Oneness Pentecostalism

Greetings, I will respond to your points without quoting them directly, to save space. The historical evidence of the first century is indeed substantial for this debate. A mere 20-40 years before John wrote his prologue, Philo defined the term "Word" as God's image. Furthermore, Paul wrote that the Son of Man is the image of God (Colossians 1:15.) This link cannot be denied, as well as the same term used in the Targums. And, in the Old Testament, we read that the word APPEARED to Abraham in a vision: Genesis 15:1-4 KJV Genesis 15:1 After these things the word of the LORD came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward. The term "Word" is used for God's manifestation of Himself. This is why John used this term. And, is your word a different person from yourself? And, I do not believe that the fullness of God dwelt (past tense) in Christ. What is your point? And, you get hung up in semantics (not to be unkind) and miss the whole point. God was incarnate in the Son of Man. Therefore; He "inhabited a human brain." If you have a better term for really becoming a man, and really using a human brain as your center of consciousness, please tell me and I will use it. And, this is NOT like me using a computer; it is like me using my mind to write these words in a computer. And, there is a BIG difference between accepted Jewish terminology and interpretation (traditions) that existed in the first century A.D. at the time of Christ and the apostles, and traditions of the Catholic Church. I am talking about a contemporary interpretation. And, when it says that Jesus "came forth from the Father" this refers to the virgin birth. Remember, God's Spirit moved upon Mary. It is in this way that the Son was sent. Consider: If God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit (according to your theory) are omniscient (know all things) and timeless (see the end from the beginning) how can one of them be "sent" from heaven, where they exist in an immutable, unchanging state of being? If God the Son is omniscient, and timeless, and cannot change (Malachi 2:10) how could he be sent from heaven? Would he not know that he was going before He was even asked to go? Likewise, how can the Holy Spirit be a separate person of God who is omniscient and timeless, if He is sent from heaven? If He sees the end from the beginning, then he would know that he was going to go before he was ever asked! Yet, if the Holy Spirit is defined as Jews define it, the "breath of God", then if makes sense that God could "send" His "breath" or spiritual essence into this universe. And, since God in the lesser form of a man is the High Priest and mediator (there is one mediator…the MAN Christ Jesus 2 Tim 2:5) the breath of God is sent to the earth through His blood. The "Form" in Philippians is God's image. What image was "God the Son" (your theory) in before the incarnation? Please explain this. And, this "form" or "image" could not grasp equality with God, because He is God in the lesser form of a glorified man. And, why is a second person (God the Son) the "form" of another person (God=God the Father)? Yet, it makes sense that the Son of Man is the "form" or "image" of God, because He is God incarnate. And, this is NOT "TWO GODS"! You read too much into everything! I told you time and time again that I believe that the SAME GOD and SAME PERSON exist as two different beings. Two gods are two persons, who are both God, not one person who became two (God and man)! And, God in this lesser form had a human will, so he could "choose" independently from the eternal God, who exists in a state of being that does not change. God as a man went to sleep also. Did He do this within a human mind? Please answer this. And, Kittle's merely states a provable historic belief of ancient times. The present tense of Colossians 1:16 proves it. And, as we continue to read, we discover that Jesus become "the first" through the resurrection of the dead: Colossians 1:17-18 17 And he is [PRESENT TENSE] before all things [CREATION, previous verse], and by [in, at or near] him all things consist [hold together]. 18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is [PRESENT TENSE] the beginning, the firstborn from the dead [RESURRECTED, GLORIFIED]; that [IN ORDER THAT] in all things he might have [BECOME] the preeminence [THE FIRST]. These are the Greek definitions. Take note, Jesus was "first born from the dead" so that He could become "the first" or "pre-eminent." This is possible because of the Jewish belief that God and heaven always exist before all things, and the Son of Man ascended into the Spirit of God, who dwells outside of the universe in heaven. And, of course, AS GOD, who is Spirit, Jesus was greater than the angels before the incarnation, in order to become lower. However, after the resurrection, He as made greater than the angels. This does not mean that He became only a Spirit once again. We know by the Bible that He was raised up into a body that is a "new creation" of God. This body is similar to the angels of heaven, because our bodies will become as His body, and we will become as the angels of heaven. God existing in this glorified body was a separate physical entity from the omnipotent, timeless Spirit of God the Father, and will continue to exist in this body, and through it will commune with us forever more. I ask you, is "God the Son" going to only exist in the body of the Son of Man throughout all time? Just because God can exist as two (grace and peace from God the Father and the Lord Jesus the Anointed One, the Messiah,) does not mean that He is two persons. The one God who is beyond the human definition of a person became a human person. He is the same person, in a lesser form that we can relate to. Consider the passage in Philippians: Philippians 2:7-8 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made [copied] in the likeness of men [plural] : 8 And being found in fashion [to hit upon] as a man [singular] , he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." The Angel of the LORD in the Old Testament was God, but He appeared as man—as God's servant! It is for this reason that we read that He "copied" the likeness of men (plural.) The Angel of the LORD copied the likeness of men, and appeared as God's messenger, or servant. This is what verse 7 speaks of. Verse 8 is the incarnation, for we read that God was found or "hit upon" as a man. The order of events merely reflect the apostle's belief that Christ was the Angel of the LORD, and his understanding that heaven was the timeless beginning and ending of all things, and this is where Christ now resides. Consider John's words in the book of Revelation: Revelation 22:3 3 And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him [one person!]." John calls God and the Lamb "HIM" and not "THEM!" This is because He understood that God and the Son of Man are distinct, but are the same. Jesus said "when you see me, you see him who sent me." (John 12:42) This is because the same God living as a man is the same Spirit that formed the Son of God in Mary's womb. Son of God. Mary. Get it? Son of God is the man who is God incanate! Yet, the incarnation brought about circumstances that are unique. God was able to exist as two, and speak from within a human voice, with words that He learned as a child, and chemically recalled from within His human brain as any man. Only the Spirit of the one and only God was the "soul" (metaphorcally) behind the words inside of this mind, as our spirits or souls is what is behind our own. Only, since God knows all things, and it is not possible for a human mind to hold all of the knowledge of this universe, God in this man was distinct, and limited, and lesser. Jesus said "my Father is greater than I."