Tawatur Not Recorded
For example when we have a language we can trace back from dictionaries to see if this word meant this etc. But what if we don’t have the dictionary. We don’t have any fiqh books from the time of the prophet Muhammad SAWS.
and how do you verify authenticity of Quran?
It doesn’t make sense. Am I wrong in saying that the ijma and tawatur is checked through fiqh books. Not dependant on in any given time or space- but checked through fiqh books. If it is only checked through these books then we can’t be sure that the ijma and tawatur in that time in that space existed
We don’t have just records of people using it this way, we have a recorded consensus of people using it that way in one particular time. ( but in case of religion no such breaking of chain has ever happened ) Does that make the perpetual transmission of language a reasonable claim too? Despite the fact It is one of the most real and authentic thing people can be certain about.
If a view has survived and we do not know of anyone to have disagreed thay doesnt mean no one has disagreed and now we can attribute this view to the whole group