That God does not exist

"Between people of different faiths, or indeed between people of the same faith, the term omnipotent has been used to connote a number of different positions. These positions include, but are not limited to, the following: 1.A deity is able to do anything that it chooses to do.[1] 2.A deity is able to do absolutely anything, even the logically impossible, i.e., pure agency.[2] 3.A deity is able to do anything that is in accord with its own nature (thus, for instance, if it is a logical consequence of a deity's nature that what it speaks is truth, then it is not able to lie). 4.Hold that it is part of a deity's nature to be consistent and that it would be inconsistent for said deity to go against its own laws unless there was a reason to do so.[3] 5.A deity is able to do anything that corresponds with its omniscience and therefore with its worldplan." (http://en.wikipedia.org...) I am in agreement with definitions 1, 3 and 5; I do not agree with definitions 2 and 4. According to the same source, omnipotence comes from the Latin Omni Potens: "all power," and literally means "unlimited power." Power is a form for energy. Having an unlimited amount of power does not in any way imply that a being can do anything at all. This is not contained in the individual components of the word. It is more rational that having unlimited power would enable a being to do anyting in accord with its nature and plans. To illustrate, there are 40 watt bulbs, and 60 watt bulbs; but what if there was a light bulb that could facilitate an unlimited amount of electricity? No matter how many watts it can use, it doesn't mean the bulb can now fly, speak, print books, shop, or any such thing outside its nature. The power only allows it to shine more brightly, nothing else. God's unlimited power does not enable him to do anything at all. It's against his nature to lie, hence, he cannot lie regardless of how much power he has. "Hypothetically, then, could a omnipotent being microwave a burrito so hot that it could not eat it? It seems that the answer must be yes, because the being is better if it can cook the burrito that hot. However, it would also be better if the being could eat all burritos. In this hypothetical situation, omnipotence is impossible, because one cannot both create an uneatable burrito and be able to eat all burritos." God can do both! God's ability to eat the burrito would not depend on how hot the burritto is, but on the body he choses to take. In the Old Testament God became flesh and ate bread. (Gen 18) God could choose a human body whose tongue is unable to bear the heat of the burrito. At the same time, being able to be in more than one place simultaneously (God is omnipresent, see Psalm 138:7-10; Jer 23:23-24), he could materialize in another body that can eat the burrito; so that God is doing opposite things all at once. In fact, he did a similar thing when he became the man Jesus and was born of Mary, experiencing both the limitations of human nature and the unlimitedness of the divine simultaneously. Since God is a Spirit and does not eat, he would have to materialize in a body outside his natue to accomplish this task. Similar comments could be made about the other tasks my opponent offers regarding creating a stone so heavy he can't lift it and so on. But I think Pro's argument is flawed because he assumes that perfection means the ability to do anything, and that is not the dictinary's definition of perfection, nor is it the Christian concept, or that of many other religions. Christians teach that Adam was created perfect, but that doesn't mean he could cut himself and not bleed, and eat nails and limestone and not get sick, or that he could even do advanced science. Perfection means being complete, without needing any parts, and having no defect. It's not unusual to hear people say, "that performance was perfect," or "those are the perfect shoes to go with that dress," or "he's a perfect musician." It has nothing to do with being able to do anythig whatsoever. One can be perfect withing the confines of what one is desinged to do, or one's nature in case of God. The Wikipedia source I mentioned above also defined perfection: "The word "perfection" derives from the Latin "perfectio", and "perfect" — from "perfectus." These expressions in turn come from "perficio" — "to finish", "to bring to an end." "Perfectio(n)" thus literally means "a finishing", and "perfect(us)" — "finished", much as in grammatical parlance ("perfect").[2] The genealogy of the concept of "perfection" reaches back beyond Latin, to Greek. The Greek equivalent of the Latin "perfectus" was "teleos." The latter Greek expression generally had concrete referents, such as a perfect physician or flutist, a perfect comedy or a perfect social system. Hence the Greek "teleiotes" was not yet so fraught with abstract and superlative associations as would be the Latin "perfectio" or the modern "perfection." To avoid the latter associations, the Greek term has generally been translated as "completeness" rather than "perfection."[3] The oldest definition of "perfection", fairly precise and distinguishing the shades of the concept, goes back to Aristotle. In Book Delta of the Metaphysics, he distinguishes three meanings of the term, or rather three shades of one meaning, but in any case three different concepts. That is perfect: 1. which is complete — which contains all the requisite parts; 2. which is so good that nothing of the kind could be better; 3. which has attained its purpose.[4]" "The general form is, could God create a limitation upon itself." God is already limited by his own nature from performing acts that are either morally wrong, foolish, or against his purpose. Pro is incorrect to argue that "perfection requires optimal potency, which has no restrictions." Says who that perfection requires having no restrictions? Where does Pro derive this definition? My sources goes on to show there are other definitions and contexts for the word "perfection," but Pro is holding on to his definition arbitrarily. Why? If he embraces other definitions of "perfection" as well as "omnipotence" would he find it more difficult to prove God cannot exist? Pro argues that God knowing Obama will send him a card means God interfered with the man's free will. Predestanation is a separate issue from God's existence altogether. I don't suscribe to that belief. God does not predestine everyone to make the decisions they do. Pro is confusing predestination with foreknowledge. God's ability to see the future and know what will happen, does not mean that he causes it to happen in every case. Not even most cases. I know the sun will rise tomorrow, does that mean I forced or caused the sun to rise? No. God know Obama will not send that card, does that mean he forced him not to? No; he simply was aware of the choice the man would make before he made it. Knowing what will happen in no ways makes God the cause of what will happen. So God knowing what choice we will make doesn't take away our free will. "Let's say I get cunning and ask God whether it will send me a tasty blueberry pie tomorrow. God will then issue a great profound "Yes - free blueberry pies for all!" God must know what it will do, otherwise it would be imperfect. God therefore can no longer change his mind. God therefore is predestined to give me a free blueberry pie, just like Obama is predestined to not give you a bus card." God always keeps his promises, so if God promises that he will give it, he will, but if his giving it is conditional, he will add an "if" clause, such as "if you obey my voice then I will give it to you." If I had a time machine to go to the future and see what you do, does it mean I predestined you to do it? No. My knowing what choice you will make doesn't deny the fact that you had the choice. I am out fo space but I have much more to say in the next round.