Source document: https://docs-lawep.s3.us-east-2.amazonaws.com/1698838541533.pdf (New Zealand)
Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Public Act 2022 No 20 Date of assent 13 May 2022 Commencement see section 2 Contents Title Commencement Part 1 Preliminary provisions Purpose Interpretation Transitional, savings, and related provisions Act binds the Crown Part 2 Key concepts and what to do Subpart 1—Key concepts Overview Meaning of discloser Meaning of protected disclosure Meaning of serious wrongdoing Subpart 2—What to do (disclosers and receivers) Discloser’s entitlement to protection Supporting information Guidance: what receiver should do Discloser’s entitlement to disclose further Receiver may decide no action is required Receiver may refer disclosure Page 3 3 3 3 5 5 6 7 8 8 8 9 9 10 11 11 1 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 Part 3 Protections Confidentiality Confidentiality Protecting confidentiality under Privacy Act 2020 Protecting confidentiality by withholding official information Obligation not to retaliate or treat less favourably Obligation not to retaliate or treat less favourably No retaliation by employer No victimisation No retaliation in court or disciplinary proceedings Immunity from civil, criminal, and disciplinary proceedings No contracting out No contracting out Part 4 Appropriate authorities, special rules for certain organisations, Ombudsmen’s role, etc Subpart 1—Appropriate authorities Meaning of appropriate authority Schedule 2 may be amended by Order in Council Subpart
 2—Special rules for intelligence, security, and international relations information Special rules for intelligence and security information Special rules for international relations information Subpart 3—Special rules for all public sector organisations Public sector organisations must have internal procedures Subpart 4—Ombudsmen’s role Role of Ombudsmen in providing information and guidance Information about internal procedures Ombudsmen may escalate protected disclosure to Minister or investigate disclosure
 Ombudsmen may take over some investigations or investigate together with public sector organisation Ombudsmen may review and guide investigations by public sector organisations Ombudsmen may receive reports on investigations and include information in annual report Chief Ombudsman may appoint persons to perform Ombudsman’s functions under this Act Ombudsmen’s functions and powers No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 1 s 4 38 39 40 41 Subpart 5—Other protections and privileges Other protections not limited Legal professional privilege Subpart 6—Consequential amendments and repeal Consequential amendments Repeal of Protected Disclosures Act 2000 Schedule 1 Transitional, savings, and related provisions Schedule 2 Examples of concerns and examples of appropriate authorities Schedule 3 Consequential amendments 22 22 22 22 23 24 26 The Parliament of New Zealand enacts as follows: 1 2 Title This Act is the Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022.
Commencement This Act comes into force on 1 July 2022.

Part 1 Preliminary provisions 3 Purpose The purpose of this Act is to promote the public interest— (a) by facilitating the disclosure and timely investigation of serious wrong‐ doing in or by an organisation; and (b) by protecting the people who disclose in accordance with this Act.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 5 4 Interpretation In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,— appropriate authority has the meaning given in section 25 classified information has the meaning given in section 78AA of the Crimes Act 1961 discloser has the meaning given in section 8 environment has the meaning given in section 2 of the Environment Act 1986 intelligence and security agency has the meaning given in section 4 of the Intelligence and Security Act 2017 3 Part 1 s 4 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 intelligence and security information means information that— (a) (b) is classified information; or relates to the activities of an intelligence and security agency internal procedures means any procedures adopted by, and published within, an organisation about how the organisation receives and deals with information about serious wrongdoing in or by that organisation international relations agency means— (a) (b) (c) (d) the Department of the Prime Minister and Cabinet: the Ministry of Foreign Affairs and Trade: the Ministry of Defence: the New Zealand Defence Force international relations information means information that— (a) (b) (c) (d) is about the international relations of the Government of New Zealand; and is held by an international relations agency; and is not classified information; and does not relate to the activities of an intelligence and security agency officer of Parliament means an Ombudsman, the Parliamentary Commis‐ sioner for the Environment, or the Controller and Auditor-General Ombudsman means an Ombudsman holding office under the Ombudsmen Act 1975, and includes for the purposes of this Act (except section 28)— (a) (b) any person holding office under an Ombudsman to whom any of the powers of an Ombudsman have been delegated under section 28 of that Act; and any person whom the Chief Ombudsman has appointed to perform an Ombudsman’s functions under this Act organisation means a body of persons (including a body comprising 1 employer and 1 or more
 employees), whether— (a) (b) corporate or unincorporate: in the public sector or in the private sector protected disclosure has the meaning given in section 9 public sector organisation means— (a) (b) an organisation named or specified in Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975: an organisation (except for an officer of Parliament) named in Schedule 1 of the Official Information Act 1982: 4 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 1 s 6 (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) a local authority or public body named or specified in Schedule 1 of the Local Government Official Information and Meetings Act 1987: the Office of the Clerk of the House of Representatives: the Parliamentary Service: an intelligence and security agency: a council-controlled organisation within the meaning of section 6 of the Local Government Act 2002 receiver means the receiver of a protected disclosure who is either— (a) (b) the organisation concerned; or an appropriate authority retaliate has the meaning given in section 21 serious wrongdoing has the meaning given in section 10.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 3 Transitional, savings, and related provisions The transitional, savings, and related provisions set out in Schedule 1 have effect according to their terms.

