Muhammad(pbuh) is mention in the Bible

No Biblia Sacra Vulgata? Aww :( Anyhow, on to the debate. It appears that my opponent's case hinges on Liber Deuteronomii. I will address his arguments. First, examine the biblical scripture. As the Biblia Sacra Vulgata says (Deuteronomy 18:18) "(18) prophetam suscitabo eis de medio fratrum suorum similem tui et ponam verba mea in ore eius, loqueturque ad eos omnia, quae praecepero illi." Having done this, I see that my opponent's translation is more or less accurate. I will now address his arguments (for real this time). 1. The Prophet will be like Moses My opponent here cites many random similarities between Muhammad and Moses, in fact I'm surprised he left out that the English versions of their names both start with the letter "M". These similarities are relatively insignificant. For example, I can counter with the following random similarities between Moses and Jesus. a) Moses and Jesus were Israelites b) Moses and Jesus sacrificed great wealth for solidarity with their people (Hebrews 11:25-26 and 2 Corinthians 8:9) c) Moses and Jesus were both hidden for their safety (Exodus 2:2, Matthew 2:13) d) Moses and Jesus were both in exile until the death of a hostile king (Exodus 2:23, Matthew 2:19-20) e) Moses and Jesus were brought up by men who were not their natural fathers (Exodus 2:9-10, Luke 2:33) My opponent and I can keep pointing out similarities, but all in all that would be a waste of effort. Pro needs to show areas of great importance in which Moses and Muhammad were similar. 2. The Awaited Prophet will be from the Brethren of the Jews This alone will not prove anything, as there are so many brethren of the Jews and not all of them can possibly be the awaited prophet. However, if I successfully demonstrate that this could not refer to Muhammad, than the entire prophecy cannot possibly relate to him. I concede that Arabs are the children of Ishmael and the Jews are children of Jacob, even though I see no source for that. That changes nothing. Although I borrowed the title for this section from my opponent (and the opening paragraph uses that title), note that the actual verse does not say that the awaited prophet will come from the bretheren of the Jews. The Biblia Sacra Vulgata states "suscitabo eis de medio fratrum suorum". The trick is in the world "suorum", meaning (according to my rudimentary Latin knowledge) "their". Even my opponent's source concurs with me here. The question now stands "Whose bretheren?" (or, "The bretheren of whom?"). The obvious (and wrong) answer is "the Jews", seeing as that is whom this appears to be about. But where else do we see "fratrum suorum" being used? The Biblia Sacra Vulgata clearly states (Deuteronomy 18:2) "(2) et nihil accipient de possessione fratrum suorum: Dominus enim ipse est hereditas eorum, sicut locutus est illis." Huh. That's odd. Let's look at Deuteronomy again to get some more context (Deuteronomy 18:1) "(1) Non habebunt sacerdotes le vitae, omnis tribus Levi, par tem et hereditatem cum reliquo Israel; de sacrificiis Domini et hereditate eius comedent" Okay, okay, the Levites are special. What does this prove? They are said to receive no inheritance among their bretheren. Their bretheren are stated as being "reliquo Israel". The only logical conclusion that can be drawn from this is that the bretheren being spoken of consist solely of the remaning tribes of Israel. It is only reasonable to assume that the bretheren being spoken of in Deuteronomy 18:18 are the same ones mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:2. This is the most logical conclusion when the scripture is properly examined. Literally the exact same phrase is used, and there is no reason to believe that the sixteen verses in the interim were sufficient to change the meaning to "bretheren of the Jews", especially as most of them concerned the Levites. I remind everyone that Jesus was a Jew. 3. God will put His Words in the mouth of the Awaited Prophet I contend that the similarity between Quran 53:3-4 and Deuteronomy 18:15 is not conclusive. It is not proof that Muhammad has the Words of God in his mouth. Even if one credits it fully, it just says that Muhammad is being inspired, not necessarily that God is putting His Words in in Muhammad's mouth. The Biblia Sacra Vulgata, however, claims that God put His Words in the mouth of Jesus as follows (John 12:49-50) "(8) quia verba, quae dedisti mihi, dedi eis; et ipsi acceperunt et cognoverunt vere quia a te exivi et crediderunt quia tu me misisti." Of particular note is the phrase "verba, quae dedisti mihi" which translates roughly to "the words, which you have given to me". If that's not conclusive, I don't know what is. Conclusion I believe that I have provided substantial evidence preferring Jesus as the fulfillment of the Deuteronomical prophecy my opponent mentioned, or at the very least demonstrating that it could not be Muhammad. *Note that formatting was destroyed by Debate.org*