homosexuality is not a sin

I will start off with my evidence that the Bible condemns homosexuality and would certainly not allow for homosexual marriage. Romans 1:24-27 “ Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. They exchanged the truth about God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen. Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.” This clearly bans all homosexual relations and specifically calls them sinful. Leviticus 18:22 “R39;‘Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable.” Again, banned. Leviticus 20:13 “R39;‘If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.” Not only banned, but a death sentence here. Given the verses in Romans, the death sentence logically applies to female homosexuality as well. So, that dealt with homosexuality. What about homosexual marriage? 1 Corinthians 7:3-5” “The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife does not have authority over her own body but yields it to her husband. In the same way, the husband does not have authority over his own body but yields it to his wife. Do not deprive each other except perhaps by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control This clearly states that a married couple must engage in sexual relations. Since homosexual relations are prohibited, it is not logically possible for a homosexual couple to enter into a Biblically approved marriage. “Hello, homosexuality and same sex marriage is not condemned and here's why.” Both are clearly condemned. “That chapter starts off with God telling Moses to tell the Israelites to "not do as they do in Egypt, where you used to live, and you must not do as they do in the land of Canaan, where I am bringing you. Do not follow their practices." It then goes on listing many various incestual restrictions, and then it tells not to have sex with a woman when she is having her period, then it tells not to have sex with your neighbors wife. Then it takes a completely different turn, and tells not to give any of your children to be sacrificed to the Pagan god Molek. After that, the restrictions of a mankind with mankind and sex with animals come in.” You are contradicting yourself here. It started with restrictions for mankind and continued to give restrictions throughout the chapter. There is not a “completely different turn” anywhere. It is literally a list of prohibitions. “The reason for that is because back then in the culture God was referring to, the Pagans would start off their fertility ritual with a child sacrifice. What would follow was an orgy, where the women, but most of all the men, would have sex with anything and anybody. But they were very careful to do it in a way that would not impregnate anyone, that was only for the woman they were married to. So, they would have sex with animals and anal sex with Galli priests, and temple prostitutes.” So the god disapproved of all of those things and told the people not to do them. How does this in any way imply that he was okay with homosexual relations. It is clear from scripture that these acts carried a death sentence. [2] Also, source? “However, if you chose to ignore all of that, it is a fact that those two verses were only referring to men, and that means they could not refer to any and all homosexual sex for any reason.” That is how most of the rules are written. The consideration is mostly for how men behave, not women. That said, I already showed that the Bible condemns both male and female homosexuality in my opening. “But, in fact there are only 2 out of 23,145 verses in the Old Testament (Torah) that some state have to do with it directly forbidding men having sex with men.” How many times does a thing need to be explicitly forbidden for it to count? “I forgot to add this regarding Leviticus chapter 20... If the focus of that murderous chapter was not surrounding Pagan idolatry, why would it start off with this?...” Verse one makes it clear that verse was referencing prohibitions on the worship of Molek. Verse 2 clearly departs from Molek goes on to other types of pagan worship. Verse 3 then instructs people, who have already been told not to follow the rules of other gods or pagan rules, what rules they are to follow from this god. He starts by telling them to reject other faiths and then gives rules specific to the faith of his people. “I think you would agree that just because someone engages in homosexual sex does not mean they are a hoimosexual.” Again, I reject this semantic game, and it still doesn’t help you since you are trying to prove that the Bible allows for homosexual marriage “Here is the context...’Because of this, God gave them over’…’God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another’...Now that is not Paul reffering to homosexuals, those people were Pagans engaging in idolatrous sex orgies.” First, you incorrectly cited the verses. You quoted Romans 1:18-25 Second, it is clear that this passage is saying that their sexual acts were sinful. They stopped praising the god figure, so he gave them over to complete sin which included sexual immorality. The problem with your quotation is you stopped short of the part where homosexuality is explicitly banned for both men and women. Here are those verses: Romans 1:26-27 “Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.” “The fact is that there was never any Greek or Hebrew words that were used in refrance to homosexuality used anywhere in the Scriptures, and there were words that would have left to question as to what the writer was reffering to.” You are trying to play a semantic game with translations of translations because the translation does not go the extra step of saying that being a homosexual is sinful. That said, I can fill in that gap for you. It is stated in the bible that the thought crime of lust is equivalent to the physical act of adultery.[3] Since homosexual sex was forbidden under penalty of death, following the same logic, having homosexual urges is also sinful. I will end with an argument I used in an earlier debate: “The Bible literally tells people to execute homosexuals. It does not say throw homosexuals out of the temple of Moloch or tell homosexuals to stop having sex in the temple of Moloch, it says to kill them. There is a small reference to Moloch, but this is just a ban on worshipping the pagan gods of that temple, and in all the verses in Leviticus 20 dealing with that, it is explicitly mentioned. After Leviticus 20:5, people are then given explicit instructions to kill homosexuals, children who curse their parents, witches, etc.”[1] [1] http://www.debate.org... [2] http://biblehub.com... [3] http://biblehub.com... [4] http://www.biblestudytools.com...