Does 'Believing Women' In 33:59 Include Believing Slave Women?
This follow-up leads to two questions: 1. Why didn’t God take measures for the safety of slave women? In other words, why was their harassment allowed in this specific context, even if they were believing women? 2. You said that if they had faced the same situation, they would also have been required to follow the same ruling — but wasn’t the ruling actually meant to differentiate between free believing women and slave women, even if the latter also believed?