Product: Credit card

I opened an account with Apple for the Apple Card in XX/XX/XXXX. The Apple Card is a joint collaboration of Apple Inc. and Goldman Sachs.

Since then, I have owed anywhere from {$0.00} to as much as many thousands of dollars on the card at any one time. To be clear, as far as I know, I have never been late for any payment due. The balance on the card has fluctuated a lot due to various purchases and installment plans for Apple devices. However, I think there has only been one month in all of this time that I didn't pay down the card balance enough to avoid interest for that month. I think there was XXXX month where I might have paid XXXX XXXX in interest. However, I think every other month since I opened the account, I have paid at least enough to have no interest for that month, whether it required me to pay hundreds or even multiple thousands of dollars that month. 

In XX/XX/XXXX, I had the card paid down to {$0.00} ( other than installment payments that are due at the end of each month ), but I bought a new phone for my son that was having more and more problems with his XXXX. So, the tax on th phone was charged to the account. However, I finally got the account balance again back to {$0.00} in XX/XX/XXXX with no new charges ( other than the installment payments that are due at the end of each month ). 

A purchase I had made in XX/XX/XXXX for {$1900.00} ( and already paid Apple/Goldman Sachs for since the card balance was down to {$0.00} ) was refunded to me resulting in a negative balance ( account credit ). Goldman Sachs has decided to just keep the money to apply towards future installment payments, which as of now total $ XXXX. 

They deducted {$220.00} from my account credit at the end of XX/XX/XXXX and before I was able to call them ( which I did on XX/XX/XXXX ), they had already on XX/XX/XXXX deducted {$220.00} from the account credit to offset the payment that was due on XX/XX/XXXX. The payment is due at the end of the month, but XXXX weeks earlier they are deducting the payment from my account credit. The installment payments are due on the due date at the end of the month. 
What makes Goldman Sachs think even remotely that it is okay to hold on to almost {$2000.00} of my money that I had already paid to the card previously so that they can use the money interest free and apply to future payments that are not due yet? It isn't like I have been late even once and certainly not late multiple times requiring them to attempt to get payment from me. The installment payments are due on a set schedule at the end of each month for a period of time. The payments are not due early and I am not obligated to let them keep my money for XXXX or XXXX months out for future payments until the funds are exhausted. 

As of today, the balance ( credit ) is - {$1400.00}. 

I chatted with Goldman Sachs in XXXX about getting the original account credit of {$1900.00} ( {$1900.00} minus the Apple Cash that I had recived originally in XX/XX/XXXX with the purchase ) refunded to me and they blew me off XXXX they keep that towards future payments. Then, I called and spoke to a Specialist again on XX/XX/XXXX and said they could refund me the {$1400.00} to a bank account. I never received anything. So, I followed up today to check on the status and spoke to a Specialist as well as a supervisor and they said " No, your request was declined. We are keeping the money towards future installment payments. '' I asked on what grounds? I have never been late. I have never even paid any interest that I know of, but one month out of almost three and a half years. Furthermore, the installment payments are NOT due now. They are due at the end of each month and I have been exceptional at paying them each month. It is simply unethical, and, I think, illegal for them to keep the money I have already paid to the bank for a purchase, that was refunded and not returned it to me.