For God so loved Israel, NOT the entire world

“I also wasn't happy with Pro's use of the N word referring to black people, even though Pro used it subtly and may be without poor intentions;” Actually the “N” word is in the Bible, so if it’s in the Bible, it should be a problem with me using it. All nigger means is dark or black. Acts 13:1 Nowe there were in the Church that was at Antioch, certaine Prophets and teachers: as Barnabas, and Simeon that was called Niger, and Lucius of Cyrene, and Manaen, which had bene brought vp with Herod the Tetrarch, and Saul. “But in the New Testament, the definition of Jews has changed.(Romans 2:28:29)” [1] I’d like to make 2 points here. The Most High GOD of Israel does not change. Malachi 3:6 For I am the Lord, I change not: therefore ye sonnes of Iacob are not consumed. The Most High said HE does not change. So why would HE change in the NT and say HE chooses everyone, not just the Israelites? If that was the case GOD would contradict HIMSELF and cause confusion, but The Most High GOD is not the author of confusion (1 Corinthians 14:33). [2] Romans 2:25-27 [25] For Circumcision verily profiteth if thou keepe the Law: but if thou be a breaker of the Law, thy Circumcision is made vncircumcision. [26] Therefore, if the vncircumcision keepe the righteousnesse of the Law, shall not his vncircumcision be counted for Circumcision? [27] And shall not vncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfill the Law, iudge thee, who by the letter, and Circumcision, doest transgresse the Law? So Romans 2:25-27, before Romans 2:28-29, is speaking about those who were and still are under the Law, the only ones who were and still are under the Law is the Israelites. “Rebuttal 2: Pro argues in Amos 3:1-2 and Psalms 83:3-5 that other nations got jealous.” Correction: I argued in Amos 3:1-2 that GOD chose Israel out of all the families on the earth and I argued in Psalms 83:3-5 that the heathen took crafty counsel against us because of their jealousy. “This is irrelevant. Just because the Jews were chosen, Pro must show why this necessitates that God only loved them, and no one else. – I am not GOD, so you’ll have to ask HIM that yourself when HE judges you. “Choice doesn't necessary mean love, it could be a burden. If I choose someone to carry my luggage, does that mean that I love that person, and that person alone?” – Is that how the Bible defines love, as a burden? “This is non-sequitur, and it's Pro's responsibility to show why Israel was the only loved nation.” – Deuteronomy 7:7 The Lord did not set his loue vpon you, nor choose you, because yee were moe in number then any people: for ye were the fewest of all people, – apparently that’s why HE chose us. “If God offered someone everlasting life, that doesn't mean necessarily that He can't offer that everlasting life to others.” This means that you are privately interpreting Scripture. According to John 3:16, “whosoever” is Israel, according to the Precept. Acts 2:21-22 [21] And it shall come to passe, that whosoeuer shall call on the Name of the Lord, shalbe saued. [22] Yee men of Israel, heare these words, Iesus of Nazareth, a man approued of God among you, by miracles, wonders, and signes, which God did by him in the midst of you, as yee your selues also know: "I will also make you a light for the Gentiles, that my salvation may reach to the ends of the earth" Isaiah 49:6” If Isaiah 49:6 is read entirely, not just the part that speaks of the “Gentiles”, you will notice that it tells you who the Gentiles are. Isaiah 49:6 And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my seruant to raise vp the tribes of Iacob, and to restore the preserued of Israel: I will also giue thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my saluation, vnto the end of the earth. If you read my previous argument CON about the Northern Kingdom of Israel being considered Gentiles and why they were considered Gentiles, you would be able to understand that the Gentiles are the Israelites, not the heathen Gentiles. John 7:35 Then saide the Iewes among themselues, Whither will hee goe, that we shall not find him? will he goe vnto the dispersed among the Gentiles, and teach the Gentiles? If the “Gentiles” are the non-Israelites, why would Christ go and teach a scattered people that are among the Gentiles? “This argument is irrelevant. Just because Jesus spoke to a Jew, and not the "whole world" doesn't mean that God only loved Israel. This is non sequitur and I ask the reader to dismiss this argument.” No Scripture for this argument? If you had a note on your fridge that says, “whoever wants a pop get one” does that mean ANYONE outside of your home can get a pop? No, you are leaving that note to those who reside inside