The omniscience of God has been poorly defined by the Christian community.

I accept this challenge. First I would like to thank my Lord and Savior Jesus Christ as well as thank my opponent for starting this debate. I will show that the omniscience of God has been accurately defined by Christians. I wish that we were able to use more sources than just the bible and quotes from the church fathers, but I will respectfully honor my opponents request. I would like to remind the voters and readers that my opponent has the BOP to show that God is not omniscient as she stated as the resolution in the first round. My opponent has also asked that the first round be used for acceptance and opening arguments. That being said, I will only make my case that God is all knowing and will wait until the second and third rounds to address my opponents claims. Since our sources are narrowed down to essentially the bible, let's take a look at what it says about the omniscience of God. "Do you know how the clouds hang poised, those wonders of him who has perfect knowledge?" [1] "Great is our Lord and mighty in power; his understanding has no limit." [2] "This is how we know that we belong to the truth and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence: If our hearts condemn us, we know that God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything." [3] "Before a word is on my tongue you, Lord, know it completely." [4] We can see from these verses that the doctrine of Gods omniscience is fully supported by scripture. The next thing I want to look at is: does omniscience become logically contradictory when we look at the other attributes of God? Now the fatalist would say that if God foreknows what we are going to do, when it comes to the time to make the decision, we are not free to do anything else because God cannot be wrong and since he has known for eternity that we were going to do it, we are faded to do it. However theological fatalism wrongly assumes this argument: P1: That necessarily if God foreknows X then X will happen P2: God foreknows X C: Therefore, necessarily X will happen And from this we get if X happens necessarily, it means it is not free. This is the result of a logical fallacy. From the two premises we do not logically get the conclusion. All that follows is that "X will happen, but not necessarily." It could fail to happen, but if it were to fail to happen than God would have foreknown something different. Essentially, by our actions, we have the ability to in a sense determine what God will have believed in the past. William Lane Craig often compares Gods knowledge to an infallible barometer. The barometer never fails, but clearly the barometer doesn't determine the weather. If the weather were different than the barometer would have been different. The essence of the argument is this: our actions are logically prior to what God foreknows, but his foreknowledge is chronologically prior to our actions. The next thing I want to look at is: Is Gods omniscience logically contradictory to evil? I will keep this part short because I don't think it will take much justification. Just because God knows evil will happen, does not mean he is the cause of the evil. I think this is demonstrated in the above paragraph. Furthermore, it could be the case that God has morally justifiable reasons for permitting evil. It is actually impossible for us to know that there are unjustified evils due to our epistemological limitations. Thank you and I look forward to hearing my opponents next round arguments. [1] Job 37:16 [2] Psalm 147:5 [3] 1 John 3:19-20 [4] Psalm 139:4