going to be clear-cut in a matter so dependent on subjective self-identity. But if the prime driver is the will of the people, then on what basis can a minority within a large territory, which happens to be a majority within a small part of that territory, be denied the right to determine their own future if they so choose? There was a debate on WalesHome a year or so ago about the status of Monmouthshire, initiated by an English nationalist. The argument got silly, because so much of it depended from his point of view on interpretation of arcane law, and because whatever the history does or does not say, there is simply no indication of any significant body of opinion in Monmouthshire that the county should be moved into England from Wales. But, just for the sake of argument, let us suppose that 90% of people in Monmouthshire declared clearly and unequivocally (through whatever mechanism) that they wanted the county to be transferred into England. If sovereignty over the area in which they live belongs to them, on what basis could their wishes be over-ridden? And, if we do over-ride their wishes, would we not be saying that our definition of the nationality of that part of the world and the people in it is more important than their own definition? And if we take the second view - that we as the rest of Wales will not allow them to secede, then what is the difference between