Lust is not a sin in The Bible but Advocated

"You often use the original Greek text. Which, although it makes you sound impressive is only your attempt to confuse your opponent with something the average person cannot understand. " How is that to confuse the opponent and make me sound impressive? It's just facts, I did point by point, even the layman would know, I certainly cannot read Hebrew or Greek yet I did it. "Second, the literal translation of Matt. 5:28 reads like this, "but I -- I say to you, that every one who is looking on a woman to desire her, did already commit adultery with her in his heart. "" Nope, what you or even I say doesn't go, ONLY what Jesus Christ(God) says goes, to know what He said we use what The Apostles originally wrote, so I'll post again, Ἠκούσατε ὅτι ἐρρέθη" οὐ μοιχεύσεις. ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι πᾶς ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ. What you say or I say doesn't go, only what YHWH said, your english translations are words of men not words YHWH/Jesus Christ, YHWH/Jesus Christ words are in Hebrew and Greek. "So, all it takes to make it a sin is to look at her and have any slight desire. That is the straight definition of lust. Because my opponent is not defending his point and I have successfully defeated his points. " No you have not successfully defeated my points as you didn't even mention a single point, this is pure cowardice, People look at the previous round and all I wrote compared to his paragraph, he's lying. No one is confusing anyone I broke it down that even the layman can understand, lets look at The Very Orthodox Books themselves(Early Church Fathers how the early Church in 2ND CENTURY had this verse to prove this, "ἡ δὲ εὐαγγέλιος φωνὴ ἐπιτατικώτερον διδάσκει περὶ ἁγνείας λέγουσα" "Πᾶς ὁ ἰδὼν γυναῖκα ἀλλοτρίαν πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ. καὶ ὁ γαμῶν"- Theophilus to Autolycus(2nd Century), B III, Ch 3 Key word? ἀλλοτρίαν which means, "belongeth to another" Lust isn't a sin, Adultery is. My opponent has presented pure cowardice stemmed from trying to place false man made "atheistic" burdens that Jesus Christ warned about, Matthew 23:4 - " For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers. " - The Lord Jesus Christ. There's no reason to vote for con other than 3 things, confirmation bias, indoctrination, or 3 not liking that it was proved that Lust isn't a sin. Now lets refute the other verses, 1 Peter 4:3 - I Peter 4:3 For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries On this verse, the word translated to lust in the Greek is again epithumeo; a longing (especially for what is forbidden), which fits well in the context, because Peter would have condemned a specific sexual behavior as well, he didn't even mention sexual sins, so this is about the crazy drugged up, drunken lifestyle that is condemned. Even Peter 1 4:2 The Previous verse confirms this, . http://interlinearbible.org... as the same word is used, "so as to live the rest of the time in the flesh no longer for the lusts of men, but for the will of God. " Obviously sexual desire isn't being mentioned in that men but the desires of men, which is evil, and that we should no longer live for the lusts of men(sin and evil) but for The Will of God(YHWH: The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) "Jude 1:4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. and II Corinthians 12:21 And lest, when I come again, my God will humble me among you, and that I shall bewail many which have sinned already, and have not repented of the uncleanness and fornication and lasciviousness which they have committed. " The word in Greek for "lasciviousness" is aselgeia which means by Greek lexicon, . http://biblelexicon.org... . http://biblesuite.com... (outrageous conduct, conduct shocking to public decency, a wanton violence), wantonness, lewdness. So it has nothing to do with sexual desire but with indecency(like public nudity) Every single verse you presented, refuted. There is no reason to vote con as con is proven to be indoctrinated and proves no points with Hebrew and Greek facts, just his man made assertions. Unless you are as well indoctrinated or blind, you will not vote con, Vote Pro, sex being evil was created by man, by Greco-Romans, not YHWH, YHWH created sex and obvious just like He created food He created the desire for it so that we can eat and have sex, (which is really just liking physical beauty, which YHWH created). This is the same "atheist" philosophy other atheist religious have about Masturbation, it isn't even mentioned in The Bible and Pharisees say it's sin.