Salvation from Sin and the Essentiality of Water Baptism

I was under the impression that the standard rules of debate would be followed here. That is, the one in the affirmative is followed by a denial of the affirmative proposition and the premises supporting that argument. However, I see this is turning out to be the other way around here. Nevertheless, I"ll briefly dismantle my opponent"s arguments and proceed on with my next argument. In Mk. 16:16, Jesus did NOT say "He that believeth and is SAVED shall be baptized", as my opponent alleges. Jesus, in this statement employed two aorist tense participles "believeth and is baptized"; the action of which MUST be completed BEFORE the action of the main verb of the sentence, in this case is "shall be saved". Therefore, the phraseology used by the Lord in the passage necessitates that BOTH faith and baptism precede the gift of salvation. Pitbull15 has sadly involved himself in a severe logical contradiction in his argument. He said that "Jesus' death alone paid for our sins". Then, he said "Jesus' payment for our sins is appropriated to our account, by faith alone", citing Eph. 2:8-9 which mentions both grace AND faith. And, finally he said "Anything other than faith alone would be a works-based salvation." So, he holds that Jesus" payment alone was necessary, then faith alone, along with grace, but anything other than faith constitutes "works" of merit. First of all, no passage in the Bible teaches or even suggests that only believing in Jesus in necessary to receiving salvation from sin. Jesus said CLEARLY in Lk. 13:3 that one must "repent" in order to be saved from perishing. In Rom. 10:9-10, the inspired apostles wrote explicitly that one must both believe and confess faith Jesus Christ. And, Peter made it abundantly clear that in order to be forgiven of and saved from sin, one must both "Repent and be baptized" " Acts 2:38 Now if, as my opponent says, faith ONLY is necessary to receive salvation from sins, the fallen angel (i.e. demons) who "also believe, and tremble" " Jms. 2:19 would be saved today as well. But, the Bible tells us that they are, in fact "reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day" " Jude 6. In fact, Jms. 2:24 is one and ONLY place in scripture where the phrase "faith only" appears; and it says "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and NOT by faith only." This passage teaches us that both an inward faith (i.e. believing, assent) and works of obedience are required for one"s salvation rather than a mere mental assent to the gospel. This very passage says that "Was not Abraham our father justified by works, WHEN (NOT BEFORE) he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?" " Jms. 2:21. Furthermore, my opponent believes that one can be saved while both being "in sin" and "outside of Christ". 1.) The New Testament teaches that one"s sin are forgiven and "washed away" when he/she is baptized. "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for ("eis" = unto/into, see Matt. 26:28) the forgiveness of sins" " Acts 2:38, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and WASH AWAY THY SINS, calling on the name of the Lord" " Acts 22:16. There is no other scriptural way for an alien sinner to have his/her sins forgiven or "washed away", except through baptism. 2.) The New Testament teaches that the one and ONLY way INTO Jesus Christ is through baptism. "Know ye not, that so many of us as were BAPTIZED INTO Jesus Christ were baptized into His death?" " Rom. 6:3, "For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ" " Gal. 3:27. These two passages speak regarding putting off one" sins and putting on Christ, which is done so through being baptized. Therefore, without and prior to baptism one is STILL clothed with sin and apart from Jesus Christ. My opponent cannot scripturally answer these arguments. If he can, I sure would like him to try.