The Bible condones slavery

Thanks to my opponent for his rebuttal. To begin, I want to clarify that at no point in his opening statement in round one did my opponent specify that we are debating slavery as it was practiced from the 17th to 19th century. The agreed upon definition of slavery is "the outright ownership of another person, for no other reason but that a person paid to own them, or abducted them and held them as slaves," with no specifics on times or places of slavery. As I stated in the previous round, we are discussing whether or not the bible condones slavery. The bible is made up of many books that often have little to do with other books and often contradict what is said in other books. We are not arguing that parts of the bible condemn slavery, because it is very clear that it does. This argument is geared towards whether or not the bible "condones" slavery; meaning that it forgives, approves or allows something (that is considered wrong) to continue. In my opening arguments I showed two verses where the bible clearly condones slavery. In Leviticus 25:44-46, it allows/approves of the act of buying slaves. In Exodus 21:20-21, it forgives a slave owner of an action done to his slave. If there is no punishment for beating your slave nearly to death, there is clearly no punishment for owning your slave either. Nowhere in our discussion is it relevant what type of people the slaves are, nor whether or not they are deserving of slavery. We are talking about the bible condoning "the outright ownership of another person, for NO OTHER REASON but that a person paid to own them, or abducted them and held them as slaves." My opponent made it very clear in his opening statement that the reasons for owning their slaves are irrelevant to this debate, only that one person owns another person. My opponent again veers off topic by stating that the "Old Testament Law also went out of [its] way to ensure the humane treatment of these slaves." If anything, this statement does nothing more than aid my argument. If the bible has listed out rules as to how to treat your slaves, it clearly condones slavery. The government would not release detailed instructions on how to humanely kill someone, unless they condone killing people. My opponent needs to show that the bible does not condone slavery. He needs to show that the sources that I provide that show the bible condoning "the outright ownership of another person, for no other reason but that a person paid to own them." Yes, there are various types of slavery that exist. Yes the bible outlines humane (although allowing a slave to be beaten nearly to death is not all that humane) ways to treat your slaves in certain parts. Yes the bible condemns slavery in other books. But the overall fact is that there are most definitely portions of the bible that condone slavery. I have not provided any further resources because my singular source here is the bible. The question asks if the bible condones slavery and I have provided biblical evidence that it does. No amount of Christian apologetic sites that try their hardest to redefine every word until they no longer mean the same thing will change the evidence of the bible condoning slavery. Of course the bible says nothing about 17th century African slaves working on the American plantations, but trying to shift the goal posts like that just takes away from the debate at hand.