Why Hafs Recitation Appears In Ottoman Time?
If the argument is “the ottomans spread the qirat of hafs because it was easiest to learn”. Then its a very lazy argument in my opinion. Since I m not aware of Shady’s research methodology and evidence of his claim, I cannot comment on it.If you can share his work, I can dive into it. Meanwhile, I will request you to ponder upon following points. 1) If Ottomans were responsible for popularizing it, then it should have been common recitation in their area of influence and outside of their region of influence, we should find different recitation being practiced by masses. However, we observed that warsh recitation is still common in Northern Africa where ottomans were in-charge. Moreover, South Asia and Far East Asia has hafs recitation despite no influence of Ottomans. 2) Persians and Ottomans had been rivals for centuries, if the claim was true, then Persians would have adopted a variant reading other than Hafs. Similarly, Salafi movement was also against Ottomans therefore as part of their resistance they would have adopted other recitation as other recitations are equallu valid for them. 3) Vocalized manuscripts were meant for non-Arabs. It started with Kufic script. Hence, One should look for earlier Kufic manuscripts and carbon date them to get conclusive idea about the popular recitations of earlier time.