Jesus Christ is God in the flesh.

"In order to argue the divinity of Jesus, the bible is simply the context of the debate." -Not true. That is like limiting a case in court to the actual case, and preventing the judge, jury, and advocates from addressing issues with precedence. "You must simply accept that the bible is a valid tool to prove this truth." -The individual books of the bible are not necessarily cohesive historically, and each point should be examined against others. Jesus did this... why shouldn't we??? "Jesus claims to be God" -Let me first provide you with unrefutable texts Jesus himself adhered to denying the divisibility of God, and the worship of Jesus as God: Do not worship any other god, for the Lord, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God (Exodus 34:14) You shall have no other gods before me. You shall not make for yourself an idol in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. You shall not bow down to them or worship them (Exodus 20:1-5) Jesus said to him, "Away from me, Satan! For it is written: ‘Worship the Lord your God, and him only you shall serve.'" (Matthew 4:10) "The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: ‘Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one (Mark 12:32) "As it is, you are determined to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God." (John 8:40) "By myself I can do nothing: I judge only as I hear." (John 5:30) "But in vain they do worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men." (Matthew 15:9) One of those days, Jesus went out to a mountainside to pray, and spent the night praying to God. (Luke 6:12) "If thou art willing, remove this cup from me; nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done." Mark 14:36 and Luke 22:42) Now about the phrase "I am"... Before and after(Exodus 3:14),God clarifies that "I AM the God of Abraham". God says the phrase "I AM God" about 200 times in the Bible while Jesus in his over 30 years on earth never said that. The High Priest Melchizedek in the Bible is Also Before Abraham and According to the Bible {Hebrews 7:1-4}; "..Had not Beginning and no End, had no parents.." Furthermore, if we look at a Bible Hebrew Dictionary , we can look up the Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} in Hebrew and see that it Means; "was, come to pass, came, has been, were happened, become, pertained, better for thee to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen, fall out, to happen, fall out, occur, take place, come about, come to pass, etc. etc. The Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} is Used 72 times in the Hebrew Bible by a number of Prophets including (David, Moses, etc...). The Phrase " I AM GOD "'Elohiym {el-o-heem'} is Used 200 times in the Bible, Never by any Prophets, never by Jesus. Jesus is recorded as using the proper Hebrew and/or Aramaic words on different occasions, so there is no excuse as to why he would say "ego eimi" rather than what God used in the Old Testament "Hayah". Indeed he is quoting as using Aramaic in other instances- "Hossana" - Matthew 21:9 (b) "Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani"-Matthew 27:46, "Rabbi"-John 3:2, "Talitha cumi"-Mark 5:41. For a statement as grand as "I AM", I think it would be safe to assume (especially when compared to the context of his past denials of being God) that he would use the language native to the religion, and the same terminology God himself used in the Old Testament so as to appease any doubt. Instead he says "ego eimi", which is NOT what God said. Also, this phrase only appears in John, and none of the other gospels. The phrase "I Am God" is found in nearly every book of the Old Testament multiple times- there is absolutely no mention of this "revealing" proclamation in any of the other gospels... why? In Acts 10:21, Peter said, "Behold, ego eimi (I am) he whom ye seek." Does that mean Peter is God also??? Jesus Omniscient: First, omniscient means "all knowing". Did Jesus know everything? Mark 13:32: "No one knows the day or hour, not even the angels in Heaven nor the Son, but ONLY the Father." Luke 8:45: "Jesus then asked, ‘Who touched me?" Revelation 1:1: "The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him, to show his servants what must happen soon." John 12:49: "For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it." Luke 2:52: "And Jesus advanced in wisdom and age and favor before God and man." Matthew 4:1: "Then Jesus was led by the Spirit into the desert." From the Scriptures above I do not see any way in which someone can conclude that Jesus is omniscient. Jesus knew many things, but he also did not know many things. This is not what being omniscient means. It means knowing EVERYTHING. Jesus is not omniscient and thus he is not equal to God. Furthermore, the apostles also later claimed to exhibit some of these same gifts of the Spirit as evidenced by Paul in his letter to the Corinthians. Forgiveness of Sin: This is a matter of faith, and not a matter of scripturally documented fact. Since my opponent provided no references and simply stated an article of his own faith, then I can only rebut with articles of faith clearly documented in the bible. Jesus himself said "not all those who call me Lord will enter the Kingdom of Heaven". Jews believe it is God's mercy that will ultimately determine our fate, and Jesus makes this clear through his parables of the Judgement, etc. Jesus Accepted Worship: The word used 60 times and translated as "worship" in the New Testament (KJV) is the Greek word "proskuneo". It is etymologically the root for "prostrate" which does not necessarily translate as "worship". The translator of the KJV was already a Christian, and this occurred over one thousand years after the establishment of the Nicene Creed. However, there are countless references to Jesus denying worship as God. In Acts 10:25 Cornelius prostrated before Peter. From context we can assume it was prostration in reverence to someone he had not seen in a long time, like a father, but Peter took him up and refused "worship". He did not admonish him, rather it was a gesture. "And as Peter was coming in, Cornelius met him, and fell down at his feet, and worshipped him." From context we can rationalize that neither man took this as "worship" as you worship God, but it was translated that way nonetheless. The NAS version of the bible translates these same 60 instances as the following: bow down, 1; bow down before, 1; bowed down, 1; bowed down before, 2; bowing before, 1; bowing down, 1; prostrated himself before, 1; worship, 32; worshiped, 17; worshipers, 1; worshiping, 1; worships, 1. Let me now provide some New Testament text justifying these translations (as with other words like "elohim" which are translated differently due to context and precedent): John 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. (the Father is greater than Jesus) John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. John 13:16 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him. (God is not a servant) Jesus made it clear that his Father is his Lord, his master, his God at John 20:17. Philippians 2:5-11 tells us that the Word became flesh, a servant of God. John 15:20 Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also. Immanuel- God with us. Since you chose to omit the properly translate "God IS with us", I will provide some names which if translated like you did, would mean this person is also God: Elijah (proper- El is Jah or Yahweh is God), yours- God(el)God(Jah). Elishah (proper- El is Shah or God is Salvation)