Question:
Question: What is another name for contingency planning?
Choices
A. Synergy planning
B. Ad hoc planning
C. Business level planning
D. Scenario planning

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which feature does not form one of Fayol's 14 principles of management?
Choices
A. Esprit de corps
B. Initiative
C. Order
D. Individualism

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What one of the following is not a characteristic of the job characteristics model?
Choices
A. Task identity
B. Autonomy
C. Reward
D. Feedback

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Workers' acceptance of change is characteristic of what type of culture?
Choices
A. Team culture
B. Collaborative culture
C. Group culture
D. Collective culture

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a virtual organisation?
Choices
A. An organisation that uses information and communications technologies (ICT's) to coordinate activities without physical boundaries between different functions
B. An organisation that uses internet technologies to sell products to customers
C. An organisation that manages the supply chain using digital technologies
D. An organisation that coordinates the workforce via video conferencing

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: From what does a chain of command extend?
Choices
A. Bottom to top
B. Top to bottom
C. Diagonally
D. Laterally

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What do you call a style of leadership that takes account of others' views, opinions and ideas?
Choices
A. Laissez-faire
B. People-oriented
C. Democratic
D. Autocratic

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the guiding principle of scientific management?
Choices
A. Experimentation
B. Fluid working relationships
C. Freedom of association
D. One best way to do a job

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the term Tuckman uses for reaching consensus as a group?
Choices
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Forming
D. Norming

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What theory is built around the principle that 'people make choices regarding how to behave based on values and beliefs'?
Choices
A. Expectancy
B. Instrumental
C. Classical
D. Contingency

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the term for decisions limited by human capacity to absorb and analyse information?
Choices
A. Cognitive rationality
B. Conscious rationality
C. Bounded rationality
D. Restricted rationality

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a definition of an objective?
Choices
A. A defined specified outcome to be achieved in the long-term
B. A clear set of goals to be attained given a set number of resources
C. A clearly defined and measurable outcome to be achieved over a specified timeframe
D. A set standard of performance agreed by workers and managers

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is not a purpose of an organisational structure?
Choices
A. To coordinate people and resources
B. To organise lines of communication
C. To formalise authority
D. To limit workers' rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: To what time-frame do strategic plans relate?
Choices
A. Long-term
B. Medium-term
C. Short-term
D. Unspecified time it takes to achieve an aim

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the term for organisational development through a formally designed organisational structure?
Choices
A. Organic
B. Mechanistic
C. Formal
D. Structured

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: 'There is no discernible link between planning and performance'. Who is this position held by?
Choices
A. Michael Porter
B. Milton Friedman
C. Gary Hamel
D. Henry Mintzberg

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What does situational theory of leadership emphasise?
Choices
A. Personality traits
B. Events
C. Environment
D. Political situation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is intuitive decision making based on?
Choices
A. Guesswork
B. Gambling
C. Instinct
D. Rationality

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Enhancement of job satisfaction and productivity are key characteristics of which theoretical perspective of work design?
Choices
A. Process improvement
B. Techno-structural change model
C. Job characteristics model
D. Socio-technical systems

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which 18th century writer produced a famous book called 'The Wealth of Nations'?
Choices
A. Frederick Taylor
B. Henry Mintzberg
C. Adam Smith
D. Dr Samuel Johnson

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which one of these characteristics is most commonly associated with the 'rational goal' model of management?
Choices
A. Worker welfare
B. Health and safety
C. Interpersonal relationships
D. Productivity

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?
Choices
A. organising, planning, controlling, leading
B. organising, leading, planning, controlling
C. planning, organising, leading, controlling
D. planning, organising, controlling, leading

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How does lateral communication in an organisation occur?
Choices
A. Information passes upwards.
B. Information passes downwards.
C. Information is a two-way process.
D. Information passes between different departments and functions.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Of what is advertising a form?
Choices
A. Focusing strategy
B. Differentiation
C. Cost leadership
D. Growth

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is not a component of an agile organisation?
Choices
A. Market focus and position
B. Human resources: multi-skilling
C. Organisational structure
D. Project-based culture

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Of what is worker autonomy in decision making an example?
Choices
A. Worker freedom
B. Greater worker negotiation
C. Worker empowerment
D. Increased worker power

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Vertical integration forwards is when a firm mergers or acquires another
Choices
A. Towards the source of supply
B. Towards the consumer
C. At the same stage of the supply chain
D. In another industry

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the term for an autonomous business entity within an overall corporate enterprise which is set apart from other areas of the business?
Choices
A. Subsidiary
B. Strategic partnership
C. Strategic alliance
D. Strategic business unit

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is not a characteristic of a corporate social responsibility framework?
Choices
A. Retaining the status quo
B. Understanding society
C. Harnessing diversity
D. Building capacity

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a whistleblower?
Choices
A. Someone who reports illegal or unethical acts
B. Someone who commits illegal or unethical acts
C. Someone who benefits from illegal or unethical acts
D. Someone who devises illegal or unethical acts

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is T-group training?
Choices
A. A group whose aim is transformational change
B. A group brought together to deliver training programmes
C. Team training for the purposes of advancing technology
D. Team building activities involving learning

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a social enterprise concerned with?
Choices
A. Profit maximisation
B. Maximising market share
C. Providing public service
D. Running a business to create social benefits

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is not part of Schein's model of the formation of culture?
Choices
A. Shared values
B. Pre-conceptions
C. Shared beliefs
D. Norms

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is not one of the layers of cultural influence?
Choices
A. Social
B. Business
C. Organisational
D. Company

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How many human polyomaviruses are known at present?
Choices
A. 100
B. 1
C. 10
D. unknown

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: AIDS activism in the U.S. resulted in:
Choices
A. Food and Drug Administration reforms
B. Easier access to investigational drugs
C. Changes in the way medicine was practiced in the U.S.
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Globally, the most deaths are caused by:
Choices
A. Respiratory infections
B. Diarrheal diseases
C. Malaria
D. Tuberculosis

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What happens during the 'incubation period'?
Choices
A. The virus is cleared from the body by the immune system
B. Virus replication happens at an intracellular level
C. This period commonly lasts for a few days
D. This period commonly lasts for a few hours

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Newborn infants in countries with limited access to safe water and low levels of education should be:
Choices
A. Exclusively formula fed for six months
B. Exclusively breast fed for six months
C. Should receive both breast milk and other foods as tolerated in the first 6
D. months

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Achieving effective change in a community is usually dependent on which of the following segments of society?
Choices
A. Innovators
B. Early adapters
C. Middle adapters
D. Late adapters

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: “Contingency management” is”:
Choices
A. A strategy of last resort for reducing high-risk behaviors
B. Paying drug users for negative urine specimens
C. Paying sex workers to use condoms
D. Paying drug users to use condoms

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Typical clinical symptoms following infection with astroviruses include which of the following?
Choices
A. Acute pneumonia
B. Gastroenteritis in children
C. Hepatitis
D. rashes

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is the most special characteristic of the adaptive immune system?
Choices
A. Antibodies
B. T cells
C. Memory T cells
D. Clonal expansion of pre-existing antibodies and/or T cells

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Chemotherapy is now an option for clinical care of patients. Typical drug regimens now include which of the following?
Choices
A. Interferon and ribavirin
B. Lamivudine and ribavirin
C. Combinations of adefovir and entecavir and/or tenofovir (DAA)
D. Interferons alone

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: There were no new cases of Ebola virus in the United States from January 1, 1997 through January 1, 1998. Which of the following epidemiologic terms does this statement describe?
Choices
A. Incidence
B. Lifetime expectancy
C. Lifetime prevalence
D. Period prevalence

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How were retroviruses discovered?
Choices
A. In chickens as Rous sarcoma
B. In humans as HTLV-1
C. In mice causing leukaemia
D. In cats causing leukaemia

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Most surveillance systems use which of the following study designs?
Choices
A. Cohort
B. Serial cross-sectional
C. Mortality
D. Syndromic

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Polio can be eradicated by which of the following?
Choices
A. Attention to sewage control and hygiene
B. Killed polio vaccine
C. Live polio vaccine
D. Combination of the killed and live vaccines.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Public health ethics is:
Choices
A. Patient-centered
B. Population-centered
C. Subject-centered
D. Must respect the rights of individuals

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How many people globally are currently infected with hepatitis B?
Choices
A. 350 million
B. 2 billion
C. 100,000
D. 1 million

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In a study, a group of people are exposed to an environmental toxin but are not treated observed over time on a standard set of measures to ascertain the potential effects of the toxin. This type of study design is called
Choices
A. Clinical trial
B. Double-blind
C. Longitudinal
D. Prospective cohort

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which disease do polyomaviruses predominantly cause?
Choices
A. Tumours
B. Brain pathology
C. No disease at all
D. Kidney infections

