::::Could you kindly not 'personalize' our interchanges. There is, everyone knows this, an early Zionist interpretation insisting he was a native antisemite, and a more modern specialist interpretation (Elpeleg, Mattar, Laurens) that sees his later antisemitism as an outgrowth of his political failures in Palestine. This has nothing to do with 'private interpretations'. Your second point is an inferential non-sequitur, and incomprehensible.