Doing Ibadah To Follow Footsteps Of Prophet Muhammad
@Irfan76 okay sir, i understand, can you please explain these two examples? A) someone’s mother tells him to pray some Nafl, which he was not intending to do before. So after his mother said to him, he prayed some Nafl, to please his mother and that too with intention of pleasing Allah, so it’s okay? Like if someone does worship to please someone else, it’s wrong and shirk. But if someone does the worship intending to please Allah, by fulfilling the command or pleasure of mother, then it’s no problem? his intention of Nafl namaz, is not in itself to please his mother, but to please Allah by fulfilling what his mother commanded, or to please Allah actually, by pleasing mother. So it’s totally good? B) sir as someone who does worship for getting money from someone, is bad and Shirk. Like if someone prays because his friend told that he will give him $50 for praying, so he does that for this money and it would be Shirk. But if someone intended to get this money only and only to spend it in charity, to please Allah. In other words he worshipped Allah to actually please him indirectly. Like because of worship of namaz, his friend would give him $50 and after receiving $50 he planned it to spend fully in the way of Allah, in charity. So his intention was not to get money in itself, but to earn Allah’s pleasure by giving charity after receiving money. Is this okay and alright? I mean both are cases of doing an act of worship for pleasing Allah, but instead of directly, it is to please Allah indirectly through another medium (pleasing mother in example A, and getting money and spending it all in charity in example B). BUT IF THE MEDIUM ITSELF WAS THE INTENTION OR GOAL then it would have been shirk, but it’s not in itself the intention, so it’s totally okay? Right sir? Can you explain this concept along with explaining those examples A and B