Personally, I'd say, yes it is. In the absence of any other models of English usage than these few ones? Saying that the sources were published in a Polish context is hardly a good argument as long as we haven't got any others that were published elsewhere. I'm also not convinced that the argument about Tighe being wrong about some of the facts disqualifies that source as evidence for the naming. We're not using it as a source for what these Sw.* guys did, but for what they are called today.  ☼