Muhammad is mentioned in the Bible.

Thank you Valtin for your opening arguments. I will first begin by presenting Deuteronomy 18:18, the verse that describes Moses saying a Prophet like him will be raised among the brethren of the Israelites. I will list similarities between Jesus and Moses. I hope this would convince you that Jesus is truly the Prophet like Moses, not Muhammad. Jesus and Moses were Jews Moses and Jesus were born under a cruel leader (Pharaoh for Moses, Herod for Jesus) Moses and Jesus hid in Egypt as children The leader of the land Moses and Jesus were living in tried to kill all the babies when they were born. Moses and Jesus both died on hills Moses and Jesus communicated directly with God. Moses and Jesus were hated by the ruling party (Pharaoh for Moses, the Pharisees for Jesus) Moses and Jesus chose 12 leaders to follow. (12 Tribes for Moses, 12 Apostles for Jesus) Moses sent 12 spies to Canaan to bring people to the Promised Land while Jesus sent 12 people to bring Disciples to the Promised Land (Heaven) Moses and Jesus had siblings who misunderstood them Moses and Jesus both showed compassion to a women getting water at a well Moses led his followers out of slavery from Egypt while Jesus led his followers out of slavery from sin and many more. I will now refute the verses which you have presented to me as prophecies for the Prophet Muhammad. John 16:12 - 14 This verse, as you acknowledge, predicts the coming of the Holy Spirit. Your argument however, is based on the faulty assumption that the Holy Spirit cannot speak and never came. According to Acts 13:2 (NASB95) "While they were ministering to the Lord and fasting, the Holy Spirit said, "Set apart for Me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them." Regarding your claim that the Holy Spirit never came, in Acts 2:4, it states "All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them." Deuteronomy 18:18 I will first address some of the similarities between Muhammad and Moses that you offer. You say that both had a father and a mother. This is my question to Con: doesn't everybody else? Any false prophet can also make the claim that they were like Moses because they both had a biological father and mother. It is not something unique to Muhammad that would be of any significance. Your other arguments are also very trivial. There are countless numbers of people who have been married and had children and probably even more who have died natural deaths. Take for example Solomon, who is considered a prophet of Judaism, Christianity, and Islam. He was born to a father and mother, was married and had children, and died a natural death. According to your arguments, all of these traits would qualify Solomon as the prophet described as Moses. But obviously, you believe it is simply not the case. Obviously the first three traits of Muhammad are simply too general for anyone to claim that he is the Prophet like Moses. Your next argument is about the term "brethren" being a reference to the Ishmaelites. A quick look at each time the term "brethren" is used in the Book of Deuteronomy will falsify such an argument. Let us list each time "brethren" is used in the OT and provide it's meaning. The Levites, the priestly tribe, were brethren (Deuteronomy 18:2 and 10:9) The king of Israel is to come from the brothers (Deut 17:15) The king of Israel is not to raise himself over his brothers (Deut 17:20) Brother Israelites as different from aliens (Deut 1:16) Brothers, the sons of Israel (Deut 3:18) Brothers Israelites as distinct from foreigners (Deut 15:2-3) Brother Israelites (Deut 15:7) Brothers, sons of Esau (Deut 2:4 & 8) Brothers of Edom (Numbers 20:14) As you can see, any time the term "brethren" was not used to refer to an Israelite, the nation of such "brethren" was specified. From this stylistic clue, we can deduce that if the nation of these "brethren" was not mentioned, the "brethren" would be Israelite, the nation which Jesus belonged to. Going back to the example of Solomon, he was also a king who could have inflicted capital punishment. Is he the Prophet like Moses? Jesus also brought a new law to the people: John 13:34 - ""A new command I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another..." Isaiah 29:12 If we look at the context of the verse, we will realize that this is not a prophetic reference to Muhammad, but instead a description of a larger event, the punishment of Israel by God for not being obedient to the Law. Isaiah 29 opens up with a prophecy of the woe of David's city: 29 Woe to you, Ariel, Ariel, the city where David settled! Add year to year and let your cycle of festivals go on. 2 Yet I will besiege Ariel; she will mourn and lament, she will be to me like an altar hearth.[a] 3 I will encamp against you on all sides; I will encircle you with towers and set up my siege works against you. 4 Brought low, you will speak from the ground; your speech will mumble out of the dust. Your voice will come ghostlike from the earth; out of the dust your speech will whisper. 