Chance Gravity (my own idea)

To begin with, it’s nice to see someone else who likes to debate physics on here; it seems the vast majority of debates are all about politics or philosophy right now. Your theory is interesting, to say the least, though there are a few holes in it. I’ll point these out below. Also, just to give you some background information, I’ve got a background in quantum physics (physics major at MIT), particularly QCD and neutron scattering, so gravitation isn’t my area of specialty, though I’ll try and give you my two cents about it all the same, though I’ll stress contradictions it has with quantum physics more so than relativity. Some of the things I’ll be using are fairly mathematical, and, while I’ll try and explain them to the best of my ability, since you said you’re not really from a physics/math background, if you don’t understand any of them or think that they’re wrong, don’t hesitate to ask in the next round. Your theory seems to take simple explanations of things that already have been explained, such as Lorentz contractions and time dilation, and make them more complicated, modifying them to fit your theory. A lot of concepts do not match with your theory, however. You may have just not noticed these, but if I am interpreting your description of your theory correctly (and please correct me if I am not in the next round), then some things don’t quite mesh. Since you haven’t specified the mathematics of how the particles move from “pixel” to pixel, I’m going to assume it is whatever system provides the least error with current theory. So, on to the main contentions I have. Note: on second thought, I’m running out of space here. I’ll divide my argument up into two rounds. The first one is for quantum mechanics, and the second will be on the conflicts it has against relativity, though I may have a few other arguments related to QM. C1: Your theory is inconsistent with the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, among other laws of quantum mechanics. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle, ΔxΔp≥ħ/2, states that the uncertainty of a system’s position, Δx, multiplied by the uncertainty of its momentum, Δp, cannot be greater than ħ/2, or 5.27285738 × 10-35m2kg/s (basically a very small unit of impulse). However, your system treats the motion of particles in a deterministic manner, where the position can be known exactly at every moment in time. This means that one can have no information on the momentum whatsoever, since Δp must be brought to infinity to preserve the uncertainty principle, as Δx is zero, since you know the position exactly due to the pixelation of space. A second principle your theory violates is that of superposition and wavefunction collapse. Every particle or system of particles has a property called a wavefunction, which gives all possible information about its quantum states. This is generally denoted as ψ, and can be solved for using the Schrodinger wave equations. A superposition is the combination of two or more separate wavefunctions, denoted as ψ = a|φ1>+b|φ2>. Think of this as ripples in a slinky. A standing wave is any wave that doesn’t move along its transverse axis, so in this analogy, it's basically when you make a wave in a slinky that just goes up and down, not along the axis of the slinky. Say you have two people, one holding each end of the slinky. The first guy tries to make a standing wave with two periods in the slinky, and the second guy makes one with three periods. When only the first guy is making the waves, the wavefunction, loosely, could be expressed as ψ = 1|P2>+0|P3>, and when only the second guy is doing it, it is ψ = 0|P2>+1|P3>, where P2 and P3 denote the "wavefunctions" associated with a two period and three period standing wave. However, when they start doing it at the same time, you’ll get a strange combination of these, denoted as ψ = 1/sqrt(2)|P2>+1/sqrt(2)|P3>. (The 1/sqrt(2) is just a constant added to ensure that the sum of the squares of the wavefunction add up to 1.) Now for a more applicable example. The spin of a particle, or the way it behaves in a magnetic field, can be in both a spin up and spin down state. At the same time. (ψ = 1/(sqrt(2))|U>+1/(sqrt(2))|D>). This is not saying that it’s either up or down, and you don’t know until you measure it, it’s actually in both up and down, just like the slinky is making both a two period and a three period standing wave at the same time. However, when you take a measurement of the system, something called a wavefunction collapse occurs. This means that any measurement-taking operation, or any action that even has the potential to extract information from the system, will cause a superposition of several wavefunctions to collapse into one of the wavefunctions, where the probability of collapse into each is proportional to the square of the coefficient in front of it (essentially, the more one wavefunction is used, the more likely it is to collapse into that state). Similarly, this applies to position in space, where each path through space can be represented by a vector, just like |U> and |D> or |P2> and |P3>. However, by quantizing space, your deterministic theory would involve a wavefunction collapse every time the particle changes “pixels”, meaning that no quantum phenomena could result at all, since your particle’s wavefunction would be confined to that individual point in space. I’ll explain one of the biggest problems I see with your theory here, but I’ll be using a fairly technical and mathematical explanation, so you can either take my word for it and move on or read through the next paragraph. Derivation: The wavefunction of a particle or system can be expressed in two ways: one, using vectors and linear algebra, as you have seen above with the bra-ket notation, and one using functions with calculus. I’ll be using the latter here. Essentially, expressing the Schrodinger equation of a free particle in any line, if you try to quantize space, you’ll end up with a remainder term when integrating the square of the wavefunction over all real space. Basically, this means that there is a certain probability that the particle may just cease to exist. Not cease to exist, and convert its mass to energy, like an annihilation reaction, but simply cease to exist. The energy is gone forever. Obviously, this violates conservation of energy. I’ve attached a condensed derivation of this in a picture below. I’ve skipped a few steps, since the actual math would take many pages to go over, but I’ve left in the key steps. Essentially what I’ve done is solved for the wavefunction of a free particle in three-dimensional space, generalized it to one dimension, taken the continuous wavefunction and quantized it to take into account your quantization, or “pixilation” of space, and then tried to plug that back into the Schrodinger equation, getting a remainder term. When integrating over all real space, the probability of existence should always equal exactly 1. If it doesn’t, (and it didn’t in this case), there is a huge problem, as I explained above. ===Conclusion and continuation=== I’ve tried to explain, to the best of my ability, why your theory violates quantum mechanics. It also looks like I’ve run out of space. I’ve got a heap of other arguments I’ll put in the next round, more so in the relativity area, which is less math intensive, but if you have any questions, please don’t hesitate to ask. To be continued... (Dun dun dun.) ===References=== Good references to look up things about quantum physics (I use too many concepts to be able to cite them all): http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu... http://en.wikipedia.org... http://en.wikipedia.org... http://en.wikipedia.org... http://en.wikipedia.org... http://en.wikipedia.org...