The Christian gender roles set up in the NT are contrary to the OT:

I shall now rebuttal my opponents attack. First, my opponent took what I said out of context. He put in bold "The husband receives revelation" and argued in a way that I said only men can receive revelation. That is not true. Women, like Deborah, can have the gift of prophecy and revelation. But even though Deborah was an amazing women, she wasn't the prophet. Moses prayed, "would God that all the Lord's people were prophets, and that the Lord would put his spirit upon them!" (Num. 11:29). "for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy" (Rev. 19:10). Thus, a woman who had an abundance of the special gift of the spirit, prophecy and testimony may have been referred to as a prophetess. The word prophetess has more depth, but i'll leave that to another debate and stick to this topic. So since she wasn't the prophet at the time, she couldn't receive revelation for Israel. I never said women can't receive revelation. They can receive revelation for their children, for councils that they are in, and themselves. Men and women can only receive revelation for people under their jurisdiction, like family members or members in a quorum. For example, I can't say I received revelation that my opponent is lame, because he is not under my jurisdiction to receive revelation for. He obviously isn't lame either. But I won't go too far into revelation, we can save that for another debate. But the main point of this is: Women can receive revelation also. 1st Corinthians 14:34: Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. This verse sounds terrible doesn't it? How could the apostle Paul say such a thing? Well this might be what people think when they first see this verse. But what they don't see is the background of the verse. Why did Paul say that? Well here is why: It is difficult to know the intent of Paul"s counsel in 1 Corinthians 14:34"35 without knowing the actual question or circumstances that prompted it. From Paul"s teachings earlier in this same epistle, it is clear that he did not forbid women from speaking in church meetings (see 1 Corinthians 11:5). Paul also reminded both men and women to be silent during meetings when others were speaking (see 1 Corinthians 14:28, 30). So why? Well looking at early Christian Church history and this chapter, we can assume the possibility that Paul was trying to correct a situation in which some Corinthian women were either being disorderly during worship services or seeking to take the lead from priesthood leaders. Women and men should never try to usurp priesthood leadership in the church whom are not called to preside. 1st Corinthians 14:34 does look pretty bad all by its self. But if you look at the entire picture (the chapter, background, and history), you can see that the apostle Paul wan't trying to demean women in the church. Paul was chastising those who were disrupting church services. Also "Do whatever Sarah tells you" isn't an official law, but everyone should know that listening to your mothers and wives is important. Husband and wife should listen and learn from each other. Children should listen to the teachings of their mother. Ha and men can admit that their wives and mothers are often right in their teachings, whether they like it or not.;) haha. Altogether, this is an important part in creating a strong family. My opponent hasn't supplied a solid burden of proof. I would like to ask him why the Christian version of gender roles are contrary to the Tanakh, or the Old Testament. I would like to thank you for your time and I strongly urge you to vote for the negative side of this debate. Sources: https://www.lds.org... http://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org... https://www.google.com...