Innate Sense Of Good And Bad
if he doing it out of his desire (which was engrained by Allah) wouldnt it then be counted as satisfaction for his own desire. like maybe we can say mental peace he would feel for doing good deed. as once Ghamidi Sahab answered a question about an atheist doing moral good without any hope for reward in hereafter and just for sake of help. he being morally more strong than a man doing good for reward in hereafter. To this question Ghamidi Sahab said to him his reward is his state of satisfaction and a person cannot alleviate himself out of want for reward. (This case is for someone doing a good deed only for his desire. I’m not talking about a person who intends Allah’s pleasure but at the time of doing action didn’t think about it) My concern was about Ghamidi sahab’s statement that if I’m understanding it wrong or not. and if I’m understanding it right (that it’s not just mere less ideal but sinful or shirk) then what about the examines I cited above.
As told earlier, if by doing charity or any other worldly act to please someone and there is no intention to please God, then deprives himself of the reward he could get from God. and if he pretends it to be for God but it is not, then he will be punished for this deception.
@Irfan76 sir i was thinking this to be totally fine and permissible, but there is one commentary of Ghamidi Sahab that made me wonder (“is it otherwise?”). and also i wanted to discuss about 2 ayat of Quran about it
That is fine. Ghamidi saheb’s commentary cannot be against it. It is just the general statements that perplex you.