Premarital Sex is not a Sin

"My opponent started this debate and forgot to properly establish rules and definitions. He can not in the midst of debate change things now."Nope, Hebrews and Greeks are valid as that's what everything is translated from, if we can't use Hebrews and Greek we can't use any translation, as those are translations of Hebrews and Greeks.Also rules were clearly given in First Round, "Post every single proof verse against Pre-marital sex, I refute it and then you refute my rebuttals, and it goes back and forth until rounds are over or there's a winning.""He says that it is good for man not to touch a woman and because he must touch her then he should marry her and be with only her." Actually no, Paul is replying to someone saying "it's not good for a man to touch a woman", he refutes this by saying, Another reason that people have misunderstood 1 Corinthains 7:2 is the failure to translate "have one's wife or husband" [citation needed]accurately. It means to have sex or be in a sexual relationship with someone. It doesn't mean "get a wife, so you won't have sex before marriage." Paul was saying "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." Several commentaries bring out these points: http://www.enduringword.com...;[404 - file or directory not found]The New International Commentary on the New Testament by Gordon D. FeeJohn Gill's Exposition of the Bible (first Corinthians 7:2) Only a couple of translations have made the meaning clear for us, the NetBible being an example. Here is their note on this: "Grk “each man should have his own wife.” “Have” in this context means “have marital relations with” (see the following verse). The verb O52;χ^1;τω (ecetw, “have”) occurs twice in the Greek text, but has not been repeated in the translation for stylistic reasons. This verb occurs 8 times in the LXX (Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1) with the meaning “have sexual relations with,” and 9 times elsewhere in the NT with the same meaning (Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29)." [citation needed] Richard suggests that Strong's dictionary defines porneia as "all forms of sexual acts that are not within the confines of marriage" when in fact it doesn't say that at all. As evidenced in Deuteronomy 22:14, when a man paid a bridal price for a girl, she was considered his wife from that day forward; it might be over a year later before they had the marriage feast and he took her as his bride. If this betrothed girl, his legal wife, had sex before her wedding day, she was guilty of a type of adultery and suffered the consequences. Comparing that situation to Exodus 22:16-17, sex with an unbetrothed virgin, the Bible clearly teaches that pre-marital sex is not a sin. There was no punishment upon either of them. The man was forced to pay her bridal price for otherwise her family could never recover the lost money. The marriage was obligatory upon the man if the parents approved it.My opponent must refute that in order to win the debate, as RULES state, whether opponent likes it or not, rules are(which he agreed to), "Post every single proof verse against Pre-marital sex, I refute it and then you refute my rebuttals, and it goes back and forth until rounds are over or there's a winning." These passages only talk about virgin girls under their father's care and say nothing about premarital sex by adult single females or males. There is no passage that speaks against males, whether single or married, having sex with an unattached female. Adultery laws only applied to sex with married women, not unmarried. I hope people will stop adding their own rules to the Bible; they're like the Pharisees who made the word of God of no effect by their traditions." "This shows that harlot don't mean Porneiva. Porneiva means adultry, (since marriage is presented) fornication which directly means Porneiva. Illicit sex is also adultry and pre-martial sex"Actually no, no matter how many times my opponent tries to change The Word of YHWH, the opponent will fail, he claims it's not mentioning Prostitution but Harlotry,According to Strongs Greek lexicon Porneia can mean, either, \Even The Septuagint Translation from Jesus Christ time agrees as The Septuagint Translates Deuteronomy 23:18 which says, οP16; προσο^3;σεις μ^3;σθωμα πa2;ρνης οP16;δP50; O40;λλαγμα κυνP56;ς εO84;ς τP56;ν οO90;κον κυρ^3;ου τοQ66; θεοQ66; σου πρP56;ς πQ18;σαν εP16;χ^2;ν P05;τι βδ^1;λυγμα κυρ^3;Q79; τQ83; θεQ83; σοa3; O52;στιν καP54; O36;μφa2;τεραThat verse says, Which makes it Irrefutable proof that Porneia means Harlotly, whoredom, EVEN THE LEXICON agrees that 1 Corinthians 6 is talking about Prostitution, look, http://biblesuite.com... says,"1. properly, a prostitute, a harlot, one who yields herself to defilement for the sake of gain (Aristophanes, Demosthenes, others); in the N. T. universally, any woman indulging in unlawful sexual intercourse, whether for gain or for lust: Matthew 21:31; Luke 15:30; 1 Corinthians 6:15;Hebrews 11:31; James 2:25. Come on Con, we're not stupid. Look, 1 Corinthians 6:15, Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. Even 1 Corinthians 7 agrees, watch this, http://christianity.stackexchange.com...; Another reason that people have misunderstood 1 Corinthains 7:2 is the failure to translate "have one's wife or husband" [citation needed]accurately. It means to have sex or be in a sexual relationship with someone. It doesn't mean "get a wife, so you won't have sex before marriage." Paul was saying "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." Several commentaries bring out these points: http://www.enduringword.com...;[404 - file or directory not found]The New International Commentary on the New Testament by Gordon D. FeeJohn Gill's Exposition of the Bible (first Corinthians 7:2) Only a couple of translations have made the meaning clear for us, the NetBible being an example. Here is their note on this: "Grk “each man should have his own wife.” “Have” in this context means “have marital relations with” (see the following verse). The verb O52;χ^1;τω (ecetw, “have”) occurs twice in the Greek text, but has not been repeated in the translation for stylistic reasons. This verb occurs 8 times in the LXX (Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1) with the meaning “have sexual relations with,” and 9 times elsewhere in the NT with the same meaning (Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29)." [citation needed]" Have is there twice, meaning Have Sexual Relations with, so when Paul refutes the guy saying "It is good for a man not to touch a woman. 2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have sexual relations with his own woman(γυν^2; which can mean woman and in this literary context means woman), and let every woman have sexual relations with her own man(anér, same with γυν^2;). All this is agreed by this website, Specially on Lexicon!, http://biblelexicon.org... " When the Bible refers to father it is meaning the Patriarch of the community and also the daughters father personally. Sometimes these two are not the same, even male men live under rule of a Patriarch. If both woman and men were under the same Patriarch then the matter was most likely handled personally."My opponent kills himself and refutes his own use of Exodus 22:16-17, unless we live where the patriach of the community runs men and women and virginity and marriage is something to be paid for again(bride price), then we have no reason to use this law anymore, which makes my opponent have no Old Testament back up for his satan driven pre-marital sex ideas. My opponent must refute every single thing above, According to the rules which my opponent agreed.