The Judeo/Christian God is Truine

I appreciate my opponents response.. I want to start by clarifying my main contentions: 1). Description of the Trinity 2). References of the Trinity in the OT Lets begin with my first contention:1). My opponent attempts to display the Trinity as logically impossible.. He states: My opponent claims that 1=3 and uses a fancy diagram to explain this mathematical flaw. 1=1 and 3=3.This is a common misconception.. again let me reiterate, a being is the "who"a person is the "what"I am a human "being"... That is "what" I am but that is not "who" I am.. Understand? a being and a person is not synonymous. Also.. not being a perfect example.. We see people with borderline personality disorder having multiple "Persons" that manifest in 1 "being" The Trinity is not 1 being = 3 beings.. Or 1 person = 3 persons.. No its 1 being (what) = 3 persons (who's).. Not a logically impossibility at allHe then states: Also God existed before creation ,does that mean that the holy spirit and Jesus existed with him or did he create them?They all existed as God in eternity past, lets look at what John 1:1 says, "In the beginning was the Word (the Son), and the Word was with God (the Father), and the Word was God.2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."So we see that the Son was not created but existed in eternity past with the Father and everything was made through and by Him... He was not created.We also know that God the Spirit existed in eternity past due to Genesis 1:2: The earth was formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters.My opponent continues by saying: "How can God be his own father,his own son and his own spirit and still be one? We see that God the Father, Son and Holy spirit are all equally God (remember 1 being) but 3 persons that fulfill differing roles within the Godhead God the Father sends the Son (John 3:16)God the Son is obedient to God the Father (John 14:28) The Holy Spirit is sent by The Father and the Son (John 14) This is also explained in Philippians 2:6: "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped"This is essentially a form of relational subordination... The three persons perform different roles in regards to salvation and the revelation of Himself. Opponent states: "When Jesus says I and the father are one,does that mean the son is the father? And hence it is not a Trinity but a duo? Or doesn't it imply that they are one in the sense that Jesus follows what he is commanded to do John 17:21"No.. I and the Father are 1 (being).. Not the same person... Look back at my given illustration for further reference. "How come Jews do not belief in the Trinity? Wouldn't the safeguard's of the OT have believed in this fact if at all it had been true."This is known as progressive revelation.. We see hints of Gods nature in the OT until the "Word (Son) became flesh" and promised "The Holy Spirit".. God's triune nature was fully revealed with Jesus.. Although again, we see traces of it in the OT.. This parallels Jesus' statement: "Father, you are the One who is good. The world does not know you, but I know you. And these people know that you sent me. I showed them what you are like." (John 17: 24-25) My opponent then states the greatest commandments given by Jesus' and replies: so God is one not three as the Bible puts it. How then can we justify a Trinity that is not even mentioned by name in the ot and nt..This is a quickie... God IS 1... 1 being. I've already shown how the triune nature of God is found in the OT.. This statement is just another rerun of his previous arguments... He then states: .But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Mark 13:32) again another clear distinction, how can Jesus and God be one yet one is supreme and superior and more knowledgeable? Let me ask... Would you consider the president greater than yourself? Yes you would.. He performs a greater role in society.. Is he any more human than you? No.. you are both the same "what" but "who" you are is subject to roles and higher/lower levels of importance.. Same with the Trinity.. this is easily explainable .. We know that Jesus limits his omniscience to be obedient to the father (Philippians 2:6)."Also if Jesus is part of God and man killed Jesus then man killed and can kill God"Well depends on how you define die.. If you mean that God ceased from existing.. Then no. The biblical depiction of death is the separation of soul and body. The body dies and the soul lives on. Therefore, Jesus died in the flesh but remained in spirit... Again not an issue to the Christian theist. All in all.... My opponent seems to think that Christians don't understand that God the Father and God the Son are distinct. We believe that very thing. Jesus praying to "his God" in the Matthew account does not undermine the Trinity at all.. If read in the context... We understand that Jesus is fulfilling his role in the Godhead.. Like an obedient Son obeying his Father. We find that the Holy Spirit also prays for us on our account (Romans 8:26) I think its safe to say that my first contention remains plausibly unharmed.. My opponent gives common misconceptions to biblical doctrine that really hold no weight.Lets move to my second contention:2). References of the Trinity in the OT *note: my opponent did not address the OT references I gave in .. Daniel 7:17, Psalm 110:1, Isaiah 6:1, Isaiah 48:16.. I'm curious as to why? I hope you make some room in your next rebuttal for those....Remember I gave those three Genesis verse's that show the plurality used in describing Gods nature? Here's what my opponent has to say for it.."Then God said, 'Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness (Genesis 1:26) Our to imply God's attributes ,those of mercy, love, will and the likes, our to imply his power"...What? That makes no logical sense and is not supported whatsoever.. Let me give an example.. Lets say I really want to draw the boogeyman.. I go up to my parents and say: in going to draw the boogeyman in OUR image according to OUR likeness.. The're going to think your talking about them.. Not your attributes. It does not logically follow. This is a very sad rebuttal and shows the weakness in my opponents argument. He then states: "Out of thousands of pages my opponent chooses these verses while ignoring the hundreds of OT verses that show us God is one."Yes we have tons of verses where God says that He is One.. We also have verses (that I gave) that show us multiple depictions of Yahweh.. It only logically concluded that God is 1! (being) and is 3! (persons).. If you don't accept that.. Then you need to admit that there are contradictions in the bible.. so far, you have not gave any reasonable rebuttal as to these specific verse'.My opponent then puts forth a terrible mistake.. He quotes Genesis 22:2, 22:12, and 22:16.. showing what? ABRAHAMS SON... Not Gods.. I'm starting to think that my opponent is coping and pasting scriptures that he only take a glance at.. It seems to me that he thinks God is speaking about His son.. But in fact, God is speaking about Abraham's son.. Read.. 22 Some time later God tested Abraham. He said to him, “Abraham!” “Here I am,” he replied. 2 Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love—Isaac—and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.” 3This clearly shows God talking about Abraham's son.. not His own. My opponents verse means nothing.. Except a few giggles ;). In response to Genesis 3:3 my opponent states: So God,holy spirit and Jesus are the us? Why then did Jews not acknowledge this fact? Not did Moses confirm it,rather it is as a figure of speech, can God's power be contained in the singular?That's the only logical conclusion.. The Jews did not know Jesus because He was not incarnate yet.. He is the Word (John 1:1) of God at this point.. The Jews would not have known the distinction.. Although they felt compelled to write the Words of God in the plural.. Interesting.. Also.. I urge my opponent to find 1 figure of speech were somebody uses the plural form of "Us" in reference to attributes rather than persons.. Inside or outside the bible.. You wont find it. Despite the massive theology lesson.. We have seen nothing that somehow undermines the logic of the Trinity or even remotely explains the OT passages that refer to the Trinity from my opponent.. We've seen a lot of Bob N' Weaving that quite frankly is common.. For some reason people cannot wrap there minds around the Trinity so they give up and throw out the clear references found in both the OT and the NT My goal is to show how CLEAR AS DAY it is.. In the words of my opponent.. "its either it's a contradiction or a difference in understanding." Back to ConSources:1). http://www.bible.ca...2). https://www.christiancourier.com...3). https://www.biblegateway.com...4). OT and NT