Belief in the Old Testament precludes belief in the New Testament or Koran

I thank my opponents for taking this debate. I appreciate his desire to avoid semantic argument, so I will clarify what I mean by belief in the comments for his benefit. I apologize for linking to chapters instead of verses; it was understandably confusing. I agree with my opponents interpretations (although I retain the right to later argue) unless I address that verse. Proof #1 Chapter 19 is the dialogue between Moses and God and Moses and Israel in the run up to the Ten Commandments. I freely admit God only spoken to Moses; however, this proves God intentions (which were never stated not to have been fulfilled). Namely: 9 The LORD said to Moses, "I am going to come to you in a dense cloud, so that the people will hear me speaking with you and will always put their trust in you." In the original Hebrew: וַיֹּ֨אמֶר יְהוָ֜ה אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֗ה הִנֵּ֨ה אָנֹכִ֜י בָּ֣א אֵלֶיךָ֮ בְּעַ֣ב הֶֽעָנָן֒ בַּעֲב֞וּר יִשְׁמַ֤ע הָעָם֙ בְּדַבְּרִ֣י עִמָּ֔ךְ וְגַם־בְּךָ֖ יַאֲמִ֣ינוּ לְעֹולָ֑ם וַיַּגֵּ֥ד מֹשֶׁ֛ה אֶת־דִּבְרֵ֥י הָעָ֖ם אֶל־יְהוָֽה "אֵלֶיךָ֮" is the key here. In Hebrew grammar, it means "you" in the plural. God is telling Moses to tell the nation that He intends to come to all of them. Also, God instructs Moses: 11 and be ready by the third day, because on that day the LORD will come down on Mount Sinai in the sight of all the people. God clearly states His intentions to reveal Himself. In the next chapter, He does, and He says the Ten Commandments, which is the only time God spoke to everyone. The first verse, before stating the text of the commandments, is: 1 And God spoke all these words: It does not say to whom He spoke. However, every other time God speaks in the Bible, who he speaks to is stated (or it is very clearly obvious). Here, He must have spoken to all in earshot of His Presence, or, as indentified in the previous chapter, the whole nation. However, I will concede this alone is not conclusive proof. The following is: 22 Then the LORD said to Moses, "Tell the Israelites this: ‘You have seen for yourselves that I have spoken to you from heaven'. 22 וַיֹּ֤אמֶר יְהוָה֙ אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֔ה כֹּ֥ה תֹאמַ֖ר אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל אַתֶּ֣ם רְאִיתֶ֔ם כִּ֚י מִן־הַשָּׁמַ֔יִם דִּבַּ֖רְתִּי עִמָּכֶֽם׃ Again, Hebrew grammar is the key. "אַתֶּ֣ם" means "you" in the plural, and "דִּבַּ֖רְתִּי עִמָּכֶֽם׃" means "I have spoken with you" in the plural. God clearly says he spoke with all of Israel. In Deuteronomy 5, Moses recounts the event: 4 The LORD spoke to you face to face out of the fire on the mountain. 5 (At that time I stood between the LORD and you to declare to you the word of the LORD, because you were afraid of the fire and did not go up the mountain.) And he said: This again would indicate God said it Himself, and Moses's parenthetical statement is what occurred after God spoke. However, again I will concede this is not conclusive. This is: 22 These are the commandments the LORD proclaimed in a loud voice to your whole assembly there on the mountain from out of the fire, the cloud and the deep darkness; and he added nothing more. Then he wrote them on two stone tablets and gave them to me. This explicitly says that God Himself spoke the aforesaid commandments to the whole of Israel. The next paragraph explains why Moses inserted that parenthetical statement about being a go-between: 23 When you heard the voice out of the darkness, while the mountain was ablaze with fire, all the leaders of your tribes and your elders came to me. 24 And you said, "The LORD our God has shown us his glory and his majesty, and we have heard his voice from the fire… Again, we are told that the entire nation heard Gods voice. The verse explains that only afterward, in terror, they requested Moses give the remaining commandments. Still, whether God spoke is almost irrelevant. My opponent concedes that events of a supernatural or miraculous nature did take place in front of the entire nation. (He argues that God never spoke; rather the noises of the storm, and the trumpet blast, were interpreted His voice.) If this was the case, then any future revelation, like those of Jesus or Mohamed, should have also been accompanied by this, to prove indisputably that God supports the revelation. The primary point is that a standard was set up that was never duplicated,. My opponent cites the Golden Calf incident to illustrate the revelation couldn't have been too serious. Suffice it to say that the people were still fallible. If my opponent thinks this is a real issue, he can ask me to address it further. Proof #2 Deuteronomy 18 was to show that Moses warned that prophets will arise "like me", and it's still feasible they are false- no one is great enough to be given unconditional authority. The passage then explains how to identify a false prophet who uses prediction as proof. The primary point is Deuteronomy 13. The verse says: 1 If a prophet, or one who foretells by dreams, appears among you and announces to you a sign or wonder, 2 and if the sign or wonder spoken of takes place… The Bible acknowledges that Deuteronomy 18's solution of false prediction is not flawless; a prophet able to correctly predict signs or do wonders may still arise. The verse finishes: … and the prophet says, "Let us follow other gods" (gods you have not known) "and let us worship them," The verse states what counts as following "other gods" later. It confirms it's possible a prophet with ostensibly divine powers would still try to lead the nation astray. The next verse tells Israel what to do and why: 3 you must not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. The LORD your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul. Now the verse qualifies the lawful basis for rejection: 4 It is the LORD your God you must follow, and him you must revere. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him. That's how the New International Version Bible translates it. But the original Hebrew is: אַחֲרֵ֨י יְהוָ֧ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶ֛ם תֵּלֵ֖כוּ וְאֹתֹ֣ו תִירָ֑אוּ וְאֶת־מִצְוֹתָ֤יו תִּשְׁמֹ֙רוּ֙ וּבְקֹלֹ֣ו תִשְׁמָ֔עוּ וְאֹתֹ֥ו תַעֲבֹ֖דוּ וּבֹ֥ו תִדְבָּקֽוּן׃ This translates literally as: YHWH, your God, shall you follow and Him shall you fear; His commandments shall you keep and to His voice shall you listen; Him shall you serve and to Him shall you cleave. Not to disparage the N.I.V Bible, but all Hebrew-speakers know that "וּבְקֹלֹ֣ו" means "and his voice". The verse reminds Israel they heard Gods voice and no prophet can subvert that. The next verse says: 5 That prophet or dreamer must be put to death for inciting rebellion against the LORD your God... That prophet or dreamer tried to turn you from the way the LORD your God commanded you to follow… This verse says that the prophet is killed for turning the people away from the commandments. (Also, "inciting rebellion" is an inexact translation; "דִבֶּר־סָ֠רָה" is better translated as "fabrication".) Perhaps the verse that starts this paragraph is the most explicit one (in most translations, it is the concluding verse of the chapter 13, but the Hebrew original has the paragraph break before, not after, this verse): See that you do all I command you; do not add to it or take away from it. This is a blanket statement. There aren't any exceptions stated, and the passage is dealing with false prophets who are trying to revoke commandments. It is very clear that God did not leave any room for subsequent prophets to alter things. Only prophets who conform to the commandments can be valid. Summary The revelation at Sinai was an extremely high standard because God spoke directly to Israel (or at the very least made his presence indisputably known to them). This has never been duplicated. Additionally, God set up his system of commandments so no one could ever change them; if anyone tried, they were to be killed. Thus, God, who knows the future, could not have sent Jesus or Mohamed with that mission.