God does not Consider Homosexuality a Sin

3. "Society is accustomed to accurately guessing what gender people are attracted to. For the most part, people are straight! So the bible talks about men marrying women, but just as mothers talk about their daughters marrying men, this doesn't automatically forbid homosexuality. Furthermore, if God condemns homosexuality, it's reasonable to expect Him to explicitly say so. e.g. Authors write books with exclusively heterosexual characters, but this doesn't imply an author is against homosexuality." Gen. 2:24 is not talking about society is, it's speaking of how God constructed nature to be. Genesis 1-3 explains our purpose as human beings in the world God put us in. I will address the other half of this point later. Thoughts brings up a strong case for homosexuality and because of the insufficient verses in the Hebrew O.T on it, i surrender that, but i will bring up points and questions to make a case for why the Bible doesn't support it: 1. God made everything able to reproduce after it's own kind (Gen. 1) and that includes man and women. Gen. 1:28 "28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth." God created man and woman (Adam's wife) as a model for all of humanity during a marriage. No where in the Bible do we find a homosexual relationship. We always find a relationship between a man and a woman. 2. In the Torah, we always find many laws regarding the marriage between a man and a woman of marriageable age. On to N.T Philo in Greek translations of the Hebrew Bible condemns homosexuality (1). It is futile to attempt to define a word based on it's etymology and thus it's meaning cannot be established (2). The Septuagint of Lev. 20:13 has the exact same word arsenokoites which means "Sexual intercourse" (3). Pro is right in saying it has a sexual meaning. Paul citing Gen. 2:24 in 1 Cor. 6:12-20 shows that he was not restricting sex to male prostitution 1 Cor. 6:9, the Greek word for fornicator meaning pornos (4) while arsenokoits in this passage is used to refer to a sodomite (5). Paul could not have used arsenokoitai to refer to adultery (6). Nor bestiality (7). Nor incest (8). Nor pederasty (9). Paul probably coined the term arsenokoitai himself as it did not exist prior to the Greek language (10). "...God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another..." According to the Greek, orexis is used (11) and it's specifically used to refer to function (12). The Archaeological study Bible NIV (13) notes that homosexuality was widespread in Paul's day. Aristophanes ridiculed homosexuality in his book "Women at the Thesmophoria. Plato also spoke out against homosexuality in his work "Laws." It cannot be certain he restricted himself only to male whores. Rebuttal: I believe Galatians 3:26-28 is taken out of context (because i'm running out of characters, i'll paraphrase) so lets read it in full: v. 1-9 speak of how faith in Jesus and not of works v. 10-14 speaks of Christ redeeming us from the curse of the Law v. 15-18 God's confirmation of the covenant v. 19-25 "19 What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. 20 Now a mediator does not mediate for one only, but God is one. 21 Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. 22 But the Scripture has confined all under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe. 23 But before faith came, we were kept under guard by the law, kept for the faith which would afterward be revealed. 24 Therefore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25 But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor." Here, Paul is basically explaining the purpose of the Law given to the Jews and finally, given to the Gentiles. He's saying that God does not discriminate between man and woman, Jew and Gentile, but that all can come to faith. Sources: 1. David Wright, "Homosexuals or Prostitutes?" VC 38 (1984):129; Robin Scroggs, The New Testament and Homosexuality (Philadelphia: Fortress, 1983), 85-86. 2. See James Barr, The Semantics of Biblical Language (London: Oxford, 1961), 107-10. 3. http://www.blogos.org... 4. ." "`0;a2;`1;_7;_9;`2;." Morwood & Taylor (Eds.), 2002, p. 266." 5." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "adulterer, paramour, general paramour of a sodomite, idolatrous person"); ." An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon, 1889 (defined as "an adulterer, paramour, debaucher"); and ." Strong, 1995/1996, Greek section p. 59, entry 3432 (defined as "Perhaps a primary word; a (male) paramour; figuratively apostate: - adulterer") 6. " A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 7. " A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with one's mother")" A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "one guilty of such incest"); " A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incestuous person"); ." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with one's mother");" A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with a daughter" 8. "_6;_1;`4;`1;_9;^7;^5;_6;^3;^5;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with one's mother"); "_6;_1;`4;`1;_9;^7;^0;_6;_9;`2;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "one guilty of such incest"); "_6;_1;`4;`1;_9;_4;_9;^3;`4;_1;`2;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incestuous person"); "_6;_1;`4;`1;_9;_6;_3;_8;^3;^5;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with one's mother"); "_2;`5;^7;^5;`4;`1;_9;_6;_3;_8;^3;^5;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 (defined as "incest with a daughter") 9. (paiderastM03;s) Glesne, 2004, p. 127; "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^2;`2;." Morwood & Taylor (Eds.), 2002, p. 239; "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^2;`2;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940; "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^1;`9;." Morwood & Taylor (Eds.), 2002, p. 239; "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^1;`9;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940; "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^3;Q13;." Morwood & Taylor (Eds.), 2002, p. 239; & "`0;^5;_3;^8;^9;`1;^5;`3;`4;^3;Q13;." A Greek-English Lexicon, 1940 10. Glesne, 2004, p. 126; "Arsenokoitai, on the other hand, is a word that appears to have no prior history in the Greek language and, as is generally surmised, may have been coined by the apostle himself . . . " (Waetjen, 1996, p. 109); "O36;`1;`3;^9;_7;_9;_4;_9;^3;`4;_1;`2;." An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon, 1889, stating that word was first used in the New Testament; Laymon, 1971, p. 1199, stating that Paul wrote in Koine Greek; "As already shown, there was no Hebrew"or, for that matter, Aramaic"word for homosexuality" (Scroggs, 1983, p. 83); "There was, of course, no precise word in the ancient world in any of the languages - Greek, Syriac, Aramaic or Hebrew - which meant homosexual, substantial proof that the concept of a homosexual or homosexual behavior did not exist" (Spencer, 1995, p. 57); Boswell, 1980, p. 341, stating, "Paul appears to have been the first author to use the word." 11. http://www.blueletterbible.org... 12. Timothy Friberg et al., vol. 4, Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (Baker's Greek New Testament library, Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Books, 2000), 410. 13. http://www.zondervan.com...