How is "occupied Syrian Golan" not part of its etymology? Its a part of the historical development of its linguistic form, representing terminology supported by the international community. I looked at the source for "Arab cartographers of the period referred to the area as jabal..." the source did not contain it. The text you added about Byzantine periods is incorrect in several different ways, it is not presenting the entire picture of entire Byzantine rule, and what does it have to do with etymology? And why did you re ad the source from Mitchell Geoffrey Bard when I showed above that its unreliable?  The source doesn't even support the text you added.