According to the Bible (Old and New Testament), Jesus is God

Thank you Longear for your contribution.I will break down round three in the following way:(1) Refutations(2) Further Evidence for my Initial Claim(1) RefutationsCon cites John 5:19 and asks, “If Jesus was God, how is it that he cannot operate autonomously from the Father's will?” The simplest answer to this question would be that it is impossible for Jesus to act outside of the will of the Father as the Son and Father are of one being but two separate persons. Since this debate does not allow for a response within the framework of a Trinitarian view point, though, this question is a Trinitarian question, this question can only be vaguely answered in that for Jesus to separate his will from the Father’s will would be to ignore his nature within his deity. Interestingly enough, John 5:18-23 further shows Jesus’ deity in that it expresses (1) they have the same purpose (v. 19), (2) the same power (v. 20-22), and (3) the same honor (v. 23). Con proceeds to cite John 14:28, "The Father is greater than I”, which is a common objection, but answered by the apostle Paul in Philippians 2:5-8, “Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant,being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.” Not only does this counter the objection raised by Con, it further proves that Christ is God. Breaking it down we see several things:(1) “He was in the form of God”, which alludes to his two natures (a) humanity and (d) deity(2) “He did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant”, which is the answer to Con’s question, that he humbled himself for the sake of his earthly ministry.(3) “being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form”, God was ‘born in the likeness of men’ and ‘found in human form’.There is much more that could be drawn from that text for this purpose, however, I digress. Lastly, Con presents Hebrews 4:15 and James 1:13 and asks, “How could Jesus have been tempted if he was God?” I must admit I have not heard this argument before, but it is interesting to say the least. However, there is an answer within the person of Jesus Christ. Being fully human and fully God simultaneously allows for the temptation of his human nature. Hebrews 4:15 alludes to the high priest who is a man, and James 1:13 alludes to God. The fact that Jesus did not sin actually shows his deity, and the fact that he could be tempted shows his humanity. However, as this gets into the function of his two natures (which would inevitably lead down the path of discussing debatable issues regarding the hypostatic union), we can actually reference back to Philippians 2:5-8, which again expresses this humanity. In regards to Hebrews 4:15, to be a high priest you would have to be a man as well.One other means for addressing this is looking at James’ writing and noting that he is addressing God who has no needs unmet. However, the temptation of Jesus was that of physical and psychological needs (hunger, fatigue, and the desire for self-preservation). This again, stresses the two natures of Christ under federal headship replacing Adam in his humanity.(2) Further Evidence for my Initial ClaimMy claim was regarding the verse found in Jude verse 5, which I believe to be conclusive is a beautiful testimony of Christ being God. While there are many other evidences I could provide, I desire to hammer down on this verse due to objections that could arise in the realm of textual criticism.Some may question the rendering of this verse in the ESV, however, manuscript evidence proves that it is long overdue. Nestle and Aland in their Greek Text, Novum Testament Graece (27, 28 editions) agree as we can see in their rendering of verse 5 in Jude, "P25;πομνQ34;σαι δP50; P17;μQ18;ς βοa3;λομαι, εO84;δa2;τας P17;μQ18;ς O41;παξ π^0;ντα P05;τι *O92;ησοQ66;ς* (Jesus) λαP56;ν O52;κ γQ34;ς ΑO84;γa3;πτου σa4;σας τP56; δεa3;τερον τοP58;ς μP52; πιστεa3;σαντας O36;πa4;λεσεν" IWe will see “Lord” (κa3;ριος) in this verse in other translations to which it is important to note that Kurios is a term, highly, and often attributed to Jesus.What manuscripts contain the rendering Jesus? Well, most of the early witnesses including; A, B, 33, 81, 1241, 1739, 1881, 2344, pc, vg, co, Or1739mg, 88, 322, 323, 424c, 665, 915, 2298, eth, Cyr, Hier, Bede (all can me examined here: http://www.csntm.org...)What about manuscripts more commonly known? P72, Codex Vaticanus, Codex Alexandrinus, the Bohairc Copic, and the Latin Vulgate all have a rendering indicating "Jesus" (while P72 says God Christ).P72’s rendering is very intriguing within itself, as it would be known as God the Anointed, or God the Messiah. The Latin Vulgate was the people’s bible for many centuries after being translated by Jerome.I now hand over the round to Con. Thank you. NA28: http://www.nestle-aland.com... P72: http://www.csntm.org... Codex Vaticanus: http://digi.vatlib.it... Latin Vulgate: http://www.latinvulgate.com...