""God, as seen through the eyes of the biblical account cannot exist."

" Your own definition of omnipotence makes your argument fall apart. You are operating of the assumption that God can only do what is logically possible" Logic applies to everything with an identity, it is the method of non-contradictory identification. If you claim God is outside logic, he is outside identity, i.e. does not exist. Also, inspect your language. You state my assumption is that he CAN only do what is logically POSSIBLE. If something can be done (or just be), it must be possible, to state something is possible is to state that it can be. The assumption you have identified is tautological, i.e., necessarily true. Since logic applies to everything with an identity, your only recourse is to hold that logic as such is invalid. Which would mean both your position and mine have no meaning, cannot be identified by human means (logical means), we are mindless, this debate is meaningless, and we are obviously already dead (because humans use their minds to live). Is that your claim? " The butchered interpretation of this passage is unsearchable. This verse comes from a Psalm of King David. The genre of this text is ancient Hebrew poetry. A verbal tool of poetry is Hyperbole." The resolution, which I suppose technically you authored (I just copied and pasted) states "eyes." Eyes do not exaggerate, they do not transfer qualities of poetry. This is an important quality of the metaphorical language of the resolution, so, if the bible exaggerated, that seen from it's "eyes" (rather than it's voice) cannot exist :P. "Also, there is nothing in the context of this verse to suggest that David wrote this verse with intention of it being applied to God. In fact, verse one in 145 indicates that David was speaking of himself not anyone else. He was saying that He himself, could not fathom the works of God." His intentions don't matter. Again, that "Eyes." The literal meaning of that phrase is "The Lord IS unsearchable." A property of the Lord, cannot be searched, without qualification. " Foreknowledge does not necessarily constitute an influence in the future. Knowing what will happen does not mean that we are preventing or causing that thing to happen." Ignoratio elenchi. I do not claim that knowing what will happen means YOU cause it to happen, but it means SOMETHING causes it to happen. "The sun will rise tomorrow." Actually it won't. The earth will rotate to give that appearance however. And physics causes that. The Earth, might I note, has no free will in the matter, if it did, you couldn't be so certain. "I am not causing it to rise nor am I preventing it from rising by knowing that it will happen." Again, ignoratio elenchi. The fact remains that if a thing is knowable as a certainty, there is no choice left about it. You're confusing causation with just plain logical inconsistency. "Consider also, if I put a bowl of candy and a bowl of broccoli in front of my kid, I know for a fact which one is chosen, the candy" No, you don't know. He might have read that statement and chosen the broccoli just to annoy you. Or might have suddenly thought of nutrition. Other people's minds are not accountable to you. "My child is free to make a choice and knowing the choice has no effect upon him when she makes it. " I just wanna note the pronoun contradiction :D. " Foreknowledge means that God simply knows what we have chosen to do ahead of time. Our freedom is not restricted by God's foreknowledge; our freedom is simply realized ahead of time by God." That is not coherent. If we are free to do or not do a thing, both it being done and it being not done remain possibilities. The statement "X will happen" does not yet even HAVE a truth value, so, the truth value cannot be known, it is incompatible with knowledge. " Where in the bible does it say that we don't have free will? You have not qualified this claim" You weren't paying attention, I'll give you the quote again. """All people living on the Earth will worship [The Devil], except those whose names were written before the creation of the world in the book of the living which belongs to [Jesus]." Revelations 13:8" Says right there that it's predetermined, we will worship the devil, unless our names were written in the "book of the living" Or how about... ""Praise be to [God], who has blessed us in the heavenly realms with every spiritual blessing in Christ. For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will-to the praise of his glorious grace, which he has freely given us in the One he loves." Ephesians 1:4-6 NIV" PREDESTINED. ""For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. And those he predestined, he also called; those he called, he also justified; those he justified, he also glorified" Romans 8:29-30 NIV" PRESDESTINED. " If God is omniscient as the Bible claims then he can know the decisions not yet made." That was contained in a slightly different sentence as a line in my argument. You seem to miss the part in it where decisions not yet made cannot be known (it doesn't even HAVE a truth value yet), which means the first premise must be checked.