Act binds the Crown This Act binds the Crown.


Compare: 2000 No 7 s 4 5 6 5 Part 2 s 7 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 Part 2 Key concepts and what to do Subpart 1—Key concepts 7 (1) Overview The following flowchart gives an overview of how this Act applies to a disclo‐ ser: Do you have a concern about behaviour Do you have a concern about behaviour at a place you work, volunteer, or in or by your organisation?

manage?
manage?

YES Are you a discloser as defined in section 8?

NO This Act is not relevant to you YES Is your concern about serious wrongdoing as defined in section 10?
NO This Act is not relevant to you YES You have protections under this Act if you disclose the serious wrongdoing in accordance with sections 11 and 14 NOTE Special rules apply to intelligence and security and international relations information You can seek information and guidance from an Ombudsman You do not have this Act’s protections if you disclose in bad faith (section 9) or if you don’t disclose in accordance with section 11 or 14 (for example, if you disclose straight to the media or on social media) 6 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 2 s 8 Protections under this Act (2) A discloser is entitled to protection under this Act for a protected disclosure as follows: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) the receiver must use their best endeavours to keep the discloser’s iden‐ tity confidential (with certain exceptions, see section 17); and there can be no retaliation against the discloser’s employment (see sec‐ tion 21); and the discloser (and their relatives and associates) cannot be treated less favourably (see section 22); and the discloser has an immunity for the disclosure in court or disciplinary proceedings (see section 23); and the organisation cannot contract out of this Act or have internal proced‐ ures that are inconsistent with this Act (see section 24); and a public sector organisation must provide practical assistance and advice to the discloser in relation to serious wrongdoing in or by that organisa‐ tion (see section 29).
(3) The disclosure should be considered and dealt with in a timely way (see section 13).

(4) A person who discloses information in support of, or relating to, a protected disclosure is also entitled to protection under this Act (see section 12).

(5) This section is only a guide to the general scheme and effect of this Act.
8 Meaning of discloser In this Act, discloser, in relation to an organisation, means an individual who is (or was formerly)— (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) an employee: a homeworker within the meaning given in section 5 of the Employment Relations Act 2000: a secondee to the organisation: engaged or contracted under a contract for services to do work for the organisation: concerned in the management of the organisation (including, for example, a person who is or was a member of the board or governing body of the organisation): a member of the Armed Forces (in relation to the New Zealand Defence Force): a volunteer working for the organisation without reward or expectation of reward for that work.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 3(1) 7 Part 2 s 9 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 9 Meaning of protected disclosure A disclosure of information is a protected disclosure if the discloser— (a) (b) (c) believes on reasonable grounds that there is, or has been, serious wrong‐ doing in or by the discloser’s organisation; and discloses information about that in accordance with this Act; and does not disclose it in bad faith.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 6, 20 10 Meaning of serious wrongdoing In this Act, serious wrongdoing includes any act, omission, or course of con‐ duct in (or by) any organisation that is 1 or more of the following: (a) (b) an offence: a serious risk to— (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) public health; or public safety; or the health or safety of any individual; or the environment: (c) a serious risk to the maintenance of law, including— (i) (ii) the prevention, investigation, and detection of offences; or the right to a fair trial: (d) (e) an unlawful, a corrupt, or an irregular use of public funds or public resources: oppressive, unlawfully discriminatory, or grossly negligent, or that is gross mismanagement, and is done (or is an omission) by— (i) (ii) an employee (if the organisation is a public sector organisation): a person performing (or purporting to perform) a function or duty or exercising (or purporting to exercise) a power on behalf of a public sector organisation or the Government.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 3(1) Subpart 2—What to do (disclosers and receivers) 11 Discloser’s entitlement to protection (1) A discloser is entitled to protection under this Act for a protected disclosure made (in accordance with this section) to their organisation or to an appropriate authority.
(2) A discloser is entitled to protection for a protected disclosure made to their organisation if it is made— (a) in accordance with any internal procedures; or 8 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 2 s 13 (b) to the head or a deputy head of the organisation.