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How are antibody producing cells stimulated?
Choices
A. Interacting with a virus short peptide
B. Interacting with a T helper cell.
C. Interacting with a plasma cell
D. Interacting with a virus infected cell

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The single most important key to the success of the Multicenter AIDS Cohort (MACS) is:
Choices
A. The brilliance of the principal investigator
B. The commitment of the staff
C. The commitment of the participants
D. The quality of the laboratories

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Picornavirus replication as a positive strand RNA virus is particularly typified by which of the following?
Choices
A. Virions carry RNA transcriptase enzyme into the cell
B. The virion RNA is translated into a single large polyprotein
C. The virion RNA acting as mRNA
D. The virus exits by apoptosis of the cell

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Why are members of the astrovirus family only recently recognised as significant enteric viruses for humans?
Choices
A. The genome has been identified by the new method of deep sequencing
B. A new vector has been discovered
C. They infect a wide range of domestic animals and so contaminate meat
D. Knowledge of their replication as positive sense ssRNA viruses is now complete

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which virus infection was not first identified by clinical observation?
Choices
A. HIV
B. Rubella teratogenicity
C. Microcephaly and Zika
D. Hepatitis C

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The particular quality of the U.S. health care system is its:
Choices
A. Systematic, democratic approach
B. Fragmented, uncoordinated approach
C. The result of rationale decisions by informed legislators
D. a. and c. above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The three key intervention strategies according to Professor Shoptaw are:
Choices
A. Behavioral intervention, treatment and structural interventions
B. Condoms, drug therapy and regulation of commercial sex establishments
C. Drug replacement therapy, community intervention and needle exchange
D. HIV testing, drug therapy and condom use

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Measles has been controlled in many countries by which of the following?
Choices
A. By hygiene
B. By MMR vaccine
C. By new molecular peptide vaccines
D. By humanised monoclonal antibodies to F protein

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How can the spread of filoviruses be restricted?
Choices
A. New antivirals
B. New humanised monoclonal antibodies
C. Hygiene and social distancing
D. New vaccines

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Most pandemics have arisen from influenza viruses from which of the following animals?
Choices
A. Pigs
B. Wild birds
C. Bats
D. Humans

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: PreP is an effective strategy for reducing the incidence of HIV in:
Choices
A. Women
B. Drug users
C. Pregnant women
D. a. and b. above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The replication of hepatitis B includes which of the following stages?
Choices
A. Movement of intact virus to the cellular cytoplasm for replication
B. Conversion of relaxed circular viral DNA in to covalently closed circular (CCC) DNA in the nucleus
C. Virions produced in the cytoplasm by cellular DNA polymerase
D. Oncogenic activity to transform liver cells.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How does the papilloma family of viruses cause cancer?
Choices
A. Replicate in dividing cells and encodes three oncogenic proteins E5, E6 and E7
B. Integrates viral genome into cellular DNA
C. Has an oncogene able to initiate cancer
D. Acts as a co factor for a cellular oncogene

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The noroviruses typically cause which of the following?
Choices
A. Diarrhoea
B. Rash
C. Projectile vomiting and diarrhoea
D. Disease of the central nervous system

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Deep nucleotide sequencing (NGS) is now cheap enough for general application. What will the technique mainly be useful for?
Choices
A. Speedy vaccine development
B. Identifying genetic variation
C. Giving details on virus excretion in symptomless carriers
D. Quickly identifying new viruses

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Determinants of acquiring an HIV infection from an infected person per sexual act include:
Choices
A. Viral RNA level
B. Presence of other infections
C. Condom use
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How is next generation sequencing (NGS) most often used?
Choices
A. To identify a newly discovered virus
B. To search for drug resistant mutants
C. To identify quasi species viruses
D. Cannot be used

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following HPV viruses are known to cause cervical cancer?
Choices
A. Viruses of all 5 clades
B. Types 14, 16, 18, 31, 45
C. None are oncogenic per se
D. Types 1-180

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which member of the paramyxovirus family can cause very serious croup?
Choices
A. Measles
B. Meta pneumo virus
C. Hendra
D. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is the cause of delay in HIV testing among the Latino population?
Choices
A. Stigma attached to the disease
B. Machismo
C. Drug abuse
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Describe the morphology of a togavirus.
Choices
A. Enveloped spherical particles with an icosahedral structure
B. Non-enveloped with an icosahedral structure
C. Filamentous virus with protruding glycoproteins
D. Small round viruses

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A good surveillance system should provide information about:
Choices
A. Who is being infected
B. Where the infected individuals are
C. How rapidly infection is spreading
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What has so far prevented polio being eradicated from the world?
Choices
A. Inability to vaccinate in some countries
B. Poor quality (unsafe) vaccines
C. Genetic variation
D. Expense

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The range of disease caused by the family is wide but identify the exception from the following:
Choices
A. Aplastic crisis in anaemia patients
B. Fifth disease at 'Slapped cheek' syndrome
C. Foetal infection with teratogenicity
D. Serious pneumonia

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following drugs inhibit herpes viruses?
Choices
A. Amantadine
B. Acyclovir
C. Oseltamivir
D. Azidothymidine

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The three countries with the most drug injectors are:
Choices
A. Bolivia, Argentina, Thailand
B. China, the U.S. and Russia
C. Afghanistan, Iraq and Myanmar
D. Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Officials at a large community hospital report an increased incidence of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) among children aged 5 – 12. They point out that some households in the community are exposed to chemical waste from a nearby factory. They believe that chemical waste causes leukemia. If a study is designed to evaluate the hospital officials’ claim, which of the following subjects are most likely to comprise the control group?
Choices
A. Children exposed to the chemical waste who do not suffer from ALL
B. Children not exposed to the chemical waste who do not suffer from ALL
C. Children from the hospital’s outpatient clinic who do not suffer from ALL
D. Children not exposed to the chemical waste who suffer from ALL

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Lassa and Ebola are emergent viruses in W. Africa. What is their origin?
Choices
A. Humans
B. Primates
C. Fruit bats
D. Pigs

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Antivirals can be used prophylactically or therapeutically in persons in which of the following circumstances?
Choices
A. If administered within 4 days of clinical signs
B. If used within 48 hours of first clinical signs
C. Used for the obese
D. Used in children under the age of 2 years where high virus spread is noted

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Papillomaviruses cause warts and cancer but how do they most often infect humans?
Choices
A. Are water borne
B. Are airborne
C. Via scratches and breaks in the skin
D. Are nosocomial and spread in hospitals

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: There are 57 serotypes of adenovirus currently recognised. Which has the most important clinical impact?
Choices
A. Diarrhoea
B. Eye infections
C. Respiratory tract infections
D. Haemorrhagic cystitis

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How are new polyomaviruses detailed
Choices
A. Shot gun sequencing
B. Cultivation in human neural cells
C. Deep pyro sequencing (NGS)
D. Monoclonal antibody techniques

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Describe the YF vaccine.
Choices
A. Killed virus vaccine
B. Live attenuated virus vaccine developed by Pasteurian passage
C. Live attenuated vaccine produced by direct mutation of the virus genome
D. Experimental vaccine only

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the biggest risk factor for infection with Ebola?
Choices
A. Working in a category IV laboratory
B. Attending a funeral of a victim outside
C. Nursing a patient at home
D. Attending football matches or large gatherings

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special "risk" sectors by:
Choices
A. Hygiene
B. Vaccination
C. Antiviral drugs
D. Humanised monoclonal antibodies

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A case-control study is conducted to assess the association between alcohol consumption and lung cancer patients with lung cancer and 100 controls are asked about their past alcohol consumption. According to the study results, alcohol consumption is strongly associated with lung cancer (OR = 2.5). The researchers then divide the study subjects into two groups: smokers and non-smokers. Subsequent statistical analysis does not reveal any association between alcohol consumption and lung cancer within either group. The scenario described is an example of which of the following?
Choices
A. Observer bias
B. Confounding
C. Placebo effect
D. Nonresponse bias

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How are arenaviruses spread?
Choices
A. Sexual contact
B. Blood
C. Aerosols of urine from infected small mammals
D. Mosquito bites

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which areas of the world are rabies free?
Choices
A. USA
B. Norway
C. EU
D. Island nations, UK, NZ and Australia

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The risk of perinatal transmission of HIV-1 infection during breast feeding is increased due to:
Choices
A. Mixed feeding
B. Very early introduction of solids
C. Both a and b
D. None of them

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How is the parvovirus family targeted to reduce disease?
Choices
A. Transfusion blood is screened
B. Vaccine has been developed
C. A range of new antivirals
D. Social distancing

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Who discovered the first virus?
Choices
A. The microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
B. The bacteriologist Charles Chamberland
C. The botanist Dmitri Iwanowsky
D. The virologist Jonas Salk

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Structural interventions typically target:
Choices
A. Policies
B. The environment
C. Availability
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the main clinical picture of hepatitis A?
Choices
A. Rash
B. Limb paralysis
C. Jaundice and abdominal discomfort
D. Upper respiratory tract infection

