God of the Bible is evil

Apparently rebuking me and insulting me is a valid rebuttal against my first argument. There is no need to be shallow when reading the Bible that was supposed to be inspired by the all-powerful creator of the universe. The stories that I'm referring to are metaphors with underlying messages?? Ok. Leviticus 25:44-46: "However, you may purchase male or female slaves from among the foreigners who live among you. You may also purchase the children of such resident foreigners, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat your slaves like this, but the people of Israel, your relatives, must never be treated this way." Were they metaphorically enslaved? What's the underlying message? Exodus 21:7-11: "When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment. " Were they metaphorically sold? According to my opponent, God metaphorically allowed the following to take place, or has an underlying message: "And in case a man strikes his slave man or his slave girl with a stick and that one actually dies under his hand, that one is to be avenged without fail. However, if he lingers for a day or two days, he is not to be avenged, because he is his money."(Exodus 21: 20-21 ) I wonder what underlying message is contained in that one, that the rod might have been made of gold or something? Were they metaphorically beaten with a rod? So the basic principle (since my opponent tells me their supposed to be a principle learned here) is that God allowed his people, ancient Israelites, to enslave neighboring nations around about without their consent. Also they may be viciously beaten without being held accountable as long as the slave doesn't die from his/her injuries. That they are to be treated as "property"? Property like cattle? Are labeled as an inheritance to pass along to the next generation? Also, God allowed Fathers to sell their daughters into slavery in order to gain a prophet or to get out of debt? Where's the underlying principle there? Would this be acceptable in today's society? Or is this a metaphor, if so for what? It's amazing that you're going to Catholic Church, studying for 11 years thus far, and all this time I'm certain you've come to the conclusion that God is all-powerful, all-knowing, etc. yet ask yourself the following: "How would a creator that supposed to have created the known universe, according to the Bible, wasn't able to provide a simple effective method in where those that were starving, needed money, could have been employed by the Hebrews with paid labor, instead of being forced into enslavement. I'm sure you'll cover the scripture Exodus 21:2-6 in where the slave supposedly loves his master and is wanting to remain a slave until his death. I'll reserve that for the next round. I understand that some of the main stories of the Bible are taken as metaphors (i.e. The flood, Job, etc.) yet even though they might be, but you're telling me that I should understand that God easily gives up on humanity, kills everything on this planet, including thousands of innocent animals who've done nothing wrong, allows babies to suffer a horrific way to die by drowning, not to mention unborn babies, yet claiming to be all-powerful but couldn't find another method on how to rehabilitate humankind and needs rainbows to remind him to not destroy the world using water? I'm not rebutted my friend on the contrary you're being dishonest because you know the atrocities that the Bible contains yet your quick to defend saying that its all metaphors, parables with underlying messages. Tell me, when Jesus was said to be crucified, what was the message of that metaphor? Clearly, he wasn't literally crucified since it's a metaphor. It probably just means that he became so radical that followers dismissed him and his ideas, resulting in a metaphorical "rejection, condemnation and death." When the bible says that he "rose from the dead," again it's a metaphor, so it probably means that he atoned for making up stories about god, admitted that he had no special connection to god, that he apologized, and was forgiven and re-accepted by the local community. When the bible says "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is an abomination." You need to ask, "since this is a metaphor and not to be interpreted literally, what does it mean?" I'm trying to be consistent with your statement that the Bible is to be taken as metaphor, yet I'm sure you'll argue that some are while others aren't, how do you determine that? Where do you draw the line that they are metaphors with underlying messages? I look forward to your response....