Husband Getting Intimate After Wife Has Clearly Expressed Intentions For Divorce
Every Haram act results in a sin and every sin is a Haram act; the only question that remains is whether committing of a particular act results in a major sin or a minor sin. In this specific situation, I believe such an act will result in a major sin since it is evidently an extrmeem form of oppression against another person’s honour which has utmost sanctity in Islam, and also it belongs to violation of haqooq-ul-ibad.
But will it still be haraam if the wife hasn’t explicitly desired for divorce? But she hasn’t given consent for being intimate and the husband does it against her will?