Minority/Majority Scholarly Opinions And Ijma
Thanks @Irfan76 🙂 So then would you say that the cause of some if not most of such majority opinions such as music and the beard are a result of understanding those subjects with respect to the circumstances in those times and that since ijtehad stopped around 700 to 800 years ago also known as closing of the doors to juristic reasoning (إغلاق باب الاجتهاد), the approach to those subjects has not been to re-evalute them in modern times but to rather follow dogma of a particular school of thought till today? For example if we take music, one could argue that the main reason why scholars perhaps prohibited it was because back in those days it’s use was primarily that if evil where in vast majority of cases, especially towards the end of the Abbasid era in the middle east and Arab culture, the khalifas and other influential and wealthy people would have slave girls be trained as musicians, singers and dancers such that they could drink and indulge in lewd entertainment at that same time. Furthermore, there was no such thing as recorded music at that time so if anyone wanted to listen, they had to go to a place or hire someone (not cheap) and most of the times those places had evil environments filled with drinking and semi-nude women. Hence perhaps for those reasons the opinion of it being Haram made sense with respect to what was going on at that time? Would I be correct in stating the above and is there any other aspect to this?