Homosexuality is not a Sin in The Bible

I would mention that this debate is not personnel or provoking but instead two minds exchanging thought. NOTE: My opponent does not address most of my argument from round 2. HOMOSEXUAL IDENTIFICATION What makes the distinction for a homosexual to be a homosexual? Well we established that in Round 1 with the definitions: "Of, relating to, or characterized by a tendency to direct sexual desire(lust) toward another of the same sex. 2 : of, relating to, or involving sexual intercourse between persons of the same sex. " I have met this characterization for males by showing(& my opponent agreeing) that male men could not have anal sexual intercourse because it was a abomination. This was not satisfactory for my opponent, he wants God to direct us about oral sex, kissing, and loving relationships between same sexes. He claims it is faulty by me to suggest that male anal sex is homosexuality. This is a negative, what I have given specifically describes the definitions we agreed on in round 1. Anyone should agree that male anal sex is deemed homosexual behavior. This behavior is clearly forbidden in the Bible. As for kissing and just loving relationships by same sex individuals, they are not part of the definition nor do they specifically describe homosexuality. Anyone can love someone of the same-sex, anyone can kiss someone of the same-sex(mouth or not), there are over 30 verses that talk about men kissing. Anyone can have affection for someone of the same sex, and this does not make them homosexual. HOMOSEXUAL LUST Romantic feelings and sexual feelings are inherently intertwined. Therefore homosexuality in a romantic relationship involves lust, as do heterosexual relationships. Though after marriage one is not lusting for their partner but in love with them. Since we have no determination of the Bible on homosexual marriage then lust by any individual unmarried would be a sin. James 1:15, "Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. " ANAL SEX It is true that anal sex is not solely a homosexual trait. We see that it is sin for two males to have anal sex and for a man and woman to have anal sex. Anal sex is determined a sin. LESBIANISM Romans 1:26, "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature. " The next verse describes that which is against nature, Romans 1:27, "And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. " We see that before the men are described, it first says the women are going against nature and then it describes what that unnatural act is in the description of the men. My opponent gave us a video from YouTube and I will address that here. God did not give them their desires, it is clear that this was their own desires. God simply allowed this with no recourse, as punishment for their idolatry. Romans 1:24, "Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves. " We see here that they had these desires in their own hearts, not from God. We also notice the phrases used to describe these acts, "lust, unseemly, error, vile and against nature. " These descriptions do not sound like they are good in the sight of God. For God to give them up means that He held it from them because it was not as He wanted. God considered Lesbianism the same as male homosexuality and He has given us what He thinks about it. Why would God not allow male same-sex intercourse and condone female same-sex intercourse? He wouldn't. MARRIAGE But we can clear this up real quick by saying that my opponent must show that homosexuals are actually condoned to marry in the Bible. If he doesn't then he will fail because the Bible clearly states that any sexual act outside of marriage is immoral and a sin. So, my opponent must show that same-sex couples were permitted to marry in the Bible or Israel. The Bible presents marriage as an estate instituted by God, pointing to the Marriage of the Lamb. It is the ultimate union, of the Bridegroom, Christ, to His Bride, the Church. 1 Corinthians 7:2, "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. " We see that God has commanded that every male should have a female. If my opponent could show that homosexual marriage is suggested to be valid by the Bible then we could engage in the actual debate he desires. But that is not what we see, we see that God ordains men and women to be married and any sexual relationship outside of marriage is a sin. In the seventh of God's Ten Commandments, he instructs us not to have sex with anyone other than our spouse. It is clear that God forbids sex outside of marriage. 1 Corinthians 6:18, "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. " 1 Corinthians 7:9, "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn. " ORAL SEX Oral sex and fondling are also included in male or female homosexual acts. I have shown that only homosexual marriage could condone oral sex or fondling. The Bible never thoroughly addresses this point. REBUTTAL My opponent made it clear that he wishes me to address all his points. Well most of his points are assertions that were not backed by any source. As well his debate structure was difficult to understand. I understand he is new and that should not be a excuse for me, so I will do as best as I can. "Throughout the ages, Hebrew prohibition of homosexuality was perceived as easily understood. Basing themselves on T. B. Nedarim 51a, commentators explained the act as unnatural, a perversion of the human sexual drive. " . http://www.nishma.org... If I understand my opponent correctly he is saying that because Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 never says anything about kissing, love, or oral sex it is not describing homosexuality as a whole nor describing all sexual acts that homosexuals can do. Well I will bring up that both verses say,"Shalt not lie", which are also in verses Leviticus 18:20 & Deuteronomy 28:30, and they say: "Moreover thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbour's wife, to defile thyself with her. " "Thou shalt betroth a wife, and another man shall lie with her. " By my opponent's conclusion we can have oral sex and kiss our neighbors wife or another man ours. If 'shalt not lie' only means penetration then the Bible tells us as long as we do not penetrate another man's wife we can have oral sex and kiss them. Furthermore the passages in Lev. 18:22 & 20:13 also describe any act a man would do with a man in the bedroom. If one can consider that women would give a man oral sex then that is also forbidden in these verses. I do not reject my opponents rendeering of the verses in Hebrew or their wording. I do conflict with his interpretation of them. I think I have just shown that God made it clear that any act that a man would commit in the bedroom with a woman is deemed a sin for same-sex individuals. CONCLUSION I will not deny that the Bible suggest people to love one another, both male and female. I will not deny that the Bible says nothing on kissing people(kissing on the cheek was a tradition back then. ) The Bible has made it clear that men should not be with men nor women be with women, it is unnatural. The Bible as shown refers to homosexuality as lust, unnatural, vile, and a error. We are left to determine that Bible refers homosexuality as a sin. Back to Pro!