Biblical Texts Require Belief in the Inerrancy of Scripture

@R2.Pro.1 - ... "Romans 15:4 says For whatever was written in former days was written for our instruction, that through endurance and through the encouragement of the Scriptures we might have hope. This proves that the bible is without fault."I am assuming, "Without Fault" either means, "without typographical/copy error" and / or, "Without Injustice, and True".And ... I am assuming that you are not defending "Accuracy in Transmission" - because I would ask you to point to a text that says, "Believe in the King James Version!" Or, "Believe in the Masoretic Hebrew!" It is prima-facie that no such passage exists.However - I will assume that you mean, "This proves that the bible is without fault - in its general content".R3.Con.1 - A Document Intended to be Relied on for Instruction does not Prove Faultlessness of Content :NIV, Ezekiel 20:25 - "So I gave them other statutes that were not good and laws through which they could not live ..."I can easily see that this passage, and its context is very informative and profitable for instruction.However - the passage itself, apparently spoken by God - points out internal faults - GIVEN BY GOD himself.R3.Con.2 : Error in Content - or Error in Transmission ?Doesn't Ezekiel 20:25 point to the plausibility that the texts were manipulated at some point? Or, if preserved accurately - then which of the commandments in Scripture are actually good? Which are bad?Should I believe in, and follow - those "bad commandments"? How can I KNOW which ones it is talking about? Does the text say?It can reasonably be argued that God was justified to corrupt their law - because of what Israel kept doing. But, it does not mean that those laws were "without error".They were faulty - evidenced by the fact that no-one could actually live by them. (And, God explicitly said they were bad laws.)Doesn't all of this mean that God never actually wanted people to put faith in some text - but actually wanted people to find truth in an actual intimate relationship with him?NIV, Jeremiah 31:31-33 - “This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel ... I will put my law in their minds and write it on their hearts. ... "NASB, John 5:39 - You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me;@R2.Pro.2 - "... Then you asked for proof of why the bible should be interpreted. Now the bible should be interpreted but only with Godly knowledge, only wisdom from God can be used to interpret the bible."I understand your belief. I completely understand that this doctrine is shared by Catholicism and Rabbinical Judaism.But - I am asking : is there is a Biblical Text that states that "Biblical Interpretation is Exclusive to those who already possess Godly Wisdom and Knowledge".R3.Con.3 - But - is their a "Biblical Text" that would counter a belief that "Scripture can be read, and deeper understanding pursued - through the Plain-Meaning of the texts, and effective study" ??R3.Con.4 - Restatement of Debate :I am asking for a textual basis - where Scripture requires believers to accept those Scriptures as inerrant ...For example : NASB, 2 Samuel 22:31 - “As for God, His way is blameless; The word of the Lord is tested;So - is Scripture supposed to be accepted "at face value" - by faith? Or, is it permissible to question, doubt, and then test it? Note - what was written in Samuel, (and other contexts) - appears to even include the spoken, intimate word of God, (especially).