The Bible clearly states that homosexuality is a sin

Excellent rebuttal on my opponents part . . . Now for a superb second argument on my part . .. . . I will start with my second contention . . . ------------------------------------- Contention 2: New Testament also labels it as a sin ------------------------------------- My opponent has misunderstood what I meant by my verse, not once did I say that Jesus said this. . . .nor did I say that God said this. (note: though I would argue that since Paul's letters to the Corinthians were divinely inspired they really are the words of Jesus himself.) My opponent falsely claims that I mistook the words of Paul as those of Jesus. . . . which I did not. regardless of whether Paul or Jesus said it, according to the first chapter of John, which I'm sure my opponent is familiar with: Verse 1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Verse 14: The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[d] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. simple syllogism: Word of God is the Bible Word of God is Jesus Bible is Jesus (at least the words of Jesus) hence, ANYTHING in the Bible is the "Word of God" . . . . .also let me remind my opponent that this debate is whether "The Bible clearly states," and the letter to Corinthians is a part of the Bible. . . .. I would also like to bring up a new verse, Mathew 19:4-6 "Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate." First it states that "man will leave his father and mother" (man and woman) and be united to his wife (again a woman) the two will become one flesh" God never left room for "husband" to be inserted instead of wife. . . . or "father and father" to be inserted instead of mother. The very words of Jesus show that homosexuality is sin, if slightly indirectly. -------------------------------- Contention 1: Sodom and Gamorrah -------------------------------- 3 But he insisted so strongly that they did go with him and entered his house. He prepared a meal for them, baking bread without yeast, and they ate. 4 Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom—both young and old—surrounded the house. 5 They called to Lot, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them." clearly they wanted to rape them . . . .. you admit to this so, a mob of men wanting to "gang rape" two men is not a sign of homosexuality? The people obviously thought that the angels were mere men. So, my contention stands, the city was given to homosexuality and other sins, however homosexuality was definitely a part of it. So yes rape, lust, violence, AND homosexuality were the reasons for the destruction. Ultimately the argument is whether the "Bible" outlaws homosexuality, Paul states that it is wrong in the new testament and Sodom and Gamorah were at least partially destroyed due to homosexuality, God doesn't punish anything but sin.