(3) A discloser is entitled to protection for a protected disclosure made to an appropriate authority at any time.
(This applies whether or not the discloser has also made the disclosure to their organisation or to another appropriate author‐ ity.)
(4) A discloser is entitled to protection even if— (a) (b) (c) they are mistaken and there is no serious wrongdoing; or they do not refer to the name of this Act when making the disclosure; or they technically fail to comply with this section or section 14 (as long as they have substantially complied); or (d) they also make the disclosure to another person, as long as they do so— (i) (ii) on a confidential basis; and for the purposes of seeking advice about whether or how to make a protected disclosure in accordance with this Act.
(5) If the disclosure is or includes intelligence and security information or inter‐ national relations information, this section is subject to sections 25(2), 27, and 28.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 6(3), 6A, 7, 8, 9 12 Supporting information (1) Another discloser who discloses information in support of, or relating to, a pro‐ tected disclosure is also entitled to protection under this Act if the discloser— (a) (b) does not disclose in bad faith; and discloses to their organisation, or to an appropriate authority, in accord‐ ance with section 11.
(2) The protections under this Act apply, with all necessary modifications, to that discloser as if the information were a protected disclosure.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 19A 13 Guidance: what receiver should do (1) Within 20 working days of receiving a protected disclosure, the receiver of the disclosure should— Acknowledge receipt (a) acknowledge to the discloser the date the disclosure was received (and, if the disclosure was made orally, summarise the receiver’s understand‐ ing of the disclosure); and Consider (b) consider the disclosure and whether it warrants investigation; and 9 Part 2 s 14 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 Check (c) check with the discloser whether the disclosure has been made elsewhere (and any outcome); and Deal with (d) deal with the matter by doing 1 or more of the following: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) investigating the disclosure: addressing any serious wrongdoing by acting or recommending action: referring the disclosure under section 16: deciding that no action is required (under section 15); and Inform discloser (with reasons) (e) inform the discloser (with reasons) about what the receiver has done or is doing to deal with the matter in accordance with paragraph (d).
(2) However, when it is impracticable to complete these actions within 20 working days, the receiver should do the actions described in subsection (1)(a) to (c) within 20 working days and then should— Inform discloser (a) inform the discloser how long the receiver expects to take to deal with the matter; and Update (b) appropriately update the discloser about progress; and Deal with (c) deal with the matter as described in subsection (1)(d); and Inform discloser (with reasons) (d) inform the discloser (with reasons) about what the receiver has done or is doing to deal with the matter in accordance with subsection (1)(d).
This section is guidance only.

It does not confer a legal right (apart from the entitlements under sections 14, 32, and 33) or impose a legal obligation on any person that is enforceable in a court of law.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 9 Discloser’s entitlement to disclose further This section applies if a discloser believes on reasonable grounds that the receiver of a protected disclosure— (a) (b) has not acted as it should under section 13; or has not dealt with the matter so as to address the serious wrongdoing.

The discloser is entitled to protection under this Act for a protected disclosure made to a Minister.
(3) 14 (1) (2) 10 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 2 s 16 (3) However, the discloser is entitled to protection under this Act for a protected disclosure made to the Speaker (not a Minister) if the disclosure relates to ser‐ ious wrongdoing in or by any of the following: (a) (b) (c) the office of an officer of Parliament: the Office of the Clerk of the House of Representatives: the Parliamentary Service.
(4) This section does not limit— (a) (b) section 11(3), which provides a discloser may disclose to an appropriate authority (including an Ombudsman) at any time; and section 32, which enables an Ombudsman to refer or investigate certain protected disclosures.

(5) However, if the disclosure is or includes intelligence and security information or international relations information, this section is subject to sections 27 and 28.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 10 15 Receiver may decide no action is required (1) A receiver of a protected disclosure may decide that no action is required and, if so, must inform the discloser (with reasons).
(2) Reasons that may be appropriate for deciding that no action is required include that— (a) (b) the requirements of sections 8 to 10 are not met: the length of time between the alleged serious wrongdoing and the dis‐ closure makes an investigation impracticable or undesirable: (c) the matter is better addressed by other means.

16 Receiver may refer disclosure (1) A receiver that is the organisation concerned may refer a protected disclosure to an appropriate authority.
(2) A receiver that is an appropriate authority may refer a protected disclosure to— (a) (b) the organisation concerned; or another appropriate authority.

(3) (4) (5) Before referring a protected disclosure, the receiver must consult the discloser and the intended recipient of a referral.

The organisation or authority that has received a referral becomes the receiver of the disclosure and this Act applies accordingly.
If an appropriate authority refers a disclosure to the organisation concerned, the organisation must inform the authority about what the organisation has done or 11 Part 3 s 17 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 is doing to deal with the matter (at the same time as the organisation informs the discloser of that (see section 13(1)(e) or (2)(d))).

