Day of Atonement = Pre-Advent Judgment

"Faithful believers appear through their defense attorney (Jesus) during the investigative judgment (IJ) and in person during the millennial judgment." 2 Corinthians 5:10 says "we must all appear before" who? Christ. So if Jesus is appearing on our behalf, then you have Jesus appearing before himself! Ridiculous. We will not be judged by the Father, because "the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgement to the Son." (John 5:22) So Jesus being our defense is not a valid way of us appearing before Christ in judgment. Jesus was not standing before himself in judgment since 1844. The word "we" didn't mean Jesus in 1 Corinthians 5:1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9; it really meant "us" (vs 5), so it's really us believers that will literally stand before Christ in judgment as verse 10 says. So SDA ideas of the judgment are false. I would also challenge Pro to show me where the Bible says the righteous will be judged during or even after the millennium (1000 years). That's not in the Bible. Being in God's presence is not the same thing as being before the judgment seat of Christ for judgment. "Unfaithful believers also appear in the investigative judgment but their case cannot be defended because they apostatized. They appear in person during the white throne judgment after the millennium." So they are judged twice? Also unbiblical; where does the Bible say the unsaved are judged twice? Your error here, is that you keep referring to unsaved people as believers just because they were once saved. If you lose your salvation, you are no longer a believer, period. There is no such thing as an "unsaved believer." Show me that term in the Bible, please. "Adventists have no particular attachment to the specific date Oct. 22." The whole church had to study these calculations in their quarterly Great Apocalyptic Prophecies, lesson 5, Daniel 9: The Coming of the Messiah, Apri-June 2002 http://ssnet.org... This unbiblical date is also in number 24 of their 28 fundamental beliefs. https://www.adventist.org... "A lamb was sacrificed every day of the year not just on the Day of Atonement." That doesn't address my point. Leviticus 16 is dealing with the Day of Atonement, and one this day, the Lord's goat is sacrificed. So, whenever we see this part fulfilled, we know that the Day of Atonement ritual is being fulfilled. Why deny that Jesus already fulfilled the Leviticus 16 Day of Atonement 2000 years ago when we know that that is when he fulfilled the Day of Atonement sacrifice? Yes, a lamb was sacrificed every day, and Jesus fulfilled them all on the cross. Jesus doesn't have to die again and again every day or every year to fulfill each sacrifice at a different time. You seem not to realize that Jesus fulfills many rituals at the same time on the same day. All animal sacrifices pointed to the cross. "Adventists believe Jesus entered God's presence at His ascension." And God"s presence was represented by the Most Holy, so Jesus entered the Most Holy at his ascension, not in 1844. This places the fulfillment of the High Priest entering God"s presence on the Day of Atonement at the ascension, not 1844. Disproves Ellen White"s claim that "In 1844 Christ then entered the most holy place of the heavenly sanctuary." (The Great Controversy, page 481) SDAs say: ""Attended by heavenly angels, our great High Priest enters the holy of holies, and there appears in the presence of God, to"perform the work of investigative judgment" (The Great Controversy, 1950 edition, page 480). This assumes Jesus was NOT IN GOD"s PRESENCE before he entered God"s presence in 1844 to perform IJ! Not Biblical. "It is never a good idea to take a model and expect it to reflect the real thing perfectly in every specific." Agreed, so we shouldn't believe that in heaven the sanctuary has two rooms (a holy separated from a most holy) just because it was so on earth. "If the scapegoat represents Christ then this means that lots are cast to distinguish between the Lord's goat and the Lord's goat." Lots were cast to distinguish which goat would represent Christ's death by dying, and which would represent him taking away our sins by taking them out into the wilderness. I gave Scripture which says Jesus carried our sins and removed them far from us, where is the Scripture that says the devil will ever carry them? "The name Azazel... is a Jewish name for a demon." No source cited to support this claim from Pro. In Leviticus 16:8 we have "escape" (The Septuagint Bible, "scapegoat" (NKJV), "scapegoat (NIV), "scapegoat" (KJV), "scapegoat" (RSV), "Azazel (or removal)" (The Amplified Bible). The Hebrew term for scapegoat from Strongs is: 5799. 