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: If the human norovirus cannot be cultured in cell cultures how can it best be studied?
Choices
A. Animal models
B. Volunteer studies
C. In cells using replicon systems
D. Deductions from the 3 human ORF's of the virus genome

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Any systematic error in the design, conduct, or analysis of a study that results in a mistaken estimate of an exposure’s effect on the risk of disease is called:
Choices
A. Confounding
B. Bias
C. Interaction
D. Stratification

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Describe the coronavirus structure.
Choices
A. Club shaped glycoprotein spikes protrude through a lipid bilayer
B. An icosahedral structure with an envelope
C. An icosahedral large pleomorphic virus
D. Large regimented barrel shaped virus

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: SARS is described as a zoonotic virus - what does this mean?
Choices
A. Such viruses are confined to animals
B. They do not cause disease in humans
C. They emerge from animals to cross the species barrier infrequently
D. They cause pandemics

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following coronaviruses has caused thousands of deaths around the world as an 'emergent' virus?
Choices
A. MERS
B. SARS
C. OC43
D. HKU1

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Clinical infection by an arenavirus is characterised by which one of the following?
Choices
A. Pantropic infection
B. Signs of malaria
C. Short (2-3 days) incubation
D. Hepatitis

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How does rubella cause foetal abnormalities?
Choices
A. By crossing the placenta early in pregnancy and infecting the foetus
B. By only infecting the placenta
C. By inducing cytokines and chemokines in the mother
D. By raising the temperature of the mother and inducing an abnormal immune reaction to the foetus

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is an unusual feature of the replication cycle in coronaviruses?
Choices
A. The RNAs all terminate in a common 3´ and produce nested set transcripts
B. They take advantage of recombination with the long RNA genome
C. They are not highly mutable
D. They use capped cellular mRNA's

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which replication strategy is paralleled by some other viruses?
Choices
A. Cytoplasmic replication and 'snatched caps' are used as primers for RNA transcription
B. Replicates in cytoplasmic tubules
C. Extracellular replication
D. Replicates in the nucleus

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The characteristic of a generalized epidemic is:
Choices
A. High rates in drug users
B. High rates in MSM
C. High rates in pregnant women
D. High rate in STD clinic attendees

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: An updated version of classification shows the parvovirus family as having how many genera?
Choices
A. Having 5 genera
B. A very large number of virus types
C. Only a single virus
D. Only three viruses

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The largest Latino community in the U.S. is:
Choices
A. Puerto Rican
B. Mexican
C. Cuban
D. Brazilian

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How can epidemics of astrovirus mainly be controlled?
Choices
A. By vaccination
B. Using passive antibody
C. Basic knowledge of hand washing and food hygiene
D. Quarantine

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: 500 women aged 40 – 54 who present for routine check-ups are asked about their meat consumption the women turn out to be vegetarian. During the ensuing 5 years, 5 vegetarians and 43 non-vegetarians develop colorectal cancer. Which of the following best describes the study design?
Choices
A. Case series report
B. Cohort study
C. Case-control study
D. Cross-sectional study

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In the absence of treatment the risk of HIV transmission from an infected mother to her fetus/infant was highest in which of the following areas?
Choices
A. Africa
B. North America
C. Europe
D. Japan

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Poliovirus can most easily become more virulent by which of the following processes?
Choices
A. Mutation of the RNA genome at only a few positions
B. Recombining with another enterovirus
C. Altering its protein coat
D. Multiple nucleotide deletions and substitutions

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A virus such as influenza which emerges suddenly and spreads globally is called:
Choices
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Zoonotic

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?
Choices
A. Age
B. Sex
C. Genetic factors
D. Travel

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How do viruses of the calcivirus family replicate?
Choices
A. As negative strand RNA viruses
B. As positive strand RNA viruses
C. Retroviruses
D. Using genetic reassortment

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The parvoviruses have a rather unique genome; what form does it take?
Choices
A. Circular ds DNA
B. Small linear ss DNA
C. ds DNA genome
D. RNA genome with RT

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How can the morphology of filoviruses be described?
Choices
A. Very large ball like structure
B. Long filamentous threads
C. Icosahedral virion
D. Floppy membranes without defined morphology

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the usual direction of 'knowledge' in a cell?
Choices
A. From protein to DNA
B. From DNA to DNA
C. From DNA to RNA to protein
D. Random

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Why are drug combinations essential for HIV?
Choices
A. Single drugs are not completely inhibitory
B. Mutations negate the effect of one drug
C. Combinations of antibiotics are effective versus TB
D. The virus cannot mutate vs a combination

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Many virus infections result in immune pathology, this is caused predominantly by which of the following?
Choices
A. A cytokine storm
B. Antibody mediated reactions
C. A response of killer T cells (CD-8)
D. A decline in function of the immune system

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: David Baltimore is a molecular biologist. What did he discover?
Choices
A. The structure of DNA
B. X-ray crystallographic techniques
C. The enzyme reverse transcriptase
D. The anti HIV drug zidovudine

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Identify the most commonly used diagnostic technique in the virus laboratory:
Choices
A. Virus isolation in cell culture
B. Deep sequencing (NGS)
C. Reverse transcriptase (RT) PCR
D. Immuno-serology

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The major risk group for HIV infection among Latinos is:
Choices
A. Heterosexual males
B. Homosexual males
C. Females
D. Injection drug users

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:
Choices
A. Before antiretroviral drugs are started
B. After antiretroviral drugs are started
C. Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs
D. Doesn’t make any difference

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A “benefit” of research may accrue:
Choices
A. To the participant
B. To his/her family
C. To society
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the current best option for preventing future outbreaks of Ebola?
Choices
A. Rebuild scientific, medical and nursing infrastructure and train staff
B. Early and accurate diagnosis with molecular kits
C. Develop effective vaccines
D. Arrange rapid intervention into West Africa with EU and USA army teams

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Where are arenaviruses predominately located in the world?
Choices
A. SE Asia
B. Russia
C. Africa and S. America
D. N. America

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The most important element of ethical research on human subjects is:
Choices
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. A methodologically sound study design
D. Informed consent

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The characteristic of injecting drug users in Asia is/are:
Choices
A. Strong family support
B. Low failure rate for rehabilitation centers
C. Remaining a member of the community
D. Both a and c

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:
Choices
A. Eradicated smallpox
B. Eradicated polio
C. Increased hygiene
D. A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the most important factor for virus classification?
Choices
A. The geometry of the virus
B. How many proteins the virus has
C. The disease a virus causes
D. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The major issue for HIV infection among the Latino population is:
Choices
A. Late detection of HIV status
B. Cultural beliefs
C. Immigration
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Disease can most often be prevented by which of the following:
Choices
A. Vaccines
B. Antivirals
C. Hygiene
D. mosquito nets

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Results of surveillance should be distributed to:
Choices
A. Decision makers
B. The public
C. The data collectors
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which is a major characteristic of the bunyavirus family?
Choices
A. Amplify by persistent infection of midgets, mosquitoes, sand flies, ticks
B. Predominantly mosquito borne
C. Genetic recombination or reassortment
D. Spread to humans via bites of mice and rats

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The group that permits analysis of the entire natural history of HIV/AIDS is:
Choices
A. Persistent seronegatives
B. Long-term survivors
C. Seroconverters
D. Long-term survivors with low levels of CD4+ cells

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The chance of acquiring HIV infection from factor VIII in the United States in 2011 is 0% primarily because:
Choices
A. All donors for factor VIII are screened
B. Factor VIII is subject to detergent “washing” prior to release
C. Factor VIII is made synthetically
D. Factor VIII is important from countries with no reported HIV

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The prevalence of HIV among Latino-Americans compared to other ethic groups in the U.S. is:
Choices
A. Highest
B. Higher than all other ethnic groups except African-Americans
C. Higher than in all other ethnic groups except African-Americans and
D. Native Americans

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the rubella syndrome?
Choices
A. A description of the 3 day rash of German measles
B. The teratogenic lesions of cataracts, deafness, mental retardation and microcephaly in the foetus
C. Combination of rash and post infection encephalitis
D. Side effects of the MMR vaccine

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the most common way for a virus to kill a cell?
Choices
A. Dissolves the cellular membrane
B. Induces apoptosis via caspases
C. Fragments cellular DNA
D. Totally blocks cellular transcription

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterised by which of the following?
Choices
A. Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes
B. High levels of recombination
C. Rapid adsorption and fusion from without via a hydrophobic peptide
D. High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The highest risk of HIV infection among drug users in the U.S. is in:
Choices
A. The east coast
B. The central United States (Kansas, Missouri etc.)
C. Southern California
D. The Pacific Northwest (Washington, Oregon, Idaho)

