Arianism: totally refuted based on Scripture

1)The Septuagint passages are relevant because it is the source of the New Testament revelation about the divinity of Christ. Let me present to you a coherent and scriptural arguement for this one:The Sophiology Backround of Nicean Christology The Nicene Creed stems from the ancient faith preserved by the bishops from since the departure of the Apostles. I will present below the Sophiology backround of the Nicene Creed to my opponent: The Old Testament Wisdom Theology YHWH is deemed to be all-wise. Throughout the Old Testament age, he always acts wisely. His wiseness no one could comprehend. YHWH’s Wisdom ( Greek: Sophia) is personified as his eternally begotten offspring: Premise 1: Begetter: The eternal Lord – Proverbs 8:22 LXXPremise 2: Begotten: The eternal Wisdom –Proverbs 8:25 LXXConclusion: The eternal Lord eternally begets Wisdom. God begets Wisdom even before the Genesis creation: “The Lord created me, the first of his ways for his way” (Proverbs 8:22 LXX) “Before the hills, he begets me” (Proverbs 8:25 LXX) Begetting denotes “creation within one’s nature”. This is akin to the scientific law of Gregor Mendel’s Genetics (like begets like). In Latin, this is called “creation ad intra” ( creation from within). Wisdom is equal to God in nature because he came from God’s very being. On the other hand, creation ad extra or creation from outside one’s nature is the one referred to in the Genesis account of creation (e.g. God created Adam out of dust. God and Adam are not equal in nature). The Personified Wisdom played a great part in Jewish Theology because Israel is a monotheistic faith who detests polytheistic neighboring countries. God alone is worshiped and he is only one. His Wisdom is not other than him but of him that is why he can be praised through his Wisdom. Although this is a literary form of expressing a divine truth, we nevertheless can conclude that systematically, God has three offspring in the Old Testament: 1) Angels (Job 38:4-7) 2) Israel ( Exodus 4:22) 3) Wisdom ( Proverbs 8:22-31) Inter-testamental Jewish Theology The Jews preserved the teaching of Wisdom theology as found in their Scriptures ( i.e. the Septuagint) and they had two great religious literary contributions about their age-old Wisdom theology: Wisdom of SolomonBook of Sirach Philo of Alexandria who is a contemporary of the Apostles identifies Wisdom as Logos. He calls Logos as the “first born” of God and as the” image “of God. Although his stance on the Logos is as un-begotten, he deemed it as God’s first born one which denotes, together with its being God’s image, divine revelation and action. New Testament Wisdom Theology The writers of the New Testament Scriptures also understood Wisdom / Logos as “firstborn” and “Image” of God but unlike Philo, the disciples follow after the Old Testament Scriptures regarding the begottenness of God’s Wisdom/ Logos ( Colossians 1:13-17). The disciples did not only follow the ancient Judaic concept of God’s wisdom but they also went further as to consider Wisdom as a real person than a mere personification. They identify Wisdom/ Logos to be Christ Jesus himself ( Hebrews 1:3). 1 Corinthians 1:24 Christ, the Power and Wisdom of God ( Sophia theou) Jesus Christ himself was the one who taught this based on his very words: John 3:16,18 He claims to be the ‘only begotten Son’ sent into the world by the Father John 5:18 He claims equality in nature with 'God' because he calls him his own 'Father'. John 5:19 He claims impeccability and omnipotence by saying " whatever the Father does the Son also does in the same manner". John 5:23 He claims equality with the Father in honor. Jesus believes that he and the Father are co-equal in honor. John 5:26 He claims equality with the Father in the sort of life ( eternality- existence without beginning or end).John 8:58 He claims existence before Abraham's own existence. John 10:28-38 He claims equality with the Father in the trait of impeccability and omnipotence: (1) None of Jesus' sheep (i.e. the saints) will be apostatized and (2) He is the one who will give them eternal life (both divine trait in same verse, Deuteronomy 32:39 LXX). John 17:5 He claims to HAVE glory 'with' the Father before the world was. By putting all of these into coherency, his beloved disciple John came up with his "Prologue": John 1:1-4 ( Ps. 32:6 LXX) The Word existed with 'God' and has the “nature” of this God before creation all things through him. In him was life. John 1:14 ( Ps. 45:1 LXX, Prov. 8:22-30) The Word has the glory of being the only begotten one with the 'Father'.John 1:18( Ps. 110:3 LXX) The only begotten Word ( God in nature- monogenes theos*) or Son ( monogenes huios*) is within the bosom of the Father. * either reading supports the teaching of the Word's personhood. CONCLUSION: Jesus is equal to God in nature because he Wisdom, the eternally begotten by God: Premise 1: Wisdom is eternally begotten by God. Premise 2: Jesus is Wisdom Conclusion: Jesus is eternally begotten by God. God can be praised through Jesus while remaining purely monotheistic. Premise 1: monotheistic Jews can praise God through his WisdomPremise 2: Jesus is WisdomConclusion: monotheistic Jews can praise God through Jesus2) I agree that the 3rd clause in John 1:1 has "theos' in the qualitative sense. The Greek word "theos" is in the predicative nominative case. In Greek grammar, this denotes three things but only one of them is the correct one to be meant by John. So let's scrutinize: 1)definite ( God as noun)It can't be definite because the Word was with God2)indefinite( a god)It can't be indefinite because the Word created everything3)qualitative ( God in nature, God as adjective)This is the only one that fits both the immediate context and greater context. The Word has the nature of the God he's with. 3)The very verse you presented proves my stance: ""You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." - John 14:28 NIVWhy did Jesus say that the Father is greater than him? The context shows that it is because he is going to the Father. What then does he mean by the Father is greater than him? Based on the context it's not talking about "nature" but 'position" because Christ was on earth and the Father is in heaven that is why he is going to the Father. The verse doesn't refute the divinity of Jesus but on the contrary it proves it! It's because he call God his own Father making himself equal with God which per se an another relevant scripture within the Johannine texts (i.e. John 5:18).Is my argument sound? I do believe so. My opponent could see it for himself:""You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." - John 14:28 NIV