Bigamy In Non-Muslim Society
how does a divorce decree by a country’s law cause a divorce without fulfilling the Sharia requirements of divorce? : Officiating a divorce legally but not meaning it in reality and practicing bigamy despite law of the land prohibiting it is deceiving the law of the country where one is residing which one was bound to follow in letter and spirit. people living in remote areas in Pakistan and Afghanistan where their marriages are not registered, and I personally know people with no legal documents like a Nikah-nama. Is their marriage not legal according to Sharia? : Exceptions/exemptions are not used to jutify overriding of the prevalent law in the country. The state of Pakistan is aware of such tribal issues and is trying to bring them in the complete social and legal framework of the country. If they intentionally ignored legal procedure despite being aware of it and despite having an opportunity to do so, then their intentional negligence will be subject to accountabiity. If the matter comes to the court, then courts, after considering all the circumstances of the case, have an authority to either declare their Nikkahs null and void or they may ratify their Nikkah subject to some procedural conditions and may fine them too. The issue here is not whether such Nikkah is sharia compliant or such divorce is just a legal formality but not sharia based, the issue here is that such tactics tantamount to deceiving the state where one is residing which is a separate issue and a very serious one which should be even a bigger concern.