Product: Credit card or prepaid card

A purchase of 4 items were made with XXXX on XXXX XXXX, XXXX 1. XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX {$140.00} 2. XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX$160.00} XXXX. XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX {$1100.00} All of these items are listed on my invoice as a PURCHASE DATE of XXXX XXXX, XXXX These items were purchased using the XXXX XXXX  card issued by XXXX XXXX. 

On my monthly statement, I had 3 separate line items with deferred interest tracking. This was due to the fact that the three above listed lines items were shipped/available for pick up at different times. 

Item # 2 ( XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX {$160.00} ) was returned, and it was a battle at that time to get that line item paid in full and removed from balances due. I have repeatedly been told, payments are applied to open interest bearing purchases first, then to the " oldest '' balance. Since all items were purchased, committed too, purchase agreement were made on the same day, I have no idea why, on my statement, one shows posting XXXX/XXXX/XXXX ( {$1100.00} ) and a smaller amount on XXXX/XXXX/XXXX ( {$140.00} ) This past week, I called in to ask, how can I pay OFF the {$140.00} line item so that it goes away? Since both line items were bought in the SAME INVOICE, it is just a matter of preference to see I have ONE item due by XXXX XXXX, XXXX than TWO! Is that so wrong?? 

I have been told repeatedly, when I call in, I need to have no " active '' charges due. That I need to make the minimum payment due - yet they ca n't confirm where that is actually applied. And then anything over my minimum will be applied to my oldest balance. I specifically asked last week, ok fine, I am going to make an additional payment right now. I will PAY OFF all PENDING CHARGES - that really had NOT been billed, and would TECHNICALLY be due XXXX XXXX to avoid periodic interest. I made two payments days apart. One for {$140.00} and {$300.00} - the latter payment would more than pay the open charges ( subject to periodic interest ) and would then allow my {$140.00} payment to completely REMOVE the line item owing {$140.00} and satisfy that deferred amount. 

Today, I got my new statement. They credited a total of {$190.00} to the {$1100.00} balance. I just called in and was SCOLDED by a manager named XXXX that if I were him I would want the amount with higher interest paid first. Excuse me, this is MY CARD, not his, and I will have NO INTEREST due on this account, as I WILL HAVE the entire deferred amount paid in full by expiration on XXXX/XXXX/XXXX. I am NOT happy that ONE PURCHASE ALL CULMINATED ON XXXX/XXXX/XXXX appeared on my statement as THREE LINE ITEMS! Which I did have to call and have them CORRECT to make sure I did have 0 % interest for XXXX as promised as purchase. Since 2-amounts were below the threshold, the potential for not having 0 % interest was a present and imminent cause to happen. 

WHY is this company so positively DIFFICULT in payment allocation??? I SHOULD have ONE deferred balance due by XXXX/XXXX/XXXX, not two. Both individual are due XXXX/XXXX/XXXX so what is it to them if I have one line or two lines due the same day. It is EVERYTHING to me! And I am the one who has the legal obligation to pay them! 

I want my {$140.00} line item paid in full and one the one remaining for XXXX original balance ) of {$1100.00} should now read, {$1000.00}. 

I deal with another bank - XXXX for my XXXX XXXX account, which ALL items are deferred, as well as XXXX were are deferred and non deferred - they are HAPPY to apply my payment allocation HOW I DIRECT! Why is Barclaycard telling me how to manage my money? I am well aware of what I owe. I accept what I owe. And trust me, I will NOT be payment ANY INTEREST. In fact, look back on my Barcalycard, I have ran several months with NON PROMOTIONAL charges, and in over a year and a half, I have paid them ZERO INTEREST. That should tell them, I am a responsible borrower and DO PAY what is owed BEFORE interest applies.