The Bible does not teach Monotheism

Well written Rebuttal Con. I appreciate Con producing context to some of the verses that I used. As the saying goes "a text without a context is a pretext." (lol) A: Con says of Genesis 1:26 ". In verse 2, we read that the "Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters." The Spirit of God is something distinct from God, or it would have just read "God." He then concludes ", it was one God (not 'gods) saying "let us." The context does not hint anywhere else to multiple deities, and to insert that here is to impose an interpretation onto the text." I submit the text from verse two "And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters."(1) This verse does not definitively show that "The Spirit of God is something distinct from God.." I ask Con to whom is God referring when he says "us" and "our" if not another God? Here is an example of what my opponent is suggesting. My spirit and I are writing this argument and yet I would I say to my spirit let "us" write "our" argument?! Of course not; unless con believes God is a schizophrenic, I maintain my position that the use of the words "us" and "our" does imply multiple Gods. B: In regards to Exodus 20:3 Con states ". For the LORD to tell his people to not worship any other gods does not give us any detail to their ontological nature." Sure it does, would not it be simpler to say there are no other Gods to worship, as opposed to "no other Gods before me." I maintain that this implies the existence of other Gods. C: John 10: 34. Con states "the Hebrew word "elohim" is used in the Scriptures to address humans," this is true, again as I maintain that humans are "gods in embryo." The Hebrew translation of this word verifies my usage of this word. Jesus uses this word to refer to Humans Elohim. [The basic form] God; gods. The plural form of El, meaning "Strong One." The Name Elohim occurs 2,570 times in the Tanakh. See Isa. 54:5; Jer. 32:27; Gen. 1:1; Isa. 45:18; Deut. 5:23; etc. (2) "Elohim (אֱלֹהִים) is a grammatically singular or plural noun for "god" or "gods" in both modern and ancient Hebrew language."(3) D: 1 Cor. 8:4-6 Con says "identifies this issue," and that the verse "excludes the possibility of of any other god." I again invite those reading to read those verses for themselves. (4) it includes the phrase "as there be gods many, and lords many," I again would say "Paul here eludes that there may exists other "Gods" however that for "us" (Christians) there is one God. Christians believe in what is called the "true" God. This does not imply that there are no other Gods, just that there is a "true" God or in other words the God you should follow." I leave it to the readers to decide E: Jeremiah 10:10: all we have to do is read verse 11. "Thus shall ye say unto them, The gods that have not made the heavens and the earth, even they shall perish from the earth, and from under these heavens."(5) This scripture still refers to these "false" and capable of "perishing" beings as "gods." Also I would note that this verse does not say all other Gods just the ones that "have not made the heavens, and earth." This verse affirms the existence of other gods. F: Phil. 2:5-6 " 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" This is probably as strait forward as can be" "let this mind be in you, (think these things) which was also in Christ Jesus: (things that Christ also thought) "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God" G: Phil. 3:14 " I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus."(7) Again I affirm that this does necessitate Paul striving to become a God. It is a very strait forward scripture indeed. "I press toward the mark ( to press or move toward) for the prized (reward) of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus." (in/through) It is evident that Paul is saying that he is moving forward, pushing for the prize of the call of God that comes through Christ Jesus. H: Romans 8:16-17 I Affirm that this verse does imply that ability to become as God. I submit the definition of heir. "a person who inherits or is entitled to inherit the rank, title, position, etc., of another."(8) (As a side note, I did not use the first definition or second due to the belief that God cannot die.) We are "heirs of God and joint heirs with Christ." Who as con stated "meaning that Christ has the same nature and ontological status as God." Concluding affirmation of argument As I concluded in round two "If the Bible teaches that we are children of God, can become like God, are warned not to worship other Gods then the Bible does not teach monotheism." Rebutting cons argument A: Exodus 15:11 "Who is like unto thee, O Lord, among the gods? who is like thee, glorious in holiness, fearful in praises, doing wonders?"(9) Con says this verse "does not imply that there are numerous deities, though one may be tempted to think that way." It is tempting because this verse does in fact affirm the existence of other Gods. Con Goes on to say "Moses is praising God for being greater than the "gods" I concede this point, because I agree. Moses is praising God for being the greatest God. If there are no other Gods how can God be great. Great is a comparative word, and Moses by saying that God is greater implies greater than other "gods." I thank Con for providing this verse as it fits perfectly. B: Isa. 44:6-8 This verse does say "Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any."(10) This is by far the best contention that Con has set forth. However, when the Lord say "I know not" this does not mean that they do not exist" for example Mathew 7:23 "And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." (11) Does this mean he never knew those he is talking too? Of course he is not. Con also said "we must note that when the LORD says something, it is final. He is all knowing. So when he says, "Is there a God besides me?...I know not any," that means there are no other gods to be known. If God does not know something, then that something does not exist. Therefore, there are no other gods beside the one God, Yahweh." To this logic I ask Con what about the words he said "ye are gods," "let us make man in our image." Are those words not also spoken with the same authority and just as "final." C: Isaiah 43:10 Again I would state that the Lord is portraying his significance in our salvation. He is the "way truth and light." He is the only way we can be saved. From our perspective there are none other that can save us and therefore there are (to us) no other Gods that can save us, ergo wording "no other God," as Paul portrayed in 1 Corinthians. D: Con says ". My presupposition is that the Bible is the only infallible Word of God. Kasmic's presupposes that the Bible is not the only Word of God, but the Book of Mormon is also. So, we are operating on two completely different worldviews." To this I will apply Mathew 4:4 "But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."(12) I believe that all that God says is scripture, I believe the Bible to be the word of God so far as it is translated correctly. I also believes that God Speaks, not spoke. Due to his omnipotence and omniscience I would be foolish to limit his words and say he can speak no more. Con says "When it comes to the interpretation of the Bible, I believe that the Bible interprets itself because God is his own interpreter. However, Joseph Smith's exegetical and editorial/translational method has placed him as a higher authority than the Bible. Because, to change what the Bible says is to claim to have truth that the Bible does not have" To this I apply Ephesians 4: 11-14 "And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; 12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ: 13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ: 14 That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive;" The verses I have used in this debate are from the King James version of the Bible they are not translated versions from Joseph Smith. I do believe that, as this verse says, God will continue to call "apostles, and some, prophets; and some evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; until we come in the unity of the faith." I would like to clarify that this last portion of Cons argument and my responses are more of conversation of doctrine not readily applicable to the debate and that the judges remember this debate is about Monotheism and the Bible, not so much about Mormonism, and Born again Christians. (1)https://www.lds.org... (2)http://www.hebrew4christians.com... (3)http://en.wikipedia.org... (4)https://www.lds.org... (5)https://www.lds.org... (6)https://www.lds.org... (7)https://www.lds.org... (8)http://dictionary.reference.com... (9)https://www.lds.org... (10)https://www.lds.org... (11)https://www.lds.org... (12)https://www.lds.org...