Year Of Death Of Prophet Jesus (sws) & Its Implications On Divine Punishment
Jazak Allaah Khair Dr.sb. for taking the time to respond. I agree that Eesa A.S. bayyinah was as tamaam as can be. By “lack of an explicit charge” is that Isra does not explicitly describe kufr of their rasool (which it certainly was) to be the crime for which bani-israel were punished. From what I am able to gather from your response is that the historical evidence will be “torture and humiliation” that the bani-israel received “soon after the departure of Jesus”. This will need to stand out from any “torture and humiliation” that might have existed before that. So being a conquered people or having had taxes imposed on them wouldn’t prima facie be the azab if it were the same before and after. The azab has to be: 1) a marked escalation in the how the Romans treated the Jews, and 2) this escalation has to be very “soon after the departure of Jesus”. Does that properly represent your POV? Also, Dr. sb. do you count Calligula’s treatment of the Jews as part of the azab period. If yes, then does the period of his reign put an upper bound on the wafat of Eesa A.S.?