Hassan Ilyas' Law Of Inheritance Videos
Coincidently my question was exactly the same that Saqib asked in that post you referred. I had exact same scenario in mind. But the answer you and Irfan Shahzad provided contradicts with Meezan and Hassan’s videos. They say that parent’s share is taken out of total (not from what is remaining after giving to husband). They clearly say that in presence of children, parents get 1/6 each of the total (not what remains after giving to husband). So same should apply when there are no children. I understand that im the absense of children, if we take parent’s share out of the total, then father’s share becomes half to that of mother because husband is alive and that is okay. It is logical because the profitability (منفعت) of dead woman has been shifted from father to husband after marriage so in presence of husband, father’s share is reduced but mother’s share remain constant. That also probably explains why mother’s shared is explicitly mentioned on Ayat 11 in the absense of children but not that of father. God’s intention probably was to calculate father’s share what is left after giving both husband and mother from the actual total. Please review this and advise.