The Bible contains FATAL flaws.

Pro, I urge you to post an argument regarding contention two. You have posted it in the comments, but you need to post it in the debate to be considered. RC1) My opponent has confused two arguments here. He seems to be responding to RC3 in place of RC1. As such, my rebuttal to C1 stands unchallenged at this point. I am sure he will remedy this in future rounds, but until he does his point has been defeated. RC2) Again my opponent has given no explanation in the argument as to why this is a fatal flaw. He has done so in the comments of this debate, and I have urged him to post it in the arguments but until he dos so this point does not stand. RC3) This is indeed a tricky question, so we must ask two things. First, are all deceptions lies? Second, how does God deceive? The answer to the first question is what my opponent's argument hinges on. He assets that a deception is a lie and therefore if God cannot lie he cannot deceive. However, this is not the case. There are many instances in which you can be deceptive and not lie. For example: If I create a DDO account with the name "Jessica13" most users would assume that my name is Jessica and that I am 13 years old. I never said those things, and if I allow people to believe that without affirming it, am being deceptive but not lying. In addition, if I tell someone else to lie for me and they lie. .. I am taking part in deception but not myself lying. So it is indeed logically possible in at least two ways to deceive someone without actively lying. The first is by allowing someone to think something false about you without correcting them, the second is to participate in a deception by having someone else lie for you. I'm sure there are many more, these are only two examples. Next we must look at how God deceives. While this passage does not give us a clear indication of the method of deception, we see in other passages where God does indeed deceive. Let us now observe those passages and see if God lies in these cases. In 1 Kings 22::20 we see God asking who will entice Ahab to go out to battle at Ramoth-Gilead. An angel responds and accepts the call. God then asks the angel how he will do this and in vs 22:22 the angel responds "I will go out, and will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. " The passage then continues to explain "the Lord has put a lying spirit int he mouth of all these your prophets; the Lord has declared disaster for you. " (vs 23) One of Ahab's greatest sins was that he fell into idol worship. This situation is closely analogous to what was happening in Ezekiel's day, so it is a logical comparison between the two. It is highly likely that the deception that God employed to judge the people in Ezekiel is similar or the same as he deception employed in the case of Ahab. We also see in 2 Thessalonians 2:10 that God sends those who have hardened themselves against him a "strong delusion. " A delusion is "a false belief or opinion" [A] So similar to my example of the screenname "Jessica13", God may chose to present himself in a way that leads to a false conclusion, without actually lying. While this is likely not the way that things operated in the Ezekiel passage, it is possible. I have shown two ways God could deceive a person without lying to them, and therefore have defeated this contention. RC4) My opponent claims "but biblically when ever someone seems to commit such an atrocity they get what is coming to them, or God somehow shows his disapproval. "However he has not substantiated this claim. This claim is markedly false. We see numerous instances in the Scriptures where someone is not immediately judged for doing something contrary to God's will. Solomon has 300 wives and 700 concubines, yet he dies of old age after a prosperous and relatively peaceful reign. Pilate and Herod condemn Christ to death for a crime he did not commit, yet we see no evidence in the Bible (or history) that they were judged any harsher than anyone else. The Bible explains that justice is meted out in ways we do not understand, and sometimes not in this world. Jesus teaches "For he makes his sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust. " (Matthew 5:45). Psalm 73 ponders why the wicked prosper, but concludes by affirming that they will get what they deserve in the end. The Bible teaches that those who do evil do get what they deserve, however it is not always in a temporal sense here on earth. RC5) My opponent has missed a very critical point and something that even a brief search in Google would find. There are two ways of understanding what Jesus means when he says that someone will see the Kingdom of God. The first is to see the kingdom inaugurated when Christ defeated death a sin on the Cross. If Christ came into his kingdom when he accomplished this, then John the disciple was present and there was "some standing here" who did not taste death until Christ came into his kingdom. The second is to see the kingdom inaugurated when Christ returns in the second coming. While it seems as though this prophecy is false, consider the following: John the apostle wrote the book of Revelation. In the book of Revelation, John saw, in a vision, Christ coming into his kingdom. He saw the second coming. John was present when Christ prophesied, and he did not taste death until he saw Christ come into his kingdom. I have shown two possible ways that this prophecy was literally fulfilled, and therefore this point false. I look forward to your responses. [A] . http://dictionary.reference.com...