.9999 repeating = 1

To clarify before I start I'm going to be using the (%) sign to represent infinity and I'm going to us (~) as an approximant sign 1.One this first point I don't even have to prove that infinity is a number or if it even is finite all I have to do at this point is to prove that infinity has value and can be applied in an equation. Which I have done in 2 ways that my opponent has failed to attack 1st is the wiki definition, while my opponent does argue that it doesn't prove that it is a number but it does prove how it can be a value when it says that infinity acts as a number because it has value and can be applied in equations, this is further proved in power of infinity that my opponent has conceded as it states that infinity can have different values which I will use to latter on to further my arguments. The 2nd is from the youtube video when the person shows how infinity can be used in an equation which acts as proof to show how infinity can have value and it can be used in equations. Next my opponent tries to show to how the youtube video it trying to change the definition of a number but this completely untrue and all the video is doing is showing how infinity can be included in the definition of number, also it show that the mathematicians are not the final word on if infinity is a number not. a. Next my opponent tries to attack my statement from the first round but ignores the fact that statement was meant to be ironic. And even if you are going to try to listen to my opponents none of it matters because as I stated above that I don't even need to prove that infinity is finite all I have to do is to prove infinity can have value and can be applied in an equation. b.Next my opponent tries to attack my other evidence but 1st I would like to mention that my opponent attack my first new source which is enough to prove that infinity can have value and that value can change as is stated in the final section of this source. Next my opponent tries to attack my second new source by saying it shows that infinity is not a number because it cannot be reached, but this doesn't matter because as it states in the example about the fingers were it shows that even though you couldn't count to that final finger it was there and had a value this parallels the example I give about the infinite number of values between 4 and 5 how you could never reach it and acts a infinity thus proving my point. 2.The flaws in the rhs lhs equation happens because of the sub point A of the power of infinity which my opponent completely concedes that proves that infinity can have different values when use in a math equation. To show this in equation %-1 = % now while most people would think that this would prove my opponent's point but the fact is that the % that you get out of the equation is actually less than the original infinity that you started the equation. This is caused by the powers of infinity that would allow for one infinity to be less than another. Now to apply this to the rhs lhs equation The .99999… in the first step represents the first infinity in the example equation, while the 9.9999… has a number of nines equal to the second infinity in the example equation meaning that even if that there are an infinite number of 9's after the decimal in the second step it is still one less the original equation because it is a different power of infinity a.Next with the power of infinity even if my opponent tries to say that my arguments are based on a finite infinity but this is not true this theory can work independently of a finite infinity because no matter how big infinity gets the second infinity will always be one less the original infinity. 3.My opponent's arguments a..3333.. repeating- while most people think that 1/3 = .333…, but this is untrue, it is only approximately equal to .333…. To further prove I will work the problem out, if you divide 1 by 3 first you can't divide at all so you go to the digit behind the decimal then you 10 by 3 and you get a remainder 1 thus the answer isn't equal to one third, thus you do it again and divide 10 by 3 and get 1 remainder again and again the answer doesn't equal 1/3 this continues infinitely and you infinitely will get that remainder of one meaning that the answer will infinitely never equal 1/3 thus .3333… only approximately equal to 1/3. This means that .999… will only approximately equal 1. Then he attacks my use of the remainders to prove him wrong by saying that it would be .999..91 but this is not true because the 1 created by the remainder is added in on the last 9 meaning it changes to 10 which carries the 1 and makes the next 9 a 10 and so make it equal to 1 b. Next my opponent uses another equation to prove his point but there are some key flaws. The 1st is in between the 3rd and forth steps I would like my opponent to show the math behind how he was able to change the 9/10 became 1/10. The second is in between the 4th and 5th step is how the 1 goes from being inside the () to being out side of it because of the distributive property means that everything inside of the () is multiplied by what is outside of it meaning that that the 1 should change if it leaves the (). The third comes in the final step where I'm guessing that my opponent is saying that by dividing 1 by infinity you get zero, but this is untrue in that it only approximately equals zero as explained in this video at 1:50 http://www.youtube.com.... the final problem with this equation is that with you can prove that .9999…. can equal any number because at the point that if you don't believe the 3rd reason this is wrong then in the equation when 1 over infinity equals 0 then an thing that you subtract it from would = .9999…. 4.Other reasons why it is wrong On these points my opponent makes little to no arguments against them the only one he does make is that .999… and one are one in the same and that there is no problem. So to answer this I will this attack separately for each. a.Number line paradox- to answer my opponent's attack I will answer a challenge that my opponent made earlier in the round when he ask me to show a number between 1 and .999…. To this I will answer with .9 to the % decimal place plus 1, now you may think this a ludicrous that there something larger then infinity but this has its support from my power of infinity sub point that shows how infinity can have different values and can be effected by math equations. This means that theoretically there are an infinite number of numbers between .9 to the infinite digit and 1 because of the different values of infinity that can be applied. b.The law of functions- the problem with my opponent's attack on this is that both 1 and .9999… are in decimal form no if one was in fraction from while the other was in decimal I would agree that they could be in the same location but because the from they in it would prevent them from being in the same location. 5.Closing statements- after looking at the comment section of this debate I feel like it is needed to reiterate the fact that when you as judges vote on this round to weigh only what has been presented in this round and free from outside influence.