John the Baptist: You got'a go

Do you have any idea what you are talking about? You are the worst contextual reader of the Bible that I have ever met. 1 Corinthians 13 states the following, "For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." Do you have no idea what that means? That means that we DO prophesy in this day and age, but once we DIE and are IN HEAVEN, that is when our prophecy ends. You really are mistaken, aren't you? "And there are many false prophets, (any prophet is now a false prophet') WOW! What a bold and uneducated statement. First of all, Matthew 24:23-24 never stated that EVERY prophet in the latter days will be false prophets, it only states that there will be 'many.' So I don't know where you are getting your doctrines, but clearly you are following doctrines of men, not God. Joel 2:28 "And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions" That verse is speaking of the end times, and the end times obviously is at least present or the future, so you are false to claim that all prophesy is gone now. What you are is a pharisee, you are outrightly judging John the Baptist because he ether said something you disagree with, or he personally made a mistake saying it. So who are you, as a sinner too, to judge whether or not John was a man of God or not. In fact, you are wrong, because Jesus made it pretty clear that John indeed was a prophet of God. Read Matthew 11:11 "Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist" That is a pretty strong statement from The Lord Jesus, is it not? Why is it that in the Bible Jesus had John baptise him? Why is it that God ordained John the Baptist to make way for Jesus. Jesus never said anything bad about John the Baptist concerning him being a prophet. In fact, what Jesus says about John the Baptist is pretty darn positive. I also advise you to try to read more into the whole Herod marrying the wife thing, because you have no idea what you are talking about. You also speak heresy on the definition the Bible gives of remarrying. Answer: First of all, no matter what view one takes on the issue of divorce, it is important to remember Malachi 2:16: "I hate divorce, says the LORD God of Israel." According to the Bible, marriage is a lifetime commitment. "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate" (Matthew 19:6). God realizes, though, that since marriages involve two sinful human beings, divorces are going to occur. In the Old Testament, He laid down some laws in order to protect the rights of divorcees, especially women (Deuteronomy 24:1-4). Jesus pointed out that these laws were given because of the hardness of people"s hearts, not because they were God"s desire (Matthew 19:8). The controversy over whether divorce and remarriage is allowed according to the Bible revolves primarily around Jesus" words in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9. The phrase "except for marital unfaithfulness" is the only thing in Scripture that possibly gives God"s permission for divorce and remarriage. Many interpreters understand this "exception clause" as referring to "marital unfaithfulness" during the "betrothal" period. In Jewish custom, a man and a woman were considered married even while they were still engaged or "betrothed." According to this view, immorality during this "betrothal" period would then be the only valid reason for a divorce. However, the Greek word translated "marital unfaithfulness" is a word which can mean any form of sexual immorality. It can mean fornication, prostitution, adultery, etc. Jesus is possibly saying that divorce is permissible if sexual immorality is committed. Sexual relations are an integral part of the marital bond: "the two will become one flesh" (Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:5; Ephesians 5:31). Therefore, any breaking of that bond by sexual relations outside of marriage might be a permissible reason for divorce. If so, Jesus also has remarriage in mind in this passage. The phrase "and marries another" (Matthew 19:9) indicates that divorce and remarriage are allowed in an instance of the exception clause, whatever it is interpreted to be. It is important to note that only the innocent party is allowed to remarry. Although it is not stated in the text, the allowance for remarriage after a divorce is God"s mercy for the one who was sinned against, not for the one who committed the sexual immorality. There may be instances where the "guilty party" is allowed to remarry, but it is not taught in this text. Some understand 1 Corinthians 7:15 as another "exception," allowing remarriage if an unbelieving spouse divorces a believer. However, the context does not mention remarriage, but only says a believer is not bound to continue a marriage if an unbelieving spouse wants to leave. Others claim that abuse (spousal or child) is a valid reason for divorce even though it is not listed as such in the Bible. While this may very well be the case, it is never wise to presume upon the Word of God. Sometimes lost in the debate over the exception clause is the fact that whatever "marital unfaithfulness" means, it is an allowance for divorce, not a requirement for it. Even when adultery is committed, a couple can, through God"s grace, learn to forgive and begin rebuilding their marriage. God has forgiven us of so much more. Surely we can follow His example and even forgive the sin of adultery (Ephesians 4:32). However, in many instances, a spouse is unrepentant and continues in sexual immorality. That is where Matthew 19:9 can possibly be applied. Many also look to quickly remarry after a divorce when God might desire them to remain single. God sometimes calls people to be single so that their attention is not divided (1 Corinthians 7:32-35). Remarriage after a divorce may be an option in some circumstances, but that does not mean it is the only option. - http://www.gotquestions.org... So, in conclusion, if anybody must be a false prophet here, it is you. You speak not the word of God, but of ignorance. You are playing God as to define who John was outside what the Bible says John was.