5 But your many enemies will become like fine dust, the ruthless hordes like blown chaff. Suddenly, in an instant, 6 the Lord Almighty will come with thunder and earthquake and great noise, with windstorm and tempest and flames of a devouring fire. 7 Then the hordes of all the nations that fight against Ariel, that attack her and her fortress and besiege her, will be as it is with a dream, with a vision in the night" 8 as when a hungry person dreams of eating, but awakens hungry still; as when a thirsty person dreams of drinking, but awakens faint and thirsty still. So will it be with the hordes of all the nations that fight against Mount Zion. 9 Be stunned and amazed, blind yourselves and be sightless; be drunk, but not from wine, stagger, but not from beer. 10 The Lord has brought over you a deep sleep: He has sealed your eyes (the prophets); he has covered your heads (the seers). 11 For you this whole vision is nothing but words sealed in a scroll. And if you give the scroll to someone who can read, and say, "Read this, please," they will answer, "I can"t; it is sealed." 12 Or if you give the scroll to someone who cannot read, and say, "Read this, please," they will answer, "I don"t know how to read." As you can see, Isaiah 29:12 is simply saying that the Jewish people were ignorant of the Scripture and did not care to understand it. It does not prophecy the coming of a prophet. Al-Qu'ran Chapter 61:6 To try and claim that the texts of John used by English translators were corrupted in that they mixed up the term "paracletos" and "paraclytos" would require a significant proof from you considering that over 5,600 Greek manuscripts all contain the former term and not the latter. I challenge you to produce a document that contains the latter. Now regarding your claim that Jesus had to depart for the Holy Spirit to come, let's look at what the text says: John 16:7 - "But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to YOU; but if I go, I will send him to YOU." (emphasis mine). In the context of John 16, Jesus was talking to the APOSTLES. Because Jesus was talking to the Apostles, he meant that once he left, the Holy Spirit would come upon THEM. Before the death of Jesus, his Apostles were weak men who doubted many things Jesus said. After the death of Christ and his Resurrection, the Apostles suddenly became brave men, willing to die for the cause of the Gospel. This is what Jesus meant when he said the Holy Spirit would come upon the Apostles. The Holy Spirit had always existed, but it had not yet come into the lives of the Apostles. Now let's assume that every English translator got this verse wrong and Jesus was actually referring to Muhammad. If the "paracletos" was actually Muhammad, then why did Muhammad come 600 years later? It says in the verse that this "paracletos" would come to "you", the Apostles, after Jesus's death, not hundreds of years later to the Arabs. Song of Songs 5:16 I would first of like to say that the Song of Songs 5:16 is not a prophecy, but a description of the man a woman loves. Second of all, a more accurate, less biased romanization the Hebrew for "lovely" would be "machamadim." It is inaccurate to say that the romanization of the word is "muhammadim." Also, "machamadim" in this case is a plural ADJECTIVE. It is not a noun referring to a person. You also claim "machamadim" can be directly translated as "Muhammad." "Machamadim" means "lovely" while "Muhammad" means "praised." You cannot say that they mean the same thing. Also, the Qu'ran states that prophecies of Muhammad would be found in the Torah and the Gospel. Al-Qu'ran 7:157 - "Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written in what they have of the Torah and the Gospel, who enjoins upon them what is right and forbids them what is wrong and makes lawful for them the good things and prohibits for them the evil and relieves them of their burden and the shackles which were upon them. So they who have believed in him, honored him, supported him and followed the light which was sent down with him - it is those who will be the successful." Song of Songs is neither a part of the Torah or the Gospel; it is a part of the Ketuvim (or "Writings") portion of the Tanakh, not the Torah. Haggai 2:7 I would like to correct Con's presentation of the verse in questions Haggai 2:7 - "I will shake all nations, and what is desired by all nations will come, and I will fill this house with glory,' says the LORD Almighty." Where in this verse is "Muhammad" mentioned? The word for "desire" in this verse is "chemdah." Can you explain to me how this word can be replaced with "Muhammad?" I believe I have refuted Con's arguments with much sufficiency. I will cite sources in the final round. (I'm running out of space lol)