Jesus is not GOD

ok tnx for respond... 1) u said "Jesus limited himself in human form so he could be as we are, face unknowing like we do, and choose like we choose. " did jesus says that? you are giving definition and what jesus did without evidence.. please show it that jesus said that from the bible. bible doesnt need mine your or people interpretations. 2)"Jesus claims to be the Messiah" - so what? messiah (christ) doesnt mean god. the Hebrew word for anoint is 'massahah' from which we get the word messiah in Hebrew and masih in Arabic. The root word for both Arabic and Hebrew is the same. Massahah means to rub, to massage, to anoint. and 1.6 bilion muslims in the world also believe that jesus was the messiah and prophet but not god. 3) "Son, your sins are forgiven."- you quouted from Mark 2:5. lets see the context of Mark 2:5-10: 5 When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee. 6 But there was certain of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts, 7 Why doth this man thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only? 8 And immediately when Jesus perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, he said unto them, Why reason ye these things in your hearts? 9 Whether is it easier to say to the sick of the palsy, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and take up thy bed, and walk? 10 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins So as we read, Jesus forgave the sin and said he has the power to do so. Had the Christian read the first 4 Gospels in context they would see that Jesus being able to forgive sin was not something divine, but rather a power given to him by God, note what Jesus says when he forgave sin: But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins Notice Jesus tells the scribe that on earth Jesus had the power to forgive sins, so therefore we must now ask ourselves the question, from where did Jesus get this power? Did Jesus own this power? Let us see what Jesus said about who gave him this power, and once doing so, we shall fully grasp the context: John 17:6-8: 6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. 7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. 8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me John 13:3 Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God; This is what Christians never quote, and when you leave such crucial information out it draws a false picture . As we see, Jesus himself stated that ALL THINGS that were given to him were FROM GOD. This means that all the miracles Jesus did were from God, so the fact that Jesus could forgive sin was because the Father had given him this great miracle, it was the Father who gave Jesus this mighty power to forgive sin. Once we know this crucial information it completely eliminates any thought of Jesus having any divinity because of doing such a mighty miracle. If Jesus had the power from himself, and did this miracle by himself, then the Christians would have a very good case, sadly this is not the case. The reality is that the Father gave Jesus this mighty power and miracle, and if Jesus was really God, he would not need to be given such power, he would OWN IT, the fact he does not own it shows he is not God, and shows there is nothing divine about performing such a great miracle. God grants miracles to all his prophets, shall we say that each prophet is divine for doing several amazing super-natural works? Off course not, so why do Christians do it for Jesus? Such inconsistency is very strange, and shows the Christians really have no case for showing Jesus to be God. 4) John 1:1" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."e we need to examen this in greek language its source...the answer is too long its not gonna fit the scape i have... anyway i will try to short it but if you go to the link it answers you in detail... here the link http://www.answering-christianity.com... - Most Trinitarians believe that the word logos refers directly to Jesus Christ, so in most versions of John logos is capitalized and translated "Word" (some versions even write "Jesus Christ" in John 1:1). However, a study of the Greek word logos shows that it occurs more than 300 times in the New Testament, and in both the NIV and the KJV it is capitalized only 7 times (and even those versions disagree on exactly when to capitalize it). When a word that occurs more than 300 times is capitalized fewer than 10 times, it is obvious that when to capitalize and when not to capitalize is a translators" decision based on their particular understanding of Scripture. As it is used throughout Scripture, logos has a very wide range of meanings along two basic lines of thought. One is the mind and products of the mind like "reason," (thus "logic" is related to logos) and the other is the expression of that reason as a "word," "saying," "command" etc. The Bible itself demonstrates the wide range of meaning logos has, and some of the ways it is translated in Scripture are: account, appearance, book, command, conversation, eloquence, flattery, grievance, heard, instruction, matter, message, ministry, news, proposal, question, reason, reasonable, reply, report, rule, rumor, said, say, saying, sentence, speaker, speaking, speech, stories, story, talk, talking, teaching, testimony, thing, things, this, truths, what, why, word and words. The renowned Trinitarian scholar, John Lightfoot, writes: The word logos then, denoting both "reason" and "speech," was a philosophical term adopted by Alexandrian Judaism before St. Paul wrote, to express the manifestation of the Unseen God in the creation and government of the World. It included all modes by which God makes Himself known to man. As His reason, it denoted His purpose or design; as His speech, it implied His revelation. Christian teachers, when they adopted this term, exalted and fixed its meaning by attaching to it two precise and definite ideas: (1) "The Word is a Divine Person," (2) "The Word became incarnate in Jesus Christ." It is obvious that these two propositions must have altered materially the significance of all the subordinate terms connected with the idea of the logos. [17] It is important to note that it was "Christian teachers" who attached the idea of a "divine person" to the word logos. It is certainly true that when the word logos came to be understood as being Jesus Christ, the understanding of John 1:1 was altered substantially. Lightfoot correctly understands that the early meaning of logos concerned reason and speech, not "Jesus Christ." Norton develops the concept of logos as "reason" and writes: There is no word in English answering to the Greek word logos, as used here [in John 1:1]. It was employed to denote a mode of conception concerning the Deity, familiar at the time when St. John wrote and intimately blended with the philosophy of his age, but long since obsolete, and so foreign from our habits of thinking that it is not easy for us to conform our minds to its apprehension. The Greek word logos, in one of its primary senses, answered nearly to our word Reason. The logos of God was regarded, not in its strictest sense, as merely the Reason of God; but, under certain aspects, as the Wisdom, the Mind, the Intellect of God (p. 307). please check it the link i gave... 5) about paul: Paul never met Jesus during his life time. the incident the vision he saw at the road to dimascus is that the "lord" spoke to him (no mentioning about the name jesus, in acts he heard voices and light... ) -"Prayer for Jesus was a connection to his father, not only supplication, like prayer has become." - look man simple logic you dont have to be a doctore of devinity... use your brain god doesnt pray to himself do u pray to yourself?? or jesus was acting thats what u telling me.. o on the cross when he said, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me"? (cf. Mark 15:34; Matthew 27:46) Was he praying to himself? If so, was he complaining to himself about why he had forsaken himself? look i dont know if u actually read round 1 because the answer is there.. "He was fully God and fully Man." - there isnt such thing god and man at the same time... its opposits like fat and thin. if u read the bible properly jesus always show u that he is a man not a god... he never said im god or worship me.. please read round 1 u will understand what im saiding... Dude read again 1 round ... for exsample i gave you verse Mat 19:16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but one, [that is], God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. - how do you explain that he is refuting himself as a good and says "none good but one, [that is], God"? - this jew didnt know about trinity father holy ghost and the son because he was a jew old testment dosent teach that.. what jesus says? keep the commandments (old testment). i have more miliion reasons why he isnt god but u didnt touch of my arguments and i dont have many scape to write more.