Is the bible corrupted

You did not consider the fact that people might simply want to introduce their own corruptions into the text, but with studying them more, more direct conclusions can be made. God's existence doesn't correlate with the diversity of Christian beliefs. His will is not our will. There is no evidence that such a council existed to decide what books in the Bible were divinely inspired. According to the Oxford dictionary of the Christian church: "The suggestion of a particular synod in Jamnia held 100 A.D finally settled the limits of Old Testament canon made by H.E Ryle though no evidence exists to support this" (1). Josephus wrote: " For we have not an innumerable multitude of books among us, disagreeing from and contradicting one another (as the Greeks have), but only twenty-two books, which contain the records of all the past times; which are justly believed to be divine; and of them, five belong to Moses, which contain his laws, and the traditions of the origin of mankind until his death. This interval of time is little short of three thousand years; but as to the time from the death of Moses till the reign of Artexerxes king of Persia, who reigned after Xerxes, the prophets, who were after Moses, wrote down what was done in their times in thirteen books. The remaining four books contain hymns to God, and precepts for the conduct of human life. From Artexerxes to our own time the complete history has been written but has not been deemed worthy of equal credit with the earlier records because of the failure of the exact succession of the prophets. We have given practical proof of our reverence for our own scriptures. For, although such long ages have now passed, no one has ventured to add, or to remove, or to alter anything, and it is an instinct with every Jew, from the day of his birth, to regard them as decrees of God"" (2) You took Jeremiah's words out of context. Read in verse 9 and you will find it says: "The wise men are ashamed, they are dismayed and taken: lo, they have rejected the word of the Lord; and what wisdom is in them?" Clearly, this cannot be an indicated that the scribes altered the Bible. Matthew took this passage to describe Jesus living in Egypt for a while then leaving, not necessarily altering the original context. As for the virgin birth, the Greek word used is parthenos which means virgin. Dr. Cyrus Gordon, scholar of semitics argues that the Christian translation rests on the Jewish interpretation: "The commonly held view that "virgin" is Christian, whereas "young woman" is Jewish is not quite true. The fact is that the Septuagint, which is the Jewish translation made in pre-Christian Alexandria, takes almah to mean "virgin" here. Accordingly, the New Testament follows Jewish interpretation in Isaiah 7:14. Therefore, the New Testament rendering of almah as "virgin" for Isaiah 7:14 rests on the older Jewish interpretation, which in turn is now borne out for precisely this annunciation formula by a text that is not only pre-Isaianic but is pre-Mosaic in the form that we now have it on a clay tablet." (3) With all of these things in mind, the Bible has no corruptions and is divinely inspired. Sources: 1. F.L. Cross & E.A. Livingstone, eds., The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, Second Edition (Oxford, Great Britain: Oxford University Press, 1985) p. 726. For more on what did and did not happen at Jamnia, see Jamnia Revisited, by Jack P. Lewis in Lee Martin McDonald & James A. Sanders, eds., The Canon Debate, (Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, Inc., 2002) pp. 146-162. 2. Flavius Josephus, Against Apion, book 1, paragraph 8. 3. Gordon, Cyrus H., Almah in Isaiah 7:14, The Journal of Bible & Religion, Vol. 21(April 1953), p. 106.