The God of the Bible is not triune in nature.

P1:Other “beings” can be “a god.” This is described in Psalm 82:1-6. It is also clarified that Jesus is “a god” in John 1:1, which read:“I said, ‘You are 'gods'” (KJV)“and the word was a god” (The New Testament, in An Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation: With a Corrected Text, 1808, London)Therefore, your argument for John 20:28 proving Jesus to be the “true God” (Jn. 17:3) is faulty. Jesus was the same type of “god” described in Psalm 82:1-6. You are limiting the use of the title “god,” which is not what the Bible teaches. In regards to Isaiah 9:6:Mighty God:At Isaiah 43:10 Jehovah says: “Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” Does this mean that, because Jesus Christ is […] called “Mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, Jesus must be Jehovah? Again, the context answers, No! None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before Jehovah, because no one existed before Jehovah. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isa. 46:9, 10) But that does not mean that Jehovah never caused to exist anyone who is properly referred to as a god. (Ps. 82:1, 6; Jn. 1:1, NW) At Isaiah 10:21 Jehovah is referred to as “mighty God,” just as Jesus is in Isaiah 9:6; but only Jehovah is ever called “God Almighty.”—Gen. 17:1. (rs p. 405-p. 426; Watchtower Online Library)Everlasting Father:This is not a literal title. Even you will concede that, as the trinity states that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost [or “Spirit”] are separate. There is no need for me to refute it. P2:I refuted Isaiah 44:24 and Colossians 1:15-17 in my initial argument, so I will not readdress them here. However, in regards to Psalm 104:30, this is talking about the active force of God. The spirit is not God himself. This is clarified in Genesis 1:2 and Psalm 33:6, which read:“And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.” (KJV)“By the word of Jehovah the heavens were made, And by the spirit of his mouth everything in them.” (NWT)The plurality of Genesis 1:26 (not 1:16, as you suggested) is in reference to both Jesus and God. Remember, as I have shown in my initial argument that it was through Jesus that all things were created (Col. 1:15). However, it is God that actually has the power of creation. P3:I have already addressed Isaiah 43:11 and the title of “savior” in my initial argument, so I will not readdress it here. Finish quoting Acts 4:12:“Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.” (KJV) P4-6:There is no use in using a disputed text in your argument, as it will upset the balance of the debate. You will note that the KJV, NKJV, ASV, RSV, JB, NEB, REB, MLB, LB, AB, CBW, NLV, LITV, MKJV, and various others all omit “me” after the word “ask” in John 14:14. There are manuscripts that have the word “me” in it while others do not. However, we can look to the more reliable text of John 16:23, which reads:“And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.” (KJV)The Sahidic Coptic text (2nd/3rd century), based on the Alexandirian text, reads:“If you should ask anything in my name, this I will do.” [2]I will take the position of the undisputed text over the position of the disputed text, that is common sense.P7:This is a beautiful example of what I call “wishful thinking.” “The Lord” in this verse is God, not Jesus. So it is God who says:“My undeserved kindness is sufficient for you; for [my] power is being made perfect in weakness.”It is Paul who states:“Most gladly, therefore, will I rather boast as respects my weaknesses, that the power of the Christ may like a tent remain over me.”God answered Paul's prayer. It was through Christ that Paul felt God's protection. 1 John 5:12-16 is talking about God, not Jesus. Acts 7:59 has the word “pray” in it, but that is the same Greek work used in Acts 25:11 when Paul says “I appeal to Caesar!” Are you also suggesting that Paul prayed to Caesar?P8-9:My opponent provides a rather decent summary of “Sharp's Rule.” Now I will address the problems with it. To start, let me quote some very notable Greek scholars on the topic:“We cannot discuss here the problem of Titus 2:13, for we must, as grammarians, leave the matter open ...” (J. H. Moulton's A Grammar of New Testament Greek, p. 84, Vol. 1.)In regards to 2 Peter 1:1, “'God' here is clearly separated from 'Christ'.” (Theological Investigations, Karl Rahner, pp. 136, 137, Vol.1, 3rd printing: 1965.)In regards to Titus 2:13, the sense “of the Great God, and of our Saviour Jesus Christ […] is possible in [New Testament] Greek even without the repetition[of the definite article before the second noun].” (An Idiom-Book of New Testament Greek, by C. F. D. Moule, Cambridge, England, 1971, p. 109.)