Gay Marriage

During a debate the Burden of Proof is an obligation that both sides must abide by. But in your case, I asked for evidence because your claims required some form of validation. You cannot compare one thing to another unless you provide some form of evidence and reasoning to support your claims. Now to address your first claim which stated that "gay men are at higher risk of many bacterial infections, usually in the colon." but you should know, there are several errors to this claim. For one, you have failed to address what particular infections in which gay men are at higher risk. And you have failed to include whether or not this applies to all gay men or how this is relevant to the argument. Even if you were able to list some infections, you cannot apply this to all gay men because this claim is not even true. Gay men are not somehow automatically at risk for bacterial infections (even in the colon) because there are a number of ways someone can develop a bacterial infection, and homosexual behavior is not one of them. And you must consider all the variables. Bacterial infections are not a result of homosexual behavior, it is caused by bacteria. Anyone can come in contact with bacteria. Please know the difference between a bacterial infection and a viral infection as there are various ways someone can contract either one and homosexuality is not the main cause of any of them... Notable examples of bacterial infections are strep throat, tuberculosis, and urinary tract infections (UTI). http://www.mayoclinic.com... You also claim "As a discrimination issue, banning gay marriage is no different than banning incestuous or pedophilic marriage." Again, how? You have yet to provide any actual evidence as to how same-sex marriage is comparable to incestuous marriage (which is legal in some places) and pedophilic marriage which leads me to believe that you are being biased. Comparing something to something completely different without logic is not helping your argument at all. You completely ignore the fact that children are not able to consent to marriage and that pedophilia leads to physical and psychological trauma in children, which is why it is illegal. You also ignore the fact that marriage between people who are closely related, if there is sex involved, can result in children born with a higher risk of genetic disorders and deformities. How can you compare the sexual abuse of children and sex between those in close relation to a consensual agreement between adults of the same sex? How is that justifiable? Under what circumstances is same-sex marriage harmful because it involves two people of the same sex? You also claim that I am "trying to draw a moral line" but I am not. I told you the reasons in which it is consequential to marry and have sex with family members. My moral views have nothing to do with it because clearly mine are different from yours. My points come from what is evident regarding the situation. By the way, your sources have absolutely nothing to do with the debate. The sources you provided were focused on the bacterial species "Campylobacter fetus" which is characterized by a strong tropism for the genital tract of cattle and causes abortions (enzootic abortion) and meningococcal group C which is a form of meningitis. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov... The Campylobacter bacteria was found in the stools of homosexual males who contracted HIV, not normal, healthy homosexual individuals. Not to mention that the report in which your sources were taken is dated back to October 18, 1983, when HIV was thought to be a "gay cancer" making your sources invalid, irrelevant and not to mention biased. It is not known whether or not the homosexual men who developed meningitis in 2004 contracted the infection from sexual contact as it is highly unlikely. It is not normally sexually transmitted, although urethral infections may occur after oral sex which is NOT exclusive to homosexual men. ANYONE is at an increased risk of getting the bacterial infection after performing oral sex on a person who has the bacteria in their mouth or on their genitalia. This was completely preventable and has nothing to do with gay men. And even these claims were valid, how does that relate to marriage? I recommend updating your sources to something more up to date and relevant to the topic.