bisexuality is immoral in both males and females

The argument I am using in this debate relies on Natural Law theory. Natural law theory seeks to explain facts about what is the proper functioning for rational beings. When I speak of natural, I am arguing what the proper function for; in this case, a sexual organ is used for. Unnatural explains what is not the proper purpose of the given organ. So, natural means In everyday life, there are good things and bad things. Human beings have certain functions and capabilities that are proper to those wanting to live healthy human lives. Hearts, for example, pump blood around the body, eyes see, and sexual organs are used (in sex) to reproduce. When proper functioning is changed, either through disease or lifestyle choice, the person is considered unhealthy. Harm is rooted in the concept of good; we cannot say something is damaged unless we understand its proper functioning. Natural Law theory states those aware of the Natural Law and choose to break the law is committing an immoral action. As humans are aware of their actions, and the Natural Laws, when we choose to deviate from our proper functioning have decided to commit an immoral act. But then begs the question, what is sex for? When we think of sex, we know this usually involves stimulation of two organs: the penis and the vagina. But why are these organs about sex, and not others? My opponent and others may claim sex is an act of pleasure. But if this is true, then drinking soda and eating food could be pleasure acts. But although eating often does have a sense of pleasure, which is not its sole purpose. The main purpose of eating is to nourish the body, to keep us alive. It can also be argued sex creates the greatest amount of pleasure, which is why only these organs are used for sex. But if pleasure is sex, then scratching my head is also sex: it is only a different degree of pleasure. So, we cannot define sex as pleasure, it simply does not work. Sex merely has a side effect of pleasure. The main purpose of sex comes down to one thing: procreation and creating children. From an evolutionary perspective, sex is to create babies in order to propagate society. Heterosexual sex is best suited to this goal. Now, there is a second objective to sex. Sex is not only a coming together of bodies, as rational creatures we must also have the sense of union and love. Sex also, then, forms a loving union which neither person could have accomplished alone. From these two points, we now understand sexual flourishing. Sex is about procreation and bodily union, good sex meets this standard, and bad sex fails to meet these standards. I would like to clarify: I am not saying pleasure plays no role in sex. Indeed, it actually plays a large role in sex. But it is subordinate to reproduction. Pleasure enhances sex making the action more enjoyable. Tasty foods also make eating more enjoyable, but neither is the function of those actions. For sex to be moral, its pleasure must be related to reproduction. So, how does this relate to homosexuality? Since rational human behavior creates a standard of moral goodness, it determines what is a morally acceptable action. It is wrong to misuse bodily faculties. Therefore, all morally acceptable sex must at least meet this requirement. Homosexuals intentionally misuse these faculties, and, therefore, are committing immoral acts. So, 1. It is immoral to actively use a faculty against its proper function. 2. Homosexual acts actively use our sexual faculties against their proper function. 3. Therefore, homosexual acts are immoral. This applies to both sexes. Thank you. Reference: I used this as my sole and overall reference. http://www.academia.edu...