Frankly, I do not agree.  Elizabeth II of the UK is, patrilinealy, a descendant of the House of Wettin in Germany.  Does this make her a German monarch?  Juan Carlos I of Spain is, patrilinealy, a descendant of the House of Capet in France.  Does this make him a French monarch?  

Never have I heard the Crown of Aragon (a term itself that I have issues with)as being a state of, for, and by Catalans.