Consent In Physical Relationship With Concubines
How is the enslavement of women and children who are not part of the military conflict be morally justified in Islam? Why did the prophet enslave a whole tribe (Banu mustaliq and etc..) if enslavement of only captives on a battlefield is allowed. Theoretically, you can just enslave any population or community by declaring its land as a battlefield. How are relations with one’s daughter, wife or sister can be morally justified when their fathers, brothers and husband are still alive.
Three types of captives, however, were an exception to this rule: 1 . Brutal adversaries, as per the dictates of the law of ‘اتمام الحجة’ (itmam-ul-hujjah), were required to be slain wherever found. 2 . The captives of the Banu Qurayzah who met a fate decided by an arbitrator appointed by themselves: their men were slain and their women and children were sold as slaves. 3 . Captives who were slaves prior to their capture and, at certain instances, were distributed among people as slaves. It is obvious that these three cases were exceptions and the directive stated in the verse (47:4) never related to them. Consequently, if all the incidents of the Prophet’s times regarding prisoners of war are studied, it can be safely concluded that barring these three exceptions everything done was in conformity with the directive of Surah Muhammad. For details, please see : Discussion 1763