Why The Command In Surah Al-Ahzab If Veiling Already Existed?
Also an important question- If the distinction between free women and slave women was based on the dress code and was already evident in the culture even before the ruling, then how could harassers lie/excuse by saying, “I thought they were slaves”? Were there cases where free women did not observe the jilbab, making such an excuse possible? And did the ruling then make the jilbab the official distinguishing mark without any room for excuse?