Where did God come from? A dream, a lie, and an explanation

The question - absolutely absurd. A worm or ant has absolutely no ability what so ever to comprehend human civilizations as we (human beings) know them; so too man can not comprehend higher beings than ourselves ie the Gods. That foundation laid, let me now turn to the opening question. Where did God come from? Which God? Islam declares that only one God lives - Allah. This theological none sense violates the second commandment of Sinai. If Mohammed qualifies as a prophet in the line of T'NaCH prophets (its rather strange that the Koran never once makes any attempt to understand how the Torah defines its own terms. Prophet its a term deriving from the T'NaCH literature which the much later Koran usurped. Discussing the Gods fundamentally requires searching the Primary sources by which Men introduce Gods - A or B or C etc. Therefore the issue that requires addressing: do these primary sources which introduce a particular God, do these primary sources (I shall limit my address to the Koran, New Testament, and the Hebrew T'NaCH. The Hindu and Chinese Gods lay outside of the purview of my knowledge.) have logical holes/errors? The latest God on the block: Allah. Mohammed claims that he recieved the revelation of the Koran from the Archangel Gabriel. The naming of Angels dates back to the influence of the Babylonians. Prior to the Babylonian exile of the kingdom of Yechuda [Tribe Yechuda, Yechudim being Jews, the NaCH (Prophets and Holy Writings of the larger T'NaCH which includes the 5 Books of Moshe which the Xtians attempted to translate], Angels had no names. The first word of the Torah בראשית this word contains ברית אש, ראש בית, ב' ראשית/brit fire, head of house, 2 beginnings. The latter term Rabbi Yechuda HaNasi {the head of the great sanhedrin} learned the incorrect spelling of D'varim 6:5 - you shall love the lord your God with all your לבבך/heart. Heart its correct spelling: לב; he learned from the 2 Creation stories in the opening Parsha {The Torah its divided into 54 Parshaot, a Parsha its read on every Shabbot and at the New Year called Rosh HaShana [Judgement Day upon the Brit], the Jewish people approach completion of the annual reading of the 5 Books of the Torah - called the Chumash. He learned that within the heart of all bnai brit folk contends 2 "Yatzirot"/Inclinations: the Good Inclination and the Evil Incination. Hence the repetition of the Creation story in the opening Parsha of בראשית, he learned the mussar (ethical rebukes) of the Yatzir Tov and the Yatzir Ha'Ra}. All Xtian translations of their "Bible" translate בראשית only as "In the Beginning". I do not claim to qualify as a scholar of the Koran liturature, have studied only an English translation of this religious Book of poetry. Still as an Israeli citizen, have worked with Arabs and Bedouin, [Arabs have a caste system similar to the Hindu culture in this respect. Bedouin compare to Hindu Untouchables. Beduin Arabs, their language: slightly differs from classic Arabic], and have asked at least one Shiek [perhaps the equivalent of a rabbi in their culture], 1. Why the Koran does not bring the Name of the God of Israel? 2. How does the Koran define the term "Prophet"? 3. Why does the Koran never employ the key Torah term "Brit", as in ברית אש found in the opening 6 letters of the Torah. I personnally did not ask this Shiek these questions. My co-worker who was a 17 year old Beduin, asked these questions over a span of 6 months. He reported that the Shiek did not know, got very angry, and complained to his father, asking him: who taught your son to ask these unknown questions?! In my work as a Machgiach Kashrut [My job, policing restaurants to assure that the food served to the public obyed the halachic kosher guidelines.], I worked closely with Arabs and Beduin; attended their weddings and enjoyed their coffee! Halal meat does not come even close to kosher meat; Arabs have not the slightest idea what defects make a slaughtered animal trief. The Koran has only a superficial knowledge of the T'NaCH liturature. Camel preceeds pigs in the order of tuma/forbidden animals?! Mohammed claims himself a prophet from the line of T'NaCH prophets. The T'NaCH liturature defines this key term as a person who "commands mussar". Prophets to not for tell the future. Hence the New Testament none sense of "fulfilling the words of the prophets" - utterly absurd; neither the new testament God nor the Koran Archangel know how the T'NaCH defined the key term "prophet". This fundamental error destroys the premise upon which both the Koran and New Testament theology base themselves. The Koran calls Jesus [son of Zeus], a prophet. Only problem with this declaration, that imaginary mythical man did not teach the brit faith. Brit means alliance/Republic. Mussar instruction - it applies equally to all generations of the brit