(6) A disclosure may be referred on more than 1 occasion.
(7) The Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security may refer a disclosure under this section in a way that is consistent with section 27(1).

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 16 Part 3 Protections Confidentiality 17 (1) Confidentiality Every receiver of a protected disclosure must use their best endeavours to keep confidential information that might identify the discloser.
(2) However, a receiver need not keep a discloser’s identity confidential if— (a) (b) the discloser consents to the release of the identifying information; or there are reasonable grounds to believe that the release of the identifying information is essential— (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) for the effective investigation of the disclosure; or to prevent a serious risk to public health, public safety, the health or safety of any individual, or the environment; or to comply with the principles of natural justice; or to an investigation by a law enforcement or regulatory agency for the purpose of law enforcement.
(3) Before releasing identifying information for a reason described in subsection (2)(b),— (a) (b) if the release is for the reason described in subsection (2)(b)(i) or (iii), the receiver must consult the discloser about the release; or if the release is for the reason described in subsection (2)(b)(ii) or (iv), the receiver must, if practicable, consult the discloser about the release.
(4) After releasing identifying information for a reason described in subsection (2)(b), the receiver must inform the discloser.

(5) Anyone may seek information and guidance from an Ombudsman about the duty of confidentiality in this section.

(6) In this section, law enforcement or regulatory agency includes bodies within the meaning of law enforcement agency given in section 3(1) of the Search and Surveillance Act 2012.
12 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 3 s 21 (7) 18 (1) (2) See section 27 for special rules relating to intelligence and security informa‐ tion.

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 19(1), (3) Protecting confidentiality under Privacy Act 2020 The release of information that might identify the discloser is an interference with the privacy of an individual for the purposes of Part 5 of the Privacy Act 2020 if the release breaches section 17 of this Act.
Part 5 of the Privacy Act 2020 applies (with all necessary modifications) to a release described in subsection (1) as follows: (a) (b) a discloser may complain under section 70 of that Act, and Part 5 of that Act applies to their complaint (and the duties and powers of the Com‐ missioner, Director, and Tribunal under that Act apply accordingly): the receiver has the onus of proving that section 17(2) of this Act author‐ ises the release (and section 101 of that Act does not apply): (c) Part 5 of that Act applies subject to section 27 of this Act.
19 Protecting confidentiality by withholding official information A receiver must refuse a request for information under the Official Information Act 1982 or the Local Government Official Information and Meetings Act 1987 as contrary to this Act if the information might identify the discloser of a protected disclosure.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 19(2) Obligation not to retaliate or treat less favourably 20 (1) Obligation not to retaliate or treat less favourably Employers must not retaliate against a discloser who is an employee: see sec‐ tion 21.

(2) A person must not treat another less favourably because of a protected disclos‐ ure: see section 22.
21 No retaliation by employer (1) An employer must not retaliate, or threaten to retaliate, against an employee because the employee intends to make or has made a protected disclosure.

(2) (3) (4) If an employer retaliates, or threatens to retaliate, against an employee in breach of subsection (1), the employee has a personal grievance under section 103(1)(k) of the Employment Relations Act 2000.

Part 9 of that Act applies accordingly.
For the purposes of this section and section 20(1),— employee has the meaning given in section 6 of the Employment Relations Act 2000 13 Part 3 s 22 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 employer has the meaning given in section 5 of the Employment Relations Act 2000 retaliate means— (a) doing any of the following: (i) (ii) (iii) dismissing the employee: refusing or omitting to offer or afford to the employee the same terms of employment, conditions of work, fringe benefits, or opportunities for training, promotion, and transfer as are made available to other employees of the same or substantially similar qualifications, experience, or skills employed in the same or sub‐ stantially similar circumstances: subjecting the employee to any detriment or disadvantage (includ‐ ing any detrimental or disadvantageous effect on the employee’s employment, job performance, or job satisfaction) in circum‐ stances in which other employees employed by the employer in work of that description are not or would not be subjected to such detriment or disadvantage: (iv) retiring the employee, or requiring or causing the employee to retire or resign: (b) organising to do anything described in paragraph (a).
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 17 22 No victimisation (1) A person (A) must not treat, or threaten to treat, another person (B) less favour‐ ably than A would treat other persons in the same or substantially similar cir‐ cumstances because— (a) B (or a relative or associate of B)— (i) (ii) (iii) intends to make, or has made, a protected disclosure under this Act; or has encouraged another person to make a protected disclosure; or has given information in support of, or relating to, a protected dis‐ closure; or (b) A believes or suspects that B (or a relative or associate of B) intends to do, or has done, anything described in paragraph (a).
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if B knowingly made a false allegation or other‐ wise acted in bad faith.

