Is The Old Covenant Binding Upon the Church

I will restate and clarify, If you believe the old covenant is "no longer binding to the church today", then you call the prophets false. Much of scripture I presented in my opening argument proves this, It is mostly end time prophecy, and is all related to the "old covenant" and laws of Moses, read them again. You contradict yourself, if you believe the mosaic covenant is no longer binding then you, in turn, are claiming the old covenant is done away with. You are twisting words to omit the fact that you cannot deny the prophecies indicating the mosaic covenants part in the end of days and new millennium, read my opening argument again. The law of God is liberty and freedom according to psalm 119:45, James 1:25, 2:12. The law of god cannot not be bondage and liberty at the same time. Paul calls the law Holy, just, and good(romans 7:1) Paul delights in the law according to the inward man(rom. 7:22) This means Paul must be talking about the law of sin and death as bondage in Galations. Paul makes a clear distinction of the two in Rom. 7:22,23. And my opponent is mistaken, other covenants given had a responsibility for each party, a condition. They come in the form of Yahweh saying, "you will do this and I will do this". Read the next scripts carefully and see.--Noah--Gen 6:18, 19, 22:5. Abraham--Gen 17:1-14. And the new covenant has the condition of faith as you stated, and we know that "works" is a part of faith as said in James, in fact "faith without works cannot save you"-James 2:14. Now what are the "works"? consider James 2:8- "If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself, you do well" Many do not realize that, at this time, the NT was not in the "scripture". He was referring to the Torah- Lev. 19:18. This was not new commandment, Yeshua taught us to keep the commandments of God. All those with faith in Yeshua are free from the law of sin and death, however, only under the condition you exercise the faith given you, without faith, you are still under the curse of the law of sin and death (eternal lake of fire). I assure you this covenant is no less conditional then any other. Righteousness does not come from the law. It comes from faith. faith produces righteousness inwardly(rom.4:5)(believing) and outwardly(rom.1:5,16:26)(obedience/works) read Matth. 23. whitewashed tombs Yeshua called them!! outwardly righteous but inwardly dead if you will. you can follow the law without faith and therefore attempt righteousness on your own, without faith, taking God out of the equation.(this is what Paul and Yeshua was against. Consider this; Rom. 9:31-32- but Israel, pursuing the law of righteousness, has not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Why? Because they did not seek it by faith, but as it were, by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumbling stone. According to Rom. 3:31, the law is established by faith. Rom. 2:13-(for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified. We must use scripture to define sin, not made up unbiblical terms such as "moral law"(I don't know if you've ever noticed but different Christians have different "morals". what does scripture say sin is!? 1john5:17 says all unrighteousness is sin.(I've already defined righteousness for you). Rom.3:20 says by the law is the knowledge of sin. Romans 5:13--Sin is not imputed where there is no law. 1john 3:4 literally defines sin as lawlessness.(or transgression of Gods law, does not negate the purpose of "law' in this text). Therefore, biblically, if there is no law, there is no way to define sin. What is left is "moral law", a philosophical term that can and does change often according to the individual. Romans 2:14,15-14 for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them). Your interpretation of these verses contradicts Rom. 7:7 which states paul would not have known "do not covet" if not for the law. therefore, there must be an interpretation of the "law written on there hearts" that does NOT contradict scripture. We know that king David had the law written on his heart(psalm 37:3, 40:8, 119:34) But yet He meditated on the law day and night!? psalm 1:2, 119:97. We are told to "study" in 2Tim.2:15.(what did they study back then!? there was no NT yet!?) Read about the Bareans in Acts 17:11- These were more fair-minded than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness, and searched the Scriptures daily to find out whether these things were so.(no NT, they studied the Torah!!) If they simply went off the law written on there hearts what was the need to study torah!? I believe the law is written our hearts yes, but not all at once, but in progressive form as we study and read and meditate. Verse by verse, precept upon precept-Isaiah 8:10. This interpretation contradicts NO scripture. My utilization of Amos 3:7 is not faulty, you simply don't understand what the "mystery of the Gospel" is. I will teach you what the mystery of the gospel is, and I will start from the beginning, PLEASE TAKE HEED AND STUDY THIS FOR YOURSELF: According to Jeremiah 11:15-17, the olive tree is Israel and Judah. The "jews" are only comprised of the tribe of Judah and Benjamin. The other ten tribes were given a certificate of divorce-Jer. 3:8. At that point they were no longer His people.-Hosea 1:8. they were now the "lost, scattered sheep"--jer.50:6, Ezek. 34:6, 11-12. These scriptures prophecy the messiah gathering the lost sheep. Read them in context and you will find it is specifically to the tribe of Ephraim,(sometimes called Israel) so called because the ten tribes were given to an ephraimite in 1 kings 11:26-33. they are now scattered among the nations and by definition "GENTILES" Now, Ezek. 34:15 and Micah 2:12 show that Yahweh wanted to remarry those he divorced. But Our gracious loving father could not remarry his lost sheep because the adultery they had committed. It was against his own law!! Deut. 24:4, Ezek 20:43, Hosea 4:17, Hosea 5:11, Hosea 6:10, Hosea 8:9. The only way he could remarry an adulteress woman is if the husband and wife died!!!!!....THIS brother, is the mystery of the gospel. The jews did not know how Yahweh could "restore" Israel because they knew full well that His law prevented Him from remarrying them.. The death and resurrection, therefore IS THE MYSTERY OF THE GOSPEL. I will end this debate with a series of provocative questions that I challenge anyone to answer, and see how well you can answer these questions without scriptural contradiction. The law of God is perfect-psalm 19:7.. can what is perfect be "made better"? (according to interpretations of Hebrews it can). If we have been "freed" from the law of god....Why does James 1:25, psalm119:44,45 say the law of God IS freedom!?psalm 119:143- states the Law is truth.... Did Yeshua's death and resurrection cause the truth to change!? Sabbath=forever--lev.16:31, covenant=forever--1 chron.16:15, law=forever--psalm 119:160, Word=forever--40:8.....When did forever become temporary!? Does this mean eternal life can become temporary too!? Rev 22:14 says blessed are those who do His commandments.....Was John ignorant of Pauls "new gospel"? psalms 1:2,119:70,77,92,174 &Rom.7:22 says we are to delight in the law of God.....Are we now supposed to consider it bondage!? If we are told to walk in Gods law- deut.10:11-13, and Yeshua walked Gods law And we are supposed to follow Yeshua's example 1john2:5,6, 1cor.11:1......WHY DON'T WE!?