Premarital Sex is not a Sin

"I feel like my opponent is making my case for me and let me show why. He quotes, "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." It is obvious my opponent does not understand what marriage is and specifically defines it moderately."Nope, I clearly understand what marriage is, problem is, marriage isn't mentioned in this verse, Sorry but you can't run away from this, you have to refute it, otherwise you lose(according to Rules)Another reason that people have misunderstood 1 Corinthains 7:2 is the failure to translate "have one's wife or husband" [citation needed]accurately. It means to have sex or be in a sexual relationship with someone. It doesn't mean "get a wife, so you won't have sex before marriage." Paul was saying "let every man have sex with his own woman, not with a temple prostitute." Several commentaries bring out these points:http://www.enduringword.com......;[404 - file or directory not found]The New International Commentary on the New Testament by Gordon D. FeeJohn Gill's Exposition of the Bible (first Corinthians 7:2)Only a couple of translations have made the meaning clear for us, the NetBible being an example. Here is their note on this:"Grk “each man should have his own wife.” “Have” in this context means “have marital relations with” (see the following verse). The verb O52;χ^1;τω (ecetw, “have”) occurs twice in the Greek text, but has not been repeated in the translation for stylistic reasons. This verb occurs 8 times in the LXX (Exod 2:1; Deut 28:30; 2 Chr 11:21; 1 Esd 9:12, 18; Tob 3:8; Isa 13:16; 54:1) with the meaning “have sexual relations with,” and 9 times elsewhere in the NT with the same meaning (Matt 20:23; 22:28; Mark 6:18; 12:33; Luke 20:28; John 4:18 [twice]; 1 Cor 5:1; 7:29)." [citation needed]Richard suggests that Strong's dictionary defines porneia as "all forms of sexual acts that are not within the confines of marriage" when in fact it doesn't say that at all. As evidenced in Deuteronomy 22:14, when a man paid a bridal price for a girl, she was considered his wife from that day forward; it might be over a year later before they had the marriage feast and he took her as his bride. If this betrothed girl, his legal wife, had sex before her wedding day, she was guilty of a type of adultery and suffered the consequences. Comparing that situation to Exodus 22:16-17, sex with an unbetrothed virgin, the Bible clearly teaches that pre-marital sex is not a sin. There was no punishment upon either of them. The man was forced to pay her bridal price for otherwise her family could never recover the lost money. The marriage was obligatory upon the man if the parents approved it.My opponent must refute that in order to win the debate, as RULES state, whether opponent likes it or not, rules are(which he agreed to), "Post every single proof verse against Pre-marital sex, I refute it and then you refute my rebuttals, and it goes back and forth until rounds are over or there's a winning."Refute that ^ otherwise you lose.My opponent mentions Marriage again and again and yet marriage ain't in this text, as proven from Greek, in order for my opponent to claim marriage he must refute everything proven above with no opinions, assertions, or "atheistic" bs." Because it is considered fornication, which is clearly a sin."Again, you fail to refute the previous verse and the Fact that 1 Corinthians 6 and 7 mention temple prostitution, heck Matthew 19:9 states from Jesus Christ who is God Himself, "9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery."So according to my opponent if the word Porneia means premarital sex, Matt 19:9 is rendered as,"And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for premarital sex, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery" That makes absolutely no sense, obviously the word Porneias means AT LEAST something else than Premarital sex, Sexual Immorality or AS PAUL SAID in 1 Corinthians , Prostitution.Even the word fornication stems from the word Fornix! meaning "arch", supposedly as a euphemism for "brothel", come on now, obviously Sexual Immorality or as Paul proves Prostitution.Your choice, believe in Jesus Christ and Paul(Inspiired by The Holy Spirit) who says it means Sexual Immorality or Prostitution, or believe in my opponent and his satan to an unproven "premarital sex"Keep in mind, Jesus Christ, The Holy Spirit and Paul proved it means Prostitution or Sexual Immorality, not me. " Deuteronomy 22:28-29 "28 If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.""Again a bride price is given, back then in Old Culture Law(which Paul is against, ie, Circumcision and advising people who are not married to have sex, 1 Corinthians 7:2)Use of verse dismissed."My opponent ignores the requirements in Exodus and 1 Corinthians. He even further suggest that adultery is not a sin also, which makes me question his whole understanding of the Bible."Mistake by me copying and pasting the whole thing, I actually disagree with that part, Cheating(Adultery) is a sin for everyone, argument refuted."My opponents links do not work but that is not surprising, he wants us to be deaf, dumb and blind. My opponent has run out of material because instead of addressing the rest of my passages in round 1, he ignores them completely and repeats his argument again."Get out of here, clearly said I have no more space, 8000's the limit.Notice Corinthians 6:9,10 doesn't translate prostitution? Yet YHWH is against Prostitution, Porneia is Prostitution therefore Condemned here""24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.""Notice it says the Man and His Wife, why not Husband and Wife?Also the hebrew word for wife here is ishshah which can mean, woman, since it's translated man instead of husband, we have Man and Woman, also notice NO Covenant or Ceremony is listed, satan is doomed folks." My opponent then goes on with the same thing and showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage."Lo and behold you agree that I showed that paul said people should get their own woman and man, and I quote, " showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage.""1, How does their own woman and own man mean marriage? it can mean boyfriend/girlfriend as well2, My Opponent absolutely kills himself here by admitting that I proved people should get their own woman and man, woman and man doesn't mean Wife or Man,AND I quote from previous round, "showing that Paul is saying that people should get their own woman and man, marriage." as I proved, therefore it can be Boyfriend/Girlfriend, aka, Unmarried, my opponent agrees that I proved it's Man and Woman and then assumes it means, "marriage", he assumes that man and woman mean marriage, however unless it's proven to mean Wife or Husband, he has no argument and killed himself in this debate, no reason to take his deceptions from satan serious.My opponent has lost and satan's oppression has lost.