Oneness Doctrine ver Trinity Doctrine

As I have mention before, the Bible was written in both literal and figurative speech. If you read it all from a literal point of view, you will miss some very important detail. My friend, In Genesis 1:26 where the term " us " is use, God is referring to himself. It is known as a nominative pronoun singular, and it relates to no object or receiver, making it intransitive and not transitive. In other words, it is an informal term meaning " me. " Remember, the Bible was translated from both Hebrew and Greek to old English, so you have to go back to find out what those words meant back then, and not use them as they are being used today. The one speaking is the same one carrying out the action. In verse 27 of the same chapter, the Bible went on to say that God created man in his own image. Question? Why was the personal pronoun singular " his " used, and not the plural pronoun " they " if they are three? Let me answer that question for you. Go back to Genesis chapter 1 where it say in the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. Who is this God? No proper names was given during this dispensation period, only titles, so let's cross reference this chapter with John chapter 1:10. He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Again, personal pronoun " him " being use here, and not the plural " them. " Do you want me to tell you who that " him " was? It was Jesus my friend. He is the one that created all things, and the same one that died for you and me. Again, since he did all these things? What did the other two did according to your understanding of three? You must look at scripture with precise detail if you really want to understand what is being said. The word Eloheem truly is plural in it's since, but when ever they is a plural, they is also a singular, and that singular word is Eloah, meaning a deity or the deity. Since we all know that Jesus Christ is all deity, the word Eloheem speaks of his attributes and his magistrates. So where ever you see the word " God, " meaning Eloheem at some times in scripture, it simply speaks of him in character and magistrates. Jesus the Father: Isaiah 9:6. I'm not going to write the text here, but if you read it carefully, you will see Isaiah prophetically speaking about the Messiah, and mentioned about him being the Everlasting Father. More scripture: Isaiah 63:16, Isaiah 64:8. Isaiah 43: 3-7-10, Isaiah 44:6-8-24, Isaiah 45:5. I could go on and on, but these other scriptures here are simply speaking about who Jesus is, because he is God all by himself. A man being a father, a son, and an uncle, doesn't make him three distinct individuals. He just operate differently under these roles. When Jesus walked the face of the earth as a man, he was 100% human and yet still 100% Deity. Did that make him two distinct individuals? No! When he prayed, he prayed as a man to the one dwelling within him. That one being the Holy Spirit, and the body of Christ his temple, yet still being not confined.. Oh how I pray that we could be like Jesus. In Matthew 28:19, it speaks about baptizing in then name of, and not the names of. The word " the " that comes before the noun gives information on how the noun is being used, and it's call a determiner.. That's why in Acts 2:38 when Peter preached after the out pouring of the Holy Ghost, he mention water baptism in the name of, and not names of. Jesus being the all in all. The Father of creation, the Son of redemption, and the Holy Spirit of reconciliation. In the book of John 14:10, Jesus speaking as a man, did mention of the father dwelling within him, and doing the works. The flesh of Christ did what the Spirit could not do, and that was to shed blood for mankind that we might be saved. The Spirit through the body of Christ performed the miracles, that's why Christ in his body give glory to the one within him always. He never glorified his flesh, unlike some of us today who like to take the spot light for the things we do. Flesh and blood can never glory in God's presence. My friend, when ever you are studying the scriptures, you must learn to discern when Jesus in the New Testament is speaking as a man, and when he is speaking as Deity. In Genesis 3:22, the key words here are: to know good and evil. According to your understanding, when God said man is become as one of us? Which one of the three here is speaking, and which of the other two gods is he referring the " us " statement to? Remember, the statement is mention, as " one " of us, and not like us. To " know, " is to do or not to do, and since we all know that in the true and living God, there is all good and no evil, he can't be speaking in terms of what you believe. Let me help you out here. When God created lucifer, he was created with all good qualities, but he choose to do evil. Man therefore was created innocent, not knowing no evil, but only good. When the fall of man took place in the Garden of Eden, man therefore then took on the attributes of lucifer to know evil. Having now the obligation to choose between good and evil, the word " as one of us " was used. It's not that God was having a conversation with him, " lucifer " as some believe, but simply making a statement. So my friend, satin is known as the god of this world, so the " us " is refering to the true and living God that is all good, and the dead god that is all evil; yet, still no similarity. Again, refering to how you perceive that chapter and verse, why did God warned Adam to stay away from the tree of good and evil in Genesis 2:17?. Would God warn Adam to stay away from his company of three? Just a question for you. :) Ezekiel 28:11-19 speaks primarly about the fall of the king of Tyrus, but it draws attention to the spirit behine it all. It speaks about pride, and gives information about the creation and fall of lucifer. In Genesis 11:7, God alone is in operation. He confounded the language of the people with the cause of different speaking of tongues due to they disobedience, and alone he did it again according to Acts 2:3-4, due to they obedience. Before I go on to the book of Isaiah 6:8, let me freely say this. Before God uses anyone, he makes a change in they lives first. Here, Isaiah was in a sinful state, and before he could be used by God, he had to see himself in the miserable state he was in, and allow God to make that change in his life. Isaiah 6:5. Then I said, Woe is me! for I am undone; because I am a man of unclean lips; and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips. Like the prophets that were before Isaiah, and those that came after, God's plan was to always use his people, but like I have mention before, they had to be a change in they lives, just like today. After Isaiah's sins were purged, " verse 7 " it was then that God spoke, " whome shall I send, and who will go for us? Refering to himself, and Isaiah. Now seeing Isaiah in the righteous state after his sins were now purged, God pose that question to Isaiah, as a test, but Isaiah willfully responded, Here am I; send me. That question could have been put forward before Isaiah's sins were purged, but God waited for a willing soul to speak to his people. In the fullness of time, the God of the Old Testament robe himself in flesh, and that man was our Lord and Saviour Christ Jesus of the New Testament. 1Timothy 3:16. And without controversy great is the mistery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. Thanks be to God, our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. The mistery have been revealed. Amen.