Jesus Christ is the Messiah as Fortold in the Tenakh (Old Testament)

Since my opponent cited a passage from Proverbs, here is one for him: "Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?" (Proverbs 30:4) You say, "My opponent has use several other texts, but as I am out of space (and time) I will leave it at this. I request that my opponent take two or three verses and debate just those verses." If you noticed I only used Isaiah 53:2-8 and Daniel 9:24-26 as my proof texts to which you did not even address. You only addressed Matthew 22/Psalm 110 and Isaiah 7:14 of which I myself said they do not ultimately prove that Jesus is the Messiah. It is unwise to debate only two or three verses as I believe to get the full picture of Messiah we must look at the preponderance of Messianic verses, but I will limit myself to the already given passages since you have not yet addressed them. I will now first address your response and then provide more information about Daniel 9 and Isaiah 53. You say, "Pro made several attempts at showing that Jesus was the messiah; however, upon closer inspection of these 'messianic prophecies' reveal just how weak these arguments are." You did not address them and you therefore did not show how "weak these arguments are." You addressed verses which I myself said do not ultimately prove Jesus as the Messiah (at least when taken alone). Rabbi Tovia Singer is in error on two accounts. He makes a false claim that the second word "Lord" in Psalm 110:1 was purposefully and "appallingly" mistranslated. The word "adonee" is translated as "lord" throughout the Old Testament. Even Rabbi Singer says that it can be translated as "lord." His claim is therefore moot. His second claim that "adonee" is never used in reference to God is also false. I can cite numerous passages in which "adonee" is unquestionably used in reference to the LORD God. Here are a few examples: Joshua 3:11,13, Nehemiah 8:10, Nehemiah 10:29, Psalms 8:1,9, Psalms 114:7, Psalms 135:5, Isaiah 1:24, Isaiah 3:1, Malachi 3:1. Rabbi Singer's claim that Psalm 110 is simply referring to David is without justification. This Psalm is very Messianic. Verse 5 in particular points very strongly to the Messiah who will sit at the right hand of God and bring judgment in the day of His wrath. God made a promise to King David through the prophet Nathan that the Messiah would come from his lineage and that his throne would be established for ever, so the fact that this verse may have been written in reference to king David does not negate it as a Messianic passage. You say, "Had the writer of the Gospel of Matthew never invented the scene in Matthew chapter 22, no Christian would ever assume that Psalm 110 speaks about Jesus or any future Messiah." Matthew was not alone in recording these words of Jesus; Mark 12:35-37 and Luke 20:41-43 record this as well. The idea that authorial intent takes precedence over all interpretation is without justification as the Holy Spirit gave these men utterance to speak and write the word of God (2 Peter 1:21). Notice Mark 12:36 says that David spoke being moved by the Holy Spirit. David would have known full well that the covenant God made with him referred to the future Messiah (Genesis 49:10, 1 Chronicles 17:11-14). You say, "Here we see that the passage is both mistranslated and out-of-context. Isaiah 7:14 reads in Hebrew: "Hinneh ha-al"mah harah v"yoldet ben v"kara"t shemo Immanuel" " "Behold the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son and will call his name "Immanuel." It mentions nothing about the Messiah and NOTHING about a virgin birth 500+ years later." First we must note that this was to be a sign from Adonai Himself; "Ask thee a sign of the Lord thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above" (Isaiah 7:11). A woman giving birth is not very much of a sign, but a virgin giving birth is a definitely a recognizable sign from God. This cannot be referring to Hezekiah or any other person that Jewish commentators propose for many reasons (http://www.biblestudytools.com...). The root word of "almah" (young woman/virgin) is "alam" which means to veil from sight, hide and conceal (http://www.biblestudytools.com...). A virgin is defined as a pure, untouched woman who is veiled from men (hence the veil a woman wears at a wedding); a woman who has had no carnal knowledge of man (http://thekingsbible.com...). This passage indeed refers to Messiah, Isaiah 8:8 indicates that Judah is Immanuel's (Messiah's). When taken in the greater context of Isaiah 7-11 we can see it clearly refers to Messiah. Isaiah 7:13 gives reference to the house of David which is very unique in the Nevi'im (prophets). Consider 2 Chronicles 6:16. Isaiah 9:6 is again referring to this child which shall be born whose name shall be Immanuel (God with us), and, with this greater context considered, is no doubt referring to Messiah of whose ". . .government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom. . ." (Isaiah 9:7). Notice that in Daniel 9:21-22 it is the angel Gabriel who reveals to the prophet Daniel Messiah. Of course we know it is this same angel who proclaims to Mary the birth of Messiah (Luke 1:26-37). Gabriel also reveals to Daniel that the Prince of princes shall break the wicked king (Antichrist) "without hand" (by the sword of His mouth - Revelation 19:21) and Daniel previously is given the interpretation of king Nebuchadnezzar's dream in which he is told that ". . .in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever" (Daniel 2:44, Daniel 8:25). With this context in mind, when we come to Daniel 9, we most definitely can see that it is referring to Messiah, at a time when Titus will "destroy the city and the sanctuary," who will ". . .cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation. . ." (Daniel 9:26-27). Jesus prophesized that the temple would be destroyed (Luke 21:5-6). And of course we know that historically both the city and the temple were destroyed (http://biblehub.com...). And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth. "Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand. He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors" (Isaiah 53:9-12). This speaks very clearly about the propitiatory sacrifice of Jesus Christ as the Lamb of God slain for the sins of the world (John 1:29, 1 John 2:2). This is such a unique passage that, without the historical death of Christ, it does not make sense. Notice the Ethiopian man in Acts 8 who was reading Isaiah 53 inquired of Philip who the passage was referring to. "The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth: In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth. And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man?" (Acts 8:32-34). Verse 35 tells us that Philip expounded to him Messiah from this passage. It is very clear, you must have an agenda to not see this clear Messianic passage and its fulfillment in Jesus Christ. Isaiah 52:10 says "The Lord hath made bare his holy arm in the eyes of all the nations; and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvation of our God," so the context of chapter 53 is salvation. Notice also Isaiah 53:1 begins with "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the Lord revealed?" Isaiah 52:3 says that God's people will be redeemed "without money" (with the blood of Christ) which is expounded in 1 Peter 1:18-21, "Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers; but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you, who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God." Hallelujah!