The God of the Bible is mostly evil

Hello DDO! My name is Taylor from Skeptic's Ask and first off I would like to thank my opponent for posting such an interesting topic. This should be good. DEFINITIONS: Well of course first off most of my opponent's definitions are good and I'm not going to challenge any of them so that this does not become a definition debate. However I would like to point out that my opponent himself stated in his attributes of God that God was omnibenevolence. I will expand on this throughout my case. Now on to my arguments! When we are to examine at is evil we must examine morality. Morality seems simple enough and could be describe as good and evil and such. Yet, where do we get any authority to say that something is immoral. Not only that, we can see that morality CHANGES from one society to another. For example, in America it would be considered immoral to partake in cannibalism, however in a few African tribes, cannibalism is a way of life! Polygamy is illegal in the United States while throughout the middle-east the maximum wives you can have is four! And we can even see through time morality is altered. For example, a couple hundred years ago in the U.S., it was perfectly fine to have slaves, now it is completely immoral! So if we can see that morality is relative to your time and location. Morality can be seen as subjective if it is based off of something subjective. For example, if I were to ask my opponent if it were wrong to kill, my opponent would most likely say yes! Yet, when he was asked why he wouldn't be able to answer because he has nothing absolute to base his morals off of. Therefore who is to say that anything is truly immoral? For this is reason I negate the resolution. Resolved: The God of the Bible is mostly evil. 1 Contention: Assuming the Bible is true, the morality of the Bible is objective and my opponent has no base to make any moral statements. Now whether or not you believe in the Bible or not, if it is true then Christians have an objective stance on morality. Here are 2 most important moral imperatives in the Bible. 29 “The most important one,” answered Jesus, “is this: ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. [a] 30 Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with your entire mind and with all your strength.’[b] 31 The second is this: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’[c] There is no commandment greater than these.” http://www.biblegateway.com...; But how do we know if these moral imperatives are absolute? Well assuming the God of Christianity is real, then it is said throughout scripture that God is eternal, everlasting and does not change. Therefore the morality of Christians is based upon something that will never change, while most others base their morality on society and circumstance which is always changing. "I the LORD, do not change." - Malachi 3:6 http://biblia.com... "17 because God wanted to make the unchanging nature of his purpose very clear to the heirs of what was promised, he confirmed it with an oath. 18 God did this so that, by two unchangeable things in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have fled to take hold of the hope set before us may be greatly encouraged." Hebrews 6:17-18 http://www.biblegateway.com... The whole point of this argument is that my opponent has no way of saying weather something is evil or not. Unless there is something absolute providing an objective moral standard, there is no reason to prefer one moral claim over another. Contention 2: The God of the Bible is, by definition, all good. Throughout the Bible God is said to be in His own nature good, therefore the opposite of Him is evil. So if we are to debate the God of the Bible then He is entirely good. "No one is good - except God alone." - Jesus in Luke 18:9 Contention 3: According to the Bible, no one is innocent. "For all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23) No one is good so if God destroys a city or kills someone, then of course he has the right because He knows all things and the person is deserving of their punishment. Now on to my opponent’s case! First of all my opponent cannot say that any of these things are absolutely immoral; however I will address a few verse he took out of context. If a man is caught in the act of raping a young woman who is not engaged, he must pay fifty pieces of silver to her father. Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he will never be allowed to divorce her. Deuteronomy 22:28-29 Deuteronomy 22:28-29 (New Living Translation) 28 “Suppose a man has intercourse with a young woman who is a virgin but is not engaged to be married. If they are discovered, 29 he must pay her father fifty pieces of silver. [a] Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he may never divorce her as long as he lives. I found this translation and it just says sex and not rape. This is due to an improper translation where my opponent is using an outdated in incorrect manner of translation. "Very clear. A son must die for the sins of their fathers. Is that fair?"- My opponent "Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life!" - said Jesus in John 9:3 Happy is the one who takes your babies and smashes them against the rocks! My opponent completely takes this out of context! This is referring to the Edomites who destroyed many people. It is NOT saying you will be happy if you stone children. Read the whole chapter before attacking like that. Slavery: Slavery was permitted in the Bible because of sin in the world. It existed before the Jews were formed as a nation and it existed after Israel was conquered. God allows many things to happen in the world such as storms, famine, murder, etc. Slavery, like divorce, is not preferred by God. Instead, it is allowed. Where many nations treated their slaves very badly, the Bible gave many rights and privileges to slaves. So, even though it isn't the best way to deal with people, because God has allowed man freedom, slavery then exists. God instructed the Israelites to treat them properly. The Bible acknowledged the slave's status as the property of the master (Ex. 21:23; Lev. 25:46). The Bible restricted the master's power over the slave. Ex. 21:20). The slave was a member of the master's household (Lev. 22:11). The slave was required to rest on the Sabbath (Exodus 20:10; Deut. 5:14). The slave was required to participate in religious observances (Gen. 17:13; Exodus 12:44; Lev. 22:11). The Bible prohibited extradition of slaves and granted them asylum (Deut. 23:16-17). The servitude of a Hebrew debt-slave was limited to six years (Ex. 21:2; Deut. 15:12). When a slave was freed, he was to receive gifts that enabled him to survive economically (Deut. 15:14). The reality of slavery cannot be denied. "Slave labor played a minor economic role in the ancient Near East, for privately-owned slaves functioned more as domestic servants than as an agricultural or industrial labor force We can see that my opponent has completely misrepresented these verses, without looking at the context or what the verse was actually referring to. Now good luck to my opponent in the next round,