Does Use Of Words Matter In Terms Of Polytheism?
It is not shirk but should be avoided as a precautionary measure because this sentence has a potential to give an impression where Allah and his creation seem to be presented as equal. Prophet Muhammad (sws) also pointed to this fact and did not issue fatwa of polytheism to the people who uttered these sentences; just pointed this out to them to be more careful in uttering such sentences. It was a preventive measure (sadd-e-zariya). When I say that I fed that poor man, it is not to equate with Allah, but to state a fact that I paid someone this much money or gave the poor person a bowl of food to eat, this is not to say that I, just like Allah has power to feed others. But if someone says that “Allah fed that poor person and I fed him too”, then it is not outright shirk, but that person will be asked to avoid using such sentences as they have potential to give a wrong impression even if that was not the intention of the person.
Because definition of Shirk is very clear and it has to do with belief and/or appication of that belief ( See : Discussion 75878 • Reply 75951 ). Rest of the matters were preventive measures adopted to counter polytheistic attitudes so that they may not lead to actual polytheism. Wordings of Hadith are not words of Propeht (sws) verbatim, instead they are an understanding of the narrator, so it needs to be understood in the light of Quran and Sunnah to reach to the actual message that Propeht (sws) was conveying. The above matter can be categorized as a polytheistic attitude, but it also needs to remain clear that polytheistic attitudes are not polytheism themselves, they are countered in a preventive way to avoid the path that may one day lead to polytheism.