The Trinity is Not a Bible Teaching

Death and sin are not persons because they do not have a "mind." The Holy Spirit has a mind (Romans 8:27).Evil spirits as well as the Holy Spirit were all persons (1 Timothy 4:1). Pro said:Baptism in the name of the holy spirit does not prove it is a person. In the Bible, "name" can sometimes stand for power or authority (Deuteronomy 18:5, 19-22; Esther 8:10).Response of Con: Pro's Pneumatology: Holy Spirit = powerName = powerPro basically believes that baptism is done "in the power of power". Such tautological redundancy is creepy and nonsensical at best.Furthermore, the inclusion of the Holy Spirit in baptism done in the singular name proves that he is a person because the Father and the Son are persons whose name he equally share.Pro said:The Bible does not call the holy spirit God. The response of Con:The Holy Spirit is identified as "God" in the Old Testament:2 Samuel 23:2“The Spirit of the Lord spoke through me;his word was on my tongue.The God of Israel spoke,The Holy Spirit is identified as "God" in the New Testament:Acts 5:3 is very clear that it is the Ananias and Sapphira lied to the Holy Spirit who is identified in the text as "God." Verse 9 further proves that Ananias and Sapphira lied to the person of the Holy Spirit.Romans 8:27 is explicit. The Holy Spirit has his own mind.It is written, "the mind of the Spirit." The immediate context shows that personal relationship of the Holy Spirit with the disciples in that he actively intercedes for the disciples ( Romans 8:26)."And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God." ( Romans 8:27 KJV).The Bible does give the Father and the Son impersonal qualities as it does with the Holy Spirit."they were all filled with the Holy Spirit" Acts 2:4"Be filled with the Spirit" Eph. 5:18Acts 2:4 and Ephesians 5:18 are both clear that the disciples can be filled with the Holy Spirit."and to know the love of Christ that surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled with all the fullness of God." Eph 3:19Ephesians 3:19 is so clear that the disciples can be filled with God. Hence, we conclude that it is biblical that a person would be “filled” with another person. John the Baptist baptizes with the Holy Spirit and fire (Matthew 3:11). Are we to believe that God is a literal "heat, fuel and oxygen" because the Bible said that " Our God is a consuming fire" (Deu. 4:24, Heb. 12:29)? Is God a flame? Is not fire impersonal? Persons can be poured out:Because He [Christ] poured out Himself to death" Isa 53:12"I [Paul] am being poured out as a drink offering" Phil. 2:17; 2 Tim. 4:6David was poured out Psalm 22:14Pro said:What the Bible teaches about the holy spirit is clear. The Bible refers to the holy spirit as God's “hands” or “fingers” (Psalm 8:3; 19:1; Luke 11:20). Can a craftsman's hands and fingers function independent of his mind and body? Response of Con: The Bible refers to the Son as "Wisdom" and "Power" (1 Cor 1:24). Can a person's mind be wise and have power?Pro said: The Bible further shows the holy spirit's impersonal nature by comparing it to water and associating it with things like faith and knowledge (Is 44:3; Acts 6:5; 2 Cor 6:6).Response of Con: God is associated with many impersonal things. In fact God is directly called "fire" i two places: "our God is a consuming fire." Heb. 12:29 and "For the Lord your God is a consuming fire, a jealous God." Deut. 4:24.Jesus is associated with impersonal things too. Jesus directly calls himself: The Bread, The Door, The Lamb, The Life, The Light, The Rock, The Truth, The Vine, The Way, The Word, The Bread of Life ( John 1:1,14;6:35;8:12; 10:7,9;10:11,14;14:6,15:1,5).In the entire Scriptures, blasphemy ,in and of itself, is always done to someone and not to something! (Neh 9:26;2 Sam 2:14;Jn 10:33;Rev 13:6, 16:11). The Holy Spirit can be blasphemed and hence, he is a person (Matthew 12:31,32;Luke 12:10, Mk 3:29)How could an energy (which is not a person) be blasphemed? The burden of proof is on Pro.NASB"But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Too little to be among the clans of Judah, From you One will go forth for Me to be ruler in Israel. His goings forth are from long ago, From the days of eternity."KJVBut thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.The Ancient Version ( Itala Vulgata) of the Koine Greek NT agrees with the reading of the KJV and NASB:Douay-Rheims Bible ( From Latin Vulgate)AND THOU, BETHLEHEM Ephrata, art a little one among the thousands of Juda: out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be the ruler in Israel: and his going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity. Even a Jewish Bible