The Bible Teaches the Trinity, namely, God is three Persons

Prayers to Jesus The "me" in John 14:14 clearly shows Jesus instructed us to pray to him, and in the following link all the manuscripts and internal evidence supporting this reading is thoroughly discussed. http://www.google.com... The correct reading isn"t determined by listing off modern translations as Con did in round 2, but by examining the early manuscripts from which Bibles are translated in the first place. The "me" is found not only in the oldest manuscripts, but in three separate families of manuscripts, showing it very unlikely to be an interpolation or copyist error. I gave the names of manuscripts in round 1. Further, I gave other verses where prayer is given to Jesus to which Con didn"t respond. "And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son (JESUS). Whoever has the Son (JESUS) has life; whoever does not have the Son of God (JESUS) does not have life. I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God (JESUS) that you may know that you have eternal life. And this is the confidence that we have toward him (JESUS), that if we ask anything according to his will he (JESUS) hears us. And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the requests that we have asked of him." (1 John 5:11-15 ESV) All the preceding verses before verse 14 were talking about the Son of God (JESUS), thus, the "he" in verse 14 that hears our prayers is the Son, just like in Acts 7:59. "In 1 Cor. 1:9 it says, "God is faithful, through whom you were called into fellowship with His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord." The word "fellowship" is the Greek word koinonia which is also translated as the word "communion." 1 Cor. 1:9 says that we are to have an intimate fellowship with Jesus. That is fine. But, how can we have fellowship with someone with whom we never talk? Therefore, this verse can also be used to support the idea of praying to Jesus." http://www.google.com... God AND Jesus As for Titus 2:13, the rules of Greek are very clear. The Granville Sharpe rule has never been found faulty by any scholar who has examined ancient Greek documents, therefore, if Titus 2:13 was worded as Con rephrases it, Elizabeth would indeed, in the minds of a first-century Greek or Jew, be both King and Queen. Substituting different words for God and Savior doesn"t change the rules of Greek grammar. Here is a link to where an actual Greek scholar, James White, explains it in-depth http://vintage.aomin.org... Other Verses Philippians 2:9 makes a distinction between Jesus and God the Father, but this doesn"t show Jesus isn"t also by nature God. If I make a distinction between me and another human, this doesn"t show I"m not also human. In fact, Philippians 2:6 told us Jesus existed "in God"s form." What is God"s FORM? Greek scholar W.E. Vine says in his Complete Expository Dictionary of Old and NT Words that it comes from the Greek word morphe, which means the innate characteristics or nature of the being. Thus, if God was omnipotent, omniscient, etc, so was Jesus. Con also ignores the fact that the Son had this form of God BEFORE taking on the form of a servant in verse 7, which means he was not always a servant of God before but simply an equal. This proves his pre-existence. Con thinks that because John 17:3 says Jesus was sent by God, this means he isn"t God, so if I was sent by a human being, does that mean I"m not a human being? The word "God" has more than one definition, just as "soul" has more than one definition, and context must determine which definition is being used. If the Father is the ONLY true God, then all other gods are false. My question of Con is, when Jesus is called God as he is called in John 1:1-3, 20:28; Acts 20:28; John 1:18 and Isaiah 9:6, is he a true God or a false god? The Trinity violates logic Con argues the Bible must be logical, but he doesn"t tell us whose logic he means. I suppose he means his, but the problem here is that what seems logical to one person doesn"t seem logical to another. Believing that God exists period seems illogical to atheists who look at all the suffering in the world and conclude that a God of love could not logically exist, but millions of believers have logical arguments of their own to refute this. So rationality is in the eye of the beholder, it is to some extent subjective, and thus even if the trinity is illogical to my opponent, it may not be illogical to me. He says "the Bible would not teach anything that is impossible," but how could he know what isn"t possible for an omniscient, omnipotent deity? Atoms can be in two places at the same time. http://www.google.com... In fact, scientists have built a disk that can be in both places at once http://www.google.com..., so why can"t God be in three places at once so that he can be Father in heaven, Son on the earth and Holy Spirit coming down at his baptism? It"s simply not logical to say that because you don"t understand how God does it, that it"s impossible. Con called Noah"s flood "a miracle which does not break formal logic in anyway no matter how improbable it is." But God being in three places at once without violating his unity as one being is also a miracle that doesn"t violate formal logic in anyway. He says "My opponent compares being God (a position) to flour (an object)," but this again is a misunderstanding of terms. The Bible doesn"t use the word "God" as a position all the time, not even most of the time. Psalm 90:2 says before creation began, God was there. What was his position? Ruler? King? No. There was no position because nobody else existed over which he could have a position. God was simply a reference to his nature, and thus the Bible says that false gods are not BY NATURE, God. (Gal 4:8) Further, if "God" means a person (the Father) in one verse, why can"t it also refer to a triune being in another? 1 God + 1 God + 1 God = 1 Triune God. The result is a plural entity, so where"s the problem? John 14:28 Con asserts that angels have divine nature. Where does the Bible say so? He gave no Scripture because there is none! Philippians 2:6-8 does say he existed in God"s form, which Bible are you reading? And Con is correct, "God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above EVERY name," so Jesus gave up the highest name to become a servant, and after the resurrection he took it back. How could someone inferior to God have the name that is ABOVE EVERY NAME? No Man Has Seen God Con said "you can see oxygen," ha ha ha"What does it look like, Con? Also, if God"s face was human when people saw it is irrelevant. Point is, they literally saw him in the OT and yet it was God, so seeing Jesus in the NT doesn"t prove he isn"t God. True, God sent angels, how does that show Yahweh did not appear to Abraham as a man in Genesis 18? Con gave no evidence that John 1:1 is translated incorrectly. 100 scholars made the NIV and 54 scholars worked on the KJV, all of whom agree on my version of John 1:1, as do scholars such as A.T. Robertson, James White, W.E. Vine and many others. My God Con suggests that Thomas yelped out "My God" in surprise but that would be swearing, calling God"s name in vain. Jesus wouldn"t bless Thomas for that but he did bless him on this occasion. (John 20:28-29) Also, such abuse of God"s name was not part of Jewish tradition back then. Jesus is given all authority in Matthew 28:17 because he previously gave it up according to Philippians 2. If he has ALL authority, he is equal in authority to God the Father. Hebrews 1:6 says ALL the angels worship Jesus, which means he can"t be an angel, certainly not Michael. Also, worship only belongs to God, so he must be God or else the angels worship two gods. Polytheistic angels? 1 Thess 4:16 says Jesus is coming with two things, and archangel"s shout, and God"s trumpet. If having God"s trumpet doesn"t make him a trumpet, then having an archangels voice doesn"t make him an archangel. Omniscient Con didn"t reply to John 16:30 and 21:17 which show he was omniscient. Con claims to be human he couldn"t know anything about God or perform miracles, so didn"t the OT prophets know about God and perform miracles? Were they not human? Uncreated "All things were made through him, and WITHOUT HIM WAS NOT ANY THING MADE THAT WAS MADE." (ESV John 1:3). So the Father did not make anything without the Son already being there to assist him, thus, the Son could not be a created being. Isa 44:26 says God created ALONE. HE HAD NO HELP. So to help create the universe, Jesus would have to be God, otherwise Isa 44:26 is a lie. Who is the Savior? Con says, "people may have mistakenly called him God," but God wasn"t mistaken when "of the Son he says,"Your throne, O God, is forever and ever." (Heb 1:8)