Change In Ghamidi Sahab's Stance On Hadood Punishments On Non-Muslims
Thank you for your response. Could you also explain the reasons that led Ghamidi Sb. to change his conclusion? I understand that scholars continually revisit and revise their opinions and that’s great, but I am just trying to understand the specific reasoning in this case. In particular, Ghamidi Sb. cites the use of the word Azab in Quran 24:2 which to him suggests it is divine punishment. Since Ghamidi Sb. held a different view previously, it seems that he didn’t think that Azab meant divine punishment in this case. What was his previous understanding regarding this word, and what led him to change his translation/interpretation?