Premarital Sex is not a Sin

My opponent started this debate and forgot to properly establish rules and definitions. He can not in the midst of debate change things now. It is typical that both parties rebuttal each other, so that is a given, but I can so choose to rebuttal and debate anyway I like. My opponent gave us no rules and the few comments he made in round 1 were wide open for action as long as I rebuttal him. I agree with my opponent using Greek and Hebrew. 1 Corinthians "Now concerning the things of which you wrote to me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. " My opponent is right that chapter seven begins where Paul deals with questions about marriage but how can he connect it directly to chapter 6? Paul directly says, "Now concerning", showing a new issue is being brought forth. Paul is saying that husbands and wives should be having sexual relations with each other. A letter Paul received from the congregation contained a variety of questions on which the members sought his advice and counsel. They asked about marriage (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:1), about the young women getting married (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:25), about the eating of meat from animals the pagans had sacrificed to their idols in their heathen temples (cf. 1 Corinthians 8:1), about the women in the congregation covering their heads in the worship services, which was a custom unique to Corinthian society that indicated their submission to the men (cf. 1 Corinthians 11:2), and about spiritual gifts (cf. 1 Corinthians 12:1). Paul addressed the questions of the Corinthians who wrote to him. He says that it is good for man not to touch a woman and because he must touch her then he should marry her and be with only her. We get the message that sex equals getting married or a suggestion to it. This shows God considering unmarried sex unwanting. . http://www.inplainsite.org... As for the word Proneiva my opponent mentioned: Porneiva- illicit sexual intercourse; adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc. sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18 sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11, metaph. the worship of idols of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols. . http://www.biblestudytools.com... Illicit- a sexual act that is improper or condemned by law or religion. www. definition-of. com/illicit sex. Harlot- Prone- a woman who sells her body for sexual uses; a prostitute, a harlot, one who yields herself to defilement for the sake of gain; any woman indulging in unlawful sexual intercourse, whether for gain or for lust; metaph. an idolatress of "Babylon" i. e. Rome, the chief seat of idolatry. . http://www.biblestudytools.com... Illicit=Fornication=Porneiva. This shows that harlot don't mean Porneiva. Porneiva means adultry, (since marriage is presented) fornication which directly means Porneiva. Illicit sex is also adultry and pre-martial sex. If we want to change the Bible at will, of course anything is possible. Most people who disbelieve its contents are not that brazen, however, so they take the more subtle route of misinterpreting the Bible and neglecting the meanings of words therein. We can see that correct interpretation has been given by the KJV and these words include a wide varity of sexual immoralities. This immorality included having sex outside of marriage. My opponent should explain why Paul tells them it is proper to become married? If sex outside of marriage is ok and not a sin then what need is there for marriage? The meaning of marriage which is compounded on in 1 Corinthians is that sex is reserved for husband and wife. This topic maybe was not as definitive topic as many others issues dealing with salvation. But, it is clear that the Bible urges one to be married with a woman and only have sex with her. Therefore showing it is incorrect and a sin to have sex outside of marriage. Today we see marriage different then back then. You may not have took vowels or had a celebration. Marriage could simply mean a man and woman who choose to sleep together and be together. My opponent makes it seem as if anyone could have sex with one another and it is not a sin. My opponent supports whoredom as long as you are not married or that fornication only means sex with a whore. He further wants us to believe that Paul was only talking to married people. In fact every type of person would need guidance and this is why a word that describes all sexual immorality is used and making it clear that sexual immorality is anything outside of marriage. My opponent needs to show us why Paul is talking about just whoredom, when the definition of the very word he highlighted means every sexual immorality. I do not deny Paul is speaking about prostitution but my opponent must show that Paul only refers to prostitution. Exodus 22:16-17 The first stipulation in Exodus 22:16, "if a man seduces a virgin," distinguishes this case from one of rape, where the woman remains unwilling. The language of seduction, of course, implies the man's initiative in this premarital sexual relationship, and perhaps for this reason, the stipulated remedy assumes that the man should take a similar initiative in regularizing the illicit relationship in marriage. If the man is genuinely repentant in keeping with the Word of God in Exodus 22:16, he do whatever is required. . http://www.rededicate.org... My opponent tells us and shows us that a price and requirement must be kept if one takes a non-married woman or virgin. My opponent tries to distinguish the two but they can be the same. Families lived amoungst one another and therefore every member was important and worth something. There is no matter the age of a woman and in fact a woman was the age of 13 or 14 then, maybe younger. When the Bible refers to father it is meaning the Patriarch of the community and also the daughters father personally. Sometimes these two are not the same, even male men live under rule of a Patriarch. If both woman and men were under the same Patriarch then the matter was most likely handled personally. My opponent helped my case from his second round. We both have shown that the Bible suggest getting married if one wants to have sex. In the O. T. we see that the Bible tells one that if he has sex with a unmarried woman(adultry is conceded as a sin by both) that they should be married. In the N. T. we see that any sexual act outside of marriage is refered to as fornication and illicit sexual behavior and therefore is immoral. We see that the solution to this immorality of fornication is marriage. One is to conclude that if sex without marriage is considered fornication and immoral and marriage makes it ok, then marriage is needed for sex. Therefore sex without marriage is immoral and immoralities are a sin. Back to Pro!