Did God intend humans to sin.

Props to Con for using the word "eisegesis." For those who may have never used the word before, it means a biased interpretation of a text. An eisegesis is an inaccurate portrayal of my position with regards to god's intention, because I'm going with absolute claims from the bible, which really require no bias. For example: Matthew 19:26 "With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." Luke 1:37 "For nothing will be impossible with God." Job 42:2 "I know that you can do all things, and that no purpose of yours can be thwarted." No bias needed here...god is omnipotent, AND no purpose of his can be thwarted! How else am I supposed to interpret these quotes? God can rid the world of sin and free will could remain (ANYTHING IS POSSIBLE) but god chooses not to...this speaks to his intentions to have humans sin. Con, is Job 42:2 correct that no purpose of god's can be thwarted? Because it kind of seems like If one of god's purposes is to have humans avoid sin, and humans are always sinning, then one of his purposes is being thwarted...constantly, repeatedly, predictably; god's purpose to have humans avoid sin is being thwarted by the masses of people sinning. But if god's purpose is to have humans sin, affirming the resolution, then it would seem that his purposes are not thwarted, and Job 42:2 is correct. Con claimed that my burden of proof is to show that sin is "God's ultimate purpose for human kind." My contention with this is not the word "purpose;" I agree purpose is synonymous with intent. My contention is with the word "ultimate," which makes the burden outside of the already undefined resolution. Ultimate means the last and most fundamental; I don't need to demonstrate that this intention of god's is most fundamental. I need to demonstrate that god intended, even if it is a lesser intention, humans to sin. Con, you agree that god created all things in the universe, visible and invisible...except for sin? How is sin not part of everything visible and invisible/material and immaterial? I argue that sin should fall into the category of "all things." Con points out: "foreknowledge is not the same as predetermination" My response: Isaiah 46:10 - "Declaring the end from the beginning...My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:" God is clearly DECLARING the end, which is everything he wants to be done...sounds predetermined to me. So, god's purposes, which we both agree are intentions, can't be thwarted, and the future is declared by god as he will do all he pleases. Think about it. Imagine that you're god and you have foreknowledge of the future. Now, you're getting ready to create Lucifer and you remember, "Hey, I'm pretty sure that if I create this being, that sin will surely follow...yeah, actually I know the future, and I am certain that by me creating Lucifer, I will be creating sin." At this moment, if you continue to create Lucifer, then you are intending for sin to be created, and because you've already declared the end from the beginning, this is actually what you intended from the start; humans sinning is also part of the future of which you are aware and for which you are responsible. Before god created Lucifer, was god aware of the sin Lucifer would create? If god was aware of the impending consequences of creating Lucifer, then why didn't god stop himself from creating Lucifer/sin? Even when god finished creating Lucifer, why didn't god rewind time and stop the creation of impending sin? Like Matt 19:26 says, "with god all things are possible"...except for sinless free will, god stopping himself from creating sin, rewinding time to rid sin, and a universe without Lucifer; these things just aren't possible with god. Con mentioned that people who prove that god created evil "ONLY quote this verse from the KJV knowing that every other translation got it more accurate (not to say kjv is wrong)." My response: "I make peace and create Ra'a" "...the tree of knowledge of good and Ra'a" Con, the source I provided has the 1st definition of Ra'a, evil, appearing in those two quotes. http://www.biblestudytools.com... Would you call it the tree of knowledge of good and disaster? Ok, so then god makes peace and evil. Regardless, Con makes sure "not to say kjv is wrong," and Con "would assert that each translation got it right." So, according to the bible, god created evil, which makes perfect sense, because he created everything. Con tries to point out that god tells Lucifer, "Thou [wast] perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created." Ok, so god thinks that something he created that supposedly spawned sin was perfect when it was created. Remember, god knew the future while creating Lucifer perfect; the future included Lucifer creating sin, and god knew this, and still called its inception "perfect." Con, your Ezekiel quote has god, who knew the future of Lucifer creating sin, calling Lucifer perfect at Lucifer's creation. Does god think sin was perfect at its creation? Because that's what it sounds like. Con would also have us believe that our earthly nature has NOTHING to do with god...even though god created us in his image, our earthly nature is not his doing, rather, because we chose to listen to Satan, an ability god intended for us to have, our very nature "came about." Perhaps this is the most important point. Con asks and responds: "So could God have created us not to sin? Yes but in turn we wouldn't be able to Love which was the Intention for creating humans Duet 6:5 READ!" My response: Con is saying that by creating us without the ability to sin, we wouldn't be able to love. Con, does love require humans' ability to sin? Why couldn't we love god if we didn't have the capacity to sin? To me, love does not require sin, and, I argue, if we were unable to sin, then our love would be even stronger for god, because we could never stray from that love; we would still be exercising our free will and choosing to love him, but we just couldn't sin. Like now, we can choose to love him, though we can't read people's minds. God intended humans to sin because: 1. He created evil, Lucifer, and sin. "All things have been created through him and for him." Colossians 1:16 2. When he created Lucifer, he knew that Lucifer would create sin and did nothing to stop it, and the future is all that god wants to happen. Isaiah 46:10 3. God could eliminate sin and our ability to commit such, but didn't, EVEN THOUGH "all things are possible with god" (including sinless free will) AND "no purpose of his shall be thwarted." Job 42:2 If his purpose is no human sin, and there is human sin, then his purposes are thwarted all the time; if he did intend sin, then his purposes are not thwarted. 4. Creation of Lucifer (sin) + allowance of human sin + foreknowledge of human sin + inaction to stop sin + neglect to create sinless free will + total control of the future + no purpose shall be thwarted + humans are always sinning = God intended humans to sin, because he created it, allowed it, won't stop it, and his purpose/intention to have humans sin shall not be thwarted! Con, come on!