(3) A breach of subsection (1) is unlawful under section 66(3) of the Human Rights Act 1993.
Compare: 1993 No 82 s 66 14 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 4 s 25 No retaliation in court or disciplinary proceedings 23 Immunity from civil, criminal, and disciplinary proceedings (1) Neither a discloser who makes a protected disclosure nor a receiver who refers a protected disclosure under section 16 is liable to any civil, criminal, or discip‐ linary proceeding because of making or referring the disclosure.
(2) Subsection (1) applies despite any prohibition of or restriction on the disclosure of information under any legislation, rule of law, agreement, contract, internal procedure, oath, or practice.

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 18 No contracting out No contracting out This Act applies despite any agreement, contract, or internal procedure.
24 (1) (2) A provision in any agreement, contract, or internal procedure has no effect if it apparently requires a person to do any of the following: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) not to disclose serious wrongdoing that is or could be a protected dis‐ closure: not to disclose information that could support, or relate to, a protected disclosure: to withdraw a protected disclosure: to abandon a protected disclosure: to make a disclosure of serious wrongdoing in a way that is inconsistent with this Act.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 6A(2), 23 Part 4 Appropriate authorities, special rules for certain organisations, Ombudsmen’s role, etc Subpart 1—Appropriate authorities 25 Meaning of appropriate authority (1) In this Act, appropriate authority, without limiting the meaning of that term,— (a) (b) (c) includes the head of any public sector organisation; and includes any officer of Parliament; and includes (as examples) the persons or bodies listed in the second column of Schedule 2; and 15 Part 4 s 26 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 (d) includes the membership body of a particular profession, trade, or call‐ ing with the power to discipline its members; but (e) does not include— (i) (ii) a Minister; or a member of Parliament.
(2) However,— (a) (b) the appropriate authority for a protected disclosure that is or includes international relations information is an Ombudsman only: the appropriate authority for a protected disclosure that is or includes intelligence and security information is the Inspector-General of Intelli‐ gence and Security only.
See— (i) (ii) (iii) section 27(3) for a disclosure relating to serious wrongdoing in or by the office of the Inspector-General: section 16(7) for the Inspector-General’s ability to refer: sections 14 and 27 for the discloser’s entitlement to disclose fur‐ ther.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 3(1), 12(2)(b), 13(2)(a) Schedule 2 may be amended by Order in Council The Governor-General, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the Minister responsible for the administration of this Act, may amend Sched‐ ule 2 by doing either or both of the following: (a) (b) adding, deleting, or amending the name of an appropriate authority: adding, deleting, or amending a description of the nature of concerns.
26 (1) (2) The Minister must not recommend that an order be made under subsection (1) unless the Minister has consulted the relevant appropriate authority.

(3) An Order in Council made under this section is secondary legislation (see Part 3 of the Legislation Act 2019 for publication requirements).
Legislation Act 2019 requirements for secondary legislation made under this section LA19 s 69(1)(c) PCO must publish it on the legislation website and notify Publication it in the Gazette The Minister must present it to the House of Representatives It may be disallowed by the House of Representatives Presentation LA19 s 114 LA19 ss 115, 116 Disallowance This note is not part of the Act.
16 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 4 s 28 Subpart 2—Special rules for intelligence, security, and international relations information 27 Special rules for intelligence and security information (1) A person may only disclose intelligence and security information to someone who holds an appropriate security clearance and is authorised to have access to the information.
(2) A discloser who has made, or is considering making, a protected disclosure that is or includes intelligence and security information may seek information and guidance from the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security only (and not from an Ombudsman).
(3) A discloser is entitled to protection under this Act for a protected disclosure made to the Prime Minister that— (a) (b) is or includes intelligence and security information; and relates to serious wrongdoing in or by the office of the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security— and sections 11(4) and 12 apply accordingly.
(4) An intelligence and security agency, and any other public sector organisation that holds or has access to intelligence and security information, must— (5) (6) (7) (a) (b) have internal procedures that reflect subsections (1) to (3); and apply sections 13, 17, and 29 in a way that is consistent with this section (in relation to intelligence and security information).
The Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security may disclose intelligence and security information disclosed or referred under this Act only in accord‐ ance with subpart 1 of Part 6 of the Intelligence and Security Act 2017.

This section overrides section 17(5).

For the purposes of section 14(2), the only Minister a discloser may disclose intelligence and security information to is the Prime Minister or the Minister responsible for an intelligence and security agency.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 12, 14 28 Special rules for international relations information (1) An international relations agency must— (a) (b) have internal procedures that reflect subsection (3); and comply with section 29(2)(d) in a way that is consistent with this sec‐ tion.

