Homosexuality is not a Sin in The Bible

ADDRESSING THE ISSUE Homosexuality is not one specific act, it combines a variety of traits. But, the most critical trait of homosexuality(no matter how you word it), is sexual relations between same sex individuals. I should not have to repeat that the definitions agreed upon describes desire and intercourse between same sex individuals. My opponent made no specific periminators in his opening round and therefore can not make demands or suggest a debate guideline. No language gymnastics can change the meaning and intent described in the Bible. My opponent makes assumptions that anal sex is all that's referred to in Leviticus. The Bible never refers to anal intercourse but this is mutually implied. Though I have extended it to include that a man should not take a man to bed as he would a woman. I also contend that by taking a woman to bed, could possibly intel anything to oral sex, anal sex, and any other thing deemed sexual. Leviticus has already been determined by myself and my opponent as sinful. So, this point is mute. He is right that this is only one sample of homosexuality. That is why I have attacked homosexuality as a whole. My opponent never addressed Lesbianism after I went over the short video he posted about Romans 1:26-27. He never addressed marriage and the Bible never condoning or referring to homosexual marriage. The Bible only ever refers to marriage as a man and woman. He never addresses that God seen fit to make opposite sex beings and not same sex beings. My opponent has directed his argument to specific verses and a specific topic but this subject goes much deeper then my opponent is fully recognizing. MAN & WOMAN God created man and woman and not two men or two women. He did this because humans needed to procreate and they were both suitable help mates. This point shows intent by God on what should be. MARRIAGE I have went over that the Bible says that unmarried sex is considered a sin. I will offer more testimony of the Bible on this topic and address my opponent. 1 Corinthians 7:9, "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn. " I offered this passage last round and my opponent never addressed it. 1 Corinthians 7:2, "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. " My opponent never addresses this. 1 Corinthians 6:18, "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. " My opponent was right that this passage refers to prostitution but it also addresses pre-marital sex. He himself said that Paul advised the men to marry so they would not buy prostitutes therefore showing they were having pre-marital sex. Almost any act of sex that is described as immoral would be pre-marital. My point here was pre-marital fornication being sinful. Genesis 2:24, "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. " 1 Thessalonians 4:3-5, "For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you abstain from sexual immorality; that each one of you know how to control his own body in holiness and honor, not in the passion of lust like the Gentiles. " 1 Corinthians 7:1-5, "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman. " But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband. The husband should give to his wife her conjugal rights, and likewise the wife to her husband. For the wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. Likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does. Do not deprive one another, except perhaps by agreement for a limited time, that you may devote yourselves to prayer; but then come together again, so that Satan may not tempt you because of your lack of self-control. " It is clear that the Bible prefers one to deprive oneself of sexual relations. If you can not deprive yourself then you should get married because it is a sin and immoral otherwise. My opponent needs to show that homosexuals marriages were allowed and are condoned inside the Bible. ROMAN 1:26-27 My opponent is right that God punished the Romans for their idolatry. It is clear that was the case and we both have went over that but my opponent missed my section and never properly addresses it. I made it clear that these Romans had the desire to commit homosexual acts and the wording used to describe such acts are deemed to be sinful. My opponent never addressed the wording itself and the loss of restraint from God. If God held homosexuality back from them then that would show God disapproved of homosexuality. My opponent even further suggest that God used homosexuality as a punishment and therefore showing that homosexuality is a sin. He also does not refute that these verses are talking about homosexuality. In Colossians we see that sexual immorality, passion, and desire are all forms of idolatry. Therefore showing that in their idolatry they were committing homosexual acts against Gods desire. Colossians 3:5, "Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry. " REBUTTAL My opponent makes the careless mistake in assuming that because God said that male anal sex is not allowed that doesn't mean all of homosexual acts between males. I disagree of course. The wording used is 'as he lieth with a woman' and this phrase has many meanings and not one as my opponent suggest. I never really addressed this because it is weak and not a concern in my course of debate. This phrase can mean any sexual action that a man would do with a woman. An if it does mean that then this kills all homosexual activity for males. I can suggest this and maintain it because I have shown the traditional view on these verses by Rabbi's and my opponent never offers nothing but his own interpretation. The link my opponent offered showing that lust was not a sin, failed. My opponent never addresses my verse on the subject. He further tells us that scholars have shown that Bible says pre-marital sex is not a sin but gives us no link or quote. James 1:15, "Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. " Romans, "What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. " As we see lust is just a form of coveting something and not to covet is a Commandment from God. Lust has many forms and not just sexual. My opponents link to nature and culture is not valid. My opponent kills himself by the statement, "BECAUSE of what is said in Romans 1:24. so because of Idolatry YHWH gave them up to sin. " My opponent admits that homosexuality is a sin. My opponents link showing sex is not a sin has also, failed. But I am not suggesting sex is a sin but on the contrary, sex is good, God created sex. What I am showing is that there is sexual immorality and God describes it and homosexuality fits that bill. My opponent said that 'shalt not lie' is sex in general and 'Lyings with a woman' is specific and I agree and am glad he agrees. It is specific and is showing that a man should not conduct acts with another man as he would a woman. The acts are not given description. In the verse I provided about 'shall not lie' are already pertained to a woman but in Leviticus we are giving specifically that man should do with a man as he would a woman.