The Accused is going to Hell (For Rejecting Catholic Mariology)

On the Relics of the SaintsDespite of the fact that the Scriptures never commands us to honor relics, I agree that a relic of a saint may be honored if it is God's will (James 4:15).Where does this practice came from? The practice of honoring a relic came from the church's reading of the scriptures in the second century:Matthew 9:20-22 Jesus' Clothes Cure DiseaseActs 19:11-12 Hankerchiefs touched by Paul cure diesase2 Kings 13:21 Bones of Elisha Raise the DeadWhat is the motive of a person who honors relics?If honoring relics is a means to worship the Trinity then this is unbiblical because it is written " those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth" ( John 4:2). Unbiblical practice of Roman Catholicism related to honoring relics- asking saints in heaven to pray for saints on earth- bowing to and kissing of the relicOn Mary as the New ArkI agree that Mary is a type of the Ark (2 Samuel 6:1-12; Luke 1:39-56). She conceived within her the Word of God, the Bread of Life ( John 1:14; 6:35).Premise 1: Mary is the Ark of the New CovenantPremise 2: The Ark is of corruptible nature.Coclusion: MAry is of corruptible nature.Note:Hippolytus of Rome in the 2nd century had an error about the Ark of the New Covenant typology. His theological opinion that Mary is the Ark which is "of incorruptible nature" contradicts the Scriptural data about the Ark of God. Augustine rejects the idea that Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant which shows that it is not universally accepted in the early church.The Ark is not made of incorruptible wood per se in the sense of " unable to destroy or breakdown". The LXX renders " acacia" wood of Hebrew scripture as " incorruptible" in the sense of its " lastingness" because we know that acacia trees .won't last for all eternity.Hence, my argument about Mary as the NT Ark who is contaminated with original sin stands.How could Mary contain within her the Holy God?For with God nothing shall be impossible ( Luke 1:37). It is through the hypostatic Union and virgin birth. Jesus "became in the likeness of men, was sent in the likeness of the flesh of sin" ( Romans 8:2-3, Philippians 2:7-8).The original sin is passed through the fertilization of a female human egg with a male human sperm which are both contaminated with the original sin. Jesus has his human nature not from Adam's infected nature but from the power of the Holy Spirit ( Luke 1:35). In what sense was the "Ark" Holy? It can't mean in the sense of substance because the entire creation is cursed ( Genesis 3). Hence, those are Holy in subjective sense only. The term holiness should be qualified as " to set apart, sacred" to avoid nuances.keness of the flesh of sin" ( Romans 8:2-3, Philippians 2:7-8).The original sin is passed through the fertilization of a female human egg with a male human sperm which are both contaminated with the original sin. Jesus has his human nature not from Adam's infected nature but from the power of the Holy Spirit ( Luke 1:35).The Ark of the Covenant in the Old Testament is made of cursed materials (Rom. 8:22) but still, it is considered " sacred or set apart" because it contains " divine stuffs" related to YHWH.On the original sin of MaryScriptural evidence # 1: Romans 8:3Jesus experienced the consequences of the original sin. Why? It is because he was " sent in the likeness of sinful flesh" ( Romans 8:3). If Mary is not infected with O.S. then Jesus can't experience pain and death.According to church fathers (i.e. Augustine and Ambrose to name a few) original sin is passed on via male progenitor and female progenitor both who are infected with sin.Jesus did not inherit original sin because his flesh is not made of both male and female progenitors of sinful nature but only of Mary.Mary's original sin was not passed on her offspring because Mary's egg wasn't fertilised by a sperm cell of a Male progenitor with original sin.Philippians 2:6 said that the Son became in the likeness of men. Why likeness? It is because he is not infected with original sin.Romans 8:3 says that God sent his own Son in the likeness of the flesh of sin.Mary has " the flesh of sin" ( i.e. She's infected with original sin). Jesus is the "likeness" of the flesh of sin. Therefore, he could experience the effects of sin ( i.e human pain and human death) without having the original sin.Premise 1: Jesus is in the likeness of the flesh of sin.Premise 2: Mary is Jesus' motherConclusion: Mary has the flesh of sin and Jesus is her likeness.I only concurred with one definition of the word "likeness" which according to scriptural context is "similarity". The Son "became similar to men" (Philippians 2:6). In what way did he become similar to men? Context implies that he became similar to men regarding the "effects of original sin" which is human pain and human death ("death on a cross. Philippians 2:8)Romans 8:6 is explicit too. It says that the Son was sent by God "similar to the flesh of sin".If Mary is not infected with original sin then how could Jesus experience human pain and death?Premise 1: Only humans with original sin could experience pain and death (Genesis 3).Premise 2: Mary has original sin (Romans 8:3).Premise 3: Mary got pregnant without a sperm with original sin (Matthew 1:21).Conclusion: Mary"s offspring could experience pain and death without having original sin (1 Peter 3:18).Scriptural evidence # 2: Luke 1:28I believe that Mary is perpetually full of grace. Full means she doesn't lack any grace. Grace means undeserved kindness. Hence, Mary " doesn't lack any undeserved kindness " from the Holy Trinity. But this led to the question of WHAT are those graces given to her? St. Luke didn't specify it. He just recorded Gabriel's greeting: kecharitomene.The autographa reads literally as:Greetings! You who have been graced!Vulgate is not literal translation of kecharitomene but a dynamic equivalence.Kecharitomene is not a title in Greek.Charito in kecharitomene is a VERB ( past participle).The Latin Vulgate translates it as NOUN whereas the english translation of latin vulgate is " full of grace" ( a noun also not a verb like what St. Luke originally wrote).Full of Grace in itself came from the Latin Vulgate not from the Greek MSS.kecharitomene is the Greek word found in Luke 1:26 and it is used by the church in Rome for proof about the dogma of the Immaculate Conception. To find out if this is plausible let's have a little grammar of the said word:ke- present perfect tense ( an action happened in the past that continues up to the present time).charito- grace, undeserve kindnessmene-passive participle( Mary Receiver not giver of grace)The Greek literally means " You have been graced".Mary has received grace from God both in the past and in the present. What she has received in the past is just continuing to be in her possession at Gabriel"s greeting. Hence, she is complete of grace at the time of the Annuniciation.In the Vulgate, Luke 1:28 says that Mary is "full of grace" and according to the Scriptures, only sinners are given grace.Grace means "undeserved kindness" .The Holy Angels can't be given grace because they are elected by God according to their works ( 1 Tim. 5:21).The Saints are given grace because they are elected by God not according to their works but according to God's grace ( Romans 11:5).Premise 1: Mary is given gracePremise 2: grace is given only to sinnersConclusion: Mary is a sinner