No, Boris, we've been over this before, but you seem not to listen. There is no way that we can consider Churchill (1931) as impartial in describing an exchange between his recent ally and his recent foe. He later admitted in 1948: "For my part, I consider that it will be found much better by all Parties to leave the past to history, especially as I propose to write that history." (usually this is misquoted as "History will be kind to me for I intend to write it.") It is just as silly to think that a contemporary ambassador or attorney-general for a belligerent would be impartial. A categorical compendium of correspondence does not constitute a secondary analysis of that correspondence: it does not aid us in assessing its accuracy or significance. For that we rely on serious scholars' works written after many years had passed. A.B. Zubov  might be useful, but this is the English Wikipedia, and few here are equipped to translate reliably from Russian works. We'd need a published translation, at least of the relevant part. Hamilton and Herwig (2003) are RS, but their conclusion on p.180 is: "The telegrams at best served to maintain the policies of deception." In other words, they were inconsequential. I'm not seeing how that reinforces your position. Perhaps you'd like to consider Wally Wiglet's suggestion?