The God of the Bible is not triune in nature.

P1:This is a false position (see P1 in last round). Even Moses is called “a god” in Exodus 7:1, which reads:“And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.”Was Moses a false God? Did “the LORD” make Moses a false god on purpose? Of course not. P2:Jesus is not called the “true God” in 1 John 5:20. It reads:“And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.” (KJV)It is clearly not talking about Jesus, as shown by my underlined analysis. 1 John 1:1, 2 is not calling Jesus “the everlasting life.” It is not being used as a title. Carefully consider the text:“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)” (KJV) It is simply saying that eternal life, which is from the Father, has been “manifested unto us.”Read the context of 1 John 12-15, which can start at verses 9 and 10, which read:“If we accept the witness of men, the witness of God is greater. Because this is the witness God gives, the witness that he has given about his Son. The person putting his faith in the Son of God has the witness within himself. The person not having faith in God has made him a liar, because he has not put his faith in the witness given by God concerning his Son.” (NWT)So verse 14 is talking about God, which reads:“And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that no matter what we ask according to his will, he hears us.” (NWT)P3:Read Jude 4 in context:“My reason is that certain men have slipped in among you who were long ago appointed to this judgment by the Scriptures; they are ungodly men who turn the undeserved kindness of our God into an excuse for brazen conduct and who prove false to our only owner and Lord, Jesus Christ.” (NWT)It is clearly talking about false teachers! This does not prove anything in your favor.P4:I gave my logic for both of them being called “savior” in my initial argument.P5-7:1 Corinthians 11:3 is talking about headship. For example, man is the head of woman. Similarly, God is the head of Christ. That is right, God. According to the Athanasian Creed:“And in this Trinity none is afore or after another; none is greater or less than another. But the whole three persons are coeternal, and coequal.”God being the head of Christ contradicts the very foundation of the trinity. A manager and a standard employee are not coequals.Your interpretation of Philippians 2:6 is disputed even among trinitarians. Some take the view like you do while others agree with my own position. For example:“Either a reference to Christ's preexistence and those aspects of divinity that he was willing to give up in order to serve in human form, or to what the man Jesus refused to grasp at to attain divinity. Many see an allusion to the Genesis story: unlike Adam, Jesus, though […] in the form of God (Genesis 1:26-27), did not reach out for equality with God, in contrast with the first Adam in Genesis 3:5-6.” (NAB Phil. 2:6 footnote)My opponent is being severely narrow minded if he thinks that 1 Timothy 2:5 and Acts 17:31 prove that Jesus was a man while in heaven. 1 Timothy 2:6 reads: “Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.” (KJV)Acts 17:31 reads:“Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.” (KJV)These verses are clearly speaking of past events!P8:Think, just for a second, about what you are saying. If when Thomas calls Jesus “my God” in John 20:28 means that Jesus is the God of Thomas (superior to him), then you must also say that when Jesus says “my God” in John 20:17 and Revelation 3:12 that there is someone superior to him! Your own argument defeats itself! I interpret the Bible in light of what all verses say. With that said, Jesus continually and consistently separates himself from God every chance he gets. The context of John 20:28 clearly shows that Thomas did not believe Jesus to be the one “true God” of John 17:3 (reference my initial argument).P9:I do not place the NWT any higher in my list of translations used than any other. Quite obviously I have used the KJV for most of this debate. You should note that the NWT, which you referenced, has a marginal reference to Exodus 9:16 when you look at Exodus 15:1, which reads:“But for this very reason I have kept you in existence: to show you my power and to have my name declared in all the earth.” (NWT)So it defines what is meant by “exalted.” As well, there is a big difference between men exalting Jehovah for helping them and Jehovah exalting someone.P10:Reference P5-7 above.P11:This is the most twisted view I have seen you use! John 5:30 reads:“I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.” (KJV)You surely are not suggesting that one piece of the Godhead bosses around the others? As well, if he “cannot” rebel, then Jesus is being misleading when he says that he “seeks.”P12:Hebrews 1:8 is in reference to Psalm 45:6, which is figuratively speaking of the Messiaha, but it is literally applied to an Israelite King (probably King Solomon). Even the NAB (1991) has the following footnote:“'Your throne is the throne of God' and refers us to 1 Chron. 29:23 where Solomon’s throne is referred to as the throne of the LORD [YHWH].'” It is quite clear that while Jesus is figuratively referred to as “O God,” Solomon was literally referred to as “O God” as well. John 1:1 is a disputed text. Some translations render it as “a god” and some render it as “God.” I will quote the 1985 Kingdom Interlinear Appendix 2A, which reads:“In his article 'Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,' published in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 92, Philadelphia, 1973, on p. 85 Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, 'with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos. There is no basis for regarding the predicate theos as definite.' On p. 87 of his article, Harner concluded: 'In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun cannot be regarded as definite.'”I have already addressed John 20:28 (see my initial argument). John 20:31 reads:“But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” (KJV)P13:Psalm 95:9 uses a different language, a different word, and has a different meaning. As well, you are using a straw man. I never claimed that Jesus was tempted by Satan. I merely claimed that Satan attempted to tempt Jesus. In regards to what “tempted” means in Psalms:nasah – test (Strong's Concordance)Overall, my opponent does not address my points made in my initial argument in regards to Satan attempting to tempt Jesus. P14:My opponent rightly points out that Satan has some mad delusion of overthrowing God (Rev. 12). However, that is vastly different than Satan trying to offer the kingdoms of the world to Jesus (supposedly God) when he only has them because Jesus (supposedly God) gave them to him in the first place! When it comes to Job, Satan had every reason to think that he could break him down. After all, he was able to convince Eve to rebel against God in Genesis.P15:Straw man. I have not claimed any of these things. P16:Reference P1 in round 3 and in this round. My opponent quotes Psalm 82 extensively, but fails to show where it calls those men “false gods.” Jesus himself identifies with Psalm 82 in John 10:31-37, which read:“Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. Jesus replied to them: 'I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?' The Jews answered him: 'We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.' Jesus answered them: 'Is it not written in your Law, 'I said: 'You are gods'? If he called 'gods' those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified—do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You blaspheme,' because I said, 'I am God's Son'? If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me.” (NWT)Jesus references Psalm 82 to defend himself against the Jews that are interrogating him.P17:At this point in the debate, I can only inform my opponent to reference my initial argument, P1 in the previous round, and P13 above.Notes:- Headings such as “P1; P2; etc.” loosely represent “paragraph.”- “The Lord [or “LORD”]” is in reference to יהוה