What lies west of the Rocky Mountains?

Question: What lies north of the Great Plains?

Question: What lies south of the Great Plains?

Question: Name one of the states the Mississippi River flows through.
Great_Plains

The North American Environmental Atlas, produced by the Commission for Environmental Cooperation, a NAFTA agency composed of the geographical agencies of the Mexican, American, and Canadian governments uses the "Great Plains" as an ecoregion synonymous with predominant prairies and grasslands rather than as physiographic region defined by topography. The Great Plains ecoregion includes five sub-regions: Temperate Prairies, West-Central Semi-Arid Prairies, South-Central Semi-Arid Prairies, Texas Louisiana Coastal Plains, and Tamaulipus-Texas Semi-Arid Plain, which overlap or expand upon other Great Plains designations.

Question: who is the North American Environmental Atlas made by?
Answer: Commission for Environmental Cooperation

Question: what countries is the Commission for Environmental Cooperation made up of?
Answer: Mexican, American, and Canadian governments

Question: What states comprise the Temperate Prairies of the Great Plains?

Question: What states are in the West-Central Semi-Arid Praries?

Question: Which states are in the South-Central Semi-Arid Prairies?

Question: Between the Canadian, American, and Mexican portions of the Great Plains in which area does most of it lie?
Great_Plains

The railroads opened up the Great Plains for settlement, for now it was possible to ship wheat and other crops at low cost to the urban markets in the East, and Europe. Homestead land was free for American settlers. Railroads sold their land at cheap rates to immigrants in expectation they would generate traffic as soon as farms were established. Immigrants poured in, especially from Germany and Scandinavia. On the plains, very few single men attempted to operate a farm or ranch by themselves; they clearly understood the need for a hard-working wife, and numerous children, to handle the many chores, including child-rearing, feeding and clothing the family, managing the housework, feeding the hired hands, and, especially after the 1930s, handling paperwork and financial details. During the early years of settlement, farm women played an integral role in assuring family survival by working outdoors. After approximately one generation, women increasingly left the fields, thus redefining their roles within the family. New technology including sewing and washing machines encouraged women to turn to domestic roles. The scientific housekeeping movement, promoted across the land by the media and government extension agents, as well as county fairs which featured achievements in home cookery and canning, advice columns for women regarding farm bookkeeping, and home economics courses in the schools.

Question: what mainly opened the great plains for settlement?
Answer: railroads

Question: what did the railroads make it easy to do?
Answer: ship wheat and other crops

Question: who did the railroads sell cheap lands to?
Answer: immigrants

Question: who two new technologies were introducted in the 1930s?
Answer: sewing and washing machines

Question: In what decade did railroads start to appear in the Great Plains?

Question: In what decade did many women work outdoors on the Great Plains?

Question: In what decade were washing machines introduced?

Question: In what decade did schools start offering home economics courses?

Question: In what decade did the Great Plains start shipping wheat east?
Great_Plains

During the Cenozoic era, specifically about 25 million years ago during the Miocene and Pliocene epochs, the continental climate became favorable to the evolution of grasslands. Existing forest biomes declined and grasslands became much more widespread. The grasslands provided a new niche for mammals, including many ungulates and glires, that switched from browsing diets to grazing diets. Traditionally, the spread of grasslands and the development of grazers have been strongly linked. However, an examination of mammalian teeth suggests that it is the open, gritty habitat and not the grass itself which is linked to diet changes in mammals, giving rise to the "grit, not grass" hypothesis.

Question: about how long ago did the climate become favorable?
Answer: about 25 million years ago

Question: what animals did the grasslands provide a new home for?
Answer: mammals

Question: what diet did the mammals switch to from browsing diets?
Answer: grazing diets

Question: the spread of grasslands and what have been strongly linked?
Answer: development of grazers

Question: How many years ago did the Cenozoic era start?

Question: In what era did ungulates start eating a browsing diet?

Question: In what era did mammals develop teeth?

Question: In what era did forest biomes start to grow?

