Instrumental worship for New Testament Christians can be justified (debate #2)

My opposition must agree that the ONLY authority to go by is the 66 books found in the Holy Bible. I have this exact argument going on with someone else but I would like to take on another opponent as well. What I'm proposing: New Testament Christians can worship God accompanied by instrumental use (only stringed instruments) and the bible is not silent on this matter. Evidence of my proposition to be true: Christians in the New Testament were plainly instructed to sing and do it from their heart, but from Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 the use of the term "psalms" is a clear indication of allowance of stringed instrument accompaniment within our song worship. Things to make my position more clear: Instruments of any kind that wouldn't allow the player to sing would not by definition be what God wants for New Testament worship. The bible is NOT silent on instrumental use because of the word psalms. All of the Old Testament Psalms that I know of were only accompanied by a harp, or possibly a lyre. The only indication I have is the footnote above the chapter but I have never seen one that explicitly said one was accompanied by anything other than a stringed instrument. Psalm 150 may talk about other instruments but that does not prove that the psalm itself was accompanied by the instruments that is mentioned within that chapter. Also, I would argue that Psalm 150 shows that God accepted in the Old Testament instrumental music alone WITHOUT the accompaniment of voices to be worship. I say this because David explicitly says to praise God on these instruments with no indication of singing as accompaniment and the only logical conclusion is what I'm proposing. One might argue that verse 6 which reads "Let everything that breathes praise the Lord" that this is specifically meaning singing. What you have to understand is that singing is praising but not all praising is singing. Also, within context of this chapter it makes more since to think that the "praise" in verse 6 is in reference to praise just instruments and instruments alone. If though the "praise" in verse 6 means to sing, David is not saying sing with the accompaniment of the instruments that he just mentioned in psalm 150 but rather just sing. If David said to do both at the same time I'd like to know where. My point to all this is it is apparent stringed instruments are okay by the definition of psalm and knowing that David used the harp to accompany some of his psalms. BUT instruments that are not stringed or would not allow the player to sing are not authorized from Ephesians 5:19, as well as even in the Old Testament there is no example or command to allow such instruments to accompany vocal singing. Questions to my opponent: 1) If stringed instruments allow the player to also sing and the word psalms by definition allows accompaniment of stringed instruments, where do you draw your conclusion of sing and sing only? 2) If you argue that we were only instructed to sing and sing only and that to do anything else while we sing (such as playing an instrument) is sinful, then would you agree that using a song book (reading while you sing) would be adding to the commandment of just sing only? I hope to find another good debater and that if I'm right that I have enlightened someone to Truth found in God's word and that if I'm wrong someone will show me the Truth and where I am erring. Thanks and I'm looking forward to the debate with whoever decides to be my opposition.