Premarital Sex is not a Sin

Thanks Pro. My opponent obviously missed the whole purpose of showing what marriage is. Marriage is a intimate union between a man and woman. If my opponent wanted typical meanings for marriage he should have said so. I contend that marriage in those days was nothing more than a man taking a woman as his woman. These intimate human relationships are considered forms of marriage by the context of the Bible. I have refuted my opponent, it is that simple. One can not help when someone refuses to accept they are mistaken. 1 Corinthians 7:2 in Greek, διP48; because of δP50; however πορνε^3;ας sexual immorality, O57;καστος each τP52;ν one O53;αυτοQ66; of himself γυναQ50;κα wife O52;χ^1;τω let have, http://biblos.com... Wife is clearly refereed here and furthermore is distinctive of marriage. My opponent must justify his translation. It is clear that Paul is saying take your own wife and own husband and have not sex outside that union. My opponents link here has failed yet again. "have one's wife or husband" Considering that my opponents own copy & paste with no link refers to husband and wife shows his mistake, they also imply marriage. His own source says, "each man should have sexual relations with his own wife." "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." My opponent has no justification nor does his no link source, for removing wife for woman from the Greek translation. The meaning of woman is, "from and for man", signaling marriage again. Therefore the use of woman in a relationship means wife. http://www.etymonline.com... As for the word Porneia, my opponent has shown nothing meaningful and he really thinks he has. I have shown it has always meant fornication or immoral sexual relations. But what type of sexual acts is it referring? My opponent says just prostitution but I think he is wrong. "Porneia, which is relatively rare in classical Greek (Moulton-Milligan), originally stood for "prostitution" ... In other, later contexts it denotes "unchasity, illicit sexual relations" of any kind ("fornication" is a somewhat archaic but common translation)." [The Complete Biblical Library]. Porneia (fornication) "is used of illicit sexual intercourse…." [W. E. Vine, Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words] http://lavistachurchofchrist.org... Furthermore my opponent did not even address that in Greek the word for 'Harlot' is 'Porne', which were pornography came from, and is used here. 'Porneuo' which is to prostitute one's body to the lust of another, is also used. These words describe a harlot or prostitute. How can my opponent assume that Porneia is used for prostitution when we have the words for prostitution? I have shown the definition of Porneia and does not include Prostitution. http://www.biblestudytools.com... "It is apparent that in Jesus' day sexual activity with a person one is not married to would meet the definition of porneia. A man and woman who are physically intimate with one another and are having or simulating sexual relations would easily fit the definition and standard use of porneia in Jesus' time. To be physically intimate with someone not your mate, making physical contact with another person in a sexual way, is sinful porneia and defiles marriage ( Hebrews 13:4). It destroys and betrays the trust so necessary for marriage to continue and thus would be a scriptural cause for the exercise of Matthew 19:9." http://static.justchristians.com... My opponent claims that marriage is not in the context but husband and wife are. Do not husband and wife signal marriage here? My opponent claims I assert, I offer evidence as you can see and it is my opponent who uses assertions and no resources. My opponent further never addresses my point about 1 Corinthians 7, it starts with Paul addressing the questions of the Corinthians and not temple prostitution at all. I established that Paul was starting at a new point in the letter. "9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery." I have shown that fornication means multiple things and this seems to be my opponents problem. He looks at one meaning and throws out all the rest. Fornication means adultery also unless so identified by itself. It is identified here and clearly shows to be talking about adultery. I never claimed that Fornication only means pre-marital sex. "Again a bride price is given, back then in Old Culture Law(which Paul is against, ie, Circumcision and advising people who are not married to have sex, 1 Corinthians 7:2)" My opponent admits that a price is given for a woman by a man who sleeps with her and he must take her as his wife. He then suggest Paul advises people to have sex, Pros interpretation is distorted. "7 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband." Paul starting a new context here by saying, "Now concerning". Paul clearly advising no sex when he says, "not to touch a woman." He then advises them to marry instead of being in fornication. This further increases my case by Paul telling men not to touch women but to marry them. It also shows that Paul was directly referring to pre-marital sex. He then says he refutes my argument by clearing up he made a mistake but ignores the passages given. He thinks he can just ignore what he doesn't want to talk about and just focus on what he wants to discuss but it don't work that way. He must stay on topic and address all my points. He needs not to complain about not enough space or make excuses for not approaching my full argument. I agree that God is against prostitution. I have already shown that woman means wife. "notice NO Covenant or Ceremony is listed" Well actually there is ceremony and ritual by God and He tells us here: "24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." "1, How does their own woman and own man mean marriage? it can mean boyfriend/girlfriend as well" My opponent should show anywhere in the Bible it talks about boyfriends or girlfriends. He should show any acceptable sexual relationship outside of marriage that is shown any positive light in the Bible."2, My Opponent absolutely kills himself here by admitting that I proved people should get their own woman and man, woman and man doesn't mean Wife or Man," My opponent is mistaken, woman means wife. My opponent fails. He must convince us without a doubt his resolution is true but I just don't see it. I send it back to him.