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A study is conducted to assess the relationship between race and end-stage renal disease pathologists independently study specimens from 1,000 kidney biopsies. The first group of pathologists is aware of the race of the patient from whom the biopsy came, while the second group is blinded as to the patient’s race. The first group reports ‘hypertensive nephropathy’ much more frequently for black patients than the second group. Which of the following types of bias is most likely present in this study?
Choices
A. Confounding
B. Nonresponse bias
C. Recall bias
D. Referral bias

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is urban yellow fever (YF)?
Choices
A. Part of a cycle of mosquitoes biting humans in cities
B. Part of a cycle of mosquitoes biting humans and monkeys in forested areas
C. A mutant of the YF virus
D. A YF species that has adapted to new mosquitoes

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The current testing policy of the Centers for Disease Control and the World Health Organization is:
Choices
A. “Opt-in”
B. “Opt-out”
C. Mandatory testing of prisoners
D. Mandatory testing of high-risk groups

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Common cold viruses are ubiquitous and invade by which route?
Choices
A. Faecal oral route
B. Respiratory and surface route
C. Cuts in the skin
D. Sexual transmission

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Assembly is a vital late replication stage for a virus and is often accomplished by which of the following?
Choices
A. Use of cellular scaffolding in the nucleus and cytoplasm
B. Snatching cellular lipids and membranes
C. Master plan embedded in the viral genome
D. Random interactions between cellular and virus proteins

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The biggest single determinant of HIV transmission to the infant is:
Choices
A. Mother’age
B. Mother’s viral load
C. Mother’s immune status
D. Father’s viral load

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What does the reproductive number of a virus tell us?
Choices
A. How virulent the infection will be
B. How many people will die
C. How many contacts will be infected from one case
D. How long the 'incubation period' will be

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: PreP is most effective for which group:
Choices
A. Men with frequent unprotected sex
B. Men with infrequent unprotected sex
C. Women with frequent unprotected sex
D. Women with infrequent unprotected sex

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A special feature of adaptive immunity is:
Choices
A. Speed of response to a foreign protein
B. Ability to distinguish self and non self
C. Ability to distinguish viruses and bacteria
D. Short memory

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: As regards the range of diseases caused by viruses:
Choices
A. Each member of the 'family' causes the same disease.
B. Members of many families can cause the same sort of disease.
C. Most virus disease are now controlled by vaccines.
D. Most viruses can cross placenta and be teratogenic.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which is the exception in the following range of disease symptoms caused by bunyaviruses?
Choices
A. Pneumonias
B. Haemorrhagic fever
C. Hepatitis
D. Impaired renal function

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: There is no vaccine against HIV because of which of the following?
Choices
A. The virus is so antigenically variable
B. Such a vaccine would be too expensive
C. The virus can be controlled by a change in sexual habits
D. Latency can abrogate any vaccine effect

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The requirements for an effective surveillance system include:
Choices
A. A diagnostic algorithm
B. Staff members
C. A sampling frame
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: MERS has four special characteristics and here we have one exception - which is it?
Choices
A. Spread by faecal oral route
B. Aerosol droplet transmission
C. Reservoir in bats
D. A conduit to humans via camels

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The major beneficiary of Medicaid in the U.S. is:
Choices
A. Single men
B. The elderly
C. Women and children
D. Undocumented residents

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is the most important for controlling disease caused by norovirus?
Choices
A. A norovirus vaccine
B. Attention to handwashing and hygiene
C. Quarantine
D. New antiviral drugs

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Why do vigorous CD8 cell responses in chronically infected HIV-positive individuals fail to eliminate the virus?
Choices
A. CTL exhaustion
B. Epitope escape
C. Suboptimal CTL
D. Absence of dendritic cells

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The most widespread and important retrovirus is HIV-1; which of the following is true?
Choices
A. Infecting only gay people
B. Infecting only males
C. Infecting every country in the world
D. Infecting only females

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:
Choices
A. CD4+
B. CD8+
C. CD57
D. NK cells

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?
Choices
A. The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur
B. The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine
C. The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity
D. The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Most viral vaccines are produced by which of the following techniques?
Choices
A. Traditional cell culture
B. Molecular biology
C. Animal tissues in vitro
D. VLPs (virus like particles)

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The treatment of hepatitis C has been revolutionised most recently by which of the following?
Choices
A. The use of interferon
B. A new vaccine
C. Monoclonal antibodies
D. Direct-acting Antivirals such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent years. This has been mainly facilitated by:
Choices
A. Mutation in the virus allowing replication in the mosquito Aedes albopictus
B. Air Travel
C. Climate change
D. Poor mosquito control and the absence of DTT

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The successful anti-cancer HPV vaccine consists of:
Choices
A. Live virus attenuated by specific mutagenesis
B. Whole virus chemically inactivated vaccine
C. Self-assemble of virus L1 protein into VLP
D. Sub unit chemically inactivated vaccine

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The rotavirus is an important cause of which of the following?
Choices
A. Respiratory infection in adults
B. Gastroenteritis in children
C. Diarrhoea and vomiting in adults
D. Cancer

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The surveillance testing strategy associated with the least selection bias is:
Choices
A. Compulsory
B. Unlinked anonymous
C. Voluntary anonymous
D. Voluntary confidential

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In a medical class of 147 students, the distribution of scores on a biochemistry final examination has a mean equal to 67, a median equal to 76, a mode equal to 80, a standard deviation equal to 5.5, and a variance equal to 30.25. Three students were unable to take the test on the scheduled date and were given a different form of the exam 1 week later. Which parameter is most likely to be the least biased estimator of central tendency for this distribution of biochemistry test scores?
Choices
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Standard deviation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What disease do herpes viruses not cause?
Choices
A. Infantile paralysis
B. Encephalitis
C. Sexually transmitted disease
D. Cancer

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The purpose of a double-blind or double-masked study is to:
Choices
A. Achieve comparability of treated and untreated subjects
B. Reduce the effects of sampling variation
C. Avoid observer and subject bias
D. Avoid observer bias and sampling variation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Nipah is a zoonotic paramyxovirus; where did it originate?
Choices
A. Originating in pigs
B. Originating in bats
C. Coming from humans
D. Coming from horses

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the genome structure of the polyomavirus family?
Choices
A. Circular ds DNA with T antigen coding regions
B. Circular ssDNA
C. RNA genome with RT
D. Segmented RNA genome

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Interferons are very special defence mechanisms which operate by:
Choices
A. Binding to viruses
B. Binding to neighbouring cells
C. Producing a long lasting state of resistance
D. Inhibiting virus induced enzymes

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Genetic characteristics of the bunyavirus family include which one of the following?
Choices
A. Three segmented negative stranded RNA viruses with anti-sense expression
B. Highly mutable RNA viruses
C. Emerging viruses via arthropod vector
D. Use an RT enzyme

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The basic code of ethical research (respect for persons, beneficence, and justice) was first established by the:
Choices
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Declaration of Helsinki
C. CIOMS
D. Belmont Report

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The paramyxovirus family employ what strategy at virus entry?
Choices
A. Initiate a fusion 'from without' using virus F protein
B. Has fusion from within a cytoplasmic vacuole at low pH
C. Viruses can puncture plasma membranes at entry
D. A fusion mediated by M protein

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The risk of acquiring HIV from a unit of blood in the United States is now:
Choices
A. 1/10,000 units
B. 1/200,000 units
C. 1/500,000 unit
D. 1 per 2 million units

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the essential pathology of astroviruses?
Choices
A. Very restricted replication in the gut
B. Can cause infection of the central nervous system
C. Sequence diversity allows widespread replication
D. Can cause infection in the upper respiratory tract

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following are goals of vaccination?
Choices
A. Prevent infection
B. Prevent disease
C. Prevent transmission
D. All of the above

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Randomization of study subjects in a clinical trial is most helpful for controlling for which of the following?
Choices
A. Placebo effect
B. Recall bias
C. Non-compliance
D. Effect modification (interaction)

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A quasi species virus such as influenza and HIV has which of the following characteristics?
Choices
A. A fragmented or segmented genome
B. Co-existence of innumerable genetic variants
C. Possesses RNA and DNA
D. A very large genome

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?
Choices
A. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA
B. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA
C. This genome is circular
D. Their RNA genome is segmented

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the genetic structure of rotavirus?
Choices
A. Circular DNA containing virus
B. RNA virus with RT
C. ds RNA virus
D. ds RNA virus in segments

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Are/were viruses:
Choices
A. The most abundant form of life on earth?
B. Discovered before bacteria?
C. Grown in animals in the laboratory?
D. The cause of all human disease?

