The One True God as Described in the Christian Bible Exists

This is an odd debate where my opponent fails to address any of the points I raise and then argues I'm dropping. My round 1 was a constructive case for logic. Precisely what he claims is not occurring.My round 2 was a an attack on his definition of uniformity. Pro again gives a "definition" in round 3, "Uniformity is simply the basic idea that if gravity applies in Virginia, it will apply in the same manner in Colorado as well. This is one of Science’s foundational tenets" 1) This is not a definition, it is an example.2) In so far as it is a definition it is a claim that same laws and processes observable today apply everywhere, the very definition of uniformitarianism.3) Obviously statements about Virginia and Colorado are not foundational statements about science.4) My opponent is not proving any of his claims that this is foundation nor even providing a definition for uniformity. The originator of this uniformity argument he is using Cornelius Van Til. Van Til was using the term "uniformity" in the sense of Scholasticism (http://en.wikipedia.org...). Aquinas' 5 arguments (http://en.wikipedia.org...) for God depend crucially on a sort of scholastic uniformity that comes from Aristotle. So a statement like, "Invenimus enim in istis sensibilibus esse ordinem causarum efficientium" (In the world of sense we find there is an order of efficient causes), are justified based on Aristotle's metaphysics. These Aristotelian metaphysics are treated as givens in traditional in theist vs. atheist debates. What Van Til is saying is that I as an atheist have no justification for assuming that sort of uniformity. Van Til is right. My opponent isn't right though, because he's getting confused between modern physics and traditional / Aristotelian metaphysics leading to internal contradictions. Once we fix Pro's argument so he is not contradicting himself the question becomes how to respond to Van Til? And the response is the constructive case I've been making. Round 1 was a construction of logic. A construction of uniformity (in the sense of Aristotle) can be attached directly: Logics were defined empirically. a) There exists a natural phenomena.b) There exist observations about this phenomena. which can be converted into prepositional statements. c) There exist systems of rules for combining naive observations into new prepositional statements (a logic that fits the reality). And for anything once you have the logic:d) Construct a model.e) Test the model against reality. The system is very simple. A logic in constructed for a very wide class of problems. The statement bolded in round-1b, "Propositional logics that are valuable are valuable because they are formal representations of truths that were intuitively obvious and they are intuitively obvious because they correspond so directly to observable reality." Then through the use of models the logic is extended to a much larger domain of problems with results derived from long chains of reasoning within the logical/emperical structure. Thus allowing the model to address the not intuitive obvious . And this answering the objection about "why logic works" from round 2a, this logic works because it was constructed / chosen from all possible models to be one that did fit the observational evidence, and thus answers Van Til's charge. From there science proceeds: sci-fi) A model for complex predictions (i.e. non naive observations) can be constructed in the language of the logic.sci-fi) That model can be empirically verified. (sci-d) and (sci-fi) are science, that is the core of the scientific method. I don't need to presuppose uniformity, I can construct a hypothesis of uniformity and then empirically verify and that's how I avoid Van Til's explicit question about uniformity. Now obviously the 18th century uniformitarianism was going back to Aristotle's uniformity as a presupposition, that was their justification, hence the name. But if uniformitarianism were empirically verifiable, the method I've outlined above would in fact prove it without the need for the reference to Aristotle. So Van Til absolutely points out a correct and serious flaw in 18th century atheist arguments, but not a flaw in the argument / construction I've been making. And similarly I could construct a morality on top of the constructive logic:mor-d) A model for what behaviors are desirable for individuals within a society to achieve their broader aims (i.e. the aims of the society)mor-e) An empirical verification that these laws of behavior advance broader aims. My opponents key argument is his sylogism:1) If God does not exist, Science cannot exist.2) Science does exist.C) Therefore God does exist. (1) is now disproven. We have constructed a science without assumption that has the laws of science and no need for a God. _____ The negative case for science rests on the contradictions between the bible and the very laws of science my opponent holds the bible supports. In round 2 the question was raised that if the bible taught something clearly, perspicuously then why wouldn't people who believed and read the bible believe it? My opponent failed to address this issue, the middle ages being one of countless examples but a key one since any claim that science depends on uniformity ties into scholasticism. The 3 bible quotes: Hebrews 1:3, Numbers 23:19, Genesis 8:22 have nothing to do with uniformity either in the modern sense or the early 19th century earth science sense of uniformitarianism as exemplified by the fact that no major commentary mentions this application. The 5 bible quotes given for logic also had nothing to do with logic either. I'd just ask for a source here, a well known and respected commentary that ties this read of those verses into something like uniformitarianism or experimental empiricism. ____________ To summarize what has been shown so far: 1) In round 1 it was proven that logic is intrinsic and constructive. It doesn't require ultimate justification since a logic is a formal description of human mental processes. This undercuts the lynchpin of the Presuppositional apologetic.2) The specific additional problems with uniformity were discussed in round 2.3) The inapplicability of the bible and problems with the verses were discussed in round 2.4) The logic model constructed in round 1 is extended to a philosophy of science in round 3. 5) I addressed the argument my opponent "meant" to make about the inability of atheists to justify any philosophy of science and showed how the construction from (4) refuted it (again round 3)6) The science model was extended generically, and morality was an example of the generic extension (round 3) My opponents method of proof has been by assertion. His argument has been that I failed to address the majority of his case, far from that I cut the heart of his case out in round 1 and then cleaned up the details in the next 2 rounds. Were I to apply the "drops are concessions" rules the debate would be over. For whatever reason my opponent in Round 1 did not consider the construction of logic worth addressing, I will grant him a pass on that now that he sees how the negative is going to lay out. I thank my opponent for round 3 and look forward to rounds 4 and 5. Notes: Van Til's Metaphysics of Apologetics (1931) forms the basis for the presuppositional method an explicit discussion on the question of uniformity. The most well discussion is the 1955 The Defense of the Faith. There are many good responses from the traditional apologetics camp the best received one is http://tinyurl.com... about ½ or which is available at that link. http://members.tripod.com... and http://members.tripod.com... are online critiques that address the metaphysical issues from a Reformed Christian perspective. A final good discussion is by a modern presuppositionalist John Frame, http://www.reformed.org....