Resolved: It is logically impossible for the Judeo-Christian Conception of God to Exist.

Before I begin the attack on my opponent's argument I would like to first give the attributes the God in question has. Christians and Jews alike both hold God is a Supreme Being, Eternal, an omnipotent (all-powerful), omnipresent (all-present), and omniscient (all-knowing). (As well as a slew of other attributes which, for the time being, are quite irrelevant). Omniscience, by definition, is to know all things eternally. My opponent argues "it would have been impossible for God to create anything without any prior conception of it. " But, she never provides any proof for why God could not have had any prior conception of it. She cites Genesis in saying "God thought it was good". But, why can an entity not see something is good and also have prior knowledge of the said thing? Simply stating, God caused X to happen then said "it was good" does not mean God had no knowledge of X before God said Y. The timeless God My opponent's logic attacks a God which is omnipotent but, not omniscient and eternal. God is totally omniscient in that he knows all which can be known by Him and God exists outside of time. Omniscience, by definition, is to know all thing's eternally. You see, the biblical God was planning "before time began" (2 Timothy 1:9) and "before the creation of the world" (Ephesians 1:4). The biblical God predates time, and must have existed in a timeless reality. Therefore, it is completely evident that the biblical God is not bound to the restraints of time (Job 24:1). Since He 1) existed before time and 2) is able to manipulate time (Isaiah 38:8); God has the capacity and does know all, He knows all that did not occur, did occur, is not occurring, is occurring, will not occur, and will occur all outside the scope of time. God conceived the universe's existence before the universe was in existence because he knows what will occur (the universe). God had knowledge He would create the universe before He created the universe. God had a conception of the universe before the universe was in existence therefore, He could have created the universe. Basically, God knows everything all that occurred and will occur. God knows what He will do before He does it. "For most types of knowledge, the senses play a major role in the acquisition. Our ability to read the written word or to be able to look at things around us really does help us to learn. " The problem is, God does not have to learn anything, He knows all. Pro uses the analogy of thinking of an apple but, by definition, the biblical God already could conceive this apple before the apple was in existence. Furthermore, the biblical God does not have "senses" as senses are physiological (1) while God is not physical, rather spirit. (2) But, if God had to have senses to have knowledge God could not be omniscient. By definition of God, God has all knowledge. Since, God knows all, what has been created and what will be created. God could create the universe because He had a conception of the universe before the universe existed. The omnipresent God By definition God is omnipresent. This basically means, nothing is hidden from God. He exists in all dimensions, all time, and in every form whether thought, action, or substance. God exists within time and outside of time. Since God is omnipresent He encompasses all that exists, all which does not exist, and all that has the potential to exist. Since God exists in all places and non places, God knows everything. Existing in all times and non-times means God, to reiterate, already had a conception of the universe before creating the universe. To conclude, this section, my opponent's case rests upon a god which does not have omniscience. The God of the Bible is omniscient; He knows well everything which would include the universe before the universe was in existence. God has no physical senses, yet posses all knowledge. By having all knowledge God has preconceived the universe. Source: 1. . http://en.wikipedia.org...