people, based upon the oath sworn brit Avram cut at the "brit between the pieces". This brit, its located in the third Parsha of the Book of בראשית/Genesis - לך לך. The alien Bible division of the Torah into chapters and verses does not exist in the Hebrew literature. The translators of the Hebrew T'NaCH did not understand the concept of Parshaot and Sugiot; so they made their own arbitrary order to their Bible. The Protestant Old Testament, which contains 39 books, comes from the "Palestinian" (Arabs can not pronounce the letter P). The word Palestine comes from the Greek and Roman conquerors of the Middle East. The Ottoman Muslim empire never referred to any province within their rule across the Middle East by the European name of Palestine - anymore did they referred to Istanbul by the Byzantine name: Canstantinople! In the 20th century Britain and France carved up the Ottoman empire - following WW1 - these powers of imperialism divided between themselves Greater Syria, into 'Spheres of Influence'. I do not want to make a large distraction, but in 1914, prior to the existence of the League of Nations - at the beginning of WW1 - Britain siezed Egypt from the Ottoman empire claiming a Mandate over Egypt and later the League declared Palestine. The Catholic Old Testament, however, derives its books from the Alexandrian Canon " the Greek listing of Old Testament books, which was supposedly drawn up in Alexandria, Egypt. Along with the 39 books of the Palestinian Canon, the Alexandrian Canon contains 14 or 15 additional books that are collectively known as the "apocrypha," which simply means "hidden." Scholarship into ancient texts fundamentally requires knowledge of Hebrew. Being Jewish, the New Testament and Bible do not interest me. I do not know Greek or Latin. But it requires no knowledge of these languages to know that the earliest manuscripts of the New Testament exclusively rely upon Greek - not Hebrew or Aramaic: the primary language spoken by the Jewish people during that time period! Hence, the target audiances of the New Testament aimed at non Jewish readership. Furthermore, the writings of the Gospels came later than the letters of Paul; according to virtually all opinions the Gospels were written no less than 100 years after the events which they claim to have personally witnessed. It seems an intellectual fraud to preceed the Gospels to the letters of Paul, when his correspondences historically preceeded the writing of the Gospels included in the Bible Cannon. [Alot of other books of Gospels did the Church Fathers exclude from their Cannon. The Hebrew T'NaCH excludes all the Aprocripha Books in the Xtian Bible]. How a scholar "edits" texts, has a profound impact how lay readers understand the "accepted" Cannon of faith. By contrast, the Hebrew Cannon of sealed texts includes, the T'NaCH, Talmud, Midrashim, and Siddur. Why did Jewish sages "seal" this Cannon of literature? The Torah primarily exists as the written Constitution of the bnai brit Republic. How do all later generations interpret the original intent of the Framer of the Constitution? [A nation does not begin and end in one generation]. All generations require a logic system which equally permits each and every generation to logically interpret the intent of the Torah Constitution. [In the Middle Ages, Torah scholars focused upon Judaism the religion, because Jews at that time lived as stateless refugee populations scattered across Asia and Europe. Jews could not openly discuss the Torah as a Constitutional document and the Talmud as the model of Common Law Courts of Law whose purpose served as a model that when the Jewish people reconquered our Home lands that we could use the Talmud as the basis to reimpose the Order of Courts of Law. This Oral Torah logic system stands completely separate and distinct from the Greek and German logic systems personified in Aristotle and Hegel. The Church rejection of the Talmud as the Oral Torah stands upon their flawed perception that the Common Law Case/Rule system requires a strict logic system which compares or contrast Case law with similar but different Case law to learn a depth precedent. Its this style of Case/precedent which defines all Common Law legal systems. Does the Torah permit reliance upon other logic formats to interpret the Written Torah? This qualifies as a subject of debate. The Rambam clearly relied upon the logic system of Aristotle to interpret and order his legal rulings as found in his work called the Mishna Torah. This subject gets complex quickly, needless to say, that over a thousand years prior to Rambam Jews fought a civil war over this debate. After Rambam the king of France and the Pope burned all the Talmud manuscripts in France because of this same debate! I can not speak for the intent of the Xtian editors of their Cannon, Jews sealed our texts to permit all generations the identical tradition