The Bible Does NOT say that Jesus is Almighty God in the flesh.

Con raised some good points, so I will address them before I go further. I was saying that Jesus was not born of the holy spirit, but a holy spirit. There are many holy spirits in Heaven surrounding God’s throne. As far as Gabriel saying that Jesus would be called son of God, I was talking semantics, that this was a prophecy or sorts and not a command. Isaiah 9:6--I will show later how it is possible to be a god but not the God. I accept that Jesus may properly be a deity of sorts, but that he is Almighty God is what I argue against. AKOLUTHEI--Two sources are STRONG’S Concordance and Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, both of which being tools in many pastors’ libraries. The “A” prefix to the root word is used here as a particle denoting union. The verb means to be in the same way with, or even more literally to road with, which has no meaning of following. Simple, biased definitions are not the best ones to accept. Therefore, I stand by my explanation of Jesus calling his disciples to walk along with him, or accompany him, in the way. It’s best to check as many sources as possible before coming to your conclusions. And actually, in Hebrew and Greek, the words for "God" are the same when talking about "a god" or "the God". In Hebrew, ELOHIYM (normally translated “God” in reference to THE God) is plural, so some pastors claim that this in in reference to God being three persons. However, ELOHIYM is also used in reference to Baal-Berith (Judg 9:46), Dagon (I Sam 5:7), Chemosh & Milcom (I Kings 11:13), Baal-Zebub (II Kings 1:3), and several others. So that teaching falls apart.In Greek, THEOS is used for the God, as well as Jesus and Satan (II Cor 4:3-4). The feminine is used for Diana in Acts. My point about the holy spirit was that the Jews (at least in the centuries around the time of Jesus) saw the holy spirit as an it, an inanimate thing with no life. The Greek neuter of PNEUMA HAGIOS makes this holy spirit as full of life as a table or wall. Thus, it is not a person. Hebrews 1:8--I'm glad you brought this up! This verse is a quote of Psalm 45:6-7. You must look at these verses in their context with the rest of the Psalm. This is a Psalm about King David, which is evident by the language used: it talks about the sword on his hip (vs 3), his arrows (vs 5), the smell of his garments (vs 8), his daughters and queen (vs 9), and it speaks of virgins and the resulting sons (vss 10-16). This is NOT God calling Jesus His son, though God did do as such at Jesus' baptism (Mk. 1:11). This allows me to tie in with the last point. While THEOS is used in Heb 1:8, ELOHYIM is used here in Ps 45:6, and in reference to David. This is very important. David was referred to as a god, which explains the part that says “Therefore, ELOHYIM, your ELOHYIM…” (vs 7); it’s to stress that this is talking about David’s god, not David himself. But you see, it takes an understanding of the original words to grasp this meaning: Our English word "god" ultimately comes from a verb root meaning to invoke/call. In the same way, while the surface meaning of ELOHYIM and THEOS accurately refers to a deity, the deeper meaning allows that the deity to not be supernatural. Have you ever heard of a woman referred to as a diva? It’s the same root word. Ultimately, the Hebrew words refer to a mighty one, and in fact, ELOHYIM is sometimes translated as such. Therefore, it wasn’t blasphemous to refer to David as a “god”, nor was it (as Jesus points out in John 10) blasphemous for David to refer to men as gods (Ps 82). As I pointed out earlier, Satan is called “the god of this age”. So if Satan could be called a god, and Jesus is the heir to the throne of David but over a MUCH larger kingdom now, surely so could Jesus be called a god! But my argument is that Jesus is not the God, just as David was not the God. This helps explain what Thomas was saying in John 20:28. For an easier understanding of this, let’s look at the Greek word KURIOS. It is equal to the Spanish word senior. It could mean “lord”, as in a being of great power or wealth (Lord God; lord of Scotland); or it may mean “sir” or “mister”. THEOS works in the same way.(You see, this topic takes one having to think outside of the usual church-speak.) Before I get into anything else, let’s discuss “God the Father”. Not once in the Greek do you find this phrase. It is always THEOS PATER (in its different case forms). The “the” is added. By the rules of Greek grammar, this is more accurately “Father God”, which is in line with how the Greeks referred to Zeus, ZEU PATER (“Father Zeus”), becoming in Latin “IUPITER”, and then “Jupiter” in English. So when you learn the correct term, it becomes easy to see in the Greek that God is the Father, and the Father is God. The Son is the son. Next I direct you to the beginning of nearly every epistle. Usually within the first 10 verses or so, you find something like this: “Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” (II Cor. 1:2,3) Notice how the second sentence says “the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” You find this separation of God and Jesus toward the start of most epistles. Revelation 1:1 reads, “A revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him to show his slaves things which must occur in haste…” So God gave the resurrected Jesus this revelation. Jesus was no longer an earthly human at this point, yet even here we see a separation between him and God. Vs 2: "the word of God and the witness of Jesus Christ". Also notice the language of vss 4-6. Let's look in the book of Acts. Peter's sermon in chapter 2 clearly lays everything out. Pay attention to the wording used. Verse 22 "Men, Israelites, hear these words: Jesus, the Nazorean, a man attested to you from God with deeds of power, wonders, and signs that God did through him among you as you yourselves know--" Verse 24 says that God raised Jesus from the dead. This is the formula throughout the New Testament. Not once does it say that Jesus raised himself. (Acts 2:22-24, 32, 13:30; Rom 10:9; I Cor 6:14, 15:15; II Cor 4:14; Colos 2:12; Heb 13:20-21). Something else I wish to point out is that the churches usually say that Jesus now sits on the right hand of the Father. However, this is not the language of the Bible. Acts 2:33 says that Jesus was "exalted to the right of God". (5:30-31 also says that God exalted Jesus.) In 7:55-56, it says twice that Stephen saw Jesus "standing at God's right". (Colos 3:1; Heb 10:11-12; and I Pet 3:22.) Not once does the Bible say that Jesus is at the right of the Father. In vs 36 of Acts 2, speaking of Jesus, Peter says, "Then assuredly, let all House Israel know that God made him both Lord and Anointed One, this same Jesus whom you crucified."In the last round I forgot to mention that in all three of those gospels, Jesus says, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but one--God." (Matt 19:16-17; Mk 10:17-18; Luke 18:18-19) This alludes to him not himself being God.We also see separation of God and Jesus in places such as I Tim 2:3-5, 5:21, 6:13; Rom 16:25-27; I Cor 8:4-6 ("many gods and many lords"); Eph 4:4-6; Phil 1:11, 2:11; Colos 3:17; Heb 1:1-4 (vs 4 says that Jesus became superior to the angels, implying that at one time he was not); Jude 1, 25.Earlier I said that God is the Father, and the Father is God. Further evidence is in the very last verse of II Corinthians:"The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the holy spirit be with you all".So we see not Father, Son, and Holy Spirit; but Jesus, God, holy spirit. Interesting.There are other things to look into. Before this is over, I will deal with the second chapter of Philippians and the book of John.Before I go, I give you a little bit of homework. Carefully compare I Timothy 3:16 in the KJV with any modern translation (besides the NKJV). You will see what has helped perpetuate the lie concerning who Jesus is. It really is quite sinister.