Theoretically, It is possible to Divide by Zero

Thank you Pros, you have given some of the basics for this debate but I would like to add some more. After this, I will move onto explaining why your proof is incorrect. This topic is hard to debate about because there is a solid answer.---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------There are 5 reasons why any number cannot be divided by 0:1. Dividing x÷0 = y would mean x*y = 0 which is impossible when given actual values.2. Vertical slopes are undefined.3. When Graphing f(x)=1/x, there is no specific value for when x=0, it approaches either -∞ or +∞.4. Division is repeated subtraction, and it doesn't work with division of zero.5. If dividing by 0, you would algebraically be able to prove that 1=2, 2=3, 4=5 and so on. We all know the formula for calculating slopes, The numerator of the equation is the change in y-values and the denominator is the change in x-values On this graph, you can see that the change in y-values is just 1. However, when you look at the denominator, you find out that there is no change in x-values. No change whatsoever which yields the denominator being 0. We all know that the slope of a vertical line is undefined and since the numerator is 1 and the denominator is 0, 1÷0 is also undefined.When you graph f(x)=1/x you you will notice that there is no definite answer when x=0. There is actually an asymptote at x=0. However, in the following images, you will also notice that as you get closer to closer to 0 from left and right, the number goes further and further away from 0 (gets bigger in the positive side and smaller in the negative side). This arrives at your understanding where it "approaches" +∞. You cannot forget that as x approaches 0, y also approaches -∞ or +∞. This is going to be a major part of your flaw.I am going to introduce a special way to do division:15÷5 = 5+5+515÷3= 3+3+3+3+3Now here comes the error:15÷0 = 0+0+0+0+0............................This is impossible to complete because no matter how many 0's you add, you will never reach 15 which is another reason why it is impossible to complete a division by 0.Lastly, if dividing by 0, you would algebraically be able to prove that 1=2, 2=3, 4=5 and so on. There is a very famous mathematical fallacy in which you are able to prove that 1=2, however there is an invalid proof somewhere in the steps of doing so, making it a fallacy. As you can see, in the initial observations, the procedure seems legitimate and correct, but I have to call your attention to the first line where a = b and the fourth line where you cancel (a-b) on both sides of the equation. The invalid proof of this fallacy is in line four where you cancel (a-b) on both sides because that is when a division by zero occurs. Remember when I said a=b in the first line? If a = b would (a-b) not just be (a-a)? We all know that (a-a) is equal to zero so that is why 1≠2.---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Now, to clear up the misconception that you have. Your idea is logical but it is flawed and that is why mathematicians all agree that any number divided by 0 is still undefined. First off, I would like to bring up a contradiction in your theory. You said that "Zero is can't be reached, because unlike the other Whole Numbers, it's amount is infinitely small." Then, in the second part of your theory, you said that "5÷∞=0", now isn't that a bit contradicting? You say that as you try to count down "1... 1/2... 1/3... 1/4... 1/5... ... .... ... 1/10,000,000,000... ... ... ... ... ... ... 1/50,000,000,000,000,000,000,000...", it is impossible to completely reach 0. This could also be said with ∞ on the right side of the number line, 1, 10000000, 10000000000000, 1000000000000000000...., with your logic, you can never reach ∞ either so that means you said it yourself that anything divided by zero is impossible to reach infinity, only close to it. The problem here is that you do not arrive at 0 or ∞, you only get closer and closer to them. This is fundamental in the case of limits in calculus, you approach but you don't get to. Another argument, in the sequence of numbers 1/(1/2), 1/(1/3), 1/(1/4) (notice that it is going down to 0), the sequence turns out to be 2,3,4, ...., ∞ and since ∞ is not a number, it is an idea, there is no value for it which is why we say it's undefined. If you want to assign a value to infinity, sure! Let ∞ = a real number and that 1/0 (5/0) is ∞ just like you said. Then look at a sequence starting from the other side of the number line. 1/(-1/2), 1/(-1/3), 1/(-1/4), ..., and notice again that the denominators -1/2, -1/3, -1/4, ..., are approaching zero. Now, the sequence would be -2,-3,-4,...,-∞. So now we have two infinities, negative or positive infinity? Instead of assigning a fruitless answer, we say that infinity isn't a number, and that 1/0 is undefined.Please pros, it is your turn to conclude the debate.