Okay, I appreciate that, still, I don't feel that it (19th Century) fairly represents my bias. Dosen't matter, though.   

 :::::::As mentioned elsewhere, I find that the above approach results in reducing both political economy and political affiliation/identity into one of the same thing, which I view as an ahistorical, oversimplified abstraction. Having said that, I am not sure it would really prove useful (for either of us) to pursue this polemic further. Thanks for your time.