::::Hebel, I wrote to you this, since if all land is included (if you don't eplicit formally) it means legally, but it if would be done legally, than the second part would be contradicted that no laws were changed, etc., although for a legal incorporation of Hungary the Regnum Independens had to be abolished! 

 ::::What you proposed it is already included in my proposal, watch: 

 ::::"In 1804 the Austrian Empire was created. This Empire came to comprise all Habsburg lands ruled by Francis II, Holy Roman Emperor. Emperor Franz assumed the title of Emperor of Austria for all the Erblande of the dynasty and for the other Lands, including Hungary. Thus Hungary formally became part of the Empire of Austria.[LASZLO SOURCE] After the cessation of the Holy Roman Empire (Kingdom of Hungary was not part of it) the new title of the Habsburg rulers (Emperor of Austria) did not in any sense affect the laws and the constitution of Hungary according to the Hungarian Diet and the proclamation of Francis I in a rescript[ZACHAR SOURCE] Hungary was regnum independens, a separate Land as Article X of 1790 stipulated. The Imperial matters - foreign policy, defense and state finance - were handled by the monarch as reservata exercised him as the King of Hungary.[LASZLO SOURCE]" 

 ::::Hebel I am "living in a world" where I met to many inaccuaricies, and turning out de jure things not just the articles releated to Hungary. I do no suggest you have a necessary bad aim, but I can also imagine you really believe it is fair as you are trying to interpret the case. Decide if the version showed now and highlighted what you told now you agree or not! Thanks(  )