Product: Mortgage

XX/XX/XXXX I started the process of getting pre-approved for a mortgage. The senior banker I started working with stated I should go through a verified pre-approval to make my pre-approval more credible when going under contract. This process was a bit lengthier than usual but I did not worry too much about it. I was told that this lengthy process put me through an underwriting process that showed I could afford the loan. 

In XX/XX/XXXX, I found a property to purchase. I worked with the lender and banker and stated I would be selling an asset and using the money to put down on the new property. The sold asset had an XXXX on the title I own with my spouse. I sold my other asset on XX/XX/XXXX. Within 10 days I transferred {$56000.00} from the sale to the title company to secure my deal. Again, I was told I had successfully gone through underwriting. I began getting passed around to various bankers in the process. Again due to the size of the lender, I did not worry too much. I was given a closing date of XX/XX/XXXX. 

By the middle of XX/XX/XXXX, I was told certain income sources of mine were not eligible to be used to lower my debt to income ratio as well as the investment property having a lower appraised rental rate. I did not worry too much because I knew I could pay off debts if needed. Again, I was told underwriting had approved me I just needed to get my debt to income ratio lower. The bankers began asking me about my spouse 's income. I stated that my spouse was unable to be on the loan at this time due to being a homemaker. I also disclosed that I was a member of the XXXX community. My solution was to have my mother come on as cosigner to help alleviate the debt to income ratio. This was not a problem - or so I thought. 

3 business days before closing ( XX/XX/XXXX ), I received a phone call from the senior banker I initially began working with that i was not allowed to use the income from the sale and that I had not gone through underwriting as previously stated. The senior banker and his team stated that I did not own the funds from the sale according to my taxes. XXXX XXXX is jointly  owned as a married couple XXXX XXXX XXXX- we are able to file taxes in several ways according to tax laws. The discrepancy they stated was that one year we filed as pass through income through my spouse and the second year we filed the XXXX income jointly. 

When the senior banker called me he could not tell me what verification was needed to show that I did in fact own the company with my spouse. He kept stating that verification needed to come from my taxes. I along with my spouse tried to explain that the XXXX had varying options for tax filing and that we had an operating agreement that stated us both as owners. He suggested a letter from our CPA? We knew this would have no legally baring. I asked him again what verification the underwriters needed and he could not answer. He just repeated that underwriters were stating that the money from our asset sale by our joint company was not recognized by them as being shared property. I offered to share our XXXX member agreement and other documentation but he stated it was not needed. 

On XX/XX/XXXX the senior banker called me again to state that the underwriters would not accept a letter from a CPA ( which I knew ). I asked him what they wanted again and he could not provide an answer. I stated to him that I was being discriminated against due to my XXXX marital status and him and his underwriters failing to acknowledge my joint property with my spouse. I did end the call due to shock of clearly seeing the timeline of discrimination since disclosing my XXXX status. An hour or so later, he called me stating he would try to use the member agreement ( that clearly states my husband and I are joint owners of the XXXX ) to convince the underwriters that we both owned the XXXX and the funds could be used. 

I am still waiting to get confirmation if they will recognize my joint ownership of the XXXX.