Homosexuality is not a sin

Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13,Leviticus 18:22 in Hebrew ואת זכר לא תשכב משכבי אשה תועבה הואTransliteration - V"et-zachar lo tishkav mishk"vei ishah to"evah hu.Leviticus 20:13 Hebrew - ואיש אשר ישכב את זכר משכבי אשה תועבה עשו שניהם מות יומתו דמיהם בםTransliteration - V'ish asher yishkav et zachar mishk'vei ishah to'evah asu shneihem mot yumatu d'meihem bamBreakdown,lets use 20:13 as it has the extra stuff,V'ish - And maleasher - Whoyishkav - lie downet - withzachar - malemishk'vei (mishk'av)- Beds/lyingsishah - woman/wifeto'evah - abomination/abhorrent/ritually uncleanasu - Doshneihem - both of themmot - dyingyumatu - they will died'meihem - their blood (or blood of them)bam - on them (or them)And that equates to, "and male who lie down with male bed/lyings woman/wife abomination do both of them dying they will die their blood on themand then, "and a male who lies down with a male the beds of a woman (or wife), both of them do an abomination; Dying they will die, their blood is upon them'."now watch this,Yes Numbers 31:18 - But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.(A verse often misunderstood by perverts, which Moses commands to kill all those who worship the false god and particpate in evil cultic rituals and to save for themselves(or bring into Israel) the ones who didn't do wicked things, called Virgins)(remember this just says keep them alive and keep them in tribe, in other words bring them to Israel, why? because they weren't evil and didn't participate in evil child sacrifices, violence, and all other lunatic "atheistic" false religious cultic pagan things, if you see the word virgin and think sex of it as meaning to have sex with, then I suggest seeking help)which says, in Hebrew, וכל הטף בנשים אשר לא ידעו משכב זכר החיו לכםWhich is transliterated,w'khol ha"af BaN"shiym "sher lo-y"d'$9; mish'Kav z"kh"r hach"y$9; l"khemwhat a wha wha what?(Eric Matthews style, fa fa fa Feenay!, Feeeeeny!, Feeny!)Yes mish'Kav z"kh"r means Lyings of man, while in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 we have, mishk"vei ishah which is Lyings of woman.Why is this significant? Lets go talmud here for a sec,sanhedrin 54A as a reference to anal sex,and then this proves it all,[quote] The task was especially difficult because there is little controversy in the rabbinic tradition on the meaning of Leviticus 18:22. While it is translated in various ways, the basic meaning has always seemed pretty clear: "And with a male you shall not lie the lyings of a woman, it is an abomination." The only difficult phrase is mishkeve isha (usually parsed as "the lyings of a woman"), because the phrase appears nowhere else in the Bible. A similar phrase, the lying of a male (mishkav zachar), appears in Numbers 31:18 and is understood to mean what women experience in intercourse, i.e. penile penetration. Consequently, mishkeve isha is what men experience in intercourse, that is, penile engulfment. If so, then the verse prohibits a man from lying with a male in such a way that his penis is engulfed in the other man"s body. And where is a man penetrable? Here the rabbis make use of the fact that the word lyings is in the plural form. The lyings of a woman are plural because she may be penetrated vaginally or anally. A man, missing the vagina, is singly penetrable anally. Consequently, for millennia the tradition understood that Leviticus 18:22 prohibited anal intercourse between men and Leviticus 20:13 reiterated and punished the crime with death by stoning.By far the most intriguing element of the puzzle is the fact that lesbian relations are totally unaddressed in the Torah. The only explanation of this lacuna is that the Torah is utterly uninterested in "homosexuality" per se. The sameness of the sex (homo=same) that so dominates contemporary thought in regard to homosexuality is missing here. Instead, there is something about anal sex between men that is at the center of the biblical concern. Of course the obvious question is just this: Why does the Torah consider anal sex between men to be such a problem?{/QUOTE]1, So the verse condemns Penetration, aka Anal sex. if it condemned Homosexuality it would say SEXUAL RELATIONS as did the previous verses against Incest and Bestiality, Leviticus 18:22/20:13 and the verse against sex during menstration though are Specific with detail, for example Menstration verse doesn't say "don't have sex with women", it says don't have sex during menstration, likewise this verse says don't have anal sex with another man.YHWH would've either said sexual relations, have mentioned lesbianism(as in the condemnation of bestiality YHWH told women Also not to do it), andAnal sex is is detrimental to Anyone(not just Homosexuals, look up women who did porn and have to sadly wear a diaper), it's no good so either this reason is why it's condemned or it was condemned for cultural reasons and is no longer sin(For example Leviticus isn't all Universal Moral laws, it does contain Dietry and Sacrifice laws for Israel Only(Don't eat pork, etc which were for Israelites only), contrary to False Doctrine, we ARE under Law, we aren't under Israel laws like circumision, look up New Perspective on Paul, this is what was argued, Old Testament God even tells us He'd rather have MERCY than Sacrifice in Isaiah 1 and Hosea 6:6)All Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 condemn is Anal Sex, AT MOST, if not then Temple Prostitution.That's why KJV(Don't like this translation by the way) renders it,Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.As with womankind/as he lieth with a woman as proven means Anal sex, which is cool as this probably means YHWH either assumes one is ALREADY gay or doesn't care, He just says, no anal sex.Leviticus 18:22 doesn't mean Homosexuality or Homosexual behavior in General, it was a condemnation of Anal sex, in order for my opponent to be valid he must refute every single point given.Next,The Word translated to Homosexuality/Homosexual in 1 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 is, Arensokoitai,Arensokoitai, is a word from The Septuagint Translation of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13,Which read, Leviticus 18:22 - meta arsenos ou koimethese koiten gunaikosLeviticus 20:13 - hos an koimethe meta arsenos koiten gunaikosArenos is male, and koiten means lye,As Proven Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13 condemn Anal sex and not Homosexuality, therefore since 1 Timothy 1:9-10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9 use the same word, the meaning is as well, Anal Sex.Romans 1, http://www.gaychristian101.com...... Modern day interpretation of Romans 1 has been different in earilest times, then people ascribed it to lesbianism as,Watch, *** One early Christian writer, Anastasios, clearly dismisses the view that Paul was referring to lesbianism in his comments on Romans 1:26:Clearly they (the females referred to in Romans 1:26) do not go into one another, but rather offer themselves to the men. (Brooten, 1996, p. 337n)*** Augustine continues this line of thought (fairly explicitly):But if one has relations even with one's wife in a part of the body which was not made for begetting children, such relations are against nature and indecent. In fact, the same apostle earlier said the same thing about women, "For their women exchanged natural relations for those which are against nature." quoting Romans 1:26 (Marriage and Desire, 20.35)"and this makes sense because as proven no law in The Bible prohibits Homosexuality, as proven Leviticus's Lyings of woman from Jew Sources means Specific Anal sex only, so it makes sense for Romans to not be about lesbianism or even HomosexualityYou want to win this debate? You must refute Everything above.