Legality And Validity Of Marriage Between Muslims And Non-Muslims
Alright, but as we can’t label someone as kuffar or mushrik, then how is it a sin? –The principle is that marriage should be done with those who uphold the principle of Tawheed (and in our eyes, it’s only the Muslims). But Christians and Jews also claim that they follow monotheism — so how do we view this? – If the rule is specific to Muslims only, then what about the many sects in Islam who unknowingly commit shirk? They also don’t claim it as shirk, just like Christians, Jews, and even Hindus don’t claim it. So how are they different in this case? –I agree the intensity of shirk may vary among them, but if the principle is that marriage should be only with Muslims, then shouldn’t marrying those Muslim sects who commit shirk also be a sin? And if marrying them is not a sin, then why should marrying those who also claim to worship one God (Christians, Jews, Hindus), even if we don’t agree with their belief s, be a sin?
Marrying the women of the people of book is allowed for Muslim men. The principle that allows marrying the people of book is that they essentially believes in monotheism. The Christians have been given the margin of their interpretation of Trinity as Tawheed. Based on this cause a Muslim man can marry any non muslim woman who believes in one God. Their marriage is valid. Marrying an atheist is not allowed. However, Muslim woman is not allowed to marry a non Muslim. If a Muslims woman marries a non Muslim, this act is disproved but marriage is valid. Read my above answer in the light of this latest answer. There is some ambiguity in the above answers.