Reason Of Prohibition Of Zina
The obvious is not needed to be mentioned. It is an established fact. Therefore there is no question of its prohibition after marriage in every civilized society.
The Quran does not discuss zina in the context of the preservation of the family system at all? How did Ghamidi Sb conclude that the reason for its prohibition is to preserve the family system? It logically makes sense to conclude that the reason for its prohibition can be the preservation of the family system. But is logic enough?
Ghamidi Sb has the opinion that the prohibition in verses (5-7) of Surah Muminun is related to the individuals to whom sexual relations can be established and hence masturbation is not prohibited. The reasoning of Ghamidi Sb for this is related to the linguistic principles of Arabic. Now for a common man, it is hard to understand the linguistic principles and then decide whether the thing said is correct or not. But if we look logically, the reason for the prohibition of Zina is to protect the Family System, and masturbation does not destroy the Family System. So even without studying the linguistics behind the verses(5, 6), can we logically conclude that the opinion of Ghamidi Sb in this context is more rigid as it aligns with the logic?