Corruption of Bible

Ok that was quick reply, lets analyse the case..Con - "this is why the new testament was not written in Hebrewhttp://www.ntgreek.org...; Me - first it trying to explain why NT isnt in greek, and claiming that the desiples and Jesus himself spoke greek. according to mainstream scholarship they didnt speak greek. their language was Aramaic or maybe Hebrow. obviously they were jews.Con -bible book dates http://carm.org...;Me - this list gives us dates and authers evey book in the bible. but the problem is its according to tradition, if we analyse one by one we find that we actually dont know the authors of many books. for example who was Mark? Luke? John or Mattew? (if these names was their real name) because of that the writers put "according to" not "of" or "by"Example:(Matthew 9:9)"And as Jesus passed forth thence, HE (JESUS) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and HE (JESUS) saith unto HIM(MATTHEW), follow ME (JESUS) And HE(MATTHEW) arose, and follwed HIM (JESUS)." the passage is in the third person writing from hearsay. if mattew wrote it he would say ("HE (JESUS) saw ME, Matthew,sitting at the receipt of custom: and HE (JESUS) saith unto ME...) - in first person.Con - Moses did write the first 5 bookshttp://www.letusreason.org......Me - The same goes to Moses In the first five books of the Bible, there are more than 700 statements that indecate Moses didnt write it or God. its in the thied person somebody writting about them. in the link you gave you can see clearly:"Exodus 34:27-28 Then the LORD said to Moses, “Write these words, for according to the tenor of these words I have made a covenant with you and with Israel.” So he was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights;..."its clear that these are NEITHER the Words of God NOR of Moses. if the lord spoke this he would say " I said to Moses" the same for Moses. its third person writing. if Moses wrote the first 5 books how he can wrote this one: "So Moses ... DIED ... And he (God Almighty) BURIED HIM (Moses) ... he was 120 years old when he DIED ... And there arose not a prophet SINCE in Israel like unto Moses ..." (Deut. 34:5-10) ? Con- "Obituary was added after Moses death, this in no way proves that he didn't have a hand in writing it as you have stated. Also just because it is not written in the first person does not alter the fact that Moses could have just written it in the third person for example.http://www.answersingenesis.org...;ME -If it was added after Moses death, it shouldnt be there. have you seen one writing a letter to somebody in the third person?About the discrepancies:the problem is you have 5000+ manuscript and each one differs from another. how do you what is Originally said? who is right? its true that its about minor differences but we have some more problems:1 - The copies we have are written hundreds of years after Jesus (94% from 9th century)so if the majoraty comes after 800 years how do sure thats came in before that? , from the 1th century there is none. from the 2th century you got only a small piece, 3th and 4th comes more few. so if we dont have originals how do we know how many changes occured and how the original looks like? 2 - the authers are anonymous, we dont know who wrote them, how when where and why. the names the tradition gives us are an assumptions. nobody knows who are they in the first place.3 - the problem of Plagiarism. why Matthew and Luke reproduce 85% of Marks text, why and how two different authors write the same work word for word? it doesnt make sense. there is Q theory or Q source - The Gospels of Matthew and Luke were written independently, each using Mark and a second hypotheticaldocument called "Q" as a source. Q was conceived as the most likely explanation behind the common material (mostly sayings) found in the Gospel of Matthew and the Gospel of Luke but not in Mark.https://encrypted-tbn2.gstatic.com...4 - today there are some versions of the bible like the protastent/catholics/Eastern Orthodox... who is right? Con - I'm sure that we could find scholars that say that they have changed and scholars that say that they haven't.Me - its unanimously agreed that the originals are changed. slightly or greatly. we dont have the originals. Anyway you mention the KJV (King James Version), Ok lets debate on this one.