if it is true that Mary and Joseph had children as claimed by some christians

About the word until. We should understand that we are reading approximate translations. How should we understand its meaning? For example the word "until" is also found in Gn 8,7. Are we to understand that the raven continually flew back and forth until the waters dried up, which was for many days, while the dove returned to the ark as it found nowhere to perch? Now let me present my own arguments. Joseph was betrothed to Mary but before they came to live together, she was found to be with child. What a shock it must have been for Joseph. If you were in his place, how would you react? But Joseph being a man of honor, instead of exposing Mary's apparent infidelity. decided to divorce her informally. But before he could do so, it was revealed to him that it was by God's design that Mary had conceived by the Holy Spirit and was to give birth to the Jesus, his very own Savior. Therefore he was not to repudiate her, and to protect her integrity, he was to take her home and continue the pretense of being her husband. Being a God-fearing man, Joseph immediately consented to be a foster father to Jesus, but never a husband to Mary. It is the likes of him that Jesus said: "There are eunuchs born that way from their mother's womb, there are eunuchs made so by men, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves that way for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. let anyone accept this who can." Joseph was such a man. Allow me also to cite Leviticus 19,20: "If a man sleeps with a woman as though married to her, she being another's concubine slave not yet purchased or given her freedom, then the man is to be answerable for infringement of rights." Now, if this is the case with human relationships, would it not be a greater sin for Joseph to have a sexual relationship with Mary, who has been claimed by the Holy Spirit to be Its spouse, and mother of the Most High? Continuing the narration of Matthew, note that he always uses the expression, "TAKE THE CHILD AND HIS MOTHER WITH YOU," but never. "take the child and your wife with you," nor "take your wife and her child with you." And does it not seem strange that there is never a mention of their having a child born to them? Consider also the following. In John 19,25-27, we read: Near the cross of Jesus stood his mother and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary of Magdala. If it is true that Mary had other sons and daughters, were they not obliged to accompany their mother and condole with their brother? We continue to read: "Seeing his mother and the disciple he loved standing near her, Jesus said to his mother, 'Woman, this is your son'. Then to the disciple he said, 'This is your mother'. And from that moment the disciple made a place for her in his home. Did Jesus give any further instruction? NO. So if it is true that Mary had other sons and daughters, what reason would John have to make a place for Mary in his home, and why should Mary live with him? Thus I conclude that Mary was bereft of any other children and this is why John, being told that Mary was now her mother. and he being her son, was constrained to make a place for her in his home. If it is possible, I appeal to anyone who might know, I once bought a booklet which I have lost, which claims that Joseph was a widower. And if it was so, then he might have had other children which might explain why Jesus allegedly had other brothers and sisters. And perhaps this is why Joseph is pictured as a much older man than Mary. Concluding my arguments, I appeal to those who believe otherwise to give more importance to my arguments.