The Bible Advocates Slavery

Although Advocate, and Advocation are the same to me, as one is a verb and the other is a noun, much like study and studying, i have no qualms with using the definition used in Round one by my opponent. As for using both the new and old testament, as i have posted in my first round, i thought i would post my second wave of arguments in the next round. As for my opponents definition of Wholly subject, i completely agree. However, I shall show why Leviticus 25 and Exodus 21 were not taken out of context. 1a. Now let me comment on the Sabbath. In the new testament, Matt 12:1 show how Jesus said that working on the sabbath was okay. And then we have Romans 14:5, where Paul is stating that every man has the right to consider working or not on every day. 1b. Now, onto the oppression. Ex 22:21 says nothing about slavery at all. Lev 19:33 talks about Vexing, which is defined as torment or trouble someone. Again, nothing about slavery or the treatment, advocation, or denouncing of slaves. 1c. As for Deut 10:19, again, strangers, not slaves. And so is Lev 25:35 talking about strangers. Lev 19:10 also talks about strangers. And again with Lev 23:22. And again with 1 Kings 8:41-43. 1d.My opponent has made this mistake several times. There is a clear distinction between stranger and Manservent/slave. As seen here(1), there is a clear definition for what a stranger is in the Bible. 1e. As for the commentary on the bible by Scholar Walter Elwell, this is completely irrelevant to the fact that Leviticus 25:45 clearly states that, and i quote: "the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy" No where are the actual strangers selling themselves out as servants. They are selling there children. Clearly my opponent must explain why people in debt, may sell their sons and daughters as slaves. 1f. Now, as for my opponents ridiculous claims of how slaves were viewed differently... This is still slavery. As we said before, someone who is the property of another, is a slave. ========================================================================= Now i shall address my opponents arguments. 2a. "The Bible does not advocate slavery in any way, but merely addresses it. The Bible clearly states in both Testaments that all human beings have certain rights and that everyone is equal in Christ." First off, my opponent has it sort of wrong. Everyone is equal to be saved and enter heaven, through Christ. 1 Timothy 6:1 clearly states that: "Christians who are slaves should give their masters full respect so that the name of God and his teaching will not be shamed." Secondly, placing rules on an action is advocating it. We have agreed at the start of the debate, that the definition of Recommending something as being the following,(to present as worthy of confidence, acceptance, use) is sufficient to prove that the bible is advocating slavery. Now, my million dollar question to my opponent; If a government passes a law that states that we are allowed to kill any black person, freely, is the government telling its people to accept murder as a viable option? 2b. "Exodus 21:16 Slavery is the theft of an individual's sovereignty of will." Actually, no. Exodus 21:16 is talking about stealing a man, and then making him your slave. Nowhere does it state that the slavery of someone is theft on the sovereignty of will. My opponent fails to understand that the laws are not exactly what they seem. The hebrews were very clear on this, stating that they can take slaves through warfare and plunder(2), but not via kidnapping for the specific purpose of slavery(3). 3b. "Deuteronomy 23:15,16" As per the commentary(4), "This is meant of the heathen , who fled because of their masters' cruelty, and embrace the true religion." They were not being returned, not because slavery was wrong, but because the slaves who were running from were cruel and were part of a false religion. 3c. "God cared so much for those in captivity of any kind that he sent his only son, Jesus Christ, to die for their freedom:" Although this borders preaching, nothing in Luke 4:18 mentions anything about slaves. First off, there is no such reason why Jesus wouldnt heal a slave, nor does it mean that healing a slave, means that the slave is no longer a slave. Secondly, coming together with their slaves in brotherhood is fine, but Jesus, as stated above, clearly wants the slaves to properly respect and obey their masters. As seen here: "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not [himself], neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many [stripes]." Luke 12:47 3d. Could you possibly explain why Ephesians 6:9 shows that the lord is condemning Slave traders? 3e. "why would Paul urge a master to accept a servant as a "brother beloved"?" The same way that Jesus told the slave to work even harder for his master, because the slave is helping another believer by his efforts. 3f. Philemon 1:16, again, states nothing about disregarding the fact that the servant is a servant. My arguments end here. Sources: 1. http://www.blueletterbible.org...(In%20the%20Apocrypha%20and%20the%20New%20Testament)&DictID=4 2.http://www.biblegateway.com... 3. http://www.biblegateway.com... 4. http://bible.cc...