The only objective reason not to consider women inferior to men is purely physical.

Firstly, I find it to be interesting that my opponent has declared that the burden proof is on me to show that women are not inferior, but I will accept it. As my opponent has not defined prove, I will define it:Prove (vb)-"To establish the truth or validity of by presentation of argument or evidence." [1]I take this to mean that I must provide support for my reasons that is fairly convincing.In regards to my opponent's definition of physical, I take his meaning to be that the reason I give must be related to properties that arise from the physical and not the physical body itself (meaning, as he said, the mind, consciousness, as well as other things that are rooted in the brain, but not related to the actual part itself),Pro stated the following: "For it is you who must prove any other objective reason in support of gender equality." I take this to mean that I must provide at least one objective reason that is not physical that displays that women are not inferior in whatever area I happen to pick. My opponent has stated that "in every intellectual and emotional respect men are superior to women." I therefore conclude that my forum is primarily the intellectual and emotional and that in order to fulfill my burden of proof, I must provide at least one instance in which women are, in general, equal to or superior to men with regards to emotion or intellect or anything else non-physical. If I am able to do this, I will have satisfied my opponent's requirements.I will not address my opponent's points about the physical aspects of women as he has stated that I must provide a reason that not physical. All things physical will therefore be off limits in this debate.First off, my opponent has already provided an objective reason why women are not inferior. He states, "I know that women are more capable at language, team work and multitasking than men." Since he does not challenge this and claims it to be true, I do not have to provide any further evidence. He makes the claim that this is not due to superiority or equality of women in these areas, but instead "because men's minds are on far more important things." I would ask him the following: If this is true, then why are men not affected by this equally in all areas when it comes to cognitive ability? Why is it that women are specifically more capable at language? His claim is unwarranted, and unless he can provide objective evidence for his seemingly subjective assertion that the reason for the inferiority of men in these areas is due to the fact that they are thinking about more important things, I have fulfilled my burden of proof. I take his statement that "multitasking results form[sic] inability to focus on anything for extended periods of time" to mean that men's lesser ability to multitask results from their inability to focus on anything for long durations of time. Is this not just support for the equality and superiority of women in this aspect? I would argue that if my opponent's claim is true, then men are "of comparatively low grade; poor in quality; substandard" when it comes to multitasking and focus.In conclusion, it appears that my opponent may have already lost the debate.Also, I would agree with my opponent about the conduct vote. If you feel he is being sexist, this is no reason for him to lose the conduct vote in the context of this debate, unless, for example, he suddenly throws out a string of obscenities directed at women and goes off on a sophomoric rant about them. I do not think he will do this though.(I get the picture that I'm debating Cristopher Hitchens... It's unsettling.)Thank you.[1] thefreedictionary.com