Oneness Pentecostalism

I am very sorry that is has taken me so long to get back here. Work has been crazy. My position is that only the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic is completely valid. All translations have errors. I will use the KJV as my main translation and basis of argument, but other translations must be used in order to confirm through a third party the literal translation of the Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic. Please settle on at least on definition source for Greek and Hebrew words in the KJV. Aramaic is very difficult to do on a online debate. Do you know of a good online source for Aramaic? One source is usually good because thousands of different definitions from unknown source that can not be verified easily are hard to substantiate. "All things known by Christ are known by the Father (Spirit) and vice versus." No. The human mind of the man Christ Jesus has human limitations and cannot know the omniscience of the eternal Spirit of God. While experiencing an existence from within a human mind, the Spirit of God exterior to the man Christ Jesus taught Him as God teaches all men. "And from the three different doctrines we have also learned that Pro adheres to the first doctrine of oneness, Orthodox. And being that Pro believes Orthodox and not Neotisoriansin or Sabellianism the beliefs associated with these two doctrines are not fact in this debate. Please specify that Christ either has a separate conscience from God or that the two consciousness are different but with all knowledge of Heaven and of God. This seems contradictory when you read the statement below." The one person God simultaneously existed in two consciousnesses—human and Divine. The one person of God is the source of both; the Divine consciousness is omniscient, immutable, timeless and cannot change; the human consciousness is based upon a human language that the man Christ Jesus learned from a child and stored chemically inside of his human brain, as any man. Inside of this human mind, the eternal God live a genuine human life, WITH A SEPARATE,HUMAN WILL So it is basically Neotisoriansin under different pretenses. What you have explained separates Jesus into two persons. If He has a Human will AND a Divine will then there are TWO wills. And a will defines a person. So basically there is still a separation as in the Trinity but oneness separates Christ instead of the Godhead, ignoring the rest of Scriptures. This also effects the purpose and meaning of the Blood of Jesus. Also, do you worship a MAN? I have these questions for you: (1) Do you consider yourself trinitarian or arian? Trinitarian. (2) Was the Son call "Son" in heaven? I do not know. He was never called Son in Heaven in the Scriptures, but Scriptures do not tell of ever second in Heaven. Actually Scriptures give us brief glimpses into Heaven. And surely more goes on in Heaven then what is written in Scriptures. The Father called Jesus Son once. Do you contend that Jesus is no longer God's Son? Or are you contending that Jesus was never God's Son in the first place? (3) Did God take upon Himself human limitations in Christ? Or did Michael the Archangel if you are arian? Yes and no. Jesus was made a little lower then the Angels. The degree of separation between humans and Angels is hard to determine. And how do you measure "a little"? Also, if Jesus was made a little lower then the Angels he must have been greater then the Angels at one point in time. If Jesus is human with two wills at what point in time was He ever greater then the Angels before His Passion? And then after His death and ascension He was again made greater then the Angels because of His sacrifice to the Father for our sins, being that only His blood would do. I am not Arian so I do not understand the Michael question. Hebrews 2:7. Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands: The above verse is a prophecy from Old Testament. Hebrews 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. The fulfillment of the said prophecy. (4) What did the Hebrews use the term "Word" or "Memra" for in the Targums? There were many uses for the word ‘Word" in Hebrew. I am very sorry, I have minutes left to debate in this round. Please explain in the next round. I do not know off the top of my head. In John it meant Jesus. (5) Did ancient Jews and Greeks believe that heaven was the timeless beginning and ending of all things? I did not know that. Please fill me in on it in the next round. Again, please accept my apology for this being so short and so uninformed. I spent my free time this weekend trying to get an internet connection and we pulled a 13 hour shift today at work. Here are a few verses that refute oneness. Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. In this verse God in Hebrew means; elohiym. God, plural. Genesis 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. Did Angels make or help God create man? Genesis 19:24 Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven; Lord standing on the earth. Raining down brimstone FROM the LORD out of Heaven. Beginning of Trinity doctrine. Acts 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Spoken my King David about the Christ. 1 John 5:7 7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. The basic formula of the Trinity. There are THREE. And these Three are one. One you ask? They are one so that means they are numerically one right? Not necessary. Please look at these verses and tell me if the word one is numerically ONE. 1 Corinthians 3:6-8 6I have planted, Apollos watered; but God gave the increase. 7So then neither is he that planteth any thing, neither he that watereth; but God that giveth the increase. 8Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one: and every man shall receive his own reward according to his own labour. This clearly says that Paul and Apollos are "ONE". So are they the same person as in numerically? NO. They are one in action and desires for one mission. In Greek the same word is used in both verses. I look forward to the next round. I eagerly await your responses on the above verses and the SEPARATE wills of Jesus.