Origin 
The evidence presented by the following paragraph does not convince me of the relation between the Orkhon script and the Rovás. I've heard that conclusion elsewhere, and I'm not necessarily doubting it, but I just don't see proof from the arguments made here:
"Around 600 AD, the yet illiterate Hungarian tribes moved southwest from their earlier territories to the coastal region of the Eastern Black Sea. The Hungarian Runes are almost certainly related to the Orkhon or Turkic Runic script. 

Says who? 

"This is supported by the Hungarian tribes' early geography propinquity [Is this supposed to be "proximity?"] to the Göktürks."

So what? At various times in history they were near Germanic, Slavic, Turkic, Mongolic, and maybe Greek peoples. It doesn't follow, from the evidence presented that the Turkic influence was the source of the writing.

"Moreover, thirteen of the Hungarian rovás glyphs closely resemble characters of the Orkhon script.

Which ones? I don't count 13 convergences. I see a lot of resemblance in overall appearance between Futhark and Rovás; they seem to show a greater resemblance to each other than with Orkhon. Some prominent features of the Orkhon script are absent in Rovás, e.g. reduplicated characters, and the use of dots or other small characters detached from the main sign.

I'm not arguing that German Runes and Rovás are necessarily closely related; it's just that the evidence presented by this section of this article is hardly convincing. If someone can correct this, please do.  !