agrees!Michoh 5:2 Orthodox Jewish Bible 2 (5:1) But thou, Beit-lechem Ephratah, though thou be little among the Alphei Yehudah (Thousands of Yehudah), yet out of thee shall He [Moshiach] come forth unto Me [Hashem] that is to be Moshel Yisroel; whose goings forth (i.e. origins) have been mikedem, (from everlasting; see Chabakuk 1:12), mimei olam (from the days of eternity).God did not give his created Son.Rather, he gave his begotten Son! ( John 3:16).This Son is equal with God in terms of nature (John 5:18, Philippians 2:6).The early church agreed with the Bible teaching that the Son is "begotten not made." Look at my arguments on "creation ad intra" (Proverbs 8:25)and "creation ex nihilo" (Hebrews 11:3) in Round 2.Pro said: If what Colossians 1:15 means is that Jesus has preeminence and first place in everything that exists, why aren't the Father and the “Holy Spirit” also said to be the first-born? The response of Con: The Son was the "first-born" not the "first-created" according to Colossians 1:15.The title PROTOTOKOS was never applied to the Father and the Holy Spirit because although these are preeminent due to being fully God, they are not "offspring." On the other hand, the Son is "God only begotten" (Jn 1:18).He alone is the offspring begotten from the Father ( Jn 3:16).That's why the Father and the Son are equal and one and the same in life/nature ( Jn 5:18, 26, 10:28-30, Phil. 2:6,Heb 1:3).Question of Pro: Why is blasphemy against the spirit forgiven, but not blasphemy against the Son (Matthew 12:31, 32)? Response of Con:Blasphemy against the Son = can be forgivenThe reason is that the blood of Christ cleanses the believer from all sin and is being purified from all unrighteousness (1 John 1:7, 9) Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit = cannot be forgivenThe reason is that to call the work of God a work of the Devil is a sure sign of being a "reprobate" of the blasphemer ( 1 Corinthians 12:3;2 Corinthians 13:5).Pro said: If you read verse 6 of Revelation 22, you see that the slaves mentioned in verse 3 are the slaves of Jehovah, not of the lamb. Thus, they render sacred service to Jehovah, not Jesus. Response of Con: Rev 20:6: Slaves are the "priests" of God AND the Lamb.Rev 21:2: The singular Temple is God AND the LambRev 22:3:The slaves render sacred service to God AND the Lamb. Slaves serve [Gk: LATRIA, Dn 7:13-14 LXX + Mt. 4:10 = Rev. 22:3] the God AND the Lamb [Rev. 1:1, 2:20] who sit on the singular throne.Rev 22:4: (1) The slaves will see the face of God AND the Lamb [Rev. 1:7] , (2) The name of God AND the Lamb will be on their foreheads [Rev 3:12; 14:1].Revelation 22:5 =The Lord God ( God AND the Lamb ~ Revelation 21:22-24) will give them light.John 1:1 - The rendering of the NWT ( "a god") is simply out of context.According to the Tanakh, no creature was with God in the beginning ( Genesis 1:1).This shows that whoever was "in the beginning" cannot be a creature.It is recorded in John 1:1 that God was not alone, that he was with the Word.This person with whom God was in the beginning was "God" i.e. the same with him in terms of ontology ("nature")due to the fact that QEOS is anarthrous in the third clause of John 1:1John 17:3 - In what sense is the Father the only true God? Is the Father true God in nature? (Jesus is also God in nature, Col 2:9), Is the Father the only true God in title? (Jesus is also true God in title, 1 Jn 5:20).Is the Father the only true God in authority? ( Yes! The immediate context supports this! John 17:2, the Father gave the Son authority).I advise Pro to review my argument on ontological equality and functional subordination in Round 2.In Acts 7:55, all the three persons are present: " But Stephen, full of the HOLY SPIRIT, looked up to heaven and saw the glory of GOD, and JESUS standing at the right hand of God.Jesus , God in flesh ( Col. 2;9) , can stand at then right hand of God,his own Father (Jn. 5:18).A couple of verse after, in Acts 7:59-60, Stephen PRAYED to Jesus.Thus, proving that Jesus is very God.Pro said:“God is only one.” Galatians 3:20.Response of Pro: Trinitarians 100% agree that "God is only one" ( Gal. 3:20).Trinitarians are monotheists.SUMMARYThe Holy Spirit is clearly a "person" the same way the Father and the Son are (Matthew 28:19, Romans 8:27).Bible gives impersonal qualities to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit without them being impersonal (Heb 12:29, Rev 22:16). The Son is "equal" with God in "nature while at the same time, "subordinate" to God in "function." The Son is Almighty ( Mt. 28:18, Eph 1:21) and is very God himself ( Col. 2:9).Thomas said, "My Lord and my God!" directly to Jesus (John 20:28).