your home, you’re not talking to the whole world. So if Jesus was talking to Nicodemus, along with the rest of the Jews, how is that the whole world? “But this argument is invalid. The Old Testament is filled with signs and prophecies that were mentioned again in the New Testament [2]. These signs are very allegorical. It doesn't necessitate that every aspect of the reference is also true for what's referencing it. This is important. I will show you an example to illustrate this. In Matthew 12:40, the Bible shows how Jonah's 3 days in the belly of the whale is an example for Jesus 3 days in the tomb. That doesn't mean that every aspect of these two events is the same! Jonah was running away from God's command [3], while Jesus didn't and was expecting His death [4].” This argument/refute violates rule # 2. Challenger MUST use the Bible ONLY as evidence.Violating the rules will cause you CON to automatically lose this debate. “I've already demonstrated that the definition of Jews and Israel has changed with the coming of Jesus.” If this is true, then what you’re saying is that GOD changes, which is contrary to what HE says in Malachi 3:6. As I mentioned in R2, everything that the OT says, is quoted in the NT. When something is quoted, the meaning of what is quoted does not change. It may be worded in a different way, but the meaning is still the same. “"For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." Romans 9:6.” Romans 9:7 Neither because they are the seed of Abraham are they all children: but in Isaac shall thy seed be called. Rebuttal for a) and b) I’m not sure if PRO read my refutations in R3 but I stated that the Gentiles are the Israelites; I gave some Scriptures to show that the Israelites have been scattered among the heathen and the Northern Kingdom was grafted in to being called Gentiles because they followed the customs of the heathen. And as I mentioned earlier, why would Christ go and teach the dispersed among the Gentiles (John 7:35) if He came to save all Gentiles? "Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth […] you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far awayhave been brought near by the blood of Christ." Ephesians 2:11-13” And again CON, if you read my previous argument in R3, you’ll understand why the Northern Kingdom was considered Gentiles. And again, if Christ came also for the heathen Gentiles, why would He teach the dispersed Gentiles (John 7:35) among the heathen Gentiles? Rebuttal for: Romans 11:11; 1 Peter 2:10 – Again, these scriptures go back to the Northern Kingdom of Israel being grafted in as Gentiles as I continue mentioning and as mentioned in R3. “But this has changed in the New Testament.” What CON fails to realize with this statement is that he saying that GOD changes when GOD clearly says, “I change not” – Malachi 3:6, also, he fails to realize that the NT is quoted from the OT, which means that what was said in the OT is repeated in the NT, nothing new. “c) This verse shows that no one will be saved by their work alone "…no one will be declared righteous in God’s sight by the works of the law…", but rather by grace "…all are justified freely by his grace …" This supports my argument that the law of Moses is not required for salvation, but "by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus".” This is going off topic, we are not speaking of the Laws; all I stated was that the Israelites were and still are under the Law of Moses, except for animal sacrifice. “"Understand, then, that those who have faith are children of Abraham. 8 Scripture foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith" Galatians 3:7-8” What CON fails to realize here is that every nation of people have enslaved the Israelites. Every nation took part in our slavery, the Transatlantic Slave Trade. So because every other nation has cursed us, they shall be cursed as Genesis 12:3 says. GOD loves Israel so much, that HE gave repentance to Israel. Acts 5:31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to bee a Prince and a Sauiour, for to giue repentance to Israel, and forgiuenesse of sinnes. As I mentioned several times, the OT is quoted in the NT, there is nothing new quoted. Quote: repeat or copy out (a group of words from a text or speech), typically with an indication that one is not the original author or speaker. I ask CON this question. If GOD loves everybody, why does HE hate? Romans 9:13 As it is written, Iacob haue I loued, but Esau haue I hated. Jacob is Israel. As it is written means that this was written before, in Malachi 1:3. Hate is not love, so why does GOD hate if HE loves everyone? Reader: I’d like you to keep in mind that what I have posted, is all coming from the Bible, not my own private interpretation.