God, the Father of Jesus is not the god of the Jew/Old Testament

I thank Kyle for this debate and for some decent arguments.But onto rebuttals!___" One must wonder why an omniscient and omnipotent being, that is perfect and can make no error would need to look down upon His own work and see that it is good."But does this not presuppose that the god of the Old Testament is Omnipotent?Does this not presuppose that the god of the Old Testament is Omniscient?Does this not presuppose that the god of the Old Testament is perfect?I think I demonstrated in my previous round that the god of the Old Testament can be none of these things.But, furthermore, how can this god find the world "good"?As St. Paul said in 1 Corinthians 15:50"I declare to you, brothers and sisters, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable."The God of Paul, the god that is the Father of Jesus, does not allow physical bodies into heaven.We can see similar passages throughout Paul's letters and through Marcion's Gospel (which means Luke's as well, but deceptively hidden) that God the Father of Christ Jesus is spiritual, and deals with the spiritual.We can see, as Marcion taught, that physical reality is a trap created by the god of the Jews and his archons.Only the spiritual can be perfect and good, but the god of the Old Testament, of the Jews found physical reality perfect and good! ___"These Old Testament passages credit just one God as the God of the spirits of all flesh."Does this not presuppose that god would not lie?He has a history of lying, in fact he told the very first lieto Adam!Adam did not die the day he ate the fruit, yet that is what god told him.So why wouldn't this false god lie and say that he is the god of all?But to expand on this point, this god is the god of flesh, of the impure physical reality, but God the Father of Christ Jesus is the true god, the god of spirit!___"For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak."Who says that this means that Jesus is the messiah of the Jews? Marcion believed that the Jewish messiah would still come, just that Jesus was not his messiah. Structural parallels do not necessarily prove that this Jesus is related to the god of the Jews.___Now we get into more interesting territory.When talking about scripture we cannot ignore the history of said scripture.Fo example, Kyle says to look at John 8, but why should we?We have evidence that the Gospel of John has been redacted, maybe multiple times.John 8 is heavily thought to be one of those later additions due to it not being in all the earliest copies of John that we have. It also seems to have been taken by the later redactor straight out of Luke.Other parts of John that Kyle uses (ealrier) include John 1, but this is also part of what is believed to be added later!John 1 makes the words "Word" (logos) and "grace" seem extremely important, yet they only appear in the first 18 verses.And what about the use of Acts?As we know thanks to the Acts Seminar, John Knox, Joseph Tyson, Markus Vinzent, Matthias Klinghardt, Robert M Price, and many many other scholars, Acts was written specifically to counter the Paul of Marcion, but the Paul of Marcion was the Paul of the Pauline Epistles! It was not written to be a history, but to move Paul from the "herecy" of Marcion and the gnostics into being more in line with orthodoxy thought.How can we trust such a source that would try and edit the words of an apostle?___I apologize if this round seems a little lack-luster. Something had come up and so I do not have the amount of time I thought I would to write up this rebuttal.However, I think I have sufficiently shown that God the Father of Christ Jesus is not, and cannot be the god of the Old Testament/Jews.