'aza'zel, az-aw-zale'; from H5795 and H235; goat of departure; the scapegoat: - scapegoat. The Hebrew definition of azazel is "goat of departure." Leviticus 16:8 should then read: "one lot for the LORD and the other for the goat of departure." Because the first goat called "a lot for the Lord," the translators wanted the Hebrew word Azazel, to be a representation of someone. Thus some translators have concluded that Azazel must represent an evil spirit or Satan. Keeping in mind from Leviticus 16:10, that the scapegoat is for making atonement TO GOD because of their sins. This atonement has to be made to God. It would be a sin to make atonement to Satan. Satan cannot remove sin nor would he want to. Some translators saw that the scapegoat represented Christ. Those that thought the scapegoat represented Satan or an evil spirit did not understand that this goat was a representation of the Living Christ that has removed the sins of God"s people. They failed to see that after the shedding of blood by the first goat the second goat demonstrated the removal of sins. Both goats were representing the completed atonement. Without the shedding of blood there cannot be forgiveness of sins. (Matt 26:28) "The Greek translators did not regard azazel as a proper name, but connected it with, "a z"zel a verb that does not appear in the Old Testament. The meaning they gave it was "to send away." Hence the full meaning of the Hebrew expression would be "in order to send away." The Latin translation followed this same understanding. The most adequate explanation is to view the term "aza"zel as being composed of two words: the first part, "ez, meaning "goat," and the second part, "azel, meaning "to go away." With recent evidence from the Ugaritic (the language of ancient Canaan from which Hebrew is derived), compound names such as this one are turning up more frequently than what we had expected based on evidence from the Hebrew alone. This is how the rendering "scapegoat" came to be... Originally, however, the King James translators meant "the goat that was led away." Hard Sayings of the Bible by Walter C. Kaiser Jr. Peter H. Davids, F.F. Bruce and Manfred T. Brauch INTER VARSITY PRESS, Downers Grove, Illinois. Lev 23:29-31 is saying that that day was a Sabbath, so you if you worked on that day (don't deny yourself) you would die, just as you would be put to death just as you were put to death for breaking the weekly Sabbath (Exo 31:14), but Pro doesn't claim the weekly Sabbath represents the day of judgment just because you were killed for working on it. Also, Lev 23 doesn't say you were put to death on that same day either, only that you would be killed at some point for working on that day. Lev 23:29 doesn't not say that people were judged for all their sins on that day. Killing for work on the Sabbath is not the same as judgment for all one's sins. "Those who are living upon the earth WHEN THE INTERCESSION OF CHRIST SHALL CEASE in the sanctuary above are to stand in the sight of a holy God WITHOUT A MEDIATOR. Their robes must be spotless, their characters must be purified from sin by the blood of sprinkling." (Great Controversy, p.369) This say Jesus will one day CEASE TO BE OUT MEDIATOR. Hebrews 7:25 says "He ALWAYS lives to INTERCEDE" for us. I believe the Bible not the SDAs here. This debate is about whether the Day of Atonement = investigative judgment, not about what is symbolized by every other festival, but I will say based on Colossians 2:16-17 that the "festivals (yearly), new moons (monthly), and Sabbaths (weekly)" mentioned there were all shadows that pointed to Christ. Jesus became our Passover Lamb on the cross, his body was our unleavened bread, free of leaven (sin), and Pentecost means 50th day, that is, the day after the 7th sabbath in the feast of weeks. (Lev 23:15-22) Jesus is the firstfruits wave offering because he was the first to be resurrected to immortal life, and he is the sin offering. "Do not be afraid of those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather, be afraid of the One who can destroy BOTH soul AND body in hell." (Matt 10:28, NIV) Here Jesus could not have made it more plain the soul is not the body. He CONTRASTED them. In 2 Corinthians 5:6-8 Paul says that absence from the physical body means to be present with the Lord. Some part of you must still exist after your body dies in order for you to be "at home" with him while "away" form the body. Then, in this context of talking about the spirit or soul surviving the death of, being absent from, the body, and having the "heavenly dwelling" (vs 4), he also talks about appearing before the judgment seat of Christ. (vs 10) So every believer appears before Christ, when his spirit goes back to God (Ecc 12:7). God already knows who is saved and who is lost the moment they die, so there doesn"t need to be a special examination of records to differentiate between these two. If your soul was not saved when you died, you go to the same place where the rich man went in Luke 16:19-31. Any believer who lost his salvation and died in an unsaved state will be judged after the 1000 years in the resurrection of judgment/condemnation. (John 5:28-29) Out of space.