to Indians - I've heard linguistically-challenged native speakers come out with it here in the UK. -- FumbleFingers Mar 23 '11 at 0:02 3 Answers Dutchmen sometimes make the same mistake, because the construction * he would do x, if y would be true is correct in Dutch, besides he would do x, if y were true , which is also correct in Dutch. This might apply to some other European languages as well. In addition, I recently read that some English style guides warn(ed) against this usage too, which makes one wonder whether it is or was not more widely used, perhaps mainly in certain non-standard dialects. @NewAlexandria: Okay, so you suggest that it is only/mainly Indian with "have"? That could be, I don't know; but it could be Dutch etc. with any verb, so...it would be a complicated phenomenon, in that case. -- Cerberus Oct 10 at 3:23 If only I had known! -- If I had said that, she would not have left me. -- F'x Mar 22 '11 at 22:03 6 As discussed in the question linked above, all three of these examples would be regarded by many as incorrect. -- Steve Melnikoff Mar 22 '11 at 22:28 1 @F'x: Oh, sure, your usage is probably more correct. I was simply trying to say that I hear this phrasing all the time and don't know anyone from India (or did you mean Native Americans?) It is usually pronounced via contractions: "If only I would've known!" My