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: It is unlikely that a 'cure' of HIV is possible with current drugs because:
Choices
A. Even in combination current drugs do not completely block viral replication
B. They do not penetrate to cells
C. They cannot block viral transcription from integrated viral DNA
D. They cannot penetrate to the CNS

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which viruses appear to be hypermutable?
Choices
A. DNA viruses
B. 'Emerging' viruses
C. Influenza and HIV
D. RNA viruses

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How are herpes infections controlled?
Choices
A. Chemotherapy
B. Vaccines
C. Hygiene and social distancing
D. No method

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A new drug with in vitro activity against HIV is tested on a population of patients with Western-blot confirmed HIV infections. Out of the 200 individuals in the patient population, 100 are chosen by lottery to receive the drug. The drug, which is tasteless, is administered in a cup of orange juice; the other patients receive pure orange juice. Neither the nurses, doctors, nor the patients know which patients receive the drug. At the end of the study period, the number of CD4+ T cells is determined for all of the subjects. This is an example of a
Choices
A. Case-control study
B. Case report
C. Cohort study
D. Cross-sectional study

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the most successful and most widely used 'travel' vaccine for international visitors?
Choices
A. Influenza
B. MMR
C. Yellow Fever
D. Rabies

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a virus pandemic?
Choices
A. A sharp and rapid epidemic involving more than one country
B. An outbreak which recurs again and again
C. A rapid global outbreak starting from a single focus
D. A characteristic of common cold virus and HIV

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Benefits of opioid replacement therapy as an approach for HIV prevention include:
Choices
A. Reducing craving for and use of illicit opioids
B. More sharing of injecting paraphernalia
C. Reducing frequency of injection drug use
D. Both a and c

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Papilloma viruses are characterised by what genetic feature?
Choices
A. A genome of ds circular DNA encoding around 8 ORF
B. A virus with RT able to integrate and cause cancer
C. A variable ds RNA virus
D. A large DNA containing virus

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: As part of the Women’s Health Study, researchers investigated the role of systemic inflammation in predicting cardiovascular disease in women (N Engl J Med. 2002;347[20]:1557-1565). Researchers used a prospective study design with a large sample size. Blood levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) were measured at baseline and women were followed for an average of 8 years. The following table shows the relative risk estimates of cardiovascular event (heart attack or stroke) within 5 years by quintile of CRP level for the 30,000 women. The first quintile is used as the reference category.  1 0.49 mg/dL Relative Risk Number of women  1.0 6000  2 >0.49-1.08 mg/dL 1.8 6000  Quintile of CRP Level 3 >1.08-2.09 mg/dL 2.3 6000  4 >2.09-4.19 mg/dL 3.2 6000  5 >4.19 mg/dL 4.5 6000  Based on the relative risk data above, one can conclude:
Choices
A. There is no risk of heart attack/stroke for women with CRP levels in the first quintile.
B. Decreasing CRP level appears to increase the risk of heart attack/stroke.
C. Increasing CRP level appears to increase the risk of heart attack/stroke.
D. There appears to be no association between CRP levels and heart attack/stroke.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the morphology of the Dane particle?
Choices
A. Double shelled icosahedron
B. Lipid membrane free icosahedron
C. Flexuous and filamentous morphology
D. Numerous small particles

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The adenovirus virion has which unique structural feature?
Choices
A. Icosahedron
B. Icosahedron with slender fibres
C. 'Complex' structure not yet fully explored
D. Flexuous lipid containing structure

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: A city has a population of 250,000 cases and 400 deaths each year from this disease. There are 2,500 deaths per year from all causes. The prevalence of this disease is given by
Choices
A. 400/250,000
B. 600/250,000
C. 1,000/250,000
D. 2,500/250,000

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which unique form does the rabies virus take?
Choices
A. The virion has a dumbbell appearance
B. It is shaped like a bullet from a gun
C. The virus is star shaped
D. The virion is very pleomorphic

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following diseases is not caused by togaviruses?
Choices
A. Chikungunya
B. Rubella (German measles)
C. Western Equine encephalitis
D. Yellow Fever

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Why are the viruses of this family called astroviruses?
Choices
A. Because of the nucleotide sequence of their genomes
B. The superficial appearance of a 'star' on negative straining electron microscopy
C. Because of isolation in very large numbers of mammals including dromedaries, cats and cattle
D. Because they are more common in developing countries with poor hygiene

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Why do emerging viruses like Zika and Ebola continue to plague us?
Choices
A. These viruses mutate and hence emerge
B. We disturb forests where they quietly exist as a zoonosis
C. Mosquitoes are the main culprit to encourage virus spread
D. The viruses can be halted by new vaccines

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which State ordinarily exercises jurisdiction in respect of crimes committed on board vessels?
Choices
A. The coastal State
B. The flag State
C. All States enjoy such jurisdiction
D. The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of justiciability?
Choices
A. Justiciability refers to the possibility of enforcement of a particular right by the relevant rights holders
B. Justiciability refers to the just nature or cause of a particular right
C. Justiciability refers to the courts' assessment of whether the non-enforcement of a particular rights conforms to principles of justice
D. Justiciability refers to the obligation of a State to enforce a particular Right

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In what way is Responsibility to Protect (R2P) different from humanitarian intervention?
Choices
A. R2P is essentially the same as humanitarian intervention
B. R2P requires a call for assistance by the State in distress
C. R2P is less arbitrary because it requires some UNSC input and its primary objective is to avert a humanitarian crisis
D. R2P always involves armed force, whereas humanitarian intervention does not

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the 'Lotus principle'?
Choices
A. The so-called Lotus principle is that 'restrictions upon the independence of States cannot therefore be presumed', or, as it has been construed, 'whatever is not prohibited is permitted in international law'
B. The so-called Lotus principle is that States are free to choose the Court that they will submit their disputes
C. The so-called Lotus principle is that States are not prohibited to assert their enforcement jurisdiction on the high seas
D. The so-called Lotus principle is that customary law derives from the combination of State practice and opinio juris

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of these statements best describes the UK Constitution?
Choices
A. The UK Constitution's only source of power is that of the sovereign
B. The UK Constitution gives the judiciary the power to overturn acts of parliament
C. The UK Constitution is uncodified and can be found in a number of sources
D. The UK Constitution is based on a Bill of Rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the obligation of the peaceful settlement of disputes?
Choices
A. It is an obligation of result, that is, States are under a strict obligation to resolve their disputes as soon as possible
B. It is an obligation of conduct, ie States have an obligation to try to resolve their disputes through peaceful means. This does not entail an obligation to resolve their disputes
C. It is a peremptory norm of international law and all States have a legal interest to safeguard its application in any given dispute
D. It is an obligation which concerns solely international courts and tribunals

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which one of the following statements is false?
Choices
A. Protocol 14 changed the committee that hears admissibility cases from a three judge to a one judge formation
B. Protocol 14 added a new criterion for admissibility
C. Protocol 14 abolished the Commission of Human Rights
D. Protocol 14 extended the judicial term of office for the European Court of Human Rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which is a 'rock' under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
Choices
A. Rocks are the islands that are less than 10 square miles
B. Rocks are the islands that do not have any maritime zone
C. Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their own and according to article 121 (3) have no Exclusive Economic Zone or continental shelf.
D. Rocks are the small islands that can sustain human habitation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of international legal personality?
Choices
A. It means that only States are considered subjects of international law
B. It means having rights and duties under international law and a capacity to enforce these by or against the relevant actor
C. It means that an entity may challenge the authority of States
D. It is a term that is meant to denote legal, as opposed, to physical persons under international law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following is a treaty-based human rights mechanism?
Choices
A. The UN Human Rights Committee
B. The UN Human Rights Council
C. The UN Universal Periodic Review
D. The UN special mandates

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The UN Vienna Declaration 1993 declared that
Choices
A. Third generation rights are of primary importance
B. Civil and political rights are core rights
C. All types of rights are indivisible, interrelated and interdependent
D. Social and economic rights are non-enforceable

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the principal source of immunity in respect of international organisations (IOs)?
Choices
A. The principal source of immunity for IOs is the UN Charter
B. The principal sources of immunity for IOs are headquarters agreements and multilateral treaties providing specific immunities
C. The principal source of immunity for IOs is customary law
D. The principal source of immunity for IOs is the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Immunities

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is there any hierarchy or priority among States under international law?
Choices
A. Yes, the States that were the founding members of the United Nations are vested with more powers and authority
B. Yes, the Permanent Five Members of the UN Security Council (UK, USA, France, Russia, China) are in a superior position than the other States
C. No, all States are considered equal as sovereign States (the principle of sovereign equality, enshrined in article 2, para 1 UN Charter)
D. Whether there will be any hierarchy among States is a matter of each international organization to decide

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the declaratory theory of recognition?
Choices
A. Recognition is determinate for the existence of statehood
B. Recognition is simply declaratory of statehood but not determinate
C. Recognition is merely a declaration of interest
D. Recognition requires a declaration by the newly-created State

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the function of "standard-setting in human rights diplomacy?
Choices
A. Standard-setting means putting forward binding legal standards
B. Standard-setting means merely proposing binding legal standards
C. Standard-setting means putting forward non-binding legal standards
D. Standard-setting means setting certain standards of conduct in human rights treaties

