I see from your argument that you are claiming that these two sources have not accurately defined the Greek word κιβωτὸς—yet according to my own copy of Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, Fully Updated and Unabridged, published by World, copyright 1890 by James Strong, Greek Lexicon, Forty-fifth printing 1989, page 55, number 2787, their definitions are entirely accurate and reliable and completely agree.  I challenge you to present here your evidence that all three are wrong, citing authoritative linguistic sources, and peer-reviews denouncing them as false and erroneous.  The three sources cited here even agree with Brown-Driver-Briggs English-Hebrew Lexicon on Hebrew definitions.  It too has a reputation of reliable scholarship.  I do not believe you can prove that it too is in error.  Your argument has no intelligence.  You lose