SamEV , the spanish territories goberned by spanish kings count actually as spanish possesion(at least those of Philip II),Charles I was the king of Spain and he ruled mostly of Europe being the emperor of Spain and the HRE,the spanish empire have the same sense under Charles V & Phillip II. It doesn't have sense to add the territories of Phillip II and not to add those of Charles I, since they had the same "emprise", and both were kings of Spain. And the most important thing,SPAIN BECAME A POWERFUL EMPIRE UNDER CHARLES I , not under his son.  89.7.100.151