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What dimension did the Kadi judgment introduce with respect to the incorporation of UN Security Council resolutions?
Choices
A. The Kadi judgment demanded that UNSC resolutions are construed in accordance with human rights
B. The Kadi judgment demanded that all UNSC resolutions be incorporated without any further implementing legislation
C. The Kadi judgment required that important UNSC resolutions be transformed and not merely incorporated
D. The Kadi judgment claimed that UNSC resolutions are not binding if they violate human rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Magna Carta was
Choices
A. An agreement in 1689 which guaranteed freedom of speech in Parliament
B. An agreement in 1215 between the King and his barons, which guaranteed certain protections for subjects
C. A constitutional document in the 19th century guaranteeing the right to vote
D. A document setting a complete Bill of Rights for England

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Do individuals (physical) persons enjoy international legal personality in the same manner as States and international organisations?
Choices
A. Individuals enjoy international legal personality, but this is limited
B. Individuals enjoy unlimited international legal personality
C. Individuals do not enjoy any international legal personality
D. Individuals can only bring claims before international courts

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is there any hierarchy or priority among the various methods of peaceful settlement of disputes?
Choices
A. Yes, all the political methods (e.g. negotiation, mediation, inquiry, conciliation) should be exhausted prior to resorting to legal methods
B. Legal methods prevail over the political methods, since they are binding upon the parties
C. There is no hierarchy among these methods and the choice belongs to the disputing States
D. It is a matter of an impartial third party to decide which method will have priority over the other

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following statements is false?
Choices
A. In the 1990's it became apparent the European Court of Human Rights had to be reformed because it wasn't examining enough cases
B. In the 1990's it became apparent the European Court of Human Rights had to be reformed because the workload had increased
C. In the 1990's it became apparent the European Court of Human Rights had to be reformed because it was a part time court that could not process the growing number of complaints
D. In the 1990's it became apparent the European Court of Human Rights had to be reformed because of the growth in the number of individuals who could access the Court after the increase in the number of member states

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of proportionality in relation to the options available to the victim State?
Choices
A. The victim State may use the same means and intensity of force as the aggressor
B. The victim State may use any means to defeat and incapacitate the aggressor
C. The victim State may only use such means and force as it is necessary to defeat the aggressor
D. The victim State can do nothing without Security Council approval

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the ordinary geographical scope of jurisdiction?
Choices
A. Jurisdiction is ordinarily extra-territorial
B. Jurisdiction is ordinarily on the high seas
C. Jurisdiction is ordinarily territorial
D. Jurisdiction is determined by the location of the offender.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which are the formal sources of international law?
Choices
A. Custom, treaties and judicial decisions
B. Custom, general principles of law and theory
C. Treaties, custom and general principles of law
D. Treaties, custom and General Assembly Resolutions

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea?
Choices
A. The determination of baselines is used for the measuring of the internal waters of coastal States
B. The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all maritime zones, since they constitute the starting point for measuring the breadth of each zone
C. The determination of baselines is instrumental to the safe navigation of vessels on the high seas
D. Baselines are drawn only in cases of maritime delimitation between opposing State before an international court or tribunal

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the difference between conciliation and mediation?
Choices
A. Conciliation is the continuation of mediation with the difference that conciliation produces a binding result, while mediation not
B. Conciliation is conducted exclusively by representatives of the UN Secretary-General, while mediation may also be conducted by third States' officials
C. Mediation is usually conducted by a person appointed with the consent of the parties, while conciliation involves a commission, which proceeds to an impartial examination of the dispute and proposes settlement terms
D. Conciliation is a method of dispute settlement pursued only by virtue of a treaty, while mediation may also be on an ad hoc basis

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: In Osman v UK (1998), the European Court laid down a test, which can be used to apply a general positive obligation on a state. Which of the following statements is not part of the Osman test?
Choices
A. The risk must emanate from a state agent
B. If a real and imminent risk (of death/harm)
C. A state should take reasonable steps to prevent death/harm occurring
D. A state knows or ought to have known

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Who is entitled to request an advisory opinion of the ICJ?
Choices
A. Only the principal organs of the UN may request an advisory opinion (Security Council, General Assembly, ECOSOC, Trusteeship Council, Secretariat)
B. All international organizations may request an advisory opinion
C. The General Assembly and the Security Council may request advisory opinions on any legal question, as well as 'other organs of the United Nations and specialized agencies, which may at any time be so authorized by the General Assembly, may also request advisory opinions of the Court on legal questions arising within the scope of their activities'
D. The principal organs of the UN may request an advisory opinion as well as the State that have been authorized by the General Assembly

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the purpose of universal jurisdiction?
Choices
A. Its aim is to establish certain offences as universal
B. Its aim is to deter the commission of certain international crimes
C. Its aim is to provide jurisdiction to all States in respect of particular crimes
D. Its aim is to provide jurisdiction to all States in respect of all international crimes

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Are all acts of State organs attributed to the State under the law international responsibility?
Choices
A. The conduct of any State organ shall be considered an act of that State, even in the case that this conduct was unauthorized or ultra vires
B. Only the conduct of the higher echelons of the government of State shall be attributable to it
C. The conduct of any State organs shall be considered an act of that State, provided that it is intra vires
D. Only the conduct of the executive branch of the State shall be considered an act of that State.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a 'treaty' according to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT)?
Choices
A. Treaties are all agreements concluded between States, international organizations and non-State entities (e.g. corporations)
B. Treaties are agreements concluded between States in written form and governed by international law
C. Treaties are both the written and oral agreements between States
D. Treaties are agreements concluded between States in written form governed either by international or domestic law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is the unlawful homicide committed by Minister of country X abroad an act jure imperii or jure gestionis?
Choices
A. Such conduct is a public act (jure imperii)
B. Such conduct never attracts immunity
C. Such conduct is a private act (jure gestionis)
D. Such conduct is a public act but is shielded by immunity

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What was the outcome before the European Court of Human Rights in the Al-Adsani case?
Choices
A. The Court held that the right to a fair trial trumped the privilege of immunity
B. The Court held that immunity trumped the right to a fair trial
C. The Court held that immunities were not in conflict with the right to a fair trial
D. The Court held that human rights considerations prevailed over all other contrary rules of international law, including most immunities

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What other criteria were imposed by the Badinter Commission on the former Yugoslav republics?
Choices
A. The Commission required a commitment to submit disputes to the ICJ
B. The Commission required a change in boundaries
C. The Commission required a commitment to human rights and democracy
D. The Commission required an exchange of ethnic populations

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How treaties are to be interpreted?
Choices
A. Treaties are to be interpreted in good faith in accordance with the ordinary meaning to be given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the light of its object and purpose
B. Treaties are to be interpreted only in accordance with the ordinary meaning of their terms
C. Treaties are to be interpreted in accordance with the intention of the parties, as evidenced in the preparatory works of the treaty
D. Treaties are to be interpreted only in light of its object and purpose

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: When coastal States do enforce their criminal jurisdiction over foreign vessels in their ports?
Choices
A. Port States generally do not enforce their criminal jurisdiction over crimes that do not infringe their customs laws or disrupt peace and public order.
B. Port States enforce their jurisdiction in all cases of delinquent vessels
C. Port States enforce their jurisdiction only in respect of very serious crimes, such as drug trafficking
D. Port States are not entitled to enforce their jurisdiction over any foreign vessel

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the value of the Resolutions of the UN General Assembly in terms as a 'source' of international law?
Choices
A. GA Resolutions are considered as additional sources of international law and thus binding upon States
B. GA Resolutions are equivalent to treaties
C. GA Resolutions reflect always customary law
D. GA Resolutions are considered as material source, in the sense that they may enunciate statements of customary law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?
Choices
A. Treaties may create only rights for third States
B. Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States
C. Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their consent
D. Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when the latter consent.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following articles are not qualified rights?
Choices
A. Article 3
B. Article 8
C. Article 9
D. Article 11

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is dualism?
Choices
A. Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are part of a unified legal system
B. Under dualism, international and domestic laws comprise distinct legal Systems
C. Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are distinct but equal in hierarchy
D. Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are distinct legal systems whereby domestic law always prevails

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is an act jure imperii?
Choices
A. An act is jure imperii when undertaken by an international organisation
B. An act is jure imperii when undertaken in an official State capacity
C. All acts undertaken by State officials are acts jure imperii
D. An act is jure imperii when undertaken by a State corporation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the relationship between the formal sources of international law?
Choices
A. There is no hierarchy between the formal sources of international law
B. Treaties supersede custom
C. Custom supersedes treaties
D. General Principles of Law supersede both custom and treaties

