The God of the Bible is not triune in nature.

My position is that the Bible teaches that God is not triune in nature. The triune identity that people associate with the God of the Bible comes from the doctrine of the trinity. I will go ahead and take a direct quote from the Athanasian Creed, which defines the trinity as:“And in this Trinity none is afore or after another; none is greater or less than another. But the whole three persons are coeternal, and coequal. […] For the right faith is that we believe and confess that our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is God and man. ” [1]It is my goal to prove the following:1) the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost [or “Spirit”] are not equal2) the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost [or “Spirit”] are not coeternal or coequal3) Jesus is not both God and manWhat does the Bible say?1) Does the Bible teach that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost [or “Spirit”] are equal? The answer is no. I will specifically make it my objective to prove that the Father and Son are not equal, ignoring the Spirit or Ghost. I only have to prove that two of them are not equal to debunk the entire position. I will start by pointing the reader to John 17:3, which reads:“Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. ” (KJV) We know that Jesus, in this verse, is identifying the Father as “the only true God. ” So we have Jesus establishing a group, “true God(s). ” We then have Jesus establishing a member of that group, the Father. So my question for my opponent is this: On what basis do you change the grouping of “true God(s)” to incorporate Jesus and the Holy Ghost [or “Spirit”]? Surely the basis is not scriptural. Another verse that I will reference is 1 Corinthians 11:3, which reads:“But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. ” (KJV)It is quite clear that this verse is establishing that God is not only a separate person (or being) from Christ, but that God is also superior to Christ. I have met some trinitarians who will say that this is in reference to the earthly, fleshy, Jesus. However, this was written after Jesus had already returned to heaven, so that is not a reasonable explanation. I want the readers to also consider Mark 10:18 and John 20:17, which read:“And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God. ” (KJV)“Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. ” (KJV)These verses further confirm that Jesus is a separate person (or being) from God. They also establish, once again, that God is the Father. Let's now read Revelation 3:12:“Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name. ” (KJV)Jesus is speaking while in heaven. This really drives home the point that Jesus is a separate person (or being) from God. This is, once again, established in Romans 8:34 (also Psalms 110:1; Acts 7:55,56; and 1 Peter 3:22), which reads:“Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us. ” (KJV)Finally, consider Acts 5:31, which reads:“Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. ” (KJV)Not only does this establish that God and Jesus are separate persons (or beings), but it also establishes that Jesus was not the highest, as he was exalted.2) Consider what was pointed out in the last section, as well as John 14:28, which reads:“Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. ” (KJV)This could not be spelled out any clearer, the Father is greater than the Son. This is further shown in John 5:19 (also Luke 22:42; John 6:38; John 7:16; and John 5:30), which reads:“Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. ” (KJV)This is establishing that the Father is clearly superior to the Son. Jesus even draws a distinction between himself and God again in John 8:42:“Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me. ” (KJV)Trinitarians try to rationalize the above verses by stating that Jesus was only lesser while on earth. However, that has already been proven to be an incorrect rationalization via 1 Corinthians 11:3. As well, the Athanasian Creed states that Jesus is both man and God.3) Nowhere in the Bible is it stated that Jesus was both God and man. My position is that Jesus was fully man, not fully God. In fact, let's reference Matthew 4:1-11, where Satan is making an attempt to tempt Jesus. If Jesus were God:1. ) Satan would not have tried to tempt him since he (Jesus) could not have failed.2. ) Jesus would not have constantly been referring to God as a separate person and how he should not put Him to the test.3. ) It would have been pointless for Satan to offer “all the kingdoms of the world” to Jesus since it is only by God's allowance that Satan has control over them.4. ) Satan's request for Jesus to worship him would have been absurd to both of them.5. ) Jesus would never have said, “Get thee hence, Satan: 'Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve. '” (Mt. 4:8-10) KJV. Jesus said that his worship belongs to God, not Satan. If Jesus was God, this statement would make absolutely no sense at all. Refuting common "proof texts. ”I will now refute some of the most commonly used “proof texts” by Trinitarians:John 20:28:“And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. ” (KJV)A Trinitarian will state that scripture displays proof that Jesus is indeed God. However, they are ignoring all of the context in doing so. First, let's define what “god” really means in this verse if it is not referring to the “true God” (John 17:3). Psalm 82:1-6 show that “gods” can be used to describe powerful men or judges. This also applies to Jesus. Looking further into the context, we will realize that Thomas had already heard that the Father was “the only true God” (John 17:3). Then, after Jesus was resurrected, he said that he was ascending to “my God and your God” (John 20:17). It was after Thomas had touched Christ that John states, in John 20:31: “But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. ” (KJV)So there is no reason to believe that Thomas thought Jesus was the “true God,” but rather just a “god,” which is confirmed in John 1:1. Isaiah 44:24:“Thus saith the Lord, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the Lord that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;” (KJV)Trinitarians will try to use this verse by saying that since through Jesus all things were created, then Jesus must be “the Lord. ” This is faulty reasoning. Colossians 1:15-17 clearly show that Jesus is merely the channel through which “the Lord” created all things. Only “the Lord” actually has the means to create. There are several verses that confirm this, one of which is Matthew 28:18, which reads:“And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. ” (KJV)Quite clearly, Jesus has to be given his power. Isaiah 43:11/2 Peter 2:18:“I, even I, am the Lord; and beside me there is no saviour. ” (KJV)“But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen. ” (KJV)Does this mean that Jesus is "the Lord" since they both are saviors? Not at all. There have been many saviors in the Bible, however, it is through "the Lord" that all salvation comes. This is shown clearly in verses such as Acts 4:10-12, which read:“Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. " (KJV)John 3:17 reads:“For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. ” (KJV)“The Lord” is the source, or initiator, of salvation. Jesus is merely the instrument. Sources:[1] . https://www.ccel.org... Notes:- Bolded numbers under "What does the Bible say? " are in correlation with the goals listed above that section (i. e. 1); 2); 3))- Italicized verses (i. e. John 20:28) indicate the start of a new proof text refutation. - “The Lord” is in reference to יהוה