The New Testament teaches that the penitent believer must be baptized for the remission of sins.

This debate has many rounds, which is good, for I feel like we have not progressed at all. I feel it is time that I stop beating a dead horse; I am going to state my case for what it's worth, and end all doubts that my opponent has to offer.I accept my opponent's definition of grace, and I agree with my opponent on his reference to Eph. 2:4-9. "Baptism in no way minimizes or nullifies God’s grace as some critics argue that baptism does."My opponent is correct in that baptism doesn't nullify God's grace. However, if baptism is essential for the remission of sins, it does. This makes baptism less than the Bible's standard of baptism. This also means that repentance is impossible and unimportant; as it is no different than the ancient act of animal sacrificing.My opponent will surely reject this, however, I would ask him to please think about what I am stating before he proceeds to ignore the cultural aspects within the Bible. Before Jesus' sacrifice, Israelites would sacrifice animals in order to remove sin (Heb. 9:22; 10:3). Because of the hectic and inconvenient acts of killing perfectly healthy animals, God sent his only son to die on the cross as an ultimate sacrifice to all of humanity (1 John 2:2). Why was this? Namely, it was very difficult to repent and commission sacrifices; once someone in a village sinned, a priest would then have to sacrifice an animal, and then another, and another. Now that Christ had defeated death and ascended into heaven, we no longer have to sacrifice animals.Now, what about baptism?My opponent states that baptism is essential for the remission of sins. Does this not sound similar to sacrifice for the remission of sins? This is one reason Jesus came in the first place, hence, his sacrifice would be in vain. My opponent cannot deny this fact, if he states that "the penitent believer must be baptized for the remission of sins," he might as well be saying "the penitent believer must sacrifice animals for the remission of sins.""Baptism confirms and verifies God’s grace to us! God’s grace is manifested inbaptism! Andafter we are baptized, His grace continues to cover us."There are many theological problems with my opponent's statement:1. "Baptism confirms and verifies God's grace to us." This is not true. Faith is the confirmation and verification of his grace:"Now faith is confidence in what we hope for and assurance about what we do not see. This is what the ancients were commended for." Heb. 11- Also, read Romans 5:12. "God's grace is manifested in baptism." Also not true; God's grace is manifested through Jesus Christ. Not a believer's proclamation of faith:"For the grace of God (Jesus) has appeared that offers salvation to all people." Titus 2:11- My opponent may recall my mentioning that Jesus is baptism; taking this out of context. I was stating this as a means of confirming Jesus' grace, not that he takes the place of the submersion into water; which is completely different.3. "And after we are baptized, His grace continues to cover us." My opponent states that God's grace does not occur before baptism; therefore, God's grace is conditional and unjust according to my opponent. My opponent's doctrine of baptism continues to contradict many Biblical references.Rebuttal: Round ThreeMark 16:15-16The following quote was provided by a cited source: "In no way does this verse establish baptism as a condition for salvation; ...It should be noted that when the Lord added, 'but whoever does not believe will be condemned,' there is no mention of baptism. In identifying what would bring about condemnation, Jesus did not say that 'whoever believes but is not baptized shall not be saved.' If baptism were necessary for salvation, there are many significant verses which should be amended to read 'you are saved through faith and baptism.' It is clear that faith in Jesus Christ is what saves a person (Acts 16:30-31; Eph. 2:8-9). Baptism is a distinct act of obedience, apart from salvation. This is clarified by the order in which the words 'believe' and 'baptize' occur in the text (cf. Acts 2:38; 10:44-48). Baptism with the Spirit places believers into the body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:13), while water baptism merely signifies to others that a person has professed Christ. The word 'saved' is translated from the Greek word sesosmenoi, which is a perfect passive participle. It means that this salvation took place at some point in the past, being accomplished by Jesus Christ Himself, and is continuing on in the present." [1]My opponent stated the following quote:"Does this mean believe only or faith only. No it doesn’t! Why do you keep asking these foolish questions when scriptural evidence is seen by your eyes?"Contradiction. Observe:"Therefore, since we have been justified through faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ," Rom. 5:1 Acts 2:38 The Bible clearly teaches about the cleansing of the Holy Spirit. (Matt. 23:25; Matt. 7:7; 1 John 1:9; Rom. 8:13)The Holy Spirit transforms a person into a new creation; not baptism:"Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, the new creation has come: The old has gone, the new is here!" 2 Cor. 5:17Secondly, Jesus himself never mentioned that baptism is essential for the forgiveness of sins, or salvation:“Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life." John 5:24The only verses that such false teachers quote and reference are the ones they feel they can use to promote their "water gospel." The fact is that most of what the New Testament says about salvation doesn't include baptism at all! (John 5:24, John 11:25-26, John 14:6, Rom. 4:5, Rom. 10:9-13, Eph. 2:8-9, etc.) Verse 38 isn't the only verse in Acts 2. In Peter's message, a great deal was said before verse 38. In fact, he even told his listeners how to be saved before verse 38! In Acts 2:21, Peter quotes from Joel 2 and says, "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." His words preceding verse 38 were so convicting that his listeners were "pricked in their heart" in verse 37. So, to use verse 38 out of its context causes a misrepresentation of God's word. The verse does not stand alone, and, in fact, a totally different meaning is conveyed when one makes it stand alone. [2] I believe source two clarifies this.Acts 22:16Spiritual baptism and Social (water) baptism. Not a doctrine, but a philosophy. It is only true that the submergence of water does not save an individual, but their personal proclamation of faith in Jesus Christ. Observe contention one. Nonetheless, my opponent continues to use verses because they simply contain the word, "baptism."The Thief on the CrossConjecture. I have already addressed this issue and my opponent's flawed logic. Conceding to this, my opponent has agreed that this issue can no longer be discussed. Straw man, anyone?As for prayer, I have already refuted my opponent's erroneous claim. Case dismissed."forgive us our debts," -Matt 6:9-141 Peter 3:21Notice when looking at the entire verse, that Peter specifically states that he is not talking about the act of water baptism. He is talking about regeneration based on "an appeal to God." [3]Read source three for more details.Col. 2:12I have twisted nothing. Read Col. 2:11-12. Baptism merely replaces circumcision of the Old Covenant. [4] This has nothing to do with salvation or forgiveness of sins. My opponent states that I have taken verses out of context; clearly hypocrisy at it's finest.Rom. 6:3-4Extend.Gal. 3:26-27Extend.Onto Pro.[1] Spiros Zodhiates, editor, The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible (Chattanooga, Tennessee: AMG Publishers, 1996), note for Mark 16:16 (http://www.christiananswers.net...)[2] http://www.biblebelievers.com...[3] http://www.comereason.org...[4] www.reformedreader.org/RBTRII.1.Col.2.Barcellos.RPM.doc (direct download)