Homosexuality is not a sin

My opponent continues to make many excuses irrelevant to the concept. There is the Greek bible, and the English bible, and all the bibles. We are looking at the English bible, for it is the only one we understand. So, if it says homosexuality is a sin in the English bible, I have already proven IT IS A SIN. Translation is irrelevant, because if it was relevant, the verses you have posted are also incorrect, because they weren't translated properly. Homosexual was a word in Hebrew at the time, you have no proof supporting it wasn't, or that homosexual came into the bible in 1964. The word for homosexual in Hebrew is "הומוסקסואל" Now let's go along with your excuses, and pretend that homosexual isn't in Hebrew. There are still verses about homosexuality, without using the word homosexual. 1 Timothy 1:8-10 "Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it lawfully, understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine ... (ESV)" In this verse, it also says "Sexually immoral". To be homosexual, play with thy self etc. [1] So even without the word homosexual, homosexuality still appears in the bible, as I have already proven. My opponent can not go against this, because it is FACT. And about these verses about law. "Galatians 5:14 says, "For the entire law is fulfilled in keeping this one command: "Love your neighbor as yourself." and Romans 10:4, "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth." Yes, it says to love each other, and that it's the end of the law. But this does not mean something is not a sin, it means he will forgive someone for sinning. It says in the old testament not to kill. Now that the law is gone, does it mean murder is no longer a sin? Of course not! Same goes for homosexuality. The fact that it even appears in the new covenant proves my points. 1) homosexuality is condemned in the bible 2) homosexuality is in the new covenant, and old covenant. So in both testaments, homosexuality is condemned. It was a word in Hebrew, which means it was a proper translation. And even if it wasn't (even though it was) they used other ways to explain homosexuality in the bible including "Sexually immoral". I have proven my point every single round, an my opponent made up various excuses to counter them, which didn't work as you can see. I have proven my point, and countered his arguments. Translation has nothing to do with it, since he asked me to prove it's a sin NOW. Because of such, his excuse of translation is irrelevant, and also false, as I have already proven. It is backed up by no proof I proved it was in the Bible. I proved the bible condemns it. I proved his translation excuses are false. I already proved my point every round. He on the other hand proved nothing. Can you disprove it was in the bible? No you can't because it is in the bible as i have already proven. He is unable to prove any further contentions, because my statements are fact. sources: 1. http://christianity.stackexchange.com...