Premarital Sex is not a Sin

"My opponent has all the BOP and all I must do is show that the Bible considers premarital sex as a sin.My opponent must show the resolution true."My debate, my rules, no "atheistic" tricks this time, the Rules I posted clearly in the first round say, "Post every single proof verse against Pre-marital sex, I refute it and then you refute my rebuttals, and it goes back and forth until rounds are over or there's a winning."Don't like the rules? Forfeit because they aren't changing, you throughly refute my rebuttals or lose, that's been the rules since Round 1."We will use the King James Bible for this debate."My debate, my rules, We're Using Hebrews and Greek as well, from which the king james is translated from."1 Corinthians 7"7 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.3 Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband.4 The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife."Clear from 1 Cor. 7, virginity in a woman was highly valued before marriage. In that this she is called both the betrothed and a virgin. In early Jewish law if you had sex with a woman you were considered married to her or you had shamed her. See the story of Mary and Joseph. Honor and shame, cultures placed a high value on sexual purity. Notice how prostitutes were stigmatized. Women were mainly blamed for sexual immorality. http://weareeleven20.wordpress.com...;Nope, my opponent uses 1 Corinthians 7 yet dismisses 1 Corinthians 6, from which Paul is writing about, 6 and 7 are 1 continous chapter which deal with the word, Porneia, now whatever Paul says Porneia is, whether my opponent likes it or not, we have to take Paul's Interpretation and see what Paul wants to convey,1 Cortinthians 6:12 -20, 12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any. 13 Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats: but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body. 14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power. 15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. 16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. 17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. 18 Flee fornication(porneia). Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication(porneia) sinneth against his own body. 19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? 20 For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's. Proof from Verses 13 to 17, Clear as day and as obvious as diamond Paul says from the bold that, Paul says the body isn't meant for "Porneia" which is a translation of the word Porneia which according to Strongs Greek lexicon can mean either, http://biblesuite.com..."fornication, whoredom; met: idolatry."Paul is talking about a specific definition, that being the Whoredom, he explictly isn't talking about Idolatry or Fornication, he is talking about Harlotry, and to flee it as it's a sin against ones own body Evident like the sun Verses 15-17 Paul is Specifically Speaking on Prostitution, 15 Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ himself? Shall I then take the members of Christ and unite them with a prostitute? Never! 16 Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, “The two will become one flesh.”[b] 17 But whoever is united with the Lord is one with him in spirit.[c] So then we go to 1 Corinthians 7 which turns more clear,7 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.Meaning Paul is replying to what he received, that being "it is good for a man not to touch a woman"Paul refutes this by saying, 2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication(porneia, as we found out in Chapter 6 Paul is using it for Prostitution, so to avoid Prostitution), let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.So Paul refutes his recipiant by saying every man should have his own wife and every woman her own Husband, now we come to this, 1, we know Paul is talking about Prostitution, now is Paul saying one should get Married(let every man, etc) to avoid Prostitution?No, From, http://christianity.stackexchange.com...; "Another reason that people have misunderstood 1 Corinthains 7:2 is the failure to translate "have one's wife or husband" [citation needed]accurately. It means to have sex or be in a sexual relationship with someone. It doesn't mean "get a wife, so you won't have sex before marriage." Paul was saying "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." Several commentaries bring out these points: http://www.enduringword.com...;[404 - file or directory not found]The New International Commentary on the New Testament by Gordon D. FeeJohn Gill's Exposition of the Bible (first Corinthians 7:2) Only a couple of translations have made the meaning clear for us, the NetBible being an example. Here is their note on this: "Grk “each man should have his own wife.” “Have” in this context means “have marital relations with” (see the following verse). The verb O52;χ^1;τω (ecetw, “have”) occurs twice in the Greek text, but has not been repeated in the translation for stylistic reasons. This verb occurs 8 times in the LXX (Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1) with the meaning “have sexual relations with,” and 9 times elsewhere in the NT with the same meaning (Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29)." [citation needed] Richard suggests that Strong's dictionary defines porneia as "all forms of sexual acts that are not within the confines of marriage" when in fact it doesn't say that at all. As evidenced in Deuteronomy 22:14, when a man paid a bridal price for a girl, she was considered his wife from that day forward; it might be over a year later before they had the marriage feast and he took her as his bride. If this betrothed girl, his legal wife, had sex before her wedding day, she was guilty of a type of adultery and suffered the consequences. Comparing that situation to Exodus 22:16-17, sex with an unbetrothed virgin, the Bible clearly teaches that pre-marital sex is not a sin. There was no punishment upon either of them. The man was forced to pay her bridal price for otherwise her family could never recover the lost money. The marriage was obligatory upon the man if the parents approved it. These passages only talk about virgin girls under their father's care and say nothing about premarital sex by adult single females or males. There is no passage that speaks against males, whether single or married, having sex with an unattached female. Adultery laws only applied to sex with married women, not unmarried. I hope people will stop adding their own rules to the Bible; they're like the Pharisees who made the word of God of no effect by their traditions."You want to win the debate? you Have To refute Everything above, That's the rules you accepted, when you accepted this Challenge, "Post every single proof verse against Pre-marital sex, I refute it and then you refute my rebuttals, and it goes back and forth until rounds are over or there's a winning."I have no more space will get to other verses in Next Round. 1 Corinthians 7 can no longer be used for my opponent's argument.