Dumb question? 

Would the repeal of withholding, via Constitutional amendment, apply only to Fed income taxes?  That is to say, would the States be bound to repeal withholding as well, since they are the ones necessarily ratifying it in the first place?

I may have missed it inside the article (which is very good indeed) and if I did I apologize, but it seems to me that once the repeal of withholding becomes an established fact, a great deal of political power passes from the politicians back to the consumer.  Simply put, a dollar represents a unit of freedom.  And if the phrase "a bird in the hand is worth two in the bush" has any truth to it at all, it means political power is being leveraged, indeed heavily back to the consumer/producer for every dollar he keeps.  That is an extremely compelling argument, it seems, though hardly ever mentioned.  Regards.  155.188.183.6