Hassan Ilyas' Law Of Inheritance Videos
This one I already understand and completely agree. I think I confused my question with a comment about mentioning of father’s share. Absense of mentioning of father’s share at those two points in Quran is not an issue. My question was: According to Meezan and Hassan’s videos, both parents and spouse get share from total. But you and Irfan Shahzad said that they will get share from what is left after giving to spouse. Lets assume there are no children. According to Hassan, if there is husband, then husband gets 50%, mother gets 33.33% and father gets the rest which is 16.66%. You said that husband will get 50%, father will 33.33% and mother will get 16.66%. What you say makes sense but there is no indication in Ayat 11 and 12, not even from the language style to take husband’s share first. What Hassan said also makes sense and we don’t have to take meaning out from Quran forcefully. Its okay if father’s share is reduced as compared to that of mother. We can say that profitability of dead woman was shifted from father to husband after she got married. I need Ghamidi sb’s point of view on this specific use case. If my question is still not clear, is there a way I could call and discuss? Its important, thanks!