Divinity of the Biblical Jesus Christ Peace be upon Him

In this and the following round I will be replying to Pro's arguments for Jesus' (pbuh) divinity. Plus I will be replying to some of Pros' points from the previous round. Before I deal with the many verses from the Bible which my opponent has put forward as evidence of Christ's (pbuh) divinity, there are a few things which readers should not fail to recognise: 1. One who claims to be divine must claim so in the most unambiguous and unequivocal way. 2. Verses offered as proof for Jesus' (pbuh) "divinity" should not be open to several interpretations. 3. There should be no contradictions in what Jesus (pbuh) says and others say in the Bible regarding the topic of divinity. Regarding my argument: Jesus (pbuh) forbade calling anyone on Earth ‘Father' (God)[1], Pro mentioned I was correct in this matter in round 2 but then changed his mind in the previous round. That Jesus (pbuh) was not using ‘Father' synonymous with ‘God'. Again Pro seems to be using his own interpretation here, when throughout the NT Jesus (pbuh) uses ‘Farther' to mean ‘God'. So why should it not be the same in Matthew 23:9. I'm using Pro's strategy here as he said "We see from scripture that God often times chooses to hide himself from people. Since God chooses to hide himself, why would we expect him to behave differently in the incarnation?" Often we read in the NT Jesus (pbuh) referring to God as ‘Father' so why should it be any different in Matthew 23:9. The Greek word used in Matthew 23:9 for ‘Father' is ‘patera', the same ‘patera' used by Jesus (pbuh) in John 15:23 which definitely speak of God: "He that hateth me hateth my Father also". I kindly ask Pro again to provide any leading scholar who agrees: in Matthew 23:9 ‘Father' is not being used synonymously with ‘God'. Otherwise his argument here does not really hold weight as it is simply his own interpretation. As I have shown: in Matthew 23:9 Jesus (pbuh) does refer to God as ‘Father' and forbids calling any man on Earth Father. I have shown it is much more reasonable to understand in Matthew 23:9 ‘Father' means ‘God', unless Pro can prove otherwise. There are other verses in the Bible which refer to the complete oneness of God and that Jesus could not be divine, such as: "Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord"[2], here Jesus (pbuh) includes himself in the equation by saying "our God". And in John 11:41-43, where Jesus (pbuh) cries to God saying "You (God) have sent me", showing his complete helplessness as a mere human. And so if any verse goes against such verses then it is evident there is a clear contraction within the Bible. Pro's evidences for Jesus' (pbuh) divinity: John 8:58) This is a very ambiguous statement to prove the divinity of Christ (pbuh) and it is nothing special in the Bible. Prophet Solomon is reported to have said in the OT Bible, "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was…when he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth"[3]. Muslims agree that yes Jesus (pbuh) was before Abraham (pbuh), before creation in the knowledge of God, just like every other prophet and person of God. John 8:58 is not a strong evidence for the divinity of Jesus (pbuh). John 10:30) Here Jesus (pbuh) states "I and the Father are one" if we read this in context the best explanation one can give is that Jesus (pbuh) and God are one in purpose. Also Jesus (pbuh) makes a clear distinction between himself and God in verses before by saying "neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand…and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand"[4]. John 10:38) This verse would be sufficient as evidence if not for John 14:20 where Jesus (pbuh) speaks clear to his disciples: "At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you". If Pro sees John 10:38 as evidence for Jesus' (pbuh) divinity then he should see John 14:20 as evidence for the disciples' divinity. It is logical to accept such verses as meaning ‘one in purpose' not ‘one as literal'. John 10:9) I think you mean John 14:9. This is a very unclear verse to provide as evidence of Christ's (pbuh) divinity when we consider it in context with John 14:10-20. Due to that lack of time and space I have left in this round, I shall scrutinize more of Pro's evidences in the next round including detailed counter arguments against Pro's claim that Jesus (pbuh) was worshiped and John 1:1. Arguing from silence? Is it arguing from silence to say that Jesus (pbuh) never explicitly claim divinity? Throughout the entire NT Bible Jesus (pbuh) never made a clear or direct confirmation of his Divinity, is this not true? Pro mentioned the holy Qur'an a recorded instances of visions, I correct my opponent that this is not what is believed in Islam. I will not go into explaining this now due to shortage of time and space, but maybe this is a new topic Pro would like to debate later: The holy Qur'an, a revelation from God or the word of men? Thank you. 1] Matthew 23:9 2] Mark 10:17-18 3] Proverbs 8:23-27 4] John 28-29