Homosexuality is not a Sin in The Bible

"he claims it is faulty by me to suggest that male anal sex is homosexuality. This is a negative, what I have given specifically describes the definitions we agreed on in round 1. Anyone should agree that male anal sex is deemed homosexual behavior. This behavior is clearly forbidden in the Bible."This is the point, it's 1 specific sexual act, for example we can take your words and switch them up, watch this," Anyone should agree that male-female sex during period in Levitcus 18:19 is deemed heterosexual behavior. This behavior is clearly forbidden in the Bible."Are we to assume ALL heterosexual behavior is condemned? By no means, only heterosexual sex during menstration. likewise only anal sex is condemned, if YHWH wanted to condemn all Heterosexual behavior He'd do it, not just forbid sex during menstration, likewise if He wanted to condemn Homosexual behavior, He'd do it.We have no basis other than assumption of other Homosexual Behavior being sin from Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, as those passages only condemn Anal sex, likewise Leviticus 18:19 prohibits sex during mentration we cannot assume from that passage, that all Heterosexual behavior is sin.Next " Though after marriage one is not lusting for their partner but in love with them."This takes the assumption of lust being a sin, this is not up for debate today and lust as proven is not a sin,( http://www.godrules.net...;)" Since we have no determination of the Bible on homosexual marriage then lust by any individual unmarried would be a sin."This takes the assumption that pre-marital sex is a sin, which has been refuted by Scholars in Judism and Masters in Greek, "James 1:15, "Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death."This is not in reference to sex, the word for "lust" in greek is epithumia, which Strongs Lexicon has several definitions for, which are: desire, eagerness for, inordinate desire, lust When we take it in Context(as a text without a context is a pretext): James 1 12 Blessed is the one who perseveres under trial because, having stood the test, that person will receive the crown of life that the Lord has promised to those who love him. 13 When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone; 14 but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed. Evident by the text, the proper definition of epithumia is inordinate desire, as James is talking about doing evil in general, do not make that mistake again."It is true that anal sex is not solely a homosexual trait. We see that it is sin for two males to have anal sex and for a man and woman to have anal sex. Anal sex is determined a sin."Which refutes your entire argument. My opponent admits it isn't Homosexuality-Excusive, thus my opponent can no longer use Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13 as proof texts for his argument.Again my opponent fails and makes a Pre-text, he again doesn't(for some reason) include the entire context.Romans 1:21-27 say that due to Adultery, YHWH made them gay as punishment for Idolatry.I warn my opponent to not deceive again like he does here, "We see here that they had these desires in their own hearts, not from God. We also notice the phrases used to describe these acts, "lust, unseemly, error, vile and against nature." These descriptions do not sound like they are good in the sight of God. ."Was shameful in the culture, that's the reason why YHWH uses it as the penalty for their idolatry, for example Ugliness is shameful to us, but what about to YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit)?No, 1 Samuel 16:7 "Do not consider his appearance or his height, for I have rejected him. The LORD does not look at the things people look at. People look at the outward appearance, but the LORD looks at the heart." Also contrary to nature can mean contrary to culture, so either way what you said has no basis.BECAUSE of what is said in Romans 1:24. so because of Idolatry YHWH gave them up to sin "The Bible clearly states that any sexual act outside of marriage is immoral and a sin."Where? Provide a verse so I can refute it,Actually contrary, http://www.unc.edu... Sex is not a sin. 1 Corinthians 7:2, "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband." 1 Corinthians 6:18, "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body." 1 Corinthians 7:9, "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn."" My opponent seriously lowers his credibility here, as he takes verses out of context... again.Watch this, 1 Corinthians 6: 12 “I have the right to do anything,” you say—but not everything is beneficial. “I have the right to do anything”—but I will not be mastered by anything. 13 You say, “Food for the stomach and the stomach for food, and God will destroy them both.” The body, however, is not meant for sexual immorality but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body. 14 By his power God raised the Lord from the dead, and he will raise us also. 15 Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ himself? Shall I then take the members of Christ and unite them with a prostitute? Never! 16 Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, “The two will become one flesh.”[b] 17 But whoever is united with the Lord is one with him in spirit.[c] 18 Flee from sexual immorality. All other sins a person commits are outside the body, but whoever sins sexually, sins against their own body. 19 Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God? You are not your own; 20 you were bought at a price. Therefore honor God with your bodies. Put the whole context next time, Prostitution is condemned here, not "premarital" sex, Paul advises men to get a wife so they can avoid prostitution, not to avoid premarital sex for it is better to marry than to burn and all this if you read 1 Corinthians 6 is prostitution or Sexual immorality, not to avoid "premarital sex"So he's refuted there, "If I understand my opponent correctly he is saying that because Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 never says anything about kissing, love, or oral sex it is not describing homosexuality as a whole nor describing all sexual acts that homosexuals can do. Well I will bring up that both verses say,"Shalt not lie", which are also in verses Leviticus 18:20 & Deuteronomy 28:30, and they say: "Moreover thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbour's wife, to defile thyself with her." "Thou shalt betroth a wife, and another man shall lie with her.""Thot shalt not lie, means thou shall not have sex in general with which is a general sexual condemnation not mentioning any specific sexual act,whereas Lyings of Woman is specific sexual act, automaticaly refuted, my opponent is going at desperate lengths. "By my opponent's conclusion we can have oral sex and kiss our neighbors wife or another man ours."Nope as the text doesn't say that, it says do not lie, do not lie with means do not have sex with, or sexual relations in general, whereas Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13 say Lyings of Woman, a Specific Sexual act, not sex with. when YHWH says do not have sexual with or lie with this person etc, it means do not lie with the person, when YHWH says do not lie with... in this way(for example do not lie with a woman during Menstration or Anal Sex) then it is just a condemnation to a specific sexual act. Overall my opponent has been using faulty logic and taking verses out of context, he still has yet to refute anything.