Bigamy In Non-Muslim Society
For comments of Ghamidi Sahab , please refer to the video below from 1:08:20 to 1:09:18 https://youtu.be/qvEHIHpS71E?t=4100
I believe my question differs slightly from what was asked to Ghamidi Sahib and his response in the provided videos. Let me elaborate further. The law of this country does not recognize Nikah as a legal contract; otherwise, just Nikah would have been sufficient at the time of my first marriage. My question is about the legal position according to Sharia of obtaining a divorce decree from this country, given its legal setup. Would it be considered a valid divorce according to Sharia? Keep in mind that this country’s marriage contract is not recognized as a legal marriage contract (Nikah) according to Sharia. Secondly, this country’s law has no objections if I engage in unlimited extramarital affairs while having a wife. So, wouldn’t it show respect for the country’s law if, in the eyes of this law, I have one wife and another woman without a marriage contract (as per the country’s law) but have a Nikah with her, as per our choice, to abide by Sharia and make this relationship Halal for us?