The Bible condones slavey as seen in colonial America

The Alabama slave code of 1833 states that slaveowners must “abstain from all injuries to them [slaves] extending to life or limb.” So, beating your slaves was not allowed. In fact, the law enjoins slave owners to treat their slaves “with humanity.” But we all know that African-American slaves were horrifically abused in spite of these laws. Why? Because slaves were viewed by their owners as “property”; not human beings.Like the African-American slaves, the Israelite’s foreign slaves were considered “property.” Beating your slaves was permitted by the Mosaic law, on the grounds that slaves are the “property” of their owners. However, there are a few stipulations: (1) Don’t beat your slaves to death. (2) Don’t beat your slaves so badly that they’re disabled for more than two days. (3) Don’t damage their eyes or teeth, otherwise they go free. Note that slaves were beaten “with a rod.” See Exodus 21:20-21, Exodus 21:26-27, and Leviticus 25:44-46.But who were these foreign slaves? Were they all a bunch of depraved, infanticidal villains?Well, there were people who sacrificed children back in those days. These people were the Canaanites. The Canaanites worshipped a god known as Molech. They sacrificed children to Molech to "ensure financial prosperity for the family and future children.” [1] Yahweh was opposed to this practice: “...you shall not let any of your descendants pass through the fire to Molech, nor shall you profane the name of your God: I am the LORD.” See Leviticus 18:21.The Israelites never enslaved the Canaanites; they exterminated them. See Deuteronomy 20:16-18: “However, in the cities of the nations the LORD your God is giving you as an inheritance, do not leave alive anything that breathes. Completely destroy them — the Hittites, Amorites, Canaanites, Perizzites, Hivites, and Jebusites — as the LORD your God has commanded you.” My opponent argues that the Israelites only enslaved infanticial pagans. This verse proves him wrong**. Hopefully now it's clear why I brought it up.So, who did the Israelites enslave, if not the Canaanites? When the Israelites attacked a city, they would first make its people an “offer of peace.” If the “offer of peace” was accepted, “all the people” in the city would become their slaves, and would be “subject to forced labour.” Women, children, and livestock could be taken as “plunder.” By the way, “plunder" is defined as “property acquired illegally and violently…in a time of war or civil disorder.” So, the Israelites enslaved women and children. Women and children, they thought, were equivalent to livestock.Israelites purchased slaves from other nations. They are expressly permitted to do so by God, in Leviticus 25:44-46. Foreign slaves didn’t get the cushy deal the Israelites gave their fellow countrymen. Their treatment was largely unregulated. We know that they were slaves for life. According to Exodus 21:4, the children of slaves were born into slavery, as it was with African-American slaves. They were beaten, just like African-American slaves. [1] http://www.gotquestions.org...** I have no idea why my opponent brought this verse up in Round #4, as it totally undermines his argument that the Molech-worshippers were *mercifully* enslaved by the Israelites. Deuteronomy 20:17-18 is an explicit commandment to SLAUGHTER the Canaanites; not enslave them. What were you thinking?