The Bible Teaches that Women can Teach Men in the Church

"Rebuttal to Point A) No where in Scripture does a passage teach that God is fair." Rom 2:11 NIV "For God does not show favoritism" Acts 10:34 NIV "God does not show favoritism." Other translations read: "God is not partial." (NWT) God judges individuals and deals with them according to their true nature -- what is in their hearts -- and not according to superficial characteristics like race, looks, nationality etc. (Acts 10:34) Con argues that how God dealt with Job was not fair, but it was, not God, but the Devil who did all the wicked things to Job that my opponent mentions. Also, we can't say that it isn't fair for God to allow suffering unless his reason's for allowing it are not justified. He points to God's special treatment of Israel and claims that he exhibited partiality. It is true that that nation received special privileges that others didn't. But is that the true definition of partiality -- just receiving special privileges? No. Partiality is when special treatment is given without just merit. Looking at the big picture, ancient Israel was singled out by God for special treatment, when he singled out Abraham. Why was Abraham singled out? Because of his obedient and faithful heart. So it was Abraham's outstanding faith and obedience that moved God to choose him and constitute a nation from his offspring -- Israel. Even so, God's purpose in choosing Abraham and the nation of Israel was with the eternal benefit of ALL obedient mankind in view. (Genesis 12:1-3; Genesis 22:15-18) While God extended special treatment to the nation of Israel, he also chastised them when they demonstrated a rebellious attitude. So while God will extend special favor to the obedient, he will also remove such favor and punish them if they turn around and become rebellious. Likewise, a formerly rebellious individual can turn around from his rebellion and receive divine favor. (Ezekiel 18:21-32) There are also examples of God impartially extending favor to non-Israelites of nations that were judged by him as worthy of destruction. Mathew 1:5; Hebrews 11:31) God impartially shows favor to the obedient, and wrath to the wicked. He extends mercy to both the wicked and righteous (for no man is perfectly righteous). He impartially welcomes the wicked man if he turns around from his wickedness and he rejects the righteous one if he turns to a wicked course. Jehovah is the one that judges us and deals with us impartially according to what we truly are in our hearts. "Beyond that, my opponent has not proved that allowing a man to teach and not a woman is a violation of fairness." Fairness by definition has to do with equal rights and opportunities. Wikipedia: "Fairness or being fair may refer to: •Equity (law) •Distributive justice •Fairness, absence of bias in specific realms:" It is not giving equal opportunity and rights to women if men can teach in the church and they can't. While you trust to make a distinction between God being just, and his being fair, his justice really is his fairness. A just God is a fair God. "My opponent has assumed something that the text does not state. The passage simply says everyone. My opponent has made the mistake of assuming that this means everyone should prophesy, rather than reading it for what it says as "everyone who prophesies." Con misunderstands my argument. My argument was not that 1 Cor 14:3-5 says everyone should prophesy, but it does tell us that EVERYONE who DOES prophesy speaks to men for their strengthening, encouragement and comfort" and "builds up the church." So everyone who prophesies speaks to MEN. Therefore, if women do prophesy, then they do speak to men for their building up, strengthening, and encouragement. EVERYONE who prophesies does so "so that all (including MEN) may learn and all may be comforted. Thus, the teaching function is inherent in prophecy." (vss 29-31) So if women do prophesy, that involves their teaching men because EVERYONE who prophesies teaches men. And I have shown you where in both the Old and New Testament that women prophesy. "Furthermore, my opponent fails to see that the scriptures do not use the terms prophecy and teaching interchangeably and assumes that if a woman prophesies that she is teaching." 1 Cor 14:29-31 clearly says that when prophets prophesy it is so that "ALL (doesn't ALL include MEN?) may LEARN." So unless you can prove that women are not prophets (that they are not allowed to prophesy) then you can't rule out women teaching men. "Teaching however, refers specifically to a general event in which a person shares doctrinal statements (usually from the Scriptures) in order to edify the Church." Women were among the 120 disciples who taught men about the magnificent things of God in Acts 2:4-5, 11; 1:13-15. My opponent is saying that someone has to use the Bible in order for it to be teaching. If this is the case then there could be no teaching among God's people before the Bible was written. Also, it doesn't say that these 20 disciples made no reference to God's word while speaking about the magnificent things of God. One would suppose many of the main magnificent things of God are recorded in Scripture. "Please see above comments on the difference between prophecy and teaching. Furthermore, just because the Bible shows us examples of something, does not mean that it is teaching us to do so." Here is what the Bible tells us to do. "Make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them…TEACHING them to observe all the things I have commanded you." (Matt 28:19-20) I ask my opponent, does this only apply to men? If so, then only men can make disciples. If it includes women, then women can teach men. If he claims this is not in the church setting, I will have to challenge him that the church is not a building, but the people; and if a woman teaches her male children who are saved, she is teaching male members of the church. If she gives counsel to new male believers, she is teaching members of the church. Will he argue that all of this is forbidden? 1 Timothy Chapter 2:8-13 must be understood in the same spirit as verse 9. Is it wrong for women to wear expensive clothes? How much money must a dress cost to qualify as expensive? Is it wrong for a woman to wear jewelry? Many of God' people in the Bible did without condemnation. So verses 8-13 can be taken with the same sense of modesty as verse 9. Further, this passage says nothing about an assembly for worship, so my opponent has not proven that Paul was here discussing matters of the congregation and not some other circumstance. "He then says [D] "Let the women learn quietly" and explains [F] "I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man." Philippians 4:2-3 says otherwise. Women were allowed to teach. (Rom 16:1) Also, because a woman is teaching you does not mean she is exercising authority over you. A humble person is willing to listen even to a small child and learn from him; doesn't mean the child is exercising authority over you. God told Abraham to obey his wife's voice, doesn't mean she had authority over him. (Gen 21:9-12) So he needs to look at how he interprets 1 Tim 2.