Eternal Security Is the Truth (Christianity)

My adversary seems fixated on the fact that you can fall away from salvation and tries to point out that some of the verses that I mentioned does not state that salvation is eternal. This is an error on his part.I am going to make clear just a few verses that state this directly. Some of the verses I used, require context clues to make the assumption that salvation is eternal, while others state it directly .(a) Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? shall tribulation, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword? As it is written, For thy sake we are killed all the day long; we are accounted as sheep for the slaughter. Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord. Romans 8:35-39Quite clearly this is stating that once you accept Christ, nothing will separate you from his love. (b) My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. John 10:27-29.Again saying that no man can leave or lose his salvation. My adversary brings up the point that one can reject salvation. This is also false. God calls people to be saved, we do not have a say in this. John 6:44 - No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.Even in Hebrew this is not take out of context. Look at the original manuscripts. The word "vayigash" or וַיִּגַּשׁ is used to describe this [1] . Quite literally meaning that No man can come to Christ, unless God the father first draws him near.My adversary has also did a horrendous drop translating the verse about the pharaoh. I will bring down this verse entirely. Lets take a look at chapter 7ג. וַאֲנִי אַקְשֶׁה אֶת לֵב פַּרְעֹה וְהִרְבֵּיתִי אֶת אֹתֹתַי וְאֶת מוֹפְתַי בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרָיִם:פַּרְעֹה וְהִרְבֵּיתִי אֶת this translates to again to Kabad in some translations. [2]When you read it in the context that it is meant to be read. It is saying " I (God) will harden (make null or unresponsive) pharaohs heart, and multiply my signs and my wonders in the land of Egypt. This was in the exodus, and the slaves were getting ready to be set free. When Moses confronted God on how to accomplish this that was his response. He would make Pharaoh null to salvation and harden his heart, so that God could bring down his rule in order to show his own glory. Now for Romans 9For Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth."The word raised is not used in the context of exgeir3 as my adversary claimsIt is a phraseThe Hebrew context is actually "ξεγε;ρω" or "exegeiro" and is referring to two words "I raised" [3]He is correct with the translation he uses of this phrase but misrepresents the meaning behind it. Exegeiro breaks down to [a] to arouse, raise up (from sleep)[b] to rouse up, stir up, incite [4]When read in context the first is referring to the fact that God will awaken Pharaoh from a sleep (metaphorically) and stir up up in him a desire. When you add both of these verses together. God is quite literally saying he awoke Pharaoh and instilled in him a desire to disallow the request of Moses. At this point God hardened his heart, made him non receptive to the power the request of Moses so that his power would be demonstrated further. He made him null to salvation. This is not a choice by the pharaoh. While pharaoh did commit the act himself, God forced him to do so as we can clearly see. Pharaohs purpose was to be an example to show the glory of God, for this to happen God had to harden his heart to salvation, as we can see in the original manuscripts. So the question, has God willingly sent someone to hell and made them non receptive to salvation true? The answer is yes. For the remainder of this I am just going to focus on a few verses to show that the salvation is meant for a set group of people and God is aware of whom they are. Premise[1] If God has already ordained an elect[2] Then God knows whom will be saved[3] God calls people to be saved[4] When God calls people we can not refuse him[5] therefore when God calls people their salvation is eternal because he has already ordained themIn defense of my PremiseJohn 6:44 - No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.Romans 9 : 24 - 24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?(God has called us, I would break this down further but "all" is often used in the Hebrew bible. The context in which "all" is used is not referring to everyone and most people would think but "all" is used in the context of referring "to a group of people" this is the same case with "us" hereRomans 8 : 29-30 - "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called; whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified." [1] http://en.wikipedia.org...[2] http://www.chabad.org...[3] http://www.blueletterbible.org...[4] http://m.biblestudytools.com...