Mary is NOT Immaculate Conception ( Scriptural Argument)

#1 My opponent concedes that he does indeed believe that Mary is perpetually full of Grace. What I think, however, is that we disagree on the definition of grace. Catholic theology holds that there are several different kinds of grace. Sanctifying grace, which is given to Mary at conception, is the fullness of grace (through Christ) that merits eternal salvation. Protestants have different ideas of grace. However, we are debating a Catholic dogma, not theological differences between Catholics and Protestants. I am presenting my argument on a Catholic dogma from a Catholic perspective, which should be recognized by my opponent. Charitoo, the root of the word kecharitomene, means to bestow grace or favor upon, or to bless. I will accept my opponent"s translation of the Greek notwithstanding the Vulgate. "You have been graced" in the Greek MSS is kecharitomene. It is critical to note that this word stands in place of Mary"s name as the noun in the angelic salutation. "You who have been graced" is the better translation in context. I do not dispute my opponent"s structured breakdown of the word, nor his explanations. Mary received Grace from God in the past, which carried forward to the present and she is complete of Grace at the time of the annunciation. I do not see this as an argument against the Immaculate Conception at all; On the contrary, in fact. My opponent states that "If Mary is not infected with O.S. (original sin) then Jesus can"t experience pain and death." This seems to imply that Christ was infected somehow with O.S. through Mary (a blasphemy), however, in his very next argument my opponent states "Jesus is O.S. free." Perhaps my opponent can clarify his point on these two notes. #2 It is interesting that my opponent now elects to use the Latin Vulgate to try to make his point. He concedes that the Greek word has a literal meaning, "the state or condition of lowliness," yet assumes a figurative usage. Mary is simply responding to Elizabeth (Lk. 1:42) as though to say, "There is no reason to congratulate me. It is all the work of the Lord. My good fortune consists in the fact that he has deigned to notice one so small as I am." "The keynote is that God is gracious especially to the poor and lowly, and Mary, who has called herself "the slave of the Lord", insists on keeping that place; "because he hath regarded the lowliness (not, humility) of his slave, therefore all generations will call me [blessed]". She confesses that since God is her Saviour, 47, she needs salvation; that is the doctrine of the Church: as a child of Adam she needed her Son"s redemption which gained her the preventive grace saving her from incurring the stain of all sin, original and actual." [1] #3 The Ark of the Covenant was in fact made of "incorruptible wood" according to the Septuagint: "And thou shalt make the ark of testimony of incorruptible wood..." Exodus 25:10, Septuagint The Ark, being the dwelling place of God was Holy and thus Mary, the Mother of God, was also Holy (sinless, immaculate), for she was to bear Christ within her womb and be a dwelling place for God. While my opponent rejects Patristic support beyond 300 AD I do not, coming from a Catholic perspective. Being an argument on a Catholic dogma, I contend that Catholic principles should be admitted. Sources [1] Ginns, R. (1953). The Gospel of Jesus Christ according to St Luke. (B. Orchard & E. F. Sutcliffe, Eds.)A Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture (p. 941). Toronto: Thomas Nelson.