Question: When did the Cenozoic era end?
Great_Plains

To allow for agricultural development of the Great Plains and house a growing population, the US passed the Homestead Acts of 1862: it allowed a settler to claim up to 160 acres (65 ha) of land, provided that he lived on it for a period of five years and cultivated it. The provisions were expanded under the Kinkaid Act of 1904 to include a homestead of an entire section. Hundreds of thousands of people claimed such homesteads, sometimes building sod houses out of the very turf of their land. Many of them were not skilled dryland farmers and failures were frequent. Much of the Plains were settled during relatively wet years. Government experts did not understand how farmers should cultivate the prairies and gave advice counter to what would have worked[citation needed]. Germans from Russia who had previously farmed, under similar circumstances, in what is now Ukraine were marginally more successful than other homesteaders. The Dominion Lands Act of 1871 served a similar function for establishing homesteads on the prairies in Canada.

Question: when did the US pass the Homestead ACt?
Answer: 1862

Question: how much land did the Homestead Act allow a person to claim?
Answer: up to 160 acres

Question: how long did the person have to live on the land?
Answer: five years

Question: when was the Kinkaid Act brought about? 
Answer: 1904

Question: the dominion act was passed in what year
Answer: 1871

Question: In what year was the Kinkaid Act repealed?

Question: In what year was the Dominions Lands Act repealed?

Question: In what year did the relatively wet years of the Great Plains end?

Question: What number of people established homestead in Canada?

Question: How many homesteaders failed to establish cultivated land?
Infrared

The onset of infrared is defined (according to different standards) at various values typically between 700 nm and 800 nm, but the boundary between visible and infrared light is not precisely defined. The human eye is markedly less sensitive to light above 700 nm wavelength, so longer wavelengths make insignificant contributions to scenes illuminated by common light sources. However, particularly intense near-IR light (e.g., from IR lasers, IR LED sources, or from bright daylight with the visible light removed by colored gels) can be detected up to approximately 780 nm, and will be perceived as red light. Sources providing wavelengths as long as 1050 nm can be seen as a dull red glow in intense sources, causing some difficulty in near-IR illumination of scenes in the dark (usually this practical problem is solved by indirect illumination). Leaves are particularly bright in the near IR, and if all visible light leaks from around an IR-filter are blocked, and the eye is given a moment to adjust to the extremely dim image coming through a visually opaque IR-passing photographic filter, it is possible to see the Wood effect that consists of IR-glowing foliage.

Question: At what wavelength does the human eye become significantly less sensitive to light?
Answer: 700 nm

Question: What sort of light is generated by IR lasers?
Answer: near-IR

Question: Up to what wavelength does the human eye perceive IR LED sources as red?
Answer: 780 nm

Question: Up to what wavelength does the human eye perceive certain intense lights as being dull red in color?
Answer: 1050 nm

Question: What objects are notably bright in near IR?
Answer: Leaves

Question: What is the defined boundary between visible and infrared light?

Question: At what wavelength does the human eye perceive red light?

Question: What light is generated by an IR-passing photographic filter?

Question: What objects are hard to see if all visible light leaks are blocked?

Question: What value measures wavelengths as long as 1050?
Infrared

The concept of emissivity is important in understanding the infrared emissions of objects. This is a property of a surface that describes how its thermal emissions deviate from the ideal of a black body. To further explain, two objects at the same physical temperature will not show the same infrared image if they have differing emissivity. For example, for any pre-set emissivity value, objects with higher emissivity will appear hotter, and those with a lower emissivity will appear cooler. For that reason, incorrect selection of emissivity will give inaccurate results when using infrared cameras and pyrometers.

Question: What is the term for the property that describes how a surface's thermal emissions deviate from the ideal of a black body?
Answer: emissivity

Question: How will the infrared image of an object with a higher emissivity appear in relation to one with lower emissivity?
Answer: hotter

Question: Along with pyrometers, what devices can receive inaccurate results if emissivity is not set correctly?
Answer: infrared cameras

Question: What property describes how a surfaces thermal emissions give inaccurate results when using infrared cameras and pyrometers?

Question: What shows the same image of two objects with differing emissivity?

Question: What ideal shows inaccurate results when using infrared cameras?

Question: How does pre-set emissivity help infrared cameras give accurate results?

