Gay people are sexually attracted to themselves

Here is where Pro's case falls apart: Gay people are not attracted to all people of the same gender as themselves, they are only sexually attracted to those of their own gender that happen to register as above average in attractiveness. It is therefore illogical to assume that he/she'd find themselves sexually attractive since, by probability alone, it is more likely that they are average or below average on the scale of attractiveness of people of their gender. Here is why the 'P1, P2 and C' scheme of things fundamentally fails. 'P1' correctly states that all gay people are attracted to a person of the same gender. 'P2' correctly states that a gay person is the same gender as himself/herself. However, 'C' erroneously assumes that the gay person qualifies as attractive on their own scale. I shall now mathematically prove that it is more probable that the gay people in question either qualify as average or ugly on the scale of sexual attractiveness. The average of something is calculated by one of three methods; the mean, the median or the mode. The mode, which relies on an individual judging people's attractiveness based on what the most identical look they've seen in their life has been means that only twins, clones or any single-zygotic multitude of children would be capable of being sexually attracted to themselves. The median, which states that the exact numerical middle of all items in a sequence must be the average has the fact that there is one more individual that is not sexually attractive to the individual than those that are (the middle guy/girl). Therefore, this median, average, person is making it automatically more probable that a person will be sexually unattractive to themselves as opposed to attractive The mean, which requires a person to add all the combined attractiveness of every individual and divide it by the amount of people that they've met offers the exact same problem as the median does; the exact middle guy/girl is going to be sexually null/unattractive to the faggot/lesbian. Here is an explanation of how averages work: http://www.mathsrevision.net... Now I shall take a second line of attack on the resolution; that of the non-quantifiable version of attractiveness. Assuming that attractiveness is purely qualitative and subjective, we must analyze how people would come to the conclusion that they are sexually attractive to begin with. I shall now define some terms before I elaborate on my argument. Attractive: Pleasing or appealing to the senses. http://www.oxforddictionaries.com... Pleasing: Satisfying or appealing http://www.oxforddictionaries.com... Appealing: Attractive or interesting http://www.oxforddictionaries.com... Now, why would a person find themselves particularly interesting or satisfying if they see themselves all the time? They would be numbed after extensive exposure, much in the same way that drug addicts find their drug of addiction less satisfying over time (http://hosted.comm100.com...). The only way to achieve the same highs are for the drug addict to increase their dosage but gay people cannot increase their exposure to themselves as they are involuntarily exposed to themselves 24/7. The only alternative is if a person is severely narcissistic[http://www.mayoclinic.org...] or suffers from issociative identity disorder[http://www.webmd.com...] in which case they may end up either loving themselves to a level that enable sexual attraction to themselves or thinking that the person in the mirror is someone other than themselves. In conclusion, it is far less probably that gay people are sexually attracted to themselves than that they are not