God has predestined before the foundation of the world who would be saved (Calvinistic Soteriology).

Alright, again, another well thought out response. I will attempt to respond to it all. The first definition of Calvinism that you gave, you gave by saying, "You have no choice, if you're gong to be saved you can't resist and if you're going to hell there is no hope, you have no choice!" I have some big problems with that. If you are going to hell, you are right, there is no hope within yourself. It is also true that you have no choice, because dead people don't choose (Ephesians 2). Babies don't choose to be born (John 3). Interesting examples that Paul and Jesus use. Examples that put us in a spot where we are totally helpless. So, we are totally dependent on Jesus to make us alive (Ephesians 2) so that we can see again (2 Corinthians 4) and we can believe. You don't have a choice until the hope of heaven intervenes on your behalf, as he did with Lydia in Acts 16. I believe that what I just said is pretty clear throughout the Bible and is therefore the Christian message. Now, as far as your reference to Pharaoh, when it comes to your molinistic interpretation of what happened to Pharaoh, that couldn't be any further from what Paul said, "For this purpose I have raised you (Pharaoh) up that I might show my wrath in you." Sounds like to me that the only reason Pharaoh had the power that he had was because God sovereignly decreed that it would be so. Certainly, I believe pharaoh chose evil, but because it was the story line of humanity. Just like when you watch a movie and the actor chooses to do something, ultimately you know that what that actor does and doesn't do is up to the writer of the movie, but it doesn't change the fact that the actor chose to do what he or she did. In your interpretation of God's choosing of Jacob referenced by Paul in Romans 9, it seems like to me that you are reading things into the text that aren't there. Remember, that as Paul was writing Romans 9, two times he brings up hypothetical questions that he knew the Church at Rome would ask due to the way he was teaching the doctrine of election. The first time he asks theses questions was in reference to God choosing Jacob and hating Esau before they were born and had done nothing good or bad. Paul assumes that after saying this, the church of Rome would ask, "What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!" -Romans 9:14. Then after Paul quotes God by saying, "For this purpose I have raised you (Pharaoh) up, that I might show my wrath in you." He again assumes that the Church at Rome will ask, "You will say to me then, Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will? But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, 'Why have you made me like this?'" -Romans 9:19-20. You have to be careful that when reading, interpreting, and talking about Romans 9, you don't do so in such a way that takes the offense out of it. You know you are teaching the doctrine of election the way Paul taught it when people respond with the same questions that he assumed they would ask him as a result. Seems to me that if we approach Romans 9 with your philosophy, then we take all the offense out of it that Paul knew would be there. If God did everything he did in Romans 9 just because he "knew" what would happen, then those hypothetical questions would be pointless because we could understand that. But the text doesn't say that the reason God did what he did was because he just "knew." That's reading something into the text that isn't there. When you are teaching the doctrine of election and people respond by saying something like, "I don't think God would do that," it is a good indicator you are teaching election the way Paul taught it. I think the verses you referenced (Romans 6:23, 2 Corinthians 4:4 & 6, Acts 16:14 and Romans 1) don't directly speak of the sovereignty of God over salvation, but certainly lead us there. I'm sorry I wasn't more clear about this in my last post, I will try to clarify: Romans 6 talks to us about being a slave to sin. When referencing Romans 6, I was simply saying that we dont have free will in the since that we are not free to choose God. Not because God has enslaved our will, but because sin has. God gave Adam and Eve free will, they chose sin and sin enslaved their will. We have no one to blame but ourselves when it comes to our enslaved will. And remember, we are not victims of adams sin, but partakers. In 2 Corinthians 4:6 Paul quotes God from Genesis 1, "Let light shine out of darkness." Our lives are full of darkness due to sin. Just as soverignly as God said let there be light in Genesis 1, so he soverignly says, "Let there be light" in the believers life and then he believes. When the sinner sees the depth of his sin, that is light. When the sinner sees his need of a savior, that's light. I'm asking, how did the sinner get that light? He got the light soveriengly through God. Acts 16:14 talks of God opening Lydia's heart to understand what Paul was saying. Why couldn't Lydia understand? She couldn't understand because her mind was clouded by sin. As long as Lydia's mind was clouded by sin, she couldn't believe. But God soverignly intervened on her behalf. What did Lydia do for God to open up her understanding to Paul? She did nothing. God just did it because he was pleased to do it. I do appreciate you bringing up Romans 1 even though I didn't reference that. I do believe that is why some are going to go to hell, because God is going to hand them over to their wills/sin. He did that with Adam, Pharoah, and he does it with sinners. That perfectly explains what I said when I said, "If we go to hell, it is our fault. If we go to Heaven, it is because of Jesus." I responded to just about everything I believe. Thank you for responding to my question, "Why are you saved?". I have another question, please respond if you will. Why did you choose God and others (who are still in their sin) haven't chosen God?