declares is the propitiatory work of Christ as well. But I am also arguing that in the Gospel a righteous God is set forth and glorified. When Christ died on the cross, the righteousness of God was vindicated and glorified because He left the sins of sinners in the OT unpunished. But in Christ He is now seen as perfectly righteous. This is part of what Romans 3:24-26 sets out. McMark: I know that NT Wright says so. Do you agree? If so, what is this "righteousness of God" which is NOT the righteousness of Christ earned and imputed? RS: It is the attribute of righteousness which in and of itself is not imputed. That does not mean that the Gospel does not include the righteousness of Christ imputed to sinners, but simply saying that is not the only kind of righteousness that there is. The righteousness of God the Father is not imputed to sinners, but the righteousness of God the Son is. McMark: Is it infusion? Impartation? Where are the Bible texts which deny what you want to deny? Where does the Bible say that the righteousness of Christ is NOT the righteousness of God? RS: Where do we ever see the Bible teaching us that the righteousness of the Father as an attributed is imputed to sinners? Below are just a couple of instances of the righteousness of God which I cannot see how they can be interpreted as imputed righteousness. Rom 3: 3 What then? If