The Old Testament/Law of Moses was done away by the death of Jesus Christ

What needs to be proven I really shouldn't have to show anything other then Jesus's words that he isn't going to do away with the Laws of Moses, to prove he didn't do away with the law of Moses. Until my opponent shows that the verse is mistranslated, Jesus was a liar or Jesus was mistaken, then I shouldn't have to address anything else. If you can't get past that one piece of evidence, than you can't win this debate regardless of what other verses pulled from the Bible, from people who aren't Jesus say. The fact that you would take the word of a disciple of Jesus over the actual words of Jesus is disturbing to say the least. Rebuttals 2 Corinthians 3 The chapter is long but I encourage everyone to read it to confirm what I'm saying. What the author of this chapter is saying is that the spirit of the law needs to be obeyed. The Author discusses a veil that remains over the Pharisees that prevent them from seeing past the letter of the law. It pretty much says that if you come to Christ that the veil is removed and you can see beyond the letter of the law and see the spirit of it. This in no way discusses the abolishment of the Law of Moses. Instead it discusses a deeper understanding of the Laws of Moses. Acts 3:19 Repent, then, and turn to God, so that your sins may be wiped out, that times of refreshing may come from the Lord, This discusses blotting out sins. How would you interpret this as saying it blots out th Laws of Moses. Colossians 2:13-14 "13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made you[a] alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross The legal indebtedness that is being referred to is original sin among others. He died to replace the sacrifices of animals and also he died to erase our debt of death caused by original sin. Below is a link that shows how some scholars interpret this verse. You would be hard pressed to find a biblical scholar who believes this verse is about abolishing the Laws of Moses. http://m.biblestudytools.com... Ephesians 2:15 "15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, thus making peace," This is discussing erasing ceremonial law. It really has nothing to do with moral laws. The moral laws in the Laws of Moses are distinct from the ceremonial laws and some of the other ordinances. The point of Jesus's return was to be the last blood sacrifice and to give people a deeper knowledge of the Laws of Moses. A lot of stuff gets lost in translation, but it's very important to try and understand the message the original author was intending to send. http://preceptaustin.org... Hebrews 7:12 "12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law." The change of the law being discussed here is judicial law. This is not moral law. The law of Moses is not abolished in this verse here. Judicial law is what was handed down specifically to the tribe of Jew Moses was leading. The laws being changed here are things like marriage laws, divorce laws, some ceremonial stuff, and punishments to be doled out to offending parties. http://m.biblestudytools.com... Colossians 1:12-14 This discusses how Jesus saved man by dying for our sins. It in no way discusses abolishing the laws of Moses. Ephesians 1:7 "7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;" Again this doesn't show that the Laws of Moses were abolished. It merely shows Jesus died on the cross for our sins. Romans 3:21-26 I have no ideal how these verses prove that The Laws of Moses were abolished please explain. Romans 5:19-21 This verse also does nothing to show the Laws of Moses have been abolished. Does my opponent believe he can just throw out random bible verses and I will accept without looking them up, as proof of his position. 2 Corinthians 5:21 "21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." Once again another bible verse saying we are saved through Jesus. These verses do nothing to support the claim that the Laws of Moses have been abolished. I am utterly baffled as why my opponent is quoting them as proof of his position. I don't have much room left, but I have addressed almost every verse my opponent has provided. He has failed to provide any evidence that supports his claim.