Resolved: The Bible as we have it today contains no errors of consequence

I agree that my answers were less than satisfactory. However, I will defend them further in this round. 1. Genealogies of JesusIs the genealogies really Mary’s?To quote a problem given in that article but fail to provide the solution given is odd, at most generous. I will quote from the same article as my opponent, to show that there is an explanation.“...Notice that Luke starts with Mary and goes backwards to Adam. Matthew starts with Abraham and goes forward to Joseph. The intents of the genealogies were obviously different which is clearly seen in their styles. Luke was not written to the Jews, Matthew was. Therefore, Matthew would carry the legal line (from Abraham through David) and Luke the biological one (from Adam through David). Also, notice that Luke's first three chapters mention Mary eleven times; hence, the genealogy from her. Fourth, notice Luke 3:23, "And when He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being supposedly the son of Joseph, the son of Eli," This designation "supposedly" seems to signify the Marian genealogy since it seems to indicate that Jesus is not the biological son of Joseph.Finally, in the Joseph genealogy is a man named Jeconiah. God cursed Jeconiah (also called Coniah), stating that no descendant of his would ever sit on the throne of David, "For no man of his descendants will prosper sitting on the throne of David or ruling again in Judah," (Jer. 22:30). But Jesus, of course, will sit on the throne in the heavenly kingdom. The point is that Jesus is not a biological descendant of Jeconiah, but through the other lineage -- that of Mary. Hence, the prophetic curse upon Jeconiah stands inviolate. But, the legal adoption of Jesus by Joseph reckoned the legal rights of Joseph to Jesus as a son, not the biological curse. This is why we need two genealogies: one of Mary (the actually biological line according to prophecy), and the legal line through Joseph.”And viola! It answers both contradictions and consequences at once! Fascinatingly, Solomon is mentioned in the genealogies, this means that Jesus is a descendant of David twice over. Or even maybe more.2. The Last Supper and the Cruxifiction DateLet us now assume that this is a contradiction. So now, I must explain why it is of no consequence. I will leave off the previous explanation. It is not good. Instead, I will be using Prof. Humphrey’s explanation. This explanation is actually quite brilliant in that it is fact based. Or rather, based on facts known outside the Scriptures.“...The Dead Sea Scrolls reveal that there were a number of different Jewish calendars in use in Israel in the first century AD, and so different Jewish groups celebrated Passover on different days. We have a similar situation today with the date of Easter: Catholics and Protestants celebrate Easter on a different date from Greek and Russian Orthodox Christians, because they calculate the date of Easter using different calendars (Gregorian and Julian, respectively). In his description of the Last Supper, John uses the official Jewish calendar, in which the Last Supper was before the date of the official Passover....”“...The official Jewish calendar at the time of Jesus’ death was that still used by Jews today; a lunar system in which days run from sunset to sunset. This was developed during the Jewish exile in Babylon in the sixth century BC. Before that, however, the Jews had a different system. This is referred to in the Book of Exodus, which describes God instructing Moses and Aaron to start their year at the time of the Exodus from Egypt... this pre-exilic Jewish calendar was based on the Egyptian lunar calendar (their calendar used for religious feasts and festivals, as distinct from the Egyptian solar calendar used for civil purposes)...”“...There is extensive evidence that this original Jewish calendar survived to Jesus’ time. Not all Jews were exiled to Babylon. Those who remained retained the pre-exilic calendar and by the first century AD groups such as the Samaritans, Zealots, some Galileans and some Essenes were still using the original Jewish calendar. Under this pre-exilic calendar, Passover always fell a few days earlier than in the official Jewish calendar, and the days were marked from sunrise to sunrise, not sunset to sunset...”“...From the clues they give, it’s clear that Matthew, Mark and Luke all used the pre-exilic calendar in their description of the Last Supper as a Passover meal, whereas John uses the official calendar in which the Last Supper was before the Passover...” [1]I find these explanation enough to make my point. See also my previous points regarding commands. It also applies to doctrines. I do not feel the need to phrase all of these in my own words simply because this is a fact based theory, and if I were to phrase it in my own words, there would be almost no change. I could then be accused of plagiarism, which I will scrupulously avoid. To summarize into a few words, Jesus was not using the exile calendar, but the Moses’ calendar, which would have fit well with His agenda of a “new Moses” with “new covenants” I realize this is not the best I have given or can give, but I have a rather tight schedule this week. My apologies. 1. http://www.bibleinterp.com...;