There are no true messianic prophecies that can be attributed to Jesus.

Thanks for this debate. Born in Bethlehem. My opponent states that the Jews understood the Messiah to have come from Bethlehem. Under what basis do you make such a claim? Micha 5:2 (ESV) "But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are too little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me who is to be a ruler in Israel, whose coming forth is from old, from ancient days. Matthew They told him, "In Bethlehem of Judea, for so this is written by the prophet: "And you, O Bethlehem, in the land of Judah, you are by no means least among the rules of Judah; from you shall come a ruler who will shepherd my people Israel" Did you notice that misquote? Micha defines it as Bethlehem Ephrathah as a clan--NOT a city! It does not matter what city or town the messiah will be born in. Rather, this texts shows where his families origins lie [1] In Hebrew, the word for Bethlehem is Beit-Lechem, the house of Lechem. It can refer to a city or a clan. We know that this case means clan because it says so. In other words, the city has nothing to do with the messiah--but the clan has everything to do with such a thing. Note the phrase: "whose origin is from old" simply means that the messiah will come from a long lineage. Note that in 6:8 "he has told you, O man, what is good, and what the L-rd requires of you: only do justice, and to love goodness, and to walk modestly with your G-d..." It does not say to worship Jesus but behave as God requires of you [2] More problems with Micha 5 The very next verse states this: "Therefore, He shall deliver them until the time a woman in confinement gives birth. And the rest of his brothers shall return upon the children of Israel." In other words, this is a prophecy that states that the Messiah will gather up the Jewish people and bring them back to their original homeland. Every Jew knows this [3]. "And he shall stand and lead with the might of the Lord, with the pride of the Lord, his God: and they shall return, for now he shall become great to the ends of the earth." The messiah is going to have the L-RD (YHWH) as his God---not be God himself. This verse prophecises that the Jews will return to the Torah worship and to full Judaism. There are many other problems, but that is just what I'm listing for this debate. Prophecy 2: the Messiah's ministry will be one of both spiritual and physical healing. I had to re-read Isaiah 35 numerous times in efforts to fully understand it. I encourage my opponent to read it in the proper translation [4] What’s going on in these passages? Well, if we read the surrounding verses, it is obvious that Isaiah is telling the people that Hashem will return them to Israel and make their enemies suffer. When the world sees what G-d has done—their eyes will be open—their ears will be open—to the glory of G-d and the fact that G-d “kept to his word” and saved the Jews. (A common theme in Isaiah). Moreover, the Messiah does not have to perform ANY MIRACLES at all [5]. That is the Jewish understanding. Rather, he must fulfill the messianic prophecies. Subsitutionary Death Isaiah 53 is one of the suffering servant songs. Who is the suffering servant? ISRAEL! “You are My servant, O Israel” (41:8) “You are My servant, Israel” (49:3) see also Isaiah 44:1, 44:2, 44:21, 45:4, 48:20 Isaiah makes it clear that Isaiah is talking about Israel. Now why would one of the suffering servant songs be referring to a messiah when the other songs are referring to the nation of Israel? Let’s take a deeper look at Isaiah 53:5-6 [6] (5) He was wounded as a result of our transgressions, and crushed as a result of our iniquities. The chastisement upon him was for our benefit; and through his wounds we were healed. This verse describes how the humbled world leaders confess that Jewish suffering occurred as a direct result of “our iniquities” – i.e., depraved Jew-hatred, rather than, as previously claimed, the stubborn blindness of the Jews. Isaiah 53:5 is a classic example of mistranslation: The verse does not say, “He was wounded for our transgressions and crushed for our iniquities,” which could convey the vicarious suffering ascribed to Jesus. Rather, the proper translation is: “He was wounded because of our transgressions, and crushed because of our iniquities.” This conveys that the Servant suffered as a result of the sinfulness of others – not the opposite as Christians contend – that the Servant suffered to atone for the sins of others. There is no need for the Messiah to atone for others because G-d will forgive all those who repent. (Isaiah 55:6-7, Jeremiah 36:3, Ezekiel chapters 18 and 33, Hoseah 14:1-3, Jonah 3:6-10, Proverbs 16:6, Daniel 4:27, 2-Chronicles 7:14). (6) We have all strayed like sheep, each of us turning his own way, and God inflicted upon him [Israel] the iniquity of us all. The nations realize that their lack of proper leadership (“shepherd”) caused them to treat the Jews with disdain. They further acknowledge how punishments that should have befallen the nations were averted through Israel’s suffering. What’s more? JESUS SINNED! Therefore, he could not have been our perfect sacrifice. Remember that Jesus is not above G-d’s law no matter how hypocritical the Pharisees were. Sin 1: Jesus took from and changed the Torah!7 Deuteronomy 13:1 All that I command you, take care to do it; you shall not add to it, and you shall not diminish from it. What did Jesus have to say about this? Matthew 5:17-19 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. For verily I say to you till heaven and earth pass, not one jot or one title shall in no wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled. Did he walk the talk? Adultery Leviticus 20:10 - And a man who commits adultery with [another] man’s wife, [he] who commits adultery with the wife of his friend, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death. Matthew 5:27-28(KJV) – (27) Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: (28) But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. [See also Jn 8:3-11[5].] In other words, a man becomes guilty of adultery even if he only thinks about desiring to be with a woman he has seen This is what the Torah says concerning this type of desire: Deuteronomy 21:10-11 – (10) When you go forth to a war against your enemies, and the L-rd your G-d has delivered them into your hands, and you have taken them captive; (11) And you see among the captives a beautiful woman and desire her, you may take her as your wife; For a man to desire a woman [ (hashaq); e.g., Gen 34:8] is not necessarily sinful. Quite to the contrary, it can be a prelude to marriage. Sources 1. http://tinyurl.com...; 2. http://tinyurl.com... 3. http://tinyurl.com...; 4. http://tinyurl.com... 5. http://tinyurl.com... 6. http://tinyurl.com...