Oneness Pentecostalism

"So it is basically Neotisoriansin under different pretenses. What you have explained separates Jesus into two persons. If He has a Human will AND a Divine will then there are TWO wills…do you worship a MAN?" This is not Neotisorianism, which you attempt to force upon me. I do not believe that there was a "God mind" present within the physical body of the Son of Man which existed side by side with a "human mind" also present within Christ physical body. This does separate Jesus into two "personalities." My position is that God's Divine consciousness in heaven simultaneously existed in heaven while God in the Son of Man on the earth existed within a human consciousness. I worship God in a man. "(2) Was the Son called "Son" in heaven?" I contend that the term "Son" must be defined as God incarnate in human flesh, born of a woman, not "God the Son" (i.e. the name of a second personal deity or person who shares God's Deity apart from the incarnation) based upon this passage in Luke: KJV Luke 1:35 …that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." Since this angel came from God's throne in heaven, He either lied—if the "Son" was known as the "Son" before the incarnation—or the term "Son" means "Son of David" or "Son of Man." Clearly, the "Son of God" is called "a holy thing" which refers to the baby laying in the manger. "(3) Did God take upon Himself human limitations in Christ?" "if Jesus was made a little lower then the Angels he must have been greater then the Angels at one point in time." Of course, whether you are Oneness or Trinitarian, you believe that the eternal God—who is Spirit—descended into human flesh and was "made a little lower than the angels" in the incarnation. This does not prove a second divine person. "If Jesus is human with two wills at what point in time was He ever greater then the Angels before His Passion?" Jesus did not have two wills. This is Neotistorianism. He was God existing within a human will, with the eternal God as the source of His "person.' "And then after His death and ascension He was again made greater then the Angels because of His sacrifice to the Father for our sins, being that only His blood would do. I am not Arian so I do not understand the Michael question." I was asking the question both ways, because I did not know your position. In scripture, Jesus was raised in a body as the saints of God. Our bodies will become as His body. Yet, the Bible teaches that our bodies will become as the angels of heaven. Therefore, His body was raised into a "new creation"—a being greater then the angels of heaven, but similar. "(4) What did the Hebrews use the term "Word" or "Memra" for in the Targums? There were many uses for the word ‘Word" in Hebrew. I am very sorry, I have minutes left to debate in this round. Please explain in the next round. I do not know off the top of my head. In John it meant Jesus." John used a term that was previously defined by the Targums, and the Hellenist Jew Philo only about 20-40 years previously. The term "Word" or Memra was used in the place of the Angel of the LORD, God manifestation of Himself in the Old Testament. Jesus is God manifested in the flesh. Therefore, we read that the "Word became flesh" in John. Jesus is the "Word" not because "Word" is an "unknown divine name," but because Jesus is the "image of the invisible God." And, it is the Son of Man who is God's image, not Christ's Deity apart from the incarnation. "(5) Did ancient Jews and Greeks believe that heaven was the timeless beginning and ending of all things?" Jews, Greeks and Persians believed in the doctrine of "two aeons." They believed that time only exists in the "aeon" of this present universe, and outside of this universe, only the "timeless age" of God exists. This "timeless age" was known to be the immutable, unchanging, beginning and ending of all things. It is the Spirit of God Himself, who never changes and said "I am the beginning and the ending." This is because the universe will expand and contract (according to Scripture), which lead credence to the scientific theory of "Singularity"—the beginning and ending of all things. Since God exists outside of this universe, He dwells beyond "singularity." Jesus ascended into God's presence in heaven, not a separate person, but God immutable Spiritual essence that is separate from the physical being of the Son of Man, even though the same person exists in two forms. "Genesis 1:1 elohiym. God, plural." In Zechariah 1:1-10 Jesus, who returns to the Mount of Olives is called "Elohim." Is He more than one person? "Genesis 1:26 Did Angels make or help God create man?" No. God's image-His Word-formed man from the dust of the earth. According to Philo and passages from the DSS, ancient Jews interpreted the plural "us" as God and His image, the Angel of the LORD. Philo made it clear that this was not a separate personal entity, but the same God in a lesser state of being, who "bridged the gap" between the infinite God and the finite universe. "Genesis 19:24" No trinity doctrine, but the same distinction made between God and His image. The Targums read that the "Word of the LORD' rained fire and brimstone "from the LORD out of heaven." According to Judaism, God's spiritual essence, and the source of His power in heaven was called His "right hand" as the source of God's authority was called His "throne." The Angel of the LORD was the one standing of the earth. He was/is the one God of Israel manifesting Himself in a lesser form. For this reason, He is called "Word." Yet, all of the power that this visible image of God used on the earth originated from the essence of the omnipotent God in heaven. The Jews never believed that a separate "person" from God was on the earth, but as Philo and the Targums prove, it was God's image, God manifesting Himself in a lesser form. "Acts 2:27 Spoken by King David about the Christ.'" The "Holy One" was a Messianic term (but also applied to God in some instances); so the distinction was made between the Son of David, Man, or God (God incarnate in human flesh) and the one God who is an omniscient, omnipotent Spirit. This distinction is obvious, if you think about the incarnation, and do not merely read the words "Father" and "Son" as though they are two equal characters in a play. One is God in an omnipotent state of being, the other is God in the lesser form of a man. "1 John 5:7 7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. The basic formula of the Trinity. There are THREE. And these Three are one." This passage does not have the support of any Greek manuscript before the 12th century (I believe that this is correct.) It is not found in any newer version. It is an interpolation. "Paul and Apollos are "ONE." I do not say that everywhere the word "one" is used in the Greek, it means "numerically one" but can mean "unity" or "united." In the Greek, whether the word "one" is in neuter or masculine gender determines whether "one" means numerically one or "united." This is the case in John 10:30, where Jesus said "I and my Father are one." "One" here is neuter gender, which means "united." However, a comparison of this passages with John 17 proves that Jesus was speaking as a man referring to the oneness with God He would attain in the ascension, because He also said that we would also be "one" with God. Here "one" is in the neuter gender. However, there is a passage where "one" is in the masculine: Mark 12:28-29 Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one [masculine, numerically one] Lord:" Jesus interpreted the plural "Echud" in Deuteronomy as the numerically singular "one" by the use of the masculine heis instead of the neuter hen.