interesting question comes from a legal point of view -- of the regulations surrounding labelling of food products, which I think are increasingly strict, and the information provided by manufacturers about origins of medical products and then how much of that is communicated to patients.  (I think Margot Brazier might have mentioned this issue in our regulations seminar.) Having chatted with the student in the pub since, we agree that, ethically at least, it's a bit of a no-brainer: since it isn't an imposition on anyone to warn that we can't be sure of the origin of the treatment, there's no harm in doing so -- and, for the sake of preserving patients' control over what goes into their bodies, we ought. The legal question is potentially quite interesting here.  Going off on one a bit, could there be a negligence issue here -- on the grounds that it's reasonable to suppose that at least some patients might want to know the information, even if they don't expressly say they would (because it never crosses their mind)?  Not to warn could be a serious omission here -- and I'm wondering whether it might make a difference to consent.  I genuinely don't know: were someone to make a case that they should have been warned and would not have consented had they known, would there be legal mileage in it? I think there is a more interesting question here -- which is do we as a society have any duties to