Jesus is God

I am sorry for not posting my refutations againts my opponent. There had been a devastating tymphoon [ Rammasun] that hit my area [ Metro, Manila Philippines] that caused brownout for several days. My internet connection just got fix just this afternoon of 07/25/2014. Those are not just random laws, they are Laws of Logic and they are axioms, they are true in all times, in all places, for everyone and everything. If something contradicts these Laws, then that something is just wrong. So when you say Jesus is dependent, by definition he is not God, because only God is independent, or when Jesus said he doesn’t have any authority, and everything he has was given to him, by definition he is not God, because God has the All Authority, and no one can give to God any Power or Authority.Of course, these laws are always true in our natural world. God is beyond this world. He's a transcended being. This is Christian Theology per-se. Jesus, being dependent of the Father both in nature and authority does not mean that he is not one in nature with the Father but rather, it only reinforces the fact that his true Son-ship is the evidence of his true Godhood ( John 10:28-30).If you say Jesus was divine and entered into this world by taking human form, then at the time he entered into this world, he became dependent on every Laws of Universe, Logic, and etc. (including Law of Non-Contradiction) so by definition he cannot be God.Yes. I agree but not using your innate ability does not mean you lose it. The Scriptures plainly states that Jesus only unclothed his God-form by taking on Slave's-form ( Philippians 2:6-7). When you unclothe you are just not using the clothe you own.And also, 1 Corinthians 15:24 says, - “Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.” So Jesus will return everything to God, which means nothing will left for Jesus, which means god who has nothing is not god.1 Corinthians 15:24 does not say that Christ will return "everything" to God. It only says he will hands over "the kingdom" to God. Nothing more, nothing else.John1:1 – When Christians say God, they mean The Father, The Holy Spirit and The Son, therefore John1:1 should be read as, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with The Father, The Holy Spirit and The Son, and the Word was The Father, The Holy Spirit and The Son.” Now it is quadrat. If you say here God refers to The Father, you have to prove it based on evidence. (Evidence: the available body of facts indicating proposition is true.)According to the context of the texts in question, here's the evidence that the Father is the God whom the Word was with in the beginning:John 1:1In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.John 1:14The Word became human and lived among us. We saw his glory. It was the glory that the Father shares with his only Son, a glory full of kindness and truth.John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.John1:1,14,18, John3:16,18 don’t prove or even suggest that Jesus is eternal, there is no way of getting such information from these verses, in this universe. But John1:18 says very interesting thing (which is true) “No one has seen God”- therefore Jesus cannot be God, because he wasn’t an invisible man. And none of them are words of Jesus, but author's. (Who is the author?!)Finish the text. Remember that a text without a context is just a pretext. John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. ---> Yes. no one has seen God but the Son, being God by nature, reveals God based on this verse. Check out John 14:9John 1:1In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God. ---> In this verse, Jesus is shown to be with the Father before everything came into existence ( v. 3). Immortal – Jesus is not immortal, because Bible says he died. And Immortality doesn’t apply to resurrected beings. Simply because, immortal means one who exempt from dead, and to be resurrected one needs to die. They are mutually exclusive.The Word who was God became flesh ( John 1:1,14). Jesus is immortal in his divinity while mortal in his humanity. Human death mean separation of both human body and human soul ( Genesis 2:7 ---> James 2:26). At human death, Jesus did not cease to exists. Jesus doesn’t have independent existence, how did you get that? It is heretical to say that, even according to Bible. Because if Jesus has independent existence, therefore He is an independent god. Which also means there are more than one independent gods.He is. Independent existence or self-existence is an attribute of the Son of God. In fact, he himself said it so in John 5:26. Equal to God in nature – Instead of God let’s use The Father, The Holy Spirit and The Son. “Equal to The Father, The Holy Spirit and The Son.”Paradox – Do you even know what Paradox is?! (I just shot myself.)I know what Paradox is but what are you trying to say here? “John 17:2 only speaks of God giving his Son,” – Pro.By definition, one who is given an authority cannot be god, because God has All authority, no one gives to God an authority, and God cannot be given an authority.That is your own private interpretation. The God we are talking about is the God of the Christian Bible.God has a Son and a Spirit and it does not make God two or three for God's nature is one. The Scriptures speaks of "One God, three Persons" ( Matthew 28:19). The Trinity doctrine is very logical. There are not three natures that exist but only one and not only one person that exists but three. We do not teach either Tritheism or Pantheism but rather, we only teach Trinitarianism. Actually, I said it to you before and saying it again, the NT is in Greek, OT is in Hebrew, therefore you cannot equate the English translation of verses from separate testaments, simply because even so there translation is same or similar, in their original language, this words has different context. Therefore “I am,” or “My hand” means nothing.My opponent has ignored the obvious allusion of Jesus' words to the OT Scriptures. The writers of the NT Scriptures itself quotes and alludes many times in the OT. My opponent's stance holds no water and is null and void. “John 10:28-30 — I GIVE THEM ETERNAL LIFE, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of MY HAND. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my FATHER’S HAND. I AND THE FATHER ARE ONE.”Deuteronomy 32:39 — 'See now that I, I am He, AND THERE IS NO GOD BESIDES ME; It is I who put to death and GIVE LIFE. I have wounded and it is I who heal, And there is no one who can deliver from MY HAND.”May the readers be edified in the truth.