Trinitarian vs. Oneness

The Greek word used in the original text of Colossians 2:9 as 'Godhead' is theotes. theotes can only be translated as Deity. triune is obviously a different Greek word altogether from theotes and it means three in one. theotes and triune are in no way synonymous. They are two completely different words with completely different meanings. The word Triune is not used in this verse, chapter, book or anywhere in the Bible at all. I did not give you the full details of when I believe Jesus was created because within this debate it is a redundant question. Understanding that the Bible teaches us that Jesus was created by God clearly demonstrates that he cannot be God. Jesus not being God is the main thrust of my argument against the trinity because if Jesus is not God then you have no trinity. The word Messiah does not mean God. The Messianic expectations were not that he would be God. Messiah did not mean God in Biblical times and it does not mean God today. Therefore the prophecy of his coming that was fulfilled to the dot gives us no reason to assume that he is God. I fully understand the miracles that Jesus performed and I know from scripture that he did not perform these miracles to prove that he was God but to prove that he was sent by God. This is not unique, Moses performed miracles to prove that he was sent by God also. At no point have I compared myself to Jesus, I would never do such a thing. I've read through my previous post to you to try and understand why you would say such a thing and all I can find is that I believe that God is my father. This is not an example of me comparing myself to Jesus, I'm pointing out what the scripture says. All Christians should believe that God is their Father, whatever their denomination. I agree that the King James version is far more accurate than the recent New International version, as you can see from my Bible quotes I use it myself. We must ask ourselves however, which would be the most accurate? The original Gospels written in Greek or the KJV written one and a half thousand years later in old English? The KJV is better than the NIV but it is not perfect, mistranslations do exist in it in some places and this has been determined by cross referring it back to the original Greek/Hebrew text. The problem is that 1 John 5 does not exist in any Bibles prior to the 1500's. This is not me picking and choosing what bits of the Bible I like and disregarding what bits I don't. It is a fact which is universally accepted by biblical scholars that are far more learned than you or I and I say that with the greatest of respect. Blindly accepting one version of the Bible despite some of its content not even being present in the original makes us subject to Revelations 22:19 and I'm surprised that you cannot see this. I will deal with all of your verses that you believe refer to the trinity individually. John 14:16-17 - And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you [another] Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; This verse does not present the concept of a holy trinity. Jesus saying that he will pray to the Father is furhter evidence that he is not God and therefore there is no trinity. If Jesus were God then why would he need to pray to God? Philippians 2:5-8 - Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: Firstly this verse denies the divinity of Jesus because it does not claim that he is actually God rather the form of God. The following part of verse 6 is extremely ambiguous as it can be translated a few ways which gives the opposite meaning. 'harpagmon' in the KJV is given as 'robbery' , which when read within the verse appears to state that Jesus considered himself equal to God. harpagmon can and is also translated as 'a thing to be grasped', which when read within the verse appears to state that Jesus did not consider himself (or at least want to be considered) to be equal to God. This word is not used anywhere else in the Bible so we cannot corss reference it. If it is to be taken in the KJV former translation then it is at odds with what Jesus said because he never claimed to be equal with the Father - "Most assuredly, I say to you, a servant is not greater than his master; nor is he who is sent greater than he who sent him." (John 13:16) "for my Father is greater than I" (John 14:18) "My Father is greater than all". (John 10:29) And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. (Luke 18:19)