Tawatur And Ijma Of Jews And Christians
Yes, but with a distinction between ijma related ilm and Akbar-i-ahad related ilm.
Did Christians ever get this ijma and tawatuur because Isa AS only had a few followers? Because if there was ijma and tawattur, then how did St Paul come and abrogate it all. This would go against the built principle of ijma and tawattur being airtight
So ijma and tawattur in and in of itself is not a strong source of knowledge. We need it to be recorded on paper? Have I understood correctly? I don’t see how this works because as Hassan sahab also says, that the fiqh books are just recording the overall sunnah that is already in the society. And the Jews had their law in their books and still have bidahs. So let’s take one example. Salah. It seems reasonable that 1000s of muslims praying 5 times a day will keep this salah preserved. But then why, if fiqh is just a mere recording of the practice that is present in the society, do Jews just cry next to a wall as a bidah and don’t pray five times a day (in the actual 5 distinct times)? Sorry if I’m misunderstanding
Jews was a community. Their innovation or alteration got grounds but it didn’t happen to Muslims. They didn’t remain a community. Islam spread across the globe, many nations joined it. Innovation of one muslims community could not penetrate into other. That is why no innovation could get Ijma on it.