Product: Mortgage

I'm sure that every customer who purchased a home through XXXX XXXX XXXX can relate to this. I walked into a XXXX XXXX XXXX retail store for manufactured homes. I have steered through its process of loan applications and due processes that many first-time homebuyers are unaware of. I applied for the loans I requested and put {$1000.00} down to secure the house I wanted to buy from them, but then, I was steered further into a disaster that harmed my family tremendously. I would have gladly accepted the disaster if I had only been able to secure safe water utilities for my family but I couldn't and had to fight for two years to get safe water in the home ; by then, it was too late I was going to get evicted despite having a lawyer. 

I no longer have a lawyer so there should be no reason why my questions can not be answered. When I did have attorney representation none of my questions were responded to anyway and I would like answers now. 

XXXX : Through affiliated business arrangements XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX owns 100 % of XXXX XXXX, XXXX, who owns 100 % of XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX XXXX, who owns 100 % of COuntryPlace Acceptance Corporation, who owns 100 % of CountryPlace Mortgage , LTD, who owns XXXX XXXX XXXX, etc... Correct? So when I ask questions regarding all aspects of the purchase from you why do you dismiss being the same entity? 

XXXX : Upon discovery your loan officer was found in violation of the Texas Finical Code ( CH156-180 ) so the loan officer was not and should not have anything to do with the earnest money contracts however that was not the case in my situation when I ask questions in regards to this you should be able to answer them correctly? 

Q3 : Knowing from Q2 that the loan officer did have everything to do with my Earnest Money Contract can you please provide me with the template that you use or receive that you require to offer loans to your customers? Because I have two different templates provided by your affiliated businesses that are in question.

Q4 : I was informed in a previous complaint that the mortgagee can not sell loans for properties in subdivisions. Yet I was should a loan in a subdivision that was two subdivisions, previously the XXXXXXXX XXXX XXXX, and then later on the XXXXXXXX XXXX XXXX. What does this mean for my loan? How does it affect my loan purchase considering that I was sold a loan that the mortgagee could not sell? 

Q5 : When providing earnest money contracts to customers do you put two separate addresses for the customers to loophole increasing the total loan amount or to loophole selling these loans in subdivisions that you can not sell loans for? 

Q6 : Based on the loan increases is it common behavior for the loan to increase in an amount that covers alleged " builder paid costs '' and " buyer closing costs ''? Because for my loan these costs were double charged and cancelled one another out. 

Q7 : Is {$15000.00} the typical amount for " builder paid costs '' I found this also consistent with other customers ' earnest money contracts. 

Q8 : I received a tax form 1099-A from the mortgagee stating that my principal outstanding was {$220000.00} and the fair market value of the property was {$300000.00}. Box 5 was not checked making me the borrower not liable for repayment of the debt. What happens to the {$76000.00} difference in the price? And the Mortgagee bought the property back on XX/XX/year>, for {$250000.00}?