The Omniverse is infinite

Thanks to Pro for presenting an interesting topic. I'm amused that the term 'world' has changed into 'universe' and then into 'omniverse' (or perhaps multiverse) throughout our linguistic history. Humans have had to learn the hard way that their assumptions of importance in relation to the whole of existence is dubious. Let's consider first the statement 'If something is finite, it is literally nothing compared with something that is infinite'. Is this true? It is not. Rather, the proper conclusion that one could draw from a comparison of this kind would be that the finite thing is infinitely smaller compared to the infinite thing. Consider the following analogy:I have a copy of the Stephen Hawking's book 'a Brief History of Time' which is 200 pages long. It is finite, spatially and temporally (space can be lumped in with distance). It is resting on a table. Lying next to it is a copy of Roger Penrose's 'The Road to Reality'. However this is a special edition. It has been lying on the table for eternity. Furthermore, each page is one half the thickness of the preceding page ad infinitum, such that there are an infinite number of pages. The pages of this book are limitless.However, what can we conclude about the number of pages in each book? Not that there are 0 pages in A Brief History of Time. That is false: there are 200. Rather, that in relation to The Road to Reality, A Brief History of Time has an infinitely fewer number of pages. By analogy, a finite omniverse would not be nothing compared to an infinite omniverse, but rather infinitely smaller than an infinite omniverse. Let's continue with Pro's case. He says 'something finite cannot exist, because it would have a 0% chance of existing, since anything else could have existed'. If this is true, then neither he nor I exist! Humans are not infinite either spatially or temporally, therefore we have a 0% chance of existing according to this line of reasoning. Pro's line of thought seems to be something like this: there are an infinite possible number of finite universes that could have existed. If the universe were finite, it would be one amongst an infinite number of possible universes; therefore the probability we can assign the universe is infinitely small, or zero percent. However, infinitely small is not equivalent to non-existent. Scientists hypothesise that there are infinitely dense collections of matter called 'black holes' - but they clearly do not hypothesise that these black holes are nonexistent. Rather, if it is true, as Pro seems to assume, that there is an infinite number of ways in which the universe could have been, this leads to the conclusion that each possible configuration of the universe is equally probable - infinitely small. Let's come to the conclusion of Pro's round. He says 'If however, we live in an omniverse with infinite universe and modes of existence, it would make a lot more sense. An infinite omniverse would have a 100% chance of existing'. But why is this the case? Is it not true that there are an infinite number of ways an infinite omniverse could be? An Omniverse filled with an infinite quantity of rubber ducks, for example, as opposed to an infinite quantity of trees? Is not an infinite omniverse also competing probabilistically with all the possible finite universes? Hypothesising an omniverse does not lead to the conclusion that the hypothesised omniverse is 100% probable any more than hypothesising that godzilla is eternal and infinite in size make it 100% probable that he exists.Back to you Pro. ^^