abuse or consentual??

"Homolka would later say that in the spring of 1990, Bernardo began calling her his sex slave and abusing her severely. Homolka claims that she would never deny him anything; she was his property and was well trained."

The first sentence suggests it was non-consentual abuse. The second one suggests she did consent and they were simply into some form of BDSM. I think it makes a difference which one it is. Do we have any more information to clarify?