The following verses of the Bible make it evident that Jesus is God

I asked him to come with three passages from the Bible that he finds best in proving that Jesus (peace be upon him) is God. He has come with them and my role is to explain their meanings or their background, and I will hopefully make it evident that none of them prove that Jesus is, in fact, God. -- Content -- • 1. Begotten Son - John 3:16 • 2. God With Us - Immanuel • 3. "I AM" - John 8:58 -- Arguments -- • 1. Begotten Son - John 3:16 [John 3:16] "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. " The translation of New International Version says "his one and only Son" - not begotten. [1] However, looking at the source, you will find a footnote saying "Or his only begotten Son. " My opponent agrees with "begotten," and argues that Jesus is God's only begotten Son, which means nothing but that the Son is also of same kind, i. e. God. That makes two gods, not one God, but for the sake of argument, let us skip this point. I have other points to make. Using the King James Version, Psalm 2:7 says, [David speaking] "I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. " Even if you use NIV, it says, ". .. today I have become your Father" but the footnote says, exactly as with John 3:16, "Or his only begotten Son" or "have begotten you. " What do we see here? David was also begotten. Not only was Jesus begotten, but David, who preceded him. This invalidates my opponent's argument that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. Many passages mention sons of God. Exodus 4:22 does. Why exactly is the author of Gospel of John right? How can he even be right when he contradicts David, a Prophet? Is a disciple more right than a Prophet? Certainly not. However, even if I skip this point, I have others to make. Notice that my opponent gave only one argument with Jesus' own words, namely the "I AM" one, which I will refute soon, if God is willing. However, Jesus did not say, "I am the only begotten Son of God. " I challenge my opponent to find one single passage saying it. John said it, but it a) contradicts the words of a Prophet, b) is not supported by Jesus' own statements, and c) is a fabricated verse (and I will explain why). Therefore, there are three points that invalidate the argument of John 3:16. If one is wrong, two others are right, and unless all are wrong, then this passage is invalid in its entirety. The word "begotten" needs to be used in the context of animalia when we are discussing a human being. A human can only come to life through sex if he is begotten because no human can be begotten without two people having sex to beget him. Jesus was born to a virgin mother, so how could he have been begotten by God? How could God beget Jesus? It would only be possible, by definition, if there was sexual activity with Mary, but that never happened. Therefore, it is impossible for Jesus to have been begotten, a "if" he was, then he is half human half god, but that still does not make him God. You can choose between human, half human/god, and nothing more. If you choose "God" you are going against the words of many Prophets, including David (peace be upon them all). Why is a disciple right, and not a Prophet? The word is the same! Moreover, the word "begotten" in John 3:16 cannot be found in the oldest scriptures of the Bible. Many scholars of the Bible have pointed out that the word "begotten" in John 3:16 is a direct fabrication. There are no traces of it in the older scriptures. This argument is supported by Christian scholars (see their version: Revised Standard Version). Therefore, the argument in John 3:16 is not valid. The probability that it is true is very low. It directly contradicts many passages of the Bible speaking of "only" Son of God, even "begotten" Son of God. This is a Biblical contradiction, historical contradiction, definitional fallacy, appeal to authority (only John says it, others do not), and a fabrication. I will also give more arguments regarding different sources speaking about Jesus, and why they are not necessarily right "or" are misinterpreted by Christians. • 2. God With Us - Immanuel [Matthew 1:22-23] "All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: (23)'The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel' - which means, 'God with us. '" To begin with, I would like to ask where Jesus himself assigned this name to himself? Where did Jesus ever claim, "I am God with you! " if I may ask? Jesus originally means Salvation. Salvation =/= God With Us. Furthermore, as I implied above, just because some sources say something about someone does either not necessarily make it true, or they mean something different to how some people see it. For instance, in some passages of the Bible, some people referred to Jesus as "Lord. " Does this literally mean God? No. Satan was also called god in some passages. And here are more things referred to as Lord: [Genesis 22:14] "So Abraham called that place The LORD Will Provide. And to this day it is said, 'On the mountain of the LORD it will be provided. '" Is that place God? No. [Psalm 82:6] "I said, 'You are 'gods'; you are all sons of the Most High. " If names like Immanuel or Eloah are only ascribed to God Himself, then why are all sons of the Most High (i. e. God) referred to as Elohim, i. e. gods? Many names were assigned to people that were never called "God. " Emmanuel, Hashabiah, Michael, and so forth. These names were common and one like Michael would seem to refer to a person who is God (Michael means "one who resembles God" or "one who is like God" [2]). Why is Jesus, then, God just because very few people assigned some godlike names to him? Even other Prophets bore similar names, and none were considered to be God. Therefore, since Jesus never called himself Immanuel, never called himself God, this assignation to him is entirely invalid. • 3. "I AM" - John 8:58 The third and last sentence is probably the most sound out of all the ones that my opponent presented above. That is because Jesus himself assigned words to him, which is what mostly matters. But does he really say "I AM" and if so, does "I AM" really refer to God? I will analyze. [John 8:58] "'I tell you the truth,' Jesus answered, 'before Abraham was born, I am! '" This sentence hardly makes sense. "Before he was, I am" - What does that even mean? Let us see what YHWH (i. e. God) is in Hebrew. YHWH = I am What I am = God Jesus' words: Ego eimi = I am(? ) = God(? ) How do these fit? "I am" in English does in no way make Jesus God. Remember that we are reading in English, but the original in Hebrew is Yahweh. Jesus said the words in Aramaic, but the translation is Greek, and now Christians use English to prove the divinity of Jesus. That is erroneous. Ego eimi does not mean God in any way, nor does it mean "I am What I am" or "Yahweh. " In reality, these words should be translated to "I have" because that is what their context indicates. "I" in Greek: ego [3] "am" or "have been" in Greek: eimi [4] As can be seen, "eimi" can mean "have," "been," and so forth. Why say "am? " That barely makes sense. The verse should say, "Before Abraham was born, I (existed, have been, etc). " As has been demonstrated, none of the verses above mean that Jesus is God. [John 20:17] "'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God. '" - Jesus I thank my opponent. -- References -- [1] . http://www.biblegateway.com... [2] . http://www.thinkbabynames.com... [3] . http://strongsnumbers.com... [4] . http://strongsnumbers.com...