Premarital Sex is not a Sin

"Paul clearly advising no sex when he says, "not to touch a woman. "Actually no, that's not Paul, that's who Paul is replying to, do not deceive,KJV, Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me:(Now what you wrote to me, notice semicolon) It is good for a man not to touch a woman. (What The Guy wrote)NIV - Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman. ” Again Quotations, NO translator translates this as if Paul says it, all major translations translate it as someone else saying it and Paul refuting itESV Now concerning the matters about which you wrote: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman. ”It's in quotes as that is what the recipent of the letter says, Paul replys to it with 1 Corinthians 7:2,Paul's Reply is, 1 Corinthians 7:2 διP48; δP50; τP48;ς πορνε^3;ας O57;καστος τP52;ν O53;αυτοQ66; γυναQ50;κα O52;χ^1;τω, καP54; O53;κ^0;στη τP56;ν O88;διον O40;νδρα O52;χ^1;τω. Which as proven means Have Sexual Relations with your own woman(and you agreed it means woman in round 3 that's where you lost the debate)Even the King James version messed up, they translated the word But and Now concerning for "nevertheless" when the word δε is But as a However or Rebuttal. "Well actually there is ceremony and ritual by God and He tells us here: "24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. "" Actually no, again No Covenant is listed, When YHWH says They shall be one flesh and he shall cleave unto his wife, he means sex, Proof? 1 Corinthians 6: 16 Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, “The two will become one flesh. ”It's Sex! you have been Refuted. . He should show any acceptable sexual relationship outside of marriage that is shown any positive light in the Bible. Songs of Solomon. http://www.dubiousdisciple.com... "My opponent obviously missed the whole purpose of showing what marriage is. Marriage is a intimate union between a man and woman. If my opponent wanted typical meanings for marriage he should have said so. I contend that marriage in those days was nothing more than a man taking a woman as his woman. These intimate human relationships are considered forms of marriage by the context of the Bible. "So according to my opponent, any sex in a relationship isn't a sin, I can have a girlfriend right now and have sex with her if I want to, I believe Promiscuity is a sin, however sex before marriage, EVEN MY OPPONENT agrees isn't a sin, how can one have sex before marriage? according to my opponent, marriage is " I contend that marriage in those days was nothing more than a man taking a woman as his woman. " so Boyfriend taking girlfriend as his woman/girl according to him is a marriage, so my opponent has no argument and even Admits a marriage doesn't need a ceremony. for this reason, since marriage doesn't need a ceremony, and boyfriend/girlfriend can have sex, my opponent again, kills himself and his entire argument, premarital sex isn't a sin, as my opponent says Marriage can be Boyfriend/Girlfriend, so Pre-marital sex is impossible, as my opponent agrees that anyone in an intimate relationship is considered married, all my opponent can go against is Promiscuity. he has been refuted " 1 Corinthians 7:2 in Greek, διP48; because of δP50; however πορνε^3;ας sexual immorality, O57;καστος each τP52;ν one O53;αυτοQ66; of himself γυναQ50;κα wife O52;χ^1;τω let have, . http://biblos.com...... "Nope, notice my opponent uses Biblos CHART which cuts some words, lets use THE ENTIRE SENTENCE of 1 Corinthians 7:2, SBL Greek New Testament - διP48; δP50; τP48;ς πορνε^3;ας O57;καστος τP52;ν O53;αυτοQ66; γυναQ50;κα O52;χ^1;τω, καP54; O53;κ^0;στη τP56;ν O88;διον O40;νδρα O52;χ^1;τω.1894 Scrivener New Testament - δια δε τας πορνειας εκαστος την εαυτου γυναικα εχετω και εκαστη τον ιδιον ανδρα εχετω1881 Westcott-Hort - δια δε τας πορνειας εκαστος την εαυτου γυναικα εχετω και εκαστη τον ιδιον ανδρα εχετωAll with sources even the layman can understand, δια - through, on account of - . http://biblesuite.com... δε - but, on the other hand, and . http://biblesuite.com... τας - the - . http://biblesuite.com... πορνειας - Porneia which 1 Corinthians 6 makes this whoredom as opponent failed to refute - . http://biblesuite.com... εκαστος - each, every one - . http://biblesuite.com... την - the - . http://biblesuite.com... εαυτου - himself, herself, itself - . http://biblesuite.com... γυναικα - a woman, wife, my lady - . http://biblesuite.com... εχετω - have - . http://biblesuite.com... και - and, even, also, namely - . http://biblesuite.com... εκαστη - each -. http://biblesuite.com... τον - the - . http://biblesuite.com... ιδιον - one's own, private, personal - . http://biblesuite.com... ανδρα - a male human being, a man - . http://biblesuite.com... εχετω - have - . http://biblesuite.com...Easy to understand, all with links for proof for definitions and wording, 3 different versions of greek no words taken out, all words included(Look up any Greek of 1 Corinthians 7:2, I missed 0 words)"Grk “each man should have his own wife. ” “Have” in this context means “have marital relations with” (see the following verse). The verb O52;χ^1;τω (ecetw, “have”) occurs twice in the Greek text, but has not been repeated in the translation for stylistic reasons. This verb occurs 8 times in the LXX (Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1) with the meaning “have sexual relations with,” and 9 times elsewhere in the NT with the same meaning (Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29). " [All verses with have twice, meaning Sexual Relationa and all those verses are Proof, if 1 Corinthians 7:2 is not Sexual Relations and is instead marriage then my opponent must refute the following LXX(Septuagint Translation) and New Testment verses which all have the same grammar, Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1 and Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29)"My opponent has no justification nor does his no link source, for removing wife for woman from the Greek translation. The meaning of woman is, "from and for man", signaling marriage again. Therefore the use of woman in a relationship means wife. . http://www.etymonline.com...;My opponent again, Kills himself as earlier in Round 4 he Agreed that it means Man and Woman,he agrees it's man and woman, man and woman aren't Husband and Wife, they have distinct meanings thus, my opponent loses, argument dismissed, I'll post again," My opponent then goes on with the same thing and showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage. "Lo and behold you agree that I showed that paul said people should get their own woman and man, and I quote, " showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage. ""1, How does their own woman and own man mean marriage? it can mean boyfriend/girlfriend as well2, My Opponent absolutely kills himself here by admitting that I proved people should get their own woman and man, woman and man doesn't mean Wife or Man,AND I quote from previous round, "showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage. " as I proved, therefore it can be Boyfriend/Girlfriend, aka, Unmarried, my opponent agrees that I proved it's Man and Woman and then assumes it means, "marriage", he assumes that man and woman mean marriage, however unless it's proven to mean Wife or Husband, he has no argument and killed himself in this debate.