The Bible never claims to be God's infallible Word

Just because my opponent choose the debate doesn't mean he gets to change the terms of the debate in the middle of the conversation. My complaint isn't primarily about a conspiracy although there is more than just my opponents claim that the cannon was established by vote. There is also this remark: "The archaeologists found evidence that the Book of Revelation was surreptitiously put on the list at the last minute by an anonymous staffer to the Pope." This smacks of conspiracy and it's a lie. The Book of Revelation is mentioned in the Maurotorian Fragment which is a Second Century document. I didn't say I didn't want to debate the cannon rather we didn't agree to debate on the cannon. I don't appreciate being blindsided. The very title of the debate states that it's about what the Bible claims about it self. That is to say, what the internal evidence in the Scripture about the question is. Most of my opponents objections were things outside the Scripture. I defended against his attacks in a limited way because they were so easy to defend on those points. My opponent made a bunch of claims about the Greek words in the passage of Peter 2 Peter 3:16. I don't accept my opponents claims. I want links to back up his claims about the Greek texts and the meaning of those words. I don't need to resort to word salad or pretense at Greek scholarship. I can use the plain meaning of the text and parallel translations. I will rely on some of the worlds finest Greek and Hebrew Scholars for my interpretation of the passage. There is a vital word in this passage that is interpreted identically by all of the scholars involved in these translations. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the ((other)) Scriptures, to their own destruction. Some of his comments are hard to understand, and those who are ignorant and unstable have twisted his letters to mean something quite different, just as they do with ((other)) parts of Scripture. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the ((other)) Scriptures. in which are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their ((own)) destruction. in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the ((other)) Scriptures, What is that word? OTHER. The passage is speaking of Paul's teachings and then says people are twisting them, and that they do the same thing with the OTHER Scriptures. So Peter is saying what about Paul's teachings? Paul's teachings are being twisted just like the other Scriptures are being twisted. What does Peter mean by the word Scriptures? Well the word is "Grafe" as my oponent said and that is the same word Peter uses for the Old Testement earlier in his letter in 2 Peter 1:20. I will provide the strongs concordance number for people to check for themselves which is G1124. Paul's words or teachings are being put on par with the Old Testament. My opponent insists that I prove that every word of the text is from God even though I explained that that's not what Christians or Jews for that matter believe about divine revelation. It seems my opponent wants to ignore what I say and just keep on going with his own points. It is Muslims who believe that every word of the Qur'an is the revealed word of Allah. Christians and Jews believe that the Bible is inspired and divinely superintended by God into the heart and mind of His spokesman inerrant and infallibly. The message is then expressed through the author as a human being in his words. This doctrine is called "Sitz im Leben" being translated from German it means "Setting in life". So the final product is inerrant and infallible and also human and divine. My opponent is also rather selective in his quote of Paul. He quotes: 1 Corinthians 7:12 To the rest I say this (I, not the Lord): If any brother has a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to live with him, he must not divorce her. but he fails to quote: 1 Corinthians 7:10 To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. This entire passage supports the very doctrinal position I've been stating the whole time. I hope this finally puts to rest this objection about every word having to be stated by God.