The Qur'an was a revelation from God.

The passage then goes on to say "Proceeding from between the backbone and the ribs"(Qur'an 86:7). Cons argument here is simple, he says: "it is obvious that the error is that sperm comes from a man's chest. After all, the chest is "between the backbone and the ribs"? The abdomen is below the backbone and ribs, and the male testicles are far below that". I would argue that verse 7 is not referring to the sperm as verse 6 is. Verse 7 is mentioning specifically about the reproductive organs of the male and/or female. If verse 6 and 7 were one single (joined) verse then there would be a problem, but they oare two separate verses. And scientific study has taught that the reproductive organs have proceeded from an area between the backbone and ribs as 86:7 of the Qur'an states. I have four different sources for scientific studies that contradict the reproductive organs proceeding from the backbone and ribs. You didn't provide any evidence for this claims. So verse 86:6 of the Qur'an is correct in stating that man is created from a fluid, water etc eject (referring to the sperm). And also the Qur'an is rightful in stating: "Proceeding from between the backbone and the ribs" which is referring to the reproductive organs of both male and/or female (Qur'an 86:7). However I have presented evidence to show that the reproductive organs do are not located in this area. Con's second contention is that 'the Qur'an says the Bible is not corrupt'. Correction: ‘the Qur'an does not mention the Bible is corrupt' because the word ‘Bible' does not even appear in the Qur'an even once. I only mentioned Bible once in my contention but as you can see I only quoted from the Gospel, so my argument still stands because the Qur'an claims that the Gospels are not corrupt. If one changes/adds to the revelation of God on a piece of paper this doesn't change the actual word of God. God's words are His will and His decree in Islam and they can never be changed, "and none can alter the Words (Decisions) of Allah" (Qur'an 6:34). I don't necessarily agree with y opponent in the manner he interpreted those verse because they were written in the context to reassure the audience that the words of Allah (the Qur'an) would not be changed. However let's say the verses were written in the sense my opponent would like everyone to believe. Then how do we know that the Qur'an hasn't been altered or been corrupted. What makes this document any different from the other holy texts that haven't been corrupted? I would like to ask my opponent for evidence of the reliability of the Qur'an. And I don't expect him to quote from the Qur'an to prove the Qur'an hasn't been altered (circular reasoning), he's a competent debater who has presented good arguments, but I do ask for evidence for the validity of the Qur'an. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- After the corruption of earlier revelations, the Qur'an was sent with the intention to verify the proper and original message and safeguard it or act as a check to its explanation. The Qur’an talks about the expansion of the universe in 51:47. This is only recently known but the Qur’an mentions this fourteen hundred years back, that the universe is expanding [3][4]. This verse could very easily be referring to the afterlife. After all the word for heaven is singular in this passage, instead of stating the heavens (referring to space). The Qur’an mentions about seas not mingling with one another in 55:19-20. Seas that come together but do not mingle with one another has very recently been discovered in context of history [5], yet this fact is mentioned in the Qur’an fourteen hundred years ago. This could be something that would very easy to observe because at the time there was an understanding between fresh and salt water. So logically one could assume there was a barrier. Qur’an 75:3-4: in this verse ‘finger tips’ is specifically emphasized. Fourteen hundred years ago no one paid so much attention to this verse as no one understood why 'finger tips' was emphasized. But we know now only recently, that on our finger tips we have finger prints each and every one unique. The context of the entire passage is not referring to fingertips in the least. My opponent has taken several verses out of context to support his world view without any real evidence of the Qur'an being the words of Allah. When studying the Qur’an and its unique literary form one would find it extremely problematic to attribute it to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh), as he was illiterate, and it would have been impossible for him to stay consistent in the matters regarding within the Qur’an for 23 continuous years. It appears as if my opponent is making the claim that the Qur'an was not even written directly by Muhammad, I don't wish to take this out of context so could you please elaborate? And since my opponent has made a point of showing the Qur’an to be the word of God through scientific accuracies, I must offer this counter proposition to him. The Qur’an must not be the word of Allah because it says that the Earth is laid out like a carpet. My opponent will most likely come back and say that the verse isn’t saying the Earth is flat, however that would be radically different from how the people of the time understood this passage. If the accepted theory at the time was that the Earth was flat, then why didn't Muhammad be more specific? Who has laid out the earth as a carpet for you and has traced highways on it for you, and sent down water from the sky, We have brought forth every sort of plant with it, of various types. - Q. 20:53 Good luck in the next round.