The Koran contains contradictions of consquence

My esteemed opponent said: "Praise be to Allah, most beneficial, most merciful; master of the day of Judgment. If indeed thou art true, then reveal the truth in me and in the readers of this debate." Amen In previous round, Pro had presented some 'contradictions' in Quran. I had pointed out possible simple explanations for those verses which could easily resolve those contradictions. In this round Pro has blankly asserted that my explanations were 'in his opinion' inadequate. However he has ignored my explanations and not bothered to elaborate why my explanations were inadequate. Traditionally it is burden of Pro to sustain the resolution. However, in my opinion, in most debate it is better to share the burden. I am willing to do my part. But Pro has do his part as well. In next round I expect Pro to explain why his interpretation of these verses (which lead to contradictions) is better than my interpretation, which appears more logical, simpler and easily resolves those contradictions. In one case Pro has demanded 'linguistic' proof for my explanation. I assume that he knows that any linguistic proof in this case will be from Arabic! I would like Pro to present his interpretation of the verses with linguistic evidence from Arabic language and I shall be happy to rebut them. In the meantime I see no need to make my case unnecessarily technical when most of the readers do not understand Arabic. In this round, I will present my response to Pro's contradictions once again, while addressing minor secondary issues raised by him. In spite of what I said above, I will discuss the linguistics of the verses mentioned by Pro briefly. However I would like to again assert that it is unnecessary at this stage. Moreover, I will do my best to keep it as simple as possible. == Can Allah's decree be changed == I explained that what is being referred as a 'word' can actually refer to three different (but close) concepts in Quran. A decision by Allah. A promise by Allah. An instruction or commandment to humanity by Allah. 'Kalima' literally means 'statement'. It is used to refer to Allah's promise. 'Ayat' means a 'sign' or 'verse'. Quran uses 'Ayat' to refer to instructions given to humanity by God. There is no scope for any change in any 'Kalima' from Allah. An 'Ayat', can change from Prophet to Prophet. With regard to these changes we should remember following facts. These changes do not take place with respect to the core belief. Only the rules and regulations are changed. The changes take place because needs of humanity changes. The earlier laws were perfect for earlier generations. The new laws are perfect for the new generations. Let us go through each of the verse presented by Pro. The Holy Quran 2:106 Translation: None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that Allah Hath power over all things? Transliteration: Ma nansakh min ayatin aw nunsiha nati bikhayrin minha aw mithliha alam taAAlam anna Allaha AAala kulli shayin qadeerun As we can see that the key term here is 'Ayat' (see emphasized portion in transliteration). They can change. The Holy Quran 6:34 Translation: Rejected were the messengers before thee: with patience and constancy they bore their rejection and their wrongs, until Our aid did reach them: there is none that can alter the words (and decrees) of Allah. Already hast thou received some account of those messengers," Transliteration: Walaqad kuththibat rusulun min qablika fasabaroo AAala ma kuththiboo waoothoo hatta atahum nasruna wala mubaddila likalimati Allahi walaqad jaaka min nabai almursaleena The Holy Quran 6:115 Translation: The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfillment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all. Transliteration: Watammat kalimatu rabbika sidqan waAAadlan la mubaddila likalimatihi wahuwa alssameeAAu alAAaleemu These verses are talking about Allah's promise or Kalima. They do not change. I presented Sabbath and number of daily prayers as examples of the instructions which can change. I do not want to enter into a debate about what Old Testament says about Sabbath, since that would be a digression from our discussion. If it bothers my opponent we can ignore my example of Sabbath. I think my arguments are complete even without an example. == First Muslim == In Arabic, the word 'Awwal' can mean first chronologically or first in quality. Intrestingly the same duality of meaning exists in English also. If my opponent stands 'first' in his class, does that mean he was the first person to enrol in the class chronologically? In most cases, the intended meaning is clear from context. The Holy Quran: 39:12 "And I [Muhammad] am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam. Let us see which meaning is intended. God is commanding Prophet Muhammad (Peace on Him) to be 'first of those who bow to Allah in Islam'. A very logical interpretation is that God is asking him to be a very good Muslim. He is asking him to practice what he is preaching. Since all the earlier Prophets were Muslim, how can Allah 'command' Prophet Muhammad (Peace on Him) to be first Muslim chronologically? Based on context the meaning should be clear. The Holy Quran: 7:143 ...And Moses fell down in a swoon. When he recovered his senses he said: "Glory be to Thee! to Thee I turn in repentance, and I am the first to believe." What is the meaning of 'I am the first to believe’? How can Prophet Moses (Peace on Him) inform God that he happens to be the first Muslim chronologically? Obviously what he is trying to tell Allah while seeking repentance is that he is extremely devout believer. My opponent argues: ...how is it that Muhammad (peace be unto him) can say that he is the "first" Muslim? He obviously can't be the best among Muslims because there is no distinction between someone like the Prophet Muhammad (peace be unto him) and Jesus (peace be unto him). If we do not make any distinction between them, then we can consider both of as first among Muslims at the same time. There is no contradiction. == Did Pharaoh Drown? == The Holy Quran: 10:92 "This day shall We save thee in the body, that thou mayest be a sign to those who come after thee! but verily, many among mankind are heedless of Our Signs!" My partner argues that I have not explained linguistically why 'save thee in the body' is same as ‘save your body’. This was because my opponent had not presented any linguistic arguments either. I would like to hear from my opponent what this verse means according to him! Does God save Pharaoh after all! Does Pharaoh live in peace with Prophet Moses (Peace on Him) and the children of Israel after converting to Islam? He has to ensure that his explanation is in accordance with the context. As far as I am concerned, 'save thee in thy body' is equivalent to 'save your body'. This is more obvious in Arabic than in English. The 'in' is just an artifact due a very close translation from one language to other. On other hand this verse is clear enough in English as well. If anyone thinks that God saved Pharaoh, then they have to explain why 'body' is mentioned in this verse at all! My opponent also asks why God rejected Pharaoh's 'conversion'. There is a time just before death when the reality of the life becomes obvious to a person. However that time is too late for repentance. It is better for us if we repent for our sins and revert to God while we have time and it is not too late. == Conclusion == I have presented simple, possible and plausible interpretation of the verses which clear up the contradictions. I have also presented some linguistic arguments (albeit very basic ones) in support of my analysis. The onus is on Pro to explain with appropriate evidence and arguments why these contradictions are still unresolved. Looking forward to appropriate evidence from Microsuck.