(2) The Ombudsman may disclose international relations information only in accordance with the Ombudsmen Act 1975.
17 Part 4 s 29 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 (3) For the purposes of section 14(2), the only Minister a discloser may disclose international relations information to is the Prime Minister or the Minister responsible for foreign affairs or trade.
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 13, 14 Subpart 3—Special rules for all public sector organisations 29 (1) (2) Public sector organisations must have internal procedures Every public sector organisation must have appropriate internal procedures.
The internal procedures must— (a) (b) (c) (d) comply with the principles of natural justice; and set out a process that is consistent with section 13; and identify who in the organisation a protected disclosure of serious wrong‐ doing in or by that organisation may be made to; and include, in relation to a protected disclosure of serious wrongdoing in or by that organisation,— (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) a reference to the requirement in section 21 that the organisation not retaliate, or threaten to retaliate, against a discloser; and a reference to the requirement in section 22 that the organisation not treat, or threaten to treat, a discloser less favourably than others; and a description of the circumstances in which the disclosure may be referred under section 16; and a description of how the organisation will provide practical assist‐ ance and advice to disclosers (for example, by having a support person assess any risks to a discloser); and (v) a description of how the organisation will meet the duty of confi‐ dentiality in section 17.
(3) The organisation must publish widely (and republish at regular intervals)— (a) (b) information about the existence of the internal procedures; and adequate information about how to use the procedures.

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 11 Subpart 4—Ombudsmen’s role 30 Role of Ombudsmen in providing information and guidance (1) An Ombudsman may provide information and guidance to any person on any matter about this Act (either after a request or at the Ombudsman’s discretion).
18 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 4 s 32 (2) If a discloser notifies an Ombudsman that the discloser has made, or is consid‐ ering making, a protected disclosure, an Ombudsman must provide information and guidance to the discloser about the following (as relevant): (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) which disclosures are protected under this Act: the persons to whom information may be disclosed under this Act: how to disclose information in accordance with sections 11 and 12 in order to be entitled to protection under this Act: a summary of the role of each appropriate authority: the protections available under this Act and under the Human Rights Act 1993: (f) how a disclosure may be referred under section 16.
(3) An Ombudsman may— (4) 31 (1) (a) (b) provide information and guidance to organisations and disclosers about the circumstances in which anonymous protected disclosures may be made; and otherwise provide advice and assistance to organisations and other per‐ sons about the duty of confidentiality in section 17.

This section does not apply to a disclosure that is or includes intelligence and security information (and section 27 applies instead).
Compare: 2000 No 7 ss 6B, 19(3) Information about internal procedures For the purpose of this Act, an Ombudsman may request 1 or more of the fol‐ lowing from an organisation: (a) (b) (c) information about whether the organisation has established and pub‐ lished internal procedures; and a copy of those procedures; and information about how those procedures operate.
(2) However, the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security, and not an Ombudsman, has the power described in subsection (1) in relation to an intelli‐ gence and security agency.

(3) An organisation is not required to comply with a request made under subsec‐ tion (1) if it is not a public sector organisation.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 6C 32 Ombudsmen may escalate protected disclosure to Minister or investigate disclosure (1) An Ombudsman may, with the consent of a discloser who has made a protected disclosure in accordance with this Act to an organisation or another appropriate authority,— 19 Part 4 s 33 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 (a) refer the disclosure to a Minister if the Ombudsman considers, after con‐ sulting that Minister, that the receiver of the disclosure— (i) (ii) has not acted as it should under section 13; or has not dealt with the matter so as to address the serious wrongdo‐ ing; or (b) investigate the disclosure if the disclosure relates to serious wrongdoing in or by a public sector organisation and the Ombudsman considers that the receiver of the disclosure— (i) (ii) has not acted as it should under section 13; or has not dealt with the matter so as to address the serious wrongdo‐ ing.
(2) Subsection (1) does not authorise an Ombudsman to act under that subsection if— (a) the disclosure relates to serious wrongdoing in or by the office of an offi‐ cer of Parliament; or (b) the receiver is an officer of Parliament.

(3) The Ombudsman must promptly notify a referral or an investigation under sub‐ section (1) to any person that the Ombudsman understands may be investi‐ gating the disclosure.

(4) A disclosure may be referred on more than 1 occasion.
(5) (6) 33 (1) This section does not apply if a disclosure is or includes intelligence and secur‐ ity information (and section 27 applies instead).

