Rejection Of Incorrect Tawatur Actions To Islam
And my question is about the time when a dispute arises. There can be a few possibilities: Eg beard- the Hadith had a context and it is rejected Eg number of rakah it is in the living tradition But: There could be an action that has the name of religion on it eg growing a beard which was based on a khabr wahid. But this khabr wahid has not reached us. So it is an erroneous attribution but we have no way to check if it is correct or not. If an adulteration can occur with Hadith why can’t it occur without?
I just wanted to still ask as I don’t really understand. I don’t really want to get into an example because it might not be perfect. Muslims have ijma on practise x and it is transmitted by tawatur. In truth this practice was a misinterpretation of an inauthentic source. But it still managed to obtain ijma and tawatur status. The inauthentic source has not Doesn’t this mean that the sunnah is not Qatai in that sense because we have to pour ice history books to prove a certain practise’s authenticity or inauthenticity .