Jesus is not the Messiah

I've been very busy, so I'm low on time. I will respond quickly.~Rebuttal: Round Four~C1: Jesus did not qualify the messiaha) Tribal lineage comes only through the fatherRegardless which function the words serve, the fact is still there. There is no possible way that my opponent can conclude that this virgin/young woman is not Mary.1.) Am I the one with flawed logic? It would only make sense that Isaiah was prophesying; this is what prophets were called to do. Besides, if one is to read earlier in the verse, they will discover that Isaiah is addressing the house of David. Now, why would he have done that had it been short-term? Why would he have addressed any house had it not been a prophecy?2.) As I have stated before, Isaiah was prophesying about the Messiah; it would only make sense, due to the circumstances. Who then, could be anyone else besides this Messiah? It would only make sense that Emmanuel be Jesus Christ; Elijah and Elisha and other "El's" came in their own time. With us is God; God with us, could easily refer to Jesus, given the circumstances.3.) If two people are born in Russia, and get married and have a child in a different country, does this mean that the child will have no Russian blood? Absolutely not. This argument proves nothing. Jesus was just as much a child of Judah as was Joseph and Mary.4.) Unfortunately, this still does not prove to be a reasonable argument. Besides my opponent's logic, there is absolutely no reason to believe that the Messiah had to descend from Solomon. There is absolutely no Biblical evidence; just my opponent's reasoning. Secondly, the fact still remains; Jesus Christ is a descendant of Nathan through Mary. Yet, since he was never adopted (which only makes sense) he could very well be the descendant of Solomon as well. Nonetheless, I don't think this would matter.C2: Jesus was a false propheta) Second temple destroyedAgain, I extend my case. I give ample reason to believe that these prophecies have not yet occurred. Regarding the issue of the verse where Jesus speaks of this "generation," The generation of people living when those events occur is the generation that Jesus speaks of "not passing" until He returns. Jesus had already told those living during His first time on earth that the kingdom had been taken from them (Matthew 21:43). Therefore, it is imperative that Matthew 24-25 be seen as speaking of a future time and that the word generation is referring to the people alive when the events of Matthew 24-25 are occurring [1]. Secondly, the Messiah had to come before the destruction of the Temple; even the "semi-destruction." I would encourage my opponent to investigate this further via my second source.b) Kosher lawsAs I have stated earlier, Jesus couldn't have changed it. We should first notice that the subject is food in general, not which meats are clean or unclean . The Greek word broma, used in verse 19, simply means food. An entirely different Greek word, kreas, is used in the New Testament where meat—animal flesh —is specifically intended (see Romans 14:21; 1 Corinthians 13:8). So this passage concerns the general subject of food rather than meat. But a closer look shows that more is involved. The first two verses help us understand the context: "Then the Pharisees and some of the scribes came together to Him, having come from Jerusalem. Now when they saw some of His disciples eat bread with defiled, that is, with unwashed hands, they found fault" (verses 1-2). They asked Jesus, "Why do Your disciples not walk according to the tradition of the elders, but eat bread with unwashed hands?" (verse 5). Now we see the subject further clarified. It concerns eating "with unwashed hands." Why was this of concern to the scribes and Pharisees? The covenant God made with Israel at Mount Sinai was based on many laws and other instructions that ensured ritual purity. Jewish observance, however, often went beyond these in embracing the "oral law" or "tradition of the elders"—passed on by word of mouth and consisting of many additional man-made requirements and prohibitions tacked onto God's laws. Verses 3-4 of Mark 7 provide a brief explanation of the specific practice the Pharisees and scribes were referring to in this account: "For the Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash their hands in a special way, holding the tradition of the elders ..." Notice that food laws are not in question here. The topic is ritual purity based on the religious traditions of the oral law. The disciples were being criticized for not following the proper procedure of ceremonial hand-washing prescribed by these revered religious traditions. [3] C3: Jesus failed to meet the Messianic requirements 1.) Peace on Earth The burden of proof has already been fulfilled. This "Peace on Earth" has not occurred yet. I have already denounced my opponent's argument as inconclusive, due to the fact that this does not prove or disprove Christ being the Messiah. 2.) Torah Observation believe the strongest verse in the Bible that condones Sunday worship is Romans 14:5-6, and although it is not a command to worship on Sunday, it definitely includes Sunday as a day suitable for worship. Historically, it was not until about 100 years after the crucifixion (give or take ten years) that there is any record of "Sunday" becoming any kind of issue in the early church; however, Romans 14:5-6 does provide some proof for the Sunday-keeper to point to scripture for "holding one day above another," as these two verses, I believe are addressing the "Sunday Issue." Yes, I believe that as early as 30-40 years after the crucifixion, there were believers who began to hold that "Sunday" was important, that it was special, and began to think of it as a memorial to the day "Jesus rose from the dead." Romans 14:5-6 does provide some slim evidence of this particular esteem of "one day above others." [4] 3.) Jews to Israel It would only make sense that this is a confirmation of Jesus' position. For one, the gathering of the Jews is something that is occurring as we speak; although gradual, it is in process. Second, if God is God and in his infinite wisdom, is able to foresee and understand this process, one could only assume that Jesus Christ is God. Why is this? He has already been been to Earth, and fulfilled every single prophecy that has been issued to him. Case Closed. [1] http://www.gotquestions.org...[2] http://webcache.googleusercontent.com...[3] http://www.ucg.org...[4] http://www.truthseek.net...