In relation to a disclosure that is or includes international relations information, an Ombudsman must comply with this section in a way that is consistent with section 28.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15 Ombudsmen may take over some investigations or investigate together with public sector organisation This section applies to a protected disclosure relating to serious wrongdoing in or by a public sector organisation.
(2) An Ombudsman may take over an investigation of a disclosure from a public sector organisation, or investigate a disclosure together with a public sector organisation, if— (a) the Ombudsman considers that the organisation— (i) (ii) has not acted as it should under section 13; or has not dealt with the matter so as to address the serious wrongdo‐ ing; and (b) the discloser who made the disclosure consents; and 20 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Part 4 s 35 (c) in the case of an investigation together with a public sector organisation, the public sector organisation consents to the Ombudsman acting under this section.
(3) However, this section does not apply to a disclosure that is or includes intelli‐ gence and security information (and section 27 applies instead).

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15A 34 Ombudsmen may review and guide investigations by public sector organisations (1) An Ombudsman may review and guide an investigation of a protected disclos‐ ure by a public sector organisation (either at the organisation’s request or at the Ombudsman’s discretion).
(2) However, subsection (1) does not apply to a disclosure that is or includes intel‐ ligence and security information (and section 27 applies instead).

(3) Subsection (1) does not authorise an Ombudsman to issue a direction to a pub‐ lic sector organisation requiring it to act in a particular manner in relation to an investigation.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15B 35 Ombudsmen may receive reports on investigations and include information in annual report (1) The Ombudsmen may receive reports on the following investigations: (a) (b) (c) investigations referred under section 32: investigations in which an Ombudsman has acted under section 33: investigations in relation to which an Ombudsman has otherwise provi‐ ded information or guidance under this Act.
(2) The Ombudsmen may include in their annual report under section 29 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975 information about all or any of the following (for the period covered by the report): (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) current guidance issued by the Ombudsmen about this Act: the number and types of information and guidance inquiries made to the Ombudsmen about the matters in this Act: the number of protected disclosures made to the Ombudsmen: the number of investigations undertaken or taken over by the Ombuds‐ men: the number of investigations referred under section 32: the outcome of the matters referred to in paragraphs (b) to (e) (if known by the Ombudsmen).
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15C 21 Part 4 s 36 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 36 Chief Ombudsman may appoint persons to perform Ombudsman’s functions under this Act The Chief Ombudsman may, by notice, appoint a person to perform an Ombudsman’s functions under this Act.
37 (1) (2) (3) Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15D Ombudsmen’s functions and powers The functions and powers of Ombudsmen under the Ombudsmen Act 1975, including the function of each Ombudsman to investigate a matter of their own motion under section 13(3) of that Act, are not limited by this Act.
The Ombudsmen have the same powers in relation to investigating a protected disclosure made under this Act as Ombudsmen have in relation to a complaint under the Ombudsmen Act 1975, but are not bound to investigate a protected disclosure.
Sections 19, 20, and 30 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975 apply, with all necessary modifications, to allow an Ombudsman to obtain information, documents, papers, or things that would in the Ombudsman’s opinion assist the Ombuds‐ men to act under this Act in relation to a public sector organisation.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 15E Subpart 5—Other protections and privileges 38 Other protections not limited This Act does not limit any statutory or other protection, privilege, immunity, or defence relating to the disclosure of information.

Compare: 2000 No 7 s 21 39 Legal professional privilege (1) Nothing in this Act authorises a person to disclose information protected by legal professional privilege.

(2) A disclosure of such information is not a protected disclosure.
Compare: 2000 No 7 s 22 Subpart 6—Consequential amendments and repeal 40 Consequential amendments Amend the Acts specified in Schedule 3 as set out in that schedule.

41 Repeal of Protected Disclosures Act 2000 The Protected Disclosures Act 2000 (2000 No 7) is repealed.
22 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Schedule 1 Schedule 1 Transitional, savings, and related provisions s 5 Part 1 Provisions relating to this Act as enacted 1 (1) (2) Disclosure made after commencement of this Act This Act applies to a protected disclosure made after the commencement of this Act (whether the alleged serious wrongdoing occurs before or after then).
If substantially the same disclosure was also made under the Protected Disclos‐ ures Act 2000, sections 11 to 16 apply with all necessary modifications.

