There are proofs supporting the belief that the Quran is from Allah

I wish to thank my partner for being willing to engage in this debate with me. Before I refute my partner’s case for the Qur’an, I’d like to take a few moments and make a very brief case against the Qur’an. The Case against the Qur’an IS THE QUR’AN THE WORD OF GOD? There are several passages in the Qur’an which cannot possibly be the Word of God. Such a case is in the opening sura called the Fatihah: In the name of the Merciful and Compassionate God. Praise belongs to God, the Lord of the Worlds, the merciful, the compassionate, and the ruler of the Day of Judgment! Thee we serve and Thee we ask for aid. Guide us in the right path, the path of those Thou art gracious top not of those Thou art wroth with, nor of those who err. These words are addressed to God in the form of a prayer. They cannot be the word of God because God does not pray to himself. Why would God be praising himself as God? Why would he address himself as the ruler of the Day of Judgment? It makes no sense. To remove such difficulty, one only needs to add the imperative “say” at the beginning of the sura. The word “say” appears more than 350 times in the Qur’an and it is obvious that some of those times were interpolated. THE FOREIGN VOCABULARY OF THE QUR’AN The Qur’an tells us that it is an Arabic Qur’an (12.1) and anyone who pretends that there is in the Qur’an anything but Arabic has made such a serious charge against God. The difficulty is, there are t least 275 words that cannot possibly be pure Arabic. For example, the word Qur’an itself comes from Syriac. (Warraq, 2003)[1] VERSES MISSING, VERSES ADDED There is a tradition that Aisha, the Prophet’s wife, that there was a ‘verse of stoning,” where stoning was prescribed as punishment for fornication—a portion which is now lost. Why is it that the Qur’an now only prescribes 100 lashes? If the story is not true, then why is it that Islamic law (even today) decrees stoning when the Qur’an demands flogging? Consequently, over 100 verses are missing. Any interpolation or change to the text of the Qur’an is fatal to the dogma that states that the Qur’an is purely the word of God. For that, we have a story of a scribe named Abd Allah b. Sa’d Abi Sarh:[2] The last named had for some time been one of the scribes employed at Medina to write down the revelations. On a number of occasions he had, with the Prophet’s consent, changed the closing words of a verse. When the Propeht had said “And God is mighty and wise,” Abd Allah suggested writing down, “knowing and wise” and the Prophet answered that there was no objection. Having observed a succession of changes of this type, Abd Allah renounced Islam on the ground that the revelation, if from God, could not be changed at the prompting of a scribe such as himself. After his apostasy he went to mecca and joined the Qorayshites. Needless to say, Muhammad (p) had him assassinated once Mecca was captured. Abd Allah had the right to apostasy, and he has firm ground on the rejection of Islam. The Qur’an tells us that it is perfect and the Qur’an as we have it today was from heaven. So, this begs the question: How could the Prophet (p) allow such a change to the Qur’an? Because first round is only for opening arguments, I'll leave it as this. I'll refute my partner's case in the next round. [1] Warraq, I. (2003). Why I am Not a Muslim. Amherst, New York, United States: Prometheus Books. [2] Ali Dashti, p. 98 quoted by Warraq, I, p.114