Day of Atonement = Pre-Advent Judgment

Jesus Christ already fulfilled the Day of Atonement rituals of Leviticus 16, and SDA claims concerning its fulfillment in 1844 are unbiblical. 2 Corinthians 5:10 says "we must all STAND BEFORE THE JUDGMENT SEAT OF CHRIST." Now, this judgment of the righteous could not take place in 1844, nor could it be going on right now as SDAs claim in their theology, because this Scripture demands that we will actually be alive and present STANDING BEFORE Jesus on that day. No one was resurrected in 1844 to stand before the judgment seat of Christ, and according to SDA theology, there is no soul or spirit that survives the death of the body so that they could have made this appearance before him in spirit. (Now, I know the Bible does teach that though the body dies the soul will not in Matthew 10:28, and life after death is found in Many passages such as Luke 16:19-31; Revelation 20:10; 2 Corinthians 5:6-9, etc) But that's another issue. Given their soul sleep theology, and lack of resurrection of people in 1844, I can confidently say that the judgment they believe is going on right now without the persons being judged being present is not biblical, and thus we should not believe their claims that the unbiblical date 1844 and claimed events they think took place in heaven at that time, are the judgment of God on the believers. In fact, they claim that the Day of Atonement in 1844 fell on Oct 22, but this is a false distortion of history to make it seem like their 1844 sanctuary cleansing fulfilled Leviticus 16. The Universal Jewish Encyclopedia, 1939, vol. 2, lists holidays, feasts and fasts as follows for September: September (Tishri): Started on September 14, 1844 "1 Rosh Hashanah"New Year (September 14, 1844) "2 Second Day of Rosh Hashanah (September 15, 1844) "10 Yom Kippur"Day of Atonement (September 24, 1844"starting the evening of September 23, 1844) Even the Karite Jews claim Sep 23 as the correct date in 1844. http://www.truthorfables.com... When a doctrine is true you don't need to tell lies or distort the truth in order to teach it. This should make us raise some eyebrows. In Leviticus 16 there are two goats, one for the Lord as a sacrifice and one as a scapegoat. Leviticus 16 is dealing with the Day of Atonement, and one this day, the Lord's goat is sacrificed. So, whenever we see this part fulfilled, we know that the Day of Atonement ritual is being fulfilled. Jesus was the Lord's goat who was sacrificed on the cross in the first century CE, thus, the fulfillment of the Day of Atonement in Leviticus 16 was already in process at the cross 2000 years ago, showing that the anti-typical Day of Atonement began then and not in 1844 as SDAs claim. Did a pre-advent judgment begin at the cross? No! This proves that the Day of Atonement does not represent a pre-advent judgment. Leviticus 16:2 says "The Lord said to Moses: "Tell your brother Aaron that he is not to come whenever he chooses into the Most Holy Place behind the curtain in front of the atonement cover on the ark, or else he will die. For I will appear in the cloud over the atonement cover." This means that God's presence was in the Most Holy place. This is also seen in Leviticus 16:13; Exodus 25:21, 22; 30:6, Numbers 7:89, and a comparison of Exodus 25:16-22 with Psalm 80:1; 2 Samuel 6:2; 2 Kings 19:25 and Isaiah 37:16. So the Day of Atonement is when the priest would enter into Gods presence on our behalf. Jesus entered into God's presence when He ascended in the first century (Heb 9:24), proving two thing: (1) the Day of Atonement ritual of entering God's presence was fulfilled at the ascension, and (2) in order to do so He had to enter what was represented by the Most Holy. The plain testimony of Scripture is that Christ sat at God's right hand at the ascension (Act 2:30-36; Eph 1:20; Col 3:1; 1 Pet 3:21-22; Heb 1:3; 8:1; 9:12; 10:12, 19; 12:2; Rev 3:21) So Christ entered God's presence in the Most Holy 2000 years ago when He ascended, not in 1844 as Adventists claim. They false put Jesus in some other room for 1800 years to have him enter the Most Holy in 1844. This shows they don't understand how the OT types were fulfilled. It also shows that the antitypical Day of Atonement was already happening during the ascension, not in 1844 as SDAs claim. Did a pre-advent judgment begin when Jesus entered God's presence? No! Even SDAs don't think so, which shows that the atonement in Leviticus 16 does not represent a pre-advent judgment in 1844. Jesus fulfilled Leviticus 16 long before any events of 1844. To be acceptable to God a sacrifice must be perfect without blemish (Leviticus 22:20-21). To sacrifice anything other than this is considered evil (Malachi 1:8), and unacceptable (Leviticus 22:20; 22:25), an abomination to God (Deuteronomy 17:1), and we are commanded not to do it (Leviticus 22:22; Deuteronomy 15:21). It follows that both of the two goats, the one to be