Oneness Pentecostalism

I must apologize yet again, for my slow response in this debate. . I hope you can accept my apology.I also never meant to force anything upon you. I apologize for coming across that way; I will not give myself a point for conduct in this debate. Targums, Hellenist Jew Philo. Could you please post some time of source for these references? With out some creditable source these references and all arguments made using them can not be counted as fact. Neither the reader nor I know that these sources exist or whether or not they are considered factual. I believe I understand your point of argument now. God existed to two beings, human and Divine. But He was never fully human. A consciousness of God inhabited Christ but God Himself never fully was man. How does this verse line up with your theory? Philippians 2 (King James Version) 5Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Jesus chose for Himself not to be equal with God. To become a servant. And Jesus did this. This reflects an act of will. Jesus ‘CHOSE" to become this. Did the alter consciousness of God chose to do this? Or did the Image of God decide? If so the Image of God and God the Spirit (as you call Him, I call Him Father) are separate with two wills. Jesus chose this destiny, the Father requested this and Jesus chose? So what did this alter consciousness of God give up then? Form your statements in this debate you stated that the being of Jesus was made already in a lesser being. What did this lesser being give up then? To give up equality of something you must first have this equality. If the "Word" from John is the Image of God then it was never separate from God just a the image of God, not able to give up anything because of a lack of will. Or did this ‘WORD" have a will? And look closely at verse eight. So did the alter consciousness of God become obedient to death? Who ruled death at the time of Jesus' death? Satan. Jesus obtained our pardon from death, and our obedience to death. So a consciousness of God becomes obedient to death? Here is a scene out of Heaven showing a clear distinction between the Father and the Son. Revelation 4 (King James Version) 1And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the throne a book written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals. 2And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof? 3And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon. 4And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book, neither to look thereon. 5And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold, the Lion of the tribe of Judah, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the book, and to loose the seven seals thereof. 6And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth. 7And he came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne. 8And when he had taken the book, the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell down before the Lamb, having every one of them harps, and golden vials full of odours, which are the prayers of saints. 9And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation; This shows a very clear distinction between the one that sits upon the throne and the Lamb. The Lamb in irrefutably Jesus Christ. One of God's alter consciousness's took the book from His other alter consciousness's? This paints God and the mission of His Son Jesus Christ as a huge play or act. Is this the God you serve? And looking close at the last verse of this passage we see again the Blood of Jesus Christ. Did the Blood of a man save you or the Blood of God made man? If Jesus is nothing more then a human with a human conscious then what is the importance of His Blood? Does the Holy Spirit dwell in us also? 1 Corinthians 3:15-17 (King James Version) 16Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? 17If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are. So did does the blood of Peter, James and Paul also save us? The Bible teaches that God the Father is an immutable Spirit that dwells in heaven, the Son of God is this same God in a lesser, human form, and the Holy Spirit is the "wind" or "breath" of this self same God. Spirit when referring to God the Father and the Holy Spirit is the same word. "Spirit" in Greek mean wind or breath any time in is used in the New Testament. But the Scriptures clearly show a distinction between the Father and the Holy Spirit. Luke 11:13 If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him? John 14:16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; John 14:26 26But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. If they are the same "person" then how can the Father send Himself in the name of Jesus, again in the name of Himself? In this verse agian you see the three persons of the Godhead working together in one mission. Sending by one another in the name of another. Or God send Himself in His own name? You also stated this. However, a comparison of this passages with John 17 proves that Jesus was speaking as a man referring to the oneness with God He would attain in the ascension, because He also said that we would also be "one" with God. John 17 proves that Jesus was SPEAKING as a MAN. Neotisorianism. This is what most Oneness Pentecostals believe today. This divides Christ's two natures into almost two persons, where "sometimes he speaks as a man, and sometimes as God." I reject this view. Was that statement you made true or false? The above fallacy (stated by you) uses the exact same words that you used. So are you agreeing that Neotisorianism is true or what your statements are false? Inside of this human mind, the eternal God live a genuine human life, with a separate, human will. So God does have separate wills? Let me quote you. "With a separate, human will". Jesus is God right? You stated Jesus did not have two wills. This is Neotistorianism. He was God existing within a human will, with the eternal God as the source of His "person"? Source of His person? Jesus had a person? I am assuming this "person" had a will because the definition of a person having conscious is to be aware of ones self and to have a will. Two consciousnesses are two conscious beings, with thought and a will. But for the "Word" or an image of God to choose to become less then equal then God this "Word" would require a conscious which is to have a will. http://www.merriam-webster.com... I look forward to your arguments in the next round.