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What was the particular advantage of UNSC Resolution 678 over a collective defensive action under Article 51 UN Charter during the Gulf War?
Choices
A. Resolution 678 allowed the allies to attack Iraq with nuclear and chemical weapons
B. Resolution 678 is narrower than the inherent right of self-defence under Article 51 UN Charter
C. Resolution 678 was faster to adopt and negotiate.
D. Resolution 678 is broader because it authorised the use of force with respect to any matter threatening the peace and security of the Gulf region.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How can customary law be related to treaty provisions?
Choices
A. Treaties may only codify customary law
B. Customary law is a different source of international and it cannot be embodied in treaties
C. Treaties may 1) codify customary law, 2) 'crystallise' customary law, 3) lead to the emergence of customary law
D. Customary law can emerge only from few multilateral treaties

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What does it mean for a State to be sovereign?
Choices
A. Sovereignty means being recognised by all other States
B. Sovereignty means to be able to enter into treaties and join the UN
C. Sovereignty means freedom to determine one's own affairs without external interference
D. Sovereignty means possessing the right to defend oneself

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of functional recognition?
Choices
A. Recognition is a function as opposed to a power
B. Recognition is reciprocal between two States
C. Recognition is only afforded to particular administrative acts not to the entity's declared statehood
D. Recognition is only afforded to the government, not the State

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of "act of State" doctrine?
Choices
A. The act of State doctrine denotes that all State acts attract immunity
B. The act of State doctrine denotes that the assessment as to the existence of an alleged tort committed by a State belongs to the executive and not the courts
C. The act of State doctrine denotes that the courts are well placed to assess the existence of an alleged tort committed by the State
D. The act of State doctrine is a legal mechanism that allows the courts to provide immunity to public acts of foreign States

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How can the structure of the international society be displayed?
Choices
A. The structure of the international society follows the vertical model of the domestic legal orders
B. International society consists of a constellation of sovereign States and other international organizations, which are dispersed in a rather horizontal order of authority
C. International society is so anarchical that there is no order of authority, neither vertical nor horizontal
D. The structure of the international society resembles the structure of the most powerful nations in the world

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Are there any limitations to the incorporation of customary crimes under English law?
Choices
A. There are no limitations to the incorporation of customary crimes
B. Customary crimes must be contained in a multilateral treaty in order to be automatically incorporated
C. The courts may freely incorporate customary crimes into the domestic sphere
D. The situation is not clear-cut but an act of parliament would most probably be required

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the function of the contiguous zone?
Choices
A. The contiguous zone functions as security zone of the coastal State
B. The contiguous zone is a zone, in which the coastal State may explore and exploit its mineral resources
C. The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to prevent and punish infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws
D. The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State safeguards its archaeological and historical objects

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the examples below has not been developed by the European Court of Human Rights as a situation where the state has a positive obligation to protect?
Choices
A. When the applicant is in the custody of the state
B. Where the state must investigate claims against it
C. The development of a legal framework to protect those within the state
D. To provide housing for all those homeless within a state

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which case was the first to define the meaning of the doctrine of 'margin of appreciation' as applied by the European Court of Human Rights?
Choices
A. Goodwin v UK (2002)
B. Airey v Ireland (1979)
C. Osman v UK ( 1998)
D. Handyside v UK (1976)

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: How are the members of the arbitral tribunal appointed?
Choices
A. All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by the parties
B. All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by the parties
C. All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by an impartial third party, such as the president of the ICJ
D. All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by the parties from a restricted list of arbitrators

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Are the peremptory norms of international law the only norms that set out obligations erga omnes?
Choices
A. Yes
B. No, acts of international organizations also set out such obligations
C. No, decisions of international courts also set out such obligations
D. No, even though all peremptory norms set out obligations erga omnes, the latter may also spring from treaties regulating objective regimes or unilateral acts

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the constitutive theory of recognition?
Choices
A. Recognition is determinative of statehood
B. Recognition requires constitutional approval by third nations
C. Recognition requires that the constitution of the recognised State includes sufficient human rights guarantees
D. Countries wishing to be recognised must possess a valid constitution

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The enforcement mechanism of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (and Protocol) consists of
Choices
A. A reporting mechanism only
B. Judgment of an international tribunal
C. Right to individual petition only
D. A reporting mechanism and right to individual petition

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is piracy under international (jure gentium) law subject to universal jurisdiction?
Choices
A. Piracy jure gentium is subject to flag State jurisdiction
B. Piracy jure gentium is subject to universal jurisdiction
C. Piracy jure gentium is subject to port State jurisdiction
D. Piracy jure gentium is subject to nationality-based jurisdiction

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What are self-executing treaties?
Choices
A. Self-executing treaties are adopted only by the executive
B. Self-executive treaties are clear and precise enough so as not to require any further implementing measures
C. Self-executing rely on implementing measures stipulated in the treaty Itself
D. Self-executing treaties follow the doctrine of transformation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is the ICJ hostile to the idea that an armed attack may arise through a series of lower intensity, yet cumulative, instances of armed force?
Choices
A. The ICJ was not hostile to the accumulation theory
B. The concept of an armed attack refers to a single attack, not multiple smaller instances of armed force
C. In the Nicaragua case the ICJ dismissed the accumulation theory
D. The ICJ has never addressed this issue

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is there any priority among international courts and tribunals?
Choices
A. According to the lis pendens rule, the court or the tribunal that seizes first the dispute has exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate it
B. The International Court of Justice has by definition priority over any other court or tribunal
C. Since there is no lis pendens rule in international law and all depends on the consent of the parties to a dispute, there is no priority or hierarchy among international courts and tribunals
D. Regional or special courts have priority over all others in line of the principle of lex specialis

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another State?
Choices
A. When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is to give other State access to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States
B. Third States may never have access to fisheries within another State's EEZ
C. The coastal State is to give access to fisheries within its EEZ only to neighbouring States
D. Third States are free to fish within another EEZ, except from certain designated areas

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the purpose of sovereign immunity?
Choices
A. The purpose of immunity is to protect foreign Heads of State from embarrassment
B. Immunity protects a State from being invaded by another
C. Immunity shields States from being sued in the courts of other States
D. The purpose of immunity is to offer impunity in respect of all crimes

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is passive personality jurisdiction?
Choices
A. It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the offender
B. It is jurisdiction based on where the offence was committed
C. It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the victims
D. It is jurisdiction based on the country where the legal person was Registered

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following types of rights have been described as first generation rights?
Choices
A. Social and economic rights
B. Civil and political rights
C. Cultural rights
D. People's rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the problem of 'fragmentation' of international law?
Choices
A. Fragmentation of international law concerns the possibility of different legal regimes apply the same rules of international law
B. It is possible for several legal regimes (ie foreign investment law and human rights law) to exist and develop in isolation of each other, ultimately culminating in the production of divergent rules of international law
C. Fragmentation is when States assume different interpretations of the same rule of international law
D. Fragmentation is when States disagree to abide by a certain rule of international law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is functional (ratione materiae) immunity?
Choices
A. Functional immunity covers the person but not the act
B. Functional immunity covers the act and incidentally also the person committing the act
C. Functional immunity covers the State and incidentally also the act
D. Functional immunity covers both private and public acts as long as they are sanctioned by the State

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of implied authorisation?
Choices
A. Presumption of Security Council approval of armed force when a State has been forewarned
B. Implicit authorisation on the basis of a specific number of votes by UNSC members
C. Presumption that all unlawful attacks will be subject to armed force by a resolution of the UNSC
D. In cases of repeated unlawful attacks the UNSC shall authorise neighbouring States to take whatever measures they deem necessary to rectify the situation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which philosopher called the idea of natural rights 'nonsense on stilts'?
Choices
A. Alan Gerwith
B. Emmanuel Kant
C. John Locke
D. Jeremy Bentham

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Who has the authority to conclude a treaty on the part of States?
Choices
A. Treaties are concluded by the competent representatives of States. Heads of States, heads of governments, ministers of foreign affairs and heads of diplomatic missions are presumed to have such authority
B. Treaties may only negotiated and concluded by the heads of State and ministers of foreign affairs
C. Treaties are negotiated and signed only by the persons that bear the necessary 'full powers' and no person is presumed to hold such authority
D. Treaties are concluded only by members of the diplomatic missions of States

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Who is a 'persistent objector'?
Choices
A. The State which persistently objects to the rule in question after its formation
B. The State which denies to be bound by the rule in question for a short period
C. The State which persistently and publicly objects to the formation of a rule of customary law from its outset
D. The State which accepts the formation of a rule of customary law but it retains objections as to its content

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of collective security?
Choices
A. The right to self-defence by more than one nation acting in concert
B. The right of one's allies to defend the victim State
C. The authorisation of armed force by the UN Security Council
D. The authorisation of peacekeeping missions by the UN General Assembly

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: The European Convention on Human Rights is predominantly concerned with which of the following?
Choices
A. Economic and social rights
B. Environmental rights
C. Civil and political rights
D. Economic freedom

