Misquoting source 

Stavrides quite explicitly explains that Mahmud Pasha was not a Croat in any sense other than political  using the South Slavic ambiguity in defining Serbs and Croats for personal diplomatic purposes. He lists quite in detail reasons why the subject was a Serb-Greek. Why is the preposterous and insane idea of Mahmud Pasha's quasi-croatness being pushed forth by misquoting sources?