(UTC) 

 I'm uncertain if this is the right place to discus this, but in the phase space analogy section its mentioned several times that quantum decoherence leads to a lack of interference.  Would it not be more accurate to say that it leads to a lack of constructive or destructive interference on a measurable or macroscopic scale?  Interference is still occurring isnt it?  although in a probabilistic way giving the appearance of a classical limit.  If what I said is correct or relevant, I feel uncomfortable modifying anything that was said as I am certainly not an expert on the subject.   08:47, 23 January 2012