Secession in the United states is constitutional

Thanks again for the response Pro! In this part, I will negate the arguments that Article X gave any regard to secession, differentiate the American Cause from the Confederate Cause, prove there was little bias during the Texas v. White case, and finally discuss what our Founding Fathers thought about secession. The Misinterpretation of Article X You are correct that Article X does not state any specific institution nor practice, but applies to all states without a doubt. However, no where in Article X does it say that states can receive any additional powers, or override federal law (in this case, federal law states that secession is illegal). If there wasn't the Supremacy Clause I would actually agree with you, but Article VI makes it very clear that state powers are subordinate, while federal powers and the Constitution are the primary powers. You also disregarded the first part of Article X, "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution..." In other words, Article X clearly states that the Constitution and federal government is a more superior power when compared to the states. Furthermore, Article 1, Section 10, Clause 1 does not mention secession once, so I'm not sure what you meant when you stated, "As for Article 1 Sec.10 Clause 1, Upon secession, you are no longer a part of the Union. This was meant to apply to states within the U.S. but completely collapses upon secession." The American Cause vs. The Confederate and Texas Cause The circumstances of the American Revolution and the Civil War, as well as the modern day; are quite different. As you stated, the British parliament during the Colonial Era was completely corrupt. Our taxes did not benefit services in America, but benefited Britain. This unfair government made our revolution justified without a doubt. However, the Civil War is a different story. The Confederate states had the same rights states enjoy today, since Article X was in effect during that time. In Britain however, state/colony rights were nonexistent. It can be said that the Union violated the Confederacy's tenth amendment right, but the Supremacy Clause nullifies that claim since secession is illegal under federal laws. Not to mention that the Supremacy Clause is not even close to Britain's colonial era policies. In America during the Civil War (same for today), most court cases weren't federal, while nearly all court cases in 1700's Britain were decided by a king (people weren't even given a proper trial nor punishment). [1] Bias in Texas v. White Case Although the Supreme Court was very pro-Lincoln and held a republican majority, most judges during the Texas v. White case were democrats as a matter of fact. Samuel Nelson, Robert Cooper Grier, Nathan Clifford, Stephen Johnson Field, and Salmon P. Chase himself were all all democrats, yet were involved in the court case. Salmon P. Chase was also highly unlikely to be biased, since he was born in Ohio; a state that was mixed with regards to the Civil War. [2] The laws passed during the Reconstruction were also legally passed. To prevent the South from keeping their slaves, the fourteenth amendment was passed. As I have stated before, state powers are subordinate to the Constitution and federal government, making laws passed during the Reconstruction entirely legal. As a matter of a fact, the South was able to practice their tenth amendment rights after the war, by passing Jim Crow laws (this was terrible of course, but this shows that states still had and have many rights). [3] Founding Fathers on Secession While many of our founding fathers were divided on the issue, there were definitely some that opposed secession. During the Poughkeepsie Convention, Alexander Hamilton and John Jay explained, "a right to withdraw [was] inconsistent with the Constitution, and no ratification." [4] [1] http://www.h-net.org... [2] https://en.wikipedia.org... [3] http://www.howard.edu... [4] https://en.wikipedia.org...