sacrificed and the scapegoat, had to be perfect and without blemish, because lots were cast to see which one would fulfil which role (Leviticus 16:8). If either goat were not perfect, and the lot fell on him to be sacrificed, it would have been unacceptable to God. Therefore the scapegoat had to be perfect and could not be typified by Satan who is imperfect because of his sin, but only by Christ who sacrificed himself without spot or blemish. (Heb 9:14; 1 Pet 1:18-19) This refutes the SDA claim that the scapegoat is the Devil. Just as the iniquities of the children of Israel were put on the scapegoat by the high priest (Leviticus 16:21), so God laid on Christ "the iniquities of us all." (Isaiah 53:6). This was fulfilled 2000 years ago without a pre-advent judgment. Just as the scapegoat had to "bear upon him" (Leviticus 16:22) all the iniquities of the children of Israel, so "Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many;" (Hebrews 9:28), "he bore the sin of many," (Isaiah 53:11), and he "bore our sins in his own body on the tree," (1 Peter 2:24). Where does the scripture say that Satan ever bore our sins? Nowhere, but Jesus bore them, becoming our scapegoat 2000 years ago without the pre-advent judgment which my opponent claims takes place shortly before the coming of Christ. Just as the scapegoat took the sins of the children of Israel away into the wilderness (Leviticus 16:21-22), so it is "Jesus ... who takes away the sins of the whole world." (John 1:29), because "he was manifested to take away our sins;" (1 John 3:5), and "As far as the east is from the west, so far has he (the LORD) removed our transgressions from us." (Psalm 103:12). Thus the scapegoat was a type of Christ, and not a type of Satan, who tempts us into sin rather than taking it away. The Scapegoat was sent out of the Israelite camp, and likewise, Jesus suffered outside the city: "And so Jesus also suffered outside the city gate to make the people holy through his own blood. Let us, then, go to him outside the camp, bearing the disgrace he bore." (Heb. 13:12,13) Just as an atonement was made for the children of Israel with the scapegoat (Leviticus 16:10), so God made an atonement for us with Christ. Romans 5:11 says we have already received the atonement (KJV) or reconciliation. Clearly, the atonement of Leviticus 16 was fulfilled by the time Paul wrote Romans 5:11, and thus cannot represent a pre-advent judgment in 1844. Just as the scapegoat was not bearing his own sins, but the sins of others (Leviticus 16:21), so Christ was not bearing his own sins (2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5), but our sins (Isaiah 53:5-6; 1 Peter 2:24). Where did the scripture say that Satan will bear our sins? My opponent said: "a judgment must take place to determine who the faithful are. This happens on the day of Atonement." Nowhere does Leviticus 16 make any separation during the cleansing of the sanctuary between who are the faithful and who are not! Also, they have given the judgment the wrong purpose. 2 Corinthians 5:10 says the judgment of the believers is to determine what their "reward" will be, not to determine who are faithful (saved). The identity of the saved has already been decided. Look at the list in Hebrews 11. God has made it clear than Abel, Enoch, Abraham, Moses, David and so on are safe, righteous, at one with God, that they made it. Will God now have to open records of their lives to determine all over again if these men are righteous? Their prophetess Ellen G. White says, "Those who are living upon the earth when the intercession of Christ shall cease in the sanctuary above are to stand in the sight of a holy God without a mediator" (The Great Controversy, p. 425). Needless to say, all of this contradicts the New Testament gospel of grace. The Bible teaches that believers never will enter a judgment for their salvation (John 5:24) and that there is no condemnation for a believer (Romans 8:1). The Bible teaches that when we confess our sins, they do not remain anywhere before God, they are forgiven and blotted out, wiped away! (See 1 John 1:8-9; Isaiah 43:25 and 44:22). The Bible teaches that Jesus will never stop being a believer"s mediator (Hebrews 7:25). We stand before God, not by any merit of our own or because of any works we have done (Titus 3:5, Romans 3:28, Ephesians 2:8-9). There much more to say, but let me just ask this: if the Day of Atonement in Leviticus 16 represents a pre-advent judgment beginning in 1844, then how do you explain that the Lord's goat is sacrificed and the scapegoat sent away during the Day of Atonement ritual? Both are aspects of the Day of Atonement, thus, to be consistent with the type, your antitype would need Christ to die and the scapegoat to be sent away between 1844 and the coming of Christ; otherwise. Clearly this isn't what happened, showing your understanding of Leviticus 16 to be in error. I'll pause here for now.