Male Homosexuality is a Mental Illness

You have not done any of the things I asked of you or answered any of my questions. As Mindjob correctly wasted no time pointing out, you also provided no proof for any of your statements. I guess that leaves me the burden of providing all the sound information myself... you seem to be beneficial to no one. It was 1973 that they officially removed homosexuality from all lists defining it as a mental illness(1). However, it was 1950 that Dr. Evelyn Hooker had already proven any mental disability to be a myth(2) and Sigmund Freud wrote in 1905 how he, too – found it to be of no disability(3). Before these times and the advancements of psychological studies, what was known to be true was merely popular opinion motivated by the ignorance of the masses. Only in a sandwiched small period of time was that true, though – because there is overwhelming evidence that in ancient times homosexual relationships were considered the societal norm. (4) 1. http://www.narth.com... 2. http://www.psychologymatters.org... 3. http://psychology.ucdavis.edu... 4. http://www.buzzle.com... Gay sex is no more dangerous than any other form of sex if practiced safely. This is common sense and it's too bad you seem to be employing a lack of that in thinking that no gay male would ever be interested in practicing safely. If you refer to my second link up above, you will see that there is no difference between a heterosexual and homosexual male when it comes to their intellect and all other psychological competence. This proves your theory that gay males are somehow rapist monsters that would run around naked for convenience if they could is as ridiculous as your personal competence level seems to be. I agree that if you're having random sex with people you may be a danger to yourself and others, but that has nothing to do with male homosexuality. Let's stay on subject. In trying to do that, it would also rule out gender confused individuals who may later become transsexuals. That is a whole other debate in which I'm sure I'd run into just as much nonsense... And, where is your proof that anything is penetrating any school? Not only does it not make sense the way you typed that, it's a completely backless claim. Also, what you think may or may not make a certain person happy is not withstanding. I have yet another link for you published by the American Psychological Association; they found in their study that same-sex couples are just as committed and happy as heterosexual couples... Although, this too I find to be pretty self-evident. http://ukpress.google.com... I'm going to wrap this up, so lastly I will address your belief that most gay men seem to be pedophiles. I'm finding this to be a complicated matter because it seems statistics are easily manipulated and unreliable in the first place when it comes to sexual abuse and molestation. I'm finding that to even understand what the more accurate statistics mean, you need a basic understanding of the psychology of pedophiles. "A psychological profile of pedophilia escapes development because perpetrators appear to constitute a heterogenous group. However, some common characteristics prevail among both pedophiles and child molesters. The great majority of pedophiles are male, and they may be heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual in orientation. Preference for children as sex partners may not be exclusive, and more often than not, pedophiles have no gender preference in prepubescent children." http://findarticles.com... And: "Using the fixated-regressed distinction, Groth and Birnbaum (1978) studied 175 adult males who were convicted in Massachusetts of sexual assault against a child. None of the men had an exclusively homosexual adult sexual orientation. 83 (47%) were classified as "fixated;" 70 others (40%) were classified as regressed adult heterosexuals; the remaining 22 (13%) were classified as regressed adult bisexuals. Of the last group, Groth and Birnbaum observed that "in their adult relationships they engaged in sex on occasion with men as well as with women. However, in no case did this attraction to men exceed their preference for women....*There were no men who were primarily sexually attracted to other adult males*..." (p.180)." http://psychology.ucdavis.edu... I hope this clarifies some things for you, Solerman – and maybe in your next reply you'll address at least one thing I've said. (PS, The fall of Rome was due in large part to the fact that the ruling body was spread too thin. The other major factors include: Depleting finances, rise of Christianity, Germanic invasion, military depletion, divisions of the empire and civil war.)