Paul was a false prophet: Original sin and the law

I was starting to wonder if anyone would! I will debate my part in bold so if you want to copy any point to counter, you can leave mine in bold to make it easier to read. Here are the points I already mentioned so I will start with number one. 1. All of man, thanks to the sins of Adam and Eve, is fallen before God, lost and in need of salvation (FALSE) First, we have to agree on one thing. A person like Paul is not hearing from God just because he says he is. I would assume you can agree with that since many nutty people throughout history (Charles Manson, Jim Jones, etc. ) have claimed to have heard from God. Paul claims to have gotten his words from God so let's just see if the rest of the Bible matches up. Paul introduced the world to the idea that man is lost from birth. "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned" (Rom. 5:12). Rom 3:10: "As it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one" To Paul, sin was not a choice that one chose to do. It was a birth defect. You were born stained with sin and there was simply no way to get rid of it before Jesus. It is highly interesting that in the roughly 4000 years of Biblical history from Adam to Paul, God did not see fit to let any other prophet in on this highly important piece of information - not Abraham, Moses, David, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Isaiah or anyone else. For this reason, Jews reject the very idea that man is lost from the moment he is born. Now, into the New Testament (NT). Jesus talked about sin but never mentions anything about original sin. Again, isn't that supposed to be important? Isn't it crucial to a Christian's salvation that he understand why he needs a savior and that he could never have kept the law? After Jesus, the apostles carry on with the message into the book of Acts. You have writings from James, Peter, John, Philemon, Luke (if he wrote Acts) and still, no one else makes the first mention of original sin. So, in order for you to believe Paul was a prophet, you have to believe God felt the need to hide this all important message from every other character in the Bible, including his own son Jesus! 2. The reason the Messiah was to come was to redeem the sins of mankind because man was cut off from God (FALSE) This is part of Paul's original sin doctrine. According to Judaism and the OT prophets, the Messiah was to come and restore Israel and set up his throne and the whole world was to hopefully follow their model of the worship of the one true God while keeping the law. The Jews were not looking then and they are not looking now for a savior to die for their sins. The Jews already knew how to be forgiven in their religion – repent and keep the law again. When there was a temple, they sacrificed animals and their sins were 100% forgiven (Leviticus 4:20, 26, 31, 35). Even without a temple and without animal sacrifices, God did allow sins to be forgiven: Take words with you and return to the LORD. Say to him: "Forgive all our sins and receive us graciously, that we may offer the fruit of our lips (Hosea 14:2). How is it possible for even Jesus to tell the woman that her sins were forgiven (Luke 7:48) even though there had not been any shedding of his perfect blood yet? In light of the fact that forgiveness was already available, what was the need for Jesus' death? 3. The law was never given to save man in any sense. It was impossible to keep and no one ever did. (FALSE; however the word "saved" is not really an OT idea. To be saved means one is lost and the OT does not teach this) The main thing God wanted from man in the Bible is for man to be righteous before him. Do you agree? "Fear God and keep his commandments, for this is the whole duty of man" (Ecclesiastes 12:13). The question is how could man be righteous before God? The answer is very simple and yet, I do not believe any Christian I have ever spoken to understands this verse: "The LORD commanded us to obey all these decrees and to fear the LORD our God, so that we might always prosper and be kept alive, as is the case today. And if we are careful to obey all this law before the LORD our God, as he has commanded us, that will be our righteousness"(Deuteronomy 6:24-25). Did you catch that last line "that will be our righteousness. " What will be our righteousness? Back up a few lines to " if we are careful to obey all this law. " There you have it. Righteousness, in the entirety of the OT comes not by believing in anything, not even by having faith! It is from obeying the law. Did you know the word "faith" appears in the OT only twice? Isn't that interesting? Paul did not agree with Deut 6:25 at all: "We are justified by faith and not by doing something the Law tells us to do" (Romans 3:28). Deuteronomy says man is justified by keeping the law and Paul says it is faith. Having brought up Deut 6:25 to various Christians, some do have this reply: "Sure, righteousness could have been attained by keeping the law except for one big problem - no one could keep it. It was impossible. " Let's face it. According to Paul, that is correct since he stated numerous times that justification cannot come by keeping the law so there is no need to argue that. However, is it true? Could someone be righteous in God's eyes without having faith in the shed blood of Jesus? Let's see a few examples: A. God called Noah good in contrast to the rest of the world that he called "wicked. " B. The Bible called Job "blameless and upright; he feared God and shunned evil. " (Job 1:1) C. "Moses and Aaron were among his priests, Samuel was among those who called on his name; they called on the LORD and he answered them…they kept his statutes and the decrees he gave them" (Psalm 99:7). D. Hezekiah kept the law (2 Kings 18:6). E. God really bragged about David minus the Bathsheba incident! F. "In the days of Herod, king of Judea, there was a priest named Zechariah, of the division of Abi'jah; and he had a wife of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth. And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless" (Luke 1:5-6). Was it possible to keep the law? Absolutely. I have given just a few specific examples above but it goes much further than these. You can check any concordance and see that the Bible mentions the righteous,blameless and the innocent numerous times throughout the OT. Ask yourself this question: How, if they were born with original sin as Paul taught, did they become righteous? Paul taught that righteousness was not possible without faith in Jesus. Let's note one last thing about the difficulty level of keeping the law: "Now, what I am commanding you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach. No, the very word is very near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart so you may obey it" (Deuteronomy 30:14). Why would the "God-inspired" writer of Deuteronomy say that it was "not too difficult" if Paul said it was impossible? 4. A man's sins could not possibly be forgiven unless he has faith in Jesus. FalseThis one is easy. “Then the priest is to sacrifice the sin offering and make atonement for the one to be cleansed from their uncleanness. After that, the priest shall slaughter the burnt offering and offer it on the altar, together with the grain offering, and make atonement for them, and they will be clean (forgiven)" (Lev. 4:19-20) . .. despite the NT teaching "It is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins. (Heb. 10:4). You can also search out the word "forgiven" in the OT with a concordance and find many more examples. Looking forward to your reply.