2 Disclosure made before commencement of this Act The Protected Disclosures Act 2000 continues to apply to a protected disclos‐ ure made under that Act before the commencement of this Act.
23 Schedule 2 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 Schedule 2 Examples of concerns and examples of appropriate authorities Nature of concerns Anticompetitive conduct Banks (registered banks) Bullying or harassment, including sexual harassment Charities Child welfare and child protection Consumer protection Crime Discrimination Education service Energy safety Environment Financial reporting (private sector–issuers and large companies) Financial reporting (public sector) Financial service providers’ conduct Health Health and safety (work-related) Housing Insurers (licensed insurers) Intelligence and security or classified information International relations Local Government Police 24 s 25 Appropriate authority Commerce Commission Reserve Bank of New Zealand WorkSafe New Zealand (where work- related) Human Rights Commission Department of Internal Affairs Solicitor-General Oranga Tamariki—Ministry for Children Ombudsman Commerce Commission Commissioner of Police Director of the Serious Fraud Office Human Rights Commission Ministry of Education Education Review Office WorkSafe New Zealand (where work- related) Ministry for the Environment Department of Conservation Financial Markets Authority Controller and Auditor-General Financial Markets Authority Ministry of Health Health and Disability Commissioner Ministry of Business, Innovation, and Employment WorkSafe New Zealand Ministry of Housing and Urban Development Ombudsman Reserve Bank of New Zealand Inspector-General of
 Intelligence and Security only (see section 27) Ombudsman only (see section 28) Ombudsman Controller and Auditor-General Department of Internal Affairs Commissioner of Police Independent Police Conduct Authority 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Schedule 2 Nature of concerns Privacy of individuals or security of personal information Professional or trade conduct Prosecutions Public sector Public service Racism Sector regulation Social support or benefits State services Transport and transport safety issues Whistleblowing and protected disclosures Appropriate authority Privacy Commissioner Ministry of Business, Innovation, and Employment Solicitor-General Ombudsman Controller and Auditor-General Public Service Commission Human Rights Commission Commerce Commission Ombudsman Public Service Commission The Treasury (for State-owned enterprises, Crown companies, and organisations named or described in Schedule 4 of the Public Finance Act 1989) Ministry of Transport Ombudsman 25 Schedule 3 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 2022 No 20 Schedule 3 Consequential amendments s 40 Employment Relations Act 2000 (2000 No 24) In section 67B(3), replace “(j)” with “(k)”.
After section 103(1)(j), insert: (k) that the employer has retaliated, or threatened to retaliate, against the employee in breach of section 21 of the Protected Disclosures (Protec‐ tion of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 (because the employee intends to make or has made a protected disclosure).

After section 110A, insert: 110B Retaliation against whistleblower (1) For the purposes of this Part, retaliate has the meaning given in section 21 of the Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022.
(2) An employer may be found to have retaliated, or threatened to retaliate, only if the protected disclosure was a substantial reason for the employer’s relevant actions or omissions.

(3) The burden of proof is on the employer to prove, on the balance of probabil‐ ities, that the disclosure was not a substantial reason for the employer’s actions or omissions.
In section 111, replace “and adverse conduct for prohibited health and safety rea‐ son” with “adverse conduct for prohibited health and safety reason, and retali‐ ate”.

In section 111, replace “and 110A” with “110A, and 110B”.
Human Rights Act 1993 (1993 No 82) Replace section 66 with: Victimisation of whistleblower or person making use of rights prohibited It is unlawful for any person (A) to treat, or threaten to treat, another person (B) less favourably than A would treat other persons in the same or substan‐ tially similar circumstances because— (a) B (or a relative or associate of B)— (i) (ii) (iii) intends to make, or has made, use of their rights under this Act; or has encouraged another person to make use of their rights, or has promoted the rights of another person, under this Act; or has given information in support of, or relating to, any complaint, investigation, or proceeding under this Act; or 66 (1) 26 2022 No 20 Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022 Schedule 3 Human Rights Act 1993 (1993 No 82)—continued (iv) (v) has declined to do an act that would contravene this Act; or has otherwise done anything under or by reference to this Act; or (b) A believes or suspects that B (or a relative or associate of B) intends to do, or has done, anything mentioned in paragraph (a).
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if B knowingly made a false allegation or other‐ wise acted in bad faith.

(3) Any breach of section 22(1) of the Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whis‐ tleblowers) Act 2022 is unlawful under this Act.

The rest of this Act applies to that breach (so that, for example, section 68 of this Act applies to treat employee actions or omissions as done or omitted by their employer).
Intelligence and Security Act 2017 (2017 No 10) After section 171(4), insert: (5) The ability to complain under this section is in addition to the ability to make a protected disclosure under the Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistle‐ blowers) Act 2022.

Ombudsmen Act 1975 (1975 No 9) In section 15(1) and (2), replace “Protected Disclosures Act 2000” with “Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022”.
In section 26(1)(a) and (b), (3), and (4), replace “Protected Disclosures Act 2000” with “Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022”.

In section 29, replace “Protected Disclosures Act 2000” with “Protected Disclosures (Protection of Whistleblowers) Act 2022”.
24 June 2020 30 June 2020 29 March 2021 9 November 2021 8 March 2022 10 May 2022 13 May 2022 Legislative history Introduction (Bill 294–1) First reading and referral to Education and Workforce Committee Reported from Education and Workforce Committee (Bill 294–2) Second reading Committee of the whole House Third reading Royal assent This Act is administered by the Public Service Commission.

Wellington, New Zealand: Published under the authority of the New Zealand Government—2022 27