Premarital Sex is not a Sin

1 Corinthians 7 King James Version (KJV) "7 Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. " I should give a proper interpretation of the wording used here. If my opponent is right and the Corinthians asked "It is good for a man not to touch a woman," then why does it not have question mark at the end(like so)? Why does it not have the statement in parenthesis? Also, if one asked a question then it would began with 'Is it' not 'It is', 'It is' is a statement not a question. The colon mark shows that Paul was addressing the question(unwritten here), with a answer. The next verse starts with 'nevertheless' linking it to another statement made. Where is the statement if 'it is good a man not to touch a woman' is not it? Nope, my opponent is wrong, This is a statement made by Paul to the Corinthians and verse 2 connects to that statement with 'nevertheless'. My opponent said, "NO translator translates this as if Paul says it", well I found many that do and here they are: . http://www.christnotes.org... . http://www.spiritandtruth.org... . http://barnes.biblecommenter.com... Let's say that he is right, does this change or make sex without marriage not a sin? No! This is semantics. Even if Pro is correct in this instance, Paul still tells them to get married to avoid fornication. These verses connects pre-marital sex to fornication. "24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. "" My opponent claims no covenant is listed but was a covenant listed for original sin and its consequences? No, a statement by God was made, this was a commandment to Adam. Are we to say that God made a commandment to Adam which is the man and not to all men? This verse kills my opponents whole case, God shows the desire and design by him for a man and woman to be together, in marriage, to have children, and to stay one flesh. He says that 'one flesh' means sex but that is incorrect. A family is considered one body and therefore this is the means in this context, 'a man shall leave his first family and begin his own and they shall be one flesh, one body, a new family. ' . http://www.barrybiblicalnotes.com... "Ephesians 5:23, "For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. " My opponent distorts the meaning of marriage and the body of Christ. As Christ is the head of the body and the Church is the body, we are one flesh with Christ. Is my opponent suggesting that Jesus refers to sex? Is Jesus saying that He and the church will have sex? Or can we be with other religions and not be apart of that marriage with Him? My opponents thinking is flawed. In 1 Corinthians 6:16, my opponent suggest it is talking about just sex but it is much more. In 1 Corinthians 6:16, it is describing that someone for Jesus is one flesh with him but one who fornicates with a whore is one flesh with the whore and not Christ. In Corinthians it is reminding them of their wives and Christ and that they are one flesh with them(which is pure), but if they choose to have sex with a prostitute then they are one flesh with corrupted flesh. . http://www.bible.ca... My opponent offers us a link that supposedly shows pre-martial sex as a positive, well lets look at the link: I quote, "you may write your own ending, to match your own religious standards! " A kind of odd statement when trying to find truth, 'just make your own. ' Let's just look at the standard version of interpretation: Barnes' Notes on Song of Solomon 8:8 A brief dialogue commencing with a question and answer probably made by brothers of the bride concerning a younger sister who will soon be old enough to be asked in marriage. The answer is given in the form of a parable: "If she be a wall," i. e. , steadfast in chastity and virtue, one on whom no light advances can be made, then let us honor and reward her. This fortress-wall shall be crowned as it were with a tower or battlement of silver. But "if she be a door," light-minded and accessible to seduction Proverbs 7:11-12, then let us provide against assailants the protection of a cedar bar or panel. Wesley's Notes on Song of Solomon 8:8 8:8 We - These are still the words of the bride. The present church, which was that of the Jews, speaks of a future church, which was to consist of the Gentiles, which she calls little, because she was the younger sister, and then scarce had a being; and she calls her sister to intimate that the Gentile - church should be admitted to the same privileges with the Jews. She hath - No grown and full breasts, as virgin have when they are ripe for marriage. . http://www.godvine.com... Neither talks about anything my opponent is suggesting. No where is it suggesting pre-marital sex and in fact says to lock up the girl that is easy to be seduced. My opponent seems stuck on today's version of getting married but that is not what marriage is throughout history. I can take a woman, live with her and have children with her, but never go to a court and marry her, I am still considered married to her by common-law. The Bible makes it clear to devote yourself to one woman and only one. This devotion to another is marriage regardless of how we see marriage today. My opponent also never shows us one time in the Bible that boyfriends and girlfriends are mentioned. Furthermore my opponent never gives us any definition of marriage from the Bible. The Bible simply considered marriage as a man and woman who made a commitment to one another for life, as one flesh. MAN- (1) : an individual human; especially : an adult male human (2) : a man belonging to a particular category (as by birth, residence, membership, or occupation) —usually used in combination man> (3) : husband (4) : lover . http://www.merriam-webster.com... Woman- 5- a chiefly dialect : wife b : mistress c : girlfriend 2 . http://www.merriam-webster.com... In fact a man and woman do mean husband and wife. Pro says that Porneia is the word used in 1 Corinthians 6 but it derives from two different words in Hebrew, Taznuth and Zanah. The Hebrew " taznuth " and the Greek " Porneia " do have several meanings. Taznuth: fornication . http://biblesuite.com... Zanah: to commit fornication, be a harlot . http://biblesuite.com... Porneia is not used but once in 1 Corinthians 6. The other words used in 1 Corinthians 6 in Greek for fornication or sexually immoral or harlot or homosexuals are: Porne-Harlot, Pornoi-whoremongers and fornicators, Arsenokoitai-homosexuals, and Pornes- members of harlots. Only once is Porneia actually presented in 1 Corinthians 6 and it is used for sexual immorality. It is easy to see that if Porneia was for Harlots then it would been used several times. I have shown multiple words used for Harlot, Prostitute and whoremongers, none are Porneia. Matter of fact a harlot, whore or prostitute are not just for standing on the corner women but also a promiscuous woman, debasement, or to lower character. . http://www.merriam-webster.com..., . http://www.merriam-webster.com..., . http://www.biblestudytools.com...... I did not have to prove my case, my opponent needed to show that sex without marriage not a sin. He has not did that. Did he convince you that pre-marital sex is not a sin? If he did then vote for him but if he did not vote for Con. Thanks.