Ijma And Tawatur In The Context Of Wuzu And Acts Which Nullify It
Isn’t it likely that the scholars of the time (due to their culture and thought) accepted this as a sunnah even though it was just from an ahad khabr. Then because the entire society looked up to them it became accepted and since then was turned into sunnah?
How is it very likely? The overwhelming evidence suggests otherwise.
We could distinguish it if we have the records. Who’s to say the records weren’t destroyed by the state trying tk enforce the khabr ahad narrative? (Thanks for satisfying me 😂😂) The evidence is today and the books of fiqh. Sunnah was always taken from ahadeeth
Well for the Quran it was never taken from ahad ahadeeth unlike the sunnah. And anyway just because our reasoning may lead us to be suspicious fo the Quran it doesn’t mean our reasoning is wrong
The application of your reasoning should be consistent and I am interested to know how you justify Quran while at the same time you question Sunnah? Not taken from Ahad? what’s your proof. I say during sometime , a few scholars plotted a scheme and destroyed original Quran (God forbid) and started a new Quran and it became popular? So how would you negate that?
There is a big chunk who believe in seven Qirats of Quran as being equally divine wordings revealed for the ease of Ummah, so Ahad did influence Quran actually. But it can all be disproved from the same ijma and tawatur the way some amendment in Sunnah can be disproved.
So how do we know if passing wind is of the former or latter category? How do we not know that it was put into the former category because the society allowed for that to be done?
You’re throwing mere conjectures while all the available evidence stands in opposition of that. I’ll give you 0.00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001 % probability of that happening