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is the jurisdiction of international tribunals regulated by the same principles applicable to national courts?
Choices
A. The jurisdictional principles applicable to national courts are also common to international tribunals
B. The jurisdiction of all international tribunals is regulated by the UN Security Council
C. International tribunals share some, but not all, of the jurisdictional principles applicable to national courts
D. The jurisdiction of international tribunals is dictated solely by their founding treaties

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of collective rights?
Choices
A. Collective rights belong to distinct groups of people
B. Collective rights are those that belong to particular groups as opposed to the individual members of the group
C. Minority rights are collective rights
D. Collective rights entail a right of the group as such as well as individual rights of the group's members

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Are States under any obligation when they conduct negotiations?
Choices
A. States are under no obligation as to how they conduct their negotiation
B. States are under an obligation so to conduct themselves that the negotiations are meaningful
C. States are under an obligation to find a solution of the dispute whenever they conduct negotiations
D. States are under an obligation to inform the UN Secretary-General about the progress of their negotiations

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the major difference between naturalism and positivism?
Choices
A. On the one hand, naturalism is based on a set of rules that are of universal and objective scope and on the other hand, positivism is based on a structured and coherent legal system that is created by States in light of their interests and desires
B. While naturalism serves only the theory human rights law, positivism has a wider and more general scope
C. Naturalism concerns the underpinning values of the international society, while positivism the international rules as such
D. Naturalism is a school of thought advocated outside of Europe, while positivism is Euro-centric theory

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is an 'internationally wrongful conduct'?
Choices
A. An international wrongful conduct is an action or omission which is in breach of a rule of international criminal law
B. An international wrongful conduct is every breach of an international obligation of the State, whether attributable to it or not
C. An internationally wrongful conduct consists of an action or omission attributable to the State, which constitutes a breach of an international obligation of the State
D. An internationally wrongful conduct is the conduct that cannot be excused on grounds of necessity, force majeure etc.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the effects doctrine?
Choices
A. It posits that jurisdiction exists only when it is effective
B. The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction on the State which has an effective link with the harmful conduct
C. The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction on the State sharing the nationality of the offender
D. The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction to the State on whose territory the conduct produces effects

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which persons are considered as 'de facto' organs of the State under the law of international responsibility?
Choices
A. 'De facto organs' are the individuals that are empowered by law to exercise elements of governmental authority
B. 'De facto organs' are the persons, which are, in fact, acting on the instructions of, or under the direction or control of, that State in carrying out the conduct attributable to the State
C. 'De facto organs' are the de jure organs of the State that act without due authority or ultra vires
D. 'De facto organs' are the organs, whose acts or omission cannot be attributed to the State

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the fundamental prerequisite for the incorporation of custom under English law?
Choices
A. Custom is incorporated if it is not in conflict with existing legislation
B. Custom is superior to English law and is always incorporated
C. Custom must first be recognised by Parliament before the courts can bring it into the domestic sphere
D. Custom is incorporated with the passing of implementing legislation

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Was the use of armed force permitted prior to the United Nations Charter?
Choices
A. Armed force was prohibited
B. Armed force was permitted with no restrictions
C. Armed force was permitted subject to few restrictions
D. Armed force was not regulated under international law prior to 1945

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the protective principle of jurisdiction?
Choices
A. It is jurisdiction based on the harm to national interests by conduct committed abroad
B. It is jurisdiction in order to protect one's nationals abroad
C. It is jurisdiction in order to protect international human rights
D. It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the offender

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Choices
A. The Council of Europe was established in 1950 and consists of 27 member states
B. The Council of Europe was established in 1949 and consists of 47 member states
C. The Council of Europe was established in 1959 and consists of 34 member states
D. The Council of Europe was established in 1984 and consists of 19 member states

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?
Choices
A. It is the only method of delimitation that international courts and tribunals follow
B. An equitable result is what a judge or the arbitrator would decide ex aequo et bono, i.e. upon their discretion and in light of what they consider as fair and equitable in a delimitation case
C. It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should achieve, after, however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant circumstances and the proportionality test.
D. Achieving an equitable result is an old method of delimitation which is currently not applicable

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is a derogation?
Choices
A. Derogations are exemptions from particular human rights obligations contained in a treaty
B. A derogation refers to the ability of rights holders to bring a claim against the State for breach of an obligation
C. A State may suspend particular rights by means of a derogation in circumstances that threaten its existence
D. Derogations are enforcement clauses in human rights treaties

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is an act jure gestionis?
Choices
A. Acts jure gestionis are those undertaken by States in a private capacity
B. All purchases by the State are acts jure gestionis
C. All acts undertaken by State corporations are jure gestionis
D. All conduct undertaken by government officials in their free time is considered jus gestionis.

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of cultural relativism?
Choices
A. Culture relativism posits that human rights apply equally to all without restrictions
B. Culture relativism posits that human rights have a cultural origin
C. Cultural relativism posits that the application of human rights is relative to the laws in each nation
D. Cultural relativism posits that local culture should validate the existence and practice of all human rights

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is recognition of governments prevalent in contemporary international practice?
Choices
A. Recognition of governments is very prevalent in contemporary practice
B. Recognition of governments has largely been replaced by functional Recognition
C. Government recognition is common in respect of rebel entities
D. Only democratic governments are recognised in contemporary practice

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the legal nature of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?
Choices
A. The UDHR is a multilateral treaty
B. The UDHR is a UN General Assembly resolution
C. The UDHR is a UN Security Council resolution
D. The UDHR is a declaration adopted by several States at an international conference

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Under what circumstances do human rights violations taking place outside the territory of ECHR member States fall within the remit of the ECHR?
Choices
A. The ECHR applies outside Europe where human rights are violated by ECHR member States abroad
B. The ECHR applies extraterritorially in circumstances where a member State exercises effective control
C. The ECHR applies extraterritorially where a member State has contributed forces to a UN peacekeeping mission
D. The ECHR applies extraterritorially where human rights violations are taking place in former colonies of member States

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What does the principle 'pacta sunt servanda' mean?
Choices
A. Parties to a treaty should be cognizant of its terms and not misinterpret them
B. Parties to a treaty should safeguard the object and purpose of the treaty
C. Parties to a treaty should adhere to its terms in good faith
D. Parties to a treaty should not violate the most important provisions of the treaty

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What was the consequence from the absence of implementing legislation in the Tin Council case?
Choices
A. The International Tin Council was headquartered in London and hence the absence of implementing legislation was inconsequential
B. The constitutive treaties of international organisations are subject to the doctrine of incorporation
C. The absence of implementing legislation with respect to the Council's founding treaty meant that individuals did not derive rights and duties from it in the English legal system
D. The absence of implementing legislation in England in respect of an international organisation is inconsequential under international law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Which of the following statements is true?
Choices
A. The Human Rights Act 1998 incorporates the European Convention on Human Rights into UK law
B. The Human Rights Act 1998 allows a court to invalidate primary legislation
C. The Human Rights Act 1998 allows any person with a reasonable case to bring a case before a court
D. The Human Rights Act 1998 incorporates the EU charter of fundamental rights into UK law

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What forms may the obligation of reparation take?
Choices
A. Reparation may take only the form of pecuniary compensation, including the interest
B. Reparation denotes only the physical restitution of the wrongful act
C. Reparation includes restitution, compensation, and satisfaction, either alone or alongside other forms of reparation
D. The form of reparation is a matter for the responsible State to decide

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is jus cogens?
Choices
A. They are peremptory norms of international law, from which no derogations are allowed and which can never be altered even with the consent of the States
B. They are rules of international law that are laid down in multilateral treaties with a wide participation
C. They are the decisions of the UN Security Council
D. They are the rules of international law on which the ICJ founds its decisions

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is 'unilateral acts'?
Choices
A. They are acts that States perform as practice in the context of custom
B. They are acts creating unilateral legal obligations to the acting State
C. Unilateral acts are simply political acts of State devoid of any legal effect
D. Unilateral acts are those that State perform in order to be bound by a treaty

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: Is extra-territorial abduction a ground for refusal of otherwise lawful jurisdiction by English courts?
Choices
A. Such abduction constitutes abuse of process and leads to a stay of proceedings
B. Such abduction gives rise to the abductor's liability but does not lead to a stay of proceedings
C. The stay of proceedings under such circumstances would prevent the administration of justice in respect of international criminals
D. The courts may, but will seldom, stay proceedings in cases of extra-territorial abduction

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D


Question:
Question: What is the meaning of 'secondary rules' in the law of international responsibility?
Choices
A. Secondary rules are the rules of interpretation of international law, including the law of international responsibility
B. Secondary rules are the rules that govern the legal consequences arising from a breach of the primary rules, ie of the international obligations of the States
C. Secondary rules are the rules that govern exclusively the concept of attribution in the law of international responsibility
D. Secondary rules are the rules that govern exclusively the law of countermeasures

Choices:
- A
- B
- C
- D