::(Shame on me, I'm just the worst procrastinator.) I think I see your point. So you are playing on words there? Grace as in the movie character and grace as in Jesus grace? It wasn't clear to me at all, but it seems quite cool now. I guess the main trouble was that you're thinking on Jesus avenging himself in the present (from the Church et al), and I was thinking on him avenging himself in the past (from the Jews et al), to save himself from the crucifiction. Both musings seem equally plausible to me, but only after you explained yours to me; well, to be honest, mine seems more natural to me ). Anyway, I think the question is still confusing. The verbs at the beginning ("decided" but especially "had suffered") take me to the past and conflict with "abuse", which takes me to the present. Perhaps "What if Jesus decides he has suffered enough at the hands of those who have abused his grace?" is better? Even if you do opt for that version, I think you should put some of your above explanation in the article; your interpretation isn't obvious. Thanks for explaining.