“Of the Glory of the great God and of our Saviour Christ Jesus” (Titus 2:13,The Bible, A New Translation, by Dr. James Moffatt, Professor of New Testament Greek at Oxford University.)Granville Sharp made up his own rule in 1798. His rule is used by some for five verses of the Bible (Ti. 2:13; 2 Pet. 1:1; 2 Thes. 1:12; 1 Tim. 5:21; and Eph. 5:5). From the very moment it was proposed, there was great controversy. [1] Now, let's list the translations that disagree with my opponent's translation of 1 Peter 1:1:KJV, ASV, Weymouth NT, The New American Bible (1970), NAB (1991), New American Standard Bible, Revised Standard Version, NRSV, The Jerusalem Bible, NJB , Today's English Version, New English Bible, The Living Bible, Phillips, Modern Language Bible, Douay Version, King James II Version , Good News Bible, The Amplified Bible, Barclay's Daily Study Bible (1975), New Life Version, Easy-to-Read Version, and various others. Why use such a disputed “rule” in your initial argument? How about Titus 2:13?:KJV, CJB, GNV, Phillips, NLV, Coverdale, Geneva, Wycliffe, Tyndale, Mace, Moffatt, The Living Oracles, Noyes, Riverside, Sawyer, New American Bible (1970), New American Bible (1991), A New Translation in Plain English, CEV, and various others. “I would submit that [a translation which clearly differentiates God from Christ at Titus 2:13] satisfies all the grammatical requirements of the sentence: that it is both structurally and contextually more probable, and more agreeable to the Apostle’s [Paul’s] way of writing.” (The Greek Testament, p. 421, Vol. 3.) P10:Eternal:The Father is eternal, the Son was created (Col. 1:15; reference P1 above), and I want to take Hebrews 9:14 in a different direction. It reads:“How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?” (KJV)This draws another instance of Jesus being a separate person (or being) from God. Omniscient:The Son is not omniscient. Consider Matthew 24:36, which reads:“But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.” (KJV)John 16:30 is in reference to verses such as John 5:19, which reads:“Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.” (KJV)Omipresent:omnipresent - present everywhere at the same time This trait is not associated with Jesus (Matt 18:20).Omipotent:Matthew 28:18:“Then Jesus came to them and said, 'All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.'”Who gave him this authority?P11:What is meant by “known” and “dwelleth [or “abides”]”? This is shown in 1 John 2:3, 5, 6, which read:“by this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments […] By this we know that we are in Him: the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner He walked [your purpose, actions words, and life must reflect his example].” (NASB)Also consider 1 John 3:29, which reads:“he that keeps His [God's] commandments abides in Him, and He in him.” (NASB)Now, what does “seen” mean? Consider 3 John 11 and 1 John 3:6, which read:“the one who does good is of God; the one who does evil has not seen God.” (NASB)“No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him.” (NASB)“human beings have seen or will see God Himself do not refer to a perception of a physical aspect of God by human physical senses but a process of coming to some amount of understanding of God” (The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, p. 380, Vol. 4.)In regards to Hebrews 1:6 and other verses regarding the “worship” of Jesus, consider the following:“PROSKUNEO […] to make obeisance, do reverence to […] an act of homage or reverence (a) to God […]; (b) to Christ […]; (c) to a man,” (Webster's New Collegiate Dictionary, 1961.)P12, 13:Mark 1:3; Acts 2:21; and Romans 10:13 are in reference to God, not Christ. P14:My opponent is going to need to clarify his position better. John said, in John 12:41:“These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.” (KJV)This is referring to God, not Jesus.P15:Isa. 44:6:“Thus says the LORD, Israel's King and redeemer, the LORD of hosts” (NAB) Also: NIV, JB, LB, GNB, REB, NJB, and various others render the text similarly. So where are you reading that Jesus is God?Rev. 1:8:There was no punctuation in the original Greek manuscripts. There are also no quotation marks in the KJV. This means that who is speaking and when is up to the reader.Rev. 1:7:Adam was the “first” and “last” man to be made of dust (1 Cor. 15:45). Verse 18 shows us that Jesus was the “first” to be resurrected to eternal life directly by God. He was also the “last” to be directly resurrected by God to eternal life. This has nothing to do with sharing titles with God.Rev. 5:13:Jesus is not on the throne. Notes in comments.