God broke his promise to Abraham and the Bible admits it

Apparently Pro missed the deadline, and posted his arguments in the comments section. I’m not sure exactly how to deal with this, but I figured it can’t hurt to reply to what was written in the comment section. I apologize for perhaps being a bit too strong in my language condemning pro’s misrepresentation of the bible verse, & perhaps implying that it was done intentionally. When pro wrote “I am”, he did not specify which verse,so when I reread the translation that he provided and saw “I will”, it appeared to me a clear and utter distortion. Apparently pro meant to refer to a latter verse, which, according to the translation that he provided indeed does say “I am”. This in and of itself is a rather peculiar contradiction, according to the translation pro uses, verse 15 says “I will”, while verse 17 says “I am”. The fact of the matter is, as I shall prove at length beyond any reasonable doubt, is that verse 17 correctly translated also reads “I will”. From the original Hebrew it is quite clear that the statement was not made in the present tense. Not only that, but from the original Hebrew, it’s actually clearly in the future tense. The verse reads: " קום התהלך בארץ לארכה ולרחבה כי לך אתננה " See here for a word by word direct translation directly from the Hebrew.(1-4) The key word here is " אתננה ", which, as I will explain means "I will give". The key letter here is the "א"/Aleph, which is not part of the root word "נָתַן", but rather a prefix. When the "א"/Aleph is prefixed to a verb stem, it indicates first person, singular, future tense. I will. (5-8) Other translations: New American Standard (NASB/NAS) - NAS is “widely regarded as one of the most literally translated of 20th-century English Bible translations(9) ...The NASB remains, however, the most literal version of the English Bible commonly used in churches today. It is commonly used in many Christian colleges and seminaries for in-depth study, because of its strict adherence to the original languages”(10) NAS translates the verse thusly: "Arise, walk about the land through its length and breadth ; for I will give it to you." Holman Christian Standard - produced by “an international, interdenominational team of 100 scholars, editors, stylists, and proofreaders...” (11)(12): Get up and walk from one end of the land to the other, for I will give it to you." Douay-Rheims - “first officially authorized Catholic Bible translation in English”: "Arise and walk through the land in the length, and the breadth thereof: for I will give it to thee." In fact, I would say that most English Bibles translate the verse to read "I will" some other future tense form : Geneva Study Bible: Arise, walk through the land in the length of it and in the breadth of it; for I will give it unto thee. American Standard Version (ASV): "Arise, walk through the land in the length of it and in the breadth of it; for unto thee will I give it." International Standard Version (©2012): "Get up! Walk throughout the length and breadth of the land, because I'm going to give it to you." New Revised Standard: "Rise up, walk through the length and the breadth of the land, for I will give it to you." The Darby Translation: "Arise, walk through the land according to the length of it and according to the breadth of it; for I will give it to thee." The Webster Bible: "Arise, walk through the land in the length of it and in the breadth of it; for I will give it to thee." King James Version: "Arise , walk through the land in the length of it and in the breadth of it; for I will give it unto thee." Lexham English Bible: "Arise, go through the length of the land and through its breadth, for I will give it to you." English Standard Version (ESV): "Arise, walk through the length and the breadth of the land, for I will give it to you." Complete Jewish Bible: "Get up and walk through the length and breadth of the land, because I will give it to you." The same Hebrew word is used in both verses: In verse 15, even NIV (the translation that pro used) translates the verse using "I will", then inexplicably in verse 17 NIV switches to "I am". The problem is (aside from all of the problems), that the exact same word "אתננה" is used in both verses. (13-15) In fact, all 10 times that the word " אתננה " appears in the bible, it means "I will" or some other similar future tense variation. Thus it is clear beyond any reasonable doubt that NIV is indeed in error, and the correct translation is "I will" or some other similar future tense variation. (16) As far as pro's final point in the comment section (which I should point out is a new point in that it was not made previously in this debate) that "God promised it to Abe and did not deliver. Abe is dead now.", there are a number of answers:The simplest answer is that according to the Judeo-Christian concept of bringing the dead back to life/reincarnation, the fact that Abraham physically died, does not negate the possibility of his return & receiving the land. Indeed at the end of days, God will bring the righteous back to life, this includes Abraham. My next answer is based 0n Matthew Henry's six volume Complete Commentary which provides an exhaustive look at every verse in the Bible. There it is written:“The slow steps by which the promise made to Abraham advanced toward performance, plainly show that it had a spiritual meaning, and that the land intended was the heavenly.”According to this understanding as well, Abraham could/would receive that which was promised to him, after his death. My next answer is based on an ethnic/linguistic/stylistic point/concept expressed by H. Wheeler Robinson:Jews are familiar with identifying individuals with the group they belong to. H. Wheeler Robinson writes that "Corporate personality is the important Semitic complex of thought in which there is a constant oscillation between the individual and the group—family, tribe, or nation—to which he belongs, so that the king or some other representative figure may be said to embody the group, or the group may be said to sum up the host of individuals." (17)Thus when God/the bible says that the land will be given to Abraham & his offspring, it means the Jewish people as a whole, not Abraham individually.As the Geneva Study Bible puts it:“The promise of the possession was certain, and belonged to Abraham, though it was his posterity that enjoyed it a great while after his death: and this is the figure of speech synecdoche.” The final answer that I will present here now is as follows:There is no contradiction, because while Abraham inherited none of God's promises personally, he inherited all of God's promises through his descendants. He became a great nation through his descendants in Egypt (Dt. 26:5). He inherited the land through his descendants (Gen. 15:7-21). All the families of the earth are blessed through his greatest descendant, Jesus Christ (Gal. 3:8-9, 13-14, 26-29). God's promises to Abraham were fulfilled through Abraham's descendants, and that is all that God ever intended (18) (1) http://biblelexicon.org... (2) http://interlinearbible.org... (3) http://biblehub.com... (4) http://bibleapps.com... (5) http://en.wikipedia.org... (6) http://hebrew4christians.com... (7) http://www.biblewheel.com... (8) http://books.google.com... (9) http://www.christianity.com... (10) http://www.biblestudytools.com... (11) http://www.bible-researcher.com... (12) http://www.biblestudytools.com... (13) http://www.bibleasia.com... Rest of sources in comments.