Atheist, are under Gods wrath, no attempts should be made to convert them.

My opponent opens up his initial argument in a rather peculiar way. I believe he is attempting to lay down some groundwork/context for his actual argument. As a result, I do not feel obligated to directly respond to it. Since I have the room, I will directly quote my opponent in my responses and that should be easier on the reader. My opponent's quotations will be bolded. Atheist are not to be pursued because they cannot hear, perceive nor understand anything you tell them? They are under Gods curse, as such they have been judged, condemned and consigned to Hell, and The Lake of Fire. They cannot HEAR you anymore than those buried in your cemeteries. They must seek God themselves, only then may they possibly be forgiven and saved. [cited passages are Galatians 3:22 and Ezekiel 18:4]Is this true? Have atheists really been judged, condemned, and consigned to hell already? It is hard to say, really. An atheist today may not be an atheist ten years from now. It all depends on whether they are of God's elect. I, myself, was raised in a secular home and considered myself an atheist for the majority of my youth. My heart of stone was replaced with a heart of flesh (Ezekiel 36:26). However, this was not based on my own effort or my own merit (Romans 9). If someone is not of God's elect (which could be an atheist, Hindu, Muslim, or even a self-proclaimed Christian) then they will justly recieve God's wrath. Unlike my opponent, I am not so quick to label a group of people as non-elect because they currently appear that way. Regarding the cited passages, I will reproduce them below and respond to each. "Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary. Now an intermediary implies more than one, but God is one. Is the law then contrary to the promises of God? Certainly not! For if a law had been given that could give life, then righteousness would indeed be by the law. But the Scripture imprisoned everything under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe. Now before faith came, we were held captive under the law, imprisoned until the coming faith would be revealed. So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian, for in Christ Jesus you are all sons of God, through faith. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise. " (Galatians 3:19-29; ESV)Anyone can honestly see here that the context of Galatians 3:22 is not atheists. It is contrasting the Law with faith in Christ. It is not dealing with atheists, as my opponent has suggested. I would respond to Ezekiel 18:4, but it is not clear how my opponent is using it. The Judgement upon atheist: Isaiah 6 [8-10], Matthew 13 [14, 15], and Romans 1 [18-32]. My opponent lists the supposed verses that show the “judgement upon atheists. ” However, it should be noted that he is ripping these verses out of their context and giving them a new meaning. Let’s consider the passages that he provided. "And I heard the voice of the Lord saying, 'Whom shall I send, and who will go forus? ' Then I said, 'Here I am! Send me. ' And he said, 'Go, and say to this people: 'Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive. ' Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed'. " (Isaiah 6:8-10; ESV)Who is being discussed in this passage? It is answered by Jesus while he was on earth. "That same day Jesus went out of the house and sat by the lake. Such large crowds gathered around him that he got into a boat and sat in it, while all the people stood on the shore. Then he told them many things in parables, saying: 'A farmer went out to sow his seed. As he was scattering the seed, some fell along the path, and the birds came and ate it up. Some fell on rocky places, where it did not have much soil. It sprang up quickly, because the soil was shallow. But when the sun came up, the plants were scorched, and they withered because they had no root. Other seed fell among thorns, which grew up and choked the plants. Still other seed fell on good soil, where it produced a crop—a hundred,sixty or thirty times what was sown. Whoever has ears, let them hear. 'The disciples came to him and asked, 'Why do you speak to the people in parables? 'He replied, 'Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them. Whoever has will be given more, and they will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them. This is why I speak to them in parables: Though seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or understand. In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah: 'You will be ever hearing but never understanding; you will be ever seeing but never perceiving. For this people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and I would heal them. 'But blessed are your eyes because they see, and your ears because they hear. For truly I tell you, many prophets and righteous people longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it'. " (Matthew 13:1-17; ESV)Was Jesus speaking of atheists? No doubt. Was Jesus also speaking of Jews? No doubt. This is not an atheist's judgement specifically, but Jesus is speaking in a more general sense. He is speaking of a crowd that had gathered to listen to Him. My opponent also cited Romans 1 as evidence of judgement against atheists. Again, Romans 1 is not specifically speaking of only atheists. Consider verses 21-24:"For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being and birds and animals and reptiles. Therefore God gave them overin the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. They exchanged the truth about God for a lie,and worshiped and served created thingsrather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen. " (ESV)Are atheists the only ones who exchange "the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being a birds and animals and reptiles"? Of course not. Hindus do this as well as many other false religions. Are atheists the only ones who worship and serve "created things rather than the Creator"? Surely not. All false religions worship created things rather than the Creator. So I am not terribly sure why my opponent wants to limit the meaning of these passages to only atheists. So you see brothers and sisters we are to preach the gospel to mankind, we are not to argue, rationalize, attempt to convince, talk into or bribe the dead! We are commanded "not" to cast pearls before swine, and give to the dogs that which is Holy? [cited Matthew 7:6]The Bible does not say that we are not to argue, rationalize, attempt to convince, or talk to atheists. In fact, it says the exact opposite (1 Peter 3:15, 16). We should never bribe anyone living or dead. Though all of man is dead in their sins, not just atheists. "And you were dead in the trespasses and sins in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work inthe sons of disobedience—among whom we all once lived inthe passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the bodyand the mind, and were by naturechildren of wrath, like the rest of mankind. But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved—and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them. ” (Ephesians 2:1-10; ESV)Regarding what is written in Matthew 7:6, I would point you toward Albert Barnes' commentary on the passage. He said: "The meaning of this proverb, then, is, do not offer your doctrine to those violent and abusive people who would growl and curse you; nor to those especially debased and profligate who would not perceive its value, would trample it down, and would abuse you. " Does this only apply to atheists? No, it can even apply to fellow Christians or self-proclaimed brothers/sisters in Christ. ConclusionI believe I have made it rather clear that my opponent has no Scriptural leg to stand on. The Bible simply does not teach that Christians should not try to convert atheists. He has done a good job of pulling verses out of their context in order to make it seem that way, but just an elementary reading of the text disproves his position.