Homosexuality is Compatible with Christian Doctrine and God's Law

Thank You very much for your kindness, understanding and rationality. I really appreciated it. But I do not concur with your argument against Christianity because I already presented transsexuality's coherence with the Christian Scriptures.On the Original Sin and it's relation to TransexualityAll humans came from dual progenitors: Adam and Eve. Man and Woman. Two sexes with two genders. They're created "very good" at the moment of their creation ( Genesis 1:37).Adam disobeyed God's Law and hence, sinned. His sin is called the "original sin", This sort of sin has its consequence per God's curse( Genesis 3, Romans 8:22). The curse of God/consequence of the original sin is passed on to their offspring (i.e. all humans). --Romans 3:10-11,5Biological effects of original sin--Disease ( of all sorts) e.g SARS, HIV, H1N! to name a few.--Defect (of all sorts) e.g. birth defects like Anencephaly, down syndrome, cleft life etc.--Death (of all sorts) e.g. ageing ( i.e. cell death), human death (i.e. separation of spirit to body~ James 2:26)God never creates imperfection. He just allows it to exist ( James 1:17).On the Scriptural verses against homosexual intercourse All Old Testament Scriptures that forbids homosexual intercourse are not bounding to the New Testament church.The New Testament acknowledges marriage as the summit of sexual unions. Outisde marrige, no sexual relations is allowed. --Romans 1:26-27 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 both forbids homosexual intercourse within the Religious setting of Temple worship of false deities. Hence, homosexual relations are allowed within Christian setting. This is only logical conclusion per se based on limited source of scripture and its context in both history and grammar.Do Christians in the first century understand Transsexualism? What is their view about homosexual relationship/sex/lifestyle? The only answer to these questions is that the Scriptures only talked about homosexual intercourse in a negative sense.There is no condemnation at all for homosexual relationship/lifestyle/intercourse within a Christian setting but IF Jesus' words in Matthew 19:12 about " eunuchs who were born that way" means the same thing as in his disciple's contemporary Philo in the 1st century and Christians in the 2nd and 4th centuries then it means that the case is resolved because these eunuchs are explicitly attracted to same sex. Hence, LGBT's in the early church! Source: Philo, On Joseph, XII. 58-60.Clement of Alexandria, The Stromata, III. I. --NOTE that this only proves that homosexual attraction is present in the 2nd century but having the greater context both from the 1st and 4th century, we found out that homosexual attraction is not a sin and hence, saints ( i.e. christians) are accepted in the early church as the following historical evidence evinced:Gregory of Nazianzus, Oration 37. XVI -XVII. Decrees of the Ecumenical Councils,Council of Nicea, Canon 1, AD 325. -- Romans 1:31 and 2 Timothy 3:3 doesn't talk about homosexual intercourse at all. The Greek word "astorgos" denotes "without family love ( From a- without storge- family love, natural affection to kindred)."Against the fifth commandment: Disobedient to parents, andwithout natural affection - astorgous, that is parents unkind and cruel to their children. Thus, when duty fails on one side, it commonly fails on the other. Disobedient children are justly punished with unnatural parents; and, on the contrary, unnatural parents with disobedient children." - Matthew Henry Commentary Online