premarital sex not forbidden by the bible

no where does the bible explicitly forbid premarital sex. The Bible states flee youthful lusts, how can you have premarital sex without youthful lust? Also it states “For all that is in the world—the desires of the flesh and the desires of the eyes and pride of life—is not from the Father but is from the world.” (1 John 2:16, ESV) How can you have premarital sex without it being a desire of the flesh? To note, while this doesn’t actually state directly premarital sex is forbidden, but Job himself made a covenant with his eyes not to gaze at virgins. “I have made a covenant with my eyes; how then could I gaze at a virgin?” (Job 31:1, ESV) The thing is, Job is like the paragon of righteousness outside of Jesus. He wouldn’t even gaze at you even if you never had sex before. "Strong's Concordance gives 19th century meanings to Greek and Hebrew words found in the Bible. It describes "pornea,"… When I looked up what your source’s source, I got a 404 error. http://freedom2201.tripod.com... Though I’m kind of skeptic. “Figuratively it means idolatry, or sexual intercourse between unmarried persons.” It itself recognizes that it can be translated as sexual intercourse. the first glaring issue is that he used adultery when he could have said fornication or something else. why is that? adultery is specific to marriage Well it’s not surprising for Jesus to say something like that if He is the God from the OT (if you acknowledge the trinity). Often times God in the OT would relate his relationship with believers like that of a marriage union, he had his prophet Hosea marry a prostitute to symbolize how Israel was playing the harlot on him, which is the basic story of the book of Hosea. Paul talked about being betrothed to one husband (Jesus) (2 Corinthians 11:2). The image is even ingrained into prophetic text of revelations (http://biblia.com...). So in some sense you do commit adultery with other women\men by looking at them with desire, because God might think its adultery against him, He is a jealous God after all. the real problem though, is a mistranslation of what Jesus said. "lust" is the same word as "covet" in biblical language. also, "woman" is the same word as "wife". Woman is woman. It’s pretty clear that woman is not a mistranslation with wife. In Greek there is no single word for “wife” like in English, in it you would have to use more words like “your\his woman” to indicate a wife (e.g. τP52;ν γυναQ50;κα αP16;τοQ66;, “the woman of him” indicates a wife). γυναQ50;κα alone means “a woman”. The reason why they translate it woman here is because it sounds just like that in Greek. Your source’s reasoning is tricky and confusing because he’s using the Greek LXX translation which is based on the Hebrew Masoretic Text while interpreting O52;πιθυμQ34;σαι from an English translation (which probably isn’t based on the Septuagint in the OT anyway). With similar reasoning of his I could point that תַחְמֹ֞ד doesn’t necessarily mean covet directly like your defining it, but means “to desire, take pleasure in” from which O52;πιθυμQ34;σαι is translated from. (Hebrew to Greek) So this would be a problem with the LXX if their is a problem, but I think that O52;πιθυμQ34;σαι can mean "desire for" :\ . The reason I think that word is translated specifically covet is because the context is talking about your neighbor’s possessions, but not necessarily because the Hebrew word itself means covet directly. http://biblehub.com... No Translator translate it that way. When I looked up how other translations translate it, all of them seem to translate it either lust or desire, there doesn’t seem to be any that say covet. Translators are the ones that know the language, apparently none that I see translate it covet. Historically speaking i know not of anyone that interpret it that way. You can do a parallel search, bible hub has one. http://biblehub.com... It's inconsitent. I would like to point that it would be inconsistent for him to mean covet here instead of lust. You shouldn’t be coveting a married woman, that’s like stating the obvious, which is the problem, stating the obvious. The rest of the text in Mathew 5 he is stating a string of highly absurd statements. In verse 32 he states “whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.” In verse 34 “Do not take an oath at all…” Verse 39 “But if anyone slaps you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also.” Verse 44 “But I say to you, Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you,” all of them is just as absurd as saying whoever looks at a woman to lust… Your source reasoning is that he’s just reaffirming what the law says, which isn’t the case with all the others. in fact, if you look up covet in the dictionary, it says "inordinate". according to Webster's dictionary "to desire (what belongs to another) inordinately or culpably" It also can mean “to wish for earnestly” in example “He won the prize they all coveted.” It doesn’t always entail ownership of another person's possesion. http://www.merriam-webster.com...