A Christian/Catholic CAN be homosexual

Christians today do not follow the rules and rituals described in Leviticus. But some ignore its definitions of their own "uncleanness" while quoting Leviticus to condemn "homosexuals". Such abuse of Scripture distorts the Old Testament meaning and denies a New Testament message. These words occur solely in the Holiness Code of Leviticus, a ritual manual for Israel's priests. Their meaning can only be fully appreciated in the historical and cultural context of the ancient Hebrew people. Israel, in a unique place as the chosen people of one God, was to avoid the practices of other peoples and gods. The Bible says: "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination." Leviticus 18:22 "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination [towebah]: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them." Leviticus 20:13 Don't Get Confused; "In the twenty first century many Christians confuse modern homosexuality, a committed, faithful, noncultic same sex partnership, with the ancient world's sexual abuse of slaves, pederasty, rape of foreigners and pagan fertility rites. None of those ancient practices are analogues to modern homosexuality." -Rick Brentlinger, Author of the new book Gay Christian 101. Original intent is important because scripture cannot mean now what it did not mean then. Constitutional attorneys sometimes discuss the idea of "original intent." In answering this question about homosexuality, understanding original intent in scripture is vitally important. Was God talking about modern, twenty first century, committed, faithful, non-cultic, same sex partnerships or was he talking about pagan sexual rituals in worship of the Canaanite fertility goddess? There is no evidence in the Bible that God or OT Jews or Jesus Christ Himself understood Leviticus 18:22 & 20:13 as prohibiting committed, faithful, non-cultic, same sex partnerships. The - homosexuality wrong - idea comes from taking verses out of context. We know that because, although Sodom is mentioned 48 times in the Bible, not once in 48 verses of scripture in the Old and New Testaments does God ever reference homosexuality when he speaks of Sodom. Although anti-gay Christians wish the Bible talked about homosexuality whenever Sodom is mentioned, God just doesn't make that connection in the Bible in any of the 48 verses which mention Sodom. Think about that for a while before you assume homosexuality wrong. Jesus spoke of Sodom but he never linked Sodom to homosexuality. Jesus mentioned Sodom - in Matthew 10:15 and 11:23, Mark 6:11, Luke 10:12 and 17:29 - but Jesus never mentioned homosexuality in connection with Sodom. I know many Christians think he should have mentioned how bad homosexuality is but Jesus never said anything like that. Homosexuality wrong? Not according to Jesus. If Jesus agreed with the anti-gay viewpoint, don't you think he would have said so when he spoke of Sodom? Did you know that in the Bible, the term eunuch sometimes describes a gay man? Do you remember reading what Jesus said about eunuchs in Matthew 19:3-12? "But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs , which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it." Matthew 19:11-12. Jesus said there are three kinds of eunuchs and the first class of eunuchs He mentions are those eunuchs who "were so born from their mother's womb." Matthew 19:12. Do you understand what Jesus said when referring to eunuchs? Jesus said, in Matthew 19:11 that eunuchs cannot receive his teaching about the Adam and Eve marriage paradigm in Matthew 19:5. And Jesus pointed out to all who will receive it that some eunuchs never made a choice to be eunuchs - they were born that way. Jesus specifically excluded "born eunuchs" from the heterosexual, Adam and Eve marriage paradigm, Matthew 19:4-6. When we define what it means to be a born eunuch, honesty requires that we be historically accurate. What did Jesus mean by the term "born eunuch." If one is born a eunuch, then being a eunuch was NOT the result of personal choice or nurture by parents or influence by society, right? It perfectly fits the ancient Jewish viewpoint about "saris" - the Hebrew word for eunuchs, that Jesus intended his disciples to understand that a born eunuch was like a "saris," a homosexual man or a man not inclined to marry a woman. Surely, if god saw homosexuality as such a sin, why would homosexuals be born that way? It may not be certified that it is infact genetic, but evidence leads more towards that option rather than choice, and Jesus did say it himself.