Question: How does comparing two differing objects to a black body give you accurate results?
Infrared

Infrared vibrational spectroscopy (see also near-infrared spectroscopy) is a technique that can be used to identify molecules by analysis of their constituent bonds. Each chemical bond in a molecule vibrates at a frequency characteristic of that bond. A group of atoms in a molecule (e.g., CH2) may have multiple modes of oscillation caused by the stretching and bending motions of the group as a whole. If an oscillation leads to a change in dipole in the molecule then it will absorb a photon that has the same frequency. The vibrational frequencies of most molecules correspond to the frequencies of infrared light. Typically, the technique is used to study organic compounds using light radiation from 4000–400 cm−1, the mid-infrared. A spectrum of all the frequencies of absorption in a sample is recorded. This can be used to gain information about the sample composition in terms of chemical groups present and also its purity (for example, a wet sample will show a broad O-H absorption around 3200 cm−1).

Question: What is the technique that analyzes the constituent bonds of molecules to identify them?
Answer: Infrared vibrational spectroscopy

Question: What happens to a molecule if an oscillation results in a dipole being changed?
Answer: it will absorb a photon that has the same frequency

Question: What do the vibrational frequencies of molecules usually correspond to?
Answer: the frequencies of infrared light

Question: What is the term for light radiation in the 4000–400 cm−1 spectrum?
Answer: the mid-infrared

Question: What technique can be used to identify organic compounds by analysis of their constituent bonds?

Question: A group of chemical bonds in a molecule may have how many modes of oscillation?

Question: What do most vibrations correspond to the frequencies of?

Question: What are multiple modes of oscillation in a spectrum caused by?

Question: What is the amount of absorption a group of atoms will show in cm?
Infrared

In infrared photography, infrared filters are used to capture the near-infrared spectrum. Digital cameras often use infrared blockers. Cheaper digital cameras and camera phones have less effective filters and can "see" intense near-infrared, appearing as a bright purple-white color. This is especially pronounced when taking pictures of subjects near IR-bright areas (such as near a lamp), where the resulting infrared interference can wash out the image. There is also a technique called 'T-ray' imaging, which is imaging using far-infrared or terahertz radiation. Lack of bright sources can make terahertz photography more challenging than most other infrared imaging techniques. Recently T-ray imaging has been of considerable interest due to a number of new developments such as terahertz time-domain spectroscopy.

Question: What is used in infrared photography to capture the near-infrared spectrum?
Answer: infrared filters

Question: What devices are often equipped with infrared blockers?
Answer: Digital cameras

Question: What is the technique that involves imaging with terahertz radiation?
Answer: 'T-ray' imaging

Question: What is another name for terahertz radiation?
Answer: far-infrared

Question: What is a notable recent development in T-ray imaging?
Answer: terahertz time-domain spectroscopy

Question: What does T-ray imaging use to capture the near-infrared spectrum?

Question: What is a recent development in infrared photography?

Question: What is another name for IR bright areas?

Question: What device uses far-infrared or terahertz radiation?

Question: How do infrared blockers wash out an image?
Infrared

Infrared reflectography (fr; it; es), as called by art conservators, can be applied to paintings to reveal underlying layers in a completely non-destructive manner, in particular the underdrawing or outline drawn by the artist as a guide. This often reveals the artist's use of carbon black, which shows up well in reflectograms, as long as it has not also been used in the ground underlying the whole painting. Art conservators are looking to see whether the visible layers of paint differ from the underdrawing or layers in between – such alterations are called pentimenti when made by the original artist. This is very useful information in deciding whether a painting is the prime version by the original artist or a copy, and whether it has been altered by over-enthusiastic restoration work. In general, the more pentimenti the more likely a painting is to be the prime version. It also gives useful insights into working practices.

Question: What technique is used in art to examine underlying layers of a painting without damaging it?
Answer: Infrared reflectography

Question: What shows up particularly well in reflectograms?
Answer: carbon black

Question: What is the term for differences in the painting and underdrawing made by the original artist?
Answer: pentimenti

Question: What painting technique is used to reveal working practices?

Question: What is visible in alterations of paintings?

Question: What is it called when visible layers differ from the reflectogram?

Question: What is useful to show if a painting is original or part of a reflectogram?

Question: With carbon black what is the painting more likely to be?
Infrared

The discovery of infrared radiation is ascribed to William Herschel, the astronomer, in the early 19th century. Herschel published his results in 1800 before the Royal Society of London. Herschel used a prism to refract light from the sun and detected the infrared, beyond the red part of the spectrum, through an increase in the temperature recorded on a thermometer. He was surprised at the result and called them "Calorific Rays". The term 'Infrared' did not appear until late in the 19th century.

Question: Who discovered infrared radiation?
Answer: William Herschel

Question: In what year did Herschel publish his work on infrared radiation?
Answer: 1800

Question: To whom did Herschel present his work on infrared radiation?
Answer: the Royal Society of London

Question: What device did Herschel use to discover the infrared?
Answer: a prism

Question: What did Herschel call the infrared spectrum?
Answer: Calorific Rays

Question: Who discovered spectrum radiation?

Question: When did the term Calorific Rays start to be used?

Question: What did Herschel use to detect light from the sun?

Question: What did Herschel refract from Calorific Rays?

Question: What society did Herschel present his work on the red spectrum?
Infrared

Near-infrared is the region closest in wavelength to the radiation detectable by the human eye, mid- and far-infrared are progressively further from the visible spectrum. Other definitions follow different physical mechanisms (emission peaks, vs. bands, water absorption) and the newest follow technical reasons (the common silicon detectors are sensitive to about 1,050 nm, while InGaAs's sensitivity starts around 950 nm and ends between 1,700 and 2,600 nm, depending on the specific configuration). Unfortunately, international standards for these specifications are not currently available.

Question: What is the nearest wavelength to the radiation that a human eye can see?
Answer: Near-infrared

Question: Along with the emission peaks and vs. bands mechanisms, what other physical mechanism is used to define near-infrared?
Answer: water absorption

Question: In micrometers, when do common silicon detectors cease to be sensitive?
Answer: 1,050

Question: What is the lowest level of sensitivity, in micrometers, for InGaAs?
Answer: 950

Question: What is the lowest international standard in micrometers for InGaAs?

Question: What is the nearest emission peak visible to the human eye?

Question: Along with the emission peaks and vs. bands mechanisms, what other physical mechanism is used to define common silicon detectors?

Question: What InGaAs is progressively further from the visible spectrum for the human eye?

Question: At what measurement do different physical mechanisms cease to be sensitive?
Infrared

The infrared portion of the spectrum has several useful benefits for astronomers. Cold, dark molecular clouds of gas and dust in our galaxy will glow with radiated heat as they are irradiated by imbedded stars. Infrared can also be used to detect protostars before they begin to emit visible light. Stars emit a smaller portion of their energy in the infrared spectrum, so nearby cool objects such as planets can be more readily detected. (In the visible light spectrum, the glare from the star will drown out the reflected light from a planet.)

Question: What irradiates clouds of gas in the galaxy and makes them glow?
Answer: imbedded stars

Question: What can be detected via infrared prior to their emitting visible light?
Answer: protostars

Question: What objects emit less of their energy as infrared light versus visible light?
Answer: Stars

Question: What glows with heat and shows visible light?

Question: What can be used to detect protostars when they are cool?

Question: What spectrum benefits stars?

Question: What heats clouds of gas and makes them readily detected?

Question: What do stars emit a smaller portion of in our galaxy?
Infrared

Infrared is used in night vision equipment when there is insufficient visible light to see. Night vision devices operate through a process involving the conversion of ambient light photons into electrons that are then amplified by a chemical and electrical process and then converted back into visible light. Infrared light sources can be used to augment the available ambient light for conversion by night vision devices, increasing in-the-dark visibility without actually using a visible light source.

Question: What sort of equipment uses the infrared spectrum in the absence of sufficient visible light?
Answer: night vision

Question: What do night vision devices convert ambient light photons into?
Answer: electrons

Question: Along with a chemical process, what type of process is used by night vision devices to convert infrared into visible light?
Answer: electrical

Question: What equipment uses the infrared spectrum with visible light?

Question: What do night vision devices convert electrons into?

Question: By what process do night vision devices convert infrared into photons?

Question: What process uses a chemical source to augment ambient